COMMUNICABLE DISEASES

Q&A

1. A 20 year-old client has an infected leg wound from a motorcycle accident, and the client has
returned home from the hospital. The client is to keep the affected leg elevated and is on contact
precautions. The client wants to know if visitors can come. The appropriate response from the
home health nurse is that:

a. Visitors must wear a mask and a gown

b. There are no special requirements for visitors of clients on contact
c. Visitors should wash their hands before and after touching the client
d. Visitors should wear gloves if they touch the client

C-
Visitors should wash their hands before and after touching the client Gown and gloves are worn
by persons coming in contact with the wounds or infected equipment. Visitors should wash their
hands before and after touching the client.

2. Several clients are admitted to an adult medical unit. The nurse would ensure airborne
precautions for a client with which medical condition?

a. Autoimmune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) with cytomegalovirus (CMV)

b. A positive purified protein derivative with an abnormal chest x-ray
c. A tentative diagnosis of viral pneumonia with productive brown sputum.
d. Advanced carcinoma of the lung with hemoptysis

B-
A positive purified protein derivative with an abnormal chest x-ray. The client who must be
placed in airborne precautions is the client with a positive PPD (purified protein derivative) who
has a positive x-ray for a suspicious tuberculin lesion. A sputum smear for acid fast bacillus
would be done next. CMV usually causes no signs or symptoms in children and adults with
healthy immune systems. When signs and symptoms do occur, they''re often similar to those of
mononucleosis, including: sore throat, fever, muscle aches, fatigue. Good handwashing is
recommended for CMV.

3. A child is admitted to the pediatric unit with a diagnosis of suspected meningococcal

meningitis. Which admission orders should the nurse do first?

a. Institute seizure precautions

b. Monitor neurologic status every hour
c. Place in respiratory/secretion precautions
d. Cefataxime IV 50 mg/kg/day divided q6h

C-
Meningococcal meningitis has the risk of being a bacterial infection. The initial therapeutic
management of acute bacterial meningitis includes respiratory/secretions precautions, initiation
of antimicrobial therapy, monitor neurological status along with vital signs, institute seizure
precautions and lastly maintenance of optimum hydration. The first action is for nurses to take
any necessary precautions to protect themselves and others from possible infection. Viral
meningitis usually does not require protective measures of isolation.

4. A client is diagnosed with methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus pneumonia. What type
of isolation is most appropriate for this client?

a. Reverse
b. Airbourne
c. Standard precautions
d. Contact

D-
Contact precautions or Body Substance Isolation (BSI) involves the use of barrier protection
(e.g. gloves, mask, gown, or protective eyewear as appropriate) whenever direct contact with any
body fluid is expected. When determining the type of isolation to use, one must consider the
mode of transmission. The hands of personnel continue to be the principal mode of transmission
for methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Because the organism is limited to the
sputum in this example, precautions are taken if contact with the patient''s sputum is expected. A
private room and contact precautions , along with good hand washing techniques, are the best
defenses against the spread of MRSA pneumonia.

5. Which of these clients with associated lab reports is a priority for the nurse to report to the
public health department within the next 24 hours?

a. An infant with a positive culture of stool of Shigella

b. An elderly factory worker with a lab report that is positive for acid-fast bacillus smear
c. A young adult commercial pilot with a positive histopathological examination from an induced
sputum for Pneumocystis carinii
d. A middle-aged nurse with a history of varicella-zoster virus and with crops of vesicles on an
erythematous base that appear on the skin

B-
Tuberculosis is a reportable disease because persons who had contact with the client must be
traced and often must be treated with chemoprophylaxis for a designated time. Options a and d
may need contact isolation precautions. Option c findings may indicate the initial stage of the
autoimmune deficency syndrome (AIDS).

6. A client is scheduled to receive an oral solution of radioactive iodine (131I). In order to reduce
hazards, the priority information for the nurse to include during the instructions to the client is
which of these statements?

a. In the initial 48 hours avoid contact with children and pregnant women, and after urination or
defecation flush the commode twice
b. Use disposable utensils for 2 days and if vomiting occurs within 10 hours of the dose, do so in
the toilet and flush it twice
c. Your family can use the same bathroom that you use without any special preacautions
d. Drink plenty of water and empty your bladder often during the initial 3 days of therapy

A-
The client''s urine and saliva are radioactive for 24 hours after ingestion, and vomitus is
radioactive for 6 to 8 hours. The client should drink 3 to 4 liters a day for the initial 48 hours to
help remove the agent from the body. Staff should limit contact with hospitalized clients to 30
minutes per day per person.

7. A newly admitted adult client has a diagnosis of hepatitis A. The charge nurse should
reinforce to the staff members that the most significant routine infection control strategy, in
addition to handwashing, to be implemented is which of these?

a. Apply appropriate signs outside and inside the room

b. Apply a mask with a shield if there is a risk of fluid splash
c. Wear a gown to change soiled linens form incontinence
d. Have gloves on while handling bedpans with feces

D-
The specific measure to prevent the spread of hepatitis A is careful handling and protection while
handling fecal material. All of the other actions are correct but not the most significant.

8. The nurse is assigned to a client newly diagnosed with active tuberculosis. Which of these
protocols would be a priority for the nurse to implement?

a. Have the client cough into a tissue and dispose in a separate bag
b. Instruct the client to cover the mouth with a tissue when coughing
c. Reinforce for all to wash their hands before and after entering the room
d. Place client in a negative pressure private room and have all whoenter the room use masks
with shields

D-
A client with active tuberculosis should be hospitalized in a negative pressure room to prevent
respiratory droplets from leaving the room when the door is opened. Tuberculosis (TB) is caused
by spore-forming mycobacteria, more often Mycobacterium tuberculosis. In developed countries
the infection is airborne and is spread by inhalation of infected droplets. In underdeveloped
countries (Africa, Asia, South America), transmission also occurs by ingestion or by skin
invasion, particularly when bovine TB is poorly controlled

9. The school nurse is teaching the faculty the most effective methods to prevent the spread of
lice in the school. The information that would be most important to include would be which of
these statements?

a. The treatment requires reapplication in 8 to 10 days

b. Bedding and clothing can be boiled or steamed
c. Children are not to share hats, scarves and combs
d. Nit combs are necessary to comb out nits.

C-
Head lice live only on human beings and can be spread easily by sharing hats, combs, scarves,
coats and other items of clothing that touch the hair. All of the options are correct statements.
However they do not best answer the question of how to prevent the spread of lice in a school
setting.

10. During the care of a client with a salmonella infection, the primary nursing intervention to
limit transmission is which of these approaches?

a. Wash hands thoroughly before and after client contact

b. Wear gloves when in contact with body secretions
c. Double glove when in contact with feces or vomitus
d. Wear gloves when disposing of contaminated linens

A-
Gram-negative bacilli cause Salmonella infection. Two million new cases appear each year. Lack
of sanitation is the primary means of contamination. Thorough handwashing can prevent the
spread of salmonella. Note that all of the options are correct actions. However, the primary
action is to wash the hands.

11. A nurse administers the influenza vaccine to a client in a clinic. Within 15 minutes after the
immunization was given, the client complains of itchy and watery eyes, increased anxiety, and
difficulty breathing. The nurse expects that the first action in the sequence of care for this client
will be to

a. Maintain the airway

b. Administer epinephrine 1:1000 as ordered
c. Monitor for hypotension with shock
d. Administer diphenhydramine as ordered

B-
All the answers are correct given the circumstances. The correct sequence of care is to administer
the epinephrine, then maintain airway. In the early stages of anaphylaxis, when the patient has
not lost consciousness and is normatensive, administering the epinephrine and then applying the
oxygen, watching for hypotension and shock are later responses. The prevention of a severe
crisis is maintained by using diphenhydramine.

12. A client with a diagnosis of Methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) has died.
Which type of precautions is the appropriate type to use when performing postmortem care?

a. Airborne precautions
b. droplet precautions
c. contact precautions
d. compromised host precautions

C-

The resistant bacteria remain alive for up to 3 days post death. Therefore, contact precautions
must still be implemented. Also label the body so that the funeral home staff can protect
themselves as well. Gown and gloves are required.

13. A nurse is stuck in the hand by an exposed needle. What immediate action should the nurse
take?
a. Look up the policy on needle sticks
b. Contact employee health services
c. Immediately wash the hands with vigor
d. Notify the supervisor and risk management

C-
The immediate action of vigorously washing will help remove possible contamination. Then the
sequence would then be options 4, 1, 2.

14. The mother of a 2 month-old baby calls the nurse 2 days after the first DTaP, IPV, Hepatitis
B and HIB immunizations. She reports that the baby feels very warm, cries inconsolably for as
long as 3 hours, and has had several shaking spells. In addition to referring her to the emergency
room, the nurse should document the reaction on the baby's record and expect which of the
following?

a. DTaP
b. Hepatitis B
c. Polio
d. H. Influenza

A-
The majority of reactions occur with the administration of the DTaP vaccination. Contradictions
to giving repeat DTaP immunizations include the occurrence of severe side effects after a
previous dose as well as signs of encephalopathy within 7 days of the immunization.

15. The nurse is teaching a class on HIV prevention. Which of the following should be
emphasized as increasing risk?

a. Donating blood
b. Using public bathrooms
c. Unprotected sex
d. Touching person with AIDS

C-
Because HIV is spread through exposure to bodily fluids, unprotected intercourse and shared
drug paraphernalia remain the highest risk for infection.

16. Which of the following manifestations observed by the school nurse confirms the presence of
pediculosis capitis in students?

a. Scratching the head more than usual

b. Flakes evident on a student’s shoulders
c. Oval pattern occipital hair loss
d. Whitish oval specks sticking to the hair

D-
Diagnosis of pediculosis capitis is made by observation of the white eggs (nits) firmly attached
to the hair shafts. Treatment includes shampoo application, such as lindane for children over 2
years of age, and meticulous combing and removal of all nits.

17. A client is admitted with a right upper lobe infiltrate and to rule out tuberculosis. The most
appropriate action by the nurse to protect the self would be which of these?

a. Negative room ventilation

b. Face mask with shield
c. Particulate respirator mask
d. Airborne precautions

C-
Tight fitting, high-efficiency masks are required when caring for clients who have suspected
communicable disease of the airborne variety.

18. To prevent drug resistance common to tubercle bacilli, the nurse is aware that which of the
following agents are usually added to drug therapy?

a. Anti-inflammatory agent
b. High doses of B complex vitamins
c. Aminoglycoside antibiotic
d.Two anti-tuberculosis drugs

D-
Resistance of the tubercle bacilli often occurs to a single antimicrobial agent. Therefore, therapy
with multiple drugs over a long period of time helps to ensure eradication of the organism.

19. An 18 month-old child is on peritoneal dialysis in preparation for a renal transplant in the
near future. When the nurse obtains the child's health history, the mother indicates that the child
has not had the first measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) immunization. The nurse understands that
which of the following is true in regards to giving immunizations to this child?

a) Live vaccines are withheld in children with renal chronic illness

b) The MMR vaccine should be given now, prior to the transplant
c) An inactivated form of the vaccine can be given at any time
d) The risk of vaccine side effects precludes giving the vaccine

B-

MMR is a live virus vaccine, and should be given at this time. Post-transplant,
immunosuppressive drugs will be given and the administration of the live vaccine at that time
would be contraindicated because of the compromised immune system.

20. Which contraindication should the nurse assess for prior to giving a child immunizations?

a) Mild cold symptoms

b) Chronic asthma
c) Depressed immune system
d) Allergy to eggs

C-
Children who have a depressed immune system related to HIV or chemotherapy should not be
given routine immunizations.

21. The nurse is caring for a client suspected to have Tuberculosis (TB). Which of the following
diagnostic tests is essential for determining the presence of active TB?

a. Tuberculin skin testing

b. Sputum culture
c. White blood cell count
d. Chest X-ray

B-
The sputum culture is the most accurate method for determining the presence of active TB.

22. A client had arrived in the USA from a developing country 1 week prior. The client is to be
admitted to the medical surgical unit with a diagnosis of AIDS with a history of unintended
weight loss, drug abuse, night sweats, productive cough and a "feeling of being hot all the time."
The nurse should assign the client to share a room with a client with the diagnosis of

a. Acute tuberculosis with a productive cough of discolored sputum for over three months
b.Lupus and vesicles on one side of the middle trunk from the back to the abdomen
c. Pseudomembranous colitis and C. difficile.
d. Exacerbation of polyarthritis with severe pain

A-
The client for admission has classic findings of pulmonary tuberculosis. Of the choices the client
in option A has the similar diagnosis and it is acceptable to put these types of clients in the same
room when no other alternative exists. Clients are considered contagious until the cough is
eliminated with medications which initially is a combination of 4 drugs simultaneously.

23. The nurse is attending a workshop about caring for persons infected with Hepatitis. Which
statement is correct when referring to the incidence rate for Hepatitis?

a. The number of persons in a population who develop Hepatitis B during a specific period of
time
b. The total number of persons in a population who have Hepatitis B at a particular time
c. The percentage of deaths resulting from Hepatitis B during a specific time
d. The occurrence of Hepatitis B in the population at a particular time

A-
This is the correct definition of incidence of the disease

24. The nurse is taking a health history from parents of a child admitted with possible Reye's
Syndrome. Which recent illness would the nurse recognize as increasing the risk to develop
Reye's Syndrome?

a. Rubeola
b.Meningitis
c. Varicella
d. Hepatitis

C-
Varicella (chicken pox) and influenza are viral illnesses that have been identified as increasing
the risk for Reye's Syndrome. Use of aspirin is contraindicated for children with these infections.

25. A 15 month-old child comes to the clinic for a follow-up visit after hospitalization for
treatment of Kawasaki Disease. The nurse recognizes that which of the following scheduled
immunizations will be delayed?

a. MMR
b. Hib
c. IPV
d. DtaP

A-
Medical management of Kawasaki involves administration of immunoglobulins. Measles,
mumps, rubella (MMR) is a live virus vaccine. Following administration of immunoglobulins,
live vaccines should be held due to possible interference with the body's ability to form
antibodies.

26. The recent increase in the reported cases of active tuberculosis (TB) in the United States is
attributed to which factor?
a. The increased homeless population in major cities
b. The rise in reported cases of positive HIV infections
c. The migration patterns of people from foreign countries
d. The aging of the population located in group homes

B-
Between 1985 and 2002 there has been a significant increase in the reported cases of TB. The
increase was most evident in cities with a high incidence of positive HIV infection. Positive HIV
infection currently is the greatest known risk factor for reactivating latent TB infections as well.

27. A client with hepatitis A (HAV) is newly admitted to the unit. Which action would be the
priority to include in the plan of care within the initial 24 hours for this client?

a. Wear masks with shields if potential splash

b. Use disposable utensils and plates for meals
Wear gown and gloves during client contact
d. Provide soft easily digested food with frequent snacks

C-
HAV is usually transmitted via the fecal-oral route. That means that someone with the virus
handles food without washing his or her hands after using the bathroom. The virus can also be
contracted by drinking contaminated water, eating raw shellfish from water polluted with sewage
or being in close contact with a person who's infected — even if that person has no signs and
symptoms. In fact, the disease is most contagious before signs and symptoms ever appear. The
nurse should recognize the importance of isolation precautions from the initial contact with the
client on admission until the noncontagious convalescence period.

28. A child is diagnosed with poison ivy. The mother tells the nurse that she does not know how
her child contracted the rash since he had not been playing in wooded areas. As the nurse asks
questions about possible contact, which of the following would the nurse recognize as highest
risk for exposure?

a. Playing with toys in a back yard flower garden

b. Eating small amounts of grass while playing "farm"
c. Playing with cars on the pavement near burning leaves
d. Throwing a ball to a neighborhood child who has poison ivy

C-
Smoke from burning leaves or stems of the poison ivy plant can produce a reaction. Direct
contact with the toxic oil, urushiol, is the most common cause for this dermatitis.

