AL HVAC Contractor Comprehensive Tutorial 10

Comprehensive Tutorial
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AL HVAC Contractor Comprehensive Tutorial
1 Lined duct inside clear 18X12. How many cfm are
being handled if the velocity is 1500 FPM?
A. 1850
B. 2000
C. 1200
D. 1725
CORRECT: B Duct Calculator
2 A duct is carrying 1000 CFM. The friction loss per

100' of duct is .11". What is the duct size?
A. 18 x 12
B. 20 x 10
C. 20 x 12
D. 20 x 8
CORRECT: D Duct Calculator
3 In a duct which measures 18 x 12 inside, the velocity

is 1500 FPM. What is the CFM being handled by the
duct?
A. 2100 CFM
B. 2355 CFM
C. 2450 CFM
D. 225 CFM
CORRECT: A Duct Calculator
Copyrighted by Greenview Enterprises 1997 - 2010 Page 1 of 276

4 When any two of the following items are known, the
other two items can be determined using the Trane
Ductulator:
1. Friction loss in inches of W.C. per 100' of duct
2. Desired velocity in round duct
3. Round duct diameter
4. Dimensions for various rectangular duct
A. True
B. False
C.
D.
5 With the friction per 100' of duct known, match this

friction, found on the inner blue band, to coinside with
the required ___ on the outer blue band. The velocity
of this system can then be established.
A. CFM
B. FPM
C. Friction loss
D. rectangular duct size
6 Assume a required air volume of 5000 CFM, and, a

friction loss of .1" W.C. per 100' of duct. Which of
the following is true?
A. velocity is 1420 FPM
B. round duct diameter is 25"
C. rectangular duct dimension is 18" X 29"
D. all of these

7 According to the Trane Ductulator, the maximum
recommended velocity in a branch line duct in a
theater should not exceed:
A. 1250 FPM
B. 1275 FPM
C. 1300 FPM
D. 1325 FPM
CORRECT: C Duct Calculator
8 The least duct size allowed by the Trane Ductulator is:

A. 2"
B. 3"
C. 4"
D. 3" X 3"
CORRECT: B Duct calculator
9 Given: An industrial branch duct riser carrying 25,

000 CFM.
Assuming the maximum velocity recommended by the

Trane Ductulator, what is the size of the rectangular
duct with the limitation of 40" on one side of the
rectangular duct.
A. 40 X 40
B. 40 X 52
C. 50 " round
D. 40 X 60
CORRECT: D Ductulator

10 When connecting fibrous glass duct board to sheet
metal, washers shall be __ inch think minimum with
turned edges to prevent their cutting into the duct
board or the facing.
A. 0.028
B. 0.28
C. 0.016
D. 0.16
CORRECT: A Fibrous Glass Duct Construction
Standard 3.30
11 Deflection of the duct board relative to a flat position

of the board is limited to __ of the span.
A. 1/100
B. 1/10
C. 1/50
D. 1/32
Standard 1.1
12 The minimum width of pressure sensitive tape for 1

inch duct board is __ inch/es.
A. 1
B. 1 1/2
C. 2
D. 2 1/2
CORRECT: D Fibrous Glass Duct Construction
Standard 2.02

13 __ fabrication is accurate, repeatable, and fast.
A. Machine
B. Hand
C.
D.
Standard 2.10
14 __ are the three methods for setting up cutting tools in

the grooving machine.
A. Forward, reverse and neutral
B. Neutral, standard and reverse
C. Preferred, forward and reverse
D. Preferred, reverse and standard
Standard 2.10
15 The principle of MDC is based on the use of __ inch

nominal duct module for straight duct runs and
fittings of most types.
A. 36
B. 42
C. 48
D. 32
CORRECT: C Fibrous Glass Duct Construction
Standard 2.2

16 The MDC principle __.
A. Minimizes the number of circumferential
joints
B. Simplifies fabrication of fittings
C. Improves the quality of workmanship
D. All of the above
Standard 2.2
17 ___ tools are normally required to fabricate straight

section of fibrous glass duct board.
A. Machine grooving
B. Hand grooving
C.
D.
CORRECT: B Fibrous Glass Duct Construction
Standard 2.-5
18 When fabricating fittings from modules or flat board,

use #__ plated sheet metal screws, board thickness +
1/4 inch with 2 1/2 inch square or 3 inch round
galvanized steel washers, 0.028 inch thick, volcano
type, with turned edges facing away from duct board,
12 inch nominal centers.
A. 8
B. 10
C. 12
D. 14
Standard 3.1

19 All mechanical connections of fibrous glass duct to
sheet metal equipment must be __ inches maximum
on center.
A. 14
B. 16
C. 12
D. 10
Standard 3.30
20 __ sided fibrous glass duct is approximately round din

cross section and is an acceptable substitute for rigid
round duct.
A. 6
B. 8
C. 10
D. 12
Standard 3.31
21 Tape tabs, when staple flaps are not present, are used
at seams and joints. Such tabs, made from 8 inch
minimum lengths of closure tape, are equally spaced
on either side of joints on __ inch maximum centers,
with at least one tape tab per side.
A. 14
B. 15
C. 16
D. 12
Standard 4.2

22 You must use __ inch minimum wide tape for 1 inch
duct board when applying pressure sensitive
aluminum foil tape closures.
A. 1
B. 1 1/2
C. 2 1/2
D. 2
Standard 4.3
23 For 2 inch duct board, you must use __ inch wide,

minimum, when applying pressure sensitive aluminum
foil tape closures.
A. 3
B. 2 1/2
C. 2
D. 1 1/2
Standard 4.3
24 Referring to the insulated collar method of flexible

duct connections to duct board, for an R-value of 4.2,
you would need to cut a ring from a 1 inch piece of
duct board whose inside diameter is the same as that
of the sheet metal collar plus __ inch/es.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Standard 4.7

25 For reinforcement purposes, use #10 plated sheet
metal screws, board thickness plus __ inch thread
length.
A. 1/8
B. 1/4
C. 3/8
D. 1/2
Standard 5.1
26 The number of tie rods required for an L angle length

of 20 inches is __.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Standard 5.15
27 You may use __ reinforcement method for fibrous

glass duct system straight sections and fittings.
A. Tie rod
B. Channel
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
Standard 5.2

28 A tie rod termination method is __.
A. Fasloop
B. Pop rivet
C. Locking cap
D. All of the above
Standard 5.7
29 The __ is not be used on sloped panels of fittings.

A. Fasloop
B. Pop Rivet
C. Locking Cap
D. None of the above
Standard 5.7
30 You are permitted to reuse locking caps.

A. True
B. False
C.
D.
Standard 5.7

31 Channels suspended trapeze style using __ gauge
minimum hanger wire are the preferred methods of
support.
A. 16
B. 18
C. 12
D. 10
Standard 6.2
32 Straps or saddles in contact with hanging 10 sided and

preformed round ducts shall be minimum __ inch.
A. 1
B. 3/4
C. 7/8
D. 1 1/2
Standard 6.8
33 The maximum permissible sag in hanging and

supporting flexible duct is __ inch per foot.
A. 1/4
B. 3/8
C. 1/2
D. 3/4
Standard 6.9

34 Vertically installed flexible duct must be stabilized by
support straps located at __ feet on centers.
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Standard 6.9
35 If damage extends into the insulation and to within __

inches of edge, cut out and repair the entire width of
the damaged panel.
A. 3
B. 5
C. 6
D. 8
Standard 8.3
36 Figure 2-4A shows that the __ is considered the

industry standard for machine grooving.
A. Shiplap
B. Modified shiplap
C. V-Groove
D. Modified V-Groove
Standard Figure 2-4A

37 Figure 2-5 shows ___.
A. 4 ways to make a duct section
B. Modified shiplap fabrication method
C. V-groove fabrication method
D. Shiplap fabrication method
Standard Figure 2-5
38 According to Figure 3-28A, sheet metal tap

connection requires use of bearing plate inside duct. If
the duct span is a span of between 31 - 54 inches, the
sheet metal gauge must be __.
A. 26
B. 24
C. 22
D. 20
Standard Figure 3-28A
39 Figure 3-2C shows __.

A. 90 degree elbow with rail mounted metal
turning vanes from module
B. 90 degree elbow with turning vanes from flat
grooved duct board
C. Three piece 90 degree elbow from duct board
module
D. Elbows of less than 90 degrees from duct
board module
Standard Figure 3-2C

40 Figure 3-6C shows __.
A. Tee from flat duct board with fibrous glass
turning vanes
B. Tee from duct board module with rail
mounted metal turning vanes
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
Standard Figure 3-6C
41 Figure 6-3B shows the use of __ inch wide hanger

channels for ducts of less than 48 inch width x 24 inch
height.
A. 3
B. 2
C. 2 1/2
D. 3 1/2
Standard Figure 6-3B
42 The International Gas Code does not apply to ___.

A. Portable LP gas equipment
B. Brooders and dehydrators
C. Welding systems
D. All of the above
CORRECT: D IGC 2003 101.2.4 (1)(2)(4)

43 The purpose of the International Gas Code is to
provide ___ protection standards to safeguard life,
limb, health and public property.
A. Maximum
B. Minimum
C. Complete
D. All inclusive
CORRECT: B IGC 2003 101.4
44 Generally, the International Gas Code shall not

require the removal, alteration or abandonment of, nor
prevent the continued utilization and maintenance of
__ lawfully in existence at the time of the adoption of
this Code.
A. Historic installations
B. New installations
C. Installations outside the jurisdiction
D. Existing installations
CORRECT: D IGC 2003 102.2
45 Additions, alterations, repairs and renovations to

existing systems shall conform to __.
A. The Code in existence at the time of
installation
B. The 2000 International Gas Code
C. The Code as adopted currently
D. None of the these
CORRECT: C IGC 2003 102.4

46 Historic buildings, judged safe, need not have repair
work conform to the current Code.
A. True
B. False
C.
D.
CORRECT: A IGC 2003 102.6
47 New work in moved buildings within the jurisdiction

of this Code need not comply with this Code.
A. True
B. False
C.
D.
48 The Code official ___.

A. Shall be elected by the people
B. May be removed from office for cause
C. May be sued in his private capacity
D. May have charges brought before him by the
home owner

49 The Code official ___.
A. May be sued in his private capacity while
acting n accordance within the jurisdiction of
the Code
B. May not be sued while in the employ of the
jurisdiction, and acting outside his capacity
as a Code official
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
50 A Code official, while acting and discharging his

duties as Code official who is sued must post bond and
pay for legal defense.
A. True
B. False
C.
D.
51 It is the duty of the Code official to ___.

A. Keep official records of the project
B. Issue work permits
C. Make all required inspections
D. All of the above
CORRECT: D IGC 2003 104.4, 104.3, 104.8

52 Materials, equipment and devices may be reused under
which of the following conditions?
A. If such apparatus is presently in working
condition
B. If they have been tested and approved
C. Materials, equipment and devices may not be
reused in fuel gas piping systems
D. Only after reconditioning
53 Construction documents, engineering data and

diagrams shall be submitted in sets of __ or more with
each application for a permit.
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
CORRECT: A IGC 2003 106.3.1
54 It is the duty of the __ to review an application,

construction documents and other data for the purpose
of issuing an permit.
A. Engineer
B. Contractor
C. Owner
D. Code official

55 A false statement or misrepresentation of material fact
on an application for permit could be cause for __.
A. Suspension of permit
B. Revocation of permit
C. Both A and B
D. Loss of license for one year
CORRECT: C IGC 2003 106.4.5
56 Work which proceeds before a permit is issued ___.

A. Is considered a misdemeanor
B. Qualifies for a civil fine of $5,000
C. Subjects the contractor to double permit fees
D. All of the above
57 The Code official shall not authorize the refunding of

any fee paid.
A. True
B. False
C.
D.
CORRECT: B IGC 2003 106.5.3

58 Upon notice from the Code official that work is being
done contrary to the provisions of this code or in a
dangerous or unsafe manner, ____.
A. The Code official shall cordon off the area so
that work stops immediately
B. The Code official shall give the contractor
written notice to cease work in 24 hours
C. The Code official shall, along with the sheriff
and or local law enforcement officers,
immediately shut down the entire project and
escort the work force off the site
D. The work shall cease immediately
59 A person shall have the right to appeal a decision of

the Code official to the Board of Appeals.
A. True
B. False
C.
D.
60 A Board of Appeals shall consist of __ members,

appointed by the Chief Appointing Authority.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

61 Each newly appointed successor member of the Board
of Appeals shall serve for a term of __ years.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
62 A low heat appliance produces flue gasses at

temperatures of ____ degrees F or Less.
A. 500
B. 750
C. 1000
D. 1250
CORRECT: C IGC 2003 201 A
63 According to the IFGC, a room large in comparison

with the size of equipment is a room having a volume
equal to at least __ times the total volume of a furnace
or air conditioning appliance or at least 16 times to
total volume of a boiler.
A. 12
B. 10
C. 8
D. 6
CORRECT: A IGC 2003 202

64 A __ is a furnace designed with airflow discharge
vertically near the bottom of the furnace.
A. Forced air furnace
B. Downflow furnace
C. Gravity type furnace
D. Enclosed furnace
CORRECT: B IGC 2003 202
65 The treatment of indoor and outdoor air so as to

control temperature, humidity and cleanliness, when
delivered to a space is __.
A. Exhaust air
B. Warm air
C. Return air
D. Air conditioning
CORRECT: D IGC 2003 202 A
66 ___ by the Code, official or other authority having

jurisdiction, is which of the following?
A. Approved
B. Approval agency
C. Approval listing
D. Approval device
CORRECT: A IGC 2003 202 A

67 A broiler is a device which cooks food by which of the
following?
A. Convection
B. Convention
C. Radiation
D. Induction
CORRECT: C IGC 2003 202 B
68 BTU is the abbreviation for __.

A. Baking Transition Unit
B. Better Than Ultra
C. Below the U-Factor
D. British Thermal Unit
CORRECT: D IGC 2003 202 B
69 One BTU is the quantity of energy required to raise

the temperature of one pound of water 1 degree.
A. True
B. False
C.
D.
CORRECT: B IGC 2003 202 B

70 Forced-draft burner depends on a draft forced by a fan
that is an integral part of the appliance and is located
___ of the burner.
A. Outside
B. Inside
C. Upstream
D. Downstream
CORRECT: C IGC 2003 202 B
71 An induced-draft burner depends on draft induced by a

fan that is an integral part of the appliance and is
located __ of the burner.
A. Outside
B. Inside
C. Upstream
D. Downstream
CORRECT: D IGC 2003 202 B
72 __ is the rapid oxidation of a fuel accompanied by the

production of heat or heat and light.
A. Burning
B. Combustion
C. A flame
D. Water production
CORRECT: B IGC 2003 202 C

73 Concealed piping is not considered to be located
behind a removable panel.
A. True
B. False
C.
D.
CORRECT: A IGC 2003 202 C
74 The pipe that connects an approved appliance as a

chimney, flue or vent is known as a ___.
A. Connector
B. Flue
C. Vent
D. Control
CORRECT: A IGC 2003 202 C
75 The pressure difference created by a vent or chimney

because of its height, and the temperature difference
between the flue gasses and the atmosphere is known
as __.
A. Draft
B. Forced draft
C. Induced draft
D. Natural draft
CORRECT: D IGC 2003 202 D

76 A __ is a non-adjustable device built into a gas
utilization device.
A. Back draft damper
B. Volume Damper
C. Draft hood
D. Hand damper
CORRECT: C IGC 2003 202 D
77 Draft hoods __.

A. Provide for ready escape of flue gasses into
the chimney
B. Prevent back draft from entering into the
appliance
C. Neutralize the effect of stack action upon the
appliance
D. All of the above
CORRECT: D IGC 2003 202 D
78 Fuel gases include all of the following except __.

A. Natural gas
B. Oxyacetylene
C. Liquefied petroleum gas
D. Hydrogen gas
CORRECT: B IGC 2003 202 F

79 A furnace designed for airflow discharge downward at
or near the bottom is a __.
A. Gravity flow furnace
B. Down flow furnace
C. Counter flow furnace
D. Unit heater
CORRECT: B IGC 2003 202 F
80 A joint made by bolting together a pair of flanged ends

is a __ joint.
A. Mechanical
B. Flared
C. Flanged
D. Welded
CORRECT: C IGC 2003 202 J
81 A __ is a device responsive to changes to pressure,

temperature and responsible for shutting off or
throttling back the supply of gas to the appliance.
A. Limit control
B. Thermostat
C. Sail switch
D. Pressure control
CORRECT: A IGC 2003 202 L

82 Space within a dwelling unit for the purpose of
sleeping and eating is a living space.
A. True
B. False
C.
D.
CORRECT: A IGC 2003 202 L
83 "Stay Warm Heating" has a project to install a total

comfort HVAC unit in the new Rialto Theater. Jimmy
Lee, Stay Warm's project manager, must determine if
the new Bryant unit is large or small in comparison to
the room in which it is to be installed. Field
measurements indicate the room is 12 feet wide by 18
feet long. The ceiling height is 10 feet. The Bryant
unit measure 5'6" long by 3'6" high. Is this room large
or small in comparison to the Bryant unit?
A. Large
B. Small
C.
D.
CORRECT: A IGC 2003 202 R
84 An appliance which required 36 inches of clearance to

combustibles, has 24 gauge sheet metal with ventilated
airspace installed to protect the combustibles, the
allowed clearance is now __.
A. 9 inches
B. 18 inches
C. 24 inches
D. 30 inches

85 Low pressure boilers installed in rooms that are small
in comparison to the size of the equipment may use
Table 308.2 for clearance reduction.
A. True
B. False
C.
D.
CORRECT: B IGC 2003 308.2 Table
86 Air conditioning equipment installed in rooms that are

large in comparison with the size of the equipment
shall be installed with which of the following
clearances?
A. 2 inches
B. 4 inches or greater
C. In accordance with the terms of their listing
D. In accordance with Table 308.2 of this Code
87 Furnace plenum clearance to plaster on metal lath __.

A. Shall be 2 inches
B. Shall be measured to the surface of the plaster
C. Shall be measured to the inside face of the
metal lath
D. May be reduced to 2 inches

88 Gas piping may be used as a grounding electrode
where the engineer and the Code official have given
approval.
A. True
B. False
C.
D.
89 Electrical connections between equipment and the

building wiring, including the grounding of the
equipment, shall conform to the National Electrical
Code.
A. True
B. False
C.
D.
90 Each above-ground portion of a gas piping system that

is likely to ___ shall be electrically continuous and
bonded to a ground-fault path.
A. Corrode
B. Rust
C. Become energized
D. Become deenergized

91 Gas piping bonding shall be connected to a circuit
other than that supplying the gas equipment.
A. True
B. False
C.
D.
92 Exposed gas piping systems shall be identified by

which of the following colors?
A. Red
B. Yellow
C. Blue
D. Green
93 When sizing a gas piping system which name plate

BTU input rating is unknown, a hydronic boiler for a
single family unit would have an approximate rating
___ BTU.
A. 60,000
B. 100,000
C. 110,000
D. 120,000

94 According to Table 402.2, an instantaneous water
heater with a capacity of four gallons per minute has a
BTU/h input of approximately ___ BTU/h.
A. 142,800
B. 285,000
C. 428,400
D. 35,000
95 According to the International Gas Code, Table 402.3,

a fuel gas piping system, with a developed length of
145 feet, carrying 1245 cubic feet of fuel gas, would
require a schedule 40 pipe size of:
A. 1 1/4"
B. 1 1/2"
C. 2"
D. 2 1/2"
96 Table 402.4(1) is used to size __.

I. schedule 40 metalic pipe
II. pressure drop of 0.3 inches water column
A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II
CORRECT: C IGC 2003 402.4(1) Table

97 A segment of schedule 40 metallic pipe is carrying
670 cubic feet of gas per hour. Assuming a pressure
drop of .3 inches water column and a maximum
branch length of 50 feet, what would be the minimum
pipe size required?
A. 1 inch
B. 1 1/4 inch
C. 1 1/2 inch
D. 2 inch
98 Given: Natural gas piping system; pressure drop of .5

inches water column; type cast tubing; tube size is 23;
maximum capacity of 38 cubic feet of gas per hour.
What is the maximum branch length allowed?
A. 150
B. 200
C. 250
D. 300
CORRECT: B IGC 2003 402.4(14) Table
99 Given: Type K copper pipe; pressure drop of .3 inches

water column; maximum branch length of 81 feet; 387
cubic feet per hour demand. What is the minimum size
pipe required?
A. 1 inch
B. 1 1/4 inch
C. 1 1/2 inch
D. 2 inch

100 At a maximum branch length of 153 feet, what is the
maximum cubic feet of gas that can be carried by a 5/8
inch type L copper semi-rigid tube?
A. 50
B. 45
C. 41
D. 39
101 The operating pressure for undiluted LP gas systems

shall not exceed ___ psig.
A. 8
B. 10
C. 16
D. 20
CORRECT: D IGC 2003 402.6.1
102 Where plastic pipe is used for fuel gas piping systems,
the joint shall be designed so that the longitudinal pull-
out resistance of the joint will be at least __.
A. 20 pounds per square inch
B. Equal to the solvent weld medium
C. The compression strength of the pipe
D. The tensile strength of the pipe

103 Acceptable flanged gasket material include all of the
following except __.
A. Neoprene
B. Asbestos
C. Aluminum "O" rings
D. Spiral wound metal gaskets
104 Copper and brass tubing shall not be used in fuel gas
piping systems where the natural gas contains more
than an average of __ grains of hydrogen sulfide per
100 cubic feet of gas.
A. .3
B. .03
C. 3.0
D. 30.0
105 According to code, thread compounds shall be

resistant to the action of LP gas, fuel gas, and, any
chemical constituents of the gases conducted through
the pipe.
A. True
B. False
C.
D.

