You are on page 1of 43

1

ALTERNATING CURRENT GENERATORS



Q1. Magnetic induction occurs when there is relative motion
between what two elements?
A1. A conductor and a magnetic Iield.

Q2. What is the part oI an alternator in which the output voltage is
generated?
A2. Armature.

Q3. What are the two basic types oI alternators?
A3. Rotating armature and rotating Iield.

Q4. What is the main advantage oI the rotating Iield alternator?
A4. Output voltage is taken directly Irom the armature (not
through brushes or slip rings).

Q4. What is the main advantage oI the rotating Iield alternator?
A5. To provide dc current Ior the rotating Iield.

Q6. How alternators are usually rated?
A6. Kilovolt-amperes (volt amperes

Q7. What type oI prime mover requires a specially designed high-
speed alternator?
A7. Steam turbine

Q8. Salient-pole rotors may be used in alternators driven by what
types oI prime movers?
A8. Internal combustion engines, water Iorce and electric motors

Q9. What does the term single phase indicate?
A9. One voltage (one output)

Q10. In single-phase alternators, in order Ior the voltages induced
in all the armature windings to add together Ior a single output,
how must the windings be connected?
A10. In series

Q11. What determines the phase relationship between the voltages
in a two-phase ac generator?
A11. Placement oI armature coils.

Q12. How many voltage outputs are available Irom a two-phase
three-wire alternator?
A12. Three

Q13. What is the relationship oI the voltage at C in Iigure 3-7 to
the voltages at A and B?
A13. C is 1.414 times greater than A or B.

Q14. In a three-phase alternator, what is the phase relationship
between the individual output voltages?
A14. Each phase is displaced 120 Irom the other two.

Q15. What are the two methods oI connecting the outputs Irom a
three-phase alternator to the load?
A15. Wye and Delta.

Q16. Ships` generators produce 450-volt, three-phase, ac power;
however, most equipment uses 117-volt, single-phase power what
transIormers and connections are used to convert 450-volt, three
phase power to 117-volt, single-phase power?
A16. Three single-phase, delta-delta, step-down transIormers

Q17. What two Iactors determine the Irequency oI the output
voltage oI an alternator?
A17. Speed oI rotation and number oI poles.

Q18. What is the Irequency oI the output voltage oI an alternator
with Iour poles that is rotated at 3600 rpm?
A18. 120 Hz.

Q19. The variation in output voltage as the load changes is reIerred
to as what? How is it expressed?
A19. Voltage regulation. As a percentage

Q20. How is output voltage controlled in practical alternators?
A20. By varying the voltage applied to the Iield windings.

Q21. What generator characteristics must be considered when
alternators are synchronized Ior parallel operation?
A21. Output voltage, Irequency, and phase relationships.

ALTERNATING CURRENT MOTORS

Q1. What are the three basic types oI ac motors?
A1. Series, synchronous, induction.

Q2. Series motors are generally used to operate what type oI
equipment?
A2. To power small appliances.

Q3. Why are series motors sometimes called universal motors?
A3. They operate on either ac or dc.

Q4. What determines the number oI Iield poles required to
establish a rotating magnetic Iield in a multiphase motor stator?
A4. The number oI phases in the applied voltage.

Q5. What is the angular displacement between Iield poles in a two-
phase motor stator?
A5. 90 .

Q6. What is the major diIIerence between a two-phase and a three-
phase stator?
A6. Number and location oI Iield poles.

Q7. What requirement is the synchronous motor speciIically
designed to meet?
A7. Constant speed required by some loads.

Q8. Why is the ac induction motor used more oIten than other
types?
A8. They are simple and inexpensive to make.

Q9. The speed oI the rotor is always somewhat less than the speed
oI the rotating Iield. What is the diIIerence called?
A9. Slip.

Q10. What determines the amount oI slip in an induction motor?
A10. Load.

Q11. What type oI ac motor is most widely used?
A11. Single-phase induction motor.

Q12. How do split-phase induction motors become selI-starting?
A12. By using combinations oI inductance and capacitance to
apply out-oI phase currents in starting windings.

Q13. Why are shaded-pole motors used to drive only very small
devices?
A13. They have very weak starting torques.






2
AMPLIFIERS

Q-1. What is ampliIication?
A-1. AmpliIication is the control oI an output signal by an input
signal so that the output signal has some (or all) oI the
characteristics oI the input signal. The output signal is generally
larger than the input signal in terms oI voltage, current, or power.

Q-2. Does an ampliIier actually change an input signal? Why or
why not?
A-2. No, the input signal is unchanged, the output signal is
controlled by the input signal but does not eIIect the actual input
signal.

Q-3. Why do electronic devices use ampliIiers?
A-3. To ampliIy the input signal to a usable level.

Q-4. In what two ways are ampliIiers classiIied?
A-4. By Iunction and Irequency response.

Q-5. What type oI ampliIier would be used to drive the speaker
system oI a record player?
A-5. An audio power ampliIier.

Q-6. What type oI ampliIier would be used to ampliIy the signal
Irom a radio antenna?
A-6. An rI voltage ampliIier.

Q-7. What determines the class oI operation oI an ampliIier?
A-7. The amount oI time (in relation to the input signal) in which
current Ilows in the output circuit.

Q-8. What are the Iour classes oI operation oI a transistor
ampliIier?
A-8. A, AB, B, C.

Q-9. II the output oI a circuit needs to be a complete representation
oI one-halI oI the input signal, what class oI operation is indicated?
A-9. Class B operation.

Q-10. Why is class C operation more eIIicient than class A
operation?
A-10. The ampliIier operates (and thereIore uses power) Ior less
time in class C than in class A.

Q-11. What class oI operation has the highest Iidelity?
A-11. Class A operation.

Q-12. What is the purpose oI an ampliIier-coupling network?
A-12. To transIer energy (a signal) Irom one stage to another.

Q-13. What are Iour methods oI coupling ampliIier stages?
A-13. Direct, RC, impedance, and transIormer coupling.

Q-14. What is the most common Iorm oI coupling?
A-14. RC coupling.

Q-15. What type coupling is usually used to couple the output Irom
a power ampliIier?
A-15. TransIormer coupling.

Q-16. What type coupling would be most useIul Ior an audio
ampliIier between the Iirst and second stages?
A-16. RC coupling.

Q-17. What type oI coupling is most eIIective at high Irequencies?
A-17. Impedance coupling.

Q-18. What impedance relationship between the output oI one
circuit and the input oI another circuit will provide the maximum
power transIer?
A-18. Equal impedance.

Q-19. II maximum current is desired at the input to a circuit,
should the input impedance oI that circuit be lower than, equal to,
or higher than the output impedance oI the previous stage?
A-19. Lower than.

Q-20. What are the input- and output-impedance characteristics oI
the three transistor conIigurations?
A-20. Common emitter-medium input, medium output; common
base-low input, high output; common collector-high input, low
output.

Q-21. What transistor circuit conIiguration should be used to
match a high output impedance to a low input impedance?
A-21. Common collector.

Q-22. What type oI coupling is most useIul Ior impedance
matching?
A-22. TransIormer coupling.

Q-23. What is Ieedback?
A-23. The process oI coupling a portion oI the output oI a circuit
back to the circuit input.

Q-24. What are the two types oI Ieedback?
A-24. Positive and negative or regenerative and degenerative.

Q-25. What type Ieedback provides increased amplitude output
signals?
A-25. Positive (regenerative) Ieedback.

Q-26. What type Ieedback provides the best Iidelity?
A-26. Negative (degenerative) Ieedback.

Q-27. II the Ieedback signal is out oI phase with the input signal,
what type Ieedback is provided?
A-27. Negative (degenerative) Ieedback.

Q-28. What type Ieedback is provided by an unbypassed emitter
resistor in a common-emitter transistor ampliIier?
A-28. Negative (degenerative) Ieedback.

Q-29. What is a phase splitter?
A-29. A device that provides two output signals that diIIer in phase
Irom a single input signal.

Q-30. What is one use Ior a splitter?
A-30. A phase splitter is used to provide the input signals to a
push-pull ampliIier.

Q-31. What is a common use Ior a push-pull ampliIier?
A-31. A push-pull ampliIier is used when high power output and
good Iidelity are needed.

Q-32. What is the advantage oI a push-pull ampliIier?
A-32. A push-pull ampliIier provides more gain than a single
transistor ampliIier.

Q-33. What class oI operation can be used with a push-pull
ampliIier to provide good Iidelity output signals?
A-33. Class A, Class AB or Class B operation.





3
BATTERIES

Q1. What is the purpose oI a cell?
A1.A cell is a device that converts chemical energy to electrical
energy.

Q2. What are the three parts oI a cell?
A2.The electrodes, the electrolyte, and the container.

Q3. What is the purpose oI each oI the three parts oI a cell?
A3.The electrodes are the current conductors oI the cell. The
electrolyte is the solution that acts upon the electrodes. The
container holds the electrolyte and provides a means oI mounting
the electrodes.

Q4. What are the two types oI cells?
A4.Primary and secondary.

Q5. What is the main diIIerence between the two types oI cells?
A5.The secondary cell can be restored to its original condition by
an electric current. The primary cell cannot.

Q6. What is electrochemical action?
A6.The process oI converting chemical energy into electrical
energy.

Q7. What is another name Ior the (a) positive electrode, and the (b)
negative electrode?
A7.(a) The anode, (b) the cathode.

Q8. In the primary cell, why are negative ions attracted to the
negative terminal oI the cell?
A8.The positive charge caused by electrons leaving the negative
electrode attracts the negative ions.

Q9. How do electrons get Irom the negative electrode to the
positive electrode?
A9.By current Ilow through the load.

Q10. What causes the negative electrode to be eaten away?
A10.The chemical action between the negative electrode and the
electrolyte.

Q11. ReIer to Iigure 2-3(B). Why is the sulIuric acid decreasing?
A11.The sulIuric acid is chemically acting upon the anode and
cathode which creates a current Ilow through the load.

Q12. ReIer to Iigure 2-3(D). How is it possible Ior the sulIuric acid
to be increasing?
A12.The charging currents causes the lead sulIate in the anode and
cathode to be changed back to lead peroxide, sponge lead, and
sulIuric acid.

Q13. ReIer to Iigure 2-3(D). When all the lead sulIate has been
converted, what is the condition oI the cell?
A13.Fully charged.

Q14. Describe three ways to prevent polarization.
A14.Vent the cell, add a material rich in oxygen, and use a
material that will absorb hydrogen.

Q15. Describe local action
A15.Current Ilow in a cell with no external load.

Q16. What serves as the cathode oI a dry cell?
A16.The zinc container.

Q17. Why is a dry cell called a DRY cell?
A17.The electrolyte is not a liquid but is in the Iorm oI a paste.

Q18. What does the term "shelI liIe" mean?
A18.The period that a cell can be stored and still be useable.

Q19. Why should a mercury cell NOT be shorted?
A19.The danger oI explosion.

Q20. What Iactors should be considered when selecting a primary
cell Ior a power source?
A20.Cost, size, ease oI replacement, and voltage or current needs.

Q21. What are the Iour basic types oI secondary (wet) cells?
A21.Lead-acid, nickel-cadmium (NICAD), silver-zinc, and silver-
cadmium.

Q22. What are the advantages oI a nicad cell over a lead-acid cell?
A22.Can be charged in a shorter time, can deliver a larger amount
oI power, and stays idle longer.

Q23. What type oI cell is most commonly used Ior emergency
systems?
A23.Silver-zinc cell.

Q24. What three cells use the same electrolyte?
A24.Silver-cadmium, silver-zinc, and nickel-cadmium.

Q25. What does the term battery normally reIer to?
A25.A voltage source in a single container made Irom one or more
cells.

Q26. What are the three ways oI combining cells, and what is each
used Ior?
A26.Series, to increase voltage but not current. Parallel, to increase
current but not voltage. Series-Parallel, to increase both current
and voltage.

Q27. Other than the type oI cell used, what is the major diIIerence
between the construction oI the leadacid and nicad battery?
A27.The cells in the nicad battery can be replaced.

Q28. How is the type oI battery most easily determined?
A28.By looking at the nameplate data.

Q29. What is the purpose oI the hydrometer?
A29.To measure the amount oI active ingredient in the electrolyte.

Q30. Which electrolyte has more active ingredient? Electrolyte A,
speciIic gravity 1.015? Electrolyte B, speciIic gravity 1.125?
A30.Electrolyte B. It is heavier per unit volume.

Q31. When should saIety precautions pertaining to batteries be
observed?
A31.At all times.

Q32. How long should a 200 ampere-hour battery be able to
deliver 5 amperes?
A32.Forty hours.

Q33. Can a battery be recharged by adding more electrolyte?
A33.No, a current must be passed through the battery.

Q34. II violent gassing occurs during a battery charge, what action
should be taken?
A34.Reduce the charging rate.







4
CAPACITANCE

Q1. DeIine the terms "capacitor" and "capacitance."
A1.
a. A capacitor is a device that stores electrical energy in an
electrostatic Iield.
b. Capacitance is the property oI a circuit which opposes changes
in voltage.

Q2. State Iour characteristics oI electrostatic lines oI Iorce.
A2.
a. They are polarized Irom positive to negative.
b. They radiate Irom a charged particle in straight lines and do not
Iorm closed loops.
c. They have the ability to pass through any known material.
d. They have the ability to distort the orbits oI electrons circling
the nucleus.

Q3. An electron moves into the electrostatic Iield between a
positive charge and a negative charge.Toward which charge will
the electron move?
A3. Toward the positive charge.

Q4. What are the basic parts oI a capacitor?
A4. Two pieces oI conducting material separated by an insulator.

Q5. DeIine the term "Iarad."
A5. A Iarad is the unit oI capacitance. A capacitor has a
capacitance oI 1 Iarad when a diIIerence oI 1volt will charge it
with 1 coulomb oI electrons.

Q6. What is the mathematical relationship between a Iarad, a
microIarad, and a picoIarad.
A6.
a. One microIarad equals 10-6 Iarad.
b. One picoIarad equals 10-12 Iarad.

Q7. State three Iactors that aIIect the capacitance oI a capacitor.
A7.
a. The area oI the plates.
b. The distance between the plates.
c. The dielectric constant oI the material between the plates.

Q8. A parallel plate capacitor has the Iollowing values: K 81, d
.025 inches, A 6 square inches.What is the capacitance oI the
capacitor?
A8.


Q9. Name two types oI power losses associated with a capacitor.
A9.
a. Hysteresis
b. Dielectric leakage

Q10.
a. DeIine the term "working voltage" oI a capacitor.
b. What should be the working voltage oI a capacitor in a circuit
that is operating at 600 volts?
A10.
a. It is the maximum voltage the capacitor can work without risk oI
damage.
b. 900 volts.

Q11. State what happens to the electrons in a capacitor circuit
when (a) the capacitor is charging and (b) the capacitor is
discharging.
A11.
a. When the capacitor is charging, electrons accumulate on the
negative plate and leave the
positive plate until the charge on the capacitor is equal to the
battery voltage.
b. When the capacitor is discharging, electrons Ilow Irom the
negatively charged plate to the
positively charged plate until the charge on each plate is neutral.

Q12. At what instant does the greatest voltage appear across the
resistor in a series RC circuit when the capacitor is charging?
A12. At the instant oI the initiation oI the action.

Q13. What is the voltage drop across the resistor in an RC
charging circuit when the charge on the capacitor is equal to the
battery voltage?
A13. Zero.

Q14. What is the RC time constant oI a series RC circuit that
contains a 12-megohm resistor and a12-microIarad capacitor?
A14.


Q15. A circuit is to be designed in which a capacitor must charge
to 40 percent oI the maximum
charging voltage in 200 microseconds. The resistor to be used has
a resistance oI 40,000 ohms.
What size capacitor must be used? (Use the universal time constant
chart in Iigure 3-12.)
A15.













5
Q16. What is the total capacitance oI a circuit that contains two
capacitors (10 F and 0.1 F) wired
together in series?
A16.


Q17. What is the total capacitance oI a circuit in which Iour
capacitors (10 F, 21 F, 0.1 F and 2 F) are connected in
parallel?
A17.


Q18.
a. An oxide-Iilm dielectric is used in what type oI capacitor?
b. A screw adjustment is used to vary the distance between the
plates oI what type oI capacitor?
A18.
a. Electrolytic capacitor
b. Trimmer capacitor

Q19. Examine the three capacitors shown below. What is the
capacitance oI each?
A19.
a. 260 000 pF
b. 630 pF
c. 9600 pF

CIRCUIT MEASUREMENT

Q1. What are two ways that circuit measurement is used?
A1. Circuit measurement is used to (1) monitor the operation oI a
piece oI electrical or electronic equipment and (2) determine the
reason a piece oI electrical or electronic equipment is not
Iunctioning properly.

Q2. Why are in-circuit meters used?
A2. In-circuit meters are used to monitor the operation oI electrical
or electronic devices.

Q3. What is one advantage oI an out-oI-circuit meter when it is
compared with an in-circuit meter?
A3. Out-oI-circuit meters can be used on more than one electrical
or electronic device.

Q4. How does a compass react when placed close to a current
carrying conductor?
A4. The compass needle swings away Irom magnetic north and
aligns itselI with the magnetic Iield around the conductor.

Q5. II the amount oI current in the conductor changes, what
happens to the magnetic Iield around the conductor?
A5. II the current increases the magnetic Iield increases; iI the
current decreases the magnetic Iield decreases.

Q6. How does the compass needle react to a decreased magnetic
Iield?
A6. The compass needle will not be deIlected as Iar Irom magnetic
north.

Q7. What type oI meter movement is the d`Arsonval meter
movement?
A7. A permanent-magnet moving-coil meter movement used in
most electrical and electronic meters.

Q8. What is the eIIect oI current Ilow through the coil in a
d`Arsonval meter movement?
A8. A magnetic Iield is generated around the coil and the attraction
oI this Iield with the permanent magnet causes the coil to move.

Q9. What are three Iunctions oI the hairsprings in a d`Arsonval
meter movement?
A9. To return the pointer to its rest position when there is no
current Ilow; to oppose the coil movement when there is current
Ilow; to provide electrical connections Ior the coil.

Q10. How would a compass react when placed close to a
conductor carrying alternating current at a low Irequency?
A10. The compass needle would swing back and Iorth as the
current changed Irom positive to negative.

Q11. How would the compass react iI the alternating current
through the conductor was a high Irequency?
A11. The compass needle would vibrate rapidly around the zero-
current point ac meter (magnetic north).

Q12. What is the purpose oI a rectiIier in a meter?
A12. A rectiIier changes alternating current to pulsating direct
current and allows a dc meter to measure ac.

Q13. How can a d`Arsonval meter movement be adapted Ior use as
an ac meter?
A13. By the use oI a rectiIier



Q14. What is damping?
A14. The process oI "smoothing out" the oscillation in a meter
movement.

Q15. What are two methods used to damp a meter movement?
A15. As the coil moves through the Iield oI the permanent magnet,
a current is induced in the coil opposing the movement oI the coil;
and a vane can be attached to the coil and placed in the airtight
chamber so that the movement oI the vane opposes the movement
oI the coil.

Q16. What value does a meter movement react to (actually
measure) when measuring ac?
A16. Average value.

Q17. What value is indicated on the scale oI an ac meter?
A17. EIIective value (rms).

Q18. List three meter movements that can measure either ac or dc
without the use oI a rectiIier.
A18. Electrodynamic, moving vane, and hot-wire or thermocouple.


6
Q19. What electrical property is used by all the meter movements
discussed so Iar?
A19. Current.

Q20. What electrical property does an ammeter measure?
A20. Current.

Q21. How is an ammeter connected to the circuit under test?
A21. In series.

Q22. How does an ammeter aIIect the circuit being measured?
A22. Since the ammeter is a resistor in series with the load, it
increases the resistance oI the circuit and lowers circuit current.

Q23. How is the ammeter`s eIIect on the circuit being measured
kept to a minimum?
A23. The resistance oI the ammeter must be much smaller than the
circuit load.

Q24. What is ammeter sensitivity?
A24. The amount oI current that will cause Iull-scale deIlection.

Q25. What is used to allow an ammeter to measure diIIerent
ranges?
A25. Shunt resistors (internal or external).

Q26. Why should you use the highest range oI an ammeter Ior the
initial measurement?
A26. To prevent damage to the meter movement Irom excessive
current.

Q27. What range oI an ammeter is selected Ior the Iinal
measurement?
A27. A range that allows a meter reading near the center oI the
scale.

Q28. List the six saIety precautions Ior the use oI ammeters.
A28.
a. Always connect an ammeter in series.
b. Always start with the highest range.
c. In dc ammeters, observe the proper polarity.
d. Deenergize and discharge the circuit beIore connecting or
disconnecting the ammeter.
e. Never use a dc ammeter to measure ac current.
I. Observe the general saIety precautions oI electric and electronic
devices.

Q29. Why will an ammeter be damaged iI connected in parallel
with the circuit to be measured?
A29. Since the ammeter has a small resistance compared to the
load, it will have very high current iI it is connected in parallel.
This high current will damage the meter.

Q30. What electrical quantity is measured by a voltmeter?
A30. Voltage.

Q31. How is a voltmeter connected to the circuit to be measured?
A31. In parallel.

Q32. What is the loading eIIect oI a voltmeter?
A32. The connection oI a voltmeter adds a resistance in parallel
with the circuit changing the total circuit resistance, and loads the
circuit.

Q33. How is the loading eIIect oI a voltmeter kept to a minimum?
A33. A voltmeter must have a high resistance compared to the
circuit being measured.

Q34. How is it possible to use a current sensitive meter movement
to measure voltage?
A34. Since the resistance oI a meter movement remains the same
as the pointer is deIlected, the amount oI current through the
movement is proportional to the voltage applied. ThereIore, only
the scale oI the movement must be changed.