29. A female client diagnosed with genital herpes simplex virus 2 (HSV 2) complains of dysuria,
dyspareunia, leukorrhea and lesions on the labia and perianal skin. A primary nursing action with
the focus of comfort should be to

a. Suggest 3 to 4 warm sitz baths per day

b. Cleanse the genitalia twice a day with soap and water
c. Spray warm water over genitalia after urination
d. Apply heat or cold to lesions as desired

A-

Frequent sitz baths may sooth the area and reduce inflammation. The other actions are correct
actions. However, they would not address the entire group of problems.

30. A client with HIV infection has a secondary herpes simplex type 1 (HSV-1) infection. The
nurse knows that the most likely cause of the HSV-1 infection in this client is

a. Immunosuppression
b. Emotional stress
c. Unprotected sexual activities
d. Contact with saliva

A-
The decreased immunity leads to frequent secondary infections. Herpes simplex virus type 1 is
an opportunistic infection. The other options may result in HSV-1. However they are not the
most likely cause in clients with HIV.

31. When teaching adolescents about sexually transmitted diseases, what should the nurse
emphasize that is the most common infection?.

a. Gonorrhea
b. Chlamydia
c. Herpes
d. HIV

B-
Chlamydia has the highest incidence of any sexually transmitted disease in this country.
Prevention is similar to safe sex practices taught to prevent any STD: use of a condom and
spermicide for protection during intercourse.

32. The nurse is assigned to a newly delivered woman with HIV/AIDS. The student asks the
nurse about how it is determined that a person has AIDS other than a positive HIV test. The
nurse responds

a. "The complaints of at least 3 common findings."

b. "The absence of any opportunistic infection."
c. "CD4 lymphocyte count is less than 200."
d. "Developmental delays in children."

C-
CD4 lymphocyte counts are normally 600 to 1000. In 1993 the Center for Disease Control
defined AIDS as having a positive HIV plus one of these – the presence of an opportunistic
infection or a CD4 lymphocyte count of less than 200.

33. A client is in her third month of her first pregnancy. During the interview, she tells the nurse
that she has several sex partners and is unsure of the identity of the baby's father. Which of the
following nursing interventions is a priority?
a. Counsel the woman to consent to HIV screening
b. Perform tests for sexually transmitted diseases
c. Discuss her high risk for cervical cancer

A-
The client''s behavior places her at high risk for HIV. Testing is the first step. If the woman is
HIV positive, the earlier treatment begins, the better the outcome.

34. A nurse is to collect a sputum specimen for acid-fast bacillus (AFB) from a client. Which
action should the nurse take first?

a. Ask client to cough sputum into container

b. Have the client take several deep breaths
c. Provide a appropriate specimen container
d. Assist with oral hygiene

D-
Obtain a specimen early in the morning after mouth care. The other responses follow this first
action: the client should take several deep breaths then cough into the appropriate container
which is sterile for the AFB specimen of the sputum.

34. A 20 year-old client has an infected leg wound from a motorcycle accident, and the client has
returned home from the hospital. The client is to keep the affected leg elevated and is on contact
precautions. The client wants to know if visitors can come. The appropriate response from the
home health nurse is that:

a. Visitors must wear a mask and a gown

b. There are no special requirements for visitors of clients on contact precautions
c. Visitors should wash their hands before and after touching the client
d. Visitors should wear gloves if they touch the client

C-
Gown and gloves are worn by persons coming in contact with the wounds or infected equipment.
Visitors should wash their hands before and after touching the client.

35. Several clients are admitted to an adult medical unit. The nurse would ensure airborne
precautions for a client with which medical condition?

a. Autoimmune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) with cytomegalovirus (CMV)

b. A positive purified protein derivative with an abnormal chest x-ray
c. A tentative diagnosis of viral pneumonia with productive brown sputum
d. Advanced carcinoma of the lung with hemoptasis

B-
The client who must be placed in airborne precautions is the client with a positive PPD (purified
protein derivative) who has a positive x-ray for a suspicious tuberculin lesion. A sputum smear
for acid fast bacillus would be done next. CMV usually causes no signs or symptoms in children
and adults with healthy immune systems. When signs and symptoms do occur, they''re often
similar to those of mononucleosis, including: sore throat, fever, muscle aches, fatigue. Good
handwashing is recommended for CMV.

36. A client is diagnosed with methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus pneumonia. What type
of isolation is most appropriate for this client?

a. Reverse
b. Airbourne
c. Standard precautions
d. Contact

D-
Contact precautions or Body Substance Isolation (BSI) involves the use of barrier protection
(e.g. gloves, mask, gown, or protective eyewear as appropriate) whenever direct contact with any
body fluid is expected. When determining the type of isolation to use, one must consider the
mode of transmission. The hands of personnel continue to be the principal mode of transmission
for methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Because the organism is limited to the
sputum in this example, precautions are taken if contact with the patient''s sputum is expected. A
private room and contact precautions , along with good hand washing techniques, are the best
defenses against the spread of MRSA pneumonia.

37. Which of these clients with associated lab reports is a priority for the nurse to report to the
public health department within the next 24 hours?

a. An infant with a postive culture of stool for Shigella

b. An elderly factory worker with a lab report that is positive for acid-fast bacillus smear
c. A young adult commercial pilot with a positive histopathological examination from an induced
sputum for Pneumocystis carinii
d. A middle-aged nurse with a history of varicella-zoster virus and with crops of vesicles on an
erythematous base that appear on the skin

B-
Tuberculosis is a reportable disease because persons who had contact with the client must be
traced and often must be treated with chemoprophylaxis for a designated time. Options a and d
may need contact isolation precautions. Option c findings may indicate the initial stage of the
autoimmune deficency syndrome (AIDS).
38. A newly admitted adult client has a diagnosis of hepatitis A. The charge nurse should
reinforce to the staff members that the most significant routine infection control strategy, in
addition to handwashing, to be implemented is which of these?

a. Apply appropriate signs outside and inside the room

b. Apply a mask with a shield if there is a risk of fluid splash
c. Wear a gown to change soiled linens from incontinence
d. Have gloves on while handling bedpans with feces
D-
The specific measure to prevent the spread of hepatitis A is careful handling and protection while
handling fecal material. All of the other actions are correct but not the most significant.

39. Which approach is the best way to prevent infections when providing care to clients in the
home setting?

a. Handwashing before and after examination of clients

b. Wearing nonpowdered latex free gloves to examine the client
c. Using a barrier between the client's furniture and the nurse's bag
d. Wearing a mask with a shield during any eye/mouth/nose examination

A-
Handwashing remains the most effective way to avoid spreading infection. However, too often
nurses do not practice good handwashing techniques and do not teach families to do so. Nurses
need to wash their hands before and after touching the client and before entering the nursing bag.
All of the options are correct. The sequence for priority actions would be options a, c, b, and d.

40. The nurse is assigned to a client newly diagnosed with active tuberculosis. Which of these
protocols would be a priority for the nurse to implement?

a. Have the client cough into a tissue and dispose in a separate bag
b. Instruct the client to cover the mouth with a tissue when coughing
c. Reinforce for all to wash their hands before and after entering the room
d. Place client in a negative pressure private room and have all who enter the room use masks
with shields

D-
A client with active tuberculosis should be hospitalized in a negative pressure room to prevent
respiratory droplets from leaving the room when the door is opened. Tuberculosis (TB) is caused
by spore-forming mycobacteria, more often Mycobacterium tuberculosis. In developed countries
the infection is airborne and is spread by inhalation of infected droplets. In underdeveloped
countries (Africa, Asia, South America), transmission also occurs by ingestion or by skin
invasion, particularly when bovine TB is poorly controlled.

41. Transmission of HIV from an infected individual to another person occurs:

a. Most frequently in nurses with needlesticks

b. Only if there is a large viral load in the blood
c. Most commonly as a result of sexual contact
d. In all infants born to women with HIV infection

C-

Situation: 42 - 46
Linda is 4 years old and with her sister come to see you for her inflamed tonsils. Upon
assessment, you found inflammation of pharynx, larynx with adherent grayish rnembrane. You
know that it is diphtheria.

42. What is the cause of characteristic lesions in diphtheria?

a. Patches of grayish membrane

b. Infectious mononucleosis
c. Liberation of specific toxin
d. Bacterial pharyngitis

C-

43. What happens when bacteria are infected Cory bacteria phage containing the gene?

a. Lesions appear
c. Intermediate body type
b. Toxin production
d. Infection occurs

B-

44. To prevent transmission of diphtheria, what should the nurse teach the family?

a. Burn patients articles

b. Disinfect sotted articles
c. Separate patients artictes
d. Avoid contact with soiled clothes

B-

45. Effective control of diphtheria is wide spread immunizations. Which groups of vaccines are
administered together?

a. BCQ
b. DPT
c. Booster in Grade I
d. To triple dose
B-

46. Specific treatment for strongly suspected person with diphtheria is an anti toxin. Which
antibiotic on the other hand is used for diphtheria?

a. 20.000-1,000,000 units of erythromycin

b. 20,000-1,000,000 units of erythropoietin
c. 20,000-1,000,000 units of gentamycin
d. 20,000-1,000,000 units of chlorampenicol

A-

Situation: 47 - 50

Infection is pregnancy may cause considerable injury, both to the mother and the fetus, thus
prompt diagnosis management is indicated:

47. Chickenpox is primarily transmitted through the:

a. Respiratory route
b. Oral route
c. Skin to skin transmission
d. Anal route

A-

48. Vaccination of the live attenuated form of this organism is contraindicated for woman who
may become pregnant within 3 months.

a. Diphtheria
b. Tetanus
c. Rubella
d. Hepatitis

C-

49. This is a serologic test for syphilis which involves antibody detection by microscopic
flocculation of the antigen suspension:

a. VDRL
b. Fluorescent treponemal antigen antibodies
c. Treponema pallidum hemoglobin.
d. Treponema pallidum immunoassay

A-
50. Prevention of Gonococcal opthalmia is done through the practice use of:

a. Ophthalmic preparation with erythromycin or tetracycline

b. Any of these
c. None of these
d. 1% of silver nitrate eye drops

B-

51. be normal cmmensally of humans. In immune compromised humanshowever it may cause

oral / vulvo vaginal thrush:

a. Candida albicans
b. Coccidiodes imitus
c. Histoplasma capsulatum
d. Morganella morganii

A-

Situation: 52 – 56

Tuberculosis is one of the health problems in themucicipality of pillar where you are assigned as
a public health nurse

52. The magnitude of the problem in a community can be measured throught the following
diagnostic method.

a. All of these
b. Tubercullin testing
c. Bacteriological examination
d. Chest X-ray examination

A-

53. The following are integrated into the regular activities of the rural health unit.

a. All of these
b. BCG immunization
c. Case finding
d. Sputum microscopy

A-

54. In a follow visit to a TB patient you explained to the other member of the family that the
patient is communicable:
a. As long as the patient is coughing
b. About 1 year or 2 years after infections
c. AS long as the tubercle bacilli is discharge in the sputum
d. About 4-12 weefc from infection

C-

55. In response to the question as to how communicable is the patient you explained that the
degree of communic&biiity depends on:

a. Number of bacilli discharged

b. Virulence of the bacilli
c. Chances of the bacilli to be spread through coughing and talking.
d. All these factors

D-

56. T0 minimize/ prevent the soread of TB your health teaching includes which of the following:

a. Covering of nose and mouth when coughing or sneezing

b. Adherence to prescribed dosage and duration of treatment
c. Proper disposal of sputum and secretion soiled tissues
d. All these teachings

D-

Situation: 57 - 61

You are conducting a health education class on AIDS participated by a group of college students.
You emphasized preventive and control measures as follows:

57. The most logical means of preventing transmission of HIV from mother to child is that:

a. HIV positive woman should not become pregnant

b. HIV positive woman and their partners must be informed of the possible risk to the fetus.
c. HIV positive pregnant woman must be under close medical supervision.
d. Infants 0-15 months must be under close medical supervision

B-

58. The following safety precautions are important against AIDS.

a. Advise clients not to share toothbrushes and razors

b. Sterilize instruments for ear holing, tattooing and acupuncture
c. All these are important
d. Patients will only be given blood when medically justified or when blood is HIV negative
C-

59. Screening for HIV should be offered routinely to the following groups except:

a. None of these groups

b. People who feel they are sick
c. Babies of woman with HIV infection
d. Intravenous drug users seeking treatment

B-

60. You Explained that one preventive measure against AIDS is to practice safe sex such as:

a. Having sex with woman having her menstrual period

b. Anal sex
c. Oral sex
d. Having a monogamous relationship

D-

61. A student asks "if you accidentally discovered that one of your friends in the community is
HIV positve, what will you do?

a. Give him the usual friendly treatment as before

b. Tell your other friends about it so that they will know how to protect their self
c. Advise other members of the family to separate their eating utensils
d. Secretly avoid his company.

A-

Situation: 62 - 66

Bacterial conjunctivitis is common usually during summer months. Knowledge of this disease
will provide you with appropriate health teachings..

62. Conjunctivitis is transmitted through:

a. Contact with discharges from conjunctivae of infected persons

b. Mechanical transmission with vectors such as flies
c. Contact with discharges from upper respiratory tract.
d. All these mode of transmission

D-

63. The incubate period is usually:

a. 12 to 15days
b. 6 to 12 hours
c. 5 to 12 days
d. 24 to 72 hours

D-
64. This is most comunicable during:

a. All these stages of the disease

b. Lacrimal stage
c. Course of active in infection
d. Prodromal stage

B-

65. The spread of conjunctivitis can be prevented through

a. Treatment of infected member of the family

b. Personal hygiene
c. Practice of all these health measure
d. Good diet and living conditions

C-

66. The following measure for the control of conjunctivitis which of these does not belong?

a. Reporting ofcase to local health officials

b. Advising children not to attend school during the acute stage
c. Terminail disinfection of soiled articles
d. Immunizations of contacts

D-

Situatton: 67 - 71

Janice now 8 years old was never given any kind of immunization because the family had never
visited health care unit Now she is diagnosed to have acute poliomyelitis.

67. The major route of this transmission of polio virus in poor sanitation environment is:

a. Sewage disposal
b. Water system
c. Fecal-oral
d. Food staff
C-

68. When virus is ingested where does it multiply

a. Alimentary tract
b. Integumentary system
c. Urinary tact
d. Reproductive tract

A-

69. As a rural health nurse your most important function in pofio prevention is to

a. Educate the public on the advantages of immunization

b. Distribute leaflets about the causes of polio
c. Call all mother for a lecture
d. Refer all children to the doctor

A-

70. Your health teaching to Janice, the polio victim includes

a. Proper waste disposal

b. Proper eating habits
c. Regular health check up
d. Advocacy in health

A-

71. The best nursing intervention in the case of Janice is with paralysis of lower extremity due to
poliomyelitis is;

a. Letting Janice attend mothers class

b. Rendering physical comfort
c. Referral for physical therapy
d. Diet instruction

C-

Situation: 71 - 75

Infectious monucleosis is common among lovers John and Joan came to see you for fever sore
throat and lymph adenopathy. They are scheduled to get married next month.

71. How did both contact the disease:

a. Droplet
b. Food for snacks
c. Kissing
d. HIV infection

A-

72. Which among the following will you include in your health teaching

a. Appropriate hygienic measure

b. top kissing each other
c. Immunization for both
d. See the doctor for steroids

A-

73. Mononucleosis in children happens because of an acceptable practice of grand parents in

feeding their grand children with pre chewed food, what is your teachings?

a. Prepare soft diet

b. Feed babies only with bottles.
c. Avoid pre chewing of babies food
d. Pulverize meat before feeding

C-

74. The causative organism is?

a. Chlamydia
b. Epstein barr
c. Burkitts
d. Bronholm

B-

75. What is your health teachings for the couple?

a. Give away soiled articles

b. Burn the hankies
c. Dip utensils in boiling water
d. Throw clothes to the river

C-

Situation: 76 - 80
Lilia a 23 year old medical student develops severe vomiting and diarrhea. She appears markedly
dehydrated incoherent and lethargic.

