Indira Gandhi National Open University

School of Management Studies

MANAGEMENT
PROGRAMME

Previous OPENMAT Entrance

Test Papers
Print Production
Mr. A.S. Chhatwal Mr. Tilak Raj Ms. Sumathy
Asstt. Registrar (Publication), Sr. Scale Section Officer (Publication) Proof Reader
SOMS, IGNOU, New Delhi SOMS, IGNOU, New Delhi SOMS, IGNOU, New Delhi
April, 2003
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without permission in writing from the Indira Gandhi National Open University.
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 CONTENTS

Page Nos.

● Openmat (viii) Entrance Test ............................................................................................ 9

● Openmat (ix) Entrance Test ............................................................................................ 24

● Openmat (x) Entrance Test ............................................................................................. 40

● Openmat (xi) Entrance Test ............................................................................................ 55

● Openmat (xii) Entrance Test ........................................................................................... 69

 INFORMATION HANDOUT FOR ENTRANCE EXAMINATION
Dear Candidate,
This booklet contains the Previous Openmat question paper and other related information for OPENMAT Test for
admission to Management Programme of this University. You will be given a test booklet containing 200 objective type
multiple choice questions and a specifically designed OMR response sheet in the Examination hall. You will notice
from the sample test paper that it is different from the usual School/College examinations. It is, therefore, necessary for
you to know in advance about the type of questions and the way in which you are required to answer them. This handout
will help you in this respect.

The type of tests which will be used in this OPENMAT (ENTRANCE TEST) are given below:

Test No. of Questions Marks Time

Test I General Awareness 30 30 Composite
Test II English Language 50 50 Time of
Test III Quantitative Aptitude 50 50 Three hours
Test IV Reasoning 70 70

All the above four tests will be given in a composite test booklet which will be printed in English. You will be given
composite time of three hours to answer 200 questions. You may attempt the test in any order you like. Since the
questions in the test Booklet are objective type, answers are not required to be written in words or sentences. For each
question, there are four answer choices suggested and only one of them is right. You have to select the right answer from
amongst the given answers. In case you find that none of the four alternatives is correct, you have to mark ‘O’.

HOW TO FILL UP THE INFORMATION ON THE

EXAMINATION ANSWER SHEET

At the end of this handout a sample answer sheet is given. You may fill up your own information in this answer sheet so
that you may correctly fill up the actual OMR examination answer sheet in the examination hall. While filling up the
OMR examination answer sheet, you should follow the following guidelines:

1. Write your complete Enrolment No. in 9 digits. This should correspond to the enrolment number indicated as on
your Hall Ticket. Also write your correct name address with pin code in the space provided in ink. Put your
signatures on the response sheet with date in ink. Ensure that the Invigilator in your examination hall also puts his
signatures with date on the OMR response sheet at the space provided. You should use only HB pencil to mark the
answers of the questions on the OMR Response Sheet.

2. Do not make any stray marks on the response sheet.

3. Write correct information in numerical digit in Enrolment No. and Exam. Centre Code columns. The correspond-
ing rectangle should be dark enough and should be filled in completely. For example, suppose your enrolment
number is 145786159. Examination Centre Code is 0101. This information in indicated in sample answer sheet.

4. Each question is followed by four probable answers which are numbered 1,2,3 & 4. You should select and show
only one answer to each question considered by you as the most appropriate or the correct answer. Select the most
appropriate answer. Then by using HB pencil, blacken the rectangle bearing the correct answer number against
the serial number of the question. If you find that answer to any question is none of the four alternatives given
under the question you should darken the rectangle ‘O’.

5. If you wish to change your answer, ERASE completely the already darkened rectangle by using a good quality
eraser and then blacken the rectangle bearing your revised answer number. If incorrect answer is not erased
completely, smudges will be left on the erased rectangle and the question will be read as having two answers by
the Optical Mark Reader (OMR) and will be ignored for giving any credit.
6. No credit will be given if more than one answer is given for one question. Therefore, you should select most
appropriate answers.

5
7. You should not spend too much time on any one question. If you find any particular question difficult, leave it and
go to the next. If you have time left after answering all the questions, you may go back to the unanswered ones.

8. There is no negative marking for wrong answers.

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

1. No calculators, books, slide-rules, foot-rulers, note-books or written notes, etc. will be allowed inside the Exami-
nation Hall.

2. You should follow the instructions given by Centre Superintendent and by Invigilators at the examination venue.
If you violate the instructions you will be disqualified.

3. Any candidate found copying or receiving or giving assistance in the examination will be disqualified.

4. The test booklet and the OMR response sheet would be supplied to you by the Invigilator. After the exam is over
you should hand over the Test Booklet and the OMR Response Sheet to the Invigilator before leaving the
examination hall . Any candidate who does not return the question booklet and the OMR Response Sheet will be
disqualified and the University may take further action against him/her.

5. Candidates arriving late will not be permitted to enter the examination hall. The reporting time is 9.15 A.M.
The examination will start at 10.00 A.M. and will be over at 1.00 p.m.

6. All rough work is to be done on the test booklet itself and not on any other paper, Scrap paper is not permitted. For
arriving at answers you may work in the margins, make some markings or underline in the test booklet itself.

7. University reserves the right to cancel score of any candidate who impersonates or uses malpractices. The exami-
nation is conducted under uniform conditions. The University would also follow a procedure to verify the validity
of scores of all examinees uniformly. If there is substantial indication that your performance is not genuine,
University may cancel your score.

8. Candidates should bring their hall tickets duly affixed with their latest photograph to appear in the test.
The photograph should be attested by a Gazetted Officer, failing which you will not be allowed to take
examination. The hall ticket should be got signed by the Invigilator. In the Event of your qualifying in the
OPENMAT Test, this hall ticket should be enclosed with your admission form while submitting it to your
Regional Centre for seeking admission in Management Programme along with your testimonials and
programme fee. Admission forms received at the Regional Centre without hall ticket in original will be
summarily rejected.

(No duplicate Hall ticket will be issued after the Entrance Test)

DECLARATION OF RESULT AND RESULT CARD

The University will send you Result Card by post indicating your qualifying/non-qualifying status in the examination. Those
who have ‘qualifying’ status may apply for admission. The procedure for submission of admission form, is given on page 4 of
Student Handbook and Prospectus. The results will also be available with IGNOU Regional Cenres in third week of
September/third week of March for OPENMAT (Entrance Test) held in August and February respectively. You may
inquire about your qualifying status from the Office of the Regional Director, IGNOU of your Region.

Relaxed qualifying standards would be applied to SC/ST and female candidates. In case, you have not indicated the category
(SC/ST) you belong to, you will be considered as a general candidate. Similarly, if there is no indication regarding male/
female, no relaxation in qualifying standard if any will be admissible. You will be responsible for the accuracy of indications
made by you in the OPENMAT test form and no review will be possible.

Result Cards would be despatched from SR&E Division, IGNOU, Maidan Garhi, New Delhi-110068 to all the candidates,
who appear for the examination. In case you are ‘Qualifying’ but do not receive your Result Card, you may approach the
Regional Director, IGNOU of your Region.

6
 bfUnjk xka/kh jk"Vªh; eqDr fo'ofo|ky; Indira Gandhi National Open University
OMR RESPONSE SHEET
vks-,e-vkj- ijh{kk mÙkj i`"B

B SHEET NUMBER

fuEufyf[kr fooj.k dsoy L;kgh ls Hkjsa Fill up the following particulars with ink only
Course Particulars / ikB;Øe fooj.k
ijh{kk i=k Hkjus ls igys d`i;k fuEufyf[kr funsZ'kksa dks vo'; i<+ ysaA
Programme / dk;Z Øe ---------------------------------------------------------------------
iz'uksÙkj fpUg bl izdkj cuk;sa u fd [´] [✓] [ \] [ ●]
Course Name / ikB;Øe uke --------------------------------------------------------
Student’s Particulars / fo|kFkhZ fooj.k Plaese read relevant instructions given below care-
Enrolment No. / vuq Øekad la[;k --------------------------------------------------- fully before completing this form.
Name / uke -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- Make like Not like [´] [✓] [ \] [ ●]
Address / irk ---------------------------------------------------------------------------------- Candidate’s Signature / fo|kFkhZ ds gLrk{kj ----------------------------
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Signature of Invigilator / vuqoh{kd ds gLrk{kj ------------------------
City / 'kgj -----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Pin Coe / fiu dksM -------------------------------------------------------------------------- Date / fnukad ------------------------------------

fpfUgr djus ds fy, funsZ'k INSTRUCTIONS FOR MARKING

1- mÙkj i`"B dks Hkjrs le; dsoy ,p-ch- iSfUly dk iz;ksx djsaA 1. Use only H.B. Pencil for marking responses.
2- mÙkj i`"B dks eksM+uk@QkM+uk ugha pkfg,A 2. Do not mutilate / tear this response sheet.
3- dsoy fu/kkZfjr dkye esa gh mÙkj fpfUgr djsaA ;fn dksbZ xyr dkye
3. Mark your answer in proper column. Erase clearly and
fpfUgr gks x;k gks rks jcM+ ls vPNh rjg feVkdj lgh dkye dks
completely to change any wrong marking, if any.
HkjsaA
4. Use correct course Code (Entrance Test Candidates
4- ikB~;Øe dk lgh dksM iz;ksx djsaA ¼izos'k ijh{kk ijh{kkfFkZ;ksa ds fy, need not fill up Course Code).
ikB~;Øe dksM Hkjus dh vko';drk ugha gS½A
5. Course Codes are given below.
5- ikB~;Øe dksM bl izdkj gSA
Course Code PMT PSS PCO CIC1 CIC2 CIC3 CIC4 CIC5
Computer Code 1111 1112 1113 2221 2222 2223 2224 2225
6- izos'k ijh{kkfFkZ;ksa ds fy, dk;ZØe dksM bl izdkj gSA 6. Programme Codes for Entrance Test Candidates are given below.
Programme Code OPENMAT B.ED. BIT ADIT
Computer Code 555 666 777 888
7- izR;sd iz'u ds pkj fodYi fn;s x;s gSa vkSj muesa ls ,d mÙkj fodYi 7. Four choices are given for a question, out of which one
lgh gS ftls vki mi;qDr dkye esa fpfUgr djsa vkSj dkys fd;s x;s option is correct. Mark the correct answer in the relevant
coulmn and also write your answer choice in numeral in
[kkus dh la[;k dks Åij cus dkye esa fy[ksaA ;fn vki le>rs gSa fd
the rectangle above. If you find that none of the options
fn, x;s iz'u esa dksbZ Hkh fodYi lgh ugha gS rks mldk mÙkj ‘ ^^0** given in a question is correct mark in column “0”.
dkye esa fpfUgr djsaA
8. Please follow the examples given below to mark your
8- viuk vuqØekad] dk;ZØe dksM ¼dsoy izos'k ijh{kkfFkZ;ksa ds fy;s½] Enrolment Number, Programme Code (For Entrance
ijh{kk dsUnz dksM] ikB~;Øe dksM] ekg ,oa o"kZ fpfUgr djus ds fy, Test Candidates only), Exam. Centre Code, Course
fuEufyf[kr mnkgj.k dk vuqdj.k djsaA Code, Month and Year.

Enrolment Numbr Examination Programme Month Year

Course Code
Centre Code Code
vuqØekad ikB~;Øe dksM ijh{kk dsUnz dksM ikB~;Øe dksM ekg o"kZ

1 4 5 7 8 6 1 5 9 1 1 1 2 1 2 4 6 5 5 5 0 3 2 0 0 0
[0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0]
[1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1]
[2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [1] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2]
[3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3]
[4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4]
[5] [5] [5] [5] [5] [5] [5] [5] [5] [5] [5] [5] [5] [5] [5] [5] [5] [5] [5] [5] [5]
[6] [6] [6] [6] [6] [6] [6] [6] [6] [6] [6] [6] [6] [6] [6] [6] [6] [6] [6] [6] [6] [6] [6] [6]
[7] [7] [7] [7] [7] [7] [7] [7] [7] [7] [7] [7] [7] [7] [7] [7] [7] [7] [7] [7] [7] [7] [7] [7] [7]
[8] [8] [8] [8] [8] [8] [8] [8] [8] [8] [8] [8] [8] [8] [8] [8] [8] [8] [8] [8] [8] [8] [8] [8] [8]
[9] [9] [9] [9] [9] [9] [9] [9] [9] [9] [9] [9] [9] [9] [9] [9] [9] [9] [9] [9] [9] [9] [9] [9] [9]

d`i;k tkfu;s fd mi;qZDr vad vkSj dksM dsoy mnkgj.k ds fy, gSA vki viuk fooj.k Bhd izdkj fyf[k;sA
PLEASE NOTE THAT THE NUMBERS AND CODES GIVEN IN THE RESPECTIVE FIELDS ARE ONLY EXAMPLES.
 MARK YOUR ANSWERS WITH H.B. PENCIL ONLY
A
● (For Entrance Test ●
Candidates Only)

Enrolment Numbr Examination Programme Month Year

Course Code
Centre Code Code
vuqØekad ikB~;Øe dksM ijh{kk dsUnz dksM ikB~;Øe dksM ekg o"kZ

1 4 5 7 8 6 1 5 9 1 1 1 2 1 2 4 6 5 5 5 0 3 2 0 0 0
[0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0]
[1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1]
[2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [1] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2]
[3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3]
[4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4]
[5] [5] [5] [5] [5] [5] [5] [5] [5] [5] [5] [5] [5] [5] [5] [5] [5] [5] [5] [5] [5] [5] [5] [5] [5] [5]
[6] [6] [6] [6] [6] [6] [6] [6] [6] [6] [6] [6] [6] [6] [6] [6] [6] [6] [6] [6] [6] [6] [6] [6] [6] [6]
[7] [7] [7] [7] [7] [7] [7] [7] [7] [7] [7] [7] [7] [7] [7] [7] [7] [7] [7] [7] [7] [7] [7] [7] [7] [7]
[8] [8] [8] [8] [8] [8] [8] [8] [8] [8] [8] [8] [8] [8] [8] [8] [8] [8] [8] [8] [8] [8] [8] [8] [8] [8]
[9] [9] [9] [9] [9] [9] [9] [9] [9] [9] [9] [9] [9] [9] [9] [9] [9] [9] [9] [9] [9] [9] [9] [9] [9] [9]

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35

[0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0]
[1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1]
[2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2]
[3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3]
[4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4]

36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70

[0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0]
[1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1]
[2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2]
[3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3]
[4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4]

71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105

[0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0]
[1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1]
[2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2]
[3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3]
[4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4]

106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140

[0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0]
[1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1]
[2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2]
[3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3]
[4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4]

141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175

[0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0]
[1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1]
[2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2]
[3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3]
[4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4]

176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200

[0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0] [0]
[1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1]
[2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2]
[3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3] [3]
[4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4] [4]
 OPENMAT (VIII) ENTRANCE TEST FOR
MANAGEMENT PROGRAMMES 2001

TEST I
General Awareness
1. At present the major part of which of the following 9. Which of the following countries is not a member of
Central revenues goes to various State Governments G-7 group ?
in India ? (1) Germany (2) India
(1) Gift Tax (2) Wealth Tax (3) Japan (4) Italy
(3) Excise Duties (4) Income Tax
10. Which one of the following is correctly matched ?
2. Which of the following is the correct chronological (1) Andhra Pradesh : Land-man ratio is lowest
order of rulers ? (2) West Bengal : Sex ratio is highest
(1) Mohammed Bin Tughlaq, Ghiasuddin Tughlaq, (3) Kerala : Density of population is highest
Firoz Shah Tughlaq (4) Tamil Nadu : Sex ratio is lowest
(2) Firoz Shah Tughlaq, Mohammed Bin Tughlaq,
Ghiasuddin Tughlaq 11. Diabetes mellitus affects human system following a
(3) Ghiasuddin Tughlaq, Firoz Shah Tughlaq, disorder in
Mohammed Bin Tughlaq (1) anatomy (2) behaviour
(4) Ghiasuddin Tughlaq, Mohammed Bin Tughlaq, (3) metabolism (4) excretion
Firoz Shah Tughlaq
12. Which of the following names does not match with
3. At what temperature on the Centigrade scale, does the other three ?
the Fahrenheit scale’s reading become 5 times of the (1) Amir Khusro (2) Todarmal
Centigrade reading ? (3) Abul Fazal (4) Birbal
(1) 10o C (2) 20o C
13. Which of the following books has been written by
(3) 30o C (4) 45o C Vikram Seth ?
4. Arrange the following in a chronological order : (1) Starry Nights (2) Midnight’s Children
A. Kheda Satyagraha (3) A Suitable Boy (4) Islamic Bomb
B. Dandi March 14. Kuki tribes mainly inhabit which of the following
C. Non-Cooperation Movement states ?
D. Civil Disobedience Movement (1) Nagaland (2) Manipur
(1) A, B, C, D (2) A, C, D, B
(3) Assam (4) Andhra Pradesh
(3) D, C, A, B (4) A, C, B, D
15. Which of the following states gets the benefit of
5. The first Buddhist Council was held during the reign of Idukki Power Project ?
(1) Bimbisara (2) Ajatashatru (1) Kerala (2) Orissa
(3) Ashoka (4) Kanishka
(3) Jammu & Kashmir (4) Tamil Nadu
6. Who was the founder of Jainism ?
16. The currency of Myanmar is
(1) Rishabha (2) Mahavira
(1) Taka (2) Ngultrum
(3) Arishthanemi (4) Parasavanatha
(3) Kyat (4) Dinar
7. The leguminous plants (legumes or dals) are
17. When was the Muslim League formed ?
important in agriculture because they
(1) 1904 (2) 1905
(1) need very little water to grow
(2) are disease resistant (3) 1906 (4) 1907
(3) have a short life-cycle 18. Who amongst the following is known as ‘Father of
(4) help in nitrogen economy of the plants Genetics’ ?
(1) Walter S. Sutton
8. In which of the following games did India win a Gold
Medal after 32 years in Asian Games ? (2) Thomas Hunt Morgan
(1) Basketball (2) Hockey (3) Hershey and Chase
(3) Wrestling (4) Football (4) Gregor Mendel

9
19. Delta is an alluvial deposit 26. Penguins are normally habitants of
(1) on the mountain (1) Antarctica region
(2) in the valley (2) Marshy land of the African Continent
(3) on the foot-hill (3) Siberian Forests
(4) on the mouth of a river (4) Sahara Desert
20. Seismograph is an instrument to measure 27. The famous Moorti Devi Award is given for excel-
(1) earthquake shocks (2) air pressure lence in
(3) air temperature (4) height (1) Medicine
21. The ‘Queen of the Adriatic’ is the name given to (2) Science and Technology
(1) Milan (2) Venice (3) Journalism
(3) Peshkara (4) Fogia (4) Social Service

22. The proposed state of Chhatisgarh is a major part of 28. Who amongst the following first launched Floating
Interest Rate Bonds in the capital market in India ?
(1) Bihar (2) U.P.
(1) Canara Bank
(3) Orissa (4) Madhya Pradesh
(2) Reliance Industries
23. Kofi Annan is the (3) Steel Authority of India
(1) Chairman of International Monetary Fund (4) Industrial Development Bank of India
(2) Secretary-General UNO
29. At the present rate of its population growth, India
(3) President of Angola
will overtake China in the year
(4) Noted Scientist
(1) 2010
24. The Daewoo Group of industries launched Cielo cars (2) 2060
in collaboration with which of the following indus- (3) 2030
trial houses in India ? (4) 2040
(1) Tata (2) Birla
(3) DCM (4) Bajaj 30. The Indian variety of which of the following plants
has been proved to be the greatest pollution fighter
25. Who is the author of the book, ‘I Dare’ ? in India ?
(1) Mr. K.P.S. Gill (1) Tea
(2) Ms. Kiran Bedi (2) Jute
(3) Field Marshal Sam Manekshaw (3) Mustard
(4) Mohd. Azharuddin (4) Groundnut

TEST II
English Language
Directions : For Q. No. 31 – 45. There are two reading passages given below. Each passage is followed by questions based on
its content. Choose the best answer on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage.

Passage I
Telecommunications has traditionally been viewed as a natural monopoly and a relaltively straightforward public
utility. Economies of scale, political and military sensitivities, and large externalities made telecommunications a typical
public service. In such an environment, development focussed primarily on extending basic services and secondarily on
improving the operational performance of the telecommunications operating entities.
In recent years the situation has changed dramatically. There has emerged a strong business demand for better, more
varied, and less costly communications services. This demand reflects the growing importance of communication in all eco-
nomic sectors, the convergence of information and telecommunication services, and the globalisation of capital flows, trade,
manufacturing, and other activities. Technological innovation has greatly reduced the cost of information processing and
transmission and has created new ways of meeting a wider range of user needs independent of existing telecommunications
enterprises and often at lower cost.

10
 Industrialized countries, in which these forces first emerged in full strength are responding to the profound changes in
telecommunications by revising the policy framework, structure, and regulation of the sector. These developments in turn
promote competition, increase the number of participants in the telecommunications business and blur the boundaries not
only between users and providers but also among the various types of services offered. In addition the changes expand
telecommunications markets globally and unleash powerful forces seeking new opportunites worldwide.
Where do developing countries stand in this context ?
With few exceptions, in the developing world telecommunications services are provided by the public sector. These services
yield high economic returns, benefit a broad section of the population, and are used mainly for economic production and
distribution. They can also be a profitable business and an important source of public funds. Despite the high social and private
returns, however, developing countries generally invest too little in telecommunications. As a result there is high unmet
demand for basic services, call congestion, excessive concentration in a few urban centers, and a lack of the advanced services
trhat are increasingly needed by the modern sectors of the economy. Furthermore, facilities are often badly maintained and
operated, so that service quality and reliability are poor. These problems are largely traceable to inadequate sector policies, a
shortage of funds (especially foreign exchange) for investment, and weaknesses in the operating entities’ organisation and
management.
There is evidence that the pressures on the telecommunications sector in the advanced economies are increasingly felt
in developing countries as well. Consequently, attractive opportunities to deal with the sector’s inadequacies are emerging.
Some developing coutries are considering alternatives to the traditional state monopoly that would increase the autonomy and
commercial orientation of the enterprise, attract private participation, and introduce competitive discipline. These alternatives
are expected to help raise investment levels, mobilize new sources of capital, attract entrepreneurial talent, improve enterprise
efficiency, and increase responsiveness to user demands. Such undertakings, however, raise broad policy and regulatory issues
that many developing country governments may not yet be well equipped to address.

31. In the recent past the focus of telecom services has been
(1) on its political and military sensitivities
(2) on extending basic services and improving op-
erational performance
(3) on externalities
(4) on its technological characteristics
32. The key reason for profound changes in the telecom
sector in the developed countries is
(1) the structural characteristics of the sector
(2) the growing importance of communications
(3) the change in the pattern of demand for tele-
communications
(4) the introduction of the computer
33. All of the following have directly led to an increase
in the demand for better and more varied telecom-
munication services except the
(1) globalisation of trade and capital
(2) change in the information processing equipment
(3) convergence of information and telecommuni-
cation services
(4) growing importance of communication in eco-
nomic activity
34. Technological innovation has led to the demand for
cheaper telecommunication services mainly because
(1) information processing costs have declined
(2) newer ways of meeting user needs independent
of existing telecom services have evolved
(3) cost of setting up telecom networks has declined
(4) transmission costs have fallen leading to in-
creased usage of telecommunication facilities
35. According to the passage, all of the following are
significant changes taking place in the telecom sec-
tors of industrialised countries except
(1) an increase in the number of participants and
competition
(2) a strong expansion in global telecommunica-
tions market
(3) significant changes in policy environment
(4) an increased emphasis on extending basic ser-
vices
36. All of the following are characteristics of telecom-
munication services in the developing world except
(1) high economic returns
(2) highly varied services
(3) high social returns
(4) high unmet demand
37. The main reason for problems facing telecommuni-
cation services in the developing world is
(1) high unmet demand for basic services
(2) excessive concentration in a few urban centres
(3) too little investment in telecommunications
(4) high social and private returns
38. Which of the following, according to the passage,
cannot be cited as a cause for poor operational and
service quality in telecom ?
(1) Poor management practices
(2) Lack of advanced services
(3) A shortage of foreign exchange
(4) Badly maintained practices

11
39. All the following are seen as advantages by develop- 40. According to the passage
ing countries in evolving alternative models for their (1) competitive discipline results in increased returns
telecom sector except
(2) the boundaries between users and providers are
(1) increased competition blurring
(2) increased investment (3) the telecom secrtor is an important destination for
public funds in developed countries
(3) improved operational and enterprise efficiency
(4) most developing countries have prepared them-
(4) better responsiveness to users selves to increase the autonomy and commer-
cial orientation of traditional state monopolies

Passage II
Human memory, formerly believed to be rather inefficient, is really more sophisticated than that of a computer. Re-
searchers approaching the problem from a variety of points of view have all concluded that there is a great deal more stored in
our minds than has been generally supposed. Dr. Wilder Penfield, a Canadian neurosurgeon, proved that by stimulating their
brains electrically, he could elicit the total recall of specific events in his subjects’ lives. Even dreams and other minor events
supposedly forgotten for many years suddently emerged in detail.
The memory trace is the term for whatever is the internal representation of the specific information about the event
stored in the memory. Assumed to have been made by structural changes in the braiun, the memory trace is not subject to
direct observation but is rather a theoretical construct that we use to speculate about how information presented at a particular
time can cause performance at a later time. Most theories include the strength of the memory trace as a variable in the degree
of learning, retention, and retrieval possible for a memory. One theory is that the fantastic capacity for storage in the brain is
the result of an almost unlimited combination of interconnection between brain cells, stimulated by patterns of activity.
Repeated reference to the same information supports recall. Or, to say that in another way, improved performance is the result
of strengtheneing the chemical bonds in the memory.

