ELEMENTS IN MACHINE DESIGN (J.T.) MODULE 3 1.

. The size of an equal-leg length fillet weld shall be based on the length of the largest: a. Isosceles right triangle b. Square c. Right triangle d. Rectangle 2. Milling machine accessories are used to hold milling cutter in the milling machine: a. Spindle-nose tooling b. Milling-machine vise c. Vertical milling attachment d. Milling machine arbors 3. The cheapest and the most abundant engineering materials: a. Steel b. Aluminium c. Cast iron d. Babbitt 4. They are usually the steel or steel casting: a. Mild steel b. Carbon steel c. Firebox steel d. Drop-forge-dies 5. An important accessories of milling machines: a. Milling machine vise b. Cutters c. Ram d. Vertical milling attachment 6. Gears used to transmit power between shafts axis of which intersect: a. Spur gear b. Bevel gear c. Helical gear d. Straight gear 7. An iron has physical properties closely resembling those of mild steel: a. Malleable cast iron b. Malleable iron c. White iron d. Gray iron 8. The space between the adjacent teeth: a. Tooth b. Backlash c. Flank d. Width 9. An iron in which most of the carbon is chemically combined with the iron: a. Cast iron b. Gray iron c. White iron d. Malleable iron 10. A machine used in testing steel generally strike the specimen with an energy from 220 to 265 ft-lb: a. Izod test b. Charpy test

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

c. Rockwell test d. Test blocks The area in the machine shop whose metal I s being melted to form a new shape is the: a. Foundry area b. Tool and die c. Welding area d. Mass production area Which of the following is not the work of the machinist: a. Reboring b. Overhauling c. Grinding d. Boring The machine which can flatten surface on a horizontal, vertical or angular plane is: a. Drilling machine b. Shaper machine c. Power saw d. Lathe machine Which of the following is not part of a lathe machine: a. Fan b. Carriage c. Headstock d. Tailstock One important skill that operators of machine tools must have an understanding of measurement which demands: a. Speed b. Neatness c. Precision d. Sociability Which of the following metals is non-magnetic? a. Manganese steel b. Cast steel c. Alloy steel d. Cast iron Which tool does not belong to the group? a. Vise grip b. Feeler gage c. Torque wrench d. Adjustable wrench What process does not belong to the group? a. Brazing b. Soldering c. Hardening d. Resistance welding A machinery operation whereby the tool rotates while the feed is stationary: a. Shaping b. Milling c. Turning d. Reaming Which of the following is not a kind of cast iron? a. Gray iron b. White iron c. Malleable iron d. Lead iron

21. Which of the following is not used to temper steel? a. Oil bath b. Brine/salt bath c. Steam bath d. Water bath 22. Which of the following is not a part of a headstock? a. Anvil b. Spindle c. Motor d. Backgear 23. The ability of material or metal to resist being crushed is: a. Fatigue strength b. Bending strength c. Torsional strength d. Compressive strength 24. Which of the following metal is easy to chisel? a. Alloy steel b. Manganese steel c. Stainless steel d. Cast iron 25. Ferrous metals contain a relatively large amount of: a. Manganese b. Carbon c. Sulphur d. Phosphorous 26. Which of the following is not a classification of iron ore: a. Siderite b. Hematite c. Sulfurite d. Magnetite 27. The ability of metals to stand loads without breaking down is: a. Strain b. Stress c. Elasticity d. Strength 28. Herringbone gears are gears which: a. Do not operate on parallel shafts b. Have line of contact between the teeth c. Tend to produce end thrust on the shafts d. Consists of two left handed helical gears 29. In general, the design stress and factor of safety are related as follows: a. Design = ultimate stress divided by factor of safety b. Design = ultimate stress times factor of safety c. Ultimate = stress factor of safety divided by design stress d. Factor of stress = design stress divided by ultimate stress 30. The internals stresses existing in a welded connection are: a. Relieved by x-ray analysis b. May be relieved when the weld is peened c. Not relieved when the weld is peened d. Not relieved by heat treatment 31. In the usual spur gearing the:

a. Pitch circle and base circle are the same b. Working depth includes the clearance c. Tooth outline are always cycloidal curves d. Tooth outline are usually involute curves 32. One of the following is not common terms relating to the classification of fits: a. Tunking b. Snug c. Medium force fit d. Bound 33. Galvanized iron is a term referring to iron coated with: a. Tin b. Zinc c. Magnesium d. Aluminium 34. Stainless steel is obtained principally by the use of which alloying element: a. Chromium b. Nickel c. Carbon d. Tungsten 35. One of the following is not a tap used for cutting threads in holes: a. Tapping tap b. Plug tap c. Taper tap d. Bottoming tap 36. A machining operation whereby the tool reciprocates and the feed is stationary, is called: a. Planning b. Shaping c. Turning d. Reaming 37. One of the following metals which respond to heat treatment: a. Cast iron b. Wrought iron c. Medium carbon steel d. Low carbon steel 38. Ferrous metals contain a relatively large amount of: a. Carbon b. Manganese c. Phosphorous d. Sulphur 39. Which of the following is not a strength property of metals? a. Tensile b. Rocking strength c. Fatigue d. Torsional strength 40. A machine used in shaping metal by means of abrasive wheel or the removal of metals with an abrasive is called: a. Planer machine b. Power saw c. Shaper machine d. Grinding machine

41. Which of the following is not a kind of mandrel? a. Expansion mandrel b. Taper mandrel c. Contraction mandrel d. Gang mandrel 42. The kind of center which is being attached and meshed to the tailstock spindle which is also static while the work is rotating is: a. Dead center b. Live center c. Focal center d. Work center 43. Which of the following is not a part of the headstock? a. Spindle b. Anvil c. Back gear d. Motor 44. Which process does not belong to the group? a. Resistance welding b. Soldering c. Hardening d. Brazing 45. The ratio of the average shear to maximum shear stress for a circular section equal to a. 2 b. 2/3 c. 3/2 d. 46. When a solid cube is subjected to equal normal forces of the same type on all its faces. The ratio of volumetric strain/linear strain along any of the three axes will be equal to: a. 1 b. 2 c. 2 d. 3 47. The ratio of Bulk modulus to shear modulus for Poissons ratio of 0.25 will be equal to: a. 3/2 b. 5/6 c. 1 d. 6/3 48. The stress strain curve for a glass rod during tensile test is: a. a straight line b. a parabola c. a sudden break d. an irregular curve 49. When shear force is zero along a section, the bending moment at that section will be: a. Zero b. Minimum c. Maximum d. Minimum or maximum 50. Percentage reduction of area while performing tensile test on cast iron may be of the order of:

51.

52.

53.

54.

55.

56.

57.

58.

59.

a. 50% b. 25% c. 0% d. 15% The intensity of stress that causes unit strain is known as: a. Unit stress b. Bulk modulus c. Modulus of rigidity d. Modulus of elasticity For steel, the ultimate strength in shear as compared to in tension is nearly: a. Same b. Half c. One-third d. Two-third Select the one that has no unit: a. Kinematic viscosity b. Surface tension c. Bulk modulos d. Strain When a part is constrained to move and heated, it develops: a. Principal stress b. Tensile stress c. Compressive stress d. Shear stress Tensile stress of a material is given by: a. Maximum load during test over original crosssectional area b. Average load during test over original cross-sectional area c. Maximum load during test over area at the time of fracture d. Average load during the test over area at the time fracture The size of hole that is drilled in plates for riveting is: a. Equal to diameter of rivet shank b. Slightly smaller than the diameter of rivet shank c. 1.5 to 2 mm smaller than the diameter of rivet for rivets of 25 mm and above size d. 1.5 to 2 mm larger than the diameter of the rivet for rivets 25 mm and above size The horsepower that can be transmitted by a shaft 60 mm diameter at 180 rpm with permissible shear stress of 850 kg/cm2 shall be approximately: a. 30 35 b. 35 50 c. 50 60 d. 60 85 A column is called short column when: a. The length is more than 30 times the diameter b. Slenderness ratio is more than 120 c. The length is less than 8 times the diameter d. The slenderness ratio is more than 32 Which one is the correct statement about true stressstrain method?

a.

