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Mark Scheme January 2008

GCE

GCE Biology (8040/9040)


GCE Biology (Human) (8042/9042)

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January 2008
Publications Code UA019777
All the material in this publication is copyright
© Edexcel Ltd 2008
Contents

General Introduction p ii
Unit Codes and Unit Titles p iii
General Information p iv

Mark Schemes

Unit 1 6101 Molecules and cells p1

Unit 2 6102 Exchange, transport and reproduction p 10


6112 Exchange, transport and reproduction in p 18
humans

Unit 3 6103/03 Energy and the environment p 26

Unit 4 Core material Respiration and coordination p 31


Option A Microbiology and biotechnology p 37
Option B Food science p 41
Option C Human health and fitness p 45
GENERAL INTRODUCTION
Mark schemes are prepared by the Principal Examiners and revised, together with the relevant
questions, by a panel of senior examiners and subject teachers. The schemes are further
amended at the Standardisation meetings attended by all examiners. The Standardisation
meeting ensures as far as possible that the mark scheme covers the candidates' actual responses
to questions and that every examiner understands and applies it in the same way.

The schemes in this document are the final mark schemes used by the examiners in this
examination and include the amendments made at the meeting. They do not include any details
of the discussions that took place in the meeting, nor do they include all of the possible
alternative answers or equivalent statements that were considered to be worthy of credit.

It is emphasised that these mark schemes are working documents that apply to these papers in
this examination. Every effort is made to ensure a consistent approach to marking from one
examination to another but each marking point has to be judged in the context of the
candidates' responses and in relation to the other questions in the paper. It should not be
assumed that future mark schemes will adopt exactly the same marking points as this one.

Edexcel cannot under any circumstances discuss or comment informally on the marking of
individual scripts. Any enquiries about the marks awarded to individual candidates can be
dealt with only through the official Enquiry about Results procedure.

ii
Unit Codes and Unit Titles
These Mark Schemes cover the units offered in this examination for Advanced Subsidiary
Biology and Biology (Human) (8040 and 8042) and Advanced Biology and Biology (Human)
(9040 and 9042). The units available in this examination series for the complete
qualifications are listed in the table below.

Level Unit Biology Biology (Human)

AS 1 6101 Molecules and cells 6101

Exchange, transport and Exchange, transport and


2 6102 6112
reproduction reproduction in humans

3 6103 Energy and the environment 6103

A2 4 6104 Respiration and coordination and Options 6104

Cashing in
The following tables show the units that must be taken in order to obtain an award for AS or
Advanced GCE Biology, or for AS or Advanced GCE Biology (Human).

Advanced Subsidiary

Level Unit 8040 Biology 8042 Biology (Human)


AS 1 6101 6101
2 6102 6112
3 6103 6103

Advanced GCE

Level Unit 9040 Biology 9042 Biology (Human)


AS 1 6101 6101
2 6102 6112
3 6103 6103
A2 4 6104 6104
5 6105* 6115*
6 6106* 6106*

* Only available in Summer examination series.

iii
GENERAL INFORMATION
The following symbols are used in the mark schemes for all questions:

Symbol Meaning of symbol


; semi colon Indicates the end of a marking point
Indicates that credit should be given for other correct
eq alternatives to a word or statement, as discussed in the
Standardisation meeting
Words or phrases separated by an oblique are alternatives
/ oblique
to each other
Indicate the beginning and end of a list of alternatives
{} curly brackets (separated by obliques) where necessary to avoid
confusion
Words inside round brackets are to aid understanding of
() round brackets
the marking point but are not required to award the point
Words inside square brackets are instructions or guidance
[] square brackets
for examiners
[CE] or [TE] Consecutive error / transferred error

Crossed out work

If a candidate has crossed out an answer and written new text, the crossed out work can be ignored. If the
candidate has crossed out work but written no new text, the crossed out work for that question or part
question should be marked, as far as it is possible to do so.

Spelling and clarity

In general, an error made in an early part of a question is penalised when it occurs but not subsequently.
The candidate is penalised once only and can gain credit in later parts of the question by correct
reasoning from the earlier incorrect answer.

No marks are awarded specifically for quality of language in the written papers, except for the essays in
the synoptic paper. Use of English is however taken into account as follows:

• the spelling of technical terms must be sufficiently correct for the answer to be unambiguous
e.g. for amylase, ‘ammalase’ is acceptable whereas ‘amylose’ is not
e.g. for glycogen, ‘glicojen’ is acceptable whereas ‘glucagen’ is not
e.g. for ileum, ‘illeum’ is acceptable whereas ‘ilium’ is not
e.g. for mitosis, ‘mytosis’ is acceptable whereas ‘meitosis’ is not

• candidates must make their meaning clear to the examiner to gain the mark.

