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‫بسم ال الرحمن الرحيم‬

4. The following statements are CORRECT about a muscarinic antagonist Atropine : A. Atropine structure contain piperidine a pyridines rings. B. Piperidine and pyrrolidine C. Pirmidine and pyrrolidine D. Quasi ring structure but not tertiary amine E. Pyridine and Quasi rings structure. 5. If a structure of drug contain 3 sterogenic centers “chiral centers”, their will be how many isomers possible for this structure? A. B. C. D. E. groups have 8 21 3 2 12

Jan. 2005

1. which of the following functional groups are tertiary hydroxyl group A. B. C. D. E. .. .. .. .. ..

2. which of the following geometrical isomers: A. B. C. D. E.

6. 1-propanol and 2-propanol they are: A. B. C. D. E. Conformational Isomer Geometric Isomer Constitutional Isomer Diasteroisomers Isomer Enatiomers Isomer

Hexane and cyclohexane Pentane and pentene Butene and 2-Butene Benzene and hexane Non of the above

3. Which of the following statements concerning cytochrome enzyme are CORRECT? I. The CYP7, CYP11, CYP27 are cytochrome enzyme responsible for cholesterol metabolism. II. CYP3A is most common metabolizing enzyme in the body. III. CYP3A does phase I reductive reactions. A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

7. hexane and 2-methyl pentane are: A. B. C. D. E. Conformational Isomer Geometric Isomer Constitutional Isomer Diasteroisomers Isomer Enatiomers Isomer

8. All the following statements are CORRECT about Enatiomers EXCEPT: A. Enatiomers are optical isomers that are mirror images of another B. Enatiomers are rotate pan of polarized light in clockwise direction are know as dextrorotatory (D) or (+) C. Enatiomers have identical physical and chemical properties

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2 D. Enatiomers are rotate plan polarized light in anticlockwise direction are know as levorotatory. E. 100% mixture of (D) or (L) Enatiomers is called racemic mixture. 9. All of the CORRECT EXCEPT: following about statements are Diasteroisomers 13. Metabolic reactions that may be affected by a protein deficiency diet include: I. Oxidative Reaction II. Hydrolysis III. Glycine Conjugation A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

A. Diasteroisomers are neither mirror image no superimposible images B. Diasteroisomers must contain at least two chiral centers C. Diasteroisomers differ in properties such as solubility, volatility and melting point D. Diasteroisomers contain different physical and chemical properties E. Diasteroisomers contain non superimposible mirror images 10. Conversion of tetracycline to tetracycline process in known as: A. Isomerization B. Epimerization C. Conversion D. Substitution E. Chemical reaction 4-epi

14. In amino acid conjugation which of the following reactions are involved: A. B. C. D. E. Amino acid + Alcohol Amino acid + Amino acid Amino acid + Glycine Glycine + Alcohol Amino Acid + Glutamine

15. Which is strongest Base: A. ---B. ---C. ---D. --E. --16. CYT P450 is :

11. D(+) Lactic acid and L (-) Lactic acid are: A. B. C. D. E. Diasteroisomers Enatiomers Constitutional isomers Geometrical isomers Stereoisomer

A. B. C. D. E.

Enzyme Vitamin Neurotransmitter Catalyst Amino acid

12. Result of restriction around double bond a result in the following isomers: A. B. C. D. E. Diasteroisomers Enatiomers Constitutional isomers Conformational isomers Geometrical isomers

17. Where is the hydrolysis occur: A. – B. – C. – D. – E. – 18. Where is the hydrolysis occur: A. E

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3 B. C. D. E. E E e E 24. Grapefruit juice inhibit the following enzyme: A. B. C. D. E. CYP 17 CYP 1A2 CYP 3A4 CYP 2A1 CYP 450

19. All the following are metabolic enzymes EXCEPT: A. B. C. D. E. CYP 450 CYP 3A4 CYP 0 CYP 1A4 CYP 2A1

25. Smoking induces the following Cytochrome enzyme: A. B. C. D. E. CYP 17 CYP 1A2 CYP 3A CYP 2A1 CYP 450 does glucourdiation

20. All the following are cytochrome enzymes metabolize drug xenobiotics (Biological Product) EXCEPT: A. B. C. D. E. CYP 450 CYP 3A4 CYP 17 CYP 1A4 CYP 2A1

26. Which enzyme reaction: A. B. C. D. E. UDPGA …. …. …. ….

21. Antidepressants are metabolized by: A. B. C. D. E. CYP 450 And CYP 1A2 CYP 3A4 And CYP 1A2 CYP 2D6 And CYP 1A2 CYP 1A4 And CYP 1A2 CYP 2A1 And CYP 1A2

22. Statins are metabolized by: A. B. C. D. E. CYP 17 CYP 1A2 CYP 3A CYP 2A1 CYP 450

27. What characteristics of an organic compound allow it to undergo conjugation with glutathione? A. B. C. D. E. Electrophilic functional groups … … … … involve the

23. Benzodiazepines Are metabolized be: A. B. C. D. E. CYP 17 CYP 1A2 CYP 3A CYP 2A1 CYP 450 28. Amino acids conjugation following group: A. B. C. D. Amino acid and glycin Amino acid and glutamine Amino acid Activated amino acid

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4 E. Amino acid and glutamine 29. Glutamine Conjugation very important in preventing toxicity of variety of drugs, toxic products are excreted as: A. B. C. D. E. S-adonozyl transferase Glutamic acid Mercaptoric acid Amino acid Sulfadryl groups A. B. C. D. E. Oxidation Hydrolysis Conjugation Reduction Sulforation

34. To protect integrity of the cell. Which of the following is most important: A. B. C. D. E. Phospholipids CYT P 450 CYT P 410 Lysosomal Enzyme Non of the above

30. which of the following statements about drugs metabolism correct: A. drug metabolizing enzyme are found only in liver B. all metabolites are pharmacologically inactive C. phase I metabolite can cross cell membrane D. all drugs are catalyzed by cytochrome E. commonly one metabolite is excreted for each drug administered

35. Metabolism is enhanced by: I. Passive reaction II. Excretion III. Tubular secretion A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

31. Imidazoline ring present in the following class of structure: A. Thiazide diuretics B. COX II inhibitors C. Direct α 2 agonist (Clonidin) D. Direct α 1 agonist E. Direct α 2 antagonist 32. the following diuretics is most similar in chemical structure to antihypertensive daiazoxide: A. B. C. D. E. Chlorothiazide Furosemide Mannitol Spironolactone ….

36. Indol ring: I. Histamine II. Serotonin III. Tryptopahn A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

37. conversion of histidine to histamine is catalyzed be: I. L.Histidine Decarboxylase II. L.Histidine Carboxylase III. L.Histidine Hydoxylase A. I Only

33. The above reaction is :

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5 B. C. D. E. III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 41. All of the following are side effect of Atropine EXCEPT: A. B. C. D. E. Dry mouth Urinary retention Constipation Blurred vision Diarrhea

38. H1 Receptors function on the following symptoms: I. Allergies II. Gastric secretion III. Bronchodilation A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

42. which of the following drugs decrease stomach acid secretions, Mechanistically blocking of H2 Histamine receptors: A. B. C. D. E. Hydroxyzine Cetrazine Fluxazine Omeprazole Ranitidine

39. the following drugs are contraindicated in first trimester of pregnancy: I. Meclizine II. Cyclazine III. Cetirizine A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

43. Serotonin A. B. C. D. E. Histidine Tryptophan Dopa Epinephrine …

44. Sumatriptan are medication used in migraine therapy is act on the following receptors; A. B. C. D. E. 5HT 1D 5HT T2 5HT T3 5HT T4 5HT T5

40. The following groups are essential for antihistamine pharmacological activity: I. Aromatic and heteroaromatic rings structure II. Tertiary amine in structure III. Chain of alkyl group in structure A. B. C. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above

45. What is HT , 5 HT receptors: A. B. C. D. E. Hydroxyl amine 5-hydroxyl tryptamine 5-hydroxyl tryptophan … …

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E. D.2005 . B. Cyclopentane ring contain carbonyl and hydroxyl group II. PG II III. PG Structure contain fragment in the structure: the following 50. E. C. Which of the following is COX II inhibitor: A.R. E.6 46. Salicylism Hemorrhage Hypoglycemia Nausea GI irritation 53. D. Which of the following PG inhibitors indicated in treatment of open angle Glaucoma? A. C. What is the prevention for NSAID induced GI ulcers: A. C. E. Misopristol “CYTOTOEC” is used for prevention of NSAID induced ulcers. C. PG I II. E. PGE1 I. C. C. D. COX II inhibitor only III. All the following re correct side effect of Aspirin EXCEPT: A. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 51. B. B. Salicylism Hemorrhage Hyperglycemia Nausea GI irritation 54. B. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 52. Long chain alkyl group III. Aspirin Ibuprofen Celocoxib Nalaxone Naltraxone A. III Only PEBC Preparation E. E. D. D. E. COX I inhibitor II. B. Latanoprost (Xalatan) Travoprost (Travatan) Bimatoprost (Lumigan) Misopristol (Cytotec) Dinoprostone 48. B. D. I Only B. D. Omeprazole Zantac Misopristol Cetrizine Calcium hydroxide 47. C. Aspirin is : I. All the following re correct side effect of enteric coated Aspirin EXCEPT: A. Keto and hydroxyl position indicate subscript of PG analogs A. The following drug is indicated to induce cervical ripening in pregnancy: A.L. is classified as: I. C. B. COX I and COX II inhibitor A. B. E. D. Latanoprost (Xalatan) Timolol Bimatoprost (Lumigan) Misopristol (Cytotec) Dinoprostone 49.