76. Which of the following will be a reliable index for Lilia's dehydration?

a. Decrease in hematocrit count

b. Change in body weight
c. General appearance
d. Elevated blood pressure

B-

77. Lilia may benefit from which of the following drugs

a. Lomotil
b. Codeine sulfate
c. Metamucil
d. Phosposoda

A-

78. What fluids will be most likely indicated for her condition?

a. Gatorade
b. AM
c. Cola
d. High glucose energy drink

A-

79. Wnat will be the first sign of dehydration for her condition?

a. Thirst
b. Poor skin turgor
c. Dry lips
d. Sunken eye ball

A-

80. To prevent cross transmission to other people what would he the simplest prevention?

a. Hand washing
b. Alcohol application
c. Water Chlorination
d. Boiling of water
A-

Situation: 81 - 85

Benito lives in a farm where the rice paddies are continuously gets flooded. On a stormy night
Benito found dead rats floating in his paddles. He never knew that these rats were contaminated
with leptospirosis.

81. Benito went to RHU and looked for the Doctor, but he was attending an update in the city
what should you do?

a. Check vital signs

b. Bring him to the hospital
c. Start IV to open blood vessels
d. Call the doctor

A-

82. The common feature of leptospirosis are the following but one is not

a. Fever
b. Chills
c. Headache
d. Vomiting

B-

83. Upon nursing assessment you found out that Benito has an open wound. What is the mode of
transmission of leptospirosis?

a. Use of belongings
b. Rats and rodent
c. Open skin contact
d. Droplet spread

C-

84. Your nursing function is to educate the people regarding the importance of immunization and
prevention. Which one is your nursing function in leptospirosis?

a. Explanation of phatophysiology
b. Health education
c. Nutrition and exercise
d. Medication

B-
85. Treatment of leptospirosis is asymptomatic but usually this drug is prescribed mg orally once
a month.

a. Doxycyciine
b. Ciprobay
c. Rocalthrol
d. Amoxicillin
A-

Situation: 86 - 90

Immunity may be natural or acquired but here is no absolute immunity

86. What kind of immunity is the state of resistance to infection inherent in the body not brought
about by the previous attack, of the disease?

a. Passive
b. Natural
c. Anaphylactic
d. Active

B-

87. What kind of immunity is acquired resulting from previous attack of the disease or repeated
exposure to doses of an organism?

a. Anaphylactic
b. Active
c. Passive
d. Natural

B-

88. What is the term which means there is an increase susceptibility to special substances
especially protein. When this is introduced in the body the response which is a delayed
hypersensitivity reaction may be alarming?

a. Anaphylaxis
b. Antidote
c. Serum sickness
d; Dermatologist

A-

89. What kind, of immunity is dependent on the presence of the blood of immune substances not
produced by the persons own body cells?

a. Passive
b. Active
c. Natural
d. Prophylactic

A-
90. Before introduction of any foreign substances to the body it is the duty of the nurse to
prepare a syringe with aminophylline anaphylactic shock what do you call this procedure.

a. Horse serum
b. Antidote
c. Sensitivity
d. Dermatologist

B-

Situation: 91 - 95

Infection and immunity is two important process.

91. What is the term which means the entry and development of an infectious agent in the body?

a. Incidence
b. Infection
c. Infestation
d. Incubation

B-

92. What is the term which means resistance of the body associated with the presence of
antibodies or cells having specific action on microorganism or toxin?

a. Immunity
b. Mortality
c. Morbidity
d. Pathogenicity

A-

93. What is an incidence rate used to include all person in the population who become
chronically ill?

a Immunity
b. Pathogenicity
c. Mortality
d. Morbidity

D-

94. What is the rate calculated in the same way using a numerator number of deaths occurring
during a stipulated time?

a. Immunity
b. Pathogenicity
c. Mortality
d. Morbidity

C-

95. What kind of infection occurs after the patient has been admitted or even after discharge
which were acquired during or even after hospitalizations.

a. Transmission
b. Quarantine
c. Isolation
d. Nosocomial

D-

Situation: 96 -

Mang Inasal is malnourished, living in a crowded area. He came in the health center due to loss
of weight easy fatigability chronic dry cough and low grade fever.

96. The main source of infection pulmonary tuberculous is:

a. Crowded living quarters

b. Unavailability of portable drinking water
c. Direct contact with infected person
d. Unsanitary surrounding

A-

97. A physician orders an X- ray examination for the patient. What is the purpose for this?

a. To check if patient have relative with TB

b. To see the evidence of having the disease
c. Determine severity of the lesions in the lungs
d. To aid in doctors prescriptions.
C-

98. In TB control program of DOH it has specific objectives; one on prevention is another
program which is focused in children, which one below on this program?

a. Differential prophylaxis
b. Sputum collection and examination
c. EPI for BCG vaccine
d. Tuberculin skin testing

C-

99. On health education which one is the responsibility of the community health nurse?

a. Intensive and responsive IEC campaign

b. Intersection coordination
c. Supervision and monitoring
d. Periodic reporting and recording

A-

100. If assigned to conduct research related to TB control which would provide epidemiological
and sociological information? Choose one method of data collection.

a. Identify operational problem

c. Read related literature
b. Prevalence survey
d. Include TB cases as population

D-

101. A client is admitted to the health care facility with active tuberculosis. The nurse should
include which intervention in the plan of care?

a. Putting on a mask when entering the client’s room.

b. Instructing the client to wear a mask at all times
c. Wearing a gown and gloves when providing direct care
d. Keeping the door to the client’s room open to observe the client

A-
Because tuberculosis is transmitted by droplet nuclei from the respiratory tract, the nurse should
put on a mask when entering the client’s room. Having the client wear a mask at all the times
would hinder sputum expectoration and make the mask moist from respirations. If no contact
with the client’s blood or body fluids is anticipated, the nurse need not wear a gown or gloves
when providing direct care. A client with tuberculosis should be in a room with laminar air flow,
and the door should be closed at all times.
102. The nurse is caring for four clients on a step-down intensive care unit. The client at the
highest risk for developing nosocomial pneumonia is the one who:

a. has a respiratory infection

b. is intubated and on a ventilator
c. has pleural chest tubes
d. is receiving feedings through a jejunostomy tube

B-

When clients are on mechanical ventilation, the artificial airway impairs the gag and cough
reflexes that help keep organisms out of the lower respiratory tract. The artificial airway also
prevents the upper respiratory system from humidifying and heating air to enhance mucociliary
clearance. Manipulations of the artificial airway sometimes allow secretions into the lower
airways. Whit standard procedures the other choices wouldn’t be at high risk.

103. A woman whose husband was recently diagnosed with active pulmonary tuberculosis (TB)
is a tuberculin skin test converter. Management of her care would include:

a. scheduling her for annual tuberculin skin testing

b. placing her in quarantine until sputum cultures are negative
c. gathering a list of persons with whom she has had recent contact
d. advising her to begin prophylactic therapy with isoniazid (INH)

Individuals who are tuberculin skin test converters should begin a 6-month regimen of an
antitubercular drug such as INH, and they should never have another skin test. After an
individual has a positive tuberculin skin test, subsequent skin tests will cause severe skin
reactions but won’t provide new information about the client’s TB status. The client doesn’t have
active TB, so can’t transmit, or spread, the bacteria. Therefore, she shouldn’t be quarantined or
asked for information about recent contacts.

Situation: 104 - 108

The patient have sore that does not heal. Upon examination it reveals leprosy.

104. Mode of transmission of leprosy is?

a. Sharing food
b. Sexual contact
c. Borrowing utensils
d. Droptet infection

D-
105. Late signs and symptoms of leprosy in male patients is enlargement of the breast known as:

a. Clawing
b. Madarosis
c. Gynecomastia
d. Lagopthalmos

C-
106. Your role in prevention of leprosy is

a. Health education
b. Personal hygiene
c. Proper nutrition
d. BCG vaccination

D-

107. Multi drug therapy is being implemented by the DOH. Where is the initial treatment done?

a. Midwifes residence
b. Barangay captain office
c. Barangay health station
d. Rural health unit

D-

108. Which of the following vaccine is used in the prevention of leprosy?

a. OPV
b. EPI
c. DPT
d. BCG

D-

Situation: 109 - 113

Beth is a pre schooler. One evening she developed irritating cough. Which gradually became
paroxysmal and characterized by:

1. Violent cough without intervening inhalation

2. Browing of high pitched inspirational whoop
3. Tenacious whooping at night
4. Vomiting of ingested food.

109. Which group characteristic are correct for pertussis?

a. 2 and 3 .
b. 2 and 4
c. 1 and 2
d. 1 and 3

C-

110. Which laboratory procedure is done to diagnose pertussis?

a. Saliva examination
b. Culture examination
c. Swab examination
d. Culture and sensitivity

C-

111. When blood is examined which blood component is elevated in pertussis

a. Eosinophils
b. Lynphocytes
c. WBC
d. CBC

C-

112. Treatment for pertussis during outbreak is ordered for 14 days which among these may be
ordered by the doctor,

a. Erythromycin
b. Ampicillin
c. Penicillin
d. Crystalline

C-

113. Preventive measure is immunization before the 7th birthday. These vaccines are
simultaneously give with 2 other what are they?

a. Tetanus toxoid and polio

b. Tetanus toxoid and diphtheria
c. Diphtheria and polio
d. Diphtheria and tetanus

D-
Situation: 114 - 118

One of the leading cause of morbidity and mortality is pulmonary infections. Acute respiratory
infection (ARI) could be managed at home, given the proper protocol:

114. Which of the following should a nurse include in the health teachings given to mothers to
prevent ARI?

a. Wash hands after using the toilet

b. Avoid smoking in the home
c. Avoid droplet infection
d. Consult the doctor regularly

B-

115. In adults with pneumonia or ARI in the home, which drug must be available at the RHU
based on standard management?

a. Chloramphenicol
b. Oxygen tanks
c. Co-trimoxazole
d. Injectable gentamycin

C-

116. In far flung areas, who could dispense ARI standard orders in case of pneumonia in
children?

a. Sanitarian
b. Midwife
c. Nurse
d. Barangay health worker

B-

117. During home visit, the nurse assessed the child with ARI. Which of the following signs
indicate immediate medical attention?

a. Inability to drink
b. Restlessness
c. Temperature is 37.7 °C
d. Poor appetite

A-

118. Which of the following is NOT included in the intervention of acute respiratory infection?
a. Measles immunization
b. Avoid smoking
c. Breastfeeding
d. Good ventilation

C-

Situation: 119 - 123

Communicable diseases are classified according to portal of entry

119. Which of the following C.D. is NOT through the upper respiratory system?

a. Chicken pox
b. Measles
c. Mumps
d. Malaria

D-

120. Which of the following C.D. is NOT gastrointestinal tract as portal of entry?

a. Leprosy
b. Paratyphoid
c. Typhoid
d. Dysentery

A-

121. Which of the following is NOT skin and mucous membrane entry?

a. Gonorrhea
b. Dengue
c. Scabies
d. Syphilis

B-

122. Which of the following are NOT immediate vectors?

a. Rocky mountain fever

b. Yellow fever
c. Ringworm
d. Relapsing fever
C-

123. Microorganisms have the ability to invade the body tissue and proliferate causing
infections. One factor is virulence of organism. What is the other factor?

a. Weakness of the body

b. Resistance of the organism
c. Resistance of the host
d. Weakness of the organism

C-

Situation: 123 - 127

The Department of Health reports that Acute Respiratory Infection (ARI) especially pneumonia
remains to be the leading causes of death among Filipino children.

123. Nurse, which of the following is the FIRST step in the prevention of unnecessary death
from pneumonia?

a. Identification of treatment
b. Interpretation of signs
c. Assessment by asking question
d. Clarification of problems

C-

124. Which of the following is the MAJOR factor which contributes to the -problem like ARI?

a. Poor nutrition of mother and child

b. Inadequate training of health workers
c. Mothers failure to recognize signs and symptoms
d. Lack of antibiotic to treat pneumonia

C-

125. Mrs. Cruz brought her 3.5 months granddaughter, Therese to the Rural Health Unit because
of inability to feed well, cough, and abnormality sleeping. Which classification of pneumonia is
this?

a. No pneumonia
b. Severe
c. Influenza
d. Very severe

D-
126. If Therese needs procaine penicillin, what unit dose is given at the RHU before referring her
to the district hospital?

a. 400,000
c. 200,000
b. 300.000
d. 800,000
A-

127. If Therese is in the home, which one of the following is a priority to be taught to Therese
mother?

a. Clear nose if it interferes with feeding

b. Bring child to RHU at once
c. Give antibiotic for 5 days
d. Weight the child every morning

C-

Situation: 128 – 132

Ms. Chesca went with her friend to a picnic and developed diarrhea after reaching home late in
the afternoon.

128. Which of the following would NOT cause her diarrhea?

a. Intestinal bacterial infection

b. Psychogenic disorders
c. Excessive ingestion of fresh sea foods
d. Ingestion of fresh fruits

B-

129. Which of the following associated symptoms may suggest a developing ulcerative colitis?

a. Abdominal cramping
b. Chills
c. Nausea and vomiting
d. Anorexia

A-

130. Considering her cases the general principles for assessing and intervening to prevent and
correct fluid electrolytes imbalance are the following EXCEPT:
a. Assess for fluid and electrolyte balance
b. Develop a care plan
c. Consult a dietician to determine the kind and amount of food intake
d. Implement the plan

C-

131. Among the following interventions, which of these diets would correct and prevent protein
deflate?

a. Low in protein
b. High in caibohydrates and appetizing
c. High in protein and appetizing
d. Low in carbohydrates

C-

132. How would you assess her for any sign of dehydration?

a. Sunken Fontanel
b. Fair skin turgor
c. Tea-colored urine
d. Concentrated urine

D-

Situation: 133 - 136

Tuberculosis, a primary disease is common among malnourished individuals living in crowded

places. The Dept. of Health survey of 1997 reveals that there are 600,000 actively spreading the
disease, and 16 million Filipinos are afflicted.

133. The bacteria producing the disease is:

a. Mycobacterium
b. Mycobacterium africanum
c. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
d. Mycobacterium leprae

C-

134. Which of the following is the mode of transmission pulmonary tuberculosis?

a. Ingested food
b. Skin contact
c. Airborne droplet
d. Used utensils

C-

135. Which vaccine is a preventive measure during infancy and grade school entrants?

a. BCG
b. DPT
c. Tuberculin
d. OPV

A-

135. As a nurse, which of the following topics is considered your health teaching in cases if
communicable diseases?

a. Prevalence of the disease in the community

b. Annual risk of infection
c. Mode of spread and control measure
d. Morality rate among adults and infants

C-

136. Which of the following comprehensive strategies used to detect and cure tuberculosis?

a. Category and Treatment Regimen

b. Case finding and maintenance
c. Direct Observe Treatment Short Course
d. Strengthen national TB Control Program

C-

Situation: 137 - 141

Rico is a 2-year-old. He attended a birthday party of a playmate. When he came home, he

vomited-about one cup of semi-digested food.

137. You are the nurse Rico's neighborhood. His mother called you to advise what to do. You
would tell Rico's mother to:

a. Go to the hospital right away

b. Tell you what food Rico ate at the party
c. Take vital signs of Rico
d. Call the doctor in the neighborhood

B-
138. Vomiting is a sign of gastrointestinal disturbance. What other symptom would you
anticipate when thesis a history of acting spoiled food?

a. Diarrhea
b. Fever
c. Pain
d. Constipation

A-

139. The preparation at home that Rico's mother could give Rico to replace fluid loss is salt and
sugar solution. Which formula is correct for one liter of water?

a. One tablespoon salt to two tablespoon of sugar

b. One portion of salted one portion sugar
c. One cup salt and one cup sugar
d. One teaspoon salt and eight teaspoon sugar

D-

140. If vomiting and diarrhea persist. Rico's stool should be examined. Which bacteria could be
identified from contaminated food such s egg, meat, poultry, and water?

a. Clostridium bolulinum
b. Salmonella typhimurium
c. Staphylococcus aereus
d. Escherichia Coli-ETEC

B-

141. lf Rico is hospitalized, which intravenous fluid is usually prescribed by physicians?

a. Dextrose 50%
b. Dextrose 5% in water
c. Normal salt solution
d. Lactated Ringers Solution

D-

142. A tuberculin skin test with purified protein derivative (PP!) tuberculin is performed as part
of a routine physical examination. The nurse should instruct the client to make an appointment so
the test can be read in:

a. 3 days
b. 5 days
c. 7 days
d. 10 days

A-

143. A nurse is caring for a client with a nosocomial infection caused by methicillin-resistant
Staphylococcus aureus. Contact precautions are initiated. The nurse prepares to provide
colostomy care to the client. The nurse obtains which of the following protective items
required in performing this procedure?

a. Gloves, gown and goggles

b. Gloves and goggles
c. Gloves, gown and shoe protectors
d. Gloves and a gown

-A
Goggles are worn to protect the mucous membranes of the eyes during interventions that may
produce splashes of blood, body fluids, secretions, or excretions. In addition, contact
precautions require the use of gloves, and a gown should be worn if direct client contact is
anticipated. Options B and D are incorrect because they are incomplete.Option C is incorrect
because shoe protectors are not necessary.

