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1. Precipitation of salivary calcium salts to form calculus is A. B. C. D. promoted by a higher buffering capacity. inhibited by a higher buffering capacity. inhibited by a higher pH. promoted by a higher pH. 5. The predominant cells in the inflammatory exudate of an acute periodontal abscess are A. B. C. D. E. neutrophils. eosinophils. basophils. lymphocytes. monocytes.
6. 2. Overhangs on restorations initiate chronic inflammatory periodontal disease by A. B. C. D. enhancing plaque retention. enhancing food retention. causing traumatic occlusion. causing pressure atrophy.
Irregularly distributed shallow to moderate craters in the interseptal bone are best eliminated by A. B. C. D. osteoplasty. gingivoplasty. deep scaling. bone grafting.
Caries in older persons is most frequently found on which of the following locations? A. B. C. D. Pits and fissures. Proximal enamel. Root surfaces. Incisal dentin.
A clenching habit may be a factor in A. B. C. D. suprabony periodontal pocket formation. marginal gingivitis. increased tooth mobility. generalized recession.
The location and extent of sub-gingival calculus is most accurately determined clinically by A. B. C. D. radiopaque solution used in conjunction with radiographs. disclosing solution. probing with a fine instrument. visual inspection.
Regarding dental caries, which of the following is correct? A. B. C. D. All carbohydrates are equally cariogenic. More frequent consumption of carbohydrates increases the risk. The rate of carbohydrate clearance from the oral cavity is not significant. Increased dietary fat increases the risk.
WRITTEN EXAMINATION – 2001 RELEASED VERSION BOOK II
9. Abrasion is most commonly seen on the A. B. C. D. lingual surface of posterior teeth. occlusal surface of posterior teeth. incisal edges. facial surfaces of teeth. 13. An increase of immunoglobulins is consistent with increased numbers of A. B. C. D. fibroblasts. neutrophils. lymphocytes. plasma cells.
10. Carious lesions are most likely to develop if a patient has A. B. C. D. a high lactobacillus count. saliva with low buffering capacity. plaque on his teeth. lactic acid in his mouth.
14. In periodontics, the best prognosis for bone regeneration follows the surgical treatment of A. B. C. D. suprabony pockets. one-wall infrabony pockets. two-wall infrabony pockets. three-wall infrabony pockets.
11. The most important objective of occlusal adjustment of a natural dentition is to A. B. C. D. prevent temporomandibular joint syndrome. increase the shearing action in mastication. improve oral hygiene by preventing food impaction. achieve a more favorable direction and distribution of forces of occlusion.
15. The most important diagnostic element in assessing the periodontal status of a patient is A. B. C. D. the results of vitality testing. the radiographic appearance. the depth of periodontal pockets. the mobility of the teeth.
16. The absence of adequate drainage in a periodontal pocket may result in A. B. C. D. cyst formation. abscess formation. epithelial hyperplasia. increased calculus formation.
12. Dental caries is associated with 1. 2. 3. 4. certain strains of streptococci. certain strains of staphylococci. certain strains of lactobacilli. gram negative rods and certain anaerobic bacteria. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.
17. The instrument best suited for root planing is a/an A. B. C. D. E. hoe. file. curette. sickle scaler. ultrasonic scaler.
A. B. C. D. E.
a shallower undercut. D. 2. D. B. gain in moisture content. D. During the setting phase. 3. 4. The majority of nitrous oxide is eliminated from a patient's circulatory system through the A. plasma enzymes. D. B. B. intestinal gas. An epinephrine-containing retraction cord has the potential of A. contraction. discolouring gingival tissue. E. digitalis. C. quinidine. B. A. altering the formation of histamine.WRITTEN EXAMINATION – 2001 RELEASED VERSION BOOK II 18. E. provide intraradicular venting. interfering with the setting of the impression material. nitroglycerine. liver enzymes. pentobarbital sodium. B. . kidneys. greater absorption when given orally. C. D. broader antibacterial spectrum. means that chromiumcobalt-nickel partial denture clasp will require A. B. expansion. C. E. loss in compressive strength. interfering with the degradation of histamine. 21. lungs. morphine. C. 20. A cast post and core is used to 1. A therapeutic advantage of penicillin V over penicillin G is A. a dental stone mixture will exhibit A. compared to a Type IV gold alloy. C. greater resistance to penicillinase. 25. E. B. more taper. None of the above. The higher modulus of elasticity of a chromium-cobalt-nickel alloy. a shorter retentive arm. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. provide retention for a cast crown. producing a systemic reaction. strengthen a weakened tooth. redirect the forces of occlusion. 22. B. Antihistamines act by 19. C. blocking the actions of histamine by competitive inhibition. 24. 23. slower renal excretion. D. increasing the action of histaminase. The most effective drug for relief of angina pectoris is A. C. A. C. a heavier cross section for a clasp arm. D. causing tissue necrosis. D.
