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Ayla Aviation

Radio Navigation
Sample Questions

Radio Navigation
Exam1, 65 Questions - time allowed 90 minutes 1. A wavelength of 8.5 mm corresponds to a frequency of: (a) (b) (c) (d) 2. 3529.4 MHz 35294 MHz 2833.3 MHz 28333 MHz

With regards to radio waves, which statement is true: (a) (b) (c) (d) They travel at 186,000nm a second in a vacuum. The longer the wavelength the greater the surface attenuation They are reflected by metallic objects with a size compatible to the wavelength. High frequencies need large aerials.

3.

An HF transmitter is tuned to a frequency that refracts from the E layer in the Ionosphere. The maximum distance of the first returning skywave is: (a) (b) (c) (d) 599 nm 599 km 1500 nm 1500 km

4.

Which statement is true ? (a) (b) (c) (d) The lower the frequency the greater the atmospheric attenuation. The ionosphere will attenuate and refract signals up to 30 Ghz. The attenuation of an HF ground wave is worse over the land than over ice. None of the above.

5.

The visual and aural indications of the ILS outer marker are : (a) (b) (c) (d) A blue light and 2 dashes per second of 400 Hz modulated tone. A white light and 6 dots per second of a 30 Hz modulated tone. An amber light and alternate dots and dashes of a 1300 Hz modulated tone. A blue light and 2 dashes per second of a 1300 Hz modulated tone.

6.

Using the 1 in 60 rule calculate the rate of descent (in ft/min) for a 3.3 degree glidepath at a groundspeed of 115 kts. (a) (b) (c) (d) 325 172 641 522

Groundschool

Radio Navigation Exam 1

7.

For a 2.7 degree glidepath on a Category 1 ILS the vertical coverage is: (a) (b) (c) (d) 1.351.852.051.225.25 4.75 5.55 4.73

8.

An aircraft heading 315M shows an NDB bearing 180 on the RMI. Any quadrantal error affecting the accuracy of this bearing is likely to be (a) (b) (c) (d) at a minimum at a maximum zero, as quadrantal errors are not found on the RMI zero, as quadrantal errors affect only the VOR

9.

With reference to the VOR: (a) (b) (c) (d) The TO/FROM indicator shows whether the aircraft is heading towards or away from the beacon. A typical VOR frequency is 118.15 Mhz. Failure of the monitor will cause the beacon to cease its ident. Wide coverage is obtained from only a few beacons.

10.

The coverage of the ILS localizer at 17 nm for a Cat. 1 ILS is guaranteed up to an angle either side of the extended centreline of.................. Using the signal outside the coverage limits on the approach side of the localiser aerial.................result in reverse sense indications. (a) (b) (c) (d) 35 25 35 25 can can not can not can

11.

An aircraft is on a heading of 100 degrees (m) from a VOR. To make the VOR/ILS deviation indicator needle centralise with the 'TO' flag showing, the following bearing should be selected on the 'OBS' : (a) (b) (c) (d) 280 290 110 100 degrees degrees degrees degrees

12.

The maximum range of primary radar is affected by: (a) (b) (c) (d) PRF Pulse Width Transmission Frequency All of the above

Groundschool

Radio Navigation Exam 1

13.

The tilt angle on the AWR at which an active cloud just disappears from the screen is 4 degrees up. If the beam width is 5 degrees and the range of the cloud is 40 nm use the 1 in 60 rule to calculate the approximate height of the cloud relative to the aircraft. (a) (b) (c) (d) 4000' 6000' 4000' 6000' above above below below

14.

The PRF of a primary radar is 500. Its maximum range in kms is: (a) (b) (c) (d) 150 300 200 250

15

AWR in the __________ mode progressively ___________ __________as distances ___________ to equalise screen brightness. (a) (b) (c) (d) weather mapping weather mapping increases decreases decreases increases power power gain gain decrease decrease increase decrease

16.

What is the maximum theoretical range, in nm, of a radar whose PRF is 750 pps? (a) (b) (c) (d) 218 132 200 108

17.

The accuracy of a DME : (a) (b) (c) (d) Increases with increase of altitude. Decreases with increase of range. Is approximately 0.5 nm. Is approximately 2 nm

18.

If an aircraft is hijacked the CAA recommend that the pilot set transponder code (a) (b) (c) (d) 7300 7600 7500 7700

Groundschool

Radio Navigation Exam 1

19.

A saw tooth voltage is used to generate the timebase of a simple non rotating radar because (a) (b) (c) (d) this achieves the maximum range bearing resolution is optimised range resolution is optimised a linear timebase is required to correctly represent range and the flyback period is short

20.

The RMI indicates aircraft magnetic heading. To convert the RMI bearings of NDBs and VORs to true bearings the correct positions to read magnetic variation are: (a) (b) (c) (d) VOR beacon position beacon position aircraft position aircraft position NDB aircraft position beacon position beacon position aircraft position

21.

Refer to the diagram below of a VOR/ILS deviation indicator. Assume that the indicator is set to define the centreline of an airway, that the aircraft is 90nm from the VOR and inbound to the facility.

. . . . .... . . .. . . . .
TO 248

At the time of observation the aircraft was located on radial (a) (b) (c) (d) 22. 243 245 253 063

In a hyperbolic navigation system accuracy is greatest : (a) (b) (c) (d) Along the base line extension. Along the base line. Along the right bisector of the baseline. Within a 30 nm radius of either station.

Groundschool

Radio Navigation Exam 1

23.

A radio facility transmits on a wavelength of 2.22 cm.. The facility could be a ____________ operating on a frequency of _________. The missing items are: (a) (b) (c) (d) Radio Altimeter Doppler DME VDF 13,500 Mhz 13,500 Mhz 1350 Mhz 135 Mhz

24.

