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Situation 13. Leprosy is an ancient disease and is a leading cause of permanent physical disability among the communicable diseases.

It is a chronic mildly communicable disease that mainly affects the skin, the peripheral nerves, the eyes and mucosa of the upper respiratory tract. 61. Assessment is done upon seeing a patient with leprosy. The following are early signs and symptoms, except: 1. Appearance of a skin patch 2. Loss of sensation on skin lesion 3. Inability to close eyelids 4. Hair growth over the lesion 5. Painful nerves 6. Loss of eyebrow 7. Ulcers that do not heal 8. Sinking of the nose bridge a. 3, 5 and 7 c. 3, 6 and 8 b. 2, 5 and 8 d. 2, 6 and 7 62. A person can get leprosy through the following except: 1. Inhalation of the infectious organism through a broken skin 2. Repeated skin to skin contact with untreated individual 3. Inhalation of the infectious organism from the nasal discharges of an untreated individual 4. Contact with articles soiled with discharges from lesions of leprosy patient a. 1 only c. 4 only b. 1 and 3 d. 3 and 4 63. Philip is a 55 year-old resident who is affected by leprosy and is on schedule for Multidrug Therapy. Which daily treatment is usually prescribed by a physician for lepromatous and borderline type in 28 days? a. Dapsone 10 mg and Rifampicin 600 mg b. Clofazimine 50 mg and Rifampicin 50 mg c. Rifampicin 150 mg and Dapsone 50 mg d. Clofazimine 50 mg and Dapsone 100 mg 64. Only in rare instances is there really a need to use laboratory and other investigations to confirm a diagnosis. However, when a clinical diagnosis is doubtful. This optional procedure is done to prevent misclassification and wrong treatment. a. Direct Sputum Smear Microscopy (DSSM) b. Slit Skin Smear (SSS) examination c. Mass Blood Smear (MBS) collection d. Purified Purine Derivative (PPD) test

Rashes which spread from the face to the trunk and limbs. cough. Rose spots d. ATS Situation 14. Skin eruptions which are abundant on covered areas of the body than on the exposed areas b. 3. Pseudomembrane c. A morbilliform rash appears on the 3rd or 4th day a. Varies from 3 days to 1 month or more. It is caused by a filterable virus 2. Gammaglobulin b. Koplik spots b.65. 6 and 8 67. except: a. 10 days from exposure to appearance of fever and about 14 days until rash appears b. 3. Nurse Lorie is taking care of Anne. rashes and temperature of 38ºC. commonly 13 to 17 days c. 2. The rashes doesn't end in a branny desquamation 4. 66. She has conjunctivitis. Preventive aspect of care is a priority consideration. 1. 2-3 weeks. Anne's immunity from her mother lasted only 6 months. Nurse Lorie knows that the incubation period of Rubeola is: a. conjunctivitis. Severe backache and rashes which are more abundant on extremities than on the trunk 70. The rash usually begins behind the ears and neck 6. Which of the following statements is true of Rubeola? 1. BCG c. The cause of death is usually from complications 7. Which of the following vaccine is also preventive measure? a. 5 and 7 b. 5. 1. high fever and tiny white spots in the mucosa inside the cheek c. 4. 4. 2. 7 and 8 d. 5 and 6 c. headache. DPT d. 5. 12 to 26 days. She was brought by her mother because of spots in her buccal mucosa. What do you call these spots? a. falling between 7-14days in high proportion of cases 68. 15 months old. coryza. usually 18 days d. It is an acute highly communicable infection 5. Administer as prescribed antipyretics to reduce fever . The characteristic signs of measles are which of the following group? a. Serum antibodies appear on the third day of the incubation period 8. 3. Vomiting. The prodrome period lasts for about 2 weeks 3. who is admitted to the hospital with Rubeola. 4. Forscheimer's spots 69. A nursing intervention that is important in caring for Anne would include the following. fine petechial and morbilliform rashes and epistaxis d.

