MOCK SNAP 2011 SET 3

Time: 120 Minutes

Instructions: 1. For every wrong answer you will score 25% negative marks. 2. All questions in a section carry equal marks. 3. The sequence of the sections may differ but the weightage remains the same as mentioned in the SNAP bulletin.

Sections General English Analytical & Logical Reasoning Quantitative, Data Interpretation, Data Sufficiency General Awareness

Total Marks 40 60 40 40

No. Of Questions 40 30 40 40

**Please note, this is just a mock paper and in no way predicts the exact nature of the actual paper on 18th December, 2011. Use this as a means to prepare and test yourself.

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SECTION I: GENERAL ENGLISH

1. They ____ for three hours when they saw the first signs of civilization. a. walked b. had been walking c. were walking d. have been walking

2. The Taj Mahal is the most beautiful building that I ____. a. saw b. had seen c. had ever seen d. have ever seen

3. Identify the option which can replace the underlined word: Please (read) the instructions carefully before starting the work. a. watch out b. look up c. let down d. go over

4. Choose the correct form of the sentence: a. She knew she was better than any other dancer. b. She knew she is better than any other dancer. c. She knew she was better than another dancer. d. She knew she is better than any dancer.

5. ____ is used at the end of a sentence or after an interjection to show strong emotion or emphasis. a. period b. question mark c. exclamation mark d. apostrophe

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Q 6: Rearrange the given sentences in proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then, mark the correct sequence as answer. 6. (A) He was so busy with them that he did not get time to eat. (B) Thousands of people came to him and asked different types of questions. (C) No one cared to see that he had this food or rest that night. (D) Swami Vivekananda once stayed in a small village. a. b. c. d. BCDA CBAD DBAC DBCA

Q 7-11: Complete the text by choosing the most suitable word from the options: The Metropolitan Police service, (I)_____ for policing London, announced the purchase of Geotime, a computer program which correlates information from satellites, mobile phones, social networking websites, IP logs and financial transactions. Sarah McSherry, a lawyer representing protesters, (II)_____ fears that officers could breach data protection laws by tracking innocent protesters. "We have already seen the (III)_____ of a number of tactics which (IV)_____ the right to peaceful protest, privacy and freedom of expression, assembly and movement. All of these have a (V)_____ effect on participation in peaceful protest," she said. 7. (I) a. b. c. d. 8. (II) a. b. c. d. 9. (III) a. b. c. d. 3 exploitation vaccination utilisation probation caused warned raised questioned responsible requested rearranged required

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10. (IV) a. b. c. d. 11. (V) a. b. c. d. chilling soothing calming cooling infringe increase increment instil

12. Megha believed that one of her co-workers ____ stealing from her. a. is b. are c. was d. were 13. ____ should do his part to save the environment. a. every one b. every body c. each one d. each and every 14. Select the correct meaning: dissent a. partiality or preference for; a favorable opinion arrived at beforehand b. to disagree; to differ in opinion c. to banish or exile; to withdraw from one's country d. a relation between two things shown in the resemblance not of the things themselves but of their characteristics 15. Select the correct meaning: predatory a. inclined to plunder or rob; preying on, others b. an assumption made for the sake of argument c. confused, unintelligible, meaningless talk; special vocabulary used only by members of a group or trade d. outstandingly bad

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16. If you want to get ahead in life, go the ____ mile. a. next b. last c. farthest d. extra 17. ____ of old paintings is a job for experts. a. Resurrection b. Retrieval c. Restoration d. Resumption

Q 18-20: Identify the correct meaning of the given idiom 18. To make clean breast of a. To gain prominence b. To praise oneself c. To confess without reserve d. To destroy before it blooms 19. To have an axe to grind a. A private end to serve b. To fail to arouse interest c. To have no result d. To work for both sides 20. To cry wolf a. To listen eagerly b. To give false alarm c. To turn pale d. To keep off starvation 21. As we now know how it works, we have the conviction ____ it works rather well. a. as b. how c. why d. that

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22. Select the correctly spelt word: a. Entrepreneur b. Entrapreneur c. Entrepraneur d. Enterprenuer 23. Which word is spelt INCORRECTLY: a. Burglar b. Designation c. Controversy d. Rattification 24. Choose the correct sentence. a. You may; of course, call us anytime you wish. b. You may of course, call us anytime you wish. c. You may, of course, call us anytime you wish. d. You may, of course call us anytime you wish. 25. Arjun tested his voice to see if he ____sing well again. a. would b. will c. can d. could 26. Complete the sentence: Scarcely had the car started ____. a. when it had broken down b. then it had broke down c. then it had broken down d. when it broke down

