Reasoning Model paper For Food 9. Select the correct option in place of the Directions—(Q.

18 to 23) Three of the

Corporation of India FCI Management question mark. following four are alike in a certain way and
Trainee (General/Depot) exam AOP, CQR, EST, GUV, ? so form a group. Which is the one that does
(A) IYZ not belong to that group?
(B) HWX
Reasoning Model paper For Food
(C) IWX
Corporation of India FCI Management 18. (A) Green
(D) JWX
Trainee (General/Depot) exam (B) Red
Ans. (C)
Test of Reasoning: Sample Question paper (C) Colour
For FCI MT Exam (D) Orange
FCI Management Trainee Recruitment 10. What should come in the place of Ans. (C)
practice paper question mark in the following series?
1. What should come in the place of (?) in 1, 4, 9, 25, 36, ?
19. (A) Rabbit
the given series? (A) 48
(B) Crocodile
ACE, FGH, ?, PON (C) 52
(C) Earthworm
(A) KKK (B) 49
(D) Snail
(B) JKI (D) 56
Ans. (A)
(C) HJH Ans. (B)
(D) IKL
Ans. (A) 20. (A) Polo
Directions—(Q. 11 to 14): Select the one
(B) Chess
which is different from the other three.
(C) Ludo
2. Typist : Typewriter : : Writer: ? 11. (A) Bokaro
(D) Carrom
(A) Script (B) Jamshedpur
Ans. (A)
(B) Pen (C) Bhilai
(C) Paper (D) Agra
(D) Book Ans. (D) 21. (A) Sun
Ans. (B) (B) Universe
(C) Moon
12. (A) January
(D) Star
3. Paint: Artist : : Wood: ? (B) February
Ans. (B)
(A) Furniture (C) July
(B) Forest (D) December
(C) Fire Ans. (B) 22. (A) Cheese
(D) Carpenter (B) Milk
Ans. (D) (C) Curd
13. (A) Bible
(D) Ghee
(B) Panchsheel
Ans. (B)
4. acme : mace :: alga: ? (C) Geeta
(A) glaa (D) Quran
(B) gaal Ans. (B) 23. (A) Carrot
(C) laga (B) Radish
(D) gala (C) Potato
14. (A) Star
Ans. (D) (D) Brinjal
(B) Sun
Ans. (D)
(C) Sky
5. EIGHTY : GIEYTH : : OUTPUT:? (D) Moon
(A) UTOPTU Ans. (C) 24. In a certain code ‘CONTRIBUTOR’ is
(B) UOTUPT written as ‘RTNOCIROTUB’. How is
(C) TUOUTP ‘prohibition’ written in that code?
Directions—(Q. 15 to 17): based on
(D) TUOTUP (A) NOITIBIHORP
alphabets.
Ans. (D) (B) IHORPBITION
(C) ITIONBIHOTP
15. If the sequence of the alphabets is (D) IHORPBNOITI
6. ‘Medicine’ is related to ‘Patient’ in the
reversed which of the following would be Ans. (D)
same way as ‘Education’ is related to—
the 14th letter from your left?
(A) Teacher
(A) N
(B) School 25. If ‘CAT’ and ‘BOAT’ are written as
(B) L
(C) Student XZG and ‘YLZG’ respectively in a code
(C) O
(D) Tuition language how is ‘EGG’ to be written in the
(D) None of these
Ans. (C) same language?
Ans. (D)
(A) VSS
(B) URR
7. Fill in the missing letter in the following
16. Which letter is the 8th letter to the right (C) VTT
series—
of the letter, which is 12th from the left? (D) UTF
S, V, Y, B, ?
(A) V Ans. (C)
(A) C
(B) T
(B) D
(C) W
(C) E 26. In a code language SINGER is written as
(D) Y
(D)G AIBCED then GINGER will be written in
Ans. (B)
Ans. (C) the same code as—
(A) CBIECD
17. Which letter is the 8th letter to the right (B) CIBCED
8. What should come in the place of question
of the letter which is 10th to the left of the (C) CBICED
mark in the following series?
last but one letter from the right? (D) CIBECD
3, 8, 6, 14, ?, 20
(A) V Ans. (B)
(A) 11
(B) X
(B) 10
(C) W
(C) 8 27. If BAT is coded as 283, CAT is coded as
(D) I
(D) 9 383 and ARE is coded as 801, then the code
Ans. (C)
Ans. (D) for BETTER is—
(A) 213310
(B) 213301 daughter. What is the relationship between (C) Three
(C) 123301 Amit and Billoo? (D) Four
(D) 012334 (A) Uncle—Nephew Ans. (C)
Ans. (A) (B) Father—Daughter
(C) Father—Son
41. If EARTHQUAKE is coded as
(D) Grandfather—Grandson
28. If water is called black, black is called MOGPENJOSM then EQUATE will be
Ans. (C)
tree, tree is called blue, blue is called rain, coded as—
rain is called pink and pink is called fish in a (A) MENOPM
certain language then what is the colour of 35. An application was received by inward (B) MENOMP
sky called in that language? clerk in the afternoon of a weekday. Next (C) NJOGPM
(A) Blue day he forwarded it to the table of the senior (D) MNJOPM
(B) Fish clerk, who was on leave that day. The senior Ans. (D)
(C) Rain clerk next day evening put up the application 42. If COUNTRY is coded in certain way as
(D) Pink to the desk officer. Desk officer studied the EMWLVPA, ELECTORATE will be coded
Ans. (C) application and disposed off the matter on in the same manner as—
the same day, i.e., Friday. Which day the (A) CJCEFQPYWC
application was received by the inward (B) CJGERQTYVG
29. A man walks 3 km northwards and then
clerk? (C) CNCERQPCRG
turns left and goes 2 km. He again turns left
(A) Tuesday (D) GJGAVMTYVC
and goes 3 km. He turns right and walks
(B) Earlier week’s Saturday Ans. (D)
straight. In which direction he is walking
(C) Wednesday
now?
(D) Monday
(A) East 43. ‘Air’ is to ‘Bird’ as ‘Water’ is to ……..
Ans. (C)
(B) West (A) Drink
(C) North (B) Fish
(D) South 36. Flight to Mumbai leaves every 5 hours. (C) Wash
Ans. (B) At the information counter I learnt that the (D) Swim
flight took off 25 minutes before. If the time Ans. (B)
now is 10 : 45 a.m., what is the time for the
30. One morning after sunrise Vikram and
next flight?
Shailesh were standing in a lawn with their 44. ‘Pencil’ is to ‘Write’ as ‘Knife’ is to
(A) 2 : 20 a.m.
back towards each other. Vikram’s shadow ………
(B) 3 : 30 a.m.
fell exactly towards left-hand side. Which (A) Injure
(C) 3 : 55 p.m.
direction Shailesh was facing? (B) Peel
(D) 3 : 20 p.m.
(A) East (C) Prick
Ans. (D)
(B) West (D) Attack
(C) North Ans. (B)
(D) South 37. Babloo ranked 16th from the top and
Ans. (D) 29th from the bottom among those who
45. Mohan is 18th from either end of a row
passed an examination. 6 boys did not
of boys ? How many boys are there in that
participate in the competition and 5 failed in
31. Nageena is taller than Pushpa but not as row?
the examination. How many boys were there
tall as Manish. Rama is taller than Namita (A) 26
in the class?
but not as tall as Pushpa. Who among them (B) 32
(A) 44
is the tallest? (C) 24
(B) 40
(D) 35
(C) 50
Ans. (D)
(A) Manish (D) 55
(B) Pushpa Ans. (D)
(C) Namita 46. In a class of 60 where boys are twice that
(D) Nageena of girls, Ramya ranked 17th from the top. If
38. Indra is 7th from the left and Jaya is 5th
Ans. (A) there are 9 boys ahead of Ramya, how many
from the right. When they interchange their
girls are after her in the rank?
position Jaya becomes 19th from the right.
(A) 26
32. In an examination Raj got more marks What is Indra’s position from the left?
(B) 12
than Moti but not as many as Meena. Meena (A) 21st
(C) 10
got more marks than Ganesh and Rupali. (B) 19th
(D) 33
Ganesh got less marks than Moti but his (C) 23rd
Ans. (B)
marks are not the lowest in the group. Who (D) 20th
is second in the descending order of marks? Ans. (D)
(A) Meena 47. ‘Soldier’ is related to ‘Army’ in the same
(B) Rupali way as ‘Pupil’ is related to …….
39. How many 5’s are in the following
(C) Raj (A) Education
sequence of numbers which are immediately
(D) None of these (B) Teacher
preceded by 7?
Ans. (C) (C) Student
895325385568733577536533
(D) Class
5738
Ans. (D)
33. Pointing to a photograph of a girl, Rajan (A) One
said “She has no sister or daughter but her (B) Two
mother is the only daughter of my mother.” (C) Three 48. ‘Kilogram’ is related to ‘Quintal’ in the
How is the girl in the photograph related (D) Four same way as ‘Paisa’ is related to………
with Rajan’s mother? Ans. (A) (A) Coin
(A) Sister in law (B) Money
(B) Grand daughter (C) Cheque
40. How many 8’s are there in the following
(C) Daughter in law (D) Rupee
sequence which are immediately preceded by
(D) None of these Ans. (D)
6 but not immediately followed by 5?
Ans. (B)
685785436819854682968136
8536 49. ‘Stammering’ is to ‘Speech’ as Deafness
34. If Amit’ s father is Billoo’ s father’s only (A) One is to …………
son and Billoo has neither a brother nor a (B) Two (A) Ear
(B) Hearing 7. If the rate of gross profit for department X 15. A and B shared profit in the ratio of 3 : 2
(C) Noise is 25% of cost, the amount of gross profit on C was admitted as a partner for 1/5th share.
(D) Commotion sales of Rs. 100000 will be-— He acquires 3/20th from A and 1/20th from
Ans. (B) (A) Rs. 16667 B. The new profit sharing ratio would be—
(B) Rs. 20000 (A) 10:6:4
(C) Rs. 25000 (B) 6:10:4
50. ‘Guilt’ is to ‘Past’ as ‘Hope’ is to
(D) Rs. 33333 (C) 8:8:4
…………
Ans. (B) (D) 9:7:4
(A) Present
Ans. (D)
(B) Future
(C) Today 8. Provision for bad debts of a foreign
(D) Hopeless branch is converted at— 16. Goodwill of a firm of A and B is valued
Ans. (B) (A) Opening rate of exchange at Rs. 60000. Goodwill appears in the books
(B) Closing rate of exchange at Rs. 24000. C is admitted for 1/4th share.