All of the following are propionic acid derivatives EXCEPT: A. Which of the following preparation require prescriptions: A. Which is the mechanism of action of montelukast (Singulair) A. Nitroglycerines are classified as: I. D. Double bond on position 3 and 4 a. E. I and II Only D. Which of the following preparation require only written prescriptions: A. All the following conditions are essential for thiazide structure: I. Chloro or trifluromethyl group on position 6 III.7 C. LTC4 and LTD4 inhibitors C. Sulfonamide group benzene ring II. All Of the above 55. B. b.2005 . Nitrites III. Cyclooxygenase inhibitors PEBC Preparation E. 5HT1D inhibitors E. B. d. Which of the following drugs does not have sulfa allergy? A. D. c. E. E. D. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 59. D. B. C. C.R. Leukotrines inhibitors B. Nitro group A. 3 and 4 62. E. D. Pyrazole ring is present in the following structure: A. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 56. Which of the following is mechanism of action fro Tylenol (acetaminophen): A.L. Celecoxib Aspirin Sulfamethoxazole Hydrochlorothiazide Cortimoxazole (TMP/SMX) 63. E. Tylenol 1 Tylenol 2 Tylenol 3 Tylenol 4 Tylenol 2. e. Nitrates II. Tylenol 1 Tylenol 2 Tylenol 3 Tylenol 4 Tylenol 3 and 4 61. B. E. C. C. B. Antihistamines 60. B. Revisable PG synthesis Inhibits COX I synthesis Inhibit COX II synthesis Inhibit central PG synthesis Irreversible inhibits PG Synthesis D. E. D. Naproxen Ibuprofen Ketoprofen Aspirin (acetyl salicylic acid) Caprofen 57. B. C. D. C. II And III Only E. Aspirin Acetaminophen Celocoxib Ibuprofen Ketotofen 58. C.

E. E. C. B. D. Elemental Iron II. B. Aspirin Ticlopidine Fab Fragment Clopidogrel Warfarin 66. D. All of the following are antiplatelets agent EXCEPT: A. Same proteins III. EXCEPT A. Ferrous Sulfate Ferrous Gluconate Ferrous Fumarate Iron Dextran Elemental Iron 68. B. B. choice of administration of iron is: I. C. What is similarity between hemoglobin and Cytochrome P450: PEBC Preparation E. Prophyrin ring A. Which of the following parenteral iron dose form: A. D. All the following drugs contain sterol in their structure. Altiplase III. E. D. Iron complex form III. Enoxaprin Dalteprin Tinzaparin Adreparin Heparin 71. C. All of the following are LMWH EXCEPT: A.R. Warfarin Heparin LMWH Vitamin K Niacin 72. E. Ferrous Iron 69.8 64. Heme II. C. C.L. C. D. C. Spiranolactone Estrogen Progesterone Androgen Stilbesterol I. C. E. E. B. In the oral treatment of Iron Deficiency anemia. B. E. Fab Fragment II. B. B. D. D. Cholesteramine is a: A. C. E. Which of the following molecular structure contain quinoline structure: A. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 67. Hydroxylation Hydrolysis Oxidation Reduction Demethylation 73. Which phase I Metabolism reoccur in stomach: A. tPA (Tissue Plasminogen Activators) A.2005 . Which of the following is produced by biotechnology methods: I. E. D. D. B. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 65. Bile acid resin Water insoluble Water soluble Hydrophobic Bind to the bile acids in the intestine 70.

D. E. B. The correct statements about Vitamin B12 : I. D. C. Pteridine nucleus II. Interfere with Vitamin K dependent coagulant factor II. Oral anticoagulants such as warfarin has the following properties: I. Digixin Warfarin Nitrates Nitrites Cholesteramine while 80. Contain prophyrin ring II.L. Which of the following cardiovascular medications chemically classified as glycoside: A. Microcytic anemia PEBC Preparation E. II. D. Interfere with Vitamin K dependent coagulant factor I. Glutamic acid A. An antienemic agent folic acid contain the following nucleus that bonded to folate enzyme: I. Interfere with Vitamin K dependent coagulant factor II. B. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 78. IX and X 77. Contain cyanide ion III. IX and X II. D. VII. E. Megaloplastic anemia II. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above A. Nurologic impairment III. B. Lack of cyanocobalamine causes: 74. E. C. d. PABA III. VII. B. C. Intrinsic factor A. C. Folic acid absorbed in: A. Megaloplastic anemia II.2005 . Vitamin A Vitamin B Vitamin C Vitamin D Vitamin K 76. Deficiency of Vitamin B12 III. e. C. D. B. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 75. b. Folic acid deficiency Causes: I. E. Avoid the following vitamin anticoagulants medication: A. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 79. D. Liver GI tract Tissue Kidney Colon 81. IX and X III. E. D. C. B.9 a. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above I.R. E. c. B. E. Tetravalent cobalt ion A. C.

Retinal III. Chelating action Acid base interaction Plasma protein binding displacement Inhibits GI absorption of heparin Prothrobin like activity of protamine 84. Cytochrome oxidase A. Omeprazole C. D.R. Which of the following is the best choice for his condition: A. c. Which of the following prolonged the clotting time of both in vivo and in vitro I. B. Which of the following drug decrease pain associated with GERD without appreciably changing gastric pH: A. e. Protamine sulfate is an anticoagulant of heparin because: A. C. Fexofenadine 86.L. B. C. Warfarin a. Cisparide E. Vitamin A is a mixture of : I. E. D. Which of the following drugs is the isomer of vitamin A: I. Retinol II. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 85. D. C. Retinol III. E. D. Hemoglobin II. Retinoic acid II. Ranitidine B. Myoglobin III. B. Retinal II. C.2005 . B. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above D. Retinoic acid A. C. c. e. Retinol III. E. The following is precursor of vitamin A: I. d. b. Heparin II. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 87. D.10 A. LMWH III. b. B. d. Any H2 Antagonist 89. Meclizine Fexofenadie Famotidine Diphenhydramine Dimenhydrinate 88. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above I. Carotenoids a. Isotrentinoin PEBC Preparation E. Which of the Carbonmonoxide following bind to 82. E. A 38 years old bus operator with history of arrhythmias suffering from seasonal rhinitis. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 83.

Rejecting the null hypothesis when H0 is true C. Epidermology studies are carried out in the following categories: A. C. Tetanus vaccination for teenagers B. C. E. B. B. In given data 3. 5 6 7 8 9 98. C. D. D. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 94.4 5.8. For the above Question Median is: A. Rejecting the hypothesis when H0 is Falls B. B. E. C.5 and 9 days. E. Hospital doctors and infected populations 93.2005 . 6 7 3 9 5 96. Sex education E. 5 6 7 8 9 99.5.6 and 9 hours. B.0 4.5.L. Accepting null hypothesis when H0 is true 91. D. B. Influenza season in Canada: A. Normal population 99% of values fall within: A. Hospital patient B. D. D.3. C. E. All the following activities meet the criteria of primary prevention Except: A. E. D. Measles / Mumps / Rubella (MMR) vaccination for first time C. Certain population and defined geographical area C. B.R. 5. the mean half life is : A.7. 5 subjects given a single oral dose of drug have the following elimination half lives 4. 5 PEBC Preparation E. Pap smear screening D. 5. Pharmacy and patients of defined geographical area D. Accepting null hypothesis when H0 is falls D. ….6. Start in November to April Start in December to April Start in October to April Start in September to April Start in August to April 95. Certain hospital and their patients E. C. E. B. C. calculate the mean: A. E. For the above question the mode is: A. 97.9 and 7 what is the median: A.11 A. Type I error (Falls Positive error): A. 3 standard Deviations 2 standard Deviations 1 standard Deviations 4 standard Deviations 5 standard Deviations 92.5 6 10 90. D.

71 0. Rejecting the null hypothesis when H0 is True D. B. In the clinical trial at Toronto Hospital conducted over 4 years.5. E. Rejecting the hypothesis when H0 is true D. D. E. E.81 0. Only 0. 26 and 28 standard deviation is 5 what is the percent of coefficient variation A. Correct decision: 107. D. C and AB were studied to compare the quantitative hematological differences among their hemoglobin structure. 6 7 8 9 A. Accepting the null hypothesis when H0 is false C. D. E. 103.2005 . B. 0. D. Accepting the null hypothesis when H0 is true 104.R. Based on results. C. 24 21 23 28 29 106. Accepting the hypothesis when H0 is false C. What is the standard deviation of the following numbers 3. 20.4 and 8: A. 1000 2000 3000 4000 5000 PEBC Preparation E. 23.61 0. C.51 0. a specific serious side effect with a therapy X is seen in 0. B. E.12 B.L. C.5 % of the study sample in patients who receive a newly discovered drug Y. C.41 Type II error (β error) A.1 8 51 10 101. B. D. IF the standard deviation of an experiment is 2 and sample size is 8 what is the standard error of mean: A.45 % experiences the same side effects. E. D. C. D. C. Rejecting the hypothesis when H0 is false B. Paired t Test F test (ANOVA) (Quantitative) Regression analysis Student t test Chi-Square Test 102. 5 2. E. B. B. B. All of the following are statistical test except: A. Accepting the hypothesis when H0 is true 105. The 4 groups A. 24. The most appropriate statistical test to make determination is: A. the minimum number of patients that would have to receive the new drug for 3 years to statistically demonstrate the prevention of one episode of the side effect in at least one patient is: A. Student t test F distribution test Chi-Square test Distribution test ANOVA analysis of variance 100. C. Rejecting the hypothesis when H0 is false B.