• a correct statement that is contradicted by an incorrect statement in the same part of an answer gains
no mark – irrelevant material should be ignored

iv
Unit 1 (6101)
Question Answer Mark
Number

1
Statement Glycogen Cellulose

Consists of ß glucose X 9

Contains 1,4 glycosidic bonds 9 9

Is a branched molecule 9 X

Is a structural carbohydrate X 9 max


4

Any two correct boxes for one mark

Question Answer Mark


Number

2 1. (simple ) diffusion ;

2. facilitated diffusion ;

3. active transport ;

4. ATP ; 4

1
Question Answer Mark
Number

3 (a)(i) the {sequence / order} of amino acids ; 1

Question Answer Mark


Number

3 (a)(ii) hydrolysis ; 1

Question Answer Mark


Number

3 (b) H
H O
N C C
H CH2 OH
OH ; 1

Question Answer Mark


Number

3 (c) Collagen Insulin


1. fibrous globular ;
2. three {polypeptide chains} / two {polypeptide chains} /
triple helix reference to A and B chains ;
3. chains not held together by chains held together by
disulphide bonds / chains held disulphide bonds / eq ;
together by hydrogen bonds
4. large / about 1000 amino small / 51 amino acids
acids OR length can be OR fixed / precise length ;
variable
5. repetitive / repeating no repetitive sequence ; max
sequence / eq 3

2
Question Answer Mark
Number

4 (a) 1. reference to (same / similar) cells ;

2. of similar {structure / common origin / function} / eq ; 2

Question Answer Mark


Number

4 (b) 1. correct dimensions ;

2. folded inner lining ;

3. 5 or 6 tissues shown with no cell details ; 3

3
Question Answer Mark
Number

5 (a)(i) cell in anaphase correctly identified ; 1

Question Answer Mark


Number

5 (a)(ii) cell in telophase correctly identified ; 1

Question Answer Mark


Number

5 (a)(iii) 2/3 ; 1

Question Answer Mark


Number

5 (b) 1. idea that during prophase {chromosomes / chromatids} (becoming)


visible ;

2. idea of centrioles move to opposite poles ;

3. reference to formation of {spindle /spindle-fibres /


microtubules} ;

4. disappearance of nucleolus / nucleoli ;

5. breaking down of nuclear {envelope / membrane} (in prophase) or


nuclear envelope is broken down by metaphase / eq ;

6. (at metaphase) {chromosomes / centromeres} attached to spindle


(fibres) ;
max
7. idea of {chromosomes / chromatids} lined up at equator ; 5

4
Question Answer Mark
Number

6 (a) 1. {envelope / double membrane} clearly shown ;

2. granum clearly shown ;

3. {granum / thylakoid(s)} labelled ;

4. {stroma / ribosomes / starch grain / DNA / lipid droplet / {double


/ inner / outer} membrane / envelope / intergranal lamellae}
correctly labelled ; 4

Question Answer Mark


Number

6 (b)(i) 1. correct length ;

2. divided by 50 000 ;

3. correct length in µm ; 3

Question Answer Mark


Number

6 (b)(ii) vacuoles / vesicles / lysosomes / glycogen granules / ribosomes / lipid


droplets / centrioles / spindle fibre / microtubules ; 1

Question Answer Mark


Number

6 (b)(iii) {resolution not high enough / eq} / damage / {angle of section / eq} / {poor
printing of photograph / eq} ; 1

5
Question Answer Mark
Number

7 (a) 1. reference to use of {iodine solution / iodine in potassium iodide} ;

2. {observation / colour change} described ;

3. credit any valid experimental details ; 3

Question Answer Mark


Number

7 (b) 1. overall decrease in activity ;

2. increasing concentration up to 4 au increases the activity of


amylase ;

3. increasing concentration from 4 au (to 32 au) reduces activity ;

4. reference to change in activity at 20 au ;


max
5. correct manipulation of data ; 3

Question Answer Mark


Number

7 (c) 1. {copper ions / inhibitor} block the active site / eq ;

2. idea that inhibitor is the same shape as substrate ;

3. preventing {starch / substrate} binding with {amylase / active site /


enzyme} ;

4. the more {copper ions / inhibitor} the more active sites are blocked ;
max
5. reduces enzyme activity / eq ; 3

6
Question Answer Mark
Number

7 (d)(i) 1. it allows a comparison to be made (with and without copper ions) ;

2. reference to {starch / substrate} concentration being the same (with


and without copper ions) ;

3. the rate of reaction changes with time /eq ;


max
4. because substrate is being used up / eq ; 2

Question Answer Mark


Number

7 (d)(ii) idea that the {maximum rate/ Vmax} (with copper ions present) is lower (than
without inhibitor) / if it was active site-directed it would take longer to reach
same maximum rate ; 1

7
Question Answer Mark
Number

8 (a) A phosphate
B deoxyribose ; 1

Question Answer Mark


Number

8 (b)(i) Adenine 29, Guanine 21, Cytosine 21 ; 1

Question Answer Mark


Number

8 (b)(ii)
1. a purine always bonds to a pyrimidine ;
2. % thymine must equal % adenine / eq ;
3. guanine and cytosine must make up rest of molecule / eq ;
max
4. % guanine = % cytosine / eq ; 3

Question Answer Mark


Number

8 (c) 1. DNA contains genetic information / eq ;

2. DNA codes for protein / eq ;

3. a change in DNA could produce a different {protein / mRNA} / eq ;

4. idea that it is required throughout life (or {cell / organism} ) ;

5. idea that it is needed to pass on to next generation (of {cell / max


organism}) ; 2

8
Question Answer Mark
Number

8 (d) 1. part of the DNA (molecule) unwinds ;