29. B. upward only. C. have a concave surface touching the mucosa. B. improper path of insertion. upward and facially. B. hide the porcelain-metal junction on their gingival aspect. which of the following can be modified to achieve the desired occlusion? 1. The most likely cause is A. a patient with a new removable partial denture complains of a tender abutment tooth. D. E. at least 1mm supragingivally. The orientation of the occlusal plane. inadequate polishing of the framework. C. completely replace the missin g hard and soft tissue.WRITTEN EXAMINATION – 2001 RELEASED VERSION BOOK II 26. increase the surface hardness. D. at the cemento-enamel junction. 27. The cusp inclination. The gingival margin of the preparation for a full crown on a posterior tooth. . D. At his first post-insertion appointment. Inadequate interocclusal distance. The compensating curve. A. D. overextended borders of the partial. 28. D. increase the compressive strength. B. None of the above.5mm subgingivally. 32. B. E. 2. During the fabrication of new complete dentures. In the preparation of gypsum products. have minimal soft tissue coverage. 3. a generalized soreness over the entire mandibular alveolar ridge can be caused by A. accelerate the setting reaction. 4. The condylar inclination. C. with a clinical crown that satisfies the requirements for retention and resistance. the occlusion. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. upward and palatally. D. C. high muscle attachments. Following the insertion of complete dentures. excess border thickness. 0. B. should be placed A. impingement on the buccal frenum. C. 31. D. an increase in the water/powder ratio will A. at the gingival margin. 30. the direction of resorption of the alveolar ridge is A. C. uniform in all directions. on the enamel. Fixed partial denture pontics should A. B. C. In an edentulous maxilla.
Reversible hydrocolloid. C. low impact strength. proceed with construction of the denture and reduce the posterior extension of the mandibular denture to eliminate interferences. A. Malar process. D. high hardness. C. 36. its pH stimulates secondary dentin formation. Genial tubercle. 35. C. Which of the following structures affects the thickness of the flange of a maxillary complete denture? A. E. B. D. 3. greater than that of enamel. Polysulphide. B. D. low compressive strength. A. The treatment of choice is to A. reduce the retromolar pads surgically to provide the necessary clearance. Mylohyoid ridge. high tensile strength. E. 38. Which of the following impression materials is the most dimensionally stable? A. it is compressible when set. E. 4. polycarboxylate cement can be used as a base material because A. the same as that of amalgam. 2. the same as that of glass ionomer cement. Where cavity preparations are extensive. . B. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. The coefficient of thermal expansion of composite resins is A. B. Polyvinyl siloxane. it is biocompatible with the pulp. C. E. it interacts with setting amalgam to form a weak chemical union. 39. B. 37. C. D. reduce the tuberosities surgically to provide the necessary clearance. C. Dental porcelain has 1. Increased hardness. the same as that of enamel.WRITTEN EXAMINATION – 2001 RELEASED VERSION BOOK II 33. it is observed that the tuberosities contact the retromolar pads at the correct occlusal vertical dimension. Zygomatic process. D. Corrosion resistance. D. C. B. Condensation type silicone. construct new dentures at an increased occlusal vertical dimension to gain the necessary clearance. Gold contributes which of the following properties to a gold-copper alloy? 34. Increased strength. D. Upon examination of an edentulous patient. B. Lowered specific gravity. Irreversible hydrocolloid. less than that of enamel. Coronoid process.
