Professional Documents
Culture Documents
3.4) Which of the following accounts for the difference in energy between fats and
carbohydrates/proteins?
a) Nitrogen
b) Water
c) Hydrogen
d) Ammonia
e) Oxygen
4) Other than adipose tissue, which of the following is a primary fuel store in the body?
a) Protein
b) Glucose
c) Alcohol
d) Glycogen
e) Triacylglycerol
5.1) For Body Mass Ratio (BMR), what is the assumed value of kcal/day/kg body
weight?
a) 1
b) 12
c) 24
d) 36
e) 72
5.2) What is the BMR for an “average” 70kg person?
a) 70 * 1 = 70 kcal/day
b) 70 * 12 = 840 kcal/day
c) 70 * 24 = 1,680 kcal/day
d) 70 * 36 = 2,520 kcal/day
e) 70 * 72 = 5,040 kcal/day
6) Which of the following is NOT a significant factor that affects BMR?
a) Pregnancy
b) Thyroid status
c) Body temperature
d) Age
e) Race
7.1) Which of the following Daily Energy Expenditure (DEE) hourly activity factors is
used for moderate activity, such as hoeing?
a) 1.0
b) 1.5
c) 2.5
d) 5.0
e) 7.0
7.2) For a 60-year-old female, the BMR equation is 10.5W+596. Which of the following
equations would be used for this 50kg patient if she spent her entire day lying in bed?
a) (10.5 * 50 + 596) * 1.0
b) 10.5 * 50 * 1.0 + 596
c) (10.5 * 50 + 596) * 1.5
d) 10.5 * 50 * 1.5 + 596
e) 10.5 * 50 + 596 + 1.0
8) Which of the following equations would be used for the previous patient if she spent 8
hours a day standing and 16 hours a day lying in bed?
a) 10.5 * 50 * 1.0 * 1.5 + 596
b) 10.5 * 50 * 1.0 + 596
c) 10.5 * 50 * (8 *1.5 + 16 * 1.0) + 596
d) (10.5 * 50 + 596) * (8 *1.0 + 16 * 1.5)
e) (10.5 * 50 + 596) * ((8 *1.5 + 16 * 1.0) / 24)
9) What is the DEE hourly activity factor for a 70kg, 25-year-old male who works heavy
labor 6 hours a day, does moderate exercise for 3 hours, sleeps for 7 hours, and sits
upright in a chair watching sports TV for the rest of the time?
a) (6 * 7.0 + 3 * 2.5 + 7 * 5.0 + 8 * 1.5)
b) (6 * 7.0 + 3 * 5.0 + 7 * 1.0 + 8 * 1.5) / 24
c) (6 * 7.0 * 3 * 5.0 * 7 * 1.0 * 8 * 1.5) / 24
d) (6 * 5.0 + 3 * 2.5 + 7 * 1.0 + 8 * 1.5) / 24
e) (6 * 5.0 * 3 * 2.5 * 7 * 1.0 * 8 * 1.5) / 24
10) What is the overall DEE activity factor for a 24-year-old male who does 1.5 hours of
heavy activity (weight lifting and Judo), 1 hour of moderate activity (racquetball), 1.5
hours of light activity, 16 hours of very light activity, and 4 hours of sleep?
a) (1.5 * 7.0 * 1 * 5.0 * 1.5 * 2.5 * 16 * 1.5 * 4 * 1.0)
b) (1.5 * 7.0 + 1 * 5.0 + 1.5 * 2.5 + 16 * 2.0 + 4 * 1.0) / 24
c) (1.5 * 7.0 + 1 * 5.0 + 1.5 * 2.5 + 16 * 1.5 + 4 * 1.0) / 24
d) (1.5 * 5.0 + 1 * 3.0 + 1.5 * 2.5 + 16 * 1.5 + 4 * 1.0) / 24
e) (1.5 * 7.0 + 1 * 3.0 + 1.5 * 2.5 + 16 * 1.5 + 4 * 1.0) / 24
11.1) Which of the following equations is the English equivalent for Body Mass Index
(BMI), from the metric equation weight/height^2 (kg/m^2)?
a) (weight * 2.2) / (height^2)
b) (weight) / (height^2) + 704
c) (weight) / (height^2) + 504
d) (weight * 704) / (height^2)
e) (weight * 504) / (height^2)
11.2) What is the BMI for a 100kg person that is 175cm tall?
a) 100 / (0.175^2)
b) 100 / (1.75^2)
c) 100 / (17.5^2)
d) 220 / (0.175^2)
e) 220 / (1.75^2)
12) If someone’s daily energy expenditure matched their daily caloric intake and they
worked out two full hours a day, what type of caloric balance would they have?
a) Positive (gain weight)
b) Neutral
c) Negative (lose weight)
13) For a 35-year-old male, the BMR equation is 11.6W+879. If a 120kg 35-year-old
male patient did light work for one hour a day, very light work for fifteen hours a day,
and slept for the rest of the day, what would his DEE be?
a) (11.6 * 120 + 879) * (8 * 1.0 + 15 * 1.5 + 1 * 2.5) / 24 = 3122
b) (11.6 * 120 + 879) + (8 * 1.0 + 15 * 1.5 + 1 * 2.5) / 24 = 2272
e) Valine
19.3) Which of the following is NOT a nutritionally essential amino acid?
a) Histidine
b) Proline
c) Methionine
d) Phenylalanine
e) Tryptophan
20.1) A deficiency in which of the following would lead to dark spots on the skin, spongy
gums, and sunken eyes (scurvy)?
a) Choline
b) Biotin
c) Folate
d) Thiamin
e) Vitamin C
20.2) A deficiency in which of the following would lead to a bright red tongue and
pigmented rash in areas exposed to sunlight (pellagra)?
a) Riboflavin
b) Vitamin C
c) Niacin
d) Folate
e) Vitamin B12
20.3) A deficiency in which of the following would lead to edema, anorexia, weight loss,
apathy, and confusion (beri-beri)?
a) Vitamin D
b) Vitamin K
c) Niacin
d) Thiamin
e) Vitamin B12
20.4) A deficiency in which of the following would lead to inadequate bone
mineralization (rickets)?
a) Vitamin C
b) Vitamin A
c) Vitamin D
d) Vitamin E
e) Vitamin B6
20.5) A deficiency in which of the following would lead to keratinization of the GI
epithelium, night blindness, and failure to produce tears (xerophthalmia)?
a) Vitamin C
b) Vitamin A
c) Vitamin D
d) Vitamin E
e) Vitamin B6
21) Which of the following is NOT a fat-soluble vitamin?
a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin C
c) Vitamin D
d) Vitamin E
e) Vitamin K
22) The caloric content per gram of fuel:
a) Is higher for carbohydrates than triacylglycerols
b) Is higher for protein than for fat
c) Is proportionate to the amount of oxygen in fuel
d) Is the amount of energy that can be obtained from oxidation of the fuel
e) Is higher for children than adults
3 – Fasting
1.1) As glucose levels drop and the fasting state is entered (basal metabolic state), insulin
levels ____ and glucagon levels ____.
a) Decrease; Increase
b) Increase; Decrease
c) Decrease; Decrease
d) Increase; Increase
1.2) Which of the following plays a crucial role in converting glycogen stores to glucose
during the basal metabolic state?
a) Brain
b) Kidney
c) Adipose
d) Muscle
e) Liver
1.3) What is the red blood cell product of glycolysis?
a) Lactate
b) Glycerol
c) Fatty acids
d) Amino acids
e) Triacylglycerols
1.4) During prolonged fasting (starvation), ketone body use is ____ and fatty acid use is
____.
a) Increased; Decreased
b) Increased; Increased
c) Decreased; Decreased
d) Decreased; Increased
2) Which of the following ketone bodies produced in the liver is NOT used as an energy
source by the muscle and kidney?
a) !-Hydroxybutyrate
b) Acetoacetate
c) Acetone
3.1) What supplies amino acids for gluconeogenesis during the basal metabolic state?
a) Liver
b) Adipose
c) Brain
d) RBCs
e) Muscle
3.2) What is the body’s main fuel during fasting?
a) Amino acids
b) Fatty acids
c) Ketone bodies
d) Lactate
e) Urea
3.3) By 24 hours after a meal:
a) Gluconeogenesis in the liver is the major source of blood glucose
b) Muscle glycolysis provides glucose to the blood
c) Muscles convert amino acids to blood glucose
d) Fatty acids released from adipose tissue provide carbon for synthesis of glucose
e) Ketone bodies provide carbon for gluconeogenesis
4) During the fasting state, an increase in glucagon would ____ lipase activity and the
release of fatty acids and would generate ____ acetyl CoA and ketone bodies.
a) Decrease; Less
b) Decrease; More
c) Increase; Less
d) Increase; More
5) Which of the following is NOT a carbon source for gluconeogenesis?
a) Lactate
b) Glycerol
c) Acetyl CoA
d) Amino acids
6) Which of the following increases during prolonged fasting?
a) Brain use of ketone bodies
b) Muscle use of ketone bodies
c) Liver gluconeogenesis
d) Muscle protein degradation
e) Liver production of urea
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 10 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 11 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 12 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
e) -hydroxyl
10) Which of the following types of bonds does starch (glycogen) contain?
a) N-glycosidic
b) "-1,4, O-glycosidic
c) "-1,6, O-glycosidic
d) !, O-glycosidic
e) "-1,4, O-glycosidic and "-1,6, O-glycosidic
11) How would a fatty acid be named if it was 18 carbons long and had double bonds at
C9, C12, and C15 from the -COOH end?
a) 18:3
b) 18:3#9,12,15(%4)
c) 18:3#9,12,15(%3)
d) 18:3#9,12,15(%2)
e) 18:3#3,6,9(%9)
12) What type of double bonds cause a fatty acid chain to bend?
a) C-C
b) D
c) L
d) Cis
e) Trans
13) Free radicals, which are harmful to the body, can form from natural events (aging).
Which of the following is another way free radicals could form?
a) Chemotherapy
b) Radiation therapy
c) Bone fracture
d) Hyperkalemia
e) Hypoxia
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 13 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
c) Hydrogen
d) Van der Waals
e) Peptide
2.1) What is the one-letter code for asparagine?
a) A
b) S
c) G
d) N
e) E
2.2) What is the one-letter code for aspartate?
a) D
b) A
c) S
d) P
e) T
2.3) What is the one-letter code for glutamine?
a) Q
b) G
c) H
d) M
e) I
2.4) What is the one-letter code for glutamate?
a) G
b) L
c) U
d) T
e) E
3.1) Which of the following is NOT a polar, uncharged amino acid?
a) Asparagine
b) Aspartate
c) Glutamine
d) Serine
e) Threonine
3.2) Which of the following is NOT a charged amino acid?
a) Histidine
b) Lysine
c) Arginine
d) Glutamate
e) Valine
3.3) Which of the following is NOT a nonpolar, aliphatic amino acid?
a) Glycine
b) Alanine
c) Cysteine
d) Leucine
e) Isoleucine
4.1) Which of the following amino acids contains sulfur?
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 14 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
a) Methionine
b) Histidine
c) Leucine
d) Tyrosine
e) Glutamate
4.2) Which of the following amino acids is negatively charged (acidic)?
a) Lysine
b) Glutamate
c) Arginine
d) Histidine
e) Serine
5.1) What amino acid has ornithine (role in urea production) as a derivative?
a) Histidine
b) Arginine
c) Cysteine
d) Glycine
e) Serine
5.2) What amino acid has melatonin (pineal gland secretion) as a derivative?
a) Phenylalanine
b) Arginine
c) Cysteine
d) Tryptophan
e) Serine
5.3) What amino acid has histamine (role in anti-inflammatory response) as a derivative?
a) Histidine
b) Arginine
c) Cysteine
d) Glycine
e) Serine
5.4) An energy drink is found to contain taurine, a component of bile salts. What amino
acid is taurine a derivative?
a) Histidine
b) Arginine
c) Cysteine
d) Glycine
e) Serine
5.5) Which of the following amino acids is NOT a derivative for acetyl choline,
norepinephrine, or dopamine?
a) Serine
b) Threonine
c) Tyrosine
d) Methionine
e) Phenylalanine
5.6) Which of the following is made from glutamic acid?
a) Porphyrins
b) Histidine
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 15 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
c) Adrenaline
d) Thyroxin
e) #-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
6) Insulin has ____ variations (polymorphisms) in amino acid regions that affect activity.
