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P. 1

Manufacturing processes|Views: 199|Likes: 2

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https://www.scribd.com/doc/136884905/Manufacturing-processes

09/17/2015

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**FUNDAMENTALS OF MODERN MANUFACTURING:
**

MATERIALS, PROCESSES, AND SYSTEMS

Second Edition

MIKELL P. GROOVER Professor of Industrial and Manufacturing Systems Engineering Lehigh University

John Wiley & Sons, Inc., New York

1

PREFACE

This is the Solutions Manual for the textbook Fundamentals of Modern Manufacturing: Materials, Processes, and Systems (Second Edition). It contains the answers to the Review Questions and Multiple Choice Quizzes at the end of the Chapters 2 through 44, as well as the Problems at the end of Chapters 3, 4, 6, 10, 11, 13, 16, 18, 19, 20, 21, 22, 23, 24, 25, 26, 29, 30, 31, 33, 34, 35, 38, 40, 42, and 43. There are approximately 740 review questions, 500 quiz questions, and 500 problems (nearly all of them quantitative) in the text. I have personally answered all of the questions and solved all of the quizzes and problems and have personally recorded the solutions in this booklet. Many of the problems have been tested in class, thus giving me an opportunity to compare my own answers with those developed by the students. Despite my best efforts to avoid errors in this solutions manual, I am sure that errors are present. I would appreciate hearing from those of you who discover these errors, so that I can make the necessary corrections in subsequent editions of the Solutions Manual. Similarly, I would appreciate any suggestions from users of the text itself that might help to make any subsequent editions more accurate, more relevant, and easier to use. My address is: Dr. Mikell P. Groover Department of Industrial and Manufacturing Systems Engineering Lehigh University 200 West Packer Avenue Bethlehem, PA 18015 Office telephone number 610-758-4030. Fax machine number 610-758-4886. E-mail addresses: either Mikell.Groover@Lehigh.edu or mpg0@Lehigh.edu I hope you find the text and this Solutions Manual to be helpful teaching aids in your particular manufacturing course. Mikell P. Groover

2

TABLE OF CONTENTS:

Chapter

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44.

Chapter Title*

Introduction (No questions or problems) The Nature of Materials Mechanical Properties of Materials (P) Physical Properties of Materials (P) Dimensions, Tolerances, and Surfaces Metals (P) Ceramics Polymers Composite Materials Fundamentals of Casting (P) Metal Casting Processes (P) Glassworking Shaping Processes for Plastics (P) Rubber Processing Technology Shaping Processes for Polymer Matrix Composites Powder Metallurgy (P) Processing of Ceramics and Cermets Fundamentals of Metal Forming (P) Bulk Deformation Processes (P) Sheet Metalworking (P) Theory of Metal Machining (P) Machining Operations and Machine Tools (P) Cutting Tool Technology (P) Economic and Product Design Considerations in Machining (P) Grinding and Other Abrasive Processes (P) Nontraditional Machining and Thermal Cutting Processes (P) Heat Treatment of Metals Cleaning and Surface Treatments Coating and Deposition Processes (P) Fundamentals of Welding (P) Welding Processes (P) Brazing, Soldering, and Adhesive Bonding Mechanical Assembly (P) Rapid Prototyping (P) Processing of Integrated Circuits (P) Electronics Assembly and Packaging Microfabrication Technologies Numerical Control and Industrial Robotics (P) Group Technology and Flexible Manufacturing Systems Production Lines (P) Manufacturing Engineering Production Planning and Control (P) Quality Control (P) Measurement and Inspection

Page

4 7 18 21 24 29 32 36 39 49 57 60 70 73 76 84 87 92 112 122 134 142 153 166 173 180 182 184 190 197 207 211 218 222 230 233 235 244 246 253 256 263 271

*(P) indicates chapters with problem sets.

3

2

2.1 2.2 2.3

**THE NATURE OF MATERIALS
**

The elements listed in the Periodic Table can be divided into three categories. What are these categories and give an example of each? Answer. The three types of elements are metals (e.g., aluminum), nonmetals (e.g., oxygen), and semimetals (e.g., silicon). Which elements are the noble metals? Answer. The noble metals are copper, silver, and gold. What is the difference between primary and secondary bonding in the structure of materials? Answer. Primary bonding is strong bonding between atoms in a material, for example to form a molecule; while secondary bonding is not as strong and is associated with attraction between molecules in the material.

Review Questions

2.4

Describe how ionic bonding works? Answer. In ionic bonding, atoms of one element give up their outer electron(s) to the atoms of another element to form complete outer shells.

2.5

What is the difference between crystalline and noncrystalline structures in materials? Answer. The atoms in a crystalline structure are located at regular and repeating lattice positions in three dimensions; thus, the crystal structure possesses a long-range order which allows a high packing density. The atoms in a noncrystalline structure are randomly positioned in the material, not possessing any repeating, regular pattern.

2.6

What are some common point defects in a crystal lattice structure? Answer. Some of the common point defects are: (1) vacancy - a missing atom in the lattice structure; (2) ion-pair vacancy (Schottky defect) - a missing pair of ions of opposite charge in a compound; (3) interstitialcy - a distortion in the lattice caused by an extra atom present; and (4) Frenkel defect - an ion is removed from a regular position in the lattice and inserted into an interstitial position not normally occupied by such an ion.

2.7

Define the difference between elastic and plastic deformation in terms of the effect on the crystal lattice structure. Answer. Elastic deformation involves a temporary distortion of the lattice structure that is proportional to the applied stress. Plastic deformation involves a stress of sufficient magnitude to cause a permanent shift in the relative positions of adjacent atoms in the lattice. Plastic deformation generally involves the mechanism of slip - relative movement of atoms on opposite sides of a plane in the lattice.

2.8

How do grain boundaries contribute to the strain hardening phenomenon in metals? Answer. Grain boundaries block the continued movement of dislocations in the metal during straining. As more dislocations become blocked, the metal becomes more difficult to deform; in effect it becomes stronger.

2.9

Identify some materials that have a crystalline structure.

4

Answer. Materials typically possessing a crystalline structure are metals and ceramics other than glass. Some plastics have a partially crystalline structure. 2.10 Identify some materials that possess a noncrystalline structure. Answer. Materials typically having a noncrystalline structure include glass (fused silica), rubber, and certain plastics (specifically, thermosetting plastics). 2.11 What is the basic difference in the solidification (or melting) process between crystalline and noncrystalline structures? Answer. Crystalline structures undergo an abrupt volumetric change as they transform from liquid to solid state and vice versa. This is accompanied by an amount of energy called the heat of fusion that must be added to the material during melting or released during solidification. Noncrystalline materials melt and solidify without the abrupt volumetric change and heat of fusion.

**Multiple Choice Quiz
**

There are a total of 20 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). To attain a perfect score on the quiz, all correct answers must be given, since each correct answer is worth 1 point. For each question, each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point, and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. 2.1 The basic structural unit of matter is which one of the following? (a) atom, (b) electron, (c) element, (d) molecule, or (e) nucleus. Answer. (a) 2.2 Approximately how many different elements have been identified (one answer)? (a) 10, (b) 50, (c) 100, (d) 200, or (e) 500. Answer. (c) 2.3 In the Periodic Table, the elements can be divided into which of the following categories (more than one)? (a) ceramics, (b) gases, (c) liquids, (d) metals, (e) nonmetals, (f) polymers, (g) semi-metals, and (h) solids. Answer. (d), (e), and (g). 2.4 The element with the lowest density and smallest atomic weight is which one of the following? (a) aluminum, (b) argon, (c) helium, (d) hydrogen, or (e) magnesium. Answer. (d) 2.5 Which of the following bond types are classified as primary bonds (more than one)? (a) covalent bonding, (b) hydrogen bonding, (c) ionic bonding, (d) metallic bonding, and (e) van der Waals forces. Answer. (a), (c), and (d). 2.6 How many atoms are there in the unit cell of the face- centered cubic (FCC) unit cell (one answer)? (a) 8, (b) 9, (c) 10, (d) 12, or (e) 14. Answer. (e) 2.7 Which of the following are not point defects in a crystal lattice structure (more than one)? (a) edge dislocation, (b) interstitialcy, (c) Schottky defect, or (d) vacancy.

5

Answer. Answer. (c) more likely at high deformation rates. (d) point defects. and (f) type of dislocation. (b) FCC. and (f) van der Waals. (b). (c). (e) 2.11 Polymers are characterized by which of the following bonding types (more than one)? (a) adhesive. (c) hydrogen. Answer. (d) ionic.Answer. (c) line defects. (d) more likely in metals with HCP structure.10 Twinning is which of the following (more than one)? (a) elastic deformation. (b) covalent. (d) 2. Answer. (c) 2. or (e) surface defects. (b) mechanism of plastic deformation. and (d).9 Grain boundaries are an example of which one of the following types of crystal structure defects? (a) dislocation.8 Which one of the following crystal structures has the fewest slip directions and therefore the metals with this structure are generally more difficult to deform at room temperature? (a) BCC. (e) metallic. (b) Frenkel defect. (b). 6 . 2. (e) slip mechanism. (c). (b) and (f). or (c) HCP.

3. The yield strength is the stress at which the material begins to plastically deform. compressive. the material should not be strong. The tensile strength is the maximum load experienced during the tensile test divided by the original area. When the material does not strain harden. Engineering stress divides the load (force) on the test specimen by the original area.11 What is the complicating factor that occurs in a compression test? Answer. Review Questions 3.5 Define tensile strength of a material.2%. 7 . while in a tensile test.2% offset value .6 Define yield strength of a material. 3.9 3. and shear. Answer. the material must be strong. where E = a constant of proportionality called the modulus of elasticity.3 MECHANICAL PROPERTIES OF MATERIALS What is the dilemma between design and manufacturing in terms of mechanical properties? Answer.1 3. the cross-sectional area decreases.4 What is the difference between engineering stress and true stress in a tensile test? Answer. Barreling of the test specimen due to friction at the interfaces with the testing machine platens. To achieve design function and quality. the specimen cross-sectional are increases as the test progresses. 3. In what case does the strength coefficient have the same value as the yield strength? Answer. Hooke's Law defines the stress-strain relationship for an elastic material: σ = Eε . What are the three types of static stresses to which materials are subjected? Answer. Strain hardening is the increase in strength that occurs in metals when they are strained. while true stress divides the load by the instantaneous area which decreases as the specimen stretches. 3. Answer. Because of necking that occurs in the test specimen.7 Why cannot a direct conversion be made between the ductility measures of elongation and reduction in area using the assumption of constant volume? Answer. State Hooke's Law.the point at which the stress-strain for the material intersects a line which is offset from the elastic region of the stress-strain curve by 0.10 How does the change in cross-sectional area of a test specimen in a compression test differ from its counterpart in a tensile test specimen? Answer. tensile. What is work hardening ? Answer. in general.3 3. It is usually measured as the . Answer.8 3.2 3. 3. for ease of manufacturing. In a compression test.

and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. 3. on average. 8 . The recrystallization temperature is the temperature at which a metal recrystallizes (forms new grains) rather than work hardens when deformed. It is tested by pressing a hard object (sphere. A three-point bending test is commonly used to test the strength of brittle materials.16 Why are different hardness tests and scales required? Answer. (f) true stress. oils) are Newtonian fluids. Answer. area) of the indentation. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. 3.20 What is viscoelasticity . A Newtonian fluid is one for which viscosity is a constant property at a given temperature.1 Which one of the following are the three basic types of static stresses to which a material can be subjected (three answers)? (a) compression. the greater the viscosity.7 TS.19 What is the defining characteristic of a Newtonian fluid ? Answer. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. 3.18 Define viscosity of a fluid. 3. 3. (e) tensile. Answer. 3.3. and (f) yield. Viscoelasticity refers to the property most commonly exhibited by polymers that defines the strain of the material as a function of stress and temperature over time.14 How is shear strength S related to tensile strength TS. Most liquids (water. (d) shear. 3. For each question. on average? Answer. (c) reduction in area. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. on average? Answer. The test provides a measure called the transverse rupture strength for these materials. It is a combination of viscosity and elasticity. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 18 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). Hardness is defined as the resistance to indentation of a material. diamond point) into the test material and measuring the size (depth. 3. 3. Viscosity is the resistance to flow of a fluid material. S = 0. as a material property? Answer.4 E. G = 0.15 What is hardness and how is it generally tested? Answer.17 Define the recrystallization temperature for a metal. the thicker the fluid. What is the test commonly used to determine the strength properties of such materials? Answer. (b) hardness. A test whose measuring range is suited to very hard materials is not sensitive for testing very soft materials. Different hardness tests and scales are required because different materials possess widely differing hardnesses.12 Tensile testing is not appropriate for hard brittle materials such as ceramics. on average. all correct answers must be given.13 How is the shear modulus of elasticity G related to the tensile modulus of elasticity E.

or (e) polystyrene. and (e).12 Which one of the following materials has the highest hardness? (a) alumina ceramic.8 Which of the following types of stress strain relationship best describes the behavior of metals at temperatures above their respective recrystallization points: (a) elastic and perfectly plastic. which of the following would have the higher value? (a) engineering stress. or (d) none of the above. or (d) none of the above.9 Which one of the following materials has the highest modulus of elasticity? (a) aluminum. (c) hardened tool steel.6 Which one of the following types of stress strain relationship best describes the behavior of brittle materials such as ceramics and thermosetting plastics: (a) elastic and perfectly plastic. (c) perfectly elastic. (b) It is the elastic region that is characterized by a proportional relationship between stress and strain. or (b) true strain. (a) 3.5 The plastic region of the stress-strain curve for a metal is characterized by a proportional relationship between stress and strain: (a) true or (b) false. 3. (a) 3.4 If strain measurements were made during a tensile test. (b) 3. Answer.3 If stress values were measured during a tensile test. (c) perfectly elastic. or (e) tungsten. Answer. Answer. (b) 3. as derived from the results of a tensile test on a metal specimen? (a) the stress encountered when the stress-strain curve transforms from elastic to plastic behavior. Answer. (b) 3. which of the following would have the higher value? (a) engineering stain. The plastic region is characterized by a power function .10 The shear strength of a metal is usually (a) greater than. (d) titanium.7 Which one of the following types of stress strain relationship best describes the behavior of most metals at room temperature: (a) elastic and perfectly plastic. (b) the maximum load divided by the final area of the specimen. (a). or (b) less than its tensile strength. (d) high carbon steel. or (d) the stress observed when the specimen finally fails. (b) elastic and strain hardening.Answer. 3. (d).11 Most hardness tests involve pressing a hard object into the surface of a test specimen and measuring the indentation (or its effect) that results: (a) true or (b) false. (b) elastic and strain hardening. Answer. or (b) true stress. (c) the maximum load divided by the original area of the specimen. 9 .2 Which of the following is the correct definition of ultimate tensile strength. Answer. (b) diamond. (b) elastic and strain hardening. or (d) none of the above. (c) 3. (b) gray cast iron. Answer. Answer. Answer. (a) 3.the flow curve. (c) steel. (b) 3. Answer. (c) perfectly elastic. (c) 3.

0.5 . (b) modulus of elasticity E.2.60 in.0083 .1.0026 E = σ/e = 490/0. Answer.92)/200 = 0.000 lb is reached at a gage length = 2. and (c) tensile strength TS . Determine: (a) yield strength Y. 3.00215 E = σ/e = 64.002 = 0.0 = 0.002 = 0. The maximum load = 60. (c) TS = 168.0 . (a) 3.0. (b) If the specimen necked to an area = 0.23 mm.000/0. Answer. (c) viscosity.50 = 50% 10 .6/2.25 in2.1 A tensile test uses a test specimen that has a gage length of 50 mm and an area = 200 mm2.0)/50.0 = 0. However.4 In Problem 3.2. e = (2. This is the 0. the shape return feature in viscoelastic behavior violates the definition of plastic flow.2 mm.54 = 54% 3.3 = 30% (b) % area reduction = (0.000 N is reached at a gage length = 64.4% (b) % area reduction = (200 . Solution: (a) % elongation = (2. (a) determine the percent elongation. (b) Viscosity is the resistance to flow.2 percent yield point. (a) determine the percent elongation.2 A test specimen in a tensile test has a gage length of 2. The maximum load = 168.0026 = 188. Solution: (a) Y = 98.000/200 = 840 MPa.00215 = 29.2/50 = 0.0. determine the percent reduction in area.0083 in.2.5 = 64.000/0.5 x 10 3 MPa.2% offset. Problems Strength and Ductility in Tension 3. and (c) tensile strength TS .14 Viscoelasticity has features of which of the following more traditional material properties (more than one)? (a) elasticity. The corresponding gage length = 50. (b) σ = E e Subtracting the 0.0 in and an area = 0. Viscoelasticity is usually considered to be a property that combines elasticity and viscosity.000 lb.50)/50 = 14. (b) modulus of elasticity E.000/0.3 In Problem 3.000 lb/in2 (b) σ = E e Subtracting the 0. however.2 . This is the 0. Determine: (a) yield strength Y. (c). (b).0)/2.000 N.2 percent yield point. During the test the specimen yields under a load of 32.50. Solution: (a) % elongation = (64. This answer may require some justification. (a).23 .0 . The corresponding gage length = 2. 3. Strictly speaking.5 = 0. e = (50.2% offset. determine the percent reduction in area.25)/0. During the test the specimen yields under a load of 98.5 = 120. Solution: (a) Y = 32.000 lb/in2 3.77 x 10 6 lb/in2 (c) TS = 60.Answer. in deforming over time it involves plastic flow (plasticity).5 in 2.0)/2. (b) If the specimen necked to an area = 92 mm2.60 .000/200 = 490 MPa.13 Viscosity can be defined as the ease with which a fluid flows: (a) true or (b) false. many materials considered to be viscoelastic do not completely return to their original shape.284 = 28. (b) plasticity.

2264) 1.0488) n 1.0488) .27) n 325/265 = (0.08 at a stress = 265 MPa.01 mm.27/0.4 MPa Use average K = 910.3238) n ln(1. Solution: (a) Student exercise. (c) First data point is prior to yielding. E = 310.1678 = 404.283 = 910.2164 n = 0. we obtain the value of the strength coefficient K: K = 387.9 MPa K = 544.462 160.2011 n n = 0.sectional area = 62. true strain = 0.3238) 0. Flow Curve 3.283 = 909. Select two data points: (1) F = 23042 N and L = 131.578 153.23 23. (d) tensile strength TS . Stress σ = 23042/59. Be sure not to use data after the point at which necking occurred. Strain e = (125.5) = 7812.01 = 53.25 = 59. Determine: (b) yield strength Y.283 3.1/(0.00184 = 168.01 27.1622/0.6 In Problem 3.08) . Solution: (1) 265 = K(0.5 mm2: Load (N) Length (mm) 0 0 17.27/0.25/125) = 0.2041 n = 0.05 28.375) n 1. Stress σ = 28913/53.85 MPa 11 .7 In a tensile test on a metal specimen.913 N and the final data point occurred immediately prior to failure.1 = (0.08) n and (2) 325 = K(0.524 mm2. Solution: Starting volume of test specimen V = 125(62.27) .5 mm3.2 ε 0.1622 Substituting these values into the flow curve equation.2264 = (3.2 MPa The flow curve equation is: σ = 910.1/(0.625 MPa.01/125) = 0. (d) From the plot. (1) A = V/L = 7812.0 mm and the cross. we have (1) 387.1 = K(0. (b) From the plot. Strain ε = ln(131.25 mm. Y = 310.25 27. we obtain the value of the strength coefficient K: (1) K = 265/(0.793 125. When the true stress = 325 MPa.10 The maximum load is 28.125)/125 = 0.579 140. Determine the flow curve parameters n and K.1 MPa.143 = 544.3.4056 = (3.1622) n 544.0488 (2) A = 7812.00 20.27.00184.283 Substituting this value with the data back into the flow curve equation. (2) F = 28913 N and L = 147.1/387.23 .5 The following data are collected during a tensile test in which the starting gage length = 125.5/131.1 = K(0. TS = 426.0488) n and (2) 544.042 131.375) = ln(1.6 MPa.913 147.4056) = n ln(3.08) n n ln(3.1678 Substituting this value with the data back into the flow curve equation.1622) .5/147. (c) modulus of elasticity E.27 MPa.1 MPa. (a) Plot the engineering stress strain curve.1678 = 404. the true strain = 0.524 = 387. Strain ε = ln(147.3405 = 1. determine the strength coefficient and the strain hardening exponent.5.85 MPa (2) K = 325/(0.143 mm2.

and (b) the true strain at a flow stress = 40.4326 = 100.9163 n = 0.22 = 45.5 = 0. Solution: Starting volume V = LoAo = 2.4326 = 100.191 lb/in2 (2) K = 55.800 = K(0.0.28 with a corresponding true stress = 345.300 lb/in2 (b) ε = (40.3125 = 44.000 = K(0.7 MPa The flow curve equation is: σ = 492. Determine the flow curve parameters n and K.45) .545 = 0.5 in and the corresponding engineering stress = 24.0) .000(.4336 = (2.1678 3.000/37.5)/. Solution: (a) Yf = 600(1.000 lb/in 2.25) .0) = 0. At one point in the tensile test.0) 3.256 3.The flow curve equation is: σ = 404.25) n 55.85 ε 0.3 = 600 MPa (b) ε = (600/600) 1/. can you estimate the flow curve parameters n and K? Solution: If we assume that n = ε when necking starts.000 lb/in 2.33 = 1.11 The flow curve for a certain metal has parameters: n = 0. and (b) true strain at a flow stress = 600 MPa.3125 in 2 So.4326 3.0 in and an area = 0. we obtain the value of the strength coefficient K: (1) K = 37.4 = 31. the true strain = 0. true stress σ = 28. the gage length = 3.5)/.5) = ln(1.800/31.00 3.000 lb/in 2.000/(0.000/(0.10) n 1. Solution: (1) 37.000 = (0.470/0. Solution: (a) Yf = 54. Without knowing any more about the test.8 During a tensile test.10 A tensile test for a certain metal provides flow curve parameters: n = 0.5) = 1. true stress σ = 24.28 = 492.000 lb/in2.250 = (0. (1) 31.7407) 4.000 lb/in 2. the gage length = 2.50 in 2.2 = 0. Determine: (a) the flow stress at a true strain = 1.5/2.1076) n ln(1.28 3. Later.470) n 44.0 MPa. we have K = 345/(0.000 lb/in 2.223 (2) A = 1.10) n and (2) 55. at a true stress = 55.10) .0(0.9 In a tensile test a metal begins to neck at a true strain = 0.191 ε 0.2 in and the corresponding engineering stress = 28.3 = (1.22 and K = 54.2/2.000) 1/.28) .10 at a true stress = 37.0) = 0.28. a metal has a true strain = 0.250 = K(0.800 lb/in 2 and ε = ln(3. Determine the strength coefficient and the strain hardening exponent for this metal.4865) 0. Determine: (a) the flow stress at a true strain = 0.470 These are two data points with which to determine the parameters of the flow curve equation.4 in 2 So.12 A metal is deformed in a tension test into its plastic region.000/54.22 = (0.000(0.4326 Substituting this value with the data back into the flow curve equation. The starting specimen had a gage length = 2.1076) 12 . and at another point in the test prior to necking.3 and K = 600 MPa.223) n and (2) 44.25/0.0/2.7 ε 0.0 in 3 (1) A = V/L = 1.000 = K(0.223) n 1.45.4865 = (2.000(. Using this value in the flow curve equation. then n = 0.250 lb/in 2 and ε = ln(2.4336) = n ln(2.3964 n = 0.191 lb/in2 The flow curve equation is: σ = 100.5) n n ln(2.0/3.25.

516 lb/in2 The flow curve equation is: σ = 64.693 (a) To be compressed to the same engineering strain (e = -1.7455 n . The summation process is an approximation of the integration over the range from 75 to 110 mm in (b). it will be negative value because of compression). we have V = AoLo = AL 13 .0) = 0.0 to 85.693 = ln(Lf/Lo) Lf/Lo = exp.0667 L = 80 to 85 mm: e = (85 .0 True strain ε = ln(2.80)/80 = 5/80 = 0..0476 _____________________________________________ Sum of incremental engineering strain values = 0.0 to 95. (a) Determine the engineering strain. If the metal had been strained in compression. (b) Determine the true strain.0 mm. (5) 95.0 = 1.5 Lo 3.3938 (d) The resulting sum in (c) is closer to the true strain value in (b).4667 (b) True strain ε = ln(110/75) = ln(1.515 lb/in2 (1) K = 31. which is impossible.693) = 0. (3) 85.0526 L = 100 to 105 mm: e = (105 .0)/1.383 (c)L = 75 to 80 mm: e = (80 . True strain is therefore a better measure of strain during plastic deformation.0 .0556 L = 95 to 100 mm: e = (100 .483 Use average K = 64.3602 = . (c) Compute and sum the engineering strains as the specimen elongates from: (1) 75.0 to 100.85)/85 = 5/85 = 0. the summation becomes closer to the integration value.15 Derive an expression for true strain as a function of D and Do for a tensile test specimen of round cross-section.0500 L = 105 to 110 mm: e = (110 .250/(0. Lf = 0.75)/75 = 5/75 = 0. Solution: Starting with the definition of true strain as ε = ln(L/Lo) and assuming constant volume. It is elongated during the test to a length = 110.13 A tensile test specimen has a starting gage length = 75.0 mm. determine the final compressed length of the specimen such that: (a) the engineering strain is equal to the same value as in tension (it will be negative value because of compression).0588 L = 90 to 95 mm: e = (95 . (d) Is the result closer to the answer to part (a) or part (b)? Does this help to show what is meant by the term true strain? Solution: (a) Engineering strain e = (110 .223) = 64.75)/75 = 35/75 = 0.105)/105 = 5/105 = 0.483 3. (4) 90.95)/95 = 5/95 = 0.90)/90 = 5/90 = 0. (2) 80.515 ε 0.0 to 110.0) = ln(2.4667) = 0. (6) 100. As the interval size is reduced.0 to 90.14 A tensile specimen is elongated to twice its original length.0 mm.0 to 80.0 to 105.0 mm.800/(0. and (7) 105.0) the final height of the compression specimen would have to be zero. and (b) the true strain would be equal to the same value as in tension (again.470) . Note that the answer to part (a) is an impossible result.483 n = 0.693) the final height of the compression specimen can be determined as follows: ε = -.0/1. Solution: Engineering strain e = (2. 3.0 mm. (b) To be compressed to the same true strain value (e = -0.500 Therefore.0 mm before necking occurs.513 lb/in2 (2) K = 44.0 mm.483 = 64.1.0 mm.0 mm.0625 L = 85 to 90 mm: e = (90 . Determine the engineering strain and true strain for this test.100)/100 = 5/100 = 0.(-0.