except: a. 1. 2. Virus c. Diarrhea 7. As a preventive control measure for the said condition in #71. 5 and 6 d. Vangie is a 15 year-old child who is spending Christmas Vacation in Pangasinan. 3. A week before the vacation ends. Helminth b. Direct contact 74. Rose spots on trunk and abdomen 6. 4. 5 and 7 b. Vangie's condition is caused by a: a. Flies b. Typhoid fever 72.b. 2. she developed fever. 4. Intermittent fever 2. Amoebiasis d. Loss of appetite 4. Sanitary disposal of human feces and maintenance of fly proof latrine 2. Based on Vangie's clinical findings. 5 and 8 75. 3. Cholera b. Proper food handling and preparation 3. 3. 1. Nurse Ulysses will suspect Vangie to have contacted which infection? a. 3. Removal of stagnant water in empty water drums and flower pots . which of the following must be discussed in the health education program for the pubic? 1. Ensuring that the room is well lighted c. Slow pulse 5. diarrhea and rose spots on her abdomen. Rice watery stool 8. Bacteria d. Increase fluid intake of the child by drinking water frequently Situation 15. 5 and 6 c. Dysentery c. Airborne transmission d. 4. Contaminated food and water c. Nurse Ulysses provided the family with health education to prevent transmission of infection as the disease can be transmitted to family members through the following. Protozoa 73. 4. The characteristic signs of the said condition in #71 are which of the following? 1. Continued fever 3. Wearing face mask when administering nursing care to the child d. Bloody stool a. 71.

Metronidazole and Albendazole c. except: a. Ascariasis b. he may also manifest the following: . This parasite enters the intestinal mucosa and could be spread through autoinfection. All of the above 77. According to a nationwide survey on soil-transmitted helminthiasis (STH) among children aged 12-71 months old done by the DOH. tapeworm d. hookworm c. 3 and 4 b. Antihelminthic drugs used include: a. it showed a cumulative prevalence rate of 66 percent. Metronidazole 79. Taeniasis d. 76. There is a need to sustain mass deworming for 3 consecutive years to immediately control intestinal parasitism and other parasites among these infected children at the critical time of their growth and development. It is a parasitic disease that has similar manifestation with Pulmonary Tuberculosis. Praziquantel b. This is typically exemplify by: a. Bithionol c. 81. Studies have shown that STH infected children are prone to acquire other infections. Cotrimoxazole and Metronidazole d. vomiting. 2 and 3 d.4. In addition to the above mentioned signs and symptoms manifested by Lord Voldemort. Filariasis d. Ascariasis 80. UP and UNICEF in 2003. 1 and 2 Situation 16. He was rushed to the hospital and was diagnosed with Paralytic Shellfish Poisoning (PCP) or Red Tide Poisoning. Ethambutol d. Lord Voldemort complained of dizziness. Trichuriasis c. What is it? a. Albendazole and Mebendazole b. Ancylostomiasis b. headache and numbness of the face especially around the mouth after 45 minutes of eating shellfish. The treatment of choice for the condition in #77 is: a. whipworm b. Paragonimiasis 78. Trichuriasis c. Use of repellants and insecticides a. pinworm Situation 17. 1 and 4 c. The three major causes of intestinal parasitic infections in the Philippines are the following.

except: a. “Which sea foods can transmit red tide poisoning to human?” The nurse response included the following sea foods. Which of the following statement is not true about red tide poisoning? a. Catarrhal jaundice d. clams and mussels b. Nurse Bellatrix is giving health education to the family of Lord Voldemort regarding Red Tide Poisoning. hypertension. as long as you cook the shellfish properly at a boiling point. paresthesia and ataxia d. “No. The toxin is totally destroyed upon cooking Situation 18. Symptoms occur within minutes or several hours after ingestion of poisonous shellfish c.” c.” .” c. “Yes. Seizures. dysphagia. Giving of medications c. Tachycardia. hematemesis and chest pain c. sea cucumber 85. “There are no specific drugs used to treat hepatitis. The toxin is totally destroyed upon cooking b.” d. Severus was admitted with manifestation of jaundice accompanied by pruritus and urticaria. the toxins are easily destroyed by heat. 86. “Yes. crab meat c. “Does cooking the shellfish make it safe to eat?” Nurse Bellatrix's best response is: a. Management of Red Tide Poisoning includes: a. bradycardia. except: a. Inoculation hepatitis 87.” b. bradycardia and abdominal pain 82. the toxins are destroyed by freezing. Infectious hepatitis c. Floating sensation. Blurred vision and rapid rise in the blood pressure b.” 84. oysters and scallops d. Severus asked the nurse. the poisons are not destroyed by cooking. Lord Voldemort asked the nurse. Symptoms include tingling sensation and paresthesia 83. Do not induce vomiting b.a. Hepatitis A is also known by the following names. It is caused by a plankton d. “We can give you immune serum globulin. “Why don't you give me some medication to help me get rid of this problem?” Nurse Neville's best response would be: a. Give coconut milk and sodium bicarbonate d. Epidemic hepatitis b. “Sedatives can be given to help you relax. The mother of Lord Voldemort asked Nurse Bellatrix.” b. The patient was diagnosed with Hepatitis A. “No.