This allows for the use of bovine and pork insulin to treat diabetes mellitus.
a) Many (poly)
b) Some (oligo)
c) Three (tri)
d) One (mono)
e) No
7) What is the term for genes that are similar to each other because they originated from a
common ancestor?
a) Homolog
b) Ortholog
c) Polymorph
d) Paralog
e) Ohnolog
8) There are at least nine different isoforms of adenylyl cyclase (synthesizes cAMP).
These isozymes allow for:
a) Quicker dampening of cell response
b) Cells to response similarly to the same hormone
c) Cells to response similarly to a different hormone
d) Cells to respond differently to the same hormone
e) Cells to respond differently to a different hormone
9) Isozymes are enzymes with different amino acid sequences but the same function.
Creatine kinase is created in two distinct forms in the body. Which of the following has a
mix of these forms, allowing for tissue recognition during damage?
a) Brain
b) Skeletal muscle
c) Cardiac muscle
d) Smooth muscle
e) Pancreas
10) Which of the following is NOT true regarding insulin and C-peptide?
a) C-peptide functions in repair of the muscular layer of the arteries
b) C-peptide connects the A and B chains of insulin
c) Proinsulin splits into insulin and C-peptide
d) Proinsulin is cleaved in three locations
e) Bovine and pork insulin would cause an immune response in all human patients
11) Which of the following is NOT a post-translational modification of amino acids?
a) Glycosylation
b) Isozymation
c) Fatty acylation
d) Prenylation
e) Regulatory modification
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 16 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 17 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 18 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
b) High; Low
c) Low; High
d) High; No
e) No; No
9) Each immunoglobulin (IgG) molecule contains two light (L) and two heavy (H) chains
joined by disulfide bonds. Each light chain has a variable domain (VL) and a region of
constant amino acid sequence (CL). Each heavy chain has ____ variable domain(s) (VH)
and ____ constant domain(s) (CH).
a) 2; 2
b) 1; 1
c) 1; 2
d) 1; 3
e) 1; 4
10) What determines how a proteins folds?
a) Primary structure
b) "-helix structure
c) !-sheet structure
d) Tertiary structure
e) Quaternary structure
11) Which of the following would NOT cause denaturization of a protein (loss of
function)?
a) Nonenzymatic glycosylation
b) Temperature changes
c) pH changes
d) Solvent used
e) !-pleated sheet formation
12) In sickle-cell disease, single point valine substitution on the beta chain of hemoglobin
creates a knob, which can bind into a groove on the alpha chain, with oxygen saturation
dependent affinity. At high oxygen saturations (lungs), the chains ____. At low oxygen
saturations (capillaries), the chains ____.
a) Do not bind together; Bind together to form polymers
b) Bind together to form polymers; Do not bind together
c) Break down; Bind together to form polymers
d) Bind together to form polymers; Break down
e) Break down; Break down
13) Measurement of which of the following can aid diagnosis of crush injury necrosis and
myocardial infarction soon after an event?
a) Hemoglobin
b) Myoglobin
c) Troponin
d) Actin
e) Myosin
14.1) Which of the following prion diseases is associated with ritualistic cannibalism in
the Fore tribes people?
a) Mad-cow disease (bovine spongiform encephalopathy)
b) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD)
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 19 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
c) Iatrogenic CJD
d) Kuru
e) Scrapie
14.2) Which of the following prion diseases is associated with infection?
a) Mad-cow disease (bovine spongiform encephalopathy)
b) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD)
c) Iatrogenic CJD
d) Kuru
e) Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker Syndrome
8 – Enzymes as Catalysts
1) Which of the following is NOT true about enzymes?
a) They catalyze reactions
b) The provide specificity to reactions
c) They bind to the reaction product
d) They provide regulatory control to reactions
e) They are usually proteins
2) Which of the following involves a conformational change to a substrate active site
with binding of an enzyme?
a) Lock-and-key
b) Induced fit
c) Coenzymes
d) Competitive inhibition
e) Competitive catalyst
3.1) Most coenzymes are derived from:
a) Carbohydrates
b) Triacylglycerols
c) Proteins
d) Vitamins
e) Minerals
3.2) In the absence of their enzyme, coenzymes have ____ activity and ____ specificity.
a) Weak; Strong
b) Strong; Weak
c) Weak; Weak
d) Strong; Strong
3.3) Activation-transfer coenzymes usually participate directly in catalysis by forming
what kind of bonds?
a) Hydrogen
b) Van der Waals
c) Covalent
d) Ionic
e) Electron transfer
3.4) Oxidation-reduction coenzymes form what kind of bonds?
a) Hydrogen
b) Van der Waals
c) Covalent
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 20 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
d) Disulfide
e) Electron transfer
3.5) What cofactor (metal ion) is needed for the binding of ATP?
a) Mg++
b) Ca++
c) K+
d) Na+
e) Cl-
3.6) A patient was born with a congenital mutation in an enzyme, severely affecting its
ability to bind an activation-transfer coenzyme. As a consequence:
a) The enzyme would be unable to bind the substrate of the reaction
b) The enzyme would be unable to form the transition state complex
c) The enzyme would normally use a different activation-transfer coenzyme
d) The enzyme would normally substitute the functional group of an active site
amino acid residue for the coenzyme
e) The reaction could be carried out by the free coenzyme, provided the diet
carried an adequate amount of its vitamin precursor
4.1) In general, enzymes are the most effective when pH is ____ and temperature is about
____ degrees Celsius.
a) Neutral; 37
b) Basic; 37
c) Acidic; 37
d) Neutral; 25
e) Basic; 25
4.2) A patient developed a bacterial overgrowth in his intestine that decreased the pH of
the luminal contents from their normal pH of approximately 6.5 down to 5.5. This
decrease in pH is likely to:
a) Denature proteins reaching the intestine with their native structure intact
b) Disrupt hydrogen bonding essential for maintenance of tertiary structure
c) Inhibit intestinal enzymes dependent on histidine for acid-base catalysis
d) Inhibit intestinal enzymes dependent on active site lysine for binding substrate
e) Have little effect on hydrolases
5.1) Which of the following is NOT true regarding enzymes?
a) Enzymes are proteins and can be denatured
b) Enzymes act at a very low concentration
c) Enzymes will only react with one or a very small number of compounds
d) Enzymes are very small molecules, much smaller than their substrates
e) Some enzymes require the presence of one or more metal ions for activity
Match the description (enzyme inhibition mechanism) with the drug:
A) Oganophosphate, B) Aspirin, C) Penicillin, D) Allopurinol
5.2) Transition state analog that binds to glycopeptidyl transferase
5.3) Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase
5.4) Suicide inhibitor of xanthine oxidase. Used as a treatment for gout.
5.5) Covalent acetylation of serine in the enzyme prostaglandin endoperoxide synthase
Match the description with the therapeutic agent:
6.1) Activates the fibrinolytic enzyme system a) Asparaginase
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 21 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
9 – Regulations of Enzymes
1.1) Which of the following describes a characteristic feature of an enzyme obeying
Michaelis-Menten kinetics?
a) The enzyme velocity is at 1/2 the maximal rate when 100% of the enzyme
molecules contain bound substrate
b) The enzyme velocity is at 1/2 the maximal rate when 50% of the enzyme
molecules contain bound substrate
c) The enzyme velocity is at its maximal rate when 50% of the enzyme molecules
contain bound substrate
d) The enzyme velocity is at its maximal rate when all of the substrate molecules
in solution are bound by the enzyme
e) The velocity of the reaction is independent of the concentration of enzyme
1.2) If Km for glucose is 5mM, what is the initial and final velocity with regard to Vmax
(using Michaelis-Menten equation) if blood glucose goes from 5mM to 20mM?
a) 0.50 Vmax; 0.80 Vmax
b) 1.0 Vmax; 0.75 Vmax
c) 0.25 Vmax; 0.125 Vmax
d) 0.25 Vmax; 0.40 Vmax
e) 0.50 Vmax; 0.75 Vmax
1.3) Enzyme ____ is dependent on (proportional to) substrate concentration and enzyme
____ is dependent on (proportional to) enzyme concentration.
a) Reactant; Product
b) Product; Reactant
c) Velocity; Product
d) Product; Velocity
e) Velocity; Reactant
2) Km of the enzyme for a substrate is the concentration of substrate required to reach:
a) Vmax
b) 3/4 Vmax
c) 1/2 Vmax
d) 1/4 Vmax
e) Km and Vmax are independent of each other
3.1) In ____ inhibition, Km increases and Vmax does not change. In ____ inhibition,
Vmax changes and Km does not.
a) Non-competitive; Un-competitive
b) Un-competitive; Competitive
c) Competitive; Un-competitive
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 22 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
d) Non-competitive; Competitive
e) Competitive; Non-competitive
3.2) What type of inhibition is mixed in that it changes both Vmax and Km?
a) Competitive
b) Non-competitive
c) Un-competitive
4.1) Which of the following describes a characteristic of most allosteric enzymes?
a) They are composed of single subunits
b) In the absence of effectors, they generally follow Michaelis-Menten kinetics
c) They show cooperativity in substrate binding
d) They have allosteric activators that bind in the catalytic site
e) They have irreversible allosteric inhibitors that bind at allosteric sites
4.2) In generally, activators of allosteric enzymes bind more tightly to the high-affinity T
state of the enzyme than the T state.
a) True
b) False
5) In a plot of velocity (vi/Vmax) versus substrate concentration, an activator would shift
the curve to the ____, change ____, but not change ____.
a) Left; Km; [S]
b) Right; Vmax; Km
c) Left; Vmax; Km
d) Right; Km; Vmax
e) Left; Km; Vmax
6.1) What is the rate-limiting enzyme in the pathway of glycogen degradation, degrading
to glucose 1-phosphate and regulated by AMP?
a) Glycolase
b) Amylase
c) Glycogen phosphorylase
d) Protein kinase
e) Glyceraldehyde
6.2) Adrenaline indirectly increases ____, which activates protein kinase A, starting the
phosphorylation cascade.
a) Phosphorylase kinase
b) Glycogen phosphorylase a
c) Glycogen phosphorylase b
d) cAMP
e) cGMP
7) Ca++/calmodulin is an example of a dissociable modulator protein that binds to a
number of different proteins and regulates their function. This is done by:
a) Modifying the enzyme
b) Inhibition of the catalyst
c) Addition of a coenzyme
d) Modifying the catalytic site
e) Blocking glycogen phosphorylase kinase
8) Inactive precursor enzymes (zymogens) must undergo ____ to be activated.
a) Reversible proteolytic cleavage
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 23 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 24 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
4.2) The Na+/glucose cotransporter uses a(n) ____ transport mechanism and involves
pumping in ____ Na+ ion(s) with glucose into the cell.
a) Active; One
b) Secondary active; One
c) Ligand-gated; One
d) Active; Two
e) Secondary active; Two
5) Most lysosomal enzymes are:
a) Proteases
b) Glycosidases
c) Hydrolases
d) Sulfatases
e) Nucleases
f) Lipases
6) The ____ process involves clatherin-coated pits. The ____ process involves AA, FA,
and CHOs being released into the cytosol and undigested material forming lipofuscin
granules.