2. DNA strands separate / {hydrogen / H} bonds break ;

3. idea only one strand acts as a template ;

4. (free) nucleotides line up against DNA ;


OR reference to complementary base pairing / correct description ;

5. correct reference to RNA polymerase ;

6. reference to {nucleotides joining together / formation of


phosphodiester bonds} ;

7. (to form) mRNA ;

8. exits through nuclear pore / from nucleus to cytoplasm / movement to max


ribosomes ; 5

PAPER TOTAL: 60 MARKS

9
Unit 2B (6102)

Question Answer Mark


Number

1 1. monocytes ;

2. antibodies / immunoglobulins ;

3. eosinophils / basophils ;

4. nucleus ; 4

10
Question Answer Mark
Number

2 (a) A red blood (cell) / erythrocyte ;

B (alveolar) epithelial cell / epithelium / squamous epithelium / ; 2

Question Answer Mark


Number

2 (b) 1. {thin / eq} cells ;

2. decreases diffusion distance ;

3. permeable (to respiratory gases) ;

4. (collectively) have a large surface area ;

5. increases diffusion ;

6. of respiratory gases / oxygen / carbon dioxide ;

7. (surrounded by) capillaries ;

8. idea that movement of blood maintains {diffusion / concentration}


gradient ;
max
9. reference to {the presence of / a description of} surfactant ; 4

Question Answer Mark


Number

2 (c) 8.1 (dm3) ; 1

11
Question Answer Mark
Number

3 (a) Carbohydrate Enzyme Products

amylase ;

glucose and
galactose ;

sucrose ; sucrase ;
4

Question Answer Mark


Number

3 (b) 1. reference to active uptake / active transport (of glucose) ;

2. reference to sodium-glucose co-transport ;

3. reference to (specific) glucose carrier proteins / fewer transport


proteins for fructose / more transport proteins for glucose /
fructose is absorbed by diffusion (only) ; 3

12
Question Answer Mark
Number

4 (a) A aorta / aortic arch ;

B (right) atrioventricular valve / tricuspid valve ; 2

Question Answer Mark


Number

4 (b) 1. reference to coronary circulation ;

2. reference to coronary artery / coronary arteries ;

3. reference to capillaries (in wall of heart) ;

4. oxygen {transported / eq} by {red cells / haemoglobin} ;

5. oxygen diffuses out of {blood / red cells / capillaries} (to heart max
muscle) ; 3

Question Answer Mark


Number

4 (c) 1. pacemaker / SAN sends {impulse / eq} (to atria) ;

2. {causing/ eq} atria to contract ;

3. {impulse / eq} reaches AVN ;

4. reference to delay at the AVN ;

5. idea that the impulse travels to ventricles via {bundle of His / max
Purkyne tissue / eq} ; 3

Question Answer Mark


Number

4 (d) 1. increased {demand for / eq} {oxygen / glucose} / increased


respiration ;

2. increased heart rate / heart beats faster / eq ;

3. increased stroke volume / cardiac output ;

4. increased production of carbon dioxide ;

5. reference to dilation of blood vessels in muscle ;


max
6. reference to adrenaline ; 3

13
Question Answer Mark
Number

5 (a)(i) 1. presence of gills ;

2. to increase surface area / increase uptake of oxygen ;

3. presence of haemoglobin / respiratory pigment ;

4. with high affinity for oxygen ;

5. presence of siphon / (breathing) tube / eq ;


max
6. to obtain oxygen (directly) from the air ; 4

NB paired points

Question Answer Mark


Number

5 (a)(ii) 1. presence of claws / hooks / suckers ;

2. to attach to substrate / eq ;

3. {flattened / streamlined / eq} body /reference to burrowing ;


max
4. less resistance to water flow / less likely to be washed away ; 2

NB paired points

Question Answer Mark


Number

5 (b) 1. inverse relationship / eq ;

2. credit a manipulated quantitative comment ; 2

14
Question Answer Mark
Number

6 (a) 1. insect ;

2. large petals / coloured petals ;

3. scent / nectar / nectary ;

4. to attract insects ;

5. correct reference to position of anthers ;


max
6. correct reference to position of stigma ; 3

Question Answer Mark


Number

6 (b) 1. increased (from 30) to 90 minutes ;

2. decreased from 90 (to 180) minutes ;

3. reached a max. at 90 minutes / reached a peak at 90 minutes ;


max
4. credit a manipulated quantitative comment ; 3

15
Question Answer Mark
Number

7 (a) xylem (vessel) ; 1

Question Answer Mark


Number

7 (b) 1. endodermal cells have Casparian strip ;

2. reference to {suberin / eq} ;

3. which is waterproof / eq ;

4. stops movement of water in apoplast pathway / description ;

5. water directed into symplast pathway / description ;

6. reference to {control of uptake / active transport of ions (into max


xylem)} ; 3

Question Answer Mark


Number

7 (c)(i) 1. concentration increases as temperature increases / eq ;

2. credit a manipulated quantitative reference ; 2

Question Answer Mark


Number

7 (c)(ii) 1. uptake is active / eq ;

2. concentration in cells is higher than concentration in solution /


converse ;