Cheeseburger. should have his urine be tested for the presence of the microorganism: a. 2. several areas in Davao City becomes flooded with water. Catarrhal jaundice and Ragpicker disease d. 3. Canned tuna c. 2. All except 5 b. and 6 d. “Vitamin supplements are frequently helpful and hasten recovery. Loss of appetite 2. Salad. All of the above Situation 19. Spiroketal jaundice and Japanese Seven Days Fever 92. Dobby. The lunch selection that would indicate the client's understanding and compliance with the dietary principles taught is: a. Turkey salad. Weil's disease and Trench fever c. who is suspected of having Leptospirosis. Urticaria 7. During the rainy season. The cooked food most likely to remain contaminated by the virus that causes Hepatitis A is which of the following? a. Leptospirosis is also known with the following names. After the 10th day of illness 93. During the first week of the illness c. Bradycardia 6. except: a. Enlargement of the lymph nodes 3. 4. Cottage cheese. Nurse Neville has instructed Severus about the type of diet should be eaten.” 88. Tachycardia 4. French fries and sherbet b. taco chips and chocolate pudding d. Fried tuna belly b. 6 and 7 c. Mud fever and Flood fever b. sliced chicken sandwich and gelatin dessert c. Broiled shrimp d. Steamed lobster 90. 1. 91. Clay-colored stools a.d. During the febrile period b. Jaundice 5. peanut butter sandwich and milk shake 89. Leptospirosis is one infection that is common during this time of year. Leptospirosis can be transmitted through: . During the first six months after contracting the infection d. 4. Which of the following signs and symptoms occur in a patient with Hepatitis A? 1.

I went to the drug store and bought 500 mg antibiotics 97. Management and treatment of Leptospirosis is symptomatic but a drug medication is prescribed at 200 mg orally once a week for prevention. Observed for 14 days d. Dolores Umbridge. 96. Albus asked if it is possible to be infected while swimming in public pools or rivers. while on her way home from work. “There is no danger during day time because leptospires die when exposed to sunlight. Airborne d. Injected with a vaccine b.” c. 201 b. Nurse Hermione replied that: a. Streptomycin Situation 20. Treated with antibiotics against rabies 98. Nurse Sirius asked Dolores what she did immediately after the incident. What is the drug of choice? a.a. 2015 c.” b. 95. was bitten by a stray dog. 2020 d. “Infection with leptospirosis is possible with recreational swimming in water contaminated with urine of human and animals having the infection. “You can protect yourself by applying 70% alcohol before swimming d. The Philippines has one of the highest prevalence rates of rabies in the whole world. Chloramphenicol c. 2025 . Approximately 300 to 600 Filipinos die of rabies every year. I washed my wound immediately with soap and water d. The nurse told Dolores's mother not to kill the dog because the dog will be: a. I ran after the dog and had bitten it too c. It is the objective of the Department of Health (DOH) to reduce the incidence of Human Rabies from 7 per million to 1 per million population by: a. Doxycycline d. Dolores's response indicates correct understanding of first aid measure when she says that: a. Open skin contact c. I went to the hospital and reported the incident b. Sexually transmitted 94. Rabies remains a public health problem in the Philippines. Zidovudine b. “This is not possible as long as you have no open wounds while swimming in public pools. Droplets b. Confined at a veterinary clinic c. Nurse Sirius interviewed Dolores and her mother at the Emergency Room to take the history before seeing a doctor.