a) Receptor-mediated endocytosis; Phagocytosis
b) Receptor-mediated endocytosis; Receptor-mediated endocytosis
c) Phagocytosis; Receptor-mediated endocytosis
d) Phagocytosis; Phagocytosis
7.1) The electron transport chain (ETC) takes place in the ____ membrane of the
mitochondria and the tricarboxylic acid cycle (TCA) takes place in the ____ membrane
of the mitochondria.
a) Outer; Inner
b) Inner; Outer
c) Outer; Outer
d) Inner; Inner
e) Neither take place within the mitochondria
7.2) The cristae are infoldings in the mitochondria to make more space for:
a) TCA cycle
b) Cory cycle
c) Glycolysis
d) Gluconeogenesis
e) ETC
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 25 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 26 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 27 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
a) PKA
b) PKG
c) PKC
d) Calmodulin
e) Ca++ release from ER/SR
12) What secondary messenger(s) is/are created when phospholipase C (PLC) catalyzes
the hydrolysis of phosphatidylinositol?
a) cAMP
b) cGMP and cAMP
c) IP3
d) DAG
e) DAG and IP3
13) Which of the following is NOT a signaling pathway termination method?
a) Stimulus is taken away
b) Stimulus is increased to over-saturate the receptor
c) Signal is degraded by an esterase
d) Second messenger is degraded
e) Receptor is phosphorylated or dephosphorylated
14) Nitric oxide (NO) is an exception to the rule that intracellular receptors are gene
transcription factors since it is a lipophilic gas that can diffuse into the cell. NO is a
receptor associated with:
a) cAMP
b) cGMP
c) Ca++
d) DAG
e) IP3
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 28 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
2.1) A polynucleotide chain of DNA is held together by what molecule between the 3’
and 5’ carbons of adjacent nucleotides?
a) Sodium
b) Magnesium
c) Phosphate
d) Sulfide
e) Oxygen
2.2) In DNA, the bond between the deoxyribose sugar and the molecule above question is
which of the following?
a) Polar
b) Ionic
c) Hydrogen
d) Covalent
e) Van der Waals
3) AT-rich DNA would denature before GC-rich DNA because adenine and thymine are
stabilized by ____ hydrogen bonds, while guanine and cytosine are stabilized by ____
hydrogen bonds.
a) 1; 2
b) 2; 1
c) 2; 3
d) 3; 2
e) 1; 3
4.1) For the following DNA sequence, determine the sequence and direction of the
complementary strand: 5’-ATCGATCGATCGATCG-3’
a) 5’-ATCTATCGATCGATCG-3’
b) 3’-ATCGATCGATCGATCG-5’
c) 5’-CGAUCGAUCAUCGAU-3’
d) 5’-CGATCGATCGATCGAT-3’
e) 3’-CGATCGATCGATCGAT-3’
4.2) DNA exhibits directionality in what form?
a) 3’ => 3’
b) 5’ => 3’
c) 3’ => 5’
d) 5’ => 5’
5) Prokaryote ribosomes are 70S formed by ____ and eukaryote ribosomes are 80S
formed by ____.
a) 60S and 20S; 50S and 40S
b) 60S and 50S; 40S and 30S
c) 50S and 20S; 60S and 20S
d) 60S and 40S; 50S and 30S
e) 50S and 30S; 60S and 40S
6) Which of the following is NOT a core histone, involved in the packing of DNA?
a) H4
b) H3
c) H1
d) H2A
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 29 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
e) H2B
7.1) What type of RNA carries amino acids to ribosomes and ensures that they are
incorporated into the appropriate positions in the growing polypeptide chain?
a) RNA
b) mRNA
c) rRNA
d) tRNA
e) snRNP
7.2) What type of RNA is converted into the amino acid sequence of a polypeptide chain?
a) RNA
b) mRNA
c) rRNA
d) tRNA
e) snRNP
13 – Synthesis of DNA
1) What is the function of ligase?
a) Works with continuous 5’ => 3’ synthesis
b) Works on the leading strand
c) Undoes the work of DNA polymerase
d) Joins the Okazaki fragments
e) Winds the leading and lagging strands together
2) Which of the following relieves the torsional strain on the parental duplex of DNA
caused by unwinding during synthesis?
a) DNA polymerase
b) Primase
c) Helicase
d) DNA ligase
e) Topoisomerase
3.1) The key mechanistic failure in patient with xeroderma pigmentosum involves which
of the following?
a) Mutation in the primase gene
b) Inability to excise a section of the UV-damaged DNA
c) Mutation of one of the mismatched repair components
d) Inability to synthesize DNA across the damaged region
e) Loss of proofreading capacity
3.2) What can cause two adjacent pyrimidines to form a covalent dimmer (DNA thymine
dimmer)?
a) UV light
b) High pH
c) Low pH
d) Benzo[a]pyrene
e) High heat
3.3) What type of DNA repair acts when replication finds an incorrect, but normal base?
a) Nucleotide excision repair
b) Base excision repair
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 30 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
c) Mismatch repair
d) Transcription-coupled repair
4) Benzo[a]pyrene, from cigarette smoke, becomes carcinogenic when it is:
a) Hydrolyzed
b) Reduced
c) Oxidized
d) Phosphorylated
e) Cleaved
5) ddIs terminate cell grown (DNA antiviral medication) when converted to ddCs
because of the absence of a ____ group on either the 2’ or 3’ carbon.
a) Hydrogen
b) Phosphate
c) Ester
d) Hydroxyl
e) Amino
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 31 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
2.3) Which of the following eukaryotic DNA control sequences does not need to be in a
fixed location, and is most responsible for high rates of transcription of particular genes?
a) Promoter
b) Promoter-proximal element
c) Enhancer
d) Operator
e) Splice donor site
2.4) Which of the following is true of both eukaryotic and prokaryotic gene expression?
a) After transcription, a 3’ poly A tail and a 5’ cap are added to mRNA
b) Translation of mRNA can begin before transcription is complete
c) mRNA is synthesized in the 3’ o 5’ direction
d) RNA polymerase binds at a promoter region upstream to the gene
e) Mature mRNA is always precisely co-linear to the gene from which it was
transcribed
2.5) DNA is read in the ____ direction and RNA is synthesized in the ____ direction.
a) 5’ => 3’; 5’ => 3’
b) 5’ => 3’; 3’ => 5’
c) 3’ => 5’; 5’ => 3’
d) 3’ => 5’; 3’ => 5’
2.6) The coding strand of DNA is the same as the associated mRNA EXCEPT for:
a) mRNA uses U instead of T
b) mRNA uses T instead of U
c) mRNA uses G instead of C
d) mRNA uses C instead of G
e) mRNA uses A instead of T
3) Which of the following is the correct sequence leading to mRNA synthesis?
a) hnRNA => Capping => Poly A tail => Exon removal
b) pre-RNA => Poly A tail => Capping => Intron removal
c) pre-RNA => Capping => Poly A tail => Intron removal
d) hnRNA => Poly A tail => Capping => Intron removal
e) hnRNA => Capping => Poly A tail => Intron removal
4.1) Enhancer elements ____ affect the ____ of transcription.
a) Negatively; Speed
b) Negatively; Frequency
c) Positively; Speed
d) Positively; Frequency
4.2) The proximal element could be found immediately ____ to the ____.
a) 3’; Cap
b) 3’; Poly A tail
c) 5’; Cap
d) 5’; Poly A tail
4.3) What elements are proteins that bind to DNA and facilitate or prevent the binding of
RNA polymerase?
a) Cis-actin
b) Trans-actin
c) Distal
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 32 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
d) Proximal
e) Silencer
5.1) Rifampin/Rifamycin is a tuberculosis drug that inhibits ____ in ____.
a) DNA polymerase; Eukaryotes
b) DNA polymerase; Prokaryotes
c) RNA polymerase; Eukaryotes
d) RNA polymerase; Prokaryotes
5.2) Zidovudine (AZT), a drug given to treat HIV, inhibits viral:
a) RNA polymerase
b) DNA polymerase
c) Reverse transcriptase
d) DNA ligase
e) Topoisomerase
5.3) "-amanitin, a poison found in certain mushrooms, inhibits ____ in ____.
a) DNA polymerase; Eukaryotes
b) DNA polymerase; Prokaryotes
c) RNA polymerase; Eukaryotes
d) RNA polymerase; Prokaryotes
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 33 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
e) Mitochondria
4.1) What type of mutations involves a change that produces a stop codon?
a) Point
b) Silent
c) Missense
d) Nonsense
e) Deletion
4.2) What type of mutation involves a change that specifies the same amino acid?
a) Point
b) Silent
c) Missense
d) Nonsense
e) Deletion
5.1) In the read-out of the genetic code in prokaryotes, which of the following processes
acts before any of the others?
a) tRNAi alignment with mRNA
b) Termination of transcription
c) Movement of the ribosome from one codon to the next
d) Recruitment of termination factors to the A site
e) Export of mRNA from the nucleus
5.2) During the initiation of translation in eukaryotes, a tRNA complex is formed with:
a) His (CAU)
b) Ser (UCG)
c) Met (AUG)
d) Gly (GGG)
e) Val (GUA)
5.3) During the elongation phase of translation in eukaryotes, the start codon is located at
the ____ site with the ____ determining what will form a peptide bond at the A site.
a) P; Codon
b) P; Anticodon
c) A; Codon
d) A; Anticodon
5.4) What causes peptidyltransferase to hydrolyze the bond between the peptide chain
and tRNA, terminating translation?
a) tRNA codon
b) tRNA anticodon
c) mRNA condon
d) tRNA stop codon
e) Release factors
6) Which of the following is NOT considered a post-translational modification?
a) Fatty acylation
b) Methylation
c) Prenylation
d) Aminoacylation
e) ADP-ribosylation
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 34 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
7) I-cell disease (Mucolipidosis II) is a disorder of protein targeting where ____ proteins
are not sorted properly from the Golgi to the target.
a) Mitochondrial
b) RER
c) SER
d) Lysosomal
e) Nucleic
Match the site/mode of action with the antibiotic:
8.1) Binds to 50S, prevents translocation a) Streptomycin
8.2) Binds to 30S, inhibits aminoacyl-tRNA b) Tetracycline
8.3) Binds to 50S, inhibits peptidyltransferase c) Chloramphenicol
8.4) Binds to 30S, prevents initiation complex d) Erythromycin
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 35 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
c) Translational control
d) Post-translational control
e) Gene alteration
3.2) Which of the following would explain globin being synthesized when heme levels
are high in the cell but not when they are low? (eIFs regulated by phosphorylation)
a) Transcriptional control
b) Post-transcriptional control
c) Translational control
d) Post-translational control
e) Gene alteration
3.3) Which of the following involves regulating the assembly of the transcription
complex containing the RNA pol and its binding to the TATA box and the promoter?
a) Transcriptional control
b) Post-transcriptional control
c) Translational control
d) Post-translational control
e) Gene alteration
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 36 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
b) The second law of thermodynamics states that the total energy of a system
remains constant
c) The change in enthalpy of a reaction is a measure of the total amount of heat
that can be released from changes in the chemical bonds
d) #G(0) of a reaction is the standard free energy measured at 37ºC and pH of 7.4
e) A high-energy bond is a bond that releases more than 3 kcal/mole of heat when
it is hydrolyzed
2) The highest-energy phosphate bond in ATP is located between which of the following
groups?
a) Adenosine and phosphate
b) Ribose and phosphate
c) Ribose and adenine
d) Two hydroxyl groups in the ribose ring
e) Two phosphate groups
3) Which of the following is NOT an example of how the energy in ATP is used to do
work?
a) Protein conformational change in skeletal muscle
b) Na+/K+ pump
c) Anabolic protein synthesis
d) Methane synthesis
e) Glycogen synthesis
4) The transfer of phosphate from ATP to glucose occurs in two steps. Given the
following reactions and #G(0)s, what can be said?