Geniohyoid. . Which of the following muscles has two separate functions in mandibular movement? A.000. sodium. B. B. potassium. B. Phenoxymethylpenicillin (penicillin V). After initial setting. C. D. create a smooth finish. 44. hasten the final set. 18. 46. a chemically cured glass ionomer cement restoration should have a coating agent applied to A. A. the amount of vasoconstrictor is A. 42. D.8 mg. Deficiency of vitamin D. D. B.8ml 2% lidocaine with epinephrine 1/100. 1. Masseter. 3. Frequent ingestion of polysaccharides. 180. E. In a standard dental cartridge (carpule) containing 1. fluoride. Which of the following penicillins is LEAST resistant to the level of acidity found in the stomach? 43. C. retard the final set. magnesium. Frequent ingestion of high sucrosecontaining foods. The inorganic ion that is implicated in primary hypertension is A. D. E. 41.WRITTEN EXAMINATION – 2001 RELEASED VERSION BOOK II 40. adrenalin. C. B. clinical crown length. 0. A lowering of serum calcium is the stimulus for the endogenous release of A.0 mg. 4. 0. thyroid hormone. protect the cement from ultraviolet light. D. C. B. insulin.18 mg. C. 45. External (lateral) pterygoid. presence of caries. D. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.0 mg. The location of a crown margin is determined by 1. C. 47. D. A. adrenocortical hormone. B. E. protect the cement from moisture. Buccinator. C. Severe enamel hypoplasia. Amoxicillin. Which of the following is the greatest risk factor for rampant caries in children? A. Ampicillin.018 mg. D. C. presence of an existing restoration. esthetic requirements. 2. parathyroid hormone. Benzylpenicillin (penicillin G). B. E.
Internal resorption. B. pulp chamber. C. A. amyl nitrite. 51. C. An excess of which hormone is associated with increased sensitivity to epinephrine? A. produce numbness of the extremities. B. D. nitrous oxide may 1. E. Insulin. facilitate reliable impression making. cracks in the teeth. Testosterone. 4. increase the supporting surface area 49. D. nearest external surface.WRITTEN EXAMINATION – 2001 RELEASED VERSION BOOK II 48. if left untreated. E. 53. D. Chronic hyperplastic pulpitis. B. Reversible pulpitis. D. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. 3. 2. is most likely to result in a periapical lesion? A. Acute suppurative pulpitis. thermal sensitivity. Which of the following. quinidine. E. C. periodontal ligament invasion. produce signs of inherent myocardial depression. D. 2. When used for conscious sedation. Diffuse calcification of the pulp. 52. B. C. 3. Thyroxin. A. D. pulp exposures. allow placement of teeth over the residual ridge. In congestive heart failure. C. D. provide adequate posterior inter-arch space. C. B. . produce an indirect sympathomimetic action. A. B. axial wall. In pin-retained restorations. Vestibuloplasty is a preprosthetic surgical procedure used to A. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. 4. cause the patient to sweat. the pin holes should be parallel to the 50. Using pins to retain amalgam restorations increases the risk of 1. B. C. a glycoside that increases the force of myocardial contraction is A. Parathyroid hormone. long axis of the tooth. E. digitoxin. Estrogen. procainamide hydrochloride. 54.
57. D. D. Epulis fissuratum. A 60-year old patient requests the replacement of tooth 4. position of the posterior teeth.8mm into the space of the missing tooth. D. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.WRITTEN EXAMINATION – 2001 RELEASED VERSION BOOK II 55. C. anterior border of the tuberosities. the external oblique line is used as a guide for the A. C. height of the occlusal plane. after extracting tooth 1. The anatomical landmarks used to help establish the location of the posterior palatal seal of a maxillary complete denture include the A. D. zygoma and the zygomatic process of the maxilla. D. 56. Lingual varicosities. Chronic trauma. C. 2. B. 60. Squamous cell carcinoma. 59. posterior border of the tuberosities and the posterior border of the palatine bone. 3. Taurodontism. after restoring tooth 1.6 for a cast crown. A. C. pterygomaxillary notches and the posterior nasal spine.6 to a more normal plane of occlusion. which was extracted many years ago. B. In the bisecting angle principle of intraoral radiography. Which of the following is/are characterized by an obliteration of pulp chambers and root canals? 1. Tooth 1. C. maxillary sinus.6. The three unit fixed bridge replacing the mandibular first molar should be fabricated A.6 has extruded 1. the palatine raphe and the posterior border of the palatine bone.6 and replacing it with a fixed partial denture. to the existing occlusion. pterygomaxillary notches and the fovea palatinae. 58. Hyperplastic lingual tonsils may resemble which of the following? A. B. B. . In complete dentures. D. 4. C. termination of the lingual flange. B. palatine bone and the zygoma. B. after devitalizing and preparing tooth 1. termination of the buccal flange. Prominent fungiform papillae. the radiopacity that can obliterate the apices of maxillary molars is the A. orbital process of the zygomatic bone. Median rhomboid glossitis. E. Ageing. Dentinal dysplasia. E.