Treat shock with IVF b. which of the following measures is included? a. Hemorrhage b. The treatment and control of dengue hemorrhagic fever include all of the following EXCEPT: a. Pregnant women. Removal of small collections of water such as flower vases d. What is the most common caused of death in patients with Rabies? a. Observation b. side walk vendors. Prophylactic drug treatment with antivirals c. pet owners. He noticed some pinpoint rashes on his legs. Considering that rabies is one of the most acutely fatal infections which causes the death of approximately 300 to 600 Filipinos annually. He is diagnosed with Dengue fever. voluntary pre-exposure prophylaxis among people who are at risk is highly recommended. These people include: a. Platelet administration . Health education d. Isolation of patient b. a student nurse began to feel joint pains and eye pains associated with high fever.99. All people living within an area where there are dogs that roam their neighborhood c. side walk vendors. The most effective control measure for dengue hemorrhagic fever is: a. Encourage vaccination c. Respiratory Paralysis d. Pet owners. Eradication of vector d. Community participation 34. Hydrophobia ituation 7: Ralph. Seizures c. health personnel working in anti-rabies units and children below 15 years old d. The best nursing intervention in the management of dengue fever among patients admitted in the hospital would be: a. Mass vaccination during rainy season b. veterinarians and infants 100. Barangay tanod officials patrolling the streets at night. animal handlers. Fogging or daily spraying of insecticides 32. Contact Isolation c. Mosquito control c. Administration of antivirals d. Concurrent disinfection 33. veterinarians and animal handlers b. In the prevention of dengue fever. 31.

Frequent handwashing c. Chest x-ray as diagnosed by the TBDC c. it is essential to counsel the client on the side effects of the treatment regimen. Which among the following is a contraindication for sputum collection? a. Beef 39. Chest x-ray after having three negative sputum smears 37. TB meningitis d. Flu-like symptoms b. Yellowish palms 40. Which is an independent nursing intervention for a patient with Dengue Hemorrhagic Fever? a. The CHN in the area alarmed by the reports decided to investigate the community. 42 years old. Hemoptysis c. An induration of 10 post tuberculin test d. Milk b. Give aspirin for fever and muscle pains b. Covering of mouth while coughing or sneezing . went to the Chest Center to avail of the free Direct Sputum Smear Microscopy.35. Miliary TB 38. Fish c. Mang Jose began his treatment regimen for tuberculosis. Mang Jose. Which among the following diagnostic tests does NOT indicate active tuberculosis? a. Which among the following diets shout be encouraged? a. He complains of frequent tingling sensation of his feet. Pleural effusion c. 36. As a nurse working in the Barangay Health Center. Red-colored urine d. Strict compliance to treatment regimen b. Give high fiber diet Situation 8: The BHW of Barangay Jacinto reported series of adults having cases of spasmodic coughing and fever for the past two weeks. Put ice bag over forehead if patient has nose bleed c. Proper disposal of soiled tissues d. Sputum smear positive times three b. Kangkong d. Which among the following is considered as the most important health teaching given to clients with Tuberculosis? a. Which among the following side effects should be reported immediately to the physician? a. Hemoptysis b. Place patient in prone position to relieve abdominal pain d.

Perform handwashing after food preparation d. the nurse should be aware of the different signs and symptoms of the disease. Perform handwashing after eating c. 2-10 days c. The patient requires mechanical ventilation at this stage 45. 5-11 days d. Coronavirus b. Perform handwashing before using the toilet Situation 10: Filariasis is endemic in some parts of the Philippines.Situation 9: The nurse is aware of the misuse of antibiotics . It pertains to the use of handwashing. SARS remains to be an enigma among health practitioners and had proven its virulence. Fever is present. In managing individuals with SARS. The nurse knows that the virus could be categorized as: a. Togavirus d. Handwashing deters the spread of microorganisms. A nurse involved in the care of a patient diagnosed with SARS should: a. These are precautions based on contagious or epidemiologically significant organisms are recognized. The patient is usually not infectious at this time. Paramyxovirus 43. These are guidelines created to prevent transmission of microorganisms in hospitals b. Rhabdovirus c. The period between the first exposure and multiplication of the SRAS causative agent would be: a. 1-5 days 42. Which of the following best defines standards precaution? a. Which among the following characterize the prodromal phase: a. 41. Perform handwashing before client contact b. Effective methods that the government would likely to pursue to eliminate filariasis in the country are all of the following EXCEPT: . 46. and using barrier protections during nurse-client interactions c. but does not rise beyond 38oC d. 1-20 days b. It is a strategy of assuming that all patients are infectious. Dry hacking cough is present c. debilitating and often unfamiliar to health workers. The disease often progresses to become chronic. b. 44. d. which resulted to the emergence of new strains of microorganisms that proves to effect a catastophic effect on human health.

