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That is because he was the “the Christ the SON OF GOD” and so he (Jesus) when on to reply (as one being sent to earth to bear witness to the truth), when He said “You yourself said [it]. Yet I say to YOU men, from henceforth YOU will see the Son of man sitting at the right hand of power and coming on the clouds of heaven.” Another occasion Jesus had asked his disciples: “Who are men saying the Son of man is?” Their reply: “Some say John the Baptist, others Elijah, still others Jeremiah or one of the prophets.” “You, though, who do you say I am?” Jesus continued. Peter answered: “You are the Christ, the Son of the living God.” At this point Jesus said: “Happy you are, Simon son of Jonah, because flesh and blood did not reveal it to you, but my Father who is in the heavens did.” 3). Thoughts to consider: Jesus asks his Disciples what people were saying of the “Son of Man” and so he wanted to know what the Disciples thought of him, who really was him. Was he just the “Son of Man” as people says? So he asks them, “You, though, who do you say I am?” Peter answered: “You are the Christ, the SON of the living God.” Did Jesus reject him to say that he was just the “Son of Man”, that people claim? Instead, he replied by saying “because flesh and blood did not reveal it to you, but MY FATHER who is in the heavens did.” In conclusion, When one considers that Jesus was not the only spirit son of God created in heaven, it becomes evident why the term “only-begotten Son” was used in his case. Countless other created spirit beings, angels, are also called “sons of God,” in the same sense that Adam was, because their life-force originated with Jehovah God, the Fountain, or Source, of life. (Job 38:7; Psalm 36:9; Luke 3:38) But these were all created through the “only-begotten Son,” who was the only one directly begotten by God.—Colossians 1:15-17. Thank you.

When Jesus died, even the Roman soldiers standing by knew that Jesus was not God: “The army officer and those with him watching over Jesus, when they saw the earthquake and the things happening, grew very much afraid, saying: ‘Certainly this was God’s Son.’” (Matthew 27:54) They did not say, ‘this was God’ or ‘this was God the Son,’ because Jesus and his disciples taught that Jesus was the Son of God, not God Almighty in human form. God himself testified that Jesus was his beloved Son, as the Bible writer Matthew noted when Jesus was baptized. (Matthew 3:17) Other Bible writers noted the same. Mark wrote: “A voice came out of the heavens: ‘You are my Son, the beloved; I have approved you.’” (Mark 1:11) Luke said: “A voice came out of heaven: ‘You are my Son, the beloved; I have approved you.’” (Luke 3:22) And John the Baptizer, who baptized Jesus, testified: “I have borne witness that this one [Jesus] is the Son of God.” (John 1:34) So God himself, all four Gospel writers, and John the Baptizer clearly state that Jesus was the Son of God. And some time later, at the transfiguration of Jesus, a similar thing happened: “A voice [God’s] came out of the cloud, saying: ‘This is my Son, the one that has been chosen. Listen to him.’”—Luke 9:35. At Matthew 26: 59 – 68 The chief priests and the entire San´he•drin were looking for false witness against Jesus in order to put him to death … So the high priest said to him: “By the living God I put you under oath to tell us whether you are the Christ the SON OF GOD!” 64 Jesus said to him: “You yourself said [it]. Yet I say to YOU men, From henceforth YOU will see the Son of man sitting at the right hand of power and coming on the clouds of heaven.” 65 Then the high priest ripped his outer garments, saying: “He has blasphemed! What further need do we have of witnesses? See! Now YOU have heard the blasphemy. 66 What is YOUR opinion?” They returned answer: “He is liable to death. 2). Thoughts to consider: Why would they (chief priests and the entire Sanhedrin) ask Jesus if he was (under oath) if he was “the Christ, the SON Of God”? And did they say he had “blasphemed” and that “he was liable to death”, for saying that he was the Son of God?