Using a hyperbolic navigation system aposition is plotted that is 20 nm further from X than Y. X and Y are 100 nm apart. The hyperbola crosses the baseline: (a) (b) (c) (d) 40 40 30 50 nm nm nm nm from from from from X Y Y Y

25.

An SRA may be flown to: (a) (b) (c) (d) 0.5 nm using QNH only 2.0 nm using QFE only 2.0 nm using QFE unless the pilot advises the controller the approach is to be flown on QNH. 0.5 nm using QNH unless the pilot advises the controller the approach is to be flown on QFE.

26.

The signal to noise ratio for an NDB is _____ allowing a maximum error of _________ on 95% of occasions during ___________. (a) (b) (c) (d) 5 5 3 3 : : : : 1 1 1 1 3 3 5 5 degrees degrees degrees degrees Daylight hours only 24 hours 24 hours Daylight hours only

27.

An aircraft DME receiver will not lock on to signals reflected from the ground because: (a) (b) (c) (d) DME uses the UHF band. DME transmits twin pulses. The pulse recurrence rates are varied. The reflections are not at the receiver frequency.

28.

A radar has a PRF of 800 pps. What is the maximum theoretical range and the PRP? (a) (b) (c) (d) 187.5 km 187.5 km 325 nm 325 nm 1250 0.0125 1250 0.0125 micro seconds micro seconds micro seconds micro seconds

Groundschool

Radio Navigation Exam 1

29.

The speed of a radio wave in nm/sec is: (a) (b) (c) (d) 186,000 163,842 161,842 300,000

30.

An aerodrome ground movement radar is likely to operate in the .............band with a scan rate of ...............revolutions per minute (a) (b) (c) (d) SHF UHF EHF EHF 60 200 20 1000

31.

For reliable navigation information the approximate coverage of a 3 ILS glideslope is (a) (b) (c) (d) 1 to 5 from the horizontal and 8 either side of the localiser 0.45 from the horizontal to 1.75 above the glidepath and 8 either side of the localiser centreline 0.7 above and below the glidepath and 8 either side of the localiser centreline 3 above and below the glidepath and 10 either side of the localiser centreline

32.

Which statement is most correct? (a) (b) (c) (d) Loran C creates hyperbolic lines based on an atomic time standard. Loran C creates hyperbolic lines based on a low sweep rate frequency modulated continuous wave. Loran C creates hyperbolic position lines based on differential range by pulse technique. Loran C creates elliptical lines based on differential range by Doppler.

33.

The accuracy of Loran is given as: (a) (b) (c) (d) nm on 95% of occasions between 900 nm and 1000 nm over the sea. 1 km on 95% of occasions between 900 km and 1000 km over the sea. 1 nm on 95% of occasions between 900 nm and 1000 nm over the sea. km on 95% of occasions between 900 km and 1000 km over the sea.

Groundschool

Radio Navigation Exam 1

34. .

A satellite navigation system requires information from ____ satellites to give a three dimensional fix without considering RAIM (a) (b) (c) (d) 3 4 5 2

35.

The Navstar satellite system has _____ orbital planes crossing the equator at ______ at an altitude of ________ (a) (b) (c) (d) 6 3 6 5 60 65 55 60 degrees degrees degrees degrees 10,900 10,250 10 900 10,250 nm km nm nm

36.

What is RAIM and what is its function? (a) (b) (c) (d) Integrity monitoring of satellites by the master station to increase accuracy Resolution and intensity monitoring for increased accuracy GPS integrity monitoring of master and slave stations to ensure correct alignment Integrity monitoring of satellites by the receiver to ensure accurate navigation

37.

Groundspeed measurement using DME equipment is most accurate flying (a) (b) (c) (d) Towards the station at short range Past the station at long range From the station at long range Past the station at short range

38.

The D layer of the ionosphere affects the accuracy of NDB bearings (a) (b) (c) (d) by night only by day only by day and night never

39.

An NDB signal crossing from land to sea will.................speed and bend...............the normal (a) (b) (c) (d) Increase Decrease Increase Decrease away from away from towards towards

Groundschool

Radio Navigation Exam 1

40.

Using a VOR outside the DOC may result in interference from (a) (b) (c) (d) Skywaves Other aircraft Other beacons Groundwaves

41.

Which answer correctly completes the following statement? "The characteristics of an MLS installation are that it uses (a) (b) (c) (d) one transmitter for both elevation and azimuth and a single frequency" an elevation transmitter at the approach end of the runway, an azimuth transmitter at the upwind end of the runway and a single frequency" one transmitter for both elevation and azimuth and two frequencies" an azimuth transmitter at the approach end of the runway, an elevation transmitter at the upwind end of the runway and two frequencies"

42.

Typical Airborne Weather Radar (AWR) is gyro stabilised within limits in (a) (b) (c) (d) pitch and roll yaw and turn pitch and yaw pitch roll and yaw

43.

When an LF radio wave passes over the earth's surface it (a) (b) (c) (d) speeds up and is attenuated slows down and is attenuated speeds up, picks up electrons and becomes stronger slows down, picks up electrons and becomes stronger

44.

An aircraft on an ILS approach is receiving more 90Hz modulation than 150Hz modulation in both localiser and glidepath. The correct action to regain the centreline and glidepath would be to: (a) (b) (c) (d) reduce rate of descent and fly left increase rate of descent and fly right reduce rate of descent and fly right increase rate of descent and fly left

45.

An aircraft on a 3 ILS approach at 150kt groundspeed is required to reduce its speed to 120kts at the outer marker, 4nm from the threshold. The rate of descent should reduce by approximately: (a) (b) (c) (d) 120 150 170 190 ft/min ft/min ft/min ft/min

Groundschool

Radio Navigation Exam 1

46.

An AWR is being used to map the ground between 50nm and 70nm in front of the aircraft which would be the correct beam to use and on what scale? (a) (b) (c) (d) conical beam conical beam cosec2 beam cosec2 beam 50nm 150nm 50nm 150nm

47.