106 Portions of fuel gas piping systems in concealed
locations shall not include:
1. Unions
2. Tubing fittings
3. Right and left couplings
4. Brazed joints
5. Bushings
6. Swing joints
7. Compression couplings
A. All but #1
B. All but #2
C. All but #4
D. All but #6
CORRECT: C IGC 2003 404.3, 404.3(1)
107 Uncoated threaded or socket welded joints shall not be

used __.
A. True
B. In contact with soil
C. In an alkaline atmosphere
D. False
108 Mitered bends in excess of 3 degrees shall not be used

in fuel gas piping systems where the internal pressure
exceeds __.
A. 20 psi
B. 30 psi
C. 40 psi
D. 50 psi

109 A branch length of 45 feet of 2 1/2 inch fuel gas
piping requires purging with an inert gas.
A. True
B. False
C.
D.
110 Vertical spacing of hangers for fuel gas piping 1 1/4

inch and larger shall be no less than __.
A. 6 feet
B. 8 feet
C. Every floor
D. 10 feet
CORRECT: C IGC 2003 415.1 Table
111 According to the International Gas Code, Chapter 5

covers all of the following except:
A. factory built
B. chimneys
C. chimney liners
D. single wall chimneys

112 Residential and low heat appliance flue lining systems
shall be clay flue lining, a listed chimney lining
system, and any other approved materials which will
support temperatures up to ____ degrees F.
A. 1200
B. 1500
C. 1800
D. 2400
113 Category II, III, and IV appliance venting systems

shall be sized in accordance with IGC section 504.
A. True
B. False
C.
D.
must be sized in accordance with manufacturers

recommendations
114 According to the International Gas Code, masonry

chimney flues shall be provided with a cleanout
opening having a minimum height of ____ inches.
A. 6
B. 8
C. 10
D. 12
CORRECT: A IGC 2003 501.15.3

chimneys equipped with a chimney lining system shall
not be required to have clearance between combustible
materials and the exterior surfaces of the masonry
chimney.
A. True
B. False
C.
D.
CORRECT: B IGC 2003 501.15.4 exception
liner system must be "listed"
116 According to the International Gas Code, abandoned

inlet openings in chimneys and vents shall be closed .
A. True
B. False
C.
D.
shall be closed by an approved method
117 According to the International Gas Code, positive

pressure venting systems shall be:
I. Taped & sealed

II. Designed for a minimum of .25" of positive
pressure
A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II

118 According to the International Gas Code, when
connecting an appliance to chimney flues serving
fireplaces, a ____ shall be provided below the point of
connection to prevent entry of room air into the flue.
A. cleanout
B. combustible seal
C. noncombustible seal
D. damper
119 An appliance shall not be connected to a flue serving a

factory-build fireplace.
A. True
B. False
C.
D.
If the appliance is specifically listed for such

installation, then its OK!
120 According to the International Gas Code, when

connecting a fuel gas appliance to a masonry fireplace
flue:
A. the connector shall extend to the fireplace flue
B. the connector shall extend to the fireplace
chamber
C. the connector shall extend to a point at least
4' vertical from the fireplace shelf
D. the ICG prohibits this arrangement

121 According to the International Gas Code, laboratory
burners must be vented.
A. True
B. False
C.
D.
122 According to the International Gas Code, Gas

refrigerators need not be vented.
A. True
B. False
C.
D.
123 According to the International Gas Code, Type II

clothes dryers need not be vented.
A. True
B. False
C.
D.

124 According to the International Gas Code, room heaters
listed for unvented use need not be vented as long as
there is an openable window in the room.
A. True
B. False
C.
D.
125 According to the International Gas Code, paragraph

501.8, a room containing multiples of items 1-11,
where the sum of the input ratings is greater than ____
BTU per cubic foot of room volume, an approved
venting system shall be provided.
A. 20
B. 40
C. 100
D. 200
126 According to the International Gas Code, connectors

shall connect to a masonry chimney flue at a point not
less than ____ inches above the lowest portion of the
interior of the chimney flue.
A. 6
B. 12
C. 18
D. 24

127 According to the International Gas Code, where vents
pass through insulated assemblies, an insulation shield
constructed of not less than ____ gauge sheet metal
shall be used to provide clearance between the vent
and the insulation.
A. 20
B. 22
C. 24
D. 26
128 The entire length of a chimney vent connector shall

have ___ for, inspection, cleaning and repair.
A. Confinement
B. Access doors
C. Access
D. Ready access
CORRECT: D IGC 2003 503.10.12
129 A gas utilization appliance shall not be connected to a

chimney flue serving ___, disregarding exceptions.
A. Any other gas utilization appliance
B. Any appliance which has a draft hood
C. A fireplace
D. A space heater
CORRECT: C IGC 2003 503.10.13

130 A vent connector shall not pass through ___.
A. A ceiling
B. A floor
C. Fire resistant rated wall
D. All of the above
CORRECT: D IGC 2003 503.10.14
131 A single wall metal connector shall not pass through

any __.
A. Interior wall
B. Exterior wall
C. Living spaces
D. All of the above
CORRECT: A IGC 2003 503.10.14
132 According to the IFGC, for residential and low heat

appliances, the thimble shall be not less than __
inches larger in diameter than the vent connector.
A. 12
B. 9
C. 7
D. 6
CORRECT: A IGC 2003 503.10.15

133 Ventilated metal thimbles designed for Type B metal
vent shall be a minimum of ___ inches in diameter
larger than the outside diameter of the metal vent.
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
CORRECT: B IGC 2003 503.10.15
134 Single wall metal pipe located within the exterior

walls of a building in locales having a 99% winter
design temperature of __ degrees Fahrenheit or higher
shall be permitted to be used in unconditioned spaces
other than attics and crawl spaces.
A. -5
B. Zero
C. 5
D. 10
CORRECT: C IGC 2003 503.10.2.2 Exception
135 The minimum thickness for a galvanized steel vent

connector 8" in diameter, shall be no less than ____
inches.
A. .019
B. .023
C. .029
D. .034
CORRECT: B IGC 2003 503.10.2.4 Table

136 The minimum thickness for a steel vent connector for
medium heat equipment connector, 8" diameter, shall
be no less than ____ inches.
A. .053
B. .067
C. .093
D. .123
CORRECT: A IGC 2003 503.10.2.5
137 Vent connectors serving Category __ appliances shall

not connect to any portion of a mechanical draft
system operating under positive static pressure.
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
CORRECT: A IGC 2003 503.10.4
138 Joints between sections of connector piping and

connections to flue collars and hood outlets shall be
fastened by any of the following methods except __.
A. Any approved means
B. Aluminum duct tape
C. Sheet metal screws
D. In accordance with manufacturers instructions
CORRECT: B IGC 2003 503.10.7

139 According to the IFGC, a vent connector shall be
installed without dips or sags and shall slope upward
toward the vent or chimney at least __ inch per foot.
A. 1/2
B. 1/8
C. 1/4
D. 3/16
CORRECT: C IGC 2003 503.10.8
140 Without considering exceptions, the maximum

horizontal length of a single wall vent connector shall
not exceed __.
A. 100 feet
B. 75 feet
C. 100% of the vertical rise of the vent
D. 75% of the vertical rise of the vent
CORRECT: D IGC 2003 503.10.9
141 According to the IFGC, a draft hood shall be located

so its relief opening is not less than __ inches from
any surface except that of the equipment it serves and
the venting system to which the draft hood is
connected.
A. 12
B. 18
C. 9
D. 6
CORRECT: D IGC 2003 503.12.7

142 Manually operated dampers __ placed in the vent
connector of any appliance.
A. Shall not be
B. Are permitted to be
C.
D.
143 According to the International Gas Code, incinerators

shall be permitted to be vented by means of a
mechanical draft system of an induced draft design.
A. True
B. False
C.
D.
CORRECT: B IGC 2003 503.3.3.2
144 According to the International Gas Code, ventilating

hoods shall be permitted to vent____ equipment.
A. production
B. commercial
C. residential
D. process
CORRECT: B IGC 2003 503.3.3.4

145 In a mechanical venting system where a ventilating
hood is used, provisions shall be made to prohibit
____ when the ventilation loop's damper is not in the
open position.
A. ignition
B. flow of gas to main burner
C. flow of gas through the solenoid valve
D. the exhaust fan from operating
146 According to the International Gas Code, no portion of

a venting shall extend through or into:
A. an attic
B. an air duct
C. an air plenum
D. B & C are correct
147 According to the International Gas Code, table 503.4,

a listed, vented wall furnace can utilize ____ for its
flue.
A. single wall
B. Type B
C. Type L
D. Type BW

148 According to the International Gas Code, approved
plastic piping is permitted to be used for approved
appliances.
A. True
B. False
C.
D.

chimneys built in accordance with NFPA 211 shall be
built for temperatures up to ____ degrees F.
A. 1500
B. 1800
C. 2400
D. 3000
150 According to the International Gas Code, residential

chimneys for a low-heat appliance, shall extend ____
feet above the highest point where it passes through a
roof.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

151 According to the International Gas Code, residential
chimneys for a low-heat appliance, shall extend ____
feet above any portion of a building within a
horizontal distance of 10 feet.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
152 According to the International Gas Code, chimneys for

medium-heat equipment shall extend at least ____ feet
higher than any portion of any building within 25 feet.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 10
D. 25
153 Using the alternate method #1 of flue sizing in the

International Gas Code, the maximum size individual
chimney for an appliance whose draft hood is 3" in
diameter would be ____ inches in diameter.
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
CORRECT: D IGC 2003 503.5.5 exception (1)

154 Using the alternate method #2 of flue sizing in the
IGC, the common flue size for a 4" and a 5" connected
appliance would be a ____ inch diameter pipe.
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
CORRECT: C IGC 2003 503.5.5 exception (2)
155 According to the International Gas Code, an existing

chimney which has previously been used for venting
solid-burning fuel shall be ____ prior to placing a new
fuel gas burning appliance into its service.
A. abandoned
B. replaced
C. cleaned
D. removed
156 According to the International Gas Code, fuel gas

burning equipment shall be permitted to be connected
to a chimney flue serving a separate appliance
designed to burn solid fuel.
A. True
B. False
C.
D.
CORRECT: B IGC 2003 503.5.7.1

157 According to the International Gas Code, category I
gas utilizing equipment on more than one floor are
permitted to be serviced by a common gas vent.
A. True
B. False
C.
D.
CORRECT: A IGC 2003 503.6.10
158 According to the International Gas Code, category I

gas utilizing equipment on more than one floor which
is to be served by a common flue vent require the
following:
I. All equipment shall be located in rooms separated

from habitable living
II. Equipment rooms shall have exteriorly furnished
combustion, ventilation and dilution air.
A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II
CORRECT: C IGC 2003 503.6.10.1
159 According to the International Gas Code, when sizing

connectors in multi-story gas venting systems, the
available height (H) is the vertical distance between:
I. The level of the highest draft hood outlet

II. The centerline of the next highest interconnection
tee
A. Either I or II
B. Both I or II
C. Neither I nor II
D.
CORRECT: B IGC 2003 503.6.10.2

connectors in multi-story venting systems, the size of a
connector segment is determined from:
A. it's draft hood outlet
B. draft hood inlet
C. Btu input
D. Btu output
CORRECT: C IGC 2003 503.6.10.2(2)

the common vertical vent in a multi-story venting
system, the size of the common vent is based upon:
I. Total connected Btu input of equipment

II. Total available height of common vertical vent
A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II
CORRECT: C IGC 2003 503.6.10.2(3)
162 According to the International Gas Code, a fuel gas

vent shall pass through the roof using all of the
following except:
A. roof flashing
B. pitch pocket
C. roof jack
D. roof thimble

163 Generally, Type L vents shall extend vertically with
off sets not exceeding ____ degrees.
A. 30
B. 45
C. 60
D. 90
164 According to the International Gas Code, Type B

vents shall be permitted to have one offset of not more
than ____ degrees.
A. 30
B. 45
C. 60
D. 90
165 According to the International Gas Code, the total

horizontal length of a vent, including the length of its
connector, serving a gravity vented appliance, shall
not exceed ____% of its vertical height.
A. 30
B. 45
C. 60
D. 75

166 According to the International Gas Code, a vent for a
fuel gas appliance shall terminate above the roof
surface with:
A. room in the thimble for combustion air
B. a listed cap
C. a listed roof assembly
D. either B or C
167 According to the International Gas Code, gas vents 12

inches and smaller shall terminate at least ____ feet
from a vertical wall.
A. 2
B. 6
C. 8
D. 10
168 A type B gas vent shall terminate ____ feet in vertical

height above the appliance draft hood.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

169 A type B-W gas vent shall terminate ____ feet in
vertical height above the bottom of a wall heater.
A. 5
B. 7
C. 10
D. 12
170 A gas vent exiting through a wall shall not terminate:

A. on the wall
B. next to a wall
C. under an eave
D. all of the above
171 According to the International Gas Code, single wall

metal pipe for use in multi-story gas venting systems
shall be made of ____ inch thick galvanized sheet
steel, or other approved materials.
A. .0123
B. .0231
C. .0304
D. .0434

172 According to the International Gas Code, uninsulated
single-wall metal pipe shall not be used outdoors in
cold climates for fuel gas burning equipment.
A. True
B. False
C.
D.
173 According to the International Gas Code, single-wall

metal pipe shall only be used for runs directly from the
space in which the ____ is located.
I. appliance
II. draft hood
A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II

metal pipe penetrations through a roof, a non-
ventilating shall be used which shall extend ____
inches above the roof and ____ inches below the roof.
A. 18 ; 18
B. 18 ; 6
C. 6 ; 18
D. 6;6

metal pipe shall not originate in any of the following
except:
A. unoccupied attic
B. unoccupied mechanical equipment room
C. concealed space
D. chase
176 According to the International Gas Code, Table

503.7.7, the clearance of listed equipment with a draft
hood, and listed for use with Type B gas vents, from
combustible material to single-wall metal pipe shall be
no less than ____ inches.
A. 3
B. 6
C. 9
D. not permitted
CORRECT: B IGC 2003 503.7.7 Table
177 According to the International Gas Code, Table

503.7.7, the clearance form Type B vent to
combustible material for a gas fired toilet shall be no
less than ____ inches.
A. 3
B. 6
C. 9
D. not permitted
CORRECT: D IGC 2003 503.7.7 Table

178 According to the International Gas Code, the
minimum dimension for a single-wall pipe vent shall
be no less than:
A. 2"
B. 3"
C. 4"
D. 5"
179 A mechanical draft venting system shall terminate at

least ____ feet above any building inlet within 10 feet.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
CORRECT: B IGC 2003 503.8(1)
180 A mechanical draft venting system shall terminate at

least ____ feet above grade.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
CORRECT: A IGC 2003 503.8(2)

181 The minimum input rating of a Category I fan-assisted
appliance connected to a vent or connector is the
definition for ___.
A. Fan Minimum
B. Fan Maximum
C. National Minimum
D. National Maximum
182 The maximum input rating of a Category I fan-

assisted appliance connected to a vent or connector is
the definition for __.
A. Fan minimum
B. Fan maximum
C. National minimum
D. National maximum
183 The maximum input rating of a Category I draft hood

appliance connected to a vent or connector is the
definition for __.
A. Fan min
B. Fan max
C. Nat min
D. Nat max

184 The maximum combined appliance input rating of one
or more Category I fan-assisted appliances and one or
more draft hood equipped appliances attached to a
common vent is the definition for __.
A. Fan max
B. Fan min
C. FAN + FAN
D. FAN + NAT
185 Given:
1. Category I appliance with a draft hood, Type B vent
2. Name plate input rating is 96,000 BTU/h
3. Location is 5 feet horizontally from flue
4. Vertical height draft hood to vent outlet is 15 feet
What is the minimum size flue?
A. 4 inches
B. 5 inches
C. 6 inches
D. 8 inches
CORRECT: B IGC 2003 504.2 (1) Table
186 Use the following information to select the minimum

size flue:
1. Category I appliance, fan assisted, single appliance
2. Name plate input rating of 575,000
3. Location is 15 feet horizontally from flue
4. Vertical rise of flue is 15 feet
5. Vent type is "B"
A. 8 inches
B. 10 inches
C. 12 inches
D. 14 inches
CORRECT: B IGC 2003 504.2 (1) Table

187 Use the following information to determine the
minimum flue size:
1. Single, Category I appliance, 35,000 BTU/h
2. Single wall appliance vent connector
3. Type B vent
4. Lateral distance is 12 feet
5. Flue height is 15 feet
A. 3 inches
B. 4 inches
C. 5 inches
D. Not applicable
CORRECT: D IGC 2003 504.2 (1) Table
188 The maximum horizontal length of a 10 inch vent

connector shall not be greater than __ feet.
A. 10
B. 12.5
C. 15
D. 17.5
CORRECT: C IGC 2003 504.2 (1) Table
189 A single appliance is to be vented with a type B vent.

Its label indicates a BTUh input rating of 120,000.
The venting system will require 3 elbows. If the "Nat
MAX" is 187, what is the rating with the elbows?
A. 149.6
B. 177.6
C. 158.95
D. 168.3
10 % reduction in the nat/Max rating for one additional

elbow over the two allowed. 187 X .9 = 168.3

190 According to the IFGC, a multistory common vent
may be reduced by __% in size above the offset.
A. 3
B. 5
C. 4
D. None of these
CORRECT: D IGC 2003 504.3.16
It shall NOT be reduced at all.
191 Vent connectors for draft hood equipped appliances:

I. May
II. Shall not
be smaller than the draft hood outlet diameter.
A. I
B. II
C. Either
D. Neither
CORRECT: B IGC 2003 504.3.19
192 According to the IFGC, the maximum vent connector

length, horizontally, for a connector diameter of 24
inches maximum, shall be __ feet.
A. 36
B. 33
C. 27
D. 21

193 Where vent connectors are combined, prior to entering
the vertical portion of the common vent to form a
common vent manifold, the size of the common vent
manifold and the common vent shall be determined by
applying a __ reduction to the common vent capacity
part of the common vent tables.
A. 10%
B. 8%
C. 5%
D. 2%
194 Commingling a combination of pipe sizes, double wall

and single wall metal pipe shall not be permitted by
this Code.
A. True
B. False
C.
D.
CORRECT: B IGC 2003 504.3.21
195 The minimum distance from the lowest part of a floor

furnace to the surrounding grade shall not be less than
__ inches.
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 8
CORRECT: C IGC 2003 504.3.22

196 At the point where a tee or a wye fitting connects to a
common vent ___.
A. This arrangement is not permitted
B. The size of the tee or wye shall not be
diminished
C. This arrangement is only permitted when
common vent sizes are 10 inches or larger
D. The opening size of the fitting shall be of a
size equal to the common vent
197 According to the IFGC, for each elbow up to and

including 445 degrees in the common vent, the
maximum common vent capacity listed in the venting
tables shall be reduced by __%.
A. 5
B. 3
C. 7
D. 10
198 When using corrugated metallic chimney liners, the

table capacities shall be reduced by __.
A. 15%
B. 20%
C. 25%
D. 30%

199 According to the IFGC, a distance of at least __ inches
from 2 adjoining sides of a floor furnace register to
walls shall be provided.
A. 12
B. 18
C. 24
D. 36
200 According to the IFGC, floor furnaces shall not be

installed in concrete floor construction built on grade.
A. True
B. False
C.
D.
201 A duct furnace shall be installed on the __ side of the

blower.
A. Positive pressure
B. Negative pressure
C. Upstream
D. Intake

202 All air handled by a non recirculating direct fired
industrial heater, including combustion air, shall be
ducted directly from __.
A. The space being heated
B. Any return air location
C. Any indoor location
D. Any outdoor location
203 Ducts that exhaust clothes dryers shall not be located

or penetrate __.
A. Concealed location
B. Accessible locations
C. Masonry walls
D. Fireblocking
204 According to the IFGC, direct fired industrial air

heaters shall incorporate a means to supply outside
ventilation air to the space at a rate of not less than __
cubic feet per minute per 1,000 Btu/h or rated input of
the heater.
A. 12
B. 6
C. 4
D. 2

205 Clothes dryer exhaust ducts which exhaust __ CFM
shall be provided with make up air.
A. 200
B. 220
C. 300
D. 400
206 Volume damper placed in the inlet side of a forced war

air furnace ___.
A. Are not permitted
B. Are permitted but may not restrict the
required air flow to the unit
C. Are permitted without restriction
D. This topic is not addressed in this Code
207 The minimum nominal size of an exhaust duct for

domestic clothes dryers must be __ inches.
A. 6
B. 4
C. 3
D. 2

208 The maximum length of a clothes dryer exhaust duct
must not exceed __ feet from the dryer location to the
outlet terminal.
A. 50
B. 10
C. 25
D. 15
209 Ducts in a Type 2 clothes dryer must have a minimum

clearance of __ inches to combustible materials.
A. 18
B. 12
C. 9
D. 6
210 If a thermostat is not an integral part of a sauna

heater, the heat sensing element must be located
within __ inches of the ceiling.
A. 12
B. 6
C. 18
D. 14

211 The minimum unobstructed total area of the outside
and return air ducts to a forced air warm air furnace
shall not be less than __ square inch/es for each 1,000
Btu/h output rating capacity of the furnace.
A. 2
B. 1
C. 3
D. 4
212 A refrigeration machinery room is __.

A. A hazardous location
B. Must have mechanical as well as gravity
ventilation
C. A prohibited source for return air
D. A source for contaminated air
213 What does a kitchen, toilet, closet, garage, bathroom

and boiler room have in common?
A. They all qualify for placement of gas
utilization equipment
B. They are all residential type rooms
C. They are all living spaces
D. They are all prohibited spaces for return air
inlets
CORRECT: D IGC 2003 618.3 (3)

214 Required outdoor air inlets shall be covered with 1/2
inch mesh type screen.
A. True
B. False
C.
D.
215 Open top broiler unit hoods shall have a minimum

clearance of __ inches maintained between the
cooking top and combustible material above the hood.
A. 18
B. 24
C. 30
D. 36
216 According to the IFGC, suspended type unit heaters

shall be installed with clearances to combustible
materials of not less than __ inches at the sides.
A. 12
B. 18
C. 10
D. 24

217 According to the IFGC, floor mounted type unit
heaters shall be installed with clearances to
combustible materials at the back and one side only of
not less than __ inches.
A. 12
B. 18
C. 6
D. 10
218 Group ___ occupancies shall not have unvented room

heaters installed in them.
A. A
B. E
C. I
D. All of these
219 According to the IFGC, the aggregate input rating of

all unvented appliances installed in a room shall not
exceed __ Btu/h per cubic foot of volume of such room.
A. 100
B. 70
C. 20
D. 45

220 A Category I appliance utilizes a draft hood. Its name
plate rating is 96,000 BTU/h input. The appliance is
located 5 feet horizontally from the vent. The vertical
height from the outlet of the draft hood to the outlet of
the vent is 15 feet. What is the maximum BTU/h
rating this vent can handle?
A. 87,000 BTU/h
B. 142,000 BTU/h
C. 130,000 BTU/h
D. 219,000 BTU/h
221 According to the IFGC, if instructions are not

available, at least __ inches of clearance must be
provided above the top of a refrigerator.
A. 6
B. 12
C. 8
D. 18
222 According to the IFGC, means for interrupting the

electrical supply to the air conditioning equipment and
to its associated cooling tower shall be provided within
sight of and not over __ feet from the air conditioner
and cooling tower.
A. 100
B. 75
C. 50
D. 25

223 A room or space which is intended exclusively to
house a gaseous hydrogen system is called a hydrogen
cut-off room.
A. True
B. False
C.
D.
224 Hydrogen-generating appliances utilize __ to generate

hydrogen.
A. Electrolysis
B. Reformation
C. Chemical processes
D. All of the above
225 Referring to gaseous hydrogen systems, 2 permanent

openings, one located entirely within __ inches of the
ceiling of a garage and one located entirely within 12
inches of the floor of the garage shall be provided in
the same exterior wall.
A. 6
B. 12
C. 18
D. 24
CORRECT: B IGC 2003 703.1.1.1

226 Piping used to convey gaseous hydrogen shall be
marked at intervals not exceeding __ feet.
A. 10
B. 12
C. 18
D. 20
CORRECT: A IGC 2003 704.1.2.2
227 According to the IFGC, shield plates shall cover the

area of a pipe where the member is notched or bored,
and shall extend a minimum of __ inch/es above sole
plates.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
CORRECT: D IGC 2003 704.1.2.3.5
228 Piping below ground shall be protected against __.