(C) Average rate of exchange He will be required to bring for goodwill—
FCI General Accounting and Finance
(D) Rate applicable to debtors (A) Rs.21000
Sample Solved Questions Model Paper
Ans. (B) (B) Rs.9000
MT (Accounts).
(C) Rs. 15000
(D) Rs. 6000
9. If goods are transferred from ‘X’
FCI General Accounting and Finance Ans. (D)
department to ‘Y’ department at cost +25%,
Sample Solved Questions Model Paper MT
the amount of stock reserve on closing stock
(Accounts).
of Rs. 20000 in ‘Y’ department will be— 17. A plant worth Rs. 800000 has been
FCI Food Corporation of India test for MT
(A) Rs. 4000 insured for Rs. 600000. The loss on account
(Accounts) consists of 90 questions on
(B) Rs. 5000 of fire is Rs. 500000. The insurance
General Accounting and Finance.
(C) Rs. 6000 company under average clause will bear the
FCI MT accounts practice paper
(D) Rs. 3333 loss to extent of—
Ans. (A) (A) Rs. 500000
1. According to the concept of conservation, (C) Rs. 800000
the stock in trade is valued at— (B) Rs.600000
10. If out of the bills of Rs. 10000
(A) Cost price (D) Rs. 375000
discounted by the insolvent bills of Rs. 4000
(B) Market price Ans. (A)
are likely be dishonoured, unsecured
(C) Cost or market price which ever is higher
creditors will include in respect of them an
(D) Cost or market price which ever is lower
amount of— 18. It is not an item of Income with reference
Ans. (D)
(A) Rs. 10000 to a voyage a/c—
(B) Rs.6000 (A) Passage money
2. The concept of conservation will have the (C) Rs. 4000 (B) Freight
effect of— (D) None of the above (C) Primage
(A) Over statement of assets Ans. (C) (D) Address commission
(B) Understatement of assets Ans. (D)
(C) Understatement of liabilities
11. Partnership firm engaged in banking
(D) Understatement of provision for bad and
business can have maximum— 19. The formats of the profit and loss
doubtful debts
(A) 5 partners account and Balance sheet in the case of a
Ans. (B)
(B) 10 partners banking company have been revised w.e.f.—
(C) 20 partners (A) 1st April 1949
3. Non-financial information is not recorded (D) Any number of partners (B) 1st April 1991
in accounts due to— Ans. (B) (C) 1st April 1992
(A) Accrual concept (D) 1st April 1956
(B) Entity concept Ans. (C)
12. Suppose, the partnership deed provides
(C) Dual aspect concept
for a salary of Rs. 5000 p.m. to partner ‘X’.
(D) Money measurement concept
If ‘X’ withdraws only Rs. 3000 in a month, 20. If accured outstanding premium is given
Ans. (D)
the remaining Rs. 2000 will be— in the trial balance of a general insurance
(A) Debited to his capital a/c company, then it will be shown in—
4. Balance in ‘Nazrana’s a/c’ in the books of (B) Credited to his drawing a/c (A) Revenue Account
lessee is shown in— (C) Credited to his current a/c (B) Balance Sheet
(A) Landlords a/c (D) Credited to P & L adjustment a/c (C) Both revenue Account & Balance Sheet
(B) P&L a/c Ans. (A) (D) None of the above
(C) Balance sheet assets side Ans. (B)
(D) Balance sheet liabilities side
13. In absence of any provisions in the
Ans. (C)
partnership agreement, partners can charge 21. Inventory is valued at lower of the cost
on the loans given by them to the firm— or net realisable value on account of the
5. The hire-buyer charges depreciation on— (A) Interest at 6% p.a. accounting principle of—
(A) Cash price of the asset (B) Interest at 12% p.a. (A) Realisation
(B) Hire purchase price of the asset (C) Interest at 15% p.a. (B) Consistency
(C) Higher of the two (D) No interest (C) Conservatism
(D) Lower of the two Ans. (A) (D) None of the above
Ans. (A) Ans. (A)
14. A, B and C are partners sharing profits
6. In hire-purchase system, hire-buyer can and losses in the ratio 4 : 3 : 2 D is admitted 22. In the period of rising prices, LIFO
maintain his accounts under— for 1/10th share, the new ratio will be— method may result in—
(A) Asset accrued method (A) 4 : 4 : 3 : 2 (A) Lowering the profit
(B) Total cash price method (B) 4: 3 : 2: 1 (B) Raising the profit
(C) Any of the two methods (C) 5 : 4 : 3 : 2 (C) Raising the tax liability
(D) None of these (D) None of the above (D) None of the above
Ans. (C) Ans. (B) Ans. (B)
23. Given, 31. Which of the following acid test ratio can (D) All of the above
Total assets turnover 4 be said to be satisfactory? Ans. (D)
Net Profits 10% (A) 2: 1
Total Assets Rs. 50000 (C) 1: 1
40. A person at anyone time can not be
Net profit will be— (B) 1: 2
DIRECT of more than—
(A) Rs. 15000 (D) None of these
(A) 1 Company
(B) Rs. 10000 Ans. (C)
(B) 7 Companies
(C) Rs. 25000
(C) 15 Companies
(D) Rs.20000
32. The two factor theory of motivation was (D) 20 Companies
Ans. (D)
propounded by— Ans. (C)
(A) Peter Drucker
24. A company auditor addresses his audit (B) Herzberg
41. Certificate of commencement of business
report to- (C) McGregor
is not required by a—
(A) Board of directors (D) Maslow
(A) Public company
(B) Members Ans. (B)
(B) Any type of company
(C) Managing director
(C) Private company
(D) Company secretary
33. Which of the following leadership styles (D) Private company subsidiary to a public
Ans. (B)
is most commonly found now a day? company
(A) Autocratic Ans. (C)
25. Bonus shares means shares issued to— (B) Democratic
(A) Workers (C) Free rein
42. Henry Fayol is known for—
(B) Existing equity shareholders (D) Participative
(A) Scientific management
(C) Preferential shareholders in lieu of Ans. (B)
(B) Rationalisation
dividend
(C) Industrial psychology
(D) Debenture holders in lieu of interest
34. Deciding in advance what is to be done (D) Principles of managements
Ans. (B)
in future is called— Ans. (D)
(A) Management
26. Which of the following does not call for (B) Coordination
43. The principle of unity of command’
physical verification? (C) Planning
implies—
(A) Stock (D) Decision-making
(A) Unity of thought and action
(B) Plant Ans. (C)
(B) Unity amongst subordinates
(C) Loose tools
(C) Instructions from staff authority
(D) Goodwill
35. The organisation structure where there is (D) Instructions from line authority
Ans. (D)
direct vertical relationship is called— Ans. (D)
(A) Line organisation
27. Cash from operations is equal to— (B) Chain organisation
44. A company has equity capital of Rs.
(A) Net profit + increase in current assets (C) Command organisation
200000. Preference capital of Rs. 100000,
(B) Net profit + decrease in current liabilities (D) All the above
12% debentures of Rs. 100000, long term
(C) Profit from operation ± Adjustment of Ans. (D)
loan of Rs. 200000 and short term loan of
increase and decrease in current assets and
Rs. 100000. The capital gearing ratio will be
liabilities
36. When managers devote their attention —
(D) Fund from operation ± Adjustment of
only to those events where results are highly (A) 1:1
increase and decrease in current assets and
deviated from normal; ft is called— (B) 0.5: 1
current liabilities
(A) Management by objective (C) 0.4: 1
Ans. (C)
(B) Management by exception (D) None of the above
(C) Management by crisis Ans. (C)
28. Average profit of a firm is Rs. 9000 (D) Management by choice
Firm’s capital is Rs. 60000 and normal Ans. (B)
45. In case of a company, total assets less
return on business is expected at 10%. The
outside liabilities is called—
goodwill by capitalisation method will be-
37. Under delegation of authority— (A) Net working capital
(A) Rs. 30000
(A) Authority is given to subordinates (B) Gross working capital
(B) Rs. 20000
(B) Authority flows from top to bottom (C) Deferred liabilities
(C) Rs. 25000
(C) Delegator of authority is not received of (D) Net worth
(D) Rs. 40000
accountability Ans. (D)
Ans. (A)
(D) All the above happens
Ans. (D)
46. If opening sales is Rs. 10000 purchases
29. Which of the following is not a current
Rs. 30000 direct expenses Rs. 4000 and
liability?