A. Prothrombin time. C. 2-5mg. D. D. within basal bone. lingual to the crest of the mandibular ridge. D. The usual adult dosage of codeine administered orally is 63. 250-500mg. coronal to alveolar bone crest. buccinator and styloglossus muscles. styloglossus and geniohyoid muscles. B.WRITTEN EXAMINATION – 2001 RELEASED VERSION BOOK II 61. D. B. Coagulation time. buccal to the crest of the mandibular ridge. over the buccal shelf area. E. mylohyoid. The chief mechanism by which the body metabolizes short-acting barbiturates is A. 500-1000mg. A. Loss of stippling. Bleeding time. Before performing surgery on a patient who is taking warfarin. D. None of the above. In an infrabony pocket. E. superior constrictor. mylohyoid and buccinator muscles. Gingival hyperplasia. B. 66. 30-60mg. . mylohyoid. the epithelial attachment is located A. To improve denture stability. 67. oxidation. Increased probing depth. 64. over the crest of the mandibular ridge. buccinator. which of the following should be evaluated? A. D. C. C. B. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. Extreme resorption of an edentulous mandible can bring the alveolar ridge to the level of the attachment of the A. sequestration in the body fats. 2. none of the above. D. Bleeding on probing. C. apical to alveolar bone crest. 4. Clotting time. 65. buccinator and genioglossus muscles. mandibular molar teeth should normally be placed A. B. Which of the following is/are clinical signs of gingivitis? 1. 3. C. B. B. 62. hydroxylation and oxidation. C. C. reduction.
observation. B.WRITTEN EXAMINATION – 2001 RELEASED VERSION BOOK II 68. primary herpetic gingivo-stomatitis. diffuse gingivitis is A. does NOT contain anatomically and physiologically distinct zones. D. A. non-keratinized. 3. D. 70. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. pulpotomy. Plasma cells and monocytes. There is no periapical involvement and the tooth is vital. is a site where immunological elements interact with pocket bacteria. D. Periodontal pocket epithelium A. B. extraction. pulpectomy. fiery-red. E. 71. C. 4. hyposensitivity to pain. 72. The treatment should be to A. D. Mast cells. C. does NOT provide a barrier against bacterial penetration. perform a pulpectomy. C. The treatment for an 11-year old who has intermittent swelling and pain associated with a central incisor which was traumatized 6 months ago should be A. Macrophages. an increased metabolic rate. Normal sulcular epithelium in man is 1. B. 69. Lymphocytes. D. high level of plasmatic cortisol. squamous. C. juvenile periodontitis. B. cap the exposure with calcium hydroxide and place zinc-oxide and eugenol. C. D. increased bleeding time. Which cells migrate into the gingival sulcus in the largest numbers in response to the accumulation of plaque? A. decreased tolerance to physiological stress. is NOT colonized by bacteria. non-permeable. E. 74. idiopathic fibromatosis. B. . A patient who has until recently been on prolonged corticosteroid therapy may have A. E. A large carious exposure occurs on a permanent first molar of a 7-year old. 2. C. B. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes. stratified. B. perform a pulpotomy and place calcium hydroxide. 73. aphthous stomatitis. extract the tooth and place a space maintainer. C. The most likely diagnosis for a child with a painful. D.
is highly biocompatible. Using warmer water. induces bone formation throughout the implanted material. B.WRITTEN EXAMINATION – 2001 RELEASED VERSION BOOK II 75. has a tendency to migrate following insertion. on cementum. 78. hyperplastic gingivitis. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. 1. If an alginate impression must be stored for a few minutes before the cast is poured. reduce film density. has a low incidence of secondary infection following surgery. B. 3. the margins of a restoration should be placed 1. D. drifting of the teeth. C. C. it should be placed in A. when placed subperiostially. 2. A. 80. D. D. Decreasing the water/powder ratio by a small amount. water. E. burning gingivae. . Adding a small amount of salt to the water before mixing. B. 100% relative humidity. painful. Particulate hydroxyapatite. B. Filters are placed in the path of the x-ray beam to A. 4. B. A 1% aqueous calcium sulfate solution. Whenever possible. D. marginal gingivitis. on enamel. 79. 76. supragingivally. A. C. Which of the following modifications to the standard procedure for mixing gypsum products will increase the compressive strength of the set material? A. A. E. increase contrast. None of the above. 2. D. D. C. 3. C. subgingivally. 4. Decreasing the mixing time. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. C. reduce exposure time. A characteristic sign of aggressive periodontitis in an adolescent (juvenile periodontitis) is 77. reduce patient radiation dose. B.
