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Model Question Paper Subject Code: MC0071 Subject Name: Software Engineering Credits: 4 Marks: 140

Part A (One mark questions)

1. What type of software could be automotive stress analysis to space shuttle orbital dynamics?

A) Business software

B) Real time software

C) Safety critical software D) Engineering and Scientific software

2. Which of the following is one of the phase of software life cycle?

A) Design

B) Project Management

C) Maintenance

D) Quality management

3. The Linear sequential model of software development is__________

A) A reasonable approach when requirement are well defined.

B) A good approach when a working program is required quickly

C) A useful approach when a customer cannot define requirements clearly.

D) An Old Fashioned model that cannot be used in a modern context

4. The Linear sequential model is also known as ________.

A) classical life cycle model

B) Fountain model

C) Spiral model

D) Concurrent model

5. The rapid application development model is______________

A) A Combination of prototyping and waterfall model

B) Includes project risks evaluation during each iteration

C) A high speed adaptation of the linear sequential model

D) Used to suggests a systematic sequential approach to software development

6. Which of the following is not the strategy for achieving reliability in software system?

A) Fault avoidance

B) Fault tolerance

C) Fault detection

D) Fault repair

7. In _________ approach to reuse, reusable knowledge is captured in a program generator system, which can be programmed in a domain-oriented language.

A) Function reuse

B) Generator based reuse

C) Application system reuse

D) Sub- system reuse

8. which is used to measure POFOD?

A) The time between system failure

B) The frequency of occurrence with which unexpected behaviour is likely to occur C) The elapsed repair or restart time when a system failure occurs. Given that the system must be continuously available.

D) The number of system failures given a number of systems inputs.

9. Which of the following the notation is not used to represent an object class in an object model?

A) Class Name B) Entity C) Attributes D) Service 10. Which of the following model include inheritance model, object aggregation, and service usage model? A) Entity- relation model B) Data flow model C) Structural model D) Object model

11. ____________ serves as the foundation for software engineering. A) Software Analysis B) Software Design C) Software quality D) Software testing 12. Which of the following notation in data flow diagram is used to represent user interaction with system? A) Rectangle

B) Rounded Rectangle C) Circle D) Arrow Head

13. Which of the following are the steps in identifying the transforming process of dataflow diagram to structure chart?

A) Identify system- processing transformation B) Identify input transformation C) Identify output transformation D) All the above

14. ___________ is used to derive a class from existing class. A) Polymorphism B) Encapsulation c) Inheritance D) Information hiding

15. Which of the following is not the type of software maintenance?

A) System maintenance

B) Corrective maintenance

C) Adaptive maintenance

D) Perfective maintenance

16. Which of the following is a technical factor which affect software maintenance cost?

A) Application Domain

B) Staff stability

C) Programming language

D) External environment 17. The testing technique that requires devising test cases to demonstrate a program function is operational is called_____

A) Grey- box testing

B) White box testing

C) Black box testing

D) Red Box Testing 18. What types of errors are missed by black-box testing and can be found by white-box testing?

A) Behavioural error

B) Logic errors

C) Performance error

D) Interface error 19. Which of the following is not the part of system requirements? A) Availability B) Data Integrity C) Security D) Reliability

20 The major advantage of bottom-up integration testing is__________. A) major decision points are tested early B) no drivers need to be written C) no stubs need to be written D) regression testing is not required

21. _____ model is based on incremental development under statistical quality control and formal correctness principles. A) Waterfall B) Spiral C) Iterative D) Cleanroom 22. The economic success of an application is measured in terms of metrics such as _____. A) Profit maximization

B) Cost reduction C) Customer satisfaction D) All of the above 23. The most famous risk reduction strategy is _____. A) Waterfall model B) Incremental model C) Spiral model D) Iterative model 24. CASE stands for _____. A) Computer Aided System Engineering B) Computer Aided Statistical Engineering C) Computer Aided Software Engineering D) Computer Aided Structural Engineering 25. Tools used in the early phases of the life cycle are called _____ CASE tools. A) Lower B) Back-end C) Intermediate D) Upper 26. The tools used during implementation and maintenance are called _____ CASE tools. A) Upper B) Front-end C) Intermediate D) Lower

27. UAN stands for _____. A) User Action Norms B) User Analogy Notation C) User Analogy Norms D) User Action Notation 28. ISO stands for _____. A) Indian Statistical Organization B) Inter State Organization C) International Standards Organization D) Indian Standards Organization 29. Feller and Fitzgerald observe that between _____ percent of software costs are traditionally associated with the post-development, maintenance phase of the software life cycle. A) 70 to 80 B) 30 to 40 C) 50 to 60 D) 10 to 20 30. Open source development model best suits for _____. A) Large system applications B) Small system applications C) Medium system applications D) Very small system applications 31. _____ asserted that, for a process model to be effective, it must exhibit multidimensional characteristics. A) Madhavji

B) Sutton C) Khalifa D) Humphrey 32. _____ focused on the Waterfall and prototype models in their empirical study, emphasizing the factors driving the usage of specific process models. A) Boehm and Belz B) Khalifa and Verner C) Madhavji et al. D) Blackburn et al. 33. Integrating business processes with the Internet leads to far greater _____ between customers and suppliers. A) Understanding B) Restrictions C) Transparency D) Controversy 34. _____ is the most widely used single measure of information technology success. A) User satisfaction B) Job satisfaction C) Business success D) Profit making 35. Process technology enabled the support of the rapid application development needed for iterative approaches with their greater emphasis on risk _____ and user _____. A) Minimization, Satisfaction B) Minimization, Dissatisfaction

C) Maximization, Satisfaction D) Maximization, Dissatisfaction 36. The SOFL model of Liu and colleagues (1997) presents an integrated approach that adopts _____ methodologies in the requirements phases and _____ methodologies in the design and implementation phases. A) Procedure-oriented, Structured B) Structured, Procedure-oriented C) Structured, Object-oriented D) Object-oriented, Structured 37. _____ interoperate with systems at a mobile or remote level in order to access inventory, check prices, and close deals. A) System Operator B) Salesman C) Database Manager D) Accountant 38. _____ interacts with the system at the financial level. A) Accounting Personnel B) Database Manager C) Salesman D) System Operator 39. In Software Engineering, people are considered as a/an _____. A) Asset B) Resource C) Problem Solver

D) Knowledge Provider 40. _____ is the open source software. A) Internet Explorer B) Mozilla C) MS-Office D) Oracle

Part B (Two mark questions)


41. State True or False. 1. Investors and owners are also significant stakeholders who make demands on a system in terms of financial goals. 2. Experts and consultants are another stakeholder class who can strongly affect problem definition. A) 1-False, 2-False B) 1-True, 2-False C) 1-False, 2-True D) 1-True, 2-True

42. The spiral model of software development___________

A) A useful approach when a customer cannot define requirements clearly.

B) Is more chaotic than the incremental model

C) Includes project risks evaluation during each iteration

D) Often used for the development of client/server applications

43. Which of the following is not aspects to fault tolerance.?

A) Failure detection

B) Damage assessment

C) Fault avoidance

D) Fault repair 44. State True or False. 1. Cultural differences are examples of inherited characteristics that affect the degree of diversification in an environment. 2. Amid various diversity, commonly shared human needs play a unifying role. A) 1-False, 2-False B) 1-True, 2-False C) 1-False, 2-True D) 1-True, 2-True 45. State True or False. 1. Ubiquitous computing lead to an environment in which the cycle time and costs of the business processes are increased. 2. Software technology facilitates communication between devices in a multimedia fashion. A) 1-True, 2-True B) 1-True, 2-False C) 1-False, 2-True D) 1-False, 2-False

46. Which of the following is not the stages in software design problem? A) Study and understand the problem B) Identify gross features of at least one possible solution. C) Describe each abstraction used in the solution D) Maintenance

47. State True or False. 1. Curtis, Kellner, and Over identified five uses for process models. 2. Blackburn et al. identified the five most influential factors in the development process. A) 1-True, 2-True B) 1-True, 2-False C) 1-False, 2-True D) 1-False, 2-False 48. State True or False. 1. The seminal book by Kent Beck, Extreme Programming Explained express some of the defining characteristics of agile development. 2. Code is the one artifact that development absolutely cannot live without. A) 1-False, 2-False B) 1-True, 2-False C) 1-False, 2-True D) 1-True, 2-True

49. What is meant by the term software crisis?

A) Ability to deliver software on time with good quality

B) A situation in which experienced developers leave the company

C) Inability of new software to inter-operate with existing software

D) Instability in the development team

50. State True or False. 1. COCOMO is not a cost estimation model. 2. Human factors have an important role in the development process. A) 1-True, 2-True B) 1-True, 2-False C) 1-False, 2-True D) 1-False, 2-False 51. State True or False. 1. 4GLs are not CASE tools. 2. The domain of applicability of CASE tools are much more limited than the 4GL. A) 1-True, 2-True B) 1-True, 2-False C) 1-False, 2-True D) 1-False, 2-False

52. Which of the following is a the process metric which is useful for assessing maintainability?

A) Number of request for corrective maintenance

B) Average time required for impact analysis

C) Number of oustanding change request

D) All the above 53. State True or False.

1. People are at the core of problem solving because business problems are solved by people for people. 2. The structure of the group and its efficiency of communications, style of management, and cohesiveness are critical factors in the effectiveness of the team. A) 1-True, 2-True B) 1-True, 2-False C) 1-False, 2-True D) 1-False, 2-False

54. Which of the following are the activities of the function- oriented design. A) B) C) D) Data- flow design Structural decomposition Detailed design description All the above

55. RAD stands for _____. A) Random Application Development B) Raw Application Development C) Robust Application Development D) Rapid Application Development 56. _____ was an improved version of an earlier process model called the Nine-Phase, Stage-Wise model. A) Spiral model B) Incremental model C) Iterative model

D) Waterfall model

57.________________ exercises specific paths in a module's control structure to ensure complete coverage and maximum error detection. A) Unit testing

B) Integration testing

C) Validation testing D) System testing

58. _____ refers to the elimination or reduction of third-party intermediaries between the client or customer. A) Intermediation B) Disintermediation C) Mediation D) None of the above 59. State True or False. 1. Leveson adopts a cognitive engineering approach to software development. 2. Visualization plays a key role in defining and understanding the artifacts produced during development. A) 1-False, 2-False B) 1-True, 2-False C) 1-False, 2-True D) 1-True, 2-True

60. State True or False. 1. People have different software needs that change over time. 2. Most computer users do not understand computer languages. A) 1-False, 2-False B) 1-True, 2-False C) 1-False, 2-True D) 1-True, 2-True

Part C (Four mark questions)

61. Match the following: Set A 1. Exploratory prototyping Set B a. Refers to prototyping as a component of another software development strategy 2. Experimental prototyping b. Used to explore changing requirements incrementally 3. Evolutionary prototyping 4. Embedded prototyping c. Used as a testing or evaluation technique d. Gives the developer a better understanding of the users work problems and needs A) 1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d B) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a C) 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c D) 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b 62. Match the following: Set A 1. Inception phase 2. Elaboration phase Set B a. Supports delivery, training and maintenance b. Builds the product, modifying the vision and the plan as it proceeds 3. Construction phase 4. Transition phase c. Plans activities and specifies the architecture d. Defines the vision of the actual user end-product and the scope of the project A) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a B) 1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d C) 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c

D) 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b

63. Match the following: Set A 1. CMM Level 1 Set B a. Qualitative and quantitative measures of organizational process are in place 2. CMM Level 2 3. CMM Level 3 b. Development process is standard and consistent c. Some software management controls have been introduced and some software process is followed 4. CMM Level 4 d. Software development follows no formal development process A) 1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d B) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a C) 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c D) 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b 64. Match the following: Set A (Model) 1. Open source development Set B (Problem nature) a. Synchronization, coordination, communication, real-time constraints, etc. 2. Agile software development 3. Rapid application development 4. Aspect oriented development A) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a B) 1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d b. Good for small systems c. General d. Large system applications

C) 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c D) 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b 65. Match the following: Set A (Classic Invalid Assumptions) 1. First Assumption 2. Second Assumption 3. Third Assumption 4. Fourth Assumption A) 1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d B) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a C) 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c D) 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b 66. Software technology has enabled breakthrough transformations in businesses and provided benefits that have included: 1. Removal of unnecessary processes 2. Overall quality improvement 3. Organizational flexibility 4. Cost reduction A) 1, 2, 3 only B) 2, 3, 4 only C) 1, 3, 4 only D) All of the above 67. The effects of a lack of communication can be summarized as: 1. Ignorance of lack of sources 2. Extra-contextual ignorance 3. Ignorance of lack of communication channels Set B

a. Process Centered or Architecture Centered b. Processes or Projects c. Software or Business Processes d. Internal or External drivers

4. Differentiation ignorance A) All of the above B) 1, 2, 3 only C) 2, 3, 4 only D) 1, 3, 4 only

68. Match the following: Set A 1. Project conception 2. Planning Set B a. The project activities are phased out b. Manage the resources necessary to accomplish the objectives 3. Execution c. The performance, cost and schedule estimates are refined 4. Termination A) 1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d B) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a C) 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c D) 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b 69. State true or false The characteristics of an object oriented design. 1. Objects are abstraction of system entities, which are responsible formanaging their own private state and offering services to other objects 2. Objects are dependent entities that are difficult to change. 3. Objects may be distributed and may execute either sequentially or in parallel. A) true, false, true d. Determine the feasibility of the project

B) false, true, false C) false, false, true D) True, true, false

70. Match the following Set A I. Architectural Design Set B 1. Services are allotted to different component and their interface are designed II. Algorithm Design III. Component Design IV Interface Design 2. Design of interface between the sub - systems 3. Service providing algorithm are designed 4. Sub- systems and their relationship identification and Documentation A) I- 4 II-3 III-1 IV-2 B) I-3 II-4 III-2 IV-1 C) I-2 II-1 III-4 IV-3 D) 1-4 II-2 III-1 IV- 3

71. State true or false 1. Unreliable software is liable to be discarded by users 2. reliable systems are difficult to improve 3. unreliable systems may cause information loss A) false, false, true B) false, true, false C) true, false, false D) true, false, true

72. State true or false 1. Software engineering umbrella activities are only applied during the initial phase of software development projects. 2. Software processes can be constructed out of pre- existing software patterns to best meet the needs of a software project. 3. it generally accepted that one cannot have weak software processes and create high quality end products. A) true, true, true B) false, true, true C) false, true, false D) true, false, true

73. State true or false 1. testing is conducted by the developer of the software and also by an independent test group 2. testing and debugging are similar activities 3. validation testing provides final assurance that software meets all functional, behavioural, and performance requirements A) true, false, true B) false, true, false C) false, false, true D) true, true, false

74. The challenges to software-driven approaches to problem solving include: (4 marks) 1. Diversity of user requirements 2. Difficulty of capturing requirements 3. Complexity of business and decision-making processes 4. Lack of business experience and background among software specialists and developers A) All of the above B) 1, 2, 3 only

C) 2, 3, 4 only D) 1, 3, 4 only 75. Which of the following types of data is not suitable for software systems? 1. Unprocessed data 2. Unused data 3. Untailored data 4. Vague data A) 1, 2, 3 only B) 2, 3, 4 only C) 1, 3, 4 only D) All of the above

Answer Keys
Part - A Q. No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 Ans. Key D A A A C D B D B D B Q. No. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 Ans. Key D D C C D D D C A A B Q. No. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 Part - B Ans. Key D C C D C D A D A C A D Q. No. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 Part - C Ans. Key B A B A B D A B A A D B A A D

12 C 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 D C A C C B D C

32 B 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 C A A C B A B B

53 A 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 D D D A B D D

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