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MASSEY UNIVERSITY
MANAWATU CAMPUS & ALBANY CAMPUS

EXAMINATION FOR
194.241 PHYSIOLOGICAL CONTROL SYSTEMS


Semester One 2009
_____________________________________________________

Time allowed: THREE (3) hours

Answer ALL questions in Section A and Section B

All 6 questions in Section A are of equal mark value (24 marks each)

Section A = 144 marks Section B = 36 marks

Total marks: 180

Answer Section B on the Scantron card provided
Scantron Cards
Ensure that your name and identification number are entered on your
Scantron Card. Record your answer on your Scantron card by putting a solid
horizontal pencil line through the character representing the best answer
to the question with a blunt 2B or 3B pencil. The Scantron Card will not read
properly if you do not follow these instructions. At the conclusion of the
examination, hand in the Scantron Card separately.

Answer all questions on Side A of the Scantron card.
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SECTION A
Question 1 Answer all questions (24 marks)

a. Explain what is meant by negative and positive feedback with respect to
physiological control and give two examples of each (6 marks)

b. Describe the different types of cell junctions and their functions (6 marks)

c. Describe what is meant by facilitated diffusion and gated ion channels,
giving one example of a solute which is transported by each (6 marks)

d. Name the major components of the cell cytoskeleton and identify three
functions that the cytoskeleton provides (6marks)


Question 2 Answer all questions (24 marks)
a. What causes epithelial cells to be polarised and why is this important?
(6 marks)

b. Describe the roles of B and T lymphocytes in the immune response
(6marks)

c. Describe and discuss the cells and chemicals the body uses as its second
line of defence. (6 marks)

d. Discuss the ions and membrane proteins which are involved in the
generation of resting membrane potential (6 marks)





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Question 3 Answer all questions (24 marks)
a. Describe and discuss the phases of an action potential including all
appropriate ion movements and the mechanisms by which such
movements occur (6 marks)

b. Explain how action potentials in smooth muscle are different from those in
nerves and skeletal muscle (6 marks)

c. Describe and discuss the structure and function of the blood-brain
barrier (6 marks)

d. Describe the pathway of light through the eyeball and the process of light
refraction (6 marks)

Question 4 Answer A or B (24 marks)
a. Compare and contrast the anatomy and functions of the autonomic and
somatic divisions of the peripheral nervous system. (24 marks)

Or

b. Briefly describe the components of a reflex arc and comment on the
different types of peripherally located sensory receptors. (24 marks)

Question 5 answer two of the following three questions (24 marks)
a. Describe and explain the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone mechanism. (12
marks)

b. Describe and discuss the flow of blood through the kidneys. (12 marks)

c. Discuss the structure of the glomerulus and the process of glomerular
filtration. (12 marks)

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Question 6 Answer all questions (24 marks)
a. Discuss water excretion by the kidney. (12 marks)

b. Describe the process of acid excretion by the kidney. Include a brief
description of the buffers in the urine. (12 marks)
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SECTION B answer on Side A of the scantron card

1. The anterior pituitary:
A. receives blood from the median eminence via the hypophyseal portal
vessels
B contains a cell population which is 50% thyrotrophs
C secretes LH, FSH, and hCG
D is inactive in mammals until after birth

2. Increases in parathyroid hormone concentration result in all of the
following EXCEPT:
A. increased absorption of Ca
2+
from the intestine
B. increased production of the active form of Vitamin D
3
C. increased release of Ca
2+
into the blood by the osteoclasts
D. increased Ca
2+
uptake by the bones
E. increased blood Ca
2+

3. The posterior pituitary gland can be identified by the presence of:
A. endothelial cells
B. acidophil and basophil cells
C. abundant nerve fibres
D. acidophil cells

4. Which statement about the hypothalamus is NOT correct?
A. It lies at the base of the brain and surrounds part of the third ventricle
B. It produces both stimulatory and inhibitory peptides
C. It contains several different groupings (nuclei) of neuroendocrine cells
D. It supplies factors to the pituitary gland via the portal blood supply
E. It does not receive inputs from the thalamus or cortex of the brain



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5. Vasopressin is an alternative name for:
A. cortisol
B. adrenaline
C. ADH
D. growth hormone
E. oxytocin