Therefore.20 A metal alloy has been tested in a tensile test to determine the following flow curve parameters: K = 620.24) = 0.000/0.5 mm. it should be noted that these values are associated with the necked portion of the test specimen.19 A steel tensile specimen with starting gage length = 2.80 mm fails at an engineering stress = 248.Lo/Lo = L/Lo .0. This is a true stress.75 Ao . 1 + e = L/Lo Substituting this into definition (1).8 MPa True strain ε = ln(Lf/Lo) = ln(Ao/Af) = ln(4) = 1. 14 . then true stress σ = 248.4 = 2 ln(Do/D) ln(Do/D) = . L/Lo = Ao/A A = π D2 and Ao = π Do2 Ao/A = π Do2 /π D2 = (Do/D)2 ε = ln(Do/D)2 = 2 ln(Do/D) 3.6 MPa.8065 Ao True stress σ = 37.Lo = 0.24 Lo L = 1. σ = 551. TS is defined as an engineering stress.25 = 992.386 .18 A copper wire of diameter 0. determine the load required to compress the specimen to a height of (a) 50 mm and (b) 37. TS = 1.(.Lo)/Lo Consider definition (2): e = L/Lo . ε = ln(1 + e) 3. The same metal is now tested in a compression test in which the starting height of the specimen = 62.Lo)/Lo = 0.4 = 382.26.2 Do/D = exp.5) = 91.4918 The ratio between true stress and engineering stress would be the same ratio. 0.215 Compression 3.75 Ao Ao .3) = 570.221 Area ratio = (Do/D)2 = (1. Assuming that the cross. Solution: Starting definitions: (1) ε = ln(L/Lo) and (2) e = (L . calculate the (engineering) tensile strength for the metal.24 = 0. Therefore.3 MPa. At necking.2/0.24 L .5 MPa and n = 0.5 mm and its diameter = 25 mm. the flow curve has parameters calculated as n = 0. Determine the true stress and true strain at this maximum load.15.0 in and cross-sectional area = 0.Af)/Ao = 0.2 MPa.4/2 = 0. Its ductility is measured as 75% reduction of area. However.5 in 2 reaches a maximum load of 37.2) = 1.25 Ao = Af If engineering stress = 248. 3. Solution: Tensile strength occurs at maximum value of load.2 MPa. Based on this information. we know that ε = 2 ln(Do/D).8065(0. Determine the true stress and true strain at failure.24 Lo A = Ao/1.221) 2 = 1.4) . Its elongation at this point is 24%. From Problem 3.75A o = 0.6(.000 lb.Therefore. Solution: Elongation = (L . n = ε .Af = 0. Therefore.754 lb/in2 True strain ε = ln(1.1 Rearranging.3 MPa 3.4918(382. Solution: Area reduction AR = (Ao . Necking begins immediately thereafter.16 Show that true strain = ln(1 + e).17 Based on results of a tensile test.40 and K = 551.section increases uniformly.

312 N 3.224/30.000 lb.775 in 2.000 lb.00464) = 1.5(0. A cylindrical specimen of starting cross-section area = 1000 mm2 and height = 75 mm is compressed to a height of 58 mm.511 Yf = 620.00464) n 1. Determine: (a) yield strength Y.6 mm3. ε = ln(62. The metal yields (0.493 = (48.Solution: Starting volume of test specimen V = hπ Do2/4 = 62.103 K = 117. Ao = π Do/4 = π (1.767 in2 Y = 140. (a) At h = 50 mm.224 lb/in 2 is e = Y/E = 79.534 in3. At a load of 260.00464.1 mm2 F = 521.6) = 257.1) = 426.0.223.0(1 .000/1.6 = 2.7(1293.862 lb/in2 at ε = 0.21 The flow curve parameters for a certain stainless steel are K = 1100 MPa and n = 0. A = 3.714 lb/in 2.1 MPa A = V/L = 30679. and (2) σ = 117.5) 2/4 = 3.223 Yf = 620.000 lb. At F = 260.534/1.5 = 818.6) = 0.6 /37.000/58 = 1293.26 = 420.000/2.5) 2/4 = 1.1 mm2 F = 683.9907 in. Solution: (a) Starting volume of test specimen V = hπ D2/4 = 2π (1.714/78. 117.257) . the height has been reduced to 1.775 = 78.6/50 = 613. True strain ε = ln(2.000/1.511) .2% offset) at a load = 140.5/50) = ln(1.000 = 0. True strain σ = 140.4006 = 3. ε = ln(62.293) = 0.35 = 683. ε = ln(75/58) = ln(1.7 MPa Starting volume V = 75(1000) = 75.767 = 79. The flow curve equation is: σ = 137.5 mm.002 = 0.0 in and diameter = 1.1(818.0/1.9907 = 1.223) .00264 + 0. 3.534/1. A = V/L = 75.00464 is h = 2.25) = 0.103 = 137.209 in 2.493) = n ln(48.862 = (0.714/(0.095 N.5 in.6 mm2 F = 420. True stress σ = 260.06) n ln(1. Determine the force required to achieve this compression.5/37.872 n n = 0.667) = 0.224 lb/in2 (b) Elastic strain at Y = 79.5π (25) 2/4 = 30679.209 = 117. (b) flow curve parameters K and n .06) 0.5(.770 N (b) At h = 37.1) = 884. Assume that the cross-sectional area increases uniformly during the test.35.257 Yf = 1100(.22 A steel test specimen (E = 30 x 106 lb/in2) in a compression test has a starting height = 2.1 MPa A = V/L = 30679.389 lb/in2.223 Given the two points: (1) σ = 78.5) = ln(1. Area A = 3.103 Bending and Shear 15 .26 = 521. Solution: For h = 58 mm.389 ε .223/0.223) . assuming that the cross-section increases uniformly.714 lb/in2 at ε = 0.862 lb/in2.00464 Height h at strain = 0.6 in.000 mm3 At h = 58 mm.1(613.00264 Strain including offset = 0.000.

Determine: (a) the shear stress.441/0.5) 2(0. assuming the specimen had not yet yielded. Solution: γ = a/b = tan 42° = 0. G = τ/γ = 76.005236)/50 = 0.31 One of the inspectors in the quality control department has frequently used the Brinell and Rockwell hardness tests. and gage length = 2.27 In a torsion test..0)/(0. Determine the BHN for the metal. 3. α = 1(2π /360) = 0.906 lb/in2. If the transverse rupture strength of the material is known to be 1000 MPa.24 x 10 6 lb/in2.5 x 60) = 16.0 in. 3.1)) = 42.30 In a Brinell hardness test. Determine the shear strain for this situation. α = .441 lb/in2.39/0. for which equipment is available in the company. a 1500 kg load is pressed into a specimen using a 10 mm diameter hardened steel ball. failure of the specimen occurs at a torque = 1200 N-m and a corresponding angular deflection = 10°.0 in. the specimen fails at a torque = 8000 ft-lb and an angular deflection = 23°. Determine: (a) the shear stress.179 MPa.5 x 0.5L = 1000(15 x 102)/(1. 3.5(1700)(2. Solution: S = (8000 x 12)/(2π (1. Calculate the shear strength of the metal.25 A piece of metal is deformed in shear to an angle of 42° as shown in Figure P3.10 in.28 In Problem 3.39 MPa. What is the shear strength of the metal? Solution: S = (1200 x 1000)/(2π (25) 2(3)) = 101.2 mm.5 in. The resulting indentation has a diameter = 3.9004. (b) shear strain.26. Solution: (a) τ = T/(2π R2t) = (900 x 1000)/(2π (25) 2(3)) = 76.002618 = 29. Solution: TRS = 1. given that its dimensions are: b = 15 mm.667 N.22).01309 (c) τ = Gγ. 3.01745 rad.27.01309 = 3. and L = 60 mm? Solution: F = (TRS)(bh2)/1. Hardness 3.200 lb/in2.3. In testing. Its cross-sectional dimensions are b = 0.3(2π /360) = 0. Solution: (a) τ = T/(2π R2t) = (5000 x 12)/(2π (1.5) = 3000/(10π x 0. γ = 1.3°.5258) = 182 BHN 3. assuming the specimen had not yet yielded.5) 2(0.005236 rad.002618 (c) τ = Gγ.3.(102 . wall thickness = 3 mm. which is that hardness is always measured as the 16 . (b) shear strain.29 In Problem 3.0 = 0. 3. h = 10 mm.25.23 A bend test is used for a certain hard material.50 in and h = 0. G = τ/γ = 42. (b) γ = Rα /L. Solution: BHN = 2(1500)/(10π (10 .5(0. γ = 25(0.25 in. what is the anticipated load at which the specimen is likely to fail. (b) γ = Rα /L.24 A special ceramic specimen is tested in a bend test. Determine the transverse rupture strength if failure occurs at a load = 1700 lb. and gage length = 50 mm.26 A torsion test specimen has a radius = 25 mm. The length of the specimen between supports = 2.86 MPa. and (c) shear modulus. 3. wall thickness = 0.252) = 163. He claims that all hardness tests are based on the same principle as the Brinell test.5FL/bh2 = 1. a torque of 900 N-m results in an angular deflection = 0. a torque of 5000 ft-lb is applied which causes an angular deflection = 1° on a thin-walled tubular specimen whose radius = 1.01745)/2.1)) = 67. and (c) shear modulus.

from a legal standpoint. it is unlikely that the batch can be rejected on the basis of its measured BHN without using an actual tensile test to measure TS. and (3) Durometer. but many of them are.000 lb/in2. Assuming that the velocity gradient of the fluid is constant. It is supposed to have a tensile strength in the range 60. Not all hardness tests are based on the applied load divided by area.000 lb/in2.0 mm.0006 lb-sec/in2. (a) Does the steel meet the specification on tensile strength? (b) Estimate the yield strength of the material. The space between them is occupied by a fluid of unknown viscosity. Solution: Shear rate = (5 m/s x 1000 mm/m)/(4 mm) = 1250 s-1 η = (10N/m2)/(1250 s-1) = 0.3 lb/in2)/(50 sec-1) = 0. Solution: Shear rate = (25 in/sec)/(0.36 A 125. 3. we can estimate the yield strength to be Y = 0.32 Suppose in Problem 3. 3.000 = 0. The motion of the plates is resisted by a shear stress of 10 Pa due to the viscosity of the fluid. are moving relative to each other at a velocity of 5 m/sec.0 mm diameter shaft rotates inside a stationary bushing whose inside diameter = 125.5 in) = 50 sec-1 η = (0. determine the viscosity of the fluid.3 lb/in 2 due to the viscosity of the fluid. which measures the rebound height of a hammer dropped from a certain distance against a surface specimen. Solution: The estimating formula is: TS = 500(BHN). Solution: (a) TS = 500(BHN) = 500(118) = 59.2 in the text (page 47). 3. estimate the tensile strength of the steel.35 Two parallel surfaces.555(59. In the clearance between the shaft and the bushing is contained a lubricating oil whose viscosity = 0. and what are the associated tests? Solution: (a) No. (a) Is he correct? (b) If not.008 N-s/m2. However.000 lb/in 2.14 Pas. The motion is resisted by a shear stress of 0. (b) Based on Table 3. separated by a space of 4 mm. the ratio of Y to TS for low carbon steel = 25. A Brinell hardness test in the receiving department yields a value of BHN = 118.30 that the specimen is steel. Based on the BHN determined in that problem. The shaft rotates at a velocity of 400 rev/min.6 mm and length = 50.33 A batch of annealed steel has just been received from the vendor.000 to 70. which measures elastic deformation by pressing an indentor into the surface of rubber and similar soft materials.000 lb/in2. determine the coefficient of viscosity of the fluid. Viscosity of Fluids 3. The above formula for converting from BHN to TS is only an approximating equation.555. If the velocity gradient in the space between the surfaces is constant. For a tested hardness of BHN = 182.000 to 70. this speed and the action of the oil are sufficient to keep the shaft centered inside the bushing.000/45. 3. the claim is not correct. TS = 500(182) = 91. (b) Some of the other hardness tests and operating principles include: (1) Rockwell hardness test.applied load divided by the area of the impressions made by an indentor. (2) Scleroscope. which measures the depth of indentation of a cone resulting from an applied load. This lies outside the specified range of 60. Using this ratio.700 lb/in2. are moving relative to each other at a velocity of 25 in/sec. what are some of the other principles involved in hardness testing.5 in that is occupied by a fluid. Determine the magnitude of the torque due to viscosity that acts to resist the rotation of the shaft.34 Two flat plates. 17 . separated by a space of 0.000) = 32.

3 mm v = (125π mm/rev)(400 rev/min)(1 min/60 sec) = 2618.0 mm/s Shear rate = 2618/0.2(10-6)) = 24.14)(8726.125)/2 = 0.3 = 8726.1 N x 125/2 mm = 1506.6) = 1221.4 N-mm = 1.7 N/mm2)(19729.6 s-1 τ = (0.6) 2 x 50/4 = 19729.Solution: Bushing internal bearing area A = π (125.6 .2(10-6) m2 d = (125.1 N Torque T = 24.6 mm2 = 19729.506 N-m 18 .7 Pa = 1221.7 N/mm2 Force on surface between shaft and bushing = (1221.

Answer.5 What is the thermal conductivity of a material? Answer. A pure metal element melts at one temperature (the melting point). concentration gradient.8 4. According to Fick's first law. 4.3 Describe the melting characteristics of a noncrystalline material such as glass. Review Questions 4.6 4. and time. In the heating of a noncrystalline material such as glass. Resistivity is the material's capacity to resist the flow of an electric current. Thermal conductivity is the capacity of a material to transfer heat energy through itself by thermal movement only (no mass transfer). in which the electrons are tightly bound to particular molecules. finally converting to a liquid at a temperature defined for these materials as the melting point. 4. Answer. the material begins to soften as temperature increases. mass diffusion depends on: diffusion coefficient which rises rapidly with temperature (so temperature could be listed as an important variable). What is the difference in melting characteristics between a pure metal element and an alloy metal? Answer. while an alloy begins melting at a certain temperature called the solidus and finally completes the transformation to the molten state at a higher temperature called the liquidus. 4. 4. Answer.7 Define thermal diffusivity. Specific heat is defined as the quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of a unit mass of the material by one degree. 4.1 4.10 What is the dielectric strength of a material? Answer. Between the solidus and liquidus. Metals are better conductors because of metallic bonding. Ceramics and polymers have covalent and ionic bonding. which permits electrons to move easily within the metal.2 PHYSICAL PROPERTIES OF MATERIALS Define the property density of a material. 4. Answer.9 Define the resistivity of a material. Answer. contact area.4 4.11 What is an electrolyte ? 19 . Why are metals better conductors of electricity than ceramics and polymers? Answer. What are the important variables that affect mass diffusion? Answer. the metal is a mixture of solid and liquid. Thermal diffusivity is the thermal conductivity divided by the volumetric specific heat.4 Define the specific heat property of a material. Density is the weight per unit volume. The dielectric strength is defined as the electrical potential required to break down the insulator per unit thickness.

or (d) tin.Answer. or (b) false. Choices (a) and (b) are included in Eq. or (b) false. Temperature (e) has a strong influence on the diffusion coefficient. and (f) time.1 Which one of the following metals has the lowest density? (a) aluminum. (a). 4. (c) density. (c) polyethylene. (b) 4. Answer. (b) copper. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. (c) 4. (e) temperature. (c) gold. (d) 4. which of the following temperatures marks the beginning of melting? (a) liquidus.3 Polymers typically exhibit greater thermal expansion properties than metals: (a) true. 4. (b). (b) The high thermal conductivity of copper makes it difficult to weld because the heat flows away from the joint rather than being concentrated to permit melting of the metal.7 Which of the following pure metals is the best conductor of electricity? (a) aluminum. (d) 4. or (d) silver. (b) contact area. Time (f) figures into the process because it affects the concentration gradient. Answer. (b) 20 . In these cases. the concentration gradient is reduced so that the rate of diffusion is reduced. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. of (b) solidus. (e). (d) melting point. Answer. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers.5). Answer. Answer. (c) magnesium. (a) In the heating of most metal alloys. (b) zero conductivity. (b) copper.5 Copper is generally considered easy to weld. (4.4 Which of the following materials has the highest specific heat? (a) aluminum. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 12 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). all correct answers must be given. For each question. or (c) resistivity properties between those of conductors and semiconductors? Answer. because of its high thermal conductivity: (a) true. This is perhaps a trick question. Answer. 4. as time elapses. melting begins at a certain temperature and concludes at a higher temperature.6 The mass diffusion rate dm/dt across a boundary between two different metals is a function of which of the following variables (more than one): (a) concentration gradient dc/dx. Answer.2 4. or (d) water.8 A superconductor is characterized by which of the following (choose one best answer): (a) very low resistivity. and (f). (b) concrete. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. An electrolyte is an ionized solution capable of conducting electric current by movement of the ions. To attain a perfect score on the quiz.

Solution: R = rL/A.65 Ω 21 .98 .67° C 4.1 The starting diameter of a shaft is 25.04605 = 2.1) to D2 . Solution: Assume a 1 cm3 cube. using data in Table 4.0 in.2 Aluminum has a density of 2.02 = 300(10-6)(T2 . 4.21 cal/g-°C)(103 cm3)(2.T2).20) -0.0003T2 T2 = -46. To be readily inserted.70/1.0288 in.1.5(10-2) Ω = 21.70 g/cm3)(300°C .0. α = 24(10-6) mm/mm/°C L2 . the anode is the electrode which is (a) positive.02 + 0.98 mm. Heat = (0.4 With reference to Table 4.0003(T2 .01512 cm (L2 )3 = (1. determine the increase in length of a steel bar whose length = 10. the shaft must be reduced in diameter by cooling. α = 12(10-6) mm/mm/°C according to Table 4.20) = 0. L2 = 1.2. if the bar is heated from room temperature (70°F) to 500°F.0 in)(500°F . Conversion: 1.3 With reference to Table 4.184J.01512) 3 = 1.581 g/cm3 4.3 as a reference.02 = 0.0)(650 . r = 1.1.0 + 24(10-6)(1.1.007854(10-6) m2 From Table 4. Answer.70°F) = 0.7 x 10-8 Ω -m2/m)(10 m)/( 0. Solution. Refer to Table 4.4.25.007854(10-6) m2) = 2164. Solution: For steel.0003T2 -0.20) -0.3.006 -.7 x 10-6 in/in/F)(10.196 J .70 g/cm3 at room temperature (20°C). 1 cm on each side.7 x 10-8 Ω -m2/m R = (1. 24. Determine its density at 650°C.9 In an electrolytic cell.21°C) = 158.00 mm. so heat = 662. thus ρ at 650°C = 2.1) 2/4 = 0.1 as a reference.20) = 1.D1 = α D1 (T2 . From Table 4.193 cal.L1 = α L1 (T2 . or (b) negative. 4.5 What is the resistance R of a length of copper wire whose length = 10 m and whose diameter = 0. This shaft is to be inserted into a hole in an expansion fit assembly operation.00 = 12(10-6)(25.00)(T2 .006 = 0. Solution: Increase = (6.0003T2 .007854 mm2 = 0.0 cal = 4.10 mm? Use Table 4.014 = 0. (a) Problems 4. Revise Eq. determine the quantity of heat required to increase the temperature of an aluminum block that is 10 cm x 10 cm x 10 cm from room temperature (21°C) to 300°C. (4.T2). A = π (0.1. Determine the temperature to which the shaft must be reduced from room temperature (20°C) in order to reduce its diameter to 24.04605 cm3 Assume weight remains the same.

see Eqs. TOLERANCES. what does surface roughness mean? Answer.6 Within the scope of surface texture. etc. safety. friction and wear. Answer. mating of components in assembly. 5. AND SURFACES What is a tolerance? Answer.1 5. Answer.5 5. lay. Roughness deviations lie within waviness deviations. (3) its value depends on the roughness width cutoff L used to measure the average. 5. Surface texture is the random and repetitive deviations from the nominal surface. Review Questions 5. It is assumed perfectly smooth. perfectly flat if referring to a planar surface. 5.8 What is the difference between AA and RMS in surface roughness measurement? Answer. Surface roughness measurement provides only a single value of surface texture.3) in the text. and flaws. and thermal electrical contacts. while waviness refers to the deviations of larger spacing. 5. What are some of the reasons why surfaces are important? Answer. how is roughness distinguished from waviness? Answer. 5. waviness.10 Identify some of the changes and injuries that can occur at or immediately below the surface of a metal.7 Surface roughness is a measurable aspect of surface texture. The reasons why surfaces are important include: aesthetics. (2) it does not indicate lay. surface integrity includes not only surface but the altered layers beneath the surface.3 Define nominal surface. Among its limitations are: (1) it varies depending on direction.1) and (5. 22 . AA and RMS are alternative methods by which the average roughness value is computed.9 Indicate some of the limitations of using surface roughness as a measure of surface texture. The nominal surface is the ideal part surface represented on an engineering drawing. 5. Surface roughness is defined as the average value of the vertical deviations from the nominal surface over a specified surface length. perfectly round if referring to a round surface.4 Define surface texture. effect of surface on mechanical and physical properties. Roughness consists of the finely-spaced deviations from the nominal surface. A tolerance is defined as the total amount by which a specified dimension is permitted to vary.2 DIMENSIONS. including roughness. (5. Surface texture refers only to the surface geometry. 5. Answer.5 How is surface texture distinguished from surface integrity? Answer.

polishing.11 What causes the various types of changes that occur in the altered layer just beneath the surface? Answer. Energy input resulting from the manufacturing process used to generate the surface. (a) Thermal energy is normally associated with which of the following changes in the altered layer? (a) cracks. Answer. (d) plastic deformation. (b) feed marks of the tool that produced the surface. (d) oil films. (b) concentricity. 5. all correct answers must be given.3 Surface texture includes which of the following characteristics of a surface (may be more than one)? (a) deviations from the nominal surface. and (e). and superfinishing. (c) hardness variations. Answer. (c). (b) hardness variations. Processes that produce poor surfaces include: sand casting. hot rolling. 5. (b) measurement error. and (e) surface cracks. lapping. Answer. residual stresses.1). etc. and thermal cutting (e. (e) recrystallization. thermal. or (d) variation in manufacturing. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. intergranular attack. and (d) roundness. 23 .5 5. 5. 5. (a).13 Name some manufacturing processes that produce very good or excellent surface finishes.1 A tolerance is which one of the following? (a) clearance between a shaft and a mating hole. (b). flame cutting). metallurgical changes resulting from heat. Processes that produced very good and excellent surfaces include: honing. chemical. sawing.2 Which of the following two geometric terms have the same meaning? (a) circularity.. For each question. (c) 5. The changes and injuries include: cracks. (see Table 5. and electrical. (a) and (d). (b) 5. variations in hardness near the surface. or (f) voids. since each correct answer is worth 1 point.6 Surface texture is included within the scope of surface integrity: (a) true or (b) false. 5. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. Answer. (c) cylindricity. The energy forms can be any of several types. including mechanical.12 Name some manufacturing processes that produce very poor surface finishes. Answer.g. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. Answer. 5. (a) AA or (b) RMS? Answer. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 19 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). (b). Answer. and (e).Answer. (c) total permissible variation from a specified dimension. craters. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (c) heat affected zone.4 Which averaging method generally yields the higher value of surface roughness.

9 5. (b) grinding. (b) grinding.7 A better finish (lower roughness value) will tend to have which of the following effects on fatigue strength of a metal surface? (a) increase. (b) microstructure near the surface. 24 . Answer. sawing (e) will yield a poor finish. Accept either answer. or (e) sawing. (e) surface roughness. Also. or (c) no effect. (a). (c) microcracks beneath the surface. (d) sand casting. (b) Which of the following are included within the scope of surface integrity? (a) chemical absorption. or (e) sawing. (e). Answer.10 Which one of the following manufacturing processes will likely result in the worst surface finish? (a) cold rolling. (c). (d) substrate microstructure.8 5. (b). (c) machining. (b) decrease. (c) machining. Answer. and (f) Which one of the following manufacturing processes will likely result in the best surface finish? (a) arc welding. (d). Answer. (d) sand casting.5. or (f) variation in tensile strength near the surface. (b) 5.