A. Corrosion
B. Freezing
C. Water
D. All of the above
CORRECT: A IGC 2003 704.1.2.3.7

229 According to the IFGC, when referring to the location
of gaseous hydrogen systems, operable windows are
not prohibited in interior walls.
A. True
B. False
C.
D.
230 According to the IFGC, to determine the size of piping

used in a gas piping system, all of the following except
__ must be considered.
A. Diversity factor
B. Numbers of elbows to be used
C. Maximum gas demand
D. Specific gravity of the gas
CORRECT: B IGC 2003 Appendix A
231 Assume you have a 120,000 Btu/h input appliance

with a 5-inch diameter draft hood outlet that needs to
be vented into a 10-foot high Type B vent system.
What size vent should be used assuming a 5-foot
lateral single wall metal vent connector is used with 2
90 degree elbows?
A. 5-inch diameter
B. 7-inch diameter
C. 3-inch diameter
D. 6-inch diameter
CORRECT: A IGC 2003 Appendix B

232 According to Table A.5.1, if the nominal size of
Schedule 40 steel pipe is 1/4 inch, the internal
diameter would be __ inch.
A. 0.493
B. 0.622
C. 0.364
D. 1.049
CORRECT: C IGC 2003 Table A.5.1
233 A device or method which has been approved by the

code official or any other authority having jurisdiction
is:
A. listed
B. approved
C. certified
D. accepted
CORRECT: A IMC 2003
234 What is the minimum gauge galvanized steel for a

Type I hood?
A. 20 GA
B. 22 GA
C. 18 GA
D. 24 GA
CORRECT: C IMC 2003 507.4

235 The purpose of Intent is to safeguard ____
A. property and public welfare, health, limb or
life.
B. health, wealth, public and property welfare.
C. equipment, buildings, welfare of others.
D. life, liberty and the pursuit of happiness.
CORRECT: A IMC 2003 101.3
236 Disregarding exceptions, this code shall not require:

I. Removal of lawfully installed equipment prior to
the acceptance of the code
II. Abandonment of mechanical systems lawfully in
existence at the time of adoption of this code
A. I only
B. II only
C. both I and II
D. either I or II
237 Buildings or structures that are moved into a new area

that already has mechanical systems must comply with
the provisions of code ____ for new installations.
A. 102.2
B. 202.1
C. 102.1
D. 201.1

238 Who does the chief appointing authority of the
jurisdiction appoint?
A. chief of police.
B. mechanical inspector.
C. code official.
D. presiding judge.
239 The code official shall have authority, as necessary in

the interest of public health, safety and general welfare
to:
I. Interpret and implement provisions of the code
II. Enter a premise at anytime an unsafe condition
exists
A. I only
B. II only
C. both I and II
D. neither I nor II
CORRECT: A IMC 2003 104.2 and 104.5
240 Margaret Kelly is the code official inspecting the

structures of a building. Before she can begin her
inspection she must show ____.
A. birth certificate and drivers license.
B. rules and regulations of the IMC.
C. estimate of repairs.
D. proper identification.
CORRECT: D IMC 2003 104.6

241 Permits shall not be required for all of the following
except:
A. portable heating appliances
B. portable cooling units
C. portable evaporative coolers
D. self contained refrigeration systems that
contain 10 pounds or more refrigerant
242 According to the International Mechanical Code, who

is responsible to notify the authority that work is ready
for inspection?
A. licensed journeyman
B. the qualifying party
C. the permit holder
D. the company owner
243 According to the International Mechanical Code, the

building official may call for re-inspection ____.
A. All of these.
B. when approved plans are not readily available
to the inspector.
C. when there is failure to provide access on the
day the inspector is required to be there.
D. When the portion of work for each inspection
is called for and is not complete or
corrections have not been made.
CORRECT: A IMC 2003 107.2.3

244 A dated declaration of test for a refrigeration system
shall show the signatures of which one of the
following?
A. owner
B. installer
C. mechanical official
D. mechanical designer
CORRECT: B IMC 2003 108.4
245 Upon notice from a code official of a violation of the

code for mechanical work:
I. Such work shall cease within 3 days
II. Such notice shall be given to the property owner
both verbally and in writing
A. I only
B. II only
C. both I and II
D. neither I nor II
246 A toilet room consists of ____.

A. a shower, spa, bathtub or a similar fixture
B. a toilet, bathtub, vanity and water closet
C. a Jacuzzi, changing room, toilet
D. a water closet and frequently a toilet
CORRECT: D IMC 2003 202

247 Air removed from a conditioned space and intended
for reuse as supply air is:
A. return air
B. combustion air
C. outdoor air
D. recalculated air
248 A duct is a _____ utilized for conveying air.

A. gas compressor
B. welded joint
C. tube or conduit
D. warm-air heating appliance
CORRECT: C IMC 2003 202
249 A furnace is a self-contained heating unit that is

designed to supply ____.
A. combustible liquid from a source of supply to
a fuel-oil-burning appliance.
B. heat that is transferred from one medium to
another.
C. a passageway within a chimney or vent.
D. heated air to spaces remote from or adjacent
to the appliance location.

250 Any appliance which produces a temperature from
combustion at the point of entry into the flue is:
A. low-heat appliance
B. high-heat appliance
C. medium- heat appliance
D. category I appliance
CORRECT: A IMC 2003 202 (c)
251 A pilot that burns without turn down, whether or not

the main burner is firing is:
A. standing pilot
B. continuous pilot
C. blue flame pilot
D. ignition pilot
CORRECT: B IMC 2003 202 (c)
252 At what maximum pressure may a low pressure boiler

supply hot water?
A. 150 psi
B. 160 psi
C. 170 psi
D. 180 psi
CORRECT: B IMC 2003 202 b

253 What is the name of the appliance that generates
steam or other vapors in excess of 15 PSI?
A. steam boiler
B. low pressure boiler
C. low temperature boiler
D. power steam boiler
CORRECT: D IMC 2003 202 b
254 A central heating furnace that is not listed for closet or

alcove installation is being installed. The room
SHALL HAVE a volume of at least ___ times greater
than the total volume of the furnace.
A. 10
B. 12
C. 18
D. 20
CORRECT: B IMC 2003 202 c
255 A joint obtained by the joining of metal parts with

alloys which melt at temperatures higher than 800
degrees F is a ____ joint.
A. fusion
B. soldered
C. mechanical
D. brazed
CORRECT: D IMC 2003 202 definitions B

256 What does a Type 1 kitchen hood remove?
A. grease
B. dust
C. smoke
D. steam
CORRECT: A IMC 2003 202 definitions H
257 A unit is considered to be readily accessible if it can be

reached for operation, to renew or repair quickly ____:
A. by using a step ladder
B. by removing a panel
C. without using a step ladder
D. by removing a door
CORRECT: C IMC 2003 202 definitions R
258 A natural draft, automatically controlled gas appliance

shall be equipped with a device that will shut off the
fuel supply to the burner in the event of:
A. low draft condition
B. the flue temperature reaches 100 F
C. pilot flame goes out
D. combustion chamber temperature reaches 100
degrees F
CORRECT: C IMC 2003 202 s

259 A listed device that will automatically shut off a
supply of fuel is required on which of the following
appliances?
A. stove top gas boiler
B. kitchen range
C. gas fire log
D. warm air furnace
CORRECT: D IMC 2003 202 s
260 According to Code, the minimum depth of a trap seal

is:
A. 30,700 BTU
B. 28,800 BTU
C. 45,100 BTU
D. 60,500 BTU
CORRECT: B IMC 2003 202 u
261 A residence of ordinary tightness gets all or part of its

combustion air to supply its appliances by infiltration.
How many cubic feet per 1000 BTUH of combustion
air are required to supply each appliance in the
building?
A. 50
B. 30
C. 40
D. 20
CORRECT: A IMC 2003 202 u

262 In ordinary construction, combustion air is considered
adequate by means of infiltration provided the volume
of the room is not less than ___ CF per 1,000 BTU
input of the appliance.
A. 75
B. 50
C. 25
D. 40
CORRECT: B IMC 2003 202 u
263 A furnace is being installed in a garage to heat an attic

apartment. Concrete filled steel posts will be installed
in front of the furnace so no vehicle will actually be
able to hit the furnace. How high above the garage
floor do the burners have to be to comply with the
minimum height specified by the code?
A. 24"
B. 6"
C. 12"
D. 18"
264 Central furnaces within a compartment shall have a

minimum working space clearance from the back and
sides of:
A. 2"
B. 3"
C. 4"
D. 5"

265 According to the International Mechanical Code, a
furnace room shall have an opening or passage large
enough to remove the largest piece of equipment in
such room and not be less than ___ wide x ___ high.
A. 2', 3'-6"
B. 2', 6'-8"
C. 2', 6'-9"
D. 2', 7'-6"
266 The total distance from a passageway opening to any

furnace located in a crawl space shall not be more than
____ feet
A. 15
B. 20
C. 25
D. 30
267 A level working platform of not less than ____ inches

in depth shall be provided in front of the entire fire
box side of an attic furnace including access to other
controls.
A. 30
B. 32
C. 42
D. 36

268 Which of the following is required when a warm air
furnace is installed in an attic?
A. the electric outlet and lighting fixture must be
installed near the furnace
B. the attic must have fire-resistive decking
C. an electric outlet and lighting fixture must be
installed near the attic access door
D. all air ducts must be installed at least 5' above
the service area
269 A furnace located under the floor shall have ____ at or

near the furnace?
A. the service record
B. a permanent electric outlet and light fixture
C. a light fixture
D. a starting collar
CORRECT: B IMC 2003 306.4.1

non-listed furnace which is to be installed on a roof
that is 18' high:
A. may be installed on a properly constructed
roof jack
B. must be provided with permanent means of
access
C. must be in a properly constructed penthouse
D. must be water tight

271 Furnaces located on a roof with a pitch greater than 4'
on 12, shall have a level working platform of at least:
A. 48" x 48"
B. 24" x 30"
C. 30" x 48"
D. 30" x 30"
272 Where condensate drain lines serve more than one fuel
burning appliance in the same residence, the drain line
diameter shall be:
A. approved by building official before
installation
B. no less than 1"
C. approved by local fire Marshall after
installation
D. not less that the appliance connection
CORRECT: D IMC 2003 307.2.2
273 Combustion air vent openings that terminate on the

outside of the building shall be covered with a
corrosion resistant screen that has a wire mesh of:
A. 1/8"
B. 1/16"
C. 1/4"
D. 1/2"

274 Natural ventilation is defined by the code as being
obtained through all of the following except:
A. an open window
B. make up air fan
C. an open door
D. infiltration
275 According to the International Mechanical Code, in

which chapter of the International Building Code shall
natural ventilation of an occupied space comply to?
A. 3
B. 6
C. 9
D. 12
276 Mechanical ventilation may be provided by all of the

following except:
A. supply air fans
B. bathroom exhaust fan
C. make up air fan
D. gravity roof ventilator

277 In what section of the International Mechanical Code
would you refer to in order to find the minimum
ventilation rate of required outdoor air?
A. 401.6
B. 402.2.4
C. 403.2
D. 404.5
278 Public toilet rooms shall be ventilated with exhaust air

at the rate of:
A. 75 cfm per water closet or urinal
B. 25 cfm per square foot
C. .5 cfm per cubic foot
D. no less than 150 cfm exhaust fans
279 An auditorium is being designed for an occupant load

of 100 persons per 1000 square feet. The theater
measure 157' x 127' of conditioned floor area. What is
the design outdoor air cfm?
A. 398
B. 299
C. 199
D. 20
CORRECT: C IMC 2003 403.3 table

280 Mechanical ventilation systems for public garages
must activate upon detection of ____ ppm of carbon
monoxide.
A. 25
B. 30
C. 33
D. 41
281 Air from a public building may be exhausted to the

outdoors in all of the following locations except:
A. side wall louver
B. positive discharge roof ventilator
C. an adequate louvered attic space
D. basement air shaft
282 In what area shall an inlet to an exhaust system be

located?
A. at floor level.
B. in the area of the heaviest concentration of
contaminants.
C. to the immediate left of an outlet door.
D. in the crawl space of the attic.

283 According to Code, electric ARC projectors without an
exhaust connection shall have the contaminates
removed through a mechanical exhaust system at a
rate of ____ cfm per lamp.
A. 100
B. 150
C. 200
D. 250
CORRECT: C IMC 2003 502.5.2
284 In accordance to the International Mechanical Code,

during the construction, alteration or demolition of a
structure where the use of materials that contain
solvents that are flammable ____ must be used.
A. ceiling fan
B. both manuel and automatic shut-off valves
C. automatic sprinkler system
D. ventilation
285 Parts of fans in contact with explosive or flammable

vapors shall be made of?
A. nonferrous material
B. forged steel
C. cast steel
D. molybdenum/steel alloy

286 Ducts from clothes dryers shall:
I. Terminate on the outside of the building with a
volume damper
II. Have a smooth interim finish with a maximum
developed length of 20'
A. I only
B. II only
C. both I and II
D. neither I nor II
287 Ducts conveying exhaust from hoods over commercial

kitchen ranges, should have a conveying velocity of
____.
A. 1500 fpm
B. 1000 fpm
C. 2000 fpm
D. 500 fpm
288 The velocity in a grease duct serving a commercial

range hood shall not be less than ____ feet per minute.
A. 1200
B. 1500
C. 1800
D. 2000

289 Duct systems serving a type I hood shall slope not less
than ___ inch per linear foot towards the hood.
A. 1/4
B. 1/2
C. 3/4
D. 1
290 A Type I island hood is being sized for a deep fat

fryer. The open area of the hood is 24 square feet (4' x
6'). According to the IMC, the cfm requirement for
this hood is:
A. 2400 cfm
B. 3200 cfm
C. 3600 cfm
D. 4800 cfm
CORRECT: C IMC 2003 507.13.4
291 Each exhaust outlet in a Type I hood shall serve no

more than a ____ foot section of hood.
A. 10
B. 12
C. 14
D. 16

292 When using copper to construct a Type II exhaust
hood, the sheets shall be no less than ____ ounces per
square foot.
A. 24
B. 22
C. 20
D. 18
293 The portion of a type I hood shall have clearance from

unprotected combustible construction of not less than
____ inches.
A. 15
B. 18
C. 21
D. 24
294 According to Code, the temperature difference

between the makeup air and the kitchen space where
cooking fumes are being exhausted shall not exceed:
A. 5 degrees F
B. 10 degrees F
C. ambient outside temperature
D. ambient indoor temperature

295 Ducts used to convey flammable vapors in excess of
the acceptable lower flammability limit shall extend
directly:
A. to the exterior of the building without
entering other spaces
B. to the exterior of the building but may pass
through no more than one building space
C. to the exterior of the building but may pass
through no more than two other building
spaces
D. into a filtering system to reduce the level of
the flammables and then recirculate the air to
other building spaces
CORRECT: A IMC 2003 510 5.7
296 A hazardous exhaust galvanized duct has a square

dimension of 28". The material used for fabricating
the duct should be ____ gage.
A. 18
B. 16
C. 14
D. 12
CORRECT: C IMC 2003 510.8 Table
297 A dust conveying duct system shall be provided with:

A. safety relief system
B. explosion relief system
C. both A and B
D. Either A or B

298 Stud wall cavities and the spaces between solid floor
joists utilized as air plenums shall:
I. Not be utilized as a plenum for supply air
II. Be isolated from adjacent concealed spaces by
approved fire blocking
A. I only
B. II only
C. both I and II
D. either I or II
299 What minimum clearance is required between a

fabricated metal duct and the ground below?
A. 8"
B. 2"
C. 6"
D. 4"
300 You are directed to fabricate 100 feet of 14x10 low

pressure galvanized iron ductwork, using a 10%
waste factor for joints and seams. In accordance with
able 603.3 of the International Mechanical Code, this
duct system would weigh approximately ____ pounds.
A. 234
B. 343
C. 421
D. 512
CORRECT: C IMC 2003 603.3 Table
28 gage is the minimum required thickness for this

duct. It weighs .7812 pounds per square foot. 14 X 10
duct has a perimeter of 48 inches or 4'. 1 lf weighs 4 X
.7812 or 3.12 pound per LF. 100 LF weighs 312
pounds. Add 10% for seams = 343#

301 Round aluminum ducts used in a single family
dwelling shall be of ____ minimum gage.
A. 28
B. 26
C. 24
D. 22
302 What cannot be used for the fabrication of evaporative

cooling ducts?
A. a masonry shaft connected to the outdoors
B. galvanized steel
C. copper
D. gypsum wall board
303 What class of non-metallic duct is designated to

convey conditioned air?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3

304 According to the UL 181, nonmetallic ducts shall be
constructed with ____ duct material.
A. Class 0 or Class 3
B. Class I or Class 2
C. Class 2 or Class 5
D. Class 0 or Class I
305 Class 0 duct shall have a flame spread rating not to

exceed:
A. 0
B. 25
C. 50
D. 75
306 What must be done to ducts installed in the ground?

A. embedded in 2" of 200 PSI or less concrete
B. tested for water leaks at 3 PSI per hour
C. embedded in 3" of light weight concrete
D. joints tightly sealed
307 How are joints in ducts made air tight?

A. use of ductmate flanges
B. tape, mastic, gasketing
C. silicone sealant
D. companion angle rings

308 Before the concrete encasement can be pored all ducts
must be ____.
A. tested
B. inspected by the code official
C. secured and sealed
D. sloped to allow for proper drainage
CORRECT: C IMC 2003 603.8.2
309 In accordance with the ASTM D 2412, plastic ducts

are constructed of ____.
A. metal
B. fibrous glass
C. gypsum
D. PVC
310 Air ducts are being installed for a central air

conditioner. Supply air ducts run through a ventilated
attic in Heating Zone I. All of the following
insulations may be used except:
A. 1 1/2 " mineral fiber or glass blanket
B. 1" mineral fiber or glass blanket
C. vapor barrier with PERM Rating of 1.5
D. 1 1/2 " mineral board

311 What maximum flame spread rating is allowed for
insulation jacketing?
A. 75
B. 50
C. 25
D. 100
312 Exposed materials used inside a duct system shall have

what maximum flame spread rating?
A. 75
B. 50
C. 25
D. 100
313 According to the International Mechanical Code,

central heating and air-conditioning systems shall be
equipped with:
I. air filters
II. Air filters installed din the return air side
A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II

ductwork shall connect to fire damper sleeves so that a
collapse of the duct system during a fire:
A. will not impair the sleeve connection
B. will not dislodge the hangers
C. will not impair the damper operation
D. will maintain the bolted connection
315 Which of the following is not one of the purposes of

the combustion air ducts provided to an appliance?
A. provides draft dilution air
B. provides ventilation air for the equipment
C. provides exhaust in case of a gas leak
D. provides air for fuel combustion
316 When combustion air vents are terminated in a vented

attic space, the attic shall have a clear vertical height
of no less than ___ inches.
A. 15
B. 20
C. 25
D. 30

317 Combustion air for gas appliances shall not be taken
from ____.
A. an attic
B. a refrigeration machinery room
C. a crawl space
D. an appliance enclosure

warm air furnaces' combustion air supply may NOT be
taken from:
A. communicating residence air
B. attic
C. outside air shaft
D. a well ventilated refrigeration machinery room
319 Combustion air must be delivered to a mechanical

room and divided equally to the lower?
A. 8"
B. 10"
C. 12"
D. 6"

320 In a building of unusually tight construction, an
appliance is to be installed in an unconfined space.
Combustion air to supply the appliance shall be taken
directly from the outdoors through 2 openings. Each
opening shall have a minimum free area for all
appliances requiring combustion air of one square inch
per:
A. 1000 BTUH
B. 5000 BTUH
C. 2000 BTUH
D. 4000 BTUH
321 Combustion air vents for a gas fired 25,000 btu/per

hour appliance will terminate in the attic. The attic
space communicates directly with the outdoors. What
minimum diameter vertical vents are required? (If
between sizes, go to larger size.)
A. 6"
B. 7"
C. 8"
D. 9"
322 A boiler room of tight construction contains three

boilers: 2 rated at 1,000,000 BTU each, and one rated
at 500,000 BTU. The minimum required area for
combustion air is ____square inches. (NOTE:
Combustion air taken exclusively from outdoors and
meets Condition 1)
A. 3000
B. 2500
C. 2000
D. 1500

323 When an opening or duct is required to supply fresh
air to a gas fired water heater, the smallest dimension
shall be at least:
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
324 In a single family dwelling, an unobstructed stud space

may be used as a combustion air duct provided no
more than ___ fire stops are removed.
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1
CORRECT: D IMC 2003 709.1 (1) exception

combustion air ducts for heat producing appliances
shall not be installed in a location that requires the use
of____ except when electrically interlocked with the
firing cycle of the appliance.
A. manual dampers
B. fire dampers
C. volume dampers
D. sheet metal screws

326 What is the minimum distance at "A"?
A. 1'
B. 2'
C. 3'
D. 4'
327 A Type B gas vent must terminate not less than ___
above any vertically extended portion of a building
when it is within 10' of the vertical portion.
A. 1'
B. 2'
C. 3'
D. 4'
328 A listed residential water heater with a draft hood has

a chimney connector made of single wall metal pipe.
What minimum clearance is required between the
connector and any unprotected combustible material?
A. 9"
B. 3"
C. 6"
D. 12"
CORRECT: C IMC 2003 803.10.4 Table