D. not interfere with lateral forces. mylohyoid muscle. C. fibres of the digastric muscle. E.WRITTEN EXAMINATION – 2001 RELEASED VERSION BOOK II 81. B. B. 85. E. strength. 84. D. the major connector should A. A. Which of the following is/are (a) useful guide(s) in determining a patient’s occlusal vertical dimension? 1. A. 3. nervous tension. C. All of the above. Phonetics. 87. dentinoenamel junction. The area of the tooth that is most sensitive during cavity preparation is A. B. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only. hardness. B. should result in a sharp gingivoproximal line angle. C. . 2. In patients wearing complete dentures. B. is contraindicated because of the low edge strength of amalgam. D. D. C. melting point. the most frequent cause of tooth contact (clicking) during speaking is A. B. 86. excessive occlusal vertical dimension. Observation of the rest position. resistance to corrosion. geniohyoid muscle. 4. Pre-extraction profile records. incorrect centric relation position. cementoenamel junction. should result in a long bevel. E. 2. lack of vertical overlap. act as a stress-breaker. 82. dentin. E. should remove unsupported enamel which may fracture. The addition of platinum to a dental gold alloy results in increased 1. Planing the enamel at the gingival cavosurface of a Class II amalgam preparation on a permanent tooth A. dissipate vertical forces. C. is unnecessary since the tooth structure in this area is strong. C. D. genioglossus muscle. In partial denture design. C. unbalanced occlusion. 3. connect rigidly the bilateral components. D. cementum. 83. Appearance. 4. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. B. The extension of the lingual anterior border of a mandibular denture is limited by the A. D.
once the patient has reached the age of 12. The prime advantage of vacuum firing of porcelain is 90. more translucency. is not subject to as much muscular displacement. dislodge food particles from between teeth. D. B. D. better colour. C. Warfarin (Coumadin®) acts by A. D. The radiographic examination shows a mesiodens. B. incorporates a posterior palatal seal. the medical status of the patient. 3. C. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. 4. 2. C. B. prevent calculus formation. incorporating ionic calcium. C. disinfect pockets for up to 18 hours. less shrinkage. E. D. tooth size and jaw size discrepancy. In order to manage the diastema. A maxillary complete denture exhibits more retention and stability than a mandibular one because it 1. 93. 94. as soon as possible. D. increased strength. B. is completely surrounded by soft tissue. C. A 6-year old patient has a larger than average diastema between the maxillary central incisors. preventing formation of thromboplastin. only if it develops into a cystic lesion. B.WRITTEN EXAMINATION – 2001 RELEASED VERSION BOOK II 88. the need for hemostasis. you should extract the mesiodens A. C. improper eruption of permanent first molars. a thumbsucking habit. crossbite in the posterior segments. The most common cause of malocclusion with a Class I molar relationship is A. all of the above. C. eliminate plaque. 91. D. covers a greater area. 89. A. preventing fibrinogen conversion to fibrin. the duration of the operation. B. Water irrigation devices have been shown to A. The selection of a vasoconstrictor for a local anesthetic depends upon A. . after its complete eruption. 92. A. B. D. inhibiting the synthesis of prothrombin in the liver.
grow slowly. 3. excess calcium. can be managed conservatively. Distribution is altered by a decrease in total body fat. foreign body inflammatory reaction. 4. Metabolism is decreased by a reduced liver mass. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. D. E. Tonsillar fossa. 3. Absorption is altered by a decrease in the gastric pH. D. excess sodium.WRITTEN EXAMINATION – 2001 RELEASED VERSION BOOK II 95. C. B. D. C. lingual movement of the crown and lingual movement of the root apex. D. A removable orthodontic appliance. C. E. B. A surgical flap not repositioned over a bony base will result in 1. excess iodine. can metastasize. A. necrosis of bone. A. 2. slower healing. 97. 2. A. B. Which of the following pharmacokinetic change(s) occur(s) with aging? 1. 4. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. C. 96. C. Benign neoplasms 1. insufficient fluoride. intrusion of the central incisor. lingual movement of the crown and labial movement of the root apex. Floor of the mouth. B. are generally painless. B. wound dehiscence. Enlargement of the thyroid gland can be caused by A. E. D. intrusion of the central incisor and lingual movement of the crown. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. . 98. insufficient iodine. 99. producing a light force on the labial of a proclined maxillary central incisor will cause A. 2. B. D. Excretion is reduced because of lessened renal blood flow. Lateral border of the tongue. 3. 4. C. E. Which of the following is the LEAST likely primary site for the development of oral squamous cell carcinoma in the elderly? A. 100. Dorsum of the tongue.
