Assignment 8 — Solutions 3/10/04
Problem 5.22
Choose coordinates so that the infinite plane is the
x
-
y
plane (
z
=
0) and the bar is at some infinitesimal distance
h
above the plane. From the discussion in §5.9C a hard ferromagnet is equivalent to a system with an effectivemagnetic current density. For
M
”÷÷÷
=
M z
`
there is only the effective surface current
K
”÷÷
=
M
”÷÷÷
ä
n
`
where
n
`
is the unitnormal to the vertical surface (in general a function of position, though most of you took the bar to be a cylinder.The important thing for now is that
n
`
is perpendicular to
z
`
). Applying the results of 5.17 we see that the system isequivalent to an image current distribution with components scaled by
H
m
r
-
1
LêH
m
r
+
1
L
(amongst other things).Since
m
r
ªm
ê
m
0
=¶
for our case, this factor reduces to
H
1
-
1
ê
m
r
LêH
1
+
1
ê
m
r
L
Ø
1. We see that all we need isthe "reflected" current (recall that there is no
z
component since
z
`ä
n
`
must lie in the
x
-
y
plane, and actually no
z
-dependence at all since the bar is uniform in the
z
-direction) and corresponding image magnetization:
K
”÷÷
*
H
x
,
y
,
z
L
=
K
x
H
x
,
y
,
-
z
L
x
`+
K
y
H
x
,
y
,
-
z
L
y
`
M
”÷÷÷
*
=
M
”÷÷÷
Image bar located with "top" end-capat
z
=-
h
.
ˆ
MMz
=
µ
=∞
0
µ
zh
-
h
ϖ
ˆ
n
A
*
M
++++++++
- - - - - - -
z
ϖ
h
-
h
The field due to the image can be calculated from its magnetic scalar potential 5.99, but this is hard for a bar of arbitrary cross-section. Instead we look at things from the effective magnetic charge density point of view. For
M
”÷÷÷
=
M z
`=
constant there is only the effective surface charge
s
M
=
H
≤
z
`
L
ÿ
M
”÷÷÷
=≤
M
where the upper sign is forthe upper end-cap and the lower for the lower end-cap. Since the bar is very long we will neglect the effect of theupper end-cap. Similarly there are effective surface charges
s
M
*
=
H
≤
z
`
L
ÿ
M
”÷÷÷
*
=≤
M
for the image bar, and we willignore the
lower
end-cap of this. In summary we have two surfaces with equal and opposite constant chargedensity as shown in the second diagram.Because the material is infinitely permeable, the
H
”÷÷÷
-field must be perpendicular to the
z
=
0 boundary. Now this isanalogous to the electrostatic problem (with
E
”÷÷
Ø
H
”÷÷÷
and 1
ê
e
0
Øm
0
) of a charge distribution above an infiniteconducting plane and a corresponding image charge distribution below. As discussed in problem 2.9 of homework set 3 the force on a small patch of the image charge (which has normal
z
`
) is
F
”÷÷
=
1
ÅÅÅÅÅ
2
I
E
”÷÷
>
+
E
”÷÷
<
M
s
a
=
H
s
2
ê
2
e
0
L
z
`
a
for a conductor, and so by analogy
F
”÷÷
*
=
H
m
0
s
M
*
2
ê
2
L
z
`
a
for themagnetic case. The force on the magnetic charge must be equal and opposite, so
F
”÷÷
=-
®
S
F
”÷÷
*
=-
®
S
a
m
0
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
2
s
M
*
2
z
`=- m
0
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
2
M
2
z
`
®
S
a
=- m
0
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
2
M
2
A
z
`
1
Problem 5.30
(a)Let
S
denote the cylinder surface, then
J
”÷H
x
”
£
L
=
K
H
f
L
d
H
v-
R
L
z
`
,
K
H
f
L
=
I
cos
fÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
2
R A
”÷÷H
x
”L
= m
0
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
4
p
‡
3
x
£
J
”÷H
x
”
£
L
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
†
x
”
-
x
”
£
§
= m
0
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
4
p
z
`
‡
S
2
x
£
I
cos
f
£
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
2
R
†
x
”
-
x
”
£
§
,
x
”
£
=
R
cos
f
£
x
`+
R
sin
f
£
y
`+
z
£
z
`
Expand using 3.149 where
v
<
(
v
>
) is the smaller (larger) of
v
and
R
:1
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
†
x
”
-
x
”
£
§
=
4
ÅÅÅÅÅÅp
‡
0
¶
k
cos
@
k
H
z
-
z
£
LD
ikjjjjjj
1
ÅÅÅÅÅ
2
I
0
H
k
v
<
L
K
0
H
k
v
>
L
+
‚
m
=
1
¶
cos
@
m
H
f-f
£
LD
I
m
H
k
v
<
L
K
m
H
k
v
>
Ly{zzzzzz
The
A
”÷÷
integral picks out the
m
=
1 term by orthogonality of cosines in the range 0
§f
£
§
2
p
. Usingcos
H
f-f
£
L
=
cos
f
cos
f
£
+
sin
f
sin
f
£
and the orthogonality of sines and cosines, the
f
£
integral is
Ÿ
02
p
f
£
cos
f
£
cos
H
f-f
£
L
=
cos
f
Ÿ
02
p
f
£
cos
2
f
£
=p
cos
f
:
A
”÷÷H
x
”L
= m
0
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
4
p
z
`
‡
02
p
R
f
£
‡
-¶¶
z
£
I
cos
f
£
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
2
R
4
ÅÅÅÅÅÅp
‡
0
¶
k
cos
@
k
H
z
-
z
£
LD
cos
H
f-f
£
L
I
1
H
k
v
<
L
K
1
H
k
v
>
L
= m
0
I
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
2
p
z
`
cos
f
‡
-¶¶
z
£
‡
0
¶
k
cos
@
k
H
z
-
z
£
LD
I
1
H
k
v
<
L
K
1
H
k
v
>
L
