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A BIBLICAL LESSON ON THE WORD "GOD"

By Derrick Gillespie Many people use the word "God" and "god" quite often, but, unfortunately, I find that there has been such a woeful lack of scholarly and FULL biblical exploration of who the word "god" and "God" has been LEGITIMATELY applied to throughout the Bible, that it is time for someone to end this drought of TRUE scholarship and present the real facts. Man-made idols (of whatever substance) we know are already FALSE gods, and are NOT legitimately "god" in the limited BIBLICAL sense of being 'god-like' or probably being representative of the Creator God, as living beings, and so there is no need to explore the very many FALSE "gods" of human devising. But the real question is does the Bible apply the expression "god" (common noun) to living beings, which are NOT false man-made "gods", and does it even apply the word "God" (proper noun) to any other living being apart from God the Father, despite the same Bible says the Father is "the only true God" (John 17:3) and is the "one God" (1 Cor. 8:6)? The answer is, YES (!!), it certainly does, and this fact must NOT be covered up or denied, but must be reconciled with the rest of the Bible, and properly explained in its TRUE contexts! Let's open our bible and prove it beyond the shadow of a doubt, and see what explanations exist for this reality! It must be noted that the word "god" or "God" in the Hebrew of the "Old Testament" part of the Bible is mostly "elohim" or "el", while in the Greek, the language in which the "New Testament" part of the Bible was ORIGINALLY written by Jesus' disciples and apostles, the word "god" or "God" is designated "theos". The "only true God", the Father, is never in dispute about he being called "God" ("elohim" or "ho theos" or "theos") in the HIGHEST sense, since that is a given, but what is in dispute is whether other beings are called "god" or "God" by the bible, and NOT in the sense of being FALSE "gods" that are man-made either, i.e. NOT the ones which defy and sin against the truth that there is "one God, the Father" ( 1 Cor. 8:6), but in the sense of being either TRULY 'god-like' in a limited sense, or in the sense of being TRULY divine, or being the "express image" or PERFECT REFLECTION of divinity, or having the "Godhead" by nature as the Father does. I contend WITHOUT ANY APOLOGY that the Bible does prove both to be true, no matter the sad denials by some. BIBLICAL PROOFS ABOUT THE WORD "GOD" In a very limited sense, or in a certain figure of speech, men are called "gods"; and not to mean they are false gods either. Moses was sent to Pharaoh and designated "a god" ("elohim") UNTO PHARAOH (Exodus 7:1), in the sense of being a significant spiritual authority figure, designated by God Himself to act as his representative. The king of Israel (maybe David or Solomon) was called "o god" ("elohim") in Psalm 45:6 in the same sense of designated kingly authority, as a "son of God"; and by God himself, mark you. In addition, Jesus himself admitted that the first part of the Bible does call human spiritual sons of God in Israel "gods" (see John 10:34 compared to Psalm 82:6). Both the Greek word "theos" and the Hebrew word elohim, which are most often translated "god" are used in reference to men. (See Exodus 7:1; Psalm 82:6; John 10:34). When the word "god" is used in that sense, then there are hundreds and thousands of gods.

