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jackson homework physics solutions solution

jackson homework physics solutions solution

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Published by Tikhon Bernstam
jackson homework physics solutions solution
jackson homework physics solutions solution

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Published by: Tikhon Bernstam on May 02, 2007
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01/08/2013

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Assignment 8 — Solutions 3/10/04
Problem 5.22
Choose coordinates so that the infinite plane is the
 x
-
 y
plane (
 z
=
0) and the bar is at some infinitesimal distance
h
above the plane. From the discussion in §5.9C a hard ferromagnet is equivalent to a system with an effectivemagnetic current density. For
 M 
÷÷÷
=
M z
`
there is only the effective surface current
÷÷
=
÷÷÷
ä
n
`
where
n
`
is the unitnormal to the vertical surface (in general a function of position, though most of you took the bar to be a cylinder.The important thing for now is that
n
`
is perpendicular to
 z
`
). Applying the results of 5.17 we see that the system isequivalent to an image current distribution with components scaled by
H
 m
-
1
LêH
 m
+
1
L
(amongst other things).Since
 m
ªm
ê
 m
0
=
for our case, this factor reduces to
H
1
-
1
ê
 m
LêH
1
+
1
ê
 m
L
Ø
1. We see that all we need isthe "reflected" current (recall that there is no
 z
component since
 z
`ä
n
`
must lie in the
 x
-
 y
plane, and actually no
 z
-dependence at all since the bar is uniform in the
 z
-direction) and corresponding image magnetization:
÷÷
*
H
 x
,
y
,
z
L
=
 x
H
 x
,
y
,
-
 z
L
 
 x
`+
 y
H
 x
,
y
,
-
 z
L
 
 y
`
 M 
÷÷÷
*
=
÷÷÷
Image bar located with "top" end-capat
 z
=-
h
.
ˆ
 MMz
=
µ 
=
0
µ 
 zh
-
h
ϖ 
ˆ
n
 A
*
 M 

++++++++
- - - - - - -
 z
ϖ  
h
-
h
The field due to the image can be calculated from its magnetic scalar potential 5.99, but this is hard for a bar of arbitrary cross-section. Instead we look at things from the effective magnetic charge density point of view. For
 M 
÷÷÷
=
 M z
`=
constant there is only the effective surface charge
s
 M 
=
H
 z
`
L
ÿ
 M 
÷÷÷
=
 M 
where the upper sign is forthe upper end-cap and the lower for the lower end-cap. Since the bar is very long we will neglect the effect of theupper end-cap. Similarly there are effective surface charges
s
 M 
*
=
H
 z
`
L
ÿ
 M 
÷÷÷
*
=
 M 
for the image bar, and we willignore the
lower 
end-cap of this. In summary we have two surfaces with equal and opposite constant chargedensity as shown in the second diagram.Because the material is infinitely permeable, the
 H 
÷÷÷
-field must be perpendicular to the
 z
=
0 boundary. Now this isanalogous to the electrostatic problem (with
 E 
÷÷
Ø
÷÷÷
and 1
ê
e
0
Øm
0
) of a charge distribution above an infiniteconducting plane and a corresponding image charge distribution below. As discussed in problem 2.9 of homework set 3 the force on a small patch of the image charge (which has normal
 z
`
) is
÷÷
=
1
ÅÅÅÅÅ
2
 
I
 E 
÷÷
>
+
 E 
÷÷
<
M
s
a
=
H
s
2
ê
2
e
0
L
 
 z
` 
a
for a conductor, and so by analogy
÷÷
*
=
H
 m
0
s
 M 
*
2
ê
2
L
 
 z
` 
a
for themagnetic case. The force on the magnetic charge must be equal and opposite, so
÷÷
=-
®  
S
÷÷
*
=-
®  
S
 
a
  m
0
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
2
s
 M 
*
2
 
 z
`=- m
0
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
2
 
 M 
2
 
 z
` 
®  
S
 
a
=- m
0
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
2
 
 M 
2
 
 A
 
 z
`
1
 
Problem 5.30
(a)Let
S
denote the cylinder surface, then
 J 
÷H
 x
£
L
=
H
f
L
d
H
v-
 R
L
 
 z
`
,
H
f
L
=
 I 
cos
fÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
2
 
 R A
÷÷H
 x
L
= m
0
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
4
p 
‡  
3
 x
£
 
