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Fully developed, laminar flow of a viscous fluid (µ = 2.17 N·s/m2) flows between horizontal parallel plates 1-m long that are spaced 3.0-mm apart. The pressure drop is 1.25 kPa. Determine the volumetric flow rate (per unit width) through the channel (in m3/s m).

Approach:

Pressure drop can be calculated for this non-circular duct with the combination of Eq. 9-31 and Eq. 9-32 and using the hydraulic diameter. The velocity is unknown; once it is determined the volume flow rate can be calculated. We need to evaluate the friction factor. We combine all the expressions and solve for velocity.

Assumptions:

1. The system is steady.

Solution:

A HW or per unit width V W = V . Pressure drop can be calculated using the H Volume flow rate is V = V x = V hydraulic diameter: ∆P L V2 = hL = f ρg Dh 2 g

For fully develop laminar flow between infinite parallel plates, f = 96 Re = 96 µ ρ V h . Substituting this into D the pressure drop equation, simplifying, solving for the average velocity V: 2 2 Dh ∆P V = 96µ L The hydraulic diameter with W → ∞ , Dh = 4 Ax pwetted = 4 HW ⎡ 2 ( H + W ) ⎤ = 2 H = 2 ( 0.003m ) =0.006m ⎣ ⎦

V = 2 ( 0.006m ) (1.25 kN m 2 ) (1000 N kN )

2

96 ( 2.17 Ns m

2

) (1m )

=0.000432

m s

V = V = VHW A V m⎞ m2 m3 ⎛ = V = ⎜ 0.000432 ⎟ ( 0.006m ) =2.59×10-6 =2.59×10-6 H W s ⎠ s ms ⎝

Answer

9- 1

9-2

Journal bearings are constructed with concentric cylinders with a very small gap between the two cylinders; the gap is filled with oil. Because of the very small gap, the flow in the gap is laminar. Consider a sealed journal bearing with inner and outer diameters of 50- and 51-mm, respectively, and a length of 75 mm. The shaft (inner cylinder) rotates at 3000 RPM. At start-up the torque needed to turn the shaft is 0.25 N-m. Determine the viscosity of the oil (in N·s/m2). After an hour of operation will the torque have increased or decreased? Explain.

Approach:

Because the gap is small compared to the diameter, we can analyze the flow as if it were between infinite parallel plates. Viscosity is defined with Newton’s law of viscosity, Eq. 9-2.

Assumptions:

1. The system is steady. 2. The flow is fully developed between infinite parallel plates. 3. Properties are constant.

Solution:

Shear stress at a solid wall, using Newton’s law of viscosity, is: dV τ =µ dy Because we can analyze this flow as between infinite parallel plates, we know that with the inner shaft rotating and the outer shaft stationary, the velocity profile is linear, so the velocity gradient is; τ ( r2 − r1 ) V τ =µ µ= → r2 − r1 V Velocity is V = r1ω . Torque is ℑ = Fr1 = τ Ar1 . Substituting these expressions into the shear stress equation and solving for visocity: ℑ ( r2 − r1 ) ℑ ( r2 − r1 ) ℑ ( r2 − r1 ) µ= = = 2 2 Ar1 ω ( 2π r1 L ) r1 ω 2π Lr13ω

=

( 0.25 N m )( 0.0255m-0.025m )( 60s 1min ) Ns =0.054 2 3 m 2π ( 0.025m ) ( 0.075m )( 3000 rev min )( 2π rad rev )

Answer

Comments:

After an hour of operation, torque will decrease. Assuming that the bearing has little heat loss, the viscous friction will raise the oil temperature. Because viscosity for a liquid decreases with increasing temperature, torque will decrease with time.

9- 2

9-3

Consider laminar water flow at 20 °C between two very large horizontal plates. The lower plate is stationary and the upper plate moves to the right at a velocity of 0.25 m/s. For a plate spacing of 2 mm, determine the pressure gradient and its direction required to produce zero net flow at a cross section.

Approach:

Because the plates are very large, we assume the flow is fully developed between infinite parallel plates. For this flow, we can perform an analysis similar to what was done in Section 9.3 for flow in a circular tube to find the relationship between flow and pressure gradient.

Assumptions:

1. 2. 3. The system is steady. The flow is fully developed between infinite parallel plates. Properties are constant.

Solution:

For steady, fully developed flow, conservation of momentum in the x-direction reduces to: ∑ Fx = 0 Evaluating the forces on the differential element shown above: P A1 − P2 A2 + τ T AT − τ B AB = 0 1

With length, dx, along the channel and a width W: P (Wdx ) − P2 (Wdy ) + τ T (Wdx ) − τ B (Wdx ) = 0 1 The width cancels. Shear stress at a solid wall, using Newton’s law of viscosity, is: Therefore,

τ =µ

dV dy

τT = µ

d VT dy

and

τB = µ

d VB dy

Substituting into the force balance and simplifying:

( P1 − P2 ) dy − µ

dP d2 V =µ dx dy 2

d VT d VB dx + µ dx = 0 dy dy

( d VT dy − d VB dy ) P − P2 1 =µ dx dy

V =

→

**Recognizing that for fully developed flow, dP dx = constant , we separate variables and integrate twice:
**

1 dP 2 y + C1 y + C2 2µ dx The boundary conditions are: 1) at y = 0, V = 0; 2) at y = b, V = Vw Applying the boundary conditions: 1 dP 2 2) VW = b + C1b 1) 0 = 0 + 0 + C2 so C2 = 0 2µ x

so C1 =

VW b dP − b 2µ x

Substituting into the general velocity equation and simplifying:

V =

1 dP 2 y ( y − by ) + VW b 2µ dx

Flow rate is obtained by integration: b ⎛ 1 dP bW y b3W V =∫V =∫V dA Wdy = ∫ ⎜ ( y 2 − by ) + VW b ⎞Wdy = −12µ dP + VW2 ⎟ 0 2 µ dx dx ⎝ ⎠ Solving this equation for zero flow ( V = 0 ) and from Appendix A-6 for water at 20 ºC, µ = 9.85 × 10−4 Ns m 2

-4 2 dP 6 µ VW 6 ( 9.85×10 Ns m ) ( 0.25 m s ) N = = =369 2 2 dx mm b2 0.002m ) (

Answer

Pressure must increase in the x-direction to obtain zero flow. 9- 3

4 lbm ft 3 ) ( 2. Therefore.87 ) ( 62.26 ft s ) ⎛ ⎛ 15 ⎞ ⎛ P − P2 = ( 0. ⎝ For the manometer. The oil has a specific gravity of 0.4 3 ⎟ ⎜ 32.5 2 fts ⎠ ⎝ 32. pipe shown below. ⎠ in.4 ft lbm ) ( 4.2ft lbm ⎠ ⎝ 12in. 3.2 2 ⎟ ( -15ft ) + (1. Determine the manometer defection. oil flows downward at 6 gal/min. Properties are constant.4 lbm ft )( 32. Assumptions: 1.9-4 In the ¾-in. 2.4 lbm fts µ For fully developed laminar flow in a straight circular tube: Substituting this into the pressure drop equation: f = 64 Re = 64 37 = 1.2 ft s2 )( 62.0625ft ) 2 =4.87 ) ⎜ 62. The flow is fully developed.9-0.87 ) Answer 9. and minor losses are neglected.73) ⎜ 1 ⎟ ( 0. Approach: The pressure drop between points 1 and 2 can be calculated with the steady.1ft g ( ρm − ρo ) ( 32. There is no pump or turbine.0625 ⎠ ⎝ lbm ⎞ ⎛ lbf s 2 ⎞ ⎛ 1 ⎞ lbf ⎛ = ⎜178.4 3 ⎟ ft ⎠ ⎝ s ⎠ ft ⎠ 2 ⎝ ⎝ 0.36 ft s The Reynolds number is: Re = 3 D ( 0. h (in ft).87 ) ⎜ 62. The velocity is V = P − P2 = ρ g ( z2 − z1 ) + f 1 V 4V = = A π D2 L V2 ρ D 2 4 ( 6 gal min ) ( 0. so V1 = V2 .87 and a dynamic viscosity of 0.300 lbm fts + ( 0.36ft s )( 0. The system is steady. The specific gravity of the manometer fluid is 2.0625ft ) ρV = = 37 0. incompressible flow energy equation.2 ft s ) (15ft ) 1 = =50.87 ) ( 62. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g The areas at 1 and 2 are equal. The manometer equation is used to calculate the manometer deflection once the pressure drop is determined.300 2 ⎟ ⎜ ⎟⎜ ⎟ =38. stepping through the various legs: P − PA = 0 1 PA − PB = − ρ o ghAB PB − PC = 0 PC − PD = + ρ m ghCD PD − PE = 0 PE − PF = − ρ o ghEF PF − P2 = 0 P − P2 = − ρ o ghAB + ρ m ghCD − ρ o ghEF = − ρ o g ( hAB + hEF ) + ρ m ghCD 1 2 Substituting into the manometer equation: P − P2 = − ρ o g ( L + hCD ) + ρ m ghCD 1 hCD = From the geometry of the manometer and pipe: L = hAB − hCD + hEF → hAB + hEF = L + hCD 2 3 2 P − P2 + ρ o gL 178. Solution: The steady.1337 ft 3 gal ) (1min 60s ) π ( 0.9. so hP = hT = 0 .4 lbm/ft·s.4 .73 2 lbm ⎞ ⎛ ft ⎞ lbm ⎞ ( 4.

h (in ft). 2.87 ) ⎜ 62.87 ) ( 62. ⎝ For the manometer.0625 ⎠ ⎝ lbm ⎞ ⎛ lbf s 2 ⎞ ⎛ 1 ⎞ lbf ⎛ = ⎜ 230.1ft = g ( ρm − ρo ) ( 32.700 lbm fts .73) ⎜ 1 ⎟ ( 0. The manometer equation is used to calculate the manometer deflection once the pressure drop is determined.5 . There is no pump or turbine.700 2 ⎟ ⎜ ⎟⎜ ⎟ =49. The system is steady.2 ft s2 )( 62.2 2 ⎟ (15ft ) + (1. so V1 = V2 .87-2. determine the manometer deflection.( 0. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g The areas at 1 and 2 are equal.4 ft lbm ) ( 4.0625ft ) = = 37 µ 0. Solution: The steady. Approach: The pressure drop between points 1 and 2 can be calculated with the steady.8 2 fts ⎠ ⎝ 32. Therefore. 3.4 lbm ft )( 32.87 ) ⎜ 62. Properties are constant. Assumptions: 1.9-5 In Problem P 9-4 if the flow is upward instead of downward.26 ft s ) ⎛ ⎛ 15 ⎞ ⎛ P − P2 = ( 0. 9.2ft lbm ⎠ ⎝ 12in. incompressible flow energy equation. so hP = hT = 0 . and minor losses are neglected.4 lbm ft 3 ) ( 0. The velocity is V = P − P2 = ρ g ( z2 − z1 ) + f 1 V 4V = = A π D2 L V2 ρ D 2 4 ( 6 gal min ) ( 0.73 2 lbm ⎞ ⎛ ft ⎞ lbm ⎞ ( 4.1337 ft 3 gal ) (1min 60s ) π ( 0.4 3 ⎟ ft ⎠ ⎝ s ⎠ ft ⎠ 2 ⎝ ⎝ 0.0625ft ) 2 =4.9 ) Answer Comments: The minus sign indicates the manometer deflection is in the opposite direction than what is shown in the figure.87 ) ( 62. stepping through the various legs: P − PA = 0 1 PA − PB = + ρ o ghAB PB − PC = 0 PC − PD = − ρ m ghCD PD − PE = 0 PE − PF = + ρ o ghEF PF − P2 = 0 P − P2 = ρ o ghAB − ρ m ghCD + ρ o ghEF = ρ o g ( hAB + hEF ) − ρ m ghCD 1 2 Substituting into the manometer equation: P − P2 = ρ o g ( L + hCD ) − ρ m ghCD 1 hCD = From the geometry of the manometer and pipe: L = hAB − hCD + hEF → hAB + hEF = L + hCD 2 3 2 P − P2 + ρ o gL 230.4 lbm fts For fully developed laminar flow in a straight circular tube: Substituting this into the pressure drop equation: f = 64 Re = 64 37 = 1.4 3 ⎟ ⎜ 32.36 ft s The Reynolds number is: Re = 3 ρV D ( 0. ⎠ in. The flow is fully developed.36ft s )( 0.2 ft s ) (15ft ) 1 =-50.

4×10-6 m 2 s = 0. Assumptions: 1. 2.83×10-5 2 ⎟ 2π ( 0.055m )( 3600 rev min )(1min 60s )( 2π rad rev ) ( 5×10-7 m ) 15. Power is torque times rotational speed. For air at 25 °C.055m ) ⎢⎛ ⎜ ⎟ ⎜ ⎟ b m ⎠ 5×10-7 m s ⎥ ⎝ Nm ⎠ ⎝ ⎣⎝ 60 ⎠ ⎦ =1. Eq. 9.01m ) rad ⎤ ⎛ 1Ws ⎞ 2 ⎡ 3600 ⎞ W =µ r ω = ⎜1. and torque is forces times distance. Approach: Reynolds number can be obtained from its definition.5µm) film of air. 9-2. The force is caused by the shear stress.83 × 10−5 Ns m 2 Re = ( 0. the power required to overcome the viscous shear (in W). Shear forces on other parts of the rotating disk would increase the power required to spin the disk.01m )( 0.57W Answer Comments: This is only part of the power required to spin the disk. and assuming the flow is similar to that between infinite parallel plates.4 × 10−6 m 2 s .9-6 Data are read from and written to spinning computer disks (3600 rpm) by small read-write heads that float above the disk on a thin (0. Assuming Newtonian flow between parallel walls with one wall moving and using Newton’s law of viscosity: dV V rω τ =µ =µ =µ dy b b Substituting all the expressions into the power expression and simplifying: 2 LD 2 2 ⎛ Ns ⎞ ( 0. Properties are constant. 3. which can be determined with Newton’s law of viscosity. The system is steady.67 b) Power is defined as: W = ℑω Torque is ℑ = Fr = τ Ar = τ LDr . Solution: a) The Reynolds number is defined as: ρV V b b = Re = µ υ Velocity is V = rω . µ = 1.6 . and air viscosity from Appendix A-7 at 25 ºC is υ = 15. The flow is fully developed between infinite parallel plates. determine: a. the Reynolds number based on the gap dimension b. Consider a 10-mm by 10-mm head located 55 mm from the disk centerline.

and shear stress. Clearly state the velocity boundary conditions at the belt surface and at the free surface. Note there is no net pressure force. and zero shear stress at the outer film surface where air contacts it. The flow is fully developed between infinite parallel plates. Approach: The amount of oil that is picked up by the moving belt is a result of a force balance between gravity. is: ∑ Fx = 0 = τ T AT − τ B AB − dW where the weight is W = ρVg . 2. A film with thickness h forms on the belt. Assumptions: 1. from the surface of water. but the upward belt velocity is such that net liquid is transported upward. Atmospheric pressure acts all along the surface of the oil. and then we integrate it to find volume flow rate. which causes the oil to flow downward. such as oil. As shown on the diagram below. so d V dy = 0 ρg h + C1 µ V = → C1 = − ρg h µ Therefore: ⎞ ρ g y2 ρ g ρ g ⎛ y2 − hy + VB = ⎜ − hy ⎟ + VB µ 2 µ µ ⎝ 2 ⎠ Volume flow rat is 2 ⎤ h h ⎡ ρg ⎛ y ⎞ V =∫V =∫ V dA Ddy = ∫ ⎢ ⎜ − hy ⎟ + VB ⎥ Ddy 0 0 ⎠ A ⎣ µ ⎝ 2 ⎦ 3 V ρ gh =− + VB h Answer 3µ D 9. Determine an expression for the velocity profile and flow rate. 3. a continuous belt moves upward at velocity Vo through the fluid and the more viscous liquid (with density ρ and viscosity µ) adheres to the belt. Letting D be the depth of the plane into the page: τ T Ddx − τ B Ddx − ρ Ddxdyg = 0 Canceling Ddx and rearranging: τT − τ B dy = ρg dτ = ρg dy dV dy dτ d ⎛ dV ⎞ d2 V = ⎜µ = ρg ⎟=µ dy dy ⎝ dy ⎠ dy 2 d V ρg ρ g y2 V = y + C1 → = + C1 y + C2 dy µ µ 2 Recognizing the left hand side is a derivative: Using Newton’s law of viscosity Separating variables and integrating twice: Boundary conditions are: 1) at y = 0.7 . Solution: A force balance in the x-direction on the differential element shown above. laminar. Use a differential analysis similar to that used for fully developed laminar flow through an inclined pipe. We apply a force balance in the x-direction to obtain the velocity profile. which causes the oil to flow upward. and the infinitesimal difference in hydrostatic pressure is negligible.9-7 Skimmers are used to remove viscous fluids. Properties are constant. V = VB Applying the boundary conditions: VB = 0 + 0 + C2 → C2 = VB 0= τ =µ → 2) at y = h there is no shear. with zero pressure gradient. Gravity tends to drain the liquid. The system is steady. assuming fully developed laminar flow with constant properties. Assume the flow is fully developed.

The system is steady.85×10-4 Ns m 2 ) 3 Answer 9. Approach: The water flows down the inclined plane due to the influence of gravity. 2.9-8 Consider a fully developed laminar flow of 20 °C water down an inclined plane that is 20° to the horizontal. Using a differential analysis similar to that used for fully developed laminar flow through an inclined pipe. The water thickness is 1-mm.001m ) ( Ns kgm ) m3 = =0.2 kg m3 3 2 o 2 V ( 998.85 × 10−4 Ns m 2 . A force balance between gravity and shear forces is solved to find the velocity profile. and the infinitesimal difference in hydrostatic pressure is negligible. assuming fully developed laminar flow with constant properties. V = 0 Applying the boundary conditions: 0 = 0 + 0 + C2 → C2 = 0 0=− ρg dV =− sin θ + C1 µ dy 2) → V =− ρg y2 sin θ + C1 y + C2 2 µ at y = h there is no shear.8 . Solution: A force balance in the x-direction on the differential element shown above. Assumptions: 1. so d V dy = 0 ρg sin θ h + C1 µ V =− → C1 = ρg sin θ h µ Therefore: ⎛ ρg y2 ρ g ρg y2 ⎞ + sin θ sin θ hy = sin θ ⎜ hy − ⎟ 2 2 ⎠ µ µ µ ⎝ Volume flow rate is h h ⎡ ρg ⎛ y 2 ⎞⎤ V =∫V =∫ V dA Ddy = ∫ ⎢ ⎜ ty − ⎟ ⎥Ddy 0 0 2 ⎠⎦ A ⎣ µ ⎝ V ρ g sin θ h3 = D 3µ For water at 20 ºC from Appendix A-6. 3. µ = 9. Properties are constant. and the air exerts zero shear on the water. Atmospheric pressure acts all along the surface of the oil. and then integrated to find the volume flow rate. ρ = 998. The flow is fully developed. Note there is no net pressure force. Letting D be the depth of the plane into the page: τ T Ddx − τ B Ddx + ρ Ddxdyg sin θ = 0 Canceling Ddx and rearranging: τT − τ B dy = − ρ g sin θ dτ = − ρ g sin θ dy Recognizing the left hand side is a derivative: Using Newton’s law of viscosity d ⎛ dV ⎞ d V = − ρ g sin θ ⎜µ ⎟=µ dy ⎝ dy ⎠ dy 2 2 τ = µ d V dy Separating variables and integrating twice: Boundary conditions are: 1) at y = 0.81m s ) sin ( 20 ) ( 0.2 kg m )( 9.00113 D sm 3 ( 9. determine the volume flow rate per unit width (in m3/s m). is: ∑ Fx = 0 = τ T AT − τ B AB + dW sin θ where the weight is W = ρVg . The water is exposed to atmosphere everywhere.

The flow is fully developed laminar flow.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 ) ( 0.6 kg m3 ) ( 0.8 ρD s 999.05m )(10. the required air pressure for the maximum flow if the pressure at the end of the needle must be 105 kPa (in kPa). Properties are constant. 3. If the flow must remain laminar in the hypodermic needle.25 mm and length 50 mm). 2.6 kg m3 : V = −4 2 2 µ Re (12.) Approach: Using a transition Reynolds number of 2100 and the Reynolds number definition. we can calculate the maximum allowable velocity and.30×10-7 s ⎠ 4 s ⎝ Answer b) From Eq. (Assume fully developed flow. Assumptions: 1. hence. to calculate the required air pressure. The device uses compressed air to drive the plunger in a piston-cylinder assembly that will push the drug (viscosity and density similar to water at 10 °C) through the hypodermic needle (inside diameter 0. and water properties from Appendix A-6 at 10 ºC. which relates pressure drop and velocity. Solution: a) Volume flow rate is defined as: V = V x = V π D2 4 A Reynolds number is defined as: ρV D Re = µ Using Re = 2100 for the transition between laminar and turbulent flow.00025m ) = 105kPa+357kPa=462kPa Answer 9.00025m ) ( 2 m ⎞ π ( 0. µ = 12. 9-13.8 ⎟ =5.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 .00025m ) m3 ⎛ V = ⎜ 10. the maximum flow possible (in cm3/s) b. We can use Eq. ρ = 999. The system is steady.9 .8 m s )(1kN 1000N ) 32 µ L V P2 = P + = 105kPa+ 1 2 D2 ( 0. 9-13 for a horizontal flow: 8µ L V 32µ L V ∆P = = R2 D2 32 (12.9-9 A biomedical device start-up company is developing a liquid drug injection device. determine: a.9 × 10 Ns m ) ( 2100 ) ( kgm Ns ) m = =10. flow rate.