41. The passage above is mainly concerned with 45. All of the following are true of a memory trace
(1) Wilder Penfield (2) Neurosurgery except
(3) Human memory (4) Chemical reactions (1) it is probably made by structural changes in the
brain
42. Compared with a computer, human memory is (2) it is able to be observed
(1) more complex (2) more limited (3) it is a theoretical construct
(3) less dependable (4) less durable (4) it is related to the degree of recall

43. According to the passage, researchers have concluded Directions: To answer Q. No. 46 to 50, choose a word from
that among the four options given in each question, one that is
(1) the mind has a much greater capacity for closest in meaning to the word in capital letters.
memory than was previously believed
(2) the physical basis for memory is clear 46. PRECURSOR
(3) different points of view are valuable (1) Attacker (2) Pursuer
(4) human memory is inefficient (3) Forerunner (4) Torturer

44. According to the passage, the capacity for storage in 47. INTREPID
the brain (1) Fearless (2) Senseless
(1) can be understood by examining the physiol- (3) Cowardly (4) Complacent
ogy
(2) is stimulated by patterns of activity 48. ATTENUATE
(3) has a limited combination of relationships (1) To fawn (2) To weaken
(4) is not influenced by repetition (3) To fulminate (4) To hesitate

12
49. FLIPPANT 59. Establish a scale
(1) Flair (2) Frivolous (1) Valuate (2) Ululate
(3) Pliant (4) Serious (3) Calibrate (4) Escalate

50. ATYPICAL 60. Crossing the Rubicon

(1) Qualitative (2) Unstandardised (1) Averting great calamity
(3) Irregular (4) Vague (2) Walking on the path of virtue
(3) Passing the point of no return
Directions : For Q. No. 51 to 55. Each of these questions
(4) Leaping into unknown waters
consists of a word in capital letters followed by four op-
tions. choose the one option in each question, that is the
Directions : Q. No. 61 to 65 consist of incomplete sentences.
nearest opposite in meaning to the word in capital letters.
Following each sentence, you will see four words or phrases
marked 1, 2, 3 and 4. Choose the one word or phrase that
51. REMISS
best completes the sentence.
(1) Additional (2) Alert
(3) Unabashed (4) Forgetful 61. The consistency of protoplasm and that of glue
_______ .
52. PRINCIPAL (1) they are alike (2) are similar to
(1) Minor (2) Duplicate (3) are similar (4) the same
(3) Joint (4) Additional
62. Nerve impulses _______ to the brain at a speed of
53. PANEGYRIC about a hundred yards per second.
(1) Libel (2) Allergic (1) are sending sensations
(3) Verbose (4) Tedious (2) to send sensations
(3) send sensations
54. ABSTEMIOUS
(4) sends sensations
(1) Critical (2) Intemperate
(3) Drained (4) Redundant 63. Although exact statistics vary because of political
changes, _______ separate nation states are included
55. BUOYANT in the official lists at any one time.
(1) Joyless (2) Student (1) more than two hundred
(3) Dangerous (4) Secretive (2) as much as two hundred
(3) many as two hundred
Directions : Q. No. 56 to 60 consist of a phrase followed by
(4) most two hundred
four alternatives. Choose the alternative that expresses the
meaning of the phrase most appropriately.
64. According to a recent survey, ________ doctors do
56. Government by the rich not have a personal physician.
(1) Aristocracy (2) Oligarchy (1) a large amount of
(3) Bureaucracy (4) Autocracy (2) large amount of
(3) a large number of
57. That which cannot be withdrawn (4) large number of
(1) Inevitable (2) Immutable
(3) Irrevocable (4) Indelible 65. ________ the plough is being displaced by new tech-
niques that protect the land and promise more abun-
58. Hypocritical and undependable dant crops.
(1) Janus-faced (2) Hydra-headed (1) As a whole (2) Wholly
(3) Quotidian (4) Doughty (3) On a whole (4) Wholesale

13
Directions : For Q. No. 66 to 70. Each of these questions 68. PHEASANT : FOWL
has a pair of words in capital letters which have a certain (1) Tiger : Cat (2) Lion : Lioness
relationship to each other, followed by four pairs of words.
(3) Oxen : Yoke (4) Fox : Wolverine
Choose the pair which has words related to each other in
the same way as the words in the capital letters.
69. RADICAL : CONSERVATIVE
66. TURPITUDE : MORAL
(1) Zealot : Fanatic
(1) Canker : Physical
(2) Quisling : Patriotic
(2) Intelligence : Economic
(3) Independence : Service
(3) Aptitude : Mental
(4) Supporter : Solidity
(4) Elevation : Spiritual
67. VINDICTIVE : REVENGE 70. CURRY : FLAVOUR
(1) Mild : Mannerism (1) Dish : Spice
(2) Forgetful : Lapse (2) Manipulate : Scheme
(3) Unemployed : Work (3) Beg : Pardon
(4) Discourse : Audience (4) Ground : Foundation

Directions : In Q. No. 71 to 80, each sentence has four underlined words or phrases. The four underlined parts of the
sentences are marked A, B, C and D. Identify the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed in order for the sentence
to be correct.

71. A swarm of locusts is responsible the consumption of enough plant material to feed a million and a half people.
A B C D
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D

72. Those of us who smoke should have their lungs X-rayed regularly.
A B C D
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D

73. The prices at retail stores are as reasonable if not more reasonable as those at the supermarket.
A B C D
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D

74. The more the humidity rises the worst the heat affects us.
A B C D
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D

75. It is extremely important for an engineer to know to use a computer.

A B C D
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D

76. The range of plant life on a hill is a results of differences in temperature and precipitation at varying altitudes.
A B C D
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D

14
77. It is said Einstein felt very badly about the application of his theories to the creation of weapons of war.
A B C D
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D
78. Ferstilisers are used primarily to enrich soil and increasing yield.
A B C D
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D
79. Despite of the increase in the air fares, most people still prefer to travel by plane.
A B C D
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D
80. It is desirable that a management student maintains a grade point average of B in his specialisation field.
A B C D
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D

TEST III
Quantitative Aptitude
81. Find the cost of fencing a square field containing 87. If m + 2n = 2m + n, then m – n is equal to
49284 sq. m at 70 p per m.
(1) 2 (2) 3
(1) Rs. 612.60 (2) Rs. 612
(3) 0 (4) 4
(3) Rs. 621.60 (4) Rs. 631.60
88. 40% of 200 + 35% of 150 is
82. The area of two circular fields is in the ratio 16 : 49.
If the radius of the latter is 14 m, what is the radius of (1) 125 (2) 135
the former? (3) 130 (4) 145
(1) 32 m (2) 18 m
(3) 8 m (4) 4 m 89. A sum of Rs. 6.25 is made of 80 coins which are
either 10 p or 5 p. How many are there of each kind?
83. The area of the floor of a room is 20 sq. m, that of a (1) 40, 40 (2) 50, 30
longer wall is 15 sq. m and of the shorter wall is 12 (3) 35, 45 (4) 45, 35
sq. m. Find the volume of the room.
(1) 45 cu.m (2) 10 cu.m 90. 3 men or 4 boys can do a piece of work in 16 days.
(3) 60 cu.m (4) 40 cu.m How much time will be taken by 3 men and 4 boys to
do double that work ?
84. If the car moves at the rate of 54 km per hour, what is (1) 8 days (2) 16 days
its speed in meters per second ? (3) 12 days (4) 20 days
(1) 12 (2) 15
(3) 18 (4) 21 91. A garrison of 112 men has provisions for 5 months.
How many men must leave so that the provisions now
85. The compound interest on Rs. 800 for 2 years at the last for 7 months ?
rate of 5% is (1) 50 (2) 45
(1) Rs. 102 (2) Rs. 112 (3) 40 (4) 32
(3) Rs. 82 (4) Rs. 42
92. A candidate has to obtain 33% of the total marks to
86. If the compound interest on Rs. 15625 for three years pass. He obtains 262 marks and fails by 200 marks.
is Rs. 1951 then the rate of interest is Find 40% of the total marks.
(1) 5% (2) 3% (1) 650 (2) 560
(3) 4% (4) 6% (3) 565 (4) 570

15
93. How many bricks of 20 cm by 10 cm size will be required 101. Exports during 1996-97 is what percent less than
to pave the floor of a room 8 m long and 5 m wide ? during 1994-95 ?
(1) 20000 (2) 2500 (1) 43% (2) 37%
(3) 2000 (4) 200 (3) 41% (4) 39%
94. Pipe A can fill an empty tank in 5 hours and pipe B 102. Find the greatest number that will divide 398, 436
can empty it in 7.5 hours. How long will it take to fill and 542 leaving 7, 11 and 15 as remainders
the tank when both the pipes are opened together ? respectivdly.
(1) 10 hours (2) 15 hours (1) 15 (2) 19
(3) 14 hours (4) Never be filled (3) 17 (4) 29
95. The area of a rectangular field is 3600 sq. m. The 103. A man bought 7 oranges for a rupee and sold them at
ratio of its length and breadth is 16 : 9. Find its a profit of 40%. How many oranges did he sell for a
perimeter. rupee ?
(1) 250 m (2) 1250 m (1) 6 (2) 7
(3) 500 m (4) 750 m (3) 5 (4) 4
96. It needs 50 ml paint for painting a picture 50 cm x 25 104. When the income tax is 3%, a man’s net income is
cm. How much paint is needed to paint a similar pic- Rs. 2425. What will it be when the tax rate is raised
ture 100 cm x 50 cm ? to 4% ?
(1) 100 ml (2) 400 ml (1) Rs. 2300
(3) 750 ml (4) 200 ml (2) Rs. 2350
Directions : The table given below gives the information of (3) Rs. 2400
export of an item in crores of rupees. Answer Q. No. 97 to (4) Rs. 2415
101 based on this.
105. Find the number which when added to itself 17 times
Year Amount becomes 162
1994-95 161.78 (1) 13
1995-96 175.16 (2) 9
1996-97 101.38 (3) 7
1997-98 91.38 (Expected) (4) 18

97. What is the expected decrease percent of export dur- 106. A number when divided by a certain divisor left re-
ing 1997-98 from 1996-97 ? mainder 63. When twice the given number was di-
vided by the same divisor, remainder was 55. What
(1) 10% (2) 9.9.% the divisor ?
(3) 11% (4) 7.3% (1) 61 (2) 78
98. Taking the expected export during 1997-98, what will (3) 71 (4) 98
be the average annual export during the period un-
der consideration ? 107. Find the greatest number that divides 204, 1190, 1445
exactly.
(1) 123.4 approx (2) 143.5 approx
(1) 15 (2) 27
(3) 137.4 approx (4) 132.4 approx
(3) 17 (4) 13
99. If the exports during 1994-95 was 25% more than 108. How many times must I run around a square field of
1993-94, what was it during 1993-94 ? one hectare to run 6 kilometers ?
(1) 129.4 (2) 121.3 (1) 10 (2) 15
(3) 135.7 (4) 133.9 (3) 20 (4) 25

100. What is the difference of exports during 1994-96 and 109. Find the value of 4.7 x 13.23 + 4.7 x 9.43 + 4.7 x
1996-98 ? 77.34.
(1) 144.1 (2) 134.7 (1) 4700 (2) 470
(3) 144.18 (4) 148.03 (3) 47 (4) 47000

16
Directions : Answer Q. No. 110 to 114 on the basis of the 117. Rs. 49.25 were divided among 150 children. Each
information given below : boy gets 50 paise and each girl gets 25 paise. Find
the number of boys and girls.
The values of Net RBI credit to Government for different (1) 47,103 (2) 48, 102
years is given below :
(3) 93, 57 (4) 75, 75
Year Rs. in crores
118. A man sold two pens at Rs. 20 each. He sold one at a
1990-91 4038
loss of 10% and the other at a gain of 10%. His loss
1991-92 3996 or gain in % is
1992-93 2545 (1) loss 1% (2) gain 1%
1993-94 3987 (3) no loss no gain (4) loss 5%
1994-95 6403 119. 4% more is gained by selling a book for Rs. 180 than
1995-96 4823 by selling it at Rs. 175. Find the cost price of the book.
1996-97 5496 (1) Rs. 130 (2) Rs. 125
(3) Rs. 150 (4) Rs. 160
110. What is the difference between the maximum and
the minimum RBI credit to the Government ? 120. The average daily temperature from 9th January to
16th January (both days inclusive) was 38.6o and that
(1) 3768 (2) 3858
from 10th to 17th (both days inclusive) was 39.2o.
(3) 3758 (4) 3407 The temperature of 9th January was 34.6o . What was
the temperature on 17th January?
111. Keeping in view the RBI credit in 1990-91, 1996-
(1) 39.4o (2) 40.5o
97, find the annual increase.
(3) 38.9o (4) 67.89o
(1) 245.7 (2) 234.5
(3) 243 (4) 234 121. Find the simple interest on Rs. 471 for 7 months at 2
paise per rupee per month.
112. What is the increase % of RBI credit in 1996-97 from (1) Rs. 69.98 (2) Rs. 65.94
1995-96 ?
(3) Rs. 65.67 (4) Rs. 67.89
(1) 14 (2) 12
(3) 13 (4) 11 122. In what time will the simple interest on Rs. 900 @
6% be equal to the interest on Rs. 540 for 8 years @
113. What is the % decrease of RBI credit in 1992-93 from 5% ?
that in 1991-92 ? (1) 3 years (2) 5 years
(1) 15 (2) 29 (3) 4 years (4) 6 years
(3) 33 (4) 36
123. I have Rs. 3500 and I have lent Rs. 1500 @ 4% and
114. Maximum RBI credit is what % of the minimum RBI Rs. 1000 @ 3%. At what rate must I lend the remain-
credit ? der of my money so that my total income may be 5%
on Rs. 3500 ?
(1) 159 (2) 239
(3) 129 (4) 251 (1) 9% (2) 7.5%
(3) 8.5% (4) 7.75%
115. In an examination every candidate took History or
Geography or both. 74.8% took History and 50.2% 124. Find sthe compound interest on Rs. 2000 for 2 years
took Geography. If the total number of candidates be at 6%.
1500, how many took History and Geography both ? (1) Rs. 205.00 (2) Rs. 240.00
(1) 400 (2) 375 (3) Rs. 247.20 (4) Rs. 382.03
(3) 350 (4) 500
125. A certain number of men can do a piece of work in
116. Find the ratio in which rice at Rs. 7.20 a kg be mixed 40 days, but if there were 8 more men, it would be
with rice at Rs. 5.70 to produce a mixture worth Rs. finished 10 days earlier. How many men were there
6.30 a kg. in the beginning ?
(1) 1 : 3 (2) 2 : 3 (1) 25 (2) 23
(3) 3 : 4 (4) 4 : 5 (3) 22 (4) 24

17
126. If 5x – 2y = 10, then 67 – 15x equals 129. The area of a square field is 6050 sq. m. Find the
(1) 15 (2) 20 length of its diagonal.
(3) –20 (4) –30 (1) 120 m
(2) 135 m
127. A creditor received 86 p in a rupee and thereby lost (3) 110 m
Rs. 112. How much was due to him ? (4) 112 m
(1) Rs. 900 (2) Rs. 800
(3) Rs. 850 (4) Rs. 950 130. What is the length of a sheet, 2 m wide, required for
making an open tank 15 m long, 10 m wide and 6 m
128. The length of a room is 5.5 m and width is 3.75 m. deep ?
Find the cost of paving the floor by slabs at the rate (1) 450 m
of Rs. 800 per sq. m. (2) 250 m
(1) Rs. 15600 (2) Rs. 16500 (3) 225 m
(3) Rs. 15550 (4) Rs. 15000 (4) 150 m

TEST IV
Reasoning

Directions : For Q. No. 131 to 135. Find the number that 137. ARTIST : PAINT
comes next in the sequence. (1) Doctor : Patient (2) Mechanic : Car
(3) Sculptor : Clay (4) Chemist : Discovery
131. 5, 12, 21, 32, 45, ____
(1) 60 (2) 75 138. BOUQUET : FLOWER
(3) 50 (4) 54 (1) Garland : Beads (2) Hand : Bangles
132. 1, 8, 27, 64, ____ (3) College : Techers (4) Party : Cakes
(1) 96 (2) 88
(3) 125 (4) 144 139. COBBLER : HIDE
(1) Farmer : Grain
133. 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, ____ (2) Tailor : Cloth
(1) 13 (2) 17 (3) Author : Book
(3) 9 (4) 19 (4) Carpenter : Furniture

134. 2, 5, 18, 41, ____

140. SOLDIER : ARMY
(1) 61 (2) 64
(1) Worker : Labourer
(3) 71 (4) 74
(2) Star : Constellation
135. 1, 3, 7, 15, 31, 63, ____ (3) Farmer : Co-operatives
(1) 127 (2) 144 (4) Member : Library
(3) 151 (4) 125
Directions : For Q. No. 141 to 145, find the odd one out.
Directions : For Q. No. 136 to 140. In each of these ques-
141. (1) China (2) India
tions, there is a pair of capitalised words followed by 4 pairs
of words. Select the pair which expresses the relaltionship (3) Pakistan (4) Australia
similar to that expressed in the capitalised pair of words. 142. (1) 5 (2) 7
(3) 15 (4) 17
136. LANGUAGE : COMMUNICATION
(1) Car : Transport (2) Line : Verse 143. (1) 64 (2) 8
(3) Tongue : Mouth (4) Gun : Bullet (3) 25 (4) 125

18
144. (1) 17 152. At a dinner party every two guests used a dish of rice
(2) 23 between them. Every three guests used a dish of dal
and every four used a dish of meat between them.
(3) 25
There were altogether 65 dishes. How many guests
(4) 12
were present ?
(1) 30
145. (1) 64 (2) 144
(2) 40
(3) 250 (4) 225
(3) 45
Directions : For Q. No. 146 to 150, read the following in- (4) 60
formation :
153. If ‘KITCHEN’ is coded 5263417, ‘CHICKEN’ will
(i) Sarita, Veena, Ramesh and Mohan are sitting round
be coded as
a table. All four have just won first prize in throwing,
sprinting, hurdles and high jump. (1) 3423517
(ii) The best thrower is sitting on Sarita’s left. (2) 3534217
(iii) The highest jumper is directly opposite Ramesh. (3) 6341752
iv) Veena and Mohan are next to each other. (4) 2536174
(v) There is a girl to the left of the hurdler.
154. Find the odd one out from the following :
146. Who is the sprint champion ? (1) Run (2) Climb
(1) Sarita (2) Veena (3) Swim (4) Listen
(3) Ramesh (4) Mohan
155. If 214 = 12, 326 = 30, 415 = 25, then 523 is
147. Who is sitting opposite to the best hurdler ? (1) 10 (2) 30
(1) Veena (2) Ramesh (3) 25 (4) 15
(3) Sarita (4) Mohan
Directions : For Q. No. 156 to 160, read the following in-
148. Who is the high jump champion ? formation.
(1) Veena (2) Ramesh (i) There are 5 persons, A, B, C, D and E.
(3) Mohan (4) Sarita (ii) All except C have a pencil.
(iii) C has a pen and so have A and E.
149. Which of the following are not sitting next to each (iv) C, D and E also have an eraser each.
other ?
(1) Veena and Sarita 156. Who has a pencil, a pen and an eraser as well ?
(2) Veena and Ramesh (1) E (2) D
(3) Mohan and Ramesh (3) C (4) A
(4) Ramesh and Sarita
157. Who has only a pen and a pencil ?
150. Who is the throwing champion ? (1) A (2) B
(1) Ramesh (2) Mohan (3) C (4) D
(3) Sarita (4) Veena
158. Who has only a pencil and an eraser ?
151. How many triangles are there in the following figure ? (1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D

159. Who has only a pen and an eraser ?

(1) B (2) C
(3) D (4) E

160. Who has only a pencil ?

(1) 5 (2) 4 (1) A (2) B
(3) 7 (4) 6 (3) C (4) D

19
Directions : For Q. No. 161 to 164, read the following information.

Anil attends his college during 9:00 a.m. to 3:00 p.m. except on Thursdays when he is free at noon. Anil takes a piano
lesson at home on Mondays from 3:30 to 4:30 p.m. On Tuesdays he goes to Karate class from 4:00 to 6:00 p.m. His art class
meets from 4:00 to 6:00 p.m. on Wednesdays. He remains in college after 3:00 p.m. on Fridays to participate in a 90 minutes
club programme.

161. The most convenient afternoon for Anil to do library 163. Anil is chosen to play for the university basketball team.
research is To attend daily 5:00 p.m. practice sessions, he will have
(1) Tuesday to suspend which of the following activities ?
(2) Wednesday (1) The art class and Karate
(3) Thursday (2) Piano instruction and Karate
(3) Karate and the club programme
(4) Friday
(4) The art class and the club programme
162. Keeping the same 3:30 – 4:30 p.m. schedule, Anil 164. Anil was invited to replace his 4:00 – 6:00 p.m. art
can conveniently change his piano lessons to which class with an advanced art class that meets at the same
of the following days ? time. He could accept this advancement without in-
(1) Monday terfering with his other activities if the class met on
which of the following days ?
(2) Tuesday
(1) Mondays & Wednesdays
(3) Wednesday
(2) Tuesdays & Wednesdays
(4) Thursday (3) Wednesdays & Thursdays
(4) Thursdays & Fridays

Directions : For Q. No. 165 to 168, study the following details :

Eight university cricket players (G, H, J, K, L, M, N, O) are to be honoured at a special ceremony. Three of these
players (H, M and O) are also university football players. Two of them (K and N) are also basketball players on the university
team. In arranging the seats it was decided that no athlete in two sports should be seated next to another two-sport athlete.

165. Which of the following combinations is possible in 168. To have the proper seating arrangement, K should sit
order to have the arrangement of seat assignments as between
planned ? (1) J and L (2) G and H
(1) H G K J (2) H K J L (3) J and M (4) L and N
(3) J K M N (4) J L H K
Directions : For Q. No. 169 to 170 :
166. Which of the following cannot sit next to M ? A is east of B and west of C. D is south-east of C. B
(1) G (2) J is south-east of F.
(3) G and J (4) K
169. Which is farthest to the west ?
(1) D (2) F
167. Before all players are seated there are two vacant seats
on either side of N. Which two players may occupy (3) A (4) B
these seat? 170. Which is in the middle ?
(1) G and K (2) G and L (1) B (2) F
(3) J and H (4) L and O (3) A (4) C

Directions : For Q. No. 171 to 173 :

In each of these questions a word has been given followed by four other words, one of which cannot be formed by using
the letters of the given word. Find that word.

171. CONSTITUTIONAL 172. SATISFACTION

(1) CONSTANT (2) TALENT (1) FICTION (2) FACT
(3) TUITION (4) LOCATION (3) FAT (4) FRACTION

20
173. RHINOCEROS 177. Which of the following should come next in the fol-
(1) NOSE (2) SOON lowing letter series ?
(3) ROOM (4) RINSE LXF, MTJ, NPN, OLR, ____
(1) PHV (2) PPV
174. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way (3) PIU (4) PJW
and so form a group. Which is the one that doesn’t
belong to that group ? 178. If rain is called water, water is called air, air is called
(1) PRT (2) QOM cloud, cloud is called sky, sky is called sea, sea is
called road, where do the aeroplanes fly ?
(3) CEG (4) UWY
(1) Water (2) Road
175. In a certain code, PERFECT is written as RGTHGEV. (3) Sea (4) Cloud
How will BROWN be written in that code ?
179. “Kilogram” is related to “Quintal” in the same way
(1) CSPXO (2) DSQYP as “Paisa” is related to
(3) CTQXP (4) DTQYP (1) Coin (2) Money
(3) Wealth (4) Rupee
176. In a row of boys, Ram is twelfth from the left and
Ramesh is fifteenth from the right. When they inter- 180. If P denotes ‘+’, R denotes ‘x’, S denotes ‘–’ and T
change their positions, Ramesh becomes twentieth denotes ‘÷’, then what will be the value of
from the right. How many boys are there in the row ? 5R9P7S9T3P6 ?
(1) 27 (2) 30 (1) 50 (2) 43
(3) 31 (4) 24 (3) 75 (4) 55

Directions : For Q. No. 181 to 190, study the following information.

