PRACTICE TEST QUESTIONS

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Q&A Random -3

Question Number 1 of 40
The nurse practicing in a maternity setting recognizes that the post
mature fetus is at risk due to

A) Excessive fetal weight

B) Low blood sugar levels
C) Depletion of subcutaneous fat
D) Progressive placental insufficiency
Your response was "A".

The correct answer is D: Progressive placental insufficiency

The placenta functions less efficiently as pregnancy continues beyond

42 weeks. Immediate and long term effects may be related to hypoxia

Question Number 2 of 40
Which individual is at greatest risk for developing hypertension?

A) 45 year-old African American attorney

B) 60 year-old Asian American shop owner
C) 40 year-old Caucasian nurse
D) 55 year-old Hispanic teacher
Your response was "A".

The correct answer is A: 45 year-old African American attorney

The incidence of hypertension is greater among African Americans

than other groups in the US. The incidence among the Hispanic
population is rising.

Question Number 3 of 40
At a community health fair the blood pressure of a 62 year-old client is
160/96. The client states “My blood pressure is usually much lower.”
The nurse should tell the client to

A) go get a blood pressure check within the next 48 to 72 hours

B) check blood pressure again in 2 months
 C) see the health care provider immediately
D) visit the health care provider within 1 week for a BP check
Your response was "A".

The correct answer is A: go get a blood pressure check within the next
48 to 72 hours

The blood pressure reading is moderately high with the need to have it
rechecked in a few days. The client states it is ‘usually much lower.’
Thus a concern exists for complications such as stroke. However
immediate check by the provider of care is not warranted. Waiting 2
months or a week for follow-up is too long.

Question Number 4 of 40
During an assessment of a client with cardiomyopathy, the nurse finds
that the systolic blood pressure has decreased from 145 to 110 mm Hg
and the heart rate has risen from 72 to 96 beats per minute and the
client complains of periodic dizzy spells. The nurse instructs the client
to

A) Increase fluids that are high in protein

B) Restrict fluids
C) Force fluids and reassess blood pressure
D) Limit fluids to non-caffeine beverages
Your response was "A".

The correct answer is C: Force fluids and reassess blood pressure

Postural hypotension, a decrease in systolic blood pressure of more

than 15 mm Hg and an increase in heart rate of more than 15 percent
usually accompanied by dizziness indicates volume depletion,
inadequate vasoconstrictor mechanisms, and autonomic insufficiency.

Question Number 5 of 40
A client has been taking furosemide (Lasix) for the past week. The
nurse recognizes which finding may indicate the client is experiencing
a negative side effect from the medication?

A) Weight gain of 5 pounds

B) Edema of the ankles
C) Gastric irritability
D) Decreased appetite
Your response was "A".

The correct answer is D: Decreased appetite

Lasix causes a loss of potassium if a supplement is not taken. Signs

and symptoms of hypokalemia include anorexia, fatigue, nausea,
decreased GI motility, muscle weakness, dysrhythmias.

Question Number 6 of 40
The nurse anticipates that for a family who practices Chinese medicine
the priority goal would be to

A) Achieve harmony
B) Maintain a balance of energy
C) Respect life
D) Restore yin and yang
Your response was "A".

The correct answer is D: Restore yin and yang

For followers of Chinese medicine, health is maintained through

balance between the forces of yin and yang

Question Number 7 of 40
A child who has recently been diagnosed with cystic fibrosis is in a
pediatric clinic where a nurse is performing an assessment. Which later
finding of this disease would the nurse not expect to see at this time?

A) Positive sweat test

B) Bulky greasy stools
C) Moist, productive cough
D) Meconium ileus
Your response was "A".

The correct answer is C: Moist Productive cough

Option c is a later sign. Noisy respirations and a dry non-productive

cough are commonly the first of the respiratory signs to appear in a
newly diagnosed client with cystic fibrosis (CF). The other options are
the earliest findings. CF is an inherited (genetic) condition affecting the
cells that produce mucus, sweat, saliva and digestive juices. Normally,
these secretions are thin and slippery, but in CF, a defective gene
causes the secretions to become thick and sticky. Instead of acting as
a lubricant, the secretions plug up tubes, ducts and passageways,
especially in the pancreas and lungs. Respiratory failure is the most
dangerous consequence of CF.

Question Number 8 of 40
During the evaluation of the quality of home care for a client with
Alzheimer's disease, the priority for the nurse is to reinforce which
statement by a family member?