0679m µ= π ( 0. calculate the Reynolds number. Approach: With the given information. A flow of 1 cm3/s is obtained when the pressure drop is 65 kPa.122×10-3 Ns m 2 ) ( 0. and then calculate viscosity and compare to the guessed value. Determine: a.00075m ) ( 65 kN m 2 ) (100 cm m ) (1000 N 1kN ) 4 3 128 ( 0. Laminar entrance length can be estimated with Eq. Properties are constant.080m Answer Therefore. The system is steady. 9-13 can be used to calculate the liquid viscosity. and the pressure drop and flow rate are measured. If the flow is fully developed.122 × 10−3 Ns m 2 Reynolds number is defined as: Re = Re = ρV D 4 ρV and V = µ π D2 3 → =1392 Re = 4 ρV πµ D 4 ( 0.00075m ) 4 3 Lent = 0.065 ReD ent ∆Ptot = ∆Pent + ∆Pfully developed π D 4 ∆Ptot 32 µV ⎛ 32µ Lent V ⎞ 32 µ ( L − Lent ) V 32µV 2 Lent + L − Lent ) = L + L) µ = ∆Ptot = 2 ⎜ = ⎟+ 2 2 2 ( 2 ( ent D D D D 128 ( Lent + L ) V ⎝ ⎠ Because the entrance length is a function of Reynolds number.45m ) (1cm s ) 3 =1. Consider the flow of a liquid (SG = 0. 9-39 Lent = 0. in which a laminar flow is maintained in a small diameter tube. If entrance effects are present. 2. then Eq. which depends on viscosity. the viscosity if the pressure drop in the entrance length is twice that for the same length of fully developed flow (in N·s/m2). so continuing the iteration until it converges: µ = 0. The flow is laminar.122 × 10 −3 − 9.00075m ) =0.9-10 The viscosity of liquids is measured with a capillary viscometer. Eq. and solving for viscosity: µ= π D 4 ∆P 128LV = π ( 0.953 × 10−4 Ns m 2 Re = 1640 Lent = 0.53 × 10 −4 error= × 100 = 17. entrance effects often are present. Assumptions: 1. 9-39. Guess µ = 1.53 × 10−4 9. and that corrected length used in Eq.10 .92 ) (1000 kg m 3 )(1cm3 s ) (1m 100cm ) ( Ns 2 kgm ) π (1. the error caused if entrance effects are not taken into account is: 1. calculate the entrance length. combining these three equations.75×10-4 Ns m2 This does not match the guessed value.00075m ) ( 65 kN m 2 ) (100 cm m ) (1000 N 1kN ) 128 ( 0. an iterative solution is required. 9-13 is used to calculate the viscosity. 9-13.7% Answer 9.0679m ) (1cm s ) 3 =9. However. 3. a correction to the effective length of the tube must be made.45m+0. the viscosity if the flow is fully developed (in Ns/m2) b. 9-13: ∆P = 8µ L V R 2 = 32µ L V D 2 Noting that A = π D 2 4 .75-mm in diameter. The procedure is: guess the viscosity.122×10-3 Ns m2 Answer b) If entrance effects are taken into account (assuming ∆Pent = 2∆Pwithout ) and from Eq. Solution: V = V x = V π D2 4 A a) Volume flow rate is defined as: Pressure drop for laminar flow of a Newtonian fluid in a circular tube is obtained from Eq.92) through a tube 450-mm long and 0.065 (1392 )( 0.

Solution: A Volume flow rate is defined as: V = V x = V π D 2 4 Pressure drop for fully developed laminar flow of a Newtonian fluid in a circular tube is obtained from Eq.005m ) ( Ns 2 kgm ) 0. the volume flow rate is: 2 m ⎞ π ( 0.( 0.46×10-6 V = ⎜ 0. the depth of oil in the reservoir is negligible compared to the tube length.227 m s )( 0. Using this information and solving for velocity: − ρ g sin θ D 2 V = 32 µ Note that in the development of Eq. so the negative sign indicates a downward flow.003 Ns m )( kgm Ns ) 2 Answer Checking the Reynolds number: ρV D 4 ρV and V = Re = µ π D2 Re = → Re = 4 ρV πµ D =329 ( 0.227 V = 2 2 32µ s 32 ( 0. Determine the volumetric flow rate of the oil (in cm3/s). so we will apply it directly.87 ) (1000 kg m 3 ) ( 0. With atmospheric pressure at the surface of the reservoir and at the exit of the tube. Approach: Flow is caused by a balance between gravity. Therefore.003 N·s/m2) to the tool and workpiece. Because that equation uses the average velocity. 3. ∆P = 0 . Equation 9-13 was developed for this situation.005m ) m = =0. Properties are constant. The system is steady. so our assumption checks out. The flow is fully developed and laminar.003 Ns m 2 This is laminar flow.87. Using the given information: 3 o − ρ g sin θ D 2 . volume flow rate is obtained easily from its definition. the x-direction was in opposition to the gravity force.227 ⎟ s ⎠ 4 s ⎝ Answer 9.87 ) (1000 kg m ) sin ( 90 ) ( 0. The pressure is atmospheric at the exit of the tube and at the surface of the reservoir. and shear stress/viscosity forces. 9-13: 8µ L V 32µ L V ∆P = + ρ gL sin θ = + ρ gL sin θ 2 R D2 For the present problem θ = 90o . µ = 0.11 . 9-13. 2.005m ) m3 ⎛ =4. in addition. pressure.9-11 A machine tool manufacturer is considering using gravity flow to supply cutting oil (SG = 0. Assumptions: 1. The vertical 5-mm diameter tube connecting the oil reservoir to the workpiece is very long so the flow can be assumed fully developed.

There is no pump or turbine. The manometer indicates that P2 < P . determine: a. whether the flow is laminar or turbulent d. Solution: a) Hydrostatic pressure increases farther down in a fluid. so our assumption is valid.4 ft lbm ) ( 5.0562 ) 64 f = → µ= = = 0. pipe with a volumetric flow rate of 4 ft2/min. the friction factor c. → f = From the definition of volume flow rate. d) The steady.82) flowing in a 1. the oil viscosity (in lbm/ft s). and the distance from the upper pressure tap to the same height in the mercury is 4 ft.125ft )( 0.. using a correlation for the friction factor.2 ft s ) ⎡ ρ 2 Dg ⎡ 13. the flow direction b.6).82 ) ( 62.43ft s )( 0.12 . Approach: Flow direction can be determined by inspection. 9. incompressible flow energy equation. The system is steady.82 ) ( 62. so hP = hT = 0 . and the friction factor can be calculated using the steady. c. The manometer fluid is mercury (SG = 13.0305lbm fts Answer 64 64 Re Check the Reynolds number: Re = 3 ρV D ( 0.0305lbm fts µ which is laminar.125ft ) ( 32. calculating the viscosity.33ft ) +2ft+2ft ⎥ =0. Properties are constant.43 2 s A π D2 π ( 0. 2. Assumptions: 1. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g P − P2 L V2 1 + ( z1 − z2 ) = f ρo g D 2g V = Answer The areas at 1 and 2 are equal. is used to measure the pressure drop of oil (SG = 0. Whether the flow is laminar or turbulent must be determined by assuming one or the other.4 ft lbm ) ( 5.125ft ) ⎤ 2 Dg ⎡ P − P2 1 + ( z1 − z2 ) ⎥ 2 ⎢ L V ⎣ ρo g ⎦ For pressure drop.0562 ρo LV 2 ⎣ ⎦ ( 25ft )( 5. with pressure taps 25 ft apart.9-12 A manometer. From the lower pressure tap to the surface of the mercury highest in the manometer is 2 ft. b. using the manometer equation and stepping through the various legs: P − PA = − ρ o gh1 A 1 PA − PB = 0 PB − PC = ρ m ghBC PC − P2 = ρ o ghC 2 P − P2 = − ρ o gh1 A + ρ m ghBC + ρ o ghC 2 1 Substituting this into the friction factor expression: 2 ⎤ 2 ( 0. the velocity is 4 ( 4 ft 3 min ) (1min 60s ) V 4V ft = = =5.5-in.82 ( 0. Therefore. The only way 1 this could occur would be if flow was from point 1 to point 2 with friction losses. The manometer equation is used to calculate the pressure drop. so V1 = V2 .6 ⎤ f = −h1 A + m hBC + hC 2 + ( z1 − z2 ) ⎥ = ⎢ 2 ⎢ -4.43ft s )( 0.125ft ) = = 1140 0. 3. The flow is fully developed. For a manometer deflection of 4 in.43ft s ) ⎣ ⎦ Assuming the flow is fully developed laminar flow: 3 ρV Df ( 0. and then checking the Reynolds number.33ft+ 0. and minor losses are neglected.

and letting A1 = A2 = 2 Dy.13 . 3. and m = ρ D 2 yL : dV DL − ρ L 2 yDg sin θ = 0 dy Canceling 2D. which is similar to that in a circular tube. dy = d ( H − n ) = − dn . assuming fully developed laminar flow with constant properties. Solution: A force balance in the x-direction on the differential element shown above. y = H − n → τ = µ d V dn where n is the direction from the wall. The system is steady. A force balance on a differential element is used to determine the velocity profile. Substituting these expressions into the force balance. Properties are constant. Approach: Flow through this infinite parallel plate channel results from a balance among viscous. Assumptions: 1.3 for a circular tube. similar to what was done for the circular tube. and simplifying: P − P2 µ dV 1 − ρ g sin θ = − L y dy Separating variables and integrating: 2 1 ⎡P − P 1 ⎡P − P ⎤ ⎤y V = − ⎢ 1 2 − ρ g sin θ ⎥ + C1 − ∫ ⎢ 1 2 − ρ g sin θ ⎥ ydy = ∫ d V → µ ⎣ L µ⎣ L ⎦ ⎦ 2 The boundary condition is: at y = H. As = DL. 9. The flow is fully developed. and gravity forces. pressure.9-13 Develop an expression for the velocity profile for fully developed laminar flow between stationary infinite parallel plates. V = 0 . Applying the boundary condition: 2 1 ⎡P − P ⎤H C1 = ⎢ 1 2 − ρ g sin θ ⎥ µ⎣ L ⎦ 2 Therefore: 2 1 ⎡ P − P2 H 2 ⎡ P − P2 ⎤ ⎤⎡ ⎛ y ⎞ ⎤ 1 1 − ρ g sin θ ⎥ ( H 2 − y 2 ) = − ρ g sin θ ⎥ ⎢1 − ⎜ ⎟ ⎥ V =− 2µ ⎢ L 2µ ⎢ L ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦⎢ ⎝ H ⎠ ⎥ ⎣ ⎦ ( P1 − P2 ) 2 Dy + 2µ Answer Comments: Note the parabolic velocity profile. is: ∑ Fx = 0 = P1 A1 − P2 A2 − 2τ As − mg sin θ Let D be the depth of the plane into the page: Using Newton’s law of viscosity To put this in terms of y (from the channel centerline). 2. Use an approach similar to that applied in Section 9.

2. a fluid (SG = 0. The gage pressure at the pipe inlet is 720 kPa. so V1 = V2 .14 . 9-41 directly to find head loss. There is no pump or turbine.88) ⎜1000 3 ⎟ ⎜ 9.4-15=68. Solution: The steady. Therefore.4m hL = ∑ kg ⎞ ⎛ m⎞ ⎛ ( 0. 3. Determine the head loss between the inlet and outlet (in m). Approach: We can use Eq. so hP = hT = 0 . incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g The areas at 1 and 2 are equal. The flow is fully developed. The system is steady.81 2 ⎟ m ⎠⎝ s ⎠ ⎝ ( 720-0 ) Answer 9. Properties are constant. ∑h L = P − P2 1 + ( z1 − z2 ) ρg kN ⎛ 1000kg m ⎞ ⎜ ⎟ m 2 ⎝ kN s 2 ⎠ + ( -15m ) =83. Neglect minor losses.003 m3/s. The pipe outlet is at atmospheric pressure and is 15 m above the inlet. 4. Assumptions: 1.9-14 In an inclined 50-mm diameter pipe.88) flows with a volumetric flow rate of 0. and minor losses are neglected.

and assuming the same total head loss.9-15 The pipe exit in Problem P 9-14 is lowered to the same elevation as the inlet.4m )( 0.88) ⎜1000 3 ⎟ ⎜ 9. 2. z1 = z2 . so V1 = V2 .81m s 2 )( kN s 2 1000kg m ) =591kPa Answer 1 ( 720-0 ) 9.81 2 ⎟ m ⎠⎝ s ⎠ ⎝ If the pipe is in a horizontal orientation. 4.4m hL = Answer ∑ kg ⎞ ⎛ m⎞ ⎛ ( 0. 3. solving the energy equation for P1: P = P2 + ∑ hL ρ g = 0 + ( 68. Neglect minor losses. Properties are constant. Determine the inlet pressure for this new condition (in kPa). for when the outlet is 15 m above the inlet ∑h L = P − P2 1 + ( z1 − z2 ) ρg kN ⎛ 1000kg m ⎞ ⎜ ⎟ m 2 ⎝ kN s 2 ⎠ + ( -15m ) =83. but this time we will determine the new inlet pressure.4-15=68. Therefore.15 .88 ) (1000 kg m3 )( 9. Solution: The steady. There is no pump or turbine. The flow is fully developed. The frictional head loss is the same in a horizontal pipe. The system is steady. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g The areas at 1 and 2 are equal. Approach: We can use the steady flow energy equation to find the head loss in the inclined pipe. and minor losses are neglected. with the same flow rate. so we can again use the steady flow energy equation. Assumptions: 1. so hP = hT = 0 .

For air from Appendix A-7 at 100 kPa.00466m of water = 4.11 6.169 kg m ) ( 6.9 ⎤ = −1.9 ⎤ ⎡⎛ 0 ⎞1.500 ⎥ f ⎢⎝ 3. The system is steady.16 . 25 ºC. 25 °C. the hydraulic diameter must be used: 4 ( 0.9-16 An air conditioning duct is 25-cm square and must convey 25 m3/min of air at 100 kPa. Velocity is : 3 V ( 25 m min ) (1min 60s ) m V = = =6.169 3 ⎟ ⎜ ⎟ =0.25m )( 0. Approach: Pressure drop is calculated directly with the steady.0176 ) ⎜ 1.25m ) D =106.83×10-5 Ns m 2 3 This is turbulent flow so with a smooth duct: ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1. Properties are constant.8log ⎢⎜ + = −1.25 ⎠ ⎝ ⎝ 1000kg m ⎠ Using the manometer equation ∆P = ρ w gh 2 Answer 2 2 ∆P ( 0. The flow is fully developed.66mm of water ρw g (1000 kg m3 )( 9.25m ) Because this is a non-circular duct.25m Dh = = 4 ( 0. 3. so hP = hT = 0 . µ = 1.169 kg m3 .67 A s ( 0.25m )( 0. The duct is smooth. 4. incompressible flow energy equation Assumptions: 1.05 mm. 2. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g The duct is constant area and horizontal.0457 kN m )(1000kgm 1kNs ) hP = = =0. Determine the pressure drop for 25-m of horizontal duct run (in kPa and mm of water).8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎥ → f = 0.67 m s ) ⎛ 1kN s 2 ⎞ ⎛ 25 ⎞ ⎛ P − P2 = ( 0.0176 ⎟ ⎟ + Re ⎥ 106. Solution: The steady. The duct is made of sheet metal that has a roughness of approximately 0. so V1 = V2 and z1 = z2 There is no pump or turbine.7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ Substituting known values into the pressure drop equation: kg ⎞ ( 6.25m ) 4 Ax =0.0457kPa 1 ⎟⎜ 2 m ⎠ ⎝ 0.11 1 6.67 m s )( 0. ρ = 1. and there are no minor losses: P − P2 L V2 L V2 1 = f → P − P2 = f ρ 1 D 2g D 2g ρg The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness.81m s2 ) Answer 9.83 × 10−5 Ns m 2 .25m ) Pwetted Re = ρ V h (1.7 ⎠ ⎢⎝ 3.500 = µ 1.

2 ft s 2 ) ( 7. Solution: The head loss due to minor losses is given by: V2 P −P hL = 1 2 hL = K L and 2g ρg Combining the expressions and solving for the loss coefficient: 2 ( P − P2 ) 1 KL = ρw V 2 4 ( 2 ft 3 s ) 4V ft V V = = The velocity in the upstream pipe is =10.5ft ) For the manometer.5 12 ft ) (10. The manometer deflection is 7. The flow is fully developed. stepping through the various legs: P − PA = − ρ w gh1 A 1 PA − PB = 0 PB − PC = ρ m ghBC PC − P2 = + ρ w ghC 2 P − P2 = − ρ w ghAB + ρ m ghBC + ρ w ghC 2 = − ρ w g ( hBC + hC 2 ) + ρ m ghBC + ρ w ghC 2 = ( ρ m − ρ w ) ghBC 1 Substituting this expression into the loss coefficient equation: 2 ( ρ m − ρ w ) ghBC 2 ( SGm − 1) ghBC KL = = ρw V 2 V2 KL = 2 (1. The system is steady. The pressure drop (head loss) can be determined from the manometer equation.5 in.9-17 A manufacturer develops a new type of flow control valve. 3.2 ft s ) 2 = 0.3-1) ( 32. The valve is installed in a 6-in. its loss coefficient must be determined. Before it can be advertised and sold.17 .3. The pressure drop is measured with a manometer whose fluid has a specific gravity of 1.116 Answer 9. Assumptions: 1. 2. Approach: We can use the definition of head loss for minor losses to calculate the loss coefficient. Determine the loss coefficient for the valve.2 = 2 2 s A πD π ( 0. pipe and 2 ft3/s of water flows through it. Properties are constant.

⎝ D ⎠ 2g ∑h L 2 P − P2 ⎛ L ⎞V 1 + ( z1 − z2 ) = ⎜ f + K ent + 2 K bend + 1⎟ ρg ⎝ D ⎠ 2g The friction factor depends on flow. Velocity is: 4 (V m3 s ) 4V m V =226.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎟ ⎟ + Re ⎥ Re ⎥ f ⎢⎝ 3.045mm . We assume the area at 1 large.5. so ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1. The pressure at 2 is the saturation pressure. from the saturated water table at 10 ºC.9 ⎤ 1 (3) = −1.5 + 173. 2.9-18 When pumping a fluid. so V1 ≈ 0 .23) kN m 2 (1000 kg m kN s 2 ) V2 13 ⎡ ⎤ + ( -5m ) = ⎢ f +0.075m ) For commercial steel pipe ε =0.4V = (1) V = = 2 2 s A πD π ( 0. The system is steady. incompressible flow energy equation.8log ⎢⎜ + ⎥ = −1. The flow is fully developed. 9. so an iterative solution is required.075m ) Re = = = 1.11 6. If the pressure does drop below the saturation pressure.0147 m3 s V = 3.23 kPa.11 6. Assumptions: 1. for an zero area ratio at the entrance Kent = 0. At point 2.6 kg m3 .23kPa . and for water from Appendix A-6 at 10 ºC. From Table 9-3. Psat (10 o C ) = 1. 200 Iterating on the four equations given above. we obtain: V = 0. From Figure 9-15. Solution: The steady. Hence. Kbend = 1. 3 ρV D ( 999. The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness. ρ = 999.3 f ) V 2 (4) Re = 19. so P1 = 101. Therefore. The pump manufacturer would specify the minimum required pressure. Consider the system shown below constructed of commercial steel pipe and threaded connections. determine the maximum possible flow rate without cavitation occurring (in m3/s).0271 Answer Comments: When the water enters the pump.045 75 ⎞1. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g atmospheric. µ = 12. Properties are constant. it accelerates more. Approach: Cavitation will occur if the pressure at point 2 falls below the saturation pressure of 10 ºC water.3-1.18 .5 ) +1⎥ ⎣ 0.075 ⎦ 2 ( 9.3 kPa. The losses include one entrance. so hT = hp = 0 .7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ Substituting known values into the pressure drop equation: (101.6 kg m )( 226. For water at 10 °C.6 kg m3 )( 9.33m s f = 0.7 ⎠ ⎢⎝ 3.5+2 (1.81m s 2 ) 102 = ( 4. the actual minimum pressure at 2 would need to be greater than 1.5. We can solve for the flow rate using the steady. and the pressure at 1 is 2 ⎛ L ⎞V = ⎜ f + K ent + 2 K bend ⎟ . for a regular 90º threaded bend. and line loss: There is no pump or turbine.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 The volume flow will be large enough so that the flow will be turbulent.316 × 106 V (2) µ 12. 3. cavitation (the forming of vapor bubbles) occurs which can damage the pump impeller. two bends.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 . the pressure at the entrance to the pump must never drop below the saturation pressure of the fluid.2V m s ) ( 0.81m s 2 ) ( 999.9 ⎤ ⎡⎛ 0.

0175 Answer Comments: The next large standard pipe size would be used. Assumptions: 1. Therefore.2 ft lbm lbf s2 )(144in. incompressible flow energy equation is used to determine the minimum pipe diameter.4 lbm ft )(1.39 ft s Re=196.2 per 150-ft of pipe for flows up to 500 gal/min. which depends on pipe diameter. There is no pump or turbine. 9.9-19 Fire codes mandate that the pressure drop in horizontal runs of commercial steel pipe must not exceed 1. and then use equation 4 to calculate the diameter. Compare the calculated diameter with the guessed one.11 6. 4. µ = 88 × 10−5 lbm fts . P − P2 L V2 1 = f ρa g D 2g 4 ( 500 gal min ) ( 0. determine the minimum pipe diameter required (in in.2 ft 2 ) = f ⎛ 150 ⎞ ( V ft s )2 → 0.513ft = 6. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g The areas at 1 and 2 are equal. The friction factor is a function of velocity.419 ft 4V V = = = (1) 2 2 A π D2 π ( Dft ) ( Dft ) s The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness.0 lbf/in. and for water from Appendix B-6 at 50 ºF. so z1 = z2 . Reynolds number Re. Neglect minor losses. so ⎡⎛ 0. For a water temperature of 50 °F. calculate the velocity V.00015 D ⎞1. Is the number you calculated feasible? Approach: Pressure loss depends on velocity.000 f =0.00015ft . The pipe is horizontal.7 Re ⎥ f ⎠ ⎢⎝ ⎣ ⎦ Substituting known values into the pressure drop equation: (1lbf in. 3.19 . The system is steady. The steady. Performing the iteration: D = 0. Hence. From Table 9-2 for commercial steel pipe.991 = f V 2 (4) ⎜ ⎟ 62. and minor losses are neglected.1337ft 3 gal ) (1min 60s ) 1.4 lbm ft 3 : Velocity is : V = Re = 3 2 ρV D ( 62. ρ = 62. 600 = = µ 88 × 10−5 lbm fts D (2) For any reasonable size diameter. the flow will be turbulent. V = 5.). so V1 = V2 . an iterative solution is required.4 lbm ft 3 2 D ⎝ D ⎠ An iterative solution can be found using the above four equations.2 in. iterate until converged. 2. The procedure to use is: assume a diameter D. ε =0. Properties are constant.8log ⎢⎜ (3) ⎥ ⎟ + 3.9 ⎤ 1 = −1. The flow is fully developed. and friction factor f. Solution: The steady.2 )( 32.419 D ft s ) ( Dft ) 100. so hP = hT = 0 .

