cs GG : GEOLOGY AND GEOPHYSICS Duration : Faree Hours, Maxionun Marts 300 Read the following instiuetions carefully. 1 10, HL 1B M4 Is “Thic question paper contains 24 pages including blurk pages for rough work. Plesse check all pages and report discrepancy, ifany ‘Write your registration mimber. your name and name of the examination centse at the specified locations on the ight half of she Optical Response Sheet (ORS). Using HB pencil. darken the appropriate bubble under cach digil of your registration number and the letters cxespending o your pape code All questions in this paper are of abjective type. ‘Questions must be answered on the ORS by darkening the appropriate bubble (marked A, B. C.D) using 116 pencil agains: the question number on the left haed side of the ORS, Far each question darken the bubble Of the correct answer. In case you wish fo change un answer, erase the old answer completely, More than one. answer bubbled against a question will be treated as an incorcect response. "There ae a total of 65 questions casrying 109 mack, ‘Apert from General Aptinide. (GA). the question paper consists of two parts: Pat A and Pant B Part A is ‘camsmon (9 both Geology and Geophysies candidates. Part B contains two sections: Section 1 (Geoiogy) and Scciion 2 (Geophysics). Geology candidates will aterpt questions in Section 1 onty. Geophysics candidates will axtempt questivas in Section 2 only, Correcily darker the bubble (in the ORS} corresponding to the section attempted by you. Part A consists of 25 questions: all will carry L-mark exch. Each of the sections (Si Part B consists of 39 questions; at will carry 2-marks cack, In 1 R Section 2) in ‘Questions Qa - Q.51 (2 pairs) are common data questions and question pairs (Q.52, 0.53) and (0.54, 0.55) ave linked arsier questions. ‘The answer Wo the second question ofthe Linked answer questions pair depends on the answer to the first question of the prir. IF the firs. question in the licked pair is wrongly answered o is un-attempted, then the unsver (the sevond question in the pair will notbe evaluate. Questions Q.56 = Q.65 belong to General Aptitude (GA). Questions Q.56 - Q.60 will carry I-matk each, and questions Q.61 ~ 0.65 will carry 2-marks each. The GA qvestions will begin on a fresh page staring from page 18. Un-attempled questions will carry zero marks, Wrong envwors will carry NEGATIVE marks. For Q.1 - Q.25 and Q.56 = Q.60, 1 mack will be deducted for ‘each wrong answer. For Q.26 - Q.51 and Q.61 ~ Q.65. % mark will be deducted for each wiong answer. The question pairs (Q.52, 0.53), and (0.54, 0.55) are questicns with linked answers. There will be negative marks only for wrong answer 10 the first question of the lieked answer question pair Le. for Q.52 and Q54, % mark will be deducted for each wrong answer, There is no negative marking for Q53 and Q.55, Calculator (without data connectivity} is allowed in the examination hall, Charts, graph sieets oF tbles are NOT allowed in the examination hall Rough work can be dove on the question paper usell. Additionally. blank pages are provided at the end of the question paper fur raugh work. Tae2010 a PART A: COMMON TO BOTH GEOLOGY AND GEOPHYSICS CANDIDATES Q.1- Q.25 carry one mark each. Qt Q3 os Qs Q6 qr Q8 Qo Que Earth's dipole field originates mainly from (A) mantle (B) outer core (©) inaer core (D) crust Sunspots are regions of (A) high pressure (B) low magnetic field © high temperature «D) high magnetic field “The electrical conduction mechanism in sedimentary rocks is usually (A) pyroelectric (B) electronic iC) electrolytic (D} dielectric ‘The unit of electrical resistivity is () Ohm (5) Ohm-m © Ohm’ (D) Ohm-m”™ Ouicrap pattern paralicl to topographic contours signifies (A) horizontal beds (B) vertical beds (C) inclined