Kamran Revision Kit.

F1 ACCA. ACCOUNTANT IN BUSINESS Version 1.0 Beta.
Introduction 1a Business organization and structure- structure and strategy 1 1b Business organization and structure- departments and functions 8 2 Information technology and systems 3 Influences on organizational culture 4 Ethical considerations 5 Corporate governance and social responsibility 6 The macro-economic environment 7 The business environment 8 The role of accounting 9 Control, security and audit 10 Identifying and preventing fraud 11 Leading and managing people 12 Individuals, groups and teams 13 Motivating individuals and groups 14 Personal effectiveness and communication 15 Recruitment and selection 16 Diversity and equal opportunities 17 Training and development 18 Performance appraisals

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Chapter 1a. Business Organization and Structure and Strategy.
1. An Organization is a social arrangement which pursues collective goals, which controls its own performance. A. True B. False. 2. Organization is not preoccupied with performance. A. True B. False. 3. Organization accumulates and share knowledge. A. True B. False. 4. Organization enable people to be more ……………………………… A. Limited B. Educated C. Productive D. None of the above. 5. Public sector companies are owned by the ………………………………… A. Foreigner B. Locals C. Government D. NGOs. 6. The organization who converting one resources into another are …………………………….. E.g. Coal into electric. A. Manufacturing B. Service industry C. Retail and distribution D. Energy Sector. 7. Retailing and Distributors companies extract and refine raw material. A. True B. False. 8. …………………………………. Include retailing, distribution, transport, banking, various business services (e.g. Accountancy, advertising) and public services such as education, medicine etc. A. Agriculture B. Manufacturing C. Energy D. Intellectual production E. Service industries 9. Intellectual production companies produce food and beverage products. A. True B. False 10. Private Sector companies are owned by the central or local government or agencies. A. True B. False 11. Limited companies term limited liabilities means ……………………………………….. A .Risk is generally restricted to the amount that they have invested in the company B. Risk is linked to investor personal holdings. C. That the funds they invest in the company are secured. D. None of the above. 12. A limited company has a separate legal personality from its owners (shareholders). A. True B. False. 13. The ownership and control of a limited company are not legally separate even though they may be vested in the same individual or individuals. A. True B. False. 14. …………………………………………. Controls management and staff, and is accountable to the shareholders, but it has responsibilities towards both groups – owners and employees alike. A. Internal Auditors B. Government agencies C. Ngos D. Board of Directors. 15. ……………………………………. Usually consists of career managers who are recruited to operate the business, and are accountable to the board. A. External Auditors

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B. Internal Auditors C. Operational management D. Support Staff. 16. Public limited companies are also known as public sector companies. A. True B. False 17. Which of the following is not the advantage of a limited company? A. Separate legal personality B. No restrictions on size. C. Limited Liability D. Ownership is legally separate from control. E. Compliance cost. 18. Cooperative are owned by …………………………… who share profit. A. Workers or Customers B. Govt. And ngos C. Owners and Management D. None of the above. 19. An organization which is owned by its member rather than outside investors are called ………………………… A. Co operatives B. Limited Company C. Public Sector Companies D. Mutual Association or Funds 20. Public sector companies can raise funds from which of the following ways? A. Raising taxes B. Making charges (service charges etc) C. Borrowing D. All of the above. 21. Public sector has a problem that they have to pay high rates for their borrowing from their lenders. A. True B. False 22. NGOs are directly linked with the local or central government and their prime aim is to make profits. A. True B. False 23. Mintzberg’s believes that all organizations can be analyzed into ……………………. Components. A. 2 B. 4 C. 5 D. 7. 24. Which of the following is component of Mintzberg’s organization model? A. Strategic apex B. Techno structure C. Support staff D. Operating core E. All of the above. 25. Strategic apex is the individual who carry out basic work in the organization. A. True B. False 26. ………………………… are the managers and the management structure work between the strategic apex and operating core. A. Strategic apex B. Operating core C. Support staff. D. Middle line. 27. Support staff is the help staff in the organization, such as secretarial, cleaning, repair and maintenance staff work. A. True B. False 28. Techno structure is staff without direct line management responsibilities, but who provide technical support. That is IT and Accounts. A. True B. False 29. When organization is sub-divided into specialist departments, with each department specializing in a particular type of activity. E.g. marketing, finance and production. This type of departments are known as ………………………………………. A. Geographic B. Product / brand C. Functional

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…………………………………. If manager have 7 subordinate the span of control will be 8. A. All of the above F. Hybrid 30. True B. Divisional Departmentation C. False.. E. Level of management in the organization B. Group and consciences decision making. 34. 37. Span of control means ………………………………………. SBU stands for Standard business Understanding. Permanent employee of the company. False 36. Matrix D. Mix of all Structures. False 31. Hybrid Structure are ………………………………………………………. No middle line or hierarchy C. True B. They are paid in fee for results than of salary. Wide span of control B. True B. None of the above. Centralized system of command. A. False. Functional. E. Successful Divisionalisation requires certain key conditions. Must have potential of growth in its own area of operation. Hybrid. 43. They pay heavy amount on pensions. Shamrock organization self employed professionals are …………………………… (Give 2 best answers) A. Shamrock organization C. Centralize B.D. Must be large enough to support the quantity and quality of management its need. True B. Is the division of a business into autonomous regions or product businesses. 40. False. A. False. 4 . Hybrid D. A. expenditures and capital asset purchase programmers?’ A. A. No of superior looking after one job C. B. 35. Span of control is also called and known as span of management. Handy called shamrock as flexible firm. No of subordinate directly reports to its manager / superior. holiday pay and health insurance. A simple structure is also known as entrepreneurial structure. …………………………………. True B. State which of the following is correct? A. 38. Top management executives C. 33. 32. Must have properly delegated authority B. Decentralized B.. 39. Organizations have an increase use of part time and temporary contracts of employment. D. D. Hired on contact on a project by project basis D. C. A. D. A. No of managers responsible for internal control. A. False. Have both Functional and Departmental structure at the same management level D. Shamrock organization has a fix employment no even in the time of recession or slow growth. True B. True B. Should be scope and challenge in the job of the management of each unit. 41.. Which of the following are not the characteristics of simple structure? A. Direct control over operating core. One of the disadvantages of Geographical departmentation is its causes duplication and inconsistency in policy. A. A. each with its own revenues. Divisionalisation C. 42. Functional Departmentation B.

Business Strategy C. Make an organization taller B. True B. Corporate strategy has a long term impact. Operational / Functional Strategy. policy making and crisis handling it have time frame for implication of 3 to 5 years. Expenditure Strategy D. or single product or company brand that has an objective and mission different from other company business and that can be marketed independently from the rest of the company? A. True B. A. True B. 54. 50. Narrow span of control mean strict and close monitoring of subordinates which result in de-motivation of employees. A. Business Strategy. Scalar Chain means. Deal with specialized areas of activity.. Corporate Strategy C. which typically has a corporate centre and a number of strategic business units (SBUs). False. Strategic business units or SBUs D. True B. 57. A. True B. 52. 51. Public Sector Co. Operational Strategy B. A tall organization with many management levels has a wide span of control. Mean how an organization approaches a particular product area. 49. Business Strategy B. The chain of command from most senior to most junior. Strategic business units or SBUs D. False 55. Which of the following is not the level of strategy in the organization? A. Business Strategy C. False 53. Corporate strategy B. False. Make an organization flatter C. True B. A. A. A. Functional / Operational Strategy B. Functional Strategy. Strategic management is carried out by the senior management and is concerned with direction setting. 56. No of subordinate reporting to a manager B. Market Strategy D. False. The chain of command from top to bottom D. Make no effect. Public Sector Co. A. Delayering would: A. True B. …………………………………. Is a Company division. product line within a division. Limited Company C. Delayering is the reduction of the number of management levels from bottom to top. Employees Management D. Corporate Strategy C. ……………………………. A. In a small organization the span of control will be narrow because the numbers of employees are limited. False 5 . …………………………. False. False. 46. 48. More non supervisory work on the manger will result in a narrow span of control. A. The chain of command from most junior to senior C. The distinction between corporate and business strategy arises because of the development of the divisionalised business organization.44.. D. The strategy which concerned with what type of business the organization is in is called ……………………………………………. None of the above. 58. 45. 47. True B. ……………………………………………… A. Market Strategy B. A. A.

It’s separate in the law from its owners. Energy D. Large or wide span of control B. Agriculture C. Small or narrow B. 63. Small or narrow span of control 71. Contingent work force. 61. Limited company 6 . Are the organizations which acquire raw material and by the application of labor and technology turn them into product. Democratic control (one member. Their a different way that an organization can be different from each other. Cooperative dissolves if any member quit. Small or narrow span of control 69. A. False. Size / source of finance / technology.59. True B. Manufacturing. Cooperatives are owned by workers or customer. Self employed professionals B. Span of control is faster and reach the top management in quick time. A……………………… span of control results in each manager supervising a small number of employees. 66. Which of the following is not a part of shamrock organization flower diagram? A. Distribution of the surplus in proportion to purchases E. 62. True. Decisions made at this level would have medium term implications. Synergy B. Decisions at this level would deal with short term matters. False 60. Sole traders C. Activity / legal status C. C. Proprietor ship B. A. A …………………… of management occurs when more subordinates report directly to a given manager. A ……………………………. A. None of the above. A. Open membership B. Service industries B. Ownership / control B. A. False. Tiny D. Organizations enable ………………………. A. Professionals. No of worker and managers E. Consumer E. ………………… is recognized in law as a person that can own assets and owe money in its own name. 67. ………………………………. Tactical management (carried out by middle management) is concerned with establishing means to the corporate ends. Or in other words they add value to their purchase. ………………………………. mobilizing resources and innovating (finding new ways to achieve business goals). 72. Tiny D. None of the above. Accountability C. 65. 70. Productivity D. Profit and non profitable D. Large or wide C. one vote) D. Which one of the following is incorrect? A.: by bringing together two individuals their combined output will exceed their output if they continued working separately. Small or narrow span of control 68. Promotion of education. C. B. Large or wide C. A.allows a manager to communicate quickly with the employees under them and control them more easily A. D. A. which of the following feature is not belongs to it? A. None of the above. …………………………… span of control is economical for the company. Large or wide span of control B. Operational management (carried out by supervisors and operatives) is concerned with routine activities to carry out tactical plans. 64. True B. One of the advantages of the narrow span of control is that its required low management skills. Techno structure. Large or wide span of control B. Small or narrow B. A. A.

75. A. 76.. Are temporary and part time worker who will experience short periods of employment and long period of unemployment? A. False. Financial accounting B. None of the above. Shamrock organization. Treasury or finance dept. 80. None of the above 79. 74. Professional core D. Prime minister C. A. Pay is tied to organizational performance. Contingent work force. C. Which of the following is incorrect? A. It’s allow multinational groups of companies to legitimately to avoid the payment of tax. 33 4 C 19 D 34 5 C 20 D 35 6 D 21 B 36 7 B 22 B 37 B B E C A D B 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 D A B A A.paypal. Shamrock organization. None of the above. Parliament.com/cgi-bin/webscr?cmd=_s-xclick&hosted_button_id=U3HFU2THV2WJ8 Answers of Chapter 1a. B. A. True. 77. D. Tax avoidance. 1 A 16 B 31 2 B 17 E. Management accounting C. Shareholders C. Contingent work force. A. Public sector companies are ultimately accountable to ……………………………………. None executive directors B. Self Employed. Government Collages. A. ………………………. NGO and Charities are not required to produce accounts in law. Https://www.D. Tax service C. In order to keep the work updated with professional’s we need donation for payments in future. Professional core D. The ……………………………… in large companies allows the directors and managers to run the company on their behalf. Which of the following is not the example of Public Sector Company? A. C. The accounting department is subdivided into three parts. Government hospital.. Tax system D. Employee’s of the company D. These MCQs are prepared after hard work and keeping Students help & need in mind. is not a criminal activity. C. Tax evasion B. United Nations B. B. Financial advisory dept. 73. ……………………. Self Employed. 32 3 A 18 A. C A 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 A D D B A B B 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 D C A C B 7 . If you like to help others you can add your contribution on the following link. …………………………. B. Finance Minister D. Wall mart store D. Police department. Customers and civil society. B. 78.

A. 18. Marketing mix D. Organization is preoccupied with performance. Strategic apex is the top management in the organization. so there is less management skill required 70. 3Ps B. Marketing mix is also referred as ………………………… A. Form / type 4. Simple system there is no middle management. Promotion E. thing move around him. Because in narrow span of control manger control very few subordinates. music etc. 43. A narrow span of control allows a manager to communicate quickly with the employees under them and control them more easily 68. 17. The ownership and control of a limited company are legally separate. Product Gift B. and safe all expenditure. 67. Car. Product B. True B. False.g. It costs less money to run a wider span of control because a business does not need to employ as many managers. Product form refers to the different type of product with in a product class. 21. 74. More level of management result in narrow span of control. They produce software. van and bus etc. 9. It requires a higher level of management skill to control a greater number of employees. Owned companies. 80. A. 33. SBU stands for Strategic business unit. so the message reaches more employees faster. who share the profits. 10. Co-operatives are businesses owned by their workers or customers. Quality D. Additional benefits which are not directly associate with the product but are complementary with the product are ………………………… A. The apex control and direct all. Retail and Dist companies delivering goods to the end users. There are less layers of management to pass a message through. Public limited is private sector while public sector is govt. 4Ps C. They get advantage of low interest from bank because they are backed up by Govt. Chapter 1b. Strategic apexes make all decision. Which of the following is not the element of marketing mix? A. Departments and functions 1. truck. 36. A ……………………… product is a product essential or main features. 5Qs D. 25. They allow rapid downsizing in slow growth. Simple structure is a one man show. 16. Place 2. E. 8 . Core product B. 39. publishing. 49. 7. Augmentation 5. Augmentations C. Owned public sector companies. False. Private sector is owned by individuals and others. 69. Tax evasion is a criminal activity. 2. And they are none profitable organization. Its involve breaking of law for not declaring the income to save tax. Price C. Core product C.8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 E B B A A B D C 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 C E B D A A C A 38 A 53 B 68 A 83 39 B 54 A 69 A 84 40 CD 55 D 70 A 85 41 A 56 C 71 C 86 42 C 57 A 72 C 87 43 B 58 A 73 B 88 44 A 59 A 74 D 89 45 B 60 A 75 D 90 Explanation. Or week span of control. 13. 32. They are required to. 3S 3. Govt. Class D. They have no link with Govt. 45. Basic work is done by the operational core. Above is the definition of manufacturing co. 22. Compliance cost one of the disadvantages of the limited co. films. No then the span of control will also be 7.

Which one is correct? A. Competitors 9. Provide information to the managers D. The international money and capital market deal in euro commercial papers. A. D. Cost of goods sold. Which of the following is the role of the finance function? A. Operating decisions which effect profit. The prime objective of R&D is to do product research not market research. A. Forex Exchange. D. 14. A.6. Management of finance means book keeping. Money market. A. Customers C. 17. Limited time offer B. A. 7. Large companies are not required to disclose their policies on paying suppliers in their annual financial statement. …………………………. False 19. True B. cash handling. True B. A. False 13. True B. False. 12. Raising funds B. 11. D. De-Centralized C. Is a market for trading short term financial instruments. Account receivable C. Skimming B. Traders B. Head office interference. E. Loot sale D. Bond Exchange C. Limited edition. State the one which is incorrect? A. Inventory 18. Skimming 8. A. A. Accounts payable E. Price is a weapon against ………………………………. True B. 10. Directors of the company are not responsible for preparing the book of accounts along with detail of assets and liabilities and the details notes. in short accounting. Reporting to the stakeholders E. True B. ……………………………… is a price which gave company the highest level of profit or company enjoy abnormal profit. Stock Exchange B. A. All of the above. bills of exchange and certificates of deposits. All of the above. Is a low price charged to persuade as many people as possible to buy the product in its early stage or at the time of introduction of the new product? A.. ………………………. 15. B. Following are the duties of the financial management. Cash B. False.. Financing decisions (how to pay for investment) C. Working capital consists of the following. Investment decisions B. invoicing and other financial documentation. True 9 . When most of the administration work is carried out by the HQ this type of act is known as ………………………………. Workers D. Security/control. Dividend decisions D. 16. Retained earnings mean expectation of profit in coming years. Which restrict lot of people to afford it? A. Penetration pricing C. and euro currency borrowing. Centralization D. False. Recording and controlling C. Stock out sale. Penetration pricing C. According to law. euro bonds.

The board of directors of a limited company is an example of ………………………………………. Committee. 21. A. B.B. Senior managers can take a wider view of the problem or task or objective C. True B. The reward system should motivate and ensure valued staffs are retained. A. D. 23. Enables targets to be set that contribute to the achievement of the overall strategic objectives of the organization. 29. B. Interview C. 22. A. Downsizing. employee relations and employee services. HR Department. False 31. Its help accounts department in recording transactions. Its enhance group working by developing multi skilled teams. To manage an organization’s relationship with its customers C. Ad hoc committee C. Executive committee. True B. Learning D. Because of communication technology it is now easy for the local management to take decision in decentralized organization with the help of data and info available from Head office. 10 . To create and maintain a co-operative climate of relationship with the organization. Policy and procedures are standardizing all over the organization. Centralized organization is a one in which authority is concentrated on different places. Greater control by senior management B. 24. True B. Crisis is handling more quickly and effectively. A. Selection B. True B. True B. A. A. Which one of the following is potential advantage of decentralization? (PP) A. ……………………………. motivation. False. 26. Administration C. A. A. True B. Which of the following is/are not objectives of human resource management? A. False 20. R&D D. False. Standing committee. D. True B. Its reduce staff turnover. To meet the organization’s social and legal responsibilities relating to the human resource. Decision are made at one placed and are easy to implement B. To obtain and develop the HR required by the organization. E. More accountability at lower levels D. A. Quality of decision due to experts and skills on top level E. F. False 28. One of the greater advantages of centralized system is that management is in a better position to understand the local and geographical problems.. Risk reduction in relation to operational decision-making C. 25. 27. A. Joint committee D. Selection is important to ensure the organization obtains people with the qualities and skills required. False 33. Accounts Department B. Which of the following are not the advantages of Centralization? A. False. Training and retraining are not a part of a HR plan. D. B. False 32. staffing levels. C. De-centralization is more effective and important in a rapid changing market for decision making. Which of the following is false statement about the HRM importance? A. Deal with organization. Appraisal. Its increase productivity by effective training. ………………………………. Improve motivation of Jr. Consistency of decision-making across the organization 30. To develop human resources that will respond effectively to change. Managers as they get chance to take responsibility.

35. B. True B. Management Committee B. ……………………………. Management committee. Quality B. Joint committee C. Process research is based on creating new products and developing existing ones. Inventory control / labor control 46. 44. True B. Process B. A. Are formed for a particular purpose on a permanent basis. Product Research D. Job design and method C. …………………………. Executive committee.34. Factory location and lay out E. Development D. A. Ad hoc committee C. Pure Research D. Delivery 43. Joint committee D. Ensuring the right no of employee’s. and dissolved after the completion of the task or achievement of the objective. False 38. 37.. True B. Development Research C. Production management. Product C. Pure Research B. Applied 41. ………………………………. Which of the following is not the purchasing mix? A. False. Production management. Selection of equipment and process B. Inventory control. ……………………… is original research to obtain new scientific or technical knowledge or understanding. A. Quantity C. Research is also like the pure research but have a particular aims or subject. Quality control / maintenance D. Is the use of existing scientific and technical knowledge to produce new and improved product or systems? A. False 42. Purchasing is 'the acquisition of material resources and business services for use by the organization. Committee has the power to govern or administer. C. A. False 47. Standing committee. Or which is appoint by the committee it’s self to solve or help in some of its own work. A.. A committee that is a subset of a larger committee is called a subcommittee. True B. …………………………. D. Promotion E. 45. Executive Committee D. Sub committee B. A. Selection of equipment and factory. A. Which of the following in not the short term decision? A. Price D. A. Their role is to deal with routine business delegated to them at weekly or monthly meetings. Executive committee D. Services are tangible in nature and can be stored. Which of the following is not the long term decision? A. Process Research C. Applied Research B. Ad hoc Committee 36………………… Committee formed for a specific task or objective. A. Selected kind of services purchases results in transfer of property. Standing committees C. Development Research 40. 11 . Production and control B. Process Research 39.

2. Treasurer. The key task of the organization is to determine the needs. State the incorrect. The……………………… function manages an organization’s relationships with its customers. A. Marketing. Financial Accountant. Sales Support. Marketing orientation means. Desire. Quantity E. 54. Feed back. ABC Corporation hired three members in the account department under the post of 1. Which of the following is incorrect? A. (Demand exceeds available supply. Production C. Sales Audit. Desire and Attitude. Productivity C. Prepare the financial statement for the company. Interest. Corporate Audit. Production orientation. 59. Add more features to the product – demand will pick up'. Processes B. Desire and Action C. Add more features to the product – demand will pick up D. Action D. 55. Awareness. Customers are naturally sales resistant so the product must be sold actively and aggressively and customers must be persuaded to buy them B. B. Functional Research. Marketing support the direct sales force by mean of telemarketing. Sales orientation C. a variant of production orientation means ………………………………………………. markets and distribution channels. Process research involves attention to how the goods/services are produced. A. Product orientation.) Is an example of ……… A. and the means to apply strategic control is known as the…………………………… A. None of the above. 2. A. Planning D. 48. False 52. C. Customers will buy whatever we produce – our job is to make as many as we can C. Research is further divided into 3 parts. Customers will buy whatever we produce – our job is to make as many as we can'. Operational management. Customers will buy whatever we produce – our job is to make as many as we can' D. Development Research D. Which of the following is incorrect? A. Sales D. It also supports the sales by providing brochures and catalogues to the customers. A. wants and values of a target market and to adapt the organization to delivering the desired satisfactions more effectively and efficiently than its competitors. Customers are naturally sales resistant so the product must be sold actively and aggressively and customers must be persuaded to buy them. 51. Budget analysis and control.A. B. 49. Internal Audit. 56. A. D. Interest. B. Invest surplus cash funds in the money market. …………………………………………… A. Pure research B. Marketing activities in organizations can be grouped broadly into four roles.. False 50. Quality Management. Which of the following two are the responsibilities of financial accountant? A. 53. A. Information. C. B. True B. This involves exercising strategic control of marketing.. False. 58. H R B. 12 . None of the above. Customers are naturally sales resistant so the product must be sold actively and aggressively and customers must be persuaded to buy them is an example of sales orientation. Marketing Audit. Process research has these aspects. AIDA stands for……………………………………. C. Marketing management aims to ensure the company is pursuing effective policies to promote its products. Management accountant. E. 57. C. Marketing Communication D. B. Accountability. Such firms do not research what customers actually want. Applied research C. Market orientation B. Product orientation D. respond to inquiries. True B. and customer data management etc. Awareness. True B. Strategic management.

It’s the responsibility of the director to prepare the books of the company. Process research is to improve the method of making things. They will also do market work but mandatory. Chapter 2. Provide accounting reports and data to other departments. 14. True B. Junior B. If you like to help others you can add your contribution on the following link. Choosing and preparing the location of the meeting C. False 5. A D 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 B C A D A B B C C B 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 A A D C B B A C D D 41 B 51 A 42 D 52 C 43 A 53 D 44 C 54 D 45 B 55 B 46 B 56 D 47 B 57 A 48 D 58 C 49 A 59 AD 50 D 60 C Explanation. Locals problem are better solved in De-Centralized system. Fixing the date and time of the meeting B. A. 30. Preparing and issuing various documents These MCQs are prepared after hard work and keeping Students help & need in mind. 18. 3.paypal. No they are required to do so. 4. Middle line 13 .D. Mean reducing steps and improving quality. no matter how 'interesting' it may be. True B. Executive support system and Executive information system are two different things? A. The quality of good information is described in a mnemonic as “ACCURATE”. Information that is not needed for a decision should be omitted. Arranging entertainment activity for the members. False. False. 19. Which of the following are not the duties of the committee secretary? A.com/cgi-bin/webscr?cmd=_s-xclick&hosted_button_id=U3HFU2THV2WJ8 Answers of Chapter. False. Authority is at one place. Information should be obtained at any cost. 26. 1b. They are part of HR plan 27. Profit earned by the company kept with it for future needs. 16. The real work is product. A. True B. 60. D. regardless of its benefits. A. 2. A. Executive support system is an information system for ………………………………………… executives. In order to keep the work updated with professional’s we need donation for payments in future. 41. Https://www. Information technology and system 1. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 C B A D A B D D C E 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 E A D B A B C B. True B.