A) At least 2 full meals a day is eaten.

We go to a group discussion every week at our community
B)
center.
We have safety bars installed in the bathroom and have 24 hour
C)
alarms on the doors.
D) The medication is not a problem to have it taken 3 times a day.
Your response was "A".

The correct answer is C: We have safety bars installed in the bathroom

and have 24 hour alarms on the doors.

Ensuring safety of the client with increasing memory loss is a priority

of home care. Note all options are correct statements. However, safety
is most important to reinforce.

Question Number 9 of 40
The nurse is speaking at a community meeting about personal
responsibility for health promotion. A participant asks about
chiropractic treatment for illnesses. What should be the focus of the
nurse’s response?

A) Electrical energy fields

B) Spinal column manipulation
C) Mind-body balance
D) Exercise of joints
Your response was "A".

The correct answer is B: Spinal column manipulation

The theory underlying chiropractic is that interference with

transmission of mental impulses between the brain and body organs
produces diseases. Such interference is caused by misalignment of the
vertebrae. Manipulation reduces the subluxation.

Question Number 10 of 40
The nurse is performing a neurological assessment on a client post
right CVA. Which finding, if observed by the nurse, would warrant
immediate attention?

A) Decrease in level of consciousness

B) Loss of bladder control
C) Altered sensation to stimuli
D) Emotional lability
Your response was "A".

The correct answer is A: Decrease in level of consciousness

A further decrease in the level of consciousness would be indicative of

a further progression of the CVA.

Question Number 11 of 40
The home health nurse visits a male client to provide wound care and
finds the client lethargic and confused. His wife states he fell down the
stairs 2 hours ago. The nurse should

A) Place a call to the client's health care provider for instructions

B) Send him to the emergency room for evaluation
C) Reassure the client's wife that the symptoms are transient
Instruct the client's wife to call the doctor if his symptoms
D)
become worse
Your response was "A".

The correct answer is B: Send him to the emergency room for

evaluation

This client requires immediate evaluation. A delay in treatment could

result in further deterioration and harm. Home care nurses must
prioritize interventions based on assessment findings that are in the
client''s best interest.

Question Number 12 of 40
A 3 year-old child comes to the pediatric clinic after the sudden onset
of findings that include irritability, thick muffled voice, croaking on
inspiration, hot to touch, sit leaning forward, tongue protruding,
drooling and suprasternal retractions. What should the nurse do first?

A) Prepare the child for x-ray of upper airways

B) Examine the child's throat
 C) Collect a sputum specimen
D) Notify the healthcare provider of the child's status
Your response was "A".

The correct answer is D: Notify the health care provider of the child''s
status

These findings suggest a medical emergency and may be due to

epiglottises. Any child with an acute onset of an inflammatory
response in the mouth and throat should receive immediate attention
in a facility equipped to perform intubation or a tracheostomy in the
event of further or complete obstruction.

Question Number 13 of 40
A client with multiple sclerosis plans to begin an exercise program. In
addition to discussing the benefits of regular exercise, the nurse
should caution the client to avoid activities which

A) Increase the heart rate

B) Lead to dehydration
C) Are considered aerobic
D) May be competitive
Your response was "A".

The correct answer is B: Lead to dehydration

The client must take in adequate fluids before and during exercise
periods.

Question Number 14 of 40
A nurse enters a client's room to discover that the client has no pulse
or respirations. After calling for help, the first action the nurse should
take is

A) Start a peripheral IV
B) Initiate closed-chest massage
C) Establish an airway
D) Obtain the crash cart
Your response was "A".

The correct answer is C: Establish an airway

Establishing an airway is always the primary objective in a
cardiopulmonary arrest.

Question Number 15 of 40
When teaching a client with coronary artery disease about nutrition,
the nurse should emphasize

A) Eating 3 balanced meals a day

B) Adding complex carbohydrates
C) Avoiding very heavy meals
D) Limiting sodium to 7 gms per day
Your response was "A".

The correct answer is C: Avoiding very heavy meals

Eating large, heavy meals can pull blood away from the heart for
digestion and is dangerous for the client with coronary artery disease.

Question Number 16 of 40
While planning care for a toddler, the nurse teaches the parents about
the expected developmental changes for this age. Which statement by
the mother shows that she understands the child's developmental
needs?

A) "I want to protect my child from any falls."