*Part 2: Not ‘God the Son’ but “God’s only begotten Son”? WHILE Jesus is often called the Son of God in the Bible, nobody in the first century ever thought of him as being God the Son. Even the demons, who “believe there is one God,” knew from their experience in the spirit realm that Jesus was not God. So, correctly, they addressed Jesus as the separate “Son of God.” (James 2:19; Matthew 8:29) And when Jesus died, the pagan Roman soldiers standing by knew enough to say that what they had heard from his followers must be right, not that Jesus was God, but that “certainly this was God’s Son.”—Matthew 27:54. Hence, the phrase “Son of God” refers to Jesus as a separate created being, not as part of a Trinity. As the Son of God, he could not be God himself, for John 1:18 says: “No one has ever seen God.”—RS, Catholic edition. The disciples viewed Jesus as the “one mediator between God and men,” not as God himself. (1 Timothy 2:5) Since by definition a mediator is someone separate from those who need mediation, it would be a contradiction for Jesus to be one entity with either of the parties he is trying to reconcile. That would be a pretending to be something he is not. The Bible is clear and consistent about the relationship of God to Jesus. Jehovah God alone is Almighty. He created the prehuman Jesus directly. Thus, Jesus had a beginning and could never be coequal with God in power or eternity. Never did Jesus claim to be almighty God himself. Any impartial reading of the Bible without preconceived ideas about the Trinity will verify that. For example, at John 3:16, Jesus said: “For God loved the world so much that he gave his only-begotten Son.” Just two verses later, Jesus again said that he was “the only-begotten Son of God.” (John 3:18) When the Jews accused Jesus of blasphemy, he answered: “Do you say to me whom the Father sanctified and dispatched into the world, ‘You blaspheme,’ because I said, I AM GOD’s SON?” (John 10:36) Jesus did not say that he was ‘God the Son’ but that he was “God’s Son.” 1). Thoughts to consider: Why would they stone Jesus if and when he replied: I AM GOD’s SON?

So Jesus, the only-begotten Son, had a beginning to his life. And Almighty God can rightly be called his Begetter, or Father, in the same sense that an earthly father, like Abraham, begets a son. (Hebrews 11:17) Hence, when the Bible speaks of God as the “Father” of Jesus, it means what it says—that they are two separate individuals. God is the senior. Jesus is the junior—in time, position, power, and knowledge. In conclusion, the answer to the above question is, yes without a doubt! In fact, not even Trinitarians believe such a notion. If it were true that Jesus was created, then the teachings of the Trinity would have nothing to lean on. Hence one considers that Jesus was not the only spirit son of God created in heaven, it becomes evident why the term “Only-Begotten Son” was used in his case. Countless other created spirit beings, angels, are also called “sons of God,” in the same sense that Adam was, because their life-force originated with God [Jehova], the Fountain, or Source, of life. (Job 38:7; Psalm 36:9; Luke 3:38) But these were all created through the “only-begotten Son,” who was the only one directly begotten by God.—Colossians 1:15-17.

Salamm my fellow nieghbours: ) As a Christian, in the true sense of the name, I would like to clarify a point of concern if I may, for the sake of allowing many to understand why Jesus is the “Son of God” and yet, Having No Share In Divinity. For the record, as a true Christian and one following the Teachings of Jesus and his disciples, I do believe in the “Trinity”! It is a pagan doctrine that was formally introduce to the churches (Christendom, of which I am no part of) during the 4th century. Until then it has permeated it self as self taught teaching without any real evidence of divine backing but rather an inspired utterance conspired by demons. *But is Jesus the “only Begotten Son” of the God, as the Bible claims? THE Bible calls Jesus the “Only-Begotten Son” of God. (John 1:14; 3:16, 18; 1 John 4:9) Some say (Trinitarians) say that since God is eternal, so the Son of God is eternal. But how can a person be a son and at the same time be as old as his father? Some too reason, that in the case of Jesus, “only-begotten” is not the same as the dictionary definition of “begetting,” which is “to procreate as the father.” (Webster’s Ninth New Collegiate Dictionary) And some may reason if it is “to procreate as the father,” then God would have a mother in order to produce. Well, the question one should ask is, how did God create the first man Adam & Eve and the angels, without the need of sexual reproduction? Simply, the scripture tells us that he created them by giving them the breath of life. Furthermore, why does the Bible use the very same Greek word for “Only-Begotten” to describe the relationship of Isaac to Abraham? Hebrews 11:17 speaks of Isaac as Abraham’s “Only-Begotten son.” There can be no question that in Isaac’s case, he was only-begotten in the normal sense, not equal in time or position to his father. The basic Greek word for “only-begotten” used for Jesus and Isaac is mo•no•ge•nes´, from mo´nos, meaning “only,” and gi´no•mai, a root word meaning “to generate,” “to become (come into being),” states Strong’s Exhaustive Concordance. Hence, mo•no•ge•nes´ is defined as: “Only born, only begotten, i.e. an only child.”—A Greek and English Lexicon of the New Testament, by E. Robinson. The Theological Dictionary of the New Testament, edited by Gerhard Kittel, says: “[Mo•no•ge•nes´] means ‘of sole descent,’ i.e., without brothers or sisters.”