Ni. which is C.10 Identify some of the common alloying elements other than carbon in low alloy steels. The common alloying elements in low alloy steel are Cr. Mo. and nonferrous. Fe 3C) or intermetallic compound (e. An interstitial solid solution is where the dissolved atoms are small and fit into the vacant spaces (the interstices) in the lattice structure of the solvent metal.4 METALS What are some of the general properties that distinguish metals from ceramics and polymers? Answer. 6. The carbon content ranges from 0. Cr and Mo improve hot hardness. All of the alloying elements other than C strengthen the steel by solid solution alloying.8 6.11%. Answer.6 6. Review Questions 6.3 6. 6. Ferrous metals. Mn.7 The copper-nickel system is a simple alloy system. Answer. 25 . What is a solid solution in the context of alloys? Answer. Mn..2 6. good electrical and thermal conductivity.11% to about 5%. 6. The Cu-Ni alloy system is simple because it is a solid solution alloy throughout its entire composition range. What is the definition of an alloy ? Answer. at least one of which is metallic. The carbon content ranges from 2. and Ni increase hardenability during heat treatment.5 Distinguish between a substitutional solid solution and an interstitial solid solution.6 What is an intermediate phase in the context of alloys? Answer. such as a metallic compound (e. Mg2Pb) is formed. which includes all others. and V. Answer.1 6. Answer. A substitutional solid solution is where the atoms of dissolved element replace atoms of the solution element in the lattice structure of the metal.02% to 2. 6. we should also mention the most important. Why is it so simple? Answer.. and higher density than ceramics or polymers. What is the range of carbon percentages which defines an iron-carbon alloy as cast iron? Answer.g. What are the two major groups of metals? Define them.g. as indicated by its phase diagram. An alloy is a metal comprised of two or more elements. Cr.9 What is the range of carbon percentages which defines an iron-carbon alloy as a steel? Answer.11 What are some of the mechanisms by which the alloying elements other than carbon strengthen steel. 6. which are based on iron. An intermediate phase is an alloy formed when the solubility limit of the base metal in the mixture is exceeded and a new phase. A solid solution is an alloy in which one of the metallic elements is dissolved in another to form a single phase. Mo. Metallic properties include: high strength and stiffness.

Magnesium is noted for its very low density (lightest of the structural metals). Answer. (a) tin. V) form hard carbides with C. 6. Silicon. (b) zinc.Several of the alloying elements (Cr. Aluminum is noted for its low density. 6.15 Besides high carbon content. 6.23 What important alloy is formed from lead and tin? 26 . and high temperature strength. and ability to be alloyed and strengthened to achieve good strength-to-weight ratios.19 What elements are traditionally alloyed with copper to form (a) bronze and (b) brass? Answer. (2) for plating of steel to resist corrosion. If no heat treatment carbon strengthens by creating a two-phase structure in the steel.zinc is an easy metal to cast. 6. It is called austenitic because this alloy exists in its austenitic phase at room temperature. 6. high electrical and thermal conductivity.20 What are some of the important applications of nickel? Answer. 6. e. 6. Titanium is noted for its high strength-to-weight ratio.18 What is the most important engineering property of copper which determines most of its applications? Answer. Its high electrical conductivity. 6.g. which increases wear resistance.21 What are the noteworthy properties of titanium? Answer. 6. Chromium.. 6. propensity to oxidize (which can cause problems in processing).13 What is the predominant alloying element in all of the stainless steels? Answer.14 Why is austenitic stainless steel called by that name? Answer. Vanadium inhibits grain growth during heat treatment which improves strength and toughness. stainless steel. what other alloying element is characteristic of the cast irons? Answer. The important applications are: (1) as an alloying ingredient in steel. good corrosion resistance due to the formation of a tough oxide film on its surface. (3) as an alloying element with copper to form brass. it can be alloyed and strengthened by methods similar to those used for aluminum alloys to achieve respectable strength-to-weight ratios. 6.16 Identify some of the properties for which aluminum is noted? Answer.17 What are some of the noteworthy properties of magnesium? Answer. however. The important applications are: (1) die castings . Mo. (2) as a coating in galvanized steel.22 Identify some of the important applications of zinc. and (3) to form nickel-based alloys noted for high-temperature performance and corrosion resistance. and low strength. formability. The reason is that nickel has the effect of enlarging the austenitic temperature range to include room temperature. corrosion resistance (due to the formation of a thin but tough oxide film).12 What is the mechanism by which carbon strengthens steel in the absence of heat treatment? Answer. 6.

26 The superalloys divide into three basic groups. or (e) gamma. (b) high strength. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. 6. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. (b) Nobel metals are so-named because they are chemically inactive. 6. Mo and W are the most important. (b) Why are they called noble metals? Answer. 6. (c) and (e). Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers.24 (a) Name the important refractory metals. (d) ferrite.3 The predominant phase in the iron-carbon alloy system for a composition with 99% Fe at room temperature is which of the following? (a) austenite. (b) cementite.Answer.most of the commercial heat treatments are designed to increase the strength of the metal. and (3) cobalt-based alloys.2 Which of the metallic elements is the most abundant on the earth? (a) aluminum. (a) The principal noble metals are copper. The three groups are: (1) iron-based alloys. 6. and silver. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 23 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). gold. platinum. and (3) heat treatment . (b) Refractory means the capability to withstand high temperature service. The superalloys are generally distinguished by their strength and resistance to corrosion and oxidation at elevated temperatures. Answer. (2) nickel-based alloys. 6. 6. (c) high electrical resistivity. according to the base metal used in the alloy. (d) high stiffness. (d) magnesium. and tungsten (W). 6. Answer. (d) 27 . For each question. or (e) ionic bonding.27 What is so special about the superalloys? What distinguishes them from other alloys? Answer. Name the three groups. (b) copper. Answer. tantalum (Ta). in which the strain-hardened metal is stronger and harder than the unstrained metal. (c) delta. or (e) silicon.25 (a) Name the four principal noble metals. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. (c) iron. Solder. The three basic methods are: (1) alloying to form solid solutions and two-phase structures which are stronger than the elemental metals. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. all correct answers must be given.28 What are the three basic methods by which metals can be strengthened? Answer. (2) cold working. (a) 6. (a) The refractory metals include columbium (Cb). Answer. molybdenum (Mo).1 Which of the following properties or characteristics are inconsistent with the metals (more than one)? (a) good thermal conductivity. (b) What does the term refractory mean? Answer.

15 Which of the following metals possess good electrical conductivity (more than one)? (a) aluminum. (b) 10XX. (b) 6. (b) lead. or (d) white cast iron. (c). or (e) 30XX. (c) molybdenum.10 Which of the following alloying elements are most commonly associated with stainless steel (name two)? (a) chromium. (c) 6. or (d) titanium. or (e) scheelite. Answer. (b) bauxite.0% carbon is known as which of the following: (a) eutectoid. (a) Which of the following is not a common alloying ingredient in steel? (a) chromium. (b) chromium. (d) silver. (e) zinc. (b) manganese. 28 . (b) Which of the following elements is the most important alloying ingredient in steel? (a) carbon. (b) manganese. (a) Plain carbon steels are designated in the AISI code system by which of the following? (a) 01XX. Answer. (e) Solid solution alloying is the principal strengthening mechanism in high-strength low-alloy (HSLA) steels: (a) true or (b) false. (d) 12XX.6 6.8 6.6. (c) gold.14 From which of the following ores is aluminum derived? (a) alumina. Answer. (d) silver. (c) malleable iron. (b). and (d). Answer. Answer. (d) tin.12 Which of the following metals has the lowest density? (a) aluminum. (a). (b) hypoeutectoid. (b) copper. 6. Answer. (c) 11XX. Answer. (c) platinum. (d) nickel.13 Which of the following metals has the highest density? (a) gold. (d) hematite.11 Which of the following is the most important cast iron commercially? (a) ductile cast iron. (b) copper. (e) zinc.4 A steel with 1.16 Traditional brass is an alloy of which of the following metallic elements? (a) aluminum. (c) tin. (d) molybdenum. (b) gray cast iron. Answer. or (d) wrought iron.7 6. Answer. (c) nickel. 6. Answer. (b) 6.5 6. (c) hypereutectoid. (d) vanadium. (b) 6.9 6. or (e) tungsten. Answer. or (e) tungsten. (a) 6. (c) cementite. (c) The strength and hardness of steel increases as carbon content increases: (a) true of (b) false. or (e) vanadium. Answer. (b) magnesium. and (e) tungsten. (a) and (d). (c) nickel. (c) gold.

6. 6.2.8/13 = 0. Liquid phase proportion = 12/(12 + 5) = 12/17 = 0. Liquid phase proportion = 4.35% Cu.5/25.7 For the preceding problem. (b) lead. or (e) zinc.8 mm. Liquid phase proportion = 15/(15 + 10. CS = 15 mm. is it possible to design a solder (lead-tin alloy) with a melting point of 260°C (500°F).59 α phase proportion = 10.3.22% Pb.4 Using the lead-tin phase diagram in Figure 6.44% Pb.2 For the preceding problem. Solution: From Fig 6. measured values of CL and CS are: CL = 5 mm. If so.5 mm. Solution: From Fig 6. measured values of CL and CS are: CL = 7.2 mm. measured values of CL and CS are: CL = 10.3. Solid phase composition = 83% Ni . (d) Problems 6.41 6. α phase composition = 18% Sn .29 6.5 For the preceding problem. the compositions are observed as follows: Liquid phase composition = 78% Sn .3. determine the liquid and solid phase compositions for a nominal composition of 90% Sn and 10% Pb at 204°C (400°F).5 = 0.6 Using the lead-tin phase diagram in Figure 6. CS = 4. CS = 12 mm.2% Pb. Solution: From Fig 6. Answer.17% Cu. if the lead-tin proportion is 67%-33%. find the compositions of the liquid and solid phases for a nominal composition of 70% Ni and 30% Cu at 1371°C (2500°F).68 29 . 6.2/(13) = 0. the compositions are observed as follows: Liquid phase composition = 56% Sn . β phase composition = 98% Sn .71 Solid phase proportion = 5/17 = 0. Solution: From Fig 6. Solution: From Fig 6.3. Solution: From Fig 6. 6.82% Pb. the compositions are observed as follows: Liquid phase composition = 65% Ni . 6. what would be its nominal composition? Solution: It is possible to obtain such a solder.5 = 0.32 α phase proportion = 7.1 For the copper-nickel phase diagram in Figure 6.2.3.3. use the inverse lever rule to determine the proportions of liquid and solid phases present in the alloy.17 Which of the following has the lowest melting point? (a) aluminum. determine the liquid and solid phase compositions for a nominal composition of 40% Sn and 60% Pb at 204°C (400°F). (c) magnesium.5) = 15/25.3. use the inverse lever rule to determine the proportions of liquid and solid phases present in the alloy. (d) tin. (b) and (e).3 For the lead-tin phase diagram of Figure 6.Answer. use the inverse lever rule to determine the proportions of liquid and solid phases present in the alloy.2.

and (c) 1095°C (2000°F) and 1% Fe 3C. (b) 760°C (1400°F) and 2% Fe 3C. identify the phase or phases present at the following temperatures and nominal compositions: (a) 650°C (1200°F) and 2% Fe 3C. (b) gamma + iron carbide. Solution: (a) Alpha + iron carbide.8 In the iron-iron carbide phase diagram of Figure 6.6. and (c) gamma.4. 30 .

A ceramic is an inorganic.g. oxides. What are the general physical properties of ceramic materials? Answer.7 7.10 What is clay. What are the general mechanical properties of ceramic materials? Answer. brittle.5 7. What do bauxite and corundum have in common? Answer. usually formed into useful products by a heating process. 7. 7.2 7.g. They are both minerals of alumina.11 What is glazing. 31 . nonmetallic compound. Usually electrical and thermal insulators.12 What does the term refractory mean? Answer. pottery. Because they are not compounds. 7. bricks) while new ceramics are more recently developed ceramics which are generally simpler in chemical composition (e. 7. Refractories are heat resistant ceramic materials. Glazing involves the application of a surface coating of oxides such as alumina and silica.7 Why are graphite and diamond not classified as ceramics? Answer. they are alternative forms of the element carbon.1 7. Usually high hardness. to make the product more impervious to moisture and more attractive.. used in making ceramic products? Answer.. high melting temperatures.9 What type of atomic bonding characterizes the ceramics? Answer. Covalent and ionic bonding.4 What is the feature that distinguishes glass from the traditional and new ceramics? Answer.3 CERAMICS What is a ceramic is. thermal expansion usually less than metals. usually to a porous ceramic product such as earthenware. Answer. Glass is noncrystalline (amorphous). Oxygen.8 7. The term is sometimes also applied to metals that are heat resistant. 7. carbides). medium density (typically below the density of metals). while most other ceramics assume a crystalline structure. and iron. as applied to ceramics? Answer. aluminum. What are the four most common elements in the earth's crust? Answer. silicon. Clay most commonly consists of hydrous aluminum silicate. What is the difference between the traditional ceramics and the new ceramics? Answer. Traditional ceramics are based primarily on clay products (e.6 7. Review Questions 7. the usually kaolinite (Al2(Si2O5)(OH)4). no ductility.

as mentioned in the text? Answer. Silica. 7. For each question. in which covalent bonding exists between atoms in the layers. (4) reducing thermal expansion in the final product. 7. or (e) silica.2 Glass products are based primarily on which one of the following minerals? (a) alumina. Devitrification is the transformation from the glassy state into a polycrystalline state. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. or water. (d) oxygen. aluminum.g. Graphite is carbon in the form of hexagonal crystalline layers.7. (c) iron. As a thin coating on cutting tools to prolong tool life.1 Which one of the following is the most common element in the earth's crust? (a) aluminum. Answer. 7. and other applications where hardness is a critical factor. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. lenses). or (e) silicon. Answer. 7. 7. (c) feldspar. rock drilling bits. 7. (5) increasing the chemical resistance against attack by acids. drawing dies.20 What is graphite? Answer.14 What is one of the important applications of titanium nitride. (3) retarding devitrification . thus leading to highly anisotropic properties. and the (parallel) layers are bonded by van der Waals forces. Answer. (d) kaolinite. (d) 7. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. and (7) altering the index of refraction for optics applications (e. Glass is an inorganic. (6) adding color to the glass. (b) corundum. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 18 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). such as WC-Co? Answer. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. basic substances. 7..13 What are some of the principal applications of the cemented carbides. dies for powder metallurgy. oxygen. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point.16 Define glass. and nitrogen. or silicon dioxide (SiO 2). 7.the tendency to crystallize from the glassy state. Answer.15 What elements comprise the ceramic material Sialon? Answer. (e) 32 . nonmetallic material which cools to a rigid solid without crystallization. (b) calcium. Silicon. all correct answers must be given.18 What are some of the functions of the ingredients that are added to glass in addition to silica.17 What is the primary mineral in glass products? Answer. The functions of the additional ingredients include: (1) acting as flux (promoting fusion) during heating.19 What does the term devitrification mean? Answer. (2) increasing fluidity in the molten glass during processing. Important applications of WC-Co include: cutting tool inserts.

5 7. (b) 7. (c) 4. Answer.0. (b) Glass ceramics are polycrystalline ceramic structures that have been transformed into the glassy state: (a) true. (c) 3AL2O3-2SiO2. Answer. (d) silicon dioxide.8 7. (a). (b) 95% vitreous.3 Which of the following contains significant amounts of aluminum oxide (more than one)? (a) alumina.0.0. (c) Which one of the following comes closest to expressing the chemical composition of clay? (a) Al2O3.12 Diamond is the hardest material known: (a) true. (b) calcium oxide.14 Synthetic diamonds date to: (a) ancient times. or (e) sandstone. Answer. (b) Al2(Si2O5)(OH)4.11 Properties and characteristics of the glass-ceramics include which of the following (may be more than one)? (a) efficiency in processing.10 Which of the following best characterizes the structure of glass-ceramics? (a) 95% polycrystalline. (a) 7. (b).13 The specific gravity of graphite is closest to which one of the following: (a) 1. (c) cubic boron nitride. or (b) 50% polycrystalline. Answer. Answer. Which of the following ceramics are commonly used as abrasives in grinding wheels (two best answers)? (a) aluminum oxide. Answer. relative to other ceramics. (b) 1800s. (d) quartz.0. or (d) 1980. (c) 1950s. (c) high thermal expansion. (b) Which of the following is fired at the highest temperatures? (a) china. (d) MgO. (c) 33 . Answer. (b) electrical conductor. (a) and (d). (b) earthenware. Answer. and (c). or (b) false.7.0 (b) 2. (b) It's reversed in the statement. or (d) stoneware.7 7. (d) silicon carbide. or (e) 16. (d) 8. Answer. (a) 7. 7. (c) porcelain. (c) corundum. or (e) tungsten carbide. (a) and (d) Which one of the following is generally the most porous of the clay-based pottery ware? (a) china. or (e) SiO 2. (b) carbon dioxide. (c) porcelain. Glass ceramics are glasses that have been transformed into a mostly crystalline form through heat treatment. Answer.4 7. or (b) false. Answer. (b) bauxite. or (d) stoneware. Answer. (b) earthenware. 7. or (d) strong.6 7.9 Which one of the following materials is closest to diamond in hardness? (a) aluminum oxide. (c) carbon monoxide. or (e) silicon dioxide. (c) 7.

What are some of the possible arrangements? Answer.8 8.7 What is cross-linking in a polymer and what is its significance? Answer.1.9 The arrangement of repeating units in a copolymer can vary. also known as condensation polymerization. Answer. 8. if cross-linking is significant. A polymer is a compound that consists of long-chain molecules. 8.1 for descriptions. In addition.2 8. Answer. 8. called mers. What are the three basic categories of polymers? Answer.10 What is a terpolymer? Answer. (2) random. hardness.8 What is a copolymer? Answer.4 What are the two methods by which polymerization occurs? Briefly describe the two methods. and (3) elastomers. An example is ABS (acrylonitrile-butadiene-styrene) plastic.11 How are a polymer's properties affected when it takes on a crystalline structure? 34 . and temperature resistance compared to metals. A terpolymer is a polymer with three different mer types. Review Questions 8. polymers are low in electrical and thermal conductivity. Tacticity refers to the way the atoms or atom groups replacing H atoms in the molecule are arranged. The molecules consist of repeating units. It causes the polymer structure to be permanently altered. polymers have lower strength. See Article 10.3 POLYMERS What is a polymer? Answer. 8. connected end to end. stiffness. The two types of polymerization are: (1) addition or chain polymerization and (2) step polymerization. density. In general. A copolymer is a polymer made up of two different types of mers. The degree of polymerization indicates the average number of mers or repeating units in the polymer molecule.1 8. and (4) graft. How do the properties of polymers compare with those of metals? Answer. (3) block.1. the polymer is transformed into a thermosetting polymer. 8. Cross-linking is the formation of connections between the long-chain molecules in a polymer. such as ethylene and propylene. If the amount of cross-linking is low.6 Define the term tacticity as it applies to polymers. See Article 10. (2) thermosetting polymers.5 What does the degree of polymerization indicate? Answer. The categories are: (1) thermoplastics. the polymer is transformed into an elastomer. 8. 8.4 for descriptions. There are four possible arrangements of the mers along the chain: (1) alternating.

stiffness. it becomes increasingly like a liquid as temperature continues to increase. Answer. and ultraviolet light absorbers.22 How do the properties of thermosetting polymers differ from those of thermoplastics? Answer. Polyamides. 8. and cannot be remelted. (3) stereoregularity . C2H4 8. what are some other additives used with polymers? Answer. 8.21 What is the basic difference between low density and high density polyethylene? Answer. LDPE has a branched structure and is amorphous. An amorphous TP shows a significant drop in deformation resistance at its Tg as temperature is raised. Thermosets are more rigid.23 Cross-linking (curing) of thermosetting plastics is accomplished by one of three ways.18 What is unique about the polymer cellulose? Answer. capable of higher service temperatures. Wood fiber contains about 50% cellulose and cotton fiber is about 95% cellulose. Other additives include: lubricants .to reduce friction and improve flow. colorants. 35 . and (6) stretching the polymer tends to promote crystallization. (4) slow cooling from the molten states promotes crystal formation. and melting point. A highly crystalline TP retains rigidity during heating until just before its Tm is reached. 8. atactic polymers never form crystals. (2) copolymers do not form crystals. 8.14 Why are fillers added to a polymer? Answer. No.12 Does any polymer ever become 100% crystalline? Answer. Factors are: (1) only linear polymers can form crystals. 8. 8.15 What is a plasticizer? Answer. It is often added to improve the polymer's flow characteristics for shaping.20 What is the chemical formula of ethylene.Answer. and syndiotactic polymers sometimes form crystals. Name the three ways. HDPE is linear and highly crystalline.isotactic polymers always form crystals. flame retardents. and melting temperature increase. (5) plasticizers inhibit crystal formation. 8. 8.19 The nylons are members of which polymer group? Answer. 8. 8. These differences account for HDPE higher density. Fillers are added to increase strength or simply to reduce the cost of the polymer. cross-linking agents. stiffness. 8. A plasticizer is a chemical added to the polymer to make it softer and more flexible.16 In addition to fillers and plasticizers. antioxidants.13 What are some of the factors that influence a polymer's tendency to crystallize? Answer. Cellulose is a polymer that grows in nature. Density. brittle. the monomer for polyethylene? Answer.17 Describe the difference in mechanical properties as a function of temperature between a highly crystalline thermoplastic and an amorphous thermoplastic.

and (3) mixing-activated systems. Answer. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. (b) Melting temperature increases with higher degree of crystallinity. whereas thermosets are highly cross-linked.27 How are thermoplastic elastomers different from conventional rubbers? Answer.linked. 8. 8. (b) 36 . (a) 8. or (c) elastomers. Polyisoprene. Answer. all correct answers must be given. which one is the most important commercially? (a) thermoplastics. or (e) C8H8.24 Elastomers and thermosetting polymers are both cross. TPEs are different in two basic ways: (1) they exhibit thermoplastic properties. An elastomer is hard and brittle below its Tg.26 What is the primary polymer ingredient in natural rubber? Answer.3 Which one of the three polymer types does not involve cross. 8. 8. in which small amounts of a catalyst cause cross-linking. For each question. in which elevated temperatures accomplish curing. (b) C2H4.Answer. (d) C5H8. (2) catalyst-activated systems. in which two reactive components are mixed and curing occurs by their chemical reaction.linking? (a) thermoplastics. or (c) elastomers. (b) thermosets. 8. Elastomers are lightly cross-linked. (a) 8. and its melting temperature decreases: (a) true or (b) false. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. (b) thermosets.5 Which of the following is the chemical formula for the repeating unit in polyethylene? (a) CH2. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. Why are their properties so different? Answer. a highly cross-linked structure makes the polymer rigid. Answer. the polymer becomes denser and stiffer. (b) thermosets.1 Of the three polymer types. Answer.2 Which one of the three polymer types is not normally considered to be a plastic? (a) thermoplastics. (c) C3H6. Answer. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point.25 What happens to an elastomer when it is below its glass transition temperature? Answer. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 25 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). and (2) their extensibility derives from physical connections between different phases in the polymer. 8. since each correct answer is worth 1 point.4 As the degree of crystallinity in a given polymer increases. The three ways are: (1) temperature-activated systems. Light cross-linking allows extensibility. (c) 8. or (c) elastomers.

and elastic. transparent. 37 . or (c) remains fairly constant. (d) the polymer becomes stiff. or (e) the polymer solidifies from the molten state. Answer.8 8. (b). (b) thermosetting. and (e). (c).12 Which of the following polymers are normally thermoplastic (more than one): (a) acrylics.14 The fiber rayon used in textiles is based on which of the following polymers: (a) cellulose. (a) 8. (b) As temperature of a polymer increases. Answer.17 Polyurethanes can be which of the following (more than one): (a) thermoplastic. (c) and (d). Answer.11 Which of the following plastics has the highest market share? (a) phenolics. (c) silicones. (b) cellulose acetate. or (e) polyvinylchloride. the glass transition temperature Tg is indicated when (a) the polymer transforms to a crystalline structure. or (f) polyurethane. or (c) elastomeric. (d) polyethylene. (c) the slope of specific volume versus temperature changes markedly. (b) nylon.10 Which answers complete the following sentence correctly (more than one): As the temperature of an amorphous thermoplastic polymer is gradually reduced. (c) sum of the molecule weights of the mers in the molecule. (b) decreases. (a) 8. (b) proportion of the monomer that has been polymerized. strong. (c) polypropylene. (e) polyethylene.15 The basic difference between low density polyethylene and high density polyethylene is that the latter has a much higher degree of crystallinity: (a) true or (b) false. Answer. (a) A copolymer is a mixture consisting of macromolecules of two different homopolymers: (a) true or (b) false. (a) A branched molecular structure is stronger in the solid state and more viscous in the molten state than a linear structure for the same polymer: (a) true or (b) false. (b) phenolics. Answer. (b) 8. (b) 8.8. (b) 8. its density (a) increases. Answer. 8. (a). the most widely used commercially is which of the following: (a) epoxies.6 Degree of polymerization is which one of the following? (a) average number of mers in the molecule chain. (d) polychloroprene. Answer. Answer. (b) polyethylene. and brittle: (a) true or (b) false. Answer. or (e) polypropylene. 8.9 8.16 Among the thermosetting polymers. (c) nylon. or (d) urethanes.13 Polystyrene (without plasticizers) is amorphous. (b) the coefficient of thermal expansion increases markedly. Answer. Answer.7 8. (c) polyester. (a) 8. or (d) none of the above. (d) polystyrene.

