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Which of the following best describes foreign direct investment (FDI)? a. A firm’s direct investment in production and/or service activities abroad. 3. Which of the following best defines “Triad” as the term is used in the text? c. North America, Europe, and Japan. 4. According to the text, the current brand of “global strategy” seems relevant only for MNEs from: b. The Triad. 5. Emerging economies (or emerging markets): c. A and B above 6. BRIC refers to: e. Brazil, Russia, India, and China 7. Many BRIC local firms are: d. All of the above Chapter 2 8. Which of the following is NOT true of the industrial organization (IO) economics model? d. All of the above are NOT true. 9. Which of the following tends to reduce the intensity of rivalry? e. None of the above. 10. Which of the following would tend to reduce the bargaining power of suppliers? d. Unwillingness and inability of suppliers to integrate forward. 11. Which of the follow would tend to reduce the bargaining power of buyers? e. All of the above. 12. Which of the following are true concerning cost leadership? d. All of the above. 13. Which is a reason for integration as opposed to outsourcing? e. All of the above. 14. An industry-based view provides some answers to which of the following questions?
but common resources/capabilities leads to: d. b.d. A must: e. None of the above. 20. the text indicates that in order for A to gain a competitive advantage over B. Which of the following defines institutions? f. A and B above. Core competencies are its tangible and intangible assets a firm uses to choose and implement its 16. All of the above. According to the text. c. The VRIO framework does not include capabilities and resources that are: e. 17. . 22. “Humanly devised constraints that structure human interaction. If Company A and Company B both have valuable assets that are identical. International outsourcing involves: c. 19. Ways to imitate include: c. Tacit knowledge is probably the most e. Having valuable. All of the above Chapter 4 26. What determines the international success and failure of firms? Chapter 3 15. Competitive disadvantage. 23. Examining whether a firm has resources and capabilities to perform a particular activity in a manner superior to competitors is known as in SWOT analysis. 18. Which of the following is better performed in-house instead of being outsourced? c. A firm’s strategies. A and B above. Taking advantage of strengths embodied in resources/capabilities and overcome weaknesses deals with which fundamental question? a. All of the above. An industry-specific and firm-specific (proprietary) activity. Why do firms differ? 21. Competition 24.” resource. which of the following are intangible resources and capabilities? e. 25.
Power distance is best defined as: a.” 35. Bribery to foreign officials by companies based in the U. Suppose you are an SME with limited financial resources. All of the above. the purchase of the right to use another firm’s proprietary technology is referred to as: . 33. Stereotypical manager is decisive.S. “When in Rome. How do institutions reduce uncertainty? a. Long-term orientation is best defined as: e. The Foreign Corrupt Practices Act (FCPA) bans: g. Which best defines an accommodative strategy? a. Which are true regarding informal constraints? j. Tier 2: Group Dynamics 32. 41. Institutions do which of the following? j. 30. In view of that. 31. 29. In a manufacturing setting. A potential benefit of an initial public offering (IPO): a. The degree of social inequality. 38. All of the above. your best choice for entering foreign markets would be: b. Which would tend to result in a greater level of entrepreneurship? e. Licensing or franchising. do as the Romans do. 39. Can increase firm’s financial stability. Ethical imperialism is best expressed by which of the following: a. Which tends to be true of masculine cultures? h. None of the above. Be self-motivated to “do it right” regardless of social pressures.27. Which is the instrumental view regarding motivation to become ethical? b. Which best describes entrepreneurs? d. 36. 40. Lack of threat to incumbents from substitute products/ and services. Relational contracting. Firms do not feel compelled to act unless faced with a disaster or public outcry. 28. Chapter 5 37. Emphasis on perseverance and savings. 34. AACSB: Tier 1: Analytic.
Licensing. Firm invests directly in production or service activities in another country. Which of the following best describes Foreign Direct Investment (FDI)? b.b. 42. .
B and C above. 55.43. They share risks with local partners. Which is not true of joint ventures? b. Licensing/franchising. A and B above. Greenfield operations refers to: . Organizing firm-specific resources and capabilities as a bundle: e. 57. Non-equity modes of entry typically involve: a. 49. 44. d. Exports and contractual agreements. Small-scale entries normally benefit by their: e. Which of the following are not regulatory risks? e. 51. 53. As firms expand into more countries. All of the above. Which normally provides the most control over technology and brand? a. Selling the rights to intellectual property for a royalty fee is involved in: a. The strategic goal of price. 56. e. Large-scale entries do which of the following? d. The differences in formal and informal institutions that govern the rules of the game in different countries include differences. Which of the following involves the most complexity? c. 50. All of the above 47. Occurs only in domestic markets. “Greenfield ventures” are: c. 45. A and B above. Which of the following exemplify trade barriers? e. 48. Wholly owned subsidiaries that are built from scratch in a foreign country. they should recognize: d. All of the above. Direct investment. 54. Profit-seeking involves going after countries that offer the highest 52. Chapter 6 46. Direct investment.