B). In Matthew 27:7-8: “And they took counsel and bought with them the potter’s field to bury strangers in. Wherefore that field was called the Field of Blood, unto this day.” After remorseful Judas threw into the temple the betrayal price of 30 pieces of silver (if shekels, $66), the chief priests used the money to buy “the potter’s field to bury strangers.” (Mt 27:3-10) The field came to be known as Akeldama, or “Field of Blood.” (Ac 1:18, 19; see AKELDAMA.) Since the fourth century C.E. this field has been identified with a location on the S slope of the Hinnom Valley, just before it joins the Kidron Valley. The expression “the potter’s field” does not specifically indicate whether the field was one simply owned by a potter or was called that because, at some point in its history, it was an area where potters pursued their craft. The latter, though, seems probable if the traditional site is correct. It would be near the Gate of the Potsherds (or “Gate of the Potters,” according to J. Simons in his footnote in Jerusalem in the Old Testament, Leiden, 1952, p. 230), mentioned in Jeremiah 19:1, 2. (Compare Jer 18:2.) Even in recent times the necessary raw material, clay, has been available in the vicinity. Also, making pottery required a good water supply, and the site was close to the spring at En-rogel and the Pool of Siloam as well as near such water as might be in the Hinnom Valley in the winter.

Salaam: My fellow Neighbours: I would like to clarify a point here if I may, for the sake of allowing many to understand why and for what reasons that these words were said, on the part of Jesus, during his death. A). What did Jesus mean by his words, “My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?”- Matthew 27:46 Jesus was well aware that he would have to “go to Jerusalem and suffer many things . . . , and be killed, and on the third day be raised up.” (Matthew 16:21) So there just is no reason to believe that Jesus— a perfect human— would not be seized with fear over what he faced; nor would death on a stake suggest to him that his Father had rejected him. Jesus knew in advance “what sort of death he was about to die,” that is, death by impalement. (John 12:32, 33) He was sure, too, that on the third day he would be raised up. How, then, could Jesus say that God had forsaken him? Jesus spoke these words in fulfillment of Psalm 22:1, which was originally written relative to David. Not that David was forsaken for impalement on any torture stake, but he was forsaken to the fury of enemies because of his faithfulness to the Kingdom covenant. In all this David was a prophetic type of Christ. Jesus was forsaken to a disgraceful death, on an accursed tree, in order to test his integrity. By remaining faithful he triumphed in his integrity, as the rest of the Psalm shows. Other verses of Psalm 22 concerning David were fulfilled upon Jesus, further proving it was prophetic of the Greater David, Christ. Compare Psalm 22:1 with Matthew 27:46 and Mark 15:34; Psalm 22:7, 8 with Matthew 27:39, 43; Psalm 22:15 with John 19:28; Psalm 22:16 with Mark 15:25; and Psalm 22:18 with Matthew 27:35. But the mere utterance of these prophetic words of Psalm 22:1 was not in itself sufficient for fulfillment of them. At the time Jesus uttered them on the torture stake they really had a background against which to be fulfilled. In this case God’s forsaking Jesus did not mean that God turned his back upon him as disapproved and condemned, but merely that God released him to the full fury of his enemies, even to the extent of allowing them to kill him. Thus God forsook or released Jesus over to his enemies, to be subject to the enemies to do whatsoever they wanted to do with him, not even shielding him from ignominious death. It would be hard to trust a book that is found to contain inaccuracies. Imagine reading a modern history book that dated the Second World War to the 1800’s or that called the president of the United States a king. Would such inaccuracies not raise questions in your mind about the overall reliability of the book? NO ONE has ever successfully challenged the historical accuracy of the Bible. It refers to real people and real events.