Unstructured or Semi structured. Knowledge work system D.. Management information system mainly rely information which collected from ……………………………………. Transaction processing system C. True B. Extranet C. Expert system is a ……………………………. Computer system which help in productivity rise B. False. Internal Sources B. A. Internet B. 14. A. Is a system which allows organization external users such as supplier or customers to access the main/other network system with a valid username and password on all areas which are permitted to visit or viewed? A. Decision support system (DSS) are system that provide support for managers in making decision for …………………………. Both internal and external. by analyzing data and converting it into organized information. 6. 17. False. Internal Sources B. True B. Senior D. Cable and wire. Decision support System D. of a routine or non-routine nature. Extranet is an advance version of intranet with special features. Both internal and external 9. Intranet is a mini version of internet. Record and perform routine transactions. External Sources C. A. True B. Problems. it is also flexible and user friendly and helpful in decision making. Extranet C. Management info system B. Intranets D. A. A. Structured B. Legal advice system. Internet B. 8. Out Sources D. A. Management information system (MIS) provide structured information (Organized information) and have an internal focus. Expert system used database of facts and rules for decision making. 12. (ESS) Executive support system pool data from …………………………………………………………. A. Computer software with artificial intelligence of expertise. Management information system provides information to management.. A. Example bank credit approval system. True B. Cable and wire. External Sources C. Knowledge work system. 15. Management information system B. 7. Intranets D. None of the above. A. System. False. investment advice system. Documented D. Computer system which help to educate people C.. Intranet system cannot connect to other systems or terminals by internet. 10. Expert system 18. 19. False. A. Spread sheet is an example of …………………………………. medical diagnosis system and tax advice system are the example of ………………………. A. Expert System C. True B. D. True B. False 11. A. Visible C. ……………………….C. A. Is an internal computer system within an organization that uses the internet to link distance terminal to main or central server? Or network is used to connect to the main system of the organization. False. Out Sources D. 16. 14 .. 13. …………………………………….

. B. Production B. Which of the following about database advantages are not correct? A. Are information systems that facilitate the creation and integration of new knowledge into an organization A. Accounting C. voice mail. schedulers C. ………………………………… is a process of gathering. Database that is used to record old records B. Expert system 21. Environmental scanning D. True B. Database avoids duplication of data. He and his colleagues are looking at the sales figures for various types of clothing. The director asks them to use exception reporting to summaries their findings. Intranet 15 . External Audit. False 25.. Management information system 24. and dispensing information for tactical or strategic purposes A. Entertainment. Personal Security system. The preparation of reports on routine matters on an ‘ad hoc’ basis. A. Tool needs to increase productivity and effective internal control. Data can be process as per the requirement of the user E. The analysis of those items where performance differs significantly from standard or budget. Information about personnel will be linked to the……………………. System. 22. The scrutiny of all data as a matter of course saves in exceptional circumstances 27. groupware. Physical information B. A. 31. D. A. desktop publishing. 28. and digital filing systems B.20. letters and symbols and relates to facts. A. events and transactions. A. It is used to send and received information from any location. Auditing D. C. Internal Audit C. False. True B. A. Staff themselves are one of the prime source of internal information. There are no problem about data security and privacy. Which of the following is incorrect? A. Is a type of Database auditing which work as a check and balance for data security? D. Environmental scanning D.focuses attention on those items where performance differs significantly from standard or budget. Database management system (DBMS) is best describe as …………………………………………………. New software can easily be linked with the data base to create new reports etc. Transaction processing system C. C. A. Research and development (R & D) work often relies on information about other R & D work being done by another company or by government institutions. True B. Software that manages a database dealing with all aspect of access of data. The reporting of exceptional events. file maintenance and data security. Internet C. Data consists of numbers. analyzing. B. The ……………………… is a global network connecting million of computer. 26. Standard software available for creating simple database are very costly as compare to organization self created database. Gordon works in the accounts department of a retail business. Payroll 30. False 29. …………………………. Exception reporting B. A. A. Spreadsheets. 23. Word processing. Which of the following correctly defines the concept of ‘exception reporting’ within a business context? (BPP RK) A. Confecting of date in different departments is reduce. False 33. C. outside the normal course of events. True B. videoconferencing. Planning B. Decision Making D.. intranets. D. Knowledge work system D. Management info system B. desktop databases D. ………………………. 32. E-mail. Which of the following are not the examples of Office Automation System (OAS). Organization required information for a range of purposes. Controlling C.

39.B. Internal controls 46.R. and may have access to database to extract data for analysis. Consist of data analysis models. C. A. It automatically detects the error and beef alert. 41. C. Which one of the following is incorrect source of environmental scanning information? A. 38. Strategic management C. Corporate governance B. An expert system always provides the correct solution to a problem. It is a deemed to safe and secure in any condition including physical and technical. 45. This is known as ………………………………. 42. S. It should have the capacity to overcome future needs. A. Security controls B. Knowledge work system. 43. External users are not allowed to use this system. A …………………………. 36. A. Extranet C. Database B. Executive Support System (ESS) B. Decision Support System (DSS) D. 37. Company internal data information E. A. It should provide the user with information about a number of different alternatives or different possible outcome. The measures an organization can take to protect information and information systems can be classified into which three of the following? A. The government. D.. Integrity controls D. D. Expert System C. 35. It should be providing for the need and requirement of different users when needed. True. 40.T University installs a main frame computer in its IT department which has 45 terminals. D. …………………………………. A. A. True B. Consultants and other information bureau B. Newspaper and other magazines. Extranet C. True B. 34. False. A. Module. System. is the system by which organizations are directed and controlled by their senior officers. 16 . Intranet B. A. performs and records routine transactions. Transaction Processing System (TPS) 44. ………………. A. Database has the tendency to overcome any error by human posting. Data and information come from both inside and outside sources of an organization. A …………………………… is a collection of structural data. Knowledge Work System (KWS) C. It should be shared B. at an operational level. True B. False. Decision support System D. Environment auditing and environmental scanning are two names of one thing. False. from where they can access installed information. Or have the tendency to update in future. D. B. Which one of the following is not the characteristic of a database? A. False. Employees can also access internet for office use through this system. Executive directorship D. Management information system B. Work sheet D. Database management system C. An ESS is a strategic-level system and DSS a management-level system A.. True B. Cable net. Each terminal leads to different officials of the university. False. Libraries and other electronics data source. Internet. Contingency control. Cable. Disclosure controls C. Internet.

Internet. A. Management / Tactical information is required to deal with cash flow forecasts and working capital management. ESS is also called EIS. Expert System. Sigma has 235 different dealers. B. 49. D. Sigma has no online website. If you like to help others you can add your contribution on the following link. Extranet C. False. B. Knowledge Work System.47. Knowledge Work System. 10. 2. ……………………………. Knowledge Work System. Decision Support System. 48. 16. False because in large organization data is held in one place and it is connected by internet. B. That is inventory system and sales/purchase order processing system. D. What kind of system is this? A. B. A. ………………………… is help to performed in typical office such as document management. C. All dealers have given a valid user name and password so they can access authorized area and their account status from their offices and gave online orders and check inventory levels etc. Intranet B. 41. D. A. D.. 1. Expert System. Systems are used at operational level for routine processing of data items and transactions. 37. Expert System.paypal. accounting programs. B A A B C D A A C B 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 A B A A D C D C A C 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 D A C A A B D A D D 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 C B C C B C B A B B 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 D A D A A A B A D A 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 C 17 . Sophisticated software’s. Environmental scanning gather information from outside not from inside. Office Automation System. 51. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 Explanation. C. Database gave results what is entered. facilitating communication and managing data. 50. 4. True.com/cgi-bin/webscr?cmd=_s-xclick&hosted_button_id=U3HFU2THV2WJ8 Answers of Chapter. Information should be cost effective. It is not self corrected. If you put garbage it gave you the same. Sigma distributors have installed a computer at its main office which can be connected via internet. C. Cable net. Office Automation System. A. Https://www. In order to keep the work updated with professional’s we need donation for payments in future. Transaction processing system. Office Automation System. Because it have analytical capabilities. These MCQs are prepared after hard work and keeping Students help & need in mind. and others skill and knowledge base programs are an example of …………………………. Decision Support System.

7. Dionysus C. Role B. procedures. Power Culture. 6. True. In the task culture the focus is on the other things i:e rules. and system. Task culture is very cheap and economical. Is the GOD of power culture? A. Power D. A. A. 1. Large organizations C. Athena B. False 11. A. True B. Power culture is also known as …………………………………… culture. Personal 8. Club D. Apollo D. Task C. Dionysus C. Community C. A.Chapter 3. False. 10. Control remains in the central point. Dionysus C. Task culture is also known as …………………………………… A. False 13. False 14. Personal 3. Culture D. Limited Companies B. False. Role B. Apollo D. 18 . Culture is also known as bureaucracy culture. Zeus 9. 5. True B. Role / Apollo organizations are very effective in small working group or small companies. No matter how long the size of the organization power culture remains strong and effective.. True B. …………………………. A. Task culture is well suited to an organization that is continually facing new problems and challenges. A. Athena B. Power Culture is best considered for ……………………………. Is the collective programming of the mind which distinguishes the members of one category of people from another? A. Values 2. ………………………. Organization B. 15. Zeus 12. True B. Zeus 4. A. A. Government owned D. False. True B. A. The Responsibilities of each individual are defined by the job in the role culture. B. …………………… is the GOD of role culture. A. True B. Task culture (Athena) there is a clear leader to control the project team or role team. Organization is capable of adopting change quickly. Organization. ………………………………. Influences on organization culture. Task C. Small size entrepreneurial Org. False. A. Apollo D. Athena B. True B. A. worker are not allowed to over step their limits. IT and Knowledge base etc. False.

None of the above. Uncertainty avoidance organization have written rules & regulation. True B. Power Distance. Uncertainty avoidance B. Uncertainty avoidance C. 24. Athena B. Individualism E. When a group feels threatened and endangered by unexpected and unfamiliar happenings is called …………………………………. Role C. Athena B. Individualism D. A. True B. 29. A. Power distance B. False 27. Masculinity C. 20. Masculinity D. False. Formal B. When the interest of the individual come before the collective interest of the group this is called ……………………………. Role Culture D. 25. Is the GOD of personal culture. Informal C. High power distance culture expects more decentralization and top-down chain of command with no supervision. False. Zeus 19. Uncertainty avoidance C. Task E. ……………………… refers to the way in which power is dispersed within the organization. An informal organization never exists alongside the formal one. Power distance. 22. 28. False. Apollo D. Power culture the entire organization structure is built around one individual or a group of individuals. tenderness. A. Which of the following is not the type of culture Harrison classified in his type of cultures? A. focus on relationships and quality of working are quality of a man. 18. 23. Value of modesty. Dionysus C. A. A. Masculinity C. A. 21. Personal culture. Individualism C. Task Culture D. Stakeholder D. A. False.. Masculinity. specialists & experts. A. 30. Low power distance culture B. When subordinate expect involvement and participation in the decision making in power culture is known as …………………………… A. Which of the following are not the features of informal organization? 19 . Power culture. Existential culture D. True B.. Power distance B. Power Culture B. Uncertainty avoidance B. Personal culture is also known as ……………………………………………. and standardization. A. ……………………………. 17. True B. The ………………………………… organization is a network of personal and social relationships. Individualism 26. Task Culture D.. A. High power distance culture.16. The rest of the organization exists to serve the needs of the central individual. A. consensus. Which of the following is not the model of Hofstede’s model? A. True B.

A. General people B. True B. False. False 41. They are in the high power and high interest zone C. 37. It’s have informal way of communication. Which of the following are the connected stakeholders of the company? A. False. Informal org. 32. Gave knowledge to its worker through informal networks. Informal work practice may cut corners. Government. 38. E. community and pressure groups B. Internal stake holders are the government. False. True B. Secondary stake holders are called external stakeholders who have no direct link in personal or finance in the company. 44. Speed of the informal org. True B. lack of absenteeism and low turnover. Connected C. True B. False. C. D. Grapevine. 31. B. Power influence structures. 36. A. True B. False. A. 39. customers and shareholders D. 34. Auditors D. Employees and management of the company C. C. A. False 40. Stakeholders and shareholder of the company mean the same A. They can move to level A at any time D. Suppliers. The stakeholder in the group C (large institute and shareholders) should be kept satisfied because? A. 43. All of the above. D. Role Culture C. A. Which of the following are the benefits of informal organization? A. a. 45. Power of the stakeholder. They love to have knowledge B. False. A. 33. A. Its accepts social relationship and grouping within or cross formal structure. Power Culture B. bush telegraph or others. Power of the stakeholders. External. Employees are satisfied. The stakeholder in the level B (community and charity) is not important at all. bankers. Its working style are bureaucrative D. Internal B. Investors C. Culture develops over time and can change instantly as a result of single major event. …………………………. True B. A primary stakeholder is one whose financial or personal situation is correlated directly with the performance of a business.g. True B. A. Then can move to the key player level D at any time. Task Culture 20 . Power Distance. community and pressure groups. Are those individuals or groups that. Is very fast and effective as compare to formal one. 35. Observer D. There are 2 type of primary stakeholders first is internal and other is connected. NGOs and Army. potentially. Police. have an interest in what the organization does. True B. The key players are found in the group D those are key customers and decision makers. 42. B. Stakeholders. True b. violating safety or quality assurance measures. death of the owner etc. False. The focus of the informal organization are people not the work. A. A. Which of the following is not the culture classified by Harrison. Which of the following is not the type of stake holder? A.

Power Culture B. B. Which of the following is also called as club or spider web culture. Power Culture B. Role Culture C. Task Culture D. James was the project in charge while Mr. IT companies. C. has a task to develop a banking software for one of its client. Navy. 49. If you like to help others you can add your contribution on the following link. Remand was the lead programmer.com/cgi-bin/webscr?cmd=_s-xclick&hosted_button_id=U3HFU2THV2WJ8 Answers of Chapter. Existential or Person culture. Role Culture C. Remand because of its skills and knowledge he have and shown in this project rather than the project in charge. Power Culture B. is? A. Existential or Person culture. Staff respect and accept the authority of Mr. construction and building companies are the example of ……………………………. False. 52. 50. Mr. Role Culture C. Army.. These MCQs are prepared after hard work and keeping Students help & need in mind. 47. A. A. The organization is capable of adapting quickly to changes. True. 48. Role culture organization relay on formal communication rather than informal communications and are best for large formal organizations. A. knowledge base companies.paypal. Leader has direct communication with rest of the employee’s. E. Existential or Person culture. Task Culture D. In order to keep the work updated with professional’s we need donation for payments in future. Https://www.E. D. 46. Air Force. Task Culture D. Police and intelligence agencies are example of …………………………… culture. 51. Power Culture B. B. Which of the following statement about power culture is incorrect? A. Existential or Person culture. 3. These type of organization have strict bureaucratic rules and regulations. These Organizations are club of like minded people introduce by like minded people. Personal influence decrease as the size of the organization grows over 20 people. Task Culture D. Existential or Person culture. Blue soft corp. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 C C D D A B A C A B 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 A B B B A C A B D A 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 B C B C B A B B B C 31 A 32 D 33 A 34 D 35 C 36 B 37 C 38 A 39 A 40 B 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 A D B A C A D B A C 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 C 21 . A. Role Culture C. What kind of culture is blue soft corp.

14. Ethics C. A. 28. Ethical behavior is seen as the highest level of behavior that society expects.Explanation. 21. In Greek. Ethical environment C. Organization are autonomous. False 8. Non-legal rules and regulation C. Culture C. Customs 3. beliefs and education of society as a whole. ……………………………………. A. Chapter 4. A. Rules B. 1 …………………………. Accountant Dept. It’s always exists with the formal one. A. Task culture is expensive because expert charge market price. These are the qualities of a men / masculinity. A. attitudes. There are three main sources of rules that regulate behavior of individuals and businesses. 12. Religion D. External auditors D.. The law B. While shareholders are the owner of the co. Ethics D. A. Sports B. …………………………………… consists of the customs. Power culture is effective if the size is under or near 20 people. There is no dominated or clear leader. Political D. Laws D. A. Corporate environment 9. Political environment B. True B. regulations and government agencies. Ethical considerations. 11. Strategic apex C. Greater Centralization and top down chain of command and closer supervision. Tribe. Social C. Regulation 7. False 4. 27. All managers have a duty of faithful service to the external purpose of the organization and this lies most heavily on the shoulders of those at the …………………………………………. 6. They are important and they should be kept informed. True B. ………………………… is a set of moral principles to guide behavior. 37. Ethical 10. 10. False 12. False 6. State the one which is incorrect. Corporate B. Played a very important role in development of the rules for the individuals and many of them are still in place today. Best for stable organization when large and when the work is predictable. A. The term Deontology means ……………………………. Internal stakeholders are the company employees and the management. Internal auditors B. 5. 43. 13. Environment consists of a set or sets of well-established rules of personal and organizational behavior. True B. The certainty of legal rules strongly exists in ethical theory? A. Social environment D.. 22 . False. A. 38. Ethical thinking is also influenced by the concepts of virtue and rights. True B. A. 2. Stakeholder has link in personal or finance like employee or bank. Political environment is in which an organization operates consists of laws. or of different groups in society. True B. In Task culture the main focus is on the task to complete it in the best effective way. they exist to serve their own purpose or those of their senior managers or management.

Rules should only be followed if they suit you C. Only professional accountants not students are expected to behave in accordance with the professional code of ethics.g. Trainers D. True B. Its increase short term stock price E. 19. Maxwell C. 22. and that violations are prevented. 24. False 16. True B. Extortion B. Environment auditing and environmental scanning are two names of one thing. Extortion B. B. The concept of Utilitarianism was propounded by ……………………………… A. False. 15. 20. C. Have the responsibility to ensure that public and their own employees are protected from danger. Select the one incorrect. Social responsibility hit shareholder interest in the following way. True B. A. Peter is a project director in ENL limited. 23. E. A. Kent believe that ………………………………. Grease money C. True B. Bribery D. A. A. A. False. Rules and regulations are not important at all. False. In ethical climate of an organization leader set an example. Diversion of funds in social projects. None of the above. True B. Resources utilize on social objective which reduce funds. A. The act of the Peter is an example of …………………………………… A. productivity and profits. In production and product : ………………. A. 13. Diversion of employee efforts in work. 17. Rule should not be followed if their results are not favored. 25. Herzberg D. Fraud B. Senior manager are also symbolic managers. B. An audit is also an effective risk management tool which enables you to check how effectively your business acts in accordance with environmental legislation. A. Gifts. D. Teeth and Gums. 23 . detected and punished.Mentors C. Bribery D. A. Ethical practice B. A.A. Compliance based approached D. The Local officer was asking some money to speed up the process which was given 1000 $ by Peter. ………………………………… means that company should acts with in the letter of the law. Kent B. Rules C. Managers. An environmental audit is useful in assessing which particular areas of your business impact on the environment. He was facing problem in obtaining the NOC from the local authority to start it works which his company was legally entitle. Duty D. 21. Jeremy Bentham. False. Grease money C. False. Internal auditors B . and to maintain standards of moral behavior that are expected from a professional body. 14. Donation for election to political party. D. Organization social responsibility action is likely to have an adverse effect on shareholders' interests. Rights and Virtues mean that individuals have natural inherent rights that should not be abused. Gifts. Integrity based program C. True B. Rules must be obeyed no matter what the consequences may be. and to what extent. 18. Additional cost in order to protect environment and implement safety laws. …………………………… refer to the payments for service to which a company is not legally entitled. A..

A. True B. Social responsibility. The accountant impression and personality will increase. B. Its mission is to develop the high standards of professional accountants and enhance the quality of services they provide. True. Companies have to follow legal standards. B. Ethic’s committee C. A. 32. A. A. 27. ………………………………………………. Disturb the worker with his poor habits D. A. or else they will be …………………… A. B. True. Code of Conduct / Ethics C. immoral or illegitimate practice on the part of the organization or body of people. 30. This ethical behavior serves to protect the public interest. D. An Accountant should complete it work without bias or prejudice and should also be seen independent. IFAC …………………………………. Use to blower whistles while working B. A big cut in the corporate earnings. Skepticism 34. Ethics in organization. Which of the following is the personal quality of an accountant? State the one incorrect. 29.26. IFAC B. In order to secure this job it is required to do so. Audit committee B. Subject to fine by authorities and their officers might also face similar charges. True. Regulation committee D. Which of the following one is not the professional quality of an accountant? A. A set of guidance are given in order to understand an individual judge whether or not they are acting ethically in particular condition are called ……………………………………. 39. Is this possible that a manager who didn’t get any material benefit themselves can still held responsible for not fulfilling the principle of fiduciary duty. Organization founder acts and habits can influence the organization culture.. True. 28. A. Reliability and Respect B. False. Respect E. A. False. A. 24 . Managers have a fiduciary responsibility (or duty of faithful service) in this respect and their behavior must always reflect it. Regulations. Responsibility and Timeliness D. IAS D. Accountability D. Establish a code of ethics. 31. To avoid accountability. False. ACCA. 33. C. Is an international body representing all the major accountancy bodies across the world. Courtesy C. 37. False. No law in order in the organization. Warn you when there is a fire or other emergency in the organization C. C. A. The law is the minimum level of behavior required any standard of behavior below it is considered illegal and warrants punishment by society. B. Independence B. Skepticism C. True. B. Accountants committee. Poor production and quality issues.. B. GAAP C. Principles D. 35. A. A. Rules of Business B. Society we live in can exist without rules and standards.. Whistle blower is a person who ……………………………………………………. Disclosure by an employee of illegal. B. What is the key reason for an accountant to act or behave ethically? A. False. False. 38. 36. D.

They exit to serve the external purpose and managers are responsible for it. Key reasons for accountants to behave ethically: State the one incorrect? A. These MCQs are prepared after hard work and keeping Students help & need in mind. Some time managers have to do some payments to government or municipal officials who have the power to help or hinder the payers operation. B. Whistle blowing frequently involves financial benefits for the whistleblower. In order to keep the work updated with professional’s we need donation for payments in future. An accountant’s ethical behavior serves to protect the public interest. Govt. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 A B A C B D C B A B 31 D 32 A 33 D 34 A 35 A 36 B 37 A 38 A 39 C 40 D 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 B C 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 Explanation. Just remember RRRTC. Accountant has a fear for losing his job. D. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 C D A B B B A C D A 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 B C D C A D C B A D. Water treatment plant. and dispensing information for tactical or strategic purposes 25. By upholding these standards. B. 25 . 41.com/cgi-bin/webscr?cmd=_s-xclick&hosted_button_id=U3HFU2THV2WJ8 Answer Chapter 4. 42. True. If you like to help others you can add your contribution on the following link. Ethics in organization. 12. False Environmental scanning is a process of gathering. A. Both must follow. Remember none of the professional quality start with these 5 letters. analyzing. E. 27. Because its reduce profit and increase cost. Ethical considerations. 38. Taxes E. Grease money D.40. Gifts. 43.paypal. Which one of the following is not correct? A. Whistle blowing frequently involves financial loss for the whistleblower. RRRTC. Ethical issues may be a matter of law and regulation and accountants are expected to apply them B. The certainty of legal rules does not exist in ethical theory 19. 5. Extortion. A is also a good choice but C is the best one. the profession’s reputation and standing is protected C. The profession requires members to conduct themselves and provide services to the public according to certain standards. Bribery C. 33. False.g. 42. 22. Https://www. Yes because some time they do certain things that gave them inner satisfaction and those result as negative for the org.