hyperparathyroidism. B. A. Regional odontodysplasia. E. use high speed film. bilateral constriction of the mandibular arch. take a panoramic film only. C. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. D. C. apply a radiation protection badge. Amelogenesis imperfecta. increased strength. a Class III molar relationship on the affected side. D. Dentinal dysplasia Type I. D. E. D. base of the pocket to the crest of the free gingiva. observation until the permanent teeth erupt. unilateral expansion of maxillary arch. B. 4. base of the pocket to the mucogingival junction. use a thyroid collar and lead apron. Premature loss of a primary maxillary second molar usually produces a malocclusion in the permanent dentition that is characterized by A. 102. a Class II molar relationship on the affected side. C. Dentinogenesis imperfecta. 107. E. When using the periodontal probe to measure pocket depth. base of the pocket to the cementoenamel junction. C. labially displaced maxillary canines. better polishability. C. C. A 7-year old patient has a left unilateral posterior cross-bite and a left functional shift of the mandible. 103. The most appropriate treatment for this patient is A. normal occlusal function. When a radiographic examination is warranted for a 10-year old child. B. reduced thermal dimensional changes. B. 105. E. bilateral expansion of the maxillary arch. C. delayed eruption of the permanent first molar. Hypercementosis at the root apex is often associated with A. free gingival margin to the cementoenamel junction. D. Which of the following conditions is characterized by abnormally large pulp chambers? A. the measurement is taken from the A. B. 3. Paget's disease. B. D. composite resins have 1. hypothyroidism. E. . B. placement of a maxillary repositioning splint. 104. reduced polymerization shrinkage.WRITTEN EXAMINATION – 2001 RELEASED VERSION BOOK II 101. 2. decrease the kilovoltage to 50kVp. the most effective way to decrease radiation exposure is to A. 106. Compared to unfilled resins. orthodontic tooth movement. D. anterior crowding.
C. crush the periodontal ligament. plan serial extractions for more normal adjustment of the occlusion. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. To prevent mesial drift of a permanent first molar. after the permanent second molar has erupted. Excessive orthodontic force used to move a tooth may 1. B. impair tooth movement. E. cause hyalinization. B. Nance expansion arch. D. An 8-year old patient with all primary molars still present exhibits a cusp-to-cusp relationship of permanent maxillary and mandibular first molars. immediately after extraction of the primary second molar. place a cervical headgear to reposition maxillary molars. torque. The best space maintainer to prevent the lingual collapse that often occurs following the early loss of a mandibular primary canine is a A. 109. D. 113. refer the patient to an orthodontist for consultation. rotation. D. E. The management of this patient should be to A. C. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. C. A. B. distal shoe space maintainer. C. 4. B. E. 2. 4. C. lingual arch. D.WRITTEN EXAMINATION – 2001 RELEASED VERSION BOOK II 108. translation. D. A. 111. D. tipping. . Mesial drift of second permanent molar. 112. the ideal time to place a distalextension space maintainer is A. as soon as the tooth erupts through the gingival tissue. No movement of second permanent molar. band and loop space maintainer. Following loss of a permanent mandibular first molar at age 8. 3. observe. The predominant type of movement produced by a finger spring on a removable appliance is A. B. B. No movement of second premolar. which of the following changes are likely to occur? 1. C. Distal drift of second premolar. cause root resorption. 110. as soon as the extraction site of the primary second molar has completely healed. disk the distal surfaces of primary mandibular second molars to allow normal adjustment of permanent molars. 2. 3.
. 4. extrusion of maxillary molars. permit repositioning over a solid bone base. space for an appropriate thickness of the veneering material. provide for instrument access. margin well below the gingival crest. density of the cortical bone. Erythromycin. deformity of the neck. 2. B. D. Penicillin. D. E. Cloxacillin. provide for visual access. be semilunar in shape. B. The design of a mucoperiosteal flap should 1. Anterior to the pterygomandibular raphe. D. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above.WRITTEN EXAMINATION – 2001 RELEASED VERSION BOOK II 114. The tooth preparation for a porcelain veneer must create a/an A. C. 3. 117. extrusion of maxillary incisors. Superior to the lateral pterygoid muscle. 119. B. B. D. psychological trauma due to appearance. C. 118. Which of the following is the drug of choice? A. rough surface for improved bonding. C. Tetracycline. 116. B. 115. Lateral to the sphenomandibular ligament. intrusion of maxillary canines. B. persistence of tongue and finger habits. C. Which one of the following describes the position of the needle tip during administration of local anesthetic for the inferior alveolar nerve block? A. A. Cultures made from a dental abscess indicate the infection is caused by beta hemolytic streptococcus. definite finish line. oblique fibres of the periodontal ligament. C. D. Medial to the medial pterygoid muscle. free gingival and transseptal fibres. E. D. C. A major disadvantage of the cervical headgear used for some orthodontic treatment is the risk of A. Recurring tooth rotations occur most frequently after orthodontic correction due to A.