beds (D) folded beds A rock with equal modal contents of quartz. piagioclase and orthoclase is known as (A) diorite (B) gabbro iC) granite D) syenite ‘The main factors in soil-forming processes are (A) bedrock and time only (B) topography and bedrock only (C) climate, time ard topography only (D) climote, topography, bedrock and time Glacial drift refers to the (A) movement of glaciers (8) interglacial intervals {C} erosional landforms produced by glaciers (D)} sediments deposited by glaciers Sand dunes are long ridges whose alignment is (A) always parallel to the prevailing wind direction (B) alvcays perpendicular to the prevailing wind direction (C) either paralte! or perpendicular to the prevailing wind direction (D)} not celated to the prevailing wind direction ‘The oldest rocks in india are (A) more than 3 billion years ald (B} between 2.5 and 3 billion years old (C) between 2 and 2.5 billion Years old €D) less than 2 billion years old oH oe200 QL The sequential placement of geological events, as determined by their position in the rock record. is known as (A) telative dating, . (B) correlation (© absolute dating (D) uniformitarianism Q.12 Time equivatence of rock units in different areas can be established primarily by considering (A) lithology (B} fossil assemblages (C) sedimentary structures (D) mineral assemblages Q13 Which of the following voleanic events has been suggested as a major cause of the extinction of dinosaurs? (Ay Panjal voleanism (B) Deccan voleunism (€} Rajmahal volcanism (D) Malani volcanism Q.14 Bede's Jaw expresses the approximate distance between (A) earth and other planets (B} moon and sun «Ch planets and sun (D) moon and earth Q.15 India’s nonhward deift from Gondwanaland is believed to have started approximately (in million years ago, Ma) (A) 50Ma (B) 150 Ma (©) 300 Ma (D) 400Ma Qu6 Which of the Following instruments contuins piezoelectric material? (A) hydrophone (B) geophone (© gravimeter {D) magnetometer Qu? Ifthe average crustal thickness is 35 kn and the height of a mountain is 5 km above mean sea level, the crustal thickness based on Airy's raodel beneath the mountain will be approximately (A) 35 km (B) 40 kn (C} 50 km {D) 70 km QU8 ‘The cquipotential surface over which the gravitational field has equal value is known as tA) geoid (B) spheroid (Ci ellipsoid (D) mean sea level Q.19 The angle between the present geographic north and geomagnetic north is wis Bs (LS (D) 23.5 Q20 Among the following, the best reconnaissance method for determining basement configuration of sedimentary busins is {A) gravity method {B) self potential method {C) seismic method: (D) electromagnetic method Q21 Cooling of basaltic lava ender water will lead 4 the formation of (A) lava tunel (B) pillow structre: (Ch columnar jointing (Di cumulus texture, w sran Q.22 Q.23 25 ‘What rock would you expect to find at the base of a typical oceanic plate? (A) Basalt (B) Diorite (C) Gabbro (D) Pesidotite ‘Major coal deposits of India are found in the (A) Cuddapah Supergroup (B} Vindbyan Supergroup (©) Gondwana Supergroup (D} Dharwar Supergroup Which of the following isa product of residual weathering process? (A) Placer gold (B) Banded iron ore (C) Bauxite >) Porphyry copper ‘Choose the correct combination of ore und location of its deposit. (A) Urenium — Jadoguda (8) Lead — Khetti «€) Gold - Panna, (D) Iron ~ Malanjkhond END OF PART A ww aaa2 Q.26-Q.S5 carry two marks each. PART B (SECTION 1): FOR GEOLOGY CANDIDATES ONLY Q.26 The age of the oldest rocks in present-day ocean basins is (A) Devonian (B) Jurassic (C) Eocene (@) Permian Q.27 Silicon 1o oxygen ratio in the following silicate structure is Ai? 2:5 (4st (1:3 Q.28 Direct precipitation of uraninite from a mineralizing solution coataining UO," ions can take place de to (A) inerease in Eh {B) decrease in Eh (€) increase in pH {D) decrease in pH Q.29 Match the optical properties in Group I with appropriate mninerals in Group IT Group ‘Group P. Twinkling 1. Quartz Q. Pleochroic haloes 2. Nepheline R. Anomalous interference colour 3. Calcite 5. Uniaxial positive 4. Chiorite 5. Biotite (AVP-4.Q-5,R-3.