Stewardship theory B. Manager has the duty of care.Chapter 5. To provide guidance on the standards of best practice that company should adopt D. Stakeholder theory D. Supervisory board D. Dominate by single individual / Lack of involvement of the board B. To set down detailed rules to regulate the ways in which companies must operate C. Agency Theory C. Two tier board 14. True B.. not just to the owners of the company in terms of maximizing shareholder value. False 2. In few cases it is observed that Board is dominated by a single senior executive while other members merely acting like a rubber stamp. To establish legally binding requirements to which all companies must adhere B. Single type BOD B. …………………………system there is an executive management board of directors and this is monitored by a supervisory board of directors. A. 13. D. Management seeks to service their own interest and only look after the performance of the company. what is the usual purpose of codes of practice on corporate governance? (BPP) A. A. Supervisory board. 6. Emphasis on short term profitability / Misleading accounts and information E. A. Lack of adequate control function / Lack of supervision C. A. Agency theory of management states that managers ……………………………………………………. A. but also to the wider community of interest. A. D. Procedure B. None of the Above. To provide a comprehensive framework for management and administration 10. Audited accounts / annual reports. 7. Two tier board C. One tier board / unitary system. Should manage the organization that will benefit the stake holders B. Governance theory. TV or News channels C. The performance of the Director in the board cannot be assessed by the board. Source. 1. for all the stake holders and share holder of the company. …………………………… is the system by which organization are directed and controlled by senior officers or management. Emails or by stock exchanges D. False. True B. Non Executive board D. A. In most countries. True B. A. 9. One tier board / unitary system C. Corporate governance and social responsibility. A. or stakeholders. 5. B. False. True B. Which of the following task should not to be performed by the board of directors? 26 . Operational management. Which of the following is not the feather of poor corporate governance? A. True B. Lack of independent scrutiny / lack of contact with shareholders D. 4. News papers and magazines B. False. 12. ………………………… states that management has a duty of care. A. Corporate governance. They are not accountable to anyone. Stewards are the owner of a company. Shareholder of the company received relevant information of the company by ……………………………. Shareholders of the company can dismiss the steward or the executive management of the company. False. A. One tier board is also known as unitary system. 11. M I S C. …………………………… is the type of board in which board of directors are legally charged with the responsibility of govern the company. 8. Should manage the organization that will benefit the Shareholders only C. 3.

A. and remuneration etc. and directors to satisfy themselves that they have appropriate information of sufficient quality to make sound judgments. Internal auditors D. Audit committee. Audit C. False. False. Committee of the board of directors. False. Monitoring the C. False.. 15. Government B. False. True B. 27. 28. Director B. Accounts committee B. Of the company. company function area and governance.Can provide help and assistance in the case of any problem facing by the external auditors. Non Executive Directors C. Board of executives D. Executive directors C.A. Directors B. Risk control 27 . What is the key risk associate. Are responsible for determining appropriate levels of remuneration for executive directors and other senior managers. The nomination committee should consist of a majority of ……………………………………. A. C. A. A. A. C. Independent / Outsource experts D.O and overseeing strategy B.. Security 18. True B. D. Directors are needless to have relevant expertise in industry. 25. Non-executive directors B. 29. A. Management B. Committee. Higgs report suggests that the appraisal of the board performance should be done 4 times a year. General Public. Nomination D. CEO C. Monitoring the human capital including training. True B. False 17. Higgs report stresses that it is the responsibility both of the Chair to decide what information should be made available. morale. A. Non-executive directors have executive (managerial) responsibilities. A. Interference in other people work. potentially damaging the long-term success of the business 22. Senior management 24. Remuneration committee should also decide the fees and benefits for the NEDs. CEO and Chairman. Over work will cause negative effect on this heath. A. …………………………………. Monitoring risk and control system. External auditors are appointed and remove by the ……………………………. 21. Share holders D. D. 19. Audit and remuneration committee should have equal member of executive and non executive directors. A. Non executive directors are entitled to get pension after retirement. True B. False. Interfere management daily business operations. That he will get angry B. 26. if the director’s accountability is associate to its performance? A. True B.. Attention being diverted away from making the company profitable. The board of directors should be of same knowledge and work experience to have a uniform policy. 16. A. True B. True B. A. A. Member of the board of Director.E. Member of the BOD are recommended by the ……………………………. False 23 …………………………. A. 20. Directors of a company are accountable to …………………………………. True B. Employees union C.

A. According to the stakeholder view. Company will have a poor internal control structure. Lack of none executive directors participation. C. Weakness and ineffectiveness. A. True. Accommodation E. Accommodation 33. Else it keeps things going on. False. Consumer or regulators. 31. Normal activity. Put extra work load on the sales and recovery team. None of the above. Feedback. negligence and fraudulent activity cannot be control by supervision. Which of the following is not the duty of the audit committee? A. Differential treatment of domestic and foreign investors. Remuneration packages regardless to the results or performance of the directors has resulted into poor performance and lack of touch with the interest of the other shareholders in the company. A. Segregation of duties of key roles can play an important role in effective corporate governance. What is the responsibility of a Public Oversight Board? (PP) A. E. True. 41. Reactive C. May results in bankruptcy or may be even closed by govt. The establishment of detailed rules on internal audit procedures B. Reactive C. …………………………. B.. The board that meet irregularly or fail to consider systematically the organization’s activity and risk are sign of …………………. 35. A. D. B. Review of the financial statement B. access to resources. Defense D. D. Board of director will consider for outsourcing internal control department. A. Audit committee D. authorities due to serious regulatory breaches etc. sustainable business relationships and so on A. B.. True. C. Proactive B. Strategy in which company take action regarding its complain only when it came in the notice of the govt. High profile corporate scandals. Review of the financial risk or risk management. Defense D. A. 42. Employee’s incompetence. Liaison with external auditors / review of internal auditor C. False. Strategy in which company takes full responsibility of its product and in case of any defect it fix it before complain. Rapid turnover of staff in the accounting or control department will results into ………………………………… A. Make control more difficult because of lack of continuity. Time has proved that the principle of employee’s supervision by senior management has failed to reduce or control large losses for the organization. The commissioning of financial reporting standards 28 . 40. B. Shareholders will start selling their shares in the capital market. 32. B. Out of turn promotions and rise in salary. ………………………. 38. B. Nomination committee. What is the ultimate risk of poor corporate governance? A. Proactive B. E. Creating new vacancies for fresh graduates. CSR is in the long-term interests of shareholders because it helps to secure stakeholder support. Which of the following is not the social responsibility strategy? A.C. 36. B. Reactive C. Accommodation 34. C. Increasing internationalization and globalization. Proactive B. Concerning over financial reporting. 37. 30. C. Empowerment of lower management. Which of the following is not the driving force for the development of corporate governance? A. B. D. Good corporate governance. False. False. Review of the internal control / Investigation D. 39. True. D. Defense D.

False. Which of the following are not the strategies for the social responsibility? State the one incorrect? A. That the company should disclose about its future plans. A. Defense strategy. True. Which of the following one is incorrect? A. Ethics are values and principles that society expects companies and individuals to follow. About getting information from internal and external sources. B. 54. A. False. The creation of legislation relating to accounting standards D. B. Audit committee and remuneration committee should have equal numbers of executive Directors and N. Sustainability reporting in the financial accounts mean……. Material purchases and determines minimum inventory level.. 48. Mergers and takeovers. False. 1 B 11 A 21 D 31 E 41 D 51 2 A 12 A 22 B 32 A 42 D 52 3 D 13 D 23 B 33 B 43 C 53 A A D 29 . Proactive strategy. D. ethical. B. B. False. In order to keep the work updated with professional’s we need donation for payments in future. E. Social responsibility and ethical behavior are not the same things. B. A. False. B. The monitoring and enforcement of legal and compliance standards 43. D. Nomination committee of the board of directors should totally consist of none-executive directors. 47.com/cgi-bin/webscr?cmd=_s-xclick&hosted_button_id=U3HFU2THV2WJ8 Answer Chapter 5. A. Accommodation strategy. Https://www. Corporate governance gave permission to the none-executive directors to take part in share options scheme. A. True. Board of Directors should take the following decisions. Investments / Bank borrowings / Capital projects. Repayment of foreign currency transactions etc. 52. True. B. True. B. True. 50. 45. A. Reactive strategy. E. Social transformation. C.paypal. safety. B. True. False.Ds. Sustainability reporting is also known as social responsibility report. Acquisitions and disposals of large or valuable assets. A. A. Corporate strategy. False. True. The appointment of the NEDs is done by the nomination committee. False. 51.C. True. These MCQs are prepared after hard work and keeping Students help & need in mind. B. A. pension rights and the packages of individual directors. C. If you like to help others you can add your contribution on the following link.E. Accounts should show the remuneration policy. 46. 44. 53. B. About its going concern. D. health and environment management policies and practices. 49. C.

Saving C. Which of the following is the best answer? A. output and income will all have the same total value. These both committees should have only NEDs 26. Chapter 6. 38.Ds with N. Saving is different from investment. Economy normally remains in the stable state. True B. Supervision has turn in reduction of employee’s poor performance related issues. Circular flow of income B. Savings B. 30 . 7. 46. A. 8. Govt. A.Ds in majority. Interest and exchange rate E. Spending 4. The nomination committee only recommends the names to the BOD. All of the above. 15. Investment level B. 47. It should be done only once a year. 1. Cash flow D. Taxation / expenditure D. Taxes D. 22. 9. 16.E. Import B. Should have a mix bag of knowledge and experience. Their performance can be check. Export D. Non-executive directors have no executive (managerial) responsibilities 24. A. Saving means withdrawal of money from the circulation. True B. Savings C. The micro economic environment. ……………………….. 10. 1. The two main problem for the economy are inflation and ………………………………. 6. Mean that the expenditure. Investments C. Their appointment is done by the board. True B. There should be a mix of both Directors and N. Investment B. Should have industry knowledge and expertise. These both committees are totally consist of NEDs.. False. Inflation and saving D. A.E. 19. False. A. Investments 3. They are the executive managers and accountable to shareholders. Which of the following is not the withdrawal from the circular flow of income? A.4 5 6 7 8 9 10 C C C E A C B 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 D B B C A B C 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 B B B A D C E 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 A E C D B A A 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 B A B B B C A 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 Explanation. Circular flow of expenditure C. Unemployment. False 5. Which of the following is not the injection in the circular flow of income? A. NEDs will not get any pension after retired. Balance of payment. 48. Total expenditure in the economy is one way of measuring the national income. Economy is influence by many factors. The total demand in the economy for goods and services is called the …………………………. The multiplier effect and confidence C.. 2.

Inflation affects the exchange rate. True B. A. 10. A. Aggregate supply. Business cycle is also known as trade cycle or economic cycle. Aggregate supply is positive related to the price level. A. Demand and supply C. Recession tends to occur slowly. Depression B. A. A. True B. Stagflation D. ……………………………. False 22. Deflation. False.. Refer to economy wide fluctuation in the production or economic activity over several months or year.A. A. A. In Inflation the person who owed money have advantage over the lender. True B. 11. False. 24. False. False 13. …………………………… redistribute income and wealth. In a country where rate of inflation is higher its imports will be expensive and exports will be cheaper. Deflationary gap. 17. 15. Which of the following is the stage/phase of business cycle? A. True B. A. True B. False. 23. 16. Healthy economy requires no inflation. while recovery is typically a quicker process. False. Aggregate demand D. Total production B. …………………. Aggregate demand C. Total demand.. True B. Demand B. The fall in national income is called recession. None 20. Expenses B. Inflation B. A. A. A. 12. True B. 31 . Inflation C. Is a combination of unacceptably high unemployment and unacceptably high inflation. When the total demand for goods and services in the economy is equal to the half the supply of goods and services in the economy this is known as equilibrium level of the national income. Business cycle / trade cycle C. ……………………. True B. Stagflation D. False 18. Inflationary gap 14. A. 19. Deflation C. All of the above. Decline the purchase power of the money. True B. Inflation D. Recession B. Inflation D. False. Deflation D. Stagflation B. A. ……………………………… refers to the ability of the economy to produce goods and services. 21. Depression C. Boom C. Recovery and Boom D. A.

Frictional unemployment. If there is a gap of time between leaving one top and starting the next. Inflation can be brought in control by reducing the rate of growth of money supply. Future Trading system C. A. Benefits payments. ………………………………………. Consumer price index B. True B. False. 27. Demand pulls inflation C. True B. A consumer price index (CPI) is based on a chosen 'basket' of items which consumers purchase.. Inflation rate C. A. CPI B. Determine annual increase in Govt. ………………………………. RPI C. Benchmark for wages negotiations C. ………………………… unemployment is when an employee has left one job in order to start at another. 34. True B. Which of the following is indicated by the CPI data? Choose the best answer given below. Cyclical unemployment. 35. Benchmark index. A. In the case of abnormal inflation people are unwilling to use money and forced to go back to ………………………………………. Demand pulls inflation C. C. Indicator of inflationary pressure in the economy B. Retail price index is also stated as RPI. Through escalating prices of imported raw materials or from wage increases. Inflation resulting from a persistent excess of aggregate demand over aggregate supply. A.. Is caused due to the un-satisfaction of working or other condition to the employee and from the employer point of view when he fail to get skill full worker for its work. D. B. A. A. 31. A. Cost push inflation B. A. Seasonal employment and frictional unemployment are long term. False 26. Fiscal Pressure D. Structural unemployment. A. Expectations 33. Expectations 32. True B. 36. including housing cost.25. 28. ……………………………………. Barter system D..g. When inflation becomes a relatively permanent feature of rise in price and wages it is called wage-price spiral. C. True B. Transitional unemployment. Gold system. Transitional unemployment. B. False 38…………………………………. Hyperinflation. False 29. True B. Frictional unemployment. Retail price index D. Supply reaches a limit on capacity at the full employment level. When inflation become excessively high it is called ……………………………………. 30. Leverage system B.inflation resulting from an increase in the costs of production of goods and services. e. A. False. A. Structural unemployment. None of the above.measures the percentage changes month by month in the average level of prices of the commodities and services. A. A. False 37. Import cost factors D. A. Cost push inflation B. D. Import cost factors D. All of the above E. Frictional unemployment is sometimes also called as search unemployment. 32 .

C. and Less serious. Economic growth may be balanced when all sectors of the economy expand together or unbalanced. False. Higher growth requires a cut in consumption.D. True B. It is impossible to create more jobs without reducing unemployment. True B. Actual economic growth. 33 . 50. Structural unemployment. …………………………. Potential economic growth is the rate at which the economy would grow if all resources (eg people and machinery) were utilized A.is the annual percentage increase in national output. The use of new technology results in a very fast economic growth. A. D. False 41. C. Sustained economic growth depends heavily on an adequate level of new ………………………………. A. A. Investment. 39. A. C. (See explanation) A. Cyclical unemployment. B. All of the above. Trade deficit. B. 40. Balance of payment C. False. Economic growth. and cyclical unemployment are all short term. Transitional unemployment. True B. 49. Frictional unemployment. A.. 53. Fiscal policy B. A. D. The rate of extraction of natural resources will have no impact on the rate of growth. D. 48. Frictional unemployment. D. True B. G D P D. ……………………………………. 47. A. Human Capital. 46. False. A. True B. Frictional unemployment. False 42. …………………… is the type of unemployment which occurs due to a long term or significant change in the condition/structure of an industry. A. B. Occurs due to the implication of new technology or machine takes over human workers. 44. False 51. That is closure of a mining industry. Technological unemployment. Inflation and unemployment C. 52. B. A. Balance of payment D. Technological unemployment adds to the structural unemployment or it’s a form of Structural unemployment. technological unemployment. Sources D. False. Transitional unemployment. Structural unemployment. Experts C. Its often measured as the rate of change in real GDP. B. Economic growth. Workers B. B. Structural unemployment. A. True B. Potential economic growth. 43. Transitional unemployment. True. A. ……………………… unemployment occurs in the downswing of an economy in between two boom. C. Structural unemployment 45…………………is the increase of per capita of GDP or other measure of aggregate income. which typically fluctuates in accordance with the trade cycle. Cyclical unemployment. Cyclical unemployment. False. Microeconomic policy objectives are related to which of the following? Or what are the key objectives of MEP.. A. True B.

A. When budget is surplus this is called contractionary policy or reducing the size of the money by taking money out of the economy. Proportional tax C. 62. Creating full employment may lead to decreased inflation rates.. False 57. Procedure B. Progressive tax D. True B. False. False. 56. True B. Progressive tax D. 64. Which of the following is the area covered under the fiscal policy. Governments can rise …………………………………. Regressive tax B. A. Donation C. Direct tax D. 55. Interest rates B. Working hours C. 66. Indirect tax B. this is known as expansionary policy. True B.54. A………………………. A. Indirect tax B.. Television licenses and road tax are examples. A. A. False. None of the above. A. A. Capital gain tax. 59. Balance of payment. None of the above. Proportional tax C. 68……………………. Economic growth implies increase in National income. None of the above. Government's most important economic role is the ………………………. A. Monetary policy D. Progressive tax 34 .. A. To protect domestic industry. When the government is injecting money into the economy. Takes a higher proportion of a poor person's salary than of a rich person's. False. 61. Taxation B. Regressive tax B. 67. True B. Takes the same proportion of income in tax from all levels of income. Direct tax D. Increases due to rise of prices is also a real economic growth. Banking D. Legal system D. Relating to business. Trade policy C. 58. An ……………………………. Donation C. True B. False. B. Is collected by the Revenue authority from an intermediary (a supplier) who then attempts to pass on the tax to consumers in the price of goods they sell. Taxes have no effect on consumer purchasing power. A. A. Public borrowing C. Wages D. Which of the following is not the type of Indirect tax? A. Public spending. True B. Decision making C.. A ……………………………… is paid direct by a person to the Revenue authority. A. Regressive tax B. Does full employment means everyone who need a job have a one all the time? A. 65. Capital value tax. Trade barriers 60. Fiscal policy. state the one incorrect? A. Proportional tax C. 63. When government plans what it wants to spend and so how much it needs to raise in income or by borrowing this called …………….

……………………. Regressive tax D. True B. A. A. Encourage more to invest In Govt. C. Fiscal policy B. 83. A positive current account balance means that the country is importing more goods and services than it is exporting. 76. Monetary policy covers the following areas of the government policy? State the one incorrect. False 72. Capital value tax. A. B. It has to borrow more and more from aboard to meet the difference. It has to sell its foreign or local assets to the foreign investors. False. ………………………………………. Experts advice that ………………………. Bonds etc. True B. Money supply B. The other name of balance of trade is balance of payment. C. Progressive tax 70. D. International trades. False. Direct taxes are progressive or proportional taxes. 75. Monetary policy C. Monetary system and availability of credit. Savings. A. Which of the following increase national income? A. 79. Monetary policy. D. True B. Government spending and investment D. Monetary policy. 77. Fiscal policy B. False. It will result in the reduction of interest rates. False. 78. Capital gain tax C. Proportional tax. A sales tax is a consumption tax charged at the point of purchase for certain goods and services. 71. 74. Which of the following is not the category of Balance of payment in which it records its transaction? A. Exchange rate D. breaks on the inflation. B. False 81. Its exchange rate will rise and will have a good impact on its exports. A. A. A. 82. A. Interest rates and exchange rates. Balance of payment B. False. A. If the country is having deficit in its current account (balance of payment) what are the consequences it may suffer? (any two) A. A. A. True B. High inflation brings economic uncertainty. True B. Taxation B. Balance of Trade D.D. Imports C. True B. Capital account 35 . Takes a higher proportion of income in tax as income rises. Public borrowing and spending. 73. Can put. A balance of trade deficit is most unfavorable to domestic producers in competition with the imports. Balance of trade D. Balance of payment C. 80. Is known as accounting records of all monetary transition between a country and the rest of the world. A specific tax is charged as a fixed sum per 100 units sold. The difference between the value of goods and services exported out of a country and the value of goods and services imported into the country. 69. Balance of payment C. True B. ……………………………. A.. but it can also be favorable to domestic consumers to buy exports products at lower prices. Current account B.

That Government will issue Local currency bonds for local public to finance its deficit. 95. A. Exchange policy D. Trade policy C. The gap of unemployment between the two jobs is known as ……………………. Balance of payment. are recorded in A. False 89. Technological unemployment. A. Which of the following one is not the factor of unemployment? A. True B. Following steps are taken the government below. Seasonal unemployment. 94. What type of unemployment is this? 36 . False. False. A lower discount rate makes borrowing less expensive and increases the money supply. The government of XYZ has taken the following steps. Rehmat was employed on the farm for 2 months till the mango picking season last later he has to wait for next 3 months for the orange picking season till he will remain unemployed. Devaluation of currency will not help to reduce the current account deficit. B. 93. Balance of Payment. Trade policy D. Frictional unemployment. C. D. physical assets such as a building or a factory are recorded.C. A. The government will increase it public spending in health and education by 20 percent 2. A. False. Monetary policy B. Financial account D. None of the above. When an employee leave on job in order to start the other. In the financial account. income and current transfers are recorded in current account. 3. A. Combination of monetary and fiscal policy. Buying government bonds from the public puts money into circulation by paying investors who hold these bonds. Bank margin on credit will be eased. Capital account C. True B. True B. Fiscal policy. What are they called? Give the best one. 91. for example. Frictional unemployment. Import is one of the main components of aggregate demand. Balance of payment. C. Financial account D. 92. Lay-offs. 1. services. False. Injection of certain size leads to a much larger increase in national income. Structural unemployment. What kind of policy is this? A. Goods. A. 86. In economics the multiplier effects mean ……………………. True. Rehmat was hired by a mango farmer to pick mangoes from the tree. C. Cyclical unemployment. 4. D. 1. Exchange account 87. Exchange account 84. A. 88.. Tariq textile use to employee large number of employee’s for its cotton unit. All investment and expenditures are added B. 2. The interest rates will be reducing by 100 basis points. business or portfolio investments. School leaving without jobs. Transitional unemployment. Current account B. C. 3. Exchange policy C. Assets pertaining to international monetary flows of. B. Aggregate demand made from several components of the circular flow. 96. Voluntary quitting the job. 90. True B. B. Fiscal policy B. The exchange rate will be reducing by 2 percent. D. Monetary policy. For the last 2 years almost 35% of employees was dismiss due to poor cotton crop in the country and the textile units was in a decline due to high prices of raw material. Transitional unemployment D. A. That the rate of taxation will be reducing by 1 percent to increase demand. Redundancies B. What type of unemployment is this? A. 85.

…………………………………….paypal. Its required some inflation. 24. Fiscal policy B. 98. Expansionary policy C. Https://www.A. B. If you like to help others you can add your contribution on the following link. 21. A. 97. 5. When government reduce the size of the money supply by taking money out of the economy. Or its income is less than its expenditures it is called. Technological progress is divided into three important types. Neutral C. Its rarely in a stable state. Contractionary policy. Which of the following is incorrect? A. These MCQs are prepared after hard work and keeping Students help & need in mind. Capital saving. Technological unemployment. True. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 A D B A B E A D C D B A C A D 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 A B B B A B A C B A D D A C C 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 B A A A C B A B D B A C B C D 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 A B A D B A A D B B B B C D C 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 D A A C A D A B D. 99. Labor saving. Frictional unemployment. B A A D A B 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 C D B C A AB B D A B C B A D D 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 C B C A B D A D B D Explanation. Imports will be cheap and export will be expensive. D. B. Contractionary policy. False. B. 37 . Fiscal policy B. The total demand for goods and services in the economy is equal to the total supply of goods and services in the economy 17. In order to keep the work updated with professional’s we need donation for payments in future. A. Expansionary policy C. Economic policy D. D. Transitional unemployment. Economic policy D. Potential output. 20. Structural unemployment. while recovery is typically a slower process. Because the value of money reduce. When government increase the size of its money supply by injecting money into the economy. or its income is more than its expenditures it is called ……………………………………… A.com/cgi-bin/webscr?cmd=_s-xclick&hosted_button_id=U3HFU2THV2WJ8 Answer Chapter 6. Formal planning of fiscal policy is usually done once a year and is set out in the budget. 100. 11. C. Recession tends to occur quickly.