Q35. What is voltmeter sensitivity?
A35. It is an indication oI the resistance oI the meter expressed in
ohms per volt. The total resistance oI the meter is the sensitivity
multiplied by the Iull-scale voltage.

Q36. What method is used to allow a voltmeter to have several
ranges?
A36. The use oI resistors in series with the meter movement.

Q37. Why should you always use the highest range when
connecting a voltmeter to a circuit?
A37. To prevent excess current through the meter movement.

Q38. What type oI meter movement reacts to voltage rather than
current?
A38. Electrostatic.

Q39. What is the only use Ior the voltage sensitive meter
movement?
A39. High-voltage measurement.

Q40. List the six saIety precautions Ior the use oI voltmeters.
A40.
a. Always connect a voltmeter in parallel.
b. Always start with the highest range.
c. Deenergize and discharge the circuit beIore connecting or
disconnecting the voltmeter.
d. In a dc voltmeter, observe the proper polarity.
e. Never use a dc voltmeter to measure ac voltage.
I. Observe the general saIety precautions oI electric and electronic
devices.

Q41. What electrical quantity is measured by an ohmmeter?
A41. Resistance.

Q42. What other measurement can an ohmmeter make?
A42. Circuit continuity.

Q43. How is a series-type ohmmeter connected to the circuit being
measured?
A43. The ohmmeter is connected in series with the resistance to be
measured.

Q44. What is used to provide the ohmmeter with several ranges?
A44. An ohmmeter has several internal range resistors and a
switch or a series oI jacks to select the proper range.

Q45. What area oI an ohmmeter scale should be used when
measuring circuits?
A45. The middle oI the scale.

Q46. What are the two types oI ohmmeters?
A46. Series and shunt.

Q47. What is the most obvious diIIerence between the two types oI
ohmmeters?
A47. Series ohmmeters have 0 on the right end oI the scale and on
the leIt end oI the scale. Shunt ohmmeters are the opposite.

Q48. List the Iour saIety precautions observed when using
ohmmeters.
A48.
a. Deenergize and discharge the circuit beIore connecting an
ohmmeter.
b. Do not apply power to a circuit while measuring resistance.
7
c. Switch ohmmeters to the OFF position, iI provided, or to highest
range and remove meter
leads Irom the meter when Iinished measuring resistance.
d. Adjust the ohmmeter aIter changing resistance range and beIore
measuring reading indicates the resistance.

Q49. What is the primary use oI a megger?
A49. To measure high resistance.

Q50. What is the procedure Ior using a megger to check the
insulation oI a conductor?
A50. Connect one lead to the insulation and one lead to the
conductor. Turn the handcrank until it starts to slip. Note the
reading.

Q51. What is a normal indication on a megger when checking
insulation?
A51. InIinity.

Q52. List the Iour saIety precautions observed when using a
megger.
A52.
a. Use meggers Ior high-resistance measurement only.
b. Never touch the test leads when the handle is being cranked.
c. Deenergize and discharge the circuit completely beIore
connecting a megger.
d. Disconnect the item being checked Irom other circuitry, iI
possible, beIore using a megger.

Q53. What is a multimeter?
A53. A single measuring device capable oI perIorming the
Iunctions oI a dc voltmeter and ammeter, an ac voltmeter and
ammeter, and an ohmmeter.

Q54. Why is a multimeter preIerred over separate meters?
A54. It is much more convenient to have one meter with several
Iunctions than several meters each with a single Iunction.

Q55. How is a multimeter changed Irom a voltage measuring
device to a resistance measuring device?
A55. By changing the position oI the Iunction switch.

Q56. Why is the dc scale on a multimeter diIIerent than the ac
scale?
A56. The meter movement reacts to average ac voltage and current
and the eIIective value is desired.

Q57. What is the reason Ior having a mirror on the scale oI a
multimeter?
A57. To stop parallax error

Q58. How is the mirror on a multimeter used?
A58. Make sure no image oI the pointer is visible in the mirror
when reading the meter.

Q59. List the 11 saIety precautions Ior multimeters.
A59.
a. Deenergize and discharge the circuit completely beIore
connecting or disconnecting a multimeter.
b. Never apply power to the circuit while measuring resistance
with a multimeter.
c. Connect the multimeter in series with the circuit Ior current
measurements, and in parallel Ior voltage measurements.
d. Be certain the multimeter is switched to ac beIore attempting to
measure ac circuits.
e. Observe proper dc polarity when measuring dc.
I. When you are Iinished with a multimeter, switch it to the OFF
position, iI available. II there is no OFF position, switch the
multimeter to the highest ac voltage position.
g. Always start with the highest voltage or current range.
h. Select a Iinal range that allows a reading near the middle oI the
scale.
i. Adjust the "O ohms" reading aIter changing resistance ranges
and beIore making a resistance measurement.
j. Be certain to read ac measurements on the ac scale oI a
multimeter.
k. Observe the general saIety precautions Ior electrical and
electronic devices.

Q60. Why would you use a hook-on voltameter instead oI a
multimeter?
A60. To measure current saIely and easily (with no need to
disconnect the wiring oI the circuit).

Q61. What electrical quantity is measured by a wattmeter?
A61. Power.

Q62. What electrical quantity is measured by a watt-hour meter?
A62. Energy.

Q63. What is the quantity shown on the watt-hour meter in Iigure
1-46?
A63. 5.945 megawatt-hours, or 5,945 kilowatt-hours, or 5,945, 000
watt-hours.

Q64. What are two types oI Irequency meters?
A64. Vibrating reed and moving disk.

Q65. What type oI meter is shown and what is the value oI the
quantity being measured Ior each meter in Iigure1-49?
A65.
a. A dc ammeter, 90 mA dc
b. A dc voltmeter, 200 V dc
c. An ac voltmeter, 4.6 V ac
d. An ohmmeter, 400 ohms

Q66. What meter reading is shown on each multimeter in each part
oI Iigure 1-50?
A66. (A) 410 mA dc; (B) 3.9 mA ac; (C) -22 V dc; (D) 600 V ac;
(E) 1.4 V ac; (F) 1.9 NRKPV

Q67. Which part oI Iigure1-50 shows the switch positions the
multimeter should be leIt in when the meter is secured?
A67. Figure1-50(D).

Q68. What type oI meter is shown and what is the value oI the
quantity being measured Ior each meter in Iigure 1-51?
A68. (A) Megger (megohmmeter), inIinity; (B) Wattmeter, 9.5
kilowatts (9,500 watts). (C) Watt-hour meter, 2.693 megawatt-
hours 2,693 kilowatt-hours) (2,693,000 watt-hours).

Q69. II the insulation oI a conductor was being measured in
Iigure1-51 (A), would the reading indicate a good insulation?
A69. Yes.

Q70. What type oI Irequency meter is shown and what is the value
indicated Ior each meter in Iigure 1-52?
A70. (A) Vibrating-reed, 60Hz. (B) Moving-disk, 58 Hz.

CIRCUIT PROTECTION DEVICES

Q1. Why are circuit protection devices necessary?
A1. To protect people and circuits Irom possible hazardous
conditions.

Q2. What are the three conditions that require circuit protection?
A2. A direct short, excessive current, and excessive heat.



8
Q3. What is a direct short?
A3. A condition in which some point in the circuit where Iull
system voltage is present comes in

Q4. What is an excessive current condition?contact with the
ground or return side oI the circuit.
A4. A condition that is not a direct short but in which circuit
current increases beyond the designed current carrying ability oI
the circuit.

Q5. What is an excessive heat condition?
A5. A condition in which the heat in or around the circuit increases
to a higher than normal level

Q6. How are circuit protection devices connected to the circuit
they are intended to protect and why are they connected in this
way?
A6. In series, so total current will be stopped when the device
opens.

Q7. What are the two types oI circuit protection devices?
A7. Fuses and circuit breakers.

Q8. Label the schematic symbols shown in Iigure 2-3 below.

A8.
a. circuit breaker
b. Iuse.

Q11. In what three ways are Iuses rated?
A11. Current, voltage, and time delay.

Q12. What does the current rating oI a Iuse indicate?
A12. The amount oI current the Iuse will allow without opening.

Q13. What does the voltage rating oI a Iuse indicate?
A13. The ability oI the Iuse to quickly extinguish the arc aIter the
Iuse element melts and the maximum voltage that cannot jump
across the gap oI the Iuse aIter the Iuse opens.

Q14. What are the three time delay ratings oI Iuses?
A14. Delay, standard, and Iast.

Q15. Give an example oI a device you could protect with each type
oI time delay Iuse.
A15. Delay-Motors, solenoids, or transIormers. Standard-
Automobiles, lighting or electrical power circuits. Fast-Delicate
instruments or semiconductor devices.

Q20. Which connector should you use to connect the (a) power
source and (b) load to the Iuseholdershown in Iigure 2-12(A)?
A20.
a. Center connector
b. Outside connector

Q21. What are three methods Ior determining iI a Iuse is open?
A21. Visual inspection, indicators, and using a meter.

Q22. You have just checked a Iuse with an ohmmeter and Iind that
the Iuse is shorted. What should you do?
A22. Put it back in the circuit. A good Iuse will have zero ohms oI
resistance.

Q23. You have just checked a 1/500-ampere Iuse with an
ohmmeter and Iind it is open. Checking the replacement Iuse
shows the replacement Iuse is open also. Why would the
replacement Iuse
indicate open?
A23. The ohmmeter causes more than 1/500 ampere through the
Iuse when you check the Iuse, thus it opens the Iuse.

Q24. How could you check a 1/500-ampere Iuse with an
ohmmeter?
A24. Use a resistor in series with the Iuse when you check it with
the ohmmeter.

Q25. List the saIety precautions to be observed when checking
Iuses.
A25. Turn the power oII and discharge the circuit beIore you
remove Iuses. Use a Iuse puller (an insulated tool) when you
remove Iuses Iront clip-type Iuse holders. When you check Iuses
with a voltmeter, be careIul to avoid shocks and short circuits.

Q27. What two things should you check beIore replacing a Iuse?
A27. Check Ior the proper type oI replacement Iuse and proper Iit.

Q28. List the saIety precautions to be observed when replacing a
Iuse.
A28. Be sure the power is oII in the circuit and the circuit is
discharged beIore replacing a Iuse. Use an identical replacement
Iuse iI possible. Remove any corrosion Irom the Iuseholders beIore
replacing the Iuses.

Q29. What conditions should you check Ior when conducting
preventive maintenance on Iuses?
A29. Improper Iuse, corrosion, improper Iit, and open Iuse.

Q30. What are the Iive main components oI a circuit breaker?
A30. Frame, operating mechanism, arc extinguishers, terminal
connectors, and trip element.

Q31. What are the three types oI circuit breaker trip elements?
A31. Thermal, magnetic, and thermal-magnetic.

Q32. How does each type oI trip element react to an overload?
A32. The thermal trip element makes use oI a bimetallic element
that bends with an increase in
temperature or current. The bending causes the trip bar to be
moved releasing the latch.

Q33. What is a trip-Iree circuit breaker?
A33. A circuit breaker that will trip even iI the operating
mechanism is held ON.

Q34. What is a nontrip-Iree circuit breaker?
A34. A circuit breaker that can be overridden iI the operating
mechanism is held ON.

Q35. Where should you use a trip-Iree circuit breaker?
A35. In current sensitive or nonemergency systems.

Q36. Where should you use a nontrip-Iree circuit breaker?
A36. In emergency or essential circuits.

Q37. What are the three time delay ratings Ior circuit breakers?
A37. Instantaneous, short time delay, and long time delay.
9

Q38. What is selective tripping and why is it used?
A38. It is the use oI time delay ratings to cause the circuit breaker
closest to the Iaulty circuit to trip.This isolates the Iaulty circuit
without aIIecting other circuits.

Q39. II the power distribution system shown in Iigure 2-22 uses
selective tripping, what is the time delay rating Ior each oI the
circuit breakers shown?
A39. CB1-long time delay; CB2, CB3-short time delay; CB4
through CB10-instantaneous.

Q40. What Iactors are used to select a circuit breaker?
A40. The power requirements oI the circuit and the physical space
available.

Q41. What type oI circuit breaker is used on a multimeter?
A41. A push button or push-pull circuit breaker (small size, low
power).

Q42. What steps are to be taken beIore beginning work on a circuit
breaker?
A42. Check the applicable technical manual, obtain the approval oI
the electrical or engineering oIIicer (Ior shipboard circuit
breakers), remove power Irom the circuit breaker, and tag the
switch that supplies power to the circuit breaker.

Q43. What items are you to check when working on a circuit
breaker?
A43. Check the operating mechanism Ior smooth operation, check
the contacts Ior pitting, check the terminals Ior tightness and
corrosion, check the mounting hardware Ior tightness and wear,
check all components Ior wear, and check the entire circuit breaker
Ior cleanliness.

COMPUTER CONCEPTS

Q-1. How are computers classiIied?
A-1. Technology (mechanical, electromechanical, electronic),
purpose (special or general), type oI data they handle (analog or
digital), cost, physical size (handheld to room size).

Q-2. Mechanical computers are considered to be oI what type?
A-2. Analog.

Q-3. The Navy uses analog computers primarily Ior what purpose?
A-3. Gun Iire control.

Q-4. How do electromechanical computers diIIer Irom the
mechanical computers?
A-4. Electromechanical computers use electrical components to
perIorm some oI the calculations.

Q-5. In electronic computers, vacuum tubes were replaced by
transistors and transistors have been replaced by what device?
A-5. Integrated circuits.

Q-6. A computer that is designed to perIorm a speciIic operation
and usually satisIies the needs oI a particular type oI problem, is
said to be what type oI computer?
A-6. Special-purpose.
Q-7. Rather than using a stored program, a special-purpose
computer's applicability to a particular problem is a Iunction oI
what?
A-7. Its design.

Q-8. What is a drawback to the special-purpose computer?
A-8. Lack oI versatility.

Q-9. A general-purpose computer is designed Ior what purpose?
A-9. To perIorm a wide variety oI Iunctions and operations.

Q-10. How is a general-purpose computer able to perIorm diIIerent
operations?
A-10. By storing diIIerent programs in its internal storage.

Q-11. In a general-purpose computer, the ability to perIorm a wide
variety oI operations is achieved at the expense oI what
capabilities?
A-11. Speed and eIIiciency.

Q-12. All analog computers are what type oI computers?
A-12. Special-purpose.

Q-13. What are analog computers designed to measure?
A-13. Continuous electrical or physical conditions.

Q-14. Early analog computers were what type oI devices?
A-14. Mechanical or electromechanical.

Q-15. What are computers called that combine the Iunctions oI
both analog and digital computers?
A-15. Hybrid computers.

Q-16. Digital computers are generally used Ior what purposes?
A-16. Business and scientiIic data processing.

Q-17. What is the Iundamental diIIerence between analog and
digital computers?
A-17. Digital computers deal with discrete quantities, while analog
computers deal with continuous physical variables.

Q-18. How is the accuracy oI an analog computer restricted?
A-18. By the accuracy with which physical quantities can be
sensed and displayed.

Q-19. A constant represented by a voltage can be read to what
decimal place?
A-19. Third.

Q-20. The accuracy oI a digital computer is governed by what
Iactor?
A-20. The number oI signiIicant Iigures carried in the
computations.

Q-21. In a digital computer, what does the number oI decimal
places in the constant depend on?
A-21. Design oI the computer processing unit.

Q-22. You will most likely be working with what type oI
computer?
A-22. General-purpose digital computer.

Q-23. Technological advancement is measured by what, in the
electronic computer world?
A-23. Generations.

Q-24. What does each generation oI computer systems indicate?
A-24. SigniIicant change in computer design.

Q-25. What were computers oI the Iirst generation characterized
by?
A-25. The vacuum tube.

Q-26. How did vacuum tubes cause a problem Ior Iirst generation
computers?
A-26. They were unreliable, required a lot oI power to run, and
produced so much heat that air conditioning was needed to protect
computer parts.

10
Q-27. In Iirst generation computers, internal processing Iunctions
were measured by what division oI time?
A-27. Thousandths oI a second (millisecond).

Q-28. The soItware (computer program) used on Iirst generation
computers was what type?
A-28. Unsophisticated and machine oriented.

Q-29. How were processing speed and reliability increased in
second generation computers?
A-29. By the use oI small, long lasting transistors.

Q-30. In second generation computers, how was the storage
capacity greatly increased?
A-30. With the introduction oI magnetic disk storage and the use
oI core Ior main storage.

Q-31. With improvements in soItware, what kind oI computer
languages could be used on second generation computers?
A-31. Symbolic machine languages or assembly languages.

Q-32. What do the smaller circuits in third generation computers
allow Ior?
A-32. Faster internal processing speeds.

Q-33. On third generation computers, what results are gained by
Iaster internal processing speeds?
A-33. Faster execution oI instructions.

Q-34. The data cell had a storage capacity oI how many
characters?
A-34. Over 100 million.

Q-35. What type oI applications were most third generation
computer systems designed to accomplish?
A-35. Both scientiIic and business data processing applications.

Q-36. What type oI computers are small and inexpensive yet
provide a lot oI computing power?
A-36. Microcomputers and minicomputers.

Q-37. What does the acronym ROM stand Ior?
A-37. Read-only memory.

Q-38. What will be one oI the Iuture challenges involving
computer power?
A-38. How to properly and eIIectively use the computing power
available.

Q-39. What term is used Ior programs such as assemblers,
compilers, and operating systems?
A-39. SoItware.

Q-40. What is one oI the more widespread uses oI the computer?
A-40. Word processing.

Q-41. What is the great advantage oI computers over typewriters?
A-41. Correcting errors.

Q-42. How are word processing programs used by the Navy?
A-42. For manuscript writing, memorandum writing,
identiIication-card application Iiling, and recordkeeping.

Q-43. How many systems dealing with accounting applications
have been widely accepted?
A-43. Six.

Q-44. What does the acronym S-N-A-P stand Ior?
A-44. Shipboard Non-tactical ADP Program.

Q-45. For what purposes is the SNAP II system designed?
A-45. To support shipboard and intermediate level maintenance,
supply, Iinancial, and administrative Iunctions.

Q-46. What does user Iriendly mean in computer terms?
A-46. Operating instructions are written in everyday English.

Q-47. What does a password prevent?
A-47. Unauthorized entry into the main computer's program.

Q-48. In the SNAP II system, how are the diIIerent levels oI entry
deIined?
A-48. Dependent on a work center's need.

Q-49. The work center supervisor can update what items Irom a
user terminal?
A-49. COSAL, APL, EIC, SHIP'S FORCE WORK LIST, and
CSMP.

Q-50. At present what type oI classiIied use is allowed Ior SNAP
II?
A-50. UnclassiIied.

Q-51. What is a central set oI programs called that manages the
execution oI other programs and perIorms common Iunctions like
read, write, and print?
A-51. Operating system.

Q-52. What is the Iunction oI a built-in program called a bootstrap
loader?
A-52. To load an external operating system into the computer's
internal memory.

Q-53. When you see the error message NO SYSTEM, what does it
mean?
A-53. The computer is reading a properly inserted Iloppy disk, but
it does not have an operating system on it.

Q-54. When an operating system prompt (A~) is displayed on the
screen, what do you enter Irom the keyboard to load an application
program?
A-54. The program name.

Q-55. II disks are stored horizontally, how many can be stacked?
A-55. No more than ten.

Q-56. What can exposure to a magnetic Iield do to the data on a
disk?
A-56. Destroy some or all oI it.

Q-57. What is the temperature range within which a disk will
operate?
A-57. 10 to 50 degrees Celsius or 50 to 120 degrees Fahrenheit.

Q-58. What is the most common method to ensure that any stored
data lost can be recovered?
A-58. Backup Iiles.

Q-59. The most common method oI creating a backup Ior a
microcomputer is what?
A-59. Use a Iloppy disk and the diskcopy procedure.
Q-60. Other than disk, what is another media used Ior backup
Iiles?
A-60. Magnetic tape.

CONCEPTS OF ALTERNATING CURRENT

Q1. DeIine direct current.
A1. An electrical current which Ilows in one direction only.

11
Q2. DeIine alternating current.
A2. An electrical current which is constantly varying in amplitude,
and which changes direction at regular intervals.

Q3. What is a disadvantage oI a direct-current system with respect
to supply voltage?
A3. The dc voltage must be generated at the level required by the
load.

Q4. What disadvantage oI a direct current is due to the resistance
oI the transmission wires?
A4. The I
2
R power loss is excessive.

Q5. What kind oI electrical current is used in most modern power
distribution systems?
A5. Alternating current (ac).

Q6. When placed in the vicinity oI a current-carrying conductor,
the needle oI a compass becomes aligned at what angle to the
conductor?
A6. The needle aligns itselI at right angles to the conductor.

Q7. What is the direction oI the magnetic Iield around a vertical
conductor when (a) the current Ilows upward and (b) the current
Ilows downward.
A7. (a) clockwise (b) counterclockwise.

Q8. The "leIt-hand rule" Ior a conductor is used Ior what purpose
A8. It is used to determine the relation between the direction oI the
magnetic lines oI Iorce around a conductor and the direction oI
current through the conductor.

Q9. In what direction will the compass needle point when the
compass is placed in the magnetic Iield surrounding a wire?
A9. The north pole oI the compass will point in the direction oI the
magnetic lines oI Iorce.

Q10. When two adjacent parallel wires carry current in the same
direction, the magnetic Iield about one wire has what eIIect on the
magnetic Iield about the other conductor?
A10. It combines with the other Iield.

Q11.When two adjacent parallel conductors carry current in
opposite directions, the magnetic Iield about one conductor has
what eIIect on the magnetic Iield about the other conductor?
A11. It deIorms the other Iield.