144. Hepa patients prescribed activity level is bed rest with bathroom privilege. The purpose of
bed rest for the patient is to:

a. Reduce the body’s need for oxygen

b. Reduce the metabolic demands of the liver
c. Control the spread of the disease
d. Prevent the breakdown of body’s fats

B-

145. Although it is present in other secretions, the virus Hepa-A will be excreted from the body
primarily through this

a. Skin
b. Feces
c. Urine
d. Mucus

B-

146. Contaminated hands are often responsible for the transmission of hepatitis. In addition, the
virus that caused the patient’s Hepatitis is very often spread by

a. Infected insects
 b. Infected rodents
c. Contaminated foods and liquids
d. Contaminated clothing and eating utensils

C-

147. As a result of having had Hepa A, the patient should be instructed never to

a. Drink alcohol
b. Donate blood
c. Smoke
d. Eat fatty foods

D-

148. School children with varicella should be kept out of school for at least

a. 1 week before the appearance of rashes

b. 1 week after recovery
c. 1 week after first eruption appears or until the vesicle is dry
d. 1 and half month after appearances of rashes

C-

149. The great incidence of communicable diseases in the country can be attributed to the
following

a. Poor economic condtion

b. Poor environmental sanitation
c. Inadequate health education
d. All of the above

D-

150. The problem that affects prevalence of GIT diseases are

1. Lack of safe water

2. unsanitary excreta disposal
3. poor ventation
4. Crowded housing

a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 3
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 2 and 4
A-

151. Cholera may be diagnosed if a child may manifest the following signs and symptoms

a. Bloody stools
b. Mucoid stools
c. Rice-watery stools
d. Black stools

C-

152. Filariasis caused by worm-like parasite invades the

a. Respiratory system
b. GIT
c. Lymphatic system
d. Urinary tract

C-

153. The test used to diagnose typhoid fever is the

a. Dick test
b. Schick test
c. Widal test
d. Stress test

C-

154. The drug of choice for typhoid fever is

a. Penicillin
b. Chloramphenicol
c. Terramycin
d. Rifampicin

B-

155. Which of the following best fits typical rash of varicella?

a. Maculopapular rash
b. Maculopapular, vesicular rash
c. Erythromatous
d. Pseudomembrane formation

B-
156. The diagnostic feature of the rubella is the presence of

a. Polymorphous rash
b. Koplik spot
c. Rose red spots
d. Pseudomembrane formation

A-

157. German measles incurred by pregnant women during their first trimester of pregnancy
causes teratogenic effects which include, except;

a. Microcephaly
b. Congenital heart defects
c. Mental retardation
d. None of the above

D-

158. One of the following is characteristic diagnostic features of pertussis

a. Inspiratory whoop
b. Lymphadenopathy
c. Heart murmur
d. Tourniquet test (+)

A-

159. It is an acute enteric fever manifested by a sustained bacteremia, reticuloenthelial

involvement, and microorganism formation and ulceration of the distal form

a. Dysentery
b. Hepatitis
c. Typhoid fever
d. Cholera

C-

160. A point in differentiating varicella from variola is that in chickenpox, the lesions appear

a. Like blisters
b. Corps
c. In the mucosa
d. Like crusts
B-

161. The lesions is chickenpox are found mainly on the

a. Soles of the feet

b. Trunks
c. Forearm
d. Palms of the hands

B-

162. The room is darkened as part of the nursing care of a patient ill with tetanus because

a. Light is painful to the eyes

b. Light is stimulating to spasms
c. Light will kill the organism
d. Light is not conductive to sleep

B-

163. Philippine hemorrhagic fever is caused by

a. Aedes aegypti
b. Anopheles
c. Plasmodium ovale
d. None of these

A-

164. Which of the following is most important procedure to teach in typhoid fever?

a. Taking the temperature

b. Preparation of the liquid diet
c. Disinfection of the excreta
d. All of these

C-

165. A pattern of disease occurrence wherein there is an unusually great number of diseases ina
short period of time

a. Sporadic
b. Epidemic
c. Pandemic
d. Endemic
Situation: 166 – 170

Communicable diseases remains a major health problem in the Philippines. The nurse plays an
important role in controlling the spread of any communicable diseases.

166. The control of any communicable disease depends to a large measure upon following
except

a. Application of effective control measures

b. Nature of the disease itself
c. Knowledge of appropriate technology
d. Discipline of the health providers

D-

167. First line of defense of the body against infection is

a. Physical fitness
b. Full immunization
c. An intact skin
d. Personal hygiene

C-

168. Which of the following statements on breaking the chain of infection is true?

a. Every link in the chain of infection can be interrupted

b. A virulent agent can resist infection
c. The mode of direct contact is often direct entry
d. An inappropriate portal of entry will not support infection

A-

169. Newborn babies have limited ability to produce antibodies heance, immunization should not
be given earlier that

a. 2 months
b. 1 month
c. 3 months
d. 3 weeks

D-

170. Health education in the prevention and control of communicable disease is a vital
component to
 a. Help individual cope with illness
b. Reduce the risk of exposure
c. Modify risk behavior
d. Diminish psychosocial stress

C-

Situation: 171 – 175

In an orientation program of new nurses, you were requested to update them on Hepa B. The
discussion were on the following

171. On the nature of the diseases, the following statements are correct except

a. Most people get well completely and develop lifelong immunity

b. The reservoir of Hepa B virus is man
c. The prior of communicability is only during the acute clinical course of the disease
d. Some infants infected with this disease are not able to develop

C-

172. The mode of transmission of the disease is/are the following

a. Through personal items

b. Through sexual intercourse
c. Any of these modes of transmission
d. From mother to child during birth

C-

173. The nurse plays a vital role on the implementation of control measures. Which of these
is/are important

a. Disinfection of equipment or any article contaminated with blood, saliva and semen
b. All of these are important
c. Immunization of members of family and other contacts
d. High risk pregnant women should be tested for the presence of Hepa B antigen

B-

174. Hepa B vaccination have incorporated with the plans of EPI. The main target of this
vaccination are the

a. Carriers
b. Newborns and infants
c. School children
 d. Preschoolers

B-

175. Hepa B vaccination is given as follows

a. 2 doses at 3 weeks interval

b. 3 doses at 4 weeks interval
c. 2 doses at 4 weeks interval
d. 4 doses at 3 weeks interval

B-

Situation: 176 – 179

Epidemiologic investigation was done by the Rural health unit because of outbreaks of typhoid
fever

176. As public health nurse, you know that the typhoid fever is caused by

a. Improper personal hygiene

b. Inhalation of contamination water
c. Intake of unsafe water or food
d. Ticks

C-

177. The primary purpose of conducting this investigation is to

a. Identify the groups who are at risk of contacting the disease

b. Delineate the etiology of the disease
c. Encourage cooperation and support of community
d. Identify geographical location where the disease would most likely occur

A-

178. Which of the following sources of data will not be necessary?

a. Records maintained by the hospital

b. Health care reports
c. Population census
d. None of the above

D-
179. As a public health nurse in rural health unit, you have a vital role in the conduct of
epidemiological investigation and this is among others the.

a. Institute appropriate control measures in a confirmed outbreak

b. Checking the presence of signs and symptoms according to the standards of the case
c. Monitor selected number of disease by weekly charting or graphing these are they occur
in the barangay
d. Planning and securing necessary resourced needed for the disease.
B-

Situation: 180 – 183

A patient is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of infections Hepatitis

180. What would you consider as primary nursing treatment?

a. High fluid intake

b. Prompt antibiotic therapy
c. Adequate bed rest
d. IV therapy

C-

181. Which of the following diet would most likely be prescribed by the M.D.

a. High fat
b. Balanced diet
c. High CHON
d. Bilirubin CHO

B-

182. Which of the following laboratory test best assess the patient’s liver functioning?

a. Glucose tolerance
b. Creatinine
c. Serum transminase
d. Billirubin level

C-

183. The primary portal of exit of Hepa A virus is the

a. Mucus
b. Skin
c. Urine
 d. Feces

D-

184. the prevention and control measures of parasitic infection are based on which of the
following

a. Understanding of the parasite’s life cycle and their transmission pattern

b. All of these
c. Participation and cooperation of the community
d. Availability of antihelmintic drugs in the area

B-

185. the etiology agent of hemorrhagic fever

a. Anopheles mosquito
b. Flaviviruses
c. Aedes aegypti
d. RNA virus

C-

186. Early treatment of dengue fever included all of the following except

a. Prevention of shock
b. Monitoring of vital sings
c. Administration of IV as ordered
d. None of the above

D-

187. The period of communicability of variella

a. 1 day before the appearance of rashes

b. 1 day before and 6 days after the appearance of rashes
c. Pre-incubation period
d. None of the above

B-

188. Group of cells that appear first during the inflammatory stage

a. Neutrophils
b. Basophils
c. Lymphocytes
 d. All of the above

A-

189. Intermittent occurrence of a few isolated and unrelated cases in a given locality is best
described as

a. Epidemics
b. Sporadic
c. Endemics
d. Pandemics

B-

190. it is antiviral substance produced within the cells that inhibit the growth and multiplication
of virus

a. Properdin
b. Interferon
c. Lysozome
d. Tears

B-

191. the only Ig that passes the placental barrier

a. IgA
b. IgG
c. IgM
d. IgE

B-

192. Ig responsible for the medication of allergic response

a. IgA
b. IgG
c. IgM
d. IgE

D-

193. Nursing care for an adolescent admitted with tentanus following a puncture wound should
be primarily directed toward

a. Decreasing external stimuli

 b. Maintaining body alignment
c. Encouraging high intake of fluid
d. Carefully monitoring urinary output
A-

194. The nurse should maintain isolation of a child with a diagnosis of bacterial meningitis

a. For 12 hours after admission

b. Until the cultures are negative
c. Until antibiotic therapy is completed
d. For 48 hours after antibiotic therapy begins

D-

195. Three days after admission, a 2 year old with the diagnosis of meningitis appears clinically
improved. A spinal tap is done to assess the child’s response to therapy. The nurse correctly
interprets that the client’s condition is improving when the report of the spinal fluid indicates.

a. Decreased protein
b. Decreased glucose
c. Increased cell count
d. Increased specific gravity

A-

196. When caring for a child with meningococcal meningitis, the nurse should observe for the

a. Identifying purpuric skin ash

b. Low-grade nature of the fever
c. Presence of severe glossitis
d. Continual tremors of the extremities

A-

197. To identify possible increasing intracranial pressure, the nruse should monitor a 2 year old
with the diagnosis of meningitis for

a. Restlessness, anorexia, rapid respirations

b. Vomiting, seizures, complaints of head pain
c. Anorexia, irritablitiy, subnormal temperature
d. Bulging fontanels, decreased blood pressure elevated temperature

B-

198. The most serious complication of meningitis in young children is

 a. Epilepsy
b. Blindness
c. Peripheral circulatory collapse
d. Communicating hydrocephalus

C-

199. When teaching parents at the school about communicable diseases are serious and that
encephalitis can be a complication of

a. Pertussis
b. Chickenpox
c. Poliomyelitis
d. Scarlet fever

B-

200. A mother asks the nurse how to tell the difference between measles(rubeola) and German
measles (Rubella). The nurse tells the mother that with rubeola the child has

a. High fever and Koplik spots

b. A rash on the trunk with pruritus
c. Nausea, vomiting and abdominal cramps
d. Symptoms similar to a cold, followed by a rash

A-

201. Chickenpox can sometimes be fatal to children who are receiving

a. Insulin
b. Steroids
c. Antibiotics
d. Anticonvulsants

B-

202. A viral infection characterized by a red, blotchy rash and Koplik’s spots in the mouth is

a. Mumps
b. Rubella
c. Rubeola
d. Chickenpox

C-
203. A viral disease that begins with respiratory inflammation and skin rash and may result in
grave complications is

a. Rubella
b. Rubeola
c. Yellow fever
d. Chicken pox

B-

204. Under certain circumstances the virus that causes chickenpox can also cause

a. Athlete’s foot
b. Herpes zoster
c. German measles
d. Infectious hepatitis

B-

205. Akin infection that can be sequel of staphylococcal infection or glomerulonephritis is

a. Scabies
b. Impetigo
c. Intertrigo
d. Herpes simplex

B_

206. An infection caused by the yeast Candida albicans often occurring in infants and debilitated
individuals is

a. Thrush
b. Dysentery
c. Malta fever
d. Typhoid fever

A-

207. A child was bitten on the hand by a dog who had recently received a rabies shot. The
nursing priority for this child would be directed toward ensuring that the

a. Suture line remains red and dry

b. Child odes not develop a fear of dogs
c. Rabies antibodies develop within 48 hours
d. Mobility of the hand returns to a pre injury state in 1 week
D-

208. A nurse can assist in confirming a suspected diagnosis of intestinal infestation with
pinworms in a 6 year old child by

a. Asking the mother to collect stools for 3 consecutive days for culture
b. Instructing the mother to do an anal scotch tape test early in the morning
c. Having the mother bring in the child’s stools for visual examination for 3 days
d. Assisting the mother to schedule a hypersensitivity test of the child’s blood serum

B-

209. Exposure to hepatitis B may occur in hospitals because of

a. Careless handling of feces by staff

b. Increasing use of ventilating systems
c. Needle sticks and mucous membrane exposure
d. Early diagnosis and improved treatment of hepatitis A

C-

210. The most effective time for the nurse to perform a cellophane tape test for pinworms is

a. Just following a BM
b. Immediately after meals
c. At bedtime before bathing
d. Early morning before arising

D-

211. Pinworms cause a number of symptoms besides anal itching. A complication of pinworm
infestation, although rare, that the nurse should observe for is

a. Hepatitis
b. Stomatitis
c. Appendicitis
d. Pneumonitis

C-

212. A clinic nurse explains to the mother of a child with a pinworm infestation how pinworms
are transmitted. The nurse can best evaluate the effectiveness of the teaching when the mother
states:

a. I’ll have to be sure that the cat stays off my children’s bed
b. I’ll have to reinforce my child’s handwashing techniques before eating or handling food
 c. I’ll be sure to distinct the toilet seat after every bowel movement for the next several days
d. My child contracted this infestation form the dirty schools toilets, and I’ll report that to
the school nurse

B-

213. Medendazole (Vermox) 100 mg bid 3 days is ordered for a child with pinworms. It is
advisable that this drug also be administered to

a. The child’s younger brother who is 1 year old

b. All members of the child’s family who test positive
c. All people using the same toilet facilities as the child
d. The child’s mother, father and siblings even though they are symptoms free

D-

214. A disorder, following astreptococcal infection characterized by swollen joints, fever and the
possibly of endocarditis and death is

a. Tetanus
b. Measles
c. Rheumatic fever
d. Whooping cough

C-

215. Immunity by antibody formation during the course of disease is

a. Active natural immunity

b. Active artificial immunity
c. Passive natural immunity
d. Passive artificial immunity

A-

216. Occasionally infants are born without an immune system. They can live normally with no
apparent problems during their first months after birth because

a. Exposure to pathogens during this time can be limited

b. Limited antibodies are produced by the infant’s colonic bacteria
c. Antibodies are passively received from the mother through the placenta and breast milk
d. Limited antibodies are produced by the fetal thymus during the eighth and ninth months
of gestation.