3. ions are taken up against concentration gradient ; 3

16
Question Answer Mark
Number

8 (a) E D C B A ;;

NB All correct = 2 marks, 1 error (i.e. one letter out of sequence) = 1 mark 2

Question Answer Mark


Number

8 (b) (i) 46 ;
(ii) 23 ; 2

Question Answer Mark


Number

8 (c) 1. {primordial (germ) cells / oogonia} divide by mitosis ;

2. oogonia (develop to) form primary oocytes ;

3. primary oocytes divide by meiosis I ;

4. to form a secondary oocyte ;

5. and a polar body ;

6. secondary oocyte divides by meiosis II ;


max
7. to form an ovum ; 4

PAPER TOTAL: 60 MARKS

17
Unit 2H (6112)

Question Answer Mark


Number

1 1. monocytes ;

2. antibodies / immunoglobulins ;

3. eosinophils / basophils ;

4. nucleus ; 4

18
Question Answer Mark
Number

2 (a) A red blood (cell) / erythrocyte ;

B (alveolar) epithelial cell / epithelium / squamous epithelium / ; 2

Question Answer Mark


Number

2 (b) 1. {thin / eq} cells ;

2. decreases diffusion distance ;

3. permeable (to respiratory gases) ;

4. (collectively) have a large surface area ;

5. increases diffusion ;

6. of respiratory gases / oxygen / carbon dioxide ;

7. (surrounded by) capillaries ;

8. idea that movement of blood maintains {diffusion / concentration}


gradient ;
max
9. reference to {the presence of / a description of} surfactant ; 4

Question Answer Mark


Number

2 (c) 8.1 (dm3) ; 1

19
Question Answer Mark
Number

3 (a) Carbohydrate Enzyme Products

amylase ;

glucose and
galactose ;

sucrose ; sucrase ;
4

Question Answer Mark


Number

3 (b) 1. reference to active uptake / active transport (of glucose) ;

2. reference to sodium-glucose co-transport ;

3. reference to (specific) glucose carrier proteins / fewer transport


proteins for fructose / more transport proteins for glucose /
fructose is absorbed by diffusion (only) ; 3

20
Question Answer Mark
Number

4 (a) A aorta / aortic arch ;

B (right) atrioventricular valve / tricuspid valve ; 2

Question Answer Mark


Number

4 (b) 1. reference to coronary circulation ;

2. reference to coronary artery / coronary arteries ;

3. reference to capillaries (in wall of heart) ;

4. oxygen {transported / eq} by {red cells / haemoglobin} ;

5. oxygen diffuses out of {blood / red cells / capillaries} (to heart max
muscle) ; 3

Question Answer Mark


Number

4 (c) 1. pacemaker / SAN sends {impulse / eq} (to atria) ;

2. {causing/ eq} atria to contract ;

3. {impulse / eq} reaches AVN ;

4. reference to delay at the AVN ;

5. idea that the impulse travels to ventricles via {bundle of His / max
Purkyne tissue / eq} ; 3

Question Answer Mark


Number

4 (d) 1. increased {demand for / eq} {oxygen / glucose} / increased


respiration ;

2. increased heart rate / heart beats faster / eq ;

3. increased stroke volume / cardiac output ;

4. increased production of carbon dioxide ;

5. reference to dilation of blood vessels in muscle ;


max
6. reference to adrenaline ; 3

21
Question Answer Mark
Number

5 (a) Frostbite:

1. reference to tissue / skin damage ;

2. due to exposure to (dry) cold / freezing ;

Trench foot:

1. damage to toes / feet ;

2. due to immersion in cold water ; 4

Question Answer Mark


Number

5 (b)(i) 1. increase in body temperature ;

2. credit manipulated quantitative comment ;


max
3. due to conduction of heat from water to body ; 2

Question Answer Mark


Number

5 (b)(ii) 1. reduction in body temperature ;

2. credit manipulated quantitative comment ;

3. heat lost by {radiation / conduction / evaporation of water / max


convection / lower {air / room / chair} temperature} ; 2

22
Question Answer Mark
Number

6 (a) 1. colostrum contains antibodies / eq ;

2. reference to imparting (passive) immunity / eq ; 2

Question Answer Mark


Number

6 (b)(i) 1. colostrum has more protein (than human milk) ;

2. calculated difference (e.g. 5.7 times more protein) ;

3. colostrum has less lactose (than human milk) ;


max
4. calculated difference (e.g. half the concentration of lactose) ; 2

Question Answer Mark


Number

6(b)(ii) 1. cows’ milk has more protein ;

2. protein is required for (tissue) growth / eq ;

3. cows’ milk has less fat ;


max
4. appropriate reference to benefit of less fat in diet ; 2

23
Question Answer Mark
Number

7 (a)(i) 1. as altitude increases, partial pressure of oxygen in alveoli


decreases / eq ;

2. credit a manipulated quantitative comment ; 2

Question Answer Mark


Number

7 (a)(ii) 1. reference to low partial pressure of oxygen (at high altitudes) ;

2. haemoglobin poorly saturated with oxygen ;

3. insufficient {oxygen to maintain consciousness / oxygen reaching


the brain} ;
max
4. reference to hypoxia ; 2

Question Answer Mark


Number

7 (a)(iii) 1. wind speed ;