 J 
÷H
 x
£
L
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
 x
-
 x
£
§
= m
0
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
4
p 
 z
` 
‡  
S
 
2
 x
£
 
 I 
cos
f
£
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
2
 
 R
 
 x
-
 x
£
§
,
x
£
=
R
cos
f
£
 
 x
`+
 R
sin
f
£
 
 y
`+
z
£
 z
`
Expand using 3.149 where
v
<
(
v
>
) is the smaller (larger) of 
v
and
 R
:1
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
 x
-
 x
£
§
=
4
ÅÅÅÅÅÅp 
‡  
0
 
cos
@
H
 z
-
z
£
LD
 
ikjjjjjj
1
ÅÅÅÅÅ
2
 
 I 
0
H
v
<
L
 
0
H
v
>
L
+
m
=
1
cos
@
m
H
f-f
£
LD
 
 I 
m
H
v
<
L
 
m
H
v
>
Ly{zzzzzz
The
 A
÷÷
integral picks out the
m
=
1 term by orthogonality of cosines in the range 0
§f
£
§
2
p
. Usingcos
 
H
f-f
£
L
=
cos
f
cos
f
£
+
sin
f
sin
f
£
and the orthogonality of sines and cosines, the
f
£
integral is
Ÿ 
02
p
 
f
£
cos
f
£
 
cos
H
f-f
£
L
=
cos
f
Ÿ 
02
p
 
f
£
cos
2
f
£
=p
cos
f
:
 A
÷÷H
 x
L
= m
0
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
4
p 
 z
` 
‡  
02
p
 R
 
f
£
‡  
 
 z
£
cos
f
£
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
2
 
 R
 
4
ÅÅÅÅÅÅp 
‡  
0
 
cos
@
H
 z
-
z
£
LD
 
cos
H
f-f
£
L
 
 I 
1
H
v
<
L
 
1
H
v
>
L
= m
0
 
 I 
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
2
p 
 z
` 
cos
f
‡  
 
 z
£
‡  
0
 
cos
@
H
 z
-
z
£
LD
 
 I 
1
H
v
<
L
 
1
H
v
>
L
From the
d
-function representation 2
pd
H
L
=
Ÿ 
 
 z
£
k z
£
we have
Ÿ 
 
 z
£
cos
@
H
 z
-
z
£
LD
=
Re
I
Â
k z
 
Ÿ 
 
 z
£
k z
£
M
=
Re
@
Â
k z
 
2
pd
H
LD
:
 A
÷÷H
 x
L
=m
0
 
 I 
 
 z
` 
cos
f
‡  
0
 
Re
A
Â
k z
d
H
L
 
 I 
1
H
v
<
L
 
1
H
v
>
LE
Applying the asymptotic form 3.102 (since the arguments of 
 I 
1
and
1
approach 0 due to the
d
-function):
 A
÷÷H
 x
L
=m
0
 
 I 
 
 z
` 
cos
f
‡  
0
 
Re
ÄÇÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
Â
k z
d
H
L
 
1
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅG
H
2
L
 
ikjj
v
<
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
2
y{zz
 G
H
1
L
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
2
 
ikjjj
2
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
v
>
y{zzzÉÖÑÑÑÑÑÑÑÑ
=
1
ÅÅÅÅÅ
2
m
0
 
 I 
 
 z
` 
cos
f
‡  
0
 
Re
ÄÇÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
d
H
L
 v
<
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅv
>
ÉÖÑÑÑÑÑÑÑÑ
=
1
ÅÅÅÅÅ
4
m
0
 
