Welcome to Scribd, the world's digital library. Read, publish, and share books and documents. See more
Standard view
Full view
of .
0 of .
Results for:
P. 1
Quantum - Spherical Harmonics

# Quantum - Spherical Harmonics

Ratings: (0)|Views: 37|Likes:

### Availability:

See more
See less

03/18/2014

pdf

text

original

-1 -
Quantum Explanations \u2013 Issue II
-Spherical Harmonics (Angular Momentum)
Last Update: November 30, 2007
Introduction: Angular momentum on the macroscopic scale is really a trivial thing to

discuss and model. Angular momentum has the exact same relations as linear momentum
and is governed by strikingly similar equations. In the quantum world though something
interesting happens with angular momentum. It becomes quantized like all other quantum
things. You get certain energy levels and only certain states for the given quantum object
which in this case will be a simple diatomic molecule. Working out this particular
example is extremely complex and is possibly one of the most difficult examples to work
out that can be solved exactly. After mastering this, the solution to the hydrogen atom is
much less complex.

Explanation:
Part I. \u2013 First off we will consider what is called Legendre\u2019s differential equation and its
unique solutions. This will be integral to our concept of quantum angular momentum.
The Legendre equation is stated below:
)
1
(
0
)
1
(
'
2
'
'
)
1
(
2
\ue002
\ue000
\ue000
\ue001
\ue001
y
n
n
xy
y
x
This equation can be solved using a power series method and we will try the general
solution:
)
2
(
0
k
k
kx
c
y\ue00b\ue006\ue002
\ue002
We can then take all the necessary derivatives of this trial function:
2
2
1
1
0
)
1
(
'
'
'
\ue001
\ue006\ue002
\ue001
\ue006\ue002
\ue006\ue002
\ue00b
\ue00b
\ue00b
\ue001
\ue002
\ue002
\ue002
k
k
k
k
k
k
k
k
k
x
k
k
c
y
x
k
c
y
x
c
y
-2 -
We can the plug in all of our functions into the Legendre equation (1) and get a new
expression in terms of power series.
)
3
(
0
)
1
(
2
)
1
(
)
1
(
0
1
1
2
2
2
\ue002
\ue017\ue018\ue016
\ue010\ue011\ue00f
\ue000
\ue000
\ue017\ue018\ue016
\ue010\ue011\ue00f
\ue001
\ue017\ue018\ue016
\ue010
\ue011\ue00f
\ue001
\ue001
\ue00b
\ue00b
\ue00b
\ue006\ue002
\ue001
\ue006\ue002
\ue001
\ue006\ue002
k
k
k
k
k
k
k
k
k
x
c
n
n
x
k
c
x
x
k
k
c
x
We then simplify a little bit by multiplying through and get:
0
)
1
(
2
)
1
(
)
1
(
0
1
2
2
2
\ue002
\ue017\ue018\ue016
\ue010\ue011\ue00f
\ue000
\ue000
\ue017\ue018\ue016
\ue010\ue011\ue00f
\ue001
\ue017\ue018\ue016
\ue010\ue011\ue00f
\ue001
\ue001
\ue017\ue018\ue016
\ue010\ue011\ue00f
\ue001
\ue00b
\ue00b
\ue00b
\ue00b
\ue006\ue002
\ue006\ue002
\ue006\ue002
\ue001
\ue006\ue002
k
k
k
k
k
k
k
k
k
k
k
k
x
c
n
n
x
k
c
x
k
k
c
x
k
k
c
Then we will take out necessary terms from each summation so that each summation
starts at the same power of x which will be needed in order to combine power series.
0
)
1
(
)
1
(
)
1
(
...
...
2
2
)
1
(
...
...
)
1
(
6
2
2
1
0
2
1
2
2
4
3
2
\ue002
\ue017\ue018\ue016
\ue010\ue011\ue00f
\ue000
\ue000
\ue000
\ue000
\ue000
\ue000
\ue000
\ue017\ue018\ue016
\ue010\ue011\ue00f
\ue000
\ue001
\ue017\ue018\ue016
\ue010\ue011\ue00f
\ue001
\ue001
\ue000
\ue017\ue018\ue016
\ue010\ue011\ue00f
\ue001
\ue000
\ue000
\ue00b\ue00b
\ue00b
\ue00b
\ue006\ue002
\ue006\ue002