$-2 (B)P-3.Q-4.R-5,8-2 (CP-3.Q-5.R-4.5-1 (D)P-3,Q-4,R-5,8-1 30 Wall-rock alteration producing epidote, albite and chlerite around an ore body is called (A) argillic aeration (B) propylitic alteration (€) potassic-silicste alteration (D) sericite alteration m weaao O31 Q3z Q33 Que Q35 oa Match the textures/structures in Group I with appropriate processes in Group Il. Group] Group I P. Cumulus texture 1. Cavity filling Q. Spinifex texture 2. Gravity seuting R. Oriented intererowth 3. Annealing S. Comb structure 4. Quenching 5, Coherent exsolution (AYP-2,Q- 4.R-5,5- (B)P-3,Q- LR=2,8- (C)P~1,0-5,R-4.8-3 (D)P-2.Q-5, R-4.S— ‘An area shows linear erosional depression, sag pond, spring and offset stream along with sub-horizonial slickensides. The prominent siructure indieaied by these features is (A) strike-slip foul, (B)horst and graben () Klippe (D) nappe Match the ore cypes in Group I with appropriate path-finder elements in Group IL Group t roun I P. Porphyry Cu ore LAS Q. Vein type Au ore 2.Hg R. Po-Zn-Ag ores, 3.cr 4, Mo 5.Ni (A)P—4,Q- 1. R-2 (B)P-3.Q-2R-1 (PH4.Q-3.R-5 @yP~5,Q-4.R-2 Match the nsture of mass movements listed in Group I with the evidences listed in Group IT. Group] roup II P. Creep LTounge-shaped mass movernent Q. Earth flow 2. Curved tree trunks R. Slump 3. Serve Formation at the base 4, Curved surface of rupture (A) P-2,. 1, Ret (B)P-1,Q-3, RA (P4.Q2R1 (D)P-4,0-3, 2 Which of the following metamorphic facies is characterized by the pyrope rich garnet + omphacite assemblage? (A) Blueschist (B) Eclogite (C) Greenschiist (D) Granulite a a200 6 36 Match the gemstones in Group I with corresponding minerals in Group I. Group I Group P. Peridote L Beryl Q. Emerald 2. Feldspar R. Amazonite 3. Conmdam $. Ruby 4. Olivine {A)P4. QA.R-2. 8-3 (B)P-A.Q3, R284 {C)P-2, Q4, RAL, $3 (D}P-3.Q-4, RA, S-2 Q37 Which of the following statements is NOT correc! with regard to a perched water table? (A) Ics within an area where a local aquiclude occurs within a larger aquifer (B) I lies above the main water table (C) iis found in the main zone of saturation (D) Ic is occasionally associated with springs Q38 ‘The spatial resolution of IRS LISS-111 multispectral sensor for Near Infra-Red (NIR) band is (AVS8mx58m — (B)23SmxI3Sm C)}Wmx7m —D) 72.5mx 725m 39 Which of the following combinations of extinction events and extinct organisms is NOT correct? (A) Cretaceous end — Dinosaurs (B) Triassic end — Conodonts (C) Permian end - Trilobites (D) Miocene end — Ammonites 40 Ja India, marine fossiliferous rocks of lower Paleazaic age are mutinly found in the (A) Gondwana (B) Higher Himalaya (C) Outer Rimalaya (D) Tethys Himalaya Q41_ Which of the following pairs of rock formations and characteristic fossils is correct? (A) Raniganj - Elephas (B) Pinjor —Titanosaurus (©) Lameta ~ Gtossopteris {D) Subathu—_Nummedites Q.42_ Which of the following groups of rock formations is NOT arranged from older to younger? {A} Utiatur — Trichinopoly— Ariyaiur - Niniyur {B) Patcham - Katrol ~ Chari ~ Uraia {C) Talehir ~ Damuda — Panchet - Mahadex (O} Semri~ Kaimur ~ Rewa -Bhander 43. Choose the correct combination of geological agents and associated features. (A) River ~ Spit {B) Glacier ~ Yardang (©) Longshore current - Esker (0) Wind ~ Vernitact Q44_A sedimentary sequence dominated by large scale (5-10 m thick) cross beds. well-sorted and well-rounded quartz-rich sand with no fine matrix is most likely to be a (A) detaic