Same amount of drug and same dosage form III. In the patients who received a placebo. D. II And III Only E. A test measures what it was originally designed to measure is said to have: PEBC Preparation E. B. the desired clinical outcome with a new drug is achieved in 25 % of the study sample. C. Rate of absorption III. C. The relative risk reduction achieved with the new drug over the period is: A. Generic drug development ANDA submission A. Different strengths A. B. B. A generic product must have the same as brand name product: I. B. D. III Only C. E. I Only B. Type of excipients in tablet only A. only 15 % obtain the same clinical benefit. New dosage form A. Phase I testing III. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above for 114. C. Shape II.R. 50% 100% 40% 10% No difference D. Extent of absorption A. Therapeutically equivalents II. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 110. D. All Of the above 112. E. C. For patent expired brand drug product can be marketed as generic drug product if: I. A product line extension contain the new drug and : I. E. New dosage strengths III. Color III. Preclinical trials II. B. C. E. Healthy human volunteers are tested in the following phase of clinical trials I. Bioequivalent II.L.13 108. C. When standard error compared with standard deviation (SD) A. In clinical trials conducted over 2 years. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 109. I and II Only 115. D. D. B. Its smaller than SD Its Bigger than SD Equal To SD Non of the above 113. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 111.2005 . D. The generic product may differs with brand product: I. New therapeutic indication II. E.

A 40 years old patient weight 70 Kg needs IV infusion of amoxicillin. In choosing an instrument to measure the health related Quality of life. The time it take to infuse drug to reach plasma steady state concentration (Css) depends on: I. E.L. E. C. The physician ordered antibiotic infused for 10 hours. E. Fraction of free drug excreted in urine III. The desired Css of drug is 19 mg/dl. Length of instrument (life time) II. Reliability and validity instrument A. Sensitivity and specificity instrument III. D. D. The loading dose of drug always based on: II. B. D. Null hypothesis says there is difference between experimental and observed values III.R. D. C. C. C. Alternate hypothesis says there is difference between experimental and observed values A. attention should be paid to the following: I. 936 mg/hr PEBC Preparation E. the null hypothesis states: I. Amoxicillin has t1/2 = 1 hour and Vd = 9L. III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 116.01. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 118. B. C. D.14 A. B. C. Null hypothesis says there is no difference between experimental and observed values II. Elimination half life of the drug II. A pharmacist did not counsel patent about side effect of drug. Reliability Precision Validity Accuracy Specificity B. B. which of the following ethical principle has been violated? A. At a significance level of p < 0. Fraction of free drug excreted in urine A. 135 mg/hr B. D. Plasma concentration curve IV. Apparent volume of distribution and desired plasma concentration III. Plasma concentration curve A. I Only 121. E.2005 . Veracity Beneficently Fidelity Autonomy Nonmaleficiency 120. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above of of 119. considering that patient may not take this drug. B. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 117. What rate of IV is recommended for this patient? (No loading dose was given) A.

E. B. C. In selecting drug. Decrease concentration exponentially with time C. D. B. E. 80 hrs 20 hrs 40 hrs 100 hrs 24 hrs zero order 123. D. Show plot of drug concentration versus time. Zero order kinetic are more common than first order kinetic 128. Non linear pharmacokinetic do not depend on the following I.50 mg 135. B. Which of the following most closely describe as clearance rate of drug that is infused at rate of 4 mg/min and produces a steady state concentration of 6 mg/L in plasma A. D. Which of the following results in a doubling of the steady state concentration of drug: A.L. Have half life independent of dose D. 1350 mg 1200 mg 1. that is linear E. C. How long will it take for drug to reach 90 % of final steady state level A. What is recommended loading dose in the above patient: A. E. Doubling loading dose 124.0 mg D. If 10 mg of drug A produces the same response as 100 mg of drug B. Drugs that show elimination kinetics is: A. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 125. 400 mg/hr 122. First order kinetic II. Drug that show non linear model pharmacokinetics have which of the following properties: A. 1000 mg/hr D.15 C. B. Variation of response in different individual occurs with drug showing a large therapeutic response E.2005 . 1200 ml/min 667 ml/min 300 ml/min 132 ml/min 67 ml/min 127. All doses follow first order elimination PEBC Preparation E. A drug with half life of 12 hours is administrated by continuous intravenous infusion. drug A is more effective than B 129. Which of the following statements is correct: A. Tripling the rate of infusion Quadrupling the rate of infusion Doubling the rate of infusion Doubling the concentration of infused drug and rate of infusion E. The greater the efficacy and greater the potency of drug C. C.R. C. C. a drug potency is more important than efficacy 126. D. A competitive antagonist increase ED50 B. E. Show a constant fraction of drug elimination per unit of time B. B. Michel’s – Menten kinetics A.350 mg 13. D. Concentration and time III. 333 mg/hr E.

5 and pKa 5. C. Drugs with the same bioavailability II. B.L. B. E. D. E. B. E. D. If aspirin pH 6. At steady state drug concentration increase with direct proportion to dosing rate E. Drugs with same rate of absorption A. The following bioequivalent: 133. E. Predict the absorption of drugs in epithelial cells A. D. C. B. D. B. 100 0 50 40 30 134. C.5 what percent of solution is unionized? A.5 what percent of solution is unionized? A. B. Predicts the rate of moments of molecules across membrane II.16 B. Large intestine Stomach Small intestine Esophagus Mouth I. B. C. Atropine (base) solution pH is 4. Which of the following site of GI has highest absorption of dug: A.5 and pKa 5.R.5 what is the ionization of drug is unionized? A. C. D. 135.V. Which of the following site of GI has highest absorption of drugs A. Aspirin (acid) solution pH is 4. Drugs with same AUC III. C. Michel’s Menten kinetic are used in non linear kinetic C. Determine the F value of a capsule AUC 20 mg / dl / hrs with 50 mg dose when I. 90 % 91 % 9 % 1 % 99 % 137. C. 90 % 91 % 9 % 1 % 99 % 136. D. C. B. AUC increase indirectly proportional to dose D. D. Large intestine Duodenum Jejunum Ileum Ficks law describe the following: I. E. 20 % 60 % 40 % 80 % 100 % drugs are 132.2005 . of the same drug AUC is 25 mg/dl/hr with 100 mg dose : A. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 131. D. A constant ratio of drug metabolites is formed as the dose increase 130. Predicted the percent of ionized and unionized drugs III. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above PEBC Preparation E.5 and pKa 6. E. E.

B. 7. E. Renal clearance of inulin is used as a measurement of: A. E. C. Active renal secretion Effective renal blood flow Rate of renal drug excretion GFR Intrinsic renal activity 142. C. A drug was found to have Zero order kinetics 100 mg after 6 days  99 mg How long it will take to eliminate the entire drug from the body? 147. E. D. D. Plot of log of concentration against time produces a straight line with a: A.303 Slope of K/0. The following factors effects the drugs that cross into breast milk I. after 2 hrs. the plasma concentration was 64 mg. Albumin is major plasma protein and has strongest affinity to the following protein: A. 100 mg a drug with 2 hr of half life. Renal clearance of Creatinin is used as a measurement of: A. A dose was given.7 hr. t1\2 =0. Membrane permeability A. after 7 hours from the initial dose. C. B. C. B.6 4. D. E. B. D. E. Active renal secretion Effective renal blood flow Rate of renal drug excretion GFR Intrinsic renal activity 141. B. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above A.6 146.0 mg 4. 100 200 300 600 900 143. C. D.6 2.L. D. D. Which of the following forms of nitroglycerine that are minimally affected by the first pass effect include? PEBC Preparation E. C. D. C.2005 .17 138.0 mg 1. B. Slope of –K/2. C. E. Acid drugs S S S S 144. Which of the following is used as standard to measure GFR: A. to eliminate 90 mg of it take how many hours? A. B. Inulin Creatinin Glucose Insulin Fructose 140. Partition coefficient III. D.0 mg 3. E.7 5. Plasma protein binding II.693 145. B.6 6. B.303 Slop of –K/t1/2 Slope of –K0 Slope of K/2. 0.0 mg 2. C.R. E. what is the drugs concentration? A.0 mg 139.

Dose cause 50 % of effect response in tests III. C. In dosing drugs that are primarily excreted by the kidney. Dose cause 50 % of death response in tests A. E.R. 153. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 152. E. C. D. No change in both 151. C. Sublingual II. if the rate of elimination of drug is reduced because renal insufficiencies. D. Dose cause 50 % of toxic response in tests II. Increase Vd increase Css II. D. E. sss PEBC Preparation E. B. Transdermal Patches III. Plasma protein albumin level Enzymatic metabolism Vd of water soluble drugs Vd of lipophilic drugs Hypervolimia 149. The relative bioavailability of a drug product can be determined by: A. B. C. Which of the following pharmacokinetics parameter gives the estimate of renal function: A. B. the effect on drug half life and Css will be: A. Non of the above E. B. E. C. Decrease in Vd increase Css 154. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 148.L. Which of he following likely t increase in elderly (Geriatric) Patients: A. D. Equal to half life of drug Longer than half life of drug Shorter than half life of drug Equal to Css Equal to half life serum creatinin Lethal dose LD50 is classified as I. Comparing AUC`s and total drug urinary excretion B. D. one must have some idea of the patient renal function. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above A. C.2005 .18 I. C. Intravenous A. D. B. Increase loading dose increase Css III. D. Which of the following statement are correct? I. B. Half life and Css decrease Half life and Css increase Increase in Half Life and Decrease in Css Decreasing in Half Life but increase in Css E. Comparing plasma concentration and total drug urinary excretion C. B. BUN Serum Creatinin Urine Creatinin Creatinin clearance Free water clearance 150. E. The difference between peak and trough concentration is greater when a drug is given at dosing intervals A. Comparing elimination and plasma concentration D. E.