C. but it does mean that unemployment levels are low. 92. Retirement ages for men and women are being …………………………. 9. Organization offer and encourage retirement on the following reasons. True B. Public borrowing and spending are the feature of fiscal policy. Notice board of the company. Aggregate demand = (consumption + investment+ Govt. When an employee leaves the organization it is important to …………………………………………… A. The political environment is of particular importance in …………………………………. 50. European union. B. International C. 55. The theory of comparative advantage suggests that free trade is the best way to promote global economic growth and. domestic prosperity. allowing for the free movement of labor. This finance can only come from higher savings which in turn require the population to consume less 54. Promotion opportunities for younger workers B. Taxation affects consumers' purchasing power. In the capital account.36. None of the above. Increase in National income due to increase in price is not a real national income. 1. A specific tax is charged as a fixed sum per unit sold. 7. Subject to their health and condition C. 85. Was set up to promote free trade and resolve disputes between trading partners. Asian Trade C. Euro Zone D. False. A. The ……………………………………………. and cyclical unemployment are all longer term. World Trade Organization. Domestic B. E. 78. 8. While balance of payment is the total accountings record (import and exp) of a single country with the rest of the world and its difference. 56. goods and services.. The European Union operates a single European market. To take an exit interview to find out the reason of exit. The cost of providing pensions rise with age. A. and more serious. A positive current account balance means that the country is exporting more goods and services than it is importing. Creating full employment may lead to increased inflation rates. A. physical assets such as a building or a factory are recorded 87. technological unemployment. The period of notice required for the employee to leave the job should be set out in the………………………………. State the one incorrect. The age structure of an organization become unbalanced D. To take advice from his experience D. Equalized D.. In UK. T is possible to create more jobs without reducing unemployment. A. 73. 5. Seasonal employment and frictional unemployment will be short-term 40. Its help to reduce the current account deficit. Different B. 70. Trades. A. The termination of an employee contract by the employer is not considered as dismissal in UK. Barter D. True B. True B. A. D. Investment + export) Minus (-) imports. 57. Structural unemployment. To gave him a certification of its work. 2. People should be free to buy and sell goods and services anywhere in the world A. Earlier retirement is an alternative to redundancy C. False. False 4. 38 . None of the above. Contract of employment. B. and free competition. by implication. 43. None of the above 6. None of the above. 82. The rate of extraction of natural resources will impose a limit on the rate of growth 52. and involuntary unemployment is short-term. Chapter 7. Full employment does not mean that everyone who wants a job has one all the time. To have a farewell party B. The difference between the value of goods and services exported out of a country and the value of goods and services imported into the country is balance of trade. A. Should be on the desire of the worker C. 3. Firms need to invest more and this requires financing. The business environment.

Voluntarily dismissal. or has less than two years' continuous employment 20. A. General laws D. None of the above. Owner / employer C. Or principle violation of contract. Re-employ him on the job. 22. Which of the following case employer is entitled to pay compensation to the employee in the case of redundancy? A. C E O 39 . The purpose of ……………………………… is mainly to provide protection to employees. None of the above. The employee is of pensionable age or over. Pay him the substantial compensation C. Employment law. False. 17. A. A. Arbitrary dismissal B. B. Constructive dismissal D. Supervisor B. A. True B. When due to new technology and equipment or govt. When worker conduct deserve dismissal without notice. ……………………………………. Wrongful dismissal D. Which of the following case redundancy is not treated as dismissal? A. B. Oral statement. C. An employee is entitled to a ………………………………. When the owner has decided to close the company completely D. 21. B. When he has offer suitable transfer and employee reject it without good reason. ABC Corporation has decided to dismiss 2 employees out of 6 who are no longer required due to the installation of new computerized machine which will reduce the work. When an employer is found guilty of unfair dismissal. Is dismissal that breaches the contract of employment? Or a situation in which an employee's contract of employment has been terminated by the employer in circumstances where the termination breaches one or more terms of the contract of employment A. False. Government D. Wrongful dismissal D. True B. 12. True B.10. A. False. Wrongful dismissal also called wrongful termination or wrongful discharge. Redundancy C. Written statement. C. When the owner has decided to close the company completely. D. 19. C. 23. When the section in which he employed is closed permanently. 14. D. Redundancy is not an unfair dismissal. The most recent hired. Arbitrary dismissal. When an employee is dismissed without any fair or justify reason by the employer is called a ……………………………. 13. B. …………………………………. The most senior 2 of the company as they are near to the age of retirement. Action work is not required? D. 16. A. …………………………………… has the ultimate responsibility for health and safety of workers in a limited company. Say sorry to the employee. Not entitle D. Corporate law C. Exploitation law B. C. Redundancy B. He is required to ……………………………………. C. 18. Both from the middle so both junior and senior will protected. A. Which if the 2 will be dismissed by the company? A. Of the reasons for dismissal. None of the above. Is required to provide a safe place of work for their employees. A safe place of work is where employees are not exposed to unreasonable physical dangers or unreasonable risk of health. Fired is fired no need for anything. One from the senior and one from the junior. A. 11. Town administration.. 15. ………………………………… is a dismissal when the worker quit the job due to the employer conduct breach the employment contract. B. A. (give multiple answer) A. Arbitrary dismissal / unfair dismissal. Redundancy C.. When the employer dismiss without any good reason. B. against unfair treatment or exploitation by employer.

Detail of safety procedures / detailed instructions on how to use equipment C. 34. Statement of principles / Training requirements B. Compliance with the law D. Serious accidents which result in death or major injury or at-least 3 days off work for the victim such all should be notified to the……………… A. Which of the following statement is incorrect? A. Notice board B. Population and labor market. A. Allow the employer to carry out his or her duty or enforcing safety rules. Corner office C. A. A. D. 32. Corporate data C. To handle machines and tools carefully and to do its own work as per rules. D. Inform the managers or owner about possible occurring problems. 30. More part time jobs B.B. Is the right of the individual not to suffer unauthorized disclosure of information? A. True B. True B. Company doctor D. Supervisor. Data subject can apply the court to obtain access (mean to view the details) to the data which he or she is subject. Woman’s are more in work because of. C. Board of Directors. kept up to date. 27. 33. Computerized data. False. Is information about a living individual. E. Information technology makes the information processing work of middle managers redundant (extra). A. D. Secrets C. Personal data shall be accurate and. A. or distress caused data subject can claim compensation in the court of law. Data protection principles. False. 26. Managers D. S(he) can sue the data holder for any damage cause due to his misuse of data causing any damage. C. where necessary. None of the above. E. including expressions of opinion about him or her. Increasing birth rate mean less labor and falling death rate mean more young people. 37. Accident report form D. ………………………. B. Accounts department B. True B. Computerized data belongs to individuals can be misused and easily be transferred to unauthorized third party at high speed and low cost. Accident should be report on a …………………………………… A. Data holder can obtain the data and disclose it publicly. C. Which of the following are the features of a health and safety policy? Select the incorrect one. Data about organizations are also come under the classification of personal data. Privacy B. The growth of the service sector D. 24. ……………………. 25. False 31. News paper and magazines. True B. 35. Directors C. An increase in the average age at which women have children E. Take care of them self and the others close to them B. False. Which of the following statement about the rights of data subject is not correct? A. Reporting 28. Safety D. False. Rising male unemployment as many industries which employed men have declined C. He can ask the court to correct the data belongs to him in case of incorrect. A. In the case of unauthorized disclosure. None of the above. 29. A. True B. 36. The data protection act provides protection to the private individuals and companies. Which of the following is not the duty of an employee? A. A. Health and safety executive.. True 40 . Government data. destruction. Personal data B. None of the above.

Standing. …………………………. Monopoly. On an advice they make a contract with MS Hashmi and Sons to prepare and maintain their accounting records on permanent basis. Switching cost. Outsourcing. Capital investment requirement. Is an organization that has no physical hub or centre of operation. The bargaining power of customers D. PANCAT Company was having difficulty in maintaining company accounting record. Will have no impact on the capacity and competition D. A. Franchise D. 48. True B. A. A.B. A. 38. None of the above. Will bring extra capacity and competition. None of the above. The threat of substitute products or services C. ………………………. Print and electronic media. Perfect competition C. 47. 43. D. A. Its outsource almost all of its work and only few people are in the center to look after the company. 40. B.. 41. SBU D. The virtual company has been made possible by development in …………………………………………. Which of the following is not the type of outsource. B. Outsource or Total outsource C. Engineering C. Which of the below factor is not true in respect of bargaining power of supplier that he can charge high prices of its supplies? A. Business deal B. Government regulation D. A. A. E. Which of the following are the five competitive forces influences the state of competition in the industry? State the one incorrect. C. Welfare 45. Multination organization. Act and adopt same policies as other do and will have no impact. False. Decentralization organization C. The threat of new entrants to the industry B. A. 42.. Royalty. False 49. False. Ad-hoc B. The bargaining power of suppliers E. Virtual organization / Virtual Company. Partial / Total D. One of the advantage of outsourcing is all the confidential information about the company is safe and secured. If a business organization operates in a market where there are no significant competitors. Supplier will have a less bargain position if there are more companies to provide material. True B. 50. Decentralization. True B. Which of the following are the barriers of entry in a competitive force into a new industry? A. What do we called this contract? A. It is called ………………………………. All of the above F. D. A. Is the contracting out of specified operations or services to an external vendor or service provider. Select the one incorrect. A. Bio technology B. B. Will diversify into other industry and will not make any difference. C. Economics of scale B. The rivalry amongst current competitors in the industry F. Contract. False. Oligopoly B. C. I T Technology. The threat of new supplier enters in the industry or substitute products 41 . 44. 39. 46. In a competitive market environment companies charge higher prices and make larger profit then it would in a monopoly. Economics of scale means that the companies produce and sell an item in large quantities at low cost by reducing their average cost. Centralized Organization B. D. Project base management C. A new entrant into an industry will …………………………………………………….

C. When the switching cost of the user / customer is low. D. The importance of the product to the customer. Mean is it essential to him E. If the customer is totally depended on the supplier. 51. Which of the following about the bargain power of the customer is incorrect? A. How much the customer buys? B. How critical the product is to the customer’s own business C. Switching costs (i.e. The cost of switching supplier) D. Whether the products are standard items (hence easily copied) or specialized E. If there is a monopoly, customer is in a better position to get product cheaply. 52. ………………………. Are the means by which a firm creates value in its products. A. Research B. Development C. Value activities D. Creativity. 53. Porter identified the chain of activities in the primary value chain. Which of the one is incorrect? A. Inbound logistics B. Operations C. Outbound logistics. D. Feed back. E. Marketing, sales and service. 54. According to Porter there are three generic strategies for competitive. Which one is false? A. Cost leadership B. Inhibitors. C. Differentiation D. Focus 55. Cost leadership means being the lowest cost producer in the industry as a whole. A. True B. False 56…………………….. Is the exploitation of a product or service which the industry as a whole believes to be unique. A. Differentiation B. Focus C. Cost leadership D. None of the above. 57. Porter’s generic strategies. Which of the following is corrects in term of focus? 1. Providing goods and/or services at lower cost (cost-focus) 2. Providing a differentiated product or service (differentiation-focus) A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 2 D. None 58. Which of the following is not a legitimate method of influencing government policy in the interests of a business? A. Employing lobbyists to put the organization’s case to ministers or civil servants B. Giving lawmakers non-executive directorships C. Offering financial incentives to public officials to use their influence on the organization’s behalf D. Attempting to influence public opinion, to put pressure on the legislative agenda 59. A ………………………. is a tentative government report of a proposal without any commitment to action; the first step in changing the law A. Red paper B. Yellow Paper C. White paper D. Green Paper. 60. ………………………………………. is an authoritative report or guide that is often oriented toward a particular issue or problem. They are used to educate readers and help people make decisions, and are often requested and used in politics, policy, business, and technical fields. Green paper is the first step toward its production. A. Red paper B. Yellow Paper C. White paper D. Green Paper. 61. Ageism, also called age discrimination. A. True. B. False. 62. ……………………………. is the stereotyping of, prejudice against or discrimination against an individual due to his or her age. Usually this refers to older people, those aged 50 years or older, though it can also related to young professionals, teens and even children. A. Ageism. B. Redundancy C. Equalized

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D. None of the above. 63. There is no such thing as a fixed term contract of employment. A. True. B. False. 64. Under employment protection legislation, the employee has to prove that he has been dismissed. on the other hand it is also to the employer to prove that the dismissal was fair. A. True B. False. 65. M.I.K Electronics’ decide to offer redundancy to 2 of its employee’s out of 12. Which of the two should they when all of them doing the same work? A. 4 of them having 15 years of service and have excellent record. B. 2 of them are working for last 5 years but can do all sort of work C. 4 of them are woman and working for the last 3 years. D. 2 of them was hired 3 months earlier. 66. Accidents due to the result of statutory duty cannot be sued. A. True. B. False. 67. …………………………………should be carried out regularly to prevent accidents. A. Internal audit. B. Staff medical checkup. C. Risk audit or sampling D. None of the above. 68. Personal data include all information about deceased people too. A. True. B. False. 69. When company have planned to dismiss few employee. The best option is LIFO or to dismissed the newcomer before long serving people. A. True. B. False. 70. Porter Value Chain. Which of the following is not belongs to the support activities of the value chain? A. Firm infrastructure B. H R Management C. Marketing and sales. D. Technology development E. Procurement.

These MCQs are prepared after hard work and keeping Students help & need in mind. In order to keep the work updated with professional’s we need donation for payments in future. If you like to help others you can add your contribution on the following link.
Https://www.paypal.com/cgi-bin/webscr?cmd=_s-xclick&hosted_button_id=U3HFU2THV2WJ8

Answer Chapter 7. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 B D A C E D C A B C A 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 BC A D C D B A D E C B 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 B A A E B E A A D C C 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 F D A E C E C D B A A 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 A A A A D B C B A C

43

12 13 14 15

C A A D

27 28 29 30

A B D A

42 43 44 45

B B C B

57 58 59 60

C C D C

72 73 74 75

09. It is considered as dismissal. 28. Data protection act provide security to the individuals only. 31. Data about organizations is not personal data 35. Increasing birth rates mean more young people and falling death rates mean more elderly people. 43. A company may have highly confidential information and to let outsiders handle it could be seen as risky in commercial and/or legal terms. 45. In a competitive market company charge very low margin. Because lots of small companies are providing similar products. 65. The organization should follow the LIFO method if the employees are not vital for the company. 66. This can be sued. Because it means that the duty has to be performed. 68. Personal data is subject to living individual only……

Chapter 8. History and Role of Accounting......Part C.
1. The financial manager is Responsible for ...................... And ........................ Of a Company. A. Banking and Cash B. Raising funds and Controlling financial C. Purchases and production D. Data and reports 2. When Auditors are agree with the Financial Statement prepaid by the Company they issue a.................... Report A. Uncorrected Report B. Qualified Report C. Management attention report D. Unqualified Report. 3. Internal Auditors are ............................... Of the company. A. Cops B. Non Executive Directors C. Financial advisors D. Employees. 4. Internal Auditors report on the effectiveness of .................................system. A. Security B. Internal control C. Legal D. External credit Control. 5. ....................... Are required by law to prepare and publish accounts annually. A. Sole proprietorship B. Partnership C. Limited Companies D. Everyone who do trade. 6 . …………………………….is a way of recording, analyzing and summarizing transactions of a business. A. Accounting B. Auditing C. Statistics D. Corporate Reporting. 7. The Transaction are recorded in ………………….. A. Book of Credit Entry B. General Record book C. Book of Prime Entry D. Cash book. 8. Transaction are analyzed and posted in Inventory ledger A. True B. False. 9. Final Transitions are Summarized in the …………………… A. Bank statement B. Financial Statement. C. Profit and loss Account. D. Purchase Register. 10. Accounts are produce to aid management in planning, control and Decision making, and to comply with statutory Regulation. A. True

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.. D...... Payroll 45 ... A..... Software B.... Judgment B.. Prepare Financial Statement for the Stake holders C.. A. Mintzberg’s. Which of the following is not the duty of Treasurer? A.....B. Cost accounting B..... Investing surplus funds on the money market. ..... All of the above E... A..... Trust.......... C.... Future Profitability D.. Leonardo de venci C. 11.... Financial management of projects 16.... Budgets and budgetary control D...... Accrual C....... Module C... Many Figures in the financial statement are derived from the application of. Provide Accounting Report for the other Departments C.... Cash flow control D. Explained the first written double entry system of book keeping.. 17....... Inventory System 23. Lawful 20.. Employees Report 13. Which one of the following is not the job of Management Accountant? A.... Ready D........... Proper Financial control ensures that the business is adequately.. False....... The Statement of financial position must give a ... Accountable C.... Record D... Routine Accounting B. A... The head of Accounts Department post in UK is usually called.... A.. 22...... . A .... 19.... 14. Auditor Report B.. Some companies provide voluntarily specially prepared financial information for the issue for their employees this report is called. False..... Management Accountant. Financed B. Luca Pacioli D. A. None of the above 15... Chief Accountant. What are the Responsibilities of Financial Controller? Gave the best answer. 21. Payables ledger B. Is a program which deal with one particular part of a business accounting system A...... View of the state affair of the company as at the end of the financial year... B....... Going Concern C......... True B.... Complete B.... Finance Director.. Rising Funds C... Corporate law 18.... Accountant. Worker Stake and benefit Report D. To meet its obligations... Performance Report C. Financial statement is prepared on the basis of no of. Budgets and Cost accounting. Which of the following is not a Module of accounting system? A. Fundamental Accounting B..... Concept A.. Balanced C. Teeming and lading mean where Receipts for customers are misappropriated and this is then covered up by misposting future receipts.. Chartered Accountant...... A.. Cashier duties and cash control D. 12. True and Fair D. Karl Marks B. In putting fundamental accounting concept into practice A.. 1494. Accruals D.. B..

to invoice the customer for the goods and to ensure that payment is received. Should the company spend money on the new technology and machinery? C. Generally accepted audit policy C.. Purchase ledger D. State the one which is incorrect. 36. Responsibility then passes to the ……………………………………..R department C. False. C. What does GAAP stand for? A.. Error D. Accounts department. 26. Quality of account C. How much should be paid as a dividend and bonus. Which of the following are not the decisions of the financial managers? A.. Accountant C. Theft B. Financial control procedures exist specifically to ensure that. Module system C. Purchasing department D.. Report Generator 24. True B. Payroll B. False 32. A. False 34. Electric Generator D. Which of the following personnel in an organization would not be involved in the purchase of materials? A. False 35.. Group audit and accountancy policy B. 27... Standard system of presenting accounting records D.. Accounting Standard (and company law) prescribe that a company should …………………………………………………… A. None of the above. Production department B. Purchasing manager 37. 25. What will be the new recruitment policy of the company? 31. Set of Several Modules is known as..C. B.. Guidelines for accepted accounting principles 33.. And ………………………….. 30. Once the goods have been dispatched to the customer. Research and development C. Pairs B. A. H. A. Accounting concepts are applied by individuals using their subjective judgment. B. Financial transactions are properly carried out 46 .. A. How much credit and discount to paid to the customers. Generally accepted accounting principles D. Prepare accounts on the basis and needs of its requirement. One of the key responsibility of the internal auditor is to control the risk of ……………………. 29. A. IASB was setup in 1973 to work for the improvement and harmonization of financial reporting.. A defect which can cause difficulties of understanding B. When financial statement is prepared with too much detail it is also a ……………………………. Which of the following is not the section of financial accounts department? A. Financial management is a separate discipline from both management and financial accounting? A.. Accounting Errors 28. Stores manager D.. Fraud C. Suite. A. E. Data base D.. True B. D. Sales ledger and credit control. A..... Accounting standards fails to eliminate subjectivity. Credit controller B. Prepare accounts that not disappoint the stake holders. Should the firm borrow from a bank or raise funds by issuing right shares. True B. D. Produce accounts to be presented to the shareholders. A. Prepare accounts to show positive activities in the company. True B.

General public. The separation of ownership and control refers to the situation where the owners of the company are always different people then the director of the company. Clock card / time sheet and amount of bonus are the two main inputs in wages system of the payroll system. Accurate and timely management information is produced D. False. A. planet. profit" or "the three pillars.. How well customer s wants have been satisfied C. 38. On the development of new products and service. capital employed and etc. Internal efficiency of the business. Do you think that a recent retired director finance of a company can be appointed as the NED of the same company? A. Means the traditional information of profits. capital employed etc. Rate of pay C. Shareholder and stakeholder reporting. Following are the weakness of effective financial control? State the one which is incorrect. it is not allowed in law B. Personal details B. A smaller company should have at least ………………………. Print & electronic media and social websites. True B. 45. Effective human recourse will be adopted for best results. Managers of the company B. No. 40. The innovation perspective reports mean …………………………………………………. 43. 47. E. B. A. blogs etc. govt. Holidays details F. 42. Effective credit control procedure. Triple bottom line reporting is also known as "people. False. Suppliers and customers of the company.. D. Minimum 4 of them D. Supplier are not paid in time C. B. Board of directors B. Shareholders of the company C. At least 2 of them. Financial perspective report D. Customer perspective report B. Cash and cheques are being missing. Total reporting D. Innovation perspective report 46. Triple bottom line reporting.B. A. Which of the following are the standing data in the payroll files? Gave the best 2 answers? A. 47 . None executive directors? Gave the best answer. He has served the company as finance director. D. Computerized accounting system D. …………………………… means expanding the traditional reporting framework to take into account ecological (environment) and social performance in addition to financial performance. Is the system by which companies are directed and controlled? A. Pension contribution etc. 44. Yes but the board has to gave a valid reason of its selection along with the assurance that he will remain natural as a NED. True B. D. 41. A. False. E. C. The assets of the business are safeguarded C. ………………………………. 48. ……………………………………. Ecological reporting B. Half B. A. Customer fails to pay in time. True B. Details of deduction D. Gross pay to date / tax to date. Which of the following are not the user of the financial statement and accounting information? A. The traditional information of profits. 49. Unauthorized purchases being made. Internal perspective report C. E. D. A. A. Employees and lenders to the company. Management information system C. He can’t hold this office. A. One third of total Directors C. C. Yes he can because he is a natural person now. 39. Corporate governance.

61. administration. Accountants B. A. Internal audit is not required by law. External auditors B. Accountants B. False 51. Internal and risk control. Directors 58. Calculator 3. A. Operations.50. 53. Spread Sheet. A. A. or the board could delegate this responsibility to a subcommittee of the same board. Codes of corporate governance B. 57. The company’s annual report should describe the work of the ………………………………. Rumination committee. Company ……………………. External auditors C. Internal auditors D. True. Have a legal requirement to produce true and fair annual financial statement. A. 3 and 2 48 . A. The main role of the external auditor is to advice the management on whether the organization has a sound system of internal control? A. The whole board of directors should determine the remuneration of the NEDs. True B. False. Internal auditors 56. Internal auditors D. A. Directors. billing. 1. 63. False. External auditors C. No. Outsource advisors C. A. A. 1. The …………………………. Can a company hire an external auditing firm to do its internal audit? A. Computer base accounting system is generally very bulky both to handle and to store. 59. C. Digital Computer 2. False. a. A. A. Manager Operations D. 65. Internal auditors B. 55. False. In term of technology which of the following come first in order of invention. True B. True B. 54. …………………… have the responsibility to advice and make recommendations on the internal control and corporate governance. Yes B. True. False. Internal auditor covers all area of an organization. Are usually appoints by the shareholders. True b. International Accounting Standards 64. 62. finance and all others have to be checked by them. Accountants B. External auditors C. True. False. Audit committee. D. The preparation and filing of accounts by limited companies each year is required by which of the following? (Past Exam) A. Spreadsheets too can often used both in financial accounting and cost accounting. False. And they also reports to the shareholders. National legislation C.. B. Directors 60. They can be influenced by the top management. B. Only certain people are legally allowed to be internal auditor by law. A. True B. The principles of accounting in manual accounting are different from computerized accounting system. B. ……………………… haves an unavoidable independence problem. Internal auditors D. 52.