For questions 27-33, read the passage below and answer with reference to it. From the 197 million square miles, which make up the surface of the globe, 71 per cent is covered by the interconnecting bodies of marine water; the Pacific Ocean alone covers half the Earth and averages near 14,000 feet in depth. The portions which rise above sea level are the continents -Eurasia, Africa, North America, South America, Australia, and Antarctica. The submerged borders of the continental masses are the continental shelves, beyond which lie the deep-sea basins. The ocean are deepest not in the centre, but in some elongated furrows, or long narrow troughs, called deeps. These profound troughs have a peripheral arrangement, notably around the borders of the 6 Coffee with SIBM| An Aspirant Relations Team Initiative

pacific and Indian oceans. The deeps, like the highest mountains, are of recent origin, since otherwise they would have been filled with waste from the lands. This is further strengthened by the observation that the deeps are quite often where world-shaking earthquakes occur. To cite an example, the "tidal wave", that in April 1946 caused widespread destruction along Pacific coasts, resulted from a strong earthquake on the floor of the Aleutian Deep. The topography of the ocean floors is none too well known, since in great areas the available soundings are hundreds or even thousands of miles apart. However, the floor of the Atlantic is becoming fairly well known as a result of special surveys since 1920. A broad, well-defined ridge, the Mid-Atlantic ridge, runs north and south between Africa and the two Americas and numerous other major irregularities diversify the Atlantic floor. Closely spaced soundings show that many parts of the oceanic floors are as rugged as mountainous regions of the continents. During World War II great strides were made in mapping submarine surfaces, particularly in many parts of the vast Pacific basin. Most of the continents stand on an average of 2870 feet above sea level. North America averages 2300 feet; Europe averages only 1150 feet; and Asia, the highest of the larger continental subdivisions, averages 3200 feet. Mount Everest, which is the highest point in the globe, is 29,000 feet above the sea; and as the greatest known depth in the sea is over 35,000 feet, the maximum relief (that is, the difference in altitude between the lowest and highest points) exceeds 64,000 feet, or exceeds 12 miles. The continental masses and the deep-sea basins are relief features of the first order; the deeps, ridges, and volcanic cones that diversify the sea floor, as well as the plains, plateaus, and mountains of the continents, are relief features of the second order. The lands are unendingly subject to a complex of activities summarized in the term erosion, which first sculptures them in great detail and then tends to reduce them ultimately to sea level. The modelling of the landscape by weather, running water, and other agents is apparent to the keenly observant eye and causes thinking people to speculate on what must be the final result of the ceaseless wearing down of the lands. Much before there was any recognizable science as geology, Shakespeare wrote "the revolution of the times makes mountains level." 27. The peripheral furrows or deeps are found a. only in the pacific and Indian oceans b. near earthquakes c. near the shore d. in the center of the ocean 28. We may conclude from this passage that earth quakes a. occur more frequently in newly formed land or sea formations b. are caused by the weight of the water c. cause erosion d. Will ultimately "make mountains level"

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29. The highest mountains are a. oldest b. in excess of 12 miles c. of recent origin d. relief features of the first order

30. The science of geology was started a. by the Greeks b. during world war II c. April 1946 d. after 1600

31. The highest point on North America is a. 2870 feet above sea level b. not mentioned in the passage c. higher than the highest point in Europe d. 2300 feet above sea level

32. The deeps are subject to change caused by a. erosion b. soundings c. earthquakes d. waste 33. The continental masses a. rise above sea level b. consist of six continents c. are relief features of the second order d. are partially submerged

34. Choose the correct sentence. a. Sofia's and Aidan's house was recently painted. b. Sofia and Aidan's house was recently painted. c. Sofia and Aidans house was recently painted. d. Sofias and Aidans house was recently painted.

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35. Choose the correct form of the sentence: a. Either Ram or Shyam has been lying so far. b. Either Ram or Shyam have been lying so far. c. Either Ram or Shyam is lying so far. d. Either Ram or Shyam are lying so far.