THE COMPILATION OF THE BIBLE (In The Bible and The Qur’an Biblical Evidence of Jesus Being A Servant of God And Having No Share In Divinity) In Matthew 27:7-8--- “And they took counsel and bought with them the potter’s field to bury strangers in. Wherefore that field was called the Field of Blood, unto this day.” From these verses we understand that the Bible (the New Testament) was not written during Jesus’ life-time but long after the occurrence of the events described, having been retained in the memory of the people. In Matthew 27:46--- “And about the ninth hour Jesus cried with a loud voice, saying, ‘Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani? (My God, My God, why hast Thou forsaken me?)” This is according to their (Christians’) assumption that Jesus cried in a loud voice saying the above words while he was being crucified. This is a great insult as such words could only come from unbelievers in Allah. Further, it is incredible that such words should come out from a Prophet of Allah because Allah never breaks His Promise and His Prophets never complained against His promise.

GOD THE FATHER (In The Bible and The Qur’an Biblical Evidence of Jesus Being A Servant of God And Having No Share In Divinity) In Matthew 5:48--- “Be ye therefore perfect, even as your Father which is in heaven is perfect.” In Matthew 6:1--- “…otherwise ye have no reward of your Father which is in heaven.” In Matthew 7:21--- “Not every one that sayeth unto me (Jesus), Lord, Lord, shall enter into the kingdom of heaven: but he that doeth the will of my Father, which is in heaven.” N.B. The word ‘Lord’ here was translated as Rabb in the Arabic version of the Bible so that people may be convinced that Jesus is God! But if one studies the rest of the verse, one will note that the verse bears testimony to the subservience (to God’s Will) of the Messiah (Jesus). Therefore the correct translation should be: “Not every one that sayeth to me, O my Master, shall enter into the kingdom of heaven, but he that doeth the will of my Father which is in heaven.” It is obvious from the above readings from the Bible that the term “Father” is used for God in numerous places in the Bible. It is never used exclusively for Jesus. In Matthew 11:25--- “At that time Jesus answered and said, ‘I thank Thee, O Father, Lord of heaven and earth, because Thou hast hid these things from the wise and prudent and has revealed them unto babes.”

CHILDREN OF GOD Jesus never called himself Son of God as far as I know (Dr. M.T. Al-Hilali, Ph.D.)---- but he used to call himself the “Son of Man” (Mark 2:10) although he heard himself being called by that name he did not object --- as assumed in the Bible --- and did not consider the title exclusively for him. According to the Biblical term in the Old and New Testaments, every God-fearing righteous person is called “Son Of God”. In Matthew 5:9 we read: “Blessed are the peace-makers, for they shall be called the children of God.” In Mathew 5:45--- “That ye may be children of your Father which is in heaven..”

JESUS AND THE DEVIL IN THE BIBLE In the New Testament of the Bible, in the fourth chapter of the Gospel according to Mathew, the sixth and seventh verses clearly indicate that Jesus is an obedient mortal and God is the Master and Lord according to his saying in the seventh verse: “It is written again, Thou shalt not tempt the Lord, thy God.” In this chapter we read that the Devil actually carried the Messiah, and took him from place to place. How can the devil carry God? Glory be to Allah; He is above such blasphemy! Then the Devil orders him to prostrate before him and worship him, even tempting him with worldly possessions. How can the Devil even dare such an audacity with God? When the Devil wanted Jesus to comply with his orders, he (Jesus) replied by saying that it was written (in the previous Books): “Thou shalt worship the Lord, thy God; And Him only shalt thou serve.” ------ Mathew 4:10