The colours used on a conventional AWR to indicate increasing intensity of returns are: (a) (b) (c) (d) green blue green blue amber green yellow amber red red orange red

48.

The GPS satellite navigation system suffers from the following errors: (a) (b) (c) (d) Ephemeris, interference from other satellites, propogation Ephemeris, clock bias, propogation Interference from other satellites, clock bias, time lag Ephemeris, time lag, interference from other satellites

49.

The GPS satellite navigation system operates by (a) (b) (c) (d) phase comparison measuring the time for the signal to reach the receiver measuring the time for the signal to travel to the receiver and back measuring the phase of the incoming signal

50.

A DME transmitter is operating in the search-for-lock phase. Which of the following statements is correct? (a) (b) (c) (d) The prf increases, the range counters count down from maximum, the output power is increased The prf increases and the range counters count up from 300 to maximum. The prf increases and the range counters count down from the maximum The prf increases and the power is increased

51.

The advantages of CW radar systems over pulse radar systems are (a) (b) (c) (d) there is no minimum range the transmitter/receiver aerial system is smaller and less complex they are more reliable they offer better long range performance

Groundschool

Radio Navigation Exam 1

52.

In the diagram below what is the phase difference of the higher amplitude signal from the reference signal?

(a) (b) (c) (d) 53.

135 225 315 045

Which of the following applies to a Doppler VOR when compared to a standard VOR received signal? (a) (b) (c) (d) The reference and variphase difference remains the same The reference and variphase relationship is reversed The reference and variphase relationship is reversed The reference and variphase remains the same signals are reversed but the phase signals are the same but the phase signals are reversed and the phase signals and the phase relationship

54.

SSR does not suffer from weather clutter because (a) (b) (c) (d) the wavelength used is too short to be reflected it uses different frequencies for transmission and reception the equipment is fitted with clutter filters the frequency is too high

55.

The principle of operation of MLS is: (a) (b) (c) (d) lobe comparison of scanning beams phase comparison directional beams time referenced scanning beams frequency comparison of reference beams

56.

Refer to Appendix A. Which diagram is the MAP mode? (a) (b) (c) (d) A B C D
Radio Navigation Exam 1

Groundschool

57.

Refer to diagram F of Appendix A. The track from ZAPPO to PURDY is: (a) (b) (c) (d) 205 245 064 044 (T) (M) (T) (M)

58.

Refer to diagram C of Appendix A. The aircraft is: (a) (b) (c) (d) right of the centreline and above the glidepath left of the centreline and below the glidepath right of the centreline and below the glidepath left of the centreline and above the glidepath

59.

Refer to Appendix A. Diagram E represents: (a) (b) (c) (d) NAV VOR EXP VOR ILS

60.

Which radio system or frequency band uses tropospheric scatter? (a) (b) (c) (d) over the horizon radar HF VHF VLF

61.

The colour recommended in JAR OPS for armed AFCS modes is: (a) (b) (c) (d) green yellow white magenta

62.

The FMS database can be: (a) (b) (c) (d) Altered by the pilots between the 28 day updates Read and altered by the pilots only read by the pilots changed by the pilots every 28 days

63.

The JAR OPS colour for selected heading is: (a) (b) (c) (d) green magenta red cyan

Groundschool

Radio Navigation Exam 1

64.

In a primary radar system (a) (b) (c) (d) The aircraft plays the secondary role, just listening to the radar signals from the ground radar All radio frequency energy is produced by the radar located at the radar site The radar is primarily used for range-finding The radar is the primary aid for ATC

65.

If the DME ground transmitter fails, (a) (b) (c) (d) the last measured range is frozen for 20 secs all range information is immediately lost the last recorded range is retained until the ground transmitter is restored The counters continue to rotate for 8 to 10 seconds

Groundschool

Radio Navigation Exam 1

Appendix A

Groundschool

Radio Navigation Exam 1

Intentionally Blank

Groundschool

Radio Navigation Exam 1

Radio Navigation
Exam 1, 65 Questions. Time allowed: 1hr 30min.

A B C D 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44

A B C D 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65

A B C D

Groundschool

Radio Navigation Exam 1

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

b c c d a c d b c a a d b b b d b c d a

21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

d b b b c d d a c a a c a b c d c d a c

41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60

b a b b b d a b b c a b a b c d c a b a

61 62 63 64 65

c c b b d

Groundschool

Radio Navigation Exam 1

Radio Navigation
Exam 2, 65 Questions - time allowed 90 minutes 1. When ADF equipment which incorporates a sense aerial and a loop aerial is tuned to a NDB and the loop aerial is rotated so that a sharp null is found the aerial is (a) (b) (c) (d) 2. at right angles to the incoming signals in line with the incoming signals either at right angles or in line with the incoming signals aligned with the aircraft nose

The AWR transmitter is not normally selected on the ground because: (a) (b) (c) (d) It can overload the electrical system. Its radiated energy can damage people and equipment. It can interfere with radars and approach aids. None of the above.

3.

If the AWR transmitter is required to be switched on before take-off the scanner should be tilted up with: (a) (b) (c) (d) The weather mode selected. The mapping mode selected. Either of these modes selected. None of these.

4.

If, when you are requesting a QDM from an airfield, you are offered a QGH, it means (a) (b) (c) (d) The VDF unit is prepared to give you assistance during an approach to the airfield, based on VDF bearings The VDF service will be handled by a different VDF unit, operating on the same frequency The bearing will only be accurate when the aircraft is flying above the QGH level The service will be limited to bearings, no positions will be given by the DF station

5.

Selection of mode C on the SSR provides ATC with information based on: (a) (b) (c) (d) Aircraft Aircraft Aircraft Aircraft pressure altitude. altitude as indicated on the captain's altimeter. height above QFE. height above the surface.

Groundschool

Radio Navigation Exam 2

6.