217. Using live virus vaccines against measles is contraindicated in children receiving
corticosteroids, antinoplastic or irradiation therapy because these children may
 a. Have had the disease or have been immunized previously
b. Be unlikely to need this protection during their shortened life span
c. Be susceptible to infection because of their depressed immune response
d. Have an allergy to rabbit serum, which is used as a basis for these vaccines

C-

218. The mother of child who has received all of the primary immunizations asks the nurse
which ones the child should receive before starting kindergarten. The nurse suggests the child
receive the following boosters

a. DtaP and IVP

b. IVP and Hep-B
c. Measles and rubella
d. DtaP and tuberculin test

A-

219. When reviewing the immunization schedule for an 11 month old, the nurse would expect
that the infant had been previously immunized against

a. Pertussis, tetanus, and diphtheria

b. Polio, pertussis, tetanus, and diphtheria
c. Measles, mumps, rubella and tuberculosis
d. Measles, rubella, polio tuberculosis and pertusis

B-

220. A mother asks the nurse how the DtaP injection works. The nurse in formulating a response
recalls that in active immunity

a. Lipid agents are formed by the body against antigens

b. Protein antigens are formed in the blood to fight invading antibodies
c. Protein substances are formed by the body to destroy or neutralize antignens
d. Blood antigens are aided by phagocytes in defending the body against pathogens

C-

221. a father of three young children is diagnosed by having tuberculosis, members of this
family who have a positive reaction to the tuberculin test are candidates for treatment with

a. BCG vaccine
b. INH and PAS
c. Old tuberculin
d. Purified protein derivative of tuberculine
B-

222. If a person has been exposed to tuberculosis by shows no signs or symptoms except a
positive tuberculin test, prophylactic drug therapy is unusually continued after the last exposure
for a period of

a. 3 weeks
b. 4 months
c. 9 months
d. 2 years

C-

223. Children in the family ofa person who has tuberculosis who have been exposed to but show
no evidence of the disease

a. Can be considered to be immune

b. Should be given antitubercular drugs
c. Are usually given massive dose of penicillin
d. Are given x-ray examinations every 6 months

B-

224. Selection of drugs of choice for the treatment of pneumonia depends primarily on

a. Tolerance of the client

b. Selectivity of the organism
c. Sensitivity of the organism
d. Preference of the physician

225. A 6 year old child is admitted to the hospital with pneumonia . an immediate priority in this
child’s nursing care would be

a. Rest
b. Exercise
c. Nutrition
d. Elimination

A-

226. Pyridoxine is given with isonizid because it:

a. Enhances tuberculostatic effect on isoniazid

 b. Improves the immunologic response of the client
c. Provides when the vitamin isoniazid is interfering with natural vitamin synthesis
d. Accelerates destruction of remaining organisms after inhibition of their reproduction by
isoniazid

C-

227. Whenever quinine is used the nurse should be alert to symptoms of severe cinchonism,
which include

a. Deafness
b. Paresthesias
c. Difficulty breathing
d. Painful swollen joints

A-

228. After several days of IV therapy for chloroquine resistant malaria. The physician replaces
the IV injection with quinine sulfate, 2 g per day in divided doses. The nurse should administer
this medication after meals to

a. Delay its absorption

b. Minimize gastric irritation
c. Decrease stimulation of appetite
d. Reduce its antidysrhythmic action

B-

229. After receiving streptomycin sulfate for 2 weeks as part of the medical regimen for
tuberculosis the client states, ―I feel like I am walking like drunken seaman.‖ The nurse
withholds the drug and promptly reports the problem to the physician because the signs may be a
result the drug’s effect on the

a. Contain little if any sodium

b. Are readily absorbed by the stomach mucosa
c. Have no direct effect on systemic acid-base balance when taken as directed
d. Cause a few side effects such as diarrhea or constipation when they are used properly

D-

230. A serious complication of acute malaria is

a. Congested lungs
b. Impaired peristalsis
c. Anemia cachexia
d. Fluid and electrolyte imbalance
D-
231. A client who has exposed to hepatitis A is givengamma globulin to provide passive
immunity which

a. Increases production of short lived antibodies

b. Provides antibodies the neutralize the antigen
c. Accelerates antigen-antibody union at the hepatic sites
d. Stimulates the lymphatic system to produce large numbers of antibodies

B-

232. A client is concerned aboutcontracting malaria while visiting relatives in Southeast Asia.
The nurse explains that the best way to provent malaria is to avoid

a. Mosquito bites
b. Untreated water
c. Undercooked food
d. Overpopulated areas

A-

233. the nurse is reviewing the physical examination and laboratory test of a client with malaria.
Te nurse understands that an important finding in malaria is

a. Leukocytosis
b. Erythrocytosis
c. Splenomegaly
d. Elevated sedimentation rate

B-

234. When caring a client with malaria, the nurse shouldknow that

a. Seizure precautions must be followed

b. Peritoneal dialysis is usually indicated
c. Isolation is necessary to prevent cross-infection
d. Nutrition should be provided between paroxysms

D-

235. When teaching a client about drug therapy against Plasmodium falciparum the nurse should
include the fact that.

a. The infection is controlled

b. Immunity will prevent reinfestations
 c. The infection can generally be eliminated
d. Transmission by the Anopheles mosquito can occur
C-

236. Blackwater fever occurs in some clients with malaria; therefore the nurse should observe a
client with chronic malaria for

a. Diarrhea
b. Dark red urine
c. Low-grade fever
d. Coffee ground emesis

B-

237. When caring for a client who is HIV positive, a primary responsibility of the nurse is to
explain how the client can prevent

a. AIDS
b. Social isolation
c. Other infections
d. Kaposi’s sarcoma

C-

238. The nurse is instructing a group about food preparation. They are told to avoid using
products in damaged can because they might contain the anaerobic spore-forming rod

a. Escherichia coli
b. Clostridium tetani
c. Salmonella typhosa
d. Clostridium botullinum

D-

239. The most important method of preventing amebic dysentery is

a. Tick control
b. Sewage disposal
c. Killing biting gnats
d. Pasteurization of milk

B-

240. A client with hepatitis asks the nurse, ―Why don’t you give me some medication to help me
get rid of this problem?‖ the nurse’s best response would be
 a. Sedatives can be given to help you relax
b. We can give you immune serum globulin
c. There are no specific drugs used to treat hepatitis
d. Vitamin supplements are frequently helpful and hasten recovery

C-

241. The nurse has instructed a client with viral hepatitis about the type of diet should be eaten.
The lunch selection that would indicate the client understands and compliance with the dietary
principles taught is

a. Turkey salad, French fried, sherbet

b. Cheeseburger, taco chips, chocolate pudding
c. Salad, sliced chicken sandwich, gelatin dessert
d. Cottage cheese, peanut butter sandwich

C-

242. A parent asks the nurse about the head lice (pediculosis capitis) infestation during a visit to
the clinic. Which of the following symptoms would the nurse tell the parent most common in a
child infection with head lice?

a. Itching of the scalp

b. Scaling of the scalp
c. Serious weeping on the scalp surface
d. Pinpoint hemorrhagic spots on the scalp surface

A-

243. A parent asks, "Can I get lice too?" The nurse indicates that adults can also be infested with
the head .ice but that pediculosis is more common among school children, primarily which of the
following reasons?

a. An immunity to pediculosis usually is established by adulthood

b. School-aged children tend to be more neglectful of frequent handwashing
c. Pediculosis usually ts spread by close contact with infested children
d. The skin of adults is more capable of resisting the invasion of lice

C-

244. After teaching the parents about the cause of ringworm of the scalp (tinea capitis) which of
the following, if stated by the father, indicates successful teaching?

a. Overexposure of the sun

b. Infestation with a mite
c. Fungal infection of the scalp
 d. An allergic reaction

C-

245. Gnseofulvin (Grisactin) was ordered to treat a child's ringworm of the scalp. The nurse
instructs the parents to use the medication for several weeks for which of the following reasons?

a. A sensitivity to the drug is likely if it is used over a periodic of time

b. Fewer side effects Occur as the body slowly adjust to a new substance over time
c. Fewer allergic reaction occur if drug is maintained at the same level long-term
d. The growth of the causative organism into new cells is prevented with long-term use

D-

246. A mother asks the nurse one of the children get pinworms?" The nurse explains that
pinworm? The nurse explains that pinworms are most commonly spread which of the following
when contaminated?

a. Food
b. Animals
c. Hands
d. Toilet seats

B-

247. A mother asks the nurse that one of the children has chicken pox and ask what sjie should
do to care for that child. When teaching the mother, which of the following would be most
important to prevent?

a. Add-base imbalance
b. Malnutrition
c. Skin infection
d. Respiratory infection

C-

248. A mother has heard that several children have been diagnosed with mononucleosis. She
asks the nurse what precautions should be taken to prevent this from occurring in her child.
Which of the following would the nurse advice the mother to Jo?

a. Take no particular precautionary measures

b. Sterilize the child's eating utensils before they are reused
c. Wash the child's linens separately in hot. soapy water
d. Wear masks when providing direct personal care

A-
249. A father asks the nurse how he would know if his child had developed mononucleosis. The
nurse explains that in addition to fatigue, which of the following would be most common?

a. Liver tenderness
b. Enlarged lymph glands
c. Persistent nonproductive cough
d. A blush like generalized skin rash

B-

250. An adolescent tells the school nurse she thinks she has infectious mononucleosis. Which of
the following would the nurse expect the student exhibit most frequently?

a. Sore throat and malaise

b. Fatigue and weight loss
c. Cold-like symptoms and fever
d. Skin rash and abdominal rash

A-

251. A mother tells the nurse that her 17-month-old has been exposed to another child with
reseola After teaching the mother about illness, which of the following, if stated by the mother as
the most arteristic sign of reseola, would indicate successful teaching?

a. Fever and sore throat

b. Normal temperature followed by a low-grade fever
c. High fever followed by a drop and then a rash
d. Cold like signs and symptoms and a rash

C-

252. Client complains of severe vulvar pruritus and a yellow-green, malodorous vaginal
discharge. The nurse recognizes that the symptoms suggest

a. Gonorrhea
b. Syphilis
c. Chlamydia
d. Trichomoniases

D-

253. Which of following is usually the initial clinical manifestation of gonorrhea in men?

a. Impotence
b. Scrotal pain
 c. Penile lesion
d. Urethral discharge

D-

254. A pregnant woman at 12 weeks' gestation diagnosed with gonorrhea. The physician orders
doxycycline. The first action of the nurse should be to

a. Instruct the client about the effects of the drug

b. Make sure the record notes that the baby must receive eye drops when born
c. Have the physician add a single dose of ceftriaxone (Rocephin)
d. Discuss with the physician the need to change the order

D-

255. A client is diagnosed with genital herpes, (herpes simplex virus type 2, or HSV-2). The
nurse should instruct the client that

a. Using occlusive ointments may decrease the pain from the lesions
b. Reducing stressful life events may decrease the incidence of herpetic outbreaks
c. There are no effective drug therapies to manage herpes symptoms
d. Herpes is transmitted to partners only when lesions are weeping

B-

256. When performing routine health evaluations in school-aged children, which of the following
would alert the school nurse to pediculosis capitis (headlice)?

a. Spotty baldness
b. Wheals with scalp blistering
c. Frequent scalp scratching
d. Dry, scaly patches on the skin

C-

257. The nurse is evaluating a female clients understanding of how to prevent sexually
transmitted diseases (STDs). Which of the following statements indicates that the client
understands how to protect herself?

a. "I will be sure my partner uses a condom."

b. "I need to be sure to take my birth control pills."
c. "I will always douche after sexual intercourse.
d) "I will be sure to take antibiotics to prevent
STD."

A-
258. Assessment of a 36-year-old woman complaining of malaise and dysuria reveals a
temperature of 100°F (37 4CF) and painful blisters on the outside of her vagina. The client tells
(he nurse she had intercourse with a new partner 5 days ago. Which of the following would the
nurse suspect as most likely?

a. Human immunodeficiency virus ( HIV) infection

b. Chlamydia trachomatis infection
c. Syphilis
d. Herpes genitalis

D-

259. The nurse has obtained the nursing history of client diagnosed with hepatitis C What would
be considered a potential risk factor for acquiring hepatitis C?

a. Drinking contaminated water

b. Traveling to India
c. Having a tattoo
d. Eating shellfish

C-

260. A female is treated for trichomoniasis with metronidazole (Flagyl). The nurse instruct the
client that

a. The medication should not alter the color of the urine

b. She should discontinue oral contraceptive use during this treatment
c. She should avoid alcohol during treatment and for 24 hours after completion of the drug
d. Her partner does need treatment

C-

261. A client w.th dementia is going to live with his daughter who does not work outside of the
home. The nurse would evaluate that the daughter needs further education when she makes
which of the following statements?

a. I've put special locks on all the doors that dad wont be able to unlock
b. "Dad said that what he missed most while he was here was using his aftershave."
c. "Dad will be in bedroom that has nothing for him to trip over getting to the bathroom."
d. "I've taken the knobs off of the stove so he won't be able to turn it."

B-

262. Which of the following is necessary for nurses to protect themselves form HIV?
 a. Universal precautions
b. Hand washing
c. Enteric precautions
d. Respiratory precautions

A-

263. Which of the following nursing diagnoses would be most appropriate when planning
interventions for a 28-year-old male with CD4 cell count of 600 mm3 and facial Kaposi's
sarcoma (KS) lesions?

a. Potential for infection related to open KS lesions

b. Body image disturbance related to facial KS lesions
c. Potential impaired physical mobility related to lower extremity KS lesions
d. Potential sexual dysfunction related to genital KS lesion

B-

264. When managing an AIDS client with weakness and severe vision loss due to CMV retinitis,
which of the following nursing interventions is most important?

a. Placing a 1 visually impaired" sign over the head of the bed

b. Referring the client to support group for persons win vision loss
c. Instructing the client to call prior to getting out of bed and placing the call bell within
reach
d. Encouraging the client to verbalize feelings about vision loss

C-

265. When leaching an HIV positive person about HIV transmission prevention, which of Ihe
following should the nurse includes?

a. The HIV-positive person can share razors and toothbrushes with the other household
members
b. The HIV-positive person should have his or her own utensils
c. The HIV-positive person's laundry must be done separately
d. The HIV-positive person can share the sane bathroom with the other household members

D-

266. An HlV-positive client asks the nurse what the best way is to clean up blood spills the home
nurse is correct to inform the client to

a. Remove the excess with a paper towel and clean the remainder with a 1:10 bleach to
water solution
b. Remove the excess with a paper towel and clean the remainder the rubbing alcohol
 c. Remove the excess with a paper towel and clean the remainder with soapy water
d. Remove the excess with a paper towel and clean the remainder with bleach

A-

267. An AIDS client with open Kaposi's sarcoma lesions on the upper extremities is admitted to
the Hospital. When assessing the client’s vital signs the nurse should wear which of the
following?

a. Gloves and gown

b. Gown
c. Gloves
d. Gown and mask

C-

268. An end stage AIDS client requires suctioning. When pe.form.ng this task the nurse is
correct to wear

a. A mask and eye protection

b. Sterle gioves and eye protection
c. A mask and sterile gloves
d. A mask, eye protection, and sterile gloves

D-

269. A nurse assesses the client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome AIDS for early signs
of Kaposi's sarcoma The nurse observes the client for lesion(s) that are:

a. Unilateral raised and bluish purple

b. Bilateral, fiat, and pink, turning to dark violet or black
c. Unilateral, red, raised and resembling a blister
d. Bilateral, flat and brownish and scaly in appearance

B-

270. A client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is being admitted for treatment
if Pneumocystis carinii infection. Which of the following activities that assists in maintaining
comfort does the nurse plan to include in the care of "his client?

a. Assess respiratory rate rhythm, depth, and breath sounds every 8 hours
b. Evaluate arterial blood gas results
c. Keep the head of the bed elevated
d. Monitor vital signs every hour

C-
271. A nurse is teaching a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) how to
purse lip breath. The nurse tells the client

a. That inhalation should be twice as long as exhalation

b. To loosen the abdominal muscles while breathing out
c. That exhalation should be twice as long as inhalation
d. To inhale with pursed lip and exhale with the mouth open

C-

272. A client with Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS) shares with the nurse feelings
of social isolation since the diagnosis was made. The nurse plans to suggest which of the
following strategies as the most useful way to decrease the client's loneliness?

a. Using the internet on the computer facilitate communication

b. Use of the television and newspapers to maintain a feeling of being" in touch" with the
world
c. Contacting a support group available in the local region for clients with AIDS
d. Reinstituting contact with the client's family, who live in a distance city

C-

273. A client has an initial positive result of an enzyme linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
test for human immunodeficiency syndrome (HIV) The client begins to cry and ask the nurse
what this means. The nurse is able to provide support to the client by using knowledge that:

a. The client is HIV positive, but the disease has been detected early
b. The client is HIV positive, but the client's status CD4 cell count is high
c. There is a high rate if false positive results with this test, and more testing is needed
before diagnosing the client's status as HIV positive
d. There are occasional false-positive readings with this test, which can be cleared up by
repeating

C-

274. A prenatal client has been told during a physician visit that she is positive for human
immunodeficiency virus (HIV). The client cried and was significantly regarding this news.
Which of the following diagnoses would these data best support?

a. Pain
b. Noncompliance
c. High risk for infection
d. Anticipatory Grieving

D-
275. A nurse is assessing the status of the prenatal client. Following the assessment, the nurse
determines that which piece of data places the client into the high risk category for contracting
immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?

a. Living in an area where HIV infection is minimal

b. A history of IV drug use in the past year
c. A history of one sexual partner within the past 10 years
d. A spouse who is heterosexual and had only one sexual partner in the past 10 year

B-

276. A teenager returns to the gynecological (GYN) clinic for follow-up visit for sexually
transmitted disease (STD). Which of the following statements, if made by the teenager, indicates
the need for further teaching?

a. "I always make sure my boyfriend uses a condom."

b. "I know you won't tell my parents I'm sick."
c. "My boyfriend doesn't have to come in for treatment, does he?"
d. "I finished the entire antibiotic, just like you said."

