BRILLIANT’S FULL SYLLABUS TEST 1

FOR STUDENTS OF OUR ONE/TWO-YEAR POSTAL COURSES TOWARDS

AIEEE / FST1 18.12.2011

ALL INDIA ENGINEERING ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2012
PHYSICS – MATHEMATICS – CHEMISTRY
Time: 3 hours IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS Maximum marks: 360

1. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 360. 2. There are three parts in the questions paper A, B, C consisting of Physics, Mathematics and Chemistry having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each question is allotted 4(four) marks for each correct response. 3. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in instruction No. 2 for correct response of each question. ¼ (one fourth) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet. 4. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in each question will be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted accordingly as per instruction 3 above. 5. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars / marking response on side-1 and side-2 of the Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited. 6. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any electronic device etc; except the Admit Card inside the examination hall/room. 7. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only. This space is given at the bottom of each page and in 3 pages at the end of the booklet. Name of the Candidate (in Capital letters) :_____________________________________________ Roll Number: in figures : in words ___________________________________________________________ Examination Centre Number: Name of Examination Centre (in Capital letters): ________________________________________ Candidate’s Signature: ____________________ ♣ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. Invigilator’s Signature:___________________ AIEEE/FST 1/PMC/Obj/Qns - 1

SEAL

2 PART I : PHYSICS 1. The volume of a body varies with time as β V = αt + 2 where t is measured in t seconds and V is measured in cubic metres. The S.I. units of the constants α and β are (1) ms, m2s2 (3) m3/s, m3s2 2. A (2) m2s–1, m2/s 2 (4) m3s, m3/s–2 4. A uniform disc of radius r is made to spin about its axis at an angular velocity ω and carefully placed on a rough horizontal surface of coefficient of friction µ. The time taken by the disc to come to rest on placing it with its plane on the table is (1)
3 rω ⋅ 4 µg

(2)

1 rω ⋅ 2 µg

particle

starts

rotating

from

rest,
(3)

t3 t according to the equation, θ = − + 5, 50 2 where θ is in radian and t is in second. The angular velocity of the particle after 25 seconds is

3 r 2ω2 ⋅ 4 µg

(4)

1 r 2ω2 ⋅ 2 µg

(1) 37 rad s–1 (3) 33 rad s–1

(2) 35 rad s–1 (4) 31 rad s–1

5. The angular momentum about the axle of a flywheel increases from 2.5 kg-m2/s to 7.5 kg-m2/s. The moment of inertia of the wheel about the axle is 0.25 kg-m2. The work done on the flywheel is (1) 60 J (3) 100 J (2) 80 J (4) 120 J

3. A steel drill making 240 rev/min is used to drill a hole in a block of steel. The mass of the steel block and the drill is 200 g. When the entire mechanical work is utilized in producing heat and the rate of rise in temperature of the block and the drill is 1.2°C/s. The torque required to drive the drill is (specific heat of steel = 0.1 and J = 4.2 J/cal) (1) 2.5 N-m (3) 3.5 N-m (2) 3.0 N-m (4) 4 N-m

6. This question has statement 1 and statement 2. Of the four choices given after the statements, choose the one that best describes the two statements. Statement 1: When the units of force and distance are doubled, the unit of work will be four times.

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AIEEE/FST 1/ PMC/Obj/Qns - 2

(3) Statement 1 is false. The horizontal distance between the vertical line through the gun and the point where the shot strikes the ground is (g = 10 ms–2) 10.25 m (2) 98. 7. the guard of B just brushes past the driver of A. The radius of the rocky sphere is (1) 28. (2) Statement 1 is true. Ltd. Statement 2 is true. Statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. (4) Statement 1 is true. From the surface of a rocky sphere of density 3. AIEEE/FST 1/ PMC/Obj/Qns . A shot is fired from a gun on the top of a cliff 80 m high with a velocity of 60 ms–1 at an elevation of 30°.25 m SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK ♣ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Statement 2 is true.9 km (4) 32. Viscosity of water is 10–5 N-s/m2. Even after entering the water. A spherical ball of radius 1.5 × 10–4 m and density 104 kg/m3 falls under gravity through a distance h before entering a water tank. The driver of B decides to overtake A and accelerates by 2 ms–2.0 g/cm3 a gold ball is thrown with a velocity of 40 ms–1 so that the ball do not return to the surface.3 . The original distance between the trains A and B is (1) 650 m (3) 550 m (2) 600 m (4) 500 m O 80 m 60 ms−1 30° O′ x A R B (1) 240 3 m (3) 240 2 m (2) 220 3 m (4) 220 2 m 9.3 Statement 2: The unit of work is independent of the unit of force and distance. After 40 seconds. (1) Statement 1 is true.4 km 8. Statement 2 is false. Two trains A and B of length 500 m each are moving on two parallel tracks with a uniform speed of 90 km/h in the same direction with A ahead of B. Statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.6 km (2) 30.9 km (3) 31.74 m (4) 104. the velocity of the ball does not change. Statement 2 is true.48 m (3) 101. The value of h is (g = 10 ms–2) (1) 95.

Of the four choices given after the statements. Assuming negligible loss through curved surface. the free ends of the rods P and R are at 150°C and 30°C respectively. (Velocity of sound in air is 340 ms–1) (1) 2. the temperature at the two junction points are 13.5x – 200t)] where x and y are in cm and t in second.3 ms–1 (4) 10.3°C (2) 83. Q and R of equal lengths and same diameters are joined in series.4 .8 × 10–4 150°C P (2) 3. choose the one that best describes the two statements. This question has statement 1 and statement 2.3 × 10–3 (4) 3.25 m from its equilibrium position.9°C (4) 82. Ltd. When the system is. the mass shoots to the right. AIEEE/FST 1/ PMC/Obj/Qns . In steady state.4 11.6 ms–1 (3) 10. A 300 gm mass is pushed to the left so that the spring of negligible mass gets compressed 0.8°C (3) 83.5°C 14. Statement 1: The blood pressure in humans is greater at the feet than that at the brain. Which of the following statements is true for this wave? (1) Wavelength 4 cm and frequency 100 Hz (2) Wavelength 2 cm and frequency 200 Hz (3) Amplitude 2 cm and velocity 400 cm s–1 (4) Amplitude 2 cm and wavelength 2 cm 15.3 × 10–4 Q R 30°C 3k TPQ 2k TQR 1. A transverse progressive wave is given by the equation y = 2 cos [π (0. 1. the speed with which the mass will shoot away is k = 500 Nm−1 (1) 11.15 m was being filled with water flowing out at uniform rate from a tap.5 k respectively. A vessel in the form a long cylinder of radius 0.2 ms–1 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK ♣ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ignoring friction. 12.8 × 10–3 (3) 2. A person observes resonance condition at intervals of 75 sec with a tuning fork of 484 Hz. The rate of supply of water in m3 per second is. Their thermal conductivities are 3 k.5 k (1) 84. 2 k. Three cylindrical rods P.8 ms–1 (2) 11.

5 .5 kW (2) 11. A ring is made of a wire having a resistance R = 10 Ω. AIEEE/FST 1/ PMC/Obj/Qns .m. (4) Statement 1 is true. When flash is required. The thickness of the sheet is half of the separation between the plates. across the first shell to become zero is E E r2 r1 I R SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK ♣ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt.25 W (4) 11.5 W (3) 112. (1) Statement 1 is true. Statement 2 is true. density of liquid and acceleration due to gravity. the energy stored in the capacitor is made to discharge through a discharge tube in 0.84 : 1 (2) 5.45 : 1 19. Statement 2 is not the correct explanation of Statement 1.f.87 : 2 (3) 7.5 Statement 2: Pressure of liquid at any point is proportional to height. In the camera flash circuit shown in Figure. Statement 2 is true. a metal sheet is inserted between the plates. Statement 2 is true. Ltd. (2) Statement 1 is true. Statement 2 is false. Statement 2 is the correct explanation of Statement 1. In a parallel plate capacitor of capacitance C. P = hρg. The capacitance now becomes (1) 2C (2) 3C 2 + 3V − 18. 16. parallel to them. The points at which current carrying conductors should be connected so that the resistance R between these points will be 1 Ω is (1) 4.62 : 2 (4) 8.1 ms giving a powerful flash. E and different internal resistances r1 and r2 are connected in series to an external resistance R. The power of the flash is 2500 µF (1) 112. (3) Statement 1 is false.25 kW (3) C 2 (4) C 4 17.d. a 2500 µF capacitor is charged by 3 V cell. The value of R to be selected such that the p. Two cells with the same e.

Ltd. The resultant magnetic induction at the point S is 23.2 s (2) 0.6 .6 (1) r1 r2 (2) r2 r1 M R S (3) r1 + r2 (4) r1 – r2 20. A galvanometer of coil resistance 15 Ω gives a full scale deflection for a current of 2. The current reaches half of its steady state value in (1) 0. at which the jockey J to be pressed is 2 Q P N O 2 P 40 J Q (1) 10 Ω µ 0i 4π µ 0i π (2) − 2 µ 0i ⋅ 8 π 1 ⋅ µ 0i π A 10 Ω B 4Ω r = 1Ω C (3) − 2 (4) 4 2 E 12 V D 22. A coil of inductance 600 mH and resistance 4 Ω is connected to a source of voltage 2 V. The magnitude of shunt SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK ♣ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt.4 s (3) 0.3 s (4) 0.5 mA. The potential difference between points A and B balances at 40 cm length of potentiometer wire PQ.1 s (1) 24 cm (3) 32 cm (2) 28 cm (4) 36 cm 21. To balance the potential difference between the points B and C distance from P. AIEEE/FST 1/ PMC/Obj/Qns . A current i flows along the network MNOPQRM as shown.

m.11 × 1017 kgm–3 (2) 2.62 (2) 0. A particle of mass 1. After two hours. The modulation index is (1) 0. If a torch is used in the place of monochromatic light In Young’s double slit experiment.11 × 1015 kgm–3 (3) 2.7 resistance and series resistance to convert it into ammeter of range 0 – 7.31 × 1015 kgm–3 28. AIEEE/FST 1/ PMC/Obj/Qns . 3925 Ω 24. The half-life of the isotope is (1) 1 min (3) 30 min (2) 45 min (4) 15 min 25.34 cm (3) 3. units is (R0 = 1.33 is (1) 4.s value becomes 120 V.03 Ω.56 (4) 0. Density of hydrogen nucleus in S.I.7 .31 × 1017 kgm–3 (4) 2.92 × 10–15 kg 29. The change in the focal length of the lens.54 is immersed in water of refractive index 1. the r.67 × 10–27 kg) (1) 2.m. After amplitude modulation by a sinusoidal audio frequency voltage. 3985 Ω (2) 0.32 cm (1) 2e (3) 5e (2) 3e (4) 7e 27. 3965 Ω (3) 0.98 cm (4) 3.66 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK ♣ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt.s. The r. 3945 Ω (4) 0.05 Ω.04 m apart horizontally. Taking e as elementary charge. value of a carrier voltage is 110 V.005 Ω. Ltd.004 Ω. when a convex lens of focal length 24 cm and refractive index 1.5 A and voltmeter are of range 0 – 10 V. the charge on the particle is (g = 10 ms–2) (1) 0. one sixteenth of the initial amount of a radioactive isotope left undecayed. the nature of fringes will be (1) Fringes will occur as from monochromatic source (2) No fringes will be seen (3) Fringes will appear for a moment and then disappears (4) Only bright fringes will appear 26. Two metal plates having a potential difference of 1600 V are 0.2 fermi) and mass of proton is 1.53 cm (2) 3.51 (3) 0. is suspended in equilibrium between the plates.

Statement 2: The recombination of electron hole pairs release energy in the form of visible radiation. (4) Statement 1 is true. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK ♣ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt.8 . Statement 2 is true. (2) Statement 1 is true. Statement 2 is the correct explanation of Statement 1. AIEEE/FST 1/ PMC/Obj/Qns . This question has statement 1 and statement 2. it emits light. (1) Statement 1 is true. Of the four choices given after the statements. Statement 2 is true.8 30. Statement 2 is not the correct explanation of Statement 1. choose the one that best describes the two statements. Statement 1: When GaAs p-n junction diode is forward biased. Ltd. Statement 2 is false. (3) Statement 1 is false. Statement 2 is true.

  2 1  (2)  − 3. The maximum value of |z| when z 2 satisfies the condition z + = 2 is z (1) (3) 3 −1 3 +1 (3) 3n − 2n 5 n (4) (2) 2 3 (4) 2+ 3 11 37. The number of real solutions of the equation cos5 x + sin3 x = 1 in the interval [0. the sum of whose coefficients is (1) 0 (2) 40 (3) 168 (4) 336 36. If the coefficient of x7 in  ax 2 + bx    1   equals the coefficient of x4 in  ax 2 −  . cot B = (x + x–1 + 1)1/2 and cot C = (x–3 + x–2 + x–1)–1/2. then the triangle is (1) isosceles (3) right angled (2) obtuse angled (4) None of these SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK ♣ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. If n positive integers are taken at random and multiplied together. cot A = (x + x2 + x)1/2. −  2  35. g(x) = [f(2f(x) + 2)]2. a2) falls inside the angle made by x . 1) → R be a differentiable function with f(0) = – 1 and f′(0) = 1.9 . the probability that the last digit of the product is 2. then sin A sin 2A sin 3A sin 4A is a polynomial in x. bx   then a and b satisfy the relation 11 38. Ltd. the lines y = 4 then ‘a’ belongs to 1  (1)  . x > 0. 4. AIEEE/FST 1/ PMC/Obj/Qns . 2π ] is (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 3 (4) infinite 1   34. then g′(0) = (1) 4 (2) – 4 (3) 0 (4) – 2 (1) a – b = 1 (2) a + b = 1 (4) ab = 1 a (3) =1 b 32. If sin2 A = x. If (a. 5  4   1 (3)  0. 6 or 8 is (1) 5n − 3n 5 n (4) (5.9 PART II : MATHEMATICS 31. ∞) (2) 4n + 2n 5n 3n − 2n 4n 33. Let f : (– 1. In a ∆ABC. x > 0 and y = 5x.

1) (3) (1. 2  2  2 2 (1) 0 (3) pa + qb + rc (2) 1 (4) None of these 44. The value of ‘a’ for which the quadratic equation 3x2 + 2(a2 + 1)x + (a2 – 3a + 2) = 0 possesses roots of opposite sign. (12 – a1) + (22 – a2) + … + (n2 – an) = n(n 2 – an).10 39. then an equals 1 3 (1) n (3) n + 1 (2) n – 1 (4) 2n  2  (2)   h cot α  3  2  (4)   h tan α  3  3 (3)  h tan α  2     43. then the locus of its centre is (1) 2ax + 2by + (a2 + b2 + 4) = 0 (2) 2ax – 2by – (a2 + b2 + 4) = 0 (3) 2ax – 2by + (a + b + 4) = 0 (4) 2ax + 2by – (a2 + b2 + 4) = 0 41. then the pa qb rc determinant ∆ = qc ra pb equals rb pc qa 40. Suppose for each n∈N. lies in (1) (– ∞. He throws a die and reports that it is a six. b) and cuts the circle x2 + y2 = 4 orthogonally. If p + q + r = a + b + c = 0. If a circle passes through the point (a. A pole of height h stands at one corner of a park in the shape of an equilateral triangle. A person is known to speak the truth 4 times out of 5. One of the points of contact of a common tangent to the parabola y2 = 8x and the ellipse  1 15  (1)  . AIEEE/FST 1/ PMC/Obj/Qns . − 4 2  x 2 y2 + = 1 on the ellipse is 4 15  1 15  (2)  − .10 .  2 4   1 15  (3)  . If α is the angle which the pole subtends at the midpoint of the opposite side. 0) 3  (4)  . The probability that it is actually a six is (1) 1 3 (2) 2 9 (3) 4 9 (4) 5 9 45. 2) (2) (– ∞ . Ltd.   2 4 (4) None of these SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK ♣ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. the length of each side of the park is  3 (1)  h cot α  2     42.

If A = B + C. 4. The value of (1) 2. y = a (sin θ – θ cos θ) at any point θ is such that (1) It passes through the origin (2) It makes angle is 1 (4) does not exist 50.5 ∫ x[x 2 ] dx is n2 + 3n + 2 6 n3 + (n + 1 )3 9 0 (2) 0. The ratio in which zx-plane divides the line segment AB joining the points A(4.11 . x2 + 1 then the minimum value of f x2 − 1 (1) is – 1 (2) is 0 (3) 54. The length of the median through (1) (3) 14 29 1. − a   2  (4) It is at a constant distance from the origin SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK ♣ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Let B and C be two square matrices such that BC = CB and C2 = 0. 3) and B(– 2. If the vectors AB = − 3 i + 4 k and AC = 5 i − 2 j + 4 k A is are the sides of a 51.25 (4) 0. then A3 – B3 – 3B2C = (1) 0 (2) 1 (3) – 1 (4) 2I π + θ with the x-axis 2  π  (3) It passes through  a . The degree of the differential equation 1/2 y3/2 2 − y1 − 4 = 0 is (1) 6 49.75 (3) n3 + (n – 1)3 53. 2. is (1) n3 – (n – 1)3 (2) 47. The sum of terms in the nth bracket of the series (1) + (2 + 3 + 4) + (5 + 6 + 7 + 8 + 9) + …. If f(x) = (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 4 (3) a statement whose depends on p (4) a statement whose depends on q truth truth value value for every real number x. 5) is equal to (1) 1 : 2 internally (3) – 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 externally (4) None of these ∆ABC.5 (2) 18 (4) None of these 52. The normal to the curve x = a(cos θ + θ sin θ).25 (3) 1.11 46. AIEEE/FST 1/ PMC/Obj/Qns . Ltd. (p ∧ q) ∧ (~ q) is (1) a tautology (2) a contradiction (4) 48.

Statement 2 is true (4) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true and Statement 2 is the correct reason for Statement 1 56. Statement 1: The curve y = x1/3 has a point of inflection at x = 0. then x 2 + y 2 = 5. – 3) w. Statement 1: Lines r1 = i − j + λ( i + j − k ) . → ab a b Questions 56 to 60 are Assertion – Reason type questions. Area of the greatest rectangle that can 2 2 be inscribed in the ellipse (1) 2ab (3) x a2 + y b2 = 1 is (2) ab (4) 57. − 2   Statement 2: For the circle S = 0 with centre C and radius r. → r2 = 2 i − j + µ( i + j − k ) not intersect. Q are collinear. Q are said to be inverse points with respect to S = 0 if C. Statement 1: If 3 + ix 2 y and x 2 + y + 4i are conjugate complex numbers. P. 60.t. the circle x2 + y2 + 6x – 4y – 12 = 0 is 1  1 + 2 . do Statement 2: Skew lines never intersect. 58.12 . Ltd. Statement 2 is false (3) Statement 1 is false. Statement 1: The equation sin x = x2 + x + 1 has only one solution. then they are conjugate complex numbers. 59. two points P. AIEEE/FST 1/ PMC/Obj/Qns . Statement 2: sin x takes value ‘a’ exactly two times when we take one complete rotation covering all the quadrants starting from x = 0. Statement 2: If the sum and product of two complex numbers are real. Statement 2: A point where y″ fails to exist can be a point of inflection. Mark your responses from the following options: (1) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct reason for statement 1 (2) Statement 1 is true. Statement 1: The inverse point of (2.12 55.r. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK ♣ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt.

Ltd. produced would be: (1) 16 g (2) 17 g (3) 20 g (4) 68 g SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK ♣ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. If 340 g of a mixture of N2(g) and H2(g) in the correct 1 : 3 ratio give a 20% yield of NH3.5 CO2C2H5 CH3 I CH3 EtCO2 H H3C H CO2C2H5 II I and II are (1) Enantiomers (2) Diastereomers (3) Structural isomers (4) Two are of same compound 64. CO2C2H5 OH (2) 3 (3) 1 (4) 2 (4) Making mud water soluble 62. The pH of a solution is obtained by mixing 100 ml of 0.13 . Alum is used in purifying water by (1) Forming silicon complex with clay particles (2) Sulphate part combines with dirt and removes it (3) Coagulating particles the colloidal mud H H 65.13 PART III : CHEMISTRY 61. What is the equivalent mass of KIO3 in the given reaction? KIO3 + 2KI + 6HCl → 3ICl + 3KCl + 3H2O (1) 214 (2) 428 (3) 107 (4) 53. Which electron in a hydrogen atom requires the largest amount of energy during the following transition? (1) From n = 1 to n = 2 (2) From n = 2 to n = 3 (3) From n = ∞ to n = 1 (4) From n = 3 to n = 5 63.2 M HCl and 100 ml of 0.3 M NaOH will be (1) 12. AIEEE/FST 1/ PMC/Obj/Qns .7 66. The mass of NH3.

True statement regarding carbocation is (1) It has trigonal planar structure and C+ is sp3 hybridized.113 × 10–5 (4) 3. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK ♣ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. (4) It has pyramidal structure and C+ is sp3 hybridized. 70. Heat of neutralization of oxalic acid is – 53.95 kJ (4) 4NO2(g) + O2(g) → 2N2O5(g) 73. The electronegativity of caesium is 0. (2) It has pyramidal structure and C+ is sp2 hybridized. The bond formed between the two is R R R C=C R R H R I R C=C H II R R R C=C H R is H (1) covalent (3) coordinate (2) electrovalent (4) metallic III (1) IV > III > II > I (2) III > II > IV > I (3) II > III > I > IV (4) I > II > III > IV IV 71.3? (1) 5.35 kJ mol– 1 using NaOH.714 × 10–5 (2) 8.14 .012 × 10–4 68. The correct order of stability of alkenes for the following alkenes R C=C (3) It has trigonal planar structure and C+ is sp2 hybridized. AIEEE/FST 1/ PMC/Obj/Qns .7 kcal (2) – 5.88 kJ (3) – 13.5. Hence ∆H of ionization of oxalic acid is H2C2OH 2θ C2O4 + 2 H+ is 72.14 67.88 kJ (4) 3. will ∆H be equal to ∆E? (1) H2(g) + 1 O2(g)  → H2O( 2 ) (2) H2(g) + I2(g) → 2HI(g) (3) 2NO2(g) → N2O4(g) (1) 5. Ltd.012 × 10–5 (3) 6.7 and that of chlorine is 3. What is the hydrogen ion concentration in a solution whose pH = 4. The ionic product of water will increase if (1) pressure is decreased (2) H+ are added (3) OH are added (4) temperature is increased 69. For which of the following equations.

Non-stoichiometric metal deficiency is shown in the salts of (1) all metals (2) alkali metals only (3) alkaline earth metals (4) transition metals only 75. Ltd.00 g (2) 204.01 M of H2A has pH equal to 4. Mass of ethylene glycol which should be added to 4 kg of H2O to prevent it form freezing at – 6°C (1) sp (2) sp2 (3) sp3 (4) dsp2 1 76. This shows that (1) Graphite has more energy than diamond (2) Both are equally stable (3) Graphite is more stable than diamond (4) Stability cannot be predicted will be : (Kf for water = 1. The critical temperature of O2 is less than H2O because the H2O molecules have: (1) Fewer electron than O2 (2) Two covalent bonds (3) V-shape structure (4) Dipole moment 80.60 g SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK ♣ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ethylene glycol is used as an antifreeze in radiators in cold countries.15 74.15 .01 M (3) 8. In piperidine state of nitrogen as NH . C(Diamond) → C(Graphite) ∆H = – ve.86 K kg mol–1 and molar mass of ethylene glycol = 62 g mol–1). (2) Nitrogen cannot form dπ -pπ bond. If k a for the acid is 4.32 g (3) 400. (4) N2O4 has 2 resonance structures. (3) Single N-N bond is weaker than the single p-p bond. (1) 804. Which of the following statement is wrong? (1) The stability of hydrides increase from NH3 to BiH3 in group 15 of the periodic table.45 × 10–5 (4) unpredictable 77.0 × 10–5 (2) 4. Its solubility product is (1) 6y4 (3) (2) 64y4 (4) 108y5 36y5 79. 0.30 g (4) 304. the hybrid 78. The solubility of A2 X3 in water is mol dm–3.45 × 10–7 . 81. AIEEE/FST 1/ PMC/Obj/Qns . the concentration of HA– ion in solution would be (1) 0.