B) "I will set limits on exploring the house."
C) "I understand the need to use those new skills."
D) "I intend to keep control over our child."
Your response was "A".

The correct answer is C: "I understand the need to use those new
skills."

Erikson describes the stage of the toddler as being the time when
there is normally an increase in autonomy. The child needs to use
motor skills to explore the environment.

Question Number 17 of 40
Which complication of cardiac catheterization should the nurse monitor
for in the initial 24 hours after the procedure?
 A) angina at rest
B) thrombus formation
C) dizziness
D) falling blood pressure
Your response was "A".

The correct answer is B: thrombus formation

Thrombus formation in the coronary arteries is a potential problem in

the initial 24 hours after a cardiac catheterization. A falling BP occurs
along with hemorrhage of the insertion site which is associated with
the first 12 hours after the procedure.

Question Number 18 of 40
The nurse is caring for a client who had a total hip replacement 4 days
ago. Which assessment requires the nurse’s immediate attention?

I have bad muscle spasms in my lower leg of the affected

A)
extremity.
"I just can't 'catch my breath' over the past few minutes and I
B)
think I am in grave danger."
"I have to use the bedpan to pass my water at least every 1 to
C)
2 hours."
"It seems that the pain medication is not working as well
D)
today."
Your response was "A".

The correct answer is B: "I just can''t ''catch my breath'' over the past
few minutes and I think I am in grave danger."

The nurse would be concerned about all of these comments. However

the most life threatening is option B. Clients who have had hip or knee
surgery are at greatest risk for development of post operative
pulmonary embolism. Sudden dyspnea and tachycardia are classic
findings of pulmonary embolism. Muscle spasms do not require
immediate attention. Option C may indicate a urinary tract infection.
And option D requires further investigation and is not life threatening.

Question Number 19 of 40
In children suspected to have a diagnosis of diabetes, which one of the
following complaints would be most likely to prompt parents to take
their school age child for evaluation?

A) Polyphagia
 B) Dehydration
C) Bed wetting
D) Weight loss
Your response was "A".

The correct answer is C: Bed wetting

In children, fatigue and bed wetting are the chief complaints that
prompt parents to take their child for evaluation. Bed wetting in a
school age child is readily detected by the parents.

Question Number 20 of 40
The nurse is giving discharge teaching to a client 7 days post
myocardial infarction. He asks the nurse why he must wait 6 weeks
before having sexual intercourse. What is the best response by the
nurse to this question?

"You need to regain your strength before attempting such

A)
exertion."
"When you can climb 2 flights of stairs without problems, it is
B)
generally safe."
"Have a glass of wine to relax you, then you can try to have
C)
sex."
"If you can maintain an active walking program, you will have
D)
less risk."
Your response was "A".

The correct answer is B: "When you can climb 2 flights of stairs

without problems, it is generally safe."

There is a risk of cardiac rupture at the point of the myocardial

infarction for about 6 weeks. Scar tissue should form about that time.
Waiting until the client can tolerate climbing stairs is the usual advice
given by health care providers.

Question Number 21 of 40
A child who ingested 15 maximum strength acetaminophen tablets 45
minutes ago is seen in the emergency department. Which of these
orders should the nurse do first?

A) Gastric lavage PRN

 B) Acetylcysteine (mucomyst) for age per pharmacy
Start an IV Dextrose 5% with 0.33% normal saline to keep vein
C)
open
D) Activated charcoal per pharmacy
Your response was "A".

The correct answer is A: Gastric lavage PRN

Removing as much of the drug as possible is the first step in treatment

for this drug overdose. This is best done by gastric lavage. The next
drug to give would be activated charcoal, then mucomyst and lastly
the IV fluids

Question Number 22 of 40
Which of these statements best describes the characteristic of an
effective reward-feedback system?

A) Specific feedback is given as close to the event as possible

B) Staff are given feedback in equal amounts over time
C) Positive statements are to precede a negative statement
D) Performance goals should be higher than what is attainable
Your response was "A".

The correct answer is A: Specific feedback is given as close to the

event as possible

Feedback is most useful when given immediately. Positive behavior is

strengthened through immediate feedback, and it is easier to modify
problem behaviors if the standards are clearly understood.

Question Number 23 of 40
A triage nurse has these 4 clients arrive in the emergency department
within 15 minutes. Which client should the triage nurse send back to
be seen first?