(d) 8. and (c). or (f) thermoplastic elastomers. (d) polyurethane. (b).19 The leading commercial synthetic rubber is which of the following: (a) butyl rubber. (e) styrene-butadiene rubber. (a). (b) isoprene rubber. or (e) C8H8.Answer. (d) C5H8. (c) C3H6. 8. Answer.18 The chemical formula for polyisoprene in natural rubber is which of the following: (a) CH2. (c) polybutadiene. (b) C2H4. (e) 38 . Answer.

in which the core is a honeycomb structure sandwiched between two solid skins. snow skis made from fiber reinforced polymers. and windshield glass.2 COMPOSITE MATERIALS What is a composite material? Answer. Typical properties include: (1) high strength-to.5 Name the three basic categories of composite materials. or polymers alone.3 What does the term anisotropic mean? Answer. A composite material is a materials system consisting of two or more distinct phases whose combination results in properties that differ from those of its constituents. 9. Answer. 9.9 9. plywood. hairlike crystal of very high strength. Review Questions 9. (3) anisotropic properties in many cases. ceramics.8 What is a whisker? Answer.1 9. printed circuit boards.2 are: automotive tires. A whisker is a thin. Examples given in Table 9. 9.7 9. honeycomb sandwich structures. Metal matrix composites (MMCs). The forms are: (1) fibers. in which the core is polymer foam between two solid skins. such as wood. Answer. The two forms are: (1) foamed-core sandwich. and (4) other properties and features that are difficult or impossible to obtain with metals. and polymer matrix composites (PMCs). fiber reinforced polymer structures such as boat hulls. 9. and (3) an infiltrated phase in skeletal structures. 9. Synthetic composites are manufactured. (2) good fatigue properties and toughness. Answer.10 What are the three general factors that determine the properties of a composite material? 39 . Answer. Identify some of the characteristic properties of composite materials.4 How are traditional composites distinguished from synthetic composites? Answer. and (2) honeycomb. Traditional composites have been used for decades or centuries. 9.6 What are the common forms of the reinforcing phase in composite materials? Answer.9 Give some examples of commercial products which are laminar composite structures. (2) particles and flakes. ceramic matrix composites (CMCs). some of them are obtained from sources in nature. Anisotropic means that the properties of a material vary depending on the direction in which they are measured. What are the two forms of sandwich structure among laminar composite structures? Briefly describe each.weight and stiffness-to-weight ratios.

good fatigue strength. and low thermal expansion for many FRPs.19 Name some of the important applications of FRPs. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 22 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). An advanced composite is a PMC in which carbon. Weaknesses of ceramics include: low tensile strength.reinforced plastic composite materials. The interface is the boundary between the component phases in a composite material.20 What is meant by the term interface in the context of composite materials? Answer. although the cemented carbide industry does not generally think of cemented carbides as cermets. FRPs are used in modern aircraft as skin parts. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. boat hulls. In the text. Kevlar. printed circuit boards. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required 40 . Answer. 9. A hybrid composite is a fiber-reinforced PMC in which two or more fibers materials are combined in the FRP. 9. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. and susceptibility to thermal cracking. A cermet is a composite material consisting of a ceramic and a metal. Answer. and a variety of other items. 9. poor toughness. 9. it states that the property value is a weighted average of the property values of the components. E-glass. 9. Three factors are given in the text: (1) the component materials. 9. they fit within the definition.18 Identify some of the important properties of fiber. good corrosion resistance. Properties include: high strength-to-weight ratio.13 Cemented carbides are what class of composites? Answer. it is defined as a composite consisting of ceramic grains imbedded in a metallic matrix. the weighting being by proportions of the components in the composite.Answer. Yes. For each question. (2) the geometric shapes of the constituents .15 What is the most common fiber material in fiber-reinforced plastics? Answer. automobile body panels. tennis rackets. high modulus-to-weight ratio.12 What is a cermet? Answer. all correct answers must be given.11 What is the rule of mixtures? Answer.14 What are some of the weaknesses of ceramics that might be corrected in fiber-reinforced ceramic matrix composites? Answer. The rule of mixtures applies to certain properties of composite materials. 9. 9. 9. and (3) the interaction of the phases.and the resulting structure of the material. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. low density. 9.the reinforcing phase in particular .16 What does the term advanced composites mean? Answer.17 What is a hybrid composite ? Answer. or boron fibers are used as the reinforcing material.

2 The reinforcing phase is the matrix within which the secondary phase is imbedded: (a) true or (b) false. Answer. (b) thermoplastics. (b) MMC. (b) 9. 9. (c) iron. (f) Kevlar 49. (d) magnesium. (e). (b) phenolic molding compound. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers.8 Ceramic matrix composites are designed to overcome which of the following weaknesses of ceramics (more than one)? (a) compressive strength. and (g) unsaturated polyester. (c) properties vary depending on the direction in which they are measured. Answer. (f) wood. and (f). (e) graphite. Answer. (c) particles. or (c) thermosets. (b) copper. and (e). or (g) tungsten carbide.reduces the score by 1 point. (c) carbon. (c) cobalt. (g) 9.4 9. Answer. (d) modulus of elasticity. (a). or (c) PMC. (b) properties are the same in every direction. (a). (b). (d) epoxy. 9. Answer. 41 . (c) Which of the following materials are used as fibers in fiber-reinforced plastics (more than one): (a) aluminum oxide. (d).1 Anisotropic means which one of the following: (a) composite materials with composition consisting of more than two materials. (e) tensile strength. (f) tungsten. (e) titanium. or (f) toughness. (c) carbon/graphite. (c) 9. or (d) infiltrated phase. (c) 9.11 Identify which of the following materials are composites (more than one)? (a) cemented carbide. (b) flakes. or (g) 1020 steel. (f) S-glass.5 Wood is which one of the following composite types? (a) CMC. (c). Answer. 9. Answer. (e) nickel.7 Which of the following metals is used as the matrix metal in nearly all WC cemented carbides? (a) aluminum. (b) hardness.9 Which of the following polymer types are most commonly used in polymer matrix composites? (a) elastomers.3 Which one of the following reinforcing geometries offers the greatest potential for strength and stiffness improvement in the resulting composite material? (a) fibers. (e) rubber in automobile tires. (c) 9. Answer. (b) boron. (e) Kevlar 49. Answer. (c) hot hardness. Answer.6 Which of the following metals are most commonly used as the matrix material in fiber-reinforced MMCs (name three)? (a) aluminum. or (f) zinc. (e) and (f). (b) chromium. (d) lead. 9. or (d) strength and other properties as a function of curing temperature. (a) 9.10 Which one of the following is the most common reinforcing material in FRPs? (a) Al2O3. (d) Portland cement. (b) boron. or (g) SiO 2. (c) plywood. (d) cobalt.

(b).Answer. (c). (a). and (f). 42 . (e).

Turbulence causes several problems: (1) accelerates formation of oxides in the solidified metal. What is the difference between an open mold and a closed mold? Answer. meaning that no further manufacturing operations are needed to accomplish the final part shape. Which casting process is the most important commercially? Answer. The continuity law. A closed mold has a cavity that is entirely enclosed by the mold. 10. while a core determines its internal geometry. The two types are: (1) expendable molds and (2) permanent molds. 10.4 What is a factory that performs casting operations usually called? Answer. 10. (3) very large parts are possible.3 10. and (5) some casting processes are suited to mass production. (2) porosity. Disadvantages include: (1) limitations on mechanical strength properties. it is an open container in the desired shape which must be flat at the top. and (5) environmental problems. (3) poor dimensional accuracy. Answer. The most important casting process is sand casting.9 Why should turbulent flow of molten metal into the mold be avoided? Answer. Advantages include: (1) complex part geometries are possible. and (2) mold erosion or gradual wearing away of the mold due to impact of molten metal. A foundry.5 10. The pattern determines the external shape of the casted part. with a passageway (called the gating system) leading from the outside to the cavity.1 FUNDAMENTALS OF METAL CASTING Identify some of the important advantages of shape casting processes. 10. Review Questions 10.8 What is meant by the term superheat? Answer. Answer. (2) some casting operations are net shape processes. 43 .6 10. or continuity equation. (4) safety hazards due to handling of hot metals. indicates that the volumetric flow rate is constant throughout the liquid flow.2 What are some of the limitations and disadvantages of casting? Answer. (4) applicable to any metal that can be melted. The term also refers to the amount of heat that is removed from the molten metal between pouring and solidification.10 10. What is the difference between a pattern and a core in sand molding? Answer. Molten metal is poured into this gating system to fill the mold.7 Name the two basic mold types that distinguish casting processes. An open mold is open to the atmosphere at the top. Superheat is the temperature difference above the melting point at which the molten metal is poured. 10.10 What is the continuity law as it applies to the flow of molten metal in casting? Answer.

and (4) heat transfer to the surroundings.2 10. Factors include: (1) pouring temperature. 10. rather than over a temperature range. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 13 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. all correct answers must be given. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. Answer. 10. solidification occurs at a single temperature.13 How does solidification of alloys differ from solidification of pure metals? Answer. (b) box which holds the cope and drag. where TST = total solidification time. A chill is a heat sink placed to encourage rapid freezing in certain regions of the casting. 10. A eutectic alloy is a particular composition in an alloy system for which the solidus and liquidus temperatures are equal. Answer. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. Most alloys (exceptions are eutectic alloys) start to solidify at the liquidus and complete solidification at the solidus. For each question. 10. (c) container for holding liquid metal. Chvorinov's Rule is summarized: TST = Cm(V/A)2. Heat of fusion is the amount of heat energy required to transform the metal from solid state to liquid state.17 What is a chill in casting? Answer. (a) The upper half of a sand casting mold is called which of the following? (a) cope.12 What does heat of fusion mean in casting? Answer.16 Identify the three sources of contraction in a metal casting after pouring. (3) viscosity of liquid metal. V = volume of casting. Answer. 10. Cm = constant. (b) 44 . The three contractions occur due to: (1) contraction of the molten metal after pouring. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. Hence.14 What is a eutectic alloy? Answer. (a) In casting. 10. a flask is which one of the following? (a) beverage bottle for foundrymen. and (3) thermal contraction in the solid state. or (d) metal which extrudes between the mold halves.1 10.11 What are some of the factors affecting the fluidity of a molten metal during pouring into a mold cavity? Answer. 10.3 Sand casting is which of the following types? (a) expendable mold. or (b) permanent mold. or (b) drag. and A = surface area of casting.15 What is the relationship known as Chvorinov's Rule in casting? Answer. (2) metal alloy composition. (2) solidification shrinkage during transformation of state from liquid to solid.10. Answer. Pure metals solidify at a single temperature equal to the melting point. The temperature is called the eutectic temperature. where the liquidus is a higher temperature than the solidus.

(c) liquidus.2 cm3 Volume of aluminum to be heated = 6283.4 In foundry work. (c) time between solidification and cooling to room temperature. Hf = heat of fusion. (c). Solution: Volume V = π D2h/4= π (40) 2(5)/4 = 6283. (b) ingot segregation.3 cm3 45 . (d) V. the V/A ratio of the riser should be which one of the following relative to the V/A ratio of the casting itself? (a) equal.2(1. (f) A riser in casting is described by which of the following (may be more than one answer)? (a) an insert in the casting that inhibits buoyancy of the core. and (d) top riser. (b) Hf. Assume that the amount of aluminum heated will be 5% more than needed to fill the mold cavity. a runner is which one of the following? (a) channel in the mold leading from the downsprue to the main mold cavity. (d).10. or (c) vertical channel into which molten metal is poured into the mold. (a) Total solidification time is defined as which one of the following? (a) time between pouring and complete solidification. (a) During solidification of an alloy when a mixture of solid and liquid metals are present. Answer.2 in this text. starting from a room temperature of 25°C. Answer. or (e) solidus. and V = volume of casting. Answer.3 J/g.7 10. (d) Chvorinov's Rule states that total solidification time is proportional to which one of the following quantities? (a) (A/V)n. Assume the specific heat has the same value for solid and molten aluminum. (b) greater. (c) side riser.05) = 6597. (d) mushy zone. Answer. The melting temperature of aluminum = 660°C and the pouring temperature will be 800°C. (b) gating system in which the sprue feeds directly into the cavity.9 10. Other properties can be obtained from Tables 4.1 and 4. the solid-liquid mixture is referred to as whic h one of the following? (a) eutectic composition. In a sand casting mold. or (c) smaller. (a) and (c). Answer. 10. where A = surface area of casting. (b) time between pouring and cooling to room temperature. Answer. Compute the amount of heat that must be added to the metal to heat it to the pouring temperature.8 10. (b) A riser that is completely enclosed within the sand mold and connected to the main cavity by a channel to feed the molten metal is called which of the following (may be more than one)? (a) blind riser. or (f) (V/A)2. (c) Tm.1 A disk 40 cm in diameter and 5 cm thick is to be casted of pure aluminum in an open mold operation. and (e) waste metal that is usually recycled. (d) source of molten metal to feed the casting and compensate for shrinkage during solidification. (c) metal that is not part of the casting.6 10.10 Problems Heating and Pouring 10. Answer. and (e).5 10. (e) V/A. The heat of fusion of aluminum = 389. Tm = melting temperature. or (d) time to give up the heat of fusion. (b) open riser. (b) foundryman who moves the molten metal to the mold.

8) 0.0 l/s = 1.2. and (c) the time required to fill the mold cavity.From Table 4.4 A mold has a downsprue of length = 6.88 J/g.71{558. with a diameter at the top = 3.093(1981 .2} = 19.1981)} = 213.5 = 78. density ρ = 2. Solution: (a) Velocity v = (2 x 32.4 cm.0 in. the cross-sectional area = 1.8 + 389.000 mm3/s Velocity v = (2 x 9815 x 175) 0. and (c) the time required to fill the mold cavity.35 s 10. It is desired to maintain a constant flow rate.84{177. Compute the amount of heat that must be added to the metal to heat it to a temperature of 2150 F for pouring. top and bottom.090(2150 .88(660-25) + 389.3 + 123. What area should be used at the base of the sprue to avoid aspiration of the molten metal? Solution: Flow rate Q = 1.26 + 80 + 15.2 x 12 x 6.2 A sufficient amount of pure copper is to be heated for casting a large plate in an open mold.000.000. The molten metal overflows the pouring cup and flows into the downsprue. Solution: Volume V = (20 x 10 x 3)(1 + 10%) = 600(1.000/741.5 = 1853 mm/s (b) Volume flow rate Q = vA = 1853 x 400 = 741.756 J 10.70 g/cm3 and specific heat C = 0.88(800-660)} = 17.0 in 2.5 = (3.3 + 0.5 = 34.812. W = 10 in.093 Btu/lbm-F in the solid state and 0.5 The flow rate of liquid metal into the downsprue of a mold = 1 liter/sec.096) 0. Determine what the area should be at the bottom of the sprue if its length = 8. Solution: Velocity at base v = (2gh) 0.200 mm3/s (c) Time to fill cavity MFT = V/Q = 1.1).7 Molten metal can be poured into the pouring cup of a sand mold at a steady rate of 1000 cm3/s. whose volume = 75 in3. At the top where the pouring cup leads into the downsprue.6 in/sec) = 0.3){0.1 in/sec (b) Volume flow rate Q = vA = 68. If the sprue is 25 cm long.3 The downsprue leading into the runner of a certain mold has a length = 175 mm. Assume that the amount of metal heated will be 10% more than needed to fill the mold cavity.70(6597.1 and 4. Determine: (a) the velocity of the molten metal flowing through the base of the downsprue.75) + 80 + 0. Determine: (a) the velocity of the molten metal flowing through the base of the downsprue.200 = 1. The cross-sectional area at the top of the sprue = 800 mm2 and its length = 175 mm. (b) the volume rate of flow.05 = 2. (b) the volume rate of flow.0 in.000/1854 = 540 mm2 10.265 Btu 10.6 The volume rate of flow of molten metal into the downsprue from the pouring cup is 50 in 3/sec.5 = (2 x 32.5 in2.636 in2 10.0/34. The cross-sectional area at the base of the sprue is 400 mm2. in order to avoid aspiration of the liquid metal.324 lbm/in 3.5 = 68.5 = 1854 mm/s Area at base A = 1.21 Cal/g. The mold cavity has a volume = 0.0 in 3 Assuming To = 75 °F and using Eq. determine the proper diameter at its base so as to maintain the same volume flow rate. The cross-section of the sprue is round.324 x 660{0.090 Btu/lbm-F in the liquid state. Solution: (a) Velocity v = (2 x 9815 x 175) 0. melting point = 1981 F. 10.2 x 12 x 8) 0. The plate has dimensions: L = 20 in.°C = 0. H = 0.0) 0. Properties of the metal are: density = 0.5 = (4636.435.6 in/sec Assuming volumetric continuity.082.2 sec. specific heat of the metal = 0.000. The cross-sectional area at the bottom of the sprue is 0. and heat of fusion = 80 Btu/lbm.°C Heat required = 2.05 in3/sec (c) Time to fill cavity MFT = V/Q = 75. and D = 3 in. The sprue leads into a horizontal runner which feeds the mold cavity.1) = 660.21} H = 58. (12. 46 .1 x 0.001 m3. area at base A = (50 in/sec)/(78.

178 cm 47 .9%. (c) the actual velocity and flow rate at the base of the sprue.000.51)/π = 5.049)(1-0.066)(1-0. area at base A = (1000 cm/s)/(221.0 in long.0) = 99. 100 mm on a side.5%.8 + 0. Determine the dimensions of the final casting after cooling to room temperature if the cast metal is aluminum. The cross-sectional area of the runner leading from the sprue also = 0.056) = 0. rearranging.6 in 2. riser. runner.0) + 0.8817 Linear contraction = (0.5 cm/s) = 4. Assume that the mold is full at the start of solidification and that shrinkage occurs uniformly in all directions.725 cm W = 125(0.0 in long before leading into the mold cavity.000(.5 = 221.0/3 = 33. indicating a loss of velocity due to friction in the sprue and runner.9 A mold cavity has the shape of a cube. solidification shrinkage is 4.6 in 2. Assume that the mold is full at the start of solidification and that shrinkage occurs uniformly in all directions.8 = 1.5(0.9589) = 19.6%.5 = 27.863 cm H = 20(0. and it is 8.0/27.8 During pouring into a sand mold. Solution: (a) Velocity v = (2 x 32.10 The cavity of a casting mold has dimensions: L = 250 mm.Solution: Velocity at base v = (2gh) 0.8817) 0. whose volume = 65 in 3.000.1 in/sec Flow rate Q = 68.000 mm3 Volume of casting V = 1. Solution: For copper. solid contraction during cooling = 5.9589) = 239.333 = 0.2 x 12 x 6.5 = 68. The downsprue is 6. D2 = 4A/π = 4(4.951)(.0 + 25. h0.8 in2 and at the base = 0. Determine the dimensions and volume of the final cube after cooling to room temperature if the cast metal is copper.025) = 879.978 h = 1. Solution: For aluminum. solidification shrinkage = 6.0 in/sec (d) v = (2 x 32. Its cross-sectional area at the top = 0.0/0.3. It takes a total of 3.5 = (2 x 981 x 25) 0.5 cm/s Assuming volumetric continuity.0 + 0.0 .51 cm2 Area of sprue A = π D2/4.675) 0. Total volumetric contraction = (1-0.6 = 55.000.000(1-0.333 = 95. This is more than the theoretical time required.82 mm 10. Volume of cavity V = (100) 3 = 1. the molten metal can be poured into the downsprue at a constant flow rate during the time it takes to fill the mold. and (d) the loss of head in the gating system due to friction.9589) = 119.8 h0.0 sec to fill the entire mold (including cavity.9589 Final casting dimensions: L = 250(0.74 cm2 D = 2.0) 0.9782 = 3.075) = 1.5 = 55.2 x 12 x h) 0. (b) the total volume of the mold.6)(6.0 in/sec.60 = 40. solid contraction during cooling is 7. W = 125 mm and H = 20 mm.1 x 0.0 in3 (c) Actual flow rate Q = 99.8 in3/sec (b) Total V = 65.6%.39 cm 10.675 mm3 Dimension on each side of cube = (879.6(8.086 in Shrinkage 10. The volume of the riser located along the runner near the mold cavity = 25 in 3. Find: (a) the theoretical velocity and flow rate at the base of the downsprue. and sprue.5 = 55.914 in Head loss = 6.914 = 2. At the end of pouring the sprue is filled and there is negligible metal in the pouring cup.0 in3/sec Actual velocity v = 33.

072) = 0.9664 Shrink rule elongation = (0.1 mm/m 10.0441 .03927) = 12.333 = 0.5%. Express your answer in terms of millimeters of elongation per meter of length compared to a standard rule. The gray cast iron has a volumetric contraction of -2.0 min/cm2.75 in. which means it expands during solidification. The casting is a flat plate whose length = 30 cm.030) = 0.75%.333 = 0.8786 Linear contraction = (0. the mold constant in Chvorinov's Rule is known to be Cm = 4. Express your answer in terms of decimal fraction inches of elongation per foot of length compared to a standard rule.9981) -1 = 1.8786) 0.0348 Elongation of a 12 inch rule = 12(1. solidification shrinkage = -2.9 in Chvorinov's Rule.040)(1-0.99425 Linear contraction = (0.0441 Elongation of a 1 meter rule = 1000(1. Determine how long it will take for the casting to solidify.750(1.00192 .9981 Shrink rule elongation = (0.03927) = 0. Determine the dimensions of the mold cavity to take shrinkage into account. solid contraction = 7.1.0) = 1. Assume that shrinkage occurs uniformly in all directions.9622) -1 = 1.0) = 0.9578 Shrink rule elongation = (0.15 In the casting of steel under certain mold conditions.2%.8909) 0.12 Determine the scale of a "shrink rule" that is to be used by pattern-makers for brass which is 70% copper and 30% zinc.49 min 10.471 in and t = 0. based on previous experience. Total volumetric contraction = (1-0.1.0% carbon steel are: diameter = 12. solid contraction during cooling is 7. width = 10 cm. Solution: Low carbon steel: solidification shrinkage = 2.418 in/ft 10.072) = 0.9622 Oversize factor for mold = (0.10.080) = 0.16 Solve for total solidification time in the previous problem only using a value of n = 1.14 The final dimensions of a disk-shaped casting of 1. Solution: For 1% carbon steel.9025) 0.99425) 0. Solution: For brass.0%. Total volumetric contraction = (1+0.0 in and thickness = 0.045)(1-0.0275)(1-0. solid contraction during cooling = 3.13 Determine the scale of a "shrink rule" that is to be used by pattern-makers for gray cast iron.333 = 0. solidification shrinkage is 4.779 in Solidification Time and Riser Design 10. What adjustment must be made in the units of Cm? 48 .00192 Elongation of a 1 meter rule = 1000(1.03927 Mold cavity dimensions: D = 12.0348 .00(1.92 mm/m 10.025)(1-0. solidification shrinkage is 4.0) = 44. Total volumetric contraction = (1-0.8909 Linear contraction = (0.0%.0%. and thickness = 20 mm. Solution: For gray CI.5%.2%.1.9025 Linear contraction = (0. Solution: Volume V = 30 x 10 x 2 = 600 cm3 Area A = 2(30 x 10 + 30 x 2 + 10 x 2) = 760 cm2 Chvorinov’s Rule: TST = Cm (V/A)2 = 4(600/760) 2 = 2.9664) -1 = 1.11 Determine the scale of a "shrink rule" that is to be used by pattern-makers for low carbon steel. Total volumetric contraction = (1-0. Express your answer in terms of millimeters of elongation per meter of length compared to a standard rule.5%.9578) -1 = 1.333 = 0. solid contraction during cooling is 8.

000/15.115) 2 = 171.53) = 42.374) = 4. 10.732)/4 = 42.5 s = 2.0 min to completely solidify.77 TST = 2. V = W/ρ = 20/0.63 = 0. (a) Determine the value of the mold constant Cm in Chvorinov's Rule. and (c) the total solidification time of the lighter casting.24 min.343 mm3 Area A = 2π D2/4 + π DL = π (30) 2/2 + π (30)(50) = 6126 mm2 V/A = 35. Another cylindrical-shaped casting with the same diameter-to-length ratio weighs 12 lb.374) 2 + π (3.53/95. Weight is proportional to volume: V = (12/20)(70.9 .0 in diameter and weighs 20 lb.732 in (c) V = π D2L/4 = π (3. (b) If the same alloy and mold type were used.03(. This casting takes 6. find the total solidification time for a cylindrical casting in which the diameter = 30 mm and length = 50 mm.713. 49 .63 in 2 (V/A) = 70.61 = 0.7353) 2 = 11.374)(4. TST = 11.000 = 8.622) 2 = 4. The diameter of the disk = 500 mm and its thickness = 20 mm.374) 2(4.4025D Volume V = π D2L/4 = π (4) 2(1.53/4π = 5.926.Solution: Chvorinov’s Rule: TST = Cm (V/A)1.622 in.115 mm2 Chvorinov’s Rule: TST = Cm (V/A)2 = 2. If Cm = 2.18 In casting experiments performed using a certain alloy and type of sand mold. Determine: (a) the mold constant in Chvorinov's Rule. ρ = 490 lb/ft3 = 0.000 mm2 (V/A) = 125.374 in L = 1. Solution: (a) Volume V = (50) 3 = 125. The cube was 50 mm on a side.32 in 3)/1.4025D)/4 = 1.333 mm Cm = TST/(V/A)2 = 155/(8.2836 lb/in3 Weight W = ρ V.27 min.32 in 3 A = 2π D2/4 + π DL = 0. how long will it take the casting to solidify? Solution: Volume V = π D2t/4 = π (500) 2(20)/4 = 3.1015 = 38.53 in3 Length L = 70.5π (3.42 in 3 D = (38.991/424.42) 0.732) = 68. and (b) the dimensions.53 in 3 Volume V = π D2L/4 = π (4) 2L/4 = 4π L = 70.926.232 s/mm2 (b) Cylindrical casting with D = 30 mm and L = 50 mm.0 sec/mm2 in Chvorinov's Rule. Solution: (a) For steel.0/5.04 = 0.1015D 3 D3 = (42. Volume V = π D2L/4 = π (30) 2(50)/4 = 35.77) 2 = 74.61) = 95.03 min/in2 (b) Find dimensions of smaller cylindrical casting with same D/L ratio and w = 12 lb.9 = 2.04 in 2 V/A = 42.61 in Area A = 2π D2/4 + π DL = 2π (4) 2/4 + π (4)(5.333 = 3.19 A steel casting has a cylindrical geometry with 4.0/(0.86 min 10.3 s = 1.2836 = 70.32/68.32 in 3 D/L ratio = 4.9 = 4(600/760) 1.000 mm3 Area A = 6 x (50) 2 = 15.991 mm3 Area A = 2π D2/4 + π Dt = π (500) 2/2 + π (500)(20) = 424. it took 155 sec for a cube-shaped casting to solidify. Note: The density of steel = 490 lb/ft3.232 (5.333) 2 = 2.55 min The units for Cm become min/in 1.7375 Cm = 6.strange but consistent with Chvorinov’s empirical rule. This casting is made of the same steel and the same conditions of mold and pouring were used.343/6126 = 5.0(3. thus L = 1.17 A disk-shaped part is to be cast out of aluminum.4025(3. 10.