Q12. What is the shape oI the magnetic Iield that exists around (a)
a straight conductor and (b) a coil?
A12. (a) The Iield consists oI concentric circles in a plane
perpendicular to the wire (b) the Iield oI each turn oI wire links
with the Iields oI adjacent turns producing a two-pole Iield similar
in shape to that oI a simple bar magnet.

Q13. What happens to the two-pole Iield oI a coil when the current
through the coil is reversed?
A13. The polarity oI the two-pole Iield reverses.

Q14. What rule is used to determine the polarity oI a coil when the
direction oI the electron current Ilow in the coil is known?
A14. Use the leIt-hand rule Ior coils.

Q15. State the rule whose purpose is described in Q14.
A15. Grasp the coil in your leIt hand, with your Iingers "wrapped
around" in the direction oI electron Ilow. The thumb will point
toward the north pole.

Q16. When a conductor is rotated in a magnetic Iield, at what
points in the cycle is emI (a) at maximum amplitude and (b) at
minimum amplitude?
A16. (a) When the conductors are cutting directly across the
magnetic lines oI Iorce (at the 90 and 270 points). (b) When the
conductors are moving parallel to the magnetic lines oI Iorce (at
the 0 , 180 , and 360 points).

Q17. One cycle is equal to how many degrees oI rotation oI a
conductor in a magnetic Iield?
A17. 360 .

Q18. State the leIt-hand rule used to determine the direction oI
current in a generator.
A18. Extend your leIt hand so that your thumb points in the
direction oI conductor movement, and your IoreIinger points in the
direction oI the magnetic Ilux (north to south). Now point your
middle Iinger 90 Irom the IoreIinger and it will point in the
direction oI electron current Ilow in the conductor.

Q19. How is an ac voltage produced by an ac generator?
A19. Continuous rotation oI the conductor through magnetic Iines
oI Iorce produces a series oI cycles oI alternating voltage or, in
other words, an alternating voltage or a sine wave oI voltage
.
Q20. DeIine Frequency.
A20. Frequency is the number oI complete cycles oI alternating
voltage or current completed each second.

Q21. What term is used to indicate the time oI one complete cycle
oI a waveIorm?
A21. Period.

Q22. What is a positive alternation?
A22. A positive alternation is the positive variation in the voltage
or current oI a sine curve.

Q23.What do the period and the wavelength oI a sine wave
measure, respectively?
A23. The period measures time and the wavelength measures
distance
.
Q24. What is meant by peak and peak-to-peak values oI ac?
A24. The peak value is the maximum value oI one alternation; the
peak-to-peak value is twice the maximum or peak value.

Q25. How many times is the maximum or peak value oI emI or
current reached during one cycle oI ac?
A25. Twice.

Q26. II any point on a sine wave is selected at random and the
value oI the current or voltage is measured at that one particular
moment, what value is being measured?
A26. The instantaneous value (Einst or Iinst)

Q27. What value oI current or voltage is computed by averaging
all oI the instantaneous values during the negative alternation oI a
sine wave?
A27. Average value (Eavg or Iavg)

Q28. What is the average value oI all oI the instantaneous currents
or voltages occurring during one complete cycle oI a sine wave?
A28. Zero

Q29. What mathematical Iormulas are used to Iind the average
value oI current and average value oI voltage oI a sine wave?
A29.




12
Q30. II Emax is 115 volts, what is Eavg?
A30.




Q31. II Iavg is 1.272 ampere, what is Imax?
A31.


Q32. What is the most convenient basis Ior comparing alternating
and direct voltages and currents?
A32. The power (heat) produced in a resistance by a dc voltage is
compared to that produced in the same resistance by an ac voltage
oI the same peak amplitude.

Q33. What value oI ac is used as a comparison to dc?
A33. The eIIective value.

Q34. What is the Iormula Ior Iinding the eIIective value oI an
alternating current?
A34.


Q35. II the peak value oI a sine wave is 1,000 volts, what is the
eIIective (EeII) value?
A35.

Q36. II IeII 4.25 ampere, what is Imax?
A36.



(Remember: Unless speciIied otherwise, the voltage or current
value is always considered to be
the eIIective value.)

Q37. When are the voltage wave and the current wave in a circuit
considered to be in phase?
A37. When the two waves go through their maximum and
minimum points at the same time and in the same direction.

Q38. When are two voltage waves considered to be out oI phase?
A38. When the waves do not go through their maximum and
minimum points at the same time, a PHASE DIFFERENCE exists,
and the two waves are said to be out oI phase. (Two waves are also
considered to be out oI phase iI they diIIer in phase by 180 and
their instantaneous voltages are always oI opposite polarity, even
though both waves go through their maximum and minimum
points at the same time).

Q39. What is the phase relationship between two voltage waves
that diIIer in phase by 360 ?
A39. They are in phase with each other.

Q40. How do you determine the phase diIIerence between two sine
waves that are plotted on the same graph?
A40. Locate the points on the time axis where the two waves cross
traveling in the same direction. The number oI degrees between
these two points is the phase diIIerence.

Q41. A series circuit consists oI three resistors (R1 10 , R2 20 ,
R3 15 ) and an alternating voltage source oI 100 volts. What is
the eIIective value oI current in the circuit?
A41.

Q42. II the alternating source in Q41 is changed to 200 volts peak-
to-peak, what is Iavg?
A42.


Q43. II EeII is 130 volts and IeII is 3 amperes, what is the total
resistance (RT) in the circuit?
A43. 43.3 ohms.


DIRECT CURRENT GENERATORS

Q1. Generators convert mechanical motion to electrical energy
using what principle?
A1. Magnetic induction

Q2. What rule should you use to determine the direction oI induced
emI in a coil?
A2. The leIt-hand rule Ior generators

Q3. What is the purpose oI the slip rings?
A3. To conduct the currents induced in the armature to an external
load.

Q4. Why is no emI induced in a rotating coil when it passes
through the neutral plane?
A4. No Ilux lines are cut.

Q5. What component causes a generator to produce dc voltage
rather than ac voltage at its output terminals?
A5. A commutator

Q6. At what point should brush contact change Irom one
commutator segment to the next?
A6. The point at which the voltage is zero across the two segments.

Q7. An elementary, single coil, dc generator will have an output
voltage with how many pulsations
per revolution?
A7. Two.

Q8. How many commutator segments are required in a two-coil
generator?
A8. Four

Q9. How can Iield strength be varied in a practical dc generator?
A9. By varying the input voltage to the Iield coils.

Q10. What causes sparking between the brushes and the
commutator?
A10. Improper commutation.
13

Q11. What is armature reaction?
A11. Distortion oI the main Iield due to the eIIects oI armature
current.

Q12. What is the purpose oI interpoles?
A12. To counter act armature reaction.

Q13. What is the eIIect oI motor reaction in a dc generator?
A13. A Iorce which causes opposition to applied turning Iorce.

Q14. What causes copper losses?
A14. Resistance in the armature coils, which increases with
temperature.

Q15. How can eddy current be reduced?
A15. By laminating the core material

Q16. Why are drum-type armatures preIerred over the Gramme-
ring armature in modern dc generators?
A16. Drum-type armatures are more eIIicient, because Ilux lines
are cut by both sides oI each coil.

Q17. Lap windings are used in generators designed Ior what type
oI application?
A17. Higher load currents are possible.

Q18. What are the three classiIications oI dc generators?
A18. Series-wound, shunt-wound, and compound-wound.

Q19. What is the main disadvantage oI series generators?
A19. Output voltage varies as the load varies.

Q20. What term applies to the voltage variation Irom no-load to
Iull-load conditions and is expressed as a percentage?
A20. Voltage regulation.

Q21. What term applies to the use oI two or more generators to
supply a common load?
A21. Parallel operation.

Q22. What is the purpose oI a dc generator that has been modiIied
to Iunction as an amplidyne?
A22. It can serve as a power ampliIier.

Q23. What is the Iormula used to determine the gain oI an
ampliIying device?
A23. Gain output input.

Q24. What are the two inputs to an amplidyne?
A24. The mechanical Iorce applied to turn the amplidyne, and the
electrical input signal.

DIRECT CURRENT MOTORS

Q1. What Iactors determine the direction oI rotation in a dc motor?
A1. Direction oI armature current, and direction oI magnetic Ilux
in Iield.

Q2. The right-hand rule Ior motors is used to Iind the relationship
between what motor
characteristics?
A2. Direction oI conductor movement (rotation), direction oI Ilux,
and the direction oI current Ilow.

Q3. What are the diIIerences between the components oI a dc
generator and a dc motor?
A3. There are no diIIerences.

Q4. What causes counter emI in a dc motor?
A4. Generator action.

Q5. What motor characteristic is aIIected by counter emI?
A5. Speed.

Q6. What is the load on a dc motor?
A6. The device to be driven by the motor.

Q7. What is the main disadvantage oI a series motor?
A7. It must have a load connected to avoid damage Irom excess
speed.

Q8. What is the main advantage oI a series motor?
A8. High torque (turning Iorce) at low speed.

Q9. What advantage does a shunt motor have over a series motor?
A9. It maintains a constant speed under varying loads.

Q10. Why is the Gramme-ring armature not more widely used?
A10. Only outside oI coils cut Ilux (ineIIicient).

Q11. How is the disadvantage oI the Gramme-ring armature
overcome in the drum-wound armature?
A11. By winding the armature in a way that places the entire coil
where it is exposed to maximum
Ilux.

Q12. In a dc motor that must be able to rotate in both directions,
how is the direction changed?
A12. By reversing either Iield or armature connections.

Q13. What is the eIIect on motor speed iI the Iield current is
increased?
A13. Motor will slow down.

Q14. Armature reaction in a dc motor causes a shiIt oI the neutral
plane in which direction?
A14. Opposite the rotation.

Q15. What current Ilows in the interpole windings?
A15. Armature current.

Q16. What is the purpose oI starting resistors?
A16. To limit armature current until counter emI builds up.

ELECTRICAL CONDUCTORS

Q1. State the reason Ior the establishment oI a "unit size" Ior
conductors.
A1. To allow comparisons between conductors oI diIIerent sizes
and resistance.

Q2. Calculate the diameter in MILS oI a conductor that has a
diameter oI 0.375 inch.
A2. 375 mils (move the decimal three places to the right).

Q3. DeIine a mil-Ioot.
A3. A circular conductor with a diameter oI 1 mil and a length oI 1
Ioot.

Q4. DeIine a square mil as it relates to a square conductor.
A4. The cross-sectional area oI a square conductor with a side oI 1
mil.

Q5. DeIine a circular mil.
A5. The cross-sectional area oI a circular conductor with a
diameter oI 1 mil.

14
Q6. What is the circular mil area oI a 19-strand conductor iI each
strand is 0.004 inch?
A6. Circular mil area (CMA) D2 (in mils) number oI
strands0.0004 inch 4 mils (CMA) 4 2
19 (strands)(CMA) 16 19 304 mils.

Q7. DeIine speciIic resistance.
A7. The resistance oI a unit volume oI a substance.

Q8. List the three Iactors used to calculate resistance oI a particular
conductor in ohms.
A8. Length, cross-sectional area, and speciIic resistance oI a unit
volume oI the substance Irom
which the conductor is made.

Q9. Using table 1-2, determine the resistance oI 1,500 Ieet oI
AWG 20 wire at 25 C.
A9. 1,000 It 10.4 ohms1,500 It 1.5 0.4 15.6 ohms

Q10. When using an American Standard Wire Gauge to determine
the size oI a wire, where should
you place the wire in the gauge to get the correct measurement?
A10. In the parallel walled slot not the circular area.

Q11. List the Iour Iactors you should use to select wire Ior a
speciIied current rating.
A11. Conductor size, the material it is made oI the location oI the
wire in a circuit, and the type oI
insulation used.

Q12. What are three types oI nonmetallic insulating materials that
can be used in a high-temperature
environments?
A12. FEP, extruded polytetraIluoroethylene, and silicone rubber.

Q13. State why it is important Ior you to consider the ambient
(surrounding) temperature oI a
conductor when selecting wire size.
A13. The heat surrounding the conductor is an important part oI
total conductor heating.

Q14. State two advantages oI using aluminum wire Ior carrying
electricity over long distances.
A14. It is light and reduces corona.

Q15. State Iour advantages oI copper over aluminum as a
conductor.
A15. It has higher conductivity, it is more ductile, it has relatively
high tensile strength, and it can be easily soldered.

Q16. DeIine the temperature coeIIicient oI resistance.
A16. The amount oI increase in the resistance oI a 1-ohm sample
oI the conductor per degree oI temperature rise above 0 C

Q17. What happens to the resistance oI copper when it is heated?
A17. It increases.

Q18. Compare the resistance oI a conductor to that oI an insulator.
A18. Conductors have a very low resistance and insulators have a
resistance that is so great that, Ior all practical purposes, they are
nonconductors.

Q19. State two Iundamental properties oI insulating materials.
A19. Insulation resistance and dielectric strength.

Q20. DeIine insulation resistance.A20. The resistance to current
leakage through the insulation.

Q21. DeIine dielectric strength.
A21. The ability oI the insulation material to withstand potential
diIIerence.

Q22. How is the dielectric strength oI an insulator determined?
A22. By raising the voltage on a test sample until it breaks down.

Q23. What is the purpose oI coating a copper conductor with tin
when rubber insulation is used?
A23. To prevent the rubber insulation Irom deteriorating due to
chemical action.

Q24. What saIety precaution should you take when working with
extruded polytetraIluoroethylene
insulated wiring?
A24. Avoid breathing the vapors when the insulation is heated.

Q25. State the reasons that the Navy is getting away Irom the use
oI asbestos insulation.
A25. Breathing asbestos Iibers can cause lung disease and/or
cancer

Q26. State what happens to the insulating characteristics oI
asbestos when it gets wet?
A26. It will become a conductor.

Q27. What are the most common insulators used Ior extremely
high voltages?
A27. Varnished cambric and oil-impregnated paper.

Q28. What is the common name Ior enamel-insulated wire?
A28. Magnet wire.

Q29. II a cable is installed where it receives rough treatment, what
should be added?
A29. Metallic coat.

Q30. How many categories oI nonmetallic protective coverings are
there?
A30. Three.

Q31. What is the most common type oI nonmetallic material used
to protect wires and cables?
A31. Fibrous Braid.

Q32. What are the most common types oI Iibrous tape?
A32. Rubber-Iilled cloth tape and a combination oI cotton cloth
and rubber.

Q33. What materials are commonly used as cushions between
cable insulation and metallic armor?
A33. Jute and Asphalt coverings.

Q34. What are the two types oI metallic protection?
A34. Sheath and armor

Q35. What are the three types oI lead-sheathed cables?
A35. Alloy lead, pure lead, and reinIorced lead.

Q36. What are the three examples oI metallic armor cable that
were discussed?
A36. Wire braid, steel tape, and wire armor

GYRO

Q-1. Can any rapidly spinning object be considered a gyroscope?
A-1. Yes.

Q-2. In the drawing in Iigure 3-1, which axis is the gyro spin axis?
A-2. X-axis.

15
Q-3. What gyro property causes the gyro to remain in a Iixed
position?
A-3. Rigidity.

Q-4. What type(s) oI Iorce does a gyro resist?
A-4. Any Iorce that attempts to tilt the spin axis.

Q-5. In what direction will a gyro precess in response to an outside
Iorce?
A-5. Perpendicular (90) to the Iorce.

Q-6. A universally mounted gyro has how many gimbals?
A-6. Two.

Q-7. What Iactors determine the rigidity oI a gyro?
A-7. Rotor speed, weight, shape.

Q-8. Which gyro rotor in Iigure 3-6, view (A) view (B) view (C),
will have the greatest rigidity iI all are rotated at the same speed?
A-8. C.

Q-9. What type oI Iorce acts ONLY through the center oI gravity
oI a gyro, and does NOT cause precession?
A-9. Force oI translation.

Q-10. The amount oI precession that results Irom a given Iorce is
determined by what quantity?
A-10. Rigidity.

Q-11. What Iactor determines the direction a gyro will precess in
response to a particular Iorce?
A-11. Direction oI spin.

Q-12. When using the tight-hand rule to determine precession,
which Iinger indicates the direction oI the applied Iorce?
A-12. Middle Iinger.

Q-13. A universally mounted gyro has how many degrees oI
Ireedom?
A-13. Two.

Q-14. II a Iree gyro is placed at the equator at 1200 in a vertical
position; in what position should it be at 1800?
A-14. Horizontal.

Q-15. What are the three causes oI mechanical driIt in a gyro?
A-15. Unbalanced gyro, inertia oI gimbals, bearing Iriction.

Q-16. What is the purpose oI an erection system used with a gyro?
A-16. To achieve and maintain the proper operating position Ior
the gyro (usually vertical or horizontal).

Q-17. What is the purpose oI rotating the gimbal assembly in a
gyro using a mercury erection system?
A-17. Applies torque at the proper point Ior correct precession.

Q-18. What are rate gyros primarily used Ior?
A-18. Measuring angular rates.

Q-19. How many degrees-oI-Ireedom does a rate gyro usually
have?
A-19. One.

Q-20. What gyro characteristic provides the basis oI the operation
oI a rate gyro?
A-20. Precession.

Q-21. Operation oI an accelerometer is based on what physical
property?
A-21. Inertia.

Q-22. What type oI systems primarily use accelerometers?
A-22. Navigation systems.

Q-23. What special requirement is the pulse counting
accelerometer designed Ior?
A-23. When digital data is required Irom an accelerometer.

HARDWARE

Q-1. What is the brain oI a computer system?
A-1. The central processing unit.

Q-2. How many sections make up the central processing unit?
A-2. Three.

Q-3. What are the names oI the sections that make up the cpu?
A-3. Control section, internal storage section, and arithmetic-logic
section.

Q-4. The control section can be compared to what?
A-4. A telephone exchange.

Q-5. What are the Iour major types oI instructions in the control
section?
A-5. TransIer, arithmetic, logic, and control.

Q-6. What capability allows the arithmetic/logic section to test
various conditions encountered during processing and take action
based on the result?
A-6. Logic.

Q-7. In the arithmetic/logic section, data is returned to what section
aIter processing?
A-7. Internal storage.

Q-8. What is the process by which instructions and data are read
into a computer?
A-8. Loading.

Q-9. Magnetic core storage is made up oI what?
A-9. Tiny doughnut-shaped rings made oI Ierrite iron.

Q-10. A semiconductor memory consists oI what?
A-10. Hundreds oI thousands oI tiny electronic circuits etched on a
silicon chip.

Q-11. What is another name Ior semiconductor memory chips?
A-11. Integrated circuits.

Q-12. In computer storage, what does volatile mean?
A-12. All data in memory is lost when the power source is
removed.

Q-13. What type oI storage can retain its data even iI there is a
power Iailure or breakdown?
A-13. Nonvolatile (magnetic core storage and bubble memory are
examples).

Q-14. Bubble memory consists oI what?
A-14. A very thin crystal made oI semiconductor material.

Q-15. How are the magnetic domains oI a bubble memory
switched?
A-15. By passing a current through a control circuit imprinted on
top oI the crystal.

Q-16. What do we mean when we say that reading Irom bubble
memory is nondestructive?
A-16. The data is still present aIter being read.
16

Q-17. In what type oI memory are oIten used instructions and
programs permanently stored inside the computer?
A-17. Read-only memory (ROM).

Q-18. Who provides the programs stored in ROM?
A-18. Only the manuIacturer.

Q-19. Can programs in ROM be changed?
A-19. No.

Q-20. What is another name Ior random-access memory (RAM)?
A-20. Read/write memory.

Q-21. How is data read Irom or written into RAM?
A-21. By giving the computer the address oI the location where the
data is stored or is to be stored.

Q-22. In what two states can programmable read-only memory
(PROM) be purchased?
A-22. Already programmed by the manuIacturer or in a blank
state.

Q-23. What is the main disadvantage oI PROM?
A-23. II a mistake is made and entered, it cannot be corrected or
erased.

Q-24. What does EPROM stand Ior?
A-24. Erasable programmable read-only memory.

Q-25. How is EPROM erased?
A-25. With a burst oI ultra-violet light.

Q-26. Why are disk storage devices popular?
A-26. Largely because oI their direct access capabilities.

Q-27. How is data stored on all disks?
A-27. In a number oI invisible concentric circles called tracks.

Q-28. What precedes each record on a disk?
A-28. A disk address.

Q-29. How is the storage capacity oI a disk determined?
A-29. By the bits per inch oI track and the tracks per inch oI
surIace.

Q-30. What two ways can data be physically organized on a disk
pack?
A-30. By cylinder or sector.

Q-31. The amount oI data that can be stored on a linear inch oI
tape is known by what term?
A-31. Recording density.

Q-32. The length oI tape between BOT and EOT is reIerred to by
what term?
A-32. The usable recording (reading/writing) surIace or usable
storage area.

Q-33. How does a magnetic drum diIIer Irom a magnetic disk?
A-33. The tracks in which the data is stored are assigned to
channels that Iorm circular bands around the drum.

Q-34. Tracks on each channel oI a magnetic drum are grouped into
what?
A-34. Sectors.

Q-35. What is the purpose oI any magnetic tape unit?
A-35. To write data on or read data Irom a magnetic tape.

Q-36. What are the major diIIerences between magnetic tape units?
A-36. The speed at which the tape is moved past the read/write
head and the density oI the recorded inIormation.

Q-37. Why is direct accessing oI data a big advantage over the
sequential accessing oI data?
A-37. It gives us Iast, immediate access to speciIic data without
having to examine each and every record Irom the beginning.

Q-38. What is a Iloppy disk?
A-38. A thin, Ilexible platter coated with magnetic material so
characters can be recorded.

Q-39. What are the three most common sizes oI Iloppy disks?
A-39. 8 inch, 5 1/4 inch, and 3 1/2 inch.