WRITTEN EXAMINATION – 2001 RELEASED VERSION BOOK II 120. improved wear resistance of the composite. Which of the following cements can chemically bond to enamel? 1. The restorative material of choice is A. which of the following is/are essential? 1. Use of mechanical condensation. D. Glass ionomer cement. E. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. C. Resin bonding of composites to acid-etched enamel results in A. increases dentinal permeability. 4. A. A larger sized condenser. 125. decreased polymerization shrinkage of the resin. D. opens the dentinal tubules. lack of enamel at the gingival cavosurface margin. E. E. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. 2. Ethoxy benzoic acid cement. Polycarboxylate cement. D. cusp replacement. 4. B. microfilled composite resin. reinforced zinc oxide and eugenol cement. A. 4. E. B. removes the smear layer. 123. A thinner matrix band. elimination of post-operative sensitivity. B. 3. A. D. glass ionomer cement. 124. 3. C. 2. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. silver amalgam. 4. E. Zinc phosphate cement. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. bruxism. Acid etching of dentin with 10-15% phosphoric acid for 15-20 seconds 1. An anatomical wedge. In order to achieve a proper interproximal contact when using a spherical alloy. C. hybrid composite resin. B. 2. decreased crack formation in the enamel. C. C. E. reduced microleakage. B. 2. 3. Composite resin is CONTRAINDICATED as a posterior restorative material in cases of 1. A 78-year old patient presents with several carious lesions on the root surfaces of the maxillary posterior teeth. decalcifies the intertubular and peritubular dentin. inability to maintain a dry operating field. 121. 122. 3. . A. D. D. B. C.
place a provisional (temporary) crown. 4. The most appropriate emergency treatment is to A. smooth the surrounding enamel and apply a calcium hydroxide cement. D. 132. pulp regeneration. the air/water combination should be set with A. B. physical handicap. B. open the pulp chamber.1. neither air nor water. smooth the surrounding enamel and apply glass ionomer cement. Class II malocclusion. D. D. Peg lateral incisor. There is no mobility of the tooth but the patient complains that it is rough and sensitive to cold. recognition of lack of skill or knowledge.1 and 2. A 22-year old presents with a fracture of the incisal third of tooth 2. toxicity of the restorative material. 1. Heavily restored abutment. C. religious beliefs. C. D. dentin bonding. E. infectious disease. 131. Cross bite on tooth 1. Diastema between 1. B. An opposing free end saddle removable partial. caries removal. C. 130. C. The fracture occurred one hour previously. Previous orthodontic treatment. When removing bone or sectioning roots of teeth with a high-speed handpiece. C. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. B. C. 3. 129. water only. air and water on. The most likely cause of postoperative sensitivity with Class II composite resin restorations is A. 127. 2. . acid etching of dentin.1 exposing a small amount of dentin. D. Enamel hypoplasia. B.WRITTEN EXAMINATION – 2001 RELEASED VERSION BOOK II 126. As a dentist in Canada.3. plaque accumulation. Which of the following would be a CONTRAINDICATION for the use of a resin bonded fixed partial denture (acid etched bridge or “Maryland Bridge”)? A. air only. clean the canal and temporarily close with zinc oxide and eugenol. C. B. Which of the following SHOULD NOT be corrected with a porcelain veneer? A. it is ethical to refuse to treat a patient on the basis of 128. microleakage at the interface. overheating during the finishing process. D. A. B. The "smear layer" is an important consideration in A. D.