Glucose + Pi => glucose-6-P + H20 #G(0) = +3.3 kcal/mole
ATP + H20 => ADP + Pi #G(0) = -7.3 kcal/mole
a) Glucose-6-P will be formed in the initial reaction
b) ATP will transfer to glucose as is due to additive coupling of reactions
c) Heat energy must be added to the initial reaction to make glucose-6-P
d) Only conversation of ATP to ADP will occur
e) The overall #G(0) causes the reaction to work in reverse
5) Reactions in the cell with a positive #G(0) can proceed in the forward direction if the
concentration of ____ is raised to high enough levels, or if the concentration of ____ is
decreased to very low levels.
a) Substrate; Product
b) Product; Substrate
c) Substrate; Enzyme
d) Enzyme; Substrate
e) Product; Enzyme
6) Which of the following best describes thermogenesis?
a) Energy expended for the purpose of conserving heat equal to that expended for
ATP production
b) Energy expended for the purpose of conserving heat in addition to that
expended for ATP production
c) Energy expended for the purpose of generating heat equal to that expended for
ATP production
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 37 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 38 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 39 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
c) GTP
d) GDP
e) Acetyl CoA
5.2) In contracting heart muscle, what activates isocitrate dehydrogenase and "-
ketoglutarate dehydrogenase?
a) Na+
b) Cl-
c) K+
d) Ca++
e) Mg++
5.3) A child born with pyruvate dehydrogenase complex (PDC) deficiency would likely
present with what type of severe birth complication?
a) Inability to use glucose
b) Ketoacidosis
c) Lactic acidosis
d) Lack of oxaloacetate
e) Inability to use the electron transport chain
5.4) PDC can be rapidly activated though mechanisms involving which of the following?
a) Acetyl CoA
b) NADH
c) ADP
d) Pyruvate
e) Insulin
6) Which of the following is NOT a source of acetyl CoA for the TCA cycle?
a) Decarboxylation of oxaloacetate
b) Degradation of ketone bodies
c) !-oxidation of fatty acids
d) Acetate from the diet
e) Leucine and isoleucine oxidation
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 40 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
a) NADH dehydrogenase
b) Succinate dehydrogenase
c) Coenzyme Q
d) Cytochrome b-c1 complex
e) Cytochrome c oxidase
2.2) Which of the following is associated with Fe++ reduction (only) as electrons are
accepted during the electron transport chain?
a) NADH dehydrogenase
b) Succinate dehydrogenase
c) Coenzyme Q
d) Cytochrome b-c1 complex
e) Cytochrome c oxidase
2.3) Which of the following involves Cu+ ions facilitating the collection of four electrons
and the reduction of O2 in the electron transport chain?
a) NADH dehydrogenase
b) Succinate dehydrogenase
c) Coenzyme Q
d) Cytochrome b-c1 complex
e) Cytochrome c oxidase
2.4) Which of the following have Fe-S centers to transfer electrons?
a) NADH dehydrogenase and succinate dehydrogenase
b) Succinate dehydrogenase and coenzyme Q
c) Coenzyme Q and cytochrome b-c1 complex
d) Cytochrome b-c1 complex and cytochrome c oxidase
e) Cytochrome c oxidase and NADH dehydrogenase
3) Cyanide poisoning inhibits cytochrome oxidation at which of the following locations
in the electron transport chain?
a) Complex I
b) Complex III
c) Complex IV
d) Coenzyme Q
e) Cytochrome C
4.1) Which of the following would be expected for a patient with an OXPHOS disease?
a) A high ATP:ADP ratio in the mitochondria
b) A high NADH:NAD+ ratio in the mitochondria
c) A deletion of the X chromosome
d) A high activity of complex II of the election transport chain
e) A defect in the integrity of the inner mitochondrial membrane
4.2) Dinitrophenol acts as an uncoupler of oxidative phosphorylation by which of the
following mechanisms?
a) Activating the H+ ATPase
b) Activating coenzyme Q
c) Blocking proton transport across the inner mitochondrial membrane
d) Allowing for proton exchange across the inner mitochondrial membrane
e) The proton motive force will be decreased to a value less than zero
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 41 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
4.3) A 25-year-old female presents with chronic fatigue. A series of blood tests are
ordered, and the results suggest that her red blood cell count is low because of iron
deficiency anemia. Such a deficiency would lead to fatigue because of which of the
following?
a) Her decrease in Fe-S centers is impairing the transfer of electrons in the
electron transport chain
b) She is not producing as much H2O in the electron transport chain, leading to
dehydration, which has resulted in fatigue
c) Iron forms a chelate with NADH and FADH2 that is necessary for them to
donate their electrons to the electron transport chain
d) Iron acts as a cofactor for !-ketoglutarate DH in the TCA cycle, a reaction
required for the flow of electrons through the electron transport chain
e) Iron accompanies the protons that are pumped from the mitochondrial matrix to
the cytosolic side of the inner mitochondrial membrane. Without iron, the proton
gradient cannot be maintained to produce adequate ATP.
4.4) What types of DNA or RNA are attacked by OX/PHOS disease?
a) mRNA and tRNA
b) mRNA and rRNA
c) mtDNA and mRNA
d) nDNA and mtDNA
e) nDNA and tRNA
5.1) As ATP is used in the body for energy and ADP levels increase, proton influx
through the ATP synthase increases to create more ATP. This also causes the
electrochemical gradient to ____. But, this happens simultaneously/coupled with the
restoration of the transmembrane electrochemical gradient by increasing proton pumping
and electron flow through the electron transport chain. The result is ____ O2
consumption.
a) Change; No change in
b) Increase; Increased
c) Decrease; Decreased
d) Increase; Decreased
e) Decrease; Increased
5.2) Brown fat thermogenesis works through ____ and is for ____ thermogenesis.
a) Uncoupling; Shivering
b) Coupling; Shivering
c) Uncoupling; Non-shivering
d) Coupling; Non-shivering
6) The inner mitochondrial membrane forms a tight permeability barrier to all polar
molecules, including ATP, ADP, Pi, anions such as pyruvate, and cations such as Ca++,
H+, and K+. ATP-ADP translocase helps transport:
a) ATP and ADP out of the mitochondria
b) ATP and ADP into the mitochondria
c) ATP out of the mitochondria and ADP into the mitochondria
d) ADP out of the mitochondria and ATP into the mitochondria
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 42 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
7) If a cell is ischemic, there is no O2 for the electron transport chain. ATP runs
backwards to ADP, making adenine, and opening the mitochondrial permeability
transition pores (MPTPs). What affect would this have on the cell?
a) Increased ATP use
b) Decreased ADP use
c) Decreased oxygen consumption
d) Increased oxygen consumption
e) Inability to create an electron gradient
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 43 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 44 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
a) Gluconeogenesis in kidney => Glucose => Muscle use => Lactate production
=> Lactate converted to glucose in kidney
b) Gluconeogenesis in liver => Glucose => Muscle use => Lactate production =>
Lactate converted to glucose in liver
c) Glycolysis in liver => Glucose => Muscle use => Lactate production =>
Lactate converted to glycogen in liver
d) Glycolysis in liver => Glycogen => Muscle use => Lactate production =>
Lactate converted to glucose in liver
e) Gluconeogenesis in liver => Lactate => Muscle use => Glucose production =>
Glucose converted to glycogen in liver
7.1) The major function of phosphofructokinase-1 (PFK-1) and pyruvate dehydrogenase
(PDH) are to respond to feedback indicators at the rate of:
a) ADP utilization
b) ATP utilization
c) NADH utilization
d) Glycogen utilization
e) Lactate utilization
7.2) Which of the following is the rate limiting enzyme of glycolysis?
a) Hexokinase
b) Phosphofructokinase-1
c) Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase
d) Phosphoglycerate kinase
e) Pyruvate kinase
7.3) PFK-1 is allosterically activated by 2,6-bisphosphate and which of the following?
a) ATP
b) ADP
c) AMP
d) NAD+
e) FADH2
7.4) Under ischemic conditions, AMP levels within the heart rapidly increase because of
the lack of ATP production via oxidative phosphorylation. The increase in AMP levels
activates an AMP-dependent protein kinase, which phosphorylates the heart isozyme of
____ to activate its kinase activity and start anaerobic glycolysis.
a) Hexokinase
b) PFK-1
c) PFK-2
d) 2,6-bisphosphate
e) Pyruvate kinase
8) If the electron transport chain is interrupted so ATP cannot be produced, glycolysis
operates anaerobically to produce ATP, and lactate is formed eventually leading to lactic
acidosis. Which of the following would NOT lead to lactic acidosis?
a) CO poisoning
b) Cyanide poisoning
c) Ischemia
d) Anoxia
e) A decreased NADH/NAD+ ratio
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 45 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 46 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
3.1) What is the result of complete oxidation of palmitate (16 carbons, no double bonds)
to CO2 and water via !-oxidation?
a) 8 FADH2, 8 NADH, 8 acetyl CoA
b) 7 FADH2, 8 NADH, 8 acetyl CoA
c) 8 FADH2, 8 NADH, 7 acetyl CoA
d) 7 FADH2, 7 NADH, 8 acetyl CoA
e) 8 FADH2, 7 NADH, 7 acetyl CoA
3.2) How many ATP molecules are produced from !-oxidation of palmitate?
a) 7 * 2.5 + 7 * 1.5 + 8 * 10 = 108
b) 7 * 2.5 + 7 * 1.5 + 8 * 10 - 2 = 106
c) 8 * 2.5 + 8 * 1.5 + 8 * 10 = 107
d) 8 * 2.5 + 8 * 1.5 + 8 * 10 - 2 = 109
e) 8 * 2.5 + 8 * 1.5 + 8 * 10 + 2 = 111
4) !-oxidation is regulated by the cells’ requirements for energy, or the levels of ____,
because fatty acids cannot be oxidized any faster than ____ are reoxidized in the electron
transport chain.
a) AMP and NAD+; NADH and FADH2
b) ADP and NADH; NADH and FADH2
c) ATP and NADH; NADH and FADH2
d) ATP and NADH; NAD+ and FADH+
e) ADP and NADH; NAD+ and FADH+
5.1) What transformation must occur at double bonds for oxidation of unsaturated fatty
acids to occur?
a) They must be made chiral
b) Hydrolysis must occur first
c) Trans bonds are turned into cis bonds
d) Cis bonds are turned into trans bonds
e) Reduction takes place initially before hydrolysis
5.2) Fatty acids containing an odd number of carbons undergo !-oxidation until the last
spiral. How many carbons are left in the fatty acyl CoA in the last spiral of !-oxidation?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) 5
5.3) Where are very-long-chain fatty acids (24 to 26 carbons) oxidized in chain-
shortening pathways that use FAD-containing oxidase to allow for !-oxidation?
a) Mitochondria
b) Lysosomes
c) Peroxisomes
d) Cytoplasm
e) Endoplasmic reticulum
6) %-oxidation of fatty acids uses enzymes from the endoplasmic reticulum. What
product is created by this process, allowing for the continuation of !-oxidation?
a) Carboxylic acids
b) Dicarboxylic acids
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 47 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
c) Tricarboxilic acids
d) Oligocarboxylic acids
e) Polycarboxylic acids
7.1) Which of the following !-oxidation enzyme reactions is reversible, allowing for the
production of ketone bodies in the liver?
a) Acyl CoA dehydrogenase
b) Enoyl CoA hydratase
c) !-hydroxyl acyl CoA dehydrogenase
d) !-keto thiolase
7.2) Which of the following is NOT a ketone body?