0 dm3. (b) Based on the results of part (a).5 min/cm2 = 350 min/dm2.084 dm Cylinder area A = 2π D2/4 + π DL = 2π (1. (1) Sphere volume V = π D3/6 = 1.02778Cm (3) Cube: V = L3 = (1) 3 = 1.084)(1. Note.084) = 5.1667 dm Chvorinov’s Rule TST = (0.241) 2 = 4.536 = 0. compute the total solidification time for each casting. make the substitution 10 cm = 1 decimeter (1 dm) (a) Chvorinov’s Rule: TST = Cm(V/A)2 (1) Sphere volume V = π D3/6 = π (1) 3/6 = π /6 dm3 Sphere area A = π D2 = π (1) 2 = π dm2 V/A = (π /6)/ π = 1/6 = 0.524 dm3 = 524 cm3. (c) If Cm = 3. which geometric element would make the best riser? (c) If Cm = 3. D = (1. (a) Determine the relative solidification times for each geometry. and (3) cube V = 1.1667 dm Chvorinov’s Rule TST = (0.910 dm3.0. that the volumes of the three geometries are different: (1) sphere V = 0. compute the total solidification time for each casting.0 dm3. (2) a cylinder. (2) a cylinder with diameter and length both = 10 cm. then TST = 0.0/4. (b) Based on the results of part (a).333 = 1.1667) 2Cm = 0. D3 = 4/π = 1.5 min/cm2 in Chvorinov's Rule.2067) 2Cm = 0.0 dm3 = 1000cm3. 10.25π = 0. Accordingly.1806) 2Cm = 0.25π dm3 Cylinder area A = 2π D2/4 + π DL = 2π (1) 2/4 + π (1)(1) = π /2 + π = 1. however.084) 2/4 + π (1. Solution: For ease of computation.1667) 2Cm = 0. Thus 1000 cm3 = 1. in which the L/D ratio = 1.7854 dm3 = 785.2067 dm Chvorinov’s Rule TST = (0. and (3) a cube.02778Cm (2) Cylinder volume V = π D2H/4 = π (1) 2(1)/4 = π /4 = 0. For all three geometries. The same casting alloy is used in the three cases. The same casting alloy is used in the three cases.5π dm2 V/A = .10. make the substitution 10 cm = 1 decimeter (1 dm). and (3) a cube with each side = 10 cm.0 = 0.910) 0.536 dm2 V/A = 1.333 = 1.1667 dm Chvorinov’s Rule TST = (0.273) 0.723 min. which geometric element would make the best riser? (c) If Cm = 3.0428Cm (2) Cylinder volume V = π D2H/4 = π D3/4 = 1.5π = 0.02778(350) = 9.25π /1.1667) 2Cm = 0.5 min/cm2 in Chvorinov's Rule.21 The total solidification times of three casting shapes are to be compared: (1) a sphere. (a) Determine the relative solidification times for each geometry.0/5. cylinder V = 0.0 dm2 V/A = 1. D3 = 6/π = 1.0 dm3 Cube area = 6L2 = 6(1) 2 = 6. the volume V = 1000 cm3.836 dm2 V/A = 1.4 cm3.0/6.273 dm3 Therefore.0326Cm 50 .02778Cm (b) All three shapes are equivalent as risers. D = H = (1.0 dm3.1806 dm Chvorinov’s Rule TST = (0.241 dm Sphere area A = π D2 = π (1. Solution: For ease of computation. we might revise our answer to part (b) and choose the sphere on the basis that it wastes less metal than the other shapes.20 The total solidification times of three casting shapes are to be compared: (1) a sphere with diameter = 10 cm.836 = 0.

7 mm2 D = 47. (c) Given that Cm = 3.5 min.667 = (4V/π )0.0866 Casting TST = Cm(7. L = 4V/π D2 = 4V/π (4V/π )0.0/6.0866) 2 = 3.800 = 7. determine the dimensions of the riser so that it will take 30% longer for the riser to solidify. Cylinder volume V = π D2L/4. determine the diameter-to.333. For a given cylinder volume.75(10.1667D)2 = 0.0326(350) = 11.02778Cm (b) Sphere would be the best riser.0428(350) = 14.5236D 3 Riser area A = π D2 = 3. The casting is a rectangular plate. Solution: Casting volume V = tL2 = 0.5) = 4.001936 = 2259.length ratio that will maximize the time to solidify. L = 4V/π D2 Cylinder area A = 2π D2/4 + π DL Substitute the expression for L from the volume equation in the area equation: A = π D2/2 + π DL = π D2/2 + π D(4V/π D2) = π D2/2 + 4V/D Differentiate the area equation with respect to D: dA/dD = π D .5 min/cm2 = 350 min/dm3 Sphere: TST = 0.0 dm3.0866) 2 = 0.25 times its diameter. L = 1. width = 100 mm. since V/A ratio is greatest.02778(350) = 9.25(3.24 A cylindrical riser is to be designed for a sand casting mold.1416D 2 V/A = 0.000 mm3 Casting area A = 2(200 x 100 + 200 x 18 + 100 x 18) = 50.(3) Cube: V = L3 =1. π D = 4V/D2 D3 = 4V/π D = (4V/π )0. optimal values are D = L = (4V/π )0. the V/A ratio must be maximized. Solution: Casting volume V = LWt = 200(100)(18) = 360.5236D 3/3. each side = 10 in and thickness = 0.375 min = 0.333 Thus. If the total solidification time of the casting itself is known to be 3. and therefore the optimal D/L ratio = 1.0) 2 + 4(10.0 min/in2 in Chvorinov's Rule.0 dm2 V/A = 1.4V/D2 = 0 Rearranging.0697(0.333 From the previous expression for L.0 dm Cube area = 6L2 = 6(1) 2 = 6.1667 dm Chvorinov’s Rule TST = (0.98 min Cylinder: TST = 0.22 A cylindrical riser is to be used for a sand casting mold. and Cm = 16. The length of the cylinder is to be 1.50 min Cm = 3. and thickness = 18 mm.5 mm 10.800 mm2 V/A = 360. Solution: To maximize TST.001936D 2 D2 = 4.000/50.0 = 0. determine the diameter of the riser so that it will take 25% longer for the riser to solidify.0) 2 = 75 in3 Casting area A = 2L2 + 4Lt = 2(10.41 min Cube: TST = 0.375/0.23 A riser in the shape of a sphere is to be designed for a sand casting mold.75 inch.0697 min/mm2 Riser volume V = π D3/6 = 0.5/(7.1667D TST = 1. If the metal is cast iron.0)(0.0 10.75) = 230.1667) 2Cm = 0.0 in 2 51 . substituting in the equation for D that we have developed.1416D 2 = 0. with length = 200 mm.72 min 10. The casting is a square plate.

5 minute longer to freeze than the casting itself.0 = 61. in which the units are inches.5 + 2.1786D Riser TST = 16.75π D2 V/A = 0.21 min D2 = 2.5(D/6) 2 = 0. Solution: Casting volume V = V(5 in x 10 in rectangular plate) + V(5 in.25π D3/1.3261 Casting TST = 16(0.5 = 2.81 + 0.V/A = 75/230 = 0.5 + 9.657 .4π (1.70 min Riser TST = 1.3125π D3/1.5π (3) + 1.3261) 2 = 1.817 + 7.5π D2 V/A = .305) 2 = 1.5π (5) 2/4) . The casting geometry is illustrated in Figure P10.3 x 6) + 2(.5 .081) = 2.657 in 3 V(3 in x 6 in rectangular cutout) = 3 x 6 x 1 = 18. determine the dimensions of the riser so that the riser will take 0.21/0.1786D)2 = 16.5) 2π /4 + 2.817 in 3 V(upright tube) = 3. and L = 2.5(0.065 in.70) = 2.5102D 2 = 2.305 in Casting TST = 19. half disk) = 0.5 x 1.5 in 3 V(5 in.5π D2 + 1.266 in 2 D = 2.081 in H = 1. 52 .31 = 19.5102 = 4.25π D2(1.25π D3 Riser area A = π DL + 2π D2/4 = π D2 + 0.03189)D2 = 0.5 min/in2 in Chvorinov's Rule.0 in 3 Total V = 62.5417 = 4.5π + 12. If Cm = 19.974/203.5) + 2(6+3) + 2(5 x 12.36 in 2 V/A = 61.25 A cylindrical riser with diameter-to-length ratio = 1. V(5 in x 10 in rectangular plate) = 5 x 12.065 in. half disk) + V(upright tube) .5417D 2 D2 = 2.21 min Riser volume V = π D2H/4 = 0.25D) = 0.30(1.31/0.2(1.31 min Riser volume V = π D2L/4 = π D3/4 = 0.0 = 62. 10.0 is to be designed for a sand casting mold.18.3316) 0.75π D2 = 0.36 = 0.5 = 2.0(0.5π D2 = D/6 TST = Cm(V/A)2 2.3125π D3 Riser area A = 2π D2/4 + π DH = 0.25.81 min Riser design: specified TST = 1.602 in.25π D2 = 1.V(3 in x 6 in rectangular cutout).974 in 3 Total A = 1 x 5 + 1(12.0(0.5π (5) 2(1)/4 = 9.5π (3+1) = 203.0π (2.3316 D = (4.25(2.5π D2 = 1.5) 2/4) = 7.5) 2/4 .

Common die cast metals include: zinc. Which die casting machines usually have a higher production rate.9 What is flash in die casting? Answer.3 What is a chaplet? Answer.10 What is the difference between true centrifugal casting and semicentrifugal casting? 53 . a match-plate pattern consists of the two split patterns attached to opposite sides of a plate. aluminum. (4) collapsibility . and (2) permanent mold processes. The usual properties are: (1) strength . brass. A split pattern is a pattern that consists of two pieces.ability to resist cracking and buckling when in contact with the molten metal. 11. This mold has greater permeability than a plaster mold. The Antioch process refers to the making of the mold.8 What are the most common metals processed using die casting? Answer. 11.6 What is the difference between vacuum permanent-mold casting and vacuum molding? Answer.4 What properties determine the quality of a sand mold for sand casting? Answer. 11.ability of the mold to allow hot air and gases to escape from the cavity. lead. Flash is a thin portion at the exterior of a casting that results from molten metal being squeezed into the spaces between the die halves of the mold at the parting line. cold-chamber or hot-chamber. and magnesium. What is the difference between a split pattern and a match.plate pattern? Answer.2 There are various types of patterns used in sand casting.5 What is the Antioch process? Answer. 11.ability to maintain shape in the face of the flowing metal. (3) thermal stability . 11. 11. Chaplets are metal supports of various designs used to hold the core in place in the sand mold.chamber die casting machines require molten metal to be ladled into the chamber from an external source. (5) reusability . and why? Answer. Vacuum molding is sand casting in which the sand mold is held together by vacuum pressure rather than a chemical binder. The mold is 50% sand and 50% plaster heated in an autoclave and then dried. (2) permeability .ability of the mold to give way during shrinkage of the casting.1 Name the two basic categories of casting processes? Answer.11 METAL CASTING PROCESSES Review Questions 11. Vacuum permanent-mold casting is a form of low. 11.7 11. tin.pressure casting in which a vacuum is used to draw molten metal into the cavity. Hot-chamber machines are faster because cold. The two categories are: (1) expendable mold processes.can the sand be reused to make other molds? 11. or into the clearances around the cores and ejector pins.

(2) cold shuts. runners. The mold is rotated so that centrifugal force is used to distribute the molten metal to the exterior of the mold so that the density of the final metal is greater at the outer sections. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (5) microporosity. (3) surface cleaning.named? (a) green is the color of the mold. Answer. and (6) hot tearing.2 In sand casting. (d) 11.13 What are some of the general defects encountered in casting processes? Answer. Answer.6 Which of the following casting processes are expendable mold operations (more than one)? (a) investment casting.3 11.Answer. or (c) smaller. (5) repair if needed. (b) 11. or (d) mold is dry. These operations include: (1) trimming. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. Cupolas are used for melting cast irons. and flash are removed. (b) moisture is contained in the mold. 11. (b) same size. A cupola is a vertical cylindrical furnace equipped with a tapping spout near its base. (c) upward force = Wm + Wc. the volumetric size of the pattern is which of the following relative to the cast part? (a) bigger. Answer. (b) die casting.1 Which one of the following casting processes is most widely used (one answer)? (a) centrifugal casting. 11. the shape is solid. In true centrifugal casting. (6) heat treatment. (b) low pressure casting. (a) 11. or (d) upward force = Wm . (d) shell molding.Wc. (d) sand casting. (e) slush casting.5 Given that Wm = weight of the molten metal displaced by a core and Wc = weight of the core. (4) inspection. See Article 11. 54 . (b) SiO. and (7) machining.12 What are some of the operations required of sand castings after removal from the mold? Answer. 11.Wc. an example is a railway wheel. or (e) shell casting. risers.11 What is a cupola ? Answer. or (d) SiSO 4. (c) sand casting. (3) cold shots. the buoyancy force is which one of the following? (a) downward force = Wm + Wc. (c) SiO 2. all correct answers must be given. (c) mold is cured. 11. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. (c) investment casting. For each question.4 Silica sand has which one of the following compositions? (a) Al2O3. In semicentrifugal casting. Answer. Answer. (4) shrinkage cavity. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. (2) core removal. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 28 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct).6. a tubular mold is used and a tubular part is produced. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. (c) For which of the following reasons is a green mold so. (b) downward force = Wm .1. (d) 11. and (f) vacuum molding. General defects include: (1) misruns. in which the sprues.

and (e) "pipe" formation. Answer. (b) CaSO 4-H2O. (c) lost-foam process. (d). and (f).11 Which of the following casting processes are permanent mold operations (more than one)? (a) centrifugal casting. (e) tungsten. and (e). (d) sand casting. Answer. (d) microporosity. Answer. (d) tin. or (e) zinc alloys. (c) 11. (b) casting operation used to make artificial sea shells. or (d) zinc. and (c) shell molding. (c) 55 . (d) larger parts can be casted.Answer. (e) 11. (d) shell molding. (b) bronze. (c) casting process in which the mold is a thin shell of sand binded by a thermosetting resin. or (d) SiO 2. (c) higher production rates. 11. (c) 11. (b) investment casting. and (f) zinc. Answer. the mold is made of which one of the following materials? (a) Al2O3. (c) metal solidifies before filling the cavity. and (e) mold can be reused. (b) cast iron. (c) steel. (e). (b) cast iron.10 Which of the following qualifies as a precision casting process (more than one)? (a) ingot casting. (b) 11. (b) higher melting temperature metals. (c) plaster mold casting. 11. Answer. and (f). (c) steel.14 Cupolas are furnaces used to melt which of the following metals (choose one best answer)? (a) aluminum. (a). (b) full-mold process.8 Investment casting is also known by which one of the following names? (a) fast-payback molding. (a). (a).9 In plaster mold casting. (c) SiC. (a). (b) metal is not properly poured into the downsprue. 11. or (e) lost-wax process. (b) and (c). (c). Answer.12 Which of the following metals would typically be die casted (more than one)? (a) aluminum. (c).15 A misrun is which one of the following defects in casting? (a) globules of metal becoming entrapped in the casting. (c) low pressure casting. (c) cast iron. 11. (d) cast steel. (e) slush casting. Answer.16 Which one of the following casting metals is most important commercially? (a) aluminum and its alloys. (b) 11. (d). (b) die casting. Answer.7 Shell molding is which one of the following? (a) casting operation in which the molten metal has been poured out after a thin shell has been solidified in the mold. Answer. Answer. (b). or (d) sand casting operation in which the pattern is a shell rather than a solid form.13 Which of the following are advantages of die casting over sand casting (more than one)? (a) better surface finish. (c). and (f) vacuum permanent-mold casting. and (f). 11. (d) lost pattern process.

184 g = 10. and inside diameter = 12.4).0 in. It is used in the casting of a cast iron pump housing.6 A true centrifugal casting operation is to be performed in a horizontal configuration to make cast iron pipe sections. outside diameter = 8.82 lb.313 lb/in3.82) = 10. Solution: From Table 13. What is the weight of the final casting? Ignore considerations of shrinkage.313) = 101. GF = R(π N/30) 2/g = 7.82 g/cm3 Fb = Wm .85 lb.3698 = 1302 cm3.6V = 6.1. density of brass ρ = 0. (11. Probably 3 or 4 caplets would be better to achieve stability.6 g/cm3. If the rotational speed of the pipe = 1000 rev/min.88 lb. determine the minimum number of caplets that should be placed: (a) beneath the core. If the volume of the core = 325 in. and wall 56 . The lengths will be 1.4 = 0.815 = 149 N.0 in 3. Determine the buoyancy force in Newtons tending to lift the core during pouring.5( π (1000)/30) 2/981 = 83. Solution: Core volume V = 20/1605. Fb = Wm .Wc = 7. Solution: Sand density = 1. and several other caplets are placed above the core to resist the buoyancy force during pouring.8 11.Problems Buoyancy Force 11.9. (b) Wm = 325(. 11. 3.01246 m3. Solution: From Eq. and (b) above the core. 11.1 An aluminum-copper alloy casting is made in a sand mold using a sand core that weighs 20 kg. Determine the buoyancy force that will tend to lift the core during pouring. Weight of displaced Al-Cu = 35.22V = 23 kg = 23.18.184 kg Centrifugal Casting 11. Solution: From Table 13.000 g V = 3698 cm3. determine the G-factor.2 A sand core located inside a mold cavity has a volume of 157.11 = 31. Fb = 40..3 Caplets are used to support a sand core inside a sand mold cavity.058) = 18. At least 2 caplets are required beneath to resist the weight of the core. Fb = 101. Several caplets are located beneath the core to support it before pouring. Difference = (35. and the metal poured is brass.73 . Weight of the final casting W = 1302(7. The volume of the mold cavity forming the outside surface of the casting = 5000 cm3. A total of 9 caplets are required above the core to resist the buoyancy force.85 = 82. 11.26) = 40.20) x 9.73 lb.5 cm.71 lb.82 .82V . steel casting density = 7. The sections will have a length = 42.17 kg. density of cast iron ρ = 0. (a) Wc = 325(0.1.17 .0 cm.058) = 9.26 lb/in3.5 m with outside diameter = 15. The design of the caplets and the manner in which they are placed in the mold cavity surface allows each caplet to sustain a force of 10 lbs. 3 Cavity volume V = 5000 cm Volume of casting V = 5000 .0 in.4 A sand core used to form the internal surfaces of a steel casting experiences a buoyancy force of 23 kg. Wm = 157(0.5 A horizontal true centrifugal casting operation will be used to make copper tubing.1.106 lb.Wc Wc = 157(0.

5484 kg)(6. but its weight would be zero. Volume of molten metal V = 0. in the G-factor equation (GF = v2/Rg).125)(700)/30 = 9.0 m. the rotational speed is not sufficient. solidification shrinkage = 4.252 .(. Thus.049)(1-.4586 m/s)2/(6. what is the centrifugal force per square meter (Pa) imposed by the molten metal on the inside wall of the mold? Solution: (a) Using the outside wall diameter of the casting.5 = 913.163) 2/(. (b) Use 1.0) = π ((7.163 m/s GF = (9. (a) determine the G-factor on the molten metal.81 = 34. and ID = 12 cm.. If the rotational speed of the pipe = 700 rev/min.125 x 9.075) = 0. Is the operation likely to be successful? Solution: Using outside wall of casting.38 Since the G-factor is less than 60.0/4 = .011074/(1-.9 If a true centrifugal casting operation were to be performed in a space station circling the Earth.8) = 68.5484 kg v = π RN/30 Use mean radius R = (7. If the rotational speed of the pipe = 500 rev/min.81 kg-m/s2.62 cm3 Mass m = (8.thickness = 0.252 .75 x 10-2 m) = 338.4585 m/s Centrifugal force per square meter on mold wall = Fc/A where Fc = mv2/R Fc = (0.45 ft/sec.333)(500)/30 = 17. (b) When operating at this speed. D = 15 cm N = (30/π )(2g x 70/15) .54 (b) G-factor is sufficient for a successful casting operation.55 N)/(15π x 10-4 m2) = 0. Thus. Taking these factors into account.5(8)/12 = 0.4 g = 0.1. OD = 15 cm.222) = 0.0) = 63.9/9.7 rev/min.25 m.0 cm of mold wall length as basis of area calculations.011074 m3 From Table 12.7)/30 = 645. (c) Volume of final product after solidification and cooling is V = (.50 in. R = 0. (a) Determine the required rotational speed in order to obtain a G-factor of 70.86 cm/s = 6.25-.Ri2)(1. determine the G-factor.03) 2)π x 1.5 + 6. and the operation is likely to be unsuccessful.01259 m3 11.2) = 28.9 kg-m/s2 Given that 1 N = 9.333 ft.55 N Fc/A = (34. which is equal to the inside wall diameter of the mold.45) 2/(. The tubes have a length = 1.(6) 2)(1.8 m/s2 v = π RN/30 = π (.75 cm v = π (6.62g/cm3)(63. 11.0)/2 = 6. Fc = 338. how would weightlessness affect the process? Solution: The mass of molten metal would be unaffected by the absence of gravity.7331(104) N/m2 = 7331 Pa 11. (b) Is the rotational speed sufficient to avoid "rain?" (c) What volume of molten metal must be poured into the mold to make the casting if solidification shrinkage and contraction after solidification are considered? Solution: (a) GF = v2/Rg g = 9.333 x 32.62 cm3) = 548. GF = v2/Rg = (17. Area of this length of mold wall A = π DoL = π (15 cm)(1 cm) = 15π cm2 = 15π (10-4) m2 Volume of cast metal V = π (Ro2 . and wall thickness = 15 mm. diameter = 0.8 True centrifugal casting operation is performed horizontally to make large diameter copper tube sections.5) 2 . v = π RN/30 = π (.75)(913.9% and solid thermal contraction = 7.25π (. GF would theoretically go to infinity if g = 0.7 A horizontal true centrifugal casting process is used to make brass bushings with dimensions: L = 10 cm. it should be possible to force the metal against the walls of the mold in centrifugal 57 .5% for copper.

10 A horizontal true centrifugal casting process is used to make aluminum rings with dimensions: L = 5 cm. and from Table 10. N = 30(2g x GF/D).5%.7 rev/min.10(b). this all assumes that the metal is inside the mold and rotating with it.4 N Fc/A = (1114. (b) Rotational speed would be the same as in part (a) because mass does not enter the computation of rotational speed.005)(1-.25 cm = 0. 11. Determine the rotational speed that will provide a G-factor = 60.7 Pa (d) The G-factor of 60 would probably result in a successful casting operation. D = Do = 65 cm.2 cm3 11. g = 9.81 kg-m/s2. 11.9 g = 19.1/9. However. (a) Determine the rotational speed that will provide a G-factor = 60.Ri2)L = π (32.3125 m v = π (31.25)(406.4 cm3 Given that the molten metal shrinkage = 0.4 cm3 Density of steel ρ = 7. 11.0 in and outside diameter = 6. determine the G-factor and (c) centrifugal force per square meter (Pa) on the mold wall..5/π = 1237. Use g = 981 cm/s2.2%.0) = 2454.5 m. At what speed must the tube be rotated during the operation in order to achieve these specifications? 58 .9 cm/s = 13. (b) Suppose that the ring were made out of steel instead of aluminum.914. In the absence of gravity.07 m.302)(5) = 2454.0 in.8957) = 2740.1021 m2 Volume of cast metal V = π (Ro2 .52 .casting without the nuisance of “raining” inside the cavity.8957 = 0. determine the volume of molten metal that must be poured into the mold.316 kg v = π RN/30 Use mean radius R = (65 + 60)/4 = 31.(60/2) 2)(5. Solution: D = 70 mm = 0. The pipe has length = 0.07) .12 A horizontal true centrifugal casting process is used to make lead pipe for chemical plants. the total volumetric contraction is 1 .316 kg)(13. If the rotational speed computed in that problem were used in the steel casting operation. outside diameter = 70 mm. Area of this length of mold wall A = π DoL = π (65 cm)(5 cm) = 1021 cm2 = 0.1 kg-m/s2 Given that 1 N = 9.4 rev/min. and ID = 60 cm.7 N/m2 = 10.4 N)/(0.8 x 60/.0 in at the bottom.4 cm3) = 19.299 m/s)2/(0. Solution: Volume of final casting V = π (Ro2 . the solidification shrinkage for steel = 3% and the solid contraction during cooling = 7.315.5/π = 406. (11. and the solidification shrinkage and solid contraction after freezing can be determined from Table 10.4/(0.11 For the steel ring of preceding Problem 11.932. N = 406.13 A vertical true centrifugal casting process is used to make tube sections with length = 10. and thickness = 6.1.914.5/π = 30(2 x 9.5 in at the top and 5. Fc = 10.Ri2)(L) = π ((65/2) 2 .3125 m) = 10.5 percent.1021 m2) = 10.4)/30 = 1329.5/π = 30(2 x 981 x 60/65) .4 rev/min (c) Use 5 cm ring length as basis of area calculations. there would be a problem in pouring the molten metal into the mold cavity and getting it to adhere to the mold wall as the mold begins to rotate. given that the liquid shrinkage is 0. OD = 65 cm.1043 The required starting volume of molten metal V = 2454.072) = 1 . With no gravity the liquid metal would not be forced against the lower surface of the mold to initiate the centrifugal action. (d) Would this rotational speed result in a successful operation? Solution: (a) Use inside diameter of mold in Eq.932.87 g/cm3 Mass m = (7.(1-.03)(1-.0 mm.1.81 = 1114.8 m/s2 N = 30(2g x GF/D).299 m/s Centrifugal force per square meter on mold wall = Fc/A where Fc = mv2/R Fc = (19.5). The inside diameter of the tube = 5.87g/cm3)(2454.