Q 36-37:. Select the pair which has the same relationship as the capitalized words. 36. INDIGENT: WEALTHY a. angry : rich b. native : affluent c. gauche : graceful d. scholarly : erudite 37. PAIN:SEDATIVE a. comfort : stimulant b. grief : consolation c. trance : narcotic d. ache : extraction 38. I would rather take the long ride in the metro than ____ in that horrible traffic. a. to drive b. driving c. drive d. to driving 39. Mark the odd man out a. Parents b. Love c. Guidance d. Punishment 40. Identify the word which can be associated with the following words: DATE, SPOT, ALLEY, SIDE a. Blind b. Day c. See d. Obvious

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SECTION-II: ANALYTICAL AND LOGICAL REASONING

Directions for questions 1 to 3: Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

The production department of XYZ chemicals has six key people. The positions in the company can be ranked as follows. -S works under R. -V is Ps superior. -J is immediate boss of S L is Vs superior.

41. Which of the following is necessarily true? a. b. c. d. J is Ps superior S is Ls superior L is Ps superior R is Ps superior

42. Which of the following is necessarily false? a. b. c. d. S is Vs superior R is Ls superior J is Rs superior V and J have equal ranks.

43. If T is Js immediate superior and V is Ms superior, then which of the following statements cannot be concluded? a. b. c. d. R is Ts superior T is Ss superior S is Ms superior L is Ms superior

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Directions for questions 44 to 47: Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. Mr M is supposed to accommodate seven terror group passengers in two four persons cabins in the INS Vikrant. Each passenger in a cabin must be able to converse with at least one other passenger necessarily in the same language. A, an Englishman, also speaks Gujarati and Haryanvi. B and F are Haryanvis and speak only that language. C, an Englishman, speaks one other language, Gujarati. D and G are Gujaratis and speak only Gujarati. E, an Englishman, speaks one other language, Haryanvi. Haryanvis do not share cabins with a Gujarati. Everyone can speak their own native language.

44. Which of the following combinations of passengers is one of the cabins will result in an arrangement that satisfies all conditions for both cabins? a. b. c. d. B, C, F A, D, E, G C, D, E, G A, B, C, F

45. Which of the following is true? I C cannot be in the same cabin as A. II Any cabin containing 3 persons must include A. III E must always be in the same cabin as a Haryanvi. a. b. c. d. I only II only I and III only I, II and III

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46. How many different combinations of cabin mates satisfy all conditions? a. b. c. d. 2 3 4 5

47. If E objects to sharing a cabin with A, with whom can Mr. M place him in order to arrive at an arrangement that satisfies all conditions? I D and G with no fourth cabin mate. II B and F, with no fourth cabin mate. III C, D and G. a. b. c. d. I only II only I and III only II and III only

48. At the last minute, a new person applies to join the group. Mr M can place him with any of the following except: a. b. c. d. C, D and G if he is a Gujarati A, B and F if he is English B, E and F if he is Haryanvi B, E and F if he is Gujarati

Directions for questions 49 and 50: Refer to the data given below and answer the questions that follow. P, Q, R and S are to be seated in a row numbered 1 to 4 from left to right. But R and S cannot be together. Also Q cannot be in the third seat. 49. Which of the following must be false? a. b. c. d. P is in the first seat P is in the second seat P is in the third seat P is in the fourth seat.

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50. If A is not in the third seat, then C can be in. a. b. c. d. The first seat only the third seat only the first or the third seat only any of the seats

Directions for questions 51 to 54: Refer to the data given below and answer the questions that follow. A and B are two selectors for a cricket tournament. Both have to take cricket coaches with them among L, K, M, N and O in such a way that one selects three and other selects two. Neither L and K can be together nor M and N can be together with the same selector. 51. If B chooses two coaches only, then A cannot take a. b. c. d. L, K, M L,M and O L, N and O K,M and O

52. If A takes L with him and B takes only two persons with him, then which of the following pairs may go with A in addition to L. a. b. c. d. K and N M and N M and O K and M

53. In how many ways can A and B select coaches? a. b. c. d. Four Six Five Eight

54. If L goes with A and N with Y, then in how many ways can they choose assistants? a. b. c. d. Two Three Four One

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Directions for Questions 55 to 57: Each question below consists a statement followed by some numbered statements. From the numbered statements, select the one that logically negates the main statement.

55. Ra.One will go to the bar, if his grandfather is not with him. a. b. c. d. Ra.One did not go to the bar and his grandfather is not with him. Ra.Ones grandfather is with him and he went to the bar Ra.One did not go to the bar and his grandfather is not with him Ra.One went to the bar and his grandfather is not with him.

56. Arjun runs faster whenever he has to catch a train. a. b. c. d. Arjun ran very fast and there is no train to catch. Arjun did not run faster and there is no train to catch. Arjun did not run faster and there is a train to catch. Both 2 and 3.