a) Acetoacetate
b) Acetyl CoA
c) D-!-Hydroxybutyrate
d) Acetone
7.3) !-Hydroxybutyrate is oxidized to acetoacetate, which is activated by accepting a
CoA group from what part of the TCA cycle?
a) Acetoacetyl CoA
b) Acetyl CoA
c) Succinyl CoA
d) Succinate
e) Oxaloacetate
7.4) Which of the following ketogenic amino acids can form acetyl CoA and acetoacetyl
CoA in the liver as well as other extra-hepatic tissues?
a) Leucine
b) Lysine
c) Tryptophan
d) Tyrosine
e) Phenylalanine
8) Patients with type I diabetes mellitus have a deficiency in insulin and an excess of
glucagon. This leads to excess fat breakdown and ketone body production in the liver,
leading to ketoacidosis. Insulin normally ____ acetyl CoA carboxylase and ____ !-
oxidation.
a) Stimulates; Stimulates
b) Inhibits; Inhibits
c) Stimulates; Inhibits
d) Inhibits; Stimulates
9) Medium-chain acyl-CoA dehydrogenase (MCAD) deficiency is a disorder involving
the substitution of a T for an A in the MCAD gene. This results in fatty acids only being
oxidize down to the medium-chain length. What type of diet would these patients need to
maintain a healthy state?
a) High-protein and avoidance of prolonged fasting
b) High-protein and avoidance of over-eating
c) High-carbohydrate and avoidance of prolonged fasting
d) High-carbohydrate and avoidance of over-eating
e) High-fat and avoidance of prolonged fasting
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 48 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 49 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
5.2) The level of oxidative damage to mitochondrial DNA is 10 times greater than that of
nuclear DNA. This could be due, in part, to which of the following?
a) Superoxide dismutase is present in the mitochondria
b) The nucleus lacks glutathione
c) The nuclear membrane presents a barrier to reactive oxygen species
d) The mitochondrial membrane is permeable to reactive oxygen species
e) Mitochondrial DNA lacks histones
6.1) During an immune response (neutrophils, eosinophils, monocytes), what accounts
for the formation of ROS?
a) Glucose use increased
b) Oxygen use increased
c) ATP use increased
d) ADP use increased
e) Nitrogen use increased
6.2) During an inflammatory response, what reacts with NO to create RNOS when
neutrophils produce excess NO?
a) Superoxide
b) Hydrogen peroxide
c) Hydroxyl
d) Peroxyl
e) Peroxynitrite
7.1) Premature infants requiring oxygen therapy are usually given what vitamin, which
along with SOD can help prevent retinopathy and subsequent blindness?
a) A
b) C
c) D
d) E
e) K
7.2) Which of the following has been shown by current (2007) epidemiologic evidence
that it is effective as a supplement on top of normal dietary intake?
a) !-carotene
b) Vitamin C
c) Vitamin E
d) Vitamin K
e) Vitamin B6
7.3) Which of the following vitamins or enzymes is unable to protect against free radical
damage?
a) !-carotene
b) Glutathione peroxidase
c) Superoxide dismutase
d) Vitamin B6
e) Vitamin C
f) Vitamin E
7.4) The mechanism of vitamin E as an antioxidant is best described by which of the
following?
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 50 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
a) Vitamin E binds to free radicals and sequesters them from the contents of the
cell
b) Vitamin E participates in the oxidation of the radicals
c) Vitamin E participates in the reduction of the radicals
d) Vitamin E forms a covalent bond with the radicals, thereby stabilizing the
radical state
e) Vitamin E inhibits the enzymes that produce free radicals
25 – Metabolism of Ethanol
1.1) Alcohol (ethanol) is metabolized in the liver by alcohol dehydrogenase (ADH) with
reduction of NAD+ to NADH. What is the end product of the metabolic pathway?
a) Acetaldehyde
b) Acetate
c) Acetone
d) Methanol
e) Ether
1.2) The fate of the product of ethanol metabolism is which of the following?
a) It is taken up by other tissues and activated to acetyl CoA
b) It is toxic to the tissues of the body and can lead to hepatic necrosis
c) It is excreted in bile
d) It enters the TCA cycle directly to be oxidized
e) It is converted into NADH by alcohol dehydrogenase
2.1) The microsomal ethanol oxidizing system (MEOS) accounts for a small percentage
of ethanol oxidation. What is the first product created by MEOS with the oxidation of
NADPH to NADP+?
a) Acetaldehyde
b) Acetate
c) Acetone
d) Methanol
e) Ether
2.2) Induction of CYP2E1 would result in which of the following?
a) A decreased clearance of ethanol from the blood
b) A decrease in the rate of acetaldehyde production
c) A low possibility of the generation of free radicals
d) Protection from hepatic damage
e) An increase of one’s alcohol tolerance level
3) Phenobarbital is converted to an inactive metabolite by cytochrome P450
monooxygenases CYP2B1 and CYP2B2. What would likely happen if a high dose of
phenobarbital was given and then excess ethanol was consumed?
a) A higher alcohol tolerance would be seen
b) A lower alcohol tolerance would be seen
c) Phenobarbital would have less of an effect
d) Phenobarbital would accumulate in the blood
e) Phenobarbital would be immediately inactivated
4) What is the maximum total energy yield in moles of ATP per mole of ethanol?
a) 5
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 51 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
b) 8
c) 10
d) 11
e) 13
5.1) Many of the acute affects of ethanol ingestion arise from the increase in what ratio in
the liver?
a) ATP/ADP
b) AMP/ATP
c) NAD+/NADH
d) NADH/NAD+
e) FADH2/FADH
5.2) Which of the following would be expected to occur after acute alcohol ingestion?
a) The activation of fatty acid oxidation
b) Lactic acidosis
c) The inhibition of ketogenesis
d) An increase in the NAD+/NADH ratio
e) An increase in gluconeogenesis
5.3) A chronic alcoholic is in treatment for alcohol abuse. The drug disulfiram is
prescribed for the patient. This drug deters the consumption of alcohol by which of the
following mechanisms?
a) Inhibiting the absorption of ethanol so that an individual cannot become
intoxicated, regardless of how much they drink
b) Inhibiting the conversion of ethanol to acetaldehyde, which would cause the
excretion of unmetabolized ethanol
c) Blocking the conversion of acetaldehyde to acetate, which would cause the
accumulation of acetaldehyde
d) Activating the excessive metabolism of ethanol to acetate, which causes
inebriation with consumption of a small amount of alcohol
e) Preventing the excretion of acetate, which causes nausea and vomiting
6) Which one of the following consequences of chronic alcohol consumption is
irreversible?
a) Inhibition of fatty acid oxidation
b) Activation of triacylglycerols synthesis
c) Ketoacidosis and lactic acidosis
d) Hyperuricemia and hypoglycemia
e) Liver cirrhosis
7) Acetaldehyde toxicity causes a build-up of proteins in the liver. Which of the
following is a clinical result of this toxicity?
a) Hepatitis
b) Hypoglycemia
c) Liver cirrhosis
d) Ketoacidosis
e) Lactic acidosis
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 52 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 53 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
e) Epinephrine
5.1) Glucagon release does not alter muscle metabolism because of which of the
following?
a) Muscle cells lack adenylate cyclase
b) Muscle cells lack protein kinase A
c) Muscle cells lack G proteins
d) Muscle cells lack GTP
e) Muscle cells lack the glucagon receptor
5.2) Insulin binds to the ____ subunit of the insulin receptor and has ____ activity.
a) "; Serine/Threonine
b) "; Tyrosine kinase
c) !; Serine/Threonine
d) !; Tyrosine kinase
5.3) The glucagon receptor is coupled to production of which of the following?
a) cAMP
b) cGMP
c) Ca++
d) Calmodulin
e) PKC
5.4) Which of the following is NOT a signal transduction principle by which glucagon
works?
a) Specificity of action in tissues is conferred by the receptor on a target cell
b) Signal transduction involves amplification of the first message
c) Signals terminate slowly
d) Metabolic responses are integrated
e) Signals can be augmented or antagonized
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 54 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 55 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
e) Pancreas
5.2) Insulin-dependent glucose uptake occurring in skeletal muscle and adipose tissue
uses what transporter?
a) GLUT 1
b) GLUT 2
c) GLUT 3
d) GLUT 4
e) GLUT 5
6.1) The facilitative transport most responsible for transporting fructose from the blood
into cells is which of the following?
a) GLUT 1
b) GLUT 2
c) GLUT 3
d) GLUT 4
e) GLUT 5
6.2) What non-insulin-dependent glucose transporter is associated with human
erythrocytes and the blood-brain barrier?
a) GLUT 1
b) GLUT 2
c) GLUT 3
d) GLUT 4
e) GLUT 5
6.3) What non-insulin-dependent glucose transporter is associated with neurons?
a) GLUT 1
b) GLUT 2
c) GLUT 3
d) GLUT 4
e) GLUT 5
7) Which of the following is NOT different between neural and non-neural transport of
glucose with regard to cellular structure?
a) Neural endothelial cells have tight junctions
b) Neural intercellular space is narrow
c) Neural cells do not do pinocytosis
d) Neural cells have a discontinuous basement membrane
e) Neural cells have glucose transporters in both membranes
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 56 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
b) Kidney
c) Liver
d) Brain
e) Heart
3.1) Which of the following is NOT a benefit of branching in glycogen?
a) Increased sites for synthesis
b) Increased sites for degradation
c) Increased solubility
d) Increased resistance to 4:6 transferase
3.2) In a glucose tolerance test, an individual in the basal metabolic state ingests a large
amount of glucose. If the individual is normal, this ingestion should result in which of the
following?
a) An enhanced glycogen synthase activity in the liver
b) An increased ratio of glycogen phosphorylase A to glycogen phosphorylase B
in the liver
c) An increased rate of lactate formation by red blood cells
d) An inhibition of protein phosphatase I activity in the liver
e) An increase of cAMP levels in the liver
3.3) Consider a type I diabetic who has neglected to take insulin for the past 72 hours and
has not eaten much as well. Which of the following best describes the activity level of
hepatic enzymes involved in glycogen metabolism under these conditions?
Glycogen Phosphorylase Glycogen
Synthase Kinase Phosphorylase
a) Active Active Active
b) Active Active Inactive
c) Active Inactive Inactive
d) Inactive Inactive Inactive
e) Inactive Active Inactive
f) Inactive Active Active
3.4) Glycogen synthase is the enzyme that attaches the glucosyl residues in what type of
bonds (regulated step in the pathway) during glycogen synthesis?
a) "-1,6-glycosidic
b) "-1,4-glycosidic
c) !-1,6-glycosidic
d) !-1,4-glycosidic
4.1) The enzyme glycogen phosphorylase starts at the end of a chain and successively
cleaves glucosyl residues by adding phosphate to the terminal glycosidic bond during
glycogen degradation. Why must a debrancher enzyme be used?
a) Because glycogen phosphorylase cannot cleave hydrogen bonds
b) Because glycogen phosphorylase cannot cleave covalent bonds
c) Because glycogen phosphorylase cannot cleave use UDP-glucose
d) Because glycogen phosphorylase does not have enough energy
e) Because glycogen phosphorylase is sterically hindered
4.2) The degradation of glycogen normally produces which of the following?
a) More glucose than glucose 1-phosphate
b) More glucose 1-phosphate than glucose
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 57 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 58 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
e) Insulin
7.2) After muscle contraction, what is created that allosterically activates glycogen
phosphorylase b?
a) ATP
b) ADP
c) AMP
d) UDP-glucose
e) Glycogen phosphorylase a
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 59 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 60 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
a) Sugar phosphates
b) Sugar acids
c) Sugar alcohols
d) Nucleotide sugars
e) Acyl-sugars
1.3) A newborn is diagnosed with neonatal jaundice. In this patient, the bilirubin
produced lacks which of the following carbohydrates?
