I think he just didn't want to say that there was no difference and thus convinced himself that there was a difference. I think most people would say he did it subconsciously, but I think that people are normally conscious of stuff that we say is subconscious. Saying it's subconscious is just less accusative than saying it's somewhat conscious. I doubt it's some commentary on how he feels about us. What makes you think that?

Thanks, everyone, for your comments I made some changes to the second passage. What do you think about it now?