The SSR conspicuity code is: (a) (b) (c) (d) 7000. 2000. 0033. 4321.

7.

A radio signal has a frequency of 3 Ghz. Its wave length is: (a) (b) (c) (d) 10 cm 1.0 cm 100 cm 1.0m

8.

On a 5 dot HSI in the RNAV approach mode (APR RNAV) what does one dot indicate? (a) (b) (c) (d) 0.25 nm 0.5 nm 1.0 nm 2.0 nm

9.

Using the 1 in 60 rule calculate the height on a 3 degree glide path of an aircraft 4.5 nm from touchdown. (a) (b) (c) (d) 1370 1420 1480 1230 ft ft ft ft

10. An aircraft at FL 250 is using its AWR which has a beam width of 5 degrees. A cloud at 25 nm ceases to paint when the tilt control is selected to 1 degree up. Using the 1 in 60 rule calculate the height of the cloud top. (a) (b) (c) (d) 11. 21200 25000 28800 26000 ft ft ft ft

In radio terms, frequency means: (a) (b) (c) (d) The The The The number of complete waveforms passing a spot in one second. length of a complete waveform in metres. speed of radio waves in metres per second. number of waveforms in one hour

12.

A radio wave with a horizontal magnetic component would be best received by a..................aerial (a) (b) (c) vertical. horizontal parabolic
Radio Navigation Exam 2

Groundschool

13.

(d) magnetic The limits of the VHF band are: (a) (b) (c) (d) 3 - 30 MHz. 300 - 3000 KHz. 30 - 300 MHz 300 - 3000 MHz.

14.

Attenuation of a radio wave is the: (a) (b) (c) (d) change of its amplitude by use of sidebands. change of its frequency by use of sidebands. increase of its power by the combination of multi-path signals. reduction of its power by absorbtion, scattering or spreading.

15. What most affects the range available from a secondary radar? (a) (b) (c) (d) 16. The The The The height of aircraft and height of ground interrogator transmission power of ground transponder transmission power of aircraft interrogator PRP

Complete the following statement. ......... radio signals have a ......... range by .......... wave over .......... than over ........... (a) (b) (c) (d) MF VHF MF MF greater shorter greater shorter ground sky ground sky land sea sea sea sea. land. land. land

17.

With reference to a VDF bearing, the true bearing of the aircraft from the ground station is a (a) (b) (c) (d) QDM QDR QUJ QTE

18.

An airborne weather radar in the mapping mode shows an island as on the display on the right. If the aircraft heading is 040(M) the magnetic bearing and range from the aircraft to the island is: (a) (b) (c) (d) 070 010 070 010 100 nm 200 nm 240 nm 40 nm

Groundschool

Radio Navigation Exam 2

19.

Which of the following factors could cause an error of an ADF bearing of an NDB ? (a) (b) (c) (d) Phase interference Atmospheric scatter. Scalloping. Night effect.

20.

The purpose of the BFO switch on the ADF receiver is to: (a) (b) (c) (d) Improve the strength of the received signal Cut out the static noise Make the signal audible Attenuate the received signal

21.

The basic principle of operation of a standard VOR is by: (a) (b) (c) (d) Phase comparison between an amplitude modulated reference signal and a frequency modulated variable signal. Phase difference between a frequency modulated reference signal and an amplitude modulated variable signal. Phase comparison between a 108 Mhz reference signal and a 30 Hz variable signal. Phase comparison between a 30 Hz reference signal and a 108 Mhz variable signal.

22.

At 5.25 nm from the threshold an aircraft on an ILS approach has a display showing it to be 4 dots low on a 3 degree glidepath. Using an angle of 0.15 per dot of glideslope deviation and the 1 in 60 rule calculate the height of the aircraft from touchdown. (a) (b) (c) (d) 1375 1325 1280 1450 ft ft ft ft

23.

According to JAA JTSOs the colour red is used on an EFIS screen for: (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) Warnings Flight envelope and system limits Cautions, abnormal sources Scales and associated figures

Which selection of the above answers is correct? (a) (b) (c) (d) (i) only (i) & (ii) (i) & (iii) (ii) (iii) & (iv)

Groundschool

Radio Navigation Exam 2

24.

The coverage of the ILS localiser at 17 nm is guaranteed up to an angle either side of the extended centreline of: (a) (b) (c) (d) 35 25 30 10 degrees degrees degrees degrees

25.

When using the AWR to detect long range ground features the most suitable mode of operation or beam selected would be: (a) (b) (c) (d) The The The The mapping mode fan shaped beam manual mode contour mode

26.

The Course Deviation Indicator shows 248 TO and 3 dots FLY LEFT. If the DME range is 90 nm your VOR radial and distance from the centre line will be: (a) (b) (c) (d) 074 242 062 254 9 6 9 9 nm nm nm nm

27.

An aircraft on a heading of 270 (M) has 093 set on the OBS and TO indicated. The VOR Course Deviation Indicator shows 2 dots FLY LEFT. The aircraft is, therefore, situated on the: (a) (b) (c) (d) 277 089 097 269 radial radial radial radial

28.

What is the maximum off-track error permitted on P-RNAV systems? (a) (b) (c) (d) 0.5 nm 1 nm 2 nm 5 nm

29.

The term "Doppler shift" refers to: (a) (b) (c) (d) The The The The change change change change in in in in phase angle measured at the receiver the speed measured at the receiver depression angle measured at the receiver frequency measured at the receiver

30.

The main factor which affects the maximum range of a pulse radar is: (a) (b) (c) The frequency of the radar transmission The size of the radar screen The pulse repetition frequency
Radio Navigation Exam 2

Groundschool

(d) 31.

The aerial system size

If a DME beacon becomes saturated by interrogations it: (a) (b) (c) (d) It switches off its identification signal Adjusts the gain to reply to the 100 strongest signals Adjusts its PRF to cope with all aircraft Replies to the nearest 100 aircraft

32.