38. The process of determining by closing stock Rs. 5000 the costs of goods is
(A) Bank overdraft
observation and study and reporting sold would be—
(B) Redeemable debentures
pertinent information relating to the nature of (A) Rs. 39000
(C) Account payable
specific job is called— (B) Rs. 40000
(D) Provision for bad debts
(A) Job specification (C) Rs.41000
Ans. (B)
(B) Job evaluation (D) Rs. 44000
(C) Job analysis Ans. (A)
30. Amount of under writing commission (D) Job description
payable on the issue of debentures is limited Ans. (C)
47. Premium on issue of shares is shown in
to—
balance sheet as—
(A) 2%
39. In case of a private company— (A) An asset
(B) 2.5%
(A) There is restriction on the right to (B) A liability
(C) 3%
transfer of shares (C) An expense
(D) 5%
(B) The number of members is restricted (D) A revenue
Ans. (B)
(C) Invitation to public for the subscription Ans. (B)
of shares is prohibited
48. Which of the following is known as (D) Fire insurance 65. If current ratio is 25, quick ratio (1) 5 and
‘backbone of auditing’? Ans. (C) net working capital Rs. 15000. This value of
(A) Verification of assets inventory will be—
(B) Internal check (A) Rs. 10000
57. Over capitalisation refer to—
(C) Vouching (B) Rs. 15000
(A) Excess of capital
(D) Internal audit (C) Rs. 37500
(B) Excess rate of dividend payment, on
Ans. (C) (D) Rs. 52500
shares
Ans. (A)
(C) Over estimation of rate of capitalisation
49. A limited company? 100 shares of Rs. (D) Raising more capital than is warranted
10/- cash fully called up on which Rs. 4/- per by its earning power 66. Unclaimed dividend is shown on the
share was paid up. The company reissued 50 Ans. (D) liability side of the balance sheet under the
shares at the rates of Rs. 8/- each. The heading—
amount transferred to capital reserve will be (A) Revenue and surplus
58. Motivation refers to—
— (B) Provisions
(A) Coordinate the people
(A) Rs. 500 (C) Current liabilities
(B) Guide the working people
(B) Rs.200 (D) Miscellaneous items
(C) Terrorise the people
(C) Rs. 250 Ans. (C)
(D) Inducing people to work willing by
(D) Rs. 100
Ans. (D)
Ans. (D)
67. Accounting standards in India are
prescribed by—
59. Which of the following is not a barrier in
50. Sale of long term investments indicates (A) Company Law Board
communication—
— (B) Institute of charted accountants of India
(A) Fear and distrust
(A) A change in current assets (C) Institute of coat and works accountants
(B) Affection
(B) Application of funds of India
(C) Perception
(C) Increase in working capital (D) Indian standard Board
(D) Noise
(D) Source of funds Ans. (B)
Ans. (B)
Ans. (D)
68. Which of the following is not correct—
60. “Management is an art of getting things
51. Net working capital refers to— (A) Purchase + Opening stock—Cost of
done through and with formally organised
(A) Current assets goods sold = Closing stock
group.” This definition has been by—
(B) Current assets minus current liabilities (B) Opening stock + Purchases — Closing
(A) Peter Drucker
(C) Equity share capital minus fixed assets stock = Cost of goods sold
(B) Henry Fayol
(D) Retired earnings. (C) Closing stock + Cost of goods sold —
(C) Harod Koontz
Ans. (B) Purchases = Opening stock
(D) F. W. Taylor
(D) Cost of goods sold — Closing stock +
Ans. (C)
Purchases = Opening stock
52. If sales Rs. 6000 gross profit is 1/3 on
Ans. (D)
cost, purchases are R. 4900 and the closing
61. Foreign exchange for import of goods is
stock is Rs. 900, the opening stock will be—
sanctioned by—
(A) Rs.400 69. A company bought assets worth Rs.
(A) Exim Bank
(B) Rs.500 360000 and in lieu issued debentures of Rs.
(B) Reserve Bank of India
(C) Rs. 1100 100 each at a discount of 10%. The number
(C) State Bank
(D) Rs. 2000 of debentures issued will be—
(D) Ministry of commerce
Ans. (B) (A) 3000
Ans. (B)
(B) 3600
(C) 3960
53. The primary objective of audit is—
62. The cost of a machine having a span of (D) 400
(A) Detection and prevention of frauds
life of 5 years is Rs. 10000. It has a scrap Ans. (D)
(B) Detection and prevention of errors
value of Rs. 1000. The amount of
(C) Detection of frauds and errors
depreciation in the first year under the sum
(D) To ensure the final accounts and 70. A person got insured his goods worth Rs.
of year’s digit method will be—
statements exhibit true and fair position of 10000 for Rs. 80QO against fire. Loss by fire
(A) Rs. 1600
business to him was Rs. 9000. He can claim—
(B) Rs. 1800
Ans. (D) (A) Rs. 8000
(C) Rs. 2000
(B) Rs. 9000
(D) Rs. 3000
(C) Rs. 10000
54. ‘An auditor is a watch dog and not a Ans. (D)
(D) Rs. 7200
blood hound’. This was observed in case of
Ans. (D)
— (A) London oil storage company
63. Given:
(B) Kingston cotton Mills Limited
Gross profit Rs. 60000
(C) London General Bank 71. The data obtained from a newspaper are
Gross profit ratio: 20%
(D) Delightful Cigarette Company Ltd. —
Debtor’s velocity 2 months
Ans. (B) (A) Primary data
The amount of debtors will be—
(B) Secondary data
(A) Rs. 30000
(C) Both (A) and (B)
55. If two or more sugar mills combine (B) Rs. 50000
(D) None of these
together, it is known— (C) Rs. 120000
Ans. (B)
(A) Horizontal combination (D) Rs.200000
(B) Vertical combination Ans. (B)
(C) Lateral combination 72. Current Ratio of a firm is 3: 1 and
(D) None of the above working capital is Rs. 60000. What will be
64. Premium on issue of shares can be used
Ans. (A) the amount of current Assets—
for—
(A) Rs. 30000
(A) Issue of Bonus shares
(B) Rs90000
56. Surrender value is related to— (B) Payment of Dividends
(C) Rs. 120000
(A) Marine insurance (C) Payment of operating expenses
(D) Rs. 180000
(B) General insurance (D) Redemption of debentures
Ans. (B)
(C) Life insurance Ans. (A)
73. The income from that house property is 81. A, B and C are partners in a firm. If D is 88. Depreciation is allowed on—
taxable under the head “Income from House to be admitted to the firm as a new partner— (A) Tangible Assets
property”. (A) Old firm has to be dissolved (B) Current Assets
(A) The assessee has ownership on that (B) Old partnership has to be dissolved (C) Fixed Assets
house (C) Both the old firm and the old partnership (D) Intangible Assets
(B) The assessee uses that house for his have to be dissolved Ans. (C)
business (D) No need to dissolve either firm or the
(C) The assessee himself lives in that house partnership
89. When shares are forfeited, the share
(D) The assessee has let out that house on Ans. (D)
capital account is debited by—
rent for residence
(A) Nominal value of forfeited shares
Ans. (A)
82. Remington sold one typewriter to (B) Paid up amount of forfeited shares
Ramesh Chandra under installment purchase (C) Called up amount on forfeited shares
74. Following is the deduction in respect of system on 1st January 1996, payment for (D) Forfeited amount of shares
repair under the head of income from house which was to be made as under— Ans. (C)
property— On 01.01.1996 - Rs. 3000
(A) 25% of Annual Value On 31.12.1996 - Rs. 1700
90. The term ‘POIM’ for the four functions
(B) 30% of Net Annual Value On 31.12.1997 - Rs. 3600
of management. Planning, organisation,
(C) 1/5 of Annual Value On 31.12.1998 - Rs. 2300
integration and measuring was given by.—
(D) 1/5 of Net Annual Value On 31.12.1999 - Rs. 1100
(A) F.W. Taylor
Ans. (B) Interest at 10% p.a. is included in each
(B) Harold Smiddy
installment. The total interest charged
(C) Tanon Brown
amount to-
75. Single entry system can not be (D) Peter F. Drucker
(A) Rs.2100
maintained by— Ans. (B)
(B) Rs. 1950
(A) Sole proprietorship
(C) Rs. 1800
(B) Partnership concerns
(D) Rs. 1700 syllabus & GK Sample question paper
(C) Joint stock company
Ans. (B) Management Trainee (General/Depot)
(D) All of these
exam FCI
Ans. (D)
83. The liquidator of a company is entit1edio
a remuneration of 2% on assets realised, and syllabus & GK Sample question paper
76. Cash account will not be affected by—
3% on the amount distributed to unsecured Management Trainee (General/Depot) exam
(A) Cash paid to creditors
creditors. The assets realised Rs. 100000 FCI
(B) Discount received
including cash balance of Rs. 3000. Amount syllabus
(C) Cash sales
available for distribution to unsecured The selection process will be sconsisting of
(D) Cash received from debtors
creditors before paying liquidators written test, group discussion (GD)and
Ans. (B)
remui4eration was Rs. 46350 liquidator’s interview.
remuneration will be— written test will comprise of 90 multiple
77. Maximum standard Deduction for (A) Rs.3100 choice question of general aptitude
employees getting gross salary not more than (C) Rs. 3290 consisting of
Rs. (B) Rs.3140 Reasoning,
100000 is allowed— (D) Rs. 3350 Data Analysis,
(A) Rs. 20000 Ans. (C) Computer Awareness,
(B) Rs. 25000 General Awareness,
(C) Rs. 30000 Management and Current Affairs for the post
84. EXIM Bank was established on—
(D) Rs. 33000 of ManagementTrainees
(A) 1st Dec 1984
Ans. (C) (Genl./Depot/Movt.)
(B) 1st June 1985
90 multiple choice questions on General
(C) 1st Jan 1982
Accounting and Finance for candidates
78. Tax audit is compulsory in case of a (D) 1st July 1980
applying for MT (Accounts).
person carrying on business whose gross Ans. (C)
receipt) turnover/sales and exceeds—
(A) Rs. 50 Lakhs Sample Paper General Awareness
85. For capital gain being long term capital
(B) Rs. 40 Lakhs 1. Who of the following brought the Sikh
gain, an assessee should retain the assets for
(C) Rs. l0 Lakhs Kingdom of Punjab under direct British rule
a period of—
(D) Rs. 25 Lakhs by an official proclamation?
(A) 40 months
Ans. (B) (A) Lord Hastings
(B) 36 months
(B) Lord Cornwallis
(C) More than 36 months
(C) Lord Minto
79. Mr. Rastogi of Meerut was declared (D) Less than 36 months
(D) Lord Dalhousie
insolvent. One of his liabilities related to one Ans. (C)
Ans. (D)
months rent due to his landlord. This liability
will be treated as—
86. The salary received by a member of
(A) Preferential Creditor 2. India is comparatively not rich in which
parliament is—
(B) Partly Secured Creditor one of the following minerals compared to
(A) Exempt from Tax
(C) Fully Secured Creditor the other three?
(B) Taxable under the head of salary
(D) Unsecured Creditor (A) Bauxite
(C) Taxable under the head of other sources
Ans. (A) (B) Copper
(D) Taxable under the lead of business
(C) Iron
Ans. (C)
(D) Manganese
80. When two or more companies liquidate
Ans. (B)
to form a new company. It is called—
87. For the purpose of income tax it is
(A) Amalgamation
necessary for agriculture income that—
(B) Absorption 3. Among the following, which one has
(A) Land should be used for agricultural
(C) Reconstruction recorded the highest population growth rate
activities
(D) Purchase of Business during 1991-2001?