Q-40. What output device expresses coded characters as hard copy
(paper documents)?
A-40. Printers.

Q-41. What Iour types oI printers are commonly used with
personal computers?
A-41. Daisy-wheel, dot-matrix, ink jet, and laser.

Q-42. What is the primary purpose oI a keyboard?
A-42. To enter or input alphanumeric character codes.

Q-43. Raster scan or tv scan video monitors are used extensively
Ior what purpose?
A-43. The display oI alphanumeric data and graphics.

Q-44. How many Iields make up a Irame?
A-44. Two.

Q-45. A Iield is approximately how many horizontal lines?
A-45. 525.

Q-46. What are picture elements oIten called?
A-46. Pixels or pels.

Q-47. Vertical resolution depends on what?
A-47. The number oI horizontal scan lines used.

Q-48. Flat panel displays are designed to reduce what problem oI a
crt display?
A-48. Reduce the depth oI the crt display caused by the length oI
the tube.

Q-49. What does the liquid crystal display require Ior computer
applications?
A-49. An external light source, called a backlight.

INDUCTANCE

Q1. What is the basic unit oI inductance and the abbreviation Ior
this unit?
A1. The henry, H.

Q2. An emI is generated in a conductor when the conductor is cut
by what type oI Iield?
A2. Magnetic Iield.

Q3. DeIine inductance.
A3. Inductance is the property oI a coil (or circuit) which opposes
any CHANGE in current.





17
Q4. What is meant by induced emI? By counter emI?
A4. Induced emI is the emI which appears across a conductor
when there is relative motion between the conductor and a
magnetic Iield; counter emI is the emI induced in a conductor that
opposes the applied voltage.

Q5. State Lenz's law.
A5. The induced emI in any circuit is in a direction to oppose the
eIIect that produced it.

Q6. What eIIect does inductance have (a) on steady direct current
and (b) on direct current while it is changing in amplitude?
A6.
a. No eIIect.
b. Inductance opposes any change in the amplitude oI current.

Q7.
a. List Iive Iactors that aIIect the inductance oI a coil.
b. Bending a straight piece oI wire into a loop or coil has what
eIIect on the inductance oI the wire?
c. Doubling the number oI turns in a coil has what eIIect on the
inductance oI the coil?
d. Decreasing the diameter oI a coil has what eIIect on the
inductance oI the coil?
e. Inserting a soIt-iron core into a coil has what eIIect on the
inductance oI the coil?
I. Increasing the number oI layers oI windings in a coil has what
eIIect on the inductance oI the coil?
A7.
a.
1. The numbers oI turns in a coil.
2. The type oI material used in the core.
3. The diameter oI the coil.
4. The coil length.
5. The number oI layers oI windings in the coil.
b. Increases inductance.
c. Increases inductance.
d. Decreases inductance.
e. Increases inductance.
I. Increases inductance.

Q8.
a. When voltage is Iirst applied to a series LR circuit, how much
opposition does the inductance have to the Ilow oI current
compared to that oI the circuit resistance?
b. In a series circuit containing a resistor (R 1) and an inductor
(L1), what voltage exists across R1 when the counter emI is at its
maximum value?
c. What happens to the voltage across the resistance in an LR
circuit during current buildup in the circuit, and during current
decay in the circuit?
A8.
a. Inductance causes a very large opposition to the Ilow oI current
when voltage is Iirst applied to an LR circuit; resistance causes
comparatively little opposition to current at that time.
b. Zero.
c. During current buildup, the voltage across the resistor gradually
increases to the same
voltage as the source voltage; and during current decay the voltage
across the resistor
gradually drops to zero

Q9. What is the Iormula Ior one L/R time constant?
A9.




Q10.
a. The maximum current applied to an inductor is 1.8 amperes.
How much current Ilowed in the inductor 3 time constants aIter the
circuit was Iirst energized?
b. What is the minimum number oI time constants required Ior the
current in an LR circuit to increase to its maximum value?
c. A circuit containing only an inductor and a resistor has a
maximum oI 12 amperes oI applied current Ilowing in it. AIter 5
L/R time constants the circuit is opened. How many time constants
is required Ior the current to decay to 1.625 amperes?
A10.
a. 1.71 amperes.
b. 5 time constants.
c. 2 time constants.

Q11. State three types oI power loss in an inductor.
A11. Copper loss; hysteresis loss; eddy-current loss.

Q12. DeIine mutual inductance.
A12. Mutual inductance is the property existing between two coils
so positioned that Ilux Irom one coil cuts the windings oI the other
coil.

Q13. When are two circuits said to be coupled?
A13. When they are arranged so that energy Irom one circuit is
transIerred to the other circuit.

Q14. What is meant by the coeIIicient oI coupling?
A14. The ratio oI the Iines oI Iorce produced by one coil to the
lines oI Iorce that link another coil. It is never greater than one.

Q15. Two series-connected 7-H inductors are adjacent to each
other; their coeIIicient oI coupling is 0.64. What is the value oI M?
A15.


Q16. A circuit contains two series inductors aligned in such a way
that their magnetic Iields oppose each other. What Iormula should
you use to compute total inductance in this circuit?
A16.


Q17. The magnetic Iields oI two coils are aiding each other. The
inductance oI the coils are 3 H and 5 H, respectively. The coils'
mutual inductance is 5 H. What is their combined inductance?
A17.



INTRODUCTION TO ELECTRON TUBES

Q1. How can a sheet oI copper be made to emit electrons
thermionically?
A1. By heating it.

Q2. Why do electrons cross the gap in a vacuum tube?
A2. Because the negatively charged electrons are attracted to the
positively charged plate.

Q3. Name the two series circuits that exist in a diode circuit.
A3. Filament and plate.

Q4. BeIore a diode will conduct, the cathode must be what polarity
relative to the plate?
A4. Negative.

18
Q5. An ac voltage is applied across a diode. The tube will conduct
when what alternation oI ac is applied to the plate?
A5. Positive.

Q6. What would be the output oI the circuit described in question
5?
A6. Pulsating dc.

Q7. Besides tungsten, what other materials are used Ior cathodes in
vacuum tubes?
A7. Thoriated-tungsten and oxide-coated metals.

Q8. What is the advantage oI directly heated cathodes?
A8. They reach operating temperatures quickly.

Q9. Name two Iunctions oI the base oI a vacuum tube.
A9. It serves as a mounting Ior the tube elements and as the
terminal connection to the circuit.

Q10. Vacuum tubes are designed to operate in what portion oI the
Ep - Ip curve?
A10. The linear portion.

Q11. What value can be calculated Irom the values Iound on an Ep
- Ip curve?
A11. Plate resistant Rp.

Q12. A large negative voltage is applied to the plate oI a diode,
and a large positive voltage is applied to the cathode. II the tube
conducts, what tube parameter has been exceeded?
A12. Peak Inverse Voltage (PIV).

Q13. What is the primary diIIerence between a diode and a triode?
A13. The triode contains a third element called the control rid.

Q14. Why does the grid have a greater eIIect than the plate on
electron Ilow through a vacuum tube?
A14. Because it is closer to the cathode.

Q15. What component is used in a triode ampliIier to convert
variation in current Ilow to voltage
variation?
A15. A plate load resistor RL

Q16. Why is the control grid oI a triode ampliIier negatively
biased?
A16. To prevent them Irom drawing grid current.

Q17. For a circuit to be considered to be in the quiescent condition,
what normal operating voltage must be zero?
A17. The input signal

Q18. A triode ampliIier similar to the one shown in Iigure 1-19 has
an Ebb -350 volts dc. The plate-load resistor is 50kO. Under the
quiescent condition, 1.5 milliampheres oI currentconductors
through the tube. What will be the plate voltage (Ep) under
quiescent conditions?
A18. 275 volts.

Q19. A 2-volt, peak-to-peak, ac input signal is applied to the input
oI the circuit described in Q18.When the signal is at its maximum
positive value, 2.5 milliamperes Ilows through the tube.
When the input is at its maximum negative value, conduction
through the tube decreases to .5
milliamperes.
a. What is the peak-to-peak voltage oI the output signal?
b. What is the phase relationship between the input and output
signals?
A19.
a. 100 volts.
b. 180 out oI phase.

Q20. The waveIorms shown below are the input and output oI an
overdriven triode.
A20.
a. CutoII.
b. Saturation.

Q21. What type oI bias requires constant current Ilow through the
cathode circuit oI a triode?
A21. Cathode biasing.

Q22. When a circuit uses cathode biasing, the input signal can
cause variations in the biasing level
How is this problem eliminated?
A22. Through the use oI a bypass capacitor

Q23. In a circuit using grid-leak biasing, the coupling capacitor
(Cc) charges through a low resistance path. What resistance is used
in this charge path?
A23. rkg, the cathode to grid resistance.

Q24. Grid-leak biasing in eIIect rectiIies the input ac signal. What
Ieature oI the circuit is used to
accomplish this rectiIication?
A24. Unequal charge and discharge paths oI the coupling capacitor
Cc.

Q25. Match each ampliIier characteristic listed below with its class
oI ampliIication.
a. Current Ilows through the tube Ior one-halI cycle.
b. Current Ilows through the tube Ior less than one-halI cycle.
c. Current Ilows through the tube Ior the entire cycle.
A25.
a. Class B.
b. Class C
c. Class A.

Q26. The plate voltage oI a tube will vary 126 volts when a 3-volt
ac signal is applied to the control grid. What is the gain oI this
tube?
A26. 42.

Q27. II the mu oI a tube is 85 and the signal at the control grid is 4
volts ac, the plate voltage will
vary by what amount?
A27. 340 volts.

Q28. Transconductance is a measure oI the relationship between
what two Iactors?
A28. The changes in plate current and grid voltage.

Q29. A tube has a transconductance oI 800 mhos and a load
resistor oI 50 kohms. When control grid voltage varies by 6 volts,
the plate voltage will vary by what amount?
A29. 240 volts.

Q30. How does the addition oI a screen grid in a tetrode reduce
interelectrode capacitance?
A30. The interelectrode capacitance (cpg) is divided between two
series capacitances; thus, cpg is greatly reduced.

Q31. What undesirable eIIect does the screen grid in a tetrode
create?
A31. Secondary emission, and noise.

Q32. The suppressor grid is added to a tetrode to reduce what
undesirable characteristic oI tetrode operation?
A32. Secondary emission.

19
Q33. On the diagram below, name the elements oI the vacuum
tube and their potentials relative to dcground.

A33.
a. Plate, positive.
b. Suppressor grid, negative.
c. Cathode, can be negative, positive, or at dc ground potential,
depending on biasing type.
d. Control grid, negative.

Introduction to Matter,
Energy, and Direct Current

Q1. What is matter, and in what three states is it Iound?
A1. Anything that occupies space and has weight. Solids, liquids,
gases.

Q2. What is an element?
A2. A substance which cannot be reduced to a simpler substance
by chemical means.

Q3. What is a compound?
A3. A substance consisting oI two or more elements.

Q4. What is the diIIerence between a compound and a mixture?
A4. A compound is a chemical combination oI elements that
cannot be separated by physical means. A mixture is a physical
combination oI elements and compounds that are not chemically
combined.

Q5. What is a molecule?
A5. A chemical combination oI two or more atoms.

Q6. What are the three types oI subatomic particles, and what are
their charges?
A6. Electrons-negative, protons-positive, and neutrons-neutral.

Q7. What is energy oI motion called?
A7. Kinetic energy.

Q8. How is invisible light changed to visible light in a Iluorescent
light?
A8. Invisible light photons (ultraviolet) bombard the phosphor
atom in the light tube. The phosphor atoms emit visible light
photons.

Q9. What determines the valence oI an atom?
A9. The number oI electrons in the outer shell.

Q10. What is an ion?
A10. An atom with more or less than its normal number oI
electrons.

Q11. What determines whether a substance is a conductor or an
insulator?
A11. The number oI valence electrons.

Q12. How is a negative charge created in a neutral body?
A12. Through the accumulation oI excess electrons.

Q13. How are static charges created?
A13. By Iriction.

Q14. What is the electrical charge oI an atom which contains 8
protons and 11 electrons?
A14. Negative.

Q15. What is the relationship between charged bodies?
A15. Like charges repel, and unlike charges attract with a Iorce
directly proportional to the product oI their charges and inversely
proportional to the square oI the distance between them.

Q16. What is an electrostatic Iield?
A16. The space between and around charged bodies.

Q17. In what direction are electrostatic lines oI Iorce drawn?
A17. Leaving positive, entering negative.

Q18. What are some examples oI electrical equipment which use
magnetism?
A18. Motors, generators, speakers, computers, televisions, tape
recorders, and many others.

Q19. What are magnetic materials?
A19. Those materials that are attracted by magnets and have the
ability to become magnetized.

Q20. What characteristics do all Ierromagnetic materials have in
common?
A20. The relative ease with which they are magnetized.

Q21. What type oI magnetic material should be used to make a
temporary magnet?
A21. A material that exhibits low reluctance and high
permeability, such as iron or soIt steel.

Q22. What is retentivity?
A22. The ability oI a material to retain magnetism.

Q23. How does the law oI magnetic poles relate to the law oI
electric charges?
A23. They are very similar; like charges repel, unlike charges
attract, like poles repel unlike poles attract.

Q24. A compass is located at the geographical North Pole. In
which direction would its needle point?
A24. To the magnetic north pole.

Q25. Using Weber`s molecular theory oI magnetism, describe the
polarity oI the magnetic poles produced by stroking a magnetic
material Irom right to leIt with the south pole oI a magnet.
A25. South pole at the right, north pole at the leIt.

Q26. What is the diIIerence between the domain theory and
Weber`s theory oI magnetism?
A26. The domain theory is based upon the electron spin principle;
Weber`s theory uses the concept oI tiny molecular magnets.

Q27. ReIer to Iigure 1-13. For what purpose would you sprinkle
iron Iilings on the glass plate?
A27. To enable you to "see" the magnetic Iield.

20
Q28. ReIer to Iigure 1-13. What pattern would be Iormed iI
sawdust was sprinkled on the glass instead oI iron Iilings?
A28. No speciIic pattern, sawdust is a nonmagnetic material.

Q29. What is a magnetic line oI Iorce?
A29. An imaginary line used to illustrate magnetic eIIects.
Q30. In what way do magnetic lines oI Iorce diIIer Irom
electrostatic lines oI Iorce?
A30. Electrostatic lines oI Iorce do not Iorm closed loops.

Q31. How should a delicate instrument be protected Irom a
magnetic Iield?
A31. By shielding or surrounding the instrument with a soIt iron
case, called a magnetic shield or screen.

Q32. How should bar magnets be stored?
A32. In pairs, with opposite poles together to provide a complete
path Ior magnetic Ilux.

Q33. What is the deIinition oI energy?
A33. The ability to do work.

Q34. What type oI energy does a rolling stone have?
A34. Kinetic energy.

Q35. What kind oI energy does the stone have iI it is at rest at the
top oI a hill?
A35. Potential energy.

Q36. What term describes voltage or emI?
A36. DiIIerence oI potential.

Q37. Convert 2.1 kV to volts.
A37. 2100 volts.

Q38. Express the Iollowing in more simple terms. (a) 250,000
volts, (b) 25,000,000 microvolts, (c)0.001 millivolt.
A38. (a) 250 kV, (b) 25 V, (c) 1 9

Q39. A device which supplies a voltage is commonly reIerred to
by what name?
A39. A voltage source.

Q40. Name the six methods oI producing a voltage.
A40. Friction, pressure, heat, light, chemical action, and
magnetism.

Q41. The piezoelectric eIIect is an example oI a voltage being
produced by what method?
A41. Pressure.
Q42. A thermocouple is a device that produces voltage by what
method?
A42. Heat.

Q43. A battery uses what method to produce a voltage?
A43. Chemical.

Q44. A generator uses what method to produce a voltage?
A44. Magnetic.

Q45. According to electron theory, an electric current Ilows Irom
what potential to what potential?
A45. Electron theory assumes that electron Ilow is Irom negative
to positive.

Q46. The eIIects oI directed driIt take place at what rate oI speed?
A46. The speed oI light (186,000 miles per second, 300,000,000
meters per second).

Q47. What is the relationship oI current to voltage in a circuit?
A47. Current increases as voltage increases.

Q50. When would silver be used as a conductor in preIerence to
copper?
A50. When the need Ior conductivity is great enough to justiIy the
additional expense.

Q51. Which wire has the least resistance? Wire A-copper, 1000
circular mils, 6 inches long. Wire B-copper, 2000 circular mils, 11
inches long.
A51. Wire B.

Q52. Which temperature coeIIicient indicates a material whose
resistance increases as temperature increases?
A52. Positive.

Q53. What term describes a material whose resistance remains
relatively constant with changes in temperature?
A53. Zero temperature coeIIicient.

Q54. What is the unit oI conductance and what other term is
sometimes used?
A54. The mho (v), siemens.
Q55. What is the relationship between conductance and resistance?
A55. They are reciprocals oI each other.

Q57. What does the wattage rating oI a resistor indicate?
A57. Its ability to dissipate heat.

Q58. What are the two disadvantages oI carbon-type resistors?
A58. 1. Change value with age. 2. Limited power capacity.

Q59. What type resistor should be used to overcome the
disadvantages oI the carbon resistor?
A59. The wirewound resistor.

Q60. Describe the diIIerences between the rheostat connections
and those oI the potentiometer.
A60. The rheostat may have two connections, one Iixed and one
moveable; the potentiometer always has
three connections, one moveable and two Iixed.

Q61. Which type oI variable resistor should you select Ior
controlling a large amount oI current?
A61. The rheostat.

Q62. A carbon resistor has a resistance oI 50 ohms, and a tolerance
oI 5 percent. What are the colors oI bands one, two, three, and
Iour, respectively?
A62. The bands are green, black, black, and gold.

Q63. A carbon resistor has the Iollowing color bands: The Iirst
band is yellow, Iollowed by violet,yellow, and silver. What is the
ohmic value oI the resistor?
A63. 470,000 ohms (470 kilohms).

Q64. The same resistor mentioned in question 63 has a yellow IiIth
band. What does this signiIy?
A64. The resistor`s chance oI Iailure is 0.001 percent Ior 1000
hours oI operation.

Q65. A resistor is handed to you Ior identiIication with the
Iollowing color code: the Iirst band is blue, Iollowed by gray,
green, gold, and brown. What is the resistor`s value?
A65. 6,800,000 ohms (6.8 megohms), with 5 tolerance, and a 1
reliability level.




21
LOGIC CIRCUITS
Q1. What is the sign oI operation Ior the X-OR gate?
A1.

Q2. What will be the output oI an X-OR gate when both inputs are
HIGH?
A2. Low (0).

Q3. A two-input X-OR gate will produce a HIGH output when the
inputs are at what logic levels?
A3. One or the other oI the inputs must be HIGH, but not both at
the same time.

Q4. What type oI gate is represented by the output Boolean
expression R T A ?
A4. Exclusive NOR (X-NOR).

Q5. What will be the output oI an X-NOR gate when both inputs
are LOW?
A5. HIGH.

Q6. What advantage does a halI adder have over a quarter adder?
A6. The halI adder generates a carry.

Q7. An X-OR gate may be used as what type oI adder?
A7. Quarter adder.

Q8. What will be the output oI a halI adder when both inputs are
1s?
A8. Sum equals 0 with a carry oI 1.

Q9. What type oI adder is used to handle a carry Irom a previous
circuit?
A9. Full adder.

Q10. How many Iull adders are required to add Iour-digit
numbers?
A10. Four.

Q11. With the inputs shown below, what will be the output oI S1,
S2, and C2?
A11. S1 1, S2 0 and C2 1.

Q12. What is the output oI C1?
A12. C1 0.

Q13. What type oI logic gates are added to a parallel adder to
enable it to subtract?
A13. X-OR gates.

Q14. How many oI these gates would be needed to add a Iour-digit
number?
A14. Four.

Q15. In the add mode, what does the output oI C2 indicate?
A15. MSD oI the sum.

Q16. In the subtract mode, a 1 at C0 perIorms what portion oI the
R`s complement?
A16. Add 1 portion.
Q17. In the subtract mode, which portion oI the problem is
complemented?
A17. Subtrahend.

Q18. What are R-S FFs used Ior?
A18. Storing inIormation.

Q19. How many R-S FFs are required to store the number
1001012?
A19. Six.

Q20. For an R-S FF to change output conditions, the inputs must
be in what states?
A20. 1 and 0, or opposite states.

Q21. How may R-S FFs be constructed?
A21. By cross-coupling NAND or OR gates.

Q22. How many inputs does a T FF have?
A22. One.

Q23. What is the purpose oI using T FFs?
A23. To divide the input by 2.

Q24. What are the inputs to a D FF?
A24. Clock and data.

Q25. How long is data delayed by a D FF?
A25. Up to one clock pulse.

Q26. What condition must occur to have a change in the output oI
a D FF?
A26. A positive-going clock pulse.

Q27. What type oI FF can be used as an R-S, a T, or a D FF?
A27. J-K Ilip-Ilop.

Q28. What will be the output oI Q iI J is HIGH, PS and CLR are
HIGH, and the clock is going
negative?
A28. Set, or HIGH (1).

Q29. Assume that K goes HIGH and J goes LOW; when will the
FF reset?
A29. When the clock pulse goes LOW.

Q30. What logic levels must exist Ior the FF to be toggled by the
clock?
A30. Both J and K must be HIGH.

Q31. What two inputs to a J-K FF will override the other inputs?
A31. Clear (CLR) and preset (PS or PR).

Q32. How is the J-K FF aIIected iI PS and CLR are both LOW?
A32. The Ilip-Ilop is jammed.

Q33. What is a clock with regard to digital equipment?
A33. A timing signal.