If the compass providing information to the RMI suddenly gets a 20 deviation (a) (b) (c) (d) The relative bearing to the VOR, as observed on the RMI, will jump 20 The number of the received radial may still be read on the compass card under the tail of the VOR needle The magnetic track to the VOR station may be read on the compass card under the tip of the VOR needle All 3 answers are correct

33.

The interval in time between the commencement of two consecutive pulses is: (a) (b) (c) (d) Pulse Pulse Pulse Pulse recurrence frequency width rate recurrence period

34.

When considering the propagation of ADF transmissions night effect is most pronounced; (a) (b) (c) (d) At or near the coast During the long winter nights At dusk and dawn When flying at low altitude

35.

For a category one ILS glide path of 3.3 degrees the coverage is: (a) (b) (c) (d) 1.65 1.49 1.49 1.65 to to to to 5.77 5.94 5.77 5.94 degrees degrees degrees degrees

36.

If a VOR station and a DME station, having different locations, are selected to provide a fix. (a) (b) (c) (d) Two sets, with separate frequency control, are required in the aircraft Two positions, being ambiguous, will be presented Two different IDs will have to be checked All 3 answers above are correct

Groundschool

Radio Navigation Exam 2

37.

INMARSAT coverage is limited to below 80N and 80S because: (a) (b) (c) (d) Polar cap absorbtion affects the signals beyond those latitudes the satellite orbits are geostationary the aurora borealis affects the satellite operation the satellites cross the equator at 55 and therefore do not traverse the polar region.

38.

The brilliance of a CRT display is adjusted by varying the voltage on the (a) (b) (c) (d) second anode cathode X plates grid

39.

With regard to the advantages of SSR which of the following statements is correct? (a) (b) (c) (d) range, bearing and height can be calculated from reply signals No aircraft manoeuvres are necessary for identification Little power is required to effect longish range All of the above

40.

An aircraft is tracking the 065 radial inbound to VOR X. With 12 port drift which of the following indications will be correct when crossing the 133 radial from VOR Y?

Groundschool

Radio Navigation Exam 2

41.

What are the primary navigation inputs used by RNAV system? (a) (b) (c) (d) Nav Aids, INS, FMC database INS, Nav Aids, TAS and Drift INS, Mapping Radar, FMC database Nav Aids, Mapping Radar, FMC database

42.

You are maintaining a track of 315M on a heading of 299M. The variation at the aircraft is 12E. The true heading is ............. the true track is .......... and the drift is .............. (a) (b) (c) (d) 326 287 311 311 311 303 327 327 16 16 16 16 starboard port starboard port

43.

An aircraft is attempting to track 186M on an airway defined by a VOR 80nm away. The VOR indicator below indicates the aircraft position. With these indications the aircraft is on the ........... radial and ......... the airway

. . . . . . .. . . . . . . . .
TO 186

(a) (b) (c) (d) 44.

181 001 181 001

outside inside inside outside

When a DME interrogates a ground station the prf is (a) (b) (c) (d) 150 pps until locked on 150 pps for 15,000 pulse pairs then reduces to 60 pps until locked on 150 pps for 100 secs then reduces to 60 pps until locked on 24 pps until locked on

Groundschool

Radio Navigation Exam 2

45.

An aircraft over the sea is receiving a signal from an NDB 50nm from the coast and another from an NDB 20nm from the coast. Which of the following statements is most correct? (a) (b) (c) (d) The bearing information most correct The bearing information most correct The bearing information would be most correct The bearing information would be most correct from the beacon 50nm inland would be from the beacon 20nm inland would be from relative bearings of 360 and 180 from relative bearings of 90 and 270

46.

Which statement regarding Mode S transponders is most correct? (a) (b) (c) (d) Mode S Mode S Mode S facility Mode S transponders are used to assist GPS positioning transponders are used with TCAS III transponders reduce RT traffic and provide a datalink and Mode C transponders operate on different frequencies

47.

How many satellites are required for a 3D GPS fix using RAIM with the ability to discard one faulty satellite? (a) (b) (c) (d) 3 4 5 6

48.

The GPS Navstar system transmits in the L1 and L2 frequency bands. Which bands are used for the P codes and which for the C/A codes? (a) (b) (c) (d) Higher frequency for the P code only Higher frequency for the C/A and P codes Higher frequency for the C/A code and lower frequency for the P code Lower frequency for the C/A code and higher frequency for the P code

49.

The height of the GPS Navstar system above the earth in km is: (a) (b) (c) (d) 10250 10900 19000 20200

50.

What is the lowest frequency where freedom from static interference can be guaranteed? (a) (b) (c) (d) 3 MHz 30MHz 300MHz 3 GHz
Radio Navigation Exam 2

Groundschool

51.

Why does surface movement radar use a frequency in the SHF band and not EHF? (a) (b) (c) (d) EHF is potentially hazardous to personnel on the area. This was completely overcome by switching to SHF. The power requirements of EHF were unsustainable in the UK. SHF gives better definition of aircraft type than EHF EHF is absorbed and scattered by moisture in the air. Switching to SHF reduced the problem

52.

What is the maximum distance apart, in metres, that an associated enroute VOR/DME can be sited? (a) (b) (c) (d) 30 300 600 2000

53.

What fix can be obtained from four satellites of the GPS system disregarding RAIM? (a) (b) (c) (d) Latitude and longitude Latitude, longitude and altitude Latitude, longitude and time Latitude, longitude, altitude and time

54.

Using an NDB it is possible to experience which of the following errors or limitations? (a) (b) (c) (d) Night effect, station interference and lack of a failure warning system Night effect, station interference and latitude error Coastal refraction, timing error and night effect Coastal refraction, timing error and lack of a failure warning system

55.

When a pilot is conducting a VDF/QGH procedure, he will require (a) (b) (c) (d) an an an no operator operator operator operator on the ground only for the VDF procedure on the ground only for the QGH procedure on the ground for both the VDF and QGH procedures on the ground for either VDF or QGH procedures

56.