C-

277. A client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) gets recurrent Candida
infections (thrush) of the mouth. The nurse has given instructions to the client has given
instructions to the client to minimize the occurrence of thrush, and evaluates that the client
understands the material if which of the following statements is made by the client?

a. I should brush my teeth and rinse my mouth once a day.

b. I should use a strong mouthwash at least one week.
c. Increasing red meat in my diet will keep this from recurring.
d. Eating 8 oz of yogurt that contains live culture to control this

D-

278. A nurse is teaching a client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) how to
avoid food borne illnesses, me nurse instructs the client to avoid acquiring infection from food
by avoiding which of the following items?

a. Raw oyster
b. Pasteurized milk
c. Products with sorbitol
d. Bottled water

A-
279. A client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is being treated for tuberculosis
with isoniazid (INH). The nurse plans to teach the client which of the following regarding the
administration of the medication?

a. Administer with an antacid to prevent gastrointestinal distress

b. Administer at least 1 hour before administering an aluminum containing antacid to
prevent a medication interaction
c. Administer with food to prevent rapid absorption of INH
d. Administer with corticosteroids to potentiate the effects of INH

B-

280. A clinic nurse is providing home care instructions to a female client who has been
diagnosed with recurrent trichomoniasis. Which statement by the client indicates a need for
further instructions?

a. "I need to perform good perineal hygiene."

b. "I need to refrain from sexual intercourse."
c. "I need to discontinue treatment if my menstrual periods begin."
d. "I need to take metronidazole (Flagyl) for 7 days

C-

281. A nurse is teaching a client with histoplasmosis infection about prevention of future
exposure to infectious sources. The nurse evaluates that the client needs further instruction if the
client states that potential infections sources include:

a. Grape arbons
b. Mushroom cellars
c. Floors of chicken houses
d. Bird droppings

A-

282. A nurse is planning care for a child with an infectious and communicable disease. The nurse
determines that the primary goal is that the:

a. Child will experience only minor complications

b. Child will not spread the infection to others
c. Public health department will be notified
d. Child will experience mild discomfort

B-
283. A nurse is preparing to care for an infant with pertussis. In planning care, the nurse
addresses which most critical problem first?

a. Ineffective airway clearance

b. Fluid volume excess
c. Sleep pattern disturbance
d. High risk infection

A-

284. A mother of a child with mumps calls a health care clinic to tell the nurse that the child has
been very lethargic and has been vomiting. The nurse most appropriately tells the mother:

a. To continue to monitor the child

b. That lethargy and vomiting are normal manifestations of mumps
c. To bring the child to the clinic to be seen by the physician
d. That as long there is no fever, there is nothing to be concerned about

C-

285. A child with a diagnosis of hepatitis B is being cared for at home. The mother if the child
calls the health care clinic and tells a nurse that the jaundice seems to be worsening. Which of
following responses to the mother would be most appropriate?

a. "The hepatitis may be spreading‖

b. "You need to bring the child to health care clinic to see the physician."
c. 'The jaundice may appear to get worse before it resolves."
d. "It is necessary to isolate the child from others."

C-

286. A nurse is asked to go to a local high school to talk to students about sexually transmitted
diseases (STDs). The nurse plans to tell the student that

a. Birth control pills are the only way to prevent STDs

b. The diaphragm provides a barrier to prevent STDs
c. The use of condoms does not provides any protection
d. The use of condoms and avoiding casual sex with multiple partners prevent STDs

D-

287. The parents of the child with mumps express concern that their child will develop orchitis
as a result of having mumps. The parents ask the nurse about the complication and about the
signs that may indicate this complication. The nurse responds knowing that which of the
following is t a sign of this complication?
 a. Abrupt onset of pain
b. Fever and chills
c. Headache and vomiting
d. Difficulty urinating

D-

288. A client with active tuberculosis (TB) is to be admitted to a medical surgical unit. When
planning a bed assignment, the nurse:

a. Plans to transfer the client to the intensive care unit

b. Assigns the client to a double room, because intravenous antibiotics will be administered
c. Assigns the client to a double room and places a ―strict handwashing" sign outside the
door
d. Places the client in a private, well ventilated room

D-

289. A client is suspected of having pulmonary tuberculosis (TB). The nurse assesses the client
which of the following signs and symptoms of TB?

a. Weight gain, insomnia, and night sweats

b. Low-grade fever, fatigue, and productive cough
c. High fever, night sweats, and chest pain
d. Decreased appetite, dyspnea and chills

B-

290. A client who has a positive sputum culture for Mycobacterium tuberculosis (TB) has been
started on therapy with streptomycin. The nurse interprets that the client is experiencing toxic
effects of the medication if which of the following results is abnormal?

a. Hemoglobin and hematocrit

b. Blood urea nitrogen ( BUN) and creatinine
c. Hepatic enzymes
d. Vision testing

B-

291. A male client being seen in the ambulatory care clinic in a history of being treated for
syphilis infection, the nurse interprets that the client has been re infected if which of the
following characteristics is noted in a penile lesion?

a. Multiple vesicles, with some that have ruptured

b. Papular areas and erythema
c. Cauliflower like appearance
 d. Induration and absence of pain

D-

292. Which of the following immunization is given to the newborn anytime after birth?

a. BCG
b. DPT
c. OPV
d. Hepa B

A-

293. A child receives her first DPT when he or she is how many weeks or months old

a. 1 week
b. 3 weeks
c. 6 weeks
d. 12 weeks

C-

294. If the woman receives 3 DPT doses during her infancy and now she is to receive another TT
dose as part of the program for pregnant mothers. How will you consider the succeeding dose?

a. TT1
b. TT2
c. TT3
d. TT4

C-

295. This refers to typing of domestic animals like carabo near human dwellings to deviate
mosquito bites from man to these animals

a. Zooprophylaxis
b. On stream seedings
c. Schizonticides
d. Propagation of lavae eating fish

A-

296. Measles is on of the leading mortality in the country among children the source of
infections are

a. Nasal and throat secretions

 b. Oral fecal contamination
c. Skin lesions and skin discharges
d. Food and water source is questionable

A-

297. Death in measles is related to which of the following complications?

a. Encephalitis
b. Pneumonia
c. Systemic infection
d. Anaphylactic shock

B-

298. Which of the following immunizing agent is given to susceptible children or children who
have been exposed to measles

a. Measles gamma globulin

b. Activated measles vaccine
c. Killed virus of measles
d. Live attenuated measles virus

A-

299. Which of the following should be given to children with no history of measles and had not
been exposed to measles at 9 months of age and thereafter

a. Measles gamma globulin

b. Activated measles vaccine
c. Killed virus of measles
d. Live attenuated measles virus

A-

300. A child with measles has an inflamed eyes. This is called

a. Bitot spot
b. Rose spot
c. Stimson signs
d. Koplik spots

C-

301. Which of the follwong diseases in children is characterized by the presence of macula-
papular rash and becomes vesicular thereafter
 a. Measles
b. German measles
c. Chickenpox
d. Smallpox

C-

302. A patient comes to the clinic with influenza like symptoms, general body malaise, nausea
and vomiting, yellowish discoloration of the skin, itchiness, the nurse will suspect

a. Leptospirosis
b. Dengue fever
c. Hepatitis A
d. Hepatitis B

C-

303. This disease commonly occurs after ingestion of bivalve shellfish or mollusks

a. Paragonimiasis
b. Cholera
c. Dysentery
d. Red tide poisoning

D-

304.Tthis is considered a zoonotic disease wherein the organism thrive in rats

a. Leptospirosis
b. Paragonimiasis
c. Bubonic plague
d. Rodenticide

A-

305. The mode of transmission of schistosomiasis is throught?

a. Contact with fresh water infected with cercariae

b. Bites of aedes poicelius
c. Drinking water of questionable source
d. Oral fecal transmission

A-

306. The intermediate host of the cercarae is the

 a. Tick mite
b. Snail
c. Dog
d. Crab

B-

307. Early signs and symptoms of schistosomiasis are

a. Abdominal pain and liver enlargement

b. Itchiness and pain at the site of predilection
c. Diarrhea and bloody stools
d. Anemia and inflamed liver

C-

308. Which of the following will you advice the client to submit for in order to detect the
presence of schistosomiasis organism

a. Chest x ray
b. Urinalysis
c. Stool examination
d. Platelet count

C-

309. Filiarisis is transmitted to man through bites from

a. Snail
b. Infected male mosquito
c. Infecte femal mosquito
d. Rats

C-

310. A person may become asymptomatic but confirmatory test will reveal the presence of which
if the following in the blood?

a. Cercariae
b. Merozoites
c. Microfilariae
d. Larvae

C-
311. Which of the following is considered chronic signs and symptoms of filariasis

a. Spleenomegaly
b. Chills and fever
c. Elephantiasis
d. Lympadenitis

C-

312. Filiaris patients are advised to observe personal hygieve by

a. Washing the affected part with alcohol

b. Washing the affected areas with soap and water
c. Boiling drinking water
d. Cleaniness of the surroundings

B-

313. The vector of filariasis is know as

a. Aedes egypti
b. Aedes pocillius
c. Plasmodium falciparum
d. Oncomelania quadrasi

B-

314. The disease that is transmitted by the bite of dog

a. Mud dog disease

b. Rabies
c. Tetanus
d. Anthrax

B-

315. Signs and symptoms indicative of the diease cause by dog bites are

a. Hyperemia at affected sites, chills and fever

b. Nausea and vomiting, paresthesia at the bite site
c. Tingling sensation at the bite site, numbness of affected part, difficulty of speech
d. Fever, headache, spasms of muscles, hydrophobia, delirum, and convulsion

D-

316. For how long will you observe the dog after biting man for signs of the disease
 a. 1 week to 2 weeks
b. 30 days from the time of the bite
c. 1 month to 3 months
d. One year

A-

317. If the dog does not manifest any signs indicative of the disease after the suggestive time
element for observation, it means that the dog is

a. On her incubation period

b. Still in the window phenomenon
c. Still in the prodromal stage
d. Apparently healthy

D-

318. If the dog shows signs suggestive of the disease yoru best move is to

a. Apply providone iodine continuously to the affected part

b. Kill the dog and bury
c. Kill the dog and bring the head for laboratory examination
d. Kill the dog and bring the head for lab exam and submit for immunization

D-

319. A client comes to the center consultation with the following complaints: itchiness and
eruptive lesions of legs and arms especially body folds like breast groin. History reveals that she
is living on a tenement. The nurse will suspect

a. Anthrax
b. Scabies
c. Psoriasis
d. Chickenpox

B-

320. This a cutaneous infection that can be contacted uncontaminated wool, fur. The exposed
part of skin begins to itch and papules appear in the inoculation sites. The papules becomes
vesicles and developed into black eschars

a. Anthrax
b. Scabies
c. Psoriasis
d. Chickenpox
A-
321. You happened to glace another client in the health center who appears gaunt looking
apprehensive with maculopapular rashes. Upon history taking the patient has been experiencing
loss of appetite, marked weight loss, fever, malaise, cough for long duration. History reveals that
2 years ago, the patient received blood transfusion because of surgery. The nurse will suspect

a. Hepa A
b. Hepa B
c. HIV
d. Anthrax

C-

322. People getting water from the pipe system is prone to

a. Nosocomial infection
b. Droplet infection
c. Diarrheal diseases
d. Skin infection

C-

323. The local health department helps to control communicable diseases in the community by
providing local immunization program

a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary
d. all of the above

A-

324. This concept of immunity refers to a situation in which a person's immunity to one agent
provides that person with immunity to another related agent

a. Active
b. Passive
c. Herd
d. Cross

D-

325. Which of the following STDs does chancre develops

a. Gonorrhea
 b. Syphilis
c. Chlamydia
d. Genital herpes

B-

326. Giving immunization through the EPI will provide which type of immunity

a. Passive acquired
b. Artificial active
c. Passive natural
d. Passive artificial

B-

327. The following conditions ate treated with antibiotics

1. dysentery
2. amebiasis
3. cholera
4. ascariasis

A. 1, 2
B. 2, 3
C. 1, 3
D. 3, 4

C-

328. Malaria may attack children. It is caused by parasites in the blood called:

a. Virus
b. Fungus
c. Bacteria
d. Plasmodium

D-

329. the most dangerous of the four species is the:

a. Falciparum
b. Vivax
c. Ovale
d. Malariae

A-
330. The main symptom of malaria is:

a. Shivering
b. Fever
c. Sweating
d. Vomiting

B-

331. While a child with measles, the main symptoms are:

1. Fever
2. Cough and difficulty of breathing
3. Chest in drawing
4. Diarrhea
5. Generalized rash
6. Maculopaular vesicular rash

A. 1,3,5
B. 2,3,5
C. 1,5
D. 5,6

C-

332. A child came in for consultation and the nurse saw inside the mouth and on the cheeks the
presence of small irregular bright red spots and with a white spots in the center. The nurse will
suspect:

a. Typhoid fever
b. Diphtheria
c. Measles
d. Dengue

C-

333. Which of the following child is not candidate for BCG immunization?

a. Those with AIDS

b. Those with fever
c. Those with diarrhea
d. Those with imminent for polio

A-
334. Which of the following is contraindicated for DPT2 or DPT 3

a. Fever
b. Convulsions
c. Diarrhea
d. Skin rashes

B-

335. While it is stated that TT can be given as early as possible during pregnancy, it is
recommended that it should be given during which month of pregnancy?

a. 3 to 4 mons
b. 4 to 5 mons
c. 5 to 6 mons
d. 7 to 8 mons

C-

336. When the mother has been immunized to TT, the mother conveys protection to the child for
at least how many months or years

a. 3 mons
b. 5 mons
c. 7 mons
d. 1 year

B-

337. In giving BCG the gauge of the needle is

a. 18
b. 21
c. 23
d. 26

D-

338. If there is an outreak of a disease the nurse will guard for the occurrence of what pattern of
distribution of disease

a. Endemic
b. Epidemic
c. Sporadic
d. Pandemic
B-

339. The vaccines that are most sensitive to heat are

a. Oral polio, BCG

b. DPT, Hepa B
c. Measles, TT
d. Oral polio, measles

D-

340. Vaccines that are least sensitive to heat are

a. Oral polio, BCG

b. DPT, Hepa B
c. Measles, TT
d. Oral polio, measles

B-

341. What storage temperature recommended for polio and measles

a. -10 C to -15 C
b. -15 C to -25 C
c. +2 C to +8 C
d. +8 C to +12 C

B-

342. Which of the following vaccines are stocked in the freezer?

a. Oral polio, BCG

b. DPT, Hepa B
c. Measles, TT
d. Oral Polio, measles

D-

343. Which of the following vaccines are stocked in the refrigerator portion only

a. DPT and TT
b. Oral polio, measles
c. Measles and TT
d. Oral polio and Hepa B

A-
344. How many drops of oral polio is given to the child during immunization?