C.... 2.. 66... B. 2.. Control... Directing of Management E... And .. 30...... Security and Audit. Only external auditor should be a chartered accountant by law. Control is the result of proper planning.. 25. Budgets and Cost accounting are the duty of management accountant... Invoicing B.... Too much detail will make reader lost and harder to understand.......... And .. A.... Credit Controller deals with sales credit etc. Chapter 9.. 67. Transactions are finally posted in Journal Ledger. In order to keep the work updated with professional’s we need donation for payments in future... 3 and 1. which can be used by any number of applications.... A database may be described as a 'pool' of data. This is the role of the internal auditor. Its use is not restricted to the accounts department.... Auditing. Manual system is bulky not the computerized... 1. The internal control system comprise of the ...... They both have the same principles. Inventory C.. It can even come in a single USB drive... Preparing F/S is the responsibility of Accountant that is financial controller 16............ These MCQs are prepared after hard work and keeping Students help & need in mind.... If you like to help others you can add your contribution on the following link... Https://www..... False.. 15.. 2...... History and Role of Accounting 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 AB D D B C A C B B A C D 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 D D B A B A C A A B C D 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 A B BC D A E A C B A D A 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 D C DE A C A D D C B A D 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 C A B A B A D D C B B A 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 B B B A D A E Explanation........ The role of the external auditor is to give its opinion to the shareholder. Receivables ledger D. 1 and 3... 61. A. Marketing Polices C...B. 62...paypal.. . 49 .... All of the above. 58.. 53. 1.... True.. Employment Tasks D..... 2 and 3 D.. This is the responsibility of HR department... Internal auditor can be any one.... Payables ledger E.. Organizing B..com/cgi-bin/webscr?cmd=_s-xclick&hosted_button_id=U3HFU2THV2WJ8 Answers of Chapter 8. Which of the following is not the module of an accounting package? Gave the best answer? A.. 8.. 36.

.. Of Directors and management regarding internal control and their importance in the entry A.. Detect C. Discretionary D. Administrative.... Which of the following are the Classifications of internal control procedure? Select the best answer...... Correct D. General B........ Prevention and Detection of Fraud and Error B.. Control Environment.. 13.......... Control Procedures D. System A.. Detect E... Provide the background against which the various other controls are operated.... A.A. Control Account.... A. The timely preparation of reliable financial information system C........ A.. All of the above G...... Control Accounting B..... Checking invoices from suppliers against goods received notes before paying the invoices. Taxation 4. Control Auditing C..... Reaction E....... Controls are provided automatically by the system and cannot be overridden...... Correct B.. Attitude C.. Prevent D. I.... 5..... ... Management reporting B. Computerized Accounting C. entering a pin in ATM 50 .. Are those policies and procedures in addition to the control environment which are established to achieve the entity’s specific objectives... Designed identify errors once they have happened. A...... Prevent C..e... A.. The accuracy and completeness of the accounting records D......... Administration B..... Control Accounting B. Control Environment 8...... A... Control is required by law and imposed by external authorities..e. 12.. I. 9........ Controls are designed to minimize or negate the defect of errors. Which of the following are the key objectives of Internal Control System? Select the best answer........ ... Correct C... E.. ..... Control. Staff Attendance D.... The Control environment is the overall .... ... Control Design to prevent errors from happening in the first place.... . Correct F.......... And . Bank reconciliation and physical checks of inventory against inventory records....... Action D. E..g.. All of the above........ A... Discretionary 11... Prevent... E. Detect B.. Awareness B.. Control procedure...... Control Environment 3..... The safeguarding of Assets E.... Voluntary..... Interest 6.. Prevent D...... Control Auditing C... Risk Control C.. Management Control B.. A. Backup B. E... 10... 7... Are example of ... None of the above.... Auditor Control D. Accounting C.. This is the example of ........... Detect.... . Accounting D.. Control Procedures D.... Mandated C... back up of computer input at the end of the day......g. Internal Control may be incorporated within the....

. Funds and property of the company should be kept under proper custody. .... B. Which of the following is not a type of Internal Audit? A. A. Operational Audit D.. When management is satisfied with the internal control system. D...) A..... Bankers or lenders 17... Directors B. A. Cost benefit considerations D...Discretionary 14. Problem with the internal Control system B.. System Audit D...... Social Audit... Post list B.... 24...... Transactions Audit 22. Is a part of internal control system? A.... Transactions Audit E. Test is used to check the entries in the figures in accounts. Legal Audit D.. Job list........ Pre List C........ An increased number of unexplained or unacceptable events C...... Is a list that is drawn up before any processing takes place? A.... Internal Audit 18. General D... True B.... Casting D. False 21. .. Access to assets should be limited to... . True B. Seeks evidence that the internal controls are being applied as prescribed.. A .. A. Objective is to monitoring of management's performance at every level to ensure optimal functioning according to pre determine data.. Financial B.. efficiency or value for money audit. 23...... Compliance Test B. Management Investigation B.... Operation Audit is also known as management.. External Audit.. They are used to discover errors and omissions........... Operational Audit C.. A Transactions or Probity Audit aims to detect fraud and uses only substantive tests. False 16... System Audit........ 51 ..... False 20. Acknowledgment of work means Person who carries out a particular job should acknowledge their work by getting the signature of its senior manager A.. Internal Audit need is depending on the following (state which is the wrong one... Management Investigation B.. Substantive 26... Productivity test..... Social Audit. Substantive Test C. A. Authorized personal. Error detection Test D............. Management investigation C.. True B.. Error and Omission B. 25... Is based on a testing and evaluation of the internal controls within an organization so that those controls may be relied on to ensure that resources are being managed effectively and information provided accurately A... A.... Manual C. Operational Audit C. ...... Value of Money C... Special Checking team D.. A.. Total List D. .....A. Non. None Executive Directors C.... 19... Internal Auditors seeks to monitor the financial activity of a company only... System Audit B... Accounts C.. 15. F.

A.... 31. Register 33. 34. True B..... Password D. The intention of the Audit Trial is to ........ Business History D.... To prevent all threats cost effectively..... 32... Operators. The external auditors do not have a specific duty to detect fraud..... Impossible B....... Archiving provide a legally acceptable ... Hard disk space......... The internal auditors are not required to consider fraud.. Unique Reference C..... False 27.. A. External Auditor has a much wider scope then the Internal Auditors. False 37. A.. True B.... Employees time E.... A......... Practical. True B...... A...... This is wrong Perception that Independence is vital for the work and productivity for Internal Auditors... False.... A Fraud Trial B.... Highest Executive Level 28... B...A.. Can be maintained of unauthorized attempts to gain access to a computer system. Detect Fraud B....... Is a record showing who has accessed a computer system and what operations he has perform.. Detail 39... External Auditors works relates to the Operations of the Organization...... A. A.. Audit Trail 36.. A ... True B. Physical access control is design to prevent. An Audit trial should be provided so that every transaction on a file contain a......... A. Company Financial Head D... A. Possible C. While freeing up..... A. Senior Auditor C.... A... Password Trial C...... Intruders D..... Getting near to computer equipment or storage media.. False 29......... Computer logs 52 .. Audit Mark B.. Password C. 40... Archiving mean moving data from primary storage to. False... True B... Short term storage....... True B. B...... Managers B...... False 30.. Accountability B. System performance.... Internal control ref.... Senior Manager....... Identify errors E.......... 35...... Logical D... Database B.. A.. Identify User D. IT Workers C. It is in practice. D.... Computer Trial D. Software Ver.. An .. Paper Storage C... 38.............. And.... A.. A. Internal Auditors are Answerable and Accountable to.. Log C.... Detect input and output record C..

A. Stakeholder perception. General. The shareholders of the company D. Prevent controls 45. To whom is the external auditor primarily accountable? A. True B. ………………………. One of the main responsibilities of the external auditor is to ensure that company complies with the regulations relating to preparing the financial statement on time and submit the copy to the govt. Below are few factors that influenced the control environment. 50. Arithmetical internal check includes the following three steps. Management attitude toward control. 43. Discretionary. Voluntary. A Contingency is an unscheduled interruption of computing services that requires measures outside the day to day routine operation procedure. Transactions or probity B. The main responsibility of the external auditor is to ensure that the financial statements of the client are A. Correct controls C. B. Values and ability of employee’s. Authorities on time. Detect controls D. False. B. Audit aims to detect fraud and uses only substantive tests. 52. D. The directors of the company B. True. C. A. C. Segregate tasks D. Control Environment. C. Portable media or long term Storage. Company data is more important than hardware. A. An organization has a policy of checking all invoices from suppliers against goods received notes before paying the invoices. A ……………………………. True. A. 47. Tax Audit. B. The employees of the company 44. Which of the two control classifications are related to reduce of risk associated to computer environment? A. Destruction of data can be even more costly than the destruction of hardware. B. Should have a detail report on the performance of internal auditors performance D. A. Which of the following is not correct? A. Post-list. The Company as a separate entity C. 48. B. Working Audit D.D. A. 54. Accurate and free from bias. D. True. 51. Organization Structure. True. Application. Which of the following one is incorrect? A. False. Accounting controls B. B. False. A. B. B. Application. C. Compliance C. General. Should reach the Govt. External auditor should also see whether the management and the directors has act on the recommendations of the internal auditors in their report about the weakness and other areas of the company. 49. 53 . 46.. 53. True. C. False. Manual. Physical threats to computer security may be natural or man made. D.are the controls which are subject to human discretion. Pre-list. Manual. B. B. authorities. A. False 42. Substantive test are tests by an auditor to establish whether a figure in the financial statement is correct or not. Control total. Gave a true and fair view of the company activities. 41. False. This is an example of what type of control procedure? A.

A ………………………. Physical access of intruders to the computer equipment and data can be control by the following way. System integrity B. If you like to help others you can add your contribution on the following link. Sign of no entry. True. Back-up control in computer data protection aims to maintain system and data integrity. Data integrity 59. D.in the context of security is preserved when data is the same as in source documents and has not been accidentally or intentionally altered destroyed or disclosed. Company accountant. Card entry system. A. Security and Audit 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 AD CD B E ABC 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 B B D B B C D D B A 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 B A C A D A D B B B 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 A B A C D B AD B CE D 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 A A C D C AB D C A A 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 B A A A C B BC D C A 61 62 63 64 65 B B D C F C A 54 . False. Data redundancy. Personal control like security guards or watch man etc. A.can provide a restorable history from one day to several years. System integrity B. A. True. A. A. 61. 62. ……………………………. D.com/cgi-bin/webscr?cmd=_s-xclick&hosted_button_id=U3HFU2THV2WJ8 Answer for Chapter 9. Which of the following two are the most important aspect of physical access control to the computer equipment. D. True. Mean a same data in two or more places.paypal. System database through data integration reduce/delete duplicate data. Risk control C. B. Data redundancy. A. The key objective of the internal Audit is to protect and report for the benefits of the stakeholders. 63. Data integrity 60. depending on the needs of the business. B. In order to keep the work updated with professional’s we need donation for payments in future. B. D. ……………………. 57. Door locks C. Personal control like security guards or watch man etc. A. D. B. B. These MCQs are prepared after hard work and keeping Students help & need in mind. Physical hard copies of record. 56. Old unused computer. State the one incorrect? A. False. Modern computer equipments are safe from theft due to their extra large size. Control. Intruders Alarms 58. Door locks and Cameras C.. False. B. Tape rotation scheme C. Https://www. Risk control C.55. Intruders Alarms. .

Payroll fraud.. Promotion fraud.. D. Collusion with customer C. Fictitious supplier C. Bogus fraud C.. It is vital for the Internal Auditors that they must be independent and free from all pressures. Collusion with customer C.... Where a fictitious member of staff is been added to the salary list. .. 36. A..... Frauds. 28. He or she should do sign or Rubber stamp etc belonging to him 19... Teeming and lading is the method of fraud done in the sales ledger or sales department A... Payroll fraud D. 29. False. False 7.. Error.. A........... 9... Employees right B... Intentional.. 6.. Employee fraud B.. ..... Common B..... External Auditor have nothing to do with the operations of the business their job is to report the stake holders about the full and fair presentation of financial statement 31. Teeming and lading B. A.. Mexter Limited has given sales executive a sales limit of 5000 $ for new client sales promotion.. This type of fraud is known as. Theft of inventory B... 2. True B.. 62. Truth B.. Theft of inventory..... Bogus supply for goods and service B. and computer paper etc are..... 55 .. Internal Auditor has a much wider scope... Chapter 10. 5... Bogus supply of goods or service. False..... 1. Identifying and preventing fraud..... 8. Theft D. What type of fraud this is? A. 4. He take order for 4500 $ from a new client kessler traders which have no previous record with the company... Internal Auditors seeks to monitor all aspects of the business.. conspiracy with other parties and stealing company assets are. It is the duty of the internal auditors to detect Frauds..Explanation 15.......... 3. office stationery...... Fictitious customer D... The bill was for 1200 $ and was in the name of xebox limited which was owned by Kim himself.. Arif left the job later company found that no such client physically exits. Technical C. What type of fraud is this? A. A..... / Unsophisticated fraud... A.. Theft of inventory. Trivial lost D..... Kim is a senior manager in dany ltd.... A.. 10. Pilfer items of inventory including sales item.. Paying for goods not received. Careless D. True B.... True B.. Billas the purchase executive in Halex industries collude with the supplier for the supply of 2000 bags of fertilizer which was actually supplied 1800 and billed for 2000 and later was paid for the same as billed.. While in the process of audit due to their work and amylases if they find any fraud or error then they can gave their opinion... The internal audit is for the management not for the shareholders.. Fictitious customer D..... What type of fraud is this. Arif was a sales executive in mexter limited. Work force fraud. 30. A. Understates the rate of depreciation will have no impact on the profits and book value of the company.. Teeming and lading C. He billed this company for the consultancy charges which was never provided. A false representation of fact make with the knowledge of its falsity or without belief in its truth. Fictitious customer’s fraud this is not necessary that the employee must have responsibility for taking goods order as well as the authority to approve a new customer for credit. This is their duty 56... Modern computer are very small in size and portable in nature.. Company mark 4500 as bad expense. Fraud C..

Cultural factor B.. Opportunity. 14. Changed operating environment b. 17.. Cheating B. Unusual transaction F.. Karen was senior accountant in Lexberg soft. Lack of integrity B. True B.. Motivation D. social..... F. Criminal D. Deliberate errors in account records. Manipulation of the accounting records B. What will be the possible frauds may be the reason of his margin deviation...... 15... Effective system of transaction authorizations. D.... Over valuation of the closing inventory B... Span of control. 13. Which of the following is not the internal factor of fraud in an organization? A. Indication of theft B. New or upgraded M. 12. G. None of the above. A. Over state the purchases.. Rapid growth d. Collusion with suppliers C. Corporate restriction / overseas operations 19. Delo craft company profit for the years shows significantly high then the rest of the industry standards firm. Sidra energy shows a rapid decline in the company profits which was under performing relative to competitors which of the following is not the case of fraud relate to this case A. organizational and legal norms for fair and honest dealing.. Can you tell which factor of dishonesty is this? A. Audit B. Social factor D.. All of the above. False. A. True B. E. In order to do so. Organization with complex group structures including numerous domestic and overseas subsidiaries and branches are not susceptible to fraud A.. Poor control system D. Understated inventory. The financial head of Pilado co. which of the following option he will not choose. False 18.S f. Define as an individual tendency to act in a way which is contravening accepted ethical. A.I.. This is the perfect example of theft of cash fraud due to dishonesty.. Delayering D. Decided to show poor financial result for the company this year.. 21. . 56 .. A. Dishonesty C... Which of the following is not the high fraud risk indicator? A. Is this true that few industries are particular exposed to certain type of fraud in which they exist. Dishonesty B. Manipulation knowledge C. Illegal activity. Criminal factor. 20.. Collusion with the existing customers C. Understated the depreciation charges C.. The trend of . What are the 3 prerequisites for fraud? State the one incorrect. False. Lack of audit evidence. Effective internal check / control. 22. 16. New technology E. Creation of fictitious customer D.11. New products h.. In love of getting expensive and new model mercedize benz and to be well known in the society the execute a high value cash theft. Internal control C. A.. A. True B. A. New personal C. Understated depreciation E. Overstate the expenses D. May reduce the degree of supervision exercised in many organization without putting anything in its place.. Excessive pressures C... Personal factor C. A sheer size of the group can offer low opportunities to lose transactions or to hide things in intercompany account.

.....23..... True B. As per personal risk states which of the following are the clues that indicate that a person is engaging in fraud? A... False. Reduce C. Vast staff numbers contribute to a certain degree of employee anonymity making it easier to conceal fraudulent activities.. A.. 28. A. Strategy factors such as lack of business strategy or great emphasis being placed on reward will results in high risk of fraud. Senior managers B. Appropriate documentation requirement for all transactions will not reduce high risk of fraud. 31. Internal audit C. Secretive behavior B. The company will pay low tax to govt.. A.. C.. True B. Banks and financial institutes will give loan on high interest rates.. Detecting and investigate. If the results of a company are understated which of the following is incorrect? A. Distribute too much profit to the shareholder D.. A... False. True B.. Avoid B..... A.. The share price of the company move downward 26. Company will have better production B.. Segregation of duties C. In limited companies the prime responsibility for preventing and detecting fraud is on the shoulders of. True B..... True B. a. 25. If the results of a company are overstated which of the following is incorrect? A.. Choose the best answer. 27. B..... Retained profits will be lower than believed B.. A........ True B. False.. 30. Personal factors such as extensive authority result into weaker / controlled mangers. A... External audit D.. Prevention of fraud must be an integral part of .... Due to downsizing which of the following will affects the company internal control? A.... The share price of the company drops down. External auditors 57 ....... Company will pay dividends and bonuses to shareholders D.. B. Choose the best possible answer..... Narrow span of control D. False 34.. Corporate strategy.. A. 35. A. 37.. Profits will be higher. Administrative strategy. Effective control system should have the quality of .. E.. External auditors should also report to management for any material information or weakness in the accounting and internal control system.. True B. All of the above. Expensive life styles C. Fraud. Fraud officer should talk to staff confidentially and provide advice with the permission of the senior management... Autocratic management style E... 29. Investigate D.. D. True B. 36.. False 33. Organization factor such as unclear structure of responsibility / lack of supervision of remote location will reduce the risk of fraud.. Lack of division of duty and law staff morale F. The negative publicity will impact the public perceptions.. External auditors are not required to report all instance of fraud to the management. False.. False. False 32. A. 24.. Detecting E... Long hours or untaken holidays.. Incorrect decisions will be made for expansions C..

... 49. None of the above. When fraud occurs what steps should management takes to investigating and dealing with the consequences of frauds that have occurred. Criminal frauds.. What should they do in the public interest? A. A. Payroll fraud D... All of the above F. 41. Misstatement C. . Suspending suspected staff D.... C. Higher management D. Directors C. D... Is an unintentional mistake.. 39. 46...... Sophisticated frauds.. D... A. The auditor’s further finds that the key directors and N. Unsophisticated frauds B...... False billing fraud. A fraud which has been designed to escape detection from auditors is known as. This is called. Securing of the assets.. A fraud in which payment from one debtor is pocketed by fraudster and on the next day he shows the receipt from another debtor payment in the first one.... Inventory fraud C. C. False. 58 . Window dressing B.. Sales made just before year end can be deliberately over-invoiced and credit notes issued with an apology at the start of the New Year. True B... This will enhance turnover and profit during the year just ended.Ds are also involve in the fraud. Should make the report.. A.. Select the one incorrect. Management B... A..... Security and exchange commission. A... B..... True B.. 48.. Accounting staff B.... B. A. They request that the . Window dressing and cooking of books are examples of financial statement fraud.... C. A.C. None of the above 45. Payroll fraud C... If in the case of fraud the auditors consider that matter should be reported to an appropriate authority in public interest.. Purchase fraud.. General worker C... 38. 47.... Government D... The responsibility of the external auditors is only to express an opinion upon whether the financial statements give a true and fair view of the company financials situation and results. Teaming and leading B.... 43. Accounts error. 44. Sales error D. Changing computer passwords E. Which of the following is not a sales ledger fraud? A.. Non executive directors. They should do public protest... They should inform the print and electronic media. Following are some of the fraud done by the employees of the company. Credit fraud C. Fraud B.. Error D. This is the example of. Ensuring the security of the record B.. Pocketing the proceeds of cash sales and never entering them in sales ledger D.... Directors D. A.. Teaming and leading B... They should make a qualify report for stake holders / stock holders. False. Window dressing. A..... 40. A.E. Purchase ledger fraud D. Information technology staff. C. Teaming and leading. Common frauds.. They should report the police. Bestcom industries external auditor extracts a massive fraud in the company financial statement. 42. Stealing receipts from the debtors and later writing them as bad debt. The selling of intellectual property that is plans and information about new upcoming products to competitor are normally done by..

Do you think it can also happen in purchases system? A. 53. A. In order to keep the work updated with professional’s we need donation for payments in future. Remuneration related to performance on the basis of profit is an effective tool to control fraud. True B. External auditors. External auditors. False. B. D.com/cgi-bin/webscr?cmd=_s-xclick&hosted_button_id=U3HFU2THV2WJ8 Answer for Chapter 10. ………………………………… should act on signs of dishonesty by senior executive management. These MCQs are prepared after hard work and keeping Students help & need in mind. Non-executive directors. Internal auditors. 59 . If you like to help others you can add your contribution on the following link. 56. A strategy for investigating and dealing with the consequences of suspected or identified fraud is called a fraud response plan. Should review the organization performance in fraud prevention and report any suspicious matters to the board. False.50. Audit committee of BOD. False. B. C. True. Employee’s union. And also personal or friend company. A. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 B A D C A B C D C B B B 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 B B D C A F F D B A A F 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 D C A B E A B A B B B A 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 C A D B D E A C A D C B 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 A A A C D B B 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 Explanation 5 Teeming and lading is the best known methods of fraud in the sales ledger area 6 Must have it. True. 52. Teaming and leading is normally happened in the sales system. 55. Internal auditors. 8 This needs senior staff. B.paypal. 7 Arif has the permission to take order and approve credit. Identifying and Preventing Fraud. C. 51. True. A. Https://www. False. Non-executive directors. falsely invoice and goods or service never supplied. If someone else gave authority it will detect the scam. The directors of the company and the senior management are not responsible for preventing and detecting fraud internally and externally. B. b. ……………………………. 54. A. A. D.

Accountability... People who act on behalf of the stake holders 3. A....." A.... 5..... Dominant manager will do thing they way he do. Organize 7... A. ...... “a Social arrangement for the controlled performance of collective goals........... A. 2. In the case of Public ltd D.. The management of the company is accountable to .... They are more capable of frauds. ... False. True B.... Stake holders. Progress C.... Part E. In known as when a superior gives to a subordinate the discretion to make decisions within a certain sphere of influence. Have to be set for the Organization A. Cultural Factors are National or familial Values. Challenge... A formal organization could not exist.. Power is the right to do something while Authority is the ability to do something.. Understating Expense will show high profits in accounts.. They are required to report all frauds to the management...... 60 .......... Its the role of the manager to take ....... .............. Government B.. Rules B....... Responsibility B..... A.. Subordinate Power and rights D........... 9. Ngos C.. A... 10... B.... False 4. 8. Organization Definition suggest that Somebody have to look after the interest of the .... Principles C.. This will reduce the chance of fraud as document will check on different stages.. Liability of Worker. Getting things done through other people B............. Motivate D.... A........ Responsibility C. Guidelines 6. A......9 10 11 14 17 20 21 30 33 34 35 54 56 Collude with supplier and received less items then billed....... And other .... Delegation of Authority B..... Fraud officer is free to talk and gave advice to staff...... The Definition of Management as per Stewart is ......... Leading and managing people. False. They are..... The owner B..... This will result in the increase of income...... Govt....... Authority is the Decision making discretion given to the managers while responsibility is the obligation to perform duties.... Experts who run a company C. Share holders C. People to get things done.... Objectives B........... A..... This is one of the prime reasons of frauds.. Is the liability of a person to discharge duties and obligation to do something. Responsibility C... These are for herself. 1.. And ..... All of the above.. True B.. Authority D.. Internal Audit D... Responsibility C..... True B..... 11....... Delegation......... Organization Owners D.. Without.. Organization is defined as... Chapter 11. A. Rules and Regulations D.. Yes there are certain types of fraud associated to some industry Understating Inventory will result in High Gross margins.....