57. People will start smoking if they find it is coolest and costliest. a. b. c. d. People did not start smoking and it is neither the costliest nor the coolest. People started smoking and it is not the coolest and the costliest. Smoking is cooling and costliest and People did not start it. People started smoking and it is coolest and costliest .

Directions for questions 58 to 62: Refer to the data given below and answer the questions that follow.

In an area, there are two vendors for groceries- Prabhat and Sanjyog. 150 families visit at least one of the two vendors and 10 families visit both the vendors. A total of 185 families live in the locality around.

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58 How many families do not visit any of the vendors? a. b. c. d. 38 32 35 36

59 How many families visit exactly one vendors? a. b. c. d. 125 140 135 145

60 If 80 families visit Prabhat, find the ratio of the number of families visiting Sanjyog to those visiting Prabhat? a. b. c. d. 6:7 6:5 1:1 7:6

61 How many families do not visit Sanjyog? (Use above information if required) a. b. c. d. 80 105 60 70

62. If the ratio of the number of families visiting Prabhat and Sanjyog is 2:3 , then how many families visit only Sanjyog? a. b. c. d. 60 65 54 86

Directions for questions 63 to 65: In each of the following questions a statement is followed by several assumptions. Consider that everything given in the statement is true and find out which of the given assumption(s) is/are implicit.

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63. Statement: The workers are the major sources of production, yet the CEO is given more salary. Assumptions I. II. III. a. b. c. d. The workers are not given proper importance. The CEO is getting undeserved perks. Every execution in the company is on the shoulders of the CEO. Only I Only II Both II and III Only III

64. Statement: The police requested all the people present at the time of incident to become a witness and ensure justice is being prevailed. Assumptions I. II. III. a. b. c. d. People are not ready to witness the incident Law and Order can be achieved by help of the citizens At present, justice is delayed and therefore denied. Only I Only II Only I and II Only II and III

65. Statement: How can you expect a fresher to perform right from the first day said the manager Assumptions I. II. III. a. b. c. d. Freshers need to be given training Unless a fresher makes mistakes he cannot perform in the long run Freshers who perform right from the start can be promoted early Either II or III Both I and II Either I or II Only III Coffee with SIBM| An Aspirant Relations Team Initiative

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Directions for questions 66 to 70: These questions are based on the information given below : Each of the six trains P, Q, R, S, T and U are to depart from Station Z, with a time gap of 1 hour between every two consecutive departures under the following restrictions. 1) Q is to depart, before U departs. 2) The last train to depart is not U. 3) If the second train to depart is U, then the third train must be S. 4) The fifth train to depart is T and the very next bus to depart after P must be R. 5) The time gap between the departures of S and U is same as that between the departures of Q and T. 66. The third train to depart is a. b. c. d. P Q R S

67 Which train is to depart just before the departure of T? a. b. c. d. P Q U S

68 The first train to depart is a. b. c. d. P Q U S

69 The last train to depart is a. b. c. d. P Q U S

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70 The second train to depart is a. b. c. d. P Q R S

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SECTION-III: QUANTITATIVE, DATA INTERPRETATION AND SUFFICIENCY

Q 71-75: The following table gives the percentage of marks obtained by seven students in six different subjects in an examination.

The Numbers in the Brackets give the Maximum Marks in Each Subject. Subject (Max. Marks) Student Maths (150) Aman Sajal Rohit Muskan Tanvi Tarun 100 90 80 80 70 65 Chemistry (130) 80 60 65 65 75 35 Physics (120) 80 70 80 85 65 50 Geography (100) 40 70 80 95 85 77 History (60) 80 90 60 50 40 80 Computer Science (40) 70 70 60 90 60 80

71. What are the average marks obtained by all the seven students in Physics? (rounded off to two digit after decimal) a. b. c. d. 77.26 89.14 91.37 96.11

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72. The number of students who obtained 60% and above marks in all subjects is? a. b. c. d. 1 2 3 None

73. What was the aggregate of marks obtained by Sajal in all the six subjects? a. b. c. d. 409 419 429 449

74. In which subject is the overall percentage the best? a. b. c. d. Maths Chemistry Physics History

75. What is the overall percentage of Tarun? a. b. c. d. 52.5% 55% 60% 63%

76. How many integers, greater than 999 but not greater than 4000, can be formed with the digits 0, 1, 2, 3 and 4, if repetition of digits is allowed? a. b. c. d. 499 500 375 376