2. solar radiation ; 2

Question Answer Mark


Number

7 (b) THREE of:

1. increased lung volume /eq ;

2. increased pulmonary capillaries / eq ;

3. increased cardiac output /eq ;

4. increased numbers of red cells / eq ;

5. increased haemoglobin ;

6. increased affinity of haemoglobin (for oxygen) ;

7. increased melanin / skin pigmentation ;


max
8. reference to short stature / eq ; 3

24
Question Answer Mark
Number

8 (a) E D C B A ;;

all correct = 2 marks, 1 error (i.e. one letter out of sequence) = 1 mark 2

Question Answer Mark


Number

8 (b) (i) 46 ;
(ii) 23 ; 2

Question Answer Mark


Number

8 (c) 1. {primordial (germ) cells / oogonia} divide by mitosis ;

2. oogonia (develop to) form primary oocytes ;

3. primary oocytes divide by meiosis I ;

4. to form a secondary oocyte ;

5. and a polar body ;

6. secondary oocyte divides by meiosis II ;


max
7. to form an ovum ; 4

PAPER TOTAL: 60 MARKS

25
Unit 3 Paper 3 (6103/03)

Question Answer Mark


Number

1 (a)(i) 1. reference to external digestion /eq ;

2. feed on organic material / both are heterotrophic /eq ;

3. reference to hypha(e) {secrete / eq} enzymes / absorb {digested max


products / named product} / eq ; 2

Question Answer Mark


Number

1 (a)(ii) 1. (Rhizopus) is {saprobiontic / saprophytic} / eq ;

2. (Rhizopus) {feeds on / eq} {dead / eq } material ;

3. reference to importance of Rhizopus as {a decomposer / involved in


recycling of nutrients} and Phytophthora causing {harm / loss of crops max
/ eq} ; 2

Question Answer Mark


Number

1 (b) 1. {less / eq} photosynthesis possible ;

2. (because) {leaves / palisade cells / photosynthetic cells /


chloroplasts} damaged / eq ;

3. less {glucose / starch / organic compounds} produced /eq / idea of


fungus using up the plants’ organic material ;
max
4. reference to {blocked stomata / inefficient gas exchange / eq} ; 2

26
Question Answer Mark
Number

2 (a) 1. bacteria / fungi / saprophyte / saprobiont / decomposer / suitable,


correct organism ;

2. reference to respiration ; 2

Question Answer Mark


Number

2 (b)(i) photosynthesis ; 1

Question Answer Mark


Number

2 (b)(ii) 1. reference to respiration (of some of the organic material) ;

2. idea that energy is required ;


max
3. for synthesis of {molecules / eq} / movement / active transport} ; 2

Question Answer Mark


Number

2 (c) 1. idea of {carbon / carbon dioxide} {locked away / stored} / eq ;

2. for {many years / a long time / eq} ; 2

Question Answer Mark


Number

2 (d) 24 391 ÷ 37.98 ;

642.2 x 106 ha ; 2

27
Question Answer Mark
Number

2 (e) 1. (different) {climates / rainfall / temperatures / eq} ;

2. (different) {species / types} of {tree / forest} ;

3. (different) {ages / maturity / size / eq} of forests ;

4. (different) tree density / number of trees ;

5. reference to (different) day lengths ;

6. reference to (different) light intensity ;

7. (different) carbon dioxide concentration / eq ;


max
8. any two other valid reasons ;; 2

Question Answer Mark


Number

2 (f) 1. idea of less carbon dioxide {fixed / taken up / eq} by photosynthesis ;

2. {respiration / combustion of {fossil fuels / trees}} continues to release


carbon dioxide ;

3. carbon dioxide builds up in {upper atmosphere / troposphere} ;

4. reference to carbon dioxide as greenhouse gas ;

5. description of the greenhouse effect ;

6. reference to {enhanced / eq} greenhouse effect ;

7. reference to global warming / increase in mean temperature (of max


Earth’s surface) ; 4

28
Question Answer Mark
Number

3 (a)(i) {total biomass / eq} produced / {total energy / eq} taken in ;

by {plants / producers / photosynthesis / eq} ; 2

Question Answer Mark


Number

3 (a)(ii) 1. light intensity ;

2. light duration / eq ;

3. light wavelength ;

4. temperature ;

5. {carbon dioxide / carbonate} concentration ;

6. pH ;
max
7. named aquatic pollutant ; 2

Question Answer Mark


Number

3 (b) 1. (dead plant material) is decomposed / eq ;

2. by action of {bacteria / microoorganisms / eq} ;

3. idea that aerobic respiration involved ;

4. (more) dead material provides more nutrients which leads to an max


increase in microorganisms / eq ; 3

Question Answer Mark


Number

3 (c)(i) 1. CR in winter {usually greater/eq} than in summer ;

2. both show increase as distance (from headwaters) increases ;

3. in winter CR increases {greatly / eq}, in summer only {slight increase /


eq} ;
max
4. use of manipulated data ; 2

29
Question Answer Mark
Number

3 (c)(ii) 1. idea that {more leaves / detritus / eq} added with distance from
source / more leaves shed in winter / (more dead material because)
algae die down in winter ;

2. far increased {bacterial / eq} activity ; 2

Question Answer Mark


Number

3 (d)(i) 1. GPP {increases as distance (from headwaters) increases / higher in


Motueka River} ;

2. high GPP indicates {high algal population / eq} ;

3. (because) algae release oxygen by photosynthesis ;

4. more algae means more {grazing invertebrates / eq} ;


max
5. more food (for fish / trout) ; 3

Question Answer Mark


Number

3 (d)(ii) 1. CR {higher / increases} (in winter) ;

2. (higher CR indicates) more {detritus / eq} ;

3. {algae / eq} may die down in winter ;

4. reference to {decay / eq} (of detritus and/or algae) uses up oxygen ;


max
5. fish population {falls / eq} ; 3

PAPER TOTAL: 38 MARKS

30
Unit 4 Core (6104)

Question Answer Mark


Number

1 (a) B = medulla (oblongata) ;

C = cerebellum ; 2

Question Answer Mark


Number

1 (b) 1. to receive sensory input / eq ;

2. idea of {interpretation/coordination} (of information) ;

3. {initiates / transmits} impulses to effector ;

4. idea of control of voluntary action / eq ;

5. reference to {thought / learning / intelligence / memory } ;

6. reference to speech ;
max
7. reference to {personality / emotion} ; 2

31
Question Answer Mark
Number

2 (a) 1. idea of a deviation from the {norm / normal level / eq } triggers


mechanism to eliminate the deviation ;

2. increase in level of cortisol inhibits {CRH secretion /hypothalamus} ;

3. (which) reduces secretion {of ACTH / from (anterior) pituitary} ;


max
4. this causes drop in level of cortisol ; 3

Question Answer Mark


Number

2 (b) {follicle stimulating hormone / FSH / luteinising hormone / LH / thyroid


stimulating hormone / TSH / growth hormone / prolactin } ; 1

Question Answer Mark


Number

2 (c) 1. effect is longer lasting / eq ;

2. effect is slower / eq ;

3. effect is (often) not reversible / eq ;

4. reference to involvement of transport in blood system ;

5. reference to {several target organs/diffuse effect / eq} ;

6. hormonal involves chemical control, nervous involves electrical (and max


chemical) control ; 3

32
Question Answer Mark
Number

3 (a) 1. reference to influx of calcium ions(into pre-synaptic knob) / eq ;

2. vesicles move to pre-synaptic membrane / eq ;

3. fuse with pre-synaptic membrane / eq ;


max
4. (acetylcholine released) by exocytosis ; 3

Question Answer Mark


Number

3 (b)(i) value between 0.85 and 1.95 (ms) ; 1

Question Answer Mark


Number

3 (b)(ii) 3.0 ± 0.05 (ms) ; 1

Question Answer Mark


Number

3 (b)(iii) 1. correct reading from graph of duration of one action potential ;

2. 1000 / reading from graph ; 2

Question Answer Mark


Number

3 (c) 1. idea that the inside of the (post-synaptic) membrane is becoming


{more negative / hyperpolarised} ;

2. therefore {more Na+ channels must open / more Na+ must enter} ;
max
3. to reach threshold level / eq ; 2

33
Question Answer Mark
Number

4 (a)(i) carbon dioxide / CO2 ; 1

Question Answer Mark


Number

4 (a)(ii) 1. to regenerate the {hydrogen carriers / NAD+ } / oxidise reduced NAD ;

2. NAD+ does not become limiting / eq ;

3. so that glycolysis can continue ;


max
4. to allow ATP to be formed (during glycolysis) ; 2

Question Answer Mark


Number

4 (b)(i) 1. rate is {constant / steady / eq} for the first 6 minutes ;

2. rate {slows / decreases} from {6 to 14 minutes / for next 8 minutes} ;

3. no respiration from 14 – 20 minutes / eq ;


max
4. manipulation of figures e.g. calculation of rate for first 6 minutes ; 3

Question Answer Mark


Number

4 (b)(ii) rate is constant (throughout the 20 minutes) / rate is slower in sucrose than
in glucose (in first 6 to 8 minutes) / respiration does not stop ; 1

Question Answer Mark


Number

4 (b)(iii)
1. to prevent oxygen entering (solution) / keep conditions anaerobic ;

2. to prevent TTC being {oxidised / decolourised} / no TTC would be


2
reduced ;

34
Question Answer Mark
Number

4 (b)(iv) 1. maintain constant temperature / eq ;

2. respiration produces heat (energy) ;

3. change of temperature will affect rate of enzyme activity ;


max
4. idea that the experiment can be performed in 20 minutes ; 2

35
Question Answer Mark
Number

5 (a) 1. (ultrafiltration) occurs in {glomerulus / Bowman’s capsule / renal


capsule} ;

2. reference to high pressure {of blood / in glomerulus} ;

3. because afferent arteriole is wider than efferent arteriole ;

4. {small molecules / eq} forced out (through capillary wall) / {large


molecules / proteins} remain in blood ;

5. reference to {fenestrations / pores} in capillary walls ;

6. reference to basement membrane (acting as a filter) ;


max
7. reference to podocytes in (Bowman’s capsule) ; 4

Question Answer Mark


Number

5 (b) 1. all {glucose / amino acids} are reabsorbed ;

2. by (sodium) co-transport mechanism ;

3. {some / eq} urea is reabsorbed ;

4. by diffusion ;

5. sodium ions are {actively reabsorbed / co-transported} ;

6. {chloride ions / negatively charged ions} (follow) down


electrochemical gradient ;

7. reference to microvilli (on epithelial cells) to increase surface


area ;

8. reference to {many mitochondria for active transport / max


mitochondria produce ATP (for active transport) ; 5

36
Unit 4A (6104/01)

Question Answer Mark


Number

6 Feature λ phage TMV HIV

Nucleic acid DNA ; RNA ; RNA ;

Shape of complex ; helical ; polyhedral ;


protein coat
6

37
Question Answer Mark
Number

7 (a) 1. overall the number of cases caused by Salmonella increased whereas


those caused by Staphylococcus decreased / eq ;

2. between 1985 and (some of) 1988 more cases were caused by
Staphylococcus ;

3. after {1989 / second part of 1988} more cases were caused by


Salmonella ;

4. there was a (very marked) increase in the number of cases caused by


Salmonella from 1995 compared to {very little change / eq} in number
of cases caused by Staphylococcus ;

5. credit correct manipulation of figures to compare numbers of cases in max


a stated time period ; 3

Question Answer Mark


Number

7 (b)
Endotoxin Exotoxin

Lipopolysaccharide protein ;
Released from dead released from living bacteria / eq ;
bacteria/damaged cell wall
Delay in release immediate release ;
Low toxicity / eq high toxicity ;
Released from gram positive released from Gram negative and max
Gram positive ; 2

38
Question Answer Mark
Number

8 (a) 1. Gram positive bacteria / S. aureus {more sensitive to /shows greater


effect / more susceptible to / shows less resistance} to
ampicillin /eq ;

2. S. aureus / Gram positive have thick {cell wall / peptioglycan layer /


eq} ;

3. ampicillin affects cell wall synthesis ;

4. inhibits formation of {peptidoglycan bonds (in cell wall) / eq} ;

5. weakening of cell walls ;


max
6. reference to osmotic shock / cell lysis / eq ; 4

Question Answer Mark


Number

8 (b) 1. correct reason for existence of resistant bacteria ;

2. any resistant bacteria will multiply ;


max
3. (and) pass on {resistance gene/ plasmid} ; 2

Question Answer Mark


Number

8 (c) (48-36) ;

/36 x 100 = 33.33% ; 2

Question Answer Mark


Number

8 (d) ampicillin doesn’t fit active site / allosteric effect / eq ; 1

39
Question Answer Mark
Number

9 (a)(i) 1. L. bulgaricus grew best at pH 5 ;

2. L. bulgaricus could grow at pHs 5, 6 and 7 (and 8) ;

3. E. coli grew best at pH 7 ;

4. E. coli could grow at pHs 6, 7 and 8 (and 5) ;


max
5. neither species could grow at pH 9 ; 3

Question Answer Mark


Number

9 (a)(ii) 1. idea that pH affects enzyme activity ;

2. enzymes can only work in narrow pH range ;

3. enzymes needed to {replicate DNA/make protein} ;

4. L. bulgaricus adapted to grow in acidic conditions due to lactic acid


production ;
max
5. E. coli adapted to live in alkaline conditions ; 3

Question Answer Mark


Number

9 (b) 1. use sterile conditions / eq ;

2. could have seen more colonies (on any one plate) as contaminants grew
too / could have seen colonies on plates where none were found before
as the contaminants could grow at these pHs / could have seen fewer
colonies due to inhibition/competition ;

3. shake culture before sampling ;

4. fewer colonies, as bacteria would have settled to bottom of container ;

5. spread samples over agar thoroughly ;

6. fewer colonies seen due to bacteria on top of each other / inaccurate max
counting due to overcrowding in one place ; 4

40
Unit 4B (6104/02)

Question Answer Mark


Number

6 Enzyme Enzyme Product(s) Industrial use


substrate of the
reaction

Glucose isomerase Glucose fructose ; confectionery / soft


drinks ;

Amyloglucosidase (liquid) starch ; Glucose brewing / bread


making / fruit
sorbets ;

Lactase Lactose glucose and {lactose free / low


galactose ; lactose} products /
whey syrup /ice
cream ; 6

41
Question Answer Mark
Number

7 (a) 1. between 16 and 34 diabetes is more common in women than men/eq ;

2. more common in men over 35 / eq ;

3. increase in prevalence in women with age / eq ;

4. increase in number of men with diabetes as age increase up to 74 /


eq;
max
5. credit correct manipulation of data ; 3

Question Answer Mark


Number

7 (b) 1. obesity ;

2. genetic ;

3. viral infection ;

4. high fat ;

5. high calorie ;

6. high sugar ;
max
7. reference to less insulin / inactivity of insulin ; 2

42
Question Answer Mark
Number

8 (a) supplies respiratory substrate / eq ; 1

Question Answer Mark


Number

8 (b) fungus / mould/ Aspergillus / Saccharomyces / yeast ;

bacteria / Lactobacillus /Bacillus / Pediococcus ; 2

Question Answer Mark


Number

8 (c) 1. changes due to activity of mould / eq ;

2. enzymes or named enzyme produced / eq ;

3. (amylases convert) carbohydrates into simple sugars / eq ;

4. (proteases convert) protein into amino acids / eq ;

5. reference to named product of fermentation ;


max
6. pH falls / eq ; 3

Question Answer Mark


Number

8 (d)(i) 0.73-0.07 ;

/0.07 x 100 ; 2

Question Answer Mark


Number

8 (d)(ii) ethanoic / formic / acetic / lactic / methanoic / carbonic ; 1

43
Question Answer Mark
Number

9 (a)(i) 1. chilled vegetables have a higher vitamin C content throughout / eq ;

2. faster loss of vitamin C in vegetables at room temperature ;

3. both methods of storage result in a {greater / faster} loss of vitamin C


in the first 2 - 3 days ;

4. at 7 days there is no vitamin C left in the vegetables stored at room


temperature, but some vitamin C still remains in the chilled ones ;

5. there is still some vitamin C left in the chilled vegetables at the end of
20 days ;
max
6. comparative manipulation of figures to give quantitative comparisons ; 3

Question Answer Mark


Number

9 (a)(ii) 1. vegetables should be chilled ;

2. because the vitamin C content stays higher ;

3. quantitative comparison of chilled with frozen ;

4. quantitative comparison of chilled with room temperature ;


max
5. freezing can result in damage to vegetables / or ref. to energy cost ; 3

Question Answer Mark


Number

9 (b) 1. vitamin C is a reducing agent ;

2. DCPIP is a dye ;

3. blue in oxidised & pale yellow / brown / colourless in reduced state ; 2

Question Answer Mark


Number

9 (c) 1. reference to use as antioxidant / eq ;

2. prevents oxidation of {fats / oils} ;

3. no rancid flavours develop /eq ;


max
4. correct description of prevention of rancidity ; 2

44
Unit 4C (6104/03)

Question Answer Mark


Number

6 White blood Type of immune One role in the immune


cells response response

B-lymphocytes humoral / antibody reference to antibody


mediated / specific ; production by plasma cells /
reference to plasma cells /
reference to of memory cells ;

T-lymphocytes cell-mediated / act as memory cells / killer T


specific ; cells {destroy infected cells /
destroy cancer cells / attract
macrophages / activate
phagocytosis } /
/ T helper cells activate {B-
cells / antibody production} /
T suppressor cells suppress
{killer T cells /B-cells} ;

Macrophages non-specific / phagocytosis / engulf bacteria


phagocytosis ; / antigen presentation ;
6

45
Question Answer Mark
Number

7 (a) 1. both have a {heavier /eq} left ventricle ;

2. both have a {thicker / eq} wall ;

3. both have a larger volume (left ventricle) ;


max
4. manipulation of figures to quantify one of the comparisons ; 3

Question Answer Mark


Number

7 (b) 1. reference to {epicardium / pericardium}, myocardium and


endocardium ;

2. outer {epicardium / pericardium}, inner endocardium and myocardium


in between / eq ;

3. reference to cardiac muscle ;


max
4. reference to {epithelial cells / connective tissue} ; 2

46
Question Answer Mark
Number

8 (a) 1. age;

2. gender;

3. level of fitness / eq ;

4. resting pulse rate ;

5. diet / weight ;

6. heart conditions / eq ;

7. high blood pressure ;

8. drugs ;
max
9. height / eq ; 2

Question Answer Mark


Number

8 (b) 1. 152 x 85, 142 x 96 ;

2. / 1000 ;

3. subtraction = 0.71 ; 3

Question Answer Mark


Number

8 (c) 1. description of systolic and diastolic ;

2. systolic increases ;

3. (after training programe) stroke volume increases / greater volume


of blood entering arteries / heart contracts with greater force ;

4. (due to) greater stretching of ventricles during filling / increased


filling / increased end diastolic volume ;

5. diastolic decreases ;

6. due to greater emptying ;


max
7. reference to Starling’s law ; 4

47
Question Answer Mark
Number

9 (a) A alveolus

B blood vessel

C bronchiole ;;

NB All correct for 2 marks, 2 correct for 1 mark 2

Question Answer Mark


Number

9 (b)(i) 1. number of deaths greater in men than women (in all years) ;

2. between 1930 and 1960 increase in death rate in men but {stayed
constant in women / only increased slightly} ;

3. between 1960 and 1980/1990 death rate increased in men and women ;

4. linear increase in women but not linear in men ;

5. after 1990 number of deaths fell in men but still rose in women ;
max
6. manipulated comparative quantitative comment ; 3

Question Answer Mark


Number

9 (b)(ii) 1. lung cancer caused by smoking ;

2. increase in lung cancer due to increase in smoking ;

3. men smoke more than women ;

4. women started to smoke about 1930 ;

5. reference to polluted work environment causing lung cancer ;

6. idea of women {smoking being more socially acceptable / having max


money / going out to work} ; 3

Question Answer Mark


Number

9 (c) 1. removal of tumour / lung ;

2. radiotherapy ;
max
3. chemotherapy ; 2

48
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