The frequency at which skywaves should least affect reception (a) (b) (c) (d) VLF LF MF HF

Groundschool

Radio Navigation Exam 2

57.

An aircraft is on a VOR radial of 235, heading 003(M), and with the OBS set to 060. The correct indications are: (a) (b) (c) (d) TO FROM TO FROM Scale Scale Scale Scale deflection deflection deflection deflection to to to to the the the the right left left right

58.

Positions on a Flight Management Computer are updated with information from: (a) (b) (c) (d) DME / DME DME / DME or DME / VOR DME / VOR VOR / ADF

59.

The databases on a FMC (a) (b) (c) (d) Are read only Can be modified by the pilot Can be read or written on to at any time. Are updated once every 28 weeks

60.

What is the range of long range ground radar? (a) (b) (c) (d) 1000nm 50nm 200nm 300nm

61.

The colour recommended in JAR OPS 1 for the active route is: (a) (b) (c) (d) green magenta cyan amber

62.

When is the IRS position updated: (a) (b) (c) (d) continuously by the FMC at VOR beacons en route by the pilots at significant waypoints only on the ground only

63.

With a transmission from an NDB aerial, the ..... component travels in the ..... plane and the signal is ..... polarised:(a) (b) (c) (d) Magnetic Electrical Electrical Magnetic vertical vertical horizontal horizontal horizontally horizontally vertically vertically

Groundschool

Radio Navigation Exam 2

64.

When conducting a QGH approach responsibility for interpreting the procedure rests with.............and on a VDF approach responsiblity rests with................... (a) (b) (c) (d) the the the the pilot pilot controller controller the the the the controller pilot controller pilot

65.

The sequence of AWR displays on the right has been achieved by selecting a ............... range then.............mode (a) (b) (c) (d) shorter shorter longer longer mapping contour contour mapping

Groundschool

Radio Navigation Exam 2

Radio Navigation
Exam 2, 65 Questions. Time allowed: 1hr 30min.

A B C D 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44

A B C D 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65

A B C D

Groundschool

Radio Navigation Exam 2

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

b b a a a a a a a a a a c d a c d d d c

21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

b b b a c c d b d c b d d c c d b d d b

41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60

a c d b b c d b d b d c d a c a c b a d

61 62 63 64 65

b b d d b

Groundschool

Radio Navigation Exam 2

Radio Navigation
Exam 3 - 65 Questions, time allowed 90 minutes 1. Decimetric waves correspond to the frequency range: (a) (b) (c) (d) 2. 3000 to 30000 MHz 3000 to 30000 KHz 300 to 3000 MHz 300 to 3000 KHz

On an HSI (Horizontal Situation Indicator) used in combination with a VOR receiver (a) (b) (c) (d) A pictorial presentation of aircraft deviation relative to VOR radials is provided The lubber line will indicate the reciprocal value of the received radial The lubber line will indicate the selected radial There will be no Omni Bearing Selector knob, as this function is automatic on this type of indicator

3.

With regard to types of transmission, which statement is true: (a) (b) (c) (d) continuous wave transmission varies only in amplitude pulse transmission is suitable only for periodic NDB's in pulse transmission the frequency is modulated to facilitate range measurement continuous wave transmission can be either frequency or amplitude modulated

4.

A VOR indication of 240 FROM is given. Variation at the aircraft is 9W and at the VOR is 7W. The heading (T) in nil wind to reach the station is: (a) (b) (c) (d) 231 051 053 233

5.

An aircraft is maintaining an airway centreline of 000 defined by a VOR ahead of the aircraft. Variation at the VOR is 5E. At 60nm to go the QDM is 004. The aircraft's position relative to the airway lateral boundary is: (a) (b) (c) (d) 3nm 1nm 1nm 1nm inside the airways eastern boundary inside the airways western boundary outside the airways western boundary inside the airways eastern boundary

Groundschool

Radio Navigation Exam 3

B A
6 In the propagation diagram above the correct sequence for letters A, B, C and D is: (a) (b) (c) (d) 7. A dead space dead space skip distance skip distance B skip distance skip distance dead space dead space C sky wave ground wave sky wave ground wave D ground wave sky wave ground wave sky wave

MLS consists of: (a) (b) (c) (d) a common azimuth and elevation transmitter overlapping centre-line lobe transmission in azimuth angled to provide glide slope information an azimuth transmitter and an elevation transmitter on separate frequencies and a DME an azimuth transmitter and an elevation transmitter operating on a shared frequency and a DME

8. What antennae must be used to obtain an ADF bearing? (a) (b) (c) (d) 9. Loop Sense Loop and sense Radome

For long range NDB's the most common type is: (a) (b) (c) (d) LF NON AlA LF NON A2A MF NON A1A MF NON A2A

Groundschool

Radio Navigation Exam 3

10.

The maximum safe 'fly-up' indication on the glidepath needle (assuming a 5-dot indicator) is (a) (b) (c) (d) 2 dots 1.5 dots 2.5 dots 1 dot

11. An aircraft is tracking the 255 radial inbound to VOR X. With 15 port drift which of the following indications will be correct when crossing the 121 radial from VOR Y?

12.

Attenuation of radio waves means:(a) (b) (c) (d) the weakening of the radiated waves the atmospheric bending of the waves only the scattering of the waves by the tropopause only the absorbtion of radio energy by the sea

13.

The geodetic reference system used to define latitude and longitude by GPS equipment is:(a) (b) (c) (d) UKGRS 90 GDR 95 OSGB 36 WGS 84

Groundschool

Radio Navigation Exam 3

14.

Your QUJ is 335 by VDF. The variation of a VOR at the same location is 12W. What is the phase difference between the reference and variable signals in the aircraft's receivers from that VOR? (a) (b) (c) (d) 323 347 143 167

15.