329 Where is the water discharge line from a cooling tower
required to be piped?
A. to an open type expansion tank
B. into the supply side of a water softener
C. into a boiler feedwater system
D. to an approved disposal system
330 What minimum clearance is required between a

swinging door and a vented wall furnace?
A. 8"
B. 6"
C. 4"
D. 2"
331 A furnace located under the floor shall have a

clearance of ____ from the ground?
A. 6"
B. 10"
C. 12"
D. 3"

332 A floor furnace shall not be installed:
A. using lag bolts supported by floor joists
B. on concrete slab on grade
C. with a 2" clearance to the ground when sealed
by the manufacturer
D. with a 12" clearance to an inside corner from
the outlet register or grille
333 According to IMC, a sauna room is to have a

ventilation opening near the top of the door not less
than:
A. 3" x 6"
B. 4" x 8"
C. 5" x 10"
D. 5" x 12"
334 A blower type warm air furnace must have its air
supply duct sized according to BTUH output rating of
the furnace. What minimum unobstructed cross
sectional supply duct area is required for a 180,000
BTUH furnace?
A. 360 sq. inches
B. 720 sq. inches
C. 240 sq. inches
D. 180 sq. inches

335 The minimum unobstructed total area of supply duct
from a forced warm air furnace shall not be less than
____" per 1000 Btuh output rating of the furnace.1
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
336 From which of the following places is return air

prohibited?
A. a dining area
B. a tool room
C. a closet
D. none of these
337 When is the return air from one apartment unit

permitted to mix with the return air from another
apartment?
A. with permission of the administrative
authority
B. when the apartment building is multi-floor
C. when apartments are separated by a fire wall
D. not permitted

338 What minimum return vent opening is required for a
120,000 BTUH upflow warm air furnace in a
residence?
A. 240 square inches
B. 840 square inches
C. 480 square inches
D. 720 square inches
339 Water heaters used for both potable water and space
heating shall be limited to a maximum temperature of:
A. 120 degrees F
B. 130 degrees F
C. 140 degrees F
D. 150 degrees F
CORRECT: C IMC 2003 1002.2.1
340 What is the minimum clearance for a residential gas

boiler from the sides & back?
A. 12"
B. 14"
C. 16'
D. 18"

341 The controls have been set for a new hot water boiler
and it has passed its operational test. A set of
operating instructions has been given to the new
owner. The Code also requires the installer to give the
new owner:
A. warranty
B. pressure test results
C. control wiring diagram
D. inspection notice
342 When a natural gas fired low pressure boiler has a low
water condition and the burner is operating, the
________ shuts off gas to the burner.
A. manual reset valve
B. main gas solenoid
C. zero reducing governor
D. vapor stat
343 According to Code, open type expansion tanks for hot

water heating systems shall have an overflow pipe
with a minimum diameter of:
A. 1"
B. 1 1/4"
C. 1 1/2"
D. 2"

344 The pressure test gauge used for testing a boiler or
pressure vessel shall be graduated over a range of:
I. Not less than 1 1/2 times maximum test pressure
II. Not more than 4 times maximum test pressure
A. I only
B. II only
C. both I and II
D. either I or II
345 What minimum clear height is required in a

refrigeration machinery room?
A. 7'- 2"
B. 6'- 2"
C. 6'- 4"
D. 6'- 8"
346 Refrigeration machinery rooms shall contain a

refrigerant detector with:
I. An audible alarm
II. A visual alarm
A. I only
B. II only
C. both I and II
D. either I or II

347 According to the International Mechanical Code, the
frequency for the air to be changed in a room that
houses a refrigeration condensing unit is:
A. every 30 minutes
B. not less than .5 cfm per square foot
C. 25 cfm per person in the room
D. .25 cfm per aggregate tons of refrigeration in
the room
CORRECT: C IMC 2003 1105.8.3
348 A refrigeration room for ammonia shall be equipped

with a detector that will energize the ventilation
system when the room reaches ___ ppm saturation of
ammonia.
A. 1000
B. 1500
C. 2000
D. 2500
CORRECT: A IMC 2003 1106.3.1
349 What is the maximum nominal size soft drawn copper

tubing that may be used for lines on a refrigeration
system?
A. 7/8"
B. 3/4"
C. 5/8"
D. 1/2"
CORRECT: A IMC 2003 1107.4.3

350 What is required to be installed at each refrigerant
piping outlet from a receiver?
A. stop valve
B. pressure relief valve
C. pressure limiting device
D. check valve
351 What type of material should not be used in a low

pressure steam or hot water system?
A. brass tubing
B. wrought iron
C. galvanized pipe
D. aluminum tubing
352 A metal sleeve is installed through an interior wall to

hold high temperature water pipes. The pipes shall be
insulated with:
A. the same thickness as the insulation required
for the other sections of exposed pipe
B. 1/2 the thickness of the required insulation of
the other sections of the exposed pipe
C. twice the thickness of the required insulation
on the exposed suspended pipes
D. at least 1/2 the thickness of the sleeve minus
the nominal pipe size

353 Which of the following codes has been adopted as the
Mechanical Code for Oklahoma?
A. UMC
B. IMC
C. 1997 UMC
D. 1997 IPC
354 According to the International Mechanical Code, if an

appliance has been designed for a certain type of fuel
in which it will be connected to, before it can be
converted from the specified fuel listed on the rating
plate for use with a different fuel, the code official
must give reapproval.
A. True
B. False
C.
D.
355 Exposed fuel gas piping other than black steel pipe
shall be:
I. Identified by a black label marked "GAS"
in yellow letters
II. Spaced at intervals not less then "5' "
A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II

356 To calculate CFH of gas required for an appliance,
divide the maximum Btuh input of the appliance by:
A. 1000 Btuh per cubic foot
B. the average Btuh per cubic foot value supplied
C. 1150 Btuh per cubic foot
D. the minimum Btuh per cubic foot value
supplied
CORRECT: B IMC 2003 1302.2.1
357 According to the IMC, the demand for a domestic

clothes dryer is:
A. 35,000 Btuh
B. 45,000 Btuh
C. 50,000 Btuh
D. 55,000 Btuh
CORRECT: A IMC 2003 1302.3 Table
358 According to the IMC, an emergency steam boiler of

50 horsepower, would have a demand factor of:
A. 50,000 Btuh
B. 250,000 Btuh
C. 1,500,000 Btuh
D. 2,500,000 Btuh
CORRECT: D IMC 2003 1302.3 Table

359 A plastic pipe gas piping system has been installed.
The developed length of the system is 27'. The total
demand of the system is 375,000 Btuh. What is the
minimum allowable size for the yardline?
A. 5/8"
B. 7/8"
C. 1 1/8"
D. 1 1/4"
CORRECT: C IMC 2003 1302.5 (4)
360 The common gas supply line to a multiple family

dwelling unit is permitted to be sized for a percentage
of the total gas demand. The gas demand for heating
equipment for each dwelling unit shall be multiplied
by ____ and added to the demand value of the
common pipe system.
A. 120%
B. 110%
C. 100%
D. 90%
361 An apartment complex of 40 units contains gas ranges

and water heaters. What multiplier is used to find the
derated connected load?
A. .21
B. .22
C. .23
D. .24
CORRECT: B IMC 2003 1302.9 Table

362 An apartment complex of 50 units will have the
following appliances in each unit:
gas ranges free standing

30 gallon water heater
What is the total connected load?

A. 1,850,000
B. 950,000
C. 4,750,000
D. 3,350,000
CORRECT: B IMC 2003 1302.9 Table
363 A length of malleable black pipe which has been

previously used in a portable water system is found on
the truck and is just the right length for the last
segment of a natural gas piping system. Since the
length of pipe is less than 10', the pipe is installed and
put under pressure for testing. The pipe system has
passed the test. What code section does this
installation violate?
A. G103.10
B. 312.3
C. 312.9
D. G103.8
364 Joints between differing pipe materials shall be:

A. stainless steel adaptors
B. approved adaptor fittings
C. brass couplings
D. schedule 80 PVC

365 Which of the following methods shall be used to join
PE or PB piping?
A. compression fittings
B. insert fittings
C. solvent weld
D. heat fuse
CORRECT: D IMC 2003 1303.17.2
366 All pipe which has been cut for use in a fuel gas
piping system shall:
I. Be cut square with the pipe
II. Reamed to full bore
A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II
367 According to the IMC, a 120' length black malleable

pipe carrying 46,000 Btuh of gas demand shall have
____ threads cut on the pipe at each fitting or joint.
A. 8
B. 10
C. 12
D. 13
CORRECT: B IMC 2003 1303.23.2

368 Joint compound used for fuel gas piping systems shall:
I. Be applied to mail threads only
II Be resistant to action of fuel gas.
A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II
CORRECT: D IMC 2003 1303.3.3
369 Gas piping inside any building shall not be run in all
of the following locations except:
A. air duct
B. chimney
C. elevator shaft
D. concealed chase
370 According to the IMC, the minimum bury depth for an

underground gas piping system is:
A. 12"
B. 14"
C. 16"
D. 18"

371 A tracer wire for underground plastic gas piping shall:
I. Have green insulation
II. Not be less than 20 awg
III. Suitable for direct burial
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. None of these
CORRECT: C IMC 2003 1304.17.1
372 When testing for tightness in a fuel gas piping system

all of the following except ____ are permitted.
A. air
B. oxygen
C. nitrogen
D. argon
373 When gas piping is installed through wood studs and

is less than 1 1/4" from the nearest edge of the stud,
the point of passage shall be protected with a face
plate not less than ____.
A. 1/32
B. 1/16
C. 3/32
D. 1/8

374 Gas piping shall not be installed in:
A. solid floors
B. 2 x 10 floor joists
C. concealed walls
D. attics
CORRECT: A IMC 2003 1305.2.1
375 The installation of gas piping is a trench containing

water piping is:
A. prohibited
B. encouraged
C. permitted with administrative authority
approval
D. permitted when 12" separation is maintained
CORRECT: C IMC 2003 1305.2.1
376 Each gas meter shall have its own shut off valve
located:
A. up stream of the meter
B. downstream of the meter
C. near the building entrance
D. within 2' of the building entrance

377 A shut off valve shall be installed for each appliance.
Each shut off valve shall:
I. Be in the same room as the appliance.
II. Be within 3" of the appliance.
A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II
378 According to the IMC, the maximum distance

between horizontal supports for 1 1/4" schedule 40
black pipe is:
A. 8'
B. 10'
C. 12'
D. 14'
379 According to the IMC, and disregarding exceptions,

the maximum length of an appliance fuel connector
shall be:
A. 3'
B. 4'
C. 5'
D. 6'
CORRECT: A IMC 2003 1309.1.2

380 According to the IMC, the maximum length of a fuel
connector to a dryer is:
A. 3'
B. 4'
C. 5'
D. 6'
CORRECT: D IMC 2003 1309.1.2
381 According to the IMC, a 1' long semi rigid connector

of 3/8" OD can carry ____ Btuh.
A. 25,000
B. 35,000
C. 40,000
D. 50,000
CORRECT: C IMC 2003 1309.1.2 (1)
382 Refer to the whole house drawing and floor plan in

ACCA manual "D". The minimum standard duct size
required to supply outlet #3 is ____ inch diameter.
A. 5
B. 4
C. 3
D. 6
CORRECT: C Manual D

ACCA manual "D". The total effective length of the
duct supplying outlet #5 is ____ feet.
A. 53
B. 30
C. 48
D. 18
CORRECT: D Manual D

ACCA manual "D". The minimum standard round
duct size required to supply outlet "D".
A.
B.
C.
D.
CORRECT: A Manual D

ACCA manual "D". The minimum standard round
duct size required to supply outlet # 4 is ____ inch
diameter.
A. 4
B. 3
C. 6
D. 7
CORRECT: B Manual D

ACCA manual "D". To achieve a 45 degree F
temperature rise across the heat exchanger, a furnace
blower needs to deliver ____ of air.
A. 1600 CFM
B. 1350 CFM
C. 930 CFM
D. 1870 CFM
CORRECT: C Manual D

ACCA manual "D". The branch design static pressure
for outlet 10 during heating is:
A. .65" WG per 100'
B. .55" WG per 100'
C. .6" WG per 100'
D. .5" WG per 100'
CORRECT: D Manual D

ACCA manual "D". The total respective length of the
duct supplying outlet # 4 is ____ feet.
A. 13
B. 38
C. 70
D. 83
CORRECT: A Manual D

389 The maximum air velocity through a rigid walled
branch duct on the return side of an HVAC system is
recommended to be ____ FPM.
A. 500
B. 400
C. 600
D. 700
CORRECT: B Manual D
390 Refer to the branch duct drawing. The branch plenum

velocity factor at point "A" in the diagram is equal to
____ of equivalent length.
A. cannot tell from the diagram
B. 20'
C. 30'
D. 10'
CORRECT: D Manual D 4-2
391 Heat loss calculations for buildings slab on grade

according to Manual J the heat loss near the edge will
be greater than near the center. A perimeter system
will affect the change in temperature.
A. True
B. False
C.
D.
CORRECT: A MANUAL J

392 What are the annual heating degree days in San
Antonio, TX?
A. 2220
B. 2837
C. 1560
D. 3456
CORRECT: C MANUAL J
393 What are the annual heating degree days in San

Antonio, TX?
A. 2220
B. 2837
C. 1560
D. 3456
CORRECT: C MANUAL J
394 An 8" sand and gravel concrete block has an overall R-

value of approximately ____.
A. .11
B. 1.11
C. 4.6
D. 10.1
CORRECT: B Manual J

395 An 8" sand and gravel concrete block has an overall R-
value of approximately ____.
A. .11
B. 1.11
C. 4.6
D. 10.1
CORRECT: B Manual J
396 Refer to drawing MJ-HC-G. Use ACCA Manual J for

calculations. Excluding duct loss, the total design
heating load for this house is ____ Btuh.
A. 30,001-35,000
B. under 30,000
C. 35,001-40,000
D. over 40,000
CORRECT: B Manual J
397 Manual J should not be used to estimate heating and

cooling loads for all of the following except:
A. residential designs which include solariums
and atriums
B. residential designs which include five or
more bedrooms
C. residential designs which include hot tubs or
swimming pools
D. residential designs which include passive or
active solar construction
CORRECT: B Manual J

398 Sizing of furnaces, air-conditioning equipment, fan,
and ductwork is selected using:
A. the number of rooms in a structure
B. the number of persons occupying the dwelling
C. load calculation for the entire structure
D. the load calculations of the occupied areas
CORRECT: C Manual J
399 Sizing of furnaces, air-conditioning equipment, fan,

and ductwork is selected using:
A. the number of rooms in a structure
B. the number of persons occupying the dwelling
C. load calculation for the entire structure
D. the load calculations of the occupied areas
CORRECT: C Manual J
400 When heating/cooling equipment is oversized:

I. Operating costs go down & efficiency goes up.
II. Operating costs go down & efficiency goes down.
III. Operating cost go up; efficiency goes down; system
control goes down.
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. Neither I nor II nor III
CORRECT: C Manual J

401 When heating/cooling equipment is oversized:
I. Operating costs go down & efficiency goes up.
II. Operating costs go down & efficiency goes down.
III. Operating cost go up; efficiency goes down; system
control goes down.
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. Neither I nor II nor III
CORRECT: C Manual J
402 Undersizing residential equipment:

I. Will provide comfort even in extreme weather
conditions.
II. Is not generally preferred to oversizing equipment.
A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II
CORRECT: D Manual J
403 Undersizing residential equipment:

I. Will provide comfort even in extreme weather
conditions.
II. Is not generally preferred to oversizing equipment.
A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II
CORRECT: D Manual J

404 Maximum heat loss in a residence occurs:
A. in January
B. on overcast days
C. during hours of precipitation
D. just before sunrise
CORRECT: D Manual J
405 Maximum heat loss in a residence occurs:

A. in January
B. on overcast days
C. during hours of precipitation
D. just before sunrise
CORRECT: D Manual J
406 Outside design temperature is:

I. Not the lowest temperature experienced in a locality.
II. The winter temperature experienced in a locality
under average winter weather.
A. I only
B. II only
C. Either I or II
D. Both I and II
CORRECT: D Manual J

407 Outside design temperature is:
I. Not the lowest temperature experienced in a locality.
II. The winter temperature experienced in a locality
under average winter weather.
A. I only
B. II only
C. Either I or II
D. Both I and II
CORRECT: D Manual J
408 According to Manual J, Table 1, the outside design

temperature for 97 1/2 % dry bulb value for Amarillo
TX is:
A. 35 degrees F
B. 11 degrees F
C. 27 degrees F
D. 34 degrees F
CORRECT: B Manual J
409 According to Manual J, Table 1, the outside design

temperature for 97 1/2 % dry bulb value for Amarillo
TX is:
A. 35 degrees F
B. 11 degrees F
C. 27 degrees F
D. 34 degrees F
CORRECT: B Manual J

410 According to Manual J, the design temperature
difference (TD) is calculated:
A. by multiplying the outside design temperature
by 97 1/2%
B. by multiplying the indoor design temperature
by 97 1/2%
C. by subtracting the indoor design temperature
from the outdoor design temperature
D. by subtracting the outdoor design temperature
from the indoor design temperature
CORRECT: D Manual J
411 According to Manual J, the design temperature

difference (TD) is calculated:
A. by multiplying the outside design temperature
by 97 1/2%
B. by multiplying the indoor design temperature
by 97 1/2%
C. by subtracting the indoor design temperature
from the outdoor design temperature
D. by subtracting the outdoor design temperature
from the indoor design temperature
CORRECT: D Manual J
412 According to Manual J, the recommended indoor

design temperature to be used in heat loss calculations
is:
A. 68 degrees F
B. 70 degrees F
C. 72 degrees F
D. 80 degrees F
CORRECT: B Manual J

413 According to Manual J, the recommended indoor
design temperature to be used in heat loss calculations
is:
A. 68 degrees F
B. 70 degrees F
C. 72 degrees F
D. 80 degrees F
CORRECT: B Manual J
414 Building losses, according to Manual J, are losses

associated with:
A. building envelop
B. losses through ductwork
C. losses through kitchen exhaust
D. infiltration
CORRECT: A Manual J
415 Building losses, according to Manual J, are losses

associated with:
A. building envelop
B. losses through ductwork
C. losses through kitchen exhaust
D. infiltration
CORRECT: A Manual J

416 Conductive losses through glass windows, solid doors
and walls below grade are examples of:
I. Building losses.
II. System losses.
A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I & II
D. Neither I nor II
CORRECT: A Manual J
417 Conductive losses through glass windows, solid doors

and walls below grade are examples of:
I. Building losses.
II. System losses.
A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I & II
D. Neither I nor II
CORRECT: A Manual J
418 Heat loss in ductwork passing through an unheated

space, ventilation air heated prior to space
introduction and bathroom exhaust which increases
infiltration are examples of :
I. Building losses.
II. System losses.
A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II
CORRECT: B Manual J

419 Heat loss in ductwork passing through an unheated
space, ventilation air heated prior to space
introduction and bathroom exhaust which increases
infiltration are examples of :
I. Building losses.
II. System losses.
A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II
CORRECT: B Manual J
420 Heat loss through a slab on grade floor and

combustion air requirements in an older home being
met by infiltration are examples of:
I. Building losses.
II. System losses.
A. I only
B. II Only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II
CORRECT: C Manual J
421 Heat loss through a slab on grade floor and

combustion air requirements in an older home being
met by infiltration are examples of:
I. Building losses.
II. System losses.
A. I only
B. II Only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II
CORRECT: C Manual J

422 When a garage is to be heated, the preferred system to
be used is:
A. zonal
B. central
C. baseboard
D. solar
CORRECT: A Manual J
423 When a garage is to be heated, the preferred system to

be used is:
A. zonal
B. central
C. baseboard
D. solar
CORRECT: A Manual J
424 Which of the following best describes window 6?

A. casement
B. jalousie
C. sliding
D. basement
CORRECT: B Manual J
425 Which of the following best describes window 6?

A. casement
B. jalousie
C. sliding
D. basement
CORRECT: B Manual J

426 Which of the following does not enter into the loss
calculation of a window or door?
A. glazing
B. material
C. color
D. size
CORRECT: C Manual J
427 Which of the following does not enter into the loss
calculation of a window or door?
A. glazing
B. material
C. color
D. size
CORRECT: C Manual J
428 Storm windows and storm doors:

I. Reduce infiltration losses
II. Reduce transmission losses
A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and Ii
D. Either I or II
CORRECT: C Manual J

429 Storm windows and storm doors:
I. Reduce infiltration losses
II. Reduce transmission losses
A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and Ii
D. Either I or II
CORRECT: C Manual J
430 The formula:

Q= 1.1 x CFM x TD
can be used to calculate:
I. Heat loss due to infiltration
II. Heat loss due to ventilation air
A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II
CORRECT: C Manual J
431 The formula:

Q= 1.1 x CFM x TD
can be used to calculate:
I. Heat loss due to infiltration
II. Heat loss due to ventilation air
A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II
CORRECT: C Manual J

432 Given: Supply air duct is encased in concrete below a
slab which has edge insulation with an R-valve of 6.
If the supply air is below 120 degrees F, what is the
duct loss multiplier when the winter design
temperature is 16 degrees F?
A. .04
B. .05
C. .06
D. .07
CORRECT: B Manual J
433 Given: Supply air duct is encased in concrete below a

slab which has edge insulation with an R-valve of 6.
If the supply air is below 120 degrees F, what is the
duct loss multiplier when the winter design
temperature is 16 degrees F?
A. .04
B. .05
C. .06
D. .07
CORRECT: B Manual J
434 Given: OAT 10 degree; supply air temperature inside

duct is 122 degrees F; duct location is attic; duct
insulation is R2. What is the duct loss multiplier?
A. .2
B. .25
C. .3
D. .35
CORRECT: A Manual J

435 Given: OAT 10 degree; supply air temperature inside
duct is 122 degrees F; duct location is attic; duct
insulation is R2. What is the duct loss multiplier?
A. .2
B. .25
C. .3
D. .35
CORRECT: A Manual J
436 According to Manual J, ducts installed in attics and

garages should be insulated:
I. With a recommended R6 insulation.
II. With a minimum of R4 insulation.
A. I only
B. II only
C. Either I or II
D. Neither I nor II
CORRECT: A Manual J
437 According to Manual J, ducts installed in attics and

garages should be insulated:
I. With a recommended R6 insulation.
II. With a minimum of R4 insulation.
A. I only
B. II only
C. Either I or II
D. Neither I nor II
CORRECT: A Manual J

438 Given: A frame wall with brick veneer, gypsum board
and 12-13 insulation has an area of 260 square feet.
The indoor design temperature is 72 degrees F and the
outside design temperature is 15 degrees F. What is
the heat loss through this section of wall?
A. 1040 Btuh
B. 1144 Btuh
C. 1248 Btuh
D. 1352 Btuh
CORRECT: C Manual J and Table 2 (12-D)
Multiply the area of the wall by the HTM in table 2.