Lymphangitis. lymphadenitis. The most likely diagnostic test that he will undergo is: a. 51. A client in the acute stage of the disease will include which of the following clinical findings? a. Offers immediate protection d. Lymphadenitis. 2-3 years b. elephantiasis c. Ayisha is given the hepatitis B immune globulin serum. A 36-year-old man is brought by his wife to a doctor's clinic to be tested for filariasis. elephantiasis d.a. Vaccination of all susceptible in high risk areas and high risk populations c. Nurses should be knowledgeable on the importance of immunity in the prevention of communicable diseases. Halt progression of disease through disability prevention 47. Encourages the body to produce antibodies 52. Nocturnal Blood Examination c. Immunochromatographic test (ICT) b. One advantage of passive immunity is that it: a. Has effects that last a long time b. Stool examination d. which will provide her with passive immunity. hydrocele. lympedema and orchitis Situation 11: Specific defenses of the body involve the immune system. Orchitis. Intensify health information and advocacy campaigns in its prevention. Wuchereria bancrofti b. control and elimination d. 4-6 weeks d. A long incubation period characterizes Filariasis that typically ranges from: a. epidydimitis b. Nurse Keith explains to a mother whose child just received a tetanus toxoid injection that the toxoid confers which of the following immunity? . Urinalysis 50. Hydrocele. 2-4 weeks c. lymphedema. Anopheles d. Pursue annual mass drug administration using two drugs in all endemic areas for at least five consecutive years b. 8-16 months 49. Aedes egypti 48. Aedes poecillus c. Is highly effective in the treatment of disease c. The vector for Filariasis is a.

Lifelong active artificial immunity 53. Whenever possible. Stimulates the lymphatic system to produce large numbers of antibodies 55. Gino is a chronic carrier of infection. Implementing appropriate isolation precautions d. Accelerates antigen-antibody union at the hepatic sites d. Provides immediate active immunity d. Block the portal of exit from the reservoir c. the nurse implements strategies to prevent infection. 2 to 3 weeks c. Provides a high titer of antibodies c.a. Lifelong active natural immunity d. which: a. Stimulates plasma cells directly b. The most effective nursing action for controlling the spread of infection includes which of the following? a. Decrease the susceptibility of the host 57. and to treat the existing infection. Nurse Benny explains that the major benefit in using tetanus antitoxin is that it: a. the nurse emphasizes interventions that do which of the following? a. 6 months to 1 year b. Long-lasting active immunity c. Administering broad-spectrum prophylactic antibiotics . Increases production of short-lived antibodies b. Lifelong passive immunity b. who is suspected of having tetanus. To prevent the spread of the infection to other clients or health care providers. 2 to 5 years Situation 12. Eliminate the reservoir b. asks Nurse Benny about immunizations against tetanus. the nurse's goal is to prevent the spread of the infection within and between persons. Provides antibodies that neutralize the antigen c. Permanent d. If infection cannot be prevented. Stimulates long-lasting passive immunity 54. who was exposed to hepatitis A is given gamma globulin to provide passive immunity. Nurse Edna is correct when she tell the mother that the effect lasts for: a. Block the portal of entry into the host d. Justin. Simon. Wearing gloves and masks when providing direct client care c. 56. Thorough hand cleansing b. A mother asked Nurse Edna on the duration of the effectiveness of a natural passive immunity.