Q34. What is the simplest type oI clock circuit?
A34. An astable or Iree-running multivibrator.

Q35. What is needed to use a monostable or one-shot multivibrator
Ior a clock circuit?
A35. Triggers.

Q36. What type oI clock is used when more than one operation is
to be completed during one clock cycle?
A36. A multiphase clock.

Q37. What is the modulus oI a Iive-stage binary counter?
A37. 32.

Q38. An asynchronous counter is also called a
counter.
A38. Ripple.

Q39. J-K FFs used in counters are wired to perIorm what Iunction?
A39. Toggle.

22
Q40. What type oI counter has clock pulses applied to all FFs?
A40. Synchronous.

Q41. In Iigure 3-24, view A, what logic element enables FF3 to
toggle with the clock?
A41. The AND gate.

Q42. What is the largest count that can be indicated by a Iour-stage
counter?
A42. 11112, or 1510.

Q43. How many stages are required Ior a decade counter?
A43. Four.

Q44. In Iigure 3-25, which two FFs must be HIGH to reset the
counter?
A44. FFs 2 and 4.

Q45. In Iigure 3-26, view A, which AND gate causes FF3 to set?
A45. Two.

Q46. Which AND gate causes FF3 to reset?
A46. Three.

Q47. What causes the speciIied condition to shiIt position?
A47. The input, or clock pulse.

Q48. II the speciIied state is OFF, how many FFs may be oII at one
time?
A48. One.

Q49. How many FFs are required to count down Irom 1510?
A49. Four.

Q50. What signal causes FF2 to toggle?
A50. Q output oI FF 1 going LOW.

Q51. How many stages are required to store a 16-bit word?
A51. 16.

Q52. Simultaneous transIer oI data may be accomplished with
what type oI register?
A52. Parallel.

Q53. How are erroneous transIers oI data prevented?
A53. By clearing the register.

Q54. Serial-to-parallel and parallel-to-serial conversions are
accomplished by what type oI circuit?
A54. ShiIt register.

Q55. What type oI data transIer requires the most time?
A55. Serial.

Q56. What is the main disadvantage oI parallel transIer?
A56. Requires more circuitry.

Q57. How many FFs would be required Ior an 8-bit shiIt register?
A57. Eight.

Q58. How many clock pulses are required to output a 4-bit number
in serial Iorm?
A58. Four.

Q59. Two shiIts to the leIt are equal to increasing the magnitude oI
a number by how much?
A59. 22, or Iour times.

Q60. To increase the magnitude oI a number by 23, you must shiIt
the number how many times and in what direction?
A60. Three to the leIt.

Q61. What are RTL, DTL, and TTL examples oI?
A61. Logic Iamilies.

Q62. What type oI logic Iamily uses diodes in the input?
A62. DTL (diode transistor logic).

Q63. What is the most common type oI integrated circuit
packaging Iound in military equipment?
A63. DIPs (dual inline packages).
Q64. Circuits that can be interconnected without additional
circuitry are known as circuits.
A64. Compatible.

Microelectronics

Q1. What problems were evident about military electronic systems
during World War II?
A1. Size, weight, and power consumption.

Q2. What discovery opened the door to solid-state electronics?
A2. The transistor and solid-state diode.

Q3. What is microelectronics?
A3. Technology oI electronic systems made oI extremely small
electronic parts or elements.

Q4. What discovery proved to be the Ioundation Ior the
development oI the vacuum tube?
A4. The Edison EIIect.

Q5. Name the components which greatly increase the weight oI
vacuum-tube circuitry.
A5. TransIormers, capacitors, and resistors.

Q6. What are the disadvantages oI point-to-point wiring?
A6. "Rat's nest" appearance and unwanted interaction, such as
capacitive and inductive eIIects.

Q7. What is a major advantage oI modular construction?
A7. Rapid repair oI systems and improved eIIiciency.

Q8. When designing vacuum-tube circuits, what characteristics oI
tubes must be taken into consideration?
A8. DiIIerences in perIormance oI tubes oI the same type.

Q9. List the major advantages oI printed circuit boards.
A9. Eliminate heavy chassis and point-to-point wiring.

Q10. What is the major disadvantage oI printed circuit boards?
A10. Components soldered in place.

Q11. The ability to place more components in a given space is an
advantage oI the .
A11. Cordwood module.

Q12. DeIine integrated circuit.
A12. Elements inseparably associated and Iormed in or on a single
substrate.

Q13. What are the three major types oI integrated circuits?
A13. Monolithic, Iilm, and hybrid.

Q14. How do monolithic ICs diIIer Irom Iilm ICs?
A14. Monolithic ICs contain active and passive elements. Film ICs
contain only passive elements.

Q15. What is a hybrid IC?
A15. Combination oI monolithic ICs and Iilm components.
23

Q16. How many logic gates could be contained in lsi?
A16. 1,000 to 2,000.

Q17. What are the basic steps in manuIacturing an IC?
A17. Circuit design, component placement, suitable substrate, and
depositing proper materials on substrate.

Q18. Computer-aided layout is used to prepare devices.
A18. Complex.

Q19. What purpose do masks serve?
A19. Control patterns oI materials on substrates.

Q20. What type oI substrates are used Ior Iilm and hybrid ICs?
A20. Glass or ceramic.

Q21. Describe the preparation oI a silicon substrate.
A21. Crystal is sliced into waIers. Then ground and polished to
remove any surIace deIect.

Q22. Name the two types oI monolithic IC construction discussed.
A22. DiIIusion; epitaxial growth.

Q23. How do the two types oI monolithic IC construction diIIer?
A23. DiIIusion penetrates substrate; epitaxial does not.

Q24. What is isolation?
A24. Electrical separation oI elements.

Q25. What methods are used to deposit thin-Iilm components on a
substrate?
A25. Evaporation and cathode sputtering.

Q26. How are thick-Iilm components produced?
A26. Screening.

Q27. What is a hybrid IC?
A27. Combination oI monolithic and Iilm elements.

Q28. What is the primary advantage oI hybrid circuits?
A28. Circuit Ilexibility.

Q29. What is the purpose oI the IC package?
A29. Protect the IC Irom damage; make handling easier.

Q30. What are the three most common types oI packages?
A30. TO, Ilat pack, DIP.

Q31. What two methods oI manuIacture are being used to
eliminate bonding wires?
A31. Flip-chip, beam lead.

Q32. On DIP and Ilat-pack ICs viewed Irom the top, pin 1 is
located on which side oI the reIerence mark?
A32. LeIt.

Q33. DIP and Ilat-pack pins are numbered consecutively in what
direction?
A33. Counterclockwise.

Q34. DIP and Ilat-pack pins are numbered consecutively in what
direction?
A34. ReIerence mark.

Q35. Viewed Irom the bottom, TO-5 pins are counted in what
direction?
A35. Clockwise.

Q36. The numbers and letters on ICs and schematics serve what
purpose?
A36. IdentiIy the type oI IC.

Q37. Standardized terms improve what action between
individuals?
A37. Communication.

Q38. Microcircuit reIers to any component containing what types
oI elements?
A38. Integrated circuits.

Q39. Components made up exclusively oI discrete elements are
classiIied as what type oI electronics?
A39. Miniature.

Q40. Resistors, capacitors, transistors, and the like, are what level
oI packaging?
A40. Level 0.

Q41. Modules or submodules attached to a mother board are what
packaging level?
A41. Level I.

Q42. What is the packaging level oI a pcb?
A42. Level II.

Q43. What are the three most common methods oI
interconnections?
A43. Conventional printed circuit boards, multilayer printed circuit
boards and modular assemblies.

Q44. Name the three methods oI interconnecting components in
multilayer printed circuit boards.
A44. Clearance hole, plated-through hole, and layer build-up.

Q45. What is one oI the major disadvantages oI multilayer printed
circuit boards?
A45. DiIIiculty oI repair oI internal connections.

Q46. What was the earliest Iorm oI micromodule?
A46. Cordwood modules.

Q47. In what publication are environmental requirements Ior
equipment deIined?
A47. Procurement speciIications.

Q48. In what publication would you Iind guidelines Ior
perIormance oI military electronic parts?
A48. Military Standards.

Q49. Who is responsible Ior meeting environmental and electrical
requirements oI a system?
A49. Equipment designers (planners).

Q50. What methods are used to prevent unwanted component
interaction?
A50. Ground planes, shielding, component placement.

MINIATURE AND MICROMINIATURE REPAIR
PROCEDURES

Q1. What material is applied to electronic assemblies to prevent
damage Irom corrosion, moisture, and stress?
A1. ConIormal coating.

Q2. What three methods are used to remove protective material?
A2. Chemical, mechanical, and thermal.


24
Q3. What chemicals are used to remove protective material?
A3. Solvents or xylene and trichloroethane.

Q4. Abrasion, cutting, and peeling are examples oI what type oI
protective material removal?
A4. Mechanical.

Q5. Why should the coating material be replaced once the required
repair has been completed?
A5. To ensure protective characteristics are maintained.

Q6. What term is used to identiIy the procedure oI connecting one
side oI a circuit board with the other?
A6. InterIacial connections.

Q7. Name two types oI through-hole termination.
A7. Clinched lead, straight-through, and oIIset pad.

Q8. Turret, biIurcated, and hook terminals are used Ior what type
oI termination?
A8. Above-the-board termination.

Q9. When a lead is soldered to a pad without passing through the
board, it is known as what type oI termination?
A9. On-the-board termination.

Q10. When does most printed circuit board damage occur?
A10. During disassembly or repair.

Q11. What procedure involves the use oI Iinely braided copper
wire to remove solder?
A11. Wicking.

Q12. What is the most eIIective method oI solder removal?
A12. Continuous vacuum.

Q13. When, iI at all, should the heat-and-shake or the heat-and-
pull methods oI solder removal be used?
A13. These methods should not be used.

Q14. To what standards should a technician restore electronic
assemblies?
A14. ManuIacturer's standards.

Q15. How is oxide removed Irom pads and component leads?
A15. A Iine abrasive.

Q16. Leads are Iormed approximately how many degrees Irom
their major axis?
A16. 90 degrees.

Q17. When you replace components, identiIication marks must
meet what requirements?
A17. They should be readable Irom a single point.

Q18. In what direction are component leads clinched on single-
and double-sided boards?
A18. In the direction oI the run.

Q19. What is solderability?
A19. The ease with which molten solder wets the surIaces oI the
metals to be joined.

Q20. What is the most common source oI heat in electronic
soldering?
A20. Conductive-type soldering iron.

Q21. What determines the shape and size oI a soldering iron tip?
A21. The type oI work to be done.

Q22. What term describes a device used to conduct heat away Irom
a component?
A22. A thermal shunt.

Q23. What is the appearance oI a properly soldered joint?
A23. Bright and shiny with no cracks or pits.

Q24. When removing the component, under what circumstances
may component leads be clipped?
A24. II the component is known to be deIective or iI the board may
be damaged by normal desoldering.

Q25. How are imbedded TOs removed once the leads are Iree?
A25. By pushing it gently out oI the board.

Q26. How is a Ilat pack removed Irom a pcb?
A26. Heat each lead and liIt with tweezers.

Q27. How do you prevent excessive heat buildup on an area oI a
board when soldering multilead components?
A27. Use a skipping pattern.

Q28. What are the two Iinal steps oI any repair?
A28. Inspect and test.

Q29. List three causes oI damage to printed circuit boards.
A29. Operational Iailures, repairs by untrained personnel, repair
using improper tools, mishandling, improper shipping, packaging,
and storage.

Q30. What is the preIerred method oI repairing cracked runs on
boards?
A30. Clinched staple.

Q31. Damaged or missing termination pads are replaced using
what procedure?
A31. Epoxy a replacement pad to the board, set an eyelet, and
solder it.

Q32. How is board damage caused by technicians?
A32. Repairs by untrained personnel and technicians using
improper tools.

Q33. What combination oI materials is used to patch or build up
damaged areas oI boards?
A33. Epoxy and Iiberglass powder.

Q34. List two causes oI damage to ESD-sensitive electronic
components.
A34. Esd, improper stowage, and improper handling.

Q35. What is the purpose oI the wrist ground strap?
A35. To discharge any static charge built up in the body.

Q36. What is the cause oI most accidents?
A36. Deviation Irom prescribed saIe operating procedures.

MINIATURE/MICROMINIATURE (2M) REPAIR
PROGRAM AND HIGH-RELIABILITY SOLDERING

Q1. Training requirements Ior (2M) repair personnel were
developed under guidelines established by what organization?
A1. ChieI oI Naval Operations (CNO).

Q2. What agencies provide training, tools, equipment, and
certiIication oI the 2M system?
A2. Naval Sea Systems Command (NAVSEASYSCOM) and
Naval Air Systems Command (NAVAIRSYSCOM).

25
Q3. To perIorm microminiature component repair, a 2M technician
must be currently certiIied in what area?
A3. Microminiature component repair.

Q4. Multilayer printed circuit board repair is the responsibility oI
what 2M repair technician?
A4. Microminiature repair technician.

Q5. What are the three levels oI maintenance?
A5. Depot, Intermediate, and Organizational.

Q6. Maintenance perIormed by the user activity is what
maintenance level?
A6. Organizational.

Q7. List the three groups oI test equipment used Ior Iault isolation
in 2M repair.
A7. On-line, oII-line, and General Purpose Electronic Test
Equipment (GPETE).

Q8. What test equipment continuously monitors electronic
systems?
A8. On-line.

Q9. NELAT and VAST are examples oI what type oI test
equipment?
A9. OII-line.

Q10. Stereoscopic-zoom microscopes and precision drill presses
are normally associated with what type oI repair station?
A10. Microminiature repair station.

Q11. Solder used in electronic repair is normally an alloy oI what
two elements?
A11. Tin and lead.

Q12. In soldering, what alloy changes directly Irom a solid state to
a liquid state?
A12. Eutectic.

Q13. Flux aids in soldering by removing what Irom surIaces to be
soldered?
A13. Oxides.

Q14. What type(s) oI Ilux should never be used on electronic
equipment?
A14. Chloride or (acid) and organic.

OSCILLATORS

Q-1. What are the two classiIications oI wave generators according
to their output waveshapes?
A-1. Sinusoidal and nonsinusoidal.

Q-2. What are the three networks used Ior Irequency-determining
devices?
A-2. RC, LC, and crystal.

Q-3. What is another name Ior nonsinusoidal oscillators?
A-3. Relaxation oscillators.

Q-4. What is a nonrotating device that produces alternating
current?
A-4. Oscillator.

Q-5. What are the three requirements necessary Ior oscillations to
exist in a circuit?
A-5. AmpliIication, regenerative Ieedback, and Irequency-
determining device.

Q-6. What type oI Ieedback aids an input signal?
A-6. Regenerative or positive.

Q-7. What are the two methods used Ior Ieedback coupling?
A-7. Inductive and capacitive.

Q-8. Which oscillator uses a tickler coil Ior Ieedback?
A-8. Armstrong.

Q-9. Which oscillator uses a tapped inductor Ior Ieedback?
A-9. Hartley.

Q-10. Which oscillator uses tapped capacitors Ior Ieedback?
A-10. Colpitts.

Q-11. What are the three basic conIigurations oI transistor
oscillators?
A-11. Common collector (CC), common emitter (CE), and
common base (CB).

Q-12. What is the main diIIerence between the Armstrong
oscillator and the Hartley oscillator?
A-12. Feedback coil. Armstrong uses a separate coil. Hartley uses
a tapped coil.

Q-13. What is the diIIerence between the series-Ied and the shunt-
Ied Hartley oscillator?
A-13. In the series-Ied Hartley oscillator, dc Ilows through the tank
circuit.

Q-14. What is the identiIying Ieature oI a Colpitts oscillator?
A-14. Split capacitors.

Q-15. Which components provide the regenerative Ieedback signal
in the phase-shiIt oscillator?
A-15. Resistor-capacitor networks.

Q-16. Why is a high-gain transistor used in the phase-shiIt
oscillator?
A-16. Because oI the losses encountered in the RC networks.

Q-17. Which RC network provides better Irequency stability,
three-section or Iour-section?
A-17. Four-section.

Q-18. What is the impedance oI a crystal at its resonant Irequency
when it is used in the parallel mode?
A-18. Maximum.

Q-19. What is the impedance oI a crystal at its resonant Irequency
when it is used in the series mode?
A-19. Minimum.

Q-20. Oscillators that are turned on and oII at a speciIic time are
known as what type oI oscillators?
A-20. Pulsed oscillators.

Q-21. What is the polarity oI the Iirst alternation oI the tank circuit
in an emitter-loaded npn pulsed oscillator?
A-21. Negative.

Q-22. What is the Irequency that is twice the Iundamental
Irequency?
A-22. Second harmonic.

Q-23. What is the purpose oI the buIIer ampliIier?
A-23. Reduce interaction between oscillator and load.



26
POWER SUPPLIES
Q1. What are the Iour basic sections to a power supply?
A1. TransIormer, rectiIier, Iilter, regulator.

Q2. What is the purpose oI the regulator?
A2. To maintain a constant voltage to the load.

Q3. What are the purposes oI the transIormer in a power supply?
A3. It couples the power supply to the ac line voltage, isolates the
ac line voltage Irom the load, and steps this voltage up or down to
the desired level.

Q4. For what are the low voltage windings in a transIormer used?
A4. Filament voltage to the electron tubes.

Q5. For what is the center tap on a transIormer used?
A5. Provides capability oI developing two high-voltage outputs.

Q6. Does a rectiIier tube conduct on the positive or negative
alternation oI the input signal?
A6. Positive.

Q7. What term is used to describe the period when the diode is not
conducting?
A7. CutoII.

Q8. Current that Ilows in pulses in the same direction is called
.
A8. Pulsating dc.

Q9. For a diode to act as a rectiIier, should it be connected in series
or parallel with the load?
A9. Series.

Q10. What is the Ripple Irequency oI a halI-wave rectiIier iI the
input Irequency is 60 Hz?
A10. 60 hertz.

Q11. What is the equation Ior determining average voltage in a
halI-wave rectiIier?
A11. Eavg 0.318 Emax.

Q12. What is the ripple Irequency oI a Iull-wave rectiIier with an
input Irequency oI 60 Hz?
A12. 120 hertz.

Q13. What is the average voltage (Eavg) output oI a Iull-wave
rectiIier that has an output oI 100 volts peak?
A13. 63.6 volts.

Q14. What is the main disadvantage oI the conventional Iull-wave
rectiIier?
A14. The peak voltage is halI that oI a halI-wave rectiIier.

Q15. What main advantage does a bridge rectiIier have over a
conventional Iull-wave rectiIier?
A15. The bridge rectiIier can produce double the voltage with the
same size transIormer.

Q16. II you increase the value oI the capacitor will the XC increase
or decrease? Why?
A16. Decrease-Capacitance is inversely proportional to XC.

Q17. What is the most basic type oI Iilter?
A17. Capacitor.

Q18. In a capacitor Iilter, is the capacitor in series or parallel with
the load?
A18. Parallel.

Q19. Is better Iiltering achieved at a high Irequency or at a low
Irequency at the input oI the Iilter?
A19. High.

Q19. Is better Iiltering achieved at a high Irequency or at a low
Irequency at the input oI the Iilter?
A20. Increase.

Q21. What determines the rate oI discharge oI the capacitor in a
Iilter circuit?
A21. Value oI capacitance and load resistance.

Q22. Does low ripple voltage indicate good or bad Iiltering?
A22. Good.

Q23. Is a Iull-wave rectiIier output easier to Iilter than that oI a
halI-wave rectiIier?
A23. Yes.

Q24. In an LC choke-input Iilter, what prevents the rapid charging
oI the capacitor?
A24. Counter electro-motive Iorce oI the inductor.

Q25. What is the value usually chosen Ior a Iilter choke?
A25. 1 to 20 henries.

Q26. II the inductance oI a choke-input Iilter is increased, will the
output ripple voltage amplitude (Er) increase or decrease?
A26. Decrease.

Q27. Is an RC Iilter used when a large current or a small current
demand is required?
A27. Small.

Q28. Why is the use oI large value capacitors in Iilter circuits
discouraged?
A28. Expense.

Q29. When is a second RC Iilter stage used?
A29. When ripple must be held at an absolute minimum.

Q30. What is the most commonly used Iilter in use today?
A30. LC capacitor-input Iilter.

Q31. What are the two main disadvantages oI an LC capacitor
Iilter?
A31. Cost oI the inductor and size oI the inductor.

Q32. What two Iactors can cause output dc voltage to change?
A32. Ac line voltage and a change in load resistance.

Q33. What is the commonly used Iigure oI merit Ior a power
supply?
A33. Percent oI regulator.

Q34. II a power supply produces 20 volts with no load and 15 volts
under Iull load, what is the percent oI regulation?
A34. 33.33

Q35. What percent oI regulation would be ideal?
A35. 0.

Q36. The purpose oI a voltage regulator is to provide an output
voltage with little or no .
A36. Variation.

Q37. The two basic types oI voltage regulators are and
.
A37. Series and shunt.

27
Q38. When a series voltage regulator is used to control output
voltages, any increase in the input voltage results in an increase/a
decrease in the resistance oI the regulating device A38. Increase.

Q39. A shunt type voltage regulator is connected in series/parallel
with the load resistance.
A39. Parallel.

Q40. In an electron tube regulator, the electron tube replaces what
component?
A40. Variable resistor.

Q41. What is the purpose oI the amperite regulator?
A41. Current regulation.

Q42. As the tube Iilaments in the load heat up, will the circuit
current increase or decrease?
A42. Decrease.

Q43. What is the most important thing to remember when
troubleshooting?
A43. SaIety precautions.

Q44. What is the main reason Ior grounding the return side oI the
transIormer to the chassis?
A44. Reduce the cost oI manuIacturing equipment.