A 2 month old infant with a history of rolling off the bed and has
A)
buldging fontanels with crying
 B) A teenager who got a singed beard while camping
An elderly client with complaints of frequent liquid brown
C)
colored stools
A middle aged client with intermittent pain behind the right
D)
scapula
Your response was "A".

The correct answer is B: A teenager who got singed a singed beard

while camping

This client is in the greatest danger with a potential of respiratory

distress, Any client with singed facial hair has been exposed to heat or
fire in close range that could have caused damage to the interior of the
lung. Note that the interior lining of the lung has no nerve fibers so the
client will not be aware of swelling.

Question Number 24 of 40
What would the nurse expect to see while assessing the growth of
children during their school age years?

A) Decreasing amounts of body fat and muscle mass

B) Little change in body appearance from year to year
C) Progressive height increase of 4 inches each year
D) Yearly weight gain of about 5.5 pounds per year
Your response was "A".

The correct answer is D: Yearly weight gain of about 5.5 pounds per
year

School age children gain about 5.5 pounds each year and increase
about 2 inches in height.

Question Number 25 of 40
Which of the following should the nurse implement to prepare a client
for a KUB (Kidney, Ureter, Bladder) radiograph test?

A) Client must be NPO before the examination

B) Enema to be administered prior to the examination
Medicate client with Lasix 20 mg IV 30 minutes prior to the
C)
examination
D) No special orders are necessary for this examination
Your response was "A".
The correct answer is D: No special orders are necessary for this
examination

No special preparation is necessary for this examination

Question Number 26 of 40
A nurse is to administer meperidine hydrochloride (Demerol) 100 mg,
atropine sulfate (Atropisol) 0.4 mg, and promethizine hydrochloride
(Phenergan) 50 mg IM to a pre-operative client. Which action should
the nurse take first?

A) Raise the side rails on the bed

B) Place the call bell within reach
C) Instruct the client to remain in bed
D) Have the client empty bladder
Your response was "A".

The correct answer is D: Have the client empty bladder

The first step in the process is to have the client void prior to
administering the pre-operative medication. The other actions follow
this initial step in this sequence: 4 3 1 2

Question Number 27 of 40
A client is admitted to the emergency room with renal calculi and is
complaining of moderate to severe flank pain and nausea. The client’s
temperature is 100.8 degrees Fahrenheit. The priority nursing goal
for this client is

A) Maintain fluid and electrolyte balance

B) Control nausea
C) Manage pain
D) Prevent urinary tract infection
Your response was "A".

The correct answer is C: Manage pain The immediate goal of therapy is

to alleviate the client’s pain

Number 28 of 40
A nurse prepares to care for a 4 year-old newly admitted for
rhabdomyosarcoma. The nurse should alert the staff to pay more
attention to the function of which area of the body?

A) The muscles
 B) The cerebellum
C) The kidneys
D) The leg bones
Your response was "A".

The correct answer is A: All striated muscles

Rhabdomyosarcoma is the most common children''s soft tissue

sarcoma. It originates in striated (skeletal) muscles and can be found
anywhere in the body. The clue is in the middle of the word and is
“myo” which typically means muscle.

Question Number 39 of 40
A client who is pregnant comes to the clinic for a first visit. The nurse
gathers data about her obstetric history, which includes 3 year-old
twins at home and a miscarriage 10 years ago at 12 weeks gestation.
How would the nurse accurately document this information?

A) Gravida 4 para 2
B) Gravida 2 para 1
C) Gravida 3 para 1
D) Gravida 3 para 2
Your response was "A". The correct answer is C: Gravida 3 para 1

Gravida is the number of pregnancies and Parity is the number of

pregnancies that reach viability (not the number of fetuses). Thus, for
this woman, she is now pregnant, had 2 prior pregnancies, and 1
viable birth (twins).

Question Number 40 of 40
A client is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) 0.25 mg. Daily. The health care
provider has written a new order to give metoprolol (Lopressor) 25
mg. B.I.D. In assessing the client prior to administering the
medications, which of the following should the nurse report
immediately to the health care provider?

A) Blood pressure 94/60

B) Heart rate 76
C) Urine output 50 ml/hour
D) Respiratory rate 16
Your response was "A".

The correct answer is A: Blood pressure 94/60

Both medications decrease the heart rate. Metoprolol affects blood
pressure. Therefore, the heart rate and blood pressure must be within
normal range (HR 60-100; systolic B/P over 100) in order to safely
administer both medications.