3 A π D 2 pipe π ( 0.81m s 2 ) 2 ( 45. For water from Appendix A-10 at 10 ºC. so V1 = 0 and P = P2 .3m s ) = −81.016 )( 75 0.4m Now using the energy equation without the pump: 2 2 2 L V pipe Vnozzle ⎛ L ⎞ V pipe z1 − z2 = f + = ⎜ 16 + f ⎟ D 2g D ⎠ 2g 2g ⎝ Solving for the velocity in the pipe: ⎡ 2 ( 9.81m s 2 ) The velocity at the nozzle exit is: Vnozzle = V pipe = Likewise.0375m )2 s ⎛ 75 ⎞ (11. To save operating costs. The artist’s initial design uses 75-m of 7. determine: a. Properties are constant and evaluated at 10 ºC. the flow rate without the pump is: ⎡ 2 g ( z1 − z2 ) ⎤ =⎢ ⎥ ⎣ 16 + f L D ⎦ 0. the flow rate if the pump is removed from the system (in m3/s) b.000W ) ( N s 2 kg m ) WP =81.6 + 104 + 104 = 127.6m + 4 ( 0.075m ) =0. z1 − z2 = −81.81m s 2 ) (127. the height of the water jet with and without the pump if the nozzle is pointed vertically up (in m).05 m3/s.75-cm with a 40-kW pump to pull water from a lake above the resort at a flow rate of 0. The steady. Therefore. We will assume no minor losses. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no turbine.075m )2 s 2 4 ( 0.9-20 The owners of a luxurious mountain resort want to install a fancy water fountain. 3. Solution: a) The steady. Therefore.075 ) ⎥ ⎣ ⎦ Therefore.6m = ρVg ( 999.6 kg m3 hP = ( 40.05 m3 s ) V 4V m =45.3 = = A π Dnozzle 2 π ( 0.83m s )( π 4 )( 0.81m s ) ⎝ 0. for the velocity in the pipe. the owners want to remove the pump and rely only on gravity head to power the fountain.05 m3 s )( 9.6 kg m3 )( 0. The flow is fully developed.83 m s V = V = ( 8.3m s ) + ( 0. Approach: The elevation difference between the lake surface and the nozzle exit is not given and must be determined. ρ = 999. so hT = 0 .016 for both cases and neglecting minor losses. 1 z1 − z2 = −hP + f 2 L V pipe Vnozzle + D 2g 2g 2 The pump head can be evaluated from WP = mghP = ρVghP . The system is steady.5 =8.039 m3 s A 2 Answer 9. Note that Vnozzle = 4 V pipe .4m ) ⎤ ⎥ V pipe =⎢ ⎢16+ ( 0. incompressible flow energy equation can be used to calculate the elevation difference and the height of the fountain. 2.016 ) ⎜ ⎟ 2 2 ( 9.5 0.075 ⎠ 2 ( 9.20 .05 m3 s ) V 4V m = = =11. Assumptions: 1. Assuming the friction factor is 0. At points 1 and 2 the pressure is atmospheric and the area at 1 is very large.5-cm diameter commercial steel pipe ending in a nozzle with a diameter of 3.

The pressure is the same and the velocity at 3 is zero.3m s ) 2 =63.6m Answer Without the pump.3 Vnozzle = 2 s π ( 0.81m s 2 ) ( 45. 9.21 . apply the energy equation between points 2 and 3. the velocity at the nozzle exit is 4 ( 0.81m s 2 ) ( 35. so V3 = 0 and P2 = P3 : V2 V22 + z 2 = 3 + z3 2g 2g → z3 − z 2 = z3 − z 2 = V22 2g 2 With the pump: 2 ( 9.6m Answer Comments: Even without the pump.0375m ) z3 − z 2 = 2 ( 9.b) To determine the height of the fountain.039 m3 s ) m =35. the fountain still reaches an impressive height.3m s ) =104.

The steady. so V1 = V2 ≈ 0 . incompressible flow energy equation can be used to determine the flow. The system is steady.85 and a kinematic viscosity of 6. L V2 D 2g The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness. for fully developed laminar flow in a straight circular tube: f = 64 Re = 64ν V D Substituting this into the pressure drop equation and solving for velocity: 2 g ( z1 − z2 ) D 2 64ν L V 2 z1 − z2 = V = → 64ν L D V D 2g z1 − z2 = f V = 2 ( 9. 2. Neglect minor losses. assuming that the transient start-up of the flow is brief and the flow is quasi-steady. Approach: The flow rate depends on a balance between the head supplied by the oil depth and the head loss in the drain pipe.147m s )( 0.5 V Re = µ ν 6.5m )( 0. Solution: The steady. Assuming a smooth pipe: ρV D V D ( V m s )( 0. determine the initial flow rate from the tank (in m3/s).05m ) 64 ( 6.5 m.147 m s Answer Checking the Reynolds number: ( 0. An iterative solution may be required because the friction factor is a function of the flow (velocity). Assumptions: 1.8×10-4 m 2 s Laminar flow. 50-m long horizontal pipe from the bottom of a large diameter oil tank. Comments: Note that the velocity calculated above is the initial velocity. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g The areas at 1 and 2 are large.8×10-4 m 2 s For any reasonable velocity. and minor losses are neglected.81m s 2 ) ( 6. The flow is fully developed.8 6.8×10-4 m2/s. 4. so hP = hT = 0 . The oil has a SG = 0. 9. the flow will be laminar (check this). The oil tank is open to the atmosphere. Properties are constant. a vandal opens a valve at the end of a 5-cm diameter. so our assumption is correct. As the oil level drops.8×10-4 m 2 s ) ( 50m ) 2 =0. so P = P2 . Therefore. Neglecting minor losses. There 1 is no pump or turbine. The pressures at 1 and 2 are both atmospheric.05m ) = = = 73. and the oil depth is 6. 3. Therefore.05m ) Re = = 10. then the velocity will decrease.9-21 At an oil tank farm.22 .

and then use equation 4 to calculate the 9. Reynolds number Re.97 lbm lbmol ) (144in.9-22 In a large convention center. Hence.5 in. The required flow rate is 7500 ft3/min.7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ Substituting known values into the pressure drop equation: 2 f V2 ⎛ 500 ⎞ ( V ft s ) D= → 178.9 ⎤ = −1. and minor losses are neglected.) ⎛ ⎜ ⎟ =178.0728lbm ft 3 ⎝ 4 ( 7500 ft 3 min ) (1min 60s ) 159. ) ( 28. so hP = hT . Air is an ideal gas. and for air from Appendix B-7 at 85 ºF. the flow will be turbulent. so with ε = 0 (2) ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1. The pipe is horizontal.6 ft = f ⎜ ⎟ 23. incompressible flow energy equation is used to determine the minimum pipe diameter.6ft 12in. 600 ρV Re = = = 1. The procedure to use is: assume a diameter D. pumping power required (in hp). determine: a. The system is steady. 2.259 × 10−5 lbm fts D µ For any reasonable size diameter. heated air at 85 °F must be conveyed from the furnace room to the display rooms through a 500-ft smooth duct. so V1 = V2 .8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎟ + Re ⎥ f ⎢⎝ 3.0728ft lbm )(159. the minimum diameter required (in in. and friction factor f.11 6. calculate the velocity V. Assumptions: 1. If the pressure loss must not exceed 2.0728 3 ρa = = 1545ft lbf lbmR )( 85+460 ) R RT ft ( ∆P 62. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g The areas at 1 and 2 are equal. ft ) =0.) b. P − P2 L V2 1 = f ρa g D 2g The pressure drop can be obtained from the manometer equation: ρ ∆P ∆P = ρ a g ∆ha = ρ w g ∆hw → = ∆ha = w ∆hw ρa g ρa Assuming air is an ideal gas at one atmosphere: 2 2 2 lbm PM (14.7 lbf in.4 lbm ft 3 1ft ⎞ = ( 2. 3. Assuming a smooth pipe. ⎠ ρ a g 0. of water. The friction factor is a function of velocity. 4.2 D ft s ) ( Dft ) 920.2 ft 4V V = = = (1) 2 2 A π D2 π ( Dft ) ( Dft ) s The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness. µ = 1. The steady.5in.23 . so z1 = z2 . There is no pump or turbine.2 ft s 2 ) 1 (3) (4) An iterative solution can be found using the above four equations. Therefore.259 × 10−5 lbm fts : Velocity is : V = 3 2 D ( 0. Solution: The steady.0 ⎝ D ⎠ 2 ( 32. Neglect minor losses. which depends on pipe diameter. The flow is fully developed with constant properties. an iterative solution is required. Approach: Pressure loss depends on velocity.

iterate until converged.2ft lbm ⎠ ⎝ 550 ftlbf s ⎠ ⎝ ⎝ =2.1ft s Re=541.0129 Answer The next large standard duct size would be used.500 f =0. Compare the calculated diameter with the guessed one.70ft V = 55. Performing the iteration: D = 1.0728 ⎟ ⎜ 7500 ⎟⎜ ⎟⎜ ⎟ ⎟ ⎜ 32.24 .diameter.2 2 ⎟ (178.96hp Answer 9.6ft ) ⎜ lbm ⎠ ⎝ min ⎠ ⎝ 60s ⎠ ⎝ s ⎠ 32. b) The pumping power is W = mgha = ρ aVha ⎛ ⎛ lbfs 2 ⎞ ⎛ 1hp ⎞ ft 3 ⎞ ⎛ ft 3 ⎞ ⎛ 1min ⎞ ⎛ ft ⎞ W = ⎜ 0.

so hT = hP = 0 . For smooth pipe ε =0 .4 mm.025m ) This is turbulent.0174 ⎞1. Note.7kW m ⎠ ⎝ kN m ⎠ ⎝ s ⎠⎝ Answer Comments: Fouling can have a significant effect on flow rate.0174 V = 2.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 . all tubes have the same pressure drop.9 ⎤ = −1.023m .7 2 ⎟ ⎜ ⎟ =35.41m s ) ⎛ N s 2 ⎞ ⎛ 1kN ⎞ ⎛ 6 ⎞⎛ P − P2 = ( 0.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎟ ⎟ + 39. µ = 12.7 ⎠ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ 2 kg ⎞ ( 2.023) (12.04 = = 2 2 A Nπ D s (1000 ) π ( 0.7 ⎠ ⎢⎝ 3. The total water flow of 1 m3/s at 10 °C flows through the tubes. so Therefore.7kPa m ⎠ 2 ⎝ 0.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎟ + 43.41)( 0. the pressure drop (in kPa) b. 2. Assumptions: 1. each 6-m long. the motor power is fixed. so V1 = V2 .9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 µ 1 4 (1.001m ) =0. ε D = 0. however.11 6. The steady.9 ⎤ 6.500 ⎥ Re ⎥ f ⎢⎝ 3.9 ⎤ ⎡⎛ 0 ⎞1.11 6.9kPa m ⎠ 2 ⎝ 0.9kW s ⎠⎝ m ⎠ ⎝ kN m ⎠ ⎝ c) The new pipe diameter is D = 0. The system is steady.11 + ⎡⎛ 0. determine: a. At points 1 and 2 the pipe areas are the same. Solution: a) The steady.0219 kg ⎞ ( 2. Properties are constant.7 ⎠ ⎣ 1.5-cm diameter smooth tubes in parallel. Therefore.0219 ) ⎜ 999.9 ⎤ ⎥ = −1.04 m s )( 0.023 ⎠⎝ ⎝ kg m ⎠ ⎝ 1000N ⎠ ⎛ m3 ⎞ ⎛ kN ⎞ ⎛ kW s ⎞ WP = V ∆P = ⎜ 1 ⎟ ⎜ 35. 3.8log ⎢⎜ + ⎥ = −1.025 ⎠ ⎝ ⎝ kg m ⎠ ⎝ 1000N ⎠ Answer ⎛ m3 ⎞ ⎛ kN ⎞ ⎛ kW s ⎞ b) Pumping power for the total flow rate is: WP = V ∆P = ⎜ 1 Answer ⎟ ⎜ 10.6 )( 2.0472 ) ⎜ ⎜ ⎟⎜ 1 ⎟⎜ 999. the pumping power for the same flow rate if solid deposits from the water build up on the inner surface of the pipe with a thickness of 1-mm and an equivalent roughness of 0.7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ 2 → f = 0. Therefore.6 3 ⎟ ⎜ ⎟⎜ 1 ⎟⎜ ⎟ =10. Approach: Because the tubes operate in parallel.9 2 ⎟ ⎜ ⎟ =10.9 × 10 −4 ) = 43. incompressible flow energy equation is used.6 3 ⎟ ⎟ =35.025m-2 ( 0. 000 → f = 0.25 . P − P2 = f 1 The velocity is in one tube is: 3 V = Re = D ( 999. 9. the pumping power required (in kW) c.41m s 2 → Re = ( 999. The flow is fully developed. L V2 ρ D 2 The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness. and for water from Appendix A-6 at 10 ºC. so we only need to calculate the pressure drop in one tube.11 6. Neglecting entrance and exit losses.9-23 Consider a heat exchanger that has 1000 2. ρ = 999.025m ) ρV = = 39. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no pump or turbine.04 m s ) ⎛ N s 2 ⎞ ⎛ 1kN ⎞ ⎛ 6 ⎞⎛ P − P2 = ( 0.6 kg m ) ( 2.04 ( 25 23) = 2.0472 1 ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞ = −1.6 kg m3 . so the flow rate would decrease. that with centrifugal pumps.500 12.0 m3 s ) 4V m V =2. ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1.8log ⎢⎜ ⎟ f ⎢⎝ 3. 000 ⎥ Re ⎥ ⎢⎝ 3.4 23 = 0.

9-24

The piping system that connects one reservoir to a second reservoir consists of 150-ft of 3-in. cast iron pipe that has four flanged elbows, a well-rounded entrance, and sharp-edged exit, and a fully open gate valve. For 75 gal/min of water at 50 °F, determine the elevation difference between the two reservoirs (in ft).

Approach:

The flow rate is set by the balance between the head caused by the difference in reservoir elevations and the frictional losses in the pipe. The steady, incompressible flow energy equation applied between points 1 and 2 is used to determine the elevation difference.

Assumptions:

1. The system is steady. 2. The flow is fully developed. 3. Properties are constant.

Solution:

The steady, incompressible flow energy equation is:

P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g

There is no pump or turbine, so hT = hp = 0 . We assume the surface of the reservoirs are large, so V1 ≈ V2 ≈ 0 , and the pressure at 1 and 2 are atmospheric, so P1 = P2. Therefore, taking into account all the minor losses: 2 ⎛ L ⎞V z1 − z2 = ⎜ f + K ent + K valve + K exit + 4 K bend ⎟ ⎝ D ⎠ 2g From Table 9-3, Figure 9-13 and Figure 9-14, Kent = 0.04, Kbend = 0.3, and Kvalve = 0.15. For cast iron pipe ε =0.00085ft , and for water from Appendix B-6 at 50 ºF, µ = 88 × 10−5 lbm ft s , ρ = 62.4 lbm ft 3 . The velocity is determined from conservation of mass for incompressible flow: 4 ( 75gal ft 3 )( 0.1337ft 3 gal ) (1min 60s ) 4V ft V =3.40 = V = = 2 A π D2 s π ( 0.25ft ) The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness. 3 ρV D ( 62.4 lbm ft ) ( 3.40 ft s )( 0.25ft ) Re = = = 60, 400 88 × 10−5 lbm ft s µ The flow is turbulent, so ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1.11 6.9 ⎤ ⎡⎛ 0.00085 0.25 ⎞1.11 1 6.9 ⎤ = −1.8log ⎢⎜ + = −1.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎥ → f = 0.0289 ⎟ ⎟ + 3.7 60, 400 ⎥ Re ⎥ f ⎠ ⎢⎝ 3.7 ⎠ ⎢⎝ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦

150 ⎡ ⎤ ( 3.40 ft s ) z1 − z2 = ⎢( 0.0289 ) + 0.04 + 0.15 + 1.0 + 4 ( 0.3 ) ⎥ = 3.54ft 0.25 ⎣ ⎦ 2 ( 32.2 ft s 2 )

2

Answer

9- 26

9-25

Vandals open the drain valve on a water tower that is 10-m in diameter with a water depth of 8 m. The water flows out a sharp-edged opening into a horizontal 30-m long pipe, both of which are 10-cm in diameter; the gate valve in the pipe is half opened. Assume the friction factor is 0.016. Determine: a. the time required for the tank to drain (in min) b. the time required for the tank to drain if only the sharp-edged opening and the valve are present (in min) c. the appropriateness of the friction factor value used.

Approach:

Conservation of mass is needed to determine the time to drain the pool. The driving pressure head decreases with time, so the head as a function of time is needed. The open system conservation of mass equation and the steady, incompressible flow energy equation are used to calculate the time.

Assumptions:

1. The system is steady. 2. The flow is fully developed. 3. Properties are constant.

Solution:

a) The open system conservation of mass equation is for the control volume defined as the water in the pool: dm dt = min − mout . Water only leaves, and expressing the mass in terms of volume and flow rate in terms of velocity: d ( ρV ) d ( ρ A1 z ) = = − ρ A2 V2 dt dt Density cancels so rearranging the equation:

⎛D ⎞ A dz = − 2 V2 = − ⎜ 2 ⎟ V2 dt A1 ⎝ D1 ⎠ We can obtain an expression for velocity by assuming (at any instant in time) that the steady, incompressible flow energy equation is applicable with a constant friction factor: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g

2

At points 1 and 2 the pressure is atmospheric, so P = P2 . There is no pump or turbine, so hP = hT = 0 . Let 1 z2 = 0 (the datum) and drop the subscript on z1, the depth of water in the tank. The losses include an entrance, a valve, and line loss, so

V1 2 V2 ⎛ L⎞V2 + z = 2 + ⎜ K ent + K valve + f ⎟ 2 2g 2g ⎝ D ⎠ 2g The tank velocity can be described in terms of the pipe velocity by conservation of mass. Any mass flow rate from the tank must equal the mass flow rate through the pipe: m1 = m2

→

ρ V1 A1 = ρ V2 A2

→

V1 = ( D2 D1 ) V2

2 0.5

**Substituting this into the energy equation and solving for velocity:
**

⎡ ⎤ 2 gz V2 = ⎢ ⎥ 4 ⎢1 − ( D2 D1 ) + K ent + K valve + f L D ⎥ ⎣ ⎦ Substituting this in the conservation of mass equation and separating variables:

2 ⎤ ⎛D ⎞ ⎡ dz 2g = −⎜ 2 ⎟ ⎢ ⎥ 0.5 4 z ⎝ D1 ⎠ ⎢1 − ( D2 D1 ) + K ent + K valve + f L D ⎥ ⎣ ⎦ We integrate this from initial height zo to 0: 0.5

dt

9- 27

zo

∫

0

2 t ⎤ ⎛ D2 ⎞ ⎡ dz 2g = ∫ −⎜ ⎥ ⎟ ⎢ z 0.5 0 ⎝ D1 ⎠ ⎢1 − ( D2 D1 )4 + K ent + K valve + f L D ⎥ ⎣ ⎦ 0.5 o

0.5

dt

−2 z

2 ⎤ ⎛D ⎞ ⎡ 2g = −⎜ 2 ⎟ ⎢ ⎥ t 4 ⎝ D1 ⎠ ⎢1 − ( D2 D1 ) + K ent + K valve + f L D ⎥ ⎣ ⎦ 0.5 0.5 o

0.5

2 4 ⎛ D ⎞ ⎡1 − ( D2 D1 ) + K ent + K valve + f L D ⎤ t = 2z ⎜ 1 ⎟ ⎢ ⎥ 2g ⎥ ⎝ D2 ⎠ ⎢ ⎣ ⎦ From Figure 9-14, Knit = 1.0, and from Table 9-3, Kvalve = 2.1. 0.5

**⎡1- ( 0.1 10 )4 +1.0+2.1+ ( 0.016 )( 30 0.10 ) ⎤ ⎢ ⎥ t = 2 ( 8m ) 2 ( 9.81m s 2 ) ⎢ ⎥ ⎣ ⎦ b) If the 30 m long pipe is not taken into account: ⎛ 10 ⎞ ⎜ ⎟ ⎝ 0.1 ⎠
**

2 0.5

0.5

=38,100 s=635 min=10.6hr

Answer

⎡1- ( 0.1 10 )4 +1.0+2.1 ⎤ ⎢ ⎥ =25,900 s=432 min=7.2 hr t = 2 ( 8m ) 2 ( 9.81m s 2 ) ⎢ ⎥ ⎣ ⎦ c) We can evaluate whether the chosen friction factor is appropriate by calculating an “average” velocity, Reynolds number, and friction factor. The velocity is: ⎛ 10 ⎞ ⎜ ⎟ ⎝ 0.1 ⎠

2

0.5

V≈

4 ( 0.0165 m3 s ) 4V m V V2 ≈ = = = 2.1 2 2 s A π D2 π ( 0.10m )

**Vtot zo π D12 4 ( 8m ) π (10m ) 4 m3 = = = 0.0165 38,100s s t t
**

2

The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness. For a commercial steel pipe ε =0.045mm , and for water from Appendix A-6 at 10 ºC, µ = 12.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 , ρ = 999.6 kg m3 . The Reynolds numbers are:

Re =

3 ρV D ( 999.6 kg m ) ( 2.1m s )( 0.10m ) = = 162, 700 12.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 µ

The flow is turbulent, so ⎡⎛ 0.045 100 ⎞1.11 1 6.9 ⎤ = −1.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ → f = 0.0187 ⎟ + 3.7 162, 700 ⎥ fA ⎠ ⎢⎝ ⎣ ⎦ Using this friction factor, we obtain t = 39,800 s = 11.1 hr.

Answer

Comments:

Because an “average” flow rate was used, there is some uncertainty in this answer.

9- 28

so hT = 0 .0m hP = 4m+ ⎢( 0. 3.86 ) (1000 kg m ) ( 5. and a pump mechanical efficiency of 75%.3 × 10-2 N·s/m2) from a reservoir that is 4 m below the truck top. so V1 = V2 = 0 and P = P2 .9 ⎤ = −1. The flow is fully developed. 1 2 ⎛ L ⎞V hP = z2 − z1 + ⎜ f + K exit + K ent + K valve + 2 K bend ⎟ ⎝ D ⎠ 2g where. Approach: The steady. For a filling time of 15 min.81m s ) mghP ηP = ρVghP = ηP ( 0. 1 ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1.5 ) ⎥ 2 ⎝ 0.5 . Once that is known. At points 1 and 2 the areas are large and the pressure is atmospheric.5+2 (1.0387 ) ⎜ ⎟ +1.89 V = = 2 s A π ( 0.7 ⎠ ⎢⎝ 3. Power is WP = ⎡ ⎤ ( 5. A one-third closed ball valve and two bends that are equivalent to 90° threaded elbows are in the hose. 2.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎟ ⎟ + Re ⎥ 5740 ⎥ f ⎢⎝ 3.15 60 ⎞1. Solution: The steady.11 6. µ = 5.0 . determine the required pump power (in kW). incompressible flow energy equation is used to determine the required pump head. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no turbine.81 2 ⎟ ( 34.06 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ 2 ( 9. A 10-m long flexible hose 6-cm in diameter whose surface roughness is equivalent to that of galvanized iron connects the truck to the reservoir.15 mm for galvanized iron.89 m s )( 0.29 .75 =6.9-26 An oil transporter truck is filled from the top with 15 m3 of fuel oil (SG = 0.11 6.06m ) Re = = = 5740 5.0m ) ⎜ ⎟ 3 ⎟⎜ s ⎠⎝ m ⎠⎝ s ⎠ ⎝ 1000kg m ⎠ 0. from Table 9-3 and Figure 9-13: K exit = 1.0167 t (15min )( 60s min ) s 3 m V 4 ( 0. The volume flow rate is: V 15m3 m3 V= = =0.5. Therefore. The system is steady.0. the power can be calculated.9 ⎤ ⎡⎛ 0. Kent = 1.0+5.89 m s ) ⎛ 10 ⎞ = 34.0167 m s ) =5. K bend = 1.37kW Answer 9.7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ → 2 f = 0. so using ε =0.0+1.3 × 10−2 Ns m 2 µ The flow is turbulent.86 ) ⎛1000 ⎜ ⎝ ⎛ kN s 2 ⎞ kg ⎞ ⎛ m3 ⎞ ⎛ m⎞ 0. Properties are constant.0167 ⎟ ⎜ 9.06m ) 3 The velocity is: ρV D ( 0. K valve = 5. The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness.86.0387 Therefore.8log ⎢⎜ + ⎥ = −1. Assumptions: 1.