(i) Five persons Manohar, Amar, Narender, Sachin and Prakash are musician, architect, doctor, engineer and artist by
profession and live in Agra, Bhopal, Calcuuta, Delhi and Ernakulam, but not in that order.
(ii) Manohar and Amar are not artists or engineers and they do not live in Delhi or Agra.
(iii) Prakash and Narender do not live in Agra or Ernakulam, and neither of them is an architect or doctor.
(iv) Sachin is neither a doctor nor a musician.
(v) The person living in Agra is neither an artist nor an engineer.
(vi) Manohar does not live in Calcutta and Amar is not a doctor.
(vii) The musician does not live in Ernakulam or Bhopal.
(viii) Prakash is not an artist.
(ix) The artist does not live in Delhi.

181. Who lives in Agra ? 185. The musician lives in

(1) Amar (2) Sachin (1) Calcutta (2) Delhi
(3) Manohar (4) Prakash (3) Agra (4) Ernakulam

182. Sachin is a/an 186. Tlhe person living in Ernakulam is

(1) Musician (2) Doctor (1) Amar (2) Prakash
(3) Architect (4) Artist (3) Manohar (4) Sachin

183. Who is the artist ? 187. The person living in Bhopal is a/an
(1) Narender (2) Prakash (1) Architect (2) Engineer
(3) Amar (4) Manohar (3) Doctor (4) Artist

184. The engineer who lives in Delhi is 188. Where does Prakash live ?
(1) Sachin (2) Prakash (1) Agra (2) Delhi
(3) Narender (4) Manohar (3) Ernakulam (4) Bhopal

21
189. Amar lives in Calcutta and is a 190. The doctor lives in
(1) Musician (2) Doctor (1) Bhopal (2) Calcutta
(3) Engineer (4) Artist (3) Ernakulam (4) Agra

Directions : From Q. No. 191 to 194 :

Seats on a small plane are being assigned to six passengers — N, P, Q, R, S and T. The eight seats on the plane are in
four rows, numbered 1 through 4, and each row has two seats. Seat assignments are made according to the following condi-
tions :

(i) N must sit alone in a row.

(ii) P must sit in the same row as R.
(iii) Q cannot sit in the same row as S.
(iv) The rows with only one passenger must be row 1 and row 3.

191. Which of the following passengers could be assigned 193. Which of the following is the total number of pas-
to sit in the same row as Q ? sengers eligible to be the passenger assigned to sit in
(1) T (2) N the same row as T ?
(3) P (4) R (1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
192. If P and R are in row 2, which of the following must be true ? 194. If Q and T are assigned to sit together in a row, which
(1) Q is in row 1 of the following passengers could be assigned to sit
(2) Q is in row 4 in row 3 ?
(3) S is in row 3 (1) P (2) Q
(4) T is in row 4 (3) R (4) S

Directions : For Q. No. 195 to 198 :

A shopkeeper is preparing gift boxes of candy. Each box will contain exactly two kinds of hard candy to be selected
from F, G and H, and exactly three kinds of soft candy to be selected from P, Q, R, S and T with the following restrictions :
(i) G cannot be in the same gift box as T.
(ii) P cannot be in the same gift box as S.
(iii) Q cannot be in the same gift box as T.

195. If G is included in a gift box, which of the following 197. Which of the following kinds of candies must be in-
is a kind of candy that must also be included ? cluded in ech of the gift boxes ?
(1) F (1) G (2) H
(2) H
(3) P (4) R
(3) P
(4) Q
198. If T is included in a gift box, the box must also in-
196. If H is not included in a particular gift box, any of the clude which of the following kinds of candy ?
following kinds of candies can be included except (1) F and G
(1) Q
(2) F and H
(2) R
(3) S (3) G and H
(4) T (4) P and R

22
Directions : For Q. No. 199 and 200.
Two-way roads exist among the following towns
surrounding a mountain :
Between M and N
Between M and O
Between O and R
Between R and T
Between R and U
Between T and P
Between P and S

There is also a one-way road between town P and town N;

the permitted direction of travel is from P to N.
None of these roads intersect each other except at the towns.
There are no other towns or roads in the vicinity.

199. To drive from S to N, it is necessary to go through town

(1) M (2) P
(3) R (4) T

200. If a landslide temporarily makes the road between O

and R impassable, then in order to reach M by road
from U, one would have to go through a total of how
many other towsn besides M and U ?
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 5

23
 OPENMAT (IX) ENTRANCE TEST FOR
MANAGEMENT PROGRAMMES 2001

TEST I
General Awareness
1. The Third Ministerial Conference of the WTO was 9. Which of the following prizes was given to
held in November–December 1999 at which of the Mahashweta Devi for 1998 ?
following places ? (1) Saraswati Samman
(1) New Delhi (2) Seattle (2) Kalidas Samman
(3) Tokyo (4) Berlin (3) Moorti Devi Award
(4) Tagore Literary Award
2. The tiny enclave of Macau was handed over to China
in December 1999. Macau was under the rule of 10. India has decided to purchase T-90 tanks and ‘Kiev’
type submarine from which of the following coun-
(1) Russia (2) Britain
tries?
(3) India (4) Portugal
(1) China (2) South Korea
3. Almatti Dam is being constructed between which of (3) Russia (4) Germany
the following states ?
11. The Union Government and the Reserve Bank of
(1) Madhya Pradesh and Andhra Pradesh India have agreed to put an end to the four-decade-
(2) Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh old system of ad hoc Treasury Bills. This system was
(3) Karnataka and Tamil Nadu being used
(4) Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka A. to finance the Centre’s budget deficit
B. to provide for controlled monetisation
4. Which of the following days is observed as World C. to make up the Centre’s budget deficit by
Food Day ? printing notes
(1) September 23 (2) September 16 (1) Only A (2) Only B
(3) October 23 (4) October 16 (3) Only A and B (4) Only C
5. Which of the following is not a computer language ?
12. Which of the following countries heads the Human
(1) Windows 98 (2) PASCAL Development Index 2000 ?
(3) C++ (4) FORTRAN (1) USA (2) Canada
6. According to the Insurance and Regulatory and De- (3) Japan (4) Germany
velopment Authority (IRDA) Bill, the share of the
13. Which of the following universities celebrated its
foreign companies in insurance sector will be upto a
platinum jubilee in 1997 ?
maximum of
(1) Calcutta (2) Delhi
(1) 16% (2) 20%
(3) Mumbai (4) Chennai
(3) 26% (4) 28%
14. The Duburi Thermal Power Plant Project approved
7. Which of the following musicians declined to accept by the Cabinet Committee on Foreign Investment will
the Padma Vibhushan Award 2000 ? be set up in which of the following states ?
(1) Pt. Jasraj (1) Tamil Nadu (2) Orissa
(2) Pt. Ravi Shankar (3) Andhra Pradesh (4) Karnataka
(3) Ustad Bismillah Khan
(4) Ustad Vilayat Khan 15. The Ninth Asian Shooting Championship was held
in January 2000 in
8. How much compensation was demanded by Paki- (1) Malaysia (2) Thailand
stan at the International Court of Justice, the Hague, (3) Maldives (4) Indonesia
over the shooting down of its Atlantique aircraft in
the Kutch region of India in August 1999 ? 16. ‘Hale Bopp’ is the name of a
(1) $60 million (1) New planet identified
(2) $40 million (2) Comet near Earth
(3) $50 million (3) New rocket launched by France to study Venus
(4) $20 million (4) Black Hole identified near Earth
24
17. TyazPromExports (TPE), which offered a 300 mil- 24. The annual meeting of ‘India Forum’ in May 2000
lion dollar loan to revive ailing public sector Indian was organized at which of the following places ?
Iron and Steel Co. is basically a company based in (1) Geneva
(1) Germany (2) Russia (2) Paris
(3) France (4) Switzerland (3) Hong Kong
(4) New York
18. Who amongst the following got the 1999 Jawaharlal
Nehru Award for International Understanding ? 25. Who is Prof. Guenter Blobel
(1) Nelson Mandela (1) He has developed a vaccine for AIDS
(2) Prince Charles (2) He is UK’s High Commissioner to India
(3) Mahathir bin Mohamad (3) He is the Vice-President of Australia and was
(4) Sheikh Hasina on an official visit to India recently
(4) He got the Nobel Prize for Medicine for 1999
19. Which of the following gases is used for purification
of water ? 26. The Jammu and Kashmir Assembly set up an Au-
(1) Oxygen (2) Ammonia tonomous Hill Development Council for which of
the following regions ?
(3) Chlorine (4) Carbon dioxide
(1) Jammu
20. Who led the Indian delegation to G-15 Summit held (2) Srinagar
at Cairo in June 2000 ? (3) Ladakh
(1) Mr. A.B. Vajpayee (4) Anantnag and Baramula
(2) Mr. K.R. Narayanan
27. The Prime Minister laid the foundation stone of the
(3) Mr. Krishna Kant first Science City of the country in which of the fol-
(4) Mr. Murasoli Maran lowing states?
(1) Maharashtra
21. Who amongst the following is the author of the book
(2) Tamil Nadu
‘Blue Bed Spread’ ?
(3) West Bengal
(1) Raj Kamal Jha
(4) Rajasthan
(2) Pupul Jaykar
(3) Michael Hammer 28. At present approximately what percentage of GDP
(4) R.K. Karanjia is spent on primary education by the Union and State
Governments in India ?
22. Which of the following does not come as a product (1) 6% (2) 6.5%
of vehicular pollution ?
(3) 1% (4) 2%
(1) Sulphur dioxide
(2) Nitrogeon Oxide 29. Under the new liberalized policy of gold and silver
(3) Carbon Monoxide imports in India, the rate of import duty on one kg of
silver is
(4) Hydrogen Peroxide
(1) Rs. 200 (2) Rs. 220
23. The day-to-day administration of a Union Territory (3) Rs. 350 (4) Rs. 500
in India is looked after by the
(1) Council of Ministers 30. India’s first superconductivity fusion device is being
(2) Lt. Governor constructed at which of the following places ?
(3) Governor (1) Mumbai (2) Tarapur
(4) President of India (3) Bangalore (4) Calcutta

25
 TEST II
English Language
Directions : Read the following passages carefully, and answer the questions that follow according to the contents of the
passage.

Passage I
The world economy is irretrievably getting divided into ‘two unequal worlds’ and the global community is doing little
to counter this, warns the1996 Human Development Report, published by the United Nations Development Programme. “The
imbalances in economic growth, if allowed to continue, will produce a world gargantuan in its excesses and grotesque in its
human and economic inequalities,” says HDR ’96 adding, “human development over the past 30 years is a mixed picture of
unprecendented human progress and unspeakable human misery.”
Nearly 1.5 billion people — more than a quarter of the world population are located mostly in East Asia — enjoyed per
capita income growth of more than 7% a year during the 1980s but nearly a billion people, living mostly in Africa, experi-
enced a decline in their real incomes during this period. Human development indicators, like life expectancy and literacy, have
improved for most countries, but per capita incomes have moved very differently for the developed, developing and least
developed countries, with the rich becoming richer and poor getting poorer. Between 1960 and 1991, the share of the richest
20 per cent rose from 70 per cent of the global income to 85 per cent — while that of the poorest 20 per cent declined from 2.3
per cent to 1.4 per cent. The ratio of the shares of the world’s richest and poorest thus increased from 30 : 1 to 61 : 1 ! Apart
from sub-Saharan Africa, Eastern Europe has also witnessed a decline in the standard of living in the 1990s. “The deep erosion
of the purchasing power of people in Eastern Europe and the CIS countries has undercut many of their past human develop-
ment achievements,” laments HDR ’96. South Asia, especially India, stands in the middle with a modest improvement in
economic development indicators, albeit with an emerging concern that it may be slipping on human development.
The report draws attention to what it calls “two disturbing findings”. First, economic growth has been failing over much
of the past 15 years in about 100 countries, in which almost a third of the world’s people live; and, second, the link between
growth and human development has been tenuous, with many countries experiencing “lop-sided development — with either
good growth but little human development or good human development but little or no growth”. HDR ’96 documents in detail
emerging global inequalities and economic failure in many poor countries, suggesting that the economic catastrophe these
countries have experienced over the last 15 years is far worse than the privations inflicted by the Great Depression on the
people of the developed world earlier this century.
The ‘central message’ of HDR ’96 in its own words, is : “There is no automatic link between economic growth and
human development, but when these links are forged with policy and determination, they can be mutually reinforcing and
economic growth will effectively and rapidly improve human development. Government policies are vitally important ....
(There are) limits to trickle-down economies.”
Making a distinction between ‘quantitative’ and ‘qualitative’ dimensions of growth, HDR ’96 says, “Policy makers are
often mesmerised by the quantity of growth. They need to be more concerned with its structure and quality. Unless govern-
ments take timely corrective action, economic growth can become lop-sided and flawed.” The report identifies five types of
distortions that can afflict the growth process, both in developed and developing economies. These are : jobless growth
(growth without new employment); ruthless growth (inequalising growth with the rich becoming richer and the poor not any
better off); voiceless growth (rapid growth under an authoritarian regime, where economic prosperity is not accompanied by
political freedom); rootless growth (where material prosperity is achieved at the cost of cultural, social and ethnic identity);
and finally, futureless growth (growth which is environment unfriendly, where the present generation squanders resources
needed by future generations). Economic development that perpetuates such distortions can neither be sustained nor worth
sustaining, concludes the report.

31. According to the passage, India

(1) has escaped extensive criticism by the HDR ’96
(2) has been lauded on the human development
front
(3) has modestly improved its economic
performance
(4) None of these

26
32. Which of the following correctly interprets the HDR’s 35. Which of the following is false ?
central message ? (1) Most of East Asia experienced per capita income
(1) Trickle-down economies implies a hope that growth of more than 7% annually during the 1980s
sound economic growth would have positive (2) Millions of people in Africa suffered a de-
effect on human development cline in their income, in real terms, during
(2) Without determined government intervention, the 1980s
the link between economic growth and human (3) Between 1960 and 1991, the percentage of the
development is bound to be tenuous number of rich people in the world grew
(3) Human development over the last 30 years is a from70% to 85%
mixed picture of unprecedented human progress
(4) None of these
and unspeakable human misery
(4) None of these
36. If X is defined as : (the share of the world’s richest
33. According to the passage, policy makers should be 20%) divided by (the share of the world’s poorest
more concerned with the 20%), then between 1960 and 1991, the value of
I. structure of growth X has
II. quality of growth (1) more than doubled
III. quantity of growth (2) remained approximately the same
(1) I and II only (2) III only (3) increased, but not doubled
(3) II only (4) All of the three (4) cannot be determined
34. By mentioning “two unequal worlds”, the author
wants to draw the readers’ attention to 37. Which of the following best describes the author’s
opinion of the HDR ’96 as deduced from the pas-
(1) the glaring differences between the developed
sage ?
and develping countries
(2) the difference in the state of the world 30 years (1) Useful, but not very practical
ago and now (2) Disturbing, and needs to be acted upon
(3) the difference in focus between countries stress- (3) Well-researched, and needs to be lauded
ing on economic growth, and others stressing
on human development (4) Biased, at best to be taken as an opinion
(4) None of these

Passage II
Capital flight is an elusive concept. Statistically, it is hard to distinguish from the normal capital flows generated by
trade relations and by growing world financial integration. Some authors define it as capital that leaves the country in re-
sponse to perceptions of abnormal risk at home. Capital flight has also been defined as that part of foreign assets that does not
yield an investment income recorded in balance of payments statistics. Alternatively it can be defined as all capital outflow,
because any outflow entails some loss for the domestic economy. So defined flight can be measured as the stock of external
assets acquired by residents or as net short-term capital outflaws from the non bank private sector (hot money). The error and
omission entry of the balance of payments is usually incorporated in these measurements under the assumption that a large
part of capital flight consists of illegal transactions that appear only in the item. When capital flight takes the form of under-
invoicing of exports and over-invoicing of imports, it will be not be captured in balance of payments entries. None of these
definitions is entirely satisfactory, and all of them pose measurement problem. At best, they provide only a range of estimates.
The extent of capital flight has varied widely. For the period 1990–94 it has been estimated at about $16-17 billion for
Argentina, $40 billion for Mexico, and $27 billion for Venezuela. In some years, capital flights in Argentina and Venezuela
was equivalent to half the savings in those countries. In Brazil, capital flight has been relatively small, but it seems to have
increased during the late 1990s.
Capital flight, however, defined or measured, is above all a symptom of macro-economic mismanagement — in many
instances compounded by political instability. As investors choose from among domestic financial assets, inflation hedges
(consumer durable or land), and foreign assets, they make their decision on the basis of domestic inflation and interest rates,
foreign interest rates, and the expected rate of depreciation of the currency. If investors fear a devaluation they will move their
funds abroad to avoid a capital loss. Similarly, high inflation rates and repressive financial policies that keep real interest rates
too low will encourage residents to invest abroad or to stockpile.

27
 Because capital flight generally occurs during a period of scarce foreign capital inflow it imposes heavy costs on an
economy. As a symptom of macro-economics mismanagement, it also increases domestic instability — both financially(because
hot money flows can impede the pursuit of domestic economic objectives) and politically (because it reduces the political
legitimacy of effort to service external debt). Capital flight also harms domestic growth by diverting savings out of the
country. It shrinks the tax base, which reduces government income and shifts more of the burden onto low-income citizens.
And it contributes to the debt problem by increasing the cost of borrowing (which rises with the amount borrowed), reducing
the resources available to repay debt.
Reversing capital flight requires restoring confidence in the economy and the government through a resumption of
growth and the adoption of sustainable policies. Unfortunately, it is much easier for a government to lose credibility than to
regain it.

38. According to the passage, all of the following coun- 42. According to the passage, capital flight can be defined
tries faced the problem of capital flight in the 1990s as all of the follwoing except
except (1) capital that leaves a country in response to
(1) Brazil perceptions of abnormal risk
(2) Mexico (2) non-income yielding foreign assets
(3) Argentina (3) all capital outflow
(4) Bolivia (4) stock of external assets acquired by residents

39. According to the passage, capital flight hurts eco-
nomic growth in all of the following ways except
(1) it worsens the debt situation
(2) it hurts domestic growth by diverting savings
(3) it shrinks the tax base
(4) it leads to high inflation rates
40. According to the author, capital flight is all of the
following except
(1) is difficult to measure
(2) is an elusive concept
(3) is a result of growing world financial integration
(4) is usually in the form of under-invoiced exports
41. According to the passage, capital flight could take
place because of
(1) perceptions of country risk
(2) acquisition of external assets by residents
(3) under-invoicing of exports
(4) macro-economic performance
43. The passage concerns itself with all of the following
except
(1) defining capital flight
(2) examining the impact of capital flight
(3) measuring capital flight
(4) examining the reasons for capital flight
44. According to the passage, investors base their asset
choices on all of the following except
(1) domestic inflaltion and interest rates
(2) expectations on rates of currency depreciation
(3) foreign interest rates
(4) taxation rates
45. According to the passge, we can infer
(1) high interest rates are a result of high inflation rates
(2) macro-economics mismanagement leads to capi
tal flight
(3) political legitimacy is necessary to reduce exter
nal debt
(4) None of the above

Directions : For Questions 46 to 50. These questions consist of a capitalised work followed by four alternatives. From the
given alternatives choose the word that is most similar in meaning to the capitalised word.

46. MARTINET 48. DEPRECATE

(1) greedy (1) to assure (2) disapprove
(2) rigid disciplinarian (3) analyse (4) pester
(3) drunk
49. GERMANE
(4) cold and unloving
(1) relevant (2) polite
47. PARI PASSU (3) still (4) hot and stuffy
(1) by and large
50. NUGATORY
(2) by and by
(1) tiny (2) precious
(3) side by side
(4) one against (3) worthless (4) fearless

28
Directions : For Questions 51 to 55. These questions consist of a capitalised word followed by four alternatives. From the
given alternatives choose the word which is the nearest opposite to the capitalised word.

51. DIVEST 54. TRANSIENT

(1) furnish (2) simplify (1) urgent (2) youthful
(3) run down (4) starve (3) original (4) eternal
52. IMPASSIVE
(1) predictable (2) ornate 55. PRECIPITOUS
(3) ebullient (4) passive (1) pleasantly sweet

53. TORTUOUS (2) overly ambitious

(1) ingenious (2) straight (3) gently sloping
(3) friendly (4) hospitable (4) agreeably situated

Directions : For Questions 56 to 60. Each main sentence given below is followed by four alternatives. Select from among the
alternatives the one which most logically completes the idea contained in the main sentence.

56. Each honest calling, each walk of life, has its elite, (3) sells far more than it buys
its own aristocracy __________ (4) finds fewer buyers for its products than Japan
(1) about to degenerate in democracy does
(2) based on excellence of performance
(3) and its own underworld 59. Selling soap may seem dull compared with high tech
wizardry but __________.
(4) and its own detractors
(1) it is a bigger business
57. Mankind has transformed the climate. The rain is (2) it is easy to make
acid, the ozone layer is vanishing, the globe is (3) it carries more profit per unit of sale
__________.
(4) it is easily understood by people
(1) getting overcrowded
(2) warming 60. Special scrutiny is the means, in both science and
(3) getting infested religion, by which deep insights can be __________
(4) slowing down its speed of rotation (1) developed into great truths
58. Success for Korea is embarrassisng. However hard it (2) winnowed from deep nonsense
spends it __________. (3) ultimately put to use
(1) cannot make profits (4) separated from deep reality
(2) faces stiff competition in the international markets
Directions : For Questions 61 to 65. Find the odd item among each of the following.

61. (1) anguish (2) remorse 64. (1) indolent (2) phlegmatic
(3) penitence (4) contrition (3) languid (4) emaciated

62. (1) seismic (2) natural 65. (1) blase

(3) quake (4) tremor
(2) outdated
63. (1) exploit (2) feat (3) passe
(3) extract (4) adventure (4) obsolete

29
Directions : For Questions 66 to 70. Each of these questions has a highlighted phrase, which can be correctly substituted by
one of the four alternative choices that follow the question. Choose the alternative which can correctly substitute the high-
lighted phrase.

66. The statement made on oath in the court was later (1) programme (2) routine
found to be false and the person was prosecuted for (3) regimen (4) prescription
perjury.
(1) evidence (2) deposition 69. Becket belongs to the class of those who greatly
(3) affidavit (4) affirmation suffer and die for a great cause.
(1) Saints (2) Savants
67. The passing feeling of well-being was generated in (3) Monks (4) Martyrs
him by the paltry fortune that fell to his share.
(1) euthansia (2) amnesia 70. The study for the cause of the disease should be the
(3) bravado (4) euphoria first step in our efforts to find a cure for any disease.

68. The course of diet and medicine recommended by (1) of Actiology (2) of Teleology
the physician did immediate good for the convales- (3) of Pharmacology (4) of Pathology
cent old man.

Directions : For Questions 71 to 75. In each of the following sentences four words or phrases have been underlined. Choose
the one word or phrase which has been used inappropriately.

71. A formal letter beginning with “Dear Sir” always ends with the complimentary close “yours faithfully”.
(1) (2) (3) (4)

72. The tailor stitched my shirt well but he spoiled the trouser.
(1) (2) (3) (4)

73. Hardly had I entered the room then the girl began to scream wildly.
(1) (2) (3) (4)

74. It is an ancient paradox that the rules of nature are simple but the world itself was complex.
(1) (2) (3) (4)

75. Fewer discoveries have captured the public imagination better than the double helix of DNA, the two-stranded
(1) (2) (3) (4)
molecule of the genetic library.