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77. Pipe A fills a tank of 700 litres capacity at the rate of 40 litres a minute. Another pipe B fills the same tank at the rate of 30 litres a minute. A pipe at the bottom of the tank drains the tank at the rate of 20 litres a minute. If pipe A is kept open for a minute and then closed and pipe B is kept open for a minute and then closed and then pipe C is kept open for a minute and then closed and the cycle repeated, how long will it take for the empty tank to overflow? a. b. c. d. 42 minutes 14 minutes 39 minutes None of these

78. The simple interest and the true discount on a certain sum for a given time and at a given rate are Rs. 85 and Rs. 80 respectively. The sum is: a. b. c. d. Rs. 1800 Rs. 1450 Rs. 1360 Rs. 6800

79. Two workers A and B manufactured a batch of identical parts. A worked for 2 hours and B worked for 5 hours and they completed half the job. Then they worked together for another 3 hours and they had to do (1/20)th of the job. How much time does B take to complete the job, if he worked alone? a. b. c. d. 24 hours 12 hours 15 hours 30 hours

80. A man can do a piece of work in 60 hours. If he takes his son with him and both work together then the work is finished in 40 hours. How long will the son take to do the same job, if he worked alone on the job? a. b. c. d. 20 hours 120 hours 24 hours 48 hours

81. Ram starts working on a job and works on it for 12 days and completes 40% of the work. To help him complete the work, he employs Ravi and together they work for another 12 days and the work gets completed. How much more efficient is Ram than Ravi? a. b. c. d. 50% 200% 60% 100% Coffee with SIBM| An Aspirant Relations Team Initiative

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82. The sides of a triangle are 5, 12 and 13 units respectively. A rectangle is constructed which is equal in area to the triangle and has a width of 10 units. Then the perimeter of the rectangle is a. b. c. d. 30 26 13 None of these

83. Which one of the following cannot be the ratio of angles in a right-angled triangle? a. b. c. d. 1: 2 : 3 1:1:3 1:3:6 None of these

84. Three bells chime at an interval of 18, 24 and 32 minutes respectively. At a certain time they begin to chime together. What length of time will elapse before they chime together again? a. b. c. d. 2 hours 24 minutes 4 hours 48 minutes 1 hour 36 minutes 5 hours

85. A, B, C and D are four towns, any three of which are non -collinear. The number of ways to construct three roads each joining a pair of towns so that the roads do not form a triangle is: a. b. c. d. 7 8 9 more than 9

86. For the product n(n + 1) (2n + 1), n ? N, which one of the following is necessarily false? a. b. c. d. It is always even Divisible by 3. Always divisible by the sum of the square of first n natural numbers Never divisible by 237.

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87. Ram purchased a flat at Rs. 1 lakh and Prem purchased a plot of land worth Rs. 1.1 lakh. The respective annual rates at which the prices of the flat and the plot increased were 10% and 5%. After two years they exchanged their belongings and one paid the other the difference. Then: a. b. c. d. Ram paid Rs. 275 to Prem Ram paid Rs. 475 to Prem Ram paid Rs. 2750 to Prem Prem paid Rs. 475 to Ram

88. The remainder obtained when a prime number greater than 6 is divided by 6 is: a. b. c. d. 1 or 3 1 or 5 3 or 5 4 or 5

89. In a race of 200 meters, A beats S by 20 meters and N by 40 metres. If S and N are running a race of 100 metres with exactly the same speed as before, then by how many metres will S beat N? a. b. c. d. 11.11 metres 10 metres 12 metres 25 metres

90. The rate of inflation was 1000%. What will be the cost of an article, which costs 6 units of currency now, two years from now? a. b. c. d. 666 660 720 726

91. Boxes numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 are kept in a row, and they are to be filled with either a red or a blue ball, such that no two adjacent boxes can be filled with blue balls. How many different arrangements are possible, given that all balls of a given colour are exactly identical in all respects? a. b. c. d. 8 10 15 22

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92. One root of x + kx - 8 = 0 is square of the other. Then, the value of k is: a. b. c. d. 2 8 8 2

93. The length of a ladder is exactly equal to the height of the wall it is resting against. If lower end of the ladder is kept on a stool of height 3 m and the stool is kept 9 m away from the wall, the upper end of the ladder coincides with the top of the wall. Then, the height of the wall is: a. b. c. d. 12 m 15 m 18 m 11 m

94. The largest value of min (2 + x, 6 - 3x) when x > 0 is a. b. c. d. 1 2 3 4

95. A man invests Rs. 3000 at a rate of 5% per annum. How much more should he invest at a rate of 8%, so that he can earn a total of 6% per annum? a. b. c. d. Rs. 1200 Rs. 1300 Rs. 1500 Rs. 2000