400 5.81m s 2 ) 2 f = 0.81m s 2 ) ( 49.0260 hP = 12. Kvalve open = 0.4m )( Ns kgm ) 2 =626W Answer Answer 9.1W W= mghP ηP = ( 988 kg m3 ) ( 2 m s )(π 4 )( 0. incompressible flow energy equation must be used.8log ⎢⎜ + ⎥ = −1. Consider a system that consists of 200-m of 2. Properties are constant. and the types of losses are given in the problem statement.045m .045 25 ⎞1.1) +1(17 ) ⎥ =49. two fully open gate valves. we can use the steady.15. It has 15 90° regular threaded elbows. From Table 9-3. The system is steady.9m W = 82. so hT = 0 . Re = ρV D ( 988 kg m ) ( 2 m s )( 0. 700 f = 0.5 ) +3 ( 2.1. the power can be calculated.0245 Answer Answer 0.025m ) ( 9. µ = 5.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ → ⎟ ⎟ + Re ⎥ 93.9-27 Large office buildings use circulating hot water systems to ensure that hot water is available instantly in all restrooms. so that: ⎛ L ⎞V2 hP = ⎜ f + 2 K valve + 15K bend + 3K valve half + 1K valve quarter ⎟ open open open ⎝ D ⎠ 2g From Table 9-2 for the pipe ε =0.0245 ) +2 ( 0.5. The flow is fully developed. the power required if the water velocity is 2 m/s (in kW) b. Assumptions: 1.75 b) If the velocity is 1 m/s.11 6.5-cm commercial steel pipe.11 1 6.15 ) +15 (1. 400 ⎥ f ⎢⎝ 3.025 ⎣ ⎦ 2 ( 9. Kbend = 1. Solution: a) Because this is a closed loop.025m ) = = 93.30 .9 ⎤ ⎡⎛ 0. Kvalve quarter open = 17. Once the head is known. determine: a. 2.29 × 10−4 Nm s 2 . 3.29 × 10−4 Nm s 2 µ 3 The flow is turbulent.7 ⎠ ⎢⎝ 3. the power required if the water velocity is 1 m/s (in kW). Approach: The required pump head can be determined with the steady. and for water from Appendix B-6 at 50 ºC.4m 0. so ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1. Kvalve half open = 2.9 ⎤ = −1. three half open gate valves and one three-quarter closed gate valve.7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ 200 ⎡ ⎤ (2 m s) hP = ⎢( 0. ρ = 988 kg m3 . For water at 50 °C and a pump with a mechanical efficiency of 75%. incompressible flow energy equation from point 1 to point P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 1 + 1 + z1 + + hT + ∑ hL 1: ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no turbine. the same calculations are made as in part (a): Re = 46.

0232 The next large standard size of concrete pipe would be used. Properties are constant.005 ft (estimated).2033 = (3) (4) 9.11 6.7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ Substituting known quantities into the pressure drop equation: 2 ⎡ (1.31 . The reservoirs are 1.9-28 To ensure adequate water supplies to a town.81ft s f = 0. which depends on the velocity and diameter. ρ = 62. so V1 = V2 = 0 and P = P2 . Taking into account line losses only: 1 z1 − z2 = f L V2 D 2g The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness. 0. and the pressure are atmospheric.9 ⎤ 1 = −1. Applying the steady. Solution: The steady. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no pump or turbine. The flow is fully developed.73 ft V 4V = 2 = = 2 A πD 2 D s π ( Dft ) (1) (2) For any reasonable size pipe. For concrete pipe ε =0.2 ft s ) f V2 D The above four equations are solved iteratively.5mi )( 5280 ft mi ) ⎤ ( V ft s ) 25ft = f ⎢ ⎥ 2 Dft ⎣ ⎦ 2 ( 32.4 lbm ft )(12. Doing so: D = 2.4 lbm ft 3 . we can determine the pipe diameter with an iterative solution. 3. The velocity is: Re = V = 3 2 ρV D ( 62.73 D ft s ) ( Dft ) = = 903.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎟ + Re ⎥ f ⎢⎝ 3. 2. and for water from Appendix B-6 at 50 ºF. so ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1. incompressible flow energy equation between points 1 and 2. 000 D µ 88 × 10−5 lbm ft s 4 (10 ft 3 s ) 12.64ft Answer V = 4. µ = 88 × 10−5 lbm ft s . so hP = hT = 0 . Determine the minimum pipe diameter needed to carry 10 ft3/s of water at 50 °F? Approach: The head caused by the difference in reservoir elevations is balance by the frictional head loss. Assumptions: 1. the flow is turbulent. The areas of the reservoirs are large. The system is steady.5 miles apart with a difference in surface elevations of 25 ft. a municipal water department developed a second reservoir and wants to connect the new reservoir to the old one using a concrete pipe.

so V1 = V2 = 0 and P = P2 .32 . 2.26 1000 ⎞1. Approach: The steady. The system is steady. The velocity is: Re = V = ρV D ( 999. incompressible flow energy equation is used to determine the turbine head.0 ⎥ 2 1 ⎠ ⎝ ⎣ ⎦ 2 ( 9.27 m s ) ⎛ 150 ⎞ hT = 50m. For a 1 m3/s flow of 10 °C water.15 . Solution: a) The steady.0152 Power extracted from the water is ⎛ kN s 2 ⎞ kg ⎞ ⎛ m3 ⎞ ⎛ m⎞ ⎛ 9.2 ⎡ ⎤ (1.⎢( 0.0 . 000 ⎥ f ⎠ ⎢⎝ 3.11 6.7m ) ⎜ WT = mghT = ρVghT = ⎜ 999.0+0. µ = 12. For water from Appendix A-6 at 10 ºC. At a particular plant. so ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1. so hP = 0 . and from Table 9-2 ε =0. and 2 long radius 45º bends.7m ⎟ +1.15+2 ( 0.7m ⎟ +1.78 )( 0.81m s ) 2 Welec = 358kW Answer Comments: Other losses dominate the process so adding a gate valve has essentially no effect. The turbine has a mechanical efficiency of 78% and the electric generator has an efficiency of 94%.7 987.: 1 2 ⎛ L ⎞V hT = z1 − z2 − ⎜ f + K exit ⎟ ⎝ D ⎠ 2g The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no pump. the power output if a fully open gate valve and two long radius 45° flanged elbows also are in the pipe (in kW).11 1 6. 000 12. ρ = 999.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎟ + ⎟ + Re ⎥ 3. Properties are constant.9 ⎤ ⎡⎛ 0.0152 ) ⎜ = 49.6 kg m3 .27 = = 2 A π D2 s π (1m ) The flow is turbulent.27 m s ) ⎛ 150 ⎞ hT = 50m. 3.6 3 ⎟ ⎜1 ⎟⎜ ⎟ =488kW m ⎠⎝ s ⎠⎝ s ⎠ ⎝ ⎝ 1000kg m ⎠ Taking into account the turbine and electric generator efficiencies: Welec = ηT η genWT = ( 0.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 .9-29 The reservoir behind a dam is connected to a hydroelectric power plant with a penstock (a large pipe to convey the water).9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 µ 3 4 (1m3 s ) V 4V m =1. K gate = 0. Including the exit loss where.26 mm .0152 ) ⎜ = 49.94 )( 488kW ) =358kW Answer b) Adding a gate valve. the power output from the plant (in kW) b. the power can be calculated. the elevation difference between the reservoir surface and the hydroturbine is 50 m. determine: a. The flow is fully developed.2 ) ⎥ 2 ⎝ 1 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ 2 ( 9.81 2 ⎟ ( 49.27 m s )(1m ) = = 987. 9. Once that is known. At points 1 and 2 the areas are large and the pressure is atmospheric.9 ⎤ = −1. ⎡ ⎤ (1. K bend = 0.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ = −1.81m s ) 2 → f = 0. Assumptions: 1. and the penstock is constructed of 150-m of 1-m diameter cast iron pipe. K exit = 1.6 kg m ) (1.7 ⎠ ⎢⎝ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ Therefore.⎢( 0.

9-30 The drain at the bottom of a swimming pool (10-m in diameter and 2-m deep) is well rounded and is connected to a 5-cm diameter. and expressing the mass in terms of volume and flow rate in terms of velocity: d ( ρV ) d ( ρ A1 z ) = = − ρ A2 V2 dt dt Density cancels so rearranging the equation: ⎛D ⎞ A dz = − 2 V2 = − ⎜ 2 ⎟ V2 dt A1 ⎝ D1 ⎠ We can obtain an expression for velocity by assuming (at any instant in time) that the steady. if this value of friction factor is appropriate.33 . The losses include an exit and line loss. The water is at 20 °C. determine: a. the time required to drain the pool (in min) b. incompressible flow energy equation are used to calculate the time. The driving pressure head decreases with time. For a friction factor of 0. the depth of water in the tank. 20-m long plastic pipe.5 4 z ⎝ D1 ⎠ ⎢1 − ( D2 D1 ) + K ent + f L D ⎥ ⎣ ⎦ We integrate this from initial height zo to 0: 0. so hP = hT = 0 . incompressible flow energy equation is applicable with a constant friction factor: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g 2 At points 1 and 2 the pressure is atmospheric. There is no pump or turbine.5 V1 = ( D2 D1 ) V2 2 Substituting this into the energy equation and solving for velocity: ⎡ ⎤ 2 gz V2 = ⎢ ⎥ 4 ⎢1 − ( D2 D1 ) + K ent + f L D ⎥ ⎣ ⎦ Substituting this in the conservation of mass equation and separating variables: 2 ⎤ ⎛ D2 ⎞ ⎡ 2g dz = −⎜ ⎥ ⎟ ⎢ 0. Solution: a) The open system conservation of mass equation is for the control volume defined as the water in the pool: dm dt = min − mout . The open system conservation of mass equation and the steady.021. 3. so the head as a function of time is needed. 2. The system is steady. so P = P2 . Water only leaves. so V1 2 V2 ⎛ L⎞V2 + z = 2 + ⎜ K ent + f ⎟ 2 2g 2g ⎝ D ⎠ 2g The pool velocity can be described in terms of the pipe velocity by conservation of mass. Properties are constant.5 dt 9. The flow is fully developed. Any mass flow rate from the pool must equal the mass flow rate through the pipe: m1 = m2 → ρ V1 A1 = ρ V2 A2 → 0. Assumptions: 1. Let 1 z2 = 0 (the datum) and drop the subscript on z1. Approach: Conservation of mass is needed to determine the time to drain the pool.

11 1 6.04+ ( 0.5 2 4 ⎛ D ⎞ ⎡1 − ( D2 D1 ) + K ent + f L D ⎤ t = 2z ⎜ 1 ⎟ ⎢ ⎥ 2g ⎥ ⎝ D2 ⎠ ⎢ ⎣ ⎦ From Figure 9-13. and for water from Appendix A-6 at 20 ºC. so the new estimate is probably better.5 o 0. 9.05 ) ⎤ ⎢ ⎥ 2 ( 9.021)( 20 0.2 kg m ) ( 0. The velocity is: V≈ Vtot zo π D12 4 ( 2m ) π (10m ) 4 m3 = = = 0. 000s s 2 V2 ≈ 4 ( 0.05m ) The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness.255 m s )( 0.05m ) Re = = = 12.900 ⎥ fA ⎢⎝ 3.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ → f = 0. and friction factor.zo ∫ 0 2 t ⎤ ⎛ D2 ⎞ ⎡ 2g dz = ∫ −⎜ ⎥ ⎟ ⎢ z 0.5 dt −2 z 2 ⎤ ⎛D ⎞ ⎡ 2g = −⎜ 2 ⎟ ⎢ ⎥ t 4 ⎝ D1 ⎠ ⎢1 − ( D2 D1 ) + K ent + f L D ⎥ ⎣ ⎦ 0.255 2 2 A π D2 s π ( 0.6 hr.2 kg m3 .5 o 0.05 10 )4 +0. so ⎡⎛ 0 ⎞1. The Reynolds numbers are: ρV D ( 998.( 0.000s=87.000 s and 100.5 0.05 ⎠ 2 ⎡1.00050 m3 s ) V 4V m = = = 0.00050 t t 314.7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ Using this friction factor.34 .81m s 2 ) ⎢ ⎥ ⎣ ⎦ 0. For smooth pipe ε =0 . Reynolds number.5 ⎛ 20 ⎞ ⎜ ⎟ ⎝ 0.5 0 ⎝ D1 ⎠ ⎢1 − ( D2 D1 )4 + K ent + f L D ⎥ ⎣ ⎦ 0.5 =314.9 ⎤ = −1.85 × 10−4 Ns m 2 . we obtain t = 362.0288 ⎟ + 12. µ = 9. ρ = 998. Kent = 0.04 t = 2 ( 2m ) 0.900 9. Answer Comments: The answer for part (b) is significantly different than that in (a).85×10-4 Ns m 2 µ 3 The flow is turbulent.2hr Answer b) We can evaluate whether the chosen friction factor is appropriate by calculating an “average” velocity.

we used “average” values of velocity and friction factor.5 o 0.81m s 2 ) ⎢ ⎥ ⎣ ⎦ =415. Approach: We use the same equations as derived in Problem P 9-30. determine the time required to drain the pool (in min). Kbend = 1. Note.5 ⎛ 20 ⎞ ⎜ ⎟ ⎝ 0. The system is steady.5 and from Figure 9-13. 9.5 Comments: As can be seen the addition of a small amount of minor loss increased the draining time from about 100 hr to 115 hr.05 ⎠ 2 0.0. Assumptions: 1. 3. Using the friction factor from part (b) in Problem 931: 0.4hr Answer 0. Kent = 1. including the additional minor losses is: 2 4 ⎛ D ⎞ ⎡1 − ( D2 D1 ) + K ent + 2 K bend + f L D ⎤ t = 2z ⎜ 1 ⎟ ⎢ ⎥ 2g ⎥ ⎝ D2 ⎠ ⎢ ⎣ ⎦ From Table 9-3. however.300 s=6922 min=115. Additional minor losses are included. so there is uncertainty in this answer.0288 )( 20 0.5 ⎡1.05 20 )4 +1+2 (1.9-31 If the pool in Problem P 9-30 has a sharp-edged entrance and two 90° regular threaded elbows.5 ) + ( 0. The flow is fully developed.05 ) ⎤ ⎢ ⎥ t = 2 ( 2m ) 2 ( 9. 2. Solution: The equation for the draining time.35 . Properties are constant.( 0.

7 = = 2 A πD 2 s π (1ft ) The flow is turbulent. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no pump or turbine. Properties are constant. K ent = 0.26 + 1. 000 µ 88 × 10−5 lbm ft s 3 4 (10 ft 3 s ) V 4V ft =12.8log ⎢⎜ + = −1.5 + 0. The areas of the reservoirs are large.11 6. and for water from Appendix B-6 at 50 ºF.6. so hP = hT = 0 . we can determine the required elevation difference.3 Therefore. The velocity is: Re = V = ρV D ( 62.3) + ( 0.9-32 A pipe connects two reservoirs at different elevations. Taking into account all losses: 1 2 ⎛ L ⎞V z1 − z2 = ⎜ f + K ent + K valve + K exit + 2 K bend ⎟ ⎝ D ⎠ 2g The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness. Approach: The head caused by the difference in reservoir elevations is balance by the frictional head loss. µ = 88 × 10−5 lbm ft s . 000 ⎥ f ⎠ ⎢⎝ 3. The flow is fully developed. so V1 = V2 = 0 and P = P2 . incompressible flow energy equation between points 1 and 2.0 + 2 ( 0.7 ft s ) z1 − z2 = ⎢0. Applying the steady. and the pressure are atmospheric. K exit = 1. 2. K valve = 0. 3.00015 1 ⎞1. The water temperature is 50 °F.26. Assumptions: 1. The system is steady.00015 ft . Solution: The steady.7 ⎠ ⎢⎝ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ → f = 0. The pipe is constructed of 12-in.4 lbm ft ) (12. so ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1. Determine the required elevation difference between the two reservoirs to produce a water flow rate of 10 ft3/s (in ft). ρ = 62.0.9 ⎤ = −1. 2 ⎡ ⎛ 310 ⎞ ⎤ (12. The gate valve is one-fourth closed.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎥ ⎟ ⎟ + Re ⎥ 3. For commercial steel pipe ε =0.0141 From Table 9-3 and Figures 9-13 and 9-14. diameter commercial steel with flanged fittings.7 ft s )(1ft ) = = 903.9ft ⎟⎥ ⎝ 1 ⎠ ⎦ 2 ( 32. K bend = 0.2 ft s 2 ) ⎣ Answer 9.7 903.9 ⎤ ⎡⎛ 0.4 lbm ft 3 .0141) ⎜ = 16.36 .11 1 6.

the steady. the flow velocity if it is flowing (in m/s). V (m/s) 0. 400 V (1) µ 0.15m = f ⎜ → V =⎜ ⎟ ⎟ ⎝ 0. the assumed flow direction is incorrect.00068 N·s/m2) is contained in a vertical 2-cm diameter pipe.5 2 ⎛ 0. We do not know the velocity or the friction factor. ε =0 . The frictional head loss can be determined with the steady. so hP = hT = 0 . At one elevation the fluid pressure is 230 kPa.600 57.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎟ + Re ⎥ f ⎢⎝ 3.00068 Nm s 2 For any reasonable velocity the flow will be turbulent. if the flow is moving and in what direction b. Solution: a) Assuming the flow is from point 1 to point 2. Answer The flow is upward. The system is steady.81m s 2 ) The frictional head loss is negative. The sign on the frictional head loss will tell us the flow direction.93.9-33 A liquid (SG = 0.81 2.37 . so we will need to iterate D 2g to find a solution. The flow is fully developed.81m s 2 ) ⎝ f ⎠ s b) The head loss is hL = f The iterative procedure is to: guess a velocity.11 2.900 f 0.16 Answer 9.020m ) Re = = = 27.81 2. Continue until converged. calculate the Reynolds number and the friction factor.5 1. Properties are constant. and there are no minor losses: (110-230 ) kN m 2 (1000kg m kN s 2 ) P − P2 1 + (10m ) =-3. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no pump or turbine.15 2. solve equation (3) for velocity. incompressible flow energy equation.15 Re 13.15m + ( z1 − z2 ) = hL = ρg ( 0.0284 0. 2. 3.0200 V (m/s) 1.0928 ⎞ m ⎛ 10m ⎞ ( V m s ) (3) 3.11 6.800 58. so 3 ρV D ( 0. V1 = V2 .9 ⎤ 1 (2) = −1.0201 0.015m ⎠ 2 ( 9. Assumptions: 1. Approach: If the fluid is moving. The friction factor depend on Reynolds number. L V2 . Determine: a. and then compare to the guessed value. so ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1. there will be frictional losses. at an elevation 10-m higher.93) (1000 kg m3 )( 9. the pressure is 110 kPa.93) (1000 kg m ) ( V m s )( 0.700 49.11 2. the pipe diameter is constant.0208 0.7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ Substituting known values into the head loss equation: 0. µ = 0. We assume the flow is turbulent and that the pipe is smooth.

11 6. For water from Appendix B-6 at 50 ºF. Properties are constant.5+1.985 100ft of pipe Answer Comments: Note that the angle is θ = sin −1 ( −0.2 ft s 2 ) ⎣ ⎦ Therefore. The duct is 1 constant area.5ft )2 s 1 ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1. 000 ⎥ f ⎢⎝ 3. 000 µ 88 × 10−5 lbm fts This is turbulent flow.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎟ ⎟ + Re ⎥ 602. assume the area ratios are zero. and both are at atmospheric pressure.66 ft s )(1.00985 ) = −0. so from Figure 9-15. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g Let locations 1 and 2 be just outside the pipe ends. the steady.4 lbm ft 3 .11 6.97ft 1. Each storm sewer will need to carry a flow of 10 ft3/s. The system is steady. Solution: The steady. 9.9 ⎤ = −1. so P = P2 . Velocity is : Re = V = ρV D ( 62.5ft ) = = 602.8log ⎢⎜ + ⎥ = −1.9-34 The designers of a large shopping mall install 18-in. incompressible flow energy equation can be used to determine the required slope.00067 : 3 4 (10 ft 3 s ) V 4V ft =5.5 ⎥ 2 ( 32. 2. Kent = 0.66 ft s ) ⎡ z1 − z2 = ⎢0.9 ⎤ ⎡⎛ 0. The pressures at the entrance and exit of the sewer are atmospheric. L⎞V2 ⎛ z1 − z2 = ⎜ K ent + K exit + f ⎟ D ⎠ 2g ⎝ The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness.0. If the sewers are 200 ft long before they join with larger pipes.0+ ( 0. the required negative slope is −1. 3.0184 ) = 1.001ft. For the minor losses at the entrance and exit. Assumptions: 1.38 . so hT = hP = 0 .97 200 = -0. There is no turbine or pump. diameter smooth concrete storm sewers to channel away runoff after heavy rainstorms. µ = 88 × 10−5 lbm fts .00067 ⎞1.4 lbm ft ) ( 5. ρ = 62. determine the required elevation change per 100 ft of pipe (in ft).56o .0184 200 ⎤ ( 5. From Table 9-2 for smooth concrete ε = 0. The flow is fully developed.5 and Kexit = 1. Approach: Because we can solve for elevation change directly.7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ 2 → f = 0. so V1 = V2 .66 = = A π D 2 π (1.7 ⎠ ⎢⎝ 3. ε D = 0.