a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four

B-

345. Which of the following are considered a triple vaccine

a. BCG
b. DPT
c. TTI
d. OPV

B-

346. To reconstitute the vaccine means

a. To freeze it
b. To dry it
c. To add diluents water
d. To make it less easily damaged by heat

C-

347. Opened vaccines like DPT, TT, MV and Hepa B is advised to be discarded

a. 2 hours after immunization

b. 4 hours after immunization
c. 6 hours after immunization
d. At the end of the working day

D-

348. Whereas opened BCG must be discarded

a. 2 hours after immunization

b. 4 hours after immunization
c. 6 hours after immunization
d. At the end of the working day

D-
349. Tuberculosis is highly infectious chronic disease caused by:

a. Streptococcus
b. Protozoan
c. Tubercle bacilli
d. E. Coli

C-

350. Tuberculosis is spread by the following except.

a. Droplet
b. Sexual contact
c. Direct or indirect contact with person or object contaminated with the organism
d. Drinking unpasteurized milk

B-

351. The age group with the highest risk for TB of developing the disease is between

a. Children under three years old

b. Children entering grade one
c. 8-12 years old
d. 13-15 years old

A-

352. The modern management of TB patient is

a. Confinement in the hospital

b. Ambulatory treatment
c. Isolation
d. Sherltered colony

B-

353. The following are anti-TB drugs except

a. Rifampacin
b. Ethambutol
c. Dapsone
d. Pyrazinamide

C-
356. A patient with symptoms of TB is recommended to the preferred method of case finding
which is

a. X-ray examination
b. Operation timbang
c. ECG
d. Sputum microsopy

D-

357. Which of the following drugs when administered produces adverse reaction like peripheral
neuropathy?

a. INH
b. PZA
c. Rifampacin
d. Streptomycin

A-

358. What drug of choice is given to counteract the effect of such drug(INH)

a. Aspirin
b. Vitamin B complex
c. Vitamin C
d. Antacid

B-

359. A patient who do not come to the health centers and barangay health stations within 2 or 3
days oafter the appointed day for drug collection as be regarded as

a. Missed cases
b. Defaulters
c. Dangerous
d. High risk

B-

360. The short course regimen in the NTP consist of Intensive phase and continuation phase.
The intensive phase consist of

a. 1 month daily administration of1 tab. Of INH and 2 tabs of PZA

b. 2 months daily administration of 1 tab of INH 300 mgs, and 2 tabs of PZA 500 mgs, 2
tabs ethambutol 400 mgs, 450 mgs Rifampicin in one doze
c. 3 months daily administration of 2 tab INH and 2 tables of PZA in one dose
 d. 2 moths daily administration of 2 tab. INH and 1 tabof PZA in one dose

B-
361. The continuation phase includes:

a. 1 month daily administration of 1 tab inh and 1 cap of rifampicin in one dose
b. 3 months daily administration of 2 tab INH and 1 cap rifampicin in one dose
c. 2 months administration of 1 tab INH and 1 tab PZA in one dose
d. 4 months daily administration of 1 tab of INH and cap Rifampicin in one dose

D-

362. If the sputum is still smear positive at the end of second month of directly observed
chemotherapy the midwife will suspect that the patient is

a. Defaulter
b. Drug sensitive
c. Drug resistant
d. Delinquent in talking the drugs

C-

363. Category I treatment regimen is for patients who are considered

a. Relapsed cases
b. New pulmonary TB sputum positive
c. Newly diagnosed by smear negative for 3x
d. Not serious extra pulmonary cases

B-

364. Category II treatment regimen is directed towards client with the following condition except

a. Extrapulmonary TB
b. Previously treated patient with relapses
c. Previously treated patients with failures
d. None of the above

A-

365. Intensive phase (referring to first 2 months ) of category II treatment refers to:

a. INH + Rifampicin +PYZ + Ethambutol

b. INH + Rifampicin + PYZ + Ethambutol + Streptomycin
c. Streptomycin + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide
d. Isonizid + Rifampicin + ethambutol
B-

366. Nurse Joy is the community health nurse of Rural health unit for six years, in communicable
diseases cases, which of the following shoulbe be done to the CHN bag?

a. Thoroughly cleanse and disinfected

b. Well kept and convenient to the nurse
c. Basic medication and articles competence
d. Contents thoroughly completed

A-

367. Due to poor sanitation, the Filipinos are afflicted by communicable diseases. The
departments of health program with sanitation components greatly help eradicate or control such
disease

a. Reporting the leakage of water from the tap

b. Boiling water from the faucet
c. Construction of good pipes
d. Imparting knowledge in disinfection fo water supply

D-

368. Nurse Dirk is on duty when a mother came to the clinic asking for an injection for her son
was bitten by a dog, which of the following should be done by nurse Dirk?

a. Refer to the nearest hospital

b. Ask mother the history of the event
c. Wash the wound with soap and water
d. Immediately inject anti rabies vaccine

B-

369. Nurse Jordan is on duty when a mother came to the clinic asking for an injection for her son
was bitten by a dog, when assessment has been completed and nurse Jordan saw the wound, he
should:

a. Wash the wound with soap and water

b. Ask for prescription from the doctor
c. Apply ointment and dress the wound
d. Ask for immunoglobulin

A-

370. category III treatment is prescribed to:

 a. New pulmonary TB with positive smear
b. New pulmonary TB with smear negative sputum
c. Seriously ill with extra pulmonary TB
d. Far advance TB

B-

371. DOTS is a comprehensive strategy in treating TB. The health worker is instructed to:

a. Observe patients swallow the drugs

b. Advise client to take the drugs when they goes home
c. Take the drugs as tolerated by the patient
d. Train the patient to take the first dose on her own

A-

372. As a general rule immunization sessions shall be conducted

a. Every 2 weeks
b. Once a month
c. Every 3 months
d. At any time when the vaccine are available

B-

373. Tetanus toxoid immunization shall be given to pregnant women

a. After 3 months gestation

b. On the first month after sensation of menstruation
c. Third trimester of pregnancy
d. At any time during pregnancy

D-

374.To confer life time immunity of TT immunization

a. 2 booster doses are needed

b. 3 booster doses are needed
c. 4 booster doses aer needed
d. 5 booster doses are needed

B-

375. BCG is preferably given

 a. At birth 1 month
b. At any time before 1 year
c. At 6 months of age
d. At 9 to 14 months of age

A-

376. Who are the eligible population which is the greatest concern to EPI because this is the most
population risk?

a. Infant
b. School entrants
c. Toodlers
d. 0 to 6 months group

A-

377. BCG vaccines comes

a. Freeze dried form

b. Dry form
c. Liquid form
d. Yellow liquid

A-

378. DTP is given at the outer portion of the thigh with a dose of

a. 0.25 ml
b. 0.65 ml
c. 0.5 ml
d. 0.1 ml

C-

379. The mother given with TT2 is given protection of immunization for how many years

a. 3
b. 5
c. 7
d. 10

A-

380. TT5 will give protection to the mother for how long?
 a. 3
b. 5
c. 10
d. Lifetime

D-

381. The vaccine against poliomyelitis may be given in association with other vaccines. This
may either be the salk vaccine or the sabin vaccine. How should salk vaccine be administered?

a. Subcutaneously
b. Hypodermically
c. Intravenously
d. Orally

A-

382. How should sabin vaccine be administered

a. Hypodermically
b. Orally
c. Intravaneously
d. Subcutaneously

B-

383. Type of immunity where in antibodies are already formed and introduced into the body

a. Active acquired
b. Passive acquired
c. Natural passive acquired
d. Artificial passive acquired

B-

384. Antibodies can be detected in the

a. Skin
b. Mucus membrane
c. Interstitial space
d. Blood

D-

385. the first line of defense against injury and disease

 a. Skin
b. Antibody
c. Lymphoid organs
d. Blood

A-

386. A substance that stimulates antibody production

a. Serum
b. Antigen
c. Agglutinin
d. Precipitin

B-

387. Vaccines confer

a. Natural passive immunity

b. Natural active immunity
c. Artificial passive immunity
d. Artificial active immunity

D-

388. Natural passive immunity actquired through

a. Vaccination
b. The placenta
c. Gamma globulin
d. Toxoid

B-

389. Lack of resistance to the disease is called

a. Vaccination
b. The placenta
c. Gamma globulin
d. Toxoid

A-

390. among the following infectious disease which is viral

a. Rabies
 b. Cholera
c. Malaria
d. Tuberculosis
A-

391. Scabies is caused by

a. Fungus
b. Virus
c. Louse
d. Mite

D-

392. Which of the following patient is considered at a greater risk of developing spleenomegally

a. Typhoid fever patient

b. Malaria patient
c. Cholera patient
d. H-fever patient

B-

393. A client visited the health center with slight fever and pain in the jaw the health worker
suspect that the patient has mumps. The first symptoms of mumps is

a. Pain in the region of the parotid gland

b. Pain in the inguinal region
c. Pain at the back of the neck
d. Joint pains

A-

394. How do you relieve the pain from swollen glands in mumps?

a. Apply ice collar

b. Give hot site bath
c. Apply pillow at the nape of the neck
d. Give hot threat gargles

A-

395. the most common complication of mumps in young males is

a. Otitis media
b. Deafness
 c. Mastitis
d. Orchitis

D-

396. In case of an outbreak of cholera, the signs to be observed which indicates circulatory
collapse are

a. Fall in blood pressure and thread pulse

b. Oliguria and dysuria
c. Nausea and vomiting
d. White ring around the mouth

A-

397. In the past few month, there was much confusion about red tide. Which of the following
should be completely avoided?

a. Sea foods
b. Meat
c. Fruits
d. Vegetables

A-

398. A public health measure to prevent hookworm infestation is

a. Proper disposal and disinfection of excreta

b. Disinfection of linens
c. Boiling dishes
d. Wearing masks and gowns

A-

399. The following are public health measures to control or prevent malaria except

a. Spraying
b. Eliminating breeding places of mosquitoes
c. Using mosquito nets
d. Immunizing the whole population

D-

400. Which constitutes emergency measures in case of dog bites?

a. Immediately clean the wound with soap and water

 b. Give penicillin injection to prevent the wound from being infected
c. Cauterize the wound with citric acid
d. Observed the patient for a few hours before treating the wound
A-

401. The public health measures to prevent rabies

a. Immunize dogs against rabies

b. Immunize the population
c. Observe dog and their behavior
d. Injection anti-rabies vaccine immediately after a dog bite

A-

402. Which of the following features of AIDS usually come in combination with high fever
sweats, diarrhea, weight loss, fatigue, oral condidiasis and herpes zoster infection?

a. Initial infection with the virus and development of antibodies

b. Asymptomatic carrier state
c. persistent generalized lymph adenopathy
d. Other HIV-related disease including AIDS

C-

403. Which of the following will you consider a priority case in TB cases?

a. Cavity with negative sputum

b. Persistent cough and weight loss
c. Positive sputum after 2 consecutive sputum examination
d. Spitting blood upon coughing

C-

404. Whooping cough is most contagious in

a. Paroxysmal stage
b. Ferbile stage
c. Catarrhal stage
d. Incubation

C-

405. The following are considered as vehicles for transmission of infections except

a. Air
b. Food
 c. Formites
d. Vectors

D-

406. which of the ff immunization is given to prevent the occurrence of leprosy?

a. Measles
b. BCG
c. DpT
d. TT

B-

407. Which of the following is the late sign/symptom of leprosy?

a. Loss of eyebrow
b. Change in skin color
c. Thickened and painful nerves
d. Pain and redness in the eyes

A-

408. Which of the ff cases are eligible for multibacillary treatment regimen?

a. Tuberculoid and borderline

b. Borderline and lepromatous
c. Lepromatous and indeterminate
d. Indeterminate and tuberculoid

B-

409. Paucibacillary treatment of leprosy includes dialy self administration of which drug?

a. Lamprene
b. Dapsone
c. Clofazimine
d. Refampicine

C-

410. In schistosomiasis endemic areas, how can you prevent infection?

a. Isolate infected family member

b. Protect thoses susceptible with mosquito repellants, anti-mosquito soaps and treated nets
c. Wear rubber boots if exposed to contaminated water
 d. Teach proper safe handling of foods

C-
411. The infective stage of the schistosoma is called

a. Cercaria
b. Lyssa
c. Bilhariasis
d. Poecilus

A-

412. What is the drug of choice for schistosomiasis?

a. Chloroquine phosphates
b. Erythromycin
c. Hetrazan (diethylcarbamazine citrate)
d. Praziquantel (biltricide)

D-

413. Which of the following are the signs and symptoms of schistosomiasis?

1. Diarrhea, bloody stools

2. Spleenomegaly and inflamed liver
3. Anemia and weakness
4. Epidydimitis and orchitis
5. Lymphagitis and lymphadenitis

a. 1, 2, 3
b. 3, 4, 5
c. 2, 4, 5
d. 1, 3, 4

A-

414. Filariasis afflicts Filipinos living in endemic areas. It is caused by

a. Certain strain of snail

b. Nematode worm
c. Mosquito
d. Tick mite

B-

415.The acute stage of filariasis is characterized by

 a. Fever, cough and colds
b. Chill and fever with edema of lower limbs
c. Petecchial spots all over the body
d. Lympadenitis and elephantiasis

B-

416. The drug of choice in filariasis is

a. Praziquantel
b. Zovirax
c. Hetrazan
d. Penicillin

C-

417. One of the laboratory test in Filariasis is NBE or nocturnal blood exam. It is usually taken
in the residence of the patient or in the hospital at what particular time of the day?

a. During day time

b. At night preferably after 8 pm
c. After 12 midnight
d. Early morning until 6am

B-

418. Filiarisis is transmitted to person through

a. Stepping on the worm

b. Bites from infected male mosquito
c. Bites from infected female mosquito
d. Soaking in water snail carrying organism

C-

419. The immunochromatograhic test (ICT) for filariasis can only be done

a. Before 8 pm
b. After 8pm
c. Daytime
d. Early morning
]
C-

420. Malaria is diagnosed through

 a. Skin slit smear
b. WBC count
c. Tourniquet test
d. Blood smear

D-

421. Malaria vector mainly bite during

a. Morning
b. Night time
c. Noon time
d. 10am to 5 pm

B-

422. Vectors are mode of transmission for infectious agent. Which of the following is
considered vectors?

a. Nasal secretions
b. Blood
c. Rats
d. Insects

D-

423. A person who harbors and disseminates the infectious agent but manifest no signs of
rymptoms of the disease is called?

a. Carrier
b. Contact
c. Vector
d. Host

A-

424. The period of time between the entry of causative agent into the bodyand the appearance of
the signs and symptoms of the disease is referred to as

a. Incubation period
b. Prodromal signs
c. Period of illness
d. Period of communicability

A-
425. A constituent found in human blood which is a rich source of antibody

a. Hemoglobin
b. Gamma globulin
c. Leokocytes
d. Fibrinogens

B-

426. a substance that stimulates antibody production is

a. Agglutinin
b. Serum
c. Immunoglobulin
d. Antigen

D-

427. Vaccine confer

a. Natural active immunity

b. Natural passive immunity
c. Artificial active immunity
d. Artificial passive immunity

C-

428. To achieve the above immunity attenuated microorganisms may be introduced into the body
in the form of

a. Toxin
b. Antitoxin
c. Serum
d. Vaccine

D-

429. In tuberculin negative individuals, increased resistance to tubercle bacilli may be achieved
thru the use of

a. BCG
b. Mantoux
c. Isoniazid
d. PAS
A-

430. Triple confers immunity to diphtheria, tetanus and

a. Typhoid fever
b. Poliomyelitis
c. Pertussis
d. Measles

C-

431. Gamma globulin is classified

a. Natural passive immunity

b. Artificial active immunity
c. Natural active immunity
d. Artificial passive immunity

D-

432. Artificial active immunity is coferred by

a. Sabin vaccine
b. Tetanus antitoxin
c. Natural active immunity
d. Artificial passive immunity

A-

433. The nurse in the health center is providing immunization to the children. The nurse is
carefully assessing the condition of the children before giving the vaccines. Which of the
following would the nurse note to withhold the infant’s scheduled immunizations?

a. a dry cough
b. a skin rash
c. a low-grade fever
d. a runny nose

A- skin rash could indicate a concurrent infectious disease process in the infant. The scheduled
immunizations should be withheld until the status of the infant’s health can be determined.
Fevers above 38.5 degrees Celsius, alteration in skin integrity, and infectious-appearing
secretions are indications to withhold immunizations.