But in the sense of being the "Father of all", who is the "head of all" and the "only true God", or being the original prototype of divinity, whom all other living beings reflect his attributes, either in a limited way, as human "sons of God" do, or in the perfect way as Jesus the "only begotten Son" does, i.e. being himself the "express image" of the Fathers PERSON (Heb. 1:1-3), then in that sense there is only one being who is such....the FATHER ONLY! No dispute! But we must accept ALL truths of the Bible; not just portions. Now consider this, if humans of such limited capacity and nature can be called "gods" in the figurative sense, and by God himself, then I remember Jesus, as it were, asking/challenging his listeners in Israel about he (as they saw it) "making himself God", when he argued: then what of the only begotten Son of God, sent down from heaven to fully represent his Father, how can someone dispute he being called "God" if he is the highest "Son of God"? Notice, Jesus did not deny that he could be called "God", but reached into the Word ("the Law") to support on what basis he could be acceptably seen as "God". Here is the PLAIN WORD: John 10:33-36 The Jews answered him, saying, For a good work we stone thee not; but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God. Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your law, I said, Ye are gods? If he called them gods, unto whom the word of God came, and the scripture cannot be broken; Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son of God?" Jesus was plainly saying that human "sons of God" can be LEGITIMATELY called "elohim" or "gods", and yet are not the person of God the Father, nor are they false "gods", but are "elohim" or "gods" recognized by God the Father himself, therefore on those same grounds, but in a much higher sense, he himself can be designated as "God" in a higher sense, i.e. divine, and yet is not God the Father in person, "the only true God". Thus to the blindest person it is plain Jesus was not denying he was "God" in a certain sense, but rather was affirming it. And this we find plainly taught in the Scriptures elsewhere, and by the highest authority in the universe too (i.e. God the Father Himself): (CEV) "God says about his Son, "You are God, and you will rule as King forever! Your royal power brings about justice." - Heb. 1:8 (KJV) But unto the Son he [the Father] saith, Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever: a sceptre of righteousness is the sceptre of thy kingdom. - Hebrews 1:8 The writer of Hebrews simply quoted the "o god" reference to a human king of Israel (Psalm 45:6 ), where it applied in a metaphorical sense to a mere human, and applied it in the obvious *higher sense to Jesus the supernatural Son of God, "the Lord from heaven" (1 Cor. 15:47). This perfectly fulfills the prophecy that the Messiah would be PROPERLY called "God" (not merely "a god", since nowhere in the Scriptures is he ever called merely "a god"). In the Biblical prophecy we read: "Isaiah 9:6 For unto us a child is born, unto us a son is given: and the government shall be upon his shoulder: and his name shall be called Wonderful, Counsellor, The mighty God, The

everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace. Isa 9:7 Of the increase of his government and peace there shall be no end, upon the throne of David..."- Isaiah 9:6 This now leads me to show where/how some people handle the Bible either deceitfully (see warning in 2 Cor. 4:2,3), or maybe as novices (see warning in 2 Tim. 2:15), and how, unfortunately, both realities misleads people, and also unwittingly dishonors Jesus the Son of God, by refusing/failing to give Jesus his rightful due! Jesus himself declared that he is the only human who came down from heaven (see John 6:3842), and the New Testament rightly designates him "the Lord from heaven" (1 Cor. 15:47), or the special Son of God that the Old Testament or Hebrew part of the Bible had long before referred to in Proverbs 30:4, when it said: "Proverbs 30:4 Who hath ascended up into heaven, or descended? who hath gathered the wind in his fists? who hath bound the waters in a garment? who hath established all the ends of the earth? what is his name, and what is his son's name, if thou canst tell?" Just on the basis alone of being a son of God then the word "god" ("elohim") is easily and LEGITIMATELY applicable to Jesus. But because Jesus is never designated merely as "a son of God", but as God's "only [TRUE] Son", or as "*THE Son of God", then it easy to see why Jesus is "God", i.e. in a sense higher than human sons are called "gods". WHAT KIND OF "GOD" IS JESUS? As the Son of God, the Bible makes plain that Jesus was instrumental in creating the world along with God the Father (see Hebrews 1:1-3 and Col. 1:16-17), and thus it was plainly the supernatural and pre-existent Jesus that the Father said to: "Let us make man in OUR own image" (Gen. 1:26,27). Thus all humans, me and you dear reader, are made in the image of the Son of God too; not just the Father! And yet the Bible simply said ORIGINALLY (without any distinction) that we are made in "God's" image; not in the image of God and the Son! That has a certain significance that will become plain momentarily! Just keep reading. In fact, it was in recounting this fact of Jesus instrumentality in creation that the Father Himself called the HUMAN Jesus both "God" and "Lord" (REMEMBER Jesus is now STILL a man, even if now glorified, and REMEMBER he STILL acts, as our Elder Brother, as the Model of how humans should treat the Father as their God): (CEV) Heb 1:8 God says about his Son, "You are God, and you will rule as King forever! Your royal power brings about justice. Heb 1:9 You [as a man] loved justice and hated evil, and so I, your God, have chosen you. I appointed you and made you better than any of your human brothers." Heb 1:10 The Scriptures also say, "In the beginning, Lord, you were the one who laid the foundation of the earth and created the heavens." Jesus himself declared that while a man on earth he had given up a certain supernatural "glory" he had before with the Father in heaven. As a man he had to be "in all things like us", and thus had to ALSO see the Father as his God, just as all other humans. The "glory" Jesus has before becoming human is plainly stated in the Bible this way:

"John 17:1-5 These words spake Jesus, and lifted up his eyes to heaven, and said, Father, the hour is come; glorify thy Son, that thy Son also may glorify thee: As thou hast given him power over all flesh, that he should give eternal life to as many as thou hast given him. And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent. I have glorified thee on the earth: I have finished the work which thou gavest me to do. And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine *own *self with the glory which I had with thee before the world was." Notice carefully that the "glory" Jesus had, before becoming human, and the "glory" he prayed (now as a humble human model) that it be restored was to be "WITH thine [the Father's] own self"! And it is painfully obvious that the only "SELF" that the Father has is one that is DIVINE. Thus if Jesus is by nature the only true Son of the Father, then then it is no wonder Colossians 2:9 makes plain what nature Jesus had, and now has again; i.e. one that is FULLY DIVINE or that of the "Godhead" or of divinity (or "theotes"). Hear the PLAIN WORD: "Col 2:9-10 For in him [Jesus] dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead ["theotes" or divinity] bodily. And ye are complete in him, which is the head of all principality and power" Even a cursory type of checking tells us what the word "FULLNESS of the Godhead" in the above passage means, and what it means to be "the head of ALL principality and power". This means divinity or divine nature, and is a nature FULLY reflective of the nature of the Father, the head of all. That is why the Bible makes plain:

Philippians 2:6-11 Christ Jesus: Who, being in the *form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God: Php 2:7 But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men: Php 2:8 And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross. Php 2:9 Wherefore God also hath highly exalted him, and given him a name which is above every name: Php 2:10 That at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of things in heaven, and things in earth, and things under the earth; Php 2:11 And that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father." The "name" that is above every name is YAHWEH or "Lord", as the Hebrews themselves later recorded the divine name, and no wonder Jesus (the man we know) has an "excellent name" (see Heb. 1:4), that is even higher than that of angels. And in the final analysis "every knee shall bow" and "EVERY tongue confess" that Jesus is also called "Lord" or Yahweh, since all TRUE sons MUST inherit the very name of their TRUE Father! No TRUE Son lacks the very nature or "form" of his TRUE Father, and hence when we rightfully call Jesus the "only begotten Son of God, we SHOULD automatically accept it comes

with divinity, and hence why he is LEGITIMATELY called "God" (or divine; despite not being God the Father in person), since Jesus has the highest form of Sonship, in relation to the Father, than any other being in the universe. Any other teaching is a RAPE of the Bible and an antiChrist spirit! Sorry to be so frank! Jesus is plainly called the "Word of God" in 1 John 1:1-3 and John 1:1-3, 14, and it is made plain that this "Word", in *both passages, was an ETERNAL or "EVERLASTING" *PERSON; not a thing, as some misguided preachers propose (see also Micah 5:2). But most IMPORTANTLY, this PERSON, whom we now accept is Jesus, is simply called "God", in plainest ENGLISH by Jesus' "beloved disciple, John! Proof? "1John 1:1 That which was from the beginning, which we have heard, which we have seen with our eyes, which we have looked upon, and our hands have handled, of the Word of life; 1John 1:2 (For the life was manifested, and we have seen it, and bear witness, and shew unto you that eternal life, which was with the Father, and was manifested unto us;) 1John 1:3 That which we have seen and heard declare we unto you, that ye also may have fellowship with us: and truly our fellowship is with the Father, and with his Son Jesus Christ." "John 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God [or divine; not "a god"]. John 1:2 The same was in the beginning with God. John 1:3 All things were made by him; and without him was not anything made that was made. John 1:14 And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth." No wonder the same John records Jesus being referred to, by Thomas the disciple/apostle, in the words my Lord and my God (John 20:28,29), an Jesus FULLY accepting his address without question!! More could be said here, but why labor the point that is PLAIN? GOD'S TRUE SHEEP HEARS HIS VOICE; others rebel against his Word and teach their own doctrine, to their own detriment, since: 1 John 2:23 Whosoever denieth the Son, the same hath not the Father: (but) he that acknowledgeth the Son hath the Father also. 1 John 2:24 Let that therefore abide in you, which ye have heard from the beginning. If that which ye have heard from the beginning shall remain in you, ye also shall continue in the Son, and in the Father. 1John 2:25 And this is the promise that he hath promised us, even eternal life." WE SHOULD HUMBLY ACCEPT ALL TRUTH WHEN IT BECOMES PLAIN! When someone, who was previously genuinely misguided, learns the truth, he will thereafter quit being misguided or will no longer remain genuine!

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