a) Glucose
b) Gluconate
c) Glucuronate
d) Galactose
e) Galactitol
1.4) The nitrogen donor for the formation of amino sugars in which of the following?
a) Ammonia
b) Asparagine
c) Glutamine
d) Adenine
e) Dolichol
2.1) Which of the following best describes a mother with galactosemia caused by a
deficiency of galactose 1-phosphate uridylyl transferase?
a) She can convert galactose to UDP-galactose for lactose synthesis during
lactation
b) She can form galactose 1-phosphate from galactose
c) She can use galactose as a precursor to glucose production
d) She can use galactose to produce glycogen
e) She will have lower than normal levels of serum galactose after drinking milk
2.2) NAD+ dependent dehydrogenase oxidizes the alcohol on what carbon of glucose to
form glucuronate?
a) C1
b) C2
c) C4
d) C5
e) C6
2.3) How do glucuronides increase the solubility of and cause the excretion of bilirubin,
drugs, xenobiotics, and other compounds?
a) Add a positive charge to compounds with a hydrogen group
b) Add a positive charge to compounds with a hydroxyl group
c) Add a negative charge to compounds with a hydrogen group
d) Add a negative charge to compounds with a hydroxyl group
3) Which of the following is NOT a metabolic route of UDP-glucuronate?
a) UDP-glucose
b) Iduronate
c) Proteoglycans and glycoproteins
d) UDP-xylose
e) Glucuronides
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 61 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
4) The indirect form of bilirubin is bound to albumin in the blood. The direct form, also
known as the ____ form, is ____ soluble.
a) Conjugated; Water
b) Conjugated; Lipid
c) Non-conjugated; Water
d) Non-conjugated; Lipid
5.1) How does UDP-galactose form from UDP-glucose?
a) Hydrolysis
b) Peptide bonding
c) Epimerization
d) Covalent bonding
e) Reduction
5.2) What modifier protein is synthesized after parturition in response to the hormone
prolactin?
a) "-lactalbumin
b) !-lactalbumin
c) Galactosyltransferase
d) UDP-galactose
e) UDP-glucose
5.3) Which of the following correctly lists the steps in lactose synthesis?
a) Glucose-1-P => UDP-galactose => UDP-glucose => Lactose
b) Glucose-1-P => UDP-glucose => UDP-galactose => Lactose
c) Fructose-1-P => UDP-galactose => UDP-glucose => Lactose
d) Fructose-1-P => UDP-glucose => UDP-galactose => Lactose
e) Fructose-1-P => UDP-fructose => UDP-galactose => Lactose
6.1) What amino acids are used for “O-linkages” for glycoproteins?
a) Serine/Threonine
b) Cysteine/Threonine
c) Alanine/Arginine
d) Arginine/Tryptophan
e) Asparagine/Serine
6.2) Which of the following is the most common precursor for the addition of sugars that
are usually found in glycoproteins?
a) UDP-sugars
b) GTP-sugars
c) CMP-NANA
d) L-fructose
e) Mannose
6.3) What amino acid is used for “N-linkages” for glycoproteins?
a) Lysine
b) Cysteine
c) Alanine
d) Arginine
e) Asparagine
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 62 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
7.1) Some glycoproteins are produced like secretory proteins, but hydrophobic regions of
the protein remain attached to the cell membrane, and the carbohydrate portion extends
into the extracellular space. These serve as receptors for all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Hormones
b) Transport proteins
c) Cell attachment sites
d) Lysosomal enzymes
e) Bacterial/viral binding sites
7.2) Which of the following helps with cell trafficking when attached to proteins?
a) Glycoproteins
b) Glycolipids
c) Amino acids
d) Cholesterol
e) Second messengers
8) I-cell (inclusion cell) disease is caused by a deficiency in phosphotransferase in the
Golgi apparatus. Normally, this tags cells with Mannose-6-P to be sent to the:
a) RER
b) SER
c) Peroxisomes
d) Lysosomes
e) Nucleus
9.1) Which of the following glycolipids would accumulate in a patient with Sandhoff
disease?
a) GM1
b) Lactosyl-ceramide
c) Globoside
d) Glucocerebroside
e) CM3
9.2) Glycolipids are a derivative of what lipid?
a) Cholesterol
b) Phosphosine
c) Sphingosine
d) Wax (fatty acid and alcohol)
e) Triacyglycerol
10.1) Type A blood contains which of the following at the molecular nonreducing end?
a) Gal
b) GalNAc
c) Gal and GalNAc
d) Neither Gal or GalNAc
10.2) A patient with red blood type B could receive blood from:
a) Type O
b) Type A
c) Type B
d) Types O and A
e) Types O and B
11) What causes lysosomal storage disorder?
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 63 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 64 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 65 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 66 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
a) 0
b) 2
c) 4
d) 6
e) 8
14) The glycolytic enzyme glucokinase is induced by ____ and the gluconeogenic
enzyme phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase is repressed by ____.
a) Insulin; Glucagon
b) Glucagon; Insulin
c) Insulin; Insulin
d) Glucagon; Glucagon
15.1) After a high protein meal, insulin levels ____ and glucagon levels ____.
a) Rise drastically; Fall drastically
b) Fall drastically; Rise drastically
c) Rise drastically; Rise drastically
d) Fall drastically; Fall drastically
e) Rise slightly; Rise slightly
15.2) After a high glucose meal, insulin levels ____ and glucagon levels ____.
a) Rise drastically; Fall drastically
b) Fall drastically; Rise drastically
c) Rise drastically; Rise drastically
d) Fall drastically; Fall drastically
e) Rise slightly; Rise slightly
16) Glycogenolysis is ____ by glucagon and gluconeogenesis is ____ by glucagon.
a) Inactivated; Inactivated
b) Activated; Activated
c) Inactivated; Activated
d) Activated; Inactivated
17) What is the major source of blood fuel after fasting for 10 days?
a) Glucose
b) Free fatty acids
c) Glycerol
d) Ketone bodies
e) Lactate
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 67 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 68 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
b) ApoE
c) ApoB-48
d) ApoB-100
e) LDL
6.1) The most abundant component of chylomicrons is which of the following?
a) ApoB-48
b) Triglyceride
c) Phospholipid
d) Cholesterol
e) Cholesterol ester
6.2) The apoproteins B-48 and B-100 are similar with respect to which of the following?
a) They are synthesized from the same gene
b) They are derived by alternative splicing of the same hnRNA
c) ApoB-48 is a proteolytic product of apoB-100
d) Both are found in mature chylomicrons
e) Both are found in very-low-density lipoproteins
6.3) Type III hyperlipidemia is caused by a deficiency in apoprotein E. Analysis of the
serum of patient with this disorder would exhibit which of the following?
a) An absence of chylomicrons after eating
b) Above-normal levels of VLDL after eating
c) Normal triglyceride levels
d) Elevated triglyceride levels
e) Below-normal triglyceride levels
6.4) What is the major apoprotein associated with chylomicrons as they leave the
intestinal tract, serving as a major protein of the lipid carrier VLDL?
a) ApoC-II
b) ApoE
c) ApoB-48
d) ApoB-100
e) ApoA
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 69 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 70 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
4.3) A high insulin/glucagon ration would result in ____ of synthesis for acetyl CoA and
____ of synthesis for fatty acid synthase.
a) Inhibition; Induction
b) Induction; Inhibition
c) Induction; Induction
d) Inhibition; Inhibition
5) What fatty acid metabolism enzyme is active in its dephosphorylated state, with
dephosphorylation being catalyzed by an insulin-stimulated phosphatase.
a) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
b) Citrate lyase
c) Malic enzyme
d) Cytosolic malate dehydrogenase
e) Acetyl CoA carboxylase
6) Inhibition of carnitine:palmitoltransferase (CPTI) prevents newly synthesized fatty
acids from undergoing immediate oxiation by shuttling across the inner membrane of the
mitochondria. What inhibits CPTI?
a) FaCoA
b) Palmitate
c) FA synthase
d) Malonyl CoA
e) Acetyl CoA
7.1) How would a fasting individual with carnitine deficiency be affected?
a) Ability to oxidize long-chain fatty acids
b) Inability to oxidize short-chain fatty acids
c) Inability to produce acetyl CoA
d) Increased production of acetyl CoA
e) Difficulty forming ketone bodies
7.2) Which of the following would be seen in a patient with biotin deficiency?
a) Difficulty catabolizing even-chained fatty acids
b) Difficulty catabolizing odd-chained fatty acids
c) Over-catabolism of even-chained fatty acids
d) Over-catabolism of odd-chained fatty acids
7.3) A deficiency in pantothenic acid would affect which of the following?
a) CoA
b) Palmitate
c) Pyruvate
d) Glucose
e) Insulin
8.1) Fatty acid desaturation involves oxygen, NADH, and cytochrome b5, and occurs
where?
a) Nucleus
b) Lysosome
c) Peroxisome
d) Golgi
e) ER
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 71 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
8.2) What types of polyunsaturated fatty acids (named from the methyl end and related to
linoleic acid) are required for synthesis of eicosanoids but not synthesized de novo
(essential fatty acids)?
a) %2
b) %3
c) %4
d) %2 and %24
e) %3 and %6
9.1) Triacylglycerol synthesis starts in the liver with glycerol and in adipose tissue (and
liver) with glucose. What is the next intermediate formed by both of these starting points?
a) Phosphatidic acid
b) Diacylglycerol
c) Glycerol 3-P
d) Triacylglycerol
e) VLDL
9.2) What is formed from the phosphorylation of phosphatidic acid?
a) 2-MG
b) Diacyglycerol
c) Triacylglycerol
d) VLDL
e) HDL
9.3) VLDL is formed from cholesterol, phospholipids, and proteins that pack with
triacylglycerols, which is formed where?
a) SER
b) RER
c) Golgi
d) Nucleus
e) Mitochondria
9.4) What hormone stimulates the storage of triacylglycerols in adipose tissue?
a) Epinepherine
b) Norepinepherine
c) Adenosine
d) Insulin
e) Glucagon
10) What hormone, during fasting, causes cAMP levels to rise in adipose tissues and thus
stimulates lipolysis?
a) Epinepherine
b) Norepinepherine
c) Adenosine
d) Insulin
e) Glucagon
11.1) Which of the following is characteristic of sphingosine?
a) It is converted to ceramide by reacting with a UDP-sugar
b) It contains a glycerol moiety
c) It is synthesized from palmitoyl CoA and serine
d) It is a precursor of cardiolipin
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 72 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 73 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 74 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
de novo. They help in the formation of steroid hormones, cellular membranes, and what
vitamin?
a) A
b) D
c) E
d) K
e) C
5) Bacteria in the gut (colonic anerobes) ____ and ____ bile salts, allowing them to be
reabsorbed and remain in the enterohepatic circulation.
a) Conjugate; Hydroxylate
b) Conjugate; Dehydroxylate
c) Deconjugate; Hydroxylate
d) Deconjugate; Dehydroxylate
6.1) Which one of the following apoproteins acts as a cofactor activator of the enzyme
lipoprotein lipase (LPL)?
a) ApoC-III
b) ApoC-II
c) ApoB-100
d) ApoB-48
e) ApoE
6.2) Which one of the following sequences places the lipoproteins in the order of most
dense to least dense?
a) HDL > VLDL > chylomicrons > LDL
b) HDL > LDL > VLDL > chylomicrons
c) LDL > chylomicrons > HDL > VLDL
d) VLDL > chylomicrons > LDL > HDL
e) LDL > chylomicrons > VLDL > HDL
6.3) Which of the following delivers endogenous lipids to the liver and is a precursor to
LDL?
a) Chylomicrons
b) Chylomicron remnants
c) VLDL
d) IDL
e) HDL
6.4) What is the role of chylomicrons remnants?
