Assignment 8 — Solutions 3/10/04
Problem 5.22
Choose coordinates so that the infinite plane is the
x

y
plane (
z
=
0) and the bar is at some infinitesimal distance
h
above the plane. From the discussion in §5.9C a hard ferromagnet is equivalent to a system with an effectivemagnetic current density. For
M
”÷÷÷
=
M z
`
there is only the effective surface current
K
”÷÷
=
M
”÷÷÷
ä
n
`
where
n
`
is the unitnormal to the vertical surface (in general a function of position, though most of you took the bar to be a cylinder.The important thing for now is that
n
`
is perpendicular to
z
`
). Applying the results of 5.17 we see that the system isequivalent to an image current distribution with components scaled by
H
m
r

1
LêH
m
r
+
1
L
(amongst other things).Since
m
r
ªm
ê
m
0
=¶
for our case, this factor reduces to
H
1

1
ê
m
r
LêH
1
+
1
ê
m
r
L
Ø
1. We see that all we need isthe "reflected" current (recall that there is no
z
component since
z
`ä
n
`
must lie in the
x

y
plane, and actually no
z
dependence at all since the bar is uniform in the
z
direction) and corresponding image magnetization:
K
”÷÷
*
H
x
,
y
,
z
L
=
K
x
H
x
,
y
,

z
L
x
`+
K
y
H
x
,
y
,

z
L
y
`
M
”÷÷÷
*
=
M
”÷÷÷
Image bar located with "top" endcapat
z
=
h
.
ˆ
MMz
=
µ
=∞
0
µ
zh

h
ϖ
ˆ
n
A
*
M
++++++++
      
z
ϖ
h

h
The field due to the image can be calculated from its magnetic scalar potential 5.99, but this is hard for a bar of arbitrary crosssection. Instead we look at things from the effective magnetic charge density point of view. For
M
”÷÷÷
=
M z
`=
constant there is only the effective surface charge
s
M
=
H
≤
z
`
L
ÿ
M
”÷÷÷
=≤
M
where the upper sign is forthe upper endcap and the lower for the lower endcap. Since the bar is very long we will neglect the effect of theupper endcap. Similarly there are effective surface charges
s
M
*
=
H
≤
z
`
L
ÿ
M
”÷÷÷
*
=≤
M
for the image bar, and we willignore the
lower
endcap of this. In summary we have two surfaces with equal and opposite constant chargedensity as shown in the second diagram.Because the material is infinitely permeable, the
H
”÷÷÷
field must be perpendicular to the
z
=
0 boundary. Now this isanalogous to the electrostatic problem (with
E
”÷÷
Ø
H
”÷÷÷
and 1
ê
e
0
Øm
0
) of a charge distribution above an infiniteconducting plane and a corresponding image charge distribution below. As discussed in problem 2.9 of homework set 3 the force on a small patch of the image charge (which has normal
z
`
) is
F
”÷÷
=
1
ÅÅÅÅÅ
2
I
E
”÷÷
>
+
E
”÷÷
<
M
s
a
=
H
s
2
ê
2
e
0
L
z
`
a
for a conductor, and so by analogy
F
”÷÷
*
=
H
m
0
s
M
*
2
ê
2
L
z
`
a
for themagnetic case. The force on the magnetic charge must be equal and opposite, so
F
”÷÷
=
®
S
F
”÷÷
*
=
®
S
a
m
0
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
2
s
M
*
2
z
`= m
0
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
2
M
2
z
`
®
S
a
= m
0
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
2
M
2
A
z
`
1