6 ft s )( 3ft ) = = 4.97 lbm lbmol ) (144in.28hp ⎟⎜ min ⎠ ⎝ ft ⎠ ⎝ s ⎠ ⎝ 60s ⎠ ⎝ 32. 2500-ft long duct constructed of commercial steel pipe that carries air at 45 °F.0754 3 = RT ft (1545ft lbf lbmR )( 45+460 ) R The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness.6 ft s ) ha = ( 0. Solution: a) The steady.0754 ⎞ ⎛ 12in. 4. Assumptions: 1. ε D = 0.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ → f = 0. ε = 0.188 × 10−5 lbm fts . Air is an ideal gas. There is no pump or turbine. of water) b.00005 ⎞1. Therefore. The pump power can be calculated with the same equation but applied just across the pump.49 × 105 µ 1.39 . There are no minor losses. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g P − P2 L V2 1 = ha = f ρg D 2g The pipe diameter and elevation are constant. ) ( 28. The flow is fully developed. Determine: a.6 = = 2 2 A πD s π ( 3ft ) This is turbulent flow so ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1. so hP = hT = 0 .0139 ⎟ ⎟ + Re ⎥ 4. Velocity is : Re = V = ρV D ( 0.7 ⎠ ⎢⎝ 3. Consider a 3-ft diameter. Answer P2. For air from Appendix B-7 at 45 ºF. For commercial steel pipe.2 ft s 2 ) 2 Answer For pressure in inches of water: ∆P = ρ w ghw = ρ a gha → hw = ρa ⎛ 0. g − P g 1. the pressure drop (in in.8log ⎢⎜ + ⎥ = −1. If the tunnel is too long. ventilation air must be supplied to dilute and purge vehicle exhaust gases from the tunnel. tunnels often are used for cars.1 psia with a flow rate of 10.0754 lbm ft ) ( 23. Properties are constant. µ = 1. of water ρw ⎝ 62. Approach: The pressure drop is determined with the steady. ⎞ ha = ⎜ ⎟ (100ft ) ⎜ ⎟ =1. g b) Applying the same energy equation between points 1 and 2: The pumping power is 3 ρg = ρg W = ρVg ( ∆P ρ g ) = V ∆P = V ρ a gha 2 ⎛ ⎞⎛ ⎞ ft ⎞ ⎛ lbm ⎞ ⎛ ft ⎞ 1hp ⎛ 1min ⎞ ⎛ lbfs 0.45in.2 2 ⎟ (100ft ) ⎜ = ⎜ 10000 ⎟⎜ ⎟⎜ ⎟ =2.0754 3 ⎟ ⎜ 32.00015ft. 3. and trains.9 ⎤ ⎡⎛ 0. trucks.11 6.000 ft3/min.4 ⎠ ⎝ 1ft ⎠ hP = P2.0139 ) ⎜ = 100 ft of air ⎟ ⎝ 3 ⎠ 2 ( 32.00015 3 = 0.11 1 6.1lbf in. incompressible flow energy equation. The system is steady.188×10-5 lbm fts 3 4 (10000 ft 3 min ) (1min 60s ) V 4V ft =23. the power required (in hp).9-35 In mountainous regions. 2. ft ) lbm =0.7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ Substituting known values into the pressure drop equation: ⎛ 2500 ⎞ ( 23.49 × 105 ⎥ f ⎢⎝ 3.9 ⎤ = −1.00005 . Assuming air is an ideal gas: ρ= 2 2 2 PM (14. so V1 = V2 and z1 = z2 . 14.2ftlbm ⎠ ⎝ 550 ft lbf s ⎠ ⎝ Answer 9.

5+1⎥ 2 0. then our assumption was wrong. and entrance losses.0201 Answer Because this is positive. 1 2 ⎛ L ⎞V hP = z2 − z1 + ⎜ f + K exit + K ent ⎟ ⎝ D ⎠ 2g where K exit = 1 and Kent = 0. If it is negative. We will assume the device inside the building is a pump.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ = −1. The flow is fully developed.15m ) Re = = = 657. so hT = 0 . so ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1. The elevation difference between the lake surface and the building is 10 m. if the device in the building is a pump or a turbine b.0kW m ⎠⎝ s ⎠⎝ s ⎠ ⎝ ⎝ kg m ⎠ Answer 9.66 V = = = 2 2 A πD s π ( 0. µ = 12.40 . The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness. Properties are constant.7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ Therefore.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 µ 3 4 ( 0.11 6. 700 12. ρ = 999. the device is a pump. For galvanize iron pipe ε =0. if the power calculated is positive. the power of the device (in W).8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎟ + ⎟ + Re ⎥ 657. Assumptions: 1. 700 ⎥ f ⎢⎝ 3. and the device actually is a turbine.1m3 s ) V 4V m =5. 2. 4.3m ⎟ +0.66 m s ) ⎛ 100 ⎞ hP = −10m+ ⎢( 0.5. Approach: The steady.1 ⎟ ⎜ 9.81 2 ⎟ (14. incompressible flow energy equation has terms for pump and turbine power. The system is steady.6 3 ⎟ ⎜ 0.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 .15 150 ⎞1. The velocity is: ρV D ( 999. ⎡ ⎤ ( 5.9-36 Water at 10 °C flows from a lake at a flow rate of 0.11 1 6. then our assumption is correct.7 ⎠ ⎢⎝ 3. and for water from Appendix A-6 at 10 ºC. The device is a pump. At points 1 and 2 the areas are large and the pressure is atmospheric.6 kg m ) ( 5. Therefore.020W=14.66 m s )( 0. Solution: a) The steady. 3.15 ⎠ ⎝ ⎣ ⎦ 2 ( 9. so V1 = V2 = 0 and P = P2 .0201) ⎜ = 14. A 15-cm diameter.3m ) ⎜ ⎟ =14.6 kg m3 . b) Power is ⎛ N s2 ⎞ kg ⎞ ⎛ m3 ⎞ ⎛ m⎞ ⎛ WP = mghP = ρVghP = ⎜ 999. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g We assume the device is a pump.9 ⎤ = −1. Determine: a.1 m3/s. The losses are line.15 mm .81m s ) 2 → f = 0.15m ) The flow is turbulent. 100-m long galvanized iron pipe connects the lake to a building in which either a pump or a turbine is located.9 ⎤ ⎡⎛ 0. Applying the energy equation. exit.

The gage pressure required at the nozzle at the end of the pipe is 150 lbf/in.4 lbm ft 3 .3 hp Answer 9.33ft ) = = 47. Therefore.33 ⎠ ⎦ 2 ( 32.2 ) (12in. The velocity is: Re = V = ρV D ( 62.2 ft s ) 3 2 in. The flow is fully developed. Assumptions: 1. 2.2ft lbm ⎠ ⎝ 550 ft lbf ⎠ =33. so hT = 0 .7 ⎠ ⎢⎝ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ Therefore.2.4 lbm ft ) ( 2.61ft s )( 0. Ignoring entrance loss.11 6. The elevation difference is 950 ft. Approach: By applying the steady. µ = 114 × 10−5 lbm ft s . 3000-ft steel pipe to the top of the mountain.9 ⎤ = −1.1337 gal ft 3 ) (1min 60s ) V 4V ft =2.0223) ⎜ ⎟ +1⎥ ⎝ 0. incompressible flow energy equation between points 1 and 2.2 2 ⎟ (1318ft ) ⎜ ⎟ ft ⎠⎝ min ⎠ ⎝ ft ⎠ ⎝ 60s ⎠ ⎝ s ⎠ ⎝ ⎝ 32. Properties are constant.1337 3 ⎟ ⎜ ⎟ ⎜ 32.61ft s ) +950ft+ ⎢( 0.33 ⎞1. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no turbine. 1 hP = 2 P2 ⎛ L ⎞V + ( z2 − z1 ) + ⎜ f + K exit ⎟ ρg ⎝ D ⎠ 2g where K exit = 1 .33ft ) The flow is turbulent.11 1 6.4 3 ⎟⎜ 100 ⎟⎜ ⎟ ⎜ 0.61 = = 2 A πD 2 s π ( 0. The system is steady. Consider a resort that uses 100 gal/min of 35 °F water. ρ = 62. At point 1 the area of the pond is large.5=1318ft ⎛ lbf s 2 ⎞ ⎛ 1hp s ⎞ lbm ⎞⎛ gal ⎞ ⎛ gal ⎞ ⎛ 1min ⎞ ⎛ ft ⎞ ⎛ WP = mghP = ρVghP = ⎜ 62.2 ft lbm lbf s 2 ) 2 ⎡ ⎛ 3000 ⎞ ⎤ ( 2. Solution: The steady. The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎟ + ⎟ + Re ⎥ 3. Determine the required pumping power (in hp). the losses are line and exit.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ = −1.00015 0. and for water from Appendix B-6 at 35 ºF.00015 ft . we can determine the required pump power.7 47. 3.0223 2 (150 lbf = ( 62.9-37 Ski resorts pump water to make snow when the weather does not cooperate.4 lbm ft )( 32. so ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1.2 ft s 2 ) ⎣ =346+950+21.9 ⎤ ⎡⎛ 0. and the gage pressure is atmospheric. It is pumped from the water holding pond through a 4-in. Power is hP → f = 0. 060 µ 114 × 10−5 lbm ft s 3 4 (100 gal min ) ( 0. For commercial steel pipe ε =0. ft ) ( 32. 060 ⎥ f ⎠ ⎢⎝ 3.41 . diameter. so V1 = 0 and P = 0 .

1 There is no turbine. so V1 = V2 = 0 and P = P2 .045mm . and neglecting minor losses. many crops are irrigated.890kW = W= ηP ( 0.81m s 2 ) Answer Pumping power.81× 106 ⎥ f ⎠ ⎢⎝ ⎣ ⎦ Therefore.81m s )( Ns kgm ) =1. 4.5 m3/s of water (in kW).7m ⎟ ⎝ 1 ⎠ 2 ( 9. Consider a system that consists of a 1-m diameter. ρ = 999 kg m3 .0113) ⎜ = 61. is: 3 3 2 2 mghP ( 999 kg m )( 2. The velocity is: V = hP = z2 − z1 + f L V2 D 2g 4 ( 2. taking into account pump efficiency. incompressible flow energy equation is used to calculate the required pump head.045 1000 ⎞1.80 )(1000W kW ) 9.2 × 10 −4 Ns m 2 . and for water from Appendix A-6 at 15 ºC. Solution: The steady.11 1 6.18 = = 2 s A πD 2 π (1m ) The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness. and water must be pumped long distances. The Reynolds numbers are: Re = D ( 999 kg m ) ( 3. 2. µ = 11. The canal’s elevation is 50 m higher than that of the river.42 . The system is steady.9-38 In the western United States. Assumptions: 1. so hT = 0 .8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎟ + 3. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g The areas at points 1 and 2 the areas are large and the pressure is atmospheric.5 m3 s ) V 4V m =3.0113 ⎛ 2000 ⎞ ( 3. Properties are constant. For the pipe ε =0.7 2. 2 → f = 0.7m ) ( 9. the required pumping power can be calculated. Once that is known. determine the power required to pump 2.18 m s ) hP = 50m + ( 0. 3.81× 106 11.18 m s )(1m ) ρV = = 2. Neglect minor losses. which connects a river to an irrigation canal.5 m s ) ( 61. a pump with a mechanical efficiency of 80%. The flow is fully developed. For water at 15 °C. so ⎡⎛ 0.2 × 10−4 Ns m 2 µ 3 The flow is turbulent. Therefore. and minor losses are neglected. 2-km long steel pipe.9 ⎤ = −1. Approach: The steady.

m1 = m2 0. we can determine the flow rate through the expansion. Solution: a) The steady.5-cm circular duct into a 22.4 m s )( π 4 )( 0.5 ) = 0.4 m ⎪ ( V1 = ⎨ ⎬ 4 3 s ⎪ (1. The pipe is horizontal.43 . Determine: a.0944 m3 s ) = 0. Solving for the pressure rise: V2 ρ P2 − P = ( V1 2 − V22 ) − K exp ρ 1 1 2 2 From conservation of mass. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no pump or turbine. Properties are constant.5 Answer Answer Answer c) Mass flow rate is: m=ρ V= (1.5-mm of water higher than the upstream pressure. so hT = hp = 0 . The loss coefficient across the expansion must be evaluated.0944 m3 s A 2 0. the mass flow rate (in kg/s).228 kg m3 )( 0.76 ⎤ ⎪ ⎣ ⎦⎭ ⎩ b) The volume flow rate is: V = V = ( 21.( 7. the air density is: 2 PM (105 kN m ) ( 28.9-39 Air at 105 kPa and 25 °C flows from a 7. The downstream pressure is 6.0638 kN m 2 1000kg m kN s ⎫ )( ) ⎪ =21. incompressible flow energy equation between points 1 and 2.5 22.0638 kN m 2 1 ⎧ 2 0. 2. the average air velocity approaching the expansion (in m/s) b.5 ) -0.0065m ) ( kN s 2 1000 kg m ) =0.075m ) =0.97 kg kmol ) kg ρ= = =1. The system is steady.228 3 RT m (8.314 kJ kgK )( 25+273) K Using Figure 9-15b for a sudden expansion. Assumptions: 1.81m s 2 ) ( 0.5 22.76 The pressure rise is obtained from the given information and water density: P2 − P = ρ gh = (1000 kg m3 )( 9.111 → 2 2 K exp ≈ 0. so z1 = z2 . with A1 A2 = ( D1 D2 ) = ( 7.5-cm circular duct.5 → V2 = V1 ( A1 A2 ) = V1 ( D1 D2 ) 2 Substituting this into the pressure drop equation and solving for velocity: ⎧ ⎫ 2 ( P2 − P ) ⎪ ⎪ 1 V1 = ⎨ ⎬ 4 ⎪ ρ ⎡1 − ( D1 D2 ) − K exp ⎤ ⎪ ⎣ ⎦⎭ ⎩ Assuming an ideal gas. 3. Approach: Applying the steady. The flow is fully developed. The only loss is due to the sudden expansion.116 kg s 9. the volumetric flow rate (in m3/s) c.228 kg m ) ⎡1.

Assumptions: 1.7 198. For a water temperature of 10 °C and a flow of 0. The Reynolds number is: The velocity is: V = Re = D ( 999. 4.3kPa .02 m3/s. For the pipe ε =0. and all minor losses except the exit are neglected. incompressible flow energy equation is used directly to calculate the pressure at point 1. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g The area at point 2 is large and the pressure is atmospheric.55 2 s A πD 2 π ( 0.6 3 ⎟ ( 9. Solution: The steady. There is no pump or turbine. ρ = 999. so L V1 2 ρ D 2 Note that K exit P = P2 + ρ g ( z2 − z1 ) + f 1 4 ( 0. The flow is fully developed. The system is steady.55 m s ) ⎛ kN s ⎞ P = 101.55 m s )(1m ) ρV = = 198.0184 2 ⎛ kN s 2 ⎞ kg ⎞ ⎛ ⎛ 200 ⎞ ( 2. 2. 3. → f = 0.3 + 1960 + 120 = 2181kPa ( absolute ) =2080kPa (gage) Answer 2 9. and for water from Appendix A-6 at 10 ºC. the pump is on the ground floor.10 ⎠ ⎝ 1000 kg m ⎠ ⎝ 1000 kg m ⎠ = 101. Neglect minor losses.44 . P = P2 − ρ 1 V1 2 L⎞ V2 ⎛ + ρ g ( z2 − z1 ) + ⎜ K exit + f ⎟ ρ 1 D⎠ 2 2 ⎝ = 1 .0184 ) ⎜ ⎟ ⎜ ⎟ 1 ⎟ m ⎠ 2 ⎝ ⎝ 0.81m s 2 ) ( 200m ) ⎜ + ( 0. what is the pressure at the pump discharge (in kPa)? Approach: The steady.6 kg m3 . so V2 = 0 and P2 = 101. 000 12. so hT = hP = 0 .9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 µ 3 The flow is turbulent. µ = 12.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎟ + 3. Therefore.02 m3 s ) 4V m V = = =2. so ⎡⎛ 0.9 ⎤ = −1.3kPa + ⎜ 999. water is stored in an elevated tank on the roof to minimize pressure fluctuations in the system.6 kg m ) ( 2.045mm .9-40 In some high rise buildings.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 . Properties are constant.10m ) The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness. 000 ⎥ f ⎠ ⎢⎝ ⎣ ⎦ Therefore. Consider water that is pumped through a 10-cm steel pipe to the roof of a 200-m tall building.11 1 6.045 100 ⎞1.

24 ⎟ ( 0.0247 For volume flow rate m ⎞π m3 2 ⎛ V = V = ⎜1. Properties are constant. The pressures at the higher and lower locations are 120 kPa and 140 kPa. and line losses. From the problem geometry: θ = tan −1 (1 10 ) = 5. ε D = 0. Approach: Flow is set by a balance among elevation difference.11 6.00188 (2) -2. the pipe diameter is constant. Solution: The steady. and the pipe has a slope of 1m rise per 10 m of run (horizontal distance). 3. hence.985m The friction factor depend on Reynolds number. The horizontal distance between the two locations is 30 m. flow rate.9-41 A fluid flows by gravity down an 8-cm galvanized iron pipe. Performing the iteration: V (m/s) = 1. P − P2 L V2 1 = ( z2 − z1 ) + f ρg D 2g Note that ( z2 − z1 ) ≠ −3m .15 80 = 0.9 ⎤ = −1.71o → z2 − z1 = −30sin ( 5.24 m/s Re=98. there are no minor losses.985m+19.08m ⎠ 2 ( 9.81m s2 ) 1 (1) For any reasonable velocity the flow will be turbulent.71o ) = −2. The system is steady.08m ) ρV Re = = = = 80.08m ) =0.11f ( V m s ) 2 (3) The above three equations can be solved iteratively to determine velocity and.265m=-2.985m+f ⎜ ⎟ ⎝ 0. incompressible flow energy equation can be used to determine the flow. pressure difference. 2.7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ Substituting known values into the pressure drop equation: kN ⎛ 1000kgm ⎞ (120-140 ) 2 ⎜ 2 ⎟ m ⎝ kN s 2 ⎠ ⎛ 30m ⎞ ( V m s ) =-2. V1 = V2 . so D V D ( V m s )( 0.45 . respectively. Line losses depend on velocity. For a fluid with a kinematic viscosity of 10-6 m2/s and a density of 900 kg/m3.15 mm. The steady.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎟ + Re ⎥ f ⎢⎝ 3.00623 A Answer s ⎠4 s ⎝ 9. so with ε =0.81m s 2 ) ( 900 kg m3 )( 9. Assumptions: 1. so this maybe an iterative solution depending on whether this is a laminar or a turbulent flow. incompressible flow energy equation is: and with hL = ( f L D ) V 2 2 g : P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no pump or turbine. so hP = hT = 0 .900 f = 0. The flow is fully developed. 000 V 10−6 m 2 s µ ν ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1. determine the flow rate (in m3/s).

0223 The next standard pipe size greater than 0. µ = 12. The water main pressure is 400 kPa (gage).03 m3/s of water. The system is steady. The Reynolds numbers are: The velocity is: V = Re = 3 2 D ( 999.000 f = 0. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no pump or turbine. both of which depend on the pipe diameter. so hP = hT = 0 .104 would be used. and from Table 9-2.11 6.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 . Only line losses are present Therefore. the steady.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 D µ (2) For any reasonable size pipe. with ε =0. incompressible flow energy equation is used to find the required diameter.9 ⎤ 1 (3) = −1.6 kg m3 )( 9. The pipe diameter is constant. Solution: From point 1 to point 2.54 m/s Re = 285.694 The above four equations are solved iteratively: D = 0.6 kg m3 . 600 ρV = = 12.0382 m 4V V = = = (1) 2 A πD 2 D2 s π ( Dm ) The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness. so V1 = V2 . For water from Appendix A-6 at 10 ºC (assumed). An iterative solution is required.6 kg m )( 0. ρ = 999.3m3 s ) 0. The steady.0382 D m s ) ( Dm ) 29. 3.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎟ + Re ⎥ f ⎢⎝ 3. The water main from which the water will be obtained is 150-m from the factory. so ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1.104 m V = 3. The flow is fully developed. the flow will be turbulent. determine the minimum pipe diameter needed (in m).46 .81m s2 ) f V2 f V2 → D= D 2. 2.15mm .694 = (4) Answer 9. 2. Assuming that galvanized steel pipe will be used. P − P2 L V2 1 = ( z2 − z1 ) + f ρg D 2g 4 ( 0. Properties are constant. and the factor needs 100 kPa (gage) water at a location 10-m above the water main.9-42 A new factory is to be built that requires 0. Assumptions: 1.7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ Substituting known values into the pressure drop equation 2 ( 400-100 ) kN m 2 (1000kgm kNs 2 ) ⎛ 150 ⎞ ( V m s ) =10m+f ⎜ ⎟ ⎝ D ⎠ 2 ( 9. Approach: Friction pressure loss depends on the friction factor and velocity.81m s ) ( 999.

3. Approach: The required pump head can be obtained directly from the steady. determine the power required (in kW). V1 = V2 = 0 .045mm . The pump has a mechanical efficiency of 80%.2m ) (1kNs 2 1000kgm ) 0. The flow is turbulent and from Table 9-2. so hT = 0 . the pumping power can be calculated. Solution: From point 1 to point 2.9 ⎤ f = 0. the steady.0113) ⎜ ⎟⎥ ⎝ 1 ⎠ ⎦ 2 ( 9. incompressible flow energy equation. so ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1. exit. Therefore. and line losses.8log ⎢⎜ → ⎥ = −1.9-43 For the system shown below.0113 = −1. Assumptions: 1.045 1000 ⎞1.80 Answer =2. µ = 12.7 ⎠ ⎢⎝ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ Substituting known values into the pressure drop equation 2 ⎡ ⎛ 245 ⎞ ⎤ ( 3.11 6. The areas at 1 and 2 are large. The flow is fully developed.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 .96 × 106 ⎥ f ⎠ ⎢⎝ 3.47 .213kW Answer 9. so P = P2 .6 kg m ) ( 3. from Figures 9-13 and 9-14.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎟ + ⎟ + 3. and pressure is atmospheric. a water flow rate of 3 m3/s is to be pumped from the lower to the upper reservoir through a 1-m diameter commercial steel pipe. 1 L⎞V2 ⎛ hP = ( z2 − z1 ) + ⎜ K ent + K exit + f ⎟ D ⎠ 2g ⎝ 4 ( 3m3 s ) 4V m V =3. Once the head is determined.5 + 1 + ( 0. The losses include inlet.9 ⎤ ⎡⎛ 0.5 and K exit = 1.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 µ 3 Assuming a sharp edged entrance and exit. 2.0 .82m s ) hP = ( 730-673) m+ ⎢0. Neglecting minor losses.2m=60.2m W= mghP ηP = ( 999. For water from Appendix A-6 at 10 ºC (assumed). ρ = 999.96 × 106 Re = 12.81m s2 ) ( 60.6 kg m3 )( 3m3 s )( 9.6 kg m3 .82 The velocity is: V = = = 2 2 s A πD π (1m ) The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness.81m s ) ⎣ = 57. The system is steady.0m+3. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no turbine.7 Re ⎥ 2.11 1 6. Properties are constant. K ent = 0. ε =0.82 m s )(1m ) = = 2. The Reynolds numbers are: ρV D ( 999.