96. Three consecutive positive even numbers are such that thrice the first number exceeds double the third by 2; then the third number is: a. b. c. d. 10 14 16 12

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97. A and B working together can finish a job in T days. If A works alone and completes the job, he will take T + 5 days. If B works alone and completes the same job, he will take T + 45 days. What is T? a. b. c. d. 25 days 60 days 15 days 24 days

98. How many scalene triangles exist whose sides a, b and c are natural numbers less than 8? a. b. c. d. 13 14 15 16

99. From the following choices what is the equation of a line whose x intercept is half as that of the line 3x + 4y = 12 and y intercept is twice as that of the same line. a. b. c. d. 3x + 8y = 24 8x + 3y = 24 16x + 3y = 24 3x + y = 6

100. The sum of 20 terms of the series -12 + 22 - 32 + 42 - 52 + 62.... is: a. b. c. d. 210 519 190 420

Q 101-107: Each item has a question followed by two statements, Mark, if the question can be answered with the help of I alone, Mark, if the question can be answered with the help of II alone, Mark, if the question can be answered only with th e help of both I and II, Mark, if the question cannot be answered even with the help of both statements

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101. If the selling price were to be increased by 10%, the sales would reduce by 10%. In what ratio would profits change? I. II. The cost price remains constant. The cost price increased by 10%.

102. What is the average weight of the 3 new team members who are recently included into the team? I. II. The average weight of the team increases by 20 kg. The 3 new men substitute 3 earlier members whose weighs are 64 kg, 75 kg, and 66 kg.

103. Is segment PQ greater than segment RS? I. II. PB > RE, BQ = ES B is a point on PQ, E is a point on RS.

104. Three boys had a few Coffee Bite toffees with them. The number of toffees with the second boy were four more than those with the first and the number of toffees with the third were four more than those with the second. How many toffees were there in all? I. II. The number of toffees with each of them is a multiple of 2. The first boy ate up four toffees from what he had and the second boy ate up six toffees from what had and the third boy gave them two toffees each from what he had, and the number of toffees remaining with each of them formed a geometric progression.

105. Little Beau Peep she lost her sheep, she couldnt remember how many were there. She knew she would have 400 more next year, than the number of sheep she had last year. How many sheep were there? I. II. The number of sheep last year was 20% more than the year before that and this simple rate of increase continues to be the same for the next 10 years. The increase is compounded annually.

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106. What will be the total cost of creating a 1 -foot border of tiles along the inside edges of a room? I. II. The room is 48 feet in length and 50 feet in breadth. Every tile costs Rs. 10.

107. Ten boys to a neighbouring orchard. Each boy steals a few mangoes. What is the total number of mangoes they steal? I. II. The first boy steals 4 mangos, the fourth boy steals 16 mangoes, the eight boy steals 32 mangoes and the tenth boy steals 40 mangoes. The first boy stole the minimum number of mangoes and the tenth boy stole the maximum number of mangoes.

Q 108-110: The bar graph given below shows the foreign exchange reserves of a country (in million US $) from 1991 - 1992 to 1998 - 1999. Foreign Exchange Reserves Of a Country. (in million US $)

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108. The ratio of the number of years, in which the foreign exchange reserves are above the average reserves, to those in which the reserves are below the average reserves is? a. b. c. d. 2:6 3:4 3:5 4:4

109. The foreign exchange reserves in 1997-98 was how many times that in 1994-95? a. b. c. d. 0.7 1.2 1.4 1.5

110. For which year, the percent increase of foreign exchange reserves over the previous year, is the highest? a. b. c. d. 1992-93 1993-94 1994-95 1996-97

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SECTION-IV: GENERAL AWARENESS

111. Where was set up the first steel factory of India? a. b. c. d. Jamshedpur Durgapur Burnpur Ranchi

112. The capital of new country South Sudan is a. b. c. d. Bentiu Rumbek Yambio Juba

113. India's first moon mission Chandrayaan was launched on which of the following dates a. b. c. d. October 27,2007 October 22,2008 November 23,2008 December 17,2008

114. Elizabeth 1 was the contemporary of which Indian Mughal ruler a. b. c. d. Babur Akbar Jahangir Humayun

115. Which city is on the banks of Siene river a. b. c. d. Paris Geneva Rome FrankFurt

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116. Lloyd Barrage is a 6166 mile long networks of canals,feeding the largest irrigation system in the world with more than 5 million acres of irrigated land.It is located in a. b. c. d. China Pakistan India Afghanistan