 I 
 
 z
` 
cos
f
Re
ÄÇÅÅÅÅÅÅÅŇ  
 
d
H
L
 v
<
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅv
>
ÉÖÑÑÑÑÑÑÑÑ
=
1
ÅÅÅÅÅ
4
m
0
 
 I 
cos
fv
<
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅv
>
 
 z
`
It was necessary to double the range of so that we can properly integrate the
d
-function. Recall that
v
<
ê
v
>
=v
ê
 R
for
v§
R
and
v
<
ê
v
>
=
R
ê
v
for
v¥
R
. The nonzero terms in the curl are:
2
 
 B
÷÷
=
÷÷
ä
 A
÷÷
=v` 
1
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅv 
 A
 z
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅf-f` 
 A
 z
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅv=
1
ÅÅÅÅÅ
4
m
0
 
 I 
ikjjjjjjjjjjjjj
-v` 
1
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅv 
sin
fv
<
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅv
>
-f` 
cos
f
loooooomnoooooo
1
ÅÅÅÅÅÅ
 R
,
v§
R
-
 R
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅv
2
,
v¥
R
|oooooo}~ooooooy{zzzzzzzzzzzzz
=-
1
ÅÅÅÅÅ
4
m
0
 
 I 
loooooomnoooooo
v` 
sin
fÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
 R
+f` 
cos
fÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
 R
=
1
ÅÅÅÅÅÅ
 R
 
 y
`
,
v§
R R
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅv
2
 
I
v` 
sin
f-f` 
cos
f
M
,
v¥
R
From
 y
`=
sin
f v`+
cos
f f`
we see by crossing
v`
into it that the vector potential outside the cylinder is:
 A
÷÷
>
=
1
ÅÅÅÅÅ
4
m
0
 
 I  R
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅv 
cos
f
 z
`=
1
ÅÅÅÅÅ
4
m
0
 
 I  R
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅvv`ä
 y
`= m
0
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
4
p 
H
-
 I R
 
 y
`
L
äv
÷÷÷
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ v
2
Comparing this to the 2D version of 5.55,
H
 m
0
ê
4
p
L
 
m
÷÷
äv
÷÷÷ê
v
2
, we see that this is indeed a 2D dipole with dipolemoment
-
 I R
 
 y
`
.(b)Since we're in free space, 5.148 gives for a cylinder of length
:
=
1
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
2
m
0
 
‡  
 R
 
3
 x
 
 B
÷÷
2
+
1
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
2
m
0
 
‡  
 R
 
3
 x
 
 B
÷÷
2
=
1
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
2
m
0
 
‡  
 R
 
3
 x
J
- m
0
 
 I 
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
4
 
 R
N
2
+
1
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
2
m
0
 
‡  
 R
 
3
 x
J
- m
0
 
 I 
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
4
 
 R
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅv
2
N
2
 
I
sin
2
f+
cos
2
f
M
= m
0
 
 I 
2
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
32
R
2
 
‡  
 R
 
3
 x
+ m
0
 
 I 
2
 
 R
2
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
32
 
‡  
02
p
v
f
‡  
0
 
 z
‡  
 R
 
v
1
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅv
4
= m
0
 
 I 
2
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
32
R
2
p
 R
2
 
+ m
0
 
 I 
2
 
 R
2
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
32
 
2
p
ÄÇÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
-
1
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
2
v
2
ÉÖÑÑÑÑÑÑÑÑ
 R
= m
0
p
2
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
32
+ m
0
p
2
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
32We see that this is equally distributed between inside and outside the cylinder, and that th energy per unit length is
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
= m
0
p
 I 
2
ÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅÅ
16(c)Since we have only one circuit
=
L I 
2
ê
2. Comparing to the above we read off 
 L
ê
=pm
0
ê
8.
Problem 5.33
(a)Following the arrows on the diagram we see that
 x
12
=-
 x
2
+
 R
÷÷
+
 x
1
, so
3

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Bom gostei das formulas aplicadas já a ssim erei de me dedicar mais e esforça mais o meu empenho do saber.batalha57.
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