If a ground D/F controller passes a bearing thus: "your true bearing is 256, class alpha." This means:(a) (b) (c) (d) QTE accurate to 5 QUJ accurate to 3 QDR accurate to 2 QTE accurate to 2

16.

Use the 1 in 60 rule to determine the approximate height of an aircraft 3nm from touchdown on a 2.9 glide slope. (a) (b) (c) (d) 880 765 840 825 ft ft ft ft

17.

The TO/FROM indicator of a VOR (a) (b) (c) (d) Tells whether you are now flying towards or from the VOR Tells whether a track equal to the selected bearing will bring you to or away from the VOR Tells whether the deviation indicator shows that you should manoeuvre the aircraft towards or from the CDI needle Tells whether you should turn the aircraft towards or away from the CDI indication

18.

The transmission band used by INMARSAT is: (a) (b) (c) (d) HF VHF UHF SHF

19.

The maximum range of a primary pulse radar can be affected by: (a) (b) (c) (d) PRF pulse width transmission frequency either (a), (b) or (c)

Groundschool

Radio Navigation Exam 3

20.

DME is a .....................radar which provides......................distances between the aircraft and a ground..................... Which sequence most accurately completes the above statement? (a) (b) (c) (d) primary secondary secondary primary accurate earth slant slant transmitter transmitter transponder transponder

21.

If a DME transponder becomes saturated it will; (a) (b) (c) (d) give give give give preference preference preference preference to to to to the the the the nearest 100 aircraft furthest aircraft up to a maximum of 70 aircraft with the strongest transmissions first 100 aircraft which interrogated it

22.

The tilt angle on Aircraft Weather Radar (AWR) at which an active cloud just disappears from the screen is 4. If the beam width is 5 and the range of the cloud is 40nm, the height of the cloud above the aircraft is approximately: (a) (b) (c) (d) 3000 6000 4000 9000 ft ft ft ft

23.

Which of the ILS signal presentations shown below indicates that the aircraft is at its maximum recommended deviation below the glidepath and is to the right of the centreline?

a)

b)

c)

d)

Groundschool

Radio Navigation Exam 3

24.

The VHF frequency band has a wavelength limit of: (a) (b) (c) (d) 100 m to 10 m 1 m to 100 cms 10 m to 1m 100 cms to 10 cms

25.

119.70 Mhz is a typical frequency for; (a) (b) (c) (d) VOR Approach Control DME ILS localiser

26.

An aircraft bears 036(T) from a VOR beacon. Its heading is 330(T) and the variation at the beacon and aircraft is 8E. What OBS setting would make the CDI needle central with 'TO' showing? (a) (b) (c) (d) 028 208 232 052

27.

In the diagram above the correct action to regain glide slope and centreline is: (a) (b) (c) (d) fly fly fly fly left and decrease descent rate right and decrease descent rate left and increase descent rate right and increase descent rate

28.

The visual and aural indications of the ILS outer marker are:(a) (b) (c) (d) a blue light and 2 dashes per sec of a 400 hz modulated tone a white light and 6 dots per sec of a 30 hz modulated tone an amber light and alternate dashes/dots of a 1300 hz modulated tone a blue light and 2 dashes per sec of a 1300 hz modulated signal

Groundschool

Radio Navigation Exam 3

29.

The antenna polar diagram of a conventional VOR (a) (b) (c) (d) Is always directed towards the aircraft Is like a figure of 8 Is a pencil beam Rotates at 30 revolutions per second

30.

Microwave Landing Systems allow the aircraft to fix its position accurately in three dimensions by means of: (a) (b) (c) (d) timing the interval between pulses in azimuth and elevation and timing the delay for pulses to reach the aircraft to define range information from four satellites transmitting microwaves timing the passage of two scanning beams integrated with DME directional aerials and DME

31.

A radar which employs an interrogator/transponder technique is: (a) (b) (c) (d) primary radar continuous wave radar secondary radar Doppler radar

32.

The PRF of a primary radar is 500. Its maximum range in nm is approximately (a) (b) (c) (d) 300 160 320 600

33.

By using a random PRF the airborne DME can:(a) (b) (c) (d) prevent interference from random transmissions recognise a beacons reply among a mass of ground returns reduce the effect of weather interference distinguish between its own replies and those replies triggered by other aircraft

34.

Which sequence completes the following statement? With regard to AWR, in the cosecant2 or ............. beam ............is progressively ........... as distances ........... to equalise screen brightness. (a) (b) (c) (d) weather mapping weather mapping power power gain gain increased decreased decreased increased decrease decrease increase decrease

Groundschool

Radio Navigation Exam 3

35.

The phase difference between the VOR reference signal and the variable phase signal measured at an aircraft bearing 297(T) from a VOR, where the magnetic variation is 23E, is:(a) (b) (c) (d) 320 274 297 none of the above

36.

With regard to SSR which of the following statements is true: (a) (b) (c) (d) it is a secondary radar system operating in the UHF frequency band. mode A is used for identification, with mode C for automatic height information it is compulsory when flying in Upper Airspace and in the whole of U.K. controlled airspace under IFR to carry Mode A 4096 codes and also Mode C all of the above

37.

What is the height of the cloud if an aircraft is at 5000ft, cloud range is 30nm, the AWR tilt angle is 5 and the beam width is 4? (a) (b) (c) (d) 9000ft 14000ft 21000ft 17000ft

38.

The rate of descent (in ft/min) for a 3 glide-slope at a GS of 140 kt is (a) (b) (c) (d) 325 640 710 520

39.

A hyperbolic position line joins all points of (a) (b) (c) (d) equal range between two ground stations zero phase difference between two signals equal difference in range between two stations equal time taken by two simultaneous transmissions

40.

When a Mode C check is carried out, and assuming the equipment is working without error, the Mode C will report an pressure altitude of 35,064 ft as flight level: (a) (b) (c) (d) 350 35064 3506 351

Groundschool

Radio Navigation Exam 3

41.