B. B. B. Q C. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above used in A. B. Neostigmine PEBC Preparation E. E. Bethanechol III. All of the following drugs have diarrhea as side effect EXCEPT: I. 5HT1D / 1B agonist GABA – A B2 – 1 Enkephelin Dopamine 162.2005 . D. C. E. D. The following is /are catechole amine neurotransmitter: I. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 158. The following are bioequivalent in Canada: I. E. E. Same dose and same dosage form III. B. D. Atropine A. Tryptophan III. Neostigmine II. C. Same rate and same extent A. Glycine A. B. C. Which of the following is used in long term treatment of myasthenia Gravies A. physical appearance II. C. C. E. The excretion of weakly acidic drug will become more rapid in alkaline urine than in acidic urine because: A. Succinylcholine Pancuronium Atracurim Nicotine Mivcurium 159. Epinephrine A. Q D. Same color. Q E.L. Nor epinephrine III. The following are the amino acid and neurotransmitters: I. D. All of the following neuromuscular blockers EXCEPT: 157. Dopamine II. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 160. C. Sumatriptan is mainly migraine treatment acting as: A.R. D. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 163.19 155. D. C. Glutamic acid II. The drug will exist primarily in ionized form which cannot easily reabsorbed B. E. B. Convulsion Increase HR Miosis Skeletal muscle paralysis Increase bronchial secretion Are 161. D. All of the following are side effects symptoms of isoflurophate EXCEPT: A. Q 156.

169. E. B. E. Nor adrenalin III. Pancuronium is : Ganglionic blocker Depolarizing NMJ blocker Non depolarizing NMJ blocker Cholinergic antagonist Anti cholinesterase 170. E. to use every day III. Acetylcholine 167. Zyban III. D. Adrenalin II. D. Stop smoking from the day when start using nicotine products II. C. Nicotine Gums II. Suggest Zyban oral drug smoking cessation A. B. D. The following drug most closely resembles atropine in its pharmacological action EXCEPT A. Chemical mediator that is released from the end nerve of parasympathetic system : I. B. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 168. The following products can be used in smoking cessation: I. E. Acetylcholine A. C. E. Mary 33 years old pregnant woman she smokes 1 pack a day. Start 21 mg of nicotine patches and slowly taper the dose to 14 mg after 4 -6 weeks A.2005 . C. Methyldopa III. Can continue smoking for 1 to 2 weeks when non nicotine (Zyban) products III. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above A. B. Suggest nicotine patches. D. Pilocarpine A.L.20 B. C. C. Buspirone A. which of the following would be your recommend? I. D. D. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 164. B. C.R. Suggest to use non pharmacological steps to reduce smoking habits II. The following statements are correct about smoking cessation: PEBC Preparation E. A A A A I. C. B. Timilol II. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 166. she is seeking your help in quitting her smoking habits. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 165. D. E. E. All of the following drugs can be used in open angle and closed angle Glaucoma: I.

C. E. D. Which of the following drugs does not produce miosis: A.L. Drug commonly used with local anesthetic to decrease the absorption and increase the time of action of anesthesia include: A. E. Vasoconstriction II. Ipratropium III. E. Reduced distribution of anesthetic in blood flow III. Increase the localized effect A. D. E. B. C. D.21 B. Salmeterol A. Epinephrine is combined with local anesthetic 1 in 100.R. B. D. B. This drug indicated in CHF does not increase O2 demand. Increase Heart rate B. Scopolamine Carbachole Pilocarpine Neostigmine Isoflurophate 172. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above local 171. D. D. The action of acetylcholine in motor endoplate and in the celiac ganglia is described as: A. C. Albuterol II. Nicotinic stimulation Muscarinic stimulation Dopaminic stimulation Adrenergic stimulation Serotonin stimulation 176. Benzotropine Scopolamine Ipratropium Tropicamide 174. Dobutamine A. Contraction of sphincter urinary bladder C. C. Which one of the following in characteristic of parasympathetic stimulation A. C. B. E. Methyldopa III. E. B. Isoproteronolol II. C. C. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 177. E. Miosis effect contraction of iris E. Decrease intestinal motility PEBC Preparation E. The following medications are used is asthma emergencies I. I. B. Which of the following drugs with little change in heart rate but increases cardiac output. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 175. Inhibition of bronchial secretion D.2005 . D. Epinephrine Adrenaline SC Isoproterenol Aminophiline Salmeterol 173.000 parts for the following effect of epinephrine I.

R. Nitrates and sildenafil cannot be used together because I. E. A patent currently on β Blockers and sildenafil which of the following side effect can be seen I. Which of the following is the correct action of sympathomemitic I. C. Which of the following is atenolol side effect: I. C. Increase the drainage of aqueous humor in the eye II. Enhance hypertension nitrates A. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 181. Enhance hypotension sildenafil III. E.22 E. Enhance hypotension nitrates II. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 183. B. All Of the above 178. E. B. Take medication at bed time II. Which of the following statement about the parasympathetic system is correct A. C. The parasympathetic system involved in movement of food and urination and accommodation of near vision C. D. B. in order to manage syncope effect. Take medication with full glass of water A. Aa 179. Parasympathetic system uses nor epinephrine as neurotransmitter D. the following precaution should be taken: I. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only 184. D. Visual disturbance A. Hypotension II. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above effect effect effect of of of 180. he PEBC Preparation E. Visual disturbance A. Hypotension II. D. Reduce first dose to one fourth III. E. D. Decrease in aqueous humor in the eye III. C. B. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 182. Tremor III. A patient currently on phenelzine “Nardil” for his depression disorder. D. C. Tremor III. B. α adrenergic blockers causes syncope as a side effect.L. Increase of IOP “Intra Ocular Pressure” A. The parasympathetic system control the secretion of adrenal medulla B. Post Ganglionic fiber of parasympathetic system are long compared to sympathetic system E.2005 .

I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only 190. Acebutolol Labetolol Hydralazine Doxazocine Yohimbine 191. 33 years old pregnant woman. E. Lower heart rate Lower blood pressure Higher blood pressure Fatigue Avoid driving after medication for a few hours 187. Brown 55 years old asthmatic patient have difficulty in urination and goes frequent urination wakes us several time in night. Lithium is drug of choice for manic depression A. A PEBC Preparation E. D. B. C. Age old cheese Wine Yogurt Orange Margarine E. C. Sleep disorder II. Labetolol A. E. E. B. 186. C. Hydralazine III. he should avoid all of the following Medication EXCEPT A. D. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 185. D. D.23 should avoid all of the following food EXCEPT A. All of the following are the side effect of β blockers EXCEPT: A. A patient currently on phenelzine “Nardil” for his depression disorder. E. Mr. D. Which of the following statement are correct about Lithium I. B. requiring about the safer drug for hypotension condition. Mood disorder A. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 189.2005 . Lithium effect seen after two weeks II. Motor activity (physical Activity) III. E. Methyldopa II. All of the following are side effect of α antagonist EXCEPT A. which of the following she can use: I. B. patient are treated with benzodiazepine for manic depression III. C. B.R. D.L. Which of the following medication would be appropriate to treat Mr. Mary. C. A B. C. E. C. B. His blood pressure indicate 160/95 mmHg. D. Fluoxetine Sertarline Fluoxamine Meperidine Amoxicillin Serotonin involved in all EXCEPT: I. B. Before lithium has effect. All Of the above 188. Brown condition A.

Orthostatic hypotension Constipation Increase blood pressure Sexual dysfunction Change in endocrine hormone function 193. Have high extrapyrimidal side effects than traditional antipsychotics II. E. The following are common side effect of TCA`s and MAO inhibitors I. D. B. D. D. C. Have less EPS than traditional antipsychotic A. The following drugs can be used to reduce male impotency I. Second generation antipsychotic such as resperidone have the following advantage over traditional antipsychotics: I. B. A PEBC Preparation E.2005 . I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 195. E. Phentolamine A. All of the following are side effects have observed in patients using antipsychotic drugs EXCEPT A. 198. A D. B. E. Morphine B. D. C. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 197. B. The following drugs can be used with caution to correct internal sphincter of bladder “bed wetting” I. Which of the following statements are correct about TCA`s I. Sildenafil II.24 C. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above physical 196. E. D.L. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above The following is protype of opioid A. Serotonin syndrome II. Yohimbine III. All TCA shows similar therapeutic effects A. C. Sexual dysfunction E. Have less weight gain side effect than traditional antipsychotics III. D. C. C. Amitriptyline II. Postural hypotension A. Thixamine III. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 194. Orthostatic hypertension is common side effect III. Urinary retention 192.R. A C. TCA shows immediate effects II. B. Imipramine A. Psychological and dependence III. E. E. C. B.

D. Sedation A. D. Respiratory depression A. A 199. Opioid overdose presents with the following symptoms I. Delta III. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 204. C. C.25 D. Constipation II. C. B. Which of the following opioid has toxic metabolite that may accumulate in renal dysfunction: A. Codeine E. Mu II. Increase ratio of dopaminergic / cholinergic activity in neostratum II. The following anesthetics produce paraaminobenzoic acid “PABA” upon metabolism : I. Fentanyl 203. Morphine B. B. Anxiety Insomnia Intestinal cramps Restlessness Craving 201. Most commonly occurs in elderly over 40 years of age patients III. B. Meperidine C. C. Methadone 206. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 200. E. D. Pinpoint pupil II. C. E. C.L.2005 . Coma III. B. E. A E. E. D. by: Parkinson patients are characterized I. D. Decrease ratio dopaminergic / cholinergic activity in neostratum A. All of the following are withdrawal symptoms of CNS stimulant EXCEPT: A. Meperidine Glucuronide Fentanyl Morphine Codeine active D. Witch of the following is / are the most common side effect of opioids: I. E. The following narcotic metabolite exhibit analgesic activity A. D. Activation of witch of the following principal opioid receptor does NOT cause significant respiratory depression I. B. Kappa A. General anesthetic PEBC Preparation E. Respiratory depression III. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 205. E.R. B. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 202.