deposit (3) lagoonal deposit (©) colian deposit {D) outer shelf deposit w 782010 45 46 Qa7 og An invertebrate in which the plane of symmetry bisects the shell through the mid-point of the hinge isa (A) Pelecypod (8) Brachiopod. {C) Gastropod {D} Caphalopod ‘The oldest marmmats and birds are known, respectively, fro (A) Cretaceous and Paleocene {B) Silurian and Devonian (€) Triassic and Jurassic {D) Oligocene and Miocene Allochems in a limestone consist of {A) micrite only «B) spar only {C)ovids only {(D) bioclasis and ooids: Common Data Questions ‘Common Data for Questions 48 and 49: ‘The following geological map exposes three beds, of which the bed P is the oldest and the bed R the youngest Q48 Q49 What type of structure does the map depict? (A) Faulted anticline (B) Folded strike-slip fault (C) Faulted syncline (D) Folded normal fault Why is bed P wider in the area south of fauit? (A) Erosion has semoved most of bed Pto the north of fault {B) Folding has caused thinning of bed P to the north of fault «C) Deeper level of bed P is exposed due to fuulting and erosion to the south of fault {D) Bed P had a variable thickness prior to fanlting we2010 Go ‘Common Data for Questions 50 and 51: A sequence of shale and limestone is intruded by an igneous pluton. Metasomatic interaction between the pluton and the country rocks involves introduction of Si and Al into dalomitie Timestone. Q.50 Which pair of rock types best describes the products of metamorphism in the contact aureale’? (A) Slate and schist (B) Schist and bomfels (©) Schist and skam (D) Homfets and skam Q51 The mineral which is NOT expected in assemblages in the metamorphosed dolomitic limestone is (A) grossular (B)anorthite (©) diopside {D) andalusite Linked Answer Questions Statement for Linked Answer Questions 2 and 53: A pluton of iron-poor basic magma containing trace concentrations of Ni, Rb, St and V undergoes crystallization upon cooling, Q52 The first mineral to crystalize will be (Ap augite (B) bonblende {C)olivine (D) oligoclase Q.53 The trace clement that will be preferentially inearporated in the correct mineral in Q. 52 is (A) Ni ®) Rb «C) Se ov Linked Answer Questions 54 and 58: Q.54 Silic-undersaturated minerals are (A) nepheline and albite (C) leucite and oxthoclase ine and lencite Q.55. The Hermann-Mauguin symbols of crystallographic notation for the correct minerals in Q, 54 are (A) 2ém2/n/m and 4ém. (B) Ym2/m2im for both (© Amand 2m (D)6 and T END OF SECTION 1 OF PART B2010 Q.26- Q.26 Q7 Q.28 Q.29 0.30 Q3I Qa 33 PART B (SECTION 2): FOR GEOPHYSICS CANDIDATES ONLY Q.55 carry two marks each. ‘The gravity value measured at the base of a 10 a tail b the building ignoring its mass is close to fing is 40 mGal. The value at the top of (A) 20 nGal {B) 37 mGal (©) 40mGar (D) 43 mGal Upward contiaustion technique filters wavelength anomalies and their amplitudes. {A) short, reduces, (@) long, enhances «C)long, reduces (D) shor. enhances ‘The relative intensities of induced und remanent magnetization are commonly expressed in terms of (A) susceptibility (B) pyromagnetic ratio (€) Poisson's ratio (D) Konigsberger ratio In electrical resistivity method, which among the following is correct with reference to Geometric Factor (GF)? (A) GR varies for profiling and remmins constant for sounding (B) GF semains constant for both profiling and sounding (C) GF remains constant for profiling and varies for sounding (D) GF varies for both profiling and sounding If in a magnetic dipole ‘mm represents poles of cqual strength and ‘represents the distance between the two poles, then the magnetic moment of dipole is (Ay in wt © 2m oy & m 2 Energy in radioactive decay with respect to time follows (A) normal distribution {B) Poisson distribution (C) chi-squared distribution {D) binomial distribution The logging technique that uses non-conductive drilling fluids is (A) SP logging (B) Resistivity logging (C) Induction logging (D) Radiometric logging Unguided random-walk inversion technique signifies (A) Genetic algorithm (B) Simulated annealing (C) Monte Carlo inversion (D) Metropolis algorithm weano 34 Q35 36 37 Q38 Q39 Qa0 ot ‘The compressional wave velocity Vp within a solid with adiabatic bulk modulus X,, rigidity medulus Gand density 9 is given by Ker 213)G Re 5G (ay v, = fR7 CIE 2 2 ov, iG wy, Ki + (41 3)6 2 y ep ‘The number of independent elements of the 4” order stiffness tensor required to characterize general elastic media is (Ay? (B)21 (©) 36 Dy 8t ‘The seismic energy released in an earthquake of magnitude M, = 7.01is about _____._ times that released in an earthquake of M, = 6.0. (Arlo (B)32 (C) 64 «D) 109 Jn the figure given below “—" represents dilatation and “+” represents compression. The fault plane solution of an earthquake with strike-slip mechanism is represented by we o wy eo (aye BQ (OR ©) 5 “The anslastic attenuation of seismic energy depends oa {A} quality factor (B} particle acceleration {C} stress dtop (D) particle velocity ‘The seismic wave travelling in low velocity layer and critically incident at the discontinuity between low and high velocity layers (Ay will be diffracted dand © m=dandp (D) medandped A unit amplitude of an electromagnetic wave at thrice the skin-depth will be reduced to 3 e (A) —3e (B) = (C) = ae = ©3 @ ¢ The Hilbert transform of a function f(t) is denoted by (fir). If fic) = sins, then AN ACEO is (a) sine (8) —cost © sine ©) cost ‘The rectangular function 2(¢) is defined as w(t)=1 |e] <1/2 =0 [>12 The convolotion of 7(¢) with itself will be (A) auiangutar function AC) (B) again (©)armitstep function u(t) (D) a delea function 5(0) Given A =e (Cos xa, —sin xa,). where a, and a, denote the unit vectors in x- and y-directions, respectively. Then V-{7 A) is equal to we 0 (©) e"(cosx) (D) e(sinx) Match the items in Group J with those in Group IL Grout Group IL P. Convolution in time domain woh 2a Q. Nyquist frequency 2. Flat spectrum R, Aliasing 3. Multiplication in frequency domain S. White noise 4. Frequency folding 5, Autocorrelation function (P-3. QUR4, $2 BYP2.QLRS, $4 (C)P-3, VL R2, SL (D)P-2, QA, RAL, $-5 a Tad20 6 47° In magnetic materials, the relation between magnetic permeability and susceptibility x (in STunits) is (A) w= 1h A ©) H=lte @) w= 1-206 Common Data Questions -K ‘Common Data for Questions 48 aud 49: The terrain correction in gravity method accounts for topographic relief in the vicinity of the observation point. The Bouguer slab assurnes the topography around the observation point to be flat. In the figure below, the Bouguer slab thickness is A and the hollow portion P lies within the Bouguer slab. @ and Rare parts of the topography. Q.48 In the region P, the terrain comection is (A) balf of that in R (B} negative (C) zero D) positive Q.49__In the region Q, the terrain come {A) hallow portion (B) reduced gravity due to excess mass in portion Q (C) increased gravity due to excess mass in portion Q (D) over-correction of Bouguer slab Common Data for Questions $0 and 51: 6 required to account for Foran input.x, , che outpun of a digital filler y, is given by y, =E.5x,-2x,, +25, Q.50 The order of the digital filter is (ay4 (B)3 (2 y1 Q51 The wansfer function of the digital Gli is y, 5-22 ay %2010 ae Linked Answer Questions Statement for Linked Answer Questions 52 and 53: In a twolayer earth model, the values of seismic velocity and density of first and second layers, respectively, are V1 = 4000 mvs. = 2500 Key m’, and V,q = 4500 ms, 2; = 2600 Ke/ m’ Q.52_ The acoustic impedance of the first layer in SI units at normat incidence is fA) 