NOTE: The TD was in between 55 & 60 degrees F. the
HTM for this problem is then found in the 60 degree
column, or 4.8. 4.8 x 260=1248
439 Given: A frame wall with brick veneer, gypsum board

and 12-13 insulation has an area of 260 square feet.
The indoor design temperature is 72 degrees F and the
outside design temperature is 15 degrees F. What is
the heat loss through this section of wall?
A. 1040 Btuh
B. 1144 Btuh
C. 1248 Btuh
D. 1352 Btuh
CORRECT: C Manual J and Table 2 (12-D)
Multiply the area of the wall by the HTM in table 2.

NOTE: The TD was in between 55 & 60 degrees F. the
HTM for this problem is then found in the 60 degree
column, or 4.8. 4.8 x 260=1248
440 Refer to Manual J Figure 1-1. Use ACCA Manual J for

calculations. Excluding infiltration, ventilation, and
duct loss the heat loss for this house is ____ Btuh.
A. over 25,000
B. 15,001-20,000
C. 20,001-25,000
D. under 15,000
CORRECT: C Manual J Figure 1-1 and Figure 3-
3
Refer to line 12 of Figure 3-3. The infiltration load is
15,673 Btuh. Line 15 shows the total Btuh for the house
is 47,808 Btuh. There are no vetilation or duct losses
therefore the heat loss for this house is the difference
betwee 47,808 - 15,673.

calculations. Excluding infiltration, ventilation, and
duct loss the heat loss for this house is ____ Btuh.
A. over 25,000
B. 15,001-20,000
C. 20,001-25,000
D. under 15,000
CORRECT: C Manual J Figure 1-1 and Figure 3-
3
Refer to line 12 of Figure 3-3. The infiltration load is
15,673 Btuh. Line 15 shows the total Btuh for the house
is 47,808 Btuh. There are no vetilation or duct losses
therefore the heat loss for this house is the difference
betwee 47,808 - 15,673.

calculations. Excluding infiltration, the heat loss
through the floor for this house is ____ Btuh.
A. under 1,000
B. 1,001-1,750
C. 1,751-2,500
D. over 2,500
CORRECT: D Manual J Figure 1-1, 2-10 and
Figure 3-3

calculations. Excluding infiltration, the heat loss
through the floor for this house is ____ Btuh.
A. under 1,000
B. 1,001-1,750
C. 1,751-2,500
D. over 2,500
Figure 3-3

444 Refer to Manual J Figure 1-1. Use ACCA Manual J
for calculations. The winter infiltration load for this
house is ____ Btuh.
A. under 20,000
B. 20,001-23,000
C. 23,001-26,000
D. over 26,000
CORRECT: A Manual J Figure 1-1, 2-14 and
Figure 3-3

for calculations. The winter infiltration load for this
house is ____ Btuh.
A. under 20,000
B. 20,001-23,000
C. 23,001-26,000
D. over 26,000
CORRECT: A Manual J Figure 1-1, 2-14 and
Figure 3-3

for calculations. The ventilation heating load for this
house is ____ Btuh.
A. over 3400
B. 1801-2600
C. 2601-3400
D. under 1800
Figure 3-3

for calculations. The ventilation heating load for this
house is ____ Btuh.
A. over 3400
B. 1801-2600
C. 2601-3400
D. under 1800
Figure 3-3

for calculations. Excluding infiltration, the heat loss
for the ceiling is ____ Btuh.
A. 6,001-7,000
B. 5,001-6,000
C. under 5,000
D. over 7,000
CORRECT: B Manual J Figure 1-1, 2-9 and
Figure 3-3

for calculations. Excluding infiltration, the heat loss
for the ceiling is ____ Btuh.
A. 6,001-7,000
B. 5,001-6,000
C. under 5,000
D. over 7,000
CORRECT: B Manual J Figure 1-1, 2-9 and
Figure 3-3

450 Use ACCA Manual J for calculations, refer to Figure 3-
1. Excluding infiltration, the heat loss through the
windows for this house is ____ Btuh.
A. under 500
B. 501-1,000
C. 4,001-4,500
D. over 6,500
CORRECT: A Manual J Figure 3-1 and 3-3 Line
6

windows for this house is ____ Btuh.
A. under 500
B. 501-1,000
C. 4,001-4,500
D. over 6,500
CORRECT: A Manual J Figure 3-1 and 3-3 Line
6

1. Excluding infiltration, the heat loss through walls
for this house is ____ Btuh.
A. over 15,000
B. 6001-8,000
C. 8,001-10,000
D. under 6,000
CORRECT: D Manual J Figure 3-1 and 3-3 Line
9

1. Excluding infiltration, the heat loss through walls
for this house is ____ Btuh.
A. over 15,000
B. 6001-8,000
C. 8,001-10,000
D. under 6,000
CORRECT: D Manual J Figure 3-1 and 3-3 Line
9
454 Use ACCA Manual J for calculations, refer to figure 3-

front door for this house is ____ Btuh.
A. 501-700
B. under 500
C. 701-900
D. over 900
CORRECT: D Manual J Figure 3-1 and Figure 3-
3 line 6

front door for this house is ____ Btuh.
A. 501-700
B. under 500
C. 701-900
D. over 900
CORRECT: D Manual J Figure 3-1 and Figure 3-
3 line 6

3. The winter HTM for the exposed walls is _____.
A. between 60 and 80
B. between 25 and 50
C. less than 20
D. over 100
CORRECT: C Manual J Figure 3-3 line 9

3. The winter HTM for the exposed walls is _____.
A. between 60 and 80
B. between 25 and 50
C. less than 20
D. over 100
CORRECT: C Manual J Figure 3-3 line 9
458 Given: A ceiling with an R-19 rating is below a vented

attic. The outside design temperature is 10 degrees F
and the indoor design temperature is 70 degrees F.
What is the HTM?
A. 5.3
B. 3.4
C. 3.2
D. 2.9
CORRECT: C Manual J Table 2 (16-D)

459 Given: A ceiling with an R-19 rating is below a vented
attic. The outside design temperature is 10 degrees F
and the indoor design temperature is 70 degrees F.
What is the HTM?
A. 5.3
B. 3.4
C. 3.2
D. 2.9
CORRECT: C Manual J Table 2 (16-D)
460 Given: A sliding glass door, double pane with low "e"
glass, metal frame, 6'-0" x 6'-8" dimension is installed
in a location that has a winter "TD" across the glass of
65 degrees F. What is the heat loss or Q for this door?
A. 1242.18
B. 1405.26
C. 1260.72
D. 1358.64
CORRECT: B Manual J Table 2 (8R)
the area of the sliding glass door is found by multiplying

6 x 6.7=42.2 square feet. The HTM (heat transmission
multiplier) is 30.9 (from table 2). 42.2 x 30.9= 1242.18
Btuh
461 Given: A sliding glass door, double pane with low "e"
glass, metal frame, 6'-0" x 6'-8" dimension is installed
in a location that has a winter "TD" across the glass of
65 degrees F. What is the heat loss or Q for this door?
A. 1242.18
B. 1405.26
C. 1260.72
D. 1358.64
CORRECT: B Manual J Table 2 (8R)
the area of the sliding glass door is found by multiplying

6 x 6.7=42.2 square feet. The HTM (heat transmission
multiplier) is 30.9 (from table 2). 42.2 x 30.9= 1242.18
Btuh

462 According to Manual J, a dwelling of 1600 square feet
of average construction and 3 fire places would have
____ winter air changes per hour, due to infiltration.
A. 1.6
B. 1.4
C. 1.3
D. 1.0
CORRECT: B Manual J table 5
463 According to Manual J, a dwelling of 1600 square feet

of average construction and 3 fire places would have
____ winter air changes per hour, due to infiltration.
A. 1.6
B. 1.4
C. 1.3
D. 1.0
CORRECT: B Manual J table 5
464 What do you compare when you do your heat loss

calculation?
A. highest day temp to lowest day temp
B. highest summer temp to lowest winter temp
C. indoor to outdoor temp
D. highest winter time temperature to lowest
winter time temperature
CORRECT: C Manual N

465 Heat transfer through walls below grade and a
concrete slab is not a factor in a cooling load.
A. True
B. False
C.
D.
CORRECT: A MANUAL N
466 According to Manual N:

I. Building orientation is important for cooling load
consideration
II. Building orientation is important for heat load
calculations
A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II
CORRECT: C Manual N
467 According to Manual N, occupancy analysis for a

retail establishment would include all of the following
except:
A. Christmas season traffic
B. summer month activity
C. Easter season traffic
D. restaurant evening patrons
CORRECT: B Manual N

468 All of the following effect a building's heat loss and
heat gain except:
A. construction details
B. physical dimensions
C. lighting
D. restroom facilities
CORRECT: D Manual N
469 According to Manual N, table 1 values are for ____ in

July and August.
A. 3 pm
B. 3 am
C. 6 pm
D. 6 am
CORRECT: A Manual N
470 According to Manual N, outside design temperature

for calculating heating loads are taken from the
ASHRAE weather data. These temperatures will be
exceeded for ____ % the winter heating hours.
A. 2 1/2%
B. 97 1/2%
C. 2%
D. 98%
CORRECT: B Manual N

471 Indoor comfort heating temperatures should be
designed:
A. between 68 degrees F and 77 degrees F
B. between 20% RH and 55% RH
C. to prevent frosting on eaves
D. to prevent condensation on glass
CORRECT: D Manual N
472 In door comfort cooling design temperatures should:

A. consider temperature, humidity and air
velocity
B. consider temperature, activity and humidity
C. consider air velocity, humidity and solar
radiation
D. consider solar radiation, activity, humidity
CORRECT: A Manual N
473 Solar gain in a facility is affected by all of the

following except:
A. amount of radiation incident on the glass
B. thermal storage of the buildings materials
C. type of glass
D. the area of the glass
CORRECT: C Manual N

474 What is the solar heat gain of a clear (1/8") glass panel
3' x 4' in an office building of medium construction
located 48 degrees north latitude at 6 pm. Consider no
shading.
A. 196 Btuh
B. 312 Btuh
C. 336 Btuh
D. 300 Btuh
CORRECT: B Manual N
The heat which is radiated through glass must be

included in the cooling load calculation. The radiatin
gain can be calculated by the following formula.
Q = SHGF x SF x A
Q = Solar heat gain for glass (Btuh)
SHGF = Solar Heat Gain Factor from Table 2 (Btuh/sq.
ft.)
A = Area (sq. ft.) glass area
SHGH = 26 (for medium construction at 48 degrees
north latitude at 6 pm. See table 2A on pg. 63)
SF = 1.00 (clear, see table 3 on pg. 65)
A = 3' x 4' = 12 sq. ft.
Q = 26 x 1.00 x 12 = 312
475 Heat that is transmitted through glass must be:

I. Included in the heat loss calculation
II. Included in the heat gain calculation
A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II
CORRECT: C Manual N
476 U-values for a building material:

I. Is the overall heat transmission coefficient
II. Are the same for both heating and cooling
A. I only
B. II only
C. Bother I and II
D. Neither I nor II
CORRECT: C Manual N

477 Heat gain from sources inside a building must be
calculated from all of the following except:
A. motors
B. people
C. furniture
D. appliances
CORRECT: C Manual N
478 According to Manual N, the design CFM for

ventilation is determined by:
I. Addition of the fresh air requirement to the return
air loading
II either the fresh air requirement or the make-up air
requirement
A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II
CORRECT: D Manual N
479 According to Manual N, which of the following

statements are true:
I. Dehumidification occurs when air is cooled at or
above its dew point temperature
II. Humidification occurs when water is evaporated
into an air stream requiring approximately 1040 Btu
per pound of water
A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II
CORRECT: D Manual N

480 According to Manual N, heat gain and heat loss
through ductwork located in an conditioned spaces:
A. can be ignored
B. can be appreciable
C. is negligible
D. can be calculated before duct is designed
CORRECT: B Manual N
481 According to Manual N, the outdoor summer design

wet bulb temperature for Greensboro NC, is:
A. 91
B. 73
C. 23
D. 72
CORRECT: B Manual N
482 According to Manual N, the u-value of 4" block wall

construction with exterior siding is: (assume no
insulation and sand and gravel mortar)
A. .182
B. .169
C. .159
D. .286
CORRECT: A Manual N

483 A bridge construction is particularly hazardous, not
well-defined, and a train of cars will have to weave
back and forth between one, two or more lanes.
Which is the best method of traffic control to use when
cars and trucks have to weave in and out of different
lanes during a bridge construction that is particularly
hazardous.
A. Official flag car
B. Flagger control people
C. construction barrels
D. Pilot car
CORRECT: D Manual of Uniform Traffic
Control Devices 6C-5 c
484 What is a thermocouple ?

A. a safety device that generates electricity
B. several thermal expansion valves
C. a safety device
D. limit switch
CORRECT: A Modern Refrigeration and Air
Conditioning
485 The pressure in an evaporator containing R-22

refrigerant is 60 PSIA. What is the saturated
temperature of the refrigerant?
A. 45
B. 34
C. 53
D. 29
CORRECT: D Modern Refrigeration and Air
Conditioning

486 Where is the TXV located in the refrigeration system?
A. between the condenser & compressor
B. between the high pressure side and the low
pressure side - OUTLET SIDE OF THE
EVAPORATOR
C. between the evaporator & compressor
D. on the discharge side of the compressor
CORRECT: B Modern Refrigeration and Air
Conditioning
487 The most likely reason for a high pitched noise from a
floor register is:
A. air hitting sharp metal edges
B. air velocity at the register is too low
C. a burr in the duct
D. restriction in the register fitting
Conditioning
488 Which of the following types of solar collectors are the

most popular in the United States?
A. ethylene glycol
B. caustic soda
C. drain down
D. passive
CORRECT: C Modern Refrigeration and Air
Conditioning

489 When is it recommended to charge a refrigeration
system from the high side?
A. before starting the compressor
B. after starting the compressor
C. upon initial start up
D. not recommended
Conditioning
490 A gas furnace has a yellow flame. Which of the

following is true?
I. Could be caused by lack of primary air

II. Reset secondary air port and check
flame color
A. I only
B. II only
C. both I and II
D. neither I nor II
Conditioning
491 What indicates a lack of refrigerant in a TEV

installation?
A. unit shuts down
B. sight glass is clear
C. there is a knocking sound at the refrigerant
control
D. there is frost or sweat at the outlet of the
evaporator to the sensing bulb of the TEV
Conditioning

492 When the specific ventilation requirement for a
building is not known, it is best to size the ventilation
system based on ____ CFM per square foot of floor
area.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Conditioning
493 What is the purpose of the access valve on a filter

dryer?
A. change the core
B. allows the addition of refrigerant
C. adjust the pressure
D. allows the service tech to check the pressure
drop
Conditioning
494 A solar water heating system uses a device to mix the

solar heated water with the cold water supply. This is
called:
A. mixing valve
B. tempering valve
C. motorized valve
D. flow control valve
Conditioning

495 Superheat is heat added to a refrigerant ____.
A. in raising water temperature
B. after all the liquid has been changed to a
vapor
C. in changing a liquid to a vapor
D. to increase pressure
Conditioning
496 What instrument is used to test the strength of a brine

solution?
A. tachometer
B. barometer
C. hydrometer
D. anemometer
Conditioning
497 Which of the following refrigerants are possible

replacements for R-12 and R-11?
A. 123 and 501
B. 134a and 501
C. 134a and 123
D. R-22
Conditioning

498 A 330 Kw electric heater will produce approximately
____.
A. 1,102,390 Btu's an hour
B. 1,023 Btu's an hour
C. 204,780 Btu's an hour
D. 2,457 Btu's an hour
Conditioning
Solution: 330 KW = 333,000 watts
499 The term ___ indicates that portion of the refrigerant

which evaporates instantly as it passes through the
refrigerant control orifice.
A. superheat
B. subcooling
C. flash gas
D. out gassing
Conditioning
500 In a refrigeration system, the function of the condenser

is to ____ the refrigerant has absorbed in the
evaporator.
A. absorb heat into
B. dissipate heat from
C. control
D. pump
Conditioning

501 What is the name of the refrigerant system that has
two compressors with the discharge of one compressor
going into the suction of the second compressor.
A. secondary
B. parallel
C. compound
D. cascade
Conditioning
502 A refrigeration system has two compressors connected

so they will operate at the same time. The evaporator
of the first system cools the condenser of the second
system. This is a ____ system.
A. secondary
B. parallel
C. compound
D. cascade
Conditioning
503 When refrigerant is sub-cooled it is at a temperature

lower than its saturated temperature.
A. True
B. False
C.
D.
Conditioning

504 The two types of fuel that a halide leak detector can
use are:
A. propane & acetylene
B. kerosene and acetylene
C. propane and kerosene
D. acetylene and hydrogen
Conditioning
505 ___ overload devices are the most common safety

device for motor protection.
A. circuit breaker
B. bimetal switches
C. fuse
D. time-delay relay
Conditioning
506 On a household refrigerator, the thermostat has three

wires on it. Of these, one is a ground and one is the
power supply line connected to one of the thermostat
terminals. Where does the third wire go to?
A. the door switch
B. the compressor relay
C. the defrost timer
D. the mullion heater
Conditioning

507 Of the following metering devices, which one is the
most widely used in today's household refrigerator's,
freezers, air conditioners, dehumidifiers, and small
commercial applications?
A. high side float valve
B. automatic expansion valve
C. low side float valve
D. capillary tube
Conditioning
508 The simplest type of domestic refrigerator uses which

of the following methods of defrosting?
A. off time
B. hot gas
C. resistance heaters
D. reverse cycle
Conditioning
509 Breaker strips, usually made of plastic, ___ used in a

household refrigerator.
A. releases the ice into the hopper
B. connects the metal case of the freezer to the
outer shell
C. covers evaporator fan
D. moulds the cabinet hinges
Conditioning

510 The electrical controls in a small refrigerator operate
at ____ volts.
A. 48
B. 12
C. 24
D. 120
Conditioning
511 According to Modern Refrigeration and

Airconditioning, the best method for joining copper
tubing in a refrigeration system to prevent leaks is:
A. threading
B. flaring
C. crimping
D. brazing
Conditioning
512 The velocity pressure method of measuring air velocity

uses an instrument called:
A. pitot tube
B. sono tube
C. ohmmeter
D. millimeter
Conditioning

513 By adjusting a variable pitched pulley to make the belt
ride at the outer edge of the motor pulley instead of the
shaft, the expected result would be:
A. fan speed decrease
B. fan speed increase
C. motor speed increase
D. motor speed decrease
Conditioning
514 When a steady low pitched rumble travels along a duct

system it is usually caused by:
A. fan and motor misalignment or imbalance
B. rapid expansion and contraction of the ducts
caused by temperature fluctuations
C. air inside the duct is hitting sharp edges
causing a harmonic vibration
D. air velocity inside the duct is too high
Conditioning
515 Filter dryers used in refrigeration systems have access

valves used for:
A. adding refrigerant oil
B. recharging the system with refrigerant
C. reactivating the desiccant
D. measuring the pressure drop in the filter
Conditioning

516 To prevent refrigerant from liquefying in the
compressor crankcase and being trapped in the
refrigerant oil during cold weather it is sometimes
necessary to use a ____.
A. crankcase heater
B. low pressure cutout switch
C. heat exchanger
D. suction line accumulator
Conditioning

Airconditioning, which one of the following type of
Stainless Steel is most often used when Stainless Steel
tubing is required for a dairy plant installation.
A. 302
B. 304
C. 303
D. 301
Conditioning

Airconditioning, a modulating gas regulator changes
the size of the gas flame size in response to the
temperature difference between the _______.
A. thermostat setting and bonnet control
B. thermostat setting and fan control
C. thermostat setting and room temperature
D. fan control and limit switch
Conditioning

Airconditioning, a modulating gas valve used in an
electronically controlled gas furnace will start the
burners at about _____ % of capacity and then adjust
the flame.
A. 50 - 80
B. 30 - 60
C. 40 - 70
D. 20 - 50
Conditioning

Airconditioning, a two-stage warm air furnace
combines two-stage heating with:
A. two stage air delivery
B. constant air circulation
C. variable air delivery
D. variable temperature delivery
Conditioning
521 Which one of the following controls is designed to

shut off the compressor to protect it from possible
overloading and overheating?
A. low pressure control
B. head pressure control
C. evaporative fan control
D. condenser fan control
Conditioning

522 Which one of the following controls is NOT normally
installed on a residential air conditioning condensing
unit?
A. low pressure control
B. head pressure control
C. oil pressure control
D. condenser fan control
Conditioning
523 Zero gauge pressure is equal to what pressure on the

absolute pressure scale?
A. 32 PSIA
B. 14.7 PSIA
C. 0 PSIA
D. 9 PSIA
Conditioning
524 In newer furnaces the _____ has been replaced by an

electronic ignition system as an energy conservation
measure.
A. high limit control
B. gas burner control
C. thermocouple safety gas shut-off
D. pilot
Conditioning

525 How many btu's are required to lower the temperature
of 3 lbs of water 2 degrees F. ?
A. 2 Btu
B. 5 Btu
C. 4 Btu
D. 6 Btu
Conditioning
Solution: Btu = pounds of water X number of degrees F
change. Btu = 3 X 2 = 6
526 Cleanliness of refrigerant tubing is always at the

forefront of the technicians mind when cutting the
tube. To prevent contamination of the tube, the
technician should ____ before cutting the tubing.
A. wipe down the tubing with refrigeration oil
B. burn off any dirt on sludge with his torch
C. scrape the tubing with the reamer end of the
tubing cutter to mark the end and then cut it
D. wipe down the tubing with rag and then clean
the tubing with emery cloth or steel wool
Conditioning

Airconditioning, the heat pump is best used for:
A. ventilation
B. heating
C. cooling
D. heating and cooling
Conditioning

528 Which of the following compounds is used by the
compressor to operate an unloader?
A. electro-mechanical switch
B. oil
C. natural gas
D. LP gas
Conditioning
529 Refer to the condensing unit wiring diagram. The

compressor motor is "ON" when:
I. Switches 1 and 2 are closed
II. Switches 2 and 3 are closed
III. Switches 1 and 3 are closed
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. both II and III
Conditioning
530 Of the characteristics of a desiccant, ___ would be the