60.

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

There is no such phenomenon like true stress or true strain b. True stress is load per unit area (actual) and similarly true strain is determined under actual conditions. c. This method can be used for compression test as well d. It is more sensitive to changes in mechanical conditions The total strain energy stored in a body is called: a. Resilience b. Proof resilience c. Modulus of resilience d. Toughness A material that is capable of absorbing a large quantity of energy before fracture is called: a. Ductility b. Toughness c. Resilience d. Shock proof Coaxing increases the: a. Strength by reversible cycling b. Corrosion resistance by spraying c. Hardness by surface treatment d. Fatigue resistance by over-stressing the metal by successively increasing loadings Two shafts made up of mild steel one having circular cross section and the other being hollow circular with inner diameter half of the outer diameter. The ratio of the torque that can be transmitted in two cases given by: a. 2 b. 17/16 c. 1 d. 15/16 For a circular shaft subjected to torque the value of shear stress is equal to: a. Is uniform throughout b. Has maximum value at the axis c. Has maximum value at the surface d. Is zero at the axis and linearly increases to a maximum value at the surface of the shaft In laminated spring the strips are provided in different lengths for: a. Economy b. Reduction in weight c. Improved appearance d. Equal distribution stress Select the one for which diamond riveted joint can be adopted: a. Butt joint b. Lap joint c. Double riveted lap joints d. All types of joints Hoop stress refers to a. Circumferential tensile stress b. Compressive stress c. Radial stress

d. Longitudinal stress 68. Modulus of rigidity can be defined as the ratio of: a. Linear stress to longitudinal strain b. Stress to volumetric strain c. Shear stress to shear strain d. Stress to strain 69. 1 Meganewton per square meter is equal to: a. 1,000,000 N/mm2 b. 10,000 N/mm2 c. 100 N/mm2 d. 1 N/mm2 70. The value of shear stress changes is induced in the shaft because of the applied couple that a. From maximum at the center to zero at the circumference b. From zero at the center to maximum at the circumference c. From maximum at the center to minimum at the circumference d. From minimum at the center to maximum at the circumference 71. In the design of pulley, key and shaft: a. All three are designed for same strength b. Key is made weaker c. Pulley is made weaker d. Shaft is made weaker 72. The radial pressure and hoop tension for a thick cylinder is: a. Maximum at inner surface and decreases towards outer surface b. Minimum at inner surface and increased towards outer surface c. Minimum at inner and outer surfaces and maximum in middle d. Maximum at inner and outer surfaces and minimum in middle 73. Auto frottage is the method of: a. Calculating stresses in thick cylinders b. Relieving thick cylinders c. Prestressing thick cylinders d. Increasing life of thick cylinders 74. Ties are load carrying members that carry: a. Torsional loads b. Axial compressive load c. Axial tension loads d. Transverse loads 75. If the areas of cross sections of square and circular beams are same and both are put to equal bending moment, then tne correct statement is: a. The circular beam is more economical b. The square beam is more economical c. Both the beams are equally strong d. Both the beams are equally economical 76. In actual machines: a. Mechanical advantage is unity b. Mechanical advantage is less than unity

77.

78.

79.

80.

81.

82.

83.

84.