Power A.. Communicating d. 61 . 18.. If due to poor work of david company suffer who is accountable? A.. John gave his subordinate David the Delegation of Authority for Sales in particular area. organize and co ordinate and control activities. Referent power D. Which of the one not belong to Henri Fayol Five functions of management.. According to Harzberg Responsibility is an important factor of job Satisfaction and motivation. Negative power B. False.. John and Peter (CEO) D. False... Above both D. 20. Reward Power B. A. Project generally (state which one is incorrect) A. 17. Project planning is not generally a repetitive activity. Have specific start and end points B. Peter is the CEO of FX Securities....12. Co-ordinating f. C.. 19.. Managers have no Role in working planning........ 24.. A. True B. Coercive B. Legal power.. As possible and to plan.. Referent C.. Have a well defined objectives. Expert power C..... Planning b.. Cut across organizational and functional boundaries 23. 22..... Legitimate power C. Opportunities B... Position power B.. cost and schedules D.. Task Sequencing B. He appoints John as a Senior Sales officer in the Green Sales zone of the company with complete authority.. Coercive Power D.... False... 16.. Coercive power... What type of power is this? A.. 21.. None of the above. Projects C.. John and David. Physical 15. Physical Power.... Organizing C. A. Considering tasks in order of importance for achieving objectives and meeting deadlines is called...... Referent Power C. A.. Prioritization C. Controlling. A. Negative power C. What kind of power is used by a manager who promises a pay increase if productivity rises? A... resource allocation and project management. Position power is also called as ... The job of the project management is to foresee as many .. Expert power B........ Henri Fayol was a German Industrialist ( 1841 -1905 ) A. CEO Peter C..... Have Unlimited time to complete... The power with disruptive attitude and behavior to stop something from happening is . True B.. Which of the following is not the power belongs to Middle Managers. A.. True B.. Coercive Power D... Reward power D. True B. 14.? A... Negative D. A. Contingencies D. Referent power. Only David B. Roger Warn his Subordinate that if the assignment didn't finish on time we will be fired. Possibilities.. False.. 13. Commanding E. 25.

.. 62 .. Lower D. Management C...... Peoples B.. consistency and predictability.... Supervisor is the...... Consult B.. Style C. Level of management A...... External Auditors C.......... Technical Management D. Internal Auditors B....... Functional C. A... Administrative D.. True B... D. Management is about Coping with complexity its functions are to do with logic.. communicating strategy...... Operational Core D... Sell (persuasive) C. 30.. Consult 37... analysis and control.. E. A... Upper B.... Management.26.. Join (Democratic) E... / front line 29.. Peoples D.. Activities B. Leadership is about coping with change its activities include creating a sense of direction.. Contingency 4......... Which of the following is not the style of Ashridge management model? A... structure.. False.. ... Non-management B. A... Projects C. A.. Supervision is the interface between ........ False.... A.......... Activities C... A. Workers A. Sell C.. and are aimed at producing order.. Tell (autocratic) B.. Supervisor spends much of its time on managerial aspects of this job then technical / operational work.... 35. 32................ Leadership can only be exercised over . A... 36.. Scientific.. Frederick W Taylor was pioneered the ...... Leadership style is the cluster of leadership behavior that is used in different ways in different situation. False...... Theory is based on analyzing the personality characteristics or preference of Successful leaders... Non-personal things..... Human Resource B.. Tell 38.. Resources 33... Resources E. Situational. Management... N E Ds... Middle C.. 28... Projects D. Join E..... Decide D.. 34.... False... Trait B.. and energizing. And . A...... Lowest. True B. True B... 27. Scientific Management........ Operational Core are . inspiring and motivating others to translate the vision into action... Management can be exercised over.... 31.. A. Decide.... True B. A. Ashridge Studies found that Subordinates preferred the ........ Indicate which one of the following is not correct..... Style of leadership......

This type of group is known as ... Remove the incompatible personality.... Https://www.. 40. Individuals Groups and teams 1... False... A... A. environment.. Behavior D. In order to keep the work updated with professional’s we need donation for payments in future. C. Physical power B.. Karen is a sale represent in Total Corporation..... the organization and management is known as Attitude at Work. Informal Groups D.. B.. Restore compatibility B.. When incompatibility occurs due to worker personality what option managers have.. The individual standpoint on working. Time will make him perfect.. The process in which brain selects and organizes information in order to make sense of it is known as . Working Groups C.. 3... work conditions. 4.. A. Personality. A. False... Position power is also known as legitimized power.... If you like to help others you can add your contribution on the following link.paypal. On other hand Seela show a very pleasant attitude with her friends at work. A..39..... Legitimate power D.. True B. A group of people who have common interest.... the task.. and work load and manager expectations.. Resource power C. 63 . Leading and managing people 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 D A A CD A BD A B B A 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 D D A C A C B D B C 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 A B C B C CD A D B A 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 A C A A A C A D A C 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 Chapter 12.... True. In and out Groups 2.com/cgi-bin/webscr?cmd=_s-xclick&hosted_button_id=U3HFU2THV2WJ8 Answer 11.. she take orders from the customers and wish them greeting. Meet in and outside of the organization to exchange information or get together and have a frequent fluctuating in members. Which type of power is associated with line authority? A. Achieve a compromise D.. 5. State the one not correct. Perception C. She is not happy with the working conditions. What kind of attitude both are feeling.. Expert power These MCQs are prepared after hard work and keeping Students help & need in mind.. Formal Groups B. She is positive to all workers... colleagues. Reaction B. She listen to the managers and try to convince them her point.

. Spatial Intelligence 7.... The propose of the team is to share their knowledge and to reach to consensus about a product development.. A. Multi Skilled team 15. influence. Multi-disciplinary Team B... Group D.. True B......... Principle Performa..... Karen showing negative attitude at work C..... Product or task Team C... False. Multi-disciplinary Team C... The team will be held responsible to the R&D Director for this task. Thinking.... When you are expected to operate in two roles at once. A team of expert use information and communication technology to interact with each other while working from distance or remote areas is . 17. Role Set B. 10. Force 11 Personality is the total pattern of characteristic ways of. Virtual Team D......... Emotional Intelligence D.. True B. Team Work C... Samsung Corporation selects 12 people from its factory who can perform multiple tasks at any time..A. Product or task Team D. Multi Skilled team 16.. Lay out D.. Team B......... False...... 8. A collection of people with same rank and interest is an example of.. Analytics Intelligence C..... What kind of team is this? A.. 12. Sony Corp Select a group of 15 members whose Job is to develop a new Laptop of Touch feature. A.. Seela showing positive attitude at work D...... Informal Group D.. Intra-personal Intelligence is empathy.... Belbin model have... Practical Intelligence B.. Role incompatibility / Role conflict D. Karen showing negative attitude to work B..... Delegated act B......... This is an example of... Behaving D.. B.. Peter make a team for its project in which he select different people from different department who are best in their field.. Feeling C.. A. A.. Belbin says " Ideally team members should perform a . (Which one is not the right answers?) A.. 13.. The team manager used different combination on the project and found all members can do and produce best result... A... The type of intelligence deal with patterns and connections.. Role signs. Task Group......... This is called. Multi-disciplinary Team B.. 9... 4 C.. Role ambiguity C........... and co-operation.. Mostly used by Artist and Designers etc is called.. 6. A. understanding of emotional needs of other. Balanced mix C.... Role ambiguity may occur if you exactly known what role you are operating in a given time. A.. Virtual Team D........ Project team B. Formal Group B.9 64 ...... Roles A... Of roles... Team...... 8 D ...... Reacting..... Nine roll Team C........ Multi Skilled team 14........ A.. These people took 9 months to complete their task and enjoy working as a team. Seela showing positive attitude to work... What kind of team is this? A. Organization C... conflict resolution. 7 B.

...... Specialist C. A... Plant D. Individual are likely to be more. Which of the following role is kaven? A... . Proposing. Buchanan 31... New ideas are shared and leader is yet not decided. Team worker B...g.. Team must have 9 member because this is requirement says Balbin. A role that listens builds.. Mitzberg 27........ True B. Rackham D....... Or make it clear like.18 . ? Is example of? A.. Belbin C. Seeking information. Tuckman’s C. Belbin B.. Belbin suggest that an ideal team should represent a .... without offering any alternate is known as.... Blocking / Difficulty Stating D... Shaper B.... Presentation D.g. A team member with Creative. Coordinator 19. False... Rackham and Morgan B. Frustrated D. and calms the waters is Shaper..... Role if required........... Kaven is a team chair person of X group.. 26.... Nonsense let move onto something else we are wasting time A.... Interrupting or overriding others taking over e... Shutting out behavior 29.. Have developed a helpful categorization of the type of contribution people can make to team discussion and decision making..... None.. True B. Successful B.... Coordinator 20... A.. A. A. Belbin role... 25. Of all roles A... A. imaginative character who have the tendency of solving difficult problems is a .. Proposing.. 24.. 30...... False 21. Testing understanding B... Backup B.. averts friction. Enjoyment. 23. Shutting out behavior B. True B. False. Previous B. A.. Tuckman D. A. Bringing in behavior C.... Desired C..... Plant C..... Balance / mix C...... Blocking / Difficulty Stating D.. Backup D.... Which of the four stage of Tuckman it this? 65 .. In some roles than in others. Few members are shy and not participating. Bringing in behavior C. Summarizing D.. Giving information C........ 28... Happy C..... A.... B. Team member can switch to .. Is that car will work that’s way am i right... E..... Four Stages of group / team development were identified by ....... The Group leader finds that he is very confident person and promotes decision making. A.. Checking whether points have been understood. Specialist D. 22. Layout.. on other hand the delegated duties he gave to him he perform them with great care and excellence. Team members make similar type of contribution in the area of task performance and team maintenance............ When Group members gather together and introduce them self each of one try to impress with their personality and love to find about the others.... Putting obstacles in the way of proposal......

43................ ? A... Communication between the team members are free and open in Ineffective team.. The stage of group forming in which people start lots of about their idea.. Storming B........ Disagreements C.. Qualitative D.. Team based reward may be used to encourage .. Accountability...... In an ineffective team ideas are shared for the benefits of team.......... Progress becomes static. Storming B. A. A.. True B..... Successful / effective C. Norming C. covering its operations and its output.... False.. High level of Absenteeism is a characteristic of effective team. Norming C....... True B. Storming 33. 38.. Big.... Trust and confidence b/w the member increase... 42.......... A....... True B... Dorming D... Performing C.. Two of the group arguing as to whose idea is the best.... procedure along with group norms... Individual performance award may act in favor of team cooperation and performance.. Groupthink D.g.. A..... Forming B... Dorming 37. .. E... Adjourning. and team member satisfaction. 66 ........ A. Group Test C... Individuals are now ready for go... Hard work C.A... Should be expressed and then resolved. Conflicts between team members are more open or less...... Factors.. Safe D. Understanding D...... Occurs when groups are highly cohesive and when they are under considerable pressure to make a quality decision... Agreements D.. As per Team solidarity... C. False.......... 39.. A. And mutual. Dorming D.. Labor Accidents are low in an effective team A. Strong B.. True B.. Performing 32.. Forming B... Management. E. Forming D..... 44.. A process where activity being located every one known about their role and work. False. A.. False.g. 41...... Problem B... And . Storming 35. True B......... Team A. Theories. A time came on group where group become static (stop) now team looks back into self-maintenance at the expense of the task.... 40..... Co-operation C.. Method of work and time scale has been introduce. A.. Motivation B.... A.... Performing 34... Quantifiable B. The task of the team leader is to built a . False... 36. A team can be evaluated on the basis of ... A. Danger B..... Changes are made in Objective. Forming D..

The fifth stage which has been added to Tuckman’s four stages of team development is …………………………………………….... confident.. At which stage of team development according to Tuckman’s. A.. See page 288 1.. True B. Profit sharing schemes are based on the distribution of a . Certificates....com/cgi-bin/webscr?cmd=_s-xclick&hosted_button_id=U3HFU2THV2WJ8 Answer for Chapter 12.. 46.paypal.. politics... Team solidarity C.. 49. Leading 48. Warming B... A team cannot be evaluated on the basis of quantifiable and qualitative factor covering its operations and its output. a good chairperson and clarifies goals and delegates well Shaper is Challenging......1 Plant role have Creative... education or religion These are all related to inter personal intelligence... Which one of the following is incorrect? A.. imaginative....3 Managers have 3 options to deal with personal issues with compatibility Attitude at work mean who he behave with other individuals. Team identity B. Pool of Cash D. Gifts C. Https://www.. Behaving is not in the definition.. Individuals. dynamic who drive and overcome obstacles. Cost plus Premium C. Role Ambiguity occurs when have no knowledge about its role or act.45.... False These MCQs are prepared after hard work and keeping Students help & need in mind... There are three main issues in the development of a team. A. Zero Value D.. Team Outlines D. Employee Share Option means giving staff the right to acquire share in the employing company at . Reforming C.. Storming C.. Shared objectives 50. 67 ....... Norming D. A.. A. While Team worker is the one who averts friction Team can have any number of members as per its need. 47. If you like to help others you can add your contribution on the following link. will the effectiveness of work be at the lowest point? A.. Price. Forming B.... Dorming D.... Performing. Market Value... groups and teams 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 C B B B AC D B C B C 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 C A B D C B D B D B 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 B A C B B A C D A B 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 C D B C B C AC B A B 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 B B BD B C A C B C B 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 1 2 4 7 9 11 18 19 20 21 Explanation This is the explanation of informal groups see page 292 at 2. Medals B. Attractive B. Related to profit.... unorthodox and solves difficult problems Coordinator (chairman) is mature...... In order to keep the work updated with professional’s we need donation for payments in future.

False. Satisfaction B.... Content Theory C. over and above mere compliance with rules and procedures. Unhappiness D.. Workers Perception about their job satisfaction can be indicated by mean of a ………………………………...... 1. Motivation is about getting extra levels of ………………………….. Satisfaction B... Culture D... Compliance B. C. Wishes C. Conflict C.. Organization is in a position to offer some of the. Neutral B.. D. On job satisfaction and morale on performance are difficult to measure. Low Morale D.. 11. Theories. Over time B. A.. A..... Kinetic Theory.... Herzberg’s two factor theory and Maslow’s hierarchy are the example of …………………………………… Theory. 3.. Goals 4. 9..... If people needs are being met and goals being fulfilled at work? They will more likely to have a . A... Internal Audit. Effective team have low worker absents as all workers are satisfied. 5...... Hopes D. Entertainment D. Unpleasantness C.. Attitude. General. What are the things that motivate peoples are called …………………………………………... A. 68 .... Bad Manager 8.. No ideas are owned by individual for their own benefit There is an extreme mistrust so no one share its information with other. A. Commitment D. C.. People might seek.. Education C... Needs B. Motivation. Environmental issues. Hard work... Performance C. 6... Positive. Motivation individuals and groups. A... To achieve the positive attitude at work Organization have to fulfill workers …………………… and ………………………… A. A... Work lost B. Surveys. Dissatisfaction 7. Motivate theory B. Every one will hide information and try to prove himself to get reward Chapter 13.. Low Production and High labor turnover are not a reliable indicator of ………………………………………... Negative D. Process Theory D. Low Morale implies a state of …………………………………………… A.. And ………………………….. Soft C. Activity 2.. Management B. Low Labor Turnover is an excellent example of high morale of workers? A.. From employees... Attitude at work. The impact of ……………………….. 10.25 38 40 41 44 Team members make different type of contribution as per Rackham and Morgan studies.. True B...

. Herzberg’s two factor theory B. Until satisfied and only then next level of need can become a motive factor. Physiological needs D. 17..... A.. Safety need are the needs for security of work. Maslow Hierarchy Theory D.A. the human body simply cannot continue to function. According to Maslow each level of need is ……………………………….. What are the other 2 needs which are Maslow Described? Those are not in this diagram A.. 24... Motivate theory B.. Self Actualization 16. None. Have Freedom to enquiry and expression D.. Eleven D. A.... True B.. 20... Kinetic Theory. Process Theories ask the question. A. Maslow says that the management must make sure that . False 22. A..... What are the things that motivate people? 13.. Social needs are the needs to. Why people are motivated D.. Requirements are not met.. Seven C. Can rarely be satisfied.. Freedom of enquiry and expression needs B.......... Esteem needs C... Needs should satisfied before they try to motivate employee with initiative aimed at the satisfaction of higher level needs.. A. How can Organization overcome them? Select the best 2. Love / Social Needs B.. Which one is correct? A.. The need for …………………………………….. False. Interact with other people or Groups. They are the basic needs of human e.... Five B. A.g. A.. Esteem needs B.... A. 12.. Why people are unsatisfied C. Altruistic behavior refer to the meanings that people never sacrifice their own needs for others? A. Following 2 are the example of Process theories. True 69 . Have picnic and party every Sunday B. By Management behavior C. Employment Legislation D. Arrangement for Pension Security and ill treatments. Have 5 % extra pay C. Entertainment need.. A. 15. Food. Abraham Maslow described ……………………………. Physiological needs D.. 23. Love / Social Needs B. 14. Innate human needs. unemployment and against sick. Three. True B. As per Maslow ………………………….. Process Theory C. Dominant B.. Esteem needs C... Self Actualization 18. Knowledge and understanding needs C.. Important C.. Completed D..... Content Theory D.. Esteem needs are Ego needs... Physiological needs D. Deferred gratification means people are prepared to ignore current suffering for the promise of future benefits? A.. Handy Motivation calculus. Low level needs D. By Verbal Assurance B.. Shelter and cloths. Expectancy theory C. Love / social needs C. Self Actualization 19.... 21. How can people be motivated? B..

...... Poor Quality C. Job security 31... The need of personal growth in Herzberg theory is satisfied by . Pay 36... Theory of XY B.. Medical Treatment C..................... Education C........... 28. A.. A.. Low productivity B..... Company internal matters C. Herzberg‘s 2 factor theory B... Mcgregor explains two sets of assumptions about people at work.......... True B............... Environment.............. Factor A........ Expectancy D. Hygiene factor D... A..... And ... Environment B. Health C..... Inadequate hygiene factors will cause Satisfaction with work......... Herzberg suggested three types of job design which would offer job satisfaction through enhanced motivator factors. Salary factor B.. And . Which of the following is incorrect? A................... A lack of motivator factors will encourage employees to concentrate on the . The two factors of Vroom's theory are ...... False 38.. The theory for predicting the strength of an individual's motivation to put in effort at work is ..... Mcgregor Theory of X and Y 34. Job enrichment 33... Job enlargement C..... Following are the evidence of poor motivator...... F = V x E x F D... False 32........ True B.... Theory of X C ....... Job Rotation E.. The theory X suggests that manager should use .. True B... Motivator D.... Theory of Y 37............ False... Govt..... Vroom's Expectancy equation is............... And ... Herzberg's theory says that management should pay special attention on hygiene factors such as pay and conditions......... Employee turnover B. A... 30......... And ... 70 . Theory of F = V x E D......... V = E x F B. Force B...... Job Redundancy B... Hygiene factors.. Which is called . 27. False........ Maslow's Theory D........ Theory A...... Herzberg's two factor are . A..... A........ Enforcement Agencies...... A.... Hygiene factor are to do with the...... A.B.... 26...... A... Vroom’s Expectancy Theory C... Theory X suggests that most people like work and responsibility and will do both if possible.............. Tools to control workers....... Conditions of work D.. State the two which are incorrect... 25............. Valence C....... Employees Strikes D...... Extra time activities............. Job Dismissal D.......... 29.... E = F x E C....................... F = V x E 35...... Theory A.. D. Hygiene B.. Motivator factor...

. Job is divided into small level of sequential task. Incentive is the ..A.. False... 48... Alternate B. Job rotation D..... False 50.. Cash bonus. Pay and promotion system 45. Very little Resources are used. Job enrichment... Widen jobs by increasing no of operation in which a job holder is involved.. Extrinsic Rewards D.......... Of a reward...... False 47.. . Rewards A. Poor Result.. Intrinsic Rewards C. C.. A.. Is the planned transfer of staff from one job to another to increase task variety.. D.. Punishment C..... True B........... True B... A.... The complete process is Reduce to very few levels B. Job Enlargement is term which refer to . A. Jobs are done with the help of Micro scope D. Promise or Offer C. A. 41... Micro Design of Job is a micro division of labor.......... A... 51.. Job enlargement B.. pension and medical benefits are the example of .. basic pay.... A....rewards include the satisfaction that comes from completing a piece of work. 49. A. True B. Theory Y suggests that physical and mental effort in work is as natural as play or rest. Year End Reward 43......... Vertical Extension of Job into greater level of responsibility means Job ........... .. Extrinsic Rewards D. False. Achievement Reward D..... False. Intrinsic Rewards C.. and the feeling of achievement that comes from doing a difficult job well.. 52........... Micro Design jobs are best described as.. Job Enlargement with contradicts the principles of specialization and the division of labor whereby work is divided into small units A.. The best examples are pay and promotion. Achievement Reward B..... All of the above 39... and active role in decision making and planning......... The . Intrinsic Rewards C..... Excessive job simplification leads to lower quality..... Job enrichment means empowerment of workers.. Fear B............ Job which have to complete with lots of Product processing C.system is refers to the system of extrinsic rewards that an organization can give to its employee... A. through inattention and loss of morale......... the status that certain jobs convey... Incentive system D... Excellence Reward 42. Year End Reward 44....... Job which need to be complete with large no of people....... True B.............. Reward System B. A..... Job Scarification C.... Misc Rewards B..... Rewards are separate from the job itself or Outside the control of an Individual itself. A. A........... 40. True B...... Punishment D....... 46... Job Enrichment 71 ... B.... share option scheme. . A.. Extrinsic Rewards B..... Review system C.. A very large or lengthy job..... Direction D.......

A. False. The average person prefers to be directed and wants to avoid responsibility. Extrinsic Rewards D. Status / Advancement / work itself.. Herzberg’s two factor theory. Salary / job security / working conditions.. Job Rotation D. A. Management should pay attention on the motivator factor. Constructive Feedback B.... The strength of his preference for a certain outcome. Which of the following one is not a hygiene factor? A. Pay is a motivator factor. Lack of motivator factor will lead workers to concentrate on hygiene factor. A sense of Achievement / Growth in the job. 61.... Which of the following one is not a motivator factor? A. B... What is the term PRP means? A. Which of the following statement about X theory is not correct? A.. Vroom’s expectancy theory. Reward.. True B.. Company policy and administration. Year End Reward 59.. Putting effort in work is as natural as play or rest. Challenging work / Responsibility. ………………………………. 55. Contacts with Manager. True B. Rewards are psychological rather than material and relate to the concept of job satisfaction. A.. Expectancy D.... 72 . Force B.. Individuals must force to work toward the organization objective.. E. How is pay determined? Job evaluation. Valence C. Job optimization 53....B.. C.. Worker Skills C.. People Reality Pay C.. with the threat of punishment for not working properly. C. False. and not on the personal merit of the job-holder. wants security more than anything else. McGregor’s Theory of X and Y. 56. 63. A.. B. A. Vroom called this ………………………………………. A. 54.. Herzberg’s two factor theory. True... B. Performance Related Pay B. The average person dislikes work and will avoid having to do any if at all possible. True B. Rewards are only monetary not others. Is given when a particular area of performance needs to be improved helping the individual to identify what needs to be changed and how this might be done A.. D. False.. Salary or pay / Job security C. Motivational feedback is used to reward and reinforce positive behavior and performance by praising and encouraging the individual.. Job Enlargement C. Intrinsic Rewards C. Expectancy is also known as subjective probability.. D. According to the Herzberg’s two factor theory.. A. Development Feedback C. False. 65. 58. The salary structure is based on . True B. 66.. Growth in a job / sense of achievement... A.. True B. 62. False... Motivational Feedback D. Job Content D. Public Reward Procedure 57. The quality of supervision / working condition.. Job itself can be a motivator or a cause of dissatisfaction. 60. 64. A. B. D.. Performance Feedback..... Achievement Reward B.. Market Supply and Demand. Vroom’s expectancy theory. False. B..... . Recognition by colleagues and management.