6. Which is NOT an example of long-loop negative feedback of hormone
secretion?
A. estrogen regulation of pituitary LH release around the time of ovulation
B. thyroxine regulation of pituitary TSH release
C. cortisol regulation of CRH release
D. suppression of GH release by somatomedins
E. inhibin regulation of FSH release

7. Which one of the following hormones is released into the circulation in
response to fluid depletion?
A. gastrin
B. corticotropin-releasing hormone
C. prolactin release-inhibiting hormone
D. growth hormone-releasing hormone
E. ADH

8. Changes in the blood levels of circulating hormones:
A. closely reflect alterations in hormone receptor turnover rates
B. occur on a time scale of seconds to hours depending on the hormone
C. only result from gradual shifts in hormone clearance by the liver
D. never occur without the action of a stimulating chemical agonist
E. are only determined by the rate of hormone synthesis




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9. POMC is a large precursor protein that is eventually processed into:
A. calcitonin and calcitonin-gene related peptide
B. ACTH and TSH
C. MSH and ACTH
D. LH and MSH
E. none of the above combinations

10. A mutation in the gene coding for a hormone receptor that prevented
receptor synthesis would abolish the actions of which hormones?
A. steroid hormones
B. protein hormones
C. triiodothyronine
D. steroid hormones and triiodothyronine
E. steroid hormones, protein hormones and triiodothyronine

11. In the interaction of a hormone with its receptor, all of the following are
true, EXCEPT:
A. more than one second messenger may be generated
B. an array of transmembrane helices may form the binding site for the
hormone
C. hormones can interact with nuclear receptors
D. phosphorylation/dephosphorylation of the cytoplasmic portion of the
receptor may render the receptor unresponsive to hormone binding
E. binding of a hormone to its receptor always results in an increase of
cAMP levels inside the cell

12. Which of the following hormones does NOT act primarily by a second
messenger system?
A. glucagon
B. adrenaline
C. growth hormone
D. testosterone
E. ACTH
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13. Which of the following statements about hormone receptors is NOT
correct?
A. exist in only limited numbers on target cells
B. are always proteins
C. are highly specific for a given hormone
D. for multiple hormones can coexist on the membrane of the same cell
E. remain at constant levels on single target cells at all times

14. If you were to eat four sugar doughnuts and drink a large soft drink,
which hormone would you expect to be secreted at higher levels:
A. insulin
B. adrenaline
C. glucagon
D. cortisol
E. oxytocin

15. A decrease in insulin hormone receptors on cells or reduction in the
functioning of the receptors can result in:
A. diabetes insipidus
B. type I diabetes mellitus
C. type II diabetes mellitus
D. insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (IDDM)
E. juvenile diabetes

16. An autoimmune disease resulting in destruction of the pancreatic beta-
cells will lead to:
A. hypoglycemia and diuresis
B. reduced ketone body formation in the liver
C. enhanced protein storage in muscle
D. increased levels of circulating fatty acids
E. increased glucose uptake in the liver

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17. Glucagon stimulates:
A. lipolysis in adipocytes
B. glycogenesis in skeletal muscle
C. gluconeogenesis in the adrenal gland by stimulating cortisol production
D. glucose uptake in all cells
E. utilization of ketones as energy in the brain

18. Growth hormone (GH):
A. directly stimulates bone and skeletal muscle development and growth
B. directly stimulates osteoblasts to promote bone development and growth
C. deficiency produces 2 metre tall basketball players
D. promotes protein synthesis and mobilizes lipids

19. Which of the following does NOT stimulate growth hormone release?
A. decrease in plasma glucose
B. stress
C. exercise
D. carbohydrate meal

20. Thyrotropin (thyroid stimulating hormone, TSH):
A. increases uptake of amino acids by target cells
B. stimulates the synthesis of calcitonin
C. enhances glucose uptake by target cells
D. stimulates target tissue growth
E. stimulates thyroglobulin breakdown as well as synthesis