Surgical mask b.” c.” b. Syphilis d. Follow standard precautions in all interactions with the client d. A nurse is providing instructions to a pregnant client with genital herpes about measures that need to be implemented to protect the fetus. 1. In caring for Mark who is on contact precautions for a draining infected foot ulcer. Trichomonas vaginalis 3. Nurse Bong should perform which of the following? a. The nurse is in the best position to do health education activities. which statement by the client would indicate effective learning has occurred? a. Provide disposable meal trays and silverware c. Wear a mask during dressing changes b. Gown d. Needles should be disposed into a puncture resistant container . Sitz baths need to be taken every 4 hours while awake if vaginal lesions are present d. “We should not share toothbrushes but it is Situation 1: Information dissemination is an integral element of health promotion. it is appropriate for the nurse to reuse which of the following personal protective equipment? a. “We must wash or peel all raw fruits and vegetables before eating.” d. the speaker specified that prevention of the spread of HIV include the following measures EXCEPT: a. Daily administration of acyclovir (Zovirax) is necessary during the entire pregnancy b. During an infection control seminar. Goggles c. The nurse tells the nurse that: a. While the nurse is counseling a group of mothers about sexually transmitted diseases. A cesarean section will be necessary if vaginal lesions are present at the time of labor 2. Genital herpes b. Clean gloves 60. “A wound or sore is not infected unless we see it draining pus. After teaching a client and family strategies to prevent infection. “We will use antimicrobial soap and hot water to wash our hands at least three times per day. and disease prevention. Patients with AIDS should be isolated b.58. Total abstinence from sexual intercourse is necessary during the entire pregnancy c. one mother asks the nurse which sexually transmitted disease is most detrimental to their baby's safety during pregnancy? The nurse should respond that it would be: a. Blood and other specimens should be labeled AIDS Precaution c. Use surgical aseptic technique for all direct contact with the client 59. When caring for a single client during one shift. Gonorrhea c.

Disturbed Sleep pattern . as ordered Situation 2: The nursing process is applied in any health care setting. Premarital serologic screening b. What would be the priority nursing diagnosis for the patient? a. White strawberry tongue c. A 6-month-old infant receives DPT immunization at the well-baby clinic. Incidence to be reported to health authorities d.d. Sex education about preventive behaviors.” c. 5.” b. Edematous and beefy.” d. A nurse provides instructions to the mother of a child with mumps regarding respiratory precautions. A nurse is giving health education to a client diagnosed with HIV. Laboratory screening of pregnant women d. Apply an ice pack to the injection site d. Apply a warm pack to the injection site b. The mother returns home and calls the clinic to report that the infant has developed swelling and redness at the site of injection. The nurse most appropriately responds that: a. Blood spills should be cleaned with chlorox 4. 6. Administration of ophthalmic prophylaxis. Monitor the infant for fever 9. The nurse determines that the client does not need further teaching if the client states that the most effective method known to control the spread of HIV infection is: a. Bring the infant back to the clinic c. The mother asks the nurse the length of time required for the respiratory precautions. Case finding c. “Respiratory precautions are necessary for the entire time of illness. red colored pharynx d. The nurse assesses the child knowing that which of the following is not a clinical manifestation associated with this disease? a. A nurse is preparing the plan of care for a patient with herpes genitalis. “Respiratory precautions are indicated during the period of communicability. Sex education b. “Respiratory precautions are indicated for 18 days after the onset of parotid swelling. A child is diagnosed with scarlet fever. The nurse tells the mother to: a. Koplik spots 7.” 8. The following are preventions of gonorrhea transmission EXCEPT: a. Pastia's sign b. “Respiratory precautions are necessary until the swelling is gone. Prophylactic treatment of exposed people c.

Tetracycline 14. Contact with water infected with cercaria c. pulmonary hypertension c. based on her assessment findings suspects the presence of diphtheria. 11. Use of sanitary toilets 13. Pharyngotonsilar congestion b. Stool examination d. you advise patient to have. Use of sanitary toilets d.b. You know that the mode of transmission of Katayama fever is: a. Avoid bathing and washing in infested waters c. The following are preventive measures for Schistosomiasis EXCEPT: a. Liver cirrhosis and portal hypertension b. X-ray of the abdomen b. Use of safe water b. Imbalance in Nutrition: Less than Body Requirements c. Which of the following is NOT a complication of Bilhariasis? a. Whitish plaque at buccal mucosa d. which of these examination: a. You are assigned in one of these municipalities. Cor pulmonale. Alteration in Comfort: Pain d. Ineffective Breathing Pattern 10. Increased lacrimation Situation 3: There are 170 Bilhariasis endemic municipalities. Which of the following will confirm her suspicion? a. Infected flies and rodent d. Contact with affected stray animals b. Meningitis and hepatomegally . CBC 12. Hetrazan d. The nurse on duty. Which among the following is the drug of choice for Bilhariasis? a. Grayish membrane at hard palate c. Biltricide c. Chloramphenicol b. Elimination of breeding sites of mosquitoes 15. Urinalysis c. In order to confirm the diagnosis of Snail fever.