c. Mechanical advantage is less than velocity ratio d. Mechanical advantage is equal to velocity ratio The essential condition of equilibrium of a body is: a. The algebraic sum of horizontal components of all forces must be zero b. The algebraic sum of vertical components of all forces must be zero c. The algebraic sum of forces about a point must be zero d. All of the above Coulomb friction is: a. Friction between two electrically charge bodies b. Friction between two bodies having relative motion c. Friction between a solid and a liquid d. Friction between two dry surfaces The coefficient of friction is equal to: a. The angle between the normal reaction and the resultant of normal reaction and the limiting friction. b. The tangent of the angle between the normal reaction and the resultant of the normal reaction and the limiting friction. c. The tangent of the angle of the net resultant force with the direction of motion. d. The tangent of the angle between the normal reaction and direction of limiting friction. The limiting force of friction is equal to: a. The value of friction force that stops the movement of the body. b. The value of friction force that cannot exceed under a given situation. c. The friction force when the body is just about to move. d. The friction force acting on a body when it is in motion. Ice is slippery when a man walks on it because: a. It has a smooth surface b. It has no friction c. It is very chilly d. Increase of pressure causes it to melt. One joule is the same as: 8 a. 10 ergs b. 107 ergs 6 c. 10 ergs d. 105 ergs Static friction is: a. Always greater than the dynamic friction. b. Always less than the dynamic friction. c. Always equal to the dynamic friction. d. Either greater or more than the dynamic friction. When two forces that act at a point are such that if the direction of one is reversed, the direction of the resultant is turned through 90o, the forces must be: a. Equal in magnitude o b. Inclined at less than 90 o c. Inclined at more than 90 o d. Acting at 180

85. The curve of a catenary by nature is: a. Ellipse b. Hyperbolic c. Circular d. Parabolic 86. If the only force acting on two bodies is their mutual interactions and if both bodies start from rest, the distance travelled b each will be a: a. Proportional to the masses of the bodies b. Inversely proportional to the masses of the bodies c. Inversely proportional to the square of the masses of the bodies d. Directly proportional to the square of the masses of the bodies 87. Which statement is correct? a. A body cannot have any energy without having momentum b. A body can have kinetic energy without having momentum c. A body in motion will always have kinetic energy more than the potential energy d. None of the above 88. A man is standing near the edge of a uniformly rotating platform about an axis passing through its center. The speed of rotation of the platform will decrease if he: a. Moves towards the axis of rotation b. Accepts a heavy bag from one of its friends standing nearby and hold it in his hand. c. Extend his arms outwards. d. Jumps out from the platform. 89. A shaft revolving in a bearing forms a: a. Lower pair b. Sliding pair c. Higher pair d. Cylindrical pair 90. Select the one that is a higher pair: a. Thomson indicator mechanism b. Harts straight line mechanism c. Crossby indicator mechanism d. Tooth gearing mechanism 91. The mechanism used to enlarge or reduce moments for reproducing drawings to different scales is called: a. Clinograph b. Trisquare c. Graphometer d. Pantograph 92. When a ship is travelling in sea, which of the effect is more dangerous? a. Rolling b. Pitching c. Steering d. All of the above 93. Slip in belt drive is: a. Loss of power b. Difference between the angular velocities of two pulleys

c. Difference between the velocities of two pulleys d. Difference between the linear speed of the rim of pulley and the belt on it. 94. In case of flat belt drive the length of belt in: a. Open belt depends on sum of the diameters of pulleys b. Open belts depends on difference of the diameters of the pulleys c. Cross belts depends on the sum of the diameters of pulleys d. Cross belts depends on the difference of the diameters of the pulleys 95. Kinematic pairs are those parts that have: a. Point or line contact between the two elements when in motion b. Surface contact between the two elements when in motion c. Elements of pairs not held together mechanically d. Two elements that allow relative motion 96. A cam with a roller follower would constitute, which type of pair? a. Lower pair b. Higher pair c. Open pair d. Close pair 97. The pitch point on a cam is: a. Any point on pitch curve b. The point of cam pitch that has the maximum pressure angle c. A point at a distance equal to pitch circle radius from the center d. None of the above 98. The cam angle is: a. The angle of rotation of the cam for a definite displacement of the follower. b. Angle subtended by live portion of cam at the cam center. c. The angle subtended at the cam center by the portion of cam during which the follower moves. d. The angle subtended by the cam at the cam center when the follower dwells. 99. Module can be expressed in: a. Mm b. Mm/no. of teeth c. Dimensionless d. None of the above 100. A reverted gear train is one in which: a. The direction of rotation of first and last gear is opposite b. The direction of rotation of first and the last gear is the same c. The first and last gear are on the same shaft d. The first and the last gear are essentially on separate by parallel shafts. - End -