modres
Scribbled:
Actually, there is plenty of evidence for a pre-tribulation rapture. In fact, there is historical proof that the doctrine was accepted and taught within the early church (back to the first century). It was NOT created by Margaret MacDonald, etc., but has real roots within actual history.
It is very clear historically WHY the Roman Catholic church's view of eschatology was the only view. RCC came into existence in the late 3rd to early 4th century A.D. Taking their cue from Augustine, who allegorized prophetic discourse when it came to End Times discussion (and he took his cue from Origen), the RCC simply adopted what Augustine held as true. Since RCC became the officially state-sanctioned religion, anything they did NOT agree with was completely squelched. It was not until the Reformation that people had the guts to question the RCC teaching regarding salvation and you indicated such in your article.
The reality also is that while the salvation by grace through faith issue was what created the Reformation, certainly End Times propohecies were hardly that important compared to saving faith. I believe this is why Luther, Calvin and others didn't really touch on it. It was also during that 1200 year period that the Bible was NOT available to the common person and even if it was, they could not read it.
Wycliffe, Tyndale and others made it possible for the Bible to become available to the common person. When it DID, the doctrines that RCC had shelved 1200 years prior, once again came to the fore.
Regarding "imminence," it is Paul who emphasizes Christ's return, as able to occur at any time. Re-read I & II Thessalonians on that. What Christ was referring to in the Olivet Discourse had NOTHING to do with the Rapture, and everything to do with His 2nd Coming. The Rapture is NOT part of the 2nd Coming. It is a completely separate event, in which Christ does NOT return to earth, but merely steps away from His throne in heaven as He calls His bride to Him (and as the gentleman He is, He stands).
The term "Day of the Lord" in Scripture ALWAYS refers to the End Time Tribulation period, not merely one day (like the Rapture). This period is always defined as the time of His wrath. In other words, the entire period of time evidences His wrath.
There is NOTHING which precedes the Rapture. Nothing. For that, He can call us home at any moment. Imminency does not apply to the 2nd Coming. However, since God is OUTSIDE of the 4th dimension of time
You might get further along if you were willing to acknowledge that your article to a certain degree is someone arrogant toward those who see a pre-trib rapture in Scripture. For instance your comment "similar to the faulty logic pertaining to pre-tribulationists..." is one that simply causes people to get their dander up. Had you said, "In my opinion, the pre-tribulationist errs in their understanding..."
While Jesus was certainly speaking about the matter-of-fact way people lived during Noah's day, there is also some merit to understanding that Noah and his family were safely tucked away in the Ark by God Himself and THEN God poured out His wrath. The only people who were NOT on the Ark were UNbelievers, just as those who will be in the Tribulation/Great Tribulation period. They will be unbelievers - both Jew and Gentile. To suggest that because the phrase "were taken away" applies to the unbelievers during Noah's time, therefore the ENTIRE event has no revelance as far as the Rapture is concerned is probably an unfair conclusion.
Was Noah and his family kept SAFELY away from personally experiencing the wrath of God during the global flood? Absolutely.
Also, the Matthew 24:40-41 passage has nothing to do with the Rapture. Most of the Olivet Discourse is dealing with the End Times and His 2nd Coming (where every eye shall see Him). It's not the Rapture. The one taken from the field, etc., is strictly for the judgment of the nations (or the Sheep and the Goats).
The entire 7 year period of the Tribulation is most definitely God's wrath being poured out. Whether He uses Satan and/or the Antichrist to do it during the first 3.5 years is completely besides the point. Things are certainly ramping up.
In I Thessalonians 5:2 and 2 Peter 3:10, this speaks of a general wrath, but also a specific wrath. THis cannot be referring to eternal damnation because then Paul (and Peter) would be guilty of telling Christians that they can lose their salvation, which is impossible once sealed by the Holy Spirit.
You also seem to be confusing tribulation in general and THE Great Tribulation of the Bible. The Church - we are often told by people who do not accept the pre-trib rapture - needs to be purified and it is the Tribulation/Great Tribulation period that does it. This is completely unscriptural. As a Christian, I am already seated with Christ in the heavenlies (Ephesians). Once I die, I am INSTANTLY changed. My body becomes i