Directions : For Questions 76 to 80. Each question has a blank space. Fill in the blanks by choosing the most appropriate
alternative from among the choices given with each question.
76. The Human Genome Project will give the biologist a (1) scientific (2) legal
toolkit with which to describe and hence perhaps to (3) human (4) ethical
________, human life.
(1) explain (2) develop 79. For decades dismissed as part of the canon of ‘artis-
(3) disregard (4) synthesize tic’ pursuits, music is today being ________ by sci-
ence.
(1) probed (2) rediscovered
77. The implications of the projects like those of atomic
(3) valued (4) questioned
physics, are enormous and for the moment ________.
(1) stupendous (2) unpredictable 80. The tragedy of hunger and malnutrition ________
(3) scary (4) immeasurable despite considerable progress in overall agriculture
production and an improved understanding of hu-
78. As happened with the description of atomic particles man nutritional needs.
all this opens up frightening possibilites and (1) will continue (2) continues
________ dilemmas. (3) develops (4) diminishes

30
31
96. A piece of wire is 78 cm long. This is given a shape of 1 3 4
an isosceles triangle. If the ratio of one of the equal 104. Find x if + =
x − 3 x −1 x − 2
sides to the base is 5 : 3, the length of the base in cm is
(1) 4 (2) 3
(1) 20 (2) 18
(3) 2 (4) 5
(3) 16 (4) 21
105. A man buys two horses for Rs. 800. By selling one
97. The sum of two numbers that are in the ratio of 5 : 9
for 3/4 of its cost price and the other for 4/3 of its
is 308. The numbers are
cost price, he loses Rs. 25. What did he pay for each
(1) 198, 110 (2) 110, 198 horse ?
(3) 98, 210 (4) 78, 230 (1) Rs. 500, Rs. 300
98. A can do a piece of work in 12 days. B is 60% more (2) Rs. 400, Rs. 400
efficient than A. The number of days it takes B to do (3) Rs. 600, Rs. 200
the same piece of work is (4) Rs. 300, Rs. 500
1 1
(1) 8 days (2) 9 days 106. The surface of a cube is 150 sq m. Find its volume.
2 2
(1) 125 cu m (2) 105 cu m
1 1
(3) 6 days (4) 7 days (3) 110 cu m (4) 120 cu m
2 2
107. A room is 10 metres long and 6 metres broad. Find
99. If A : B = 3 : 4 and B : C = 5 : 6 then A : B : C equals the cost of carpeting its floor with a carpet 60 cm
(1) 20 : 25 : 30 (2) 15 : 20 : 24 wide and rate Rs. 2.37 per metre.
(3) 15 : 20 : 28 (4) 21 : 28 : 30 (1) Rs. 2370 (2) Rs. 237
(3) Rs. 1422 (4) Rs. 142.20
100. The string of a kite is 150 metres long and it makes
an angle of 60o with the horzontal. Find the height of
the kite from the ground. 108. How much earth will be dug out by sinking a well 21
metres deep and of 5 metres diameter ?
(1) 130.1 m (2) 129 m
(1) 412.5 cu m (2) 473.5 cu m
(3) 112 m (4) 145 m
(3) 112.5 cu m (4) 825 cu m
cos 51°
101. What is value of sin 39° ? 109. How many cubes of 3 m edge can be cut out of a
cube of 18 cm edge ?
1 1 (1) 218 (2) 216
(1) (2) (3) 432 (4) 864
2 3

(3) 1 (4) 3 110. Find the cost of sinking a well 35 metres deep and of
1 metre radius at Rs. 2 per cu m.
1 (1) Rs. 110 (2) Rs. 440
102. If cos A = find sin A.
3 (3) Rs. 350 (4) Rs. 220
2 2 2 2 111. A reservoir is 2 metres long, 1 metre broad and 0.5
(1) (2)
9 3 metre deep. A flower pot requires 0.5 litre of water.
How many such pots can be watered with the water
2 of the tank ?
(3) (4) 3
3
(1) 20,000 (2) 2,00,000
(3) 2,000 (4) 1,000
1 cos θ + sin θ
103. If θ = b find the value of cos θ − sin θ
8+ 2
b−a b+a 112. Simplify
(1) (2) 8− 2
b+c b−a
(1) 1 (2) 2
b+c b+a
(3) (4)
b−a b+c (3) 3 (4) 3

32
113. A company having a stock of R.s 4,50,000 declares 121. If x is 90% of y, what percent of x is y?
a dividend of 4% semi-annually. What is the annual (1) 120% (2) 110%
income of a stockholder having 135 shares at par (3) 111.1% (4) 11.1%
value of Rs. 10 ?
122. A cloth shop has announced a reduction of 25% in
(1) Rs. 54 (2) Rs. 108
the price. What is the least number of shirts priced at
(3) Rs. 81 (4) Rs. 540 Rs. 140 that one should buy to avail a total reduction
1 of at least Rs. 200?
114. Find the fraction which becomes when 1 is added
2 (1) 3 (2) 7
(3) 8 (4) 6
1
to its denominator and when 2 subtracted from its
3 123. A reduction of 20% in the price of apples enables
numerator. you to purchase 12 more at Rs. 15. What was the
price of 16 apples before reduction?
1 1
(1) (2) (1) Rs. 5 (2) Rs. 6
2 6
(3) Rs. 7 (4) Rs. 8
5 5
(3) (4) 124. When the price of a scooter was increased by 30%,
6 9
the number of scooters sold decreased by 20%. What
115. A man’s age is three times his son’s. In 15 years it was the effect on sales?
will be double that of his son. How is his son now ? (1) 5% increase (2) 4% increase
(1) 15 years (2) 18 years (3) 6% increase (4) 8% decrease
(3) 30 years (4) 35 years 125. Janki spends 20% of her monthly salary for her son’s
116. A man invested Rs. 20,000 partly in 5% and partly in education. When she will get her anm increment of Rs.
4% security. What sum did he invest in each if his 170 next month, she plans to spend half of that also for
total annual interest income is Rs. 890 ? her son’s education. The total she would spend then,
would be Rs. 645. What is her present salary?
(1) Rs. 9,000, Rs. 11,000
(1) Rs. 2800 (2) Rs. 3600
(2) Rs. 8,000, Rs. 12,000
(3) Rs. 3210 (4) Rs. 3500
(3) Rs. 7,000, Rs. 13,000
(4) Rs. 4,000, Rs. 16,000 126. A customer wants 30% discount on his purchase. The
dealer gave him successive discount of 20% and 12%,
1 in this transaction
117. You have to spend of your income on house rent,
10 (1) the customer got more than what he expected
(2) the customer got less than what he expected
1 1 (3) The customer got what be expected
of the remainder on conveyance, of further
10 3 (4) we cannot say exactly what he got
remainder on children’s education, after which you
are left with Rs. 648. What is your income ? 2
127. rd of a consignment was solf at a profit of 6% and
(1) Rs. 1100 (2) Rs. 1400 3
(3) Rs. 1700 (4) Rs. 1200 the rest at a loss of 3%. If, however there was an overall
profit of Rs. 540, the value of consignment was
118. Find the square root of 0.9 upto 3 places of decimals. (1) Rs. 20,000 (2) Rs. 17,000
(1) 0.674 (2) 0.333 (3) Rs. 18,000 (4) Rs. 16,000
(3) 0.999 (4) 0.948
128. Ram got twice as many marks in English as in Sci-
119. The average beight of 30 girls out of a class of 40 is ence. His total marks in English, Science and Maths
160 cm and that of the remaining girls is 156 cm. are 180. If the proportion of his marks in English
The average height of the whole class is and Maths is 2 : 3, what are his marks in Science ?
(1) 157 cm (2) 159 cm (1) 25 (2) 30
(3) 158 cm (4) 161 cm (3) 60 (4) 40
120. A shopkeeper gives a discount of 10% on the marked 129. Akram invested Rs. 3000 in a business. After 6 months
price of a transistor but in the bargain makes a profit of Dhruv invested Rs. 2000. If at the end of the year they
10%. If the marked price is Rs. 330, the cost price is gained Rs. 2600, then the share of Dhruv’s profit is
(1) Rs. 290 (2) Rs. 280 (1) Rs. 600 (2) Rs. 1300
(3) Rs. 270 (4) Rs. 275 (3) Rs. 650 (4) Rs. 1000

33
130. Sita bought a certain quantity of rice at the rate of (1) Rs. 200 (2) Rs. 300
Rs. 150 per quintal, and 10% of the rice was spoiled.
(3) Rs. 400 (4) Rs. 500
At what price should she sell the remaining to gain
20% of her outlay ?

TEST IV
Reasoning
Directions : For Q. Nos. 131 to 137, find the number that comes next in the sequence.

131. 2, 6, 12, 20, _____

(1) 30 (2) 28 137. 62, 97, 127, 152, _____
(3) 26 (4) 40 (1) 160 (2) 212
(3) 177 (4) 172
132. 9, 16, 25, 36, _____
(1) 47 (2) 50 138. A runs faster than B but not as fast as C, who is slower
(3) 42 (4) 49 than D. Who is the fastest runner ?
(1) A (2) B
133. 1, 2, 6, 24, 120, _____ (3) C (4) D
(1) 240 (2) 720
(3) 600 (4) 360 139. Which of the following should come in place of the
question mark in the following series :
134. 2, 3, 3, 5, 4, 7, _____
LXF, MTJ, NPN, OLR, ?
(1) 5 (2) 9
(1) PCV (2) PHV
(3) 6 (4) 3
(3) PST (4) PAV
135. 0, 1, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 13, _____
(1) 14 (2) 21 140. Some men and some tigers are performing in a cir-
cus. They have 42 legs and 13 heads. How many
(3) 18 (4) 20
tigers are there ?
136. 0, 6, 24, 60, _____ (1) 8 (2) 6
(1) 100 (2) 96 (3) 2 (4) 10
(3) 120 (4) 114

Directions : For Questions 141 – 145 refer to the information given below.

5 volunteers — J, K, L, M and N have been assigned the job of guarding a locality, Monday through Friday, during a
single week. Exactly two volunteers must be assigned the work each day according to the following conditions :

(i) Each of the volunteers must work at least once. 142. If K is assigned to work on exactly four days of the
(ii) None of the volunteers can work on three consecutive days. week, which of the following could be the pair of
(iii) K must work on Monday. volunteers assigned to work on Wednesday ?
(iv) M must work on Thursday and on Friday. (1) J and M (2) J and L
(v) J cannot work on any day on which K works. (3) M and N (4) K and L

141. Any of the following volunteers could be assigned 143. If J is assigned to work on exactly three days of the
to work on Wednesday except week, those days must include
(1) J (1) Thursday and Friday
(2) K (2) Wednesday and Friday
(3) L (3) Tuesday and Friday
(4) M (4) Monday and Wednesday

34
144. If K is assigned to work on only one day and L is 145. If J is assigned to work whenever and only when M
assigned to work on exactly four days which of the is assigned to work, which of the following can be
following pairs of volunteers must be assigned to true ?
work on Wednesday (1) J is assigned to work on Monday
(1) J and N (2) J and L (2) J is assigned to work on Wednesday
(3) L is assigned to work on Friday
(3) L and M (4) L and N (4) N is assigned to work on Tuesday

Directions : For Questions 146 – 150.

Each of these questions has a set of 3 items with some sort of relationship among them. Given below are four answers
1, 2, 3 and 4 depicting different type of relationship among items, each circle representing one item, irrespective of its size.
Find out the figure that represents the relationship among items given in questions.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

146. Bedroom, House, Kitchen 148. Train, Ship, Aeroplane

147. U.S.A., Florida, North America 149. Air, Nitrogen, Oxygen

150. Tyre, Scooter, Sun

Directions In questions 151 to 155, two statements are followed by two conclusions numbered I and II.

Mark 1 if only conclusion I follows 153. Statements

Mark 2 if only conclusion II follows All stars are covers.
All covers are bushes
Mark 3 if both I and II follow
Conclusions
Mark 4 if neither I nor II follows
I All stars are bushes
151. Statements II All covers are stars
Ram is a cake. 154. Statements
Some cakes are chairs. Some women are shrubs.
Conclusions Some shrubs are planets.
I Ram is a chair Conclusions
II Ram is not a cake. I Some women are planets.
II Some shrubs are planets.
152. Statements
155. Statements
No dog is a cat.
All huts are foils.
Rohit is a dog.
All foils are books.
Conclusions Conclusions
I Rohit is not a cat. I All huts are books.
II All dogs are Rohits. II All books are huts.

35
Directions : In each of the questions 156 – 160, a word is missing. Choose the missing word from the four choices given after
each question.

156. Magazine : Editor : : Drama : ? 159. Anaemia : Blood : : Insomnia : ?

(1) Star (2) Director (1) Sleep
(3) Producer (4) Actress (2) Food
(3) Walking
157. Top : Bottom : : Roof : ? (4) Fever
(1) Wall (2) Pillar
160. Air : Breath : : Blood : ?
(3) Door (4) Floor
(1) Red
158. Bihar : U.P. : : Canada : ? (2) Smell
(1) Mexico (2) U.S.A. (3) Thick
(3) Panama (4) Greenland (4) Circulation

Directions : For questions 161 – 164 consider the following information.

In order to do a work, it is necessary to have a minimum of three workers each day. The staff consists of five persons —
A, B, C, D and E, who work on a part-time basis. A can work on Mondays, Wednesdays and Fridays. B cannot report for work
on Wednesdys. C can report for wok of Tuesdays and Wednesdays only. D cannot work on Fridays. E is available any time
except on the first Monday and Thursday of the month.

161. Which three are available on any Monday ? 164. During which day of the week might it be impos-
(1) B, C and D (2) B, E and C sible to obtain a full complement of workers ?
(3) A, E and C (4) D, B and A (1) Monday
(2) Thursday
162. During which day of the week would it be necessary to (3) Friday
call on A to complete the full complement of workers ? (4) Wednesday
(1) Friday (2) Monday
165. Arrange the following words according to dictionary
(3) Tuesday (4) Thursday
arrangement :
163. Which three could you count on to report for work a. enrol b. entice
on Friday ? c. ensure d. ensign
(1) A, B and D (2) B, C and E (1) abcd (2) cbad
(3) C, B and A (4) A, B and E (3) adcb (4) adbc

Directions : For questions 166 to 170, unscramble the letters in the follwoing words and find the odd man out.

166. (1) DIINH (2) ISORTYH 169. (1) IHRAB (2) REKLAA
(3) NELGSIH (4) HCNERF (3) MSASA (4) LEPAN

167. (1) EDB (2) HIRAC 170. (1) URYB (2) LGOD
(3) OTCA (4) BALET (3) LVIRSE (4) OPCPER

168. (1) KITSC (2) TBA

(3) LABL (4) PUTSM

36
Directions : For questions 171 to 175, find the missing letter.

171. D, I, N, ___ 174. P, E, G, Q, F, H, R, G, I, ___

(1) S (2) O (1) S
(3) P (4) T (2) H
(3) J
172. L, N, P, R, ___ (4) T
(1) S (2) W
(3) T (4) V 175. A, E, I, O, ___
(1) T
173. O, P, R, S, V, ___ (2) U
(1) T (2) Z (3) V
(3) Y (4) W (4) P

Directions : For questions 176 – 180 consider the following information

(i) Five persons; A, B, C, D and E are holding a meeting
(ii) A converses in Spanish and Italian
(iii) B converses in Spanish and English
(iv) C converses in English and Italian
(v) D converses in French and Spanish
(vi) E converses in Italian and French

176. Which of the following can act as interpreter when C 179. Of the languages spoken at the meeting, which are
and D wish to confer ? the two least common ?
(1) Only A (2) Only B (1) French and Spanish
(3) A or B (4) Any of the three (2) Italian and Spanish
(3) English and French
177. Which of the following cannot converse without an
(4) French and Spanish
interpreter ?
(1) B and E (2) A and B 180. If a sixth person is brought in, to be understood by
(3) A and C (4) B and D the maximum number of the original five, he should
be fluent in
178. Besides E, which of the following can converse with (1) English and French
D without an interpreter ?
(2) French and Italian
(1) Only A (2) Only B
(3) Italian and Spanish
(3) Only C (4) A and B
(4) English and Spanish

Directions : For questions 181 – 183. In each of these questions a word has been given followed by four other words, one of
which cannot be formed by using the letters of the given word. Find that word.

181. RELIANCE 183. PHYSIOTHERAPY

(1) RAIN (2) LINE (1) PEAR
(3) CANE (4) COIN
(2) SHOT
182. INDTERMINATE (3) PRAY
(1) DETERMINE (2) MATE
(4) SHUT
(3) DIRTY (4) DRAIN

37
Directions : For questions 184 – 186, find the missing number.

? 1
184.
27 3
11 5
3 7

(1) 51 (2) 43
(3) 81 (4) 9

121 119 81
185.
100 1012 144

625 ? 25

(1) 225 (2) 255

(3) 250 (4) 175

186. 8 7 2 18 5 11
72 62 ?
12 6 9

(1) 42 (2) 50
(3) 52 (4) 55

Directions : For questions 187 – 190, consider the following information.

A contractor will build five houses in a certain town on a street that currently has no houses on it. The contractor will
select from seven different models of house — T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z. The town’s planning board has placed the following
restrictions on the contractor.
(i) No model can be selected for more than one house.
(ii) Either model W must be selected or model Z must be selected, but both cannot be selected.
(iii) If model Y is selected, then model V must also be selected.
(iv) If model U is selected, then model W cannot be selected.

187. If model U is one of the models selected for the street, 189. Which of the following is an acceptable combina-
then which of the following models must also be selected? tion of models that can be selected for the street ?
(1) Z (2) Y (1) T, U, X, Y, Z (2) T, V, X, Y, Z
(3) X (4) W (3) U, V, W, X, Y (4) V, W, X, Y, Z

188. If T, U and X are three of the models selected for the 190. If model Z is one model not selected for the street,
street, then which of the following must be the other then the other model not selected must be which of
two models selected ? the following?
(1) V and W (2) V and Y (1) T (2) U
(3) V and Z (4) W and Y
(3) V (4) W

38
191. In a code language, A is written as B, B is written as 193. Pointing to a photograph of a girl Ram said, “She
C, C is written as D and so on, then how will TALK has no sisters or daughters but her mother is the only
be written in that code language ? daughter of my mother.” How is the girl in the pho-
(1) UBML (2) UCNM tograph related to Ram’s mother ?
(3) UBNM (4) KLAT (1) Grand daughter (2) Sister-in-law
(3) Daughter-in-law (4) Daughter
192. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way
and so form a group. Which is the one that doesn’t 194. In a certain code, if XMKIV means TIGER, then how
belong to that group ? is PONY written ?
(1) ACE (2) QOM (1) TVMB (2) SCTR
(3) FHJ (4) IKM (3) YNOP (4) TSRC
195. If you rearrange the letters ‘ARSIP’ you would have
the name of a
(1) State (2) Country
(3) Continent (4) City

Directions : For questions 196 – 200 consider the following information.

Six negotiators — M, O, P, R, S and T — are to be seated at a round table for discussions. There are exactly six chairs
around the table. Each negotiator sits facing the centre of the table and is directly opposite a negotiator across the table. The
seating arrangement is subject to the following restrictions :
T cannot sit next to P
S cannot sit next to M
R must sit next to M

196. If R sits next to S on S’s right side, who must sit next 199. Which of the following is an acceptable sequence of
to R on R’s right side ? negotiators around the table ?
(1) M (2) O (1) M, S, R, T, P, O
(3) P (4) S (2) M, S, T, P, R, O
(3) T, O, P, S, M, R
197. If T sits next to M and S sits next to R, which of the (4) T, R, M, P, S, O
other negotiators must sit next to S ?
(1) M (2) O 200. If M sits next to P, which of the following is a com-
(3) R (4) P plete and accurate list of those who can sit next to P
on P’s other side ?
198. If T sits directly across the table from O, who must (1) O
sit on either side of P ? (2) O, S
(1) M and O (2) O and S (3) O, S, R
(3) M and S (4) O and R (4) R, S, T

39
 OPENMAT (X) ENTRANCE TEST FOR
MANAGEMENT PROGRAMMES 2002

TEST I
General Awareness
1. The primary function of the Finance Commission in 10. The satellite-based personal communications com-
India is to pany ‘Iridium’, which had to shut down its services,
(1) Distribute revenue between the Centre and the is a subsidiary company of which US giant ?
States (1) General Electric (2) US Robotics
(2) Prepare the Annual Budget (3) Motorola (4) AT&T
(3) Advise the President on financial matters
11. When was the last time that India won the Gold Medal
(4) Allocate funds to various Ministries of the Union in Hockey in the Olympics ?
and the State Governments
(1) 1992 (3) 1980
2. The state which has the largest number of seats re- (3) 1964 (4) 1972
served for the Scheduled Tribes in Lok Sabha is
12. The Indian Ntional Army (I.N.A.( came into exist-
(1) Bihar (2) Gujarat
ence in 1943 in
(3) Uttar Pradesh (4) Madhya Pradesh
(1) Japan (2) the then Burma
3. At which stage in its life cycle does the silkworm (3) Singapore (4) the then Malaya
yield the commercial fibre.
13. To which country did the nuclear submarine ‘Kursk’
(1) Egg (2) Larva
belong, which sank recently killing all the sailors on
(3) Pupa (4) Imago board ?
4. The Balkan Plan for fragmentation of India was the (1) Russia (2) Finland
brain-child of (3) Sweden (4) Norway
(1) W. Churchill (2) M.A. Jinnah
14. Who was awarded the Dada Saheb Phalke Award in
(3) Lord Mountbatten (4) V.P. Menon the year 2000 ?
5. The blood glucose level is commonly measured in (1) Shyam Benegal (2) Mrinal Sen
(1) Millimeters of Hg (2) Milligrams per decilitre (3) Hrishikesh Mukherjee (4) Subhash Ghai
(3) Parts per million (4) Grammes per litre
15. Slobodan Milosevic, the Yugoslav leader who was
6. Gilt-edged market means forced to step down in October 2000, was the Presi-
dent of which Republic ?
(1) Billion market (2) Market of Govt. Securities
(1) Croatia (2) Bosnia
(3) Market of guns (4) Market of pure metals
(3) Slovenia (4) Serbia
7. Which one of the following dynasties was ruling over
16. Who is credited with the idea of linking each page of
North India at the time of Alexander’s invasion ?
information on the net to another that went on to cre-
(1) Nanda (2) Maurya ate the World Wide Web (WWW) ?
(3) Surya (4) Kanva (1) Tim Berners-Lee (2) Bill Gates
8. The sensation of fatigue in the muscles after pro- (3) Steve Jobs (4) Al Gore
longed strenous physical work is caused by 17. The recent Supreme Court judgement, on Sardar
(1) Decrease in supply of oxygen Sarovar Dam Project on Narmada river, has allowed
(2) Minor wear and tear of muscle fibres construction of the dam upto what height ?
(3) The depletion of glucose (1) 80 meters (2) 90 meters
(4) The accumulaltion of lactic acid (3) 100 meters (4) 110.6 meters

9. Who was the last President of the US to serve for 18. Which state did the Americans buy from the Rus-
two consecutive terms before Mr. Bill Clinton ? sians in 1867 ?
(1) John F. Kennedy (2) Ronald Reagan (1) Hawai (2) Washington
(3) George Bush (4) Jimmy Carter ` (3) Alaska (4) California

40
19. How many squares are there on a standard chess 26. Who discovered the neutron ?
board ? (1) John Bardeen (2) William Brag
(1) 49 (2) 64 (3) Henry Cavendish (4) James Chadwick
(3) 81 (4) 100
20. The founder of the slave dynasty in India was 27. Which single event in 1991 brought about the great
change in the world political scene ?
(1) Qutub-ud-din Aibak (2) Iltutmish
(1) Unification of two Germanys
(3) Aram Shah (4) Kaiquabad
(2) Disintegration of USSR
21. Which of the following amendments in the Indian (3) The Gulf War
Constitution incorporated the Fundamental Duties of (4) Stoppage of military aid to Pakistan by USA
citizens ?
(1) 41st (2) 42nd 28. Impure blood is received in which part of the heart ?
(3) 43rd (4) 44th (1) Right Auricle
(2) Left Auricle
22. During whose Prime Ministership of Britain did In-
dia gain freedom ? (3) Right Ventricle
(1) Chamberlain (2) Churchill (4) Left Ventricle
(3) Attlee (4) MacDonald
29. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
23. Tropical forests of Silent Valley lie in the state of (1) Colosseum — Rome
(1) Goa (2) Karnataka (2) Kremlin — Moscow
(3) Kerala (34) Tamil Nadu (3) Wall Street — New York
(4) White Hall — Washington
24. Shanghai is situated on the river
(1) Hwang Ho (2) Yangtze Kiang 30. In the history of the world, which of the following
(3) Min Chiang (4) Hsiang revolutions has been the latest ?
(1) Red Revolution in China
25. The famous Battle of Wandiwash was fought between
the English and (2) French Revolution
(1) The French (2) The Portuguese (3) Glorious Revolution in England
(3) The Marathas (4) Tipu Sultan (4) Russian Revolution

TEST II
English Language
Directions : Read the following passages carefully and answer the questions that follow each passage, according to the
contents of the passage.