Cause metabolic alkalosis E. Ester Type of local anesthetics A. Carbonic anhydrase diuretics II. It is effective by oral administration B.2005 . Thrombocytopenia is side effect of the following drugs: I. The principal site of action of this drug is on the thick ascending loop B. C. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above II.26 II. Hydrochlorothiazide Acetazolamide Furosemide Bumetanide Chlorithalidone 210. Hydrochlorothiazide PEBC Preparation E. B. Thiazide diuretics A. B. C. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All of the above 207. D. D. Cause ototoxicity 213. Potassium sparing diuretics III.R. D. B. Freely filtered. E. Acetazolamide III. Amide type of local anesthetics III. Cause hyperkalemia D. Has longer half life than morphine C. What are the following characteristics of mannitol are correct: I. All of the following correct about spironolactone EXCEPT: A.L. Useful in reducing cerebral edema and intracranial pressure D. E. Cause alkaline urine C. D. Furosemide A. C. All of the following statement about Methadone are correct EXCEPT: A. E. E. limits the tubular reabsorption of water II. D. All of the following causes metabolic alkalosis EXCEPT: A. B. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above have 211. Methadone used in opioid withdrawal to reduce withdrawal symptoms 208. It is useful in treating pulmonary edema and ascites C. C. potassium exchange B. The principle site of action is at thick ascending loop 212. E. Useful in treatment of brain tumor III. C. It renders with distal tubular aldosterone mediated sodium. All of the following are correct about Furosemide Except: A. Has less analgesic activity than morphine D. Cause hyperkalemia A. Has greater action on mu receptors E. Cause gynecomastia and menstrual irregularities E. Witch of the following metabolic acidosis as side effect: I. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 209. B.

Anxiety Insomnia Intestinal cramps Restless Craving A. Ateplase III. E. Streptokinase III. C.2005 . Fab fragments Ticlopidine Clopidogrel Aspirin Warfarin 219. Which of the following are produced by biotechnicological methods: I. B. C.R.L. B. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 221. INR must be 2-3 II. HMG Co A inhibitors E.27 214. Anion exchange resin 217. All of the following are anti platelet agent EXCEPT PEBC Preparation E. Lowering LDL. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 220. Inhibition of intestinal absorption of cholesterol C. Warfarin III. Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa antagonist that inhibit platelet aggregate D. E. Prothrombin test (PT) III. Heparin II. D. E. D.TG and increase HDL with anti-inflammatory effect B. Fab fragments II. E. In order to measure effectiveness of warfarin therapy the following monitoring test are used I. Which of the following can be used in treatment of DVT I. Rhabdomyolisis is the side effect of all of the following EXCEPT A. C. E. C. tPA A. aPTT A. Streptokinase A. Simavastatin Lovastatin Gemfibrozil Colestipol Atrovastatin 216. D. B. B. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 218. D. D. B. B. D. C. E. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 215. Heparin A. D. C. B. All of the following are the withdrawal symptoms of CNS stimulant EXCEPT: A. Which of the following is mechanism of action of ezetimibe A. C. Warfarin II. Which of the following medication can be used in pulmonary edema and DVT I.

223. Lidocaine 230. E. Vit. It can cause postural hypotension It can cause reflex tachycardia It has first pass metabolism It has IV formulations and spray It significantly decrease AV conduction 225. Quinidine E. E. Simavastatin Clopidogrel Ezetimibe Ticofiban Enoxapril 229. Hypertension Trobbing headache Anemia Bradycardia >>> 226. Potassium supplement 227. 50 mg of oral B12 supplements helps to recover his anemic condition II. E. C. Folic acid supplement helps to acquire Vit. D. All of the following are used in digitalis toxicity except A. E. E. C. C. Captopril II. C. Right sided heart failure III. B. B12 III. All of the following statement are correct about nitroglycerin EXCPT: A.28 222. D. D. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 224. Bezopril A. B. Enalopril III. Diabetes Digitalis Quinidine Lidocaine Hypertension 228.2005 . E. C. B12 supplement. Fab fragment D. B. B. D. B12 IV supplement helps to recover his anemic condition PEBC Preparation E. E. Left sided heart failure II. Which of the following is / are the ischemic heart disease A. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above C. A patient with megaloblastic anemia requires Vit. B. Phenytoin B. Ischemic condition A. Which of the following side effect associated wit nitroglyceride A. C. D. B. D.L. TG and increase HDL with anti inflammatory effects A. B. Which of the following not appropriate with potassium sparing diuretics: I. D. Which of the following is true about Vit. MI Angina Arrhythmias CHF A and B only Pulmonary edema causes Because of I. Which of the following drugs or disease induce arrhythmias A. B12 supplement? I.R. C. Which of the following drugs has lowering LDL.

B. Alginic acid is used in the following condition: A. pylori infection 238. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 236. Calcium anti acids II. B. B. D. D. C. Neutralizing gastric acidic content B. B. C. Albuterol Ipratropium Beclomethasone Albuterol + Ipratropium Fluticasone PEBC Preparation E. C. E. C. Do not rinse mouth if used spacer with oral inhalants II. J. G. I. D. B.2005 . Which of the following are correct about beclomethasone patient counseling I. E. E. Al (OH)3 Mg (OH)2 CaHCO3 Sodium bicarbonate Non of the above 233. E. Which of the following anti acids have cathartic side effects A. Blocking protein pump 235. Which of the following inhalers require rinsing mouth after use: F. Which of the following is most important method in peptic ulcer treatment: A. B. Coating a layer on ulcers E. Al (OH)3 Anti acids III. C. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 234. Inhibiting receptor activation of gastric acid secretions C. C. B. Servant “Salmeterol” Ventolin “Albuterol” Atrovent “Ipratropium” Pulmicort “Budesonide” All of the above 232. D. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above D. Mouth rinse after corticosteroids inhalant reduce the systemic side effects A. Heartburn symptom relief Heartburn prophylaxis Heartburn treatment Peptic ulcer treatment <<<<<<< 237.R. H. C. E. D. Rinse mouth after use of all corticosteroids inhalants III.29 A. Which of the following inhalers require shaking before use: A. A patient with constipation condition may require the following ant acids: I. D. E. Eradication of H. Servant “Salmeterol” Ventolin “Albuterol” Atrovent “Ipratropium” Pulmicort “Budesonide” All of the above 231. Which of the following is most appropriate treatment for emergency asthma A.L. Mg (OH)2 Anti acids A.

B. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 243. Ipratropium bromide in COPD is more effective when combined with: I. C. C. the following statements are correct EXCEPT: A. Permanent damage of alveolar in lungs III. Shortness of breath A. D. All of the following pituitary hormones secreted from anterior pituitary gland EXCEPT: A. D. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 242. C. C. B. β adrenergic II. β2 Agonist Coromolyn Inhaled corticosteroids Thyophyllin Zafirlukast Emphysema is characterized by: I. High production of PTH C. Causes deficiency of Vit. B. Peptic ulcer disease All age CHF Diabetics All of the above 241. LH FSH MSH ADH ACTH 245. E. Before maximum Thyophyllin therapy received A. D II. Corticosteroids are used in the treatment of COPD: I.L. C. B. E. When administrated inhalation A.30 E. B. In hyperparathyroidism condition. In patient with no wheezing effect III. Permanent enlargement of small sacs in lungs II.R. E. D. C. E. All of the following asthmatic medications are useful in pregnancy EXCEPT: A. D. E. D. Has less side effect tat atropine III. D. Hyperphosphetemia PEBC Preparation E. In patient who have the response to bronchodilator therapy II. All Of the above 239.2005 . Decrease Ca ion in blood III. Hypercalcimia B. All of the following statement are correct about hyperparathyroidism EXCEPT: I. Increase Ca ion reabsorption from renal tubules A. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only 246. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 244. D. 240. Which of the following condition limit the use of Thyophyllin in treatment of COPD: A. C. B. B.

31 D. Muscle ache E. Chlorpropamide blocks insulin receptors B. e. D. <<<< 253. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 249. Which of the following drugs does not cause hypoglycemia A. LH III. C. Progestin PEBC Preparation E.R. C. Hyperparathyroidism --cause deficiency of Ca ions 248.L. Which of the following statement about oral hypoglycemic is / are correct A. Hyperparathyroidism --Hypercalcimia D. Which of the following hormones play important rules in male reproductive system? I. E. D. Sulfonylureas increase release of insulin and increase sensitivity of target tissues D. C. B.Hypocalcemia B. Vomiting II.2005 . Which of the following hormones secreted by corpus leutum to maintain pregnancy A. Progestin II. hCG III. Hypocalcimia occurs in the following condition: I. B. Which of the following is not the correct match: A. d. E. Protamine is added to insulin increase the rate of absorption C. I Only 254. E. TSH A. Metformin Repaglinide Acarbose Glyburide Chlorpropamide 250. Protamine is added to insulin decrease the rate of absorption B. D. Insulin can be administrated orally D. <<<< E. Which of the following increase during Ovulation? I. FSH II. Vit. Hpoparathyroidism ---Hyperphosphetemia C. Hyperparathyroidism --cause deficiency phosphates E. Estrogen B. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above B. Glipizide increase glucagons secretion C. Insulin administrated IM only to to 252. LH and FSH a. D deficiency A. Insulin administered IV only E. III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 251. b. Which of the following statement is correct? A. Hypoparathyroidism III. Hypothyroidism --. Muscle atrophy 247. c.