(B) Land should be used for godown
Ans. (A) (A) Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Land should be used for irrigation
(B) Manipur
(D) None of above
(C) Nagaland
Ans. (A)
(D) Sikkim (A) Capitalism (D) Milinda — Kanishka — Ashoka
Ans. (C) (B) Liberalism Ans. (C)
(C) Fascism
(D) Marxism
4. In which one of the following regions 20. Which one of the following is not a
Ans. (D)
does the Indus river originate? disease caused by virus?
(A) Laddakh (A) Bird-flu
(B) Lahaul 13. What is ‘Look East Policy’ often in the (B) Chickenpox
(C) Nepal news? (C) Cholera
(D) Tibet (A) Government of India’s initiative for the (D) Dengue
Ans. (A) infrastructural development in the North Ans. (C)
Eastern States
(B) India’s search for oil and gas in its
5. What is the term used to denote the 21. In terms of the evolution of organisms,
Eastern shoreline
temperature at which the water vapour which one among the following is the most
(C) India’s collaboration with some East
present in the atmosphere is sufficient to advanced?
Asian countries in the exploration of oil and
saturate? (A) Bat
gas
(A) Condensation point (C) Shark
(D) India’s continuing pursuit of close
(B) Dew point (B) Pigeon
relations with South-East Asian countries
(C) Sublimation point (D) Vulture
Ans. (D)
(D) Saturation point Ans. (A)
Ans. (D)
14. Who of the following published a famous
22. Which one of the following is not a
pamphlet known as ‘Right of Mass’ and
6. The earth’s reflectivity of solar radiation, genetic disorder?
urged the people in England, America and
termed albedo, is highest in which one of the (A) Colour blindness
France to fight for their liberty ?
following? (B) Down’s syndrome
(A) Thomas Jefferson
(A) Cropland (C) Hemophilia
(B) Thomas Paine
(B) Forest area (D) Xerophthalmia
(C) John Locke
(C) Sand desert Ans. (D)
(D) Jean Jacques Rousseau
(D) Snow area
Ans. (B)
Ans. (D)
23. Which one of the following is an
enzyme?
15. Who of the following invented the cotton
7. Who of the following wrote the book (A) Gastrin
gin that separates the seeds from cotton three
Precepts of Jesus? (B) Keratin
hundred times faster than by hand?
(A) Raja Rammohan Roy (C) Trypsin
(A) Eli Whitney
(B) Devendranath Tagore (D) Vasopressin
(B) George Stephenson
(C) Ishwarchandra Vidyasagar Ans. (C)
(C) McAdam
(D) Keshab Chandra Sen
(D) James Watt
Ans. (A)
Ans. (A) 24. In human body, which one of the
following secretes hormones as well as
8. Who for the first time saw bacteria digestive enzymes ?
16. Whose duty is it to recommend to the
through a microscope made by himself? (A) Oesophagus
President of India on the issue of the
(A) Anton van Leeuwenhoek (B) Pancreas
distribution and allocation of the net
(B) Louis Pasteur (C) Spleen
proceeds of taxes in the context of Centre
(C) Robert Hooke (D) Large intestine
State fiscal relations ?
(D) Robert Virchow Ans. (B)
(A) Planning Commission
Ans. (A)
(B) National Development Council
(C) Union Ministry of Finance 25. In the human body, which of the
9. Which of the following contain enzymes (D) Finance Commission following store / stores extra blood for
for cellular respiration? Ans. (D) release when
(A) Dictyosomes shortages occur?
(B) Endoplasmic reticula (A) Liver
17. In the Union Government, under whose
(C) Lysosomes (B) Pancreas
charge is the Cabinet Secretariat?
(D) Mitochondria (C) Spleen
(A) The Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
Ans. (D) (D) Lymph nodes
(B) The President of India
Ans. (C)
(C) The Prime Minister of India
10. To which of the following types of (D) The Union Home Minister
animals are Salamanders closely related ? Ans. (C) 26. A bullet travelling horizontally hits a
(A) Dolphins and Whales block kept at rest on a horizontal surface and
(B) Frogs and Toads gets embedded into it, the two together then
18. Which Five-Year Plan had an objective
(C) Prawns and Crabs move with a uniform velocity. Which one of
of “Rapid Industrialization with particular
(D) Seals and Walruses the following conservation laws holds?
emphasis on development of basic and heavy
Ans. (B) (A) Conservation of angular momentum
industries”?
(B) Conservation of kinetic energy
(A) First
(C) Conservation of linear momentum
11. Which one of the following statements is (C) Third
(D) Conservation of velocity
correct? (B) Second
Ans. (C)
A seed is a ripened — (D) Fourth
(A) ovary Ans. (B)
(B) flower 27. Which one of the following is correct?
(C) gynoecium A negatively charged glass rod has always—
19. Which one of the following is the correct
(D) ovule (A) less electrons than protons
chronological order of the given rulers of
Ans. (D) (B) less electrons than neutrons
ancient India?
(C) less protons than electrons
(A) Ashoka — Kanishka — Milinda
(D) less neutrons than protons
12. Historical materialism is a tenet of which (B) Milinda — Ashoka — Kanishka
Ans. (C)
one of the following political theories ? (C) Ashoka — Milinda — Kanishka
28. Who among the following was sent by 37. The Civil Disobedience Movement 46. The breadth of the railway broad gauge
Lord Harding’s to South Africa to plead the started with which of the following? is approximately—
cause of Indians led by the young Gandhi? (A) No-tax campaign in Bardoli district (A) 1.67m
(A) B. G. Tilak (B) Demonstration of Akali Sikhs at Nabha (B) 1.33m
(B) G. K. Gokhale (C) Demonstration against the Simon (C) 2.00m
(C) M. G. Ranade Commission (D) 1.83m
(D) Motilal Nehru (D) Dandi March Ans. (A)
Ans. (B) Ans. (D)
47. Modulation used in a GSM mobile phone
29. Which one of the following is not a 38. The most abundant gas in the atmosphere is—
current of North Atlantic Ocean? is— (A) PSK
(A) Falkland Current (A) Oxygen (B) BPSK
(B) Canary Current (B) Nitrogen (C) MSK
(C) Labrador Current (C) Hydrogen (D) GMSK
(D) Gulf Stream (D) Carbon dioxide Ans. (D)
Ans. (A) Ans. (B)
48. The light in optical fibre cable
30. Which one of the following States does 39. Which dance form are Birju Maharaj and propagates due to—
not share boundary with Jharkhand ? Gopi Krishna renowned for? (A) Refraction
(A) Chattisgarh (A) Kathak (B) Diffraction
(B) Madhya Pradesh (B) Chhau (C) Total internal reflection
(C) Orissa (C) Kathakali (D) Interference
(D) Uttar Pradesh (D) Odissi Ans. (C)
Ans. (B) Ans. (A)
49. When a TV receiver is switched n, the
31. Through which States does Vamsadhara 401. Which is the official language of the picture comes late, Why ?
river flow? Union Territory of Lakshadweep? (A) Video bandwidth is large
(A) Andhra Pradesh and Chattisgarh only (A) Tamil (B) Video signal takes longer to arrive
(B) Chattisgarh and Orissa only (B) Marathi (C) Electron emission takes time
(C) Andhra Pradesh and Orissa only (C) Malayalam (D) All of the above.
(D) Andhra Pradesh, Chattisgarh and Orissa (D) Konkani Ans. (C)
Ans. (C) Ans. (C)
50. Seismograph is used in the study of—
32. Whose entry into India resulted in the 41. Who is known as the ‘Father of India’s (A) Moon
introduction of maize crop in India? missile programme’? (B) Earthquake
(A) Dutch (A) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam (C) Floods
(B) English (B) R. Santhanam (D) Tides
(C) French (C) Raja Ramanna Ans. (B)
(D) Portuguese (D) Homi Bhabha
Ans. (D) Ans. (A)
GK Solved Questions for Management
trainee exam of Food Corporation of
33. The efforts of who of the following led to 42. The birthday of which sportsperson is India FCI
the “Age of Consent Act, 1891”? celebrated as National Sports Day?
(A) Rabindranath Tagore (A) Sunil Gavaskar 1. The term of a Rajya Sabha MP is—
(B) M. G. Ranade (B) PT. Usha (A) 5 years
(C) Surendra Nath Bannerjee (C) Prakash Padukone (B) 6 years
(D) Mulbari (D) Dhyan Chand (C) 2 years
Ans. (D) Ans. (D) (D) No fixed term
Ans. (B)
34. What was the name of the party formed 43. Who among the following holds a record
2. The body regulating telecommunication
by Subhas Chandra Bose after leaving Indian of the fastest 100 test wickets taken by an
services is—
National Congress? Indian bowler?
(A) IRDA
(A) Congress Socialist Party (A) Erapalli Prasanna
(B) CERC
(B) Forward Bloc (B) Bhagawat Chandrasekhar
(C) SEBI
(C) Indian National Conference (C) Bishan Singh Bedi
(D) TRAI
(D) Swaraj Party (D) Kapil Dev
Ans. (D)
Ans. (B) Ans. (D)
3. The 2010 Commonwealth Games were
35. Among the following who was a 44 In which city were the first Asian Games hosted by —
prominent leader of Khilafat Movement? held? (A) India
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru (A) Bangkok (B) Pakistan
(B) Mahatma Gandhi (B) Kuala Lumpur (C) Singapore
(C) Rajendra Prasad (C) New Delhi (D) China
(D) Vallabhbhai Patel (D) Moscow Ans. (A)
Ans. (B) Ans. (C)
4. The Finance Minister in the Central
Cabinet is—
36. Who was the architect of the ‘Drain 45. The First Five Year Plan covered the (A) Dr. Manmohan Singh
Theory’ and the author of the book Poverty period— (B) P. Chidambaram
and Un-British Rule in India? (A) 1951-56 (C) Pranab Mukherjee
(A) Dadabhai Naoroji (B) 1952-57 (D) None of the above
(B) Gopal Krishna Gokhale (C) 1947-52 Ans. (C)
(C) Abul Kalam Azad (D) 1950-55
(D) Ramesh Chandra Dutt Ans. (A)
Ans. (A)
5. Which of the following Indian has won a (A) Uttar Pradesh (C) Italy
Nobel Prize? (B) Tamilnadu (D) Brazil
(A) J.R.D. Tata (C) West Bengal Ans. (D)
(B) Anil Ambani (D) Maharashtra
(C) Rabindranath Tagore Ans. (C) 26. Which batsman has the highest average
(D) Satish Dhawan of runs scored in Test cricket?