92/(Rt2-.8 x 0.2 x 12 x 15/((3.216y) .005625) = (52.6) to make the computation of N: N = (30/π )(2gL/(Rt2-Rb2).2 x . Solution: L = 200 mm = 0.5 = 732. Rb = 150/2 = 75 mm = 0. thus 1000π /30 = (11592/((3.8333 ft Rt = 5.608y) .15 A vertical true centrifugal casting process is used to cast brass tubing that is 15.36 (3.304-y) 2).6 in 3 (4.915 in 2 Ri = 3.0) = 239.3042 . = 0.085 Ri2 = 16.384 in.5 ((3.y2). Rb = 3.0.02814 3.6/15π = 5. determine the inside diameters at the top and bottom of the tubing if the total weight of the final casting = 75.0 .0 in.y = 3.08399 m = 83. Rt = 3.2/(Rt2-.(3.768 in.304+y) 2-(3.5 Given N = 1000.y.5 = . If the rotational speed during solidification is 500 rpm. = 0.3042 + 6.080 in.50 in.Ri2)(15.5 = 1.20833 ft N = (30/π )(2 x 32.Solution: Use Eq.5 = 9.5 = 500π /30 = 52.02814 (3.007055 Rt = 0.005625 = 3.3042 + 6. Db = 6. Defects and Design Considerations 11.0 in long and whose outside diameter = 8.208332).5 = (13.99 mm.02814 y = . determine the inside diameter at the top of the bushing if the diameter at the bottom is 150 mm.5 = 1.005625 + 0.Ri2)L = π (4. Volume of casting V = 75.608y .92/(Rt2-.00143 Rt2 = . The larger component has the shape of a dish sink and the second component is a flat cover that is attached to the first component to create an enclosed space for the machine parts.304 + y and Rb = Ri .5/1000π = 1.608y + y2 .14 A vertical true centrifugal casting process is used to produce bushings that are 200 mm long and 200 mm in outside diameter. where y = one-half the difference between Rt and Rb.304 .5/2 = 2.313 = 239.3042 + 6.0/.313 lb/in3 (Table 11.7 rev/min 11.5 = 500 rev/min (3. N = (30/π )(2gL/(Rt2-Rb2).0752).6 in 3 Assume the inside wall of the casting is straight from top to bottom (an approximation of the parabolic shape).8333/(.304+y) 2-(3.5 = 1.304+y) 2-(3. density ρ = 0.001430 = 0.304 .92/2741. 11.5.080 = 3. Sand casting is used to produce the two castings.5 = 30(11592) . = 0. N = (30/π )(2gL/(Rt2-Rb2).02 .448 in. If the speed of rotation during solidification is 1000 rpm.5 L = 10 in.2 m.16 The housing for a certain machinery product is made of two components. The average inside radius Ri = (Rt + Rb)/2 Volume V = π (Ro2 .007055) .085 = 10.304 in Let Rt = Ri + y = 3.635 (y) .75 in.36) 2 = 2741. The foreman complains that the thickness of the parts are too thin.5 = (30/π )(2 x 32. both aluminum castings.3.1).304-y) 2)). (11.5 = (30/π )(2 x 9. and that is the Dt = 6.02 .224 in.304-y) 2)).5 N = (30/π )(3.02814 (2 x 6.02814 (3.608y + y2)).56 Rt2-.0/2 = 2. 59 .5 = 1.075 m.22917 ft Rb = 5.5493(5888) .608y + y2 . both of which are plagued by defects in the form of misruns and cold shuts.Ri2) = 239.229172-.6.92/(Rt2-.304 + 0. Solution: For brass.005625)).005625)).0 lbs.56 = 0.080 = 3.

17 A large steel sand casting shows the characteristic signs of penetration defect . two other possible explanations are: (1) the pouring temperature is too low.reason for the defects. Steps (2) and (3) would reduce permeability of the sand. thus increasing the risk of sand blows and pin holes. given that the casting of these parts is successfully accomplished at other foundries.a surface consisting of a mixture of sand and metal. 60 . (b) What possible defects might result from each of these steps? In the case of step (1). (2) Increase the packing of the mold sand to resist penetration. (a) What steps can be taken to correct the defect? (b) What other possible defects might result from taking each of these steps? Solution: (a) What are the possible corrective steps? (1) Reduce pouring temperature. However. (3) Treat the mold cavity surface to make it harder. What other explanation can be given for the defects? Solution: Misruns and cold shuts result from low fluidity. the risk is for cold shuts and misruns. However. 11. it is known that the same components are cast successfully in other foundries. One possible reason for the defects in this case is that the thickness of the casting cross-sections is too small. and (2) the pouring operation is performed too slowly.

The two processes in the text are: (1) drawing. 12. 12. etching) are performed on some glass products. causing centrifugal force to spread the glass upward onto the mold surface. Name and briefly describe one of them. 61 . Answer.7 There are several ways of shaping plate or sheet glass. Finishing operations (e. polishing. Name three of the four types. During hardening. In the Danner process. Silica . 12. polycrystalline materials. Answer.3 What is the predominant chemical compound in almost all glass products? Answer. The four types are: (1) pot furnaces. grinding. 12. (2) day tanks.9 Two processes for forming glass fibers are discussed in the text.12 GLASSWORKING Review Questions 12. Name and briefly describe one of them. and (4) electric furnaces. Answer. The methods described in this test are: (1) rolling. and (2) centrifugal spraying. whereas traditional and new ceramics are.2 12.. 12. Spinning in glassworking is similar to centrifugal casting in metalworking. in which molten glass is forced to flow through small orifices in a rapidly rotating bowl to form glass fibers. yet glass is different from the traditional and new ceramics. What is the difference? Answer. while the first step in the blow-and-blow process is blowing. and (3) heat treatment.6 What is the main difference between the press-and-blow and the blow-and-blow shaping processes in glassworking? Answer.4 Melting furnace for glassworking can be divided into four types.SiO2. 12.it is in the glassy state. (3) continuous tank furnaces.1 We have classified glass as a ceramic material. What are the three basic steps in the glassworking sequence? Answer. in which the melted glass flows onto a molten tin surface to achieve uniform thickness and smoothness. the glass tube is supported by a series of rollers extending beyond the mandrel. by and large.8 Describe the Danner process? Answer. Answer. the initial forming step is pressing of the part. (1) raw materials preparation and melting. 12. molten glass flows around a rotating hollow mandrel through which air is blown while the glass is being drawn. in which fine glass fibers are pulled through small orifices in a heated plate. A gob of molten glass is dropped in to a conical mold which spins. In the press-and-blow process. The temperature of the air and its volumetric flow rate as well as the drawing velocity determine the diameter and wall thickness of the tubular cross-section. Glass is vitreous . (2) shaping. in which the hot glass is squeezed between opposing cylindrical rolls. if needed. and (2) the float process.5 Describe the spinning process in glassworking.g.

12. since each correct answer is worth 1 point.2 Besides helping to preserve the environment. (c) 12. (4) screw threads should be course. it puts the previously hardened surfaces in compression. (b) the electric energy required to melt the glass. in which two sheets of glass are laminated on either side of a polymer sheet. Answer. (d) 12. (d) vitiated.10 What is the purpose of annealing in glassworking? Answer. (a) True.3 The charge in glassworking is which one of the following? (a) the duration of the melting cycle.) Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 10 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). Answer. (b) 12. or (b) false. This has good impact resistance and does not splinter when broken.12 Describe the type of material that is commonly used to make windshields for automobiles.4.1 Which one of the following terms refers to the glassy state of a material? (a) crystalline. as the interior cools and contracts. (b) 900°C to 1000°C. or (d) reduces odors in the plant. which strengthens it. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. 12. (c) the name given to the melting furnace. The guidelines are: (1) subject ceramic parts to compressive. the use of recycled glass as an ingredient of the starting material in glassmaking serves what other useful purpose (one only)? (a) adds coloring variations to the glass for aesthetic value. so avoid impact loading. Answer. Answer. (c) makes the glass stronger. 12. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. (b) devitrified. or (d) 2000°C to 2200°C. Answer. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. (c) polycrystalline. 12. (See Section 14. Annealing is performed on glass to remove internal stresses that result from shaping and solidification. or (d) the starting materials in melting. (2) ceramics are brittle.11 Describe how a piece of glass is heat treated to produce tempered glass. not tensile loads. (e) 12.13 What are some of the design recommendations for glass parts? Answer. (c) 1500°C to 1600°C. (b) Casting is used in glassworking for large components like giant telescope lenses in small lot sizes. or (e) vitreous.5 Casting is a glassworking process used for high production. (3) use large radii on inside and outside corners. 12. 62 . all correct answers must be given. The glass is heated to a temperature above the annealing temperature and the surfaces are then quenched by air jets to cool and harden them while the interior of the piece remains plastic. Answer. (b) makes the glass easier to melt. Laminated glass. It is a slow process for these large products. Answer.4 Typical glass melting temperatures are in which of the following ranges? (a) 400°C to 500°C. For each question.

(b) It's the reverse. or (e) none of the above.25 times 10 minutes or 22. (d) sintering. and (e) spinning. how much time would a glass part of similar geometry but with a wall thickness of 7. 20 minutes is closest. or (c) 30 minutes. Which one of the following processes is used to produce glass tubing? (a) Danner process. (d) Sintering is used to cause bonding of particulate materials such as metal and ceramic powders. (d) an annealing furnace. (b) pressing. (c) The rule is that annealing time varies as the square of the wall thickness. (b) a melting furnace. (b) 15 minutes. (b) pressing.5 minutes.30/0. (c) quenching. (d) 63 . or (b) false. Answer.202 = 2. 12. (c) a sintering furnace.9 12. (c) 20 minutes.5 mm (0. Answer. 12. Answer.12. (a) True. (c) rolling.30 in) take to anneal (choose the closest answer)? (a) 10 minutes.10 A lehr is which of the following? (a) a lion's den. Answer. (a) If a glass part with a wall thickness of 5 mm (0.20 in) takes 10 minutes to anneal. while the blow-and-blow process is more appropria te for producing (wide-mouthed) jars.6 Which one of the following processes or processing steps is not applicable in glassworking? (a) annealing.7 The press-and-blow process is best suited to the production of (narrow-necked) beverage bottles.8 12. or (d) spinning. Answer. That would indicate an annealing time of 0.

and (2) shear rate. a combination of viscous and elastic properties which cause the melt to exhibit memory . as exhibited by die swell in extrusion.the tendency to return to its previous shape.1 SHAPING PROCESSES FOR PLASTICS Review Questions What are some of the reasons why the plastic shaping processes are important? Answer. Answer. less energy employed than in metalworking processes. 13. identify the sections. Some of the reasons are: (1) many of the processes are net shape processes. and (3) metering section. (5) foamed products. (2) in general. (3) the molecular weight of the polymer also affects viscosity.7 Briefly describe the plastic extrusion process. what other properties of a polymer melt are important in plastics processing? Briefly define each of the properties identified. Answer. A polymer melt exhibits pseudoplasticity. Answer. Of course.5 Besides viscosity. a polymer melt is compressed to flow through a die orifice and thus the continuous length of the plastic assumes a cross-sectional shape that is approximately the same as the profile of the orifice. 13. and (5) painting and other finishing processes generally not required.13 13. Die swell is the tendency of the extrudate to expand in cross-section dimensions immediately on exiting the die orifice. Upon what parameters does viscosity depend? Answer. (4) great flexibility in geometry. (3) forming of continuous sheets and films. It results from the viscoelastic properties of the polymer melt. Answer. 13. 13. (3) lower temperatures are required to process plastics than metals or ceramics. (2) compression section. (4) fibers.6 Define die swell in extrusion. 13.8 The barrel and screw of an extruder are generally divided into three sections. Viscosity of a polymer melt depends on: (1) temperature. The categories are: (1) extrusion. in which pressure is developed to pump the plastic through the die orifice.2 Identify the main categories of plastics shaping processes. as classified by the resulting product geometry. Answer. in which the feed stock is fed from the hopper and heated.9 What are the functions of the screen pack and breaker plate at the die end of the extruder barrel? 64 . in which the polymer changes to a viscous fluid.3 Viscosity is an important property of a polymer melt in plastics shaping processes. (2) molding. which means that its value decreases with increasing shear rate. (1) feed section. 13. 13. In plastic extrusion. 13. and (6) discrete formed sheets and films. Answer.4 How does the viscosity of a polymer melt differ from most fluids that are Newtonian. Other properties include: viscoelasticity.

Answer. Sheet stock has a thickness greater than 0. (3) wire and cable coating. there are hydromechanical units which combine hydraulic and mechanical actuations. 13. what is the difference between a fiber and a filament? Answer. such as tubes. while film stock is less than 0. Answer. 13. 13.Answer. 13.11 What is the distinction between plastic sheet and film? Answer. 13. such as rounds and L-shapes. 13.020 in (0. (2) hollow profiles.20 Gates in injection molds have several functions. a filament is a fiber of continuous length. acrylics. It combines extrusion and blowing to produce a tube of thin film. Thickness.17. followed by nylon. the initial feedstock is passed through a series of rolls to work the material and reduce its thickness to the desired gage. 13. what is the most important application? Answer.16 Among the synthetic fiber materials. (2) the thinner cross. Polyester is the most important commercially. The components of an injection molding machine are: (1) the injection unit and (2) the clamping unit. thin strand of material whose length is at least 100 times its diameter. 13. 13. 65 . and (5) filaments (continuous fibers). 13. which are the most important? Answer. A fiber is a long.13 Describe the calendering process. The functions are: (1) filter dirt and lumps. See beginning of Section 15. In addition. Answer. The process begins with the extrusion of a tube which is immediately drawn upward while still molten and simultaneously expanded in size by air inflated into it through the die mandrel. and rayon.5 mm).6. In the process. See Figure 13. Textiles. The blown-film process is a widely used process for making thin polyethylene film for packaging.020 in (0. name them.section of the gate freezes more rapidly to seal off the cavity.19 What are the two basic types of clamping units? Answer. (4) sheet and film.15 Technically. (1) solid profiles. Answer. The clamping units are: (1) mechanical toggle clamp and (2) hydraulic. (3) straighten the flow and remove memory. The functions of gates in an injection mold are: (1) to increase shear rate to increase viscosity and temperature of the polymer melt.5 mm) thick.17 Briefly describe the injection molding process.12 What is the blown-film process for producing film stock? Answer. identify them.10 What are the various forms of extruded shapes and corresponding dies? Answer.14 Polymer fibers and filaments are used in several applications. Calendering is a process for producing sheet and film stock out of rubber or rubbery thermoplastics such as plasticized PVC. (2) build pressure. 13.18 An injection molding machine is divided into two principal components. and (3) parts can be more easily broken off the runner at the gate.

28 What is the difference between a positive mold and a negative mold in thermoforming? Answer.1). Answer. Structural foam molding is an injection molding process in which a gas or gas-producing ingredient is mixed with the polymer melt prior to injection into the mold cavity. these first two reasons to prevent premature curing.29 Why are the molds generally more costly in mechanical thermoforming than in pressure or vacuum thermoforming? Answer. 13. As the mold opens.22 Discuss some of the defects that can occur in plastic injection molding.mixing a liquid resin with air by. The differences in injection molding of thermosets are: (1) shorter barrel length. and (3) use of a heated mold to cause cross-linking of the TS polymer. 13.27 What is the starting material form in thermoforming? Answer. 13. so that the gas comes out of solution and expands when the pressure is subsequently reduced. Reaction injection molding involves the mixing of two highly reactive liquid ingredients and immediately injecting the mixture into a mold cavity where chemical reactions leading to solidification occur. 13. called chemical blowing agents.plate mold in injection molding? Answer. in which the polymer melt solidifies before filling the cavity. this results in the part having a tough outer skin surrounded by a foam core. 13. A positive mold has a convex shape. that decompose at elevated temperatures to liberate gases such as CO2 or N2 within the melt. Answer. sink marks. 66 . seamless containers.26 What kinds of products are produced by blow molding? Answer. The defects include: short shots. 13. and (3) mixing the polymer with chemical compounds. (2) mixing a physical blowing agent with the polymer . the three-plate mold automatically separates the molded part(s) from the runner system.30 What are the processes by which polymer foams are produced? Answer.25 What is reaction injection molding ? Answer. while in other thermoforming processes. (2) lower temperatures in the barrel. The two ingredients form the components used in catalyst-activated or mixing-activated thermoset systems (Section 8. Thermoforming starts with a thermoplastic sheet or film. matching mold halves are required.24 What are the significant differences in the equipment and operating procedures between injection molding of thermoplastics and injection molding of thermosets? Answer. There are several foaming processes: (1) mechanical agitation . in which the polymer melt is squeezed into the parting surfaces between the mold halves and around ejection pins.21 What are the advantages of a three-plate mold over a two. then hardening the polymer by means of heat or chemical reaction.13.a gas such as nitrogen (N2) or pentane (C5H12) which can be dissolved in the polymer melt under pressure. and weld lines where the melt has flowed around a core or 13. 13. In mechanical thermoforming. only one mold form is required. such as bottles.3. flashing. Blow molding is used to produce hollow. 13.23 Describe structural foam molding . a negative mold has a concave cavity. in which the surface is drawn into the molding by contraction of internal material.

(c). (b) polymer type. and rate of flow (c) is related to shear rate. are probably more recognizable to the reader as correct answers to this question. (d) Calendering is more closely associated with rubber coating of materials such as textiles. (e) metering section. 13. Answer. (c) injection unit. (b). The resistance to forward flow is called back pressure flow. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 36 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). since each correct answer is worth 1 point. (d) mold. (c). and (e) part ejection unit. but should be included in our list of plastic sheet and film-making processes. (2) Impact resistance of plastics is general good. and (d). which is caused by the resistance to flow through the die orifice: (a) true or (b) false. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. 13. Answer.6 The principal components of an injection molding machine are which two of the following? (a) clamping unit. (b) hopper.1 The shear viscosity of a polymer melt is affected by which of the following (more than one)? (a) degree of polymerization. (a). (5) Many types of plastics degrade from sunlight and certain other forms of radiation. (b) drawing the strands to elongate and thin them.5 Spinning in the production of synthetic fibers refers to which of the following: (a) extrusion of polymer melt through small die openings. For each question. 13. 13. The other parameters. (a) and (c) 67 . or (d) none of the above. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. and (f) shaping section. (d) doctor blade method. Answer.3 Which three of the following are sections of a conventional extruder barrel for thermoplastics? (a) compression section.31 What are some of the general considerations that product designers must keep in mind when designing components out of plastics? Answer. Answer. To attain a perfect score on the quiz.4 Which of the following processes is not associated with the production of plastic sheet and film (more than one)? (a) blown-film extrusion process. Also. Some of the general considerations are : (1) Plastics are not as strong or stiff as metals and should not be used in applications where high stresses will be encountered. Finally. (a). Degree of polymerization (a) is correlated with molecular weight. so dimensional changes due to temperature variations are much more significant than for metals. (c) chill-roll extrusion. (b) calendering. (d) temperature. all correct answers must be given. better than many ceramics. (c) both of the above. (3) Service temperatures of plastics are limited relative to engineering metals and ceramics. (b) Drag flow is the forward motion of the melt caused by the Archimedian screw principle in the barrel. (b) die section.13. and (e) 13. some plastics degrade in oxygen and ozone atmospheres. (c) feed section. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. (c) rate of flow. plastics are soluble in many common solvents. (d) heating section.2 The forward movement of polymer melt in an extruder barrel is resisted by drag flow. or (e) slit-die extrusion. Answer. (4) Thermal expansion is greater for plastics than metals. (b) and (d). (c) 13. Answer.

13.7

The parting line in injection molding is which one of the following: (a) the lines formed where polymer melt meets after flowing around a core in the mold, (b) the narrow gate sections where the parts are separated from the runner, (c) where the clamping unit is joined to the injection unit in the molding machine, (d) where the two mold halves come together, (e) none of the above. Answer. (d) The function of the ejection system is to (one best answer): (a) move polymer melt into the mold cavity, (b) open the mold halves after the cavity is filled, (c) remove the molded parts from the runner system after molding, (d) separate the part from the cavity after molding, (e) none of the above. Answer. (d) A three-plate mold offers which of the following advantages when compared to a two-plate mold (more than one)? (a) automatic separation of parts from runners, (b) gating is usually at the base of the part to reduce weld lines, (c) sprue does not solidify, (d) stronger molded parts, (e) none of the above. Answer. (a) and (b)

13.8

13.9

13.10 Which of the following defects or problems is associated with injection molding (more than one)? (a) bambooing, (b) die swell, (c) drag flow, (d) flash, (e) melt fracture, (f) short shots, or (g) sink marks. Answer. (d), (f), and (g) 13.11 In rotational molding, centrifugal force is used to force the polymer melt against the surfaces of the mold cavity where solidification occurs: (a) true or (b) false. Answer. (b) It is the force of gravity in the doubly rotating mold that forces the polymer against the mold surfaces. 13.12 Use of a parison is associated with which one of the following plastic shaping processes? (a) bi-injection molding, (b) blow molding, (c) compression molding, (d) pressure thermoforming, or (e) sandwich molding. Answer. (b) 13.13 A thermoforming mold with a convex form is called which one of the following (may be more than one)? (a) a die, (b) a negative mold, (c) a positive mold, or (d) a three-plate mold. Answer. (c) 13.14 The term encapsulation refers to which one of the following plastics shaping processes? (a) casting, (b) compression molding, (c) extrusion of hollow forms, (d) injection molding in which a metal insert is encased in the molded part, or (e) vacuum thermoforming using a positive mold. Answer. (a) 13.15 Which of the following terms applies to the processing of foam plastics (more than one)? (a) chemical blowing agents, (b) open cell structure, (c) powder injection molding, (d) sandwich molding, (e) structural foam molding, (f) all of the above. Answer. (a), (b), (d), and (e). 13.16 The two most common polymer foams are which of the following? (a) polyacetal, (b) polyethylene, (c) polystyrene, (d) polyurethane, and (e) polyvinylchloride.

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Answer. (c) and (d) 13.17 In which of the following property categories do plastic parts compare favorably with metals (more than one)? (a) impact resistance, (b) resistance to ultraviolet radiation, (c) stiffness, (d) strength, (e) strength-to- weight ratio, or (f) temperature resistance. Answer. (a) and (e). 13.18 Which of the following processes are generally limited to thermoplastic polymers (more than one)? (a) blow molding, (b) compression molding, (c) reaction injection molding, (d) thermoforming, (e) transfer molding, (f) wire coating. Answer. (a) and (d). 13.19 Which of the following processes would be applicable to produce hulls for small boats (more than one)? (a) blow molding, (b) compression molding, (c) injection molding, (d) rotational molding, or (e) vacuum thermoforming. Answer. (a), (d), and (e).