Q45. What are two types oI checks used in troubleshooting power
supplies?
A45. Visual and signal tracing.


SCHEMATIC READING

Q1. Why must cables and wires be identiIied?
A1. To provide the technician with a means to trace the wires
when troubleshooting and repairing electrical and electronic
systems.

Q2. Where would you Iind the wire identiIication system Ior a
speciIic piece oI equipment?
A2. In the technical manual Ior the equipment.

Q3. What does the cable number identiIy?
A3. Individual cable in a speciIic circuit.

Q4. II a wire passes through a connector what portion oI the
aircraIt wire identiIication number changes?
A4. Wire segment letter.

Q5. What markings are Iound on spaghetti sleeving?
A5. The conductor connections both "to" and "Irom."

Q6. What is the purpose oI the green conductor in a power tool or
electrical appliance cable?
A6. To prevent electrical shock to the operator in case there is an
electrical short to the Irame oI the appliance or too.

Q7. What type oI electrical diagram is used to identiIy the
components oI a system?
A7. A pictorial diagram.

Q8. What type oI diagram is used to Iind the location oI a
component?
A8. An isometric diagram.

Q9. What types oI diagrams are the most convenient Irom which to
learn the basic Iunctions oI a circuit?
A9. Block or single-line diagram.

Q10. What type oI diagram is the most useIul in learning the
overall operation oI a system?
A10. A schematic diagram.

Q11. ReIer to the schematic diagram in Iigure 3-10. II the ignition
switch is placed in the ON position and all the engine instruments
operate properly except the gas gauge, where would the Iault
probably be?
A11. Between point (3) and the gas gauge tank unit ground.

Q12. II the Iuse shown on the schematic (Iigure 3-10) opens, what
lights will operate?
A12. Only the brake lights.

Q13. What type oI diagram is the most detailed?
A13. Wiring diagram.

Q14. Why must a wiring diagram be used in conjunction with a
schematic to troubleshoot a system?
A14. To Iind the test points.

Q15. What type oI diagram would be most useIul Ior wiring a
relay into a circuit?
A15. Terminal diagram.

Q16. What saIety precaution must you observe when soldering or
hot-wire stripping Iluoroplastic
insulated wire?
A16. Adequate ventilation.

Q17. What must be used to test an activated circuit?
A17. Approved meters or other indicating devices.

Q18. How should excess solder be removed Irom a hot soldering
iron?
A18. By use oI a cleaning cloth.

SEMICONDUCTOR DIODES

Q1. What is a solid-state device?
A1. An electronic device that operates by virtue oI the movement
oI electrons within a solid piece oI semiconductor material.

Q2. DeIine the term negative temperature coeIIicient.
A2. It is the decrease in a semiconductor`s resistance as
temperature rises.

Q3. Name three oI the largest users oI semiconductor devices.
A3. Space systems, computers, and data processing equipment.

Q4. State one requirement oI an electron tube, which does not exist
Ior semiconductors, that makes the tube less eIIicient than the
semiconductor.
A4. The electron tube requires Iilament or heater voltage, whereas
the semiconductor device does not; consequently, no power input
is spent by the semiconductor Ior conduction.

Q5. DeIine matter and list its three diIIerent states.
A5. Anything that occupies space and has weight. Solid, liquid,
and gas.

Q6. What is the smallest particle into which an element can be
broken down and still retain all its original properties?
A6. The atom.

Q7. What are the three particles that comprise an atom and state
the type oI charge they hold?
A7. Electrons-negative, protons-positive, and neutrons-neutral.


28
Q8. What is the outer shell oI an atom called?
A8. The valence shell.

Q9. What term is used to describe the deIinite discrete amounts oI
energy required to move an electron Irom a low shell to a higher
shell?
A9. Quanta.

Q10. What is a negative ion?
A10. A negatively charged atom having more than its normal
amount oI electrons.

Q11. What is the main diIIerence in the energy arrangement
between an isolated atom and the atom in a solid?
A11. The energy levels oI an atom in a solid group together to
Iorm energy bands, whereas the isolated atom does not.

Q12. What determines, in terms oI energy bands, whether a
substance is a good insulator, semiconductor, or conductor?
A12. The width oI the Iorbidden band.

Q13. What determines the chemical activity oI an atom?
A13. The number oI electrons in the valence shell.

Q14. What is the term used to describe the sharing oI valence
electrons between two or more atoms?
A14. Covalent bonding.

Q15. Name the two types oI current Ilow in a semiconductor.
A15. Electron Ilow and hole Ilow.

Q16. What is the name given to a piece oI pure semiconductor
material that has an equal number oI electrons and holes?
A16. Intrinsic.

Q17. What is the name given to a doped germanium crystal with
an excess oI Iree holes?
A17. P-type crystal.

Q18. What are the majority carriers in an N-type semiconductor?
A18. Electrons.

Q19. What is the purpose oI a PN junction diode?
A19. To convert alternating current into direct current.

Q20. In reIerence to the schematic symbol Ior a diode, do electrons
Ilow toward or away Irom the arrow?
A20. Toward the arrow.

Q21. What type oI PN diode is Iormed by using a Iine metal wire
and a section oI N-type semiconductor material?
A21. Point-contact.

Q22. What are the majority carriers in a P-type semiconductor?
A22. Holes.

Q23. Conduction in which type oI semiconductor material is
similar to conduction in a copper wire?
A23. N-type material.

Q24. What is the name oI the area in a PN junction that has a
shortage oI electrons and holes?
A24. Depletion region.

Q25. In order to reverse bias in a PN junction, what terminal oI a
battery is connected to the P material?
A25. Negative.

Q26. What type oI bias opposes the PN junction barrier?
A26. Forward.

Q27. What is a load?
A27. Any device that draws current.

Q28. What is the output oI a halI-wave rectiIier?
A28. A pulsating dc voltage.

Q29. What type oI rectiIier is constructed by sandwiching a section
oI semiconductor material between two metal plates?
A29. Metallic rectiIier.

Q30. What type oI bias makes a diode act as a closed switch?
A30. Forward bias.

Q31. What is used to show how diode parameters vary over a Iull
operating range?
A31. A characteristic curve.

Q32. What is meant by diode ratings?
A32. They are the limiting values oI operating conditions outside
which operations could cause diode damage.

Q33. What does the letter "N" indicate in the semiconductor
identiIication system?
A33. A semiconductor.

Q34. What type oI diode has orange, blue, and gray bands?
A34. 1N368.

Q35. What is the greatest threat to a diode?
A35. Heat.

Q36. When checking a diode with an ohmmeter, what is indicated
by two high resistance measurements?
A36. The diode is open or has a high-Iorward resistance.

SOLID-STATE POWER SUPPLIES

Q1. What are the Iour basic sections oI a power supply?
A1. TransIormer, rectiIier, Iilter, regulator.

Q2. What is the purpose oI the rectiIier section?
A2. To change ac to pulsating dc.

Q3. What is the purpose oI the Iilter section?
A3. To change pulsating dc to pure dc.

Q4. What is the purpose oI the regulator section?
A4. To maintain a constant voltage to the load.

Q5. What is the name oI the simplest type oI rectiIier which uses
one diode?
A5. The halI-wave rectiIier.

Q6. II the output oI a halI-wave rectiIier is 50-volts peak, what is
the average voltage?
A6. 15.9 volts.

Q7. In addition to stepping up or stepping down the input line
voltage, what additional purpose does the transIormer serve?
A7. It isolates the chassis Irom the power line.

Q8. What was the major Iactor that led to the development oI the
Iull-wave rectiIier?
A8. The Iact that the Iull-wave rectiIier uses the Iull output, both
halI cycles, oI the transIormer.

Q9. What is the ripple Irequency oI a Iull-wave rectiIier with an
input Irequency oI 60 Hz?
A9. 120 hertz.
29

Q10. What is the average voltage (Eavg) Output oI a Iull-wave
rectiIier with an output oI 100 volts peak?
A10. 63.7 volts.

Q11. What is the main disadvantage oI a conventional Iull-wave
rectiIier?
A11. Peak voltage is halI that oI the halI-wave rectiIier.

Q12. What main advantage does a bridge rectiIier have over a
conventional Iull-wave rectiIier?
A12. The bridge rectiIier can produce twice the voltage with the
same size transIormer.

Q13. II you increase the value oI the capacitor, will the XC
increase or decrease? Why?
A13. It will decrease. Capacitance is inversely proportional to:

Q14. What is the most basic type oI Iilter?
A14. The capacitor Iilter.

Q15. In a capacitor Iilter, is the capacitor in series or in parallel
with the load?
A15. Parallel.

Q16. Is Iiltering better at a high Irequency or at a low Irequency?
A16. At a high Irequency.

Q17. Does a Iilter circuit increase or decrease the average output
voltage?
A17. A Iilter circuit increases the average output voltage.

Q18. What determines the rate oI discharge oI the capacitor in a
Iilter circuit?
A18. Value oI capacitance and load resistance.

Q19. Does low ripple voltage indicate good or bad Iiltering?
A19. Good.

Q20. Is a Iull-wave rectiIier output easier to Iilter than that oI a
halI-wave rectiIier?
A20. Yes.

Q21. In an LC choke-input Iilter, what prevents the rapid charging
oI the capacitor?
A21. The CEMF oI the inductor.

Q22. What is the range oI values usually chosen Ior a choke?
A22. From 1 to 20 henries.

Q23. II the impedance oI the choke is increased, will the ripple
amplitude increase or decrease?
A23. Decrease.

Q24. Why is the use oI large value capacitors in Iilter circuits
discouraged?
A24. Expense.

Q25. When is a second RC Iilter stage used?
A25. When ripple must be held at an absolute minimum.

Q26. What is the most commonly used Iilter today?
A26. LC capacitor-input Iilter.

Q27. What are the two main disadvantages oI an LC capacitor
Iilter?
A27. Cost and size oI the inductor.

Q28. Circuits which maintain constant voltage or current outputs
are called dc voltage or dc current .
A28. Regulators.

Q29. The purpose oI a voltage regulator is to provide an output
voltage with little or no .
A29. Variation.

Q30. The two basic types oI voltage regulators are and .
A30. Series and shunt.

Q31. When a series voltage regulator is used to control output
voltages, any increase in the input voltage results in an increase/a
decrease (which one) in the resistance oI the regulating device.
A31. An increase.

Q32. A shunt-type voltage regulator is connected in serial/parallel
(which one) with the load resistance.
A32. In parallel.


Q33. In Iigure 4-37, the voltage drop across RS and R1 determines
the amount oI base-emitter Ior Q1.
A33. Bias.


Q34. In Iigure 4-39, view A, when there is an increase in the input
voltage, the Iorward bias oI Q1 increases/decreases (which one).
A34. Increases.


Q35. In view B oI Iigure 4-39, when the load current increases and
the output voltage momentarily drops, the resistance oI Q1
increase/decreases (which one) to compensate.
A35. Increases.

30

Q36. In Iigure 4-40, when there is an increase in the load resistance
(R L), the resistance oI R V increases/decreases (which one) to
compensate Ior the change.
A36. Decreases.


Q37. In Iigure 4-43 any decrease in the base-emitter Iorward bias
across Q1 results in an increase/a decrease (which one) in the
resistance oI the transistor.
A37. An increase.

Q38. A halI-wave voltage doubler is made up oI how many halI-
wave rectiIiers?
A38. Two.

Q39. II a halI-wave rectiIier is added to a halI-wave voltage
doubler, the resulting circuit is a voltage
.
A39. Trippler.

Q40. In a Iull-wave voltage doubler, are the capacitors connected
in series or in parallel with the output load?
A40. In parallel.

Q41. What is the most important thing to remember when
troubleshooting?
A41. SaIety precautions.

Q42. What is the main reason Ior grounding the return side oI the
transIormer to the chassis?
A42. To eliminate shock hazard.

Q43. What are two types oI checks used in troubleshooting power
supplies?
A43. Visual and signal tracing.

SPECIAL AMPLIFIERS

Q-1. How many inputs and outputs are possible with a diIIerential
ampliIier?
A-1. Two inputs, two outputs.

Q-2. What two transistor ampliIier conIigurations are combined in
the single-transistor, two-input, single-output diIIerence ampliIier?
A-2. Common emitter (CE) and common base (CB).

Q-3. II the two input signals oI a diIIerence ampliIier are in phase
and equal in amplitude, what will the output signal be?
A-3. No output (the signals will "cancel out").

Q-4. II the two input signals to a diIIerence ampliIier are equal in
amplitude and 180 degrees out oI phase, what will the output
signal be?
A-4. Equal in shape and Irequency to each input signal and larger
in amplitude by two times than either input signal.

Q-5. II only one input signal is used with a diIIerence ampliIier,
what will the output signal be?
A-5. Equal in shape and Irequency to the input signal; larger in
amplitude than the input signal; halI as large in amplitude as when
two input signals were used that were 180 degrees out oI phase.

Q-6. II the two input signals to a diIIerence ampliIier are equal in
amplitude but neither in phase nor 180 degrees out oI phase, what
will the output signal be?
A-6. A diIIerent shape than the input signals but larger in
amplitude.

Q-7. II the diIIerential ampliIier is conIigured with a single input
and a single output, what will the peak-to-peak amplitude oI the
output signal be?
A-7. 100 millivolts.

Q-8. II the diIIerential ampliIier is conIigured with a single input
and diIIerential outputs, what will the output signals be?
A-8. Each output will be a sine wave with a peak-to-peak
amplitude oI 100 millivolts. The output signals will be 180 degrees
out oI phase with each other.

Q-9. II the single-input, diIIerential-output, diIIerential ampliIier
has an output signal taken between the two output terminals, what
will the peak-to-peak amplitude oI this combined output be?
A-9. 200 millivolts.

In answering Q10 through Q14 use the Iollowing inIormation: A
diIIerential ampliIier is conIigured with a diIIerential input and a
diIIerential output. All input signals are sine waves with a peak-to-
peak amplitude oI 10 millivolts. The gain oI the diIIerential
ampliIier is 10.

Q-10. II the input signals are in phase, what will be the peak-to-
peak amplitude oI the output signals?
A-10. 0 volts (the input signals will "cancel out").

Q-11. II the input signals are 180 degrees out oI phase with each
other, what will be the peak-to-peak amplitude oI the output
signals?
A-11. Each output signal will be 100 millivolts.

Q-12. II the input signals are 180 degrees out oI phase with each
other, what will the phase relationship be between (a) the output
signals and (b) the input and output signals?
A-12.
a. 180 degrees out oI phase with each other.
b. Output signal number one will be in phase with input
signal number two; output signal number two will be in phase with
input signal number one.

Q-13. II the input signals are 180 degrees out oI phase with each
other and a combined output is taken between the two output
terminals, what will the amplitude oI the combined output signal
be?
A-13. 200 millivolts.




31
Q-14. II the input signals are 90 degrees out oI phase with each
other and a combined output is taken between the two output
terminals, (a) what will the peak-to-peak amplitude oI the
combined output signal be, and (b) will the combined output signal
be a sine wave?
A-14.
a. 100 millivolts.
b. No.

Q-15. What are the three requirements Ior an operational
ampliIier?
A-15. Very high gain, very high input impedance, very low output
impedance.

Q-16. What is the most commonly used Iorm oI the operational
ampliIier?
A-16. An integrated circuit (chip).

Q-17. Draw the schematic symbol Ior an operational ampliIier.
A-17.



Q-18. Label the parts oI the operational ampliIier shown in Iigure
3-12.

A-18.
a. DiIIerential ampliIier.
b. Voltage ampliIier.
c. Output ampliIier.

Q-19. What does the term "closed-loop" mean in the closed-loop
conIiguration oI an operational ampliIier?
A-19. The use oI degenerative (negative) Ieed-back.

In answering Q20, Q21, and Q23, select the correct response Irom
the choices given in the parentheses.

Q-20. In a closed-loop conIiguration the output signal is
determined by (the input signal, the Ieedback signal, both).
A-20. Both the input signal and the Ieedback signal.

Q-21. In the inverting conIiguration, the input signal is applied to
the (a) (inverting, noninverting) input and the Ieedback signal is
applied to the (b) (inverting, noninverting) input.
A-21.
a. Inverting.
b. Inverting.

Q-22. In the inverting conIiguration, what is the voltage (Ior all
practical purposes) at the inverting input to the operational
ampliIier iI the input signal is a 1-volt, peak-to-peak sine wave?
A-22. 0 volts.

Q-23. In the inverting conIiguration when the noninverting input is
grounded, the inverting input is at (signal, virtual) ground.
A-23. Virtual.

Q-24. In a circuit such as that shown in Iigure 3-15, iI R1 has a
value oI 100 ohms and R2 has a value oI 1 kilohm and the input
signal is at a value oI 5 millivolts, what is the value oI the output
signal?
A-24. -50 millivolts.

Q-25. II the unity-gain point oI the operational ampliIier used in
question 24 is 500 kilohertz, what is the bandwidth oI the circuit?
A-25. 50 kilohertz (Gain 10; Gain-Bandwidth Product
500,000;


Q-26. In a circuit such as that shown in Iigure 3-16, iI R1 has a
value oI 50 ohms and R2 has a value oI 250 ohms and the input
signal has a value oI 10 millivolts, what is the value oI the output
signal?
A-26. 60 millivolts.

Q-27. II the open-loop gain oI the operational ampliIier used in
question 26 is 200,000 and the openloop bandwidth is 30 hertz,
what is the closed loop bandwidth oI the circuit?
A-27. 1 megahertz.
Open-loop Gain-Bandwidth Product Closed-loop
Gain-Bandwidth Prod.
Open-loop Gain-Bandwidth Product 200,000 30
(Hz)
Open-loop Gain Bandwidth Product 600,000
Closed-loop Gain Bandwidth Product 6 Bandwidth
6,000,000 6 Bandwidth
1,000,000 (Hz) Bandwidth

Q-28. What is the diIIerence between a summing ampliIier and an
adder circuit?
A-28. The adder simply adds the input signals together while the
summing ampliIier multiplies the sum oI the input signals by the
gain oI circuit.

Q-29. Can a summing ampliIier have more than two inputs?
A-29. Yes, a summing ampliIier can have as many inputs as
desired.

Q-30. What is a scaling ampliIier?
A-30. A summing ampliIier that applies a Iactor to each input
signal beIoreadding the results.

32


Q-31. What type oI circuit is Iigure 3-27?
A-31. A scaling ampliIier.

Q-32. II: E1 2V, and: E2 6V, then Eout ?
A-32.


Q-33. What is the diIIerence in potential between the inverting (-)
and noninverting () inputs to the operational ampliIier when: E1
6V, and E2 2V
A-33. 0 volts. (The two inputs to the operational ampliIier are both
at 0 volts.)

Q-34. What is the diIIerence between a subtractor and a diIIerence
ampliIier?
A-34. The diIIerence ampliIier multiplies the diIIerence between
the two inputs by the gain oI the circuitwhile the subtractor merely
subtracts one input signal Irom the other.

Q-35. Can a diIIerence ampliIier have more than two inputs?
A-35. No.



Q-36. What type oI circuit is Iigure 3-28?
A-36. A diIIerence ampliIier.

Q-37. II: E1 5V, and: E2 11V, then Eout ?
A-37.


Q-38. What is the diIIerence in potential between the inverting
(iDQGnoninverting () inputs to the operational ampliIier
when: E1 2V, and E2 4V
A-38. 0 volts. (The two inputs to the operational ampliIier are both
at the same potential.)

Q-39. What is the Irequency classiIication oI a magnetic ampliIier?
A-39. An audio (or low) Irequency power ampliIier.

Q-40. What is the basic principle oI a magnetic ampliIier?
A-40. A change in inductance in a series LR circuit causes a
change in true power.

Q-41. II inductance increases in a series LR circuit, what happens
to true power?
A-41. It decreases.

Q-42. II the permeability oI the core oI a coil increases, what
happens to (a) inductance and (b) true power in the circuit?
A-42. (a) Inductance increases; (b) true power decreases.

Q-43. What happens to the permeability oI an iron core as the
current increases Irom the operating point to a large value?
A-43. Permeability decreases.

Q-44. II two coils are wound on a single iron core, what will a
change in current in one coil cause in the other coil?
A-44. A change in inductance.

Q-45. What symbol in Iigure 3-33 indicates a saturable core
connecting two windings?
A-45.


Q-46. At what portion oI the magnetization curve should a
magnetic ampliIier be operated?
A-46. The knee oI the curve.

Q-47. How is the eIIect oI load Ilux on control Ilux eliminated in a
saturable-core reactor?
A-47. Use two load windings whose Ilux eIIects cancel in the core
oI the reactor or use two load windings on two toroidal cores so
that load Ilux always aids control Ilux in one core and opposes
control Ilux in the other core.

Q-48. What is the purpose oI the rectiIier in a magnetic ampliIier?
A-48. The rectiIier eliminates hysteresis loss.

Q-49. What is used to bias a magnetic ampliIier so that the control
winding remains Iree to accept control (input) signals?
A-49. A bias winding and associated circuitry.
33

Q-50. List two common usages oI magnetic ampliIiers.
A-50. Servosystems, temperature recorders, or power supplies.

SPECIAL DEVICES

Q1. In a reverse biased PN-junction, which current carriers cause
leakage current?
A1. The minority carriers.

Q2. The action oI a PN-junction during breakdown can be
explained by what two theories?
A2. Zener eIIect and avalanche eIIect.

Q3. Which breakdown theory explains the action that takes place
in a heavily doped PN-junction with a reverse bias oI less than 5
volts?
A3. Zener eIIect.

Q4. What is the doping level oI an avalanche eIIect diode when
compared to the doping level oI a Zener-eIIect diode?
A4. The doping level oI an avalanche eIIect diode is lower.

Q5. During avalanche eIIect breakdown, what limits current Ilow
through the diode?
A5. An external current-limiting resistor.

Q6. Why is electron Ilow with the arrow in the symbol oI a Zener
diode instead oI against the arrow as it is in a normal diode?
A6. Because Zener diodes are operated in the reverse bias mode.

Q7. What is the main diIIerence in construction between normal
PN junction diodes and tunnel diodes?
A7. The amount oI doping.

Q8. What resistance property is Iound in tunnel diodes but not in
normal diodes?
A8. Negative resistance.

Q9. When compared to the ordinary diode, the tunnel diode has
what type oI depletion region?
A9. The tunnel diode has a very narrow depletion region.

Q10. In the tunnel diode, the tunneling current is at what level
when the Iorbidden gap oI the N-type material is at the same
energy level as the empty states oI the P-type material?
A10. Minimum.

Q11. The varactor displays what useIul electrical property?
A11. Variable capacitance.

Q12. When a PN junction is Iorward biased, what happens to the
depletion region?
A12. The depletion region decreases.

Q13. When the reverse bias on a varactor is increased, what
happens to the eIIective capacitance?
A13. Capacitance decreases.

Q14. The SCR is primarily used Ior what Iunction?
A14. The SCR is primarily used Ior switching power on or oII.

Q15. When an SCR is Iorward biased, what is needed to cause it to
conduct?
A15. A gate signal.

Q16. What is the only way to cause an SCR to stop conducting?
A16. The Iorward bias must be reduced below the minimum
conduction level.

Q17. The TRIAC is similar in operation to what device?
A17. SCR.

Q18. When used Ior ac current control, during which alternation oI
the ac cycle does the TRIAC control current Ilow?
A18. During both alternations.

Q19. What type oI bias is required to cause an LED to produce
light?
A19. Forward bias.

Q20. When compared to incandescent lamps, what is the power
requirement oI an LED?
A20. Very low.

Q21. In a common anode, seven-segment LED display, an
individual LED will light iI a negative voltage is applied to what
element?
A21. The cathode.

Q22. What is the resistance level oI a photodiode in total darkness?
A22. Very high.

Q23. What type oI bias is required Ior proper operation oI a
photodiode?
A23. Reverse bias.

Q24. What is a typical light-to-dark resistance ratio Ior a
photocell?
A24. 1:1000.

Q25. What semiconductor device produces electrical energy when
exposed to light?
A25. Photovoltaic cell.

Q26. The UJT has how many PN junctions?
A26. One.

Q27. The area between base 1 and base 2 in a UJT acts as what
type oI common circuit component?
A27. Variable resistor.

Q28. The sequential rise in voltage between the two bases oI the
UJT is called what?
A28. A voltage gradient.

Q29. What is the normal current path Ior a UJT?
A29. From base 1 to the emitter.

Q30. What is one oI the primary advantages oI the FET when
compared to the bipolar transistor?
A30. High input impedance.

Q31. The FET and the vacuum tube have what in common?
A31. Voltage controls conduction.

Q32. The base oI a transistor serves a purpose similar to what
element oI the FET?
A32. Gate.

Q33. What are the two types oI JFET?
A33. N-channel and P-channel.

Q34. The source and drain oI an N-channel JFET are made oI what
type oI material?
A34. N-type material.

Q35. What is the key to FET operation?
A35. EIIective cross-sectional area oI the channel.

34
Q36. What is the normal current path in an N-channel JFET?
A36. From source to drain.

Q37. Applying a reverse bias to the gate oI an FET has what
eIIect?
A37. Source-to-drain resistance increases.

Q38. The input and output signals oI a JFET ampliIier have what
phase relationship?
A38. They are 180 degrees out oI phase.

Q39. When compared to the JFET, what is the input impedance oI
the MOSFET?
A39. The MOSFET has a higher input impedance.

Q40. What are the Iour elements oI the MOSFET?
A40. Gate, source, drain, and substrate.

Q41. The substrate oI an N-channel MOSFET is made oI what
material?
A41. P-type material.

Q42. In a MOSFET, which element is insulated Irom the channel
material?
A42. The gate terminal.

Q43. What type oI MOSFET can be independently controlled by
two separate signals?
A43. The dual-gate MOSFET.

Q44. What is the purpose oI the spring or wire around the leads oI
a new MOSFET?
A44. To prevent damage Irom static electricity.

SPECIAL-PURPOSE TUBES

Q1. What is the major diIIerence in grid construction between
power pentodes and conventional pentodes?
A1. Conventional pentodes have a staggered grid arrangement,
while power pentodes have a shielded grid arrangement.

Q2. Beam-Iorming tubes and power tubes are similar except that
power pentodes lack what element?
A2. Beam-Iorming plates.

Q3. What eIIect does the shielding oI the screen grid by the control
grid have on plate current in
beam-Iorming tetrodes?
A3. By increasing the number oI electrons that reach the plate,
plate current is increased.

Q4. What eIIect does a large negative input signal applied to a
variable-mu tube have on
a. conduction through the control grid, and
b. gain oI the tube?
A4. A large negative voltage causes conduction to occur only at
the center oI the grid

Q5. IdentiIy the type oI electron tube(s) that would be most
suitable Ior the Iollowing applications.
a. Power ampliIier
b. Voltage ampliIier with small signal inputs
c. Low distortion ampliIiers Ior use with large signal inputs
A5. Decreases gain.
a. Power pentode or beam-Iorming tetrode.
b. Conventional tube.
c. Variable-mu tube.

Q6. What eIIect does transit time have on a conventional triode
operated at uhI Irequencies?
A6. It causes the control grid to short to the cathode.

Q7. How do uhI tubes counter the eIIects oI transit time?
A7. By reducing the spacing between tube elements.

Q8. Why can acorn and doorknob tubes NOT handle large
amounts oI power?
A8. The close spacing oI tube elements allows Ior the ready
Iormation oI arcs or short circuits.

Q9. What type oI uhI tube was developed to handle large amounts
oI power?
A9. Planar

Q10. What are two advantages that gas-Iilled tubes have over
conventional electron tubes?
A10.
a. They can carry more current.
b. They maintain a constant IR drop across the tube.

Q11. Once ionization has occurred in a thyratron, what control
does the control grid have over the
tube`s operation?
A11. None.

Q12. What precautions should be exercised when using mercury-
vapor thyratrons?
A12. The Iilament`s voltage should be applied to the tube at least
30 seconds beIore attempting to operate the tube.

Q13. Cold-cathode tubes can be used as voltage regulators because
oI what characteristic?
A13. They have the ability to maintain a constant voltage drop
across the tube despite changes in current Ilow.

Q14. What is the unique ability oI the CRT?
A14. To visually display electronic signals.

Q15. What are the three main parts oI CRT?
A15.
a. Electron gun.
b. DeIlection system
c. Screen.

Q16. What term is used Ior the ability oI a spot on a CRT screen to
continue to glow aIter the electron bean has struck it and moved
away?
A16. Persistence.

Q17. The electron beam in a CRT is made to sweep Irom leIt to
right across the screen. What tube element causes this sweeping
motion?
A17. The horizontal-deIlection plate.

Q18. In applications where electronic waveIorms are displayed on
a CRT screen, the input signal is normally applied to what CRT
element?
A18. The vertical-deIlection plate.

Synchros

Q-1. What is the name given to a variety oI rotary
electromechanical, position sensing devices?
A-1. The synchro.

Q-2. What is the primary purpose oI a synchro system?
A-2. Precise and rapid transmission oI data between equipment and
stations.


35
Q-3. Name the two general classiIications oI synchro systems.
A-3. Torque and control.

Q-4. What is the diIIerence between a torque synchro and a control
synchro?
A-4. A torque synchro is used Ior light loads and a control synchro
is used in systems desired to move heavy loads.

Q-5. Using table 1-1, name two synchros that provide a mechanical
output.
A-5. The torque receiver (TR) and the torque diIIerential receiver
(TDR).

Q-6. What does the code 26V-11TX4D mean on a synchro
nameplate?
A-6. It is the third modiIication oI a 26-volt 400-hertz (torque)
synchro transmitter whose body diameter is between 1.01 and 1.10
inches.

Q-7. Which oI the two synchro designation codes is indicated by
5DG on a synchro nameplate?
A-7. The Navy prestandard designation code.

Q8. On the synchro schematic symbol, what indicates the angular
displacement oI the rotor?
A-8. The position oI the arrow.

Q-9. What are the two major components oI a synchro?
A-9. The rotor and the stator.

Q-10. Which oI the two main types oI rotors can have either a
single winding or three Y-connected windings?
A-10. The drum or wound rotor.

Q-11. How does the stator receive its voltage?
A-11. By the magnetic coupling Irom the rotor.

Q-12. Where are the external connections made on standard
synchros?
A-12. At the terminal board.

Q-13. What major Iactors determine the load capacity oI a torque-
synchro transmitter?
A-13. The number and type oI synchro receivers, the mechanical
loads on these receivers and the operating temperatures oI both the
transmitter and receivers.

Q-14. DeIine the term "torque."
A-14. A measure oI how much load a machine can turn.

Q-15. What unit oI measurement reIers to the torque oI a synchro
transmitter?
A-15. Ounce-inches.

Q-16. What type oI equipment normally uses 26-volt 400-hertz
synchros?
A-16. AircraIt.

Q-17. When will a synchro generate more heat than it is designed
to handle?
A-17. When it is overloaded.

Q-18. How do synchros diIIer Irom conventional transIormers?
A-18. Synchros have one primary winding that can be turned
through 360 and three secondary windings spaced 120 apart.

Q-19. Describe the zero-position oI a synchro transmitter.
A-19. The transmitter is in its zero-position when the rotor is
aligned with the S2 stator winding.

Q-20. When is the maximum voltage induced into a stator coil?
A-20. When the rotor coil is aligned with the stator coil.

Q-21. What three Iactors determine the amplitude oI the voltage
induced into a stator winding?
A-21. The amplitude oI the primary voltage, the turns ratio, and the
angular displacement between the rotor and the stator winding.

Q-22. What is the physical diIIerence between a synchro
transmitter and a synchro receiver?
A-22. A synchro receiver uses some Iorm oI damping to retard
excessive oscillations or spinning.

Q-23. What method is used to prevent oscillations in large synchro
units?
A-23. Mechanical damping.

Q-24. What two components make up a simple synchro
transmission system?
A-24. A synchro transmitter and a synchro receiver.

Q-25. What leads in a simple synchro system are connected to the
ac power line?
A-25. The rotor leads.

Q-26. What is the relationship between the transmitter and receiver
stator voltages when their rotors are in correspondence?
A-26. The voltages are equal and oppose each other.

Q-27. What is the name given to the angle through which a
transmitters rotor is mechanically rotated?
A-27. Signal.

Q-28. What two receiver leads are reversed to reverse the rotor's
direction oI rotation?
A-28. 1 and S3.

Q-29. What is the most likely problem iI the transmitter shaIt reads
0 when the receiver shaIt indicates 180?
A-29. The rotor leads on either the transmitter or the receiver are
reversed.

Q-30. What is the purpose oI using diIIerential synchros instead oI
regular synchros?
A-30. DiIIerential synchros can handle more signals than regular
synchros and also perIorm addition and subtraction Iunctions.

Q-31. What are the two types oI diIIerential synchros?
A-31. The TDX and the TDR.

Q-32. Other than their physical diIIerences, what is the major
diIIerence between a TDX and a TDR?
A-32. Their application: a TDX has one electrical and one
mechanical input with an electrical output.

Q-33. What determines whether a diIIerential synchro adds or
subtracts?
A-33. The way the diIIerential synchro is connected in a system is
the deciding Iactor on whether the unit adds or subtracts its inputs.

Q-34. In a TDX system when does the TR rotor Iollow the TX
rotor exactly?
A-34. When the TDX rotor is on 0.

Q-35. What is the angular position oI a TX rotor when it is
pointing toward the S1 winding? (Hint. Remember synchros are
labeled counter clockwise Irom 0.)
A-35. 240.

36
Q-36. In a TDX system with standard synchro connections, the TX
rotor is at 120 and the TDX rotor is at 40. What position will the
TR indicate?
A-36. 80.

Q-37. What connections in a TDX system are reversed to set up
the system Ior addition?
A-37. The S1 and S3 leads are reversed between the TX and the
TDX, and the R1 and R3 leads are reversed between the TDX rotor
and the TR.

Q-38. What connections in a TDR system are reversed to set up the
system Ior addition?
A-38. The R1 and R3 leads between the TDR rotor and the TX to
which it is connected.

Q-39. In a TDR system connected Ior addition in what direction
will the TDR rotor Iield turn when the
TX rotor to which it is connected turns counterclockwise?
A-39. Clockwise.

Q-40. What type oI synchro is used in systems requiring large
amounts oI power and a high degree oI accuracy?
A-40. A control synchro.

Q-41. What are the three types oI control synchros?
A-41. CX, CT, and CDX.

Q-42. How do the CX and CDX diIIer Irom the TX and TDX?
A-42. The CX and CDX have higher impedance windings.

Q-43. What three things prevent a CT rotor Irom turning when
voltages are applied to its stator windings?
A-43. The rotor is specially wound, it is never connected to an ac
supply, and its output is always applied to a high-impedance load.

Q-44. When a CT is on electrical zero, what is the relationship
between its rotor and the S2 winding?
A-44. They are perpendicular to each other.

Q-45. What is the amplitude and voltage induced into the rotor
when the CX is turned 90 while the CT remains on electrical
zero?
A-45. The voltage is maximum and in phase with the ac excitation
voltage to the CX.

Q-46. What is the name given to the electrical output oI a CT?
A-46. Error signal.

Q-47. In a control synchro system, when is the output oI the CT
reduced to zero?
A-47. When the CX and CT rotors are in correspondence.

Q-48. What is the purpose oI the synchro capacitor?
A-48. To improve overall synchro system accuracy by reducing
stator currents.

Q-49. What type oI synchros usually require the use oI synchro
capacitors?
A-49. TDXs, CDXs, and Cts.

Q-50. What type oI current is eliminated by synchro capacitors?
A-50. Magnetizing current.

Q-51. How are synchro capacitors connected in a circuit?
A-51. They are delta-connected across the stator windings.

Q-52. Why are synchro capacitors placed physically close to
diIIerentials transmitters and CTs?
A-52. To keep the connections as short as possible in order to
maintain system.

Q-53. What is the name given to the synchro system that transmits
data at two diIIerent speeds?
A-53. A dual or double-speed synchro system.

Q-54. What is the main reason Ior using a multispeed synchro
system instead oI a single-speed synchro system?
A-54. Greater accuracy without the loss oI selI-synchronous
operation.

Q-55. In a dual-speed synchro system what determines the two
speciIic speeds at which the data will be transmitted?
A-55. The gear ratio between the two transmitters.

Q-56. What type oI synchro system is used to transmit very large
quantities?
A-56. A tri-speed synchro system.

Q-57. What is the disadvantage oI using a double receiver instead
oI two individual receivers?
A-57. II one oI the receivers goes bad the entire unit must be
replaced.

Q-58. What is the purpose oI "stickoII voltage"?
A-58. It is used in synchro systems to prevent Ialse
synchronizations.

Q-59. What is the reIerence point Ior alignment oI all synchro
units?
A-59. Electrical zero.

Q-60. What is the most accurate method oI zeroing a synchro?
A-60. The voltmeter method.

Q-61. What is the purpose oI the coarse setting oI a synchro?
A-61. It ensures the synchro is on 0, not 180.

Q-62. When is a synchro receiver (TR) properly zeroed?
A-62. A TR is zeroed when electrical zero voltages exist across its
stator windings at the same time its rotor is on zero or on its
mechanical reIerence position.

Q-63. What should a voltmeter read when a TX is set on coarse
zero?
A-63. Approximately 37 volts.

Q-64. What precaution should you take when you use 115 volts to
zero a diIIerential?
A-64. Never leave the circuit energized Ior more than 2 minutes.

Q-65. Why should a synchro be rechecked Ior zero aIter it is
clamped down?
A-65. To ensure that it did not move oII zero while it was being
clamped.

Q-66. What is the output voltage oI a CT when it is set on
electrical zero?
A-66. Zero or minimum voltage.

Q-67. When you zero a multispeed synchro system which synchro
should you zero Iirst?
A-67. The coarse synchro.

Q-68. What method oI zeroing a synchro is perhaps the Iastest but
NOT necessarily the most accurate?
A-68. The electrical lock method.

37
Q-69. What restrictions are placed on the use oI the electrical lock
method?
A-69. It can be used only iI the leads oI the synchro are accessible
and the rotor is Iree to turn.

Q-70. When you zero a synchro with a synchro tester, what is
indicated by a jump in the synchro tester's dial when the S1 and S3
leads are momentarily shorted?
A-70. The synchro under test is not on electrical zero.

Q-71. What should you do with a synchro that has a bad set oI
bearings?
A-71. Replace it.
Q-72. Name two types oI trouble you would expect to Iind in a
newly installed synchro system.
A-72. Improper wiring and misalignment.

Q-73. What type oI indicator is usually placed in the stator circuit
oI a torque synchro system?
A-73. An overload indicator.

Q-74. What is the most probable cause oI trouble in a synchro
system that has all oI its receivers reading incorrectly?
A-74. The transmitter or main bus.

Q-75. II an ac voltmeter is connected between the S2 and S3
windings on a TX, at what two rotor positions should the voltmeter
read maximum voltage?
A-75. 150 and 330

Q-76. What precaution should you take when substituting a
synchro tester in a circuit Ior a transmitter?
A-76. Use only one receiver so as not to overload the tester.

TRANSISTORS

Q1. What is the name given to the semiconductor device that has
three or more elements?
A1. Transistor

Q2. What electronic Iunction made the transistor Iamous?
A2. AmpliIication.

Q3. In which direction does the arrow point on an NPN transistor?
A3. Outward.

Q4. What was the name oI the very Iirst transistor?
A4. Point-contact.

Q5. What is one oI the most important parts oI any transistor
manuIacturing process?
A5. Quality control.

Q6. To properly bias an NPN transistor, what polarity voltage is
applied to the collector, and what is its relationship to the base
voltage?
A6. Positive, more positive.

Q7. Why is conduction through the Iorward-biased junction oI an
NPN transistor primarily in one direction, namely Irom the emitter
to base?
A7. Because the N material on one side oI the Iorward-biased
junction is more heavily doped than the P-material.

Q8. In the NPN transistor, what section is made very thin
compared with the other two sections?
A8. The P or base section.

Q9. What percentage oI current in an NPN transistor reaches the
collector?
A9. 98 percent.

Q10. What are the majority current carriers in a PNP transistor?
A10. Holes.

Q11. What is the relationship between the polarity oI the voltage
applied to the PNP transistor and that applied to the NPN
transistor?
A11. The polarity oI voltage applied to the PNP transistor is
opposite oI that applied to the NPN transistor

Q12. What is the letter designation Ior base current?
A12. I
B
.

Q13. Name the two current loops in a transistor.
A13. The base current loop and the collector current loop.

Q14. What is the name oI the device that provides an increase in
current, voltage, or power oI a signal without appreciably altering
the original signal?
A14. AmpliIier.

Q15. Besides eliminating the emitter-base battery, what other
advantages can diIIerent biasing methods oIIer?
A15. Compensation Ior slight variations in transistor
characteristics and changes in transistor conduction because oI
temperature variations.

Q16. In the basic transistor ampliIier discussed earlier, what is the
relationship between the polarity oI the input and output signals?
A16. The signals are opposite in polarity or 180 degrees out oI
phase with each other.

Q17. What is the primary diIIerence between the NPN and PNP
ampliIiers?
A17. The polarity oI the source voltage.

Q18. Which biasing method is the most unstable?
A18. Base current bias or Iixed bias.

Q19. What type oI bias is used where only moderate changes in
ambient temperature are expected?
A19. SelI-bias.

Q20. When is degeneration tolerable in an ampliIier?
A20. When it is necessary to prevent amplitude distortion.

Q21. What is the most widely used combination-bias system?
A21. The voltage-divider type.

Q22. What ampliIier class oI operation allows collector current to
Ilow during the complete cycle oI the input?
A22. Class A.

Q23. What is the name oI the term used to describe the condition
in a transistor when the emitter-base junction has zero bias or is
reverse biased and there is no collector current?
A23. CutoII.

Q24. What two primary items determine the class oI operation oI
an ampliIier?
A24. The amount oI bias and the amplitude oI the input signal.

Q25. What ampliIier class oI operation is the most ineIIicient but
has the least distortion?
A25. Class A.

Q26. What are the three transistor conIigurations?
A26. Common emitter (CE), common base (CB), and common
collector (CC).
38

Q27. Which transistor conIiguration provides a phase reversal
between the input and output signals?
A27. Common emitter.

Q28. What is the input current in the common-emitter circuit?
A28. Base current (I B).

Q29. What is the current gain in a common-base circuit called?
A29. Alpha ( ).

Q30. Which transistor conIiguration has a current gain oI less than
1?
A30. Common base.

Q31. What is the output current in the common-collector circuit?
A31. IE.

Q32. Which transistor conIiguration has the highest input
resistance?
A32. Common collector.

Q33. What is the Iormula Ior GAMMA ()?
A33.



Q34. List three items oI inIormation normally included in the
general description section oI a speciIication sheet Ior a transistor.
A34. The kind oI transistor, the transistor's common applications,
and mechanical data.

Q35. What does the number "2" (beIore the letter "N") indicate in
the JAN marking scheme?
A35. The number oI junctions in the device, which in this case
indicates a transistor.

Q36. What is the greatest danger to a transistor?
A36. Heat.

Q37. What method Ior checking transistors is cumbersome when
more than one transistor is bad in a circuit?
A37. The substitution method.

Q38. What saIety precaution must be taken beIore replacing a
transistor?
A38. The power must be removed Irom the circuit.

Q39. How is the collector lead identiIied on an oval-shaped
transistor?
A39. By the wide space between the collector lead and the other
two leads (emitter and base).

Q40. What are two transistor tests that can be done with an
ohmmeter?
A40. Gain and junction resistance.

Q41. When you are testing the gain oI an audio-Irequency
transistor with an ohmmeter, what is indicated by a 10-to-1
resistance ratio?
A41. Normal gain.

Q42. When you are using an ohmmeter to test a transistor Ior
leakage, what is indicated by a low, but not shorted, reverse
resistance reading?
A42. A leaking transistor

TUNED CIRCUITS

Q-1. What is the relationship between Irequency and the values oI
(a) XL, (b) XC, and (c) R?
A-1.
a. XL varies directly with Irequency.
X L 2 IL
b. XC varies inversely with Irequency.
c. Frequency has no aIIect on resistance.

Q-2. In an a.c. circuit that contains both an inductor and a
capacitor, what term is used Ior the diIIerence between the
individual reactances?
A-2. Resultant reactance.

Q-3. State the Iormula Ior resonant Irequency.
A-3.


Q-4. II the inductor and capacitor values are increased, what
happens to the resonant Irequency?
A-4. Decreases.

Q-5. In an "ideal" resonant circuit, what is the relationship between
impedance and current?
A-5. Impedance low Current high.

Q-6. In a series-RLC circuit, what is the condition oI the circuit iI
there is high impedance, low current, and low reactance voltages?
A-6. Nonresonant (circuit is either above or below resonance).

Q-7. When the capacitor is completely discharged, where is the
energy oI the tank circuit stored?
A-7. Inductor magnetic Iield.

Q-8. When the magnetic Iield oI the inductor is completely
collapsed, where is the energy oI the tank circuit stored?
A-8. Capacitor.

Q-9. What is the term Ior the number oI times per second that tank
circuit energy is either stored in the inductor or capacitor?
A-9. Natural Irequency or resonant Irequency (I r).

Q-10. In a parallel-resonant circuit, what is the relationship
between impedance and current?
A-10. Maximum impedance, minimum current.

Q-11. When is line current minimum in a parallel-LC circuit?
A-11. At the resonant Irequency.

Q-12. What is the relationship oI the coil to the resistance oI a
circuit with high "Q"?
A-12.


Q-13. What is the band oI Irequencies called that is included
between the two points at which current Ialls to 70 percent oI its
maximum value in a resonant circuit?
A-13. Bandwidth oI the circuit.

39
Q-14. What is the device called that will separate alternating
current Irom direct current, or that will separate alternating current
oI one Irequency Irom other alternating currents oI diIIerent
Irequencies?
A-14. A Iilter.

Q-15. What are the Iour general types oI Iilters?
A-15.
a. Low-pass.
b. High-pass
c. Bandpass.
d. Band-reject.

Q-16. What is the Iilter called in which the low Irequencies do not
produce a useIul voltage?
A-16. High-pass Iilter, low-Irequency discriminator, or low-
Irequency attenuator.

Q-17. What is the Iilter called that passes low Irequencies but
rejects or attenuates high Irequencies?
A-17. Low-pass Iilter, high-Irequency discriminator or high-
Irequency attenuator.

Q-18. How does a capacitor and an inductor react to (a) low
Irequency and (b) high Irequency?
A-18. At low-Irequency, a capacitor acts as an open and an
inductor acts as a short. At high-Irequency, a capacitor acts as a
short and an inductor acts as an open.

Q-19. What term is used to describe the Irequency at which the
Iilter circuit changes Irom the point oI rejecting the unwanted
Irequencies to the point oI passing the desired Irequencies?
A-19. Frequency cutoII (Ico).

Q-20. What type Iilter is used to allow a narrow band oI
Irequencies to pass through a circuit and attenuate all other
Irequencies above or below the desired band?
A-20. Bandpass.

Q-21. What type Iilter is used to block the passage oI current Ior a
narrow band oI Irequencies, while allowing current to Ilow at all
Irequencies above or below this band?
A-21. Band-reject.

VIDEO AND RF AMPLIFIERS

Q-1. What is the bandwidth oI an ampliIier?
A-1. The diIIerence between the upper and lower Irequency limits
oI an ampliIier.

Q-2. What are the upper and lower Irequency limits oI an
ampliIier?
A-2. The halI-power points oI a Irequency-response curve. The
upper and lower limits oI the band I Irequencies Ior which the
ampliIier is most eIIective.


Q-3. What are the upper and lower Irequency limits and the
bandwidth Ior the ampliIiers that have Irequency-response curves
as shown in Iigure 2-3?
A-3. (A) I2 80 kHz, I1 30 kHz, BW 50 kHz (B) I2 4 kHz,
I1 2 kHz, BW 2 kHz

Q-4. What are the Iactors that limit the Irequency response oI a
transistor ampliIier?
A-4. The capacitance and inductance oI the circuit and the
interelectrode capacitance oI the transistor.

Q-5. What type oI Ieedback is usually caused by interelectrode
capacitance?
A-5. Negative (degenerative) Ieedback.

Q-6. What happens to capacitive reactance as Irequency increases?
A-6. It decreases.

Q-7. What happens to inductive reactance as Irequency increases?
A-7. It increases.

Q-8. What is the major Iactor that limits the high-Irequency
response oI an ampliIier circuits?
A-8. The capacitance oI the circuit.

Q-9. What components can be used to increase the high-Irequency
response oI an ampliIier?
A-9. Peaking coils.

Q-10. What determines whether these components are considered
series or shunt?
A-10. The relationship oI the components to the output-signal path.

Q-11. What is the arrangement oI both series and shunt
components called?
A-11. Combination peaking.

Q-12. What component in an ampliIier circuit tends to limit the
low-Irequency response oI the ampliIier?
40
A-12. The coupling capacitor (C3).

Q-13. What is the purpose oI L3?
A-13. A shunt peaking coil Ior Q2.

Q-14. What is the purpose oI C1?
A-14. A decoupling capacitor Ior the eIIects oI R2.

Q-15. What is the purpose oI R4?
A-15. A part oI the low-Irequency compensation network Ior Q1.

Q-16. What is the purpose oI L2?
A-16. A series peaking coil Ior Q1.

Q-17. What is the purpose oI R5?
A-17. A swamping resistor Ior L2.

Q-18. What component(s) is/are used Ior high-Irequency
compensation Ior Q1?
A-18. L1, L2, and R5.

Q-19. What component(s) is/are used Ior low-Irequency
compensation Ior Q2?
A-19. R9 and C5.

Q-20. II the input-signal-developing impedance oI an ampliIier is
increased, what is the eIIect on the gain?
A-20. The gain increases.

Q-21. II the output impedance oI an ampliIier circuit is decreased,
what is the eIIect on the gain?
A-21. The gain decreases.

Q-22. What is the purpose oI a Irequency-determining network in
an rI ampliIier?
A-22. To provide maximum impedance at the desired Irequency.

Q-23. Can a parallel LC circuit be used as the Irequency-
determining network Ior an rI ampliIier?
A-23. Yes.

Q-24. How can the Irequency be changed in the Irequency-
determining network?
A-24. By changing the value.

Q-25. What is the most common Iorm oI coupling Ior an rI
ampliIier?
A-25. TransIormer coupling.

Q-26. What are two advantages oI this type oI coupling?
A-26. It uses Iewer components than capacitive coupling and can
provide an increase in gain.

Q-27. II current gain is required Irom an rI ampliIier, what type oI
component should be used as an output coupling element?
A-27. A step-down transIormer.

Q-28. What problem is caused in an rI ampliIier by a loosely
coupled transIormer?
A-28. A too-narrow bandpass.

Q-29. How is this problem corrected?
A-29. By using an optimumly-coupled transIormer.

Q-30. What problem is caused by overcoupling in a transIormer?
A-30. Low gain at the center Irequency.

Q-31. What method provides the widest bandpass?
A-31. A swamping resistor in parallel with the tuned circuit.

Q-32. What two methods are used to compensate Ior the problems
that cause low gain in an rI ampliIier?
A-32. RF transIormers are used and the transistor is neutralized.

Q-33. What type oI Ieedback is usually caused by the base-to-
collector interelectrode capacitance?
A-33. Degenerative or negative.

Q-34. How is this compensated Ior?
A-34. By neutralization such as the use oI a capacitor to provide
regenerative (positive) Ieedback.

Q-35. What components Iorm the input-signal-developing
impedance Ior the ampliIier?
A-35. C2 and the secondary oI T1.

Q-36. What is the purpose oI R1?
A-36. R1 provides the proper bias to the base oI Q1 Irom VBB .

Q-37. What is the purpose oI R2?
A-37. R2 provides the proper bias to the emitter oI Q1.

Q-38. II C4 were removed Irom the circuit, what would happen to
the output oI the ampliIier?
A-38. The output would decrease. (C4 decouples R2 preventing
degenerative Ieedback Irom R2.)

Q-39. What components Iorm the load Ior Q1?
A-39. C5 and the primary oI T2.

Q-40. How many tuned parallel LC circuits are shown in this
schematic?
A-40. Four.

Q-41. What do the dotted lines connecting C1, C2, C5, and C6
indicate?
A-41. The dotted lines indicate that these capacitors are "ganged"
and are tuned together with a
singlecontrol.

Q-42. What is the purpose oI C3?
A-42. C3 provides neutralization Ior Q1.

WAVE SHAPING

Q1. Which portion oI a sine-wave input is retained in the output oI
a series-positive limiter?
A1. Negative.

Q2. Which portion oI a sine-wave input is retained in the output oI
a series-negative limiter?
A2. Positive.

Q3. How can a series-positive limiter be modiIied to limit
unwanted negative portions oI the input signal?
A3. Biasing.

Q4. What component is in parallel with the output in a parallel
limiter?
A4. The diode.

Q5. What is the condition oI the diode in a series limiter when an
output is developed? In a parallel limiter?
A5. Conducting, cutoII.

Q6. What is the relative length oI the time constant Ior the diode-
capacitor combination in a damper (long or short)?
A6. Short time constant.

41
Q7. What is the relative length oI the discharge time constant with
respect to the charge time constant oI a damper (long or short)?
A7. Long time constant.

Q8. A positive damper clamps which extremity oI the output signal
to 0 volts?
A8. Most negative.

Q9. To which polarity does a positive damper with positive bins
clamp the most negative extremity oI the output waveIorm
(positive or negative)?
A9. Positive potential.

Q10. What type damper (with bias) clamps the most negative
extremity oI the output waveIorm to a negative potential?
A10. Positive clamper with negative bias.

Q11. A negative damper damps which extremity oI the output
waveshape to 0 volts?
A11. Most positive.

Q12. A negative damper with negative bias clamps the most
positive extremity oI the output wave shape to what polarity
(positive or negative)?
A12. Negative potential.

Q13. What type oI bias (positive or negative) is added to a
negative damper Ior the most positive extremity oI the wave shape
to be clamped above 0 volts?
A13. Positive bias.

Q14. What would be the output oI a negative clamper with a bias
potential oI 5 volts and an input voltage swing Irom 50 to 50
volts?
A14. -5 volts.

Q15. What is the harmonic composition oI a square wave?
A15. It is composed oI an inIinite number oI odd harmonics in
phase with the Iundamental.

Q16. What is the peaked wave composed oI?
A16. It is composed oI odd harmonics some oI which are out phase
with the Iundamental.

Q17. What is the Iundamental diIIerence between the phase
relationship oI the harmonics oI the square wave as compared to
the harmonics oI a peaked wave?
A17. All the odd harmonics are in phase with the Iundamental in
the square wave. This is not true oI the odd harmonics in the
peaked wave.

Q18. What are the requirements Ior an integration circuit?
A18. The time constant is long and the output is taken across the
capacitor in an RC circuit.

Q19. Can a pure sine wave be integrated? Why?
A19. A pure sine wave cannot be integrated; it contains no
harmonics.

Q20. What characteristic oI an RL circuit allows it to act as an
integrator?
A20. The ability oI the inductor to oppose a change in current.

Q21. What is the numerical diIIerence (in terms oI the time
constant) between a long and a short time constant circuit?
A21. The time-constant value oI a long time constant-circuit is 10
times the value oI the input pulse duration. The short time-constant
circuit has a time constant oI 1/10 oI the pulse duration.

Q22. What would happen to the integrator output iI the capacitor
were made extremely large (all other Iactors remaining the same)?
A22. A more complete integration oI the waveIorm would result
Irom the long time constant.

Q23. What is the diIIerence between an RC and an RL
diIIerentiator in terms oI where the output is developed?
A23. In an RC circuit the output is taken across the resistor. In the
RL circuit the output is taken across the inductor.

Q24. Name a common application oI counting circuits.
A24. Frequency counters or Irequency dividers.

Q25. What establishes the value oI the current that Ilows in the
output oI Iigure 4-43?
A25. The Irequency oI the voltage input.


Q26. What is the purpose oI D1 in Iigure 4-43?
A26. To provide a quick discharge path Ior C1.

Q27. What is the diIIerence between a positive counter and a step
counter?
A27. The load resistor in a positive counter is replaced by a
capacitor in a step counter.

WAVEFORMS AND WAVE GENERATORS

Q1. What type circuit is used to produce square or rectangular
waves?
A1. Multivibrator.

Q2. What type oI multivibrator does not have a stable state?
A2. Astable.

Q3. What type oI multvibrator has one stable state?
A3. Monostable.

Q4. What type oI multivibrator has two stable states?
A4. Bistable.

Q5. In an astable multivibrator, which components determine the
pulse repetition Irequency?
A5. RC coupling networks.

Q6. What is another name Ior the monostable multivibrator?
A6. One-shot.

Q7. In a bistable multivibrator, how many trigger pulses are
needed to produce one complete cycle in the output?
A7. Two.

Q8. How many stable states are there Ior a Ilip-Ilop?
A8. Two.

Q9. II a voltage (positive or negative) is measured on the "1"
output oI a Ilip-Ilop, what state is it in?
A9. SET state.

42
Q10. What component in a blocking oscillator controls pulse
width?
A10. TransIormer.

Q11. For an RC circuit to produce a linear output across the
capacitor, the voltage across the capacitor may not exceed what
percent oI the applied voltage?
A11. Ten percent.

Q12. Increasing gate length in a sawtooth generator does what to
linearity?
A12. Decreases linearity.

Q13. In a sawtooth generator, why is the transistor turned on Ior a
longer time than the discharge time oI the RC network?
A13. To allow the capacitor time to discharge.

Q14. What is added to a sawtooth generator to produce a
trapezoidal wave?
A14. A resistor.


WIRING TECHNIQUES

Q1. What are the basic requirements Ior any splice or terminal
connection?
A1. The connection must be both mechanically and electrically as
strong as the conductor or device with which it is used

Q2. What is the preIerred method Ior stripping wire?
A2. By use oI a wire-stripping tool

Q3. What stripping tool would NOT be used to strip glass braid
insulation?
A3. Hot-blade stripper.

Q4. What tool should be used to strip aluminum wire?
A4. KniIe.

Q5. Why are the ends oI the wire clamped down aIter a Western
Union splice is made?
A5. To prevent damage to the tape insulation.

Q6. Why are splices staggered on multiconductor cables?
A6. To prevent the joint Irom being bulky.

Q7. Where is the rattail joint normally used?
A7. When wires are in conduit and a junction box is used.

Q8. Which type oI splice is used to splice a lighting Iixture to a
branch circuit?
A8. Fixture joint.

Q9. Which oI the splices discussed is NOT a butted splice?
A9. Knotted tap joint.

Q10. Why is Iriction tape used in splicing?
A10. As a protective covering over the rubber tape.

Q11. What is a major advantage oI the crimped terminal over the
soldered terminal?
A11. Requires relatively little operator skill to install.

Q12. What are the two types oI insulation most commonly used Ior
noninsulated splices and terminal lugs?
A12. Spaghetti or heat-shrinkable tubing.

Q13. What is the maximum allowable temperature that should be
used on heat-shrinkable tubing?
A13. 300 F

Q14. What is the maximum allowable source pressure that can be
used with the compressor air/nitrogen heating tool?
A14. 200 psig.

Q15. Should aluminum wire be cleaned prior to installing an
aluminum terminal lug or splice?
A15. No, it is done automatically by the petroleum abrasive
compound that comes in the terminal or splices.

Q16. What tools should be used to install large aluminum terminal
lugs and splices?
A16. Power-operated crimping tools.

Q17. Why should a lock washer never be used with an aluminum
terminal?
A17. It gouges the terminal lug and causes deterioration.

Q18. What is the most common method oI terminating and
splicing wires?
A18. The use oI preinsulated splices and terminal lugs.

Q19. Besides not having to insulate a noninsulated terminal, what
other advantage is gained by using a preinsulated terminal lug?
A19. It has insulation support Ior extra supporting strength oI the
wire insulation.

Q20. Why are preinsulated terminal lugs and splices color coded?
A20. To identiIy wire sizes they are to be used on.

Q21. Why must items to be soldered be cleaned just prior to the
soldering process?
A21. Solder will not adhere to dirty, greasy, or oxidized surIaces.

Q22. What does "tinning" mean in relationship to soldering?
A22. The coating oI the material to be soldered with a light coat oI
solder.

Q23. Why should wire be stripped 1/32 inch longer than the depth
oI the solder barrel?
A23. To prevent burning the insulation during the soldering
process and to allow the wire to Ilex easier at a stress point.

Q24. How much oI the stripped length oI a conductor should be
tinned?
A24. One-halI the stripped length.

Q25. What causes a "Iractured solder" joint?
A25. Movement oI the parts being soldered while the solder is
cooling.

Q26. DeIine thermal inertia.
A26. The capacity oI the soldering iron to generate and maintain a
satisIactory soldering temperature while giving up heat to the joint
being soldered.

Q27. Why is small-wattage soldering irons not used to solder large
conductors?
A27. Although its temperature is as high as the larger irons, it does
not have thermal inertia.

Q28. State why a well-designed soldering iron is selI-regulating.
A28. The resistance oI its heating element increases with rising
temperature, thus limiting the current Ilow.

Q29. What should be done to a soldering iron tip that is pitted?
A29. File the tip until it is smooth and retin it.

Q30. What happens iI a soldering gun switch is pressed Ior periods
longer than 30 seconds?
43
A30. It will overheat and could burn the insulation oI the wire
being soldered.

Q31. What causes the nuts or screws that hold the tips on soldering
irons and guns to loosen?
A31. The heating and cooling cycles.

Q32. A soldering gun should NOT be used on what components?
A32. Electronic components, such as resistors, capacitors, and
transistors.

Q33. What is an advantage oI using a resistance soldering iron
when soldering wire to a connector?
A33. The soldering tips are hot only during the brieI period oI
soldering the connection, thus
minimizing the chance oI burning the wire insulation or connector
inserts.

Q34. Why is steel wool NEVER used as an abrasive to clean
soldering tools?
A34. The strands can Iall into electrical equipment being worked
on and cause short circuits.

Q35. Why should "antiseize" compound be used on the screw-in
tips oI the pencil iron?
A35. It enables the tip to be removed easily when another is to be
inserted.

Q36. II no suitable tip is available Ior a particular job, how may
one be improvised?
A36. Wrap a length oI copper wire around one oI the regular tips
and bend to the proper shape Ior the purpose.

Q37. What two metals are used to Irom soIt solder?
A37. Tin and lead.

Q38. DeIine the metal solvent action that takes place when copper
conductors are soldered together.
A38. The solder dissolves a small amount oI the copper, which
combines with the solder Iorming a new alloy; thereIore, the joint
is one common metal.

Q39. What is the tin-lead alloy percentage oI solder used Ior
electrical connectors, splices, and terminal lugs?
A39. 60-percent tin and 40-percent lead (60/40 solder).

Q40. What purpose does Ilux serve in the soldering process?
A40. It cleans the metal by removing the oxide layer and prevents
Iurther oxidation during the soldering.

Q41. What type oI Ilux must be used in all electrical and electronic
soldering?
A41. Noncorrosive, nonconductive rosin Iluxes.

Q42. Why are solvents used in the soldering process?
A42. To remove contaminants Irom soldered connections.

Q43. What is the purpose oI a heat shunt?
A43. To prevent damage to heat-sensitive components.

Q44. Besides presenting a neat appearance and supporting each
other, what is the other purpose Ior lacing conductors?
A44. To aid in tracing the conductors when alterations or repairs
are required.

Q45. Why is Ilat tape preIerred instead oI round cord when wire
bundles are laced?
A45. Round cord has a tendency to cut into the wire insulation.

Q46. What amount oI Ilat tape or round cord is required to single
lace a group oI conductors?
A46. Two and one-halI times the length oI the longest conductor in
the group.

Q47. What is the purpose oI a lacing shuttle?
A47. To keep the tape or cord Irom Iouling during the lacing
operation.

Q48. When should wires be twisted prior to lacing?
A48. When required, such as Ior the Iilament leads in electron tube
ampliIiers.

Q49. What precautions should you take when tying bundles
containing coaxial cables?
A49. Do not tie too tightly and use the proper type oI tape.

Q50. How is the single lace started?
A50. With a square knot and at least two marling hitches drawn
tightly.

Q51. What size wire bundles require double lace?
A51. Bundles that are 1 inch or larger in diameter

Q52. How is the double lace started?
A52. With a telephone hitch.

Q53. How are laced cable groups bound together?
A53. They are bound together at intervals with telephone hitches.

Q54. When are spot ties used?
A54. When wire bundles are supported by cable supports that are
more than 12 inches apart.

Q55. What is used to install selI-clinching cable straps?
A55. Military Standard hand tool.

Q56. What is used to tie wire bundles in high-temperature areas?
A56. High-temperature, pressure-sensitive tape.

You might also like