Ans. (C) 16. What is the source of Brahmaputra (A) Sachin Tendulkar
River? (B) Don Bradman
6. Intensity of an earthquake is expressed in (A) Mount Kailash in Tibet (C) Brian Lara
— (B) Gangotri Glacier in Himalayas (D) Vivian Richards
(A) Cm (C) Mansarovar Lake in Western Tibet Ans. (B)
(B) Km/sec (D) None of these
(C) Seconds Ans. (A) 27. How many States are there in India
(D) Richter scale excluding Delhi?
Ans. (D) 17. Who is at present coach of the Indian (A) 23
Cricket team? (C) 28
7. The Olympic logo contains how many (A) Kapil Dev (B) 25
rings? (B) Sunil Gavaskar (D) 30
(A) 2 (C) Greg Chappell Ans. (C)
(B) 3 (D) None of these
(C) 4 Ans. (D) 28. Night-blindness is caused due the
(D) 5 deficiency of—
Ans. (D) 18. The largest gland in human body is— (A) Iron
(A) Thyroid (B) Calcium
8. Who is known as the Father of White (B) Pituitary (C) Vitamin A
Revolution? (C) Liver (D) Vitamin C
(A) Dr. M.S. Swaminathan (D) Pancreas Ans. (C)
(B) Dr. V. Kurien Ans. (C)
(C) Prof. Sam Pitroda 29. How many colours does the sunlight
(D) Prof. U.R. Rao 19. Which state in India is touching the have?
Ans. (B) boundaries of largest number of states? (A) 1
(A) Haryana (B) 4
9. Tennis star Sania Mirza hails from? (B) Madhya Pradesh (C) 5
(A) Kerala (C) Uttar Pradesh (D) 7
(B) Karnataka (D) Maharashtra Ans. (D)
(C) Andhra Pradesh Ans. (C)
(D) None of these 30. Spring tides come during—
Ans. (C) 20. Who is known as the Father of Genetics? (A) Full moon
(A) Charles Darwin (B) New moon
10. How many spokes are there in the wheel (B) Gregor Mendel (C) Half moon
depicted in the Indian National Flag? (C) James Watt (D) Not related to moon
(A) 12 (D) Einstein Ans. (B)
(B) 24 Ans. (B)
(C) 36 31. Chilka lake is situated in which State?
(D) 48 21. The first battle of Panipat was fought in (A) Tamilnadu
Ans. (B) — (B) Andhra Pradesh
(A) 1524 (C) Karnataka
11. Who is the Supreme Commander of (B) 1525 (D) Orissa
Indian Defence Forces? (C) 1526 Ans. (D)
(A) Defence Minister (D) 1527
(B) Prime Minister Ans. (C) 32. Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq transferred his
(C) President capital from Delhi to Devagiri and renamed
(D) Chief of the Army 22. Which country is credited with the it as—
Ans. (C) mathematical invention of ‘Zero’? (A) Fatehgarh
(A) China (B) Aurangabad
12. Which one is the greatest Planet? (B) Germany (C) Daultabad
(A) Mars (C) England (D) Fatehgiri
(B) Saturn (D) India Ans. (C)
(C) Mercury Ans. (D)
(D) Jupiter 33. Who is regarded as the great law giver of
Ans. (D) 23. Who first built the Grand Trunk Road? ancient India?
(A) Akbar the Great (A) Manu
13. Where is Ranthambhor Tiger Sanctuary? (B) Shahjahan (B) Kautilya
(A) Rajasthan (C) Sher Shah Suri (C) Dhanvantari
(B) Orissa (D) Lord Dalhousie (D) Panini
(C) Gujarat Ans. (C) Ans. (A)
(D) Maharashtra
Ans. (A) 24. Quit India Movement was launched in— 34. The word ‘Sikh’ is derived from a word
(A) 1942 which means—
14. Who is the inventor of Television? (B) 1943 (A) Knowledge
(A) Addison (C) 1944 (B) Discipline
(B) Marconi (D) 1945 (C) Humanity
(C) J.L. Baird Ans. (A) (D) Disciple
(D) J.B. Radje Ans. (D)
Ans. (C) 25. Which country has won the Football
World Cup five times? 35. Durand Line is drawn up between—
15. Which state of India has the highest (A) Germany (A) India and Afghanistan
density of population? (B) Argentina (B) India and Bangladesh
(C) India and China (D) 21 meter 5. Which was the first University to be
(D) India and Pakistan Ans. (A) established in the world?
Ans. (A) (A) Harvard University
46. On which day the ‘World Environment (B) Nalanda University
36. To whom the President of India can Day’ is celebrated? (C) Oxford University
submit his resignation? (A) 5thJune (D) None of these
(A) Vice President (B) 3lstJuly
(B) Chief Justice of India (C) 4th September 6. The speed of light will be minimum while
(C) Speaker of Lok Sabha (D) 9th November passing through?
(D) Prime Minister Ans. (A) (A)glass
Ans. (A) (B) vacuum
47. Which Indian film was honoured by (C)air
37. Deficiency of which vitamin causes Special Oscar Award? (D) water
Scurvy? (A) Mother India
(A) Vitamin C (B) Paather Panchali 7. Which of the following chemicals has
(B) Vitamin D (C) Mughal-e-Azam been recently allowed by the government of
(C) Vitamin E (D) Lagaan India to be mixed with petrol?
(D) Vitamin B Ans. (B)
Ans. (A) (A) Methanol
48. The headquarters of International Labour (C) Kerosene
38. Deficiency of iron in human diet causes Organization (ILO) are at— (B) Ethanol
— (A) Paris (B) Butanol
(A) Goitre (B) Washington
(B) Rickets (C) Geneva 8. What is the name of the instrument used to
(C) Anaemia (D) Rome measure blood pressure?
(D) Scurvy Ans. (C) (A) Barometer
Ans. (C) (B) Hygrometer
49. Suez Canal connects Mediterranean Sea (C) Hydrometer
39. Leukemia affects which part of the with— (D) Sphygmomanometre
human body? (A) Red Sea
(A) Lungs (B) Black Sea 9. Who was the Prime Minister of England
(B) Blood (C) Caspian Sea when India got independence?
(C) Skin (D) Caribbean Sea (A) Attlee
(D) Liver Ans. (A) (C) Thatcher
Ans. (B) (B) Churchill
50. Study of skin is called— (D) Wilson
40. Cholera is a typical example of— (A) Cytology
(A) air-borne disease (B) Dermatology 10. Which, among the following, would you
(B) infectious disease (C) Etiology consider a historical source?
(C) change of weather (D) Ecology (A) Numismatics
(D) water-borne disease Ans. (B) (B) Epigraphs
Ans. (B) (C) Rock paintings
India GK for Assistant Grade III in FCI (D) Census reports
41. Nobel Prize was started in the year— exam model test paper Quiz
(A) 1904 11. What is not correct about a soft loan?
(B) 1903 India GK for Assistant Grade III in FCI 1. It is a loan bearing no rate of interest
(C) 1902 exam model test paper Quiz 2. It has an interest rate which is above the
(D) 1901 India based General Knowledge For FCI true cost of the capital lent
Ans. (D) Exam 3. The world bank gives soft loans to
General Knowledge Quiz,Current Affairs developing countries for long-term capital
42. Printing Press was invented by— current affairs india gk For FCI Assistant Job projects
(A) Jannsen exam (A)Only 1
(B) Samuel Morse (B) Only 2
(C) J.C. Perier 1. Which is the largest airport in the world? (C)2and3
(D) Jin Gutenberg (A) Singapore Airport (D) 1 and3
Ans. (D) (B) The Kaulalumpur International Airport
(C) Heathrow at London 12. Which is the only historical monument
43. The first satellite launched by India was (D) The King Khalid airport at Saudi Arabia which can be seen by
— the naked eyes from the moon?
(A) Insat IA 2. Prithvi is a? (A) The Leaning Tower of Pisa
(B) Apple (A) Surface-to-air missile (B) The Pyramids of Egypt
(C) Aryabhatta (B) Surface-to-surface missile (C) The Statue of Liberty, NewYork
(D) Bhaskara (C) Air-to-surface missile (D) The Great Wall of China
Ans. (C) (D) Air-to-air missile
13. Formal services of Credit do not include?
44. Bhabha Atomic Research Centre is 3. At the end of 2001, the Indian government (A) Self-help groups
located in— approved the cultivation of B. T. Cotton. (B) Cooperatives
(A) Chennai Which multinational company is the major (C) Employers
(B) Delhi beneficiary of this deci sion? (D) L.I.C.
(C) Mumbai (A)Cargil
(D) Kolkata (B) BASF 14. The most common route for investments
Ans. (C) (C) Monsanto by MNCs in countries around the world is
(D) All of these to?
45. The length of the pitch in cricket is— 4. The World Literacy Day is celebrated on? 1. Set up new factories
(A) 20.12 meter (A) 8th September 2. Buy existing local companies
(B) 20.22 meter (B) 5th June 3. Form partnerships with local companies
(C) 20 meter (C) 15th August 4. Invest in companies with low turn over
(D) 5th September (A) 1,3 and 4
(B) 2and3 (C) Mass, time and velocity 37. Which TV channel has been in the news
(C) 2,3and4 (D) Length, time and mass for its coverage of the
(D) All of the above Bin Laden crisis, especially for having
26 Which of the following is / are the main carried out the broadcast
15. How many faces are there in an agents of soil erosion? of Osama Bin Laden to audiences in West
octahedron? (A) Wind and water Asia?
(A)4 (B) Rocks (A) Star Asia
(B)6 (C) Sand (B) B. B. C. Asia
(C)8 (D) High temperature and humidity (C) Al Jazeera
(D) 12 (D) Khaleed Times
27. Who is the Minister of Agriculture of
16. Night-blindness is caused by lackof India? 38. The oldest monarchy in the world is that
which vitamin? (A) Sharad Pawar of?
(A) Vitamin A (B) Ran Vilas Paswan (A) Nepal
(B) Vitamin B (C) Shiv Raj Patil (B) U. K.