2 lbf in.5+3) ft Re = 3 ρ V h ( 0.0186 lbm ⎞ ⎛ ft 3 ⎞ ⎛ 1min ⎞ ⎛ ft ⎞ ⎛ ⎛ 1hp s ⎞ 0. by 6in. we need the hydraulic diameter: 4 ( 0.65 ) ⎜ ⎟ 2 ⎝ lbf s ⎠ = 5.0186 ) ⎜ =308ft ⎟ +1⎥ ⎝ 0.857 ⎠ ⎦ 2 ( 32.214 × 10 −5 lbm ft s µ The flow is turbulent.0005 ft .6 ft s ) hP = ⎢( 0.0737 3 ⎟ ⎜ 5000 ⎟⎜ ⎜ ⎟ ⎜ 32. incompressible flow energy equation.2.5ft )( 3ft ) Because this is a non-circular duct. so hT = 0 . Assumptions: 1. which is 36-in.97 lbm lbmol ) (144in.0737 lbm ft ) ( 55. The system is steady.9 ⎤ ⎡⎛ 0.3hp Answer 9. The duct has constant area and is horizontal V1 = V2 and z1 = z2 . 000 1. The flow is fully developed. Approach: The required fan head can be obtained directly from the steady. 2.11 1 6. Point 1 is just upstream of the fan and point 2 is outside of the duct. the fan power can be calculated. Properties are constant. so both are at atmospheric pressure and P = P2 . Assuming air is an ideal gas: 2 2 2 lbm PM (14.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎟ ⎟ + 3.0005 0.2ft lbm ⎞ ( 0.7 ⎠ ⎢⎝ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ Therefore.7 289.48 .0737 3 ρ= = RT ft (1545ft lbf lbmR )( 60+460 ) R The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness.214 × 10−5 lbm ft s . incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no turbine. 1 with only an exit minor loss and line loss: 2 ⎛ L ⎞V hP = ⎜ f + K exit ⎟ ⎝ D ⎠ 2g where K exit = 1 .857ft = = Dh = pwetted 2 ( H + W ) 2 ( 0. 000 ⎥ Re ⎥ f ⎠ ⎢⎝ 3. Therefore. Solution: The steady.8log ⎢⎜ + ⎥ = −1. 3.11 6. and for air from Appendix B-7 at 60 ºF.2 ft s 2 ) ⎣ Power is → f = 0. ) ( 28. The velocity is: V = 3 ft V ( 5000 ft min ) (1min 60s ) =55. ft ) =0. Once we determine the required head.9-44 Fresh air is distributed in a factory through a 250-ft long rectangular galvanized duct.6 = s A ( 0. For a flow rate of 5000 ft3/min of 60 °F air at 14.857 ⎞1. ε =0.5ft )( 3ft ) 4 Ax 4 HW =0.9 ⎤ = −1. For the duct (from Table 9-2). determine the fan pumping power required if the fan has a mechanical efficiency of 65% (in hp). 2 ⎡ ⎛ 250 ⎞ ⎤ ( 55.6 ft s )( 0. µ = 1.857ft ) D = = 289. so ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1.2 2 ⎟ ( 308ft ) ⎜ ⎟ ft ⎠ ⎝ min ⎠ ⎝ 60s ⎠ ⎝ s ⎠ mghP ρVghP ⎝ ⎝ 550 ft lbf ⎠ WP = = = ηP ηP ⎛ 32.2 lbf/in.

We assume the area at 1 large. Determine: a. and then calculate velocity from the complete velocity equation.81m s )(1. From Table 9-3.0207 → ⎡ ⎤ 2 ( 9.025m ) =0. f = 0 0. Assumptions: 1.00122 m3 s A 2 Answer 9.85 × 10 −4 Ns m 2 µ For a velocity even one-fourth the velocity obtained without line loss.5+ ( 0.5-cm diameter smooth tube and has a reentrant inlet. The system is steady.5.7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ Guess V = 2 m/s → Re = 50. so −2 ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1.340 V 9. The flow is fully developed.1+1. so V1 ≈ 0 .8+1. evaluate friction factor.47 1+0. 3 D ( 998.49 m s )( π 4 )( 0.5 V = V = ( 2.8+1. 2. the flow still would be turbulent. For smooth tubing ε =0 .85 × 10−4 Ns m 2 . The siphon is a 2. the volume flow rate if both the minor and line losses are taken into account (in m3/s). in general.0197 → V = 2.49 m/s This is close enough so 0. for a reentrant entrance Kent = 0.500 → f = 0.81m s )(1. incompressible flow energy equation between points 1 and 2.49 .0207 )( 0. as shown below. µ = 9.11 6.5m ) ⎤ V =⎢ ⎥ ⎣ 1+0.7 ⎠ ⎢⎝ 3.8log ⎢⎜ + = −1.99 m s 2 V = V = ( 2. Approach: The flow can be determined by applying the steady.00147 m3 s A b) The line loss will decrease the flow.5m ) m V =⎢ ⎥ =2. For part (b) an iterative solution is required.2 kg m3 . calculate Reynolds number.5 =2.9 ⎤ ⎡⎛ 0 ⎞1.8log ⎢ + ⎥ ⎥ ⎟ ⎟ ⎥⎟ Re ⎥ Re ⎥ f ⎣ Re ⎦ ⎠ ⎝ ⎢⎝ 3.1π /2 ) 0. one bend. so hT = hp = 0 .99 m s )( π 4 )( 0. Solution: The steady. The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness.2 kg m ) ( V m s )( 0. the volume flow rate if only the minor losses are taken into account (in m3/s) b.9-45 Water at 20 °C is to be siphoned from a large tank. so the procedure we will follow is: assume a velocity.025 ⎥ s ⎢ ⎣ ⎦ For a second iteration: V = 2. so P1 = P2.025m ) =0. The losses.700 → f = 0.9 ⎤ ⎞ = −1. for a 180º bend.5+0.47 m/s → Re = 62.5 ⎡ 2 ( 9. include one entrance.11 6. a) Ignoring line loss. Properties are constant. ρ = 998. and the pressure at 1 and 2 are atmospheric. and for water from Appendix A-6 at 20 ºC. Kbend = 1.025m ) ρV Re = = = 25.1+0. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no pump or turbine. and line loss: 2 ⎛ L ⎞V ∑ hL = ⎜ f D + K ent + Kbend ⎟ 2 g ⎝ ⎠ Combining and solving for the velocity: 2 g ( z2 − z1 ) ⎡ ⎤ V =⎢ ⎥ ⎣1 + K ent + K bend + f L D ⎦ From Figure 9-13a.9 ⎤ ⎛ 1 ⎡ 6.8.5+0 ⎦ 0.8log ⎢⎜ + → f = ⎜1. 3.

From Figure 9-13a. and for water from Appendix B-6 at 40 ºF. Approach: The pressure drop in the inlet piping must be calculated. We assume the area at 1 large. and the pressure at point 2 expressed in terms of head.0 0.4 0. From Table 9-3. and the pressure at 1 is atmospheric. the line has a reentrant inlet and a 90° regular flanged elbow.04 in.). Determine the minimum pipe diameter (in in. D (ft) Re f h2 (ft) V (ft/s) 0.4 lbm ft )( 0. For a design flow rate of 100 gal/min.17 ft = 2. Reynolds number.2 Based on these calculations.0216 -21. and then calculate h2 from the energy equation and compare to the limit. Because friction factor depends on velocity and. include one entrance. hence. Answer 9.11 6. so V1 ≈ 0 . µ = 104 × 10−5 lbm ft s .284 ft V 4V V2 = = = = 2 A π D2 D2 s π ( Dft ) For commercial steel pipe ε =0.2 7. for a reentrant entrance Kent = 0. The flow is fully developed.000 0. The steady.50 . incompressible flow energy equation must be used. diameter.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎟ + Re ⎥ f ⎢⎝ 3. Kbend = 0.300 0.1 106.000 0.3. Let z1 = 0 . 3 2 ρV D ( 62. so hp = 0 . 3. one bend. the standard pipe size about 0. so ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1. 000 = = Re = µ 104 × 10−5 lbm ft s D For any pipe with a diameter of less than about 8 ft. Properties are constant. calculate velocity. in general.9-46 A pump draws 40 °F water from a lake through 20 ft of commercial steel pipe.284 D ft s ) ( Dft ) 17.0215 -19. ρ = 62. The pump elevation is 12 ft above the lake surface. The procedure is: guess diameter. an iterative solution is required. Solution: The steady. The system is steady.0214 -15. The losses. so using gage pressure P1 = 0. The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness. the head at the suction side of the pump must not be less than –20 ft of water.17 9. the flow will be turbulent.83 100. in diameter or larger would be chosen for the suction pipe.1337ft 3 gal ) (1min 60s ) 0.9 ⎤ 1 = −1. Assumptions: 1. 2.8.4 lbm ft 3 .16 11. and friction factor. for a 90º bend. and line loss: 0= 2 P2 V2 ⎛ L ⎞V + 2 + z2 + ⎜ f + K ent + K bend ⎟ 2 ρ g 2g ⎝ D ⎠ 2g Solving for P2 ρ g : 2 P2 L ⎛ ⎞V = h2 = − z2 − ⎜1 + f + K ent + K bend ⎟ 2 ρg D ⎝ ⎠ 2g The velocity is determined from conservation of mass for incompressible flow: 4 (100gal min ) ( 0.10 85. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no pump.7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ We know that h2 ≤ −20ft .00015ft .

we can speculate that the flow might be laminar. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no pump or turbine. High-pressure pumps are used to circulate the hydraulic fluid (ρ = 880 kg/m3 and µ = 0.0005 3 s ) =1770 This is laminar. Depending on the flow. The diameter would be the next standard diameter greater Answer than 9.033 N·s/m2).00957m ) 4 ( 880 kg m3 )( 0. determine the minimum tubing diameter required (in cm).0005 m3/s. and then iterated to find a solution. Solution: The steady. friction factor is a function of velocity. 3.00957m=9.9-47 Large farm implements and road construction equipment use hydraulically actuated cylinders to position scoops. f = 64 Re Substituting into the pressure drop relation. and solving for diameter: 14 ⎡128 ( 0. However.033 Ns m 2 ) ( 25m ) ( 0. cutting blades. For line friction losses.51 . Approach: The steady. incompressible flow energy equation must be used. Therefore. and then checked the friction factor for convergence.0005 m3 s ) ⎤ ⎥ =⎢ π ( 2000 kN m 2 ) (1000N 1kN ) ⎢ ⎥ ⎣ ⎦ Checking Reynolds number ρV D m 4 ρV 4 ρV Re = → V = = → Re = 2 µ ρA πD πµ D Re = =0. 2. Comments: If the flow had been turbulent. Ignoring minor losses: P − P2 L V2 1 = f ρg D 2g The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness. The system is steady. calculated Reynolds number. because of the low flow rate and large viscosity. an iterative solution may be required. and other tools. so our assumption was valid. we would have needed to solve the pressure drop equation for diameter. we will assume (initially) that the flow is fully developed laminar flow. The pipe diameter and elevation are constant. Properties are constant. so hp = hT = 0 . Consider a hydraulic system that has a pump outlet pressure of 20 MPa and which requires a minimum pressure at the hydraulic cylinder of 18 MPa at a flow rate of 0. The flow is fully developed. For this situation. We would have assumed a friction factor. Assumptions: 1.57mm π ( 0.57 mm. using ⎡128µ LV ⎤ D=⎢ ⎥ ⎣ π∆P ⎦ 14 V = V A = 4V π D 2 . which depends on pipe diameter. drawn steel tubing. so V1 = V2 and z1 = z2 .033 N s m 2 ) ( 0. calculated a diameter. 9. If the hydraulic fluid flows through 25 m of smooth.

we can determine the pressure rise across the expansion. Properties are constant.9-48 Water at 70 °F with a flow rate of 30 gal/min flows from a 1-in. m1 = m2 → V2 = V1 ( A1 A2 ) = V1 ( D1 D2 ) 2 Substituting this into the pressure drop equation and simplifying: 4 ⎤ V1 2 ⎡ ⎛ D1 ⎞ ⎢1 − ⎜ P2 − P = ρ ⎟ − K exp ⎥ 1 2 ⎢ ⎝ D2 ⎠ ⎥ ⎣ ⎦ The velocity is: 4 ( 30 gal min ) ( 0. diameter tube into a 2-in. so z1 = z2 . incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no pump or turbine.2ft lbm ⎠ ⎝ 12in. with A1 A2 = ( D1 D2 ) = (1 2 ) = 0.2 lbm ft ) (12.2).2 ft s ) 3 2 2 = 0. so hT = hp = 0 . P2 − P = 1 → K exp ≈ 0. Determine the pressure rise across the expansion (in lbf/in. Approach: Applying the steady. The flow is fully developed. The only loss is due to the sudden expansion. The system is steady. incompressible flow energy equation between points 1 and 2. Solution: The steady. 2.2 2 2 A π D1 s π (1 12 ft ) 2 2 Using Figure 9-15b for a sudden expansion.52 .56 ( 62. diameter tube through a sudden expansion.56 ⎥ ⎜ ⎟⎜ ⎟ ⎢ ⎝2⎠ ⎥ ⎝ 32. Assumptions: 1.25 Therefore.2 ⎡ ⎛ 1 ⎞4 ⎤ ⎛ lbf s 2 ⎞ ⎛ 1ft ⎞ 2 ⎢1+ ⎜ ⎟ -0. The pipe is horizontal. ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ Answer 9.380 lbf in. 3. Solving for the pressure rise: V2 ρ P2 − P = ( V1 2 − V22 ) − K exp ρ 1 1 2 2 From conservation of mass.1337 gal ft 3 ) (1min 60s ) V 4V ft V1 = = = =12.

so ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1.09 2 2 A πD s π ( 0.9 ⎤ ⎡⎛ 0 ⎞1.169 kg m3 .25m ) ρV Re = = = 81. 3 D (1. V2 ≈ V3 ≈ 0 . Approach: The pressure in the clean room can be determined by applying the steady.04kPa Answer b) For fan power.169 kg m ) ( 5.5+1⎥ ⎜1. and taking into account the two identical lengths of pipe: ⎛ m3 ⎞ ⎛ kN ⎞ ⎛ 1min ⎞ ⎛ 1000W s ⎞ W = −V ∆Ptot = −2V ∆P23 = -2 ⎜ 15 Answer ⎟ ⎜ 0. again assuming incompressible flow. 25 °C. All entrances and exits are all sharp edged.5 and K exit = 1. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P2 V2 + 2 + z2 + hP = 3 + 3 + z3 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no pump or turbine. and for air from Appendix A-7 at 100 kPa.11 6. incompressible flow energy equation between points 2 and 3.169 ⎜ ⎟ ⎟ 0.09 m s ) ⎛ kN s 2 ⎞ ⎡ ⎤⎛ P2 = 100kPa+ ⎢( 0.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ = −1. The fan power can be obtained by applying the energy equation between points 1 and 3.0186 ) +0. For smooth pipe ε =0 .832 × 10−5 Ns m 2 . the fan power required (in W). The pressure loss is due to line loss.7 ⎠ ⎢⎝ 3.832 × 10 −5 Ns m 2 µ The flow is turbulent. 200 1. Solution: a) The steady.0397 2 ⎟ ⎜ ⎟ =-19.53 . Determine: a. ρ = 1.7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ Using Figure 9-15a for the entrance and Figure 9-15b for a sudden expansion. The flow is fully developed. so L V2 V2 V2 hL = f + K ent + K exit D 2g 2g 2g Assuming the room at 2 and the outside at 3 are large. µ = 1.9W ⎟⎜ min ⎠ ⎝ m ⎠ ⎝ 60s ⎠ ⎝ kN m ⎠ ⎝ 9. 3.0397=100. 200 ⎥ f ⎢⎝ 3. plus one expansion and one contraction.0 Therefore: 2 15 kg ⎞ ( 5. The system is steady. which enters the duct (shown below) at 100 kPa.0186 ⎟ + ⎟ + Re ⎥ 81. Using the energy equation.9 ⎤ = −1. The pipe is horizontal.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ → f = 0.25 m ⎠ 2 ⎣ ⎦⎝ ⎝ 1000 kg m ⎠ =100+0. Assumptions: 1. we recognize that the pressure drop from just after the fan to the clean room is the same as from the clean room to the outside (calculated above).25m ) The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness. 2. 25 ºC. Properties are constant.9-49 A Class 100 clean room is to be supplied with 15 m3/min of air.11 1 6. with A1 A2 = 0 → K ent ≈ 0. Solving the energy equation for P2 (note that P3 = P ): 1 2 ⎛ L ⎞ V P2 = P3 + ⎜ f + K ent + K exit ⎟ ρ 2 ⎝ D ⎠ The velocity is determined from conservation of mass for incompressible flow: 4 (15m3 min ) (1min 60s ) V 4V m V = = = =5. the pressure in the clean room (in kPa) b.09 m s )( 0. so z1 = z2 = z3 . so hT = hp = 0 .

0 × 100 = 6.0 m3 s A 2 13 % increase = 16. 9.9-50 In Problem P 9-49.0 .04+1⎞ ⎥ ) ( )⎜ ⎟⎥ ⎢ ( 0.25m ) ( 60s 1min ) =16. The flow is fully developed. Solution: We have two equations to combine: W = −2V ∆P23 = −2 V ( P2 − P3 ) A 2 ⎛ L ⎞ V P2 − P3 = ⎜ f + K ent + K exit ⎟ ρ 2 ⎝ D ⎠ The friction factor is a function of velocity. K ent ≈ 0.7% 15.25m 2 1.0 − 15. which would not change our answer very much. but the new flow probably will not cause a significant change in the friction factor. Properties are constant. 2.0184. For the same fan power as in the original installation.25 ⎝ ⎠⎦ ⎣ The volume flow rate is: V = V = ( 5.04 and K exit = 1.9W )(1J Ws )(1Nm 1J ) ( kgm Ns 2 ) ⎥ m ⎥ =5.43m s )( π 4 )( 0.43 =⎢ s ⎢ π 0.54 . 3.0186 15 +0. Combining the two equations and solving for velocity: ⎡ ⎤ −4W V =⎢ ⎥ 2 ⎢ π D ρ ( fL D + K ent + K exit ) ⎥ ⎣ ⎦ 13 For well-rounded entrances and exits. Therefore. from Figure 9-13d and Figure 9-14d. The system is steady.169 kg m3 ⎛ 0. Approach: We will use the information from the solution to Problem P 9-49.0 Answer Comments: Note that the new Reynolds number is 86. determine the new volumetric flow rate (in m3/min).600 and the friction factor is 0. the sharp-edged entrances and exits are replaced with well-rounded entrances and exits. The main difference is that Kent and Kexit will change because of the well-rounded entrances and exits. ⎡ ⎤ ⎢ -4 ( -19. Assumptions: 1. we will assume it is approximately constant.

Frictional losses can be calculated because the flow is given. b) the heat transfer per 100 ft of tube if the temperature remains constant (Btu/hr). 700 ⎥ ⎦ 2 → f = 0.9-51 Frictional pressure loss in fluid flow is converted to unwanted thermal energy. 700 65.25-in.06 ft/100 ft or θ = sin −1 ( −5. The system is steady. so hP = hT = 0 .1337ft 3 gal ) (1min 60s ) V 4V ft = = =3. Eq. and for water from Appendix B-6 at 70 ºF. The tube is sloped so that the pressure remains constant throughout the tube.0135 ⎟⎜ ft ⎠ ⎝ s ⎠⎝ 4 ⎠ s ⎠ ⎝ 778ft lbf ⎠ ⎝ 32.2 2 ⎟ ⎜ Answer ⎟ =-0. Consider an 18 gal/min flow of 70 °F water through a 1. and minor losses are neglected.55 . µ = 65.104ft ) The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness. Therefore. be determined.8log ⎢⎜ ⎟ f ⎢⎝ 3. Approach: For constant pressure flow.2 lbm ft ) ( 3. q = 0.9o . z2 − z1 . u2 − u1 = 0 .2 2 ⎟ ⎜ 3. With constant temperature. incompressible flow energy equation is used. using Eq. For isothermal flow. so again using Eq.93ft s )( 0. the steady. Neglect minor losses.104 ⎠ 2 ( 32. For constant pressure flow P = P2 .06ft ⎟ D 2g ⎝ 0. 1 Velocity is : V = −hL = z2 − z1 = − f 4 (15gal min ) ( 0.8 × 10−5 lbm fts . The flow is fully developed.11 + 6. 9-29 can be used to calculate the heat transfer. incompressible flow energy equation: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g L V2 D 2g The areas at 1 and 2 are equal.2ft lbm ⎠ s ⎝ ⎝ c) For an insulated pipe.2 ft s 2 ) So the slope is -5. ρ = 62. diameter smooth tube. so −hL = z2 − z1 = − f 1 ⎡⎛ 0 D ⎞ = −1. 2.104ft ) ( 5.2 ft lbm lbf s 2 ) 9. There is no pump or turbine. Properties are constant.06ft ) ( 32.7 ⎠ ⎣ 1. 9-29 hL = ⎡( u2 − u1 ) − q ⎤ g .93ft s ) = − ( 0. the same equation can be used to calculate temperature rise if the pipe is insulated.2 ft s2 ) (1Btu 778ft lbf ) =0. so that ⎣ ⎦ lbm ⎞ ⎛ ft ⎞⎛ π ⎞ ft ⎞ ⎛ 1Btu ⎞ ⎛ lbf s 2 ⎞ Btu 2 ⎛ ⎛ Q = − ⎜ 62. and c) the temperature rise if the tube is perfectly insulated (in °F).0065o F (1. Using the steady.00 Btu lbmR ) ( 32.06ft ) ⎜ 32. 3.93 2 2 A πD s π ( 0. q = − hL g → Q = mq = − mhL g = − ρ V L g Ah Answer b) For the heat transfer .93 ⎟⎜ ⎟ ( 0. 4. so V1 = V2 .2 lbm ft 3 : D ( 62. 9-28.8 × 10 −5 lbm fts µ 3 The flow is turbulent.022 L V2 ⎛ 100 ⎞ ( 3.104ft ) ρV Re = = = 38. Assuming a smooth pipe ε = 0 . Assumptions: 1.022 ) ⎜ = −5.06 100 ) = −2.9 ⎤ ⎥ 38. and assuming an ideal liquid with constant specific heat: hL = ⎡( u2 − u1 ) − q ⎤ g → u2 − u1 = hL g → c (T2 − T1 ) = hL g ⎣ ⎦ T2 − T1 = hL g c = ( 5. Solution: a) The slope (in ft/100 ft of pipe) requires that the elevation difference. Determine: a) the slope (in ft/100 ft).

0196 ) +0. For cast iron pipe ε =0.11 6. Assuming the bends are regular.9 ⎤ = −1.6 kg m ) ( 2. Approach: The required pressure can be determined by applying the steady. µ = 12. and the pressure at 2 is atmospheric. Kbend = 0. one entrance. ⎟⎜ ⎟ m ⎠⎝ s ⎠ 0. the compressed air to be supplied to the power plant is taken from the stored air instead of just using the air compressor. Re = D ( 999. flanged. The air reservoir.5. the air pressure. The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no pump or turbine.6 P gage = ⎨⎜ 999. leaving only 20-60% to drive the electric generator. ρ = 999.12 2 2 A πD s π ( 0.6 kg m3 . Expressing P1 and P2 in terms of gage pressures. Properties are constant. 2. 000 ⎥ f ⎢⎝ 3.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎥ ⎟ ⎟ + Re ⎥ 493.7 ⎠ ⎢⎝ 3.56 .6 ⎬⎜ ⎟ 1. is connected to the outside by a 30-cm cast iron pipe.9-52 A gas turbine power plant consists of a compressor. which fills with 10 °C water when the air has been used.3) ⎥ ⎜ 999.30m ) P gage = ρ g ( z1 − z2 ) + ρ 1. and two bends: 2 ⎛ L ⎞V hL = ⎜ f + K ent + K exit + 2 K bend ⎟ ⎝ D ⎠ 2g The entrance has an area ratio of zero. The frictional losses must be calculated.8log ⎢⎜ + = −1.3.26 300 ⎞1. The velocity is determined from conservation of mass for incompressible flow: 4 ( 0. so V1 ≈ 0 .12 m s )( 0. 3. 90º. P. a combustor in which the fuel and air are mixed and combusted.5+1+2 ( 0. P2. so ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1. During charging of the reservoir with air. Determine the gage pressure P required to produce a water flow rate of 0.7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ → f = 0. We assume the surface of the reservoir is large. Solution: The steady.30m ) ρV = = 493. increases.15m3 s ) V 4V m V2 = = = =2. The flow is fully developed. and a turbine that drives an electrical generator.0196 2 ⎧⎛ kg ⎞⎛ m⎞ 850 kg ⎞ ( 2. The air compression process takes from 40 to 80% of the turbine output power. The system is steady. gage = 0 Therefore: V22 + ρ g ∑ hL 2 The losses include line loss.15 m3/s (in kPa).12 m s ) ⎫ ⎛ kN s 2 ⎞ ⎪ ⎪ ⎡ ⎤⎛ 9.26mm .11 1 6.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 .81 2 ⎟ ( 50m ) + ⎢( 0.30 m ⎠ 2 ⎝ ⎣ ⎦⎝ ⎪ ⎪ ⎝ 1000 kg m ⎠ ⎩ ⎭ =620kPa (gage) Answer 9.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 µ 3 The flow is turbulent. Some gas turbine plants store compressed air in salt domes or caverns for use during times when additional electric power is needed. Consider the system shown in the figure below. from Table 9-3. and for water from Appendix A-6 at 10 ºC. Kent = 0. Assumptions: 1. incompressible flow energy equation between points 1 and 2. so hT = hp = 0 .9 ⎤ ⎡⎛ 0. so from Figure 9-15a. 000 12.