Passage I
When musing on cities over time and in our time, from the first (whenever it was) to today, we must always remember
that cities are artifacts. Forests, jungles, deserts, plains, oceans — the organic environment is born and dies and is without
moral constraint or ethical control. But cities — despite the metaphors that we apply to them from biology or nature (“The city
dies when industry flees”, “The neighbourhoods are the vital cells of the urban organism”), despite the sentimental or anthro-
pomorphic devices we use to describe cities — are artificial. Nature has never made a city, and what Nature makes that may
seem like a city — an anthill, for instance — only seems like one. It is not a city.
Human beings made and make cities, and only human beings kill cities, or let them die. And human beings do both —
make cities and unmake them by the same means : by acts of choice. We enjoy deluding ourselves in this as in other things. We
enjoy believing that there are forces out there completely determining our fate, natural forces — or forces so strong and
overwhelming as to be like natural forces — that send cities through organic or biological phases of birth, growth and decay.
We avoid the knowledge that cities are best works of art, and at worst ungainly artifacts — but never flowers or even weeds —
and that we, not some mysterious force or cosmic biological system, control the creation of life of a city.

41
 We control the creation and life of a city by the choices and agreements we make — the basic choice being, for
instance, not to live alone, the basic agreement being to live together. When people choose to settle, like the stars, not wander
like the moon, they create cities as sites and symbols of their choice to stop and their agreement not to separate. Now stasis
and proximity, not movement and distance, define human relationships. Mutual defense, control of a river or harbour, shelter
from natural forces — all these and other reasons may cause people to aggregate, but once congregated, they then live
differently and become different.
A city is not an extended family. That is a tribe or clan. A city is a collection of disparate families who agree to a fiction
: They agree to live as if they were as close in blood or ties of kinship as in fact they are in physical proximity. Choosing life
in an artifact, people agree to live in a state of similitude. A city is a place where ties of proximity, activity, and self-interest
assume the role of family ties. It is a considerable pact, a city. If a family is an expression of continuity through biology, a city
is an expression of continuity through will and imagination — through mental choices makeing artiface, not through physical
reproduction.

31. The author’s purpose in the passage is primarily to
(1) identify the sources of popular discontent with cities
(2) define the city as growing out of a social con-
tract
(3) illustrate the difference between cities and vil-
lages
(4) compare cities with blood families
35. Mutual defense, control of waterways, and shelter
from the forces of nature are presented primarily as
examples of motives for people to
(1) move away from their enemies
(2) build up their supplies of armament
(3) gather together in settlements
(4) welcome help from their kinfolk

32. The author cites the sentence “The neighbourhoods 36. We can infer that roving tribes differ from city dwell-
are the vital cells of the urban organism” as ers in that these nomads
(1) an instance of prevarication (1) have not chosen to settle in one spot
(2) a simple statement of scientific fact (2) lack ties of activity and self-interest
(3) a momentary digression from his central thesis (3) are willing to let the cities die
(4) an example of one type of figurative language (4) have no need for mutual defense
33. The author’s attitude towards the statements quoted is 37. By saying a city “is a considerable pact” the author
(1) respectful primarily stresses
(2) ambivalent (1) its essential significance
(3) pragmatic (2) its speculative nature
(4) skeptical
(3) the inevitable agreement
34. According to the author of the passage, why is an anthill, (4) the moral constraints
by definition, unlike a city ?
38. The author of the passage, to live in a city is
(1) It can be casually destroyed by human beings
(2) Its inhabitants outnumber the inhabitants of even (1) an unexpected outcome
the largest city (2) an opportunity for profit
(3) It exists on a far smaller scale than any city does (3) an action of volition
(4) It is the work of instinct rather than of imagination (4) a pragmatic solution

Passage II
The need for solar electricity is clear. It is safe, ecologically sound, efficient, continuously available, and it has no
moving parts. The basic problem with the use of solar photovoltaic devices is economics, but until recently very little progress
has been made towards the development of low-cost photovoltaic devices. The larger part of research funding has been
devoted to study of single-crystal silicon solar cells, despite the evidence, including that the leading manufacturers of crystal-
line silicon, that the technique holds little promise. The reason for this pattern is understandable and historical. Crystalline
silicon is the active element in the very successful semiconductor industry and virtually all the solid state devices contain
silicon transistors and diodes. Crystalline silicon, however, is particularly unsuitable to terrestrial solar cells.
Crystalline silicon solar cells work well and are successfully used in the space programme, where cost is not an issue.
While single-crystal silicon has been proven in extraterrestrial use with efficiencies as high as 18 percent, and other more
expensive and scarce material such as gallium arsenide can have even higher efficiences, costs must be reduced by a factor of

42
more than 100 to make them practical for commercial use. Beside the fact that the starting crystalline silicon is expensive, 95
percent of it is wasted and does not appear in the final device. Recently, there have been some imaginative attempts to make
quality single crystals : but to date the efficiencies of these apparently lower-cost arrays have been unacceptably small.
Moreover, these materials are cheaper only because of the introduction of disordering in crystalline semiconductors and
disorder degrades the efficiency of crystalline solar cells.
The dilemma can be avoided by preparing completely disordered or amorphous materials. Amorphous materials have
disordered atomic structure as compared to crystalline materials : that is, they have only short-range order rather than the long-
range periodicity of crystals. The advantages of amorphous solar cells are impressive. Whereas crystals can be grown as
wafers about four inches in diameter, amorphous materials can be grown over large areas in a single process. Whereas crystal-
line silicon must be made 200 microns thick to absorb a sufficient amount of sunlight for efficient energy conversion, only 1
micron of the proper amorphous materials is necessary. Crystalline silicon solar cells cost in excess of Rs. 4500 per square
foot, but amorphous films can be created at a cost of about Rs. 2200 per square foot.
Although many scientists were aware of the very low cost of amorphous solar cells, they felt that they could never be
manufactured with the efficiencies necessary to contribute significantly to the demand for electric power. This was based on
a misconception about the feature which determines efficiency. For example, it is not the conductivity of the material in the
dark which is relevant, but only the photoconductivity, that is, the conductivity in the presence of sunlight. Already, solar cells
with efficiencies well abve 6 percent have been developed using amorphous materials and further research will doubtless find
even less costly amorphous material with higher efficiencies.

39. The author is primarily concerned with 43. Which of the following has been mentioned as an
(1) discussing the importance of solar energy advantage of amorphous materials over silicon
(2) explaining the functioning of solar cells crystals for solar cells ?
(3) presenting a history of research on energy (1) The relative thinness of amorphous materials
sources
(2) The cost of amorphous materials
(4) describing a possible solution to the problem of
the cost of photovoltaic cells (3) The size ofsolar cells which can be made of
amorphous materials
40. According to the passage, which of the following en- (4) All of the above
couraged use of silicon solar cells in the space
programme ?
44. The tone of the passage can best be described as
(1) The higher cost of materials such as gallium arsenide
(2) The high extraterrestrial efficiency of the cells (1) analytical and optimistic
(3) The relative lack of cost limitations in the space (2) biased and unprofessional
program
(3) critical and discouraged
(4) Both (2) and (3)
(4) tentative and inconclusive
41. Which of the following pairs of terms does the au-
thor regard as most nearly synonymous ?
45. The word ‘terrestrial’ as used in the passage means
(1) Solar and extraterrestrial
(2) Photovoltaic devices and solar cells (1) on the surface of the earth
(3) Amorphous materials and higher efficiencies (2) territory
(4) Wafers and crystals
(3) to be used on roof tops or terraces
42. The material in the passage could best be used in an (4) without wire connectivity
argument for
(1) discontinuing the space programme
(2) increased funding for research on amorphous
materials
(3) further study of the history of silicon crystals
(4) increased reliance on solar energy

43
Directions : For Questions 46 to 50. Each of these questions consists of a capitalized word followed by four alternatives. From
the given alternatives choose the one that is most similar in meaning to the capitalized word.

46. TEMPORISE 48. SONOROUS

(1) avoid committing oneself (1) wordly-wise (2) sleep causing
(2) restrain (3) resonant (4) half asleep
(3) extend
49. PUGNACITY
(4) hesitate
(1) versatility (2) comeliness
(3) rapidity (4) disposition to fight
47. ZEPHYR
50. OBFUSCATE
(1) fanatic (2) gentle wind
(1) take away (2) confuse
(3) fanciful (4) profligate
(3) bring to a halt (4) get rid of

Directions : For Questions 51 to 55. These questions consist of a capitalized word followed by four alternatives. Select from
among the alternatives, the word which is most nearly opposite to the capitalized word in meaning.

51. EXTRANEOUS 54. ESCHEW

(1) outlandish (2) tumultuous (1) invite
(3) impetuous (4) central (2) use
(3) emanate
52. RUE
(4) strengthen
(1) celebrate (2) denounce
(3) engender (4) constrain 55. ENERVATE
(1) deliberate
53. MORIBUND (2) fortify
(1) contentious (2) malignant (3) introduce
(3) vital (4) pretentious (4) escalate

Directions : For Questions 56 to 60. Each of the questions below consists of a sentence with one or more blank spaces. Each
sentence is followed by four alternative sets of words. Choose the set of words from among the alternatives given, which when
inserted in the sentence, best fit the meaning of the sentence.

56. Tempers ran high among the old timers who
_______ the young Mayor and his _______
Municipal Council.
(1) despised, attractive (2) admired, elite
(3) resented, reformist (4) feared, apathetic
59. Although her initial success was _______ by the fact
that she was the daughter of a famous actor, the crit-
ics later _______ her as a star in her own right.
(1) enhanced, acclaimed
(2) impeded, criticised

57. Working _______ under the pressure of time, Rohan (3) superceded, disawarded
did not notice his _______ mistake. (4) trivialized, accepted
(1) continually, redundant
60. _______ and piety seem to have been two qualities
(2) frantically, inevitable
almost universally shared by the original settlers of
(3) rapidly, careless this land who faced the almost _______ problem of
(4) sporadically, simple the weather and disease.
(1) cowardice, enduring
58. We are _______ going to have to face the reality that
the resources of the Earth are _______ . (2) Avarice, threatening
(1) finally, worthless (2) gradually, limitless (3) veracity, understandable
(3) eventually, finite (4) quickly, unavailable (4) Fortitude, insurmountable

44
Directions: For Questions 61 to 65. Find the odd man out among each of the following.

61. (1) compliant (2) submissive (3) pneumonia (4) dementia

(3) homely (4) obliging
64. (1) fawning (2) preposterous
62. (1) sociable (2) cheerful (3) obsequious (4) servile
(3) convivial (4) gregarious
65. (1) frustration (2) approximation
63. (1) paranoia (2) schizophrenia (3) sorrow (4) satisfaction

Directions : For Questions 66 to 70. In each of the following sentences four words or phrases have been underlined. Choose
the underlined word or phrase that has been used imappropriately.

66. The arrogant young executive revelled in finding faults with his elder.
(1) (2) (3) (4)

67. In planning the syllabus we must give regards to the needs of those students taking the vernacular courses.
(1) (2) (3) (4)

68. At the end of the long and difficult negotiation, the union and the management agreed about the proposal.
(1) (2) (3) (4)

69. The desire to protect games and the desire to use it occurs in the same person who both protects wildlife for aesthetic
(1) (2)
reasons but enjoys dining on a haunch of venison.
(3) (4)

70. Problems arise when the historical writer tries to graft a modern sensibility on an ancient era, when he tries to create
(1) (2)
feminists where none existed or egalitarian people in an age replete with the horrors of slavery and despots.
(3) (4)

Directions : For Questions 71 to 75. Each of these questions has a highlighted phrase which can be correctly substituted by
one of the four alternative choices that follow the question. Choose the alternatives which can most appropriately substitute
the highlighted phrase, without changing the sense of the sentence.

71. The policeman took away for public use the first car 74. This mountain range contains slopes that will chal-
that came along and ordered the driver to reach the lenge experts as well as recent converts.
accident site. (1) amateurs
(1) confiscated (2) commandeered (2) neophytes
(3) appropriated (4) confined (3) settlers
72. The mayfly is a shortlive creature, its adult life last- (4) novices
ing little more than a day.
(1) fragile (2) ephemeral 75. Silas Marner’s excessive frugality did not allow him
(3) eugenic (4) ethereal to indulge in any luxuries.
(1) probity
73. Deeply attacking cherished traditions, he deliberately set
out to shock conventional theatre goers with his radical plays. (2) proclivity
(1) unconventional (2) irreverential (3) sagacity
(3) iconoclastic (4) idiosyncratic (4) parsimony

45
Directions : For Questions 76 to 80. Each of these questions consist of a related pair of capitalized words, followed by four
alternative pairs of words. Select the alternative pair that best expresses a relaltionship similar to that expressed in the pair of
capitalized words.

76. PLEAD : SUPPLIANT 79. BUFFOON : DIGNITY

(1) disperse : rioteer (2) translate : interpreter (1) laughing stock : ridicule
(3) beg : philanthropist (4) shun : outcast (2) imposter : identification
77. LINEAGE : PERSON (3) braggart : modest
(1) foliage : tree (2) title : book (4) gambler : risk
(3) landscape : portrait (4) derivation : word
80. STARE : GLANCE
78. INDOLENT : SLOTH
(1) participate : observe (2) hunt : stalk
(1) wrathful : ire (2) arrogant : acuity (3) gulp : sip (4) scorn : admire
(3) impatient : apathy (4) covetous : enigma

TEST III
Quantitative Aptitude

81. The sum of 0.2 + 0.02 + 0.002 + 0.00002 is 88. If 10 dozen pens cost Rs. 648, what do 33 pens
(1) 0.22222 (2) 0.22024 cost ?
(3) 0.24222 (4) 0.22202 (1) Rs. 154.30 (2) Rs. 178.20
(3) Rs. 168.20 (4) Rs. 188.20
82. If 3 men or 4 women can do a piece of work in 43
days, how long will 7 men and 5 women take to do it 89. 0.1% of 10000 is
? (1) 100 (2) 1000
(1) 10 days (2) 11 days (3) 110 (4) 10
(3) 12 days (4) 13 days
90. A sum of Rs. 2400 amounts to Rs. 2646 in 2 years
83. The square root of 0.8 is at compound interest rate. Find the rate of
(1) 0.4 (2) 0.888 interest.
(3) 0.894 (4) 0.911 (1) 6% (2) 5%
(3) 8% (4) 4%
84. At what rate of simple interest will a sum of money
triple itself in 20 years ? 91. If Monu can do a piece of work in 6 days and Vikas
(1) 9% (2) 11% can do the same work in 12 days, how long will they
(3) 10% (4) 8% take to do it together ?
(1) 4 days (2) 5 days
85. The average of 25 results is 18, the average of first 12
is 16 and the last 12 is 19. What is the 13th result ? (3) 8 days (4) 3 days
(1) 17 (2) 30
92. The value of 15000 is equal to
(3) 40 (4) 35
(1) 0 (2) 1
86. Which of the following is divisible by 11 ? (3) 1500 (4) 150
(1) 35819 (2) 45387
(3) 8593 (4) 61234 93. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 8 and 12 mins.
respectively. Both are opened together but at the end
87. A train travels 90 km in 1 hour. How long will it take of 3 mins B is turned off. How much more time will
to travel 24 kn ? it take to fill the tank ?
(1) 36 mins. (2) 16 mins (1) 3 mins (2) 4 mins
(3) 17 mins. (4) 18 mins. (3) 6 mins (4) 5 mins

46
47
112. The compound interest on Rs. 18,750 in 2 years, with 119. Jack says to John, “I am twice as old as you were
the rate of interest being 4% for first year and 8% for when I was as old as you are.” The sum of their ages
the second year, is is 63. Find their ages.
(1) Rs. 2250 (2) Rs. 2310 (1) 44, 19 (2) 50, 13
(3) Rs. 1610 (4) Rs. 2410 (3) 40, 23 (4) 36, 27
113. A ship of 1200 men on board has sufficient provisions 120. A father is fifty one years old and his son is 16 years
to last 17 weeks. Some more pasengers from other old. In how many years will the father be twice as
ships were taken and the provisions were finished in old as his son?
15 weeks. How many passengers were taken ?
(1) 17 years (2) 18 years
(1) 1260 (2) 1360
(3)14 years (4) 19 years
(3) 160 (4) 60
114. The sum of two numbers which are in the ratio of 5 : 121. If the speed of a car is 92.4 km/hr, then how many
7 is 264. Find the numbers. meters will it cover in 20 minutes ?
(1) 111; 153 (2) 110; 154 (1) 30800 m (2) 32800 m
(3) 109; 155 (4) 112; 152 (3) 38000 m (4) 80300 m

115. Find two numbers, the greater of which shall be in 122. Mohan starts at 2 pm and walks from Delhi to Agra
the same ratio to the smaller as the sum is to 42 and at the rate of 5 km/hr. Ganesh starts from Delhi to
their difference is to 6. Agra on cycle at 3 pm at the rate of 10 km/hr. When
(1) 36, 28 (2) 32,24 will Ganesh overtake Mohan ?
(3) 19, 17 (4) 29, 23 (1) 4 pm (2) 5 pm
(3) 3.30 pm (4) 4.30 pm
3 cos θ + sin θ
116. If tan θ = 1, find the value of 2 cos θ + sin θ 123. I travelled 1200 km by air which formed 2/5 of the
trip. The remaining part of my trip was one third of
1 3 the whole trip by car and rest by train. The distance
(1) (2)
2 8 travelled by train is
8 (1) 700 km (2) 800 km
(3) (4) 5 (3) 1000 km (4) 900 km
3

5 sin θ + 3 cos θ 124. What will be the income tax payable by a person
117. If 3 cos θ = 4, find the value of 5 sin θ + 3 cos θ getting total income of Rs. 90,000 in a year if the
first Rs. 50,000 is not taxable and the rate for next
2 1 Rs. 50,000 is 20% ?
(1) (2) (1) Rs. 7,000 (2) Rs. 8,000
8 9
(3) Rs. 10,000 (4) Rs. 15,000
1 3
(3) (4)
2 2 8 125. The product of (a+b) (a2–ab+b2) is
118. Jayanti is three years younger to Rani. Rina is two years (1) a3 + b3
older than Jayanti. What is Rani’s age in relation to Rina ? (2) a3 – b3
(1) Two years older (2) One year older (3) (a + b)3
(3) Three years older (4) One year younger (4) (a – b)3

Directions : For Questions 126 to 130. Study the pie chart given below and answer the Questions 126 to 130.

Elec.
Cloth
Misc. 10%
20%
10%

Rent
Percentage of money spent on
20% household items
Food
40%

48
126. The ratio between money spent on electricity and 129. The raio of expenses on food to other expenses is
clothing is (1) 4 : 6
(1) 1 : 3 (2) 1 : 2
(2) 4 : 9
(3) 1 : 4 (4) 1 : 5
(3) 4 : 8
127. If the income is Rs. 28,000 per month, the expendi- (4) 4 : 5
ture on rent is
(1) Rs. 8400 (2) Rs. 5600
(3) Rs. 2800 (4) Rs. 5000 130. If the income of the family is Rs. 6000, the expenses
on non-food items is
128. If the expenditure on food goes up by 5%, how much (1) Rs. 3600
should the family spend less on clothing assuming
(2) Rs. 2400
other expenses remain constant ?
(1) 5% (2) 10% (3) Rs. 4200
(3) 12% (4) 15% (4) Rs. 3000

TEST IV
Reasoning
Directions : For Questions 131 to 140, find the number that comes next in the sequence.

131. 6, 37, 7, 50, 8, 65, 9, ____ 136. 100, 81, 64, 49, 36, ____
(1) 80 (2) 82 (1) 40 (2) 30
(3) 100 (4) 10 (3) 25 (4) 24

132. 5, 25, 125, 7, 49, 343, 9, 81, ____ 137. 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, ____
(1) 729 (2) 643 (1) 15 (2) 13
(3) 810 (4) 819 (3) 16 (4) 12

133. 9, –7, 18, –18, 31, ____ 138. 0, 1, 2, 5, 26, ____

(1) –31 (2) 33 (1) 47 (2) 31
(3) 61 (4) –33 (3) 677 (4) 676

134. 4, 16, 80, 480, ____ 139. 76, 72, 36, 32, 16, 12, ____
(1) 4800 (2) 880 (1) 6 (2) 8
(3) 3360 (4) 960 (3) 677 (4) 10

135. 25, 24, 22, 19, 15, ____ 140. 1, 4, 13, 40, ____
(1) 9 (2) 10 (1) 67 (2) 60
(3) 11 (4) 12 (3) 120 (4) 121

Directions : For Questions 141 to 143 consider the following information.

Six employees — L, M, N, O, P and R — are being assigned to offices, each of which can accommodate two persons
and no more than two. Each person must be assigned to exactly one office and must be assigned to that office either alone or
else together with one other member of the group of six. Enough offices are available to permit any possible assignment of
group members to offices, but the following restrictions must be observed :
M cannot share an office with N.
N cannot share an office with O.
P and R must share an office together

49
141. Which of the following pairs of employees can be 144. Which is the odd one out ?
assigned to one office together ?
(1) L and O (2) L and R
(3) N and O (4) M and N

142. If N is assigned to an office alone, which of the fol

lowing must be true ?
(1) L shares an office with O
(2) M is assigned to an office alone
145. Which is the least like the other ?
(3) The group occupies either 4 or 5 offices
(4) The group occupies either 3 or 6 offices

143. If P and R are the only ones who share an office, how
many offices are the minimum that can accommo-
date the group?
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 5

Directions : For Questions 146 to 150, uncramble the letters in the following words and find the odd man out.

146. (1) LHOCOS (2) LLIIGCO 149. (1) SEHSC

(3) REVIINTUYS (4) PSLATIOH (2) CCRETKI
147. (1) ROEANG (2) LEPAP (3) KCYEOH
(3) INNOO (4) LNOEM (4) NEINTS

148. (1) AISPR (2) NNOOLD 150. (1) PLANE (2) AAJNP
(3) KOWNEYR (4) OTYKO (3) HANUBT (4) STIKAPNA

Directions : For Questions 151 to 156, consider the following information :

All electronic messages in a large corporation are transmitted by means of a message network that connects eight
computers — Q, R, S, T, W, X, Y and Z. All of the connections are two-way, so that messages can be sent back and forth
between any two connected computers. Any given message enters and leaves a given computer at most once. The computers
are connected only in the following way :
Q is connected to R and to T
S is connected to R and to T
W is connected to S and to Y
X is connected to S, to Y, and to Z

151. The path followed by messages sent from Y to Z must 153. Which of the following specifies in its entirety a se-
include which of the following computers ? quence, from first to last, of computers through which
(1) R (2) S a message from Z to T can pass ?
(3) W (4) X (1) Z, X, Q, T (2) Z, X, Y, T
(3) Z, X, S, R, T (4) Z, X, Y, W, S, T
152. Messages sent from Q to W can go along any of the
following paths EXCEPT 154. What is the minimum number of computers, exclud-
(1) Q to R to S to W ing the originating and destination computers,
(2) Q to T to S to W through which a message from T to X must pass ?
(3) Q to R to S to T to W (1) One (2) Two
(4) Q to R to S to X to Y to W (3) Three (4) Four

50
51
Directions : For Questions 168 to 170, consider the following information :
Two persons A and B started for point P from their homes. A went 2 km east, turned right, went 3 km, again turned right
and after going 1 km reached P.
B went 3 km west, turned left and after 1 km, again turned left. He went 2 km, finally turned right and after 2 km
reached P. All roads were either north-south or east-west.

168. How far is B’s house from A’s and in which direction ? 170. If they both went to A’s place from P, took the short-
(1) 1 km west (2) 2 km east est route and went at a speed of 30 km per hour, how
much time did they take in reaching A’s place ?
(3) 2 km west (4) 1 km north
(1) 8 mins
169. If both started at 10 a.m. and reached P at 10.24 a.m., (2) 6 mins
B’s speed was how much more than A ?
(3) 10 mins
(1) 2 km per hour (2) 3 km per hour
(4) 15 mins
(3) 4 km per hour (4) 5 km per hour

Directions : For Questions 171 to 175, consider the following information.

A project to consolidate the programmes of a large university and a small college is set up. It is agreed that the represen-
tatives work in small committees of three, with two representatives of the large university. It was also agreed that no committee
be represented by faculty members of the same subject area. The large university was represented by the following professors
: J, who teaches English literature, K, who is chairman of the Mathematics Department, and L, who is in the Department of
Natural Sciences. The small college appointed the following : M, who teaches Mathematics, N, who is a Latin teacher, and O
and P, who teach English literature.

171. Which of the following represents a committee prop- 174. If L is not available for service, which of the follow-
erly composed ? ing must be on the committee ?
(1) K, L, N (2) K, L, M (1) M and J
(3) J, K, L (4) J, O, N (2) O and J
172. Which of the following may serve with P ? (3) N and J
(1) K and M (2) K and L (4) N and O
(3) K and O (4) J and K
175. Which of the following must be true ?
173. Which of the following must be true ?
I N and O are always on the same committee.
I If J serves on a committee, P must be assigned
to that committee. II M and O never serve on the same committee.
II If J cannot serve on a committee, then M can- III When M serves, L must serve.
not be assigned to that committee. (1) I only
III If J cannot serve on a committee, then L must (2) I and II only
serve on that committee.
(3) III only
(1) II only (2) III only
(3) I and II only (4) II and III only (4) II and III only

Directions : For Questions 176 to 178. You find below a set of letters with a number above each, followed by four choices of
arrangements of letters to make a word. Choose the correct arrangement of letters as indicated by the number to make a word.

176. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 178. 1 2 3 4 5
E U I M L P T L E L P A R
(1) 43512867 (2) 53418672 (1) 32145
(3) 63145872 (4) 42873651 (2) 31452
(3) 45213
177. 1 2 3 4 4 6 7 8 9
O N E I C T N T N (4) 34512
(1) 543219867 (2) 456329871
(3) 514278963 (4) 512849376

52
Directions : For Questions 179 to 185, consider the following information.
A mail-order company sells packages of jam, each containing three jars of jam. The available flavours are : grape,
orange, strawberry, peach and apple. Each jar contains exactly one flavour of jam. Each package must conform to the follow-
ing rules :
(i) Each package must contain either two or three different flavours of jam.
(ii) A package containing any orange jam must also contain at least one jar of grape.
(iii) A package containing any grape jam must also contain at least one jar of orange.
(iv) Peach jam and apple jam cannot be packed in the same package.
(v) A package containing any strawberry jam must also contain at least one jar of apple, but a package containing jam need
not contain strawberry jam.

179. Which of the following is an acceptable package ? 182. A jar of which of the following must be packed with
(1) One jar of peach, one jar of strawberry, and one a jar of orange and a jar of peach to make an accept-
jar of orange able package?
(1) grape (2) orange
(2) Two jars of strawberry and one jar of apple
(3) strawberry (4) peack
(3) Three jars of peach
183. An acceptable package cannot contain two jars of
(4) Three jars of orange
(1) grape (2) apple
180. An acceptable package cannot contain which of the (3) strawberry (4) peach
following combinations of jams ?
184. Which of the following pairs of jars of jam could be
(1) Grape and peach packed with a jar of orange to make an acceptable
(2) Peach and apple package ?
(3) Orange and peach (1) One jar each of orange and strawberry
(2) One jar each of grape and strawberry
(4) Orange and grape
(3) Two jars of orange
181. Which of the following could be packed with a jar of (4) Two jars of grape
strawberry to make an acceptable package ? 185. Which of the following cannot be two of the three
(1) One jar of peach and one jar of orange jars of jam in an acceptable package ?
(2) One jar of grape and one jar of orange (1) One jar of strawberry and one jar of peach
(3) Two jars of apple (2) One jar of grape and one jar of orange
(3) Two jars of orange
(4) Two jars of orange
(4) Two jars of grape

Directions : For Questions 186 to 188. If in a certain language CHARCOAL is coded as 45164913 and MORALE is coded as
296137, how are the following words coded in that language ?

186. REAL 188. COACH

(1) 8519 (2) 6713 (1) 31837
(3) 7209 (4) 9135 (2) 81494
187. ARCHER (3) 82464
(1) 164543 (2) 163546 (4) 49145
(3) 193344 (4) 193476

Directions : For Questions 189 to 193, consider the following information.

T, U, V and L (females) married P, K, R and S (males) — not necessarily in that order. V’s husband is older than S. U’s
husband is older than K who is the brother of T. K was the best man at V’s marriage. P is the youngest of the husbands.

189. L’s husband is 190. If P had daughter M, then which of the following is true?
(1) K (2) P (1) U is M’s mother
(3) R (4) S (2) M’s paternal uncle is M
(3) K is M’s maternal uncle
(4) R is M’s brother
53
191. Which of the following is false ? 193. The age of T is 30 years. The ages of the ladies differ
(1) K is younger than R but older than P by 2 years. If each husband is exactly three years
(2) L’s husband is not the youngest among the hus- older than his wife, what is the age of S ? (If the
bands husbands are arranged according to their ages
from the youngest to eldest, the ages of the wives
(3) V’s husband is the eldest among the husbands
would be in the increasing order, each differing by 2
(4) T’s husband is not the youngest among the hus- years)
bands
(1) 34 (2) 37
192. If the husbands from the youngest to the eldest are
of the ages 33, 36, 40 and 42 and the age of their (3) 36 (4) 39
wives are 29, 30, 28 and 39 respectively, then which
of the following is false ?
(1) V is older than P
(2) K is older than S’s wife
(3) The difference in the ages of R and V is only
three years
(4) L is the youngest among the wives

Directions : For Questions 194 to 196. In each of these questions a word has been given, followed by four other words, one of
which cannot be formed by using the letters of the given word. Find that word.

194. INFRASTRUCTURE 196. REMARKABLE

(1) STARE (2) CURE (1) ABLE
(3) INFER (4) STAIR (2) MARKS
195. ADMINISTRATION (3) REAR
(1) TRAIN (2) MINISTER (4) MARBLE
(3) RATIOS (4) STAIR

Directions : In Questions 197 to 200, ech question consists of a statement followed by three assumptions numbered I, II and
III. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assump-
tions and decide which of the assumptions are implicit in the statement. Then decide which of the answers 1, 2, 3 or 4 is the
correct answer.

197. The opportunities available to an MBA degree holder 199. Part of the core sector, the cement industry has been
are limitless. badly hit by the cut in government plan allocation.
I. MBA degree holders have a good demand in I. The cement industry is in a recession.
the job market. II. The cement industry depends heavily on the
II. MBA degree holders are better workers than others. government for support.
III. No other degree provides as many opportuni- III. The core sector consists of only the cement in-
ties as an MBA degree. dustry.
(1) Only I (2) Only II (1) II and III (2) I and II
(3) Only III (4) All three (3) I and III (4) All three

198. Till now, XYZ Corprn. has functioned with a strong 200. The contours of the investment strategies have been
emphasis on tradition and values, with employees dramatically altered with the entry of the foreign insti-
looked upon as part of one big family. tutional investors into the Indian market and with the
imminent entry of so many other waiting in the wings.
I. Only family members were employed by XYZ I. Some foreign institutional investors have already
Corprn. entered India.
II. There exists a strong corporatge culture with II. There has already been a shift in the investment
emphasis on tradition and values. strategies.
III. There is a low turnover of employees in the III. More foreign institutional investors are likely
group. to enter India.
(1) Only I (2) I and II (1) Only I (2) Only II
(3) All three (4) Only II (3) I and III (4) All three

54
 OPENMAT (XI) ENTRANCE TEST FOR
MANAGEMENT PROGRAMMES 2002

TEST I
General Awareness

1. The headquarters of UNESCO is located in 11. Ms Harita Kaur has the distinction of being the first
(1) The Hague (2) New York Indian woman
(3) Paris (4) Washington (1) Ambassador to a foreign country
(2) to join Indian Air Force
2. Which of the following is not correctly matched ? (3) to join Indian Navy
(1) Bhangra – Punjab (2) Bihu – Manipur (4) doctor to create a test-tube baby
(3) Garba – Gujarat (4) Tamasha – Maharashtra
12. Who among the following earned the sobriquet
3. Who is the author of “The Hindu View of Life” ? ‘Deshbandhu’ for his defence of members of the ex-
(1) S. Radhakrishnan tremist group of the Congress in 1908 ?
(2) Sri Aurobindo (1) Chittaranjan Das (2) Lala Lajpat Rai
(3) Rabindra Nath Tagore (3) Bipin Chandra Pal (4) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(4) Swami Vivekanand
13. Which of the following is not a rural development
programme ?
4. Which new championship was introduced in the last
Commonweallth Games held in Malaysia ? (1) TRYSEM (2) JRY
(1) Cricket (2) Football (3) CRY (4) RLEGP
(3) Hocky (4) Tennis
14. The headquarters of World Intellectual Property
5. “In Custody”, an English novel, has been written by Organisation (WIPO) is located in
(1) V.S. Naipaul (2) Vikram Seth (1) Paris (2) Madrid
(3) Anita Desai (4) Shobha De (3) New York (4) Geneva

6. Cricket was an Olympic event at which of the fol- 15. The first ever India–EU Summit was held in
lowing Olympics ? (1) Pyongyang (2) Tokyo
(1) London 1908 (2) Amsterdam 1928 (3) Beijing (4) Lisbon
(3) Paris 1900 (4) Melbourne 1956
16. World Cup Soccer 2006 will be held in
7. Who is the Chairman of the Planning Commission (1) Germany (2) UK
of India ?
(3) Japan (4) South Korea
(1) The President (2) The Vice President
(3) The Finance Minister (4) The Finance Secretary 17. Who won the Women’s Singles in the U.S. Open Ten-
nis Championship held in September 2000 at New
8. Which of the following Indian states has entered the York ?
Guiness Book of World Records for its proud pos- (1) Lindsay Davenport (2) Serena Williams
session of the tallest tree in the world ?
(3) Venus Williams (4) Jennifer Capriati
(1) Tripura (2) Sikkim
(3) Assam (4) Nagaland 18. Which of the following rivers is not a tributary of the
Indus ?
9. Which of the following was admitted as the 189th
members of the UN in September 2000 ? (1) Sutlej (2) Chenab
(1) Tuvalu (2) Kiribati (3) Bharirathi (4) Beas
(3) Nauru (4) Tonga
19. The President of India can nominate how many mem-
10. Which of the following is not a South Americal country? bers to the Lok Sabha ?
(1) Argentina (2) Bolivi (1) 2 (2) 4
(3) Colombia (4) Mexico (3) 8 (4) 12

55
20. The Constitution Review Panel has been set up in Feb- 26. Asteriods revolve around the Sun between
ruary under the Chairmanship of Mr. Justice M.N. (1) Mars and Jupiter (2) Earth and Mars
Venkatachaliah, consisting of how many members ?\
(3) Saturn and Uranus (4) Uranus and Neptune
(1) 7 (2) 9
(3) 11 (4) 15 27. Which of the following countries is also known as
the ‘Land of the Midnight Sun’ ?
21. Who wrote the book “India Unbound” ? (1) Finland (2) Ireland
(1) A.K. Damodaran (2) Vikram Seth (3) Norway (4) Sweden
(3) Khushwant Singh (4) Gurcharan Das
28. Which one of the following lakes forms an interna-
22. The name of Pierre Cardin is associated with tional boundry between Tanzania and Uganda ?
(1) Painting (2) Pop music (1) Chad (2) Malawi
(3) Fashion designing (4) Films (3) Victoria (4) Zambezi

23. Which of the following pairs is not correct ? 29. A ‘black hole’ is a body in space which does not al-
(1) Gandhi Sagar – Madhya Pradsh low any radiation to come out. This property is due
to its
(2) Tungabhadra – Tamil Nadu
(1) very small size
(3) Bhakra Nangal – Punjab
(2) very large size
(4) Hirakud – Orissa
(3) very high density
24. The World Investment Report (WIR) is published by (4) very low density
(1) IMF (2) GATT
30. A small pouch containing silica gel is found in
(3) OECD (4) UNCTAD
bottles of medicine in tablet or powder form be-
cause silica gel
25. The tenth session of UNCTAD (United Nations Con-
ference on Trade and Development) was held at which (1) kills bacteria
of the following places in Feburary 2000 ? (2) kills germs and spores
(1) Myanmar (2) Manila (3) absorbs moisture
(3) Singapore (4) Thailand (4) absorbs all gases present inside the bottle

TEST II
English Language
Directions : For Questions 31 to 45. Read the passages below and then answer the questions that follow each passage,
according to the contents of the passage.

Passage I
Nearly two thounsand years have passed since a census decreed by Caesar Augustus became part of the greatest story
ever told. Many things have changed in the intervening years. The hotel industry worries more about overbuilding than
ovecrowding, and if they had to meet an unexpected influx, few inns would have a manger to accommodate the weary guests.
Now it is the census taker that does the travelling in the fond hope that a highly mobile population will stay put long enough
to get a good sampling. Methods of gathering, recording and evaluating information have presumably been improved a great
deal. And where then it was the modest purpose of Rome to obtain a simple head count as an adequate basis for levying taxes,
now batteries of complicated statistical series furnished by governmental agencies and private organisations are eagerly
scanned and interpreted by sages and seers to get a clue to future events. History does not tell us how the Roman census takers
made out, and as regards our more immediate casting, there are considerable differences of opinion. They were aired at the
celebration of the 125th anniversary of the American Statistical Assocation. There was the thought that business forecasting
might well be on its way from an art to a science, and some speakers talked about new-fangled computers and high-faulting
mathematical systems in terms of excitement and endearment which we, at least in our younger years when these things
mattered, would have associated more readily with the description of a fair maiden. But others pointed to the deplorable
record of highly esteemed forecasts and forecasters with a batting average below that of the weakest teams, and the president-
elect of the Association cautioned that “high powered statistical methods are usually in order where the facts are crude and
inadequate statisticians assume.” We left his birthday party somewhere between hope and despair and with the conviction, not

56
really newly acquired, that proper statistical methods applied to ascertainable facts have their merits in economic forecasting
as long as neither forecaster nor public is deluded into mistaking the delineation of probabilities and trends for a prediction of
certainties of mathematical exactitude.

31. The passage would be most likely to appear in 35. On the basis of the passage, it can be inferred that
(1) a journal of biblical studies the author would agree with which of the following
statements ?
(2) an introductory college textbook on statistics
(1) Computers have significantly improved the
(3) the annual report of the American Statistical
application of statistics in business
Assocation
(2) Statistics is not at the present time, a science
(4) a newspaper review of a recent professional fes
tivity (3) It is useless to try to predict the economy
(4) Most mathematical systems are inexact
32. According to the passage, taxation in Roman times
was based on 36. The author’s tone can best be described as
(1) mobility (2) wealth (1) jocular
(3) population (4) census takers (2) scornful
33. The author refers to the Romans primarily in order (3) pessimistic
to (4) objective
(1) prove the superiority of modern sampling meth
ods to ancient ones 37. In the phrase “when these things mattered”, the words
(2) provide a historical framework for the passage “these things” refer to
(3) relate an unfamiliar concept to a familiar one (1) new-fangled computers
(4) show that statistical forecasts have not signifi- (2) terms of excitement and endearment
cantly deteriorated (3) fair maidens
(4) younger years
34. The author refers to the ‘weakest teams’ primarily in
order to 38. The word “delineation” used towards the end of the
(1) show that sports do not depend on statistics passage means
(2) provide an example of an unreliable statistic (1) separation
(3) contrast verifiable and unverifiable methods of (2) depiction
record keeping (3) demarcation
(4) illustrate the failure of statistical predictions (4) association

Passage II
Scattered around the globe are more than 100 small regions of isolated volcanic activity known to geologists as hot
spots. Unlike most of world’s volcanoes, they are not always found at the boundaries of the great drifting plates that make up
the earth’s surface; on the contrary, many of them lie deep in the interior of a plate. Most of the hot spots move only slowly, and
in some cases the movement of the plates past them has left trails of extinct volcanoes. The hot spots and their volcanic trails
are milestones that mark the passage of the plates.
That the plates are moving is now beyond dispute. Africa and South America, for example, are receding from each
other as new material is injected into the sea floor between them. The complementary coastlines and certain geological
features that seem to span the ocean are reminders of where the two continents were once joined. The relative motion of the
plate carrying these continents has been constructed in detail, but cannot readily be translated into motion with respect to the
earth’s interior. It is not possible to determine whether both continents are moving (in opposite directions) or whether one
continent is stationary and the other is drifting away from it. Hot spots, anchored in the deeper layers of the earth, provide the
measuring instruments needed to resolve the question. From an analysis of the hot spot population it appears that the African
plate is stationary and that it has not moved during the past 30 million years.

39. The term “hot plate” is being used in the passage 40. The authors regard the theory that the plates making
(1) rhetorically (2) colloquially up the earth’s surface move as
(1) tentative (2) irrefutable
(3) technically (4) ambiguously
(3) discredited (4) unanimous

57
41. The term ‘complementary’ as referred to in respect 43. According to the passage, which of the following
of coastlines is used in the sense of statements indicated that Africa and South America
(1) serving to complete once adjoined one another ?
(2) adding value to each other (1) They share certain common topographic traits
(3) juxtaposed (2) Their shorelines are physical counterparts
(4) running parallel (3) The African plate has been stable for 30 million
years
42. According to the passage, hot spots (4) (1) and (2) only
(1) are always found on the boundaries of the drift-
ing plates 44. The word “constructed”’ most nearly means
(2) move slowly and may lie deep in the interior of (1) interpreted (2) built
a plate (3) impeded (4) restricted
(3) are too numerous to be counted
(4) All of the above 45. According to the passage, the hot spot theory even-
tually may prove useful in interpreting
(1) the boundaries of the plates
(2) the depth of the ocean floor
(3) the relative motion of the plates
(4) major changes in continental shape

Directions : For Questions 46 to 50. Each of these questions consists of a capitalized word followed by 4 alternatives. From
the given alternatives choose the one that is most similar in meaning to the capitalized word.

46. DISINGENUOUS 49. ABJURE

(1) sophisticated (2) unprejudiced (1) discuss (2) renounce
(3) argumentative (4) unintelligent (3) run off secretly (4) perjure

47. EXCULPATE
50. STYMIE
(1) scold with biting harshness
(2) cut away (1) make numb
(3) clear from blame (2) cause to appear stupid
(4) serve as an example (3) present an obstacle
(4) bring under control
48. GERMANE
(1) well bred (2) pertinent
(3) light hearted (4) about to grow

Directions : For Questions 51 to 55. These questions consists of a capitalized word followed by four alternatives. Select from
among the alternatives the word wlhich is most nearly opposite to the capitalized word in meaning.

51. PHLEGMATIC 53. SALACIOUS

(1) hoarse (2) voluntary (1) expensive (2) wholesome
(3) oral (4) effusive (3) private (4) religious

52. CONSONANT 54. PEREMPTORY

(1) insuperable (1) humble (2) resistant
(3) weak (4) deferential
(2) incongruous
(3) non existent 55. SYBARITIC
(4) abundant (1) foolish (2) obdurate
(3) austere (4) conservative

58
Directions : For Questions 56 to 60. Each of the questions below consists of sentences with one or more blank spaces. Each
sentence is followed by four alternative sets of words. Choose the word or set of words from among the alternatives given,
which when inserted in the sentence, best fits the meaning of the sentence.

56. _______ and ________, she left many to mourn her (3) concentration, discounted
generous heart when she died. (4) favour, added up
(1) Selfless, altruistic
(2) Thoughtful, rarefied 59. Immigrants arriving in a new country have the spe-
cial problem of __________ their established
(3) Belove, somatic
behaviour and learning new habits whose results are
(4) Kind, political _________
(1) abandoning, uncertain
57. The innovations of the _______ age have had
________ effec ts on people in all walks of life. (2) 1strengthening, different
(1) atomic, irrelevant (3) losing, definte
(2) electronic, universal (4) controlling, guaranteed
(3) nuclear, profane
(4) computer, marked 60. We should have _________ trouible ahead when the
road _______ into a gravel path.
58. Human senses are designed to _______ specific (1) doubted, shrank
stimuli, and after a focus is achieved, other sensory (2) anticipated, dwindled
data is ________
(3) expected, grew
(1) look for, hightened
(4) seen, collapsed
(2) respond to, insulated

Directions: For Questions 61 to 65. Find the odd man out among each of the following.

61. (1) destroyed (2) deteriorated 64. (1) contract (2) protocol
(3) dilapidated (4) decayed (3) agreement (4) settlement

62. (1) epigram (2) monograph

65. (1) meditation
(3) treatise (4) journal
(2) sedation
63. (1) resign (2) exit (3) deliberation
(3) reconcile (4) tolerate (4) speculation

Directions : For Questions 66 to 70. In each of the following four words or phrases have been underlined. Choose the
underlined word or phrase that has been used inappropriately.

66. At the cooperative stores you can buy the goods really cheaply.
(1) (2) (3) (4)

67. His absence may have been because of the weather or

(1) (2)
alternatively it may have been because of his illness.
(3) (4)

68. However a good stero you have, you will never get the perfect reproduction.
(1) (2) (3) (4)

69. Having failed once, it is unfortunate to note that no further attempt was made.
(1) (2) (3) (4)

70. No one, not even the members of the Cabinet, knows how inefficient and unreliable our security set up has become.
(1) (2) (3) (4)

59
Directions : For Questions 71 to 75. Each of these questions has a highlighted phrase which can be correctly substituted by
one of the four alternative choices that follow the question. Choose the alternatives which can most appropriately substitute
the highlighted phrase, without changing the sense of the sentence.

71. Even though he is a leading authority on the French 73. The evil of class and race hatred must be eliminated
Revolution, the chairperson is a dull and unintersting while it is still in an undeveloped, formative state,
speaker whose lectures, even on most exciting as- otherwise it may grow to dangerous proportions.
pects, cause students to yawn and fidget. (1) uncultivated (2) overt
(1) sublime (3) embryonic (4) amorphous
(2) confident
74. The fire spread in such an unusual manner that the
(3) insipid
fire department chiefs were certain that it had been
(4) lacklustre set by an arsonist.
(1) an ingrate (2) a rogue
72. Because experience had convinced her that he was both (3) an incendiary (4) an imposter
self seeking and avaricious, she rejected the likeli-
hood that his donation had been selfless and chari- 75. In formulating a hypothesis we must keep it in agree-
table. ment with what we know of the real world.
(1) generous (2) altruistic (1) congruent (2) in consonance
(3) frivolous (4) ephemeral (3) in connotatiuon (4) in consanguinity

Directions : For Questions 76 to 80. Each of these questions consists of a related pair of capatalized words, followed by four
alternative pairs of words. Select the alternative pair that best expresses a relationship similar to that expressed in the pair of
capitalized words.