(C) Vitamin C (D) None of these (C) Spain
(D) Vitamin D 28. Monsoon is caused by? (D) Japan
(A) Revolution of Earth 39. Who was Karl Marx’s main collaborator
17. The most abundant element in Earth’s (B) Movement of Clouds on his famous works?
atmosphere is? (C) Seasonal reversal of the winds (A) V.I. Lenin
(A) Argon (D) Larger change in amplitude of seasonal (B) Max Weber
(C) Oxygen cycle of land temperature (C) Fredrick Engels
(B) Nitrogen (D) Joseph Stalin
(D) Krypton 29. Which is the last letter of the Greek
alphabet? 40. Which is the first Asian country to host
18. The breadth of the railway broadgauge is (A) Omega the Commonwealth
approximately? (B) Sigma Games?
(A)2m (C) Zeta (A) South Korea
(B) 1.88 m (D) Chi (B) Japan
(C)1.67 m (C)Malaysia
(D) 1.33 m 30. Which is the birth place of Hitler? (D) China
(A) Germany
19. Which is the richest soil among the (B) Hungary Answers :
following? (C) Austria
(A) Black soil (D) France 1    D
(B) Red soil 2    B
(C) Laterite soil 31. Who elects President of India? 3    C
(D ) Alluvial soil (A) Lock Sabha 4    A
(B) Rajya Sahha 5    B
20. Sun rises in the east and sets in the west (C) People of India 6    A
due to the? (D) Parliament and State Assemblies 7    B
(A) shape of earth 8    D
(B) revolution of earth around the sun 32. Which country is called the ‘Land of 9    A
(C) rotation of earth on its axis Cakes’? 10    C
(D) movements of the sun (A)Britain 11    B
(B) Spain 12    D
21. A person of which of the following blood (C)France 13    C
group can receive blood of any group? (D) Scotland 14    B
(A)A 33. Which of the following books is not 15    C
(B)AB written by Kalidas? 16    A
(C)B (A) Kathasaritsagar 17    B
(D)0 (B) Meghdutam 18    C
(C) Raghuvansham 19    D
22. Evergreen type of forests are found in? (D) Pushpavan Vikasam 20    C
(A) Equatorial climate 21    B
(B) Monsoon climatic region 34. In India, the Chief Minister of a State is 22    A
(C) Desert regions not eligible to vote in the 23    B
(D) Mediterranean region Presidential elections if? 24    C
(A) he himself is a candidate 25    A
23. What is the other name for River (B) he is yet to prove his majority in the 26    A
Gangas? State legislature 27    A
(A) Sapthanadi (C) he is a member of the upper house of the 28    D
(B) Bhageerathi State legislature 29    A
(C) Savitri (D) he is a caretaker Chief Minister 30    C
(D) Bhadravati 31    D
35. When can the Speaker exercise his right 32    D
24. The earth is? to vote in the house? 33    A
(A)Spherical (A) Whenever he desires 34    C
(B)Elliptical (B) Whenever the house desires 35    C
(C)Oblate spheroid (C) In the event of equality of votes 36    B
(D) Pralate spheroid (D) Whenever his party directs 37    C
38    D
25. Which of the following set can not enter 36. which of the following is not a cash 39    C
into the list of fundamental quantities in any crop? 40    C
system of units? (A)Jute
(A) Length, mass and velocity (B) Paddy Finance
(B) Length, time and velocity (C)Cashew-nut
(D) Rubber
1. type of risk is avoidable through proper Select correct option:
diversification. The risk-free rate Which of the following factors might affect
portfolio risk Zero rate of return stock returns?
systematic risk A negative rate of return Select correct option:
unsystematic risk The market rate of return Business cycle
total risk Interest rate fluctuations
The objective of financial management is to Inflation rates
2. A statistical measure of the degree to maximize _________ wealth. All of the above
which two variables (e.g., securities' returns) Select correct option:
move together. Stakeholders The weighted average of possible returns,
coefficient of variation Shareholders with the weights being the probabilities of
variance Bondholders occurrence is referred to as __________.
covariance Directors Select correct option:
certainty equivalent Probability distribution
Which of the following formulas represents a Expected return
3. An "aggressive" common stock would have correct calculation of the degree of Standard deviation
a "beta" operating leverage? Coefficient of variation
equal to zero. Select correct option:
greater than one. (Q - QBE)/Q Which of the following formulas represents a
equal to one. (EBIT) / (EBIT - FC) correct calculation of the degree of
less than one. [Q(P-V) + FC] /[Q(P-V)] operating leverage?
Q(P-V) / [Q(P-V) - FC] Select correct option:
4. A line that describes the relationship (Q - QBE)/Q
between an individual security's returns and (EBIT) / (EBIT - FC)
returns on the market portfolio. Which of the following is a capital budgeting [Q(P-V) + FC] /[Q(P-V)]
characteristic line technique that is NOT considered as Q(P-V) / [Q(P-V) - FC]
security market line discounted cash flow method?Select correct
capital market line option: Which of the following is as EBIT?
beta Payback period Select correct option:
Internal rate of return Funds provided by operations
5. According to the capital-asset pricing Net present value Earnings before taxes
model (CAPM), a security's expected Profitability index Net income
(required) return is equal to the risk-free rate Operating profit
plus a premium When taxes are considered, the value of a
equal to the security's beta. levered firm equals the value of the________. Total portfolio risk is a combination of:
based on the unsystematic risk of the Select correct option: Select correct option:
security. Unlevered firm Systematic risk plus non-diversifiable risk
based on the total risk of the security. Unlevered firm plus the value of the debt Avoidable risk plus diversifiable risk
based on the systematic risk of the Unlevered firm plus the present value of Systematic risk plus unavoidable risk
security. the tax shield Systematic risk plus diversifiable risk
Unlevered firm plus the value of the debt
6. The risk-free security has a beta equal to, plus the value of the tax shield In which of the following approach you need
while the market portfolio's beta is equal to bring all the projects to the same
to . At the termination of project, which of the length in time?
one; more than one. following needs to be considered relating to Select correct option:
one; less than one. project assets? MIRR approach
zero; one. Select correct option: Going concern approach
less than zero; more than zero. Salvage value Common life approach
Book value Equivalent annual approach
7. Carrie has a "certainty equivalent" to a Intrinsic value
risky gamble's expected value that is less than Fair value Which of the following is NOT the form of
the gamble's expected value. Carrie shows cash flow generated by the investments of
risk aversion. What is the most important criteria in capital the
risk preference. budgeting? shareholders?
risk indifference. Select correct option: Select correct option:
Return on investment Income
a strange outlook on life. Profitability index Capital loss
8. Beta is the slope of Net present value Capital gain
the security market line. Pay back period Operating income
the capital market line.
a characteristic line. What are two major areas of capital
the CAPM. Which of the following is the cash required budgeting?
during a specific period to meet interest Select correct option:
9. A measure of "risk per unit of expected expenses and principal payments? Net present value, profitability index
return." Select correct option: Net present value; internal rate of return
standard deviation Debt capacity Net present value; payback period
coefficient of variation Debt-service burden Pay back period; profitability index
correlation coefficient Adequacy capacity
beta Fixed-charge burden Which of the following factors might affect
stock returns?
Which of the following is the maximum Select correct option:
10. The greater the beta, the of the security amount of debt (and other fixed-charge Business cycle
involved. financing) that a firm can adequately service? Interest rate fluctuations
greater the unavoidable risk Select correct option: Inflation rates
greater the avoidable risk Debt capacity All of the above
less the unavoidable risk Debt-service burden
less the avoidable risk Adequacy capacity Which of the following is related to the use
Fixed-charge burden Lower financial leverage?
Select correct option:
Select correct option: Which of the following shows ALL possible Fixed costs
Sales variability Risk –Return combinations for All Variable costs
Level of fixed operating costs combinations of the stocks in the portfolio- Debt financing
Closeness to its operating break-even point whether efficient or not. Common equity financing
Debt-to-equity ratio Select correct option:
Parachute graph Who determine the market price of a share of
Capital market line common stock?
What is the expected return of a zero-beta Security market line Select correct option:
security? All of the given options The board of directors of the firm
The stock exchange on which the stock is
listed
The president of the company
Individuals buying and selling the stock
_________ is equal to (common shareholders'
equity/common shares outstanding).
Select correct option:
Book value per share
Liquidation value per share
Market value per share
None of the above
Where the efficient stock combination of risk
and return in efficient market should lie?
Select correct option:
On the SML
Below the SML
Above the SML
It may lie anywhere for efficient combination
An annuity due is always worth _____ a
comparable annuity.
Select correct option:
Less than
More than
Equal to
Can not be found from the given information
Where the stock points will lie, if a stock is a
part of totally diversified portfolio?
Select correct option:
It will lie below the regression line
It will line above the regression line
It will line exactly on the regression line
It will be tangent to the regression line
What is the easiest method to diversify away
firm-specific risks?
Select correct option:
To buy stocks with a beta of 1.0
To build a portfolio with 5-10 individual
stocks
To purchase the shares of a mutual fund
To purchase stocks that plot above the
security market line
Nominal Interest Rate is also known as:
Select correct option:
Effective interest Rate
Annual percentage rate
Periodic interest rate
Required interest rate
When taxes are considered, the value of a
levered firm equals the value of the________.
Select correct option:
Unlevered firm
Unlevered firm plus the value of the debt
Unlevered firm plus the present value of
the tax shield
Unlevered firm plus the value of the debt
plus the value of the tax shield
Which of the following is correct regarding
General Awareness
1. The foreign trade policy announced in the
year 2004 was announced for a period of ____
(A) two years
(B) three years
(C) four years
(D) five years
(E) ten years
Ans (D)
2. As per reports in the newspapers the Indian
Rupee is appreciating these days. What does
it really mean it ?
(1) The value of the Rupee has gone up. It is
now 110 paise and not 100 paise.
(2) The exchange rate of Rupee has gone up.
the opportunity cost of capital for a project?
Select correct option:
The opportunity cost of capital is the return
that investors give up by investing in the
project rather than in securities of equivalent
risk.
Financial managers use the capital asset
pricing model to estimate the opportunity
cost of capital
The company cost of capital is the expected
rate of return demanded by investors in a
company
All of the given options
For which of the following costs is it generally
necessary to apply a tax adjustment to a
yield measure?