9-53 Water at 20 °C is pumped from a reservoir through a 20-cm commercial steel pipe for 5 km from the pump outlet to a reservoir whose surface is 150-m above the pump. The flow is fully developed. For water from Appendix A-6 at 20 ºC. The losses include line loss and exit loss ( K exit = 1 ).0152 ) ⎜ ⎥⎜ P2. the pumping power required (in W). Approach: We can determine the pressure at 2 by using the steady.81 2 ⎟ (150m ) + ( 0. hP = = ρg ρg The pumping power is ⎛ P2.11 1 6. so P3. For commercial steel pipe. Assume pressure 1 is atmospheric.10 m3/s.000225 ⎞1.0152 ⎟ + ⎟ + Re ⎥ 645.7 ⎠ ⎢⎝ 3. g − P g P2. The system is steady.85×10-4 Ns m 2 µ 3 4 ( 0.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ = −1.10 m s )( 3390 kN m ) (1kWs 1kNm ) =339kW ⎝ ρg ⎠ 9. incompressible flow energy equation between points 2 and 3 is: P V2 P2 V2 + 2 + z2 + hP = 3 + 3 + z3 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g The reservoir is large.9 ⎤ ⎡⎛ 0. g = ρ g ⎢( z3 − z2 ) − 2 + K exit 2 + f = ρ ⎢ g ( z3 − z 2 ) + f ⎥ ⎥ D 2g ⎦ D 2 ⎦ 2g 2g ⎣ ⎣ The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness. Assumptions: 1. Expressing P2 and P3 in terms of gage pressure. ρ = 998.20m ) ρV Re = = = 645. The flow rate is 0.57 .85 × 10−4 Ns m 2 .045 mm. incompressible flow energy equation between points 2 and 3. g = ⎜ 998. and the pipe diameters at 1 and 2 are the same. so hP = hT = 0 .2 ⎠ ⎥ ⎝ 1000N ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ b) Applying the same energy equation between points 1 and 2. 2.10 m3 s ) V 4V m V = = = =3. Determine: a. so V3 ≈ 0 .18 m s ) ⎤ ⎛ kN ⎞ ⎢⎜ 9.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ → f = 0. the pressure at the pump outlet (in kPa) b. Solution: a) The steady.2 kg m ) ( 3.9 ⎤ = −1. g = 0 .045 200 = 0.18 m s )( 0. g ⎞ 3 2 W = mghP = ρVg ⎜ Answer ⎟ = VP2. 000 9.000225 . ε D = 0.18 2 2 A πD s π ( 0.2 kg m3 . g ⎡ ⎡ V2 V2 L V22 ⎤ L V22 ⎤ P2. Properties are constant. 000 ⎥ f ⎢⎝ 3. Solving for P2.7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ Substituting known values into the pressure drop equation: 2 kg ⎞ ⎡⎛ m⎞ ⎛ ⎛ 5000 ⎞ ( 3.11 6. 3. There is no pump or turbine.20m ) This is turbulent flow so ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1. The pump power can be calculated with the same equation but applied between points 1 and 2. Velocity is : D ( 998. µ = 9. g = ( 0. ε = 0. g 1. Therefore: P2.2 3 ⎟ Answer ⎟ ⎟ =3390kPa (gage) m ⎠ ⎢⎝ s ⎠ 2 ⎝ ⎝ 0.

15 200 ⎞1. Properties are constant.20 0.7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ → f A = 0.19 m s ) z1 − z = ( 0.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 3 ReB = ReA ( DA DB ) = 493.15 m3/s of water at 10 °C. increasing the diameter of pipe A would be the first option to try. For galvanized iron pipe ε =0. The system is steady. 2.12 m s 2 2 2 2 VC = VA ( DA DC ) = ( 4.20 ⎠ 2 ( 9. 000 ReC = ReA ( DA DC ) = 369. The first pipe is 600-m long.77 m s )( 0. 40-cm in diameter. ρ = 999.0176 ) ⎜ + ( 0.0188 ) ⎜ + ( 0. 4. the second pipe is 800-m long.20m ) VB = VA ( DA DB ) = ( 4.19 m s The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness.20m ) = = 739. µ = 12. and for water from Appendix A-6 at 10 ºC.20 0. 30-cm diameter. 000 T the flow is turbulent. 9. The steady.77 m s )( 0.30 ) =2.30 ⎠ 2 ( 9.9-54 Two reservoirs are connected by three galvanized iron pipes in series. Solution: The steady. and minor losses are neglected. The Reynolds numbers are: ReA = ρV D ( 999.81m s 2 ) ⎝ 0. 000 µ 12. if more flow were desired through this system.40 ⎠ 2 ( 9.40 ) =1. so V1 = V2 = 0 and P = P2 . f B = 0.58 . 3.0176 ) ⎜ ⎟ ⎟ ⎟ ⎝ 0.6 kg m ) ( 4. 2 2 2 ⎛ 600 ⎞ ( 4.77 m s )( 0. determine the elevation difference between the reservoirs (in m).12 m s ) ⎛ 1200 ⎞ (1. and the third pipe is 1200-m long. 20-cm diameter.77 m s ) ⎛ 800 ⎞ ( 2.9m Answer Comments: Note that pipe A losses dominate the total pressure loss.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 . Neglect minor losses.15mm . The flow is fully developed.8m=79. 000 ⎥ fA ⎢⎝ 3.0176 and f C = 0. For a flow of 0. so ⎡⎛ 0. For a given elevation difference.7m+3.0188 Similarly. Therefore. Approach: The elevation difference drives the flow.81m s 2 ) ⎝ 0.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎟ + 739. incompressible flow energy equation is used to calculate the elevation difference. There is no 1 pump or turbine. Assumptions: 1.11 1 6.77 2 2 s AA π DA π ( 0.15 m3 s ) V 4V m VA = = = =4.6 kg m3 .81m s 2 ) =65.0170 .9 ⎤ = −1. so hP = hT = 0 . z1 − z2 = f A L V2 LA VA2 L V2 + f B B B + fC C C DA 2 g DB 2 g DC 2 g The velocities are: Using conservation of mass: 4 ( 0.4m+10. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g At points 1 and 2 the areas are large and the pressure is atmospheric. That pressure head is consumed by the frictional losses in the line. Therefore.

5 and Kvalve = 2. so P1 = P2.667ft ⎡ 2 ( 32.59 ft s )( 0. 3.1. ρ = 62. From Table 9-3. a reservoir is connected to a canal with an 8-in.667ft ) = = 406. a half closed gate valve.2 ft s ) ( -55ft ) ⎢.4 lbm ft 3 . Kexit = 1.1+1+3 [1.9-55 In a water system. For cast iron pipe ε =0. 3 ft3/s of water at 50 °F flows through the pipe. cast iron pipe. Kbend = 1. so hT = hp = 0 . incompressible flow energy equation between points 1 and 2. With an elevation difference of 55 ft between the reservoir surface and the pipe outlet.7 ⎠ ⎢⎝ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ L= 2 ⎤ 0. and for water from Appendix B-6 at 50 ºF.300 Re = 88 × 10−5 lbm ft s µ The flow is turbulent.667ft ) The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness.59 ft s ) ⎣ ⎦ → f = 0. Properties are constant. Assumptions: 1.59 2 2 A πD s π ( 0. and the exit from the reservoir is sharp edged.9 ⎤ ⎡⎛ 0. Solution: The steady. The system has three regular 90° threaded elbows.59 .8log ⎢⎜ + ⎥ = −1.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎟ ⎟ + Re ⎥ 3. The flow is fully developed.0214 Answer 9.4 lbm ft ) ( 8. The velocity is determined from conservation of mass for incompressible flow: 4 ( 3ft 3 s ) V 4V ft V = = = =8. Approach: The length can be determined by applying the steady.667 ⎞1. taking into account all the minor losses: 2 ⎛ L ⎞V 0 = ( z2 − z1 ) + ⎜ f + K valve + K exit + 3K bend ⎟ ⎝ D ⎠ 2g Solving for the length: ⎤ D ⎡ 2 g ( z2 − z1 ) − ( K valve + K exit + 3K bend ) ⎥ L = ⎢− 2 f ⎣ V ⎦ From Figure 9-15b.9 ⎤ = −1.00085ft . so V1 ≈ V2 ≈ 0 .7 406. The frictional losses must be calculated. µ = 88 × 10−5 lbm ft s . so ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1.0.11 6. We assume the surface of the reservoir and canal are large.0214 ⎢ ⎥ (8. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no pump or turbine.11 1 6.5]) ⎥ =1260ft 2 0. Determine the total length of straight pipe in the system (in ft).300 ⎥ f ⎠ ⎢⎝ 3.( 2. and the pressure at 1 and 2 are atmospheric.00085 0. 2. The system is steady. 3 ρV D ( 62. Therefore.

For cast iron pipe ε =0.73 ft3/s and V = 24. and for water from Appendix B-6 at 50 ºF. Approach: The elevation difference drives the flow. calculate velocity.500.830 2. an iterative solution is required. WT = ρ V (4) π ⎛ lbfs 2 ⎞ ⎛ 1hp s ⎞ ⎛ lbm ⎞ ⎛ ft ⎞ ⎛ π ⎞ ft ⎞ W⎞ 2⎛ ⎛ D 2 ghT = ⎜ 62.5ft ) = = 180.5ft )2 s (2) (3) For any reasonable flowrate. You connect the lake and turbine with 1000 ft of 6-in.. The surface of the small lake from where you will get the 50 °F water is 500 ft above where you will locate the turbine.8 14.2 ft s 2 ) 2 1 ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1. Answer Comments: For zero power output from the turbine. friction factor. 9.4 3 ⎟ ⎜ 5. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g At points 1 and 2 the areas are large and the pressure is atmospheric. f = 0. The turbine discharge is the same diameter as the inlet and is open to the atmosphere. Pressure head is consumed by the frictional losses in the line. Assumptions: 1. The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness. Determine the maximum power that can be produced (in W). and turbine power.2ft lbm ⎠ ⎝ 550ft lbf ⎠ ⎝ WT = 84. µ = 88 × 10−5 lbm ft s . Proceeding with the calculations: V ( ft 3 s ) V ( ft s ) WT ( W ) 2. and the losses are line and exit losses. so to find the maximum possible power.9 ⎤ = −1. so V1 = V2 = 0 and P = P2 .1 ft/s. Therefore. you decide to produce your own electric power for your vacation home using a hydroturbine. ρ = 62.5 ft ) ⎜ 32.2 2 ⎟ ( hT ft ) ⎜ ⎟⎜ ⎟ ⎜ 746 ⎟ 4 ft ⎠ ⎝ s ⎠⎝ 4 ⎠ s ⎠ hp ⎠ ⎝ ⎝ ⎝ 32. The system is steady with constant properties. 3.760 At maximum power.7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ Therefore.75 76. the flow is turbulent.00085 ft .6hT V W (5) The procedure to follow is to use the above five equations to calculate the maximum power: guess a volume flow rate. the volume flow rate would be 4. The flow is fully developed.4 lbm ft )( 5.09V ft s ) ⎜ ⎟ +1⎥ ⎝ 0.09V ⎟ ⎜ ⎟ ( 0. turbine head.0274 and Re = 487. Turbine power can be calculated with the steady.590 2.6 13.09V ft s ) ( 0.9-56 On your land high in the Rocky Mountains.4 lbm ft 3 . ⎛ L V2 V2 ⎞ (1) hT = z1 − z2 − ⎜ f + K exit ⎟ 2g ⎠ ⎝ D 2g where K exit = 1 and WT = mghT . Increase the volume flow and recalculate until a maximum power is obtained.26 76. Neglect minor losses. incompressible flow energy equation.5 ⎠ ⎦ 2 ( 32. Solution: The steady.7 13.24 76.60 . There is no 1 pump. so ⎡ hT = 500ft − ⎢ f ⎣ ⎛ 1000 ⎞ ⎤ ( 5. ( hP = 0 ).11 6.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎟ + Re ⎥ f ⎢⎝ 3. The velocity is: Re = V = ρV D ( 62. 2. 600V 88 × 10−5 lbm ft s µ 3 4 (V ft 3 s ) V 4V ft = = =5.09V A π D 2 π ( 0. Reynolds number. cast iron pipe.

84V ft s ) ( 2 12 ft ) = = 722.5 = 2. Properties are constant.2 lbm ft )( 45.2 21.2 lbm ft 3 . 200V Re = 65.0 V ( ft 3 s ) 0.2 P2 − P3 = ⎢ ⎢ 100ft ⎥ ⎣ ⎦ The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness.9-57 Fire trucks have pumps to boost the pressure of the water supplied by a fire hydrant.9 ⎤ 1 = −1.5 → Velocity is : ρV D ( 62.7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ ⎡ 2 ( P2 − P3 ) D ⎤ V2 = ⎢ ⎥ ρ fL ⎣ ⎦ ft 3 s Now perform the iteration: V ( ft 3 s ) V = V 45.0139 0. and pump power are calculated with the steady.492 ft f 0. 2.9 361. However.11 6. P2 − P3 L V22 = f D 2g ρg 0.2 (gage).5 s V (ft/s) Re f 0. incompressible flow energy equation between points 2 and 3: P V2 P2 V2 + 2 + z2 + hP = 3 + 3 + z3 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g The duct is constant area and horizontal. and there are no minor losses: ⎡ 2 ( P2 − P3 ) D ⎤ V2 = ⎢ ⎥ ρ fL ⎣ ⎦ From the design pressure drop specification: ⎡ ( 25lbf in. Solution: a) To find the design flow rate.2 ) ( 2 12 ft ) ( 32. nozzle exit velocity.000 0. Approach: Flow rate. For water from Appendix B-6 at 70 ºF. so assuming a smooth duct: ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1.5 ⎡ 2 ( 62. this is turbulent flow.8 × 10−5 lbm fts . the nozzle exit velocity (in ft/s) c.2 ) ⎤ ⎥ ( 250ft ) =62.462 0. 3.2 (gage). diameter smooth fire hose.462 21. apply the steady.5lbf in. 2-in. so an iterative solution is required.5lbf in. the design flow rate (in gal/min) b. so V2 = V3 and z2 = z3 There is no pump or turbine. ρ = 62.458 .5 22. incompressible flow energy equation. Water must reach the nozzle at the hose exit at 100 lbf/in.500 This is satisfactory convergence. the equation must be applied across three different segments of the system.0141 V (ft/s) 21. Consider a fire truck that has a 250-ft long. determine: a.2 333. The flow is fully developed. Water from the hydrant reaches the pump inlet at 60 lbf/in. so hP = hT = 0 . so the volume flow rate is: 9.84V 2 A π ( 2 12 ft ) s For any reasonable flow rate.)2 ⎥ ⎣ ⎦ 0. The system is steady.61 0. If the design pressure drop specification for the hose is 25 psi/100 ft of length.2 ft lbm lbf s 2 ) ⎤ ⎥ =⎢ ⎢ ( 62. Assumptions: 1. the pump power required if the pump has a mechanical efficiency of 75% (in hp).2 lbm ft 3 ) f ( 250ft )(1ft 12in.84 0.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎟ + Re ⎥ f ⎢⎝ 3. µ = 65.8 × 10−5 lbm fts µ 3 4 (V ft 3 s ) V ft V = = =45.

and incorporating other losses in terms of pump efficiency: P −P P −P hp = 1 2 and WP = mghp = ρVg 1 2 = V ( P − P2 ) 1 ρg ρg This is the power into the fluid.(100+62. (1hp s 550ft lbf ) (144in.4 hp Answer 9.5 ) ⎤ lbf in.458ft s ) ⎡60.V = ( 0.)2 ⎣ ⎦ 0.75 = -16.2 lbm ft 3 ) (1ft 12in. ft ) ⎣ ⎦ 1 WP = = ηP 0.62 . we apply the energy equation between points 3 and 4.2 ft lbm lbf s 2 ) ft ⎞ ⎤ ⎛ =⎢ + ⎜ 21.1337ft 3 ) =206 gal min Answer b) To find the nozzle exit velocity. so V1 = V2 and z1 = z2 There is no turbine ( hT = 0 ) and no minor losses.458ft 2 s ) ( 60s min ) (1gal 0.2 )( 32.0 ⎟ ⎥ s⎠ ⎥ ⎢ ⎝ ( 62. applying the energy equation from point 1 to2: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g The duct is constant area and horizontal. So taking into account pump efficiency: 3 2 2 2 V ( P − P2 ) ( 0.5 = 124 ft s Answer c) To find the pumping power.5 2 ⎡ 2 (100 lbf in. Assuming no losses: V2 P3 V2 P + 3 = 4 + 4 ρ g 2g ρ g 2g ⎡ 2 ( P3 − P4 ) ⎤ + V32 ⎥ V4 = ⎢ ρ ⎣ ⎦ 0.

determine which installation requires the smallest required pumping power (in W).6 kg m ) ( 3.025 m3 s ) V 4V m V = = = =3. an exit loss. and 5 elbow losses. 1 Therefore: hP = z2 − z1 + ∑ hL All piping is the same diameter. The pump can be located in one of three places: 1) level with the lake surface.10 ⎝ ⎝ ⎠ 2 ( 9.11 6. The flow is fully developed. 400 ⎥ f ⎢⎝ 3.18 m s )( 0.26mm.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ → ⎟ + ⎟ + Re ⎥ 246. Approach: The pumping power is calculated with the steady. The system is steady. Velocity is : 4 ( 0. Kent = 0.7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ From Table 9-3.0 1 f = 0.6 kg m3 .025 m3/s.7 ] ⎟ WP = ⎜ 25.26 100 = 0. ε = 0.81m s 2 ) ⎥ ⎝ kg m ⎠ ⎝ N m ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ = 17.960 W Answer 9. the preferred location is either level or above the lake.10m ) =25. The only difference in these locations is the length of straight pipe. and from Figure 9-15.6 kg m3 ) ( 3. and the suction pipe would be 8-m long and the connecting pipe would total 145-m long.9 ⎤ = −1. incompressible flow energy equation applied between points 1 and 2. 3.0257 ] ⎟⎜ ⎟ s ⎠⎝ s ⎠⎢ 0.0026 : ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1.0257 The mass flow rate is: The power is: m = ρ V = ( 999. The suction pipe is constructed of 10-cm diameter cast-iron pipe (assume no minor losses).11 6. so hT = 0 .0 kg s A 2 2 2 kg ⎞⎛ m ⎞⎡ 156 ⎛ ⎛ ⎞ ( 3. so V1 ≈ V2 ≈ 0 and P = P2 There is no turbine.18 m s )( π 4 )( 0.18 2 2 A πD s π ( 0. Pumping power is: 2 ⎡ ⎛ L ⎞V ⎤ WP = mghp = mg ⎢ z2 − z1 + ⎜ f + K ent + K exit + 5 K bend ⎟ ⎥ ⎝ D ⎠ 2g ⎦ ⎣ The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness.10m ) = = 246.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 . The connecting pipe also is 10-cm diameter cast iron and has five long radius 90° threaded elbows. and the suction pipe would be 6-m long and the connecting pipe would total 150-m long. ρ = 999.7. For a flow of 0. and 3) 5-m above the lake surface.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 µ This is turbulent flow so for cast iron pipe.9-58 Water is pumped from a lake to a pond that is 50 m above the lake. the location 10 m below the surface has a length of 163 m. µ = 12. 400 Re = 12. For water from Appendix B-6 at 10 ºC. and a connecting pipe runs from the pump to the pond. Assumptions: 1.5 and Kexit = 1.9 ⎤ ⎡⎛ 0.81 2 ⎟ ⎢50m+ ⎜ [ 0.7 ⎠ ⎢⎝ 3.0026 ⎞1. So based solely on the pumping power.10m ) 3 ρV D ( 999.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ = −1. incompressible flow energy equation between points 1 and 2 is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g The lake and pond surface areas are large.0 ⎟⎜ 9. 2. ε D = 0.0+5 [ 0. The location level at the lake and 5 m above the lake have total pipe lengths of 156 m. and the suction pipe would be 11-m long and the connecting pipe would total 160-m long. The preferred pump location can be determined by comparing losses for each system. 2) 10-m below the lake surface.63 . Properties are constant.18 m s ) ⎤ ⎛ N s ⎞ ⎛ W s ⎞ ⎥⎜ +0. A suction pipe runs from the lake to a pump. Kbend = 0. Solution: The steady. Minor losses in all pump locations include an entrance loss.5+1.