\ue006\ue002
\ue001
\ue006\ue002
k
k
k
k
k
k
k
k
k
k
k
k
x
c
n
n
x
c
n
n
c
n
n
x
k
c
x
c
x
k
k
c
x
k
k
c
x
c
c
Then after reorganizing a bit and using a j substitution for k so that all of the power series
begin with the same index number we end up with.
\ue000
\ue001 \ue000
\ue001
\ue000
\ue001
0
)
1
)(
(
)
1
)(
2
(
6
)
2
)(
1
(
2
)
1
(
2
2
3
1
2
0
\ue002
\ue000
\ue000
\ue001
\ue000
\ue000
\ue000
\ue000
\ue000
\ue000
\ue001
\ue000
\ue000
\ue000
\ue00b\ue006\ue002
\ue000
j
j
j
j
x
c
j
n
j
n
c
j
j
x
c
c
n
n
c
c
n
n
For this expression to be true for all x it is necessary that all of the coefficients which are
the bracketed parts be zero. This leads to:
\ue000
\ue001
\ue000
\ue001
\ue000
\ue001
,...
4
,
3
,
2
)
1
)(
2
(
)
1
)(
(
0
)
1
)(
(
)
1
)(
2
(
!
3
)
2
)(
1
(
0
6
)
2
)(
1
(
!
2
)
1
(
0
2
)
1
(
2
2
1
3
3
1
0
2
2
0
\ue002
\ue000
\ue000
\ue000
\ue000
\ue001
\ue001
\ue002
\ue007
\ue002
\ue000
\ue000
\ue001
\ue000
\ue000
\ue000
\ue000
\ue001
\ue001
\ue002
\ue007
\ue002
\ue000
\ue000
\ue001
\ue000
\ue001
\ue002
\ue007
\ue002
\ue000
\ue000\ue000
\ue000
j
for
c
j
j
j
n
j
n
c
c
j
n
j
n
c
j
j
c
n
n
c
x
c
c
n
n
c
n
n
c
c
c
n
n
j
j
j
j
-3 -
The first few coefficients turn out to be:
1
5
7
0
4
6
1
3
5
0
2
4
1
3
0
2
1
1
0
0
!
7
)
6
)(
4
)(
2
)(
1
)(
3
)(
5
(
6
7
)
6
)(
5
(
!
6
)
5
)(
3
)(
1
(
)
2
)(
4
(
5
6
)
5
)(
4
(
!
5
)
4
)(
2
)(
1
)(
3
(
4
5
)
4
)(
3
(
!
4
)
3
)(
1
(
)
2
(
3
4
)
3
)(
2
(
!
3
)
2
)(
1
(
!
2
)
1
(
c
n
n
n
n
n
n
c
n
n
c
c
n
n
n
n
n
n
c
n
n
c
c
n
n
n
n
c
n
n
c
c
n
n
n
n
c
n
n
c
c
n
n
c
c
n
n
c
c
c
c
c
\ue000
\ue000
\ue000
\ue001
\ue001
\ue001
\ue001
\ue002
\ue00a
\ue000
\ue001
\ue001
\ue002
\ue000
\ue000
\ue000
\ue001
\ue001
\ue001
\ue002
\ue00a
\ue000
\ue001
\ue001
\ue002
\ue000
\ue000
\ue001
\ue001
\ue002
\ue00a
\ue000
\ue001
\ue001
\ue002
\ue000
\ue000
\ue001
\ue002
\ue00a
\ue000
\ue001
\ue001
\ue002
\ue000
\ue001
\ue001
\ue002
\ue000
\ue001
\ue002
\ue002\ue002
Now we can form two linearly independent solutions from these coefficients and the
form of a power series given as equation (2).
\ue017\ue017\ue017\ue017\ue018\ue016
\ue010\ue010\ue010\ue010\ue011\ue00f
\ue000
\ue000
\ue000
\ue000
\ue001
\ue001
\ue001
\ue001
\ue000
\ue000
\ue000
\ue001
\ue001
\ue000
\ue000
\ue001
\ue001
\ue002
\ue017\ue018\ue016
\ue010\ue011\ue00f
\ue000
\ue000
\ue000
\ue000
\ue001
\ue001
\ue001
\ue000
\ue000
\ue001
\ue000
\ue000
\ue001
\ue002
...
!
7
)
6
)(
4
)(
2
)(
1
)(
3
)(
5
(
...
...
!
5
)
4
)(
2
)(
1
)(
3
(
!
3
)
2
)(
1
(
...
!
6
)
5
)(
3
)(
1
(
)
2
)(
4
(
!
4
)
3
)(
1
(
)
2
(
!
2
)
1
(
1
7
5
3
1
1
6
4
2
0
1
x
n
n
n
n
n
n
x
n
n
n
n
x
n
n
x
c
y
x
n
n
n
n
n
n
x
n
n
n
n
x
n
n
c
y

The neat thing about this solution is that for an even integer for n the first series will
terminate, and for an odd integer the second series will terminate. For this reason we take
are solution to the equation as whichever series will terminate, and we opt to chose are
coefficients in such a manner as to make them look uniform. These Legendre
polynomials are the only well behaved solutions to this equation which is needed in
quantum mechanics.

)
1
(
...
4
2
...
3
1
)
1
(
...
4
2
)
1
(
...
3
1
)
1
(
2
/
)
1
(
1
2
/
0
\ue001
\ue00a
\ue00a
\ue00a
\ue00a
\ue00a
\ue00a
\ue001
\ue002
\ue00a
\ue00a
\ue00a
\ue001
\ue00a
\ue00a
\ue00a
\ue001
\ue002
\ue001
nn
c
n
n
c
n
n