68 V SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK ♣ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt.0 kJ (4) – 1371.5 kJ mol–1.14 V . Consider the following E° values EFe 3+ /Fe2 + (3) (4) = + 0. The E° cell for Sn2 + /Sn the reaction. AIEEE/FST 1/ PMC/Obj/Qns . The products obtained on heating solid LiNO3 will be (1) Li2O + NO2 + O2 (3) Li2O + NO + O2 (2) Li3N + O2 (4) LiNO3 + O2 following. Which one of the following complex can exhibit (t′) geometrical isomerism? (1) [Ni(NH3)5Br]+ (2) [Co(NH3)2(en)2]3+ (1) 0.16 . Which gas is adsorbed in maximum amount by activated charcoal at identical conditions? (1) N2 (3) Cl2 87.40 V (4) 1.16 82. Ltd.5 kJ (2) – 1364. 3+ 2+ Sn(s) + 2Fe(aq)  → 2Fe2 + + Sn(aq) is 85. The non-aromatic compound among the following is (1) S (2) O3 (4) KO2 (2) 0 88. The value of ∆U (internal energy change) for the above reaction at this temperature will be (1) – 1369.5 kJ [en-ethylenediamine] 86. E° = − 0.77 V. The value of enthalpy change (∆H) for the reaction (3) [Cr(NH3)4(en)]3+ (4) [Co(en)3]3+ C2H5OH( ) + 3O2(g) → 2 CO2(g) + 3H2O( ) at 27°C is – 1366.91 V (2) 1. paramagnetic 84.0 kJ (3) – 1361.63 V (3) 0. Among the compound is (1) Na2O2 (3) N2O (2) CO2 (4) O2 83.

17 . Ltd. For 1 M solution of HA having α > 0.17 89. Which set of molecule is polar? (1) p-dimethoxy benzene and p-dinitro benzene (2) BF3 and ICl3 (3) SF4 and SiF4 (4) p-dimethoxy benzene 1-chloro propene and trans (2) (i + 1 )2 i (3) (4) (i − 1 )2 2−i SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK ♣ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. the dissociation constant Ka in terms of van’t Hoff factor (i) can be written as (1) (i − 1 )2 i i (i − 1 ) 2 90.05. AIEEE/FST 1/ PMC/Obj/Qns .

AIEEE/FST 1/ PMC/Obj/Qns .18 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK ♣ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt.18 . Ltd.

Ltd.19 .19 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK ♣ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. AIEEE/FST 1/ PMC/Obj/Qns .

Ltd.20 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK ♣ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt.20 . AIEEE/FST 1/ PMC/Obj/Qns .

21 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK ♣ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt.21 . AIEEE/FST 1/ PMC/Obj/Qns . Ltd.

use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only. 5. marked ‘Space for Rough Work’.22 . On completion of the test.22 READ THE FOLLOWING INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY 1. 4. 14. Out of the four options given for each question only one option is the correct answer. Candidates are not allowed to carry any textual material. without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator. The candidates should not write their Roll Numbers anywhere else (except in the specified space) on the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet. 2.. 8. 9. mobile phone. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty and sign the Attendance Sheet again. 6. printed or written. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of the Board. ♣ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Handle the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet with care. Ltd. 7. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances. 10. This space is given at the bottom of each page and in 3 pages at the end of the booklet. however. However. pager. the candidates must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall. All calculations/writing work are to be done in the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet itself. 12. should leave his/her seat. For writing/marking particulars on Side-2 of the Answer Sheet. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator and any Electronic Item like mobile phone etc. 13. as under no circumstances (except for discrepancy in Test Booklet Code and Answer Sheet Code) will another set be provided. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the Board with regard to their conduct in the Examination Hall. The candidates are also required to put their left hand THUMB impression in the space provided in the Attendance Sheet. 3. the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them. For each incorrect response. No deduction from the total score. AIEEE/FST 1/PMC/Obj/Qns . will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the Answer Sheet. The candidates should fill in the required particulars on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet (Side-1) with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admit Card to the Invigilator. bits of papers. 11. electronic device or any other material except the Admit Card inside the examination hall/room. is prohibited. No candidate. The candidates are not allowed to do any rough work or writing work on the Answer Sheet. Cases where a candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet a second time will be deemed not to have handed over the Answer Sheet and dealt with as an unfair means case. one-fourth of the total marks allotted to the question would be deducted from the total score.

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