a) Deliver dietary lipids
b) Return endogenous lipids to the liver
c) Return dietary lipids to the liver
d) Deliver endogenous lipids
e) Reverse cholesterol transport
7.1) Which of the following has a receptor on the plasma membrane containing clatherin
for receptor-mediated endocytosis and conversion to cholesterol?
a) Chylomicrons
b) LDL
c) VLDL
d) IDL
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 75 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
e) HDL
7.2) How many major regions are seen in the structure of the LDL receptor?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
e) 6
8.1) A patient is diagnosed with familial hypercholesterolemia (FH) type IIA, which is
caused by genetic defects in the gene that encodes the LDL receptor. After testing, there
is an elevation in which of the following in the blood?
a) TG
b) Cholesterol
c) PL
8.2) A patient with excess chylomicrons would have an elevation in which of the
following in the blood?
a) TG
b) Cholesterol
c) PL
9) Where do foam cells form during atherosclerosis to deform the vessel inward (lumen)
and increase the likelihood of a clot?
a) Tunica adventitia
b) Tunica media
c) Internal elastic lamina
d) Subintimal space
e) Endothelial cell
10.1) Of the major risk factors for the development of atherosclerotic cardiovascular
disease (ASCVD) such as sedentary lifestyle, obesity, cigarette smoking, diabetes
mellitus, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia, which one, if present, is the only risk factor
in a given patient without a history of having had a myocardial infarction that requires
that the therapeutic goal for the serum LDL cholesterol level be < 100mg/dL?
a) Obesity
b) Cigarette smoking
c) Diabetes mellitus
d) Hypertension
e) Sedentary lifestyle
10.2) It has been reported that high concentrations of which of the following correlate
with an increased risk of coronary artery disease, even in patient in whom the lipid profile
is otherwise normal, as they cannot be converted to active plasmin?
a) HMG-CoA
b) HDL
c) VLDL
d) Lp(a)
e) Chylomicrons
11) Cholesterol, a precursor to many steroid hormones, allows them to:
a) Dissolve in blood plasma
b) Cross the blood-brain barrier
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 76 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
35 – Metabolism of Eicosanoids
1.1) What eicosanoid metabolic enzyme is used in the conversion of arachidonic acid to
prostaglandins and thromboxanes?
a) Lipoxygenase
b) Cyclooxygenase
c) Phospholipase A2
d) Diacylglycerol lipase
e) Cytochrome P450
1.2) In humans, prostaglandins are primarily derived from which of the following?
a) Glucose
b) Acetyl CoA
c) Arachidonic acid
d) Oleic acid
e) Leukotrienes
1.3) What eicosanoid metabolic enzyme in involved in the conversion of arachidonic acid
to leukotrienes?
a) Lipoxygenase
b) Cyclooxygenase
c) Phospholipase A2
d) Diacylglycerol lipase
e) Cytochrome P450
1.4) What eicosanoid metabolic reaction involves cytochrome P450?
a) Arachidonic acid to membrane phospholipid
b) Membrane phospholipid to arachidonic acid
c) Arachidonic acid to epoxides
d) Arachidonic acid to prostaglandins
e) Arachidonic acid to leukotrienes
1.5) What eicosanoid metabolic reaction involves the enzyme phospholipase A2?
a) Arachidonic acid to membrane phospholipid
b) Arachidonic acid to leukotrienes
c) Arachidonic acid to epoxides
d) Arachidonic acid to prostaglandins
e) Membrane phospholipid to arachidonic acid
2.1) Aspirin will inhibit which of the following reaction pathways?
a) Arachidonic acid to thromboxanes
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 77 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 78 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
e) Bronchodilation
5.2) Certain prostaglandins, when binding to their receptor, induce an increase in
intracellular calcium levels. The signal that leads to the elevation of intracellular calcium
is initiated by which of the following enzymes?
a) Protein kinase A
b) Phospholipase C
c) Phospholipase A2
d) Protein kinase C
e) Cyclooxygenase
5.3) Which of the following would decrease platelet aggregation, increase cAMP, and
cause vasodilation?
a) Prostaglandins
b) Leukotrienes
c) Thromboxanes
5.4) Which of the following is NOT a function of leukotrienes?
a) Increase vascular permeability
b) Increase T-cell proliferation
c) Increase leukocyte aggregation
d) Bronchoconstriction
e) Vascoconstriction
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 79 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
days. A blood lipid analysis indicates much higher than expected VLDL levels. The
elevated VLDL is attributable to which of the following underlying causes?
a) Alcohol-induced inhibition of lipoprotein lipase
b) Elevated NADH levels in the liver
c) Alcohol-induced transcription of the apoB-100 gene
d) NADH activation of phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase
e) Acetaldehyde induction of enzymes on the endoplasmic reticulum
1.4) Certain patients with abetalipoproteinemia frequently have difficulties in maintaining
blood volume; their blood has trouble clotting. This symptom is attributable to which of
the following?
a) Inability to produce chylomicrons
b) Inability to produce VLDL
c) Inability to synthesize clotting factors
d) Inability to synthesize fatty acids
e) Inability to absorb short-chain fatty acids
1.5) Which of the following is NOT true regarding the effects of insulin dependent
diabetes mellitus (IDDM)? (decreased insulin levels)
a) Lipolysis is increased leading to fatty acid production
b) Number of available GLUT 4 receptors is decreased
c) HMG-CoA synthase activity leads to high production of ketone bodies
d) VLDL synthesis is increased raising serum VLDL concentrations
e) Lipoprotein lipase production is increased
2) When glucagon (or epinephrine) binds to its cell membrane receptor, initially
activating a G protein, levels of which of the following rise?
a) ATP
b) cAMP
c) cGMP
d) G6P
e) F6P
3.1) Assume that an individual has been eating excess calories daily such that they will
gain weight. Under which of the following conditions would the person gain weight most
rapidly?
a) If all the excess calories were due to carbohydrate
b) If all the excess calories were due to triacylglycerol
c) If all the excess calories were split 50%-50% between carbohydrate and
triacylglycerol
d) If all the excess calories were split 25%-75% between carbohydrate and
triacylglycerol
e) It makes no difference what form the excess calories are in
3.2) Insulin ____ the secretion of lipoprotein lipase (LPL) from adipose tissues and ____
the transport of glucose into these cells.
a) Stimulates; Inhibits
b) Inhibits; Stimulates
c) Stimulates; Stimulates
d) Inhibits; Inhibits
4) What enzyme activity is NOT increased during gluconeogenesis in the liver?
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 80 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
a) Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase
b) Fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase
c) Glucose 6-phosphate
d) Glucokinase
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 81 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
d) Proelastase
4.1) Kwashiorkor can result from which of the following?
a) Consuming a calorie-deficient diet that is also deficient in protein
b) Consuming a calorie-adequate diet that is deficient in carbohydrates
c) Consuming a calorie-adequate diet that is deficient in fatty acids
d) Consuming a calorie-adequate diet that is deficient in proteins
e) Consuming a calorie-deficient diet that is primarily proteins
4.2) Children with kwashiorkor usually have a fatty liver. This is due to which of the
following?
a) The high fat content of their diet
b) The high carbohydrate content of their diet
c) The high protein content of their diet
d) The lack of substrates for gluconeogenesis in the liver
e) The lack of substrates for protein synthesis in the liver
f) The lack of substrates for glycogen synthesis in the liver
4.3) Which of the following is a result of cystic fibrosis, which is a defect in the function
of chloride channels?
a) Inability to produce pancreatic enzymes
b) Inability to activate pancreatic zymogens
c) Inability to secrete pancreatic enzymes
d) Inability to digest starches
e) Inability to digest fatty acids
4.4) What would be the likely result if the secretory trypsin inhibitor was not present?
a) Hepatitis due to activated zymogens
b) Pancreatitis due to autodigestion
c) Appendicitis
d) Cholecystitis due to blockage of bile duct
e) Splenic inflammation due to lymph production
5) What type of transport is the transepithelial amino acid system, which involves Na+
dependent carriers?
a) Facilitated Diffusion
b) Simple diffusion
c) Primary active transport
d) Secondary active transport
e) Voltage-gated ion channels
6) Cystinuria and Hartnup disease involve defects in two different transport proteins.
What would be seen with these diseases relative to the intestinal and renal epithelial
cells?
a) Poor absorption of triacylglycerides
b) Poor absorption of carbohydrates
c) Poor absorption of amino acids
d) Complete absorption of proteins
e) Complete absorption of amino acids
7.1) What family of proteases is involved in lysosomal protein turnover?
a) Cathepsin
b) Calpains
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 82 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
c) Caspases
d) Proteasome
e) Serine proteases
7.2) The three-enzyme system that adds ubiqutin to proteins targets these proteins for:
a) Nuclear storage
b) Epimerization
c) Cytosolic storage
d) Degradation
e) Secretion from the cell
8) Cysteinuria is a disorder where cystine and basic amino acids are not absorbed and
thus are concentrated in urine, leading to kidney stones. Since these are non-essential
amino acids, they do not show enzyme deficiencies. Which of the following is NOT
involved in cysteinuria?
a) Cystine
b) Lysine
c) Arginine
d) Ornithine
e) Tryptophan
9) The #-glutamyl cycle is necessary for synthesis of glutathione, which protects cells
from:
a) Oxidative damage
b) Reductive damage
c) Hydrolysis
d) Lysosomal storage disorders
e) Auto digestion
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 83 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
2.2) In the fasting state, glutamine in the kidney yields NH3 and excretes NH4+ into the
urine. What amino acid is created as well that transports to the liver?
a) Alanine
b) Arginine
c) Asparagine
d) Glycine
e) Valine
3) Which of the following is NOT a biochemical reaction for removal of nitrogen from
amino acids?
a) Glutamate to "-ketoglutarate
b) Histidine to urocanate
c) Serine to pyruvate
d) Glutamine to asparagine
e) Threonine to "-ketobutyrate
4) Pyridoxal phosphate, which is required for transaminations, is also required for which
of the following pathways?
a) Glycolysis
b) Gluconeogenesis
c) Glycogenolysis
d) TCA cycle
e) Fatty acid oxidation
5) Which of the following is NOT a symptom of PLP (Vitamin B6) deficiency?
a) Dermatitis
b) Hypothyroidism
c) Microcytic hypochromic anemia
d) Weakness
e) Irritability
6) Which of the following is NOT a reaction that produces ammonia in the body?
a) Bacteria in the lumen of the GI tract react to form ammonia
b) Deamination of certain amino acids
c) The purine nucleotide cycle in muscle
d) The purine nucleotide cycle in the brain
e) The purine nucleotide cycle in the liver
7.1) Which one of the following enzymes can fix ammonia into an organic molecule?
a) Alanine-pyruvate aminotransferase
b) Glutaminase
c) Glutamate dehydrogenase
d) Arginase
e) Argininosuccinate synthetase
7.2) Why is ammonia absorbed by the intestine not immediately toxic?
a) It participates in the glutamine to glutamate reaction
b) It enters the purine nucleotide cycle
c) It participates in the asparagines to aspartate reaction
d) It is broken down by bacteria to urea
e) The intestinal wall is not permeable to ammonia ions
8) What form does nitrogen take when excreted by the kidney cells?
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 84 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
a) Urine
b) Glutamate
c) Fumerate
d) RBCs
e) Lymph
9) Ammonium ion (NH4+) can be converted into ammonia (NH3) at a pK of 9.3. This is
important in reducing the acidity of urine. At around physiological pH, which of the
following is true?
a) NH4+ is 10 times more concentrated than NH3
b) NH4+ is 100 times more concentrated than NH3
c) NH3 is 10 times more concentrated than NH4+
d) NH3 is 100 times more concentrated than NH4+
e) NH3 is 1000 times more concentrated than NH4+
10) Why are blood levels of alanine and glutamine much higher than concentrations of
other amino acids?
a) They donate ammonia most readily
b) They form "-ketobutyrate
c) They form "-ketogluterate
d) They carry nitrogen to the liver
e) They form urea in the GI tract
11) Which of the following, which coordinately funnel amino groups into urea, is
particularly important to the kidney where NH4+ is excreted directly into the urine?
a) Aminotransferase
b) Glutamate dehydrogenase
c) Glutaminase
12) During exercise when the muscle uses blood-borne glucose, what amino acid is
pyruvate converted to with the help of glutamate and "-ketogluterate?
a) Valine
b) Arginine
c) Glycine
d) Asparagine
e) Alanine
13) With the addition of NH4+ and the use of NADPH, which of the following reactions
would use glutamate dehydrogenase in steps to rid the body of toxic ammonia to urine?
a) "-ketogluterate to Glutamate
b) "-ketogluterate to Glutamine
c) "-ketogluterate to Urea
d) Glutamate to "-ketogluterate
e) Glutamine to "-ketogluterate
14.1) In what forms does nitrogen enter the urea cycle?
a) Aspartate and NH3
b) Glutamate and NH3
c) Aspartate and NH4+
d) Glutamate and NH4+
e) Bicarbonate and NH4+
14.2) Which of the following is NOT an intermediate of the urea cycle?
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 85 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
a) Citrulline
b) Alanine
c) Argininosuccinate
d) Carbomoyl phosphate
e) Ornithine
14.3) What is the role of n-acetylglutamate (NAG) in the urea cycle?
a) Activate glutamate
b) Activate acetyl CoA
c) Activate arginine
d) Activate CPSI
e) Activate ornithine transcarbamoylase
15) Which of the following enzymes if found in the blood would NOT indicate liver
damage (as they leaked from the liver to the blood)?
a) Total bilirubin
b) ALT
c) AST
d) Alkaline phosphatase
e) CPK
16) Neural toxicity of NH4+ is due to depletion of TCA cycle intermediates and which of
the following in the central nervous system?
a) Ca++
b) ATP
c) cGMP
d) Calmodulin
e) Acetyl CoA
17) When would nitrogen secretion in urea be the highest?
a) After a meal high in carbohydrates
b) After a meal high in triacylglycerides
c) After a mixed meal, 30 minutes after exercising
d) 12 hours into the fasting state
e) 6 weeks into the fasting state
Match the following lab results with the defective enzyme. All cases have low BUN:
a) Carbamolyphosphate synthetase I
b) Ornithine transcarbamoylase
c) Argininosuccinate synthase
d) Argininosuccinate lyase
e) Arginase
Urine orotate Blood citrulline Blood arginine Blood ammonia
18.1) Low Low Low High
18.2) Unknown Very High Low High
18.3) - - High Moderately High
18.4) High Low Low High
18.5) - High Low High
19) Which of the following would NOT be a treatment option for disorders of ammonia
removal and urea synthesis?
a) High protein diet
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 86 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 87 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 88 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
a) Tyrosine
b) Serine
c) Alanine
d) Cystein
e) Aspartate
8.2) Homocystinuria and macrocytic anemia can be caused by deficiencies in which
vitamins?
a) B12 and B6 (pyridoxine)
b) B12 and B7 (biotin)
c) B7 and B9 (folate)
d) A and B3 (niacin)
e) B12 and B9 (folate)
9) What type of amino acids accumulate and are excreted into the urine giving a burnt
sugar odor in maple syrup urine disease?
a) Acidic
b) Basic
c) Neutral
d) Branched-chain
e) Aromatic
10) A newborn infant has elevated levels of phenylalanine and phenylpyruvate in her
blood. Which of the following enzymes might be deficient in this baby?
a) Phenylalanine dehydrogenase
b) Phenylalanine oxidase
c) Dihydropteridine reductase
d) Tyrosine hydroxylase
e) Tetrahydrofolate synthase
11) Ketogenic amino acids have a carbon skeleton that is catabolized to acetyl CoA or
acetoacetate, which can enter the pathway of ketone body synthesis in the liver. Which of
the following is NOT a set of amino acids that are considered ketogenic?
a) Phenylalanine and tyrosine
b) Methionine and valine
c) Threonine and lysine
d) Leucine and isoleucine
e) Tryptophan
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 89 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 90 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 91 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 92 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
6) Which of the following cell types is most affected in patients with a deficiency in
purine nucleoside phosphorylase activity?
a) RBCs
b) Eosinophils
c) B-cells
d) T-cells
e) Natural killer cells
7) Which of the following folates forms dTMP with glutamine for pyrimidine synthesis?
a) FH4
b) N10-formyl FH4
c) N5, N10-methenyl FH4
d) N5, N10-methylene FH4
e) N5-methyl FH4
8) How are nucleotide bases transported through the body to other cellular destinations?
a) Via neurons
b) Via lymph vessels
c) Via RBCs
d) Via white blood cells
e) Via lipids in plasma
9.1) What are the precursors of purine production?
a) PRPP and glutamine
b) PRPP and glycine
c) PRPP and aspartate
d) RSP and glutamine
e) RSP and glycine
9.2) In pyrimidine production, UTP ____ and PRPP ____ activity of the initial step from
glutamine + CO2 + 2ATP to carbamoyl phosphate.
a) Increases; Increases
b) Decreases; Decreases
c) Increases; Decreases
d) Decreases; Increases
10) Hereditary orotic aciduria involves a defect in the UMP synthase gene, resulting in
inability to synthesize pyrimidines. Which of the following is a major clinical symptom
of this disease?
a) Painful joints
b) Loss of immune system
c) Partial loss of immune system
d) Mental retardation and self-mutilation
e) Growth retardation
11) Which of the following must happen to the ribose moiety for DNA synthesis?
a) It must be oxidized
b) It must be reduced
c) It must be polymerized
d) It must be catabolized
e) It must be stabilized
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 93 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
12.1) Gout (overload of uric acid in the body) can result from a reduction in activity of
which one of the following enzymes?
a) Glutamine phosphoribosyl amidotransferase
b) Glucose 6-phosphatase
c) Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase
d) PRPP synthetase
e) Purine nucleoside phosphorylase
12.2) Allopurinol can be used to treat gout because of its ability to inhibit which one of
the following reactions?
a) AMP to XMP
b) Xanthine to uric acid
c) Inosine to hypoxanthine
d) IMP to XMP
e) XMP to GMP
12.3) Patients with gout should avoid eating food containing purines as it increases uric
acid formation. Which of the following is a major clinical symptom of gout?
a) Painful joints
b) Loss of immune system
c) Partial loss of immune system
d) Mental retardation and self-mutilation
e) Growth retardation
13.1) Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is caused by an inability to catalyze which of the following
reactions?
a) Adenine to AMP
b) Adenosine to AMP
c) Guanine to GMP
d) Guanosine to GMP
e) Thymine to TMP
f) Thymidine to TMP
13.2) Which gene is defective in patients with Lesch-Nyhan syndrome?
a) Multiple
b) Adenosine deaminase
c) Purine nucleoside phosphorylase
d) Hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyltransferase
e) UMP synthase
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 94 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 95 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
James Lamberg
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 96 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 97 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
7) D 5) E 7) D 7.4) C
8) B 6) C 8.1) D 8) E
9) C 7.1) D 8.2) B
7.2) B 8.3) C BioC #21
BioC #10 8.4) A 1.1) E
1.1) D BioC #13 1.2) C
1.2) D 1) D BioC #16 2.1) C
2) A 2) E 1) E 2.2) D
3) E 3.1) B 2.1) C 2.3) E
4.1) D 3.2) A 2.2) D 2.4) A
4.2) B 3.3) C 2.3) A 3) C
5) C 4) C 3.1) E 4.1) B
6) A 5) D 3.2) C 4.2) D
7.1) D 3.3) A 4.3) A
7.2) E BioC #14 4.4) D
1.1) A BioC #19 5.1) E
BioC #11 1.2) B 1.1) D 5.2) C
1.1) C 2.1) B 1.2) E 6) C
1.2) D 2.2) B 1.3) C 7) E
2) B 2.3) C 2) E
3) D 2.4) D 3) D BioC #22
4) E 2.5) C 4) B 1.1) B
5) B 2.6) A 5) A 1.2) D
6.1) C 3) E 6) D 1.3) H
6.2) D 4.1) D 7.1) C 1.4) B
7) A 4.2) C 7.2) E 1.5) D
8) C 4.3) B 1.6) B
9) B 5.1) D BioC #20 2) C
10.1) E 5.2) C 1.1) D 3) C
10.2) D 5.3) C 1.2) B 4) A
11.1) A 1.3) D 5) E
11.2) C BioC #15 2) E 6) B
11.3) E 1) C 3.1) E
12) E 2) B 3.2) B BioC #23
13) B 3.1) D 3.3) A 1.1) C
14) B 3.2) B 3.4) C 1.2) B
3.3) C 3.5) E 1.3) D
BioC #12 3.4) A 4) E 2.1) E
1.1) E 3.5) E 5.1) B 2.2) A
1.2) A 4.1) D 5.2) D 2.3) E
1.3) B 4.2) B 5.3) C 3.1) D
2.1) C 5.1) A 5.4) E 3.2) B
2.2) D 5.2) C 6) A 4) C
3) C 5.3) B 7.1) B 5.1) D
4.1) D 5.4) E 7.2) B 5.2) E
4.2) B 6) D 7.3) C 5.3) C
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 98 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009
6) B 5.2) B 6) A 10) E
7.1) D 5.3) A 7) E 11) A
7.2) B 5.4) C 12) B
7.3) C BioC #30 13) D
7.4) A BioC #27 1.1) E 14) C
8) C 1.1) A 1.2) D 15.1) E
9) C 1.2) B 1.3) C 15.2) A
1.3) E 1.4) C 16) B
BioC #24 2.1) A 2.1) B 17) D
1) C 2.2) D 2.2) E
2) A 3) C 2.3) D BioC #32
3.1) D 4.1) A 3) A 1) C
3.2) B 4.2) B 4) A 2) C
4.1) E 5.1) C 5.1) C 3) B
4.2) B 5.2) D 5.2) A 4.1) B
5.1) E 6.1) E 5.3) B 4.2) C
5.2) E 6.2) A 6.1) A 4.3) E
6.1) B 6.3) C 6.2) A 5.1) D
6.2) A 7) D 6.3) E 5.2) A
7.1) D 7.1) D 5.3) E
7.2) C BioC #28 7.2) A 6.1) B
7.3) D 1) A 8) D 6.2) A
7.4) C 2) C 9.1) C 6.3) D
3.1) D 9.2) C 6.4) C
BioC #25 3.2) A 10.1) B
1.1) B 3.3) E 10.2) E BioC #33
1.2) A 3.4) B 11) A 1.1) A
2.1) A 4.1) E 12.1) A 1.2) E
2.2) E 4.2) B 12.2) B 1.3) C
3) D 5.1) D 2) B
4) E 5.2) C BioC #31 3.1) B
5.1) D 5.3) C 1.1) D 3.2) B
5.2) B 6.1) C 1.2) A 4.1) D
5.3) C 6.2) A 1.3) C 4.2) A
6) E 7.1) B 1.4) B 4.3) C
7) A 7.2) C 1.5) D 5) E
1.6) C 6) D
BioC #26 BioC #29 2) B 7.1) E
1.1) A 1.1) E 3) A 7.2) B
1.2) D 1.2) C 4) D 7.3) A
2.1) A 2.1) C 5) E 8.1) E
2.2) D 2.2) D 6.1) A 8.2) E
2.3) C 3.1) B 6.2) A 9.1) C
3) B 3.2) E 7) B 9.2) B
4) E 4) A 8) C 9.3) A
5.1) E 5) C 9) B 9.4) D
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 99 -
Biochemistry 14Mar2009