B. B. C. Do not lay dawn for 30 after taking aldendronate that may cause: I. I131 treatment A. Is characterized by frequent bone fractions A. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 260. Esophageal ulcers II. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above of 261. C. E. Osteoporosis is a condition skeletal muscle fragility due to: I. Hormone pregnancy: I. Graves disease A.32 C. Hormone that increase permeability in collecting tubules: I. Hashimoto syndrome III. Corticosteroids II. B. B. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above that sustained after water II. Stomach ulcers A. D. E.R. B. E. Spironolactone A. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 259. Mouth ulcers III. B. C. Estrogen II. D. Osteoporosis is characterized by loss of bone mass and may predispose by the following factors: I. Androgen A. C. D. LH and FSH E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 257. Smoking A. C. Menopause III. E. D. It occurs mainly in post menopausal women III. Vasopressin II. III Only 258. Race II. Testosterone D. E. C. Hypothyroidism is related to the following: I. Oxytocin III. Family history III. I Only B.2005 . D. D. GnRH 255. Graves disease II.L. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 256. E. Progressive loss of bone mass PEBC Preparation E. Osteoporosis is a disease characterized by loss of bone mass and may be aggravated by: I. Progestin III.

Rectisial infection responding to tetracycline or in which tetracycline cannot be used E. Gram +ve cocci Gram –ve cocci Gram +ve bacilli Gram –ve bacilli Non of the above 263.2005 . I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 264. The following estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) increase women bone density without increasing the risk of endometrial cancer: I. CBC D. Ralaxifen A. C. Meningitis when a β lactam antibiotics cannot be used D. Misopristol II. D. B. Tamoxifen III. Poliomyelitis III. C. aures infection 269. C. D. Legiomores disease A. E.L. C. D. Tamoxifen III. Bacterial infection Clostridium difficile colitis Trichomaniasis Typhoid 265. Salmonella infection C. S. D. Chest X-Ray B. I and II Only D. D. II And III Only E. B. Chloramphenicol is one of the drugs of choice in all EXCEPT: A. E Coli is the most common causative microorganism for UTI. Misopristol II. Leukotrienes counts E. Which of the following is / are viral infection: I. C.R. B. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 267. Typhoid B.33 C. D C. Ralaxifen A. Rabies II. B. B. Metronidalzole is first choice in all EXCEPT: A. D. E. All of the following monitoring for methotrexate EXCPT: A. All Of the above 262. E. Creatinin level PEBC Preparation E. B. Liver function test 266. Hypercalcimia Hypocalcemia Hypophosphetemia Hyperphosphetemia High concentration of Vit. Calcitonin is mainly classified as hormone liberated by thyroid gland which stimulate the release of Calcitonin? A. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above require therapy 268. E. classified as: A. C. Which of the following drugs are classified as receptor modulator (SERM): I.

C. B. B. The following organism least likely causative pneumonia: A. S. <<<<<<<<< 274. coli A. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 271. E. Most common causative organism of community acquired pneumonia (CAP) is: A. 276. aureus E. β-lactams antibiotics are ineffective in the treatment of the following infection: A. Amantadine indicated in influenza A and B II. pneumonia H. C. B. this infection caused by: A. The lower part gut contain the following microorganism: A. pneumonia H. D. Cephalosporin 500 mg once daily for 3 days D. B.50% anaerobic bacteria 90 – 95% anaerobic bacteria 10 – 50% aerobic bacteria 90 – 95% aerobic bacteria lower part of gut does not have any microbes 272. E. B. E. C. C. D. E. Mycolpasma pneumonia Streptococcus species I. pneumonia M. C.2005 . influenza S. B. C. S. Lyme disease commonly occur in Mississippi river valley. E. D.L. Amoxicillin 500 mg tablets one hour before appointment and 5 tablets 6 hours after tooth extraction PEBC Preparation E. B. Only anaerobic bacteria 270. aureus E. pneumonia M. Which is not trepenema palladium A. C. Tick bite Mosquito bite Dog bite Human bite Cockroach bite correct about 275. D. Oseltamivir indicated n influenza A and B A. Erythromycin is alternate therapy in tooth extraction C.R. 10 . D. What treatment: is true about influenza B.34 E. S. D. coli Treated by penicillin G Causative organism of syphilis Spread by lymphatic Causative organism of typhoid <<<<< about tooth 273. Rimantadine indicated in influenza A only III. Aminoglycosides 250 mg once daily for 3 days E. aures Gram +ve bacteria Group A strep. D. E. influenza S. E. What is / are correct antibiotics regimen used in extraction: 277.

C. indicated in the B. B. C. E. D. D. Naficillin A. B. Preoperative treatment of GI condition Frequent respiratory disease Preoperative treatment of hip surgeries Prevention of meningitis among individual in close contact with infection patient E. E. C. D. C. Which of the following only antibiotic which is effective against Methicillin resistant S. Penicillin G A. Penicillin G Methicillin Oxacillin <<<<<<<< is/ are C. C. B. Which of the following clinical condition is the prophylactic use anti bacterial is NOT required: A. Which of the following is fourth generation cephalosporin: A.35 278. Metronidalzole following EXCEPT: A. D. D. C. Amoxicillin II. Patient with tooth surgeries or tooth removed 286. B.R. Cefaxitine Cefatoxine Cefipine Cefuroxime <<<<< 281. A. 280. aureus (MARS) 282. Amoxicillin II. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 285. All of the following are penicillin resistant ( β – lactamase ) antibiotics EXCEPT: I. D.L. C. Methicillin III. All of the following are DNA virus EXCEPT: A. E. B. D.2005 . The following aminopenicillin: I. aureus Anaerobic infection only 283. C. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 279. Which of the following is acid sensitive and β lactamase resistant antibiotic: A. Amoxicillin PEBC Preparation E. B. Ampicillin III. E. E. Adenovirus Papilloma virus Poxyvirus Orthomyxovirus Poliovirus German measles: Mumps Rubella Endocarditis Vericella Zoster 284. D. difficile Giardiasis Trichomaniasis S. B.

All of the following are anti DNA viral agent EXCEPT: A.. B. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 293. B.L.36 A. B. Vancomycin Metronidalzole Ceftrixone IM Penicillin G Cotrimoxazole C.2005 . C. E. Prophylaxis in preoperative procedure A. B. C.. Mainly a typical bacteria A. Gram –ve bacterial infection III. The shell of soft gelatin capsule may made by addition of plastic-like substance: A. D. 290. A. C. D. D. Rimantadine Acyclovir Ribavirin Foscarnet Famciclovir Acacia is classified as: Suspending agent Natural emulsifying agent Semi synthetic emulsifying agent Flocculating agent Tablet filler 287. III Only 295. Gram –ve and certain gram +ve III. Polyethelenglycol PEG B. D.. C. B. Gonorrhea infection in male treated A. C. what is the oral antibiotic? A. E. All Of the above 291. by: 288. D. B.5 gram 294. E.. 292. Vancomycin .R. . I and II Only D. II And III Only E. Pregnant woman have UTI infection. . B. E. E. D. B. Gram +ve bacterial infection II. E. . D. In a dispensing pharmacy. C. Rectal suppositories intended for adult use approximately weight: A. pharmacist usually mix active powder with large amount of diluents by: A. Levigation Geometrical dilution Tituration Sifing Pulverization Sulfonamide are indicated in: I. E. Ampicillin Tetracycline Cotrimoxazole Clotrimazole Cefadroxil Aminoglycosides are indicated in: I. Povidone PEBC Preparation E. D. 10 gram 5 gram 2 gram 1 gram 0. C. C. 289. Gram +ve and certain gram –ve II. E. I Only B.

66 micron 303. D. Sterile preparations of parenteral solution: IV. C. Reduce particle size Reduce viscosity Increase practical size increase sedimentation rate reduce sedimentation rate Sterility or sterile I.33 micron 0.R. C. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 301. Decontamination of pyrogen III. C. Lactose D. A. D. What is the suitable form of water can be used in parenteral preparations. B. E. Undesirable particles II. E. B. E. I. Pyrogen free II.L. Aseptic technique decontamination of: include I. D. C. 0. Sorbitol E. E. Pathogen free ( Microorganism free ) A. A vertical laminar flow hood is the best choice when preparing solution of: A.37 C. C. C. B. C. Which of he following id the output of Albuterol inhalation aerosol: PEBC Preparation E. 5 10 0 1 000 Which is the smallest size of capsule 300. The size of HEPA used in Laminar air flow hood is: A. B. B. Pyrogen free V. D. In extemporaneous preparation of suspensions. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 304. Water for injection USP III. D. D. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 297. Decontamination of pathogen A. Particulate free III. D. Particulate free VI. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 299. Sterile water for injection USP II. E. Pathogen free ( Microorganism free ) A. E. Methyl cellulose 296. Levigation is used: A.2005 . Purified water USP A. Penicillin Doxacillin Cytotoxic agent Nicotine formulation Aminoglycosides 298. D. 302.22 micron 0.44 micron 0. E. C. B. B. B. E.55 micron 0.