434. A mother brought her child in the health center for hepatitis B vaccination in a series. The
mother informs the nurse that the child missed an appointment last month to have the third
hepatitis B vaccination. Which of the following statements is the appropriate nursing response to
the mother?

a. ―I will examine the child for symptoms of hepatitis B‖

b. ―Your child will start the series again‖
c. ―Your child will get the next dose as soon as possible‖
d. ―Your child will have a hepatitis titer done to determine if immunization has taken
place.‖

C- Continuity is essential to promote active immunity and give hepatitis B lifelong prophylaxis.
Optimally, the third vaccination is given 6 months after the first.

435. A woman with active tuberculosis (TB) and has visited the health center for regular therapy
for five months wants to become pregnant. The nurse knows that further information is
necessary when the woman states:

a. ―Spontaneous abortion may occur in one out of five women who are infected‖
b. ―Pulmonary TB may jeopardize my pregnancy‖
c. ―I know that I may not be able to have close contact with my baby until contagious is no
longer a problem
d. ―I can get pregnant after I have been free of TB for 6 months‖

D- Intervention is needed when the woman thinks that she needs to wait only 6 months after
being free of TB before she can get pregnant. She needs to wait 1.5-2years after she is declared
to be free of TB before she should attempt pregnancy.

436. The Department of Health is alarmed that almost 33 million people suffer from food
poisoning every year. Salmonella enteritis is responsible for almost 4 million cases of food
poisoning. One of the major goals is to promote proper food preparation. The community health
nurse is tasks to conduct health teaching about the prevention of food poisoning to a group of
mother everyday. The nurse can help identify signs and symptoms of specific organisms to help
patients get appropriate treatment. Typical symptoms of salmonella include:

a. Nausea, vomiting and paralysis

b. Bloody diarrhea
c. Diarrhea and abdominal cramps
d. Nausea, vomiting and headache

C- Salmonella organisms cause lower GI symptoms

437. The health nurse is conducting health teaching about ―safe‖ sex to a group of high school
students. Which of the following statement about the use of condoms should the nurse avoid
making?

a. ―Condoms should be used because they can prevent infection and because they may
prevent pregnancy‖
 b. ―Condoms should be used even if you have recently tested negative for HIV‖(your
answer)
c. ―Condoms should be used every time you have sex because condoms prevent all forms of
sexually transmitted diseases‖
d. ―Condoms should be used every time you have sex even if you are taking the pill because
condoms can prevent the spread of HIV and gonorrhea‖

C- Condoms do not prevent ALL forms of sexually transmitted diseases.

438. The City health department conducted a medical mission in Barangay Marulas. Majority of
the children in the Barangay Marulas were diagnosed with pinworms. The community health
nurse should anticipate that the children’s chief complaint would be:

a. Lack of appetite
b. Severe itching of the scalp
c. Perianal itching
d. Severe abdominal pain

C- Perianal itching is the child’s chief complaint associated with the diagnosis of pinworms. The
itching, in this instance, is often described as being ―intense‖ in nature. Pinworms infestation
usually occurs because the child is in the anus-to-mouth stage of development (child uses the
toilet, does not wash hands, places hands and pinworm eggs in mouth). Teaching the child hand
washing before eating and after using the toilet can assist in breaking the cycle.

439. The mother brought her daughter to the health center. The child has head lice. The nurse
anticipates that the nursing diagnosis most closely correlated with this is:

a. Fluid volume deficit related to vomiting

b. Altered body image related to alopecia
c. Altered comfort related to itching
d. Diversional activity deficit related to hospitalization

C- Severe itching of the scalp is the classic sign and symptom of head lice in a child. In turn, this
would lead to the nursing diagnosis of ―altered comfort‖.

440. The mother brings a child to the health care clinic because of severe headache and vomiting.
During the assessment of the health care nurse, the temperature of the child is 40 degree Celsius,
and the nurse notes the presence of nuchal rigidity. The nurse is suspecting that the child might
be suffering from bacterial meningitis. The nurse continues to assess the child for the presence
of Kernig’s sign. Which finding would indicate the presence of this sign?

a. Flexion of the hips when the neck is flexed from a lying position
b. Calf pain when the foot is dorsiflexed
c. Inability of the child to extend the legs fully when lying supine
d. Pain when the chin is pulled down to the chest
C- Kernig’s sign is the inability of the child to extend the legs fully when lying supine. This sign
is frequently present in bacterial meningitis. Nuchal rigidity is also present in bacterial
meningitis and occurs when pain prevents the child from touching the chin to the chest.

441. A community health nurse makes a home visit to a child with an infectious and
communicable disease. In planning care for the child, the nurse must determine that the primary
goal is that the:

a. Child will experience mild discomfort

b. Child will experience only minor complications
c. Child will not spread the infection to others
d. Public health department will be notified

C- The primary goal is to prevent the spread of the disease to others. The child should experience
no complication. Although the health department may need to be notified at some point, it is no
the primary goal. It is also important to prevent discomfort as much as possible.

442. The mother brings her daughter to the health care clinic. The child was diagnosed with
conjunctivitis. The nurse provides health teaching to the mother about the proper care of her
daughter while at home. Which statement by the mother indicates a need for additional
information?

a. ―I do not need to be concerned about the spreading of this infection to others in my

family‖
b. ―I should apply warm compresses before instilling antibiotic drops if purulent discharge
is present in my daughter’s eye‖
c. ―I can use an ophthalmic analgesic ointment at nighttime if I have eye discomfort‖(your
answer)
d. ―I should perform a saline eye irrigation before instilling, the antibiotic drops into my
daughter’s eye if purulent discharge is present"

A- Conjunctivitis is highly contagious. Antibiotic drops are usually administered four times a
day. When purulent discharge is present, saline eye irrigations or eye applications of warm
compresses may be necessary before instilling the medication. Ophthalmic analgesic ointment or
drops may be instilled, especially at bedtime, because discomfort becomes more noticeable when
the eyelids are closed.

443. A nurse may keep opened vials of OPV for use in the next session if:

a. you have taken out the vaccine at the health center for some other reasons
b. the expiry date has not passed
c. the vaccines have been stored at a temperature between 0 deg C and 8 deg C
d. the vaccines have change its color

C-
444. The primary preventive measures against HIV-AIDS is:

a. withdrawal
b. virus killing drugs
c. foams and gels use
d. condom use

D-

445. The infectious agent that causes pulmonary tuberculosis is:

a. mycobacterium tubercle
b. Hansen’s bacillus
c. mycobacterium diphtheria
d. Wuchereria bancrofti

A-

446. Leprosy is a chronic disease of the skin and peripheral nerves. Which of the following signs
are present in the early stage?

a. loss of eyebrows
b. clawing of fingers
c. contractures
d. thickening or painful nerves

D-

447. Patients eligible under the short term chemotherapy (STC) are the following EXCEPT:

a. all newly discovered and reconfirmed sputum positive cases

b. those with cavitary lung findings after two successive negative sputum examination
c. patients without having been given consent for anti-TB treatment
d. patients willing to undergo treatment

C-

448. Which of the following conditions is not true about contraindication to immunization?

a. do not give BCG if the child has known hepatitis

b. do not give BCG if the child has known AIDS
c. do not give DPT to a child who has recurrent convulsion or active neurologic disease
d. do not give DPT2 or DPT3 to a child who has had convulsions within 3 days of DPT1

A-
449. Sarah Jane is dead, victim of Aids. Which program of DOH was established to check
prevalence rate of Aids?

a. AIDS surveillance program

b. Phil. National AIDS Control
c. National AIDS prevention and control
d. AIDS awareness, activities

C-

450. An advocacy and action strategy to fight cancer and cardiovascular diseases affected by
smoking is reflected in one of the following campaign.

a. Smoking is dangerous to your health

b. Tabacco and smoke-free environment
c. This is a smoke-free building
d. Smoke moderately

A-

451. The key organ immunological processes is the

a. Pancreas
b. Spleen
c. Liver
d. Thymus

D-

452. A naturally occurring substance which protects the conjunctiva infection

a. Lysozyme
b. Leukocytosis
c. Antibodies
d. Macrophages

A-

453. When microorganisms gain to the tissues, multiply and injure the cells. There is the
occurrence of

a. Infestation
b. Infection
c. Contamination
d. Implantation
B-

454. A disease which acquired only thru direct personal contact is most properly termed as

a. Contagious
b. Communicable
c. Infectios
d. Acute

A-

455. A foreign protein when injected into the tissues of an animal which stimulates the formation
of protective substance is called

a. Lysozymes
b. Complement
c. Antigen
d. Antibody

C-

456. Organisms whose virulence is decrease are said to be

a. Adjuvant
b. Attenuated pathogenic
c. Toxoid
d. Non-pathogenic

B-

457.Koplik spots are characteristics of

a. Impetigo
b. Herpes zoster
c. Measles
d. Chicken pox

C-

458. all of the following disease are caused by viruses except

a. Malaria
b. Poliomyelitis
c. Rubella
d. Rubeola
A-

459. Orchitis maybe a serious complication of

a. Chicken pox
b. Measles
c. Mumps
d. Pertussis

C-

460. Characteristics chills accompanying malaria are caused by

a. High temperature
b. Releasese of pyrogenic substance in the blood
c. Severe anemia
d. The release of parasites into the bloodstream

D-

461. Herpes virus can cause

a. Smallpox
b. Chicken pox
c. Measles
d. Mumps

B-

462. Thrush is caused by

a. Candida albicans
b. Filterable virus
c. Histoplasm capsulatum
d. Bacteria

A-

463. German measles is also known as

a. Rubeola
b. Varicella
c. Roseola
d. Rubella

D-
464. The vector responsible fore the spread of malaria is

a. Culex mosquito
b. Anopheles mosquito
c. Flies
d. Aedes egpti

B-

465. The polio vaccine containing live attenuated viruses was developed by

a. Salk
b. Sabin
c. Kock’s
d. Saben

B-

466. Which of the following diseases is not easily communicable

a. Tuberculosis
b. Mumps
c. Measles
d. Leprosy

D-

467. The ability of the microorganism to establish maintain and extend an infection is termed

a. Parasitism
b. Toxicity
c. Virulence
d. Susceptibility

C-

468. A disease constantly present within a certain locality is said to be

a. Epidemic
b. Endemic
c. Sporadic
d. Pandemic

B-
469. shick test is a test for the presence of

a. Tetanus
b. Malaria
c. Diphtheria
d. Whooping cough

C-

470. chills in malaria occur everytime it is released in the blood

a. Zygote
b. Oocyst
c. Schizonts
d. Metrozoites

D-

471. A contagious disease in children characterized by the appearance of macule popular,

vesicular rash in successive crops

a. Measles
b. Herpes zoster
c. Chicken pox
d. Herpex simplex

C-

472. An immunoglobulin providing protection against viral / bacterial invaders in the blood

a. IgE
b. IgG
c. IgM
d. IgA

C-

473. BCG is protection for TB which is given in infant in a dose of

a. 0.01 cc
b. 0.1 cc
c. 0.05 cc
d. 0.5 cc

C-
474. BCG is given

a. Orally
b. Subcutaneous
c. Intradermal
d. Intramuscular

C-

475. BCG for the infant is given as recommended by the

a. Left deltoid
b. Right deltoid
c. Buttock
d. Antero-lateral aspect of the thigh

B-

476. It is given in

a. 1 dose
b. 2 doses
c. 3 doses
d. 4 doses

A-

477. Intial DPT dose is best given when the child is

a. 1.5 month
b. 6 months
c. 3 months
d. 9 months

A-

478. DPT dose is

a. 0.5 cc
b. 0.05 cc
c. 1cc
d. 0.1 cc

A-

479. DPT is given in which particular route

 a. Orally
b. Intramuscular
c. Subcutaneously
d. Intradermal

B-

480. DPT first dose simultaneous with BCG is given

a. L deltoid
b. Either L or R
c. R deltoid
d. Orally

A-

481. Polio vaccine is given in

a. 1 dose
b. 2 doses
c. 3 doses
d. 4 doses

C-

482. Tetanus toxoid under EPI covers

a. Pregnant mothers
b. Farmers
c. Any person doing hard working job
d. Preschoolers

A-

483. measles vaccine is best given when the child is

a. 1 month
b. 3 months
c. 9 to 12 months
d. 9 to 14 months

C-

484. Measles vaccine is given

 a. Orally
b. Intradermal
c. Subcutaneously
d. Intramuscular
C-

485. Polio vaccine is given with a dose of

a. 1 drop
b. 2 drops
c. 3 drops
d. 4 drops

B-

486. If DPT or TT vaccine has been frozen it is advisable

a. To use it
b. To depend on the judgement of the nurse
c. Not to use it
d. To shake and use it

C-

487. The vaccination site must be

a. Cold
b. Cool
c. Warm
d. Hot

B-

488. if the ice in the vaccine carrier is completely melted by had melted for less than 1 day, the
best thing is for the polio vaccine to

a. Kept again in the fridge

b. Set aside for the next EPI
c. Keep it in the used box
d. Destroy all polio vaccine

D-

489. The remaining unopened vials of measles; DPT, tetanus toxoid and BCG should be

a. Discarded right away

 b. Destroyed accordingly to instruction
c. Returned to the fridge for next use
d. Returned to the vaccine carrier ready for next use

C-

490. If vaccines have been taken for the fields 3x but not used. The nurse or the midwife’s
decidsion should be

a. Can still be used for the 4th times

b. Can still be used as long as it was not opened
c. Only polio be destroyed according to instruction
d. Destroy all vaccines according to instruction

D-

491. Acquiring chickenpox by developing such condition is said to be

a. Active artificial immunity

b. Artificial passive immunity
c. Active natural immunity
d. Artificial active acquired immunity

C-

492. One of the primary prevention in preventing the occurrence of diseases is

a. Taking prophylactic drugs

b. Isolating oneself from person with communicable disease
c. Immunization
d. Case finding

C-

493. Jeld was punctured with a nail about 2 cm in length, developed fever, and later painful
muscular contraction of the neck and truck. The nurse or midwife will suspect

a. Diphtheria
b. Meningitis
c. Malaria
d. Tetanus

D-

494. One of drug of choice in treating TB is rifampicin. It is advised that it should be taken
 a. 1 hour before breakfast
b. 1 hour after breakfast
c. At any time of the day
d. 2 hours after breakfast
A-

495. Which of the following is an adverse effect of rifampicin

a. Peripheral neuropathy
b. Jaundice
c. Eczema
d. Ringing of ears

B-

496. In Anti-TB therapy, two or three medication are combined to

a. Hasten the action of each drug

b. Prevent the development of resistance
c. Prevent allergic reaction
d. Lessen the cost of treatment

B-

497. The short course chemotherapy for TB is goof for

a. 3 months
b. 4 months
c. 6 months
d. 8 months

C-

498. In case the patient failes to take regularly the daily dose of the drug, the period may be
extended to

a. 6 months
b. 8 months
c. 1 year
d. Cannot be extended and therefore discontinue

B-

499. Vaccine which is least sensitive to heat

a. BCG
 b. Measles
c. Polio
d. Tetanus

A-

500. Some vaccines are more sensitie to heat than other, which of the vaccination is the most
sensitive to heat

a. BCG
b. Measles
c. Polio
d. Tetanus

B-