From the
d
-function representation 2
pd
H
k
L
=
Ÿ
-¶¶
z
£
‰
-Â
k z
£
we have
Ÿ
-¶¶
z
£
cos
@
k
H
z
-
z
£
LD
=
Re
I
‰
Â
k z
Ÿ
-¶¶
z
£
‰
-Â
k z
£
M
=
Re
@
‰
Â
k z
2
pd
H
k
LD
:
A
”÷÷H
x
”L
=m
0
I
z
`
cos
f
‡
0
¶
k
Re
A
‰
Â
k z
d
H
k
L
I
1
H
k
v
<
L
K
1
H
k
v
>
LE
Applying the asymptotic form 3.102 (since the arguments of
I
1
and
K
1
approach 0 due to the
d
-function):
A
”÷÷H
x
”L
=m
0
I
z
`
cos
f
‡
0
¶
k
Re
ÄÇÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
‰
Â
k z
d
H
k
L
1
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅG
H
2
L
ikjj
k
v
<
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
2
y{zz
G
H
1
L
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
2
ikjjj
2
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
k
v
>
y{zzzÉÖÑÑÑÑÑÑÑÑ
=
1
ÅÅÅÅÅ
2
m
0
I
z
`
cos
f
‡
0
¶
k
Re
ÄÇÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
d
H
k
L
v
<
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅv
>
ÉÖÑÑÑÑÑÑÑÑ
=
1
ÅÅÅÅÅ
4
m
0
I
z
`
cos
f
Re
ÄÇÅÅÅÅÅÅÅŇ
-¶¶
k
d
H
k
L
v
<
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅv
>
ÉÖÑÑÑÑÑÑÑÑ
=
1
ÅÅÅÅÅ
4
m
0
I
cos
fv
<
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅv
>
z
`
It was necessary to double the range of so that we can properly integrate the
d
-function. Recall that
v
<
ê
v
>
=v
ê
R
for
v§
R
and
v
<
ê
v
>
=
R
ê
v
for
v¥
R
. The nonzero terms in the curl are:
2
B
”÷÷
=“
”÷÷
ä
A
”÷÷
=v`
1
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅv ∑
A
z
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ∑f-f` ∑
A
z
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ∑v=
1
ÅÅÅÅÅ
4
m
0
I
ikjjjjjjjjjjjjj
-v`
1
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅv
sin
fv
<
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅv
>
-f`
cos
f
loooooomnoooooo
1
ÅÅÅÅÅÅ
R
,
v§
R
-
R
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅv
2
,
v¥
R
|oooooo}~ooooooy{zzzzzzzzzzzzz
=-
1
ÅÅÅÅÅ
4
m
0
I
loooooomnoooooo
v`
sin
fÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
R
+f`
cos
fÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
R
=
1
ÅÅÅÅÅÅ
R
y
`
,
v§
R R
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅv
2
I
v`
sin
f-f`
cos
f
M
,
v¥
R
From
y
`=
sin
f v`+
cos
f f`
we see by crossing
v`
into it that the vector potential outside the cylinder is:
A
”÷÷
>
=
1
ÅÅÅÅÅ
4
m
0
I R
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅv
cos
f
z
`=
1
ÅÅÅÅÅ
4
m
0
I R
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅvv`ä
y
`= m
0
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
4
p
H
-
I R
y
`
L
äv
”÷÷÷
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
v
2
Comparing this to the 2D version of 5.55,
H
m
0
ê
4
p
L
m
”÷÷
äv
”÷÷÷ê
v
2
, we see that this is indeed a 2D dipole with dipolemoment
-
I R
y
`
.(b)Since we're in free space, 5.148 gives for a cylinder of length
:
W
=
1
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
2
m
0
‡
v§
R
3
x
B
”÷÷
2
+
1
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
2
m
0
‡
v¥
R
3
x
B
”÷÷
2
=
1
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
2
m
0
‡
v§
R
3
x
J
- m
0
I
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
4
R
N
2
+
1
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
2
m
0
‡
v¥
R
3
x
J
- m
0
I
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
4
R
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅv
2
N
2
I
sin
2
f+
cos
2
f
M
= m
0
I
2
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
32
R
2
‡
v§
R
3
x
+ m
0
I
2
R
2
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
32
‡
02
p
v
f
‡
0
z
‡
R
¶
v
1
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅv
4
= m
0
I
2
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
32
R
2
p
R
2
+ m
0
I
2
R
2
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
32
2
p
ÄÇÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
-
1
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
2
v
2
ÉÖÑÑÑÑÑÑÑÑ
R
¶
= m
0
p
I
2
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
32
+ m
0
p
I
2
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
32We see that this is equally distributed between inside and outside the cylinder, and that th energy per unit length is
W
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
= m
0
p
I
2
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
16(c)Since we have only one circuit
W
=
L I
2
ê
2. Comparing to the above we read off
L
ê
=pm
0
ê
8.
Problem 5.33
(a)Following the arrows on the diagram we see that
x
”
12
=-
x
”
2
+
R
”÷÷
+
x
”
1
, so
3
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