Problems

Extrusion 13.1 The diameter of an extruder barrel is 65 mm and its length = 1.75 m. The screw rotates at 55 rev/min. The screw channel depth = 5.0 mm, and the flight angle = 18°. The head pressure at the die end of the barrel is 5.0 x 106 Pa. The viscosity of the polymer melt is given as 100 Pas. Find the volume flow rate of the plastic in the barrel. Solution: Qd = 0.5π 2(65x10-3)2(55/60)(5x10-3)sin 18 cos 18 = 95,560x10-9(0.3090)(0.9510) = 28.081 x 10-6 m3/s p = 5 MPa = 5x106 n/m2 Qb = π (5x106)(65x10-3)(5x10-3)3(sin 18) 2/12(100)(1.75) = 5.804 x 10-6 m3/s Qx = 28.081 - 5.804 = 22.277 x 10 -6 m3/s. 13.2 An extruder barrel has a diameter of 120 mm and a length = 3.0 m. The screw channel depth = 8.0 mm, and its pitch = 95 mm. The viscosity of the polymer melt is 75 Pas, and the head pressure in the barrel is 4.0 MPa. What rotational speed of the screw is required to achieve a volumetric flow rate of 90 cm3/s? Solution: A = tan-1(95/120π ) = 14.14° Qd = 0.5π 2(.12) 2(N)(8x10-3)sin 14.14 cos 14.14 = 0.5685x10-3(0.2444)(0.9697) = 134.73 N x 10-6 m3/s Qb = π (4x106)(.12)(8x10-3)3(sin 14.14) 2/12(75)(3.0) = 26.66 x 10-6 m3/s Qx = Qd - Qb = 157.5 N x 10-6 - 26.66 x 10-6 = 90 x 10-6 m3/s 134.73 N = 90 + 26.66 = 116.66 N = 116.66/134.73 = 0.8659 rev/s = 51.95 rev/min. 13.3 An extruder has diameter = 80 mm and length = 2.0 m. Its screw has a channel depth = 5 mm, flight angle = 18 degrees, and it rotates at 1 rev/sec. The plastic melt has a shear viscosity = 150 Pas. Determine the extruder characteristic by computing Qmax and p max and then finding the equation of the straight line between them. Solution: Qmax = Qd = 0.5π 2(.08) 2(1)(5x10-3)sin 18 cos 18 = 0.158 x 10-3(0.3090)(0.9510) = 46.4 x 10-6 m3/s pmax = 6π (.08)(1)(2)(150)(cot 18)/(5x10-3)2 = 452.4(3.077)/25x10-6 = 55 x 106 Pa = 55 MPa

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Qx = 46.4 x 10-6 - (46.4x10-6/55)p Qx = 46.4 x 10 -6 - 0.8436 x 10-6 p, where p has units of MPa 13.4 Determine the helix angle A such that the screw pitch p is equal to the screw diameter D. This is called the "square" angle in plastics extrusion - the angle that provides a flight advance equal to one diameter for each rotation of the screw. Solution: Assume flight land = zero. From Eq. (15.4), tan A = pitch/π D If pitch = D, then A = tan-1(1/π ) = 17.66 ° 13.5 An extruder barrel has a diameter of 2.5 in. The screw rotates at 60 rev/min; its channel depth = 0.20 in, and its flight angle = 17.5°. The head pressure at the die end of the barrel is 800 lb/in 2 and the length of the barrel is 50 in. The viscosity of the polymer melt is 122 x 10-4 lb-sec/in 2. Determine the volume flow rate of the plastic in the barrel. Solution: Qd = 0.5π 2(2.5) 2(1)(.2)sin 17.5 cos 17.5 = 0.5(12.337)(0.3007)(0.9537) = 1.769 in 3/sec Qb = π (800)(2.5)(.2) 3(sin 17.5) 2/12(122x10-4)(50) = 0.621 in 3/sec Qx = 1.769 - 0.621 = 1.148 in3/sec. 13.6 An extruder barrel has a diameter of 4.0 in and an L/D ratio of 28. The screw channel depth = 0.25 in, and its pitch = 4.8 in. It rotates at 60 rev/min. The viscosity of the polymer melt is 100 x 10-4 lb-sec/in 2. What head pressure is required to obtain a volume flow rate = 150 in 3/min? Solution: A = tan-1(pitch/π D) = tan-1(4.8/4π ) = 20.9° Qd = 0.5π 2(4) 2(1)(.25)sin 20.9 cos 20.9 = 19.74(0.3567)(0.9342) = 6.578 in 3/sec = 394.66 in 3/min Qx = Qd - Qb = 394.66 - Qd = 150 Qb = 394.66 - 150 = 244.66 in 3/min = 4.078 in3/sec L = 4(28) = 112 in. Qb = π p(4)(.25) 3(sin 20.9) 2/12(100x10-4)(112) = 4.078 0.0018592 p = 4.078 p = 2193.4 lb/in2 13.7 An extrusion operation produces continuous tubing with outside diameter = 2.0 in and inside diameter = 1.7 in. The extruder barrel has a diameter = 4.0 in and length = 10 ft. The screw rotates at 50 rev/min; it has a channel depth = 0.25 in and flight angle = 16°. The head pressure has a value of 350 lb/in 2 and the viscosity of the polymer melt is 80 x 10-4 lb-sec/in 2. Under these conditions, what is the production rate in length of tube/min, assuming the extrudate is pulled at a rate that eliminates the effect of die swell (i.e., the tubing has the same OD and ID as the die profile). Solution: Qd = 0.5π 2(4) 2(50/60)(.25)sin 16 cos 16 = 16.45(0.2756)(0.9613) = 4.358 in 3/sec Qb = π (350)(4)(.25) 3(sin 16) 2/12(80x10-4)(120) = 0.453 in 3/sec Qx = 4.358 - 0.453 = 3.905 in 3/sec. Ax = 0.25π (22 - 1.72) = 0.872 in 2 vx = 3.905/0.872 = 4.478 in/sec = 22.39 ft/min. 13.8 An extruder has barrel diameter and length of 100 mm and 2.8 m, respectively. The screw rotational speed = 50 rev/min, channel depth = 7.5 mm, and flight angle = 17°. The plastic melt has a shear viscosity = 175 Pas. Determine: (a) the extruder characteristic, (b) the shape factor Ks for a circular die opening with diameter = 3.0 mm and length = 12.0 mm, and (c) the operating point (Q and p ). Solution: Qmax = Qd = 0.5π 2(.1) 2(50/60)(7.5x10-3)sin 17 cos 17 = 308.4 x 10-6(0.2924)(0.9563)

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= 86.2 x 10-6 m3/s pmax = 6π (.1)(50/60)(2.8)(175)(cot 17)/(7.5x10-3)2 = 44.75 x 106 Pa =44.75 MPa Qx = 86.2 x 10 -6 - 1.926 x 10-12 p, where p has units of Pa (b) Given: Dd = 3 mm, Ld = 12 mm. Ks = π (3 x 10-3)4/128(175)(12 x 10-3) = 0.9467 x 10 -12 (c) 0.9467 x 10-12 p = 86.2 x 10-6 - 1.926 x 10-12 p 2.8727 x 10-12 p = 86.2 x 10-6 p = 30.0 x 10 6 Pa = 30 MPa Qx = 0.9467 x 10-12 (30 x 106) = 28.4 x 10 -6 m3/s Check with extruder characteristic: Qx = 86.2 x 10-6 - 1.926 x 10-12 (30 x 106) = 28.4 x 10-6 m3/s. 13.9 Consider an extruder in which the barrel diameter = 4.5 in and length = 11 ft. The extruder screw rotates at 60 rev/min; it has channel depth = 0.35 in and flight angle = 20°. The plastic melt has a shear viscosity = 125 x 10-4 lb-sec/in 2. Determine: (a) Qmax and p max, (b) the shape factor Ks for a circular die opening in which Dd = 0.312 in and Ld = 0.75 in, and (c) the values of Q and p at the operating point. Solution: (a) Qmax = 0.5π 2(4.5) 2(1)(.35)sin 20 cos 20 = 34.975(0.342)(0.9397) = 11.24 in 3/sec pmax = 6π (4.5)(1)(132)(.0125)(cot 20)/(0.35) 2 = 3139 lb/in2 (b) Given: Dd = 0.312 in., Ld = 0.75 in. Ks = π (.312) 4/128(.0125)(.75) = 0.024808 (c) From (a), Qx = Qmax - (Qmax/pmax)p = 11.24 - 0.003581p From (b), Qx = 0.024808p Combining, .024808p = 11.24 - .003581p .02839p = 11.24 p = 395.9 lb/in2 Qx = 11.24 - 0.003581(395.9) = 9.82 in3/sec 13.10 An extruder has a barrel diameter = 5.0 in and length = 12 ft. The extruder screw rotates at 50 rev/min; it has channel depth = 0.30 in and flight angle = 17.7°. The plastic melt has a shear viscosity = 100 x 10-4 lb- sec/in 2. Find: (a) the extruder characteristic, (b) the values of Q and p at the operating point, given that the die characteristic is Qx = 0.00150 p. Solution: (a) Qmax = 0.5π 2(5) 2(50/60)(.3)sin 17.7 cos 17.7 = 30.84(0.3040)(0.9527) = 8.93 in 3/sec pmax = 6π (5)(50/60)(144)(.01)(cot 17.7)/(0.3) 2 = 3937.6 lb/in2 Qx = Qmax - (Qmax/pmax)p = 8.93 - 0.002268p (b) Given: die characteristic Qx = 0.0015p Qx = 8.93 - 0.002268p = 0.0015p 0.00377p = 8.93 p = 2370 lb/in2 Qx = 8.93 - 0.002268(2370) = 3.55 in3/sec 13.11 An extruder has a barrel diameter = 4.0 in and length = 5.0 ft. The extruder screw rotates at 80 rev/min. It has a channel with depth = 0.15 in and flight angle = 20°. The polymer melt has a shear viscosity = 60 x 10-4 lb- sec/in 2 at the operating temperature of the process. The specific gravity of the polymer is 1.2. (a) Find the equation for the extruder characteristic. If a T-shaped cross-section is extruded at a rate of 0.13 lb/sec, determine: (b) the operating point (Q and p ), and (c) the die characteristic that is indicated by the operating point. Solution: (a) Qmax = 0.5π 2(4) 2(80/60)(.15)sin 20 cos 20 = 15.79(0.3420)(0.9397) = 5.075 in 3/sec pmax = 6π (4)(80/60)(60)(.006)(cot 20)/(0.15) 2 = 1104.8 lb/in2

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Qx = Qmax - (Qmax/pmax)p = 5.075 - 0.004593p (b) Given: T-shaped cross section extruded at 0.13 lb/sec. Density of polymer ρ = 1.2(62.5 lb/ft3)/(12 in 3/ft3) = 0.0433 lb/in3 Qx = 0.13/0.0433 = 3.0 in 3/sec. 3.0 = 5.075 - 0.004593p 0.004593p = 5.075 - 3.0 = 2.075 p = 451.8 lb/in2 (c) Qx = Ks p Ks = Qx/p = 3.0/451.8 = 0.00664 Qx = 0.00664 p Injection Molding 13.12 Compute the percentage volumetric contraction of a polyethylene molded part, based on the value of shrinkage given in Table 13.1. Solution: 15.12 S = 0.025 for polyethylene from Table 13.1. Volumetric contraction = 1.0 - (1 - .025) 3 = 1.0 - 0.92686 = 0.07314 = 7.314% Note that we are not using the parameter S from Table 13.1 in the way it was intended to be used. Its intended use is to compute the oversized dimension of a mold cavity in injection molding. Instead, we are using the shrinkage term to calculate the amount of (volumetric) reduction in size of the part after the polymer is injected into the cavity. In fact, a slightly different shrinkage parameter value may apply in this case. 13.13 The specified dimension = 100.00 mm for a certain injection molded part made of nylon-6,6. Compute the corresponding dimension to which the mold cavity should be machined, using the value of shrinkage given in Table 13.1. Solution: S = 0.020 for nylon-6,6 from Table 13.1. Dc = 100.0 + 100(0.020) + 100(0.020) 2 = 100 + 2.02 + 0.04 = 102.04 mm. 13.14 The part dimension for a certain injection molded part made of polycarbonate is specified as 3.75 in. Compute the corresponding dimension to which the mold cavity should be machined, using the value of shrinkage given in Table 13.1. Solution: S = 0.007 for polycarbonate from Table 13.1. Dc = 3.75 + 3.75(0.007) + 3.75 (0.007) 2 = 3.75 + 0.0263 + 0.0002 = 3.7765 in. 13.15 The foreman in the injection molding department says that a polyethylene part produced in one of the operations has greater shrinkage than the calculations indicate it should have. The important dimension of the part is specified as 112.5 ±0.25 mm. However, the actual molded part measures 112.02 mm. (a) As a first step, the corresponding mold cavity dimension should be checked. Compute the correct value of the mold dimension, given that the shrinkage value for polyethylene is 0.025 (from Table 13.1). (b) What adjustments in process parameters could be made to reduce the amount of shrinkage. Solution: (a) Given: S = 0.025, Dc = 112.5 + 112.5(.025) + 112.5(.025) 2 = 115.383 mm (b) Adjustments to reduce shrinkage include: (1) increase injection pressure, (2) increase compaction time, and (3) increase molding temperatures.

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Other Molding Operations and Thermoforming 13. Blow molding wall thickness tm = (1.35 Rearranging Eq.19 An extrusion operation is used to produce a parison whose mean diameter = 27 mm.25 = 0.2 mm.0 mm. determine (a) the corresponding wall thickness of the container and (b) the wall thickness of the parison.0)(9.5 ft in diameter and its wall thickness should be 1/16 in.25 .25 = 13. The size of the ring opening in the die = 1. If the minimum wall thickness of the blow molded container is to be 0.95(62.25 in and inside diameter = 1.16667π [(1.5)/2 = 2. The parison is used to blow mold a beverage container whose outside diameter = 112 mm (a standard size 2-liter soda bottle). The observed die swell is 1.73 lb/in2 . 462 mm 13.5)/2 = 9. Using a micrometer.1.20 A rotational molding operation is to be used to mold a hollow playing ball out of polyethylene.0 mm tm = (1.16 The extrusion die for a polyethylene parison used in blow molding has a mean diameter = 16.24) 3(. Solution: Mean extrusion die diameter Dd = (1.25) in text.00)/2 = 1.25 in diameter bottle from a parison that is extruded in a die whose outside diameter = 1.0343 lb/in 3 Volume = π (Do3 . What weight of PE powder should be loaded into the mold in order to meet these specifications? The specific gravity of the PE grade is 0.18)/2 = 2 mm.505 mm (b) tp = (1.4/1728) = 0.281) 2(1.5x12) 3 . 13. (15. Dm = rsd3tdDd/tm = (1. what is the maximum possible diameter of the blow mold? Solution: Dd = (22 + 18)/2 = 20 mm.0343) = 2. Solution: (a) Dd = (11. measure the wall thickness to compare with your answer in (a).5 mm.0429)/6. The mean diameter of the parison is observed to swell to a size of 20.5 + 7. The observed diameter swell ratio = 1.1. (a) Why is thinning 73 .25. The operation is conventional pressure thermoforming using a positive mold.013 in.125)/6.35) 3(2)(20)/. and td = (22 . and the plastic is an ABS sheet with an initial thickness of 3.0)/100.17 A blow molding operation produces a 6.18 in 3 Weight = (63.5)(16.) (b) Measured value should be close to calculated value.125)(1. 13. The inside and outside diameters of the die that produced the parison are 18 mm and 22 mm.5)/112 = 0.Di3)/6 = 0.5x12 . Solution: Density ρ = 0.5 mm and inside diameter = 7. respectively.5/160 = 1.125 in.18 A parison is extruded from a die with outside diameter = 11.281 tm = (1.125 in.5 mm.5 mm. and td = (11.shaped part.5 . 13.40 mm. Some wall thickness are less. What is the maximum air pressure that can be used if the maximum allowable tensile stress for the polymer is 1000 lb/in 2.40 = 246 mm.25) 3(2.95.21 The problem in a certain thermoforming operation is that there is too much thinning in the walls of the large cup.(1.2/16) 3] = 63.00 in.17 lb.24. Maximum air pressure p = 2(1000)(0. The ball will be 1.0)/2 = 0. (a) What is the corresponding wall thickness of the container? (b) Obtain an empty 2-liter plastic soda bottle and (carefully) cut it across the diameter. rsd = 27/20 = 1.5) = 2.25 .7. and wall thickness td = (1.5 mm after exiting the die orifice.331 mm (= 0.0429 in. Solution: (a) rsd = 20.281) 2 (1. If the diameter of the blow molded container is to be 100 mm. 13.18)(0.0 = 0.

Hence.occurring in the walls of the cup? (b) What changes could be made in the operation to correct the problem? Solution: (a) As the starting flat sheet is draped over the convex cup-shaped mold. thinning in these sides results. 74 . the remaining portions of the sheet must be stretched significantly to conform to the sides of the cup. However. the portion contacting the base of the cup experiences little stretching.38 in the text. or (2) prestretch the sheet as in Figure 13. since a negative mold will distribute the material more uniformly and result in approximately equal thinning throughout the sheet. (b) The problem could be solved by either: (1) fabricating a negative mold to replace the current positive mold.

(a) diagonal ply. which are additional plies around the outside circumference of the tire. and (3) molding and curing. Diagonal ply and belted bias both have their carcass plys running in a diagonal direction relative to the tire circumference. 14. The typical sequence is: (1) production of the raw rubber. The categories are: (1) extrusion. 14. belted bias and radial ply tires use belts. The additives and functions are: vulcanizing chemicals. 14. and spraying.4 What are some of the functions of the additives that are combined with rubber during compounding? Answer. The resulting raw rubber is called ribbed smoked sheet. (2) compounding.8 Name the three basic tire constructions and briefly identify the differences in their construction. Vulcanization causes cross-linking of the rubber molecules. plasticizers to soften the rubber. and (4) the resulting sheets are dried in smokehouses for several days.4.14 14.7 Name the four basic categories of processes used to shape rubber. radial ply has its carcass plies running in a radial direction.1. Answer.9 What are the three basic steps in the manufacture of a pneumatic tire? Answer. (3) mixing. (3) the coagulum is then squeezed through rolls to drive off water. and (4) molding. What are some of the operations used to coat rubber onto a fabric to produce reinforced rubber? Answer. What does vulcanization do to the rubber? Answer. extenders to reduce cost.5 14. (3) coating. The rubber is usually recovered as follows: (1) the latex is collected into tanks and diluted to half natural concentration. antioxidants. (2) building the carcass and adding the rubber for the sidewall and treads. 14. 14. (b) belted bias. reinforcing fillers. Calendering. and (3) fabricators take the NR and SR and produce finished rubber goods.10 What is the purpose of the bead coil in a pneumatic tire? 75 . see Article 14. (2) calendering. whereas diagonal ply tires do not have these belts. and (c) radial ply.6 14. 14. (2) the petrochemical industry produces synthetic rubber. (4) shaping. Answer. (2) formic or acetic or other acid is added to the solution which causes the rubber to coagulate.2 How is raw rubber recovered from the latex that is tapped from a rubber tree? Answer. dipping. coloring pigments. The three steps are: (1) preform the components. The rubber industry is organized into three parts: (1) rubber growing plantations produce natural rubber. and blowing agents to make foam rubber.3 What is the sequence of processing steps required to produce finished rubber goods? Answer.1 RUBBER PROCESSING TECHNOLOGY Review Questions How is the rubber industry organized? Answer. 14. this strengthens and stiffens the rubber while extensibility is retained. and (5) vulcanization. skimming.

(c) thermoforming. (c) pneumatic tires. Answer. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. 76 . (d) plasticizers and softening oils. (d) sulfur. 14. the extreme flexibility of rubber results in certain differences.1 The most important rubber product is: (a) footwear. What are some examples of these differences? Answer. (b) carbon black. (c) stearic acid. Answer. (b) carbon black. or (d) during curing. (a) and (b) 14. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. (b) 14. Answer. TPE stands for thermoplastic elastomer. (2) holes should be molded into rubber parts rather than machined. or (d) 45. whereas holes can be machined or molded in a plastic part. (b) while building the carcass. (c) 14. it is a thermoplastic polymer that behaves like a rubber. or (d) tennis balls. (a) 14. (b) polyisobutylene.2 The chemical name of the ingredient recovered from the latex of the rubber tree is which one of the following? (a) polybutadiene. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 11 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). (c) clays and other hydrous aluminum silicates.12 Many of the design guidelines that are applicable to plastics are also applicable to rubber. (c) during molding.4 Which one of the following molding processes is the most important in the production of products made of conventional rubber? (a) compression molding. (c) polyisoprene.Answer. (b) injection molding. or (e) reclaimed rubber.7 When is the tread pattern imprinted onto the circumference of the tire? (a) during preforming. Three examples: (1) no draft is needed on the part for mold removal. Answer. all correct answers must be given. (b) conveyor belts. 14.3 Of the following rubber additives. (b) 15. However. which one would rank as the single most important? (a) antioxidants.5 Which of the following ingredients do not contribute to the vulcanizing process (more than one)? (a) calcium carbonate. Answer. and (3) screw threads are not normally used on rubber parts. and (e) zinc oxide. Answer. For each question.6 How many minutes are required to cure (vulcanize) a modern passenger car tire? (a) 5. or (d) polystyrene. The bead coil provides a rigid support for the tire when it is mounted onto the wheel rim. 14.11 What is a TPE? Answer. (b) 14. (c) 25. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. or (d) transfer molding. (c) 14. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point.

Answer.Answer. 77 . Answer. (c) 14. (b) compression molding.9 Screw threads are not normally molded into rubber parts: (a) true or (b) false. (a) Screw threads are not normally designed into rubber parts because of the extreme flexibility of rubber.8 Which of the following are not normally used in the processing of thermoplastic elastomers (more than one)? (a) blow molding. or (e) vulcanization. (c) extrusion. (d) injection molding. (b) and (e) 14.

250 inch. Why do we say that particles and flakes are members of the same basic class of reinforcing material? Answer.7 How is a prepreg different from a molding compound? Answer. 15. fillers.8 What is the difference between the wet lay-up approach and the prepreg approach in hand lay-up? Answer. TMCs.6 15. In the context of fiber reinforcement. the fibers in each layer are randomly oriented. Answer. what is a mat? Answer. Characteristics include: (1) they use molds consisting of two halves that open and close during the molding cycle. 15.1 15. 15.5 What is sheet molding compound (SMC)? Answer.11 Identify some of the different forms of PMC molding compounds. Prepregs have continuous fibers rather than chopped fibers as in molding compounds. SMC consists of TS polymer resin.4 SHAPING PROCESSES FOR POLYMER MATRIX COMPOSITES Review Questions What are the principal polymers used in fiber-reinforced polymers? Answer.2 15. In wet lay-up. orientation of the fibers is controlled. An autoclave is an enclosed chamber which can supply heat and/or pressure at controlled levels. 15. 78 . (2) high pressure is generally associated with the process. Flakes are simply particles that possess very low width-to-thickness ratios. PMC molding compounds include SMCs. and the uncured resin is then applied to it to form the composite laminate. Because in hand lay-up. A mat is a felt consisting of randomly oriented fibers held loosely together in a binder. Principal polymer matrices in FRPs are unsaturated polyesters and epoxies.10 What are some of the distinguishing characteristics of the closed mold processes for PMCs? Answer. and chopped glass fibers. 15. all rolled into a sheet of typical thickness = 0. In the prepreg approach.15 15.9 What is an autoclave? Answer. layers of fiber preimpregnated with resin are laid into the mold. while a yarn consists of twisted fibers. A roving consists of untwisted filaments. whereas in spray-up. and (3) the geometric shapes of the moldings are more complex in three dimensions. and BMCs. What is the difference between a roving and a yarn? Answer. Why are laminated FRP products made by the spray-up method not as strong as similar products made by hand lay-up? Answer. the layer of fiber reinforcement is placed into the mold dry. 15.3 15.

15. CNC allows independent control over mandrel rotation and carriage speed for greater flexibility in relative motions.12 What is preform molding ? Answer. (c) 79 . diamond cutting tools. For each question. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point.14 What is filament winding ? Answer. Answer. Preform molding is a compression molding process in which a precut mat is placed into the lower half of a mold together with a charge of thermosetting resin. all correct answers must be given.18 With what kinds of products is tube rolling associated? Answer. Typical products include: bicycle frames and space trusses. and water jet cutting. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. laser beam cutting. Pulforming is pultrusion with the added operation of a shape change in the length (straight length becomes curved) and cross-section (different cross-sections throughout the length).1 Which one of the following is the most common polymer type in fiber-reinforced polymer composites? (a) elastomers. (b) thermoplastics. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 12 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). 15. scissors. 15. RRIM involves the injection of resins that cure by chemical reaction together with reinforcing fibers into a closed mold. 15. steel-rule blanking dies. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. The resulting part is a fiber-reinforced (usually glass fiber) plastic molding. the resin is cured and the mandrel is removed.15 What is the advantage of computer numerical control over mechanical control in filament winding? Answer. The resulting sections are similar to extruded parts except that they are reinforced with continuous fibers.13 Describe reinforced reaction injection molding (RRIM). 15. Cured FRPs are cut by WC and HSS cutting tools. Uncured FRPs are cut by methods which include: knives. Filament winding is a process in which resin. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. 15.16 Describe the pultrusion process. 15. 15. Answer. or (c) thermosets. power shears.17 How does pulforming differ from pultrusion? Answer. Pultrusion is a process in which continuous fibers are dipped into a resin and pulled through a shaping die (somewhat like an extrusion die) where the resin cures.19 How are FRPs cut? Answer.impregnated continuous fibers are wrapped around a rotating mandrel with the internal shape of the FRP product. 15. Answer. and water jet cutting. the materials are then pressed between heated molds to cure the resin and produce a fiber-reinforced molding.

15.2

Most rubber products are properly classified into which of the following categories (more than one)? (a) elastomer reinforced with carbon black, (b) fiber- reinforced composite, (c) particle -reinforced composite, (d) polymer matrix composite, (e) pure elastomer, and (f) pure polymer. Answer. (a), (c), and (d). Hand lay-up is classified in which of the following general categories of PMC shaping processes (more than one)? (a) closed mold process, (b) compression molding, (c) contact molding, (d) filament winding, or (e) open mold process. Answer. (c) and (e). A positive mold with a smooth surface will produce a good finish on which surface of the laminated product in the hand lay-up method? (a) inside surface or (b) outside surface. Answer. (a) SMC molding is a form of which one of the following? (a) compression molding, (b) contact molding, (c) injection molding, (d) open mold processing, (e) pultrusion, or (f) transfer molding. Answer. (a) Filament winding involves the use of which one of the following fiber reinforcements? (a) continuous filaments, (b) fabrics, (c) mats, (d) prepregs, (e) short fibers, or (f) woven rovings. Answer. (a) In filament winding, when the continuous filament is wound around the cylindrical mandrel at a helix angle close to 90°, it is called which of the following (one best answer)? (a) bi-axial winding, (b) helical winding, (c) hoop winding, (d) perpendicular winding, (e) polar winding, or (f) radial winding. Answer. (c) Pultrusion is most similar to which one of the following plastic shaping processes? (a) blow-molding, (b) extrusion, (c) injection molding, or (d) thermoforming. Answer. (b) Water jet cutting is one of several ways of cutting or trimming uncured or cured FRPs; in the case of cured FRPs, the process is noted for its reduction of dust and noise: (a) true or (b) false. Answer. (a)

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16.1

POWDER METALLURGY

Review Questions

Name some of the reasons for the commercial importance of powder metallurgy technology. Answer. PM is important because: (1) parts can be made to net or near net shape, (2) parts can be made with a controlled level of porosity, (3) certain metals difficult to process by other methods can be processed by PM, (4) PM allows the formulation of unusual alloys not easily obtained by traditional alloying methods. 16.2 What are some of the disadvantages of PM methods? Answer. Disadvantages include: (1) high tooling costs, (2) metal powders are expensive, (3) difficulties in storing and handling, (4) certain limitations on part geometry imposed by the uniaxial press methods, and (5) variations in density in a PM component can be troublesome. 16.3 16.4 In the screening of powders for sizing, what is meant by the term mesh count? Answer. The mesh count of the screen is the number of openings per linear inch. What is the difference between open pores and closed pores in a metallic powders? Answer. Open pores are air spaces between particles, while closed pores are voids internal to a particle. 16.5 What is meant by the term aspect ratio for a metallic particle? Answer. The aspect ratio of a particle is ratio of the maximum dimension to the minimum dimension of the given particle. 16.6 How would one measure the angle of repose for a given amount of metallic powder? Answer. One measure would be to let the powders flow through a small funnel and measure the angle taken by the resulting pile of powders relative to the horizontal. 16.7 Define bulk density and true density for metallic powders. Answer. Bulk density refers to the weight per volume of the powders in the loose state, while true density is the weight per volume of the true volume of metal in the powders (the volume that would result if the powders were melted). 16.8 What are the principal methods used to produce metallic powders? Answer. The methods are: (1) atomization - the conversion of molten metal into droplets which solidify into powders; (2) chemical reduction - reducing metallic oxides by use of reducing agents which combine with the oxygen to free the metals in the form of powders; and (3) electrolysis use of an electrolytic cell to deposit particles of the metal onto the cathode in the cell. 16.9 What are the three basic steps in the conventional powder metallurgy shaping process? Answer. The steps are: (1) blending and/or mixing, (2) pressing, and (3) sintering. 16.10 What is the technical difference between mixing and blending in powder metallurgy? Answer. Mixing refers to the combining of metal powders of different chemistries, while blending means combining particles of the same chemistry but different sizes.