The mode of transmission of this disease is through the bite of an infected female mosquito called: a. Take chloroquine tablets once a day C. B. Anopheles b. you ecucate people living in malaria endemic areas to do which of the following? A. Antibodies c. She encounters multiple cases of sexually transmitted diseases. Aedes poecillus d. A. Apply insect repellant on house walls D. Malarial parasites d. Use long sleeved shirts when going out at night E. C. Which of the following is NOT an anti-malarial drug? a. C. F d. Ascitis and renal failure Situation 4: Endemic malaria occurs in the topic and subtopic areas where socioeconomic condition is very poor. B. Avoid going out between 12nn to 3am B. Antigen 18. E Situation 5: A nurse is having her duty in a public health clinic. Tetracycline b. Quinidine 20. E. E. D. Icterus and shock c. Laboratory confirmation of malaria is done on a blood film. D. Fever and chills d. Amoxicillin d. Living in an area where HIV infections are minimal . The nurse determines that which of the following places the client into the high risk category for contracting human immunodeficiency virus? a. Malarial purinates b. F b. Sulfadoxine c. Sweating and headache b. 21. 16. What do you expect to see in the film? a. During your assessment. Aedes egypti 19. Aminophylline c. D. As a preventive measure for malarais. which among the following signs and symptoms need referral to a secondary or tertiary facility? a. F c. Plant neem tree in their backyards F. C. E. A nurse is collecting data from a prenatal client. D. C. Clear hanging branches nears rivers a. B.d. Renal or liver failure 17.

and perspiration. Presence of HbeAG determines the infective state of the client 24. Reinfection Situation 6: Avian Influenza is an infectious disease of birds that can cause serious illness in humans. Asymptomatic infections c. A client who by history may be exposed to HIV but test negative for HIV antibodies can no longer infect others d. d. it indicates a carrier state or chronic hepatitis. The nurse commends her for seeking medical care. The importation of chicken from countries with outbreak of avian flu is banned by which law? a. A spouse who is heterosexual and had only 1 sexual partner in the past 10 years 22. The presence of anti-HBS indicates recovery and immunity to hepatitis B. semen. and breast milk have higher concentrations of HIV than urine. vomitus and stool c. Presence of HBsAG is the serological marker to establish the diagnosis of hepatitis B. Symptoms are though to be caused by something else c. Which of the following is NOT true? a. saliva.b. Client is embarrassed b. Symptoms are ignored d. b. RA 280 c. semen. The nurse is very active in contact tracing and epidemiologic treatment of all gonococcal identified contacts to prevent: a. Blood. urine. It can be transmitted via body fluids such as blood. b. If the serological marker is present in the blood after 3 months. Non-venereal transmission d. c. 26. The client does not manifest signs and symptoms 25. A history of IV drug use in the past year c. A history of one sexual partner within the past 10 years d. Hepatitis B infection is established by the presence of hepatitis B antigen-antibody systems in the blood. Which among the following informations is true of HIV? a. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) is the confirmatory test for HIV 23. The nurse is talking to a young female client in the health clinic who is concerned she may have sexually transmitted disease. The nurse explains that the major reason treatment of majority of STDs is delayed because: a. PD 280 . Development of resistant strains b.

Killing of all infected or exposed birds c. Multiple organ failure d. Mixing antiviral to feeds and water supplied to poultry suspected of being exposed to avian flu d. vomiting and diarrhea 29. cough. and anorexia b. Vaccination of poultry b. Body weakness. and hematemesis d. difficulty breathing. body weakness cough. A suspected case of avian flu would be identified if a person exhibits which of the following manifestations? a. and sore throat c. Dehydration from severe vomiting and diarrhea 28. 7 days . fever. Fever. 21 days b. sore throat. Respiratory distress c. Fever. vomiting.b. All of the above 30. 3 days d. cough. sore eyes. 10 days c. The major causes of death in avian flu are the following except: a. Incubation period for avian influenza is: a. It is necessary to institute which of the following measures to birds suspected of being exposed to the virus? a. diarrhea. Hemoptysis. bloody stool. Severe viral pneumonia b. dyspnea. AO 280 27. diarrhea. EO 280 d.

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