B. Improves focus on the business's performance objectives C. Complements other HR initiatives C. State the one incorrect? A. Expectancy D. Employee of the month award. False. D. Constructive performance feedback is not important in job satisfaction and motivation. Vroom’s expectancy theory. Encourage people to fill job vacancies and not leave. Subjectivity of awards for less measurable criteria (eg 'teamwork') B. True. Herzberg's two-factor theory. If you like to help others you can add your contribution on the following link. Expectation that the outcome will in fact result from a certain behavior. A. Following are the potential problem related to performance related pay (PRP). Greater supervisory responsibility 72. Encouraging short-term focus and target-hitting (rather than improvements) E. Increase willingness to accept change and flexibility. 68. B. Job rotation is a 'sequential' extension of the job A. D. Valence C.67. B. Difficulties gaining union acceptance (if perceived to erode basic pay) 73. Encourages two-way communication F. True. C. 74. Divisive/against team working (if awards are individual) E.. True. A. B. Salary B. True. The need for personal growth is satisfied by motivator factors. Motivate: that is. State the one incorrect? A. 75. Reward. Pay is only one of several intrinsic and extrinsic rewards offered by work. Bonus C. Improves focus on the business's performance objectives D. Encouraging short-term focus and target-hitting (rather than improvements) D. 70.com/cgi-bin/webscr?cmd=_s-xclick&hosted_button_id=U3HFU2THV2WJ8 Answer Chapter 13. Additional ten gallon gasoline each month. 71. False. 69. Https://www. increase commitment and effort. A. Following are the benefits of the performance related pay (PRP). B. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 A D AD D BC D C B 16 A 31 B 46 17 C 32 AC 47 18 AB 33 B 48 19 CD 34 D 49 20 D 35 BC 50 21 A 36 BD 51 22 C 37 B 52 23 A 38 D 53 A A D A A A C B 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 D D A D B A C D 73 . Force B. Improves commitment and capability B. Which of the following one is not the advantage of reward system? A. Which of the following one is the incorrect extrinsic reward? A. These MCQs are prepared after hard work and keeping Students help & need in mind. None of the above. In order to keep the work updated with professional’s we need donation for payments in future. False.paypal. A. False. Vroom called this …………………….

. 2......... Work D........ Pay is the Hygiene factor.. It will case dissatisfied to worker. And ... A.... True B.... 27. Chapter 14..... Action plan should be . Task involves ordering tasks in order of preference or priority. A.. Valuable B. CPD means continuing professional development? A. Selection B.. Managers should be available to everyone all the time and should attend its phone all the time? A. In mind C. Target B..... A...... Urgency 4.. For effective time management. Is the process of allocating time to tasks in the most effective manner. 31............. A.. 60. Constructive performance feedback is important in job satisfaction and motivation.. Employees should put off all large. Management. It’s suggest that most people dislike work..... difficult and unpleasant..... False..... Time C... 25... 5............. Important 74 .. Verbal B..... Management should force them to work 43..9 D 24 B 39 10 B 25 CD 40 11 C 26 AC 41 12 A 27 B 42 13 BD 28 C 43 14 A 29 D 44 15 D 30 D 45 A B A B C A B 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 A C A B B A B 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 D A D B B A A Explanation 8.... 7.... These are all example of extrinsic award that management can gave and out of control of the worker.. 9............. True B... Action plan for an individual......... Important... True B...... Importance. False 8....... Personal effectiveness and communication. Must be recognized and distinguished... False.... difficult and unpleasant tasks because they are large..... 3.. Programming C...... A.... 73....... . Urgency B.... Routine. . Low labor turnover have no connection with high morale.... Written. 37. Workable C.............. Time Management D...... 1.. Urgent is not always the same as .......... Scheduling B. D........ A. 6. A personal development plan is a ... It refers that people will sacrifices their need for other... Formal C.... Recorded D.. Informal D.. He says that management should not pay attention on hygiene. A....

Allocation work to people and machines is called as . Prioritization 10. All of the above. Task Sequencing B..... Manager use DSS or Decision Support system to do . Kaven is a trainee in Ora Soft Corp. A.. System with email. Task Urgent nor important should be . Urgent D.. Task sequencing D.. Activity scheduling C. True B... Done later B.... True.. Gloria has no involvement in the technical content of the trainee managers’ work. All of the above... Counselor 75 ... Work loading.. Internal Control C...... Drawing Making..... Delegated D.. Counselor C. Mentor B...... Her objective is to help the trainees over the medium to long-term with their personal career development.... Keynes was a director of ABC Corporation he informed Peter that he has to Install the software tomorrow at 9.... He had been put under the guidance of Senior Production Manager John Aliven.. Activity Scheduling 12.. Remain in Queue C... True B... Which of the following is the example of OAS or Office Automation System? A. What is Keynes doing? A. Or ... Prioritizing B.. 18.. Which of the following roles does Gloria fulfill? (Pilot Paper Question) A.... B... Electronic Filing System D..... False 16... Supporting and encouraging them to fulfill their potential is an integral part of her role. Determining the order in which activity are performed are called .. C..... John will show Kaven how to perform task and to provide guidance in tackling them. A. Binned 11...... Timetabling C.... and link to internet.. Following are the area which is covered by a mentor or mentoring A. Instructor C.. Coaching D.....C... E. All of the above.30 sharp...... Both of the above....... Digital information is information in a coded (binary) formed A. 14.... Buddy D............... Time Scheduling B.... on other hand he informed Sam that they have to go to the printer and at 7 and make its repair done.. His job is to simply help in job area only...... EDI stands for Electronic Database Identification A. Decision Making D... None of the above D. Counseling C... Role model D. What is the role of John here? A..... 21.... 20. Word processing system B. Manager...... False 15..... A... Mentoring is a short term relation and normally a senior in job relations. Time management B.... False.... 13. Gloria has the responsibility to work with selected management trainees in her organization.. A... Mentor B.. Database Systems for desktop pcs C.... Teaching B... 19.. Supporter E. A........... Time Scheduling D. 17.... Encourager F.

...... Free D.. The purpose of the Vertical Communication are . Lateral D. Multiple D..... Formal D. Communication flow in the same level or same rank of people in same section or department or different section and different department... E........ A... Horizontal communication is also known as ...... 32.. Communication flow up and down the scalar chain from superior to subordinate and back. Communication is a .. Up and down..... David Keller was hired by the company to look in this matter and to provide help and support to the worker to help themselves... 28........ ... A... Vertical B.... Idea C. Dany Corp... Direct B.. Instructor C..... Coach D. A.... ....... All of the above.. Horizontal B. Is a purposeful relationship in which one person helps another to help himself. A... Indirect C... Poor quality lateral communication will result in which of the following? (Pilot Paper) A.. True B. 1.... 1 2 and 5 B.. Downward C... 1 2 and 3... Communication A........ Was receiving no of complains from their Managers that worker s are having problems like stress.... A... To develop and maintain social relationship at work....... Direct 26..... Coordination and control.. What is the role of Dr... ... Diagonally. A. depression. Way process involving the transmission or exchange of information and the provision of feedback... Upward B... Sideways D. 76 ........ sense of frustration or lack of job satisfaction......... 25... Scalar Chain C..... Lack of delegation D. Mentor B........ English D... 30.. . Counselor 23.. One way B. To control the activities of the Subordinates 4... Lack of coordination C.. To delegate responsibilities 3...... To coordinate activity of groups and individual 5........ To gave instruction / direction 2........ Counselor C.. Communication in an organization flow . 1 4 and 5 C. Dr... Lateral C. Communication B. Is required for planning....22. David Keller? A.... Some workers were reported with bad behavior at work while two workers was facing problem in their private life which effecting their work.... Lateral / Horizontal.. Lack of control 31... False.. 24............ Vertical 29......... A. During Counseling the information like fraud and sexual harassments should also be kept confidential.. Two way C......... Lack of direction B... A.... Doctor.. Mentor B. Computer software 27.. Buddy D..... 1 3 and 4 D............

By local mail costing 15 but in 72 hour.. Tech words are also called... Its active when formal communication is active D. D.... The Y 35. What type of problem did Oria face? A. Distortion D.. A. Grapevine fills the gap created by an ineffective formal communication system.. Bulletin C. Vertical Communication C.. Wheel D. Which of the following method he should use to make it an effective communication? Assuming all are safe.. 43.. C..... Informal communication supplements the formal system. Ahmed is asked to send a copy of the approved budget from Karachi office to Islamabad office in maximum 30 hours. A. A.. 37... Interdepartmental communication by people of different ranks may be described as .. Free news.. True B. A. Noise B. Is an important data-gathering technique. B. By hand via train costing 1000 but in 32 hour.. Peter sends an email to Oria her subordinate for doing some work. Coded and Encoded.... Oria fail to do the same because the content of the massage was unclear and she fail to understand the language used by Peter. Chain B.. Lateral Communication 34. Sign C. Which of the following is the slowest and the highest job satisfaction communication pattern.. . 41... Which of the following statement is not associated with grapevine? A. Wheel D.. Observation 46... Sound B. False 39. Technical words or term used cause communication barrier of misunderstanding. A. Jargon 77 . True B.. Circle C... 38. Which of the following is the fastest and lowest job satisfaction communication pattern? A. False. Grapevine.. The formal pattern of communication in an organization is always supplemented by an informal one which is normally known as. Medium error.. B. Noise B.. 40. False. A. Jane having problem in this landline phone and she cannot understand the message of its boss or Jane having a bad head pain and she can’t concentrate on the message because of the pain. Its operates in the work place not out C.. Reduce stress.....33.. Its carry true and correct information E. Horizontal Communication D. A. 45.... The Y 36. False. By aero plane costing 5000 but reach in 6 hours. 44. A. A.. Its act very fast and quick B.. True B.. D. Effective communication: the right person receives the right information in the right way at any time. A... Circle C... What type of problem Jane experienced? A... anxiety and social problems 42.. Error D... Diagonal Communication B. Grapevine is offended called as Rumor or Gossip... Chit chats. Volume D... By courier costing 150 reaching in 24 hour.. True B. Chain B. Distortion C. Bad Understanding C..

.. Difference in Geographical... False 51. Explain complex facts and arguments.. B.. False... True B.. Notice board D. A.. Communication between superiors and subordinates will be improved when interpersonal trust does not exist. Transmit information cheaply to a large number of people. Tasks both urgent and important should be …………………………………………… A. stress and Tension or lack of trust.. A.. True B.. True B. Effective communication / Clear understanding E. B. Its add value to the organizations output. 58. True B. A. Medium failure / Shutdown or Technical problem 48.. Interview is used for formal and confidential communication. System barrier D. . False.. such as a customer or senior manager. Distortion or Noise B.. 57. Reporting by exception should operate to prevent information overload on managers. Its belongs to the normal course of work.. 55. Interview.... Report 54.. Lack of subject knowledge / Diff of Language. Formal and confidential communication B. difficult to reverse.... Coded C. A. Letter D. Email 53.... Should be done now but should be given less time. D.. False. Faults in the transmission system... It comes from a source deserving high priority. KT Corporation needs to spread information to reach a large membership spread over a large area.. 49.... False 52. Should be done with a now and gave a fair amount of time.. Misc 47. Telephone B... What method of communication is used to increase commitment and understanding of work force? A.... 78 . D. Email B. Letter C. Method of communication is used to explain complex facts and arguments.. radical and Education background F.. A job is said to be important on other task if it satisfied the following. Technical Barrier B.... A.. C.. Report D.. A.. social.. A. 50... C..B... Medium barrier. 59.. Personal Barrier C. Letter is used to reach large number of people in several sites and country. ... Team briefing C... Done as the deadline came closer.... Email C.. A... External communication / confidential written record C. The potential consequences of failure are long term.... Conference B. can easily be left for other time.. A. 56..... True B. Which of the following is not Barriers of Communication? A.. Done with regular speed of work.. Notice board is use to. C.. What kind of method they will adopt to do so? A. State the one incorrect. information overload and the geographical distance between the sender and recipient are known as Technical barriers.. far reaching and costly..... D. Barriers are caused by interpersonal matters and the inability of the sender and recipient to communicate properly. Signs D... Overload.. D....

Interpersonal skills C. a smart dress and firm handshake are the example of ……………………………………. True B. It is also non directive. Mentor B. D. 67. A. Email D. Communication is the quickest and most efficient but it is not suitable for the formal communication structure. 69. 66. A. Wheel communication B. ……………………………… is particularly valuable in grooming individuals for senior management positions. The aim of ………………………………… is to address and resolve specific problems. A. Coaching C. When a person is given too much information to digest in the time available. Video conferencing C. fidgeting. The ………………………………. covering a wide range of function and are usually in a senior position. 63. All Channel communication C. Counseling D. Distortion B. A. In the type of communication where everyone can communicate with each other in a democratic work group or team project is called? A. usually of a personal nature. 64. Non verbal communication or body language. The grapevine D. Counselor C. Mentoring B. Mentoring B. Doctor. ……………………… needs to be an expert in the trainee’s professional field. In business organization. Counseling D. A. a. Letter C... 70. Mobile communication B. D. This is known as …………………… A. A. False. Overload C. A. Chain communication. Telephone B. Counselor C. where other methods of dealing with the problem have failed or nonexistent.. Report 71. Circle communication. Problem that an employee experience outside work or its personal life which effects on work performance cannot be resolve by counseling. A. False. A. 72. Coach D. Voice messaging system D. Coaching C. 79 . This is the example of ………………………………………… A. A yawn. None of the above. Circle communication. Are often drawn from other areas of the organization. 68. clenched fists. Counseling D. None of the above. 62. applause. All Channel communication C. Doctor. None of the above. Listening B.60. The method of communication which reaches large number of people in several sites and countries with accuracy is ………………………. Wheel communication B. Chain communication. 65. Misunderstanding. …………………………. ……………………… help people to help themselves. Computer bulletin board. Coaching C. Differences D. Mentor B. Mentoring B. Interpersonal difficulties can hamper communication. Coach D. smile. When a telephone call is answered a recorded message tells the caller to dial the desire extension or hold for the operator. 61. True b.

……………………… is the communication system in which all messages go directly to or from the person in the centre. 79. The potential consequences of failure are long-term. True. True. A. A. A computer bulletin board. A chain communication structure is likely to be slow and inefficient. Electronic data interchange. 85. B. Typically. 82. D. D. 80. A. Video conferencing. Letter B. B. If any one need to send a message to other it must go to the centre person in order to go further. A. ……………………………………………. They have decided to reduce their work force to 75. A. when a call is answered a recorded message tells the caller to dial the extension required. Y Channel. True. True. Wheel.. It adds value to the organization’s output. read what other people have left in the system.73. 83. Voice messaging systems C. 81. Mobile communication. including formal training. False. Video conferencing. A personal development plan is a clear developmental action plan for an individual which incorporates a wide set of developmental opportunities. Chain communication. Delayering B. C. Circle and all purpose. Circle communication. Downsizing. Reach large number of people in several cites/countries in quick time. State the one incorrect? A. ……………………………………. Chain C. The working of the grapevine is selective: information is not divulged randomly. The ability of the head to send the message to the tail depend on the efficiency and competence of the middle chain.consists of a central mailbox or area on a computer server where people can deposit messages for everyone to see. Email. A. ……………………………………………………answer and route telephone calls. 78. B. False. A computer bulletin board. Mobile communication. Electronic data interchange. 80 . C. Hiring and firing C. Fax C. Wheel communication. C. All channel communication. If its return some sort of monetary reward to the employee. B. A. A. B. 74. True. B. Electronic data interchange. if it satisfies at least one of three conditions. B. A. D. It comes from a source deserving high priority. Mobile communication. B. D.. or to hold if they want to speak to the operator. Company KKY has install new technology processing plant in their factory due to which now they can easily operate their factor from 120 employees to 75 employees. and. Upgrading. False. such as a customer or senior manager. The grapevine usually operates at the place of work and outside it. 75. B. Video conferencing. difficult to reverse. False. D. A job will be important compared to other tasks. Telegram D. B. in turn. A. D. far reaching and costly. 84. False. …………………………………………is the use of computer and communications technology to conduct meetings. B. Which of the following are the centralized patterns of communication? Select the one incorrect. D. A. One of the advantages of Digital network over analogue network is that they support better data transmission and higher transmission speed with less chances of data corruption. 76. What is the correct word for this act? A. 77. C.

A. Https://www. Value. 1. The process of recruitment is divided into three parts. With the right skills. Investment B. 4. A.paypal. C. Security needs.employees required to fulfill the objectives of the organization. Internal Control 2. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 C AD C D B A B B D CD B D D A B 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 C E B F C A D B B B A E D C B 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 D D A C B B A B B D D B A A D 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 A D B A A B B A D C A B D C C 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 C A A C B C D B A C B B A A C 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 A C C A B D B B A D Explanation. Militant 5. People are major Organizational ………………………………… and must be managed as such. In order to keep the work updated with professional’s we need donation for payments in future. B. To serve the Directors. 3. 83. A. Personal effectiveness and communication. Beautiful and handsome D. If you like to help others you can add your contribution on the following link. Planning C.These MCQs are prepared after hard work and keeping Students help & need in mind. Quantity and quality B. Human Resource C. Which of the following is not correct? A. The process of recruitment should be a part of the organization ‘s ………………………………… plan. A. Chapter 15. Asset B. Resource D. The overall aim of the recruitment and selection process in an organization is to obtain the …………………………………. Others Work. D. The grapevine usually operates at the place of work and not outside it. Defining requirements 81 . Strong and powerful C. Future D. Recruitment and selection. Effective recruitment practices ensure that a firm has enough people…………………………………….com/cgi-bin/webscr?cmd=_s-xclick&hosted_button_id=U3HFU2THV2WJ8 Answer Chapter 14.

A. Having final say on the selection decision E. Line Managers 8. B. First C. Qualifications. Attracting applicants D. Physical Attitude C. Notifying applicants of the results of the selection process is the ……………………stage of the combined recruitment and selection process. 10. Person Specification B. A. Teacher should be at least 40 years of age and have a teaching qualification. ……………………………………. All of the above. Determine the requirements for the job. General Knowledge D.. Teacher should be soft and polite in speaking and should be a mother so she can handle kinder garden aged children’s. 7. Selecting 6. Recruitment (and training) issues are ………………… to the business …………………………. ………………………………………… The statement of the component task. A. Directors C.. Job Specification B. C. The job description in term of the kind of person needed / Suitable to perform the job is called ……………………………………… A. Job Enlargement. General Specification B. Which of the following are the responsibilities of line manager? A. CEO D. Outsource Labor C. Selection interviewing with HR D. Major B. Thinking about employees. Workaholic B. Future. Job Enrichment 17. Job Specification D. 16. Worker B.. Job Specification D. What kind of specification is this? A. Second Last 13. ………………………………… are responsible for Human resources (HR) planning. Woolf Schooling system gave an advertise on the newspaper for a lady teacher. Emile gave an advertise in the news paper that their company need a person who is capable of doing work on heavy electrical voltage lines on the grid station. Job analysis D. Middle D.. Job Specification B. objective and standards involved or required for the job.. Final B.000 and need to work 8 hour daily. sometimes with the help of recruitment consultants. Central C. C. Age / Physical Characteristics D. Average Specification 11. Directors / senior managers 9. What kind of specification is this? A. Which of the following is not the person specification features? A. And …………………………. Duties / objectives / standards. A. Is the ability to do something? A. Person Specification 14. Notifying Vacancies or issuing a job requisition B. Person Specification C. duties. ………………………. Specific Ability like Reading / Speaking power E. Advising on skill requirements and attributes required C. Strategy D. Average Specification 12. Work experience C. General Specification C. He will be paid 35. Line manager D. Person Specification 15. He should also know how to operate heavy Welding machine.B. Competence 82 . The recruitment process involves ………………………. Job Card B. Personal specialists B. A. A.

C. Job enrichment C. D. Which of the following is not the content of the job description? A. Which of the following is incorrect? A. What advertising media company should use from the following to fill this job? 83 . D. The management was informed that it is difficult to get the required skilled person from the local area. A. Job Advertising is aimed to fulfill legal requirement and not to attract quality applicants for the job. The job title. True. Should give promotion to one of its Assistance manager as QC Manager within the company. What advertising media company should use to fulfill this task? A. Should recruit someone from outside the company. The seven point plan was given by. Disclosure of Confidential information. Vroom’s 24. Must ask the Local Govt. B. Alec Rodgers B. A role definition is wider than a job description? A. Which of the following 2 are the methods of re-designing a job? A. CIPD stands for Chartered institute of personal development. False. Kenco Company is looking to hire an interpreter for their international clients. Strategic Perspective B. Concise B. Planning and organization D. Job Specification B. 25. B. Financial information about the Company.K Electric Company have a vacancy of senior manager production in their cable department. 27. True. Must secure permission of the applicant 26. A. Intellectual Competence area includes. Should wait till some it find best for this job. 21. Attractive C. Deny Limited needs a Quality Control Manager in their production department. Positive and honest D. 31. develop people careers and build morale. 28. No need to ask any one C. True B. Which of the following is not the Quality of a good job advertisement? A. No need to ask the applicant. 22. E. Analytical judgment 19. Job description 20. Mintzberg’s C. Multi-skilling means Flexibility is not expected. They should publish advertisement in the in-house magazine or Notice board. They should contact the job centers for this. Flexibility / Coping with change C. Should take the outsource option C. M. Part time or Full time job details D.18. B. The responsibilities associated with the job. C.I. False. B. As per the CIPD code of Rules Before applying for references. False. False. Company wishes that the post should be filled with in the company labor pool. Company in order to achieve a head start performance in the new position what it should do? A. A. Job enlargement D. 29. 23. for permission. True B. A. The purpose and objective of the job E. Bilbin D. Internal promotions help an Organization to develop Staff Development. D. They should publish advertising in the local news paper B. 30. False. Relevant and appropriate to the job and the applicant. B. The name and the department in which job is located. Use National electronic media for this task. They already have 4 Assistant managers who were working in the company for the last 2 year. True B. potential employers A. A. for this job they need a person who have at least 5 year experience in the same post. F.

Leading Question D. Suddenly James feels that Mr.. thoughts. ……………………………. What type of Questions is in which candidate has to reply in Yes or No. Selection test can only be used before Interviews. Work Sampling B. Tolerance test. Intelligence test. Work Sampling C. 37. Aptitude test D. Interviews D. James Clark who he thinks is best for the job. Intelligence test D.. True B. Open Questions B. A. James to take selected candidate typing skill test. Aims to describe aspects of a person's character that remain stable throughout that person's lifetime. 40. Intelligence test C. Work Sampling 39. True B. Aptitude test C. Stress / Face to Face interview D. …………………………….. attainment or competence test B. The required candidate should be perfect in typing and shorthand and should had a typing speed of 50 WPM. 84 . Clarks. D. the individual's character pattern of behavior. Confidence test D. Notice board / in-house magazine. A. Only the CEO of the company Mr. Competence test B. Competence test C. Panel Interview B. There is always a direct relationship between ability in the test and ability in the job? A. Watson has start asking question in aggressive manners and criticizing on the reply of Mr. attainment or competence test. False. What kind of Interview is this? A. What method of selection is used by most companies for hiring an employee? A. Normally asked in MCQs about the candidates likes and dislikes. 41. Type of test is taken in which worker is required to demonstrate work output. Personality test B. Intelligence test C. who have the ability to think and answer quickly and should also have a very good memory. Probing Question C. Mark international need a typist for their office. JS investment need an employee in their office who is very sharp in solving logical conditions. Intelligence Test B. Arif Habib Limited publishes a job advertisement for the post of senior manager production. what they will do in a particular situation their preference and attitude and so on A. Face to Face interview. Personality test. Which of the following is not a type of Selection test? A. In order to judge such candidate what type of test they should take to find their required person. 42. What type of selection test he should conduct to find the best one. Publish it in the Local News papers C. E. A. General Knowledge Test D. Attainment test (proficiency test) is also known as …………………………………. 38. For this purpose company ask Mr. Watson was taking interview of applicant Mr. A. False 35. Time Test C. Closed Questions 34. Proficiency. A. Personality test 36.A. Aptitude test D. References B. Proficiency. A. Competence test B. D. Publish in weekly General Magazine 32. General knowledge test. Board Interview C. Personality test C. Aptitude test. and feelings. Cognitive tests 33. Publish it in the National News papers B. The required candidate should be cool and capable of handling work pressures.