Which represents an alliance with suppliers? b. 68. 66. risks and uncertainties. 59. Reduce costs. 65. Upstream vertical. In measuring the performance of strategic alliances and networks. The first concern in determining whether a relationship should be based on contract or equity is: f. They must guard against opportunism. Co-marketing. None of the above. A joint venture can be described as: e. All of the above. Chapter 8 70. Tacit collusion. None of the above. Which of the following are not true regarding managers involved in alliances and networks? b. 69. Cooperation between rivals is usually suspected of being: a. 67. 63. exploitation refers to such things as: e. Turnkey projects. A and B above. B through D above. 62. 61. Which is not an advantage of strategic alliances and networks? a. 60. which of the following is not correct? c. Chapter 7 58. Contractual alliances include all of the following except: a.b. subjective measures include: c. Strategic alliances involve: e. In comparing M&As with alliances and networks. Which (if any) of the following are not involved in the stages of forming business relationships? e. All of the above. Which is true of strategy? d. All of the above are involved. Many M&As end up destroying value. As a type of relationship tie. . 64.
Research regarding the relationship between product diversification and firm performance indicates that: e.71. 78. Extender Chapter 9 80. to those of the focal firm” refers to similarity of: b. The legal standards for interfirm cooperation are ambiguous in many other countries. Which is not true concerning US anti-trust policy today? e. Which of the following is not a legal means of signaling? e. Heterogeneous products. All of the above. 74. Dumping is defined as: b. 73. 75. 76. Firm A may be more successful in imitating Firm B if Firm B: e. in terms of both type and amount. None of the above. 77. Which would be more characteristic of conglomerates? c. . 81. b. thus leading to a/an strategy. Strategic alliances. 84. Explicit collusion is exemplified by: d. Which geographic diversification is most likely to reduce the liability of foreignness? a. 72. “The extent to which a given competitor possesses strategic endowment comparable. The main types of attack include: d. In some industries where pressures for globalization are relatively low. local firms may possess some skills and assets that are transferable overseas. Conglomeration tends to provide all of the following except: a. Resources. All of the above. Culturally adjacent countries. All of the above. “Putting one’s eggs in different baskets. Which of the following are least likely to result in collusion? b. Manufacturing. Sources of operational synergy include: c. 79. Product-unrelated diversification.” 83. An exporter selling below cost abroad. 82.
Domestic. Which is one motive for M&A which does not necessarily increase shareholder value? d. 92. Geographic area structure. pipelines and tankers. All of the above. 94. b. Which of the following is not an argument in favor of centralization in knowledge management but instead is an argument in favor of decentralization? e. Chapter 10 91. Corporate scope is shaped by: e. The type of knowledge that is codifiable (that is. Which of the following is a key idea regarding the reciprocal relationship between strategies and structures within MNEs? d. 89. 93. Four strategic choices for MNEs do not include: b. Which of the following is not true of the global matrix structure? d. All of the above. A and C above. Vertical 87.85. 88. Boards of directors perform all of the following except: . refining. None of the above. Select the best choice: a company that is engaged in oil production. 95. This structure benefits front-line managers who now have only one boss – either a country manager or a product division manager. The most appropriate structure for a multidomestic strategy is a: b. Sources of operation synergy: d. All of the above. Product-related diversification involves all of the following except: e. Chapter 11 97. At its core. 90. 86. Synergy. 96. Explicit. it can be written down and transferred without losing much of its richness) is called: a. Synergy. diversification is essentially driven by all of the following except: c. and gasoline stations has engaged in expansion.
Which of the following is true in regards to outside directors? e. 108. Strategists should: e. which leads to efficient capital and product markets. B through D above. Secondary stakeholder groups are: e. 102. Which of the following is true regarding CEO duality? e. 99. 98. An example of a primary stakeholder group is: d. Actively participate in CSR policy discussion. Shareholder wealth maximization. Formal legal protection and impact on founder’s dilution of equity. 101.” 107. Are effective steward of the owners’ interests. 110. Agency theory assumes that managers: e. 103. Day to day operations. Academic research has failed to empirically establish a link between the outsider/insider ratio and firm performance. Institution-based considerations in governance include all of the following except: c. there is a relationship between inside management ownership and firm performance. 105. Which of the following is an accommodative CSR strategy? d. Industry-Based Considerations regarding corporate governance include all of the following except: d.e. 106. Argue that “the social responsibility of business is to increase its profits. Firms around the world are being pressured to combine the two top jobs. An example of a secondary stakeholder group is: b. which will likely result in a higher level of CSR? c. Suppliers . turbulent industries. In relatively high-growth. Socially and environmentally conscious suppliers with standardized products that have multiple substitutes. Employees. Free market advocates tend to do all of the following except: a. 100. All of the above. Using the five forces model. CSR tends to be the least concerned with improving: b. Chapter 12 104. 109.
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