Select correct option:
Cost of debt
Cost of preferred stock
Cost of common equity
Cost of retained earnings
Which of the followings expressed the
proposition that the cost of equity is a
positive
linear function of capital structure?
Select correct option:
The Capital Asset Pricing Model
M&M Proposition I
M&M Proposition II
The Law of One Price
The current yield on a bond is equal to
________.
Select correct option:
Annual interest divided by the current
market price
The yield to maturity
Annual interest divided by the par value
The internal rate of retur
Computer awareness
1. The earlier computers, which were massive
in size, were based on vacuum tubes.
2. Early computing machines, like the ENIAC,
were actually meant to assist the armed
forces.
3. The printers in pre-1950s were punch
cards.
4. An improvement on the ENIAC, which
pioneered ’stored program’, was made
possible with the help of the mathematician
John von Neumann.
5. Before the 1950s, computers were mostly
owned by universities and research labs.
6. The B-programming language was
developed by Ken Thompson.
7. Famous people, associated with the ENIAC,
EDVAC, UNIVAC computers are Eckert &
Mauchly.
8. The 1st commercially produced and sold
computer (1951) was UNIVAC.
(3) Now we can purchase more in one Rupee
which was not possible earlier.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 & 2
(E) None of these
Ans (B)
3. As per newspaper reports the inflation in
India and China was at very high level . In
such a situation the central Banks of these
countries are required to follow _____
(A) a more liberal credit policy
(B) a very tight credit policy
(C) create an atmosphere of easy liquidity in
the market.
9. IBM was provided software for PCs by
Microsoft.
10. Time-sharing, teletyping, were associated
with mainframe computers.
11. The transformation from heavy computers
to PCs was made possible using
microprocessors.
12. The first microprocessor was developed in
1971 by Intel.
13. The term ’micro’ (extremely small)
denotes 10-6m.
14. The Harvard student, who chose to write
computer programs and dropped studies was
Bill Gates.
15. A pentium 4 (P-4) employs roughly 40
million transistors.
16. Mark-1, Apple-1, and collossus were
initial desktop computers.
17. Binary digits are briefed as bit.
18. A collection of bits is called byte.
19. C++, is a computer language.
20. The process of eliminating programming
faults is called debugging.
21. Starting up on operating system is called
booting.
22. A program used to browse the web is
called browser.
23. An error in software designing which can
even cause a computer to crash is called bug.
24. Click and double-click are achieved using
the mouse.
25. Java, C, ForTran, Pascal and BASIC are
computer programming languages.
26. The device which sends computer data
using a phone line is called MODEM.
27. ’Worm’ and ’virus’ are actually programs.
28. A ’file’ is a unit of information.
29. A megabyte has 106(million) bytes.
30. A small, single-site network is called LAN.
31. A processor that collects several data and
sends them over a single line is called bridge.
32. ’Nano’ stands for one billionth part.
33. The number of bit patterns using an n-bit
code is 2n.
34. The part of a computer that works with
the data/programs is called CPU.
35. To convert a binary number to a decimal,
we have to express it in power of 2.
36. www stands for world wide web.
37. Mathematics employed in computers is
called Boolean algebra.
38. A collection of 8 bits is called byte.
39. The first home computer (1977), which
was sold in millions of units was Apple II.
40. ’PARAM’ is a supercomputer.
41. A website containing periodic posts is
called blog.
42. While cutting and pasting, the cutitem is
temporarily stored in the clipboard.
43. http stands for hyper text transfer
protocol.
44. The unwanted or non-requested emails
are called "spam".
45. A computer framed to give various
network services is called server.
(D) raise the limits of personal and corporate
income taxes.
(E) None of these
Ans (B)
4. The US Federal Reserve had recently
reduced the interest rates by 150 basis points
in the last few months. This was done
because ____
(A) US was going into recession.
(B) Inflation was high in countries like India
and China hence a correction in economic
policies by all the countries was needed.
(C) Euro had become more attractive
currency, hence US wanted to save dollars
from further depreciation.
(D) Iraq had bacome a very lucrative
destination for foreign investment . US does will be given to rural areas every month so Dope Test is conducted ?
not want it to happen. that by the end of the plan all villages in (1) To know the general health of the sports
(E) None of these India are brought under telephone services person
Ans (A) network. (2) To know the sugar level of their blood
(A) Only (1) is true (3) To detect whether they have taken any
5. The Stock market index of London Stock (B) Only (2) is true performance inhancing drugs
Market is referred as _____ (C) Only (3) is true (A) Only 1
(A) Sensex (D) All (1), (2) & (3) are true (B) Only 2
(B) Footsie (FTSE) (E) None is true (C) Only 3
(C) NIFTY Ans (A) (D) All 1 , 2 & 3
(D) Bullish (E) None of these
(E) None of these 12. Who played the role of the Hockey coach Ans (B)
Ans (B) in the Film "Chak De India" for which he was
given the award for Best Actor? 18. Santosh Trophy is associated with the
6. As we all know Ministry of Finance every (A) Shahrukh Khan game of ____
year prepare Union Budget and present it to (B) Abhishek Bachchan (A) Cricket
the parliament . Which of the following is / (C) Aaamir Khan (B) Badminton
are the elements of the Union Budget ? (D) Salman Khan (C) Tennis
(1) Estimates of revenue and capital receipts. (E) None of these (D) Chess
(2) Ways and MeAns to raise the revenue. Ans (A) (E) None of these
(3) Estimates of expenditure. Ans (E) Santosh Trophy is associated with the
(A) Only 1 13. India has signed a Memorandum of game of Football.
(B) Only 2 Understanding (MOU) with which of the
(C) Only 3 following countries which says they will 19. As per the newspaper reports some
(D) All 1,2 & 3 create a "Multi Polar Order" based on the rule economically developed states onlt hold
(E) None of these of law, sovereign equality and non- about 60% of the total 'Demat Accounts in
Ans (D) interference in internal affairs of States? India. A Demat Account is ____
(A) USA (A) an acount which is opened by the people
7. Which of the following is NOT used as raw (B) Nepal of the lower income groups of the society.
material for production of nuclear power? (C) China (B) an account in which trading of the shares
(A) Uranium (D) Britain is done.
(B) Barylium (E) Russia (C) an account which can be opened only by
(C) Zirconium Ans (E) minors.
(D) Sodium (D) an account which can be operated by big
(E) All these are used 14. Recently one Indian cricket player has corporate houses and are mainly business
Ans (A) become the sixth batsman to earn 10000 runs accounts like current accounts.
in Test Crickets. The name of the player is (E) None of these
8. As per figure released recently , the GDP ____ Ans (B)
growth in the last two years has been in the (A) Virendra Sehwag
range of ____ (B) Sachin Tendulkar 20. Federal Reserve is the Financial
(A) 6%-7% (C) Sourav Ganguly Organization of the ___
(B) 7%-8% (D) Anil Kumble (A) USA
(C) 8%-9% (E) Rahul Dravid (B) Britain
(D) 9%-9.5% Ans (E) (C) France
(E) 10%-11% (D) Japan
Ans (D) 15. Yousuf Raza Gillani who was elected the (E) Germany
Prime Minister of Pakistan is from which Ans (A)
9. Sri Lankan Monitoring Mission (SLMM) has political parties?
Nordic Monitors from five nations. Which of (A) Jamiat-e-Ulema Islami 21. Which of the following organization is
the following is NOT one of them? (B) Pakistan People's Party known as Market Regulator in India?
(A) India (C) Awami National Party (A) IBA
(B) Sweden (D) Muslim League (B) SEBI
(C) Norway (E) None of these (C) AMFI
(D) Denmark Ans (B) (D) NSDL
(E) Iceland (E) None of these
Ans (A) 16. As per the Govt. Notifications / Ans (B)
Advertisements given in various newspapers
10.Many a times we read a term in financial the wheat procurement this year was of a 22. Which of the following phenomenon
newspaper GDR. What is the full form of the record of 210 lakh MTs. Which of the occurred /surfaced recently associated with
same? following was/were the contributory factors the economy of USA has put a catastrophic
(A) Gross Domestic Revenue in such a record making procurement? influence on the economy of the World?
(B) Global Domestic Ratio (1) Minimum support price was keep as Rs. (A) Increase in the oil prices
(C) Global Depository Receipts 1,500/- per quintal. (B) High level of inflation
(D) Gross Depository Revenue (2) Wheat was also procured from non- (C) Huge and mounting expenditure due to
(E) None of these traditional State like Gujrat and Maharashtra attack on Iraq by USA and allied forces.
Ans (C) (3) State Govt. were also involved actively in (D) Sub-prime Crisis
the Scheme (E) None of these
11. The Govt. of India has fixed some targets (A) Only 1 Ans (D)
for various programmes for the entire plan (B) Only 2
period/or a part of it. Which of the following (C) Only 3 23. The Reserve Bank of India keeps on
is/are TRUE about the Bharat Nirman (D) Both 1 & 2 changing various ratio/rates frequently. Why
Programme? (E) None of these this is done?
(1) The plan envisages irrigation of 10 million Ans (D) (1) To keep inflation under control
hectares additional land. (2) To ensure that Indian Rupee does not
(2) It is planned that about six hundred km. 17. Very often we read in newspapers that loose its market value
of new roads will be developed every month. some sports persons have to go for a Dope (3) To ensure that Banks do not earn huge
(3) About 1000 new telephone connections Test after their performance in the field. Why profits at the cost of public money.
(A) Only 1 (C) Section 4 of the Right to Information Act, (D) When Where Why
(B) Only 2 2005 Ans : (C)
(C) Only 3 (D) Section 2(b) of the Right to Information
(D) All 1,2 & 3 Act, 2005 15. To which of the following companies, the
(E) None of these Ans : (B) Delhi High Court has ordered to remove its
Ans (D) ‘Logo’ ?
