1. The first question that must be asked is what god are you interpreting? The god of the bible, or nature?2. If it is the god of the bible then you have already lost the argument because god commands the murder of the inhabitants of multiple cities in Joshua 10:28-42, "...as the Lord the God of Israel had commanded." (40)[NEB] This is one of many other slaughters found throughout the bible, including, Hosea 13:16:"Samaria will become desolate because she has rebelled against her God; her babes will fall by the sword and bedashed to the ground, her woman with child shall be ripped up." [NEB]Clearly, any sane human being will see that this is an immoral act, therefore, god cannot be considered asource for good morals since he commands the murder of many people.Some christian apologists attempt to explain these acts away. Take the author of the apologist websitegodandscience.orgfor example. He says,
"The sixth commandment is "Thou shall not kill."1 Atheists claim that God violated His own commandment inordering the destruction of entire cities, just to allow the Jews to have a homeland in the Middle East. Theible confirms that God ordered the killing of thousands of people. Isn't this an open and shut case for thehypocrisy of the God of the Bible? One thing you have to love about atheists is their extreme appreciation for the King James Version (KJV)translation. The KJV was translated in the early 17th century using an archaic form of modern English. Inthe last 400 years, English has changed significantly. Unfortunately, the vast majority of those who read the JV (both believers and unbelievers) are unqualified to know what the text means in many instancesbecause of word meaning changes. In attempting to demonstrate the contradiction of God's commands tosrael and the sixth commandment, atheist cite the KJV translation, "Thou shalt not kill." owever, like English, Hebrew, the language in which most of the Old Testament was written, uses different words for intentional vs. unintentional killing. The verse translated "Thou shalt not kill" in the KJV translation, is translated "You shall not murder"2 in modern translations - because these translationsrepresents the real meaning of the Hebrew text. The Bible in Basic English translates the phrase, "Do not put anyone to death without cause."2 The Hebrew word used here is ratsach,3 which nearly always refers tointentional killing without cause (unless indicated otherwise by context). Hebrew law recognized accidental killing as not punishable. In fact, specific cities were designated as "cities of refuge," so that an unintentional killer could flee to escape retribution.4 The Hebrew word for "kill" in this instance is not ratsach, but nakah,which can refer to either premeditated or unintentional killing, depending upon context.5 Other Hebrewwords also can refer to killing.6-8 The punishment for murder was the death sentence.9 However, to beconvicted, there needed to be at least two eyewitnesses.10 The Bible also prescribes that people have a right to defend themselves against attack and use deadly force if necessary.11To answer the question whether God breaks His own commandments,
we need to determine if God committed murder (i.e., killed people without cause).
[emphasis mine] The Bible is quite clear that God has killed people directly (the most prominent example being the flood) and indirectly (ordered peoplesto be killed). If God ordered or participated in the killing of innocent people, then He would be guilty of murder. Let's look at two of the most prominent examples.ccording to the Bible, God killed every human except Noah, his wife, his sons, and their wives in the flood.Were any of these people killed unjustly? The Bible says specifically that all people (except Noah and hisamily) had become corrupted.12 Not only had all people become corrupted, but they were continuallylotting evil!13 Is it possible that an entire culture can become corrupted? You bet! Recent history proves theoint rather well. When the Nazis took over Germany before WWII, opposition was crushed and removed.When they began their purging of the undesirables (e.g., the Jews), virtually the entire society went alongwith the plan. Further examples are given on another page. So, the Bible indicates that no innocent peoplewere killed in the flood.What about when God ordered Joshua and his people to kill every man, woman and child in Canaan?14 What crime could be so great that entire populations of cities were designated for destruction? God told Moses that the nations that the Hebrew were replacing were wicked.15 How "wicked" were these people? The text tellsus that they were burning their own sons and daughters in sacrifices to their gods.16 So we see that theseeople were not really innocent. For these reasons (and others17), God ordered the destruction of theeoples whom the Israelites dispossessed....The commandment "Thou shalt not kill" is really not as general as the King James version would indicate.The commandment actually refers to premeditated, unjustified killing - murder. Although God ordered the
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