UV analysis Nuclear magnetic resonance analysis Magnetic Mass spectrometry << 310. C. E. E. Patient with allergy to sulfonamides. C. Mobile phase is polar III. C. 305. A changed particle passing through a magnetic field is detected along circular path on a radius that is proportional to mass to charge ratio. D. Preservative <<< <<< <<< <<< Which detector is used in HPLC? 309. C. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 306. C. D. Dry mist II. It can be chronic condition of the tongue seen in pernicious anemia A. Stationary phase is hydrophobic II. B. C. C. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 311. D. Stable foam A. B. can take all of the following EXCEPT: A. B. All of the following are example of DMRA “Disease Modifying Anti rheumatic Agent” EXCEPT: PEBC Preparation E. D. E. E. To find out molecular weight of drug molecule which of the following instrument is used : 312. Mass spectrophotometers << << << << RX Phenol 0. A. D. B. D. D. UV detectors << << << << 307. Wet mist III. C. Correct statement regarding Glossists include which of the following: I.2005 . Inflation of the tongue II. B. D.5 % Cimetidine HCl Water for injection USP What is the rule of phenol in this script? A. Mobile phase is aqueous buffer A. B. This principle is basis of the following instrument: A. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above A. B. Penicillin Lidocaine Celecoxib Clindamycin Tetracycline 308.R. E. What is true about reversal phase of HPLC: I.L. E. B. E. m/e. Presence of pinkish red central lesions on the dorsal surface of the tongue III.38 I.

Stop and often reverse the progressive joint involvement B. D. Which statement are right regarding Calcitonin I. E. Oral chelating agent that used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis is: A. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 315. Its secretion stimulated during feeding. Allopurinol B. C. Mercapturic acid II. B. D. E. It is a vitamin D derivative A. Indomethacine D. Importance of Vit. E. C. Methotrexate Sulfasalazine Organic Gold compound Sulphapyrazone Penicillamine 316. C. D. C. D in osteoporosis: I. Specifically reverse the cause of disease C. Anticoagulants A. Sulphinpyrazone C.R. In the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis the salicylates: A. Penicillamine E. E. C.L. Theophyllin III. Are more effective when given with allopurinol 318. Are effective because they are uricosuric agents E. D. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 313. Provide only analgesic effect D. D. B. The level should be adjusted during treatment with allopurinol: I. Drug that inhibit xanthine oxidase and affect the metabolism of 6mercaptopurine: A. Ant acids containing Al and Mg interfere with proper activity of Vit D A. Sulphinpyrazone Allopurinol Penicillamine Purinethil Celecoxib PEBC Preparation E. B. B. Increase absorption of calcium from the small intestine II. particularly of high calcium meals II. C. Prevents Hypercalcimia by inhibiting the transport of calcium into extra cellular fluid and by increasing the renal clearance of Calcitonin III. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 314. Allopurinol Sulphinpyrazone Indomethacine Penicillamine Methotrexate 319. D. B. Methotrexate 317. E. Uricosuric agent used in gout treatment by inhibiting the uric acid reabsorption in the proximal tubules. The best Vit D analog to treat osteoporosis Calcitonin III.39 A.2005 . B. the best example of uricosuric agent is: A.

D. Enhance calcium retention and retard bone loss II. C. Ibuprofen Acetaminophen Gold therapy Azathioprine Cyclophosphamide 322. Not effective at increased bone mass that has already been lost 320. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above A. An immunologic complication A. C. With meal In empty stomach With plenty of water With orange juice Before bed time 326. C. B. D. Diflunisal is most likely to prescribed for the treatment of: A. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 324. E. Hereditary metabolite disease marked by inflammation of the joints II. Chloroqine Quinine Sulfasalazine Hydroxychlorquine Primaquine of of Gout characteristics include: I. C.L. Ant malarial drug used in the treatment o rheumatoid arthritis as DMRA drug A. E. D. Correct administration Penicillamine in the treatment rheumatoid arthritis include: A. Syonvial cells proliferation inside of a joint II. 323.R. B. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 325.40 III. B. C. B. B. EXCEPT: A. E. 321. It is a type of osteoporosis A. Wilson’s disease Rheumatoid arthritis Cystinuria Psariasis Hansen’s disease PEBC Preparation E. Al of the following are Allopurinol side effects. The joints inflammation caused by precipitation of uric acid crystals III. Asthmatic patient with RA with Aspirin sensitivity. D. E. C. B. E. The drug of choice is: A. B. Increase PT Hypersensitivity rashes GIT intolerance Peripheral neuritis Necrotizing vasculitis The use of estrogen in osteoporosis. E. C. Normally occurs in patients with Rheumatoid arthritis III. D. D. I. D. Useful in treatment of osteoporosis associated to menopause 327.2005 . E. B. Pannus is an inflammatory exudates characterized by: I. E. C. D.

I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above Nucleotide with deoxyribose (sugar) Nucleoside with deoxyribose (sugar) Nucleoside with Ribose Nucleotide with ribose PEBC Preparation E. H2O2 II. Cytotoxicity II.R. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 330. C. D. Peroxidase III. T virgin cells A. E. Influenza A III. D. Ampiphilic A. E. D.41 328.L. E. An example of type IV hypersensitivity reactions is mediated by IgE : I. D. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above anti bodies enter fetal 333. C.2005 . The anti body with longest serum half life is: A. D. B. B. The oxidative release of which of the following substance causes formation of toxic hypochlorous acid : I. D. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above contain the following 331. DNA fragment: A. Which type of (immunoglobulin) can circulation A. B. Bronchial constriction III. B. 335. TH cells III. C. C. IgA IgG IgD IgE IgM 332. Contact dermatitis A. D. In solution zwitter ion exhibit the following properties : I. IgA IgG IgD IgE IgM 334. B. E. B. Influenza B A. E. C. T cells that are released from thymus gland into circulation are: I. Hepatitis B II. D. B. E. E. Memory B cells II. B. Preventive vaccine available for the following condition I. C. As a result of zwitter ion amino acid solution. C. Anionic II. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 329. Oxygen A. Cationic III. C.

Hyperkalemia II. An unconscious patient is bought into the emergency department. Hypokalemia A. c DNA recombinant DNA reverse transcriptase restrictive endonulease <<<< 340. B. Activated charcoal administration III. HIV viruses has special enzymes that form DNA in host. B. Lysosome Nucleus Vacuoles Mitochondria Chromosomes I. Non of the above 336. Decrease absorption of the drugs by adsorption A. The patient is given 50 ml of 50% dextrose in water. E. Charcoal used as antidote in overdose of chemicals and drugs. C. How treated: I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above is acetaminophen toxicity 337. Influenza II. Heroin << << << << 343. D. D. D. charcoal effects as: I. E. E.L. E.R. which of the following is that enzyme: A.2005 . C. Which of the following vaccines are given in geriatrics: I. Pnumoccocus III. D. C. Increase the clearance of the drugs and chemicals from GIT III. E. Increase the enzymatic degradation of the chemicals in GIT II. thiamine 100 ml IV followed by nalaxone 1mg . Verapamil III. E. B. Administration of N-acetylcystein for hepatotoxicity A. the patient most likely overdose on which of the following: A. How do you treat benzodiazepine toxicity? PEBC Preparation E. C. D.42 E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 338. Genetic information storage place of eukaryotics is: A. D. D. C. B. C. C. 341. Meningoccocus A. E. Parenteral calcium used as antidote for which of the following: I. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 342. B. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 339. Gastric lavage within 2 hours II. B. B.

B. Salicylates toxicity of drug are treated by alkaline diuresis because: I. D. C. What are the common storage land of most biotechnological products such as tPA. and lyrokinase A. C. Tyrosine II. Administration of activated charcoal III. B. Increase absorption of salicylates because acid and base make neutral solution III.L. Enhance salicylates excretion I. B. C. B. E. B. D. Restrictive endonuclease A. B. Uracil Adenine Cytosine Guanine Thyamine 351. Alteplase Abciximab Interleukin-3 Beta serum Warfarin 346. E. D. Restrictive ribonuclease III. All of the following biotechnological products EXCEPT: A. What is not found in deoxyribose nucleic acid A. D. Enhance salicylates excretion A. B. IgM IgD IgG IgE IgA are 345.R. C. Administration flumzenil. D. a competitive benzodiazepine antagonist A. E. C. I Only B. E. C. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above Most common antibody: A. Decrease re absorption III. Salicylates toxicity of drug are treated by alkaline diuresis because: I. Decrease absorption of salicylates II.2005 . Interleukin A. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 347. D. Decrease absorption of salicylates II. Perform gastric lavage II. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above A. Glycoproteins are linked to: 344. D.43 I. Streptokinase. III Only PEBC Preparation E. E. 349. E. Insulin II. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 350. E. Cool pace 2-8◦ C 348. C. Enzyme that clears DNA at a specific site called: I. Gonadotropin III.

C. C-DNA III. OH I. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above I. < E. C. H2O2 II. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above A. Methotrexate A. C. B. C. B. Proteins III. Which of the following molecules form free radicals: I. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above menton constant) 353. Which of the following is / are free radical: I. II And III Only E. << 358. D. Carbohydrates II. Which deficiency. B. C. << C. All Of the above 352. rDNA A. O2 III. Sulfonamide III. Isoniazide II. D. B. Lack of intrinsic factor cause: A. E. Penicillamine III. Vit B12 deficiency B. Fatty acid peroxidation result in free radicals II. D. Blood fats A. Which is recombinant DNA: 356. E. I.44 C. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above Which drug cause Vit B6 deficiency 359. R-DNA II. D. B. 355.L. E. H2O2 and other peroxide produce free radicals III. E. D. E. B. E. D. First order Second order Zero order Second order kinetic << Lecithins are: 357. E. 354. I and II Only D. C. Isoniazide II.R. D. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above drugs cause folic acid I. Methotrexate A. C. B. Oxygen producing free radicals A. Km (Michael lower that V max: A.2005 . << D. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above PEBC Preparation E.