76. MUSTER : CREW (3) physician : noble

(1) convene : meeting (4) liar : compulsive
(2) demobilize : troops
79. IMPROMPTU : REHEARSAL
(3) dominate : opposition
(1) practiced : technique
(4) cheer : lean
(2) makeshift : whim
77. SURPRISE : EXCLAMATION (3) offhand : premeditation
(1) insolence : low (4) numerical : calculation
(2) dismay : groan
(3) happiness : grimace 80. TIRADE : ABUSIVE
(4) contentment : mutter (1) monologue : lengthy
78. MENDICANT : IMPECUNIOUS (2) aphorism : boring
(1) critic : quizzical (3) prologue : conclusion
(2) complainer : petulant (4) encomium : laudatory

TEST III
Quantitative Aptitude
81. Find the product of 56 X 48. 83. If the base of a triangle is 25 cm, and corresponding
(1) 2788 (2) 2308 altitude is 12 cm, then the area will be
(3) 2688 (4) 2808 (1) 15 sq. cm (2) 150 sq. cm
(3) 1500 sq. cm (4) 300 sq. cm
82. Find the least number which must be added to 4931 84. The base of a parallelogram is 6 cm and the corre-
to make it a perfect square. sponding altitude is 4 cm. Find its area.
(1) 90 (2) 85 (1) 12 cm2 (2) 48 cm2
(3) 100 (4) 110 (3) 72 cm2 (4) 24 cm2

60
61
102. The cost price of 15 copies of a book is equal to the 111. A rectangular field is 80 m long and 60 m wide. How
selling price of 12 copies of the same book. What is long will it take to cross it diagonally at 5 m/sec?
the gain percent? (1) 20 sec (2) 40 sec
(1) 25% (2) 33% (3) 28 sec (4) 32 sec
1 112. The surface of a cube is 150 sq. m. Find its volume.
(3) 20% (4) 22 %
2 (1) 110 cu. m (2) 105 cu. m
103. Three years ago the average age of a family of 5 (3) 750 cu. m (4) 125 cu. m
members was 17 years. A bady having been born, 113. A room is 10 m long and 6 m broad. Find the cost of
the average age of the family is same today. What is carpeting its floor with a carpet of width 60 cm, at
the age of the bady? the rate of Rs. 2.37 per m.
(1) 3 years (2) 2 years (1) Rs. 474 (2) Rs. 237
1 (3) Rs. 300 (4) Rs. 118.50
(3) 1 year (4) 1 years
2 114. A rectangular field is 36 m long and 30 m wide. A
sin θ + cos θ path of uniform width and of area 360 sq. m runs
104. If tan sin θ − cos θ is equal to round inside it. Find the width of the path.
(1) 3 m (2) 6 m
3 (3) 4.5 m (4) 5 m
(1) (2) 3
2 115. A tank is 50 m long, 17.5 m wide and 5 m deep. How
2 many quintals of watger can it contain if one cu. cm
(3) 4 (4) of water weighs one gram?
3
(1) 47350 (2) 45370
105. The sum of 1st 10 even numbers greater than 10 is
(3) 43750 (4) 30000
(1) 212 (2) 208
(3) 210 (4) 214 116. The slant height of a cone, whose height is 8 cm and
106. Two taps A and B can fill a tank in 8 hours and 12 radius of the base is 6 cm, is
hour respectively. If they are opened on alternate (1) 14 cm (2) 10 cm
hours and if A is opened first, in how many hours (3) 11 cm (4) 40 cm
will the tank be full?
117. Find the volume of a sphere whose diameter is 21 cm.
3 (1) 4851 cu. cm (2) 3312 cu. cm
(1) 9 hours (2) 10 hours
5 (3) 403 cu. cm (4) 4581 cu. cm
1 1 118. The walls of a hall are 30 m broad and 12 m high. If
(3) 10 hours (4) 9 hours
2 2 the cost of painting the wall is Rs. 2 per sq. m, the
107. A can do a piece of work in 8 days and B in 12 days. total cost will be
With the help of C, they finished the work in 4 days. (1) Rs. 2400 (2) 1200
If they got Rs. 1500 for their work, how much will C (3) Rs. 800 (4) Rs. 300
get for doing the work?
119. A man invested Rs. 20, 000, partly in 5% and partly
(1) Rs. 750 (2) Rs. 1000
in 4% deposits. If his total income is Rs. 890. what
(3) Rs. 500 (4) Rs. 250
sums did he invest?
108. Simplify 105 ¥ 11 ÷ 33 ÷ 21 (1) Rs. 9,000, Rs. 11,000
5 3 (2) Rs. 8,000, Rs. 12,000
(1) (2) (3) Rs. 7,000, Rs. 13,000
3 5
(4) Rs. 6,000, Rs. 14,000
7 5
(3) (4)
5 7 1 3 4
120. If + = then x is equal to
x − 3 x −1 x − 2
19.7 × 19.7 × 19.7 − 11.9 × 11.9 × 11.9
109. Simplify 19.7 × 19.7 + 19.7 × 11.9 + 11.9 × 11.9 (1) 4 (3) 3
(3) 2 (4) 1
(1) 31.6 (2) 7.8
(2) 8.8 (4) 30.6 121. A milk vendor buys 5 litres milk at the rate of Rs. 10
110. A sum of money is divided among A, B and C in such a litre and after mixing water in it, sells it at Rs. 12 a
a way that A gets half as much as B and B gets half as litre. If he wishes to make a profit of 80%, how much
much as C. If C gets Rs. 280, how much does A get? water should he add?
(1) Rs. 140 (2) Rs. 70 (1) 3 litres (2) 2.5 litres
(3) Rs. 210 (4) Rs. 280 (3) 2 litres (4) 5 litres
62
63
133. 64, 60, 44, –20, ________ 136. 1, 3, 4, 8, 15, 27, 50, ________
(1) –40 (2) –256 (1) 92 (2) 77
(3) 20 (4) –276 (3) 100 (4) 75

134. 4, 5, 9, 14, _________ 137. 36, 54, 18, 27, 9, ________

(1) 19 (2) 23 (1) 13.5 (2) 36
(3) 18 (4) 25 (3) 10 (4) 4.5

135. 1, 3, 7, 15, ________ 138. 3, 8, 15, 24, 35, _________

(1) 22 (2) 31 (1) 45 (2) 48
(3) (24) (4) 30 (3) 59 (4) 42

Directions : For Questions 139 to 143. Unscramble the letters in the following words and find the odd man out.

139. (1) TOYO 141. (1) PEGAR (2) EPRA

(2) HIALSM (3) OOTTAP (4) AEHCP
(3) SNAAGRRI
142. (1) RETE (2) NALTP
(4) LIHED
(3) RSGSA (4) NIOR
140. (1) IARUPJ (2) NAUPKR 143. (1) GEITR (2) ABT
(3) BMMIAU (4) AANTP (3) MUTSP (4) ALBL

Directions : For Questions 144 to 147. Consider the following information.

A cryptanalyst must translate into letters all of the digits included in the following two lines of 9 symbols each :
9 3 3 4 5 6 6 6 7
2 2 3 3 4 4 5 7 8
The cryptanalyst has already determined some of the rules governing the decoding :
(i) Each of the digits from 2 to 9 represents exactly one of the eight letters A, E, I, O, U, R, S, and T and each letter is
represented by exacly one of the digits.
(ii) If a digit occurs more than once, it represents the same letter on each occasion.
(iii) The letter T and the letter O are each represented exactly 3 times.
(iv) The letter I and the letter A are each represented exactly 2 times.
(v) The letter E is represented exactly four times.

144. If 2 represents R and 7 represents A, then 5 must 146. If 9 represents a vowel, it must represent which of
represent the following?
(1) I (2) O (1) E (2) I
(3) S (4) T (3) O (4) U

145. Which of the following is a possible decoding of the 147. If 8 represents a vowel, which of the following must
five-digit message 46536? represent a consonant ?
(1) O-T-A-E-T (2) O-T-E-U-T (1) 4 (2) 5
(3) O-O-S-E-O (4) T-O-I-E-T (3) 7 (4) 9

64
Directions : For Questions 148 to 150. Choose the correct alternative.

148. If HOT = IPU, COLD = (3) TUV (4) SQY

(1) CPUI (2) RPME
(2) DPME (4) STUV 150. If DOG = GRJ, CAT =
(1) VRA (2) TAC
149. If GOA = EMY, USA =
(3) TXZ (4) FDW
(1) DAT (2) RAP

Directions : For Questions 151 to 156. Consider the following information.

Three women—R, S and T, two men—U and V, and four children — W, X, Y and Z— are going to a game. They have
a total of nine seats for the game, but the seats are in three different sections of the arena; they have a group of three adjacent
seats in each section. For the game, the nine people must divide into groups of three according to the following restrictions:
(i) No adults of the same sex can be together in any group
(ii) W cannot be in R’s goup
(iii) X must be in a goup with S or U or both

151. If R is the only adult in one goup, the other members 154. Which of the following must be true?
of her group must be (1) One of the women is in a group with two children
(1) W and Y (2) X and Y (2) One of the two men in is a group with W
(3) X and Z (4) Y and Z (3) R is in a group with a man
(4) T’s group includes exactly one child
152. If R and U are two of the three people in the first
group, who can be in the second and third groups,
155. Any of the following pairs of people could be in X’s
respectively?
group except
(1) S, T, W; V, Y, Z (2) S, W, Z; T, V, X
(1) R and U (2) S and T
(3) S, X, Y; T, W, Z (4) T, V, W; S, Y, Z
(3) S and U (4) S and W
153. Which of the following pairs of people can be in the
156. If T,Y and Z are in one group, which of the follow-
same group as W?
ing must be together in one of the other groups?
(1) R and Y (2) S and U
(1) R, S, V (2) R, U, W
(3) S and V (4) X and Z
(3) S, U, W (4) S, V, W
Directions : For Questions 157 to 160.
Each of these questions has a set of 3 items with some sort of relationship among them. Given below are four answers
1, 2, 3 and 4 depicting different type of relationships among items, each circle representing one item, irrespective of its size.
Find out the figure that represents the relationship among items given in questions.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

157. India, Andhra Pradesh, Hyderabad 159. Cars, Trucks, Automobiles

158. Planets, Earth, Sun 160. Asia, Europe, Australia

65
Directions : For Questions 161 to 163.
You find below a set of letters with a number above each, followed by four choices of arrangements of letters to make
a word. Choose the correct arrangement of letters as indicated by the number to make a word.

161. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 164. If ‘South-East’ is called ‘East’, ‘North-West’ is called

H L N G E I S ‘West’, ‘South-West’ is called ‘South’ and so on, what
will ‘North’ be called?
(1) 4671235 (2) 4536712
(1) South
(3) 5342671 (4) 3672415
(2) North-West
162. 1 2 3 4 5 6 (3) North-East
A W R S N E (4) South-West
(1) 213564 (2) 413256
165. Six persons a, b, c, d, e and f are standing in a circle.
(3) 154263 (4) 321546 ‘b’ is between ‘d’ and ‘c’. ‘a’ is between ‘e’ and ‘c’.
‘f’ is to the right of ‘d’. Who is between ‘a’ and ‘f’?
163. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 (1) e
E O N R I A S N G (2) c
(1) 416728539 (2) 754132698 (3) b
(3) 645723189 (4) 675489321 (4) d

Directions : For Questions 166 to 170. Consider the following information.

In a certain society, only two forms of marriage are recognized. In ‘Prahtu’ marriage, several brothers marry a single
women, while in ‘Brihtu’ marriage, several sisters marry a single man. All members of a given married group are regarded as
the parents of any children of the marriage. Marriage between male and female children of the same parents is forbidden.
(i) E is a son of A.
(ii) G is a daughter of B.
(iii) F is a daughter of C.
(iv) E, F, M and N have a daughter, H.
(v) E and F have the same paternal grandmother, Q.
(vi) A and B are the only grandfathers of H; C, J, K, and L are the only grandmothers of H.
(vii) No one has married more than once; all children were born in wedlock.

166. G is a sister of 168. One of Q’s children may be

(1) N only (2) M only (1) A (2) C
(3) E (4) F (3) J (4) K

167. N is a sibling of 169. Which of the following is an offspring of a ‘Brihtu’

marriage?
I. M only
(1) H (2) E
II. M and E
(3) A (4) B
III. M and F
(1) I only 170. If E, F, M and N had not married, which would be a
permissible marriage?
(2) II only (1) N and M marry E (2) N and M marry
(3) III only G and F
(4) II ro III, but not both (3) G marries E only (4) E marries G and F

Directions : For Questions 171 to 175. One of the numbers in the series is wrong. Find out the wrong one.

171. 380, 188, 92, 48, 20, 8, 2 172. 579, 885, 696, 398, 876
(1) 188 (2) 48 (1) 696 (2) 876
(3) 8 (4) 20 (3) 398 (4) 885

66
173. 24, 12, 36, 27, 48 175. 445, 221, 109, 46, 25, 11, 4
(1) 24 (2) 36 (1) 221
(3) 27 (4) 48 (2) 109
(3) 46
174. 56, 72, 90, 110, 132, 150
(4) 11
(1) 72 (2) 110
(3) 132 (4) 150

176. Which is the odd one out?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

177. Complete the series

(1) (2) (3) (4)

178. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way 180. If English alphabets are written in reverse order, what
and so form a group. Which is the one that doesn’t will be the fourth letter to the right of the 13th letter
belong to that group? from the left?
(1) 21 (2) 63 (1) J
(3) 39 (4) 83 (2) L
(3) K
179. If the first day of the year (other than the leap year) (4) M
was Friday, which was the last day of that year?
(1) Saturday (2) Sunday
(3) Monday (4) Friday

Cirections : For Questions 181 to 186. Consider the following information.

A Group of eight people is going camping in tents — tent 1, tent 2, and tent 3. The group consists of two women — V
and X — and six girls — K, L, M, O, P and T. Tent assignments will be made as follows:
(1) There will be no more than three persons in a tent.
(ii) V will be in tent 1.
(iii) V will not be in a tent with her daughter O, and X will not be in a tent with her daughter P.
(iv) K, L and M, who are close friends, will be in a tent together.

181. Which of the following can be in tent 1? 182. If K is in tent 2, which of the following must be true?
(1) L (2) M (1) M is in tent 3 (2) O is in tent 3
(3) O (4) X (3) P is in tent 2 (4) T is in tent 1

67
183. If the two women are together in a tent, which of the fol- Directions : For Questions 194 to 196. In each of these ques-
lowing is a pair of girls who must be together in a tent? tions a word has been given followed by four other words,
(1) K and P (2) L and T one of which cannot be formed by using the letters of the
given word. Find that word.
(3) M and O (4) O and P
184. If X is in tent 2, which of the following must be in 194. INDUSTRIALIST
the same tent as V? (1) DUST
(1) K (2) L
(2) TRIAL
(3) O (4) P
(3) LIST
185. If L is in tent 3 and the two women are not in the
same tent as each other, the people in tent 2 can be (4) TRAINED
(1) X and T only (2) K, M and O
195. RESPECTABILITY
(3) O, P and X (4) O, T and X
(1) REPEAT
186. If V and T are together in a tent, it is possible that (2) RESPECT
(1) K and P are together in a tent
(3) SPEAR
(2) O and T are together in a tent
(4) INSECT
(3) O and X are the only people in tent 2
(4) P and X are the only people in tent 3 196. CHANNELLING
(1) CHAIN
187. Pointing to a photograph of a girl, Rajan said, “She
has no sisters or daughters but her mother is the only (2) NAIL
daughter of my mother.” How is the girl in the pho- (3) LONG
tograph related with Rajan’s mother?
(1) Sister-in-law (2) Grand-daughter (4) LICE
(3) Daughter-in-law (4) Sister Directions : For Questions 197 to 200. Consider the fol-
lowing series.
188. Nageena is taller than Pushpa but not as tall as
Manish. Rama is taller than namita but not as tall as 2, 4, 8, 16, 32, 64 128, _______, 512, 1024, 2048, 5000,
Pushpa. Who among them is the tallest? 8192, 16384, 32768, 65536, 131072, 262144
(1) Manish (2) Pushpa
(3) Namita (4) Nageena 197. What is the missing number ?
(1) 258 (2) 255
Directions : For Questions 189 to 193. Find the odd man (3) 256 (4) 264
out.
198. The number which doesn’t belong to the series is
189. (1) HGIF (2) NMOL
(1) 5000 (2) 2048
(3) WVXU (4) SRTP
(3) 8192 (4) 32768
190. (1) DEGJ (2) XYAD
199. If the 1st and 2nd, the 3rd and 4th, and so on upto the
(3) LNPS (4) GHJM 17th and 18th numbers are interchanged then what
191. (1) USQP (2) NLJH is the 13th number?
(3) FDBZ (4) XVTR (1) 8192 (2) 16384
(3) 65536 (4) 131072
192. (1) NMQP (2) HGKJ
200. If the sequence is reversed (i.e. descending order is
(3) TSWV (4) DCHF maintained), what is the eighth number from the
right?
193. (1) HM21 (2) DR24 (1) 512 (2) 256
(3) JP26 (4) LQ29 (3) 5000 (4) 2048

68
 OPENMAT (XII) ENTRANCE TEST FOR
MANAGEMENT PROGRAMMES 2003

TEST I
GENERAL AWARENESS
1. Which of the following countries is not a member of 10. The Indian National Army (INA) came into exist-
the G-8 Group? ence in 1943 in
(1) France (2) Italy (1) Japan (2) Then Burma
(3) Spain (4) Germany (3) Singapore (4) Then Malaya

2. Sariska and Ranthambhore are the reserves for which 11. The Asian Games have been held in New Delhi
of the following animals? (1) Once (2) Twice
(1) Lion (2) Deer (3) Thrice (4) Four times
(3) Tiger (4) Bear
12. The Famous book ‘Anandmath’ has been authored
3. Which Article of the Constitution of India gives pre- by
cedence to constitutional provision over the laws (1) Rabindranath Tagore
made by the Union Parliament/Sate Legislatures?
(2) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyaya
(1) 13 (2) 32
(3) Sarojini Naidu
(3) 245 (4) 326
(4) Sri Aurobindo
4. ‘APSARA’ is the name of India’s first
13. SAARC declared the decade 1991-2000 as the
(1) Nuclear Reactor Decede of
(2) Helicopter (1) Youth (2) Family
(3) Ground Battle Tank (3) Literacy (4) Girl Child
(4) Railway Locomotive
14. Army Day is celebrated in India every year on
5. Which of the following countries has the second larg- (1) 1st January (2) 15th January
est rail network in the world? (3) 1st February (4) 15th February
(1) India (2) USA
(3) Russia (4) China 15. The first Indian-American Woman to go into space
was
6. Gandhi Peace Prize for the year 2000 was awarded (1) Harbans Kaur (2) Kalpana Chawla
to the former President of South Africa along with (3) Jyotirmoyee Sikdar (4) Bachhendri Pal
(1) C. Subramaniam
(2) Grameen Bank of Bangladesh 16. The main occupation of the people of Indus Valley
Civilization was
(3) Satish Dhawan
(1) Trade (2) Cattle rearing
(4) World Health Organisation
(3) Huntin (4) Agriculture
7. Which of the following is not a part of vehicular
pollution? 17. The term ‘Golden Quadrangle’ refers to :
(1) Sulphur dioxide (2) Nitrogen oxide (1) The base of the pyramids found in Egyptian
Desert
(3) Carbon monoxide (4) Hydrogen peroxide
(2) Four sea-ports identified by the Customs depart-
8. The ‘World Environment Day’ is celebrated on ment which are routes for gold smuggling
(3) National Highways Development Project con-
(1) June 5th (2) June 4th
necting the four Indian metro-cities
(3) July 5th (4) July 4th
(4) Rich contiguous wheat growing areas of Punjab,
9. The theme of the World Development Report 2001 is Haryana, U.P. and Rajasthan
(1) From plan to market
18. Which of the following was not a centre of learning
(2) Knowledge for development in ancient India?
(3) Attacking poverty (1) Taxila (2) Vikramshila
(4) The state in the changing world (3) Nalanda (4) Koushambi

69
19. ‘Charak’ was the famous court physician of 26. G-15 is
(1) Harsha (1) an organisation of the developed countries of
(2) Chandragupta Maurya the world
(3) Ashoka (2) an organisation of the developing countries of
the world
(4) Kanishka
(3) an organisation of the developed countries of
20. Who among the following Congress leaders was Europe
called the ‘Grand Old man of India’? (4) an organisation of developing countries of Asia
(1) Mahatma Gandhi (2) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(3) Dadabhai Naoroji (4) M adan Mohan 27. The birth-rate measures the number of births during
Malviya a year per
(1) 100 of population
21. The President of the Drafting Committee of the In-
dian Constitution was (2) 1, 000 of ppulation
(1) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (2) Jawahar Lal Nehru (3) 10,000 of population
(3) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (4) J.B. Kriplani (4) 1,00,000 of population

22. Which rock is formed by the deposits of animal shells 28. Fundamental Duties were incorporated in the India
and skeletons? Constitution in
(1) Sandstone (2) Limestone (1) 1971 (2) 1972
(3) Phyllite (4) Granite (3) 1975 (4) 1976
23. Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
29. In India, to be recognised as a national party, a party
(1) Mettur – Kaveri
must secure at least
(2) Bhakra Nangal – Sutlej
(1) 10% of the valid votes in four or more states
(3) Hirakud – Mahanadi
(2) 4% of the valid votes in four or more states
(4) Tehri – Yamuna
(3) 15% of the valid votes in two states
24. Which part of the islands in the Arabian Sea is known (4) 25% of the valid votes in one state
as Minicoy Islands?
(1) Northern (2) Eastern 30. In which year were the first general elections held in
(3) Southern (4) Western India?
(1) 1947–48 (2) 1948–49
25. Tropical evergreen forests of India are found in
(3) 1950–51 (4) 1951–52
(1) Kerala (2) andhra Pradesh
(3) Madhya Pradesh (4) Orissa

TEST II
English Language
Directions : For Questions 31 to 45. Read the two passages given below carefully. Each passage is followed by questions
based on the contents of the passage. Answer the questions by selecting the best alternative from among those given in the
questions.

Passage I
India has come a long way since the Bengal Famine of 1943. The food situation in India, once characterised by chronic
shortages and the spectre of famines, has changed dramatically over the years. From being the biggest recipient of PL 480 aid
during the 1950s and 1960s, India today is relatively self-sufficient in foodgrains at the given level of incomes and prices; in
fact, it has marginal surpluses. The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) has been signed, with India as one of the
signatories, under which all countries will have to gradually open up their agricultural sectors.
It is, therefore, neigher feasible nor desirable to keep India’s foodgrains sector insulated from world markets. In fact,
this is an appropriate opportunity for India to integrate its agriculture with global agriculture, and make use of private trade
(both domestic and foreign) as an important instrument for efficiently allocating her resources as well as providing food
security to her people at the lowest economic cost. The time to change gears in food policy has come.

70
 Food security, in a broader context, means that people have physical and economic access to food. Since foodgrains
have the largest share in the food basket of the poor in a developing country like India, it is the availability of foodgrains that
lies at the heart of the concept of food security. The first step in this direction, therefore, is to make foodgrains physically
available to the people. This can be done by augmenting production, or through imports and transportation of grains to people
wherever they are.
There are several ways of achieving these targets. One may rely on private entrepreneurship by letting the individual
farmers produce, traders trade/import and make it available to consumers far and wide; or the Government may directly
intervene in the production and/or the trade process. In the former case, the Government follows policies that provide appro-
priate market signals while in the latter, it acts as producer, importer and trader itself. Indian policy makers have followed a
mix of both these options. For production, they have relied on the farmers while the Government has retained control over
imports. For distribution, it created public agencies to do the job along with private trade, thus creating a dual market structure.
Providing economic access to food is the second part of the concept of food security. This can be best obtained by adopting a
cost effective technology in production so that the real price of foodgrains come down and more people have access to it. In
case it still fails to reach the larger sections of the population, the Government can directly subsidise food for the poor, launch
a drive to augment their incomes, or try a combination of the two strategies. India has followed both these policies.

31. India has ‘come a long way’ means
(1) many years have passed after the Bengal fam-
ine
(2) the food position in India is now vastly improved
(3) India now handles such problems under PL-480
scheme
(4) India has advanced in science and technology
35. If private agencies are to be entrusted with the task
of making foodgrains available to people, what fa-
cilitative role should the Government undertake?
(1) Nationalise all distribution systems
(2) Make policies that give the right signals to the market
(3) Take responsibility of distribution
(4) Make efforts to increase the income of the farmers

32. Which of the following views regarding GATT, does
the author seem to be advocating?
(1) India should seize the chance and make efforts
to fulfil its objectives
(2) India should not have signed it, to insulate our
foodgrains sector
(3) India should have agreed to GATT excluding
the agricultural sector
(4) India should hand over the issue of foodgrains
security to the private sector
33. According to the author, why is it necessary to en
sure food security to people?
(1) In order to sustain economic growth
(2) As per the PL-480 guidelines
(3) In order to be able to export foodgrains
(4) The passage makes no such assertion
36. The author of the passage seems to advocate
(1) liberalisation and privatisation
(2) state controlled, socialistic but closed economy
(3) a very practical and pragmatic approach to guard
our economy
(4) stable international relations
37. According to the author, food at affordable prices
could be made available to the poor by
A. reducing the cost of production of foodgrains
by using appropriate technology
B. offering foodgrains at lower cost and offering
economic support for maintaining low cost
C. raising the earnings of the poor
(1) only A
(2) only B and C
(3) only A and C
(4) A, B and C

34. Which of the following forms the most essential part
of the concept of food security in India?
(1) Availability of affordable technology of food
production to poor farmers
(2) Availability of all foodgrains in the market for
the rural poor
(3) Easy access of foodgrains to the weaker
sections at affordable prices
(4) Providing subsidies on all food items for the
rural poor
38. By saying Indian policy makers have followed a mix
of both options it means that
(1) production and distribution both have public and
private participation
(2) production is largely in private hands while
distribution is only through public means
(3) for production, reliance has been on the private
sector while both public and private agencies
are mobilised for distribution
(4) production and distribution are both private
endeavours

71
 Passage II

The strength of Indian democracy lies in its tradition, in the fusion of the ideas of democracy and national independece,
which was the characteristic of the Indian nationalist movement long before Independence. Although the British retained
supreme authority in India until 1947, the privincial elections of 1937 provided real exercise in democratic practice before
national independence. During the Pacific was, India was not overrun or seriously invaded by the Japanese and after the war
was over, the transfer of power to a gevernment of the Indian Congress Party was a peaceful one as far as Britain was
concerned. By 1947 ‘Indianisation’ had already gone far in the India Civil Service and Army, so that the new government
could start with effective instrument of central control.
After Independence, however, India was faced with two problems; the first, that of economic growth from a very low
level of production and the second was that of ethnic diversity and the aspirations of subnationalities. The Congress leadership
was more aware of the former problem than of the second; as a new political elite, which had rebelled not only against the
British Raj but also against India’s old social order, they were conscious of the need to initiate economic development and
undertake social reforms, but as nationalists who had led a struggle against the alien on behalf of all parts of India, they took
the cohesion of the Indian nation too much for granted and underestimated the centrifugal forces of ethnic division, which
were bound to be accentuated rather than diminished as the popular masses were more and more drawn into politics. The
Congress Party was origninally opposed to the idea of recognizing any division of India on a linguistic basis and preferred to
retain the old provinces of British India, which often cut across linguistic boundaries; it was only in response to strong
pressures from below that the principle of linguistic states was conceded as the basis for a federal ‘Indian Union’. The rights
granted to the States created new problems for the Central Government. The idea of making Hindi the national language of a
united India was thwarted by the recalcitrance of the speakers of other important Indian languages, and the autonomy of the
States rendered central economic planning extremely difficult. Land reforms remained under the control of the States and
many large scale economic projects required a degree of cooperation between the Central Government and one or more of the
States which it was found impossible to achieve. Coordination of policies was difficult even when the Congress Party was in
power both in the States and at the Centre; When a Congress Government in Delhi was confronted with non-Congress parties
in office in the States, in became much harder.

39. Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning as the word ‘thwarted’ as used in the passage.
(1) opposed (2) diverted 43. Which of the following statements is not true in the
(3) implemented (4) advocated context of the passage?
40. Why, according to the passage, was central economic (1) The Congress party was originally opposed
planning found to be difficult? to the idea of division of states on linguistic
basis
(1) On account of multiplicity of States and Union
Territories (2) Economic development and social reform were
(2) On account of lack of coordination in different initiated soon after Independence
Government departments (3) The political elite in India rebelled against the
(3) On account of autonomy given to the States in British Raj
certain matters (4) The Congress leadership was full conscious of
(4) On account of lack of will in implementing land the problems arising out of ethnic diversity in
reforms India at the time of Independence

41. Which of the following issues was not appropriately
realised by the Central Government?
(1) Ethnic diversity of the people
(2) A national language for the country
(3) Implementation of the formulated policies
(4) Centre-State relations
42. Which, according to the passage, was an exercise in
democratic practice in India before Independence?
(1) The handing over of power by the British
(2) The Indianisation of the Indian Civil Service
(3) The conduct of provincial elections in 1937
(4) Several democratic institutions created by the
India National Congress
44. The new government could start with effective in-
strument of central control because the
(1) process of Indianisation of the Indian Civil Ser-
vice had already begun
(2) Indian army was organised on the pattern of the
British army
(3) people of India offered their wholehearted sup-
port to the Government
(4) transfer of power to the Indian Congress Party
was peaceful

72
45. Why was India not overrun by Japan during the (3) Japan was doubtful about the success of such
Pacific war? attack
(1) Japan was friendly with the British (4) The passage does not offer any information in
(2) Japan was interested in India’s freedom this regard

Directions : For Questions 46 to 50. Each of these questions consists of a capitalised word followed by four alternatives. From
the given alternatives, choose the one that is most similar in meaning to the capitalized word.

46. FEIGN (3) glide (4) glorify

(1) to pretend (2) faint
(3) congratulate (4) glow 49. VAUNTED
(1) belittled (2) exacting
47. SEDITIOUS (3) highly publicized (4) trusted
(1) impure (2) inactive
(3) seriously injured (4) rebellious
50. MALADROIT
48. GLEAN (1) impossible (2) awkward
(1) to shine (2) gather (2) sluggish (4) hardy

Directions : For questions 51 to 55. These questions consist of a capitalized word followed by four alternatives. Select from
among the given alternatives, the word which is most nearly opposite in meaning to the capitalized word.

51. TURPITUDE (3) evaluating (4) directing

(1) amplitude (2) activity
(3) virtue (4) calmness 54. PROVIDENT
(1) unholy (2) rash
52. SEDULOUS (3) miserable (4) remote
(1) indolent (2) guiledess
(3) vindicative (4) upright 55. PERNICIOUS
53. REPROGRADE (1) practical (2) comparative
(1) inclining (2) progressing (3) harmless (4) tangible

Directions : For Questions 56 to 60. Each of the questions below consists of a sentence with one or two blank spaces. Each
sentence is followed by four alternative sets of words. Chosse the words or set of words from among the alternatives given,
which when inserted in the sentence best fit the meaning of the sentence.

56. Critics of the movie version of The Colour Purple 58. If you are seeking a ___________ that will resolve
______ its saccharine, overoptimistic mood as out all our ailments you are undertaking an _________
of keeping with the novel’s more _______ tone. task.
(1) applauded, sombre (1) precedent, awkward
(2) decried, acerbic (2) panacea, impossible
(3) denounced, sanguine (3) direction, awesome
(4) acclaimed, positive (4) continuance, enjoyable

57. Measurement is, like any other human endeavour, a 59. Your ____________ tactics may comple me to
complex activity, subject to error, not always used ___________ the contract as the job must be finished
______, and frequently misinterpreted and _______. on time.
(1) mistakenly, derided (1) dilatory, cancel
(2) erratically, analyzed (2) pressure, delay
(3) innovatively, refined (3) offensive, award
(4) properly, misunderstood (4) confiscatory, hasten

73
60. We need more men of ___________ and enlighten-
ment; we have too many ___________ among us.
(1) courage, missionaries
(2) wisdom, pragmatists
(3) culture, philistines
(4) valour, students

Directions : For Questions 61 to 65. In each of the following sentences four words or phrases have been underlined. Choose
the underlined word or phrase that has been used inappropriately.

61. He is a doubtful opponent, you must respect and fear him at all times.
(1) (2) (3) (4)

62. I have no formal clothes for this occasion; perhaps I can get away in a dark suit.
(1) (2) (3) (4)

63. Sodium chloride dissolves in water and so is salt.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

64. Even as a young boy, he has lacked the incination to go outdoors and play.
(1) (2) (3) (4)

65. The printing press is one of man’s cleverest invention.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

Directions : For Questions 66 to 70. Find the odd man out among each of the following.

66. (1) replicate (2) duplicate 69. (1) negate (2) nether
(3) impersonate (4) reproduce (3) cancel (4) deny

67. (1) renounce (2) denounce 70. (1) homily

(3) abandon (4) disown (2) sermon
68. (1) muted (2) maimed (3) admonition
(3) muffled (4) toned down (4) serious warning

Directions : For Questions 71 to 75. Each of these questions has a sentence with a highlighted phrase which can be correctly
substituted by one of the alternative choices that follow the sentence. Choose the alternative which can most appropriately
substitute the highlighted phrase, without changing the meaning of the sentence.

71. The headmaster could not regard this latest escapde 74. He offered to drive her to the airport for a very small
as a boyish joke and expelled the young man. fee.
(1) new prank (2) flighty conduct (1) a nominal
(3) current exit (4) innovative escape (2) a wholesome
(3) an appropriate
72. The police immediately restrained and handcuffed
the prisoner so that he could not escape. (4) an ordinary
(1) arrested (2) detained
75. As the Godfather, Michael Corleone is unwilling to
(3) manacled (4) quarantined
expse his wife and children to the sordid and un-
73. The foul smells began to fill her with disgust. wholesome side of his life as a mafia don.
(1) overpower her (2) nauseate her (1) exciting (2) seamy
(3) throttle her (4) asphyxiate her (3) unlawful (4) breathtaking

74
75
91. (2a + 3a2 – 4)–2 (4a2 – 2) (a + 4)) = ? 99. What is the eighth term of the sequence
(1) – 5a2 + 6a + 12 (2) 5a2 + 6a + 12 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, ________?
(3) – 5a2 – 6a – 12 (4) 5a2 – 6a – 12 (1) 36 (2) 49
(3) 64 (4) 81
10
92. Find a if a a − 3 = . 100. Which of the following is the largest?
a
13 7
(1) 7, 7 (2) 5, – 2 (1) (2)
16 8
(3) – 5, 2 (4) − 7, 7 31 63
(3) (4)
40 80
93. Ram weighs 25 kg more than Shyam. Their com-
bined weight is 325 kg. How much does Shyam
101. If m and n are two parallel lines and angle 1 is 60o,
weight?
how many degrees is angle 2?
(1) 150 kg (2) 175 kg
(3) 200 kg (4) 125 kg
1
94. A train travels at an average speed of 50 miles per m

1 n
hour for 2 hours and then travels at a speed of 70 2
2
1
miles per hour for 1 hours. How far did the train
2 (1) 60o (2) 30o
travel in the entire 4 hours? (3) 45o (4) 75o
(1) 200 miles (2) 120 miles
(3) 230 miles (4) 150 miles 102. What is the perimeter of a regular pentagon whose
sides are 6 inches long?
95. Worker A takes 8 hours to do a job. Worker B takes (1) 18 inches (2) 24 inches
10 hours to do the same job. How long should it take (3) 27.5 inches (4) 30 inches
worker A and worker B working together, but inde-
pendently, to do the same job? 103. How far will a wheel of radius 2 ft travel in 500 revo-
1 2 lutions? (Assume the wheel does not slip)
(1) 4 hours (2) 4 hours (1) 1000 þ ft (2) 1500 þ ft
9 9
(3) 500 þ ft (4) 2000 þ ft
4 5
(3) 4 hours (4) 4 hours
9 9 104. Given that x and y are real numbers let S(x, y) = x2 –
y2. Then S(3, S(3, 4)) =?
96. A club has 20 members. They are electing a presi- (1) –40 () – 7
dent and a vice-president. How man different out-
(3) 40 (4) 49
comes of the election are possible?
(1) 300 (2) 380 105. What is the area of the figure below? ABCD is a rect-
(2) 200 (4) 280 angle and BDE is an isosceles right triangle.

A a B
4 10
97. Find x if =
5 x c
b
(1) 10.5 (2) 12
(3) 12.5 (4) 10 E
C D b
98. If m is proportional to na and m = 5 when n = 4, what
(1) ab (2) ab2
is the value of m when n = 18?
(1) 20 (2) 22.5  b
(3) cab (4) b a + 
(3) 24.5 (4) 26.5  2

76
106. If 2x + y = 5 then 4x + 2y is equal to 0.289
115. =?
(1) 5 (2) 8 0.00121
(3) 9 (4) 10
1 .7 17
(1) (2)
107. In 1997 a new oven cost Rs. 2500. In 2000 the cost 11 11
of that type of oven is Rs. 4800. Wha is the percent-
age increase between 1997 and 2000? 17 170
(3) (4)
(1) 92 (2) 152 110 11
(3) 192 (4) 52
116. The fractions below are in their lowest terms. Sup-
108. If x + y = 6 and 3 x – y = 4 then x – y is equal to ply the missing figures.
(1) – 1 (2) 0 1 3
5 × * = 20
(3) 2 (4) 4 * 4
(1) 3,1 (2) 4.1
x 2 y 2
(3) 5.3 (4) 3,3
109. If y = 3 then is equal to
x2
117. What is the least number which must be subtracted
4 2 from 10420 to make it a perfect square?
(1) (2)
9 3 (1) 219 (2) 200
3 9 (3) 189 (3) 16
(3) (4)
2 4 118. 0.2 ¥ 0.02 0;002 = ?
110. How much simple interest will Rs. 2000 earn in 18 8 0.8
months at an annual rate of 6%? (1) (2)
10 5 10 6
(1) Rs. 120 (2) Rs. 180
8
(3) Rs. 216 (4) Rs. 1800 (3) 8 × 106 (4)
10 6
111. If the average of 6 numbers is 4.5, the sum of the
numbers divided by 32 is 119. SP = Rs. 450, loss = 10%. If gain = 10%, SP = ?
(1) 4.5 (2) 3.5 (1) Rs. 475 (2) Rs. 550
(3) 3 (4) 5 (3) Rs. 500 (4) Rs. 525

112. The product of (a + b) (a2 – ab + b2) is 3 1 3

120. + of =?
(1) a3 + b3 (2) a3 – b3 8 2 16
3
(3) (a + b) (4) (a – b)3
3 15
(1) (2)
113. What is the value of the following expression? 4 32
0.05 × 0.05 × 0.05 × 0.04 × 0.04 × 0.04 21 15
0.05 × 0.05 − 0.05 × 0.04 + 0.04 × 0.04 (3) (4)
128 16
(1) 0.0009 (2) 0.01
(3) 0.09 (4) 0.41 0.16
121. =?
0.4
114. If I walk at 3 kmph, I miss a train by 2 munutes. If
(1) 0.2 (2) 2
however I walk at 4 kmph, I reach the station 2
munutes before the arrival of the train. How far do I 10 5
5
walk to rach the station? (3) (4)
5 5
3 4
(1) km (2) km 122. 80000 is equivalent to which of the following?
4 5
5 (1) 23 ¥ 105 (2) 0.23 ¥ 107
(3) km (4) 1 km
4 (3) 22 ¥ 204 (4) 24 ¥ 58

77
123. Rs. 720 is divided between 2 men, 5 women and 8
2 5 × 92
boys so that the share of a man, a woman and boy are 125. =?
in the ratio of 3 : 2 : 1. How much does each boy get? 8 2 × 35
(1) Rs. 24 (2) Rs. 30
1 2
(3) Rs. 45 (4) Rs. 72 (1) (2)
6 3
124. The length of the diagonal of a square is ‘a’ cms.
Which of the following represents the area of the 3 1
square in sq. cms? (3) (4)
2 8
1
(1) 2a (2)
2

a2 a2
(3) (4)
2 4

Directions : For Questions 126 to 130. Study the table given below and answer the questions 126 to 130.

Income (Rs.) Tax (Rs.) 128. Vibha paid Rs. 100 tax. If X was her income, which
0 – 4,000 1 % of income of the following statements is true?
4,000 – 6,000 40 + 2% of income over 4,000 (1) 0 < X < 4,000
6, 000 – 8,000 80 + 3% of income over 6,000 (2) 4, 000 < X < 6,000
8,000 – 10,000 140 + 4% of income over 8,000 (3) 6,000 < X < 8,000
10,000 – 15,000 220 + 5% of income over 10,000 (4) 8,000 < X < 10,000
15,000 – 25,000 470 + 6% of income over 15,000
25, 000 – 50,000 1070 + 7% of income over 25,000 129. Town X has a population of 50,000. The average
income of a person who lives in town X is Rs. 3, 700
126. How much tax is due on an income of Rs. 7,500? per year. What is the total amount paid in taxes by
the people of town X? (Assume each person pays
(1) Rs. 80 (2) Rs.125
tax on Rs. 3,700)
(3) Rs. 150 (4) Rs. 225
(1) Rs. 37 (2) Rs. 3,700
127. Your income for a year is Rs. 26,000. You receive a (3) Rs. 1,85,000 (4) Rs. 18,50,000
raise so that next year your income will be Rs. 29,000.
How much more will you pay in taxes next year if 130. A person whose income is Rs. 10,000 pays what per-
the tax rate remains the same? cent of his or her income on taxes approximately?
(1) Rs. 70 (2) Rs. 180 (1) 1 (2) 2
(3) Rs. 200 (4) Rs. 210 (3) 3 (4) 4

TEST IV
Reasoning
Directions : For Questions 131 to 134, consider the following information.

There adults – Rs, S and V – will be travelling in a van with five children – F, H, J, I and M. The van has a driver’s seat
and one passenger seat in the front, and two benches behind the front seats, one bench behind the other. Each bench has room
for exactly three people. Everyone must sit in a seat or on a bench, and seating is subject to the followin restrictions :
(i) An adult must sit on each bench.
(ii) Either R or S must sit in the driver’s seat.
(iii) J must sit immediately beside M.

131. Which of the following can sit in the front passenger 132. Which of the following groups of three can sit to-
seat? gether on a bench?
(1) J (2) L (1) F, J and M (2) F, J and V
(3) R (4) S (3) F, S and V (4) H, L and S
78
133. If F sits immediately beside V, which of the follow-
ing cannot be true?
(1) H sits on the same bench as R
(2) J sits immediately beside S
(3) L sits immediately beside V
(4) H sits in the front passenger seat
134. If S sits on a bench that is behind where J is sitting,
which of the following must be true?
(1) L sits in a seat or on a bench that is in front of
where F is sitting
(2) M sits on the same bench as V
(3) F sits on the same bench as H
(4) L sits on the same bench as S

Directions : For Questions 135 to 138, unscramble the letters in the following words and find the odd man out.

135. (1) HONRT (2) EWTS 137. (1) NVESU (2) TERAH
(3) EWSN (4) ATES (3) NOMO (4) RASM

136. (1) LOW (2) ERTGI 138. (1) EGERN (2) DRE
(3) OWC (4) ROSHE (3) KADR (4) RAGONE

Directions : For Questions 139 – 140. Select the alternative which does not belong to the class of the other three.

139. (1) Million (2) Powder 141. A man starts walking in the morning facing the sun.
(3) Letter (4) Compel After sometime, he turned to his left. Later he again
turned to his left. The direction in which the man is
140. (1) Belief (2) Shield moving now is
(3) Deceit (4) Brief (1) West (2) South
(3) East (4) North

Directions : For Questions 142 to 147, consider the following information.

Two nations, Fontan and Gordia, have agreed to submit any disputes that might arise between them to arbitration panels
drawn from a pool of arbitrators. The pool consists of the following : three Fontanian representatives – K, L and M; three
Gordian representatives – P, Q and R; and three neutral arbitrators – S, T and U. Each arbitration panel must be formed
according to the following conditions :
(i) A panel can have three, four, five or six members.
(ii) At least one member of each panel must be neutral.
(iii) Neither Fontanian nor Gordian representatives can make up more than half the number of members on a panel.
(iv) S cannot be on a panel with L, with M or with U.
(v) R cannot be on a panel with L or with T.

142. Which of the following is a properly constituted 145. If K, M, Q and R are all selected as members of a
panel? five-member panel, which of the following must be
(1) L, M, P, Q (2) R, P, S, T selected as the fifth member of that panel?
(3) P, Q, R, U (4) P, Q, S, T (1) L (2) P
(3) U (4) T
143. If both S and T are to be members of a three-member
panel, then which of the following can be the third 146. If S, P and Q are selected as mumbers of a four-mem-
member of that panel? ber panel and if T is not available to serve, the fourth
member selected must be
(1) L (2) M
(1) K (2) L
(3) P (4) R
(3) M (4) R
144. If R and S are both selected as members of a four- 147. How many different, acceptable five-member panels
member panel, which of the following must also be can be formed if both S and R must be selected as
selected as a member of that panel? members?
(1) K (2) L (1) 1 (2) 3
(3) P (4) Q (3) 4 (4) 0
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Directions : For Questions 148 to 155, Find the number that comes next in the sequence.

148. 3, 1, 4, 5, 9, 14, 23, ______ 152. – 15, 2, 21, 42, ______

(1) 32 (2) 37 (1) 62 (2) 84
(3) 41 (4) 28 (3) 65 (4) 66

149. 3, 5, 8, 12, 17, 23, _____ 153. 1, 2, 5, 29, ______

(1) 30 (2) 28 (1) 866 (2) 58
(3) 29 (4) 33 (3) 53 (4) 145

150. 3, 6, 18, 72, 360, ______ 154. 13, 10, 4, –5, –17______
(1) 720 (2) 1080 (1) – 32 (2) – 34
(3) 1600 (4) 2160 (3) 34 (4) – 22

151. 7776, 1296, 216, _____ 155. 0.5, 1.5, 3, 5, 7.5, 10.5, _____
(1) 16 (2) 36 (1) 21 (2) 13.5
(3) 108 (4) 21 (3) 14 (4) 15

Directions : For Questions 156 to 159, consider the following information.

Seven persons – N, Q, R, S, T, U and W – are all the persons present at a party. All of them join distinct conversational
groups that form during the party and these consist of two, three, or four persons at a time. At any time during the party, each
of the persons present is considered to be a member of exactly one of the conversational groups. During the party the follow-
ing conditions are satisfied :
(1) N can never be in the same conversational group as S.
(ii) T must be in a conversational group that includes either S or W, but T cannot be in a conversational group with both S
and W.
(iii) W must be in a conversational group that consists of exactly three persons.

156. Which of the following lists three conversational 158. If, at a certain point during the party, a group of three
groups that can exist at the same time during the persons and a group of four persons have formed and
party? W is in the same conversational group as U, who of
(1) N and S; Q, T and W; R and U the following must that point be in the group with W
and U?
(2) N and T; R and S; Q, U and W
(1) N (2) Q
(3) N and U; R and S; Q, T and W
(3) R (4) S
(4) N and W; S and U; Q, R and T
159. If, at a certain point during the party, one of the con-
157. If, at a certain point during the party, R, T and W are versational groups consists only R and W, at that
members of three distinct conversational groups, S point N must be part of a group of exactly
must at that that point be in a conversational group (1) two persons, whose other member is T
that includes
(2) two persons, whose other members is U
(1) Q (2) R
(3) four persons, whose other members include S
(3) T (4) W
(4) four persons, whose other members include T

Directions : For Questions 160 to 163. In each of these questions a word has been given following four other words, one of
which cannot be formed by using the letters of the given word that word.

160. RECOMMENDATIONS 161. UNDERESTIMATED

(1) RAINS (2) MEANT (1) ESTIMATE (2) DIRT
(3) SOON (4) NURSE (3) EARTH (4) TIMER

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81
Directions : For Questions 177 to 181, consider the following information.

(i) M and S are good in Dramatics and computer Science

(ii) A and M are good in Computer Science and Physics
(iii) A, P and N are good in Physics and History
(iv) N and A are good in Physics and Mathematics
(v) P and S are good in History and Dramatics

177. Who is good in Physics, History and Mathematics, 181. Who is good in Computer Science, History and Dra-
but not in Computer Science? matics?
(1) P (2) A (1) M (2) A
(3) M (4) N (3) N (4) S

178. Who is good in History, Physics, Computer Science 182. Drama is related to Director in the same way as Maga-
and Mathematics? zine is related to _________?
(1) A (2) M (1) Reader (2) Printer
(3) N (4) P (3) Editor (4) Story

179. Who is good in Physics, History and Dramatics? 183. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way
(1) M (2) P and so form a group. Which one does not belong to
(3) A (3) S that group?
(1) Beam (2) Roof
180. Who is good in Physics, Dramatics and Computer
(3) Wall (4) House
Science?
(1) S (2) P
(3) M (4) A

Directions : For Questions 184 and 185, find the missing number.
4 8 0
184. 5 6 6 7 4 8
12 21 ? 185. 5 6 7 6 11 2
0 1 ?
4 5 10
7 4 0
(1) 30 (2) 32 (1) 12 (2) 10
(3) 320 (4) 22 (3) 11 (4) 0

Directions : For Questions 186 to 191, condider the following information.

(i) Nine people – F, G, H, I, J, K, L, M and N – are the only peopl who can serve on three committees designated X, Y and
Z and each person must serve on exactly one of the committees.
(ii) Committee X must have exactly one more member than does committee Y.
(iii) It is possible that there are no members of committee Z.
(iv) Neigher F nor G nor H can serve on committee X.
(v) Neigher I nor J nor K can serve on committee Y.
(vi) Neigher L nor M nor N can serve on committee Z.

186. If L and F are the only persons serving on committee 187. Of the nine people, the greatest number that can serve
Y, how many of the nine people must serve on com- together on committee Z is
mittee Z?
(1) 9 (2) 8
(1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 7 (4) 6
(3) 5 (4) 6

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188. If N is the only person serving on committee Y, Which 190. If L, M and H are the only persons serving on com-
of the following must serve on committee X? mittee Y, the complete membership of committee Z
(1) L and M (2) J and K must be
(3) J and L (4) K and M (1) F and G (2) F and I
(3) G and J (4) G and K
189. If none of the nine people serves on committee Z,
which of the following must be a person who serves 191. Which of the following groups could constitute the
on committee X? membership of committee Z?
(1) F (2) G (1) G and L (2) H and K
(3) I (4) L (3) G, H and I (4) I, J and K

Directions : For Questions 192 to 194, unscramble the letters in the following words, and find the last word of the sentence/
question.

192. (1) SI (2) REENG (3) SI (4) ALET

(3) ETH (4) RSASG
194. (1) AMEN (2) HTAW
193. (1) OTO (2) TI (3) SI (4) ROUY

Directions : For Questions 195 to 200, consider the following information.

H, J, K, L, M, N and O are the only legislators eligible to vote on bills 1, 2 and 3, each of which will be passed if at least four
legislators vote in favour of it. Each legislator must vote on all three bills; no abstentions are possible. The following is known
:
(i) H must vote against all three bills; each of the ohter legislators must vote in favour of at least one bill and against at least
one bill.
(ii) J must vote against bill 1.
(iii) O must vote against bills 2 and 3.
(iv) L must vote the same way that K does on all three bills.
(v) N must vote the same way that O does on all three bills.

195. Which of the following must vote in favour of bill 1 ? 198. If any bill is to be passed, which of the following must
(1) K (2) L be among the legislators who vote in favour of it?
(3) M (4) O (1) J (2) K
(3) M (4) N
196. The maximum number of favourable votes that bill
2 could receive is 199. If M votes the same way that O does on all three bills,
(1) two (2) three which of the following can be determined?
(3) four (4) five (1) Bill 1 will be passed (2) Bill 1 will be defeated
(3) Bill 2 will be passed (4) Bill 2 will be defeated
197. Which of the following cannot be true?
(1) J and K vote in favour of the same bill 200. If K votes in favour of bills 2 and 3, which of the fol-
(2) J and O vote in favour of the same bill lowing can be determined?
(3) J votes in favour of one bill and against two bills (1) Bill 1 will be passed (2) Bill 1 will be defeated
(4) K votes in favour of two bills and against one bill (3) Bill 2 will be passed (4) Bill 3 will be passed

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