10 «By 10" Ow (Dy 10" Q.53_ The wansmission coefficient for a wave at normal incidence at the boundary of first and second layeris {A} 0.46, (B}O.58 (C} O92 (D) 1.07 Statement for Linked Answer Questions 54 and 55: Consider a magnetotelluric (MT) field sei up. A plane clactromagnetic wave with a time dependence factor eis travelling vertically downwards (z-direction) into the Eanh with an angular frequency @ The slectri¢ field is polarized in the x-direction (strike). Q.54 ‘The electromagnetic field components considered in this mode are (AVE, Hand, (B)E,,H andl, (C)E,.H,andE, (D) E,, Hand, Q.55 Which of the following equations represents the above mode? 1 La, so (D) A, =— on faye Ie * je dz END OF SECTION 2 OF PARTB0.56 — Q56 as Q58 0.59 Qo Qél - Qet Q.60 carry one mark each. Choose the most appropriate werd from tha options given below to complete the following sentence: His rather casual remarks on pal ies his lack of seriousness about the subject. (A) masked (B) belied (C) betrayed (D) suppressed Which of the following options is the closest in meaning to the word below: Cireuitous (cyclic (B) indirect (C) confusing (WD) crooked Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to coniplete the following sentence: If we manage to our natural resources, we would leave s better planet for nr children, (A) uphold By restrain ()chenish @) conserve 25 persons are in a room. 15 af them play hockwy. 17 of them play focthall and 10 of them play both hockey and football. Then the number of persons playing neither hockey wor football is: (az (B)7 3 (0) 3 The question below consists of a pair of related words followed by four pairs of words. Select the Pair thet best expresses the relation in the ariginal pair. ‘Unemployed : Worker (A) fallow ; land (B) unaware : sleeper (wit: jester (D) renovated ; house Q.65 carry two marks each. Tf 137 + 276 = 435 how much is 731 +672? (A)S34 «BY 1403 (C} 1623 (D) 1513 w eae2010 Q.62 63 Qe Qe a Hari (H. Gita (G), Irfan (1) and Saira (S) are siblings (ie. brothers and sisters). All were bora oa. 1" January, The age difference between any two successive siblings (that is bor ome after another) is less than 3 years. Given the following facts: i, Hari's age + Gita’s age > trfan's age + Saira’s age. ii, The age difference between Gita and Saira is | year. However, Gita is not the aldest and Saira is not the youngest iii, ‘There are no twins. In what order were they bora (oldest first)? {AV HSIG (B) SGHI (© IGsH (Dy IHSG Modern warfare bas chauged from large scale clashes of armies to suppression of civilian populations. Chemical agents that do their work silently appear to be suited to cuch warfare; and regretfully, there exis: people in military establishments who think that chemical agents ‘are useful tools for their cause. Which of ihe following statements best sums up the meaning of the above passage? (A) Modem warfare has resulted in civil strife. (B) Chemical agents are useful in modem warfare {C) Use of chemical agents in warfare would be undesirable. (D) People in military establishments like (o use chemical agents in war. 5 skilled workers can build a wall in 20 days: 8 semi-skilled workers can build a wall in 25 days: 10 unskilled workers can build a wall in 30 days. If a team has 2 skilled. 6 scmi-skilled and ‘S unskilled workers, how long will it take to build the wall? (A) 20 days (BY 18 days (C) 16 days (D) 15 days Given digits 2, 2. 3. 3. 3. 4, 4. 4, 4 how many distinct 4 digit numbers greater than 3000 can be formed? (a)so (BySL ) 32 D) 54 END OF THE QUESTION PAPER ra2010 Space for Rough Work TaeSpace for Rough Work a200 Space for Rough WorkSpace for Rough Workame oo Space for Rough Work we batzon Space for Rough Work TaeSpace for Rough Work aees ane Space for Rough Work Tans