B. E.R. Which of the following can form free radical: I. B. A 33 years old woman receive long term and her dose treatment of sulfamethoxazole after 2 weeks of treatment she has low grade of fever. IgA IgG IgD IgE IgM 362. Vit. < 4000 to 11000 > 4000 to 11000 Equal to 400 to 11000 << << 368. Type I Type II Type III Type IV Type V 366. B.2005 . Which of the following is the major WBC? PEBC Preparation E. D. C. B. E. All of the following are immune system related organs EXCEPT: A. D. Private ownership 364. C. Local anesthetic benzocaine with caffeine form the following products: A. K A. OH A. C. E. B. These symptoms indicate which of the following type of hypersensitivity reactions? A. A patient with inflammation and infection his WBC count is: A. The antibody with the longest serum half life: A. B. D. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 365. rash. Vit. C. D. B12 II. B. Vit. E. Incorporation B. D. Which of the following vitamins contain aminolone I. Lymph Thymus Thyroid Appendix Spleen 367. D. Dipole – Dipole Ion – Dipole Complexation Ion –Ion Non of the above 363. E. E. C. Eosinophil Neutrophil Basophil Platelet Monocytes 361. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above A. O2 III. E.L. C III. D. H2O2 II. C. E.45 360. All are business forms in Canada EXCEPT: A. C. B. muscle and joint pain. D. C.

is the financial statement mainly contain the following information: I. XX D. Cooperative E. A. E. Liabilities A. C. B. Which form of business enterprise is most profitable A. Which is the fastest and the effective way of promotion A. XX E. The most important factors in location analysis should be focused on a: A. B.L. C.2005 . Direct contact with customer in high frequency hours D. D. C. The following is most important factor in an effort to start pharmacy: A. What is POS means. Sole proper ship << << . Direct mailing C. E. D. B.< << 371. XX C. B. A. XX 372. Sales report III. B. B. D. and finally a site Parking area School area A. D. Leasing D. Market area analysis Region analysis Trading area. E. Which is the most effective media of promotion? Quality adjusted life years 11 11 11 11 373.46 C. C. E. Profit II. C. Salaries distribution Utilities Job distribution Product stock management OTC product price 370. Financial assessment Site of pharmacy Parking space Geographical location Neighborhood 374. E. << 378. D. B. C. Point of sale B. What is QALY means: 377. D. E. D. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 375. E. C. Balance sheet. Advertisement B. << E. << 369. Responsibility of pharmacy manager EXCEPT: PEBC Preparation E. Incorporation < < < < 376. Which form of business enterprise is most preferable: A.R.

Colon E. B. A. pH of the stomach is decreased by: 379. Drugs that are converted to salt form I. << 387. << III. D. B. << D. TV Radio Billboards Flyers Direct mailing C. Nuerotoxicity III. B. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above I. E. B. E. In which type of seizure there is break in the action of patient activity for long period: A. D. Osteoporosis A. D. E. Alter pharmacological effects III. B. 380. Stomach A. A. C. Entry of IV fluids in the dermis << << << << Necrosis: 381. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 384. C. Dead area of tissue surrounded by healthy tissue B. Rectum 383. D. C. A.R.2005 . C. E. B. HCl (hydrochloric acid) II. Tonic – clonic << << << << Chron`s Disease is disease of : 386. C. E. Alter drug bioavailability II. Substance obtained from inflamed tissue which induce inflammatory changes in normal tissue: PEBC Preparation E. D. Increase potency A. C. D. << A. D. << E. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 385. Which structure is not found in the dermis: A. << C. E. Small intestine B.L. Nephrotoxicity II. B.47 A. Duodenum D. Necrosin: 382. Nerves Fats Melanin Blood vessels << Hyperdermolysis: Tacrolimus is an immunosuppressant agent (FK506 or Prograft). C. main side effects: I.

D. Vitamin B12 III. Which vitamin is not present in neonate( new born): A. Spine I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 391. Oral supplement of Vitamin B12 C.R. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above Shoulder joint contain: PEBC Preparation E. E. C. Sickle cell anemia: I. C. Decrease in RBC size II. Oral supplement of iron E. D. E. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 389. Folic acid II. C. B. E.48 B. C. Main etiology is hereditary III. D. Cause by deficiency of vitamins A.2005 . 394. B. Thalassemia II. E.L. C. D. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above pernicious anemia can be treated by: A. The length of the blood vessels A. C. 396. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 390. D. C. Diet higher in vitamin B12 B. to: 392. I. E. La Place’s law describe the tension achieves in blood vessel wall to: I. D. B. D. E. Caused by iron deficiency A. D. Decrease in RBC III. Thyroid disorder A. Correct statement of mycrocytic anemia: I. E. A. Parenteral supplement of folic acid D. Parenteral supplement of vitamin B12 395. E. The interluminal pressure II. << << << << Necrobiosis: Gradual degradation in depth of tissue << << << << 393. I. The radius of blood vessels III. Vitamin A Vitamin D Vitamin K Vitamin C Vitamin E What is true about cystic fibrosis: pernicious anemia (PA) caused due I. B. B. Genetic etiology II. B. 388. Deficiency of iron causes sickle cell anemia A. C. B. Effects lungs and digestive system III.

The following have effectively used for prevention of traveler diarrhea I. E. Fresh vegetable salad A. E coli II. Fresh soft cheese III. 397. Vibro cholera 398. Bacteroid fragillis A. E. Cooked and unpeeled fruits II. The following unsafe food could cause traveler diarrhea I. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 403. B. Decrease of BUN A. Humerous III. E.2005 . B. I Only III Only I and II Only II and III Only PEBC Preparation E. C. Shigella sp. C. Preferred laxative used in elderly patients? I. The following pathogens commonly cause travelers diarrhea: I. Shigella Sp. Excess of BUN in blood II. E coli Aeromonas Sp. Which of the following most common causative organism for traveler diarrhea A. D. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above I. D. B. III. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 402. C.R. Salmonella Sp. II. E.Bismol A. B. E. B. D. D. I Only III Only I and II Only II and III Only All of the above What is azotemia? I. Ciprofloxacin and doxycyclin II. C. D. III. Scapula A. C. E. Cotrimoxazole III. Excess of creatinin clearance III.49 II. C. B. C. B. D. I Only III Only I and II Only II And III Only All Of the above 401. Doucsate sodium (emollient laxative) II. E. Erythromycin A. D. I Only III Only I and II Only II and III Only All of the above 399. The following have effectively used for prevention of traveler diarrhea: Ciprofloxacin and doxycyclin Cotrimoxazole Pepto .L. 400. B. Glycerin suppositories A. Lactulose III. C. D.

Remove cream by washing III. E. D. Hospital E. Use for all family members A. Longer duration of action Antacids are indicated for treatment Antacids have faster onset of action Antacids have better absorption Antacids have slower absorption Antacids have more effectiveness I. D. Estrogen deficiency A. Red eye II. C. The visual impulse is associated with photochemical transformation of: A. Society 408. B. C. Blurred vision III. B. D.R. In pharmacoeconomics considerations. C. C. Coefficient of variance II. B. B. Ocular pain A. B. What is the advantages of antacids over H2 Antagonists: A. Standard deviation A.2005 . E. C. E. Pharmacist B. I Only III Only I and II Only II and III Only All of the above 405. B. Which of the following counseling for permethrin 5%.50 E. B. Pharmacist advice the patient with eye problems to see the doctor in which of the following case: I. I Only III Only I and II Only II and III Only All of the above 407. E. the following aspects is the most important: A. D. I Only III Only I and II Only II and III Only All of the above 411. The size of the sample increase The size of the sample decrease The size of the sample does not change Non of the above 410. D. massage into skin from head to soles of feet’s II. Patient PEBC Preparation E. C. All of the above D. C. E. Retinal Retinol Retinoic acid Rhodopsin Non of the above 406. Doctor C. E. F. Range III. Race II.L. Which of the following aggravate osteoporosis: I. When standard error of the mean decrease: A. indicated in scabies treatment: I. Estrogen use oral contraceptive III. D. Which is include in standard data: 404. I Only III Only I and II Only II and III Only All of the above factors 409. Thoroughly. D.

A prescription contains a drug. 420. Act with honesty C. To do no harm E. B. B. D. Patient taking diphenhydramine as a sleep help should be advised : I. B. Ampicillin prescription changed to amoxicillin by doctor. C. E. Autonomy Beneficency Justice Veracity Honesty 413. C. All of the following pharmacoeconomics methods used to assess in term of cost and consequences EXCEPT: A. C. Pharmacist does not inform the patient regarding it and continue to dispense the prescription. Autonomy Beneficency Justice Veracity Honesty 417. Cost benefit analysis Cost utilizing analysis Cost minimization analysis Cost of illness Cost effective analysis 418. all should be said EXCEBT: A.2005 . 423. E. Impetigo is very communicable D. When concerning the parents of a 10 years old child with a prescription for Bacterioban to treat impetigo. What are the following ethical principle violated: A. Impetigo is common among children in this age B. S. Ethical principal of nonmaleficiency requires: A. C. B. To take 30 min before bed time III. which gives side effects to a patient. this substitution is called: A.R. To take tablet every day II. D. C.L. To do good PEBC Preparation E.51 412. Generic substitution Pharmaceutical substitution Therapeutic substitution Pharmaceutical alternate Brand name alternate a a a a 419. Oral medication do not work in impetigo treatment 414. E. Act with fairness 416. D. 415. 422. 421. Act with truthfulness B. E. Increasing the dose will increase the induction of sleep A. what ethical principle is violated? A. D. I Only III Only I and II Only II and III Only All of the above D. D. B. E. If a pharmacist dispensed a drug with different brand name than the prescription. Pyrogen is one of the agents that cause impetigo C.