The pump has a mechanical efficiency of 75% and is driven by a motor that has an efficiency of 92%.00015 ⎞1.92 ) Answer Answer 9.9 ⎤ ⎡⎛ 0.12 V = = = 2 s A π D2 π ( 0. ⎛ L V2⎞ L V2 P2 − P = ρ g ∑ hL = ρ g ⎜ f ⎟= f ρ 1 D 2 ⎝ D 2g ⎠ The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness.64 .30m ) = = 493. 3.9 ⎤ = −1.00015 : 1 ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1. Properties are constant. For water from Appendix A-6 at 10 ºC. c) For the cost of running the pump: CWt ( $0. incompressible flow energy equation between points 2 and 1 is: P2 V2 P V2 + 2 + z2 + hP = 1 + 1 + z1 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g The pipe diameter is constant. applying the energy equation from point 1 to2: P −P P −P and WP = mghp = ρVg 1 2 = V ( P − P2 ) hp = 1 2 1 ρg ρg kN ⎞ ⎛ 1kW s ⎞ ⎛ WP = ( 0.045mm. Ignoring minor losses. Approach: Pressure drop and pumping power both can be calculated with the steady.15 m3 s ) 4V m V =2. ε = 0.7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ 2 f = 0. Solution: a) The steady.500 yr Cost = = ηPηm ( 0. the pressure drop (in kPa) b.11 6. The water at 10 °C is continuously circulated through a closed flow loop and used as needed.0148 kg ⎞ ( 2.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 This is turbulent flow so for commercial steel pipe.10 kWhr )( 83. ρ = 999.15 m3 s ) ⎜ -555 2 ⎟ ⎜ Answer ⎟ =-83.7 ⎠ ⎢⎝ 3.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 . Velocity is: 4 ( 0.2kW m ⎠ ⎝ 1kN m ⎠ ⎝ The minus sign indicates power is input to the pump. Determine: a.9-59 Many universities have a central facility that produces chilled water for use in cooling all the buildings on campus. µ = 12.8log ⎢⎜ + = −1.300 ⎥ f ⎢⎝ 3. so hP = hT = 0 .6 kg m ) ( 2. Assumptions: 1.045 300 = 0. ε D = 0. incompressible flow energy equation.10/kWhr and the system runs 7.15 m3/s. The flow is fully developed. the pumping power required (in kW) c.12 m s ) ⎛ 1kN ⎞ ⎛ 5000 ⎞ ⎛ P2 − P = ( 0.6 kg m3 .12 m s )( 0. 2.300 Re = µ 12.30 ⎠ ⎝ ⎝ 1000N ⎠ b) To find the pumping power.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎥ → ⎟ ⎟ + Re ⎥ 493.2kW )( 7500 hr yr ) = $90. the annual cost if electricity costs $0.75)( 0. so V1 = V2 and horizontal z1 = z2 There is no pump or turbine.30m ) 3 ρV D ( 999. Consider a system that consists of 5 km of 30-cm commercial steel pipe with a flow rate of 0. The system is steady. The equation must be applied across different sections of the system.11 6.500 hr/yr.0148 ) ⎜ 1 ⎟ ⎜ 999.6 3 ⎟ ⎜ ⎟ =555kPa 2 m ⎠ ⎝ 0.

9.28ft s ) (1ft 12in.600ft =121mi Answer b) To find the pumping power. apply the steady.8log ⎢⎜ + = −1.7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ This is turbulent flow so with ε = 0. However. The design flow rate is 1. So taking into account pump efficiency: 2 WP = ( 8.) 3 2 2 (1200-50 ) lbf in.9 ⎤ ⎡⎛ 0.11 6. so -31.1337ft 3 gal ) (1day 24hr )(1hr 3600s ) 4V ft V =8. To limit the required pipe wall thickness. Solution: a) To find the maximum length.000125 → f = 0. 000 ⎥ f ⎢⎝ 3. 3.0005 ft.11 6. the maximum spacing between pumping stations (in km) b. the maximum allowable oil pressure is 1200 psig. To keep dissolved gases in solution in the crude oil. and there are no minor losses: Solving for length Velocity is : V = L= P2 − P3 L V22 = f ρg D 2g 2 ( P2 − P3 ) D ρf V2 4 (1. so hP = hT = 0 . 2.2 ft 2 ) =-31. so V2 = V1 and z2 = z1 There is no pump or turbine. Approach: The maximum length and pumping power are calculated with the steady. The oil has ρ = 58 lbm/ft3 and µ = 0. applying the energy equation from point 1 to 2: P −P P −P and WP = mghp = ρVg 1 2 = V ( P − P2 ) hp = 1 2 1 ρg ρg This is the power into the fluid.0113lbm fts 1 ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1.300hp This does not take into account pump efficiency.0168 L= ( 58lbm ft ) ( 0. With the given properties 3 ρV D ( 58lbm ft ) ( 8.0005 4 = 0. with a wall roughness of approximately 0. The system is steady.85 Comments: The minus sign indicates that power must be supplied to the pump.7 ⎠ ⎢⎝ 3.0113 lbm/ft·s. 000 Re = µ 0.6×106 barrel day ) ( 42gal barrel ) ( 0.28ft s )( 4 ft ) = = 170.300hp WP = = -36.65 .0168)(8.9-60 The Alaskan oil pipeline is 48-in.800hp Answer 0. Determine: a.0005ft. Properties are constant.2 ( 4 ft ) ( 32.28 = = 2 s A π D2 π ( 4ft ) The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness.6 × 106 barrels per day (1 barrel = 42 gal). the equation must be applied across different segments of the system. ε D = 0. The flow is fully developed. incompressible flow energy equation between points 2 and 1: P2 V2 P V2 + 2 + z2 + hP = 1 + 1 + z1 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g The pipe is constant area and horizontal.000125 ⎞1.28ft s ) ( -1150 lbf in.2 ) (π 4 )( 4ft ) (1hp s 550ft lbf ) (144in. Assumptions: 1.2 ft lbm lbf s 2 ) 2 =638. the minimum oil pressure is 50 psig.9 ⎤ = −1. incompressible flow energy equation. in diameter. the pumping power at each station if the pump mechanical efficiency is 85% (in kW).8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎥ ⎟ ⎟ + Re ⎥ 170.

Determine: a. the hydraulic diameter must be used: 4 ( 0.1774 kg m )( 0.1m s f = 0.1774 kg m3 .9 ⎤ 1 (4) = −1.40m ) (2) Because this is a non-circular duct.9-61 For air at 300 K and one atmosphere. 2. The fan discharges into a smooth rectangular duct 20-cm by 40-cm. and friction factor f.8log ⎢⎜ + ⎥ = −1. Properties are constant. hP = f Velocity is : V = 3 V (V m min ) (1min 60s ) m = =0.0123 h fan = 495m of air = 58.11 6. an iterative solution is required. The duct is smooth.66 . Because the friction factor depends on flow rate. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g Let location 1 be just upstream from the fan and station 2 at the end of the duct.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ ⎟ ⎟ + Re ⎥ Re ⎥ f ⎢⎝ 3. 3.846 × 10−5 Ns m 2 . the flow rate if the duct is 75-m long (in m3/min). so V1 = V2 and z1 = z2 There is no turbine. incompressible flow energy equation. The flow is fully developed.11 6. this is turbulent flow so with a smooth duct: ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1. we obtain For L = 30 m V = 285 m3 min V = 59. 300 K. The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness.20m+0. The duct is constant 1 area and horizontal. Reynolds number Re. so P = P2 . so hT = 0 .3m s f = 0. where h is the pressure rise across the fan in cm of water and V is the air flow rate in m3/min.40m ) Re = D ρ V h (1. 4. The system is steady.9 ⎤ ⎡⎛ 0 ⎞1.7 ⎠ ⎢⎝ 3.208V m s ) ( 0. For air from Appendix A-7at 100 kPa.208V A s ( 0. calculate velocity V.20m )( 0. the flow rate if the duct is 30-m long (in m3/min) b.5cm of water Answer For L = 75 m V = 198 m3 min V = 41.7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ The solution procedure is to solve the above four equations simultaneously using an iterative procedure: guess a volume flow rate V .2667m pwetted 2 ( 0. Performing the iterations. a fan performance curve can be approximated with h = 70 − 3 × 10−4 V 2 .3cm of water Answer 9.20m )( 0. ρ = 1.40m ) 4 Ax Dh = = =0. Approach: We must balance the pressure loss in the duct against the pressure head produced by the fan. and there are no minor losses: L V2 (1) D 2g where hP is produced by the fan (expressed in consistent units). µ = 1. Pressure drop is calculated directly with the steady. Assumptions: 1.267m ) = = 3540V µ 1. Then calculate the pressure drop across the duct and the pressure rise across the fan. When these two quantities are equal.846 × 10−5 Ns m 2 3 (3) For any volume flow greater than 1 m3/min.0116 h fan = 387m of air = 45. then the flow has been determined. Solution: The steady.

11 1 6.56 .9-62 A town water system is constructed to supply water at a flow rate of 0.7 ⎠ ⎣ ⎦ Similarly.27 = = 2 2 s AA π DA π ( 0.5 + 0.67 .15 + ( 0. The flow is fully developed. Available cast iron pipe is to be used and the gate valve is fully open. so V1 = V2 = 0 and P = P2 .15 ) =2. 000 For AB AA = ( DB DA ) = ( 0.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 . incompressible flow energy equation is used to calculate the elevation of the upper reservoir. Kexit = 1. 2 2 The flow is turbulent. The system is steady. For cast iron pipe ε =0. ρ = 999.15 0.20m ) 2 VB = VA ( DA DB ) = (1. Kvalve = 0.15 + 0. 3. Properties are constant. 9-14.20m ) ReA = = = 197. 000 µ 12.15 ⎠ ⎦ 2 ( 9.2m Answer 9. There is no 1 pump or turbine.0233 From Table 9-3.5.20 ⎠ ⎦ 2 ( 9.0233) ⎜ ⎟⎥ ⎟⎥ 2 ⎝ 0.04 m3 s ) 4V m V =1. and Kcontract ≈ 0.8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ → f A = 0. Kent = 0.04 m3/s as shown below. so hP = hT = 0 . Approach: The elevation difference drives the flow.20 0.32m=183. µ = 12. 2.81m s 2 ) ⎣ 2 2 =175m+1.20 ) = 0.26 m s ) z1 = 175m + ⎢ 0.27 m s )( 0.0 Therefore.0221) ⎜ + ⎢1 + ( 0.6 kg m3 .88m+6. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g At points 1 and 2 the areas are large and the pressure is atmospheric.26 200 ⎞1. and 9-15.0221 ⎟ + 197. Figures 9-13. and for water from Appendix A-6 at 10 ºC. The steady.6 kg m ) (1. f B = 0.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 3 ReB = ReA ( DA DB ) = 263.15 (assumed fully open). Determine the height to which the upper reservoir dam (reservoir surface elevation) must be built (in m).27 m s ) ⎛ 150 ⎞ ⎤ ( 2. ⎡ ⎡ ⎛ 200 ⎞ ⎤ (1. Solution: The steady. Assumptions: 1.15. 000 ⎥ fA ⎢⎝ 3.26mm . so ⎡⎛ 0. The Reynolds numbers are: ρV D ( 999.9 ⎤ = −1.81m s ) ⎣ ⎝ 0. The water is at 20 °C.26 m s 2 The friction factor is a function of Reynolds number and roughness. Therefore. That pressure head is consumed by the frictional losses in the line. ⎡ L ⎤ V2 ⎡ L ⎤ V2 z1 = z2 + ⎢ K ent + K valve + K contract + f A A ⎥ A + ⎢ K exit + f B B ⎥ B DA ⎦ 2 g ⎣ DB ⎦ 2 g ⎣ The velocities are: Using conservation of mass: VA = 4 ( 0.27 m s )( 0.

0ft+0.0038V + 86 (1) (2) where hp is in ft and V is in gal/min. The system is steady. the steady. as well as the elevation head.1ft Answers 9.0. where V is in gal/min and hp is in ft.0038V + 86 .882VA2 The above three equations are solved simultaneously to find the operating point of the pump.15 .00409V The velocity is: VA = = = 2 2 AA π DA s π (10 12 ft ) The head loss must be balance against the head added by the pump: hP = −4 × 10−6 V 2 + 0. The given pump head curve is equated to the head loss calculation to determine the operating point.5+ ( 0.9-63 The pump in an existing water system (shown below) fails and must be replaced.018 ) ⎟ ⎜ 0. The flow is fully developed. Determine the flow rate in the system (in gal/min). and K valve = 0.667 ⎠ ⎥ 2 ( 32.68 . Assumptions: 1.667 ⎠ ⎝ 0. so a manufacturer proposes a pump with a pump curve: hP = −4 × 10−6 V 2 + 0. Therefore.93ft s hP = 83.833 ⎞ ⎛ 800 ⎞ ⎤ +⎜ hP = (1204-1152 ) ft+ ⎢ 0. and pressure is atmospheric. we obtain: V = 1450 gal min VA = 5.1337 ft gal ) (1min 60s ) V 4V ft =0. The losses include entrance. so P = P2 . and line losses. so V1 = V2 = 0 . Substituting the known information into the head loss equation: 4 ⎡ VA2 40 ⎛ 0. Solving them.018 can be used for both pipes. The steady. Solution: From point 1 to point 2. From Table 9-3 and Figures 9-13 and 9-14. 3.833 ⎝ 0. A duplicate is not available. K exit = 1. assuming the valve is fully open. exit. K ent = 0.2 ft s 2 ) ⎢ ⎣ ⎦ (3) Simplifying: hP = 52. incompressible flow energy equation is used to calculate the required pump head. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no turbine. 1 ⎛ L ⎞V2 ⎛ L ⎞V2 hP = ( z2 − z1 ) + ⎜ K ent + f A A ⎟ A + ⎜ K valve + K exit + f B B ⎟ B DA ⎠ 2 g ⎝ DB ⎠ 2 g ⎝ From conservation of mass: mA = mB → VB = VA ( DA DB ) 2 Substituting this into the above pump head equation: 4 ⎡ LA ⎛ D A ⎞ ⎛ LB ⎞ ⎤ VA2 hP = ( z2 − z1 ) + ⎢ K ent + f A +⎜ ⎟ ⎜ K valve + K exit + f B ⎟⎥ DA ⎝ DB ⎠ ⎝ DB ⎠ ⎥ 2 g ⎢ ⎣ ⎦ 3 4 (V gal min )( 0. Properties are constant. 2. The gate valve is fully open and a friction factor of 0. valve.5. The areas at 1 and 2 are large. Approach: The pump must supply enough head to overcome frictional losses in the suction and discharge pipes.15+1+ ( 0. so hT = 0 .018 ) ⎟⎥ 0.

determine the flow rate through the sprinkler (in m3/s).15mm so that ε D = 0.9 ⎤ 1 ρV D = −1.6 kg m3 from Appendix A-6 and from Table 9-2 for galvanized pipe.5-cm diameter galvanized iron. The pipe diameter and elevation are constant. Approach: The total flow is such that all the pressure head at location 1 is used to balance line losses in the galvanized pipe and the creation of kinetic energy at the nozzle exits.5 cm2. so ⎡⎛ ε D ⎞1. Water at 10 °C is pumped through the spray arm that is constructed of 2. large central pivot sprinkler systems are used to irrigate large areas. The flow area of each nozzle is 1. and expressing the pressures in gage pressure. The flow through each nozzle is different and can be estimated using the Bernoulli equation.69 . we use the Bernoulli equation to calculate the flow through the nozzle: 2 V j1 Pj V2 P 1 + 1 + z1 = + + z j1 ρ g 2g ρ g 2g Neglecting the inlet velocity and the elevation difference. Consider the simplified schematic of a portion of such a sprinkler (shown below). 2. Solution: The frictional losses between each nozzle can be calculated with the steady.7 ⎠ Re ⎥ µ f ⎢⎝ ⎣ ⎦ To solve for the total flow. so hp = hT = 0 . with µ = 12. The flow is fully developed.15 25 = 0. The velocity is: V12 = V12 A = 4V12 π D 2 The flow between points 1 and 2 is the difference between what enters the system and what is leaving through the nozzle: V12 = V1 − V j1 P2 = P − f12 1 Assuming no losses in the nozzle. The pressure at the first nozzle is 250 kPa (gage).5 and the volume flow rate through a jet is V j1 = V j1 Aj .11 6. an iterative solution is required. Pj = 0 . The system is steady.9-64 In drier regions. we generalize the above equations for each pipe segment and nozzle: V1 = V j1 + V j 2 + V j 3 + V j 4 (1) P2 = P − f12 1 2 L V12 ρ D 2 (2) 9. Because the line losses are a function of flow rate and friction factor. The steady. Assumptions: 1. The flow is turbulent.9 × 10−4 Ns m 2 . Assuming turbulent flow in each pipe segment. Ignoring friction in each nozzle but not in the connecting lengths of pipe. incompressible flow energy equation. Properties are constant. V1 ≈ 0 and z1 = z j .8log ⎢⎜ ⎥ where Re = ⎟ + 3. ε = 0. Ignoring minor losses: 2 L V12 ρ D 2 Note that velocity and friction factor are different for each segment of pipe.006 . so V1 = V2 and z1 = z2 . incompressible flow energy equation must be used. 3. we obtain: V j1 = ( 2 P ρ ) 1 0. ρ = 999. P V2 P V2 1 For flow between location 1 and 2: + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no pump or turbine.

5 2 V23 2 2 V34 2 (3) (4) (5) (6) (7) (8) (9) (10) (11) V j 2 = ( 2 P2 ρ ) V j 3 = ( 2 P3 ρ ) V j 4 = ( 2 P4 ρ ) 0. different size nozzles or some other modification would be used to ensure equal flow through all nozzles. V j 3 .5 0.L ρ D L P4 = P3 − f 34 ρ D V12 = V1 − V j1 P3 = P2 − f 23 V23 = V12 − V j 2 V34 = V23 − V j 3 V j1 = ( 2 P ρ ) 1 0. V j 2 .00104 m 3 s V j 4 = 0. Solving the system of equations with appropriate software: V1 = 0.9kPa (gage) P4 = 14.00179 m s 3 P = 250kPa (gage) 1 P2 = 70.00081m3 s Comments: Note that with this design different flows exit at each nozzle.6kPa (gage) V j 3 = 0. Hence. P2 .00081m s 3 Answers V12 = 0. V12 . P3 . V34 . This would not be a good design.5 0. 9. since a farmer would want uniform coverage on a field.9kPa (gage) P3 = 23.00363m3 s V23 = 0. V j 4 . P4 .00185 m3 s V34 = 0. V1 .00336 m3 s V j 2 = 0.5 The eleven unknowns in this system of equations are: V j1 .00699 m3 s V j1 = 0. V23 .70 .

which can be used to obtain a ratio of the flow rates. The system is steady. and the solution would be iterative. P − P2 L V2 1 = f ρg D 2g Applying this equation to pipe A and pipe B.71 . In actual practice. from conservation of mass: A π 0. Approach: We assume the same pressure drop across these two pipes and ignore minor losses.05 ) ⎥ ⎣ ⎦ Because V = V = V D 2 4 .02 ) ⎤ =⎢ ⎥ = 0. so z1 = z2 .408 VB ⎢ ( 0.010 )( 50 )( 0.9-65 Two pipes are connected in parallel. 3. Therefore. Determine the ratio of the flow rates in the two pipes. 2. and the pipe is horizontal. and taking the ratio L V2 fA A A 0.02 ⎞ = ⎜ ⎟ = ( 0. The pipe is constant area. A ratio of the steady.010.5 VA VA ⎛ DA ⎞ ⎛ 0. Properties are constant. so hP = hT = 0 . Assumptions: 1. so V1 = V2 . 9. incompressible flow energy equations written for both pipes will give the ratio of the velocities.5 ⎡( P − P2 ) ρ g ⎤ A DA 2 g VA ⎛ f B LB DA ⎞ ⎣ 1 ⎦ =1= → =⎜ ⎟ VB ⎝ f A LA DB ⎠ L V2 ⎡( P − P2 ) ρ g ⎤ B ⎣ 1 ⎦ fB B B DB 2 g Substituting in known information: VA ⎡ ( 0. The second pipe is 5-cm in diameter 50-m long with a friction factor of 0. Solution: From point 1 to point 2. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 2 + 2 + z2 + + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no pump or turbine. with a known total flow. The first pipe is 2-cm in diameter and 100-m long with a friction factor of 0.012. the friction factors would need to be evaluated.065 VB VB ⎝ DB ⎠ ⎝ 0. The flow is fully developed.408 ) ⎜ ⎟ = 0.012 )(100 )( 0.05 ⎠ 2 2 Answer Comments: This answer is reasonable using the given friction factors. the steady.

hbr . C. 3. Therefore. The flow is fully developed. so hP = hT = 0 . Using the energy equation P V2 P V2 1 + 1 + z1 + hP = 4 + 4 + z4 + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g For each of the velocities: With no pump or turbine. incompressible flow energy equation is: P V2 P2 V2 + 2 + z2 + hP = 3 + 3 + z3 + + hT + ∑ hL ρ g 2g ρ g 2g There is no pump or turbine. P2 − P3 L V2 = f ρg D 2g Let hbr = ( P2 − P3 ) ρ g . Applying the pressure drop equation to each branch: hbr = f B hbr = fC hbr = f D LB VB2 DB 2 g LC VC2 DC 2 g LD VD2 DD 2 g V = (2) (3) (4) V 4V = A π D2 We have four equations and four unknowns: VB . 2. the steady. we obtain: VB = 9. Approach: We know the total flow through the system and that the head loss across the middle three branches (B. Doing so. which is the same for all three branches. so the velocity is constant. Each of the pipes is constant area. incompressible flow energy equations to obtain the required four equations. VC . since we calculated that above: 9. pipe and a 30-in. determine the flow rate in each of the three connecting pipes (in ft3/s) and the elevation difference from the entrance to the exit. and D) is the same. Therefore. We use conservation of mass and the steady. Vtot = VB + VC + VD (1) From point 2 to point 3. and we ignore minor losses.20 ft 3 s VD = 6. a 24-in. There are four unknowns in the problem: the head loss from 2 to 3. The pipe is horizontal.57 ft 3 s hbr = 26. All the pipes are concrete. The system is steady. and P = P4 . VD . With the given information. and noting that there are line losses in 1 pipe 1-2 and 3-4 and we know the line loss between 2-3. so z2 = z3 .9-66 For a storm sewer modification project. and the friction factors are shown on the figure. Solution: Conservation of mass with constant density water for the whole system is: mtot = mB + mC + mD where m = ρV .7ft Answers Now we need to evaluate the elevation difference between points 1and 4. The branches are horizontal For a total flow rate of 20 ft3/s of 60 °F water. Properties are constant. so hP = hT = 0 . no minor losses.72 . the equations can be solved simultaneously (iteratively) for the unknowns. pipe both open at their ends to the atmosphere are to be joined using three existing (but under-utilized pipes) as shown on the figure. Assumptions: 1. and the volume flows through the three branches.23ft 3 s VC = 4.

7ft ⎟⎥ ⎟⎥ 2 ⎝ 3 ⎠ ⎦ 2 ( 32.2ft Answer 9.2 ft s ) ⎣ ⎝ 2.97ft+8.5ft ) 2 =4.73 .07 ft s 2 ⎡ ⎡ ⎛ 2300 ⎞ ⎤ ( 2.07 ft s ) z1 − z4 = ⎢-1+ ( 0.z1 − z4 = − 2 2 L V2 ⎛ L ⎞V2 V12 V34 L V2 L ⎞V2 ⎛ + + hbr + f12 12 12 + f 34 34 34 = ⎜ −1 + f12 12 ⎟ 12 + ⎜ 1 + f34 34 ⎟ 34 + hbr D12 2 g D34 2 g ⎝ D12 ⎠ 2 g ⎝ D34 ⎠ 2 g 2g 2g For the velocities V12 = 4 ( 20 ft 3 s ) V 4V ft =2.83 = = 2 2 A π D12 s π ( 3ft ) 2 V34 = 4 ( 20 ft 3 s ) π ( 2.2 ft s 2 ) ⎣ = 1.7ft=37.022 ) ⎜ + ⎢1+ ( 0.83ft s ) ⎛ 4000 ⎞ ⎤ ( 4.020 ) ⎜ +26.5 ⎠ ⎦ 2 ( 32.48ft+26.

Problems in Gas Dynamics

Problems in Gas Dynamics

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