Face to Face / Individual interview 44. B. The ……………………. pay. References. What is the type of interview in which large no of individual or groups are interested to take the interview of the candidate? A. At least …………………………… employer references are desirable. 2 C. 5 48. When an organization needs unskilled labor ………………………. 1 B. B. Board Interview B. 4. C. medical history. communication or team working skills in a candidate. Panel Interview C. and comparison of personal views. 55. Board Interviews B.43. Keeping in touch with trends in the labor market D. Maintaining records of people employed C. Human resource planning B. There is no need to inform them. Which of the following method of selection of a candidate returns the best predict about the candidate abilities? A. Group assessment tends to be used for posts requiring leadership. Work sampling B. Selection board. providing necessary factual information. Defines what resources the organization needs to meet its objectives and what source of labor (internal and external) are available. Detail personal information like religion. National newspaper C. A. Preliminary interviews and selection testing 50. place of birth. Job specification D. Standard letter with a simple reason that they are not considered. 46. Cognitive tests C. 47. Interview panels. Provide help and assistance in production and planning. D. C. 85 .. A. The role of Human resource function in recruitment and selection will be the following. 49. period of employment. etc should be called no matter it is important on not for selection process. Company should call them and gave them briefing for their failure. Individual (one to one). Outsource decision C. After the interview the HR manager ask the candidate to provide reference about his previous job(s). …………………………………… is also known and called as assessment centers. A. A. True B. Assessing needs for human resources (HR planning) B. False 53.is the best source to hire them. D. 52. Ensuring the organization complies with equal opportunities and other legislation E. General Information. Job centers D. In-house magazines and publication. A. Asses method D. Lucky Cements Manager HR was taking an interview of their new possible senior manager stores. Stress Interview D. family background. A. 51. and circumstances of leaving. 54. Their names and address should be published in national newspaper. Interview D. Personality test C. Experience Information C. What kind of Reference the HR is asking from the candidate? A. D. Group assessments 45. A. A. Factual Information D. Local newspaper B. F. Standard interview. True B. True B. Person specification. Managerial jobs may merit local advertisement while semi skilled jobs may only required national advertisement for job adds. Personal information B. Unsuccessful applicants should be informed by ………………………………………………. State the one incorrect? A. False. False. Which of the following is not the type of an interview? A.

Selection test can be taken before for after the interview. In order to keep the work updated with professional’s we need donation for payments in future. These MCQs are prepared after hard work and keeping Students help & need in mind. D.Job design involves looking at the current jobs in an organization or department. 35. A. True. When an interviewer put a case in front of a candidate. Consist of series of tests. Assessment center are also known as group assessment. 61. It is a …………………question. False. A. A.. True B. True B.paypal. False. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 B C D A B BC AD D E C 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 B A A B E C D B BC E 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 B A A A D C A B D C 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 A C D B D C A C B D 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 B C A D A C B A E C 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 A B C B D A D B C A A Explanation. 60.com/cgi-bin/webscr?cmd=_s-xclick&hosted_button_id=U3HFU2THV2WJ8 Answer Chapter 15. Open B. ………………………………. interviews and group situations over a period of two days involving small no of candidates. If you like to help others you can add your contribution on the following link. Or are different techniques of interview. Adaptability competence. Problem solving. When an interviewer encourage the candidate to gave a brief answer so he can keep the interview in flow and have the chance to judge. and asks him what he will do if he has to deal with this. Open B. Https://www. 59. Leading D. Closed C. 86 . he asks …………………………………… question. Intelligence test B. Problem solving 58. False. One-to-one and face-to-face interviews are two different stages of an interview process. Assessment center. Leading D.56. Competence or attainment test C. and considering whether they can be altered or designed in a way that give more fulfillment and greater experience to the job holder. A. A. B. 57. A. Closed C.

A. Positive discrimination which is allowed? C. Shamir Industries and chemicals HR manager was considering applications for the post of office assistance. After a week company arrange a 3 days’ work shop for its technical supervisor’s 87 . Susan was dismissed from her job when it was come in the knowledge of the MD that she got married last week. Victimization D. Discrimination on the ground of Sex and unlawful D. Experience C. C. Sexual orientation 6. Ability B. Iris Divito who appear. Direct B. What type of Discrimination is this? A. Discrimination is not applicable on pay and sex 7. HR manager offer a female candidate a pay of 3500 per month while for the same job he offer male candidate 4250. A. 20 – 40 B. women are still earning …………………… % of male earnings in the same occupational group. Only Blacks D. A. Victimization D. The principle of equal opportunities explains that employers should discriminate between workers and applicants for the jobs only on the basis of. What type of Discrimination is this? A. A. The management of Schon Garments has issue a circular that all their production supervisors (both men and woman) will do compulsory late sitting on job. Direct B. Diversity and equal opportunities. Direct D.Chapter 16. False. False. American and Germans C. C. Indirect. proved and more qualified and competent to be a better manager then Peter. Only 50 3. Equal opportunities. The principle of equal opportunities gave as the right to discriminate on the basis of sex and religion belief. Indirect C. Dany Corporation gave an ad in the newspaper that they want a candidate for the job of manager production who is 6. Justified and as per Law B.4 feet tall and on continues job for the last 5 years.. Give the answer which is incorrect. Is this an Indirect Discrimination against women who have responsibilities of family and children and can’t give extra time to job? A. Different opportunities D. Black and Asians B. Working Rights B. True B. KT Corporation promotion committee recommend Mr. No. Only Asians 4. Indirect C. Harassment 9. Harassment 10. 8. The TUC reports that the level of unemployment for …………………… communities in the UK is significantly higher than for the white population. Management Control. Peter promotion as Senior manager IT against Mrs. Do you think the act of the committee is correct? And what type of discrimination is this? A. Earnings surveys report that across all occupations. A. ………………… refers to the general principle that every individual should have the same opportunity to make the best of their abilities at work. 2. 5. Yes B. Less than 50 C. 60 – 70 D. The act of the HR manager is …………………………. 1. A. True B. Potential D. 11. Amenda a technical supervisor at Wrestler Auto Car’s inform its Director Production that the senior manager Joseph has used low quality material in the back lights of its new model car “ Esteem VXR “.

staff to get update for the latest technique and knowledge. Joseph allowing all but Amenda to attend the workshop and gave a reason that he thinks she is not fit for this workshop. What kind or type of Discrimination is this? A. Direct B. Indirect C. Victimization D. Harassment 12. …………………………. Is the use of threatening, intimidator, offensive or abusive language or behavior. A. Direct B. Indirect C. Victimization D. Harassment 13. ………………………………………. Is also known as Affirmative action? A. Harassment B. Positive Discrimination. C. Victimization D. Sexual orientation. 14. The employer may also be forced to make reasonable adjustments to working arrangements or to the physical features of premises where these constitute a disadvantage to disabled people. A. True B. False. 15. 1. Rockwell Corporation gave an ad in the English newspaper for the job of support worker in English / Chinese language. The objective of the company is to encourage minority Asians to apply for this post. 2. The same company arranges special awareness implementing training for women in management skills. The both steps by the company are known as ……………………………………………… A. Minority / Gender Help program B. Minority / Gender action C. Non Discrimination internal Control D. Positive action 16. ………………………………… is the process of taking active steps to encourage people from disadvantaged groups to apply for jobs and training, and to compete for vacancies. A. Positive Discrimination B. Indirect Support C. Positive action. D. Equal Rights. 17. …………………………… is where one group is treated less favorably than another. A. Harassment B. Positive Discrimination. C. Victimization D. Overt discrimination.

18. Positive action and positive discrimination are same things. a. True b. False. 19. Kamran need to employee a typist for its office, of that purpose he place an advertisement in a men’s health club notice board. This is an example of …………………………………….. A. Direct discrimination. B. Indirect discrimination. C. Victimization D. Harassment. 20. John is a very kind manager and he try to keep its organization an equal opportunity employer. But on other hand it was also notice that he use to make inappropriate jokes and fun to the ladies workers. Do you think this act is come under discrimination on ground of sex / gender? A. Yes B. No. 21. Hank Company gave an ad in a local newspaper for the post of sales staff. In the advertisement the company states that it will prefer to newly qualified or fresh graduates with the max age limit of 25. Do you think its an example of direct discrimination. A. True. B. False. 22. Employer can ask a woman about its plan to have a family or chance of having a baby during a job interview because it can cause problem for its work. A. True. B. False. 23. Employers can only discriminate between employees and applicants for job only on the basis of the following. State the incorrect one. A. Ability. B. Experience. C. Age. D. Potential.

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24. Example of discrimination on the ground of sex includes. State the one incorrect. A. Consistently selecting a man to fill a job vacancy in preference of woman. B. Giving promotion to a man rather than a woman who is better qualified and experience. C. Paying men more salary then woman for the same job. D. Providing special training and course to woman to overcome sexual harassment.

These MCQs are prepared after hard work and keeping Students help & need in mind. In order to keep the work updated with professional’s we need donation for payments in future. If you like to help others you can add your contribution on the following link.
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Answers Chapter 16. Diversity and equal opportunities

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

B C A B D C BC A

9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16

B A C D B A D C

17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24

D B B A A B C D

Explanation.
4. The principle of equal opp. State there should be no discrimination on the basis of sex and religion beliefs. 6. Difference of pay for the same post and same job due to gender is a direct discrimination on Sex ground. 7. Because this is an act of Direct Discrimination. She was not considering because of gender or Sex issue. 8. Sex and Marital is one of the conditions of Direct Discrimination. 9. This is an example of Indirect Discrimination. See Emile Woolf page 342. 10. True because woman can't work late because they have family and children responsibilities to met.

Chapter 17. Training and development.
1. The term ………………………………….. Is also known as experience curve. A. Learning curve B. Expert Curve C. Teaching Curve D. None of the above. 2. The term learning curve or experience curve is used to describe the ………………………………… process. A. Teaching B. Understanding C. Learning D. All of the above. 3. The learning process comes to an end when the individual ……………………………………………………… A. Stop learning from the teacher. B. Is fully familiar with the work. C. Taking interest in other work D. Get bored with the job. 4. Learning Theory States that Individual should be …………………………….. To learn.

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A. Forced B. Asked C. Punished D. Motivated. 5. Different people have …………………………… learning styles or preferences. A. Opposite. B. Different. C. Similar. D. Their own. 6. Peter Honey and Alan Mumford have drawn up a popular classification of …………………. Learning styles. A. 4 B. 2 C. 6 D. 5. 7. Which of the following is not the learning style of Peter Honey and Alan Mumford? A. Theorists B. Reflectors C. Followers D. Activists E. Pragmatists. 8. …………………………….. Individual learn by doing and acting. They like to have their hand dirty, are excited by participation and pressure such as new project, tend to rush something without due preparation. A. Theorists B. Reflectors C. Pragmatists D. Activists. 9. ………………………………. Individual likes to see how theory is put into practice in the real world. They find abstract theories and concepts of no use unless they can see their relevance to practical action. They also discard new idea which only required some development. A. Theorists B. Reflectors C. Pragmatists D. Activists 10. ………………………………. Individuals like to understand the theory that supports the practice. They learn with facts, concepts and models. A. Theorists B. Reflectors C. Pragmatists D. Activists 11. ……………………………………. Individuals learn by observing and thinking about what he has seen. They prefer to avoid jumping in to a task, and prefer to watch from sideline. Need to work at their own pace. Find learning difficult if forced into a hurried program. A. Theorists B. Reflectors C. Pragmatists D. Activists 12. The Kolb Learning Cycle can be summarized into following parts. A. Experiencing B. Reflecting. C. Developing Concepts. D. Acting. A. True B. False. 13. The ……………………………….. Is an organization that facilitates the learning of all its members, acquisition and sharing of knowledge , in order continuously and strategically to transform itself in response to a rapid changing and uncertain environment. A. Practical Organization B. Experience Organization C. Learning organization D. Theorists Organization. 14. ……………………………………………….. Is one method by which an organization may seek to improve the performance of its staff? A. Punishment B. Training and development C. Over age Employment D. Entertainment and Fun. 15. The learning by doing approach based on Kolb’s learning cycle begins with act. Put the following stages of the cycle into the correct order. 1. Suggest principles 2. Apply principles 3. Analyze action. 4. Act A. 1 2 3 4 B. 2 1 4 3 C. 3 2 1 4 D. 4 3 1 2 16. ……………………. Is 'the growth or realization of a person's ability and potential through the provision of learning and educational experiences'. A. Training

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There are similarities between training and development. 28. To determine the comprehensive current level of competence. Improve basic knowledge. False. Attitude D.. 23. Distance learning B. 27. E-learning is not a computer base learning program. 19. Computer base training (CBT) is also called as Computer. Learning 17. A. True B. A. 21. Training B. Education B. by learning and instruction. Audit. A. True B. False 30. and training can be an element in the development of an individual. Internal Testing D. Development C. May be defined as the gap between what people should be achieving and what they actually are achieving. Day Release B. Human Resources Audit. workplace layout or work organization. Education and training have no similarity between each other.assisted learning (CAL). ……………………………………. Poor motivation (training gives a person the ability. True B.. Personal Audit. True B. Poor equipment. Education cannot be an element in training.. but not necessarily willingness) A.. Block release D. Lack of aptitude or intelligence. Development C. Training needs D. True B. ……………………… course allow six month of collage and six month of work. External Audit C.. …………………………. Companies conduct a …………………. skill.B. A. Effective Training can by itself improve performance problems arising out of: Bad management. Skill Audit or Human Resources Audit. 18. A. Internal Testing D. Sandwich courses C. ……………………. for two or three year. One of the drawback of Self assessment for training is that employee’s may be reluctant to admit to performance deficiencies. Training Period. Experience D. Poor job design. A. Skill Audit is also known as ………………………………. Computer base Training D. Is defined as that knowledge acquired gradually. 26. knowledge in the workforce. E-learning 29. True B. 91 . skills and attitudes while ……………………………. A. False. 22. False. Internal Audit B.. False. Development C. ………………………………. False 20. Training needs are also known as Learning Gaps. E-learning. A. False. A. Is related to a work environment and improving performance at work. 25. Education. Audit. C. Internal Audit B. Training. in rotation. Self Assessment C. True B. Is a course in which employee work in the company take one day a week their class in a local collage or training center for theoretical learning? A. A. 24. A. Block Revision C. Education D. A. Skills B.

False. A. A. Training Overview. Stores D. False. Job rotation. OGDC Chief Manager production appoint for a time being Mr. This gives the individual a chance to experience the demands of a more senior position. Evaluation of Training B. ………………………………. Transfer. For example offering its junior managers a MBA Degree program.. Off the job Training B.. Temporary promotion D.. Human Resources 39. Directors C. What is the Method of Training is that? A. This is an example of ………………………………………. Jawed as Assistance to Senior Manager production Mr. …………………………………. Auditors. A. Project Work D. Senior Development C. Maximizes transfer of learning by incorporating it into ‘real’ work. B. Expel. Management Development. Off-the-job training C. …………………………………. True B. Work’s with Human Resource Department for training and development of the employees. 92 . 42.. Helix Pharmacy Transfer its accountant to work with its sales team for the period of 4 months in order to spend some time away from the normal working environment in the other department as part of the project. Kamil in order gain experience for it’s the new position and to learn new or more demanding role. 34. Temporary Promotion. Line Managers D. Identifying the training needs of the department or section B. A. False. A. ………………………………. When an organization attempts to improve managerial effectiveness through a planned and deliberate learning process. Career Development B. A. C. A. A. C. Risk Training 36. Department is centrally concerned with developing individual. Secondment B. Organizing training program where required D. Assistant to positions or Work Shadowing C. On the job training 32. On-the-job training B. A. Induction is not an ongoing process. Responsibility of the training and development lies not on the employer but on the individual it’s self. Normal Training D. 37. Induction is the process where a person is formally introduced and integrated into an organization or system. Mean that people should seek to develop their own interest. Comparing the costs of the scheme against the assessed benefits. Which type of training minimizes risk but does not always support transfer of learning to the job? A. Administration C. Job Enlargement C. Objectivity of course C. System Development D. Means observing the result of the course and measuring weather the training objectives have been achieved. Full time promotion B. or plan to increase their managerial responsibility is a part of ………………………………. 35.an individual is promoted into his/her superior's position whilst the superior is absent. 38.. Production B. Calculating overall cost and overheads on teachers and others 43. Production Managers B. True B. Temporary promotion. Evaluation of training means …………………………………. Special Training D. Validation of Training D. Job Enrichment 33. A. A. Routine Training C. 41. …………………………………. D. True B. 40.31.

If you like to help others you can add your contribution on the following link. 49. Which of the following is a stage in Kolb’s learning cycle? A. Its means vertical job enlargement. True. Training and development. Development B. True B. Job enrichment. …………………………. Secondment means to send someone to other department other than its original work area for a change. These MCQs are prepared after hard work and keeping Students help & need in mind. Cement experience 45. False. Education D. A. A. 47. 48. 46. Positive experience B. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 A C B D B A C D C A 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 B A C B D B D B A AD 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 B A C A B D A B B A 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 D C B A B B A D C A 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 C B D B A B B B A 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 Explanation. Is a process of learning through experience and doing work? A. Secondment is also known as temporary promotion. Https://www. A. While T. Performance Evaluation B. Vertical job enlargement is also called job enlargement. True. B. also called as horizontal job enlargement. Or they both mean the same. While secondment mean to other dept.44. Performance Appraisal. Job rotation means to transfer one person after some time to other area of the same department. standards and competence requirements A. 48. Concrete experience C. Effective Framework 93 . In order to keep the work updated with professional’s we need donation for payments in future. Standardization C. 1. 47. False. Job rotation and secondment also mean the same. Training C. B. …………………………………………… means of getting better results by managing performance within an agreed framework of goals.com/cgi-bin/webscr?cmd=_s-xclick&hosted_button_id=U3HFU2THV2WJ8 Answer Chapter 17. Active experience D. B. A. False.paypal.P mean Job enrichment. Chapter 18. False. 46. None of the above. True.

Reward Review C. False. To encourage communication between manager and employee D. A. How to balance work and personal life. A. Which of the following is not a component of appraisal? A. What type of appraisal system check is this? A. 13. D. 5. Which of the following is NOT the Objective of appraisal system? A. State the one which is not correct. Potential Review D. True B. A. None of the above. True B. Which one of the following is NOT a purpose of appraisal? A. A. B. The aim of the performance management is that…. Performance Management is an ongoing activity in an organization. In the last appraisal it was set that the cable sale for this region by Mr. Performance Review. Bean. Establishing the key or main results for individual over a period of time. 3. Performance review C. Bean has over reached its accepted target. and a basis for considering pay and reward in return of its work and efforts. D. People should provide alternate career opportunities. Production / Marketing planning. Management also set a new target for the next year of 2500 cables per month. ambitions. Behavioral Method E. A formal appraisal system offers the employee an opportunity to discuss his future prospects. People should realize their potential and max their contribution to the Org. Following are some appraisal techniques. B. Guided Assessment C.D. 10.. D. False. Pay and Bonus Review D. Performance Report B. Result Oriented Scheme. People should be well utilized on per hour working basis C. Bean will be 2300 cables per month. Identifying potential candidate for promotion. A. 8. A. Know what exactly their objectives are B. A. A process in which the management discuss the performance of an employee and decide about their bonuses or pay increase is …………………. 7. 2. 11. Productivity Review. D. To highlight employees’ weaknesses 12. B. Pay and Bonus Review D. At the end of the year management find that the target was successfully achieved and Mr. Reward Review B. Review. Reward Review C. People should work hard for their personal goals B. False. Performance Management is evenly effective if individuals. To identify performance levels B. Potential Review. 4. Profitability review. 6. Improving Communication between different levels of management. True B. C. A process in which management see what type of level or work an individual is capable of or its need any training or development in its area or what kind of benefits company can take from him in future is a ……………………………………. What an individual has to do in a job. Grading Assessment D. Reward Review C. 94 . 9. The management of the Star Electric Cable Company was looking into the performance of its area sales manager Mr. Employee assessment. What is the principle of effective work program? C. Potential review. A. Productivity Review. unit and organization have different goals or unshared understanding or if all are not integrated on same points. Target and Performance B. / Target Setting E. To assess development needs C. For effective motivation and learning it is essential that people should ………………………………………………….. Performance management.

Grading B. Tell and listen style B. Tell and listen style C. A technique in which the managers use its judgments about the appraisal. He was also given new targets to meet in the allotted time. C. Overall assessment C. None of the above. Problem solving style. A method of appraisal in which an employee is assess on the basis of specific targets and standards of performance agreed in advance by manager and the subordinated together. Repeated criticism had the worst effect on subsequent performance of individual who had little self-confidence. A. 15. E. D. Reduce Corporate Cost 18. 19. 16. Problem solving Style D. E. 360 degrees approach. He determines that this effort in the sales and marketing was not good. Appraiser dominates the QC manager and forced him to accept the decision. appraiser also criticizes on their current behavior. Problem solving style. Sales and target system B. There is no consistency of the criteria and area of assessment. A. What kind of appraisal style is this? A. Tell and listen style. Employee thinks that this is just an informal chat with the management. Some beliefs that its only a 12 month exercise or an annual event with no benefits. Result Oriented Scheme D. Tell and listen style. B. Appraisal style? A. 21. D. B. Is an example of ……………………………………………………………. 23. D. This is just a mean of paper work for the personal or HR department. If we call it an appraisal what kind of appraisal system is this? A. None of the above. Deny Corporation appraisal manager tell its Quality control manager that he has to bring improvement in this work and in his department performance in next 3 months. Problem solving style. Result Oriented D. 24. 360 degree style C. The appraisal style in which the appraiser gave its subordinate the chance to respond to its problem and also take interest in his suggestion. Which of the following appraisal system is best considered by employees said “Maier’s “? A. Tell and sell. This is a ………………………………………. Tell and sell style D. Is an example of ………………………………………………… A. True 95 . A. Mr. Behavioral method C. Self appraisal D. Which of the following is not the approach of the appraisal interviews? Choose the incorrect one. True B. Grading B. Guided Assessment. 22. Tell and listen style C.14. Reconciliation of Goals C.. Reconciles the goals D. Tell and sell style B. Save the manager’s time B. The appraisal manager try to dominate the employee and it is a one way communication system. B. 17. C. 360 degrees approach. F. None of the above. Kamal Sales executive of Shah Sons Limited was evaluating his own performance for the target he sets for himself. Overall assessment. It’s mean nothing. Problem solving style D. Which of the following is not the advantage of Self appraisal? A. Tell and sell. Increase Responsibility C. 25. Employee thinks that it’s gave the managers the chance to criticize on the employees. Car sales target was set 12 per month is it achieve by the subordinate or not and on what time. C. It’s only a one side communication where managers dominate their terms and instruct orders. which was the reason he found himself behind the sales target from rest of the employee in the company. What appraisal style is this? A. In this method the managers are not convey clear in effective judgments in writing. People are often are the best judges of their own performance and always perform a fair and clear appraisal? A. False. Tell and sell style B. 360 degrees approach. try to find out its expectations and aims and does not try to dominate the interview. Which of the following are the incorrect reasons for problem in appraisal practice? A. Q&A style 20.

Outsource expert’s rate the employees of the company. Customer Appraisal D.B. False. A. C. Limit C. Subordinate rating is more reliable. Subordinates and Customers. When upward. A. A. Reward 28. 360 degree appraisal system is also known as multi-source appraisal. B.. Downward Appraisal C. 96 . B. Which of the following does not take part in the 360 degree appraisal system? A. Managers rate their subordinate with the help of outsource experts D. Https://www. False. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 D A B C A C B D A A 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 D E A C D C D B E A 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 C B F C A B C D C D 31 B 32 A 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 Explanation. Subordinate tends to known their senior better then senior known their subordinate. A. D. Senior take the rating positively and act in the light of the rating with no revenge in future. When customers of the company take part in the appraisal system to some degree along with the management it is called ………………… A. These MCQs are prepared after hard work and keeping Students help & need in mind. Upward appraisal may also be used by organizations that are seeking to ‘………………………. Control B. Downward Appraisal C. D. Empower D. In order to keep the work updated with professional’s we need donation for payments in future. 360 degree system 30. Managers are rated buy their subordinates. Public Appraisal D. True B. Upward appraisal means ………………………………………………………………………………. Family members and friends C. 360 degree system 31. Immediate Managers B.’ their employees. 26. 29.com/cgi-bin/webscr?cmd=_s-xclick&hosted_button_id=U3HFU2THV2WJ8 Answers chapter 18. customers and others take active part in appraisal it is known as ………………………………………… A. Directors of the company rate their employees. downward. More Subordinate better results. 27. Upward Appraisal B. Superior management has a better understanding about their junior problems with their behavior and conduct.paypal. If you like to help others you can add your contribution on the following link. Upward Appraisal B. Coworkers and peers 32. C. Which of the following is the disadvantage of upward appraisal? State the one which is correct.

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