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16.11 What are some of the ingredients usually added to the metallic powders during blending and/or mixing? Answer. The additives are: (1) lubricants, (2) binders, and (3) deflocculants. 16.12 What is meant by the term green compact? Answer. The green compact is the pressed but not yet sintered PM part. 16.13 Describe what happens to the individual particles during compaction. Answer. Starting with the initial powder arrangement, the particles are first repacked into a more efficient arrangement, followed by deformation of the particles as pressure is increased. 16.14 Which of the following most closely typifies the sintering temperatures in PM? (a) 0.5 Tm, (b) 0.8 Tm, (c) Tm. Answer. (b) 16.15 What are the three steps in the sintering cycle in PM? Answer. The three steps in the cycle are: (1) preheat, in which lubricants and binders are burned off, (2) sintering, and (3) cool down. 16.16 What are some of the reasons why a controlled furnace is desirable in sintering? Answer. Some of the purposes of a controlled atmosphere furnace are: (1) oxidation protection, (2) provide a reducing atmosphere to remove existing oxides, (3) provide a carburizing atmosphere, and (4) remove lubricants and binders from pressing. 16.17 What are the advantages of infiltration in PM? Answer. Advantages of infiltration are: resulting structure is nonporous structure, improved toughness and strength. 16.18 What is the difference between powder injection molding and metal injection molding? Answer. Metal injection molding is a subset of powder injection molding, in which the powders are metallic. The more general term includes powders of ceramic. 16.19 How is isostatic pressing distinguished from conventional pressing and sintering in PM? Answer. Isostatic pressing applies hydrostatic pressure to all sides of the mold, whereas conventional pressing is uniaxial. 16.20 Describe liquid phase sintering. Answer. Liquid phase sintering occurs when two metals of different melting temperatures are sintered at a temperature between their melting points. Accordingly, one metal melts, thoroughly wetting the solid particles and creating a strong bonding between the metals upon solidification. 16.21 What are the two basic classes of metal powders as far as chemistry is concerned? Answer. The two classes are: (1) elemental powders - powders of pure metal such as iron or copper, and (2) prealloyed powders - powders of alloys such as stainless steel or brass. 16.22 Why is PM technology so well suited to the production of gears and bearings? Answer. The reasons are: (1) the geometries of these parts lend themselves to PM pressing, and (2) the porosity allows impregnation of the PM parts with lubricants.

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**Multiple Choice Quiz
**

There are a total of 18 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). To attain a perfect score on the quiz, all correct answers must be given, since each correct answer is worth 1 point. For each question, each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point, and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. 16.1 The particle size that can pass through a screen is obtained by taking the reciprocal of the mesh count of the screen. (a) true, or (b) false. Answer. (b) The given description neglects consideration of the screen wire thickness. 16.2 Identify which of the phrases make the following statement correct: For a given weight of metallic powders, the total surface area of the powders is increased by (more than one): (a) larger particle size, (b) smaller particle size, (c) higher shape factor, (d) smaller shape factor. Answer. (b) and (c) 16.3 16.4 As particle size increases, interparticle friction (a) increases, or (b) decreases. Answer. (b) Which of the following powder shapes would tend to have the lowest interparticle friction? (a) acicular, (b) cubic, (c) flakey, (d) spherical, and (e) rounded. Answer. (d) 16.5 Which of the following statements is correct in the context of metallic powders (more than one)? (a) porosity + packing factor = 1.0, (b) packing factor = 1/porosity, (c) packing factor = 1.0 porosity, (d) packing factor = - porosity, (e) packing factor = bulk density/true density. Answer. (a), (c), (e) 16.6 Repressing refers to a pressworking operation used to compress an unsintered part in a closed die to achieve sizing and better surface finish. (a) true or (b) false. Answer. (b) The repressed part has been sintered, not unsintered. 16.7 Impregnation refers to which of the following (more than one)? (a) soaking oil by capillary action into the pores of a PM part, (b) putting polymers into the pores of a PM part, or (c) filling the pores of the PM part with a molten metal. Answer. (a), (b) 16.8 In cold isostatic pressing, the mold is most typically made of which one of the following? (a) rubber, (b) sheetmetal, (c) tool steel, (d) textile, or (e) thermosetting polymer. Answer. (a) 16.9 Which of the following processes combines pressing and sintering of the metal powders (more than one)? (a) metal injection molding, (b) hot pressing, (c) spark sintering, and (d) hot isostatic pressing. Answer. (b), (c), and (d) 16.10 Which of the following design features would be difficult or impossible to achieve by conventional pressing and sintering (more than one)? (a) side holes, (b) threaded holes, (c) outside rounded corners, (d) vertical stepped holes, or (e) vertical wall thickness of 1/8 inch (3 mm).

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Answer. (a), (b), (c)

Problems

Characterization of Engineering Powders 16.1 A screen with 325 mesh count has wires with a diameter of 0.001377 in. Using Eq. (16.1), determine: (a) the maximum particle size that will pass through the wire mesh, and (b) the proportion of open space in the screen. Solution: (a) By Eq. (16.1), particle size PS = 1/MC - tw = 1/325 - 0.001377 = 0.003077 - 0.001377 = 0.00170 in. (b) There are 325 x 325 = 105,625 openings in one square inch of the mesh. By inference from part (a), each opening is 0.00170 inch on a side, thus each opening is (0.0017) 2 = 0.000002889 in2. The total open area in one square inch of mesh = 105,625(0.000002889 in 2) = 0.30523 in 2. This is total open space. Therefore, the percent open space in one square inch of mesh = 30.523%. 16.2 A screen with 10 mesh count has wires with a diameter of 0.0213 in. Using Eq. (16.1), determine: (a) the maximum particle size that will pass through the wire mesh, and (b) the proportion of open space in the screen. Solution: (a) By Eq. (16.1), particle size PS = 1/MC - tw = 1/10 - 0.0213 = 0.0787 in. (b) There are 10 x 10 = 100 openings in one square inch of the mesh. By inference from part (a), each opening is 0.0787 inch on a side, thus each opening is (0.0787) 2 = 0.00619 in2. The total open area in one square inch of mesh = 100(0.00619 in 2) = 0.619 in 2. This is total open space. Therefore, the percent open space in one square inch of mesh = 61.9%. 16.3 What is the aspect ratio of a cubic particle shape. Solution: The aspect ratio is the ratio of the maximum dimension to the minimum dimension of the particle shape. The minimum dimension is the edge of any face of the cube; call it L. The maximum dimension is the diagonal of the cube, which is given by (L2 + L2 + L2)0.5 = (3 L2)0.5 = (3) 0.5 L = 1.732 L. Thus, the aspect ratio = 1.732:1. 16.4 Determine the shape factor for metallic particles of the following ideal shapes: (a) sphere, (b) cubic, (c) cylindrical with length-to-diameter ratio of 1:1, (d) cylindrical with length-to-diameter ratio of 2:1, and (e) a disk-shaped flake whose thickness-to-diameter ratio is 1:10. Solution: (a) Sphere: Ks = 6.0 as shown in the text, Eq. (16.6). (b) Cube: Let L = edge of one face. For a cube, A = 6L2 and V = L3. Find diameter D of a sphere of equivalent volume. V = π D3/6 = L3 D3 = 6L3/π = 1.90986 L3 D = (1.90986 L3)0.333 = 1.2407 L Ks = A D/V = (6L2)(1.2407 L)/L3 = 7.444 (c) Cylinder with L/D = 1.0. For this cylinder shape, L = D. Thus, A = 2π D2/4 + π DL = .5π L2 + π L2 = 1.5π L2, and V = (π D2/4)L = 0.25π L3. Find diameter D of a sphere of equivalent volume. V = π D3/6 = 0.25π L3 D3 = 6(0.25π L3)/ π = 1.5L3 D = (1.5 L3)0.333 = 1.1447 L Ks = A D/V = (1.5π L2)(1.1447 L)/0.25π L3 = 6.868

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10L = D.681 x 109)(12.27 x 10-6) = 10.56 x 10-6 in2 Total surface area = (1.001 in.002 in.284(0.0625π L3 Find diameter D of a sphere of equivalent volume.004) 3/6 = 0.00000003351 = 33. Solution: For a spherical particle of D = 0.516 x 10-9) = 0.0625π L3 = 7. determine the volume taken by the pile. and V = (π D2/4)L = 0.56 x 10-6) = 21..284)/0.125π L2 + 0.5L)L = 0.5L = D.625π L2)(0.002 in.19 x 10-9 lb/particle Number of particles in 2 lb = 2. A = 2π D2/4 + π DL = 0. and 25% are 0. (b) If the packing factor = 0.0/0.6 Solve Problem 16.5/(0. however.284 lb/in3.1487 x 10-9) = 3.004 in. (a) Determine the total surface area of all the particles in the pile.375 L3)0.004 in.6.003 in.2102 x 109 A = π D2 = π (0. the sizes vary.0/(9.6 = 11. = 0.5π (0.721 L)/0.25π (10L)2 L = 25π L3 Find diameter D of a sphere of equivalent volume.362 x 109 85 .116 x 10 3 in2 (b) With a packing factor of 0. Note: the density of iron = 0.75 16.5 lb = 0.565 x 10 3 in2 (b) With a packing factor of 0.51 x 10-9 in3/particle Weight per particle W = ρ V = 0. Thus. For this shape.25π (0.002) 3/6 = 0.00001256 in2 = 12. constitute 25% of total 2 lb.0.0625π L3)/ π = 0. Solution: (a) For a spherical particle of D = 0.0/0.18 x 10-9 in3) = 1. 50% are 0..00005027 in2 = 50.18 x 10-9 in3/particle Weight per particle W = ρ V = 0. Given this distribution. For this cylinder shape.5 lb Number of particles in 0.313 L Ks = A D/V = (60π L2)(5. V = π D3/6 = π (0. The particles are spherical in shape and all have the same diameter of 0.333 = 0.5π (10L)2 + π (10L)L = 50π L2 + 10π L2 = 60π L2.00000000418 = 4.0/(1.625π L2. the total volume taken up by the pile = (2.002 in. Assume the same packing factor. what is the total surface area of all the particles in the pile. 0. and V = (π D2/4)L = 0.7 Suppose in Problem 16.002) 2 = 0.5L)2 L = 0.001 in.001 in. Thus.5L)2 + π (0.(d) Cylinder with L/D = 2. V = π D3/6 = 0.1487 x 10-9 lb/particle Particles of size D = 0.74 in3 16.74 in3 16.375L3 D = (0.5.2102 x 109)(50. except that the diameter of the particles is 0. A = 2π D2/4 + π DL = .27 x 10-6 in2 Total surface area = (0.6.721 L Ks = A D/V = (0. V = π D3/6 = 25π L3 D3 = 6(25π L3)/ π = 150L3 D = (150 L3)0. the total volume taken up by the pile = (2. V = π D3/6 = π (0.5236 x 10-9 in3/particle Weight per particle W = ρ V = 0.6 = 11.211 (e) Disk with L/D = 0.516 x 10-9 lb/particle Number of particles in 2 lb = 2.284(4.284(33.681 x 109 A = π D2 = π (0.19 x 10-9) = 1.5236 x 10-9 in3) = 0.002 in.313 L)/25π L3 = 12. V = π D3/6 = π (0.5π L2 = 0.5 that the average particle diameter = 0.10.004) 2 = 0..0625π L3 D3 = 6(0.001) 3/6 = 0.333 = 5.284)/0. forming a statistical distribution as follows: 25% of the particles by weight are 0. Solution: (a) For a spherical particle of D = 0.6.5 A pile of iron powder weighs 2 lb.51 x 10-9 in3) = 9.

567 x 109 Total surface area = (51.958 m2 Added surface area = 59.91 x 1012 Total surface area = (1. = (0.8 A solid cube of copper with each side = 1.0 lb Number of particles in 1 lb = 1.142 x 10-6 in2/particle Total surface area of particles of D = 0. is A = π D2 = π (0. The 86 .265 x 10-6 in3) = 2.56 x 10-6 in2 Total surface area of particles of D = 0.567 x 109)( 50.124 x 109)(28.000 in2 Percent increase = 100(2.1 x 10-3 m is A = π D2 = π (0.563 x 103 + 10.19 x 10-9 lb/particle Particles of size D = 0. see Figure 2.001) 2 = 3. what is the maximum possible packing factor that the powders can take? Solution: The maximum packing factor is achieved when the spherical particles are arranged as a face-centered cubic unit cell.5236 x 10-12 = 1.51 x 10-9 in3/particle Number of particles in 1 ft3 = 1728/33.284(4.002 in.6 = 59.8(b).51 x 10-9 = 51. is V = π D3/6 = π (0.5/(4.1 x 10-3)3/6 = 0.274 x 10-6 in2 Total surface area of particles of D = 0.002 in.265 x 10-6 in3/particle Volume of a spherical particle of D = 0. = 1.5236 x 10-12 m3) = 5.002) 3/6 = 4..142 x 10-6) = 10.18 x 10-9 in3) = 1.5236 x 10-12 m3/particle Number of particles in 1 m3 = 1.592.003 in.563 x 103 + 3.274 x 10-6) = 3.002 in.506 x 103 = 24. V = π (0.003 in.592.004 in (assume that all particles are the same size)? Solution: Area of initial cube A = 6(1 ft)2 = 6 ft2 = 864 in2 Volume of cube V = (1 ft)3 = 1728 in3 Surface area of a spherical particle of D = 0.0/0..003) 3/6 = 14.563 x 103 in2 For a spherical particle of D = 0.362 x 109)(3.864)/864 = 299.8406 x 109)(12. 16.142 x 10-8 m3/particle Volume of a sphere of D = 0.91 x 1012)( 0.900% 16. What is the percentage increase in total surface area if the diameter of each particle is 0.18 x 10-9 in3/particle Weight per particle W = ρ V = 0.0/(1.0 ft is converted into metallic powders of spherical shape by gas atomization.000 .9958 x 104 = 59.566 x 10-6) = 10. = (3.124 x 109 A = π D2 = π (0.9 A solid cube of aluminum with each side = 1.137 x 10-9 in3/particle Weight per particle W = ρ V = 0.10 Given a large volume of metallic powders.5 lb Number of particles in 0.632 x 10 3 in2.002) 2 = 12.137 x 10-9 in3) = 4.5 lb = 0. = 0.8406 x 109 A = π D2 = π (0.592 x 103 = 2.004 in.506 x 103 in2 Total surface area of all particles = 10. = (0.0 m is converted into metallic powders of spherical shape by gas atomization. How much total surface area is added by the process if the diameter of each particle is 100 microns (assume that all particles are the same size)? Solution: Area of starting cube A = 6(1 m) 2 = 6 m2 Volume of starting cube V = (1 m) 3 = 1 m3 D = 100 µm = 0.1 x 10-3 m Surface area of a sphere of D = 0. constitute 50% of total 2 lb.1 x 10-3 m is V = π D3/6 = π (0. V = π (0.1 mm = 0.004) 2 = 50.003 in.952 m2 16. constitute 25% of total 2 lb.1 x 10-3)2 = 3.A = π D2 = π (0. similar to the atomic structure of FCC metals.284(14.563 x 103 in2 For a spherical particle of D = 0.19 x 10-9) = 0.001 in.015 x 10-9 lb/particle Particles of size D = 0.958 .004 in.004) 3/6 = 33. all of which are perfectly spherical and having the same exact diameter.003) 2 = 28.015 x 10-9) = 0.

8752)(0.13 The part shown in Figure P16.25π (2.0/(2. Thus. porosity = 1 .1925) = 6.414D)3 = 2. What is the required press tonnage to perform this operation? Solution: Projected area of part Ap = 0.667 Sintering further reduces the bulk specific volume to 0.25π (3.0944/2. Determine: (a) the most appropriate pressing direction.7).2 = 0. The equivalent number of whole spheres = 6(. The outside diameter = 44 mm.556(75. (18. The pressing operation reduces the powder to 2/3 of its starting volume.0.125) = 4 spheres.82 . The volume of the unit cell is therefore (1.52)(1.25π (2. and the length of the bearing = 25 mm. Volume of 4 spheres = 4π D3/6 = 2.8752) = 5.5) + 8(. Accordingly.062 kN 16. The packing factor = 2. Assume shrinkage during sintering can be neglected.0/1. (b) Press tonnage F = Appc Projected area of part Ap = 0.000 lb/in2. and (c) the final weight of the part if the porosity is 10%.0. bulk specific volume = 2. Given that these are the only factors that affect the structure of the finished part.05% Compaction and Design Considerations 16.5) = 0.556 in 2 F = Appc = 5.7405 = 74. the diagonal of the cube face = 2D.4(207) = 236.25π (Do2 .82 . Solution: Packing factor = bulk density / true density Density = (specific volume)-1 Packing factor = true specific volume / bulk specific volume Pressing reduces bulk specific volume to 2/3 = 0.5372 + 4.5.414D. and (2) finding the volume of the unit cell cube.1.833 By Eq.0. Our approach to determine the packing factor will consist of: (1) finding the volume of the spheres and portions thereof that are contained in the cell. (c) V = 0.25π (442 .8284 = 0.715 lb = 208 tons. the inside diameter = 22 mm. (b) the required press tonnage to perform this operation.0. shrinkage amounts to 10% on a volume basis.0 x . using a compacting pressure of 207 MPa. Consider that the diagonal of any face of the unit cell contains one full diameter (the sphere in the center of the cube face) and two half diameters (the spheres at the corners of the face).82 .25π (2.13 is to be pressed of iron powders using a compaction pressure of 75.25π (Do2 .0.25 .4 mm2 F = Appc = 1140.11 In a certain pressing operation.8284 D3.222) = 1140. In the subsequent sintering operation. the face is a square with each edge = D√ 2 = 1. Packing factor after pressing and sintering = 1. Solution: (a) Most appropriate pressing direction is parallel to the part axis.833 = 0.0 Thus for a packing factor of 0. The unit cell contains 6 half spheres in the faces of the cube and 8 one-eighth spheres in corners. (2) Volume of the cube of one unit cell.667 x . (1) Volume of whole and/or partial spheres contained in the unit cell.90) = 1.unit cell of the FCC structure contains 8 spheres at the corners of the cube and 6 spheres on each face. Let true specific volume = 1.Di2) = 0.000) = 416.12 A bearing of simple geometry is to be pressed out of bronze powders.071 in3 87 .0944 D3 where D = diameter of a sphere. The ratio of (1) over (2) is the packing factor. the metallic powder fed into the open die has a packing factor of 0. Dimensions are inches.Di2) = 0.5) + 0.167 16. determine its final porosity.90 of value after pressing.5.

part weight W = 6.55 lb. one level of press control. 2 directions because of axial thickness. indicate which PM class the parts belong to. and how many levels of press control will be required.From Table 4.284)(0.14. (d) Class IV. 3 levels of press control required. density of iron ρ = 0.284 lb/in3. 2 directions of pressing. 88 .1. (b) Class I. 16. 2 directions of pressing. Dimensions are mm. At 10% porosity.071(0. whether the part must be pressed from one or two directions. 4 or 5 levels of press control due to multiple steps in part design. one direction part is relatively thin.14 For each of the four part drawings in Figure P16. (c) Class IV. Solution: (a) Class II.90) = 1. one level of press control.

and (4) firing. molding.6 What is the process of jiggering? Answer. 17.7 What is the difference between dry pressing and semi-dry pressing of traditional ceramics parts? Answer. The difference is in the starting clay.5 List and briefly describe some of the plastic forming methods used to shape traditional ceramics products. (3) drying. The plastic forming methods include: (1) hand modeling. and throwing. In slip casting a slurry of clay is poured into a plaster of Paris mold. Jiggering is a clay forming process that uses a convex mold on a potters wheel. and (4) extrusion. 17. The remaining slurry is usually poured out to leave a hollow part. 17. and carbides. The clay is first pressed into rough shape and then rotated and formed with a jigger tool to final shape. Crushing is performed to reduce large lumps of mineral to smaller size. whereupon water is absorbed from the slurry into the plaster to form a clay layer against the mold wall.2 17. which is a mechanized extension of hand throwing used to manufacture bowls and plates. as far as raw materials are concerned? Answer. The sequence is: (1) preparation of raw materials.9 What is the name given to the furnace used to fire ceramic ware? Answer. whereas the new ceramics are based on man-made simpler compounds such as oxides. Dry clay has virtually no plasticity. Answer. What is the technical difference between crushing and grinding in the preparation of traditional ceramic raw materials? Answer.3 List the basic steps in the traditional ceramics processing sequence.10 What is glazing in traditional ceramics processing? 89 . Grinding is a secondary process which further reduces the particle size to fine powder.dry pressing. The traditional ceramics are based on hydrous aluminum silicates (clay).4 Describe the slip casting process in traditional ceramics processing. 17. (2) jiggering. Answer. For dry pressing. 17. the water content is usually less than 5%. Sintering of green ceramics (or powdered metals) causes bonding between the ceramic grains.17 17. the clay has a typical water content of 10% to 15%. 17. nitrides. 17. 17. in which a clay slug is pressed in a mold. It is suited to the manufacture of flatware.8 What happens to a ceramic material when it is sintered? Answer. and so this imposes certain limitations on part geometry in dry pressing. (3) plastic pressing. (2) shaping. Kiln. For semi. which is accompanied by densification and reduction of porosity. in which the clay is compressed through a die opening to make long sections of uniform cross-sectional shape.1 PROCESSING OF CERAMICS AND CERMETS Review Questions What is the difference between the traditional ceramics and the new ceramics. Answer.

usually consisting of ceramic oxides. In freeze drying. The melting point of cobalt is reduced when WC is dissolved in it. (6) no screw threads. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. Because water is usually not one of the ingredients in the new ceramics during forming. (c) jaw crusher.11 Why is the drying step.13 What is the freeze drying process used to make certain new ceramic powders? Answer. Thus does liquid phase sintering occur in the WC-Co system. is referred to as a glaze. How is this possible? Answer. or (d) silicon dioxide. all correct answers must be given. or (d) roll crusher. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. (5) take into account shrinkage. The guidelines include: (1) subject ceramic parts to compressive.Answer. a ceramic slurry is flowed onto a moving film which flows under a wiper blade. even though the sintering temperatures are below the melting points of either WC or Co. WC gradually dissolves in the cobalt. (2) ceramics are brittle.1 The following equipment is used for crushing and grinding of minerals in the preparation of traditional ceramics raw materials. so important in the processing of traditional ceramics. Answer.14 Describe the doctor-blade process.2 Which one of the following compounds becomes a plastic and formable material when mixed with suitable proportions of water? (a) aluminum oxide. (b) hydrogen oxide. 17. In the doctor-blade process. (a) 17. For each question. (c) hydrous aluminum silicate. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. Because the requirements on the strength of the finished product are usually more demanding for new ceramics.16 What are some design recommendations for ceramic parts? Answer. 17. The coating. the water is then removed from the droplets in a vacuum chamber. salts are dissolved in water and sprayed into small droplets which are immediately frozen. Glazing refers to the process of putting a ceramic coating on the surface of the ceramic piece. not tensile loads. (b) hammer mill. usually not required in processing of new ceramics? Answer. (3) part geometries should be simple. Which one of the pieces listed is used for grinding? (a) ball mill. At the sintering temperatures used for WC-Co. 17. Drying is only needed when the green piece contains water. reducing its melting point to the sintering temperature. Answer. so that the resulting ceramic is in the form of a thin green sheet which is dried and reeled onto a spool for subsequent shaping and sintering. 17. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point.15 Liquid phase sintering is used for WC-Co compacts. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 15 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). so avoid impact loading. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. and the freeze-dried salt is decomposed by heating to form the ceramic powders. 17. (4) use large radii on inside and outside corners. 17.12 Why is raw material preparation more important in the processing of new ceramics than for traditional ceramics? Answer. 90 . 17.

or (d) 40%.10 Which of the following geometric features should be avoided if possible in the design of structural components made of new ceramics (more than one)? (a) complicated shapes. (c) 17. strength increases with grain size: (a) true.8 Which of the following are not the purposes of finishing operations used for parts made of the new ceramics (more than one)? (a) apply a surface coating. or (e) work harden the surface.5 The term green piece in ceramics refers to a part that has been shaped but not yet fired: (a) true. Answer. (a) and (e) 17. Answer. or (e) isostatic pressing. or (e) spinning. (c) 17. (b) jangling. (b) rounded inside corners. Answer. or (d) metal. (d) remove material. (d) jolleying. (c).4 Which of the following processes are not plastic forming methods used in the shaping of traditional ceramics (more than one)? (a) extrusion. Answer. (a). (b) freeze drying. or (b) false. (c) jiggering. (c) sharp edges. (b) 17. Answer. (c) 17.3 At