The wavelength of a radio signal is 200 metres. What is its frequency? (a) (b) (c) (d) 1.5KHz 1.5GHz 1.5MHz 15MHz

42.

The approximate ground waves of LF and MF are (by day) ...... and ...... respectively, with .... suffering more from atmospheric attenuation. (a) (b) (c) (d) 1500nm l000nm l000nm 500nm l000nm 500nm 300nm l00nm MF LF MF LF

43.

In UK airspace if an ATS unit is unable to verify the altitude of the aircraft or there is more than ...... feet between height indication and pilot reported altitude, mode ...... should be de-selected (a) (b) (c) (d) 300 200 300 200 Mode Mode Mode Mode A C C A

44.

The needle of a Course Deviation Indicator is showing 3 dots right on a 5 dot OBI, with 268 set and FROM showing. What radial is the a/c on? (a) (b) (c) (d) 082 094 262 274

45.

The AWR screen on the right is operating in the mapping mode. Given that the magnetic heading is 018 and the variation is 8E the true bearing of the aircraft from the island is............. and the .............. scale is selected. (a) (b) (c) (d) 176 160 176 160 120 nm 70 nm 100 nm 300 nm

46.

NDBs transmit mainly in the: (a) (b) (c) (d) VHF band UHF band HF band MF band

Groundschool

Radio Navigation Exam 3

47.

The 95% accuracy for ADF bearings of an NDB by day is: (a) (b) (c) (d) 2 7 10 3

48.

With reference to a VOR, the "cone of confusion" is: (a) (b) (c) (d) the area outside the DOC the area overhead the VOR the change over of the TO & FROM flag when the OBS is set 90 to the radial the area in which more than one VOR can be received on the same frequency

49.

Accurate glidepath signals cannot be guaranteed above a certain angle relative to the horizontal. The angle is:(a) (b) (c) (d) 0.45 5.25 1.35 1.75 x x x x the the the the glidepath glidepath glidepath glidepath angle angle angle angle

50.

If a NDB with a transmitter power of 25KW which has a range of 50nm is adjusted to give a power output of 100KW the range of the NDB will be about (a) (b) (c) (d) 100 nm 200 nm 50 nm 150 nm

51.

The indications of a VOR in an aircraft tracking towards a VOR are 075(M) TO and deviation indicator central. A co-located NDB shows 012 relative. What are the drift and heading in (M)? (a) (b) (c) (d) 12S 12P 12S 12P 087 063 063 087

52.

The factor which determines the minimum range of a radar is: (a) (b) (c) (d) PRF Pulse interval Pulse width Radio frequency of transmission

Groundschool

Radio Navigation Exam 3

53.

The max theoretical range of a radar whose PRF is 750 pps is: (a) (b) (c) (d) 218 132 200 108 nm nm nm nm

54.

When receiving an NDB signal on an ADF receiver the BFO can be selected OFF for the (a) (b) (c) (d) tone signal on NONAlA ident signal on NONAlA tone signal on NONA2A ident signal on NONA2A

55.

A transmitter using a wavelength of 4 cm moves directly towards a receiver at 240m/sec. The doppler shift is............. and of................ (a) (b) (c) (d) negative positive negative positive 60 Hz 6 KHz 6 KHz 60 Hz

56.

In order to be able to penetrate cloud, a primary radar signal must have: (a) (b) (c) (d) a a a a short pulse length high frequency long wavelength high PRF

57.

The range (in nm) at which an aircraft flying at 8500ft wi1l receive a VHF transmission from a station 520ft amsl is: (a) (b) (c) (d) 115 144 87 131

58.

The ILS localiser transmits VHF frequencies between:(a) (b) (c) (d) 108 112 108 118 and and and and 117.95 117.95 111.95 136.95 Mhz Mhz Mhz Mhz

59.

With reference to ground DF, the controller can refuse to give bearings if: (a) (b) (c) (d) the requesting aircraft is not from a consenting country conditions are poor and bearings do not fall within the stations classified limits the pilot does not use the prescribed terminology none of the above

Groundschool

Radio Navigation Exam 3

60.

The ILS localiser signal provides azimuth guidance. The signal is made up of two lobes (a) (b) (c) (d) on on on on the same frequency with the same modulation different frequencies with the same modulation different frequencies with different modulations the same frequency with different modulations

61.

As the frequency of a transmitter is increased, the range of the ground wave will:(a) (b) (c) (d) Increase Decrease Decrease only at night Increase only over the sea

62.

With reference to a VDF bearing, the true bearing of the aircraft from the ground station is a: (a) (b) (c) (d) QDM QDR QUJ QTE

63.

An aircraft is tracking 060 (T) in still air. The relative bearing of an NDB is 035 at 1300. 12 min later the relative bearing is 070. If the G/S is 180kt, what is the aircraft's distance from the NDB at 1312 (a) (b) (c) (d) 18 36 24 30 nm nm nm nm

64.

A Class B VDF bearing has accuracy limits of plus or minus: (a) (b) (c) (d) 2 7 3 5 degrees degrees degrees degrees

65.

Night effect is a quoted NDB error. It refers to the mixing of the: (a) (b) (c) (d) Groundwave and sky waves from the station being used Groundwave and sky waves from other stations Direct wave and sky waves from the station being used Direct wave and sky waves from other stations

Groundschool

Radio Navigation Exam 3

Radio Navigation
Exam 3, 65 Questions. Time allowed: 1hr 30min.

A B C D 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44

A B C D 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65

A B C D

Groundschool

Radio Navigation Exam 3

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

c a d c b d d c a c d a d d d a b c d c

21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

c b c c b b a a d c c b d b b d b c c d

41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60

c c b c c d b b d a c c d d b c b c b d

61 62 63 64 65

b d b d a

Groundschool

Radio Navigation Exam 3