LEAST desirable.
A. replaceable core
B. chemical dryer
C. water soluble
D. refrigerant tolerant
Conditioning

531 When warming a cylinder of refrigerant for charging,
___ degrees F should be considered to be the
maximum temperature.
A. 80
B. 90
C. 100
D. 120
Conditioning
532 According to Modern Refrigeration and Air-

conditioning, the minimum cooling air changes per
hour is:
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Conditioning

conditioning, when two pieces of soft copper tubing
are swaged, the overlap should be at least ____ pipe
diameters.
A. 1/2
B. 3/4
C. 1
D. 1 1/8
Conditioning

conditioning, ___ would be a safe radius for a tubing
bend.
A. 15 times the radius
B. 12 times the radius
C. 8 times the radius
D. you should not bend tubing
Conditioning
535 Use the following HVAC data to determine the round

duct size to correctly handle the CFM required for
Rooms 1, 2, 5:
1. .1" friction loss per 100'
2. If sizing results in between sizes, use the next larger
A. 10"
B. 9"
C. 8"
D. 7"
Conditioning
536 According to "Modern Refrigeration", additional

refrigerant oil should be added to a system if the
suction and liquid lines are not more than ___ feet
long.
A. 30
B. 20
C. 25
D. 15
Conditioning

537 As the moisture content of the air surrounds an
electronic humidistat changes, the humidistat sensor
changes its:
A. wattage
B. voltage
C. amperage
D. resistance
Conditioning
538 A moisture indicator is installed in an air conditioning

system. How much time is required to obtain an
accurate color signal?
A. 1 hrs
B. 4 hrs
C. 6 hrs
D. 8 hrs
Conditioning
539 According to Modern Refrigeration and Air

Conditioning, refrigeration service tubing for domestic
work is made from:
I. Soft copper for domestic use
II. Hard drawn for commercial use
A. I only
B. II only
C. both I and II
D. neither I nor II
Conditioning

540 Using the information in the picture, determine which
terminals will be wired.
Wire this thermostat only for heating, single stage, fan

operation auto run
A. RC, G, W
B. RH, G, W
C. RH, Y, G
D. Y, W, G
Conditioning
541 Modern Refrigeration and Air Conditioning, the

function of an external equalizing line in a in a
thermostatic expansion valve is:
A. compensates for any pressure loss through the
evaporator while the compressor is running
B. prevents excess refrigerant from entering the
evaporator
C. prevents liquid refrigerant from entering the
suction line
D. compensates for any pressure loss through the
condenser while the compressor is running
Conditioning
542 Which of the following sources of air should be used

to replace exhausted air in a building?
A. make-up
B. return
C. outside
D. exhaust
Conditioning

543 A modulating gas valve is used in electronically
controlled gas furnaces. It changes the burner flame
in response to the temperature difference between the
thermostat setting and the room temperature.
A. True
B. False
C.
D.
Conditioning
544 A housing that contains a blower or fan for the

purpose of distributing supply air to a room, space, or
area is called:
A. return air fan
B. exhaust fan
C. air handling unit
D. makeup air fan
Conditioning
545 In a multiple evaporator unit refrigeration system,

individual suction lines are connected to a header.
According to Modern Refrigeration and Air
Conditioning, which of the following terms describes
this installation?
A. cascade system
B. compound system
C. cryogenic system
D. manifold system
Conditioning

546 A shell and tube condenser may also be used as a/an:
A. evaporator
B. receiver
C. oil separator
D. oil pump
Conditioning
547 Which of the following components would be found in

an open-reciprocating type refrigeration compressor?
A. rotor
B. vane
C. impeller
D. piston
Conditioning
548 What type of air is brought back from the conditioned

space, reconditioned, and then sent back to the
conditioned space?
A. make-up
B. outside
C. return
D. supply
Conditioning

549 What does a yellow pilot light on a furnace indicate?
A. dirty thermocouple
B. adjusted to produce a blue flame
C. unit shut-down and red-tagged
D. the flame OK
Conditioning
550 A variable pitch pulley is adjusted so that the belt rides

at the top edge of the motor's pulley. What will
happen when the motor is turned on?
A. the fan speed will increase
B. the fan speed will decrease
C. the motor speed will increase
D. the motor speed will decrease
Conditioning
551 The moisture holding capacity of dessicant increases

when:
A. head pressure decreases
B. at lower refrigerant temperatures
C. lower condensing pressures
D. increased refrigerant temperatures
Conditioning

552 An evaporative cooler is most efficient during days:
A. when the sky is overcast
B. of high humidity
C. of low humidity
D. when it is raining or storming
Conditioning
553 The compressor in the picture is:

A. hermetic
B. screw
C. centrifugal
D. open type
Conditioning
554 How does an evaporator remove moisture from the air?

A. evaporation of moisture in space
B. humidification of space
C. absorption of heat in space
D. super heated refrigerant
Conditioning 1. 2
555 The boiling point of a liquid increases:

A. when its temperature is lowered
B. when the pressure is lowered
C. when more heat is added
D. when the pressure is increased
Conditioning 1.19

556 Heat transfer is by _______.
A. convection
B. all of these
C. radiation
D. conductivity and conductance
Conditioning 1.26
557 Heat may be transferred by means of ____.

I. Convection
II. Conduction
A. II only
B. neither I or II
C. Both I & II
D. I only
Conditioning 1.26
558 If you heat one end of an iron bar, the other end is
heated by ______ ?
A. radiation
B. conduction
C. convection
D. none of the these
Conditioning 1.26.2

559 Repeated bending of soft copper tubing is a sure way
too cause:
A. colloidal copper
B. annealing
C. work hardening
D. thermal quenching
Conditioning 2.1.1
560 Hard drawn copper tubing is purchased in ___ foot

lengths.
A. 10
B. 12
C. 20
D. 21
Conditioning 2.1.1
561 The difference in sizes between nominal and outside

diameter tubing is:
A. 1/8"
B. 1/16"
C. 1/32"
D. 1/64"
Conditioning 2.1.1

562 Type ___ copper tubing is used on flare fittings.
A. Type K soft drawn
B. Type L hard drawn
C. Type L soft drawn
D. Type K hard drawn
Conditioning 2.1.1
563 Repeated bending of soft drawn copper tubing causes:

A. colloidal development
B. annealing
C. work hardening
Conditioning 2.1.1
564 Type ___ copper tubing should be used to flare

fittings.
A. Type K hard drawn
B. Type L hard drawn
C. Type K soft drawn
D. Type L soft drawn
Conditioning 2.1.1

565 Repeated bending of soft drawn copper tubing causes:
A. work hardening
B. annealing
C. colloidal development
Conditioning 2.1.1
566 According to Modern Refrigeration and Air

Conditioning, before copper tubing is flared, the
flaring should be:
A. coated with Teflon
B. coated with refrigeration oil
C. coated with melted bee's wax
D. wire brushed
Conditioning 2.3.1 (6)
567 What is the major difference between soldering and

brazing?
A. the exposed surface area of the joint
B. The temperature at which the filler material
melts
C. weather or not the parent metal melts
D. the hardness of the filler metal
Conditioning 2-20

568 Which of the following terms describes oil at the
lowest point at which it will flow?
A. boil level
B. pour level
C. flash level
D. critical level
Conditioning 2-73
569 The device in the air located between the compression

hot gas outlet and the liquid line inlet is _______ ?
A. evaporator
B. condenser
C. TXV
D. metering device
Conditioning 3- 7
570 A ___ type of refrigerating system that has two

compressors with the discharge of one compressor
going to the suction of the second compressor.
A. cascade
B. compound
C. parallel
D. secondary
Conditioning 3.11

571 What is the name of the type of refrigerant system that
has two compressors with the discharge of one
compressor going to the suction of the second
compressor?
A. secondary
B. cascade
C. parallel
D. compound
Conditioning 3.11
572 Of the following refrigerant controls, ___ is a

metering device.
A. capillary tube
B. solenoid valve
C. sensing bulb
D. high head pressure switch
Conditioning 4.11.1
573 Compressors with cylinder unloaders should start:

A. unloaded
B. 90% loaded
C. 75% loaded
D. fully loaded
Conditioning 4.24

574 What is used to prevent refrigerant from liquefying in
the compressor crank case during cold weather?
A. low pressure cut-out switch
B. crankcase heater
C. heat exchanger
D. suction line accumulator
Conditioning 4.27
575 ___ is used to prevent refrigerant from liquefying in

the compressor crank case during cold weather.
A. suction line accumulator
B. low pressure cut-out switch
C. heat exchanger
D. crankcase heater
Conditioning 4.27
576 When liquid refrigerant passes through a metering

device and suddenly changes to vapor, it is called:
A. liquefied gas
B. flash gas
C. solidified gas
D. compressed vapor
Conditioning 4.5

577 According to Code, a vibration isolator in an air
supply system, which is also known in the trade as a
flexible connector, and, is installed between an air
handler and a duct system. The maximum length of a
vibration isolator is:
A. back-seating the suction service valve
B. front-seating the suction service valve
C. almost front-seating the discharge service
valve
D. almost front-seating the suction service valve
Conditioning 4.7
578 When a refrigeration system is charged using the low

side method, proper system charging may be speeded
up by:
A. back-seating the suction service valve
B. front-seating the suction service valve
C. almost front-seating the discharge service
valve
D. almost front-seating the suction service valve
Conditioning 4.7
579 In a compression system the expansion valve is located

____
A. at the exit of the condenser
B. on the coil
C. at the exit of the evaporator
D. at the entrance of the evaporator
Conditioning 4-20

580 Which of the following is not a type of compressor
lubrication?
A. pressure system
B. splash
C. injector
D. force feed
Conditioning 4-53
581 ___ would only be seen in a cross charged

thermostatic expansion valve.
A. vapor & moisture
B. liquid & vapor
C. moisture & oil
D. wax & vapor
Conditioning 5.1.2
582 What does a thermostatic expansion valve that is cross

charged contain?
A. liquid and gas
B. water and air
C. fluid different from the refrigerant in the
system
D. a thermal electric device used to sense the
temperature
Conditioning 5.1.2

583 What does a thermostatic expansion valve that is cross
charged contain?
A. liquid and gas
B. water and air
C. fluid different from the refrigerant in the
system
D. a thermal electric device used to sense the
temperature
Conditioning 5.1.2
584 Identify the IC symbol used on internal and wiring

diagrams for control systems.
A. transformer
B. transducers
C. capacitors
D. sparking cap
Conditioning 6- 8
585 Using the information shown in the diagram, identify

the symbol.
A. test fitting
B. resistor
C. capacitor
D. motor
Conditioning 6- 9

586 What is the purpose of an ammeter?
A. current flow control
B. check the current flow
C. measures the watts consumed by an electrical
device
D. measures units of electromotive force
Conditioning 6-14

Airconditioning. a circuit with too much current flow
has an excess. This excess is converted to what form
of energy?
A. watts
B. heat
C. amp
D. current
Conditioning 6-29
588 What type of motor does NOT need an external start

switch?
A. capacitor-start
B. capacitor-run
C. induction-run
D. impedance-run
Conditioning 7- 2f

589 What should happen when you jumper across the
starting capacitor on a motor ?
A. rupture the capacitor
B. blow the internal fuse
C. both of these
D. none of these
Conditioning 7-40
590 The chemical formula for refrigerant R-12 is ____.

A. CHCLF2
B. F2L2
C. CHCL3
D. CCL2F2
Conditioning 9- 1
591 What is the saturation psig of R-12 at 110 degrees F?

A. 131.86
B. 137.9
C. 117.16
D. 183.4
Conditioning 9- 5f

592 Sulfur Dioxide is a fairly stable refrigerant and is ____.
A. flammable
B. toxic
C. explosive
D. irritating
Conditioning 9-15
593 Normally, in a refrigerating system, the refrigerant

will be ____ degrees F colder than the evaporator
temperature when the unit is running.
A. 10
B. 15
C. 18
D. 5
Conditioning 9-29
594 Moisture in a refrigeration system will cause _______ ?

A. freezing up the metering device
B. all of the these
C. break down of the insulation on the motor
windings
D. chemical changes in the oil
Conditioning 9-33

595 What color flame does a halide leak detector give off
in the presence of hydrocarbons.
A. Red
B. Yellow
C. Blue Green
D. white
Conditioning 11-43
596 To charge a system with vapor you must connect a

cylinder to the ___.
A. evaporator
B. liquid line
C. discharge line
D. suction line
Conditioning 11-46
597 The effect of sub-cooling is _______ ?

A. increases the sensible cooling effect in a
refrigeration process
B. decrease the overall efficiency of the total
C. increase the overall efficiency of the total
D. decreases the sensible cooling effect in a
Conditioning 12- 3

598 The electronic leak detector carries a 1-B, CD rating,
and therefore may saftly be used in areas containing
explosive or flamable vapors.
A. True
B. False
C.
D.
Conditioning 12.9.2
NOT to Be used in areas containing explosive or
flamable vapors
599 Evaporators operating between 20 and 32 degrees F

must frequently be ____.
A. purged
B. defrosted
C. painted
D. repaired
Conditioning 12-27
600 Contactors are used ____.

A. instead of manual switches
B. because they are low cost
C. to replace controls
D. because of heavy electrical load
Conditioning 12-42

601 When an oil separator is used in a low temperature
application it should be kept in a cool place for best
performance.
A. True
B. False
C.
D.
Conditioning 12-55

Airconditioning, the metering, two temperature valve
acts more like a ____ than a shut-off valve.
A. throttling device
B. modulating valve
C. flow control device
D. check valve
Conditioning 13.10.1
603 Cooling tower water is circulated to prevent what kind

of buildup?
A. algae
B. scale
C. chloride buildup
D. static pressure
Conditioning 13.3.7

Airconditioning, panels for prefabricated walk-in
boxes use ____ to secured to each other.
A. partition panel locks
B. eccentric cam fasteners
C. stainless steel clamps
D. spring steel clamps
Conditioning 13-7f
605 The Ph scale is 1 - 14. Which of the following

numbers represents an acidic condition?
A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. 9
Conditioning 14-53
606 The purpose of a filter dryer in a refrigeration line is:

A. keeps the evaporator defrosted
B. removes excess oil from the refrigerant
C. keeps the condenser coils defrosted
D. removes moisture from the refrigerant

607 How is a dryer used in a refrigeration system?
A. removes moisture from the refrigerant
B. removes excess oil from the refrigerant
C. keeps the condenser coils defrosted
D. keeps the evaporator defrosted

Airconditioning, after city water is circulated through
an evaporative cooling system approximate _____
times it must be bled off or treated to prevent scale.
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8

Airconditioning, when winterizing and draining a
refrigeration system, the condenser water system and
other shut downs, all of the following plugs should be
removed except:
A. condenser circulating pump drain
B. condenser shell drain
C. tower sub drain
D. refrigerant crankcase oil drain

Airconditioning, a drain line for a cooling tower
should be installed with a pitch of ___ inches per foot,
or a pump should be installed to lift the condensate to
its discharge location.
A. 1/16
B. 1/8
C. 1/4
D. 1/2
611 When first charging a commercial refrigeration

system, which side of the system is refrigerant vapor
introduced?
A. mechanical room side
B. high pressure side
C. compressor side
D. low pressure side
Conditioning 15.9
612 Caution must be exercised when charging a unit with

refrigerant using the low side method. If the suction
pressure is too low it mat cause:
A. overwork the compressor
B. oil pumping
C. flash gas
D. the refrigerant cylinder to act as a condenser
Conditioning 15.9

Airconditioning, the method recommended to charge a
system with refrigerant is:
A. liquid refrigerant into the low side
B. liquid refrigerant into the high side
C. refrigerant vapor into the low side
D. refrigerant vapor into the high side
Conditioning 15.9

side method if the suction pressure is to low, it may
cause:
A. the compressor to pump oil
B. rapid condensation of the refrigerant in
evaporator
C. rapid evaporation of the refrigerant in
condenser
D. the refrigerant cylinder to collapse
Conditioning 15.9

side method, if the suction pressure is too low, it may
cause:
A. rapid evaporation of the refrigerant in
condenser
B. rapid condensation of the refrigerant in
evaporator
C. the compressor to pump oil
D. the refrigerant cylinder to collapse
Conditioning 15.9

616 What is a dry evaporator designed for ?
A. systems which require a low RH in the room
being cooled
B. a system where water surrounds the
evaporator
C. a system where air is to be blown over the
evaporator
D. systems which require a high RH in the room
being cooled
Conditioning 15-18
617 A flooded type evaporator has excellent heat transfer

efficiency because ____.
A. the thinner the fluid the lesser the heat flow
B. the denser the fluid the lesser the heat flow
C. the thinner the fluid the greater the heat flow
D. the denser the fluid the greater the heat flow
Conditioning 15-20
618 To achieve low temperature in refrigeration

applications, cascade systems are used. They may be
connected in series.
A. True
B. False
C.
D.
Conditioning 15-36

619 Cascading refrigeration systems connect two or more
refrigeration systems.
A. True
B. False
C.
D.
Conditioning 15-36
620 As condensing pressures approach the outlet

temperature of the compressor, what will you expect to
experience?
A. all of these
B. an increase in flash gas
C. the compressor will pump to the higher
temperature and pressure
D. added loss in effective latent heat
Conditioning 15-44
621 Which of the following is used to determine

compressor displacement?
A. all of these
B. RPM
C. diameter of the cylinder
D. length of the piston stroke
Conditioning 15-47

622 Clearance in a compressor has no effect on ____.
A. compressor capacity
B. varies depending on compressor speed
C. has an effect on compressor capacity
D. varies depending on piston size
Conditioning 15-47
623 A compressor's displacement is determined by ____.

A. all of these
B. diameter of the cylinder
C. length of stroke of the piston
D. number of pistons
Conditioning 15-47
624 The COP of a hot water HVAC system is 1.58. The

input of the system is 62,000 Btu. What is the output
of the HVAC system?
A. 160,00 Btu
B. 28.6 KW
C. 62,000 Btu
D. 150,000 KW
Conditioning 15-49

625 When charging a refrigerant system using the low side
method, PROPER system charging may be sped up by:
A. almost front-seating (closing) the suction
service valve
B. closing the suction service valve
C. almost closing the discharge service valve
D. opening the suction service valve
Conditioning 15-9
626 Where does cooling tower water go after it leaves the

cooling tower?
A. condenser
B. evaporator
C. compressor
D. generator
627 Relative humidity can be described as the ratio of

water vapor in the air compared to the maximum
amount of water vapor that the air can contain at a
given temperature and pressure.
A. True
B. False
C.
D.
Conditioning 18- 5

628 Human comfort requires a relative humidity of about
____.
A. 40 %
B. 50 %
C. 10 %
D. 20 %
Conditioning 18-32
629 The stratification of air can be avoided by ____.

A. larger return air grilles
B. larger diffusers
C. the lowest possible position of return air
grilles
D. sufficient air flow
Conditioning 18-46
630 A radial flow fan is one in which ____.

A. the air flows at right angles to the axis
B. the air flow is parallel to the axis
C. is a power type fan
D. is a slow speed fan
Conditioning 22-26

631 A 6" diameter duct will carry 50 CFM with a pressure
drop of ____ "per 100' of duct length.
A. .034
B. .013
C. .02
D. 1.023
Conditioning 22-34f
632 6000 CFM of air with a velocity of 1500 FPM will

have a friction loss of ____ per 100' of duct length.
A. .15 inches of water
B. 1 inches of water
C. .1 inch of water
D. .02 inches of water
Conditioning 22-48f
633 6000 CFM of air with a velocity of 1500 FPM will

have a friction loss per 100 feet of duct of ____ inches
of water.
A. .02
B. 1
C. .15
D. .1
Conditioning 22-48f

Airconditioning, the minimum number of air changes
per hour for ventilation in a residence during th e
heating season is 3.
A. True
B. False
C.
D.
Conditioning 23.3
635 If a high sounding noise is coming from a ceiling

diffuser, and, the noise stops when the diffuser is
removed, the cause of the noise problem is:
A. restricted fitting in the duct
B. air velocity too low
C. sharp edges on the diffuser
D. sharp exposed edge in the duct
Conditioning 23.5.1
636 Which of the following statements about heat pumps is

true?
A. the reversing valve never operates while the
system thermostat is set on heating
B. the most effective method to defrost the
outside coil is to reverse the system to the
cooling cycle
C. an accumulator is not necessary
D. when the outside air temperature drops below
freezing, all the heat is supplied by the
electric strips
Conditioning 23-10

637 Before pre-charged refrigerant lines are installed,
fittings should be coated with:
A. refrigerant oil
B. with leak-lock
C. with Teflon tape
D. fittings should never be coated
638 The gas fired portions of a roof mounted

heating/cooling units, usually uses a electronic
ignition for a gas pilot.
A. True
B. False
C.
D.
Conditioning 24.19
639 What is the purpose of a lockout relay?

A. senses changes in temperature in the heated
space
B. prevent system from being opened by a non-
EPA certified technician
C. protect the compressor when a safety device
opens
D. turns the condenser fan off in the event of
insufficient air flow across the
evaporator coil
Conditioning 25-20

640 A motor for operating dampers uses power to open the
damper works against ____ and holds the damper
open until the set point is reached.
A. spring pressure
B. pneumatic pressure
C. gravity
D. inertial pressure
Conditioning 25-36
641 When the high-pressure gauge of a gauge manifold is

firmly installed on the high side of a refrigerant
system, the dial scale may be graduated in ____
increments.
A. 2.5 #
B. 1.5 #
C. 1.2 #
D. 2#
Conditioning 2-56
642 In determining heat gain for a structure, which of the

following must be considered?
A. the summer outside design temperature
B. all of these
C. radiation from the sun
D. heat and moisture gained by infiltration
Conditioning 26- 4

643 Internal heat gains of a space may consist of the
following:
A. lights
B. people
C. copy machine
D. all of these
Conditioning 26- 4
644 The "R" value of a substance is a measure of ____.

A. Conductivity
B. Thermal transmittance
C. Conductance
D. Resistance
Conditioning 26- 8

Airconditioning, which one of the following describes
what may cause a lockout relay to energize on a warm
air heating system?
A. contacts on the thermostat open
B. contacts on the motor protector open
C. contacts on automatic pilot close
D. contacts on the fan control close

646 A lock out relay will energize in a warm air heating
system if the contacts:
A. close on the motor protector
B. open
C. close
D. open on the motor protector
647 Which of the following is defined as a series of

operating controls used in a pre-set order to stop or
start a heating unit?
A. primary controls
B. sequencing controls
C. secondary controls
D. staging controls
Conditioning 26.15
648 The specific heat of ice is ___.