(A) Pepsico India
24. Which of the following is true about the 6. In Uttarakhand Legislative Assembly one (B) TISCO
National Rural Employment Guarantee Act? member is nominated from— (C) Reliance Petrochemicals
(1) It is applicable only in 100 rural districts. (A) Christian Community (D) None of the above
(2) It gives a guaranteed employment of 100 (B) Muslim Community Ans : (A)
days to all those who are eligible for the (C) Anglo-Indian Community
same and are also willing to take it. (D) Parsi Community 16. The Article of the Indian Constitution
(3) This Act is applicable only for men Ans : (C) which automatically become suspended on
between the age of 21-65. Women do not get Proclamation of Emergency is—
the benefit of the same. 7. A Supreme Court’s Judge retires at an age (A) Article 14
(A) Only 1 of— (B) Article 19
(B) Only 2 (A) 58 years (C) Article 21
(C) Only 3 (B) 70 years (D) Article 32
(D) All 1 , 2 & 3 (C) 62 years Ans : (B)
(E) None of these (D) 65 years
Ans (B) Ans : (D) 17. Which State in India implemented the
‘Panchayati Raj System’ first ?
25. Many times we here about SEZ in 8. Who is the head of the ‘State-Executive’ ? (A) Rajasthan
newspapers/magazines. What is the full form (A) The State Legislature Assembly (B) Maharashtra
of SEZ? (B) The State Cabinet (C) Bihar
(A) Small Economic Zone (C) The Chief Minister (D) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Social Economic Zone (D) The Governor Ans : (A)
(C) Special Enforcewment Zone Ans : (D)
(D) Service & Economic Zone 18. In India, which institution holds ultimate
(E) None of these 9. Case of I. R. Coelho V. State of Tamil Nadu authority to accept ‘Five Year Plans’ ?
Ans (E) Special Economic Zone is related with— (A) Planning Commission
(A) Judicial review of Article 356 of the (B) National Development Council
Constitution (C) Central Cabinet
PART–II (B) Judicial review of Article 226 of the (D) Parliament
Constitution Ans : (B)
1. How many languages are there in the (C) Judicial review of Ninth Schedule Laws
Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India ? (D) Judicial review of action taken by Speaker 19. On whose recommendation the financial
(A) 16 under Article 105 of the Constitution distribution between the ‘Union’ and ‘States’
(B) 18 Ans : (C) takes place ?
(C) 20 (A) The Finance Commission
(D) 22 10. Humanisation and decrimanisation of (B) The National Development Council
Ans : (D) attempts to suicide was recommended by— (C) The Planning Commission
(A) 210th Report of Law Commission (D) The Inter-State Council
2. Article 340 of the Indian Constitution deals (B) 212th Report of Law Commission Ans : (A)
with— (C) 216th Report of Law Commission
(A) Backward Classes Commission (D) 215th Report of Law Commission 20. Who is to certify that any bill is a Money
(B) Election Commission Ans : (A) Bill ?
(C) Union Public Service Commission (A) Finance Minister
(D) Finance Commission 11. Jaya Bachchan V. Union of India, A.I.R. (B) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Ans : (A) 2006 S.C. 2119 is related with— (C) Prime Minister
(A) Article 102(1)(a) of the Constitution (D) None of the above
3. In which year ‘Advocate’s Welfare Fund (B) Article 109 of the Constitution Ans : (B)
Act’ was enacted by Parliament of India ? (C) Article 190 of the Constitution
(A) 1999 (D) Article 226 of the Constitution 21. The Court which has jurisdiction over
(B) 2001 Ans : (A) election disputes under Section 80 of the
(C) 2003 Representation of People Act, 1951 is—
(D) 2008 12. Joint Meeting of both Houses of (A) Supreme Court
Ans : (B) Parliament is chaired by— (B) High Court
(A) President of India (C) District Court
4. In which one of the following cases it has (B) Chairman of Rajya Sabha (D) Election Tribunal
been held that prohibition on sale of eggs (C) Speaker of Lok Sabha Ans : (B)
within municipal area of Rishikesh is not (D) None of the above
violative of Article 19(1)g of the Ans : (C) 22. Who can remove Election Commissioner
Constitution ? from his office ?
(A) B. R. Enterprise Vs. State of U.P. 13. Who among the following was the (A) Chief Election Commissioner
(B) Sreeniwas General Traders Vs. State of Chairman of the Sixth Pay Commission ? (B) Prime Minister
Uttarakhand (A) Justice A. K. Majumdar (C) Home Minister in the same way as the
(C) Om Prakash Vs. State of U.P. (B) Justice B. N. Srikrishna Judge of the High Court can be removed
(D) C. K. Jain Vs. State of Uttaranchal (C) Justice A. R. Lakshmanan (D) President of India on the recommendation
Ans : (C) (D) Justice R. C. Lahoti of Chief Election Commissioner
Ans : (B) Ans : (D)
5. ‘Right to Information’ is defined under—
(A) Section 2(f) of the Right to Information 14. ‘www’ on the internet stands for— 23. In which of the following cases
Act, 2005 (A) Words Words Words constitutionality of the Central Educational
(B) Section 2(j) of the Right to Information (B) Wide Word Words Institutions (Reservation in Admissions) Act,
Act, 2005 (C) World Wide Web 2006 was challenged ?
(A) Ashok Kumar Thakur Vs. Union of India (C) January 26, 1946 Ans : (A)
(B) Ashok Kumar Vs. State of U.P. (D) December 30, 1941
(C) Ashok Kumar Thakur Vs. State of Bihar Ans : (A) 38. The maximum period of continuation of
(D) None of the above emergency under Article 356 of the Indian
Ans : (A) 31. Where the head office of the United Constitution is—
Nations is situated ? (A) 3 years
24. How many times the emergency has been (A) Washington (B) 6 months
proclaimed in India on the ground of internal (B) Geneva (C) 1 year
disturbance ? (C) New York (D) 2 years
(A) Once (D) The Hague Ans : (A)
(B) Twice Ans : (C)
(C) Thrice 39. Which one of the following Schedule was
(D) Never 32. How many members are in the Security added in the Constitution by the 73rd
Ans : (A) Council ? Constitutional Amendment ?
(A) 5 (A) Schedule XII
25. In which year financial emergency was (B) 9 (B) Schedule VI
proclaimed under Article 360 in India ? (C) 10 (C) Schedule XI
(A) 1962 (D) 15 (D) Schedule IX
(B) 1965 Ans : (D) Ans : (C)
(C) 1975
(D) Never 33. Which one of the following Article of 40. The procedure for the removal of
Ans : (D) United Nations Charter is related to the Supreme Court Judge is given in—
procedure of voting ? (A) Article 124 (4)
26. Who appoints the Chairman of the State (A) Article 16 (B) Article 124 (5)
Public Service Commission in India ? (B) Article 18 (C) Article 125
(A) The President of India (C) Article 10 (D) Article 126
(B) The President of India in consultation with (D) None of the above Ans : (A)
the Governor of the State Ans : (B)
(C) The Governor of the State 41. Participation of workers in management
(D) Chairman of Union Public Service 34. Which one of the following is not one of of industries is provided under Indian
Commission in consultation with the Governor the principal organ of United Nations ? Constitution—
Ans : (C) (A) Economic and Social Council (A) In Article 44 A
(B) Trusteeship Council (B) In Article 48 A
27. By which Amendment of the Indian (C) International Labour Organization (C) In Article 43 A
Constitution Sikkim was included as full- (D) International Court of Justice (D) In Article 45
fledged State of the Indian Territory ? Ans : (C) Ans : (C)
(A) Thirty-Second Constitutional Amendment
(B) Thirty-Sixth Constitutional Amendment 35. Two official languages of the United 42. Article 21-A was added in the Constitution
(C) Forty-Fourth Constitutional Amendment Nations are— by—
(D) Forty-Second Constitutional Amendment (A) English and Hindi (A) 86th Constitutional Amendment
Ans : (B) (B) English and German (B) 88th Constitutional Amendment
(C) English and Urdu (C) 89th Constitutional Amendment
28. Under hich Article of the Constitution of (D) English and French (D) 90th Constitutional Amendment
India, Parliament may admit a new State in Ans : (D) Ans : (A)
the Indian Union ?
(A) In Article 1 36. The Directive Principles of State Policy in 43. Socialist and secular words were added in
(B) In Article 2 the Constitution of India have been taken the Preamble of Indian Constitution by—
(C) In Article 3 from which one of the following ? (A) 44th Amendment
(D) In Article 4 (A) The Constitution of Ireland (B) 42nd Amendment
Ans : (B) (B) The Constitution of United States of (C) 45th Amendment
America (D) 48th Amendment
29. Which of the following is not mentioned (C) The Constitution of Australia Ans : (B)
in Directive Principles of State policy under (D) The Constitution of Canada
the Constitution of India ? Ans : (A) 44. Which one of the following Articles of
(A) Right to adequate means of livelihood Indian Constitution is not related to the
(B) Right to equal pay for equal work 37. P’s passport was cancelled by the environmental protection ?
(C) Promotion of international peace and authority without giving him any reasonable (A) Article 48 A
security opportunity of being heard which was (B) Article 51 A(i)
(D) Free and compulsory educationfor mandatory. In such case— (C) Article 51 A(g)
children upto fourteen years of age (A) A writ of mandamus can be issued (D) Both (A) and (C)
Ans : (D) (B) A writ of mandamus cannot be issued as Ans : (B)
the authority has no obligation to act fairly
30. The Charter of the United Nations was (C) Since cancellation of passport is always 45. In International Court of Justice, there
signed at San- Francisco on— done in interest of security of India, no one are—
(A) June 26, 1945 can challenge the cancellation
(B) August 15, 1943 (D) A writ of prohibition can be issued

(A) President and 15 other members (C) 14th July

(B) President, Vice-President and 15 other members (D) 26th November
(C) President, Vice-President and 14 other members Ans : (B)
(D) President, Vice-President and 13 other members
Ans : (D) 47. The Headquarters of International Court of Justice is at—
(A) New York
46. International Human Rights Day is celebrated on— (B) Geneva
(A) 26th January (C) The Hague
(B) 10th December (D) Paris
Ans : (C)

48. Sarkaria Commission was set up for the review of relations between—
(A) The Prime Minister and The President
(B) Legislature and Executive
(C) Executive and Judiciary
(D) Centre and States
Ans : (D)

49. Under which Article of the Constitution the Inter-State Council is

constituted ?
(A) Article 254
(B) Article 260
(C) Article 263
(D) Article 267
Ans : (C)

50. By which Amendment of the Constitution the Service Tribunals were

established ?
(A) 39th Amendment
(B) 44th Amendment
(C) 40th Amendment
(D) 42nd Amendment
Ans : (D)