117. Shaurya, was test-fired from Chandipur-on-sea off the Orissa coast on 24 September 2011. Which of the following facts about the missile is/are not true? 1. Shaurya is a nuclear-capable surface-to-surface medium range missile. 2. Land version of the underwater-launched missile K-15, it is 10 metre in length and about half-ametre in width. It uses solid fuel that gives it a longer service-life and shorter launch time compared to the missiles which use liquid fuel. 3. The high maneuverability of the missile makes it less vulnerable to available anti-missile defence systems. 4. The last test of Shaurya was conducted in 10 November 2005. a. b. c. d. Only 1 Only 4 2&3 1&2

118. Goa State Assembly Unanimously Passed Goa Lokayukta Bill 2011. The bill is a modified version of Goa Lakayukta Bill 2003. a. b. c. d. 2002 2004 2001 2003

119. Uttar Pradesh government announced the creation of three more districts. What is the total number of districts in the state now? a. b. c. d. 75 72 73 71

120. With which one of the following countries India agreed to allow the entry of law firms? a. b. c. d. USA UK China Pakistan Coffee with SIBM| An Aspirant Relations Team Initiative

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121. World Tourism Day (WTD) is observed annually on 27 September. What was the theme for WTD 2011? a. b. c. d. Tourism Linking Cultures Tourism & Biodiversity Tourism opens doors for women Sport and tourism

122. China Successfully launched its first unmanned space laboratory. What is the name of this space laboratory? a. b. c. d. Tiangong-1 MEASAT-1 ZY-2 CH726

123. UN study ranked India 134 among a total of 187 countries in terms of Human Development Index. Which country topped the Human Development Index list? a. b. c. d. Australia USA Netherlands New Zealand

124. The government gave its approval to revive 60 Mines in the Netravali Wildlife Sanctuary. The sanctuary is located in ___. a. b. c. d. Goa Jharkhand Tamil Nadu Madhya Pradesh

125. Name the Indian golfer who became the first Indian golfer to shoot a spectacular round of 12-under 60 on home soil when he took a three-stroke lead on the second day of the Rs. one-crore BILT Open golf championship at the Jaypee Greens golf course on 3 November 2011. a. b. c. d. Jyoti Randhawa Amandeep Johl Anirbad Lahiri Rahil Gangjee

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126. According to data released by the commerce and industry ministry on 20 October 2011 food inflation inflation stood at what percentage in the week ended 8 October 2011? a. b. c. d. 10.6% 10.54 % 10.9 % 10.72 %

127. World Food Day was observed on which of the following dates with the theme- Food Prices From Crisis to Stability? a. b. c. d. 15 October 16 October 17 October 18 October

128. Which of the following fruits is slightly radioactive a. b. c. d. Apple Banana Papaya Mango

129. Which part of the human body stores Glycogen a. b. c. d. Liver Pancreas Intestines Skin

130. Battle of Waterloo was fought in which of the present day country a. b. c. d. France Italy and France Spain and France France, Spain and Estonia

131. Which among the following is the oldest insurance company of India a. b. c. d. Oriental Life insurance company Life insurance company of India General Insurance company of India none of the above

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132. Those goods which have a positive relationship between price and demand are called as a. b. c. d. Veblen goods Essential goods Giffen goods Capital goods

133. Which of the following is a suitable term for the state of the economy in which the economic activity is slowing down but wages and prices continue to rise a. b. c. d. Inflation Deflation Stagflation Skewflation

134. Which among the following is known as the "Land of Thousand Lakes" a. b. c. d. Norway Sweden Finland Estonia

135. Which of the following rivers originates from Amarkantak a. b. c. d. Betwa Mahi Narmada Tapti

136. Who among the following was the first Indian scholar who treated mathematics as a subject a. b. c. d. Aryabhatta Apastamba Baudhyana Katyana

137. Which among the following is the most electronegative element a. b. c. d. Flourine Chlorine Bromine Iodine

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138. As per the Avogadro's hypothesis,equal volumes of different gases at the same temperature and pressure contain equal number of a. b. c. d. Atoms Particles Mass Molecules

139. According to the report by Crisil Research, companies are likely to post a revenue growth of what per cent in the July-September quarter of 2011 as compared to 19 per cent in April-June quarter and 22 per cent in July-September quarter of 2010? a. b. c. d. 10 % 13.2 % 15 % 17.5 %