A. .504
B. 57.5
C. 1.00
D. 5.04
Conditioning 30- 3

649 What is the specific heat of ice?
A. .504 Btu per pound
B. .999 Btu per pound
C. 143.5 Btu per pound
D. .5 Btu per pound
Conditioning 30- 3
650 What is the Btu value of ice?

A. .999 Btu per pound
B. .504 Btu per pound
C. .555 Btu per pound
D. 143.5 Btu per pound
Conditioning 30- 3
651 If an electric heater is rated at 30 KW, how many Btu

per hour output is the heater?
A. 2,457
B. 1,023
C. 204,780
D. 102,420
Conditioning 30- 5

652 One pound of water has ____ grains.
A. 700
B. 7
C. 70
D. 7000
Conditioning 30-14
653 A temperature is listed as 35 degrees Celsius. What is

the degrees in Fahrenheit degrees?
A. 95
B. 35
C. 67
D. 105
Conditioning 30-16
654 Entropy is the engineering calculations for the power

required for compression.
A. True
B. False
C.
D.
Conditioning 30-21

655 Total resistance is equal to the sum of individual
resistances.
A. True
B. False
C.
D.
Conditioning 30-31
656 What are the proper installation locations for two

refrigerant connections used for a dual pressure motor
control?
A. compressor suction and receiver king valve
outlet
B. liquid line receiver outlet and compressor
suction
C. liquid line and compressor discharge
D. compressor suction and discharge service
valves
Conditioning 5-28 Figure
657 Why is it necessary to be cautious when handling

contaminated refrigeration oil?
A. it is a controlled substance according to the
DEA
B. it may be acidic
C. it may be alkaline
D. it may stain your clothes
Conditioning 9.21

658 Which of the following is most closely related to 1 ton
of refrigeration.
A. 12,000 BTU'S
B. British thermal unit
C. 50 degrees or above
D. Refrigeration ratings
Conditioning Definitions B 1045
659 Which of the following is NOT a basic type of

condenser?
A. Air-cooled
B. Refrigerated
C. Evaporated
D. Water Cooled
Conditioning Definitions C
660 How is density expressed?

A. rpm
B. psi
C. pounds per cubic feet
D. pounds
Conditioning Definitions D

661 Enthalpy is ____.
A. sensible heat loss
B. the total heat content of a substance
C. latent heat of a substance
D. none of these
Conditioning Definitions E
662 Enthalpy is the total amount of heat in one pound of a

substance calculated from accepted temperature base.
A. True
B. False
C.
D.
Conditioning Definitions E
663 Heat exchangers are used in process heating and

cooling.
A. True
B. False
C.
D.
Conditioning Definitions H

664 Define the term hermetically sealed.
A. air leakage on jalousy window
B. degree of penetration of silicone caulking
C. closure between aluminum glassing and
casement
D. traps air between sheets of glass
Conditioning Definitions H
665 There are two latent heats for each substance.

A. melting and condensing
B. freezing and condensing
C. melting and freezing; and vaporizing and
condensing
D. vaporizing and condensing
Conditioning Definitions L
666 A reciprocating pump is a pump having a(an) ____

moving up and down or back and forth.
A. scroll
B. pump rod
C. impeller
D. piston
Conditioning Definitions P

667 The relationship between water vapor present in air to
the greatest amount possible at a given temperature is
termed ____.
A. humidity ratio
B. density
C. humidity index
D. relative humidity
Conditioning Definitions R
668 A super heated gas may be defined as a gas where no

liquid is present.
A. True
B. False
C.
D.
Conditioning Definitions S
669 A thermister is _______ ?

A. a device whose resistance changes in response
to a change in temperature
B. a thermostat with a resistor inside
C. two thermostats wired in series
D. a device used in VAV air distribution systems
Conditioning Definitions T

670 If a fatal accident occurs on the job, it must be
reported to OSHA within ____ hours.
A. 3
B. 6
C. 8
D. 12
CORRECT: C OSHA
671 According to OSHA, what is potable water?

A. any water carried in a container
B. water that is fit for drinking
C. water that is transported to a job site
D. water that is used in concrete mix design
CORRECT: B OSHA
672 An OSHA poster:

A. Must be continuously displayed in the work
place
B. Is the standard guideline for inspection
procedures
C. Must be prepared within 36 hours of any
occupational or illness
D. Must be prepared directly after Form 100 and
submitted to the registrar of contractors
CORRECT: A OSHA 29 CFR 1903.2 (a)(1)

673 Kit Carson Construction Company is expanding its
work force. How many employees must Kit Carson
Construction have before it must maintain records of
all employee occupational injuries and illnesses?
A. 10
B. 11
C. 12
D. 13
CORRECT: B OSHA 29 CFR 1904.1 (a)(1)
674 According to OSHA, a safety log shall be available for

inspection at all times. Within how many calendar
days must any new posting to the log be completed?
A. 5 days
B. 4 days
C. 7 days
D. 3 days
CORRECT: C OSHA 29 CFR 1904.29 (b)(3)
675 If the contractor's employee is under the day-to-day

supervision of the ____ , the ____ is responsible for
recording the injury or illness.
A. contractor, employee
B. contractor, contractor
C. employee, contractor
D. employee, employee
CORRECT: B OSHA 29 CFR 1904.31 (b)(3)

676 Federal OSHA requires employers to post an annual
summary of occupational injuries and illnesses. This
summary shall be posted for at least 30 days. When
must this summary be posted?
A. December 1st
B. January 1st
C. February 1st
D. June 1st
677 If an employee has a work related accident in 1998

what is the earliest year which a company may destroy
any record of this accident?
A. 2000
B. 2001
C. 2002
D. 2003
CORRECT: D OSHA 29 CFR 1904.33 (a)
Note: Records are required to be kept for five years.
678 When workers are subject to contaminates that are less

than 2 microns in diameter and, the contaminate is
considered dangerous to health, which of the following
must be provided?
A. air purifying respirator with a filter certified
for particulates
B. half mask respirator with chemical cartridge
C. half mask respirator with particulate filter
D. half mask respirator without filter cartridge
CORRECT: A OSHA 29 CFR 1910.134 (d) (3)
(iv) (C)
NOTE: 1 micron equals 1 micro meter

679 According to OSHA, and oil lubricated compressor is
being used to supply breathing air. It must be equipped
with:
I. High temperature alarm

II. Carbon dioxide alarm
III. Carbon monoxide alarm
A. I only
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. I and III
CORRECT: D OSHA 29 CFR 1910.134 (i)(7)
680 According to OSHA, safety-toe footwear for employees

shall meet the specifications of the:
A. American Industrial Standards Council
(AISC)
B. American Society of Mechanical Engineers
(ASME)
C. American Society of Testing Materials
(ASTM)
D. American National Standards Institute (ANSI)
CORRECT: D OSHA 29 CFR 1910.136 (b)(1)
681 According to OSHA, how many bathrooms are

required for ninety (90) construction workers?
A. 3
B. 5
C. 7
D. 9
CORRECT: B OSHA 29 CFR 1910.141 (c)(1)(i)

682 According to OSHA, ___ is the acceptable oxygen
level range in a confined space.
A. 19.5% to 23.5%
B. 23.6 to 26.5
C. 26.5 to 28.1%
D. 28.2 to 32.1%
CORRECT: A OSHA 29 CFR 1910.146 (b)
Hazardous Atmosphere (3)
683 All of the following are major components of a

quadruple sling EXCEPT:
A. master link
B. chocker hitch
C. master coupling link
D. sling hook
CORRECT: B OSHA 29 CFR 1910.184 figure N-
184-3
684 According to OSHA, a circular saw may not be

equipped with a locked-on control button on the power
switch.
A. True
B. False
C.
D.
CORRECT: A OSHA 29 CFR 1910.243 (a)(2)(i)
& (ii)

685 According to OSHA, all tube and coupler scaffolding,
shall be securely guyed or tied to the building or
structure at intervals not exceeding ____ feet
horizontally, or ____ feet vertically.
A. 25, 30
B. 25, 25
C. 30, 26
D. 30, 30
CORRECT: C OSHA 29 CFR 1910.28 (c)(13)
686 The minimum clearance between a backhoe (or other

heavy equipment) and a 50 KV power line shall be
____ .
A. 8'
B. 10'
C. 15'
D. 12'
CORRECT: B OSHA 29 CFR 1910.333 (c)(3)(iii)
687 Suspension wire rope shall be inspected by a

competent person for visable defects and gross damage
to the rope:
A. once a day
B. after every use
C. before every use
D. weekly
CORRECT: B OSHA 29 CFR 1910.66 (g)(5)(ii)

688 Employees shall not use any spiral stairways that will
not be a permanent part of the stucture on which
construction work is being performed.
A. True
B. False
C.
D.
CORRECT: A OSHA 29 CFR 1920.1051 (a)(1)
689 Using the diagram and the following information,

according to OSHA, determine the maximum
allowable depth of "A". "C"
1. C is a 1:1 slope
2. simple trench
3. type "B" soil
"A"
A. 20'
"B"
B. 22'
C. 24'
D. 26'
CORRECT: A OSHA 29 CFR 1926 Subpart P
Appendix B 1.2, 3
690 According to OSHA, referring to the diagram shown,

when "A" equals 20' in a simple trench, type "C" soil, "C"
what is the maximum slope at "C" :
A. 1½:1
B. ⅞:1
"A"
C. 2½:1
"Type C"
D. ⅔:1
Appendix B Table B-1

691 According to OSHA, when trenching in Type A soil,
the minimum size douglas fir timber used for bracing
for a trench which is 6' deep and 24" wide is:
A. 4x4
B. 4x6
C. 6x6
D. 6x8
Appendix C Table C-2.1
692 According to OSHA, a trench wall made of what soil

type will can be excavated with vertical sides and
remain intact while exposed?
A. Stable rock walls
B. Heavy clay walls
C. Any trench under 6'
D. Loose rock walls
CORRECT: A OSHA 29 CFR 1926 Subpart P,
Appendix A, definition of stable
rock.
693 According to OSHA, a trench wall made of Type

_____ cohesive soil has an unconfined compressive
strength of 1.5 tons per square foot or greater.
A. A
B. C
C. E
D. G
CORRECT: A OSHA 29 CFR 1926 Subpart P,
Appendix A, definition of type A
soil.

694 According to OSHA, ___ is specifically prohibited as a
hearing protection device.
A. expandable foam
B. ear muffs
C. cotton
D. hearing & head protection combination
helmets
CORRECT: C OSHA 29 CFR 1926.101 (c)
695 Money to purchase eye protection required by OSHA

comes from:
A. the OSHA mandated equipment fund
B. the state mandated equipment fund
C. employer
D. employee
CORRECT: C OSHA 29 CFR 1926.102 (a)(1)
696 According to OSHA, what is the maximum developed

length in feet of a lanyard safety line?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
CORRECT: C OSHA 29 CFR 1926.104 (d)

697 According to OSHA, the a safety lanyard shall be a
minimum thickness of ____ inch, nylon or equivalent.
A. 1/2
B. 3/4
C. 1
D. 1 1/4
CORRECT: A OSHA 29 CFR 1926.104 (d)
698 According to OSHA, what is the maximum developed

length in feet of a lanyard safety line ?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
699 Safety nets shall be provided when the work surface is

more than ___ above the ground or water surface.
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 25

700 At what height does OSHA require the use of a safety
net if a safety lanyard cannot be attached to a secure
point?
A. 8'
B. 12'
C. 25'
D. 30'
701 Mesh size of safety nets shall not exceed:

A. 4" X 4"
B. 6" X 6"
C. 8" X 8"
D. 8" X 6"
702 The temporary stairs on a job site should have landing

every ____ feet or less of vertical height.
A. 8
B. 10
C. 12
D. 16

703 According to OSHA, temporary stairs on a jobsite
shall have landings every ____ feet of vertical height.
A. 8
B. 10
C. 12
D. 16
704 A Type 1A metal or plastic self supporting portable

extra heavy duty ladder, shall be capable of sustaining
a load without failure that is at least____ the
maximum intended load:
A. 2.6 times
B. 3.0 times
C. 3.3 times
D. 4.5 times
CORRECT: C OSHA 29 CFR 1926.1053 (a)(1)(i)
705 Wood ladders are permitted to be coated with an

opaque covering.
A. True
B. False
C.
D.
CORRECT: B OSHA 29 CFR 1926.1053 (a)(12)

706 According to OSHA, what minimum distance must be
unsecured ladder extend above an eave?
A. 2'
B. 3'
C. 4'
D. 5'
707 According to OSHA, a ladder leaned against a wall,

the top of which is 20' above grade, must be ___ feet
from the wall at the base.
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
CORRECT: C OSHA 29 CFR 1926.1053 (b)(5)(i)
20' ÷ 4= 5' (therefore 1/4 of the distance)
708 Asbestos standards apply when material containing

more than ___ % is involved in construction
demolition or transportation activities.
A. .5
B. 1
C. 1.5
D. 2
CORRECT: B OSHA 29 CFR 1926.1101 (a)(1),
(a)(6) & (b)
Definition of Asbestos-Containing Material

709 What is the maximum amount of asbestos that can be
allowed on a permissible level of exposure based on an
eight hour time weighted average?
A. .10 fibres per cubic centimeters of air
B. .15 fibres per cubic centimeters of air
C. .20 fibres per cubic centimeters of air
D. .25 fibres per cubic centimeters of air
CORRECT: A OSHA 29 CFR 1926.1101 (c)(1)
710 According to OSHA, the travel distance the nearest

fire extinguisher should not be more than ____ feet.
A. 75
B. 100
C. 150
D. 200
CORRECT: B OSHA 29 CFR 1926.150 (c)
711 A fire extinguisher rated at 2A shall be provided for

each 3000 ft of protected building area. According to
OSHA the travel distance from any point of the
protected area to the nearest fire extinguisher shall not
be more than ___ feet.
A. 65
B. 75
C. 100
D. 150
CORRECT: C OSHA 29 CFR 1926.150 (c)

712 A multi-purpose ABC dry chemical fire extinguisher
is listed for:
I. A fire classification
II. B fire classification
III. C fire classification
A. I only
B. II and III only
C. I, II and III (all three)
D. III only
CORRECT: C OSHA 29 CFR 1926.150 Table F-
1
713 According to OSHA, portable tanks used for storage of

flammable liquids shall be placed at least how far from
any building?
A. 5'
B. 10'
C. 15'
D. 20'
CORRECT: D OSHA 29 CFR 1926.152 (c)(1)
714 A vehicle carrying flammable materials must have a

___ fire extinguisher on board (according to OSHA).
I. 20-B:C
II. 20-A:B
A. I only
B. II only
C. Neither I nor II
D. Either I or II
CORRECT: B OSHA 29 CFR 1926.152 (d)(4)

715 According to OSHA, all vehicles transporting
flammable or combustible liquids, shall be provided
with at least one fire extinguisher having a rating of
not less than ____.
A. 20-A
B. 20-B
C. 20-B:C
D. 20-B:D
CORRECT: C OSHA 29 CFR 1926.152 (d)(4)
716 When operational requirements make portable use of

LP-Gas containers necessary, and their location
outside of buildings or structures is impractical, said
containers are permitted to be used inside of a building
or structure in accordance with all of the following
EXCEPT:
A. regulators shall be either directly connected to
the container valves or to a manifold
connected to the container valves
B. aluminum piping or tubing shall be used
C. hose shall be designed for a working pressure
of at least 250 p.s.i.g.
D. Portable heaters shall be equipped with an
approved automatic device to shut off the flow
of gas to the main burner in the event of a
flame failure
CORRECT: B OSHA 29 CFR 1926.153 (h)(1)
717 According to OSHA, The prime contractor on a

construction project has the responsibility for
compliance with OSHA standards for all employees on
the project.
A. True
B. False
C.
D.
CORRECT: B OSHA 29 CFR 1926.16

718 Danger signs shall be used only where a(n) _____
hazard exists.
A. potential
B. immediate
C. imminent
D. likely
719 According to OSHA 1926, which of the following is

not defined as a confined or enclosed space?
A. process vessel
B. trench less than 4' deep
C. boiler
D. air return duct
CORRECT: B OSHA 29 CFR 1926.21 (b)(6)(ii)
720 According to OSHA, materials stored inside buildings

at a construction site shall not be placed within ___
feet of any hoistway or floor opening.
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6

721 Brick stacks shall not be more than ____ feet in height.
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
722 Bricks shall not be stacked more than 7 feet in height.

When a loose brick stack reaches a height of 4 feet, in
shall be tapered back ____ of height above the 4 foot
level.
A. 1 inch in every 3 inches
B. 2 inches in every 6 inches
C. 2 inches in every foot
D. 4 inches in every foot
723 Eyes in wire rope bridles, slings or bull wires shall not
be formed by wire rope clips or knots.
A. True
B. False
C.
D.
CORRECT: A OSHA 29 CFR 1926.251 (c)(4)(iii)

724 According to OSHA, what is the maximum distance
that waste materials may be dropped off from a roof
without the use of totally enclosed chute?
A. 16'
B. 20'
C. 28'
D. 48'
CORRECT: B OSHA 29 CFR 1926.252 (a)
725 According to OSHA, when debris is dropped through

a hole in the floor without the use of a chute, the area
onto which the material is dropped shall be completely
enclosed by a barricade not less than _____ high and
not less than 6 feet back from the opening above.
A. 36"
B. 42"
C. 48"
D. 52"
CORRECT: B OSHA 29 CFR 1926.252 (b)
726 The area onto which debris material is dropped

through holes in the floor without the use of chutes,
shall be completely enclosed with barricades to
provide what minimum clearance back from the
opening above?
A. 6'
B. 8'
C. 10'
D. 12'

727 Which one of the following is responsible for
requiring the wearing of personal protective
equipment when hazardous conditions exist?
A. foreman
B. employee
C. employer
D. superintendent
CORRECT: C OSHA 29 CFR 1926.28 (a)
728 According to OSHA, the person responsible to insure

that appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE)
is worn in every operation where exposure to
hazardous conditions exists is:
A. foreman
B. employee
C. employer
D. superintendent
CORRECT: C OSHA 29 CFR 1926.28 (a)
729 According to OSHA, the ____ is responsible for

making sure each employee coming onto a worksite is
wearing her personal protective equipment.
A. employee
B. OSHA inspector
C. city safety inspector
D. employer

730 According to OSHA, which of the following power
tools MAY HAVE a "positive on/positive off" switch?
A. router
B. circular saw
C. 4" diameter grinder
D. chain saw
731 According to OSHA, all of the following power tools

require a "positive on/positive off" switch, EXCEPT:
A. circular saw
B. scroll saw
C. router
D. grinder with a 2" wheel or less
732 According to OSHA, hand held power tools such as

skill saws, chain saws and power tools without
positive accessory holding means, shall have a _____
that shall shut off the power when the pressure is
released.
A. momentary contact on/off control
B. constant pressure switch
C. positive on/off control
D. dead-man release

733 According to OSHA, extension cords for use with
portable electric tools must:
A. be at least 2 wire if the tool is double
insulated.
B. two wired with 3 prong plugs.
C. have the same number of wires as the tool
connected.
D. be 3 wired type.
CORRECT: A OSHA 29 CFR 1926.302 (a)
734 A pneumatic nail gun is equipped with an automatic

fastener feed. The nail gun does not have a safety
device on the muzzle to prevent the ejection of nails
when the muzzle is not in contact with the work
surface. What is the maximum operating pressure
allowed?
A. 95 PSI
B. 100 PSI
C. 105 PSI
D. 110 PSI
29 CFR 1926.302 (b)(3) states that a safety device on
the muzzle is required for a pneumatically driven nailer
with an automatic fastener feed that operate at more
than 100 p.s.i.
735 According to OSHA, the ___ paint spray system

requires the use of a nozzle tip guard.
A. DFRT
B. HVLP
C. airless
D. electrostatic
CORRECT: C OSHA 29 CFR 1926.302 (b)(8) &
(b)(9)

736 Powder actuated fastening devices may NOT be used
in face brick, hardened steel, or cast iron.
A. True
B. False
C.
D.
CORRECT: A OSHA 29 CFR 1926.302 (e)(7)
737 According to OSHA, all woodworking power tools

shall be equipped with all of the following EXCEPT:
A. a work rest
B. the operating speed etched on the motor of a
circular with a 20" diameter blade
C. automatic feeding devices when the nature of
the work will permit
D. guards above and below the base plate or shoe
CORRECT: A OSHA 29 CFR 1926.304 (b), (c)
& (d)
738 According to OSHA, a person who is capable of

identifying existing and predictable hazards,
unsanitary working conditions and is authorized to
take corrective actions to eliminate them is a:
A. state inspector
B. qualified person
C. contractor
D. competent person
CORRECT: D OSHA 29 CFR 1926.32 (f)

739 According to OSHA, corrective action to eliminate
existing and predictable hazards and unsanitary
working conditions can be performed by:
A. the prime contractor
B. competent person
C. industrial inspector
D. any project manager
CORRECT: B OSHA 29 CFR 1926.32 (f)
740 Hot electrode holders shall not be dipped in water; to

do so may expose the operator to:
A. cancerous vapors
B. dangerous bursts of steam
C. radiation
D. electrical shock
CORRECT: D OSHA 29 CFR 1926.351 (d)(2)
741 According to OSHA, workers in the vicinity of the

direct rays of arc weldinng shall be shielded by:
I. Noncombustible or flame proof screens

II. Lexan screens or canvass barriers
A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I or II
CORRECT: A OSHA 29 CFR 1926.351 (e)

742 Chlorinated solvents shall be kept at least _____ from
an inert gas metal arc welding process.
A. 96'
B. 125'
C. 200'
D. 210'
CORRECT: C OSHA 29 CFR 1926.353 (d)(1)(i)
743 According to OSHA when an employee is working in

proximity to an electric power circuit and contact may
be possible during the course of work, ___ should be
done to protect the employee from electric shock.
A. kill the circuit
B. issue protective shoes
C. issue rubber gloves
D. ground and de-energize circuit
CORRECT: A OSHA 29 CFR 1926.416 (a)
744 The structural member of a supported scaffold used to

increase the base width of a scaffold in order to
provide support for and increase stability of a scaffold
is called:
A. a needle beam
B. an outrigger
C. a stilt
D. a crawling board
CORRECT: B OSHA 29 CFR 1926.450 (b)
Definitions