2. Caninus and depressor angularis. E. Which nerve is involved? A. pulp capping. normal development. C. 135. maximum opening. Hypoglossal nerve XII. E. D. call 911 and begin CPR.WRITTEN EXAMINATION – 2001 RELEASED VERSION BOOK II 133. Sublingual. D. 139. D. C. He is quite pale. pulpectomy. A lateral cephalometric radiograph for a patient with a 3mm anterior functional shift should be taken with the patient in A. C.8ml of 2% lidocaine with 1:100. C. 3. B. administer Benadryl (diphenhydramine) 50mg. administer epinephrine 0. 137. B. Glossopharyngeal nerve IX. A 8-year old child has an 8mm central diastema. Lateral parapharyngeal. D. A. D. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. C. The etiology could include 1. C. pulpotomy. The tooth is vital and has no periapical involvement. initial contact. maximum intercuspation. Submasseteric. Buccinator and orbicularis oris. The initial management of this patient is to A. a nervous 22-year old male with well controlled insulin dependent diabetes states that he feels dizzy and weak. cyst. elevate the patient's legs and administer 100% oxygen. A patient with a tumor in the right infratemporal fossa shows a significant shift of the mandible to the right when opening.000 epinephrine. D. The appropriate initial treatment would be to perform a(n) A. 138. trismus and a displaced uvula are signs and symptoms of infection of which one of the following spaces? A.5mg. B. protrusive.0mg. 136. . Levator labii superioris and zygomaticus major. Deep temporal. 4. B. extraction. Facial nerve VII. E. B. Risorius and buccinator. normal rest position. frenum. B. Pain and difficulty on swallowing. C. B. mesiodens. D. administer glucagon 1. Following the injection of 1. Which two muscles are involved in suckin g? A. E. A 4mm diameter carious exposure occurs on a permanent first molar of a 7-year old child. Trigeminal nerve V. Submandibular. 134. Beads of sweat have accumulated on his forehead and upper lip.
a patient experiences thermal sensitivity. Following root planing. refer for an orthognathic surgery consultation. 4. Odontoblastic processes. D. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only. 2. 1. B. C. 143. A. D. B. recurrent pocketing. fabricate an appliance to reduce snoring. 3. . horizontal bone loss. “guided tissue regeneration” is most successful in treating 142. B. 3. styloglossus muscle. Golgi receptor. root caries. The floor of the mouth is formed by the A.WRITTEN EXAMINATION – 2001 RELEASED VERSION BOOK II 140. digastric muscle. All of the above. 4. pulpal involvement. fabricate restorations to increase the patient’s vertical dimension of occlusion. The initial management of the patient’s snoring problem is to A. oral hygiene instruction. D. 141. B. 145. a mandibular Class II furcation involvement. refer for a sleep assessment. C. root sensitivity. 2. C. D. All of the above. C. E. B. a 3-walled infrabony defect. D. overweight man reports that his wife complains that he snores. genioglossus muscle. This pain is associated with which of the following? A. D. Cementoblasts. mylohyoid muscle. In periodontal therapy. A. E. 144. a mandibular Class III furcation involvement. C. periodontal debridement. The most likely cause of tooth loss following a tunneling procedure to provide complete access for a mandibular Class III furcation involvement is A. A 45-year old. C. topical steroid therapy. The most appropriate treatment of acute necrotizing ulcerative periodontitis in a patient with no fever and no lymphadenopathy is 1. antibiotic therapy. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only. Free nerve endings. B.
4. (1) (2) (3) (1) and (3) (2) and (4) (4) only All of the above. apical periodontitis. D. early osteoarthritis. D. B. C. with an acute localized periodontal abscess. nocturnal bruxism. C. 150. E. 2. not clearly distinguishable. 148. 1-2mm apical to the cementoenamel junction. occlusal adjustment. initial treatment must include A. the normal alveolar crest is A. D. The most likely cause is A. prescription of an analgesic. contraction of peripheral blood vessels. B. C. simple marginal gingivitis. 147.WRITTEN EXAMINATION – 2001 RELEASED VERSION BOOK II 146. A. B. prescription of an antibiotic. E. increased rate of plaque formation. 3-4mm apical to the cementoenamel junction. C. mandibular subluxation. C. 3. . Continued smoking will impair wound healing following a surgical procedure because of A. excessive occlusal forces with normal periodontal support. Her symptoms have been present for the past week and are most pronounced in the morning. scaling and root planing. On bite-wing radiographs of adults under the age of 30. at the cementoenamel junction. A 23-year old female complains of bilateral stiffness and soreness in the preauricular region. D. 149. superficial irritation to tissues by smoke. normal occlusal forces with inadequate periodontal support. stain development. increased rate of calculus formation. B. fibrous ankylosis of the temporomandibular joints. For an otherwise healthy patient. B. D. Increased tooth mobility can result from 1.