21. Insulin is related to diabetes mellitus Type I in the same way as
thyroxine is to:
A. thyrotoxicosis
B. hyperthyroidism
C. hypothyroidism
D. euthyroidism (normal thyroid function)
E. production of antibodies that mimic TSH actions
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22. Would a patient who had suffered loss of the anterior pituitary due to
surgery be likely to show reduced levels of secretion by the thyroid?
A. yes, because loss of the anterior pituitary gland inhibits the parathyroid
gland
B. yes, because thyroid secretion is normally regulated by the anterior
pituitary
C. no, because the thyroid and anterior pituitary do not share a common
blood supply
D. no, because when the anterior pituitary is removed or dysfunctional the
posterior pituitary normally assumes its functions

23. The action of glucocorticoids involves many functions, but only one of
the following is a correct one:
A. increases inflammatory responses
B. decreases lipid hydrolysis (lipolysis)
C. increases glucose levels
D. retention of electrolytes by the kidneys
E. increases osteoclast activity

24. A tumour in the adrenal zona glomerulosa can cause hypersecretion of
hormones produced in that region. Which of the following might you
expect to find in a patient with such a tumour?
A. increased blood sodium levels
B. increased blood glucose levels
C. decreased blood calcium levels
D. increased dehydration
E. increased ketoacidosis




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25. Which of the following hormone(s) is (are) secreted by the adrenal gland
in response to stress and promote(s) the synthesis of glucose from non-
carbohydrate substrates?
A. glucagon
B. thyroxine
C. glucocorticoids
D. ACTH
E. epinephrine

26. Which of the following hormones is incorrectly paired with its action?
A. insulin - stimulates glycogen breakdown in the liver
B. thyroxine - stimulates metabolic processes
C. oxytocin - stimulates uterine contractions during childbirth
D. ACTH - stimulates the release of glucocorticoids by the adrenal cortex
E. melatonin - affects biological rhythms, seasonal reproduction

27. Short blood vessels connect two capillary beds lying in which of the
following?
A. hypothalamus and thalamus
B. anterior pituitary and posterior pituitary
C. posterior pituitary and thyroid gland
D. hypothalamus and anterior pituitary
E. anterior pituitary and adrenal gland

28. The only hormone that promotes anabolism of glycogen, fats and
proteins is
A. hGH (GH)
B. aldosterone
C. insulin
D. epinephrine
E. corticosterone

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29. The stimulus for release of parathyroid hormone, PTH, is
A. low levels of calcium ions in the blood
B. high levels of calcium ions in the blood
C. TSH
D. PRH
E. calcitonin

30. Calcitonin is synthesized by
A. parathyroid
B. thyroid
C. posterior pituitary
D. hypothalamus
E. anterior pituitary

31. When a hormone that uses cyclic AMP as a a second messenger binds
to a target cell, the next thing that happens is that
A. phosphodiesterase is activated
B. a protein kinase is activated
C. a gene is activated in the nucleus
D. voltage-regulated ion channels open in the plasma membrane
E. adenylate cyclase is activated by a G protein

32. Aldosterone:
A. is secreted by the neurohypophysis
B. presence increases potassium concentration in the blood
C. functions to increase sodium resorption
D. production is greatly influenced by ACTH
E. All answers are incorrect





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33. Which of the following is true about calcium homeostasis?
A. PTH (Parathyroid hormone) is an important regulator of calcium levels
in the blood
B. High calcium levels cause bone resorption
C. PTH (Parathyroid hormone) causes an increase in osteoblast activity
D. Increased calcitonin levels will cause increased blood calcium levels
E. Answers B) and C) are correct

34. ACTH:
A. is secreted by the posterior pituitary
B. is not a tropic hormone
C. causes the release of hormones from the adrenal medulla
D. secretion is regulated by a hypothalamic secretion
E. all answers are incorrect

35) Glucocorticoids have the following effects:
A. gluconeogenesis
B. lipolysis
C. anti-inflamatory
D. depression of immune system
E. All answers are correct

36. Osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus stimulate secretion of
A. renin from the kidney in response to low osmotic pressure
B. ADH from the hypothalamus in response to high osmotic pressure
C. ADH from the hypothalamus in response to low osmotic pressure
D. aldosterone from the kidney in response to low osmotic pressure
E. aldosterone from the adrenal cortex in response to low osmotic
pressure



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