745 Scaffolding should be capable of supporting its own
weight and at least ____ times its' intended load.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 10
746 Scaffold planks should extend over their end supports

not less than ____ (according to OSHA).
A. 2''
B. 4''
C. 1''
D. 6''
747 According to OSHA rules and regulations, scaffold

planks should extend past their end supports a
MAXIMUM of _____ inch(es).
A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 12

748 According to OSHA, the minimum overlap of
planking on scaffold is:
A. 4"
B. 6"
C. 8"
D. 12"
749 Stairways on scaffolds shall be installed between

_____ from the horizontal
A. 45° and 40°
B. 80° and 90°
C. 15° and 30°
D. 40° and 60°
CORRECT: D OSHA 29 CFR 1926.451 (e)(4)(xi)
750 Guardrails should be installed on 4.5' wide scaffolding

over _____ feet above a lower level.
A. 10 feet
B. 8 feet
C. 4 feet
D. 12 feet
CORRECT: A OSHA 29 CFR 1926.451 (g)(1)

751 According to OSHA, guardrails are required on
scaffolding at heights above ___ feet above the
working surface.
A. 10
B. 15
C. 20
D. 25
CORRECT: A OSHA 29 CFR 1926.451 (g)(1)
752 According to OSHA, the top edge height of top rails

on supported scaffolds shall be installed between ___
inches and 45" above the platform surface.
A. 38
B. 36
C. 34
D. 32
CORRECT: A OSHA 29 CFR 1926.451 (g)(4)(ii)
753 The required guard rails that are installed on

scaffolding should be a minimum of ____ inches high.
A. 32
B. 38
C. 40
D. 44
CORRECT: B OSHA 29 CFR 1926.451 (g)(4)(ii)

754 According to OSHA 1926, if guard rails are required
for fall protection, the height of the guard rail shall be
___ minimum height.
A. 32"
B. 34"
C. 36"
D. 38"
CORRECT: D OSHA 29 CFR 1926.451 (g)(4)(ii)
755 Vertical lifelines, independent support lines, and

suspension ropes shall not be attached to each other,
nor shall they be attached to or use ____, nor shall
they be attached to the same point on the scaffold or
personal fall arrest system.
A. an automatic locking device
B. the guardrail system
C. a safety net
D. the same point of anchorage
CORRECT: D OSHA 29 CFR 1926.451 (g)(4)(iv)
756 OSHA requires what minimum clearance between the

bottom of a toe board and a walking or working
surface of a scaffold?
A. 1/4"
B. 3/16"
C. 5/8"
D. 11/16"
CORRECT: A OSHA 29 CFR 1926.451 (h)(4)(ii)

757 According to OSHA, the minimum permissible size
for planking on a wood pole scaffold used for light
duty up to 60 feet shall be ______.
A. 2" x 4"
B. 2" x 8"
C. 2" x 10"
D. 2" x 12"
CORRECT: C OSHA 29 CFR 1926.451 Subpart
L Appendix A, 2 (Specific
Guidelines and Tables)
758 According to OSHA, employees shall not be permitted

to ride on a mobile scaffold unless which of the
following conditions exist?
A. when there is less than 4 persons on the
scaffold
B. when outriggers are used
C. when the height to base ratio is 5% or less
D. when the floor is within 3 degrees of level
CORRECT: D OSHA 29 CFR 1926.452 (w)(6)(i)
759 According to OSHA, an employer shall not allow

employees to ride on manually propelled scaffold
unless:
A. more than one person propels the scaffold
B. the floor is within 3% of level and free of pits,
holes and obstructions
C. the scaffold is less than 12' high
D. the employees have safety lanyards attached
CORRECT: B OSHA 29 CFR 1926.452 (w)(6)(i)

760 According to OSHA, employees may not ride on a
manually propelled scaffold unless:
A. the scaffold is less than 12' high
B. the floor is within 3% of level
C. the employees have safety lanyards attached
D. more than one person propels the scaffold
CORRECT: B OSHA 29 CFR 1926.452 (w)(6)(i)
761 According to OSHA, the location of a job-site first aid

kit, must be:
A. readily accessible
B. accessible
C. unconcealed
D. easily accessible
CORRECT: D OSHA 29 CFR 1926.50 (d)(1)
762 According to OSHA standards for the construction

industry, first aid kit supplies must be:
A. replaced at the beginning of each week
B. replaced weekly
C. replaced daily as needed
D. checked weekly

763 According to OSHA, Employers must provide fall
protection for each employee working on roofs with
unprotected sides or edges which is _____ feet or more
above a lower level or grade.
A. 6
B. 8
C. 10
D. 12
CORRECT: A OSHA 29 CFR 1926.501 (b)(1)
764 According to OSHA, fall protection shall be provided

on low slope roofs when the distance is ___ feet or
more that a worker can fall.
A. 6
B. 8
C. 10
D. 12

on low slope roofs when the distance meets or exceeds
____ feet that a worker can fall.
A. 6
B. 8
C. 10
D. 12

when employees are required to work on the leading
edge of a roof that is a minimum of what distance
above lower levels?
A. 6'
B. 8'
C. 12'
D. 16'
or (b)(11)
767 According to OSHA, a personal fall-arrest system

shall be rigged so that an employee can fall no farther
than:
A. 6'
B. 8'
C. 10'
D. 12'
CORRECT: A OSHA 29 CFR 1926.502
(d)(16)(iii)
768 Personal fall arrest systems when stopping a fall, shall

be rigged so that an employee can neither free fall
more than ___, nor contact any lower level.
A. 5'
B. 5.5'
C. 6'
D. 6.5'
CORRECT: C OSHA 29 CFR 1926.502
(d)(16)(iii)

769 According to OSHA standards, if you have 20 workers
at a jobsite, you are required to provide no less than
____ toilets.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
770 According to OSHA standards for construction

industry, how many toilets should a job site have when
the number of employees on a job is 20 or less?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
771 According to OSHA, employees are not to be subject to

impact or impulsive noises that exceed ___ sound
pressure level.
A. 140 dB
B. 120 dB
C. 130 dB
D. 160 dB
CORRECT: A OSHA 29 CFR 1926.52 (e)(1)

772 According to OSHA, an employee should not be
exposed to a noise sound pressure level of more than
92 db for a period of ____ hours.
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
CORRECT: C OSHA 29 CFR 1926.52 Table D-2
773 According to OSHA Standards, when is it required to

replace wire rope cables?
A. yearly
B. when 5% of the wires in running rope per lay
are broken
C. when there are more than 2 broken wires in
one strand in one lay
D. when there are more than 2% of the wires in
standing rope per lay are broken
CORRECT: C OSHA 29 CFR 1926.550 (a)(7)(i)
774 When should wire rope cables be replaced?

A. yearly
B. when any one of the wires per lay are broken
C. when 10% of the wires per lay are broken
D. when any 3 of the wires in one strand in one
lay are broken
CORRECT: D OSHA 29 CFR 1926.550 (a)(7)(i)

775 When should wire rope cables be replaced?
A. yearly
B. when any 1 of the wires per lay are broken
C. when 10% of the wires per lay are broken
D. when any 3 of the wires per lay are broken
776 When an employee is involved in an abrasive blasting

operation, he shall be equipped with heavy canvas or
leather gloves and aprons or equivalent protection to
protect from the impact from abrasives.
A. True
B. False
C.
D.
CORRECT: B OSHA 29 CFR 1926.57 (f)(5)(b)
777 According to OSHA, respiratory protection equipment

used in sand blasting operations, is approved
by______:
A. Bureau of Land Development
B. NIOSH
C. Department of Health
D. Department of Medical Methods
CORRECT: B OSHA 29 CFR 1926.57 (f)(5)(i)

778 All mechanized or motorized equipment ___ ,
adjacent to a highway in normal use, or adjacent to
construction areas where work is in progress, shall
have have appropriate lights or reflectors, or
barricades equipped with apprpriate lights or
reflectors, to identify the location of the equipment.
A. left unattended duirng the day
B. left attended during the day
C. left attended at night
D. left unattended at night
CORRECT: D OSHA 29 CFR 1926.600 (a)(1)
779 On a jobsite, heavy equipment, or parts thereof, which

are suspended or held aloft by use of slings, hoists or
jacks shall be substantially blocked or cribbed to
prevent falling or shifting before employees are
permitted to work under or between them.
A. blocked
B. cribbed
C. both blocked and cribbed
D. blokced or cribbed
780 The name of the horizontal member placed parallel to

the excavation face, according to OSHA, in shoring, is:
A. cross brace
B. a soldier brace
C. brace wall
D. wale
CORRECT: D OSHA 29 CFR 1926.650 (b)

781 According to OSHA, what safety precautions are to be
taken when a backhoe digs in an area where utilities
are located?
A. get off and check occasionally
B. move the backhoe closer to the hole edge
C. use a spotter to direct movement
D. proceed with caution
782 At a trench depth of _____ feet OSHA requires an

adequate means of exit.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Such as a Ladder!
783 The intervals of ladders placed in trenches for egress

shall be no further than:
A. 35'
B. 40'
C. 45'
D. 50'
No more than 25 feet of lateral travel.

784 OSHA requires a ladder in every excavation _____ or
deeper.
A. 5'
B. 3'
C. 4'
D. 6'
CORRECT: C OSHA 29 CFR 1926.651 (c)(2)
785 Which of the following trench conditions, according to

OSHA, would require a second means of access/egress?
A. a trench, 4' deep, where employees are
required to enter
B. a trench, 25' in length, where employees are
required to enter
C. a trench, 4' deep, where employees are
required to enter or, a trench, 25' in length,
where employees are required to enter
D. a trench, longer than 25' in length, where
employees are required to enter, or, a trench,
4'or deeper, where employees are required to
enter
786 At what depth of an excavation does OSHA require a

ladder?
A. 3'
B. 4'
C. 5'
D. 6'
CORRECT: B OSHA 29 CFR 1926.651 (c)(2)

787 According to OSHA, materials shall be stored a
distance of at least ____ feet from the edges of an
excavation, to protect employees from falling debris.
A. 2'
B. 4'
C. 6'
D. 10'
CORRECT: A OSHA 29 CFR 1926.651 (j)(2)
788 While trenching and excavating, OSHA requires at

least _____ feet of clear unobstructed distance from
the trenches edge to the toe of the spoil pile.
A. 1'
B. 2'
C. 3'
D. 4'
CORRECT: B OSHA 29 CFR 1926.651 (j)(2)
789 According to OSHA, employees must be protected

from materials that could fall into an excavated area.
Materials shall be stored at least _____ feet from the
edges of an excavation?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
CORRECT: B OSHA 29 CFR 1926.651 (j)(2)

790 According to OSHA, _____ should inspect
excavations daily after a rain storm.
A. a licensed engineer
B. on site supervisor
C. a general building contractor
D. a competent person
CORRECT: D OSHA 29 CFR 1926.651 (k)(1)
791 According to OSHA, inspections shall be made after

every rainstorm of excavations by:
A. culvert contractor
B. culvert engineer
C. OSHA official
D. "competent" person
CORRECT: D OSHA 29 CFR 1926.651 (k)(1)
792 According to OSHA, while excavating a trench, how

often should a competent person in addition to daily
inspection, check the safety of the trench?
A. After a rain storm
B. Each additional 10 feet of depth
C. Every 2 hours
D. Each time workers enter the trench
CORRECT: A OSHA 29 CFR 1926.651 (k)(1)

793 When an excavation is inspected by a competent
person and evidence of a situation that could result in
a possible cave-in is found, OSHA requires that:
A. the job be closed
B. employees be removed immediately
C. life lines be issued
D. immediate correction
CORRECT: B OSHA 29 CFR 1926.651 (k)(2)
794 According to OSHA, a trench must be shored at a

minimum depth of ___ feet, when workers are to enter
the trench.
A. 2'
B. 5'
C. 12'
D. 124"
CORRECT: B OSHA 29 CFR 1926.652 (a)(ii)
795 According to OSHA, the sides of a ditch above _____

shall be sloped back to prevent a cave-in.
A. 3'
B. 4'
C. 5'
D. 8'
CORRECT: C OSHA 29 CFR 1926.652 (a)(ii)

796 According to OSHA, when employees are required to
work in trenches in unstable ground, sheeting or
sloping is required at a trench depth of ____ or more
feet.
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
797 At what depth does OSHA require a trench to be

shored on the sides?
A. >3'
B. >4'
C. >5'
D. >8'
798 According to OSHA, sidewalks which have been

undermined for the purpose of working underneath,
I. Shall have a support system installed
II. While employees are working or not
A. I only
B. II only
C. both I and II
D. neither I nor II
CORRECT: C OSHA 29 CFR 1926.652 (i)(3)

799 According to OSHA, while excavating a trench, how
often should a competent person in addition to daily
inspection, check the safety of the trench?
A. After a rain storm
B. Each additional 10 feet of depth
C. Every 2 hours
D. Each time workers enter the trench
CORRECT: A OSHA 29 CFR 1926.652 (k)(1)
800 According to OSHA, the process of temporarily

supporting a deck after the removal of formwork so
that higher level work may commence is:
A. re-shoring
B. shoring
C. vertical-shoring
D. scaffold-shoring
801 Manually-operated power concrete trowels shall be

equipped with a ___.
A. hand release type shut-off
B. blade guard
C. shock absorbers
D. spark arrestor
CORRECT: A OSHA 29 CFR 1926.701 (c)

802 Concrete pumping systems using discharge pipes shall
be provided with pipe supports designed for ___
overload.
A. 50%
B. 75%
C. 100%
D. 125%
CORRECT: B OSHA 29 CFR 1926.702 (e)(1)
803 According to OSHA, during the erection of structural

steel members there shall not be more than ____
between the erection floor and uppermost permanent
floor.
A. 4 stories
B. 60 feet
C. 8 stories
D. 120 feet
804 According to OSHA, at no time shall there be more

than four floors or ___ feet of unfinished bolting or
welding above the foundation or uppermost
permanently secured floor.
A. 36
B. 48
C. 54
D. 60

805 According to OSHA, during the final placing of solid
web structural membersused for diagonal bracing, the
load shall not be released from the hoisting lines until
the members are secured with not less than ___ , or
the equivalent at each connection and drawn up
wrench tight.
A. 1 bolt
B. 2 bolts
C. tach welded
D. fillet welded
806 While in violation of the OSHA regulations, an

employee has been discriminated against and
discharged for filing a complaint. Within what time
period after the violation occurs must the employee file
a complaint about discriminations?
A. 45 days
B. 30 days
C. 60 days
D. 90 days
CORRECT: B OSHA 29 CFR 1977.15 (d)
807 According to the SMACNA Standard Symbols for

Ventilation and Airconditioning Ductwork drawings,
this symbol means:
A. direction of flow
B. duct size
C. supply air duct section
D. return air duct section
CORRECT: A SMACNA HVAC Duct System
Design

this symbol means:
A. Duct Section, Positive Pressure
B. Duct Section, Negative Pressure
C. Duct Size
D. Change of Elevation
CORRECT: C SMACNA HVAC Duct System
Design

this symbol means:
A. Duct Section, Positive Pressure
B. Duct Section, Negative Pressure
C. Direction of Flow
D. Change of Elevation
Design

this symbol means:
A. Flexible Connection
B. Acoustical Lining (insulation)
C. Sound Attenuator
D. Cowl (Gooseneck) and Flashing
CORRECT: B SMACNA HVAC Duct System
Design

this symbol means:
A. Sound Attenuator
B. Flexible Connection
C. Cowl (Gooseneck) and Flashing
D. Flexible Duct.
Design

this symbol means:
A. Flexible Connection
B. Sound Attenuator
C. Flexible Duct.
D. Terminal Unit
Design

this symbol means:
A. Terminal Unit, Mixing
B. Flexible Duct.
C. Flexible Connection
D. Terminal Unit, Reheat
Design

this symbol means:
A. Terminal Unit, Variable Volume
B. Terminal Unit, Mixing
C. Transition
CORRECT: D SMACNA HVAC Duct System
Design

this symbol means:
A. Terminal Unit, Mixing
B. Acoustical Lining
C. Terminal Unit, Variable Volume
Design

this symbol means:
A. Detectors, Fire / Smoke
B. Transition
C. Turning Vanes
D. Heater Duct, Electric
Design

this symbol means:
A. Vertical Position
B. Electric Operated Damper
C. Pneumatic Operated Damper
D. Fire Damper and Sleeve
Design

this symbol means:
A. Horizontal Position
B. Fire Damper and Sleeve
C. Vertical Position
D. Electric Operated Damper
Design

this symbol means:
A. Manual Volume
B. Fire Damper and Sleeve, Vertical Position
C. Fire Damper and Sleeve, Horizontal Position
D. Manual Splitter
Design

this symbol means:
A. Standard Branch Return, No Splitter
B. Smoke Damper
C. Standard Branch Supply, No Splitter
D. Heater, Duct, Electric
Design

this symbol means:
A. Standard Branch Return, No Splitter
B. Heater, Duct, Electric
C. Cowl (Gooseneck) and Flashing
D. Standard Branch Supply, No Splitter
Design

this symbol means:
A. Cowl (Gooseneck) and Flashing
B. Standard Branch Return, No Splitter
C. Standard Branch Supply, No Splitter
D. Heater, Duct, Electric
Design

this symbol means:
A. Return or Exhaust Grille
B. Supply Register
C. Supply Outlet Ceiling Round
D. Supply Outlet Ceiling Square
Design

this symbol means:
A. Terminal Unit
B. Supply Outlet Ceiling Round
C. Exhaust or Return Air Inlet Ceiling
D. Supply Outlet Ceiling Round
Design

this symbol means:
A. Supply Outlet Ceiling Square
B. Terminal Unit
C. Combination Diffuser and Light Fixture
D. Supply Outlet Ceiling Round
Design

this symbol means:
A. Door Grille
B. Fan & Motor with Belt Guard & Flexible
Connections
C. Combination Diffuser and Light Fixture
D. Sound Trap
Design

this symbol means:
A. Fan & Motor with Belt Guard & Flexible
Connections
B. Ventilating Unit
C. Sound Trap
D. Unit Heater (Downblast)
Design

this symbol means:
A. Unit Heater (Downblast)
B. Fan & Motor with Belt Guard & Flexible
Connections
C. Sound Trap
D. Ventilating Unit
Design

this symbol means:
A. Louvers and Screen
B. Power or Gravity Roof Ventilator-Exhaust
C. Unit Heater (Horizontal)
D. Thermostat
Design

this symbol means:
A. Power or Gravity Roof Ventilator-Louvered
B. Power or Gravity Roof Ventilator-Intake
C. Louvers and Screen
D. Power or Gravity Roof Ventilator-Exhaust
Design

this symbol means:
A. Power or Gravity Roof Ventilator-Exhaust
B. Louvers and Screen
C. Power or Gravity Roof Ventilator-Intake
D. Power or Gravity Roof Ventilator-Louvered
Design

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Understand that our materials may contain misprints, typos or an

2 A duct is carrying 1000 CFM. The friction loss per

3 In a duct which measures 18 x 12 inside, the velocity

Copyrighted by Greenview Enterprises 1997 - 2010 Page 1 of 276

5 With the friction per 100' of duct known, match this

6 Assume a required air volume of 5000 CFM, and, a

Copyrighted by Greenview Enterprises 1997 - 2010 Page 2 of 276

8 The least duct size allowed by the Trane Ductulator is:

9 Given: An industrial branch duct riser carrying 25,

Assuming the maximum velocity recommended by the

Copyrighted by Greenview Enterprises 1997 - 2010 Page 3 of 276

11 Deflection of the duct board relative to a flat position

12 The minimum width of pressure sensitive tape for 1

Copyrighted by Greenview Enterprises 1997 - 2010 Page 4 of 276

14 __ are the three methods for setting up cutting tools in

15 The principle of MDC is based on the use of __ inch

Copyrighted by Greenview Enterprises 1997 - 2010 Page 5 of 276

17 ___ tools are normally required to fabricate straight

18 When fabricating fittings from modules or flat board,

Copyrighted by Greenview Enterprises 1997 - 2010 Page 6 of 276

20 __ sided fibrous glass duct is approximately round din

Copyrighted by Greenview Enterprises 1997 - 2010 Page 7 of 276

23 For 2 inch duct board, you must use __ inch wide,

24 Referring to the insulated collar method of flexible

Copyrighted by Greenview Enterprises 1997 - 2010 Page 8 of 276

26 The number of tie rods required for an L angle length

27 You may use __ reinforcement method for fibrous

Copyrighted by Greenview Enterprises 1997 - 2010 Page 9 of 276

29 The __ is not be used on sloped panels of fittings.

30 You are permitted to reuse locking caps.

Copyrighted by Greenview Enterprises 1997 - 2010 Page 10 of 276

32 Straps or saddles in contact with hanging 10 sided and

33 The maximum permissible sag in hanging and

Copyrighted by Greenview Enterprises 1997 - 2010 Page 11 of 276

35 If damage extends into the insulation and to within __

36 Figure 2-4A shows that the __ is considered the

Copyrighted by Greenview Enterprises 1997 - 2010 Page 12 of 276

38 According to Figure 3-28A, sheet metal tap

39 Figure 3-2C shows __.

Copyrighted by Greenview Enterprises 1997 - 2010 Page 13 of 276

41 Figure 6-3B shows the use of __ inch wide hanger

42 The International Gas Code does not apply to ___.

Copyrighted by Greenview Enterprises 1997 - 2010 Page 14 of 276

44 Generally, the International Gas Code shall not

45 Additions, alterations, repairs and renovations to

Copyrighted by Greenview Enterprises 1997 - 2010 Page 15 of 276

47 New work in moved buildings within the jurisdiction

48 The Code official ___.

Copyrighted by Greenview Enterprises 1997 - 2010 Page 16 of 276

50 A Code official, while acting and discharging his

51 It is the duty of the Code official to ___.

Copyrighted by Greenview Enterprises 1997 - 2010 Page 17 of 276

53 Construction documents, engineering data and

54 It is the duty of the __ to review an application,

Copyrighted by Greenview Enterprises 1997 - 2010 Page 18 of 276

56 Work which proceeds before a permit is issued ___.

57 The Code official shall not authorize the refunding of

Copyrighted by Greenview Enterprises 1997 - 2010 Page 19 of 276

59 A person shall have the right to appeal a decision of

60 A Board of Appeals shall consist of __ members,

Copyrighted by Greenview Enterprises 1997 - 2010 Page 20 of 276

62 A low heat appliance produces flue gasses at