140. Which automaker on 27 September 2011 introduced Brio Hatchback, its second hatchback and cheapest car yet in India? a. b. c. d. Toyota Honda Hyundai Maruti Suzuki

141. India and Myanmar on 27 September 2011 agreed to set 3 billion US dollars as trade target which is to be achieved by 2015. At present, the bilateral trade between India and Pakistan is __ billion dollars. a. b. c. d. 1.7 1.5 2.3 2.5

142. Scientists identified the genes, which increase a Persons risk of getting Dengue. Dengue is the most common mosquito-borne infection after ____. a. b. c. d. Malaria Yellow Fever Japanese encephalitis West Nile Virus

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143. Union government of India decided to ban the use of infertility drug Letrozole. Letrozole is mainly recommended for treating ____. a. b. c. d. Cancer AIDS Dengue Malaria

144. The Save Sharmila Campaign was flagged off by Magsaysay award winner Sandeep Pandey on 16 October 2011. In which of the following Indian cities was the campaign launched? a. b. c. d. Imphal Srinagar Guwahati Shillong

145. Which one of the following countries issued a worldwide alert to its citizens in the wake of the killing of key al-Qaeda leader Anwar al-Awlaki? a. b. c. d. USA China Japan Yemen

146. Surface to surface strategic PRITHVI (P-II) Missile developed by DRDO was successfully flight tested at on 26 September 2011. Which of the following facts about the missile are not true? 1. PRITHVI (P-II) Missile developed by DRDO was successfully flight tested from Launch Complex-III, ITR, Chandipur, Balasore District in Orissa & the launch operations were carried out by the Armed Forces. 2. PRITHVI-II is the first indigenous surface to surface strategic Missile. 3. The surface-to-surface missile has a range of 350km and can carry a warhead weighing up to 500kg. 4. It is capable of hitting targets at ranges of 530 kms. a. b. c. d. Only 4 1&3 Only 3 Only 2

147. European Scientists reported particles apparently travelling faster than light called__. a. b. c. d. Neutrinos Endothelial Polyglactil Pollen Coffee with SIBM| An Aspirant Relations Team Initiative

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148. What is the name of the powerful Typhoon which hit Japan on 21 September 2011? a. b. c. d. Roke Nargis Nesat Nalgae

149. Which one of the following became the first Indian state to launch health insurance policy covering all its people? a. b. c. d. Goa Haryana Kerala Uttar Pradesh

150. Which one of the following state governments announced free housing for Schedule Caste living in jhuggis under the Rajiv Ratna Yojana? a. b. c. d. Delhi Tamil Nadu Kerala Bihar

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ANSWER KEY
Section I
1(b) 14(b) 27(c) 40(a) 2(d) 15(a) 28(a) 3(d) 16(d) 29(c) 4(a) 17(c) 30(d) 5(c) 18(c) 31(b) 6(c) 19(a) 32(c) 7(a) 20(b) 33(d) 8(c) 21(d) 34(b) 9(c) 22(a) 35(a) 10(a) 23(d) 36(c) 11(a) 24(c) 37(b) 12(c) 25(d) 38(c) 13(c) 26(d) 39(a)

Section-II
41(c) 54(a) 67(c) 42(c) 55(c) 68(a) 43() 56(c) 69(d) 44(c) 57(b) 70(c) 45(d) 58(c) 46(c) 59(b) 47(d) 60(c) 48(d) 61(b) 49(a) 62(c) 50(c) 63(a) 51(a) 64(c) 52(c) 65(c) 53(d) 66(b)

Section-III
71(b) 72(b) 84(b) 85(d) 97(c) 98(a) 110(a) 73(d) 74(a) 75(c) 76(d) 77(d) 78(c) 79(c) 80(b) 81(d) 82(b) 83(c) 86(d) 87(a) 88(b) 89(a) 90(d) 91(d) 92(d) 93(b) 94(c) 95(c) 96(b) 99(d) 100(a) 101(b) 102(d) 103(c) 104(b) 105(a) 106(d) 107(d) 108(c) 109(d)

Section-IV
111(c) 112(d) 113(b) 114(b) 115(a) 116(b) 117(b) 118(d) 119(a) 120(b) 121(a) 122(a) 123(c) 124(a) 125(c) 126(a) 127(b) 128(b) 129(a) 130(b) 131(d) 132(c) 133(c) 134(c) 135(c) 136(a) 137(a) 138(d) 139(c) 140(b) 141(b) 142(a) 143(a) 144(b) 145(a) 146(a) 147(a) 148(a) 149(a) 150(a)

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