This verse of scripture is an enigma to most Christians. They cannot believe that God would send a lie to deceive most of His own called out followers. But that is the truth. These are the plain words of scripture.

Many Christians delude themselves that this is speaking of the lost world and not the church, the called out of God. But this cannot be the case, because this statement is in the context of widespread apostasy:

This 'falling away' is a falling away from the truths that are in every Bible in every Christian home in this nation or in the world. Here we are told that this "falling away reveals that man of sin the son of perdition." There is a lot of speculation in Christian circles as to who, exactly, this 'man of sin, the son of perdition' is. About the only thing that everyone agrees on concerning this 'man of sin' is that he is an end\u00adtime personality. 'After all, Paul's argument is that the day of the Lord is not at hand because the man of sin has not yet been revealed. The 'great falling away' has to happen first, is the teaching. With this dispensational approach to the scriptures, everything is now to be understood as 'in the future', 'at the time of the end.' That 'time of the end' is generally understood to be just around the corner, but 'it certainly isn't talking about me, or my church right now.' So reasons most of the Christian world.

Now this "man of sin" becomes relevant to me. "It IS the last time." "Even NOW many antichrists have risen up." "It IS the last hour." "THE TIME IS AT HAND." This is the proper approach to all prophecy. Why did the apostles approach prophecy with this frame of mind? It is because, unlike many modern teachers of God's Word today, the apostles knew what the purpose of ALL prophecy was:

Is Paul telling the Thessalonians that some extremely sinful man is going to set himself up in the temple in Jerusalem some time in the future, just prior to the coming of Christ, and require all mankind to worship him? IN MERE LETTERS it sure sounds that way. To the natural man it certainly appears that way. And consequently all 'carnal babes in Christ' (ICo 3:1), TAKE IT THAT WAY! But Paul tells us in a very straight forward way that his words are not to be taken in an 'outward' manner:

speak wisdom among them that are perfect [Greek\u00adbecoming mature] ...we speak the wisdom of God in a mystery,eve n the hiddenwis dom, which God ordained before the world unto our glory:\u201d (ICo 2:6\u00ad7).

The Greek word translated 'among' here is 'en' Strong's #1722. Nine out of ten times it is translated properly with the English word 'in', in the KJV. It is the same word translated 'in' in verse 4 where he says that his words were "in demonstration of spirit and of power." It should be translated 'in' here in ICo 2:6 also. Paul was not saying one thing to 'babes in Christ' and something different "among them that are perfect." No, it was always the same gospel: "Jesus Christ and him crucified." But it was received differently "in them that are perfect [mature]." It is not 'a mystery' (Greek \u00adm u ster i on \u00ad secret\u00ad Strong's #3466) to the 'perfect' \u00ad the mature; it is not 'hidden wisdom' to the 'mature.' It is "a mystery [and] hidden wisdom" to "carnal... babes in Christ" who can only see "Christ and HIM crucified."

So, if we translate the Greek word 'en' consistently, here is what Paul is telling us: 'In the mature we speak the secret, hidden, inward wisdom of God, but in the immature we speak only of the outward fleshly appearing of Christ and of His outward death and outward crucifixion.' How is this all accomplished? It is all accomplished with the same Bible, with the same letters and words. But 'the same letters and words' have vastly different meanings 'in' the 'mature' and 'in' the 'babes in Christ,' who are 'yet carnal.' Paul did not have two gospels, one for babes and one for mature Christians. Rather the one gospel 'Jesus Christ and Him crucified,' is received two entirely different ways in the hearers. And why is that? It will always be the same; it is because "many are called but few are chosen." The "many called [but not] chosen," will always be drawn to the outward, physical letter understanding of prophecy. Anything else is "foolishness" to the "carnal...babes in Christ," to whom I Cor. 2 is addressed.

Now ask yourself, who are 'the princes of this world' who have 'crucified the Lord of glory?' Is this referring to the Romans? The 'gentiles' are certainly included (Acts 4:27), but who do the scriptures reveal as the motivating force behind the crucifixion of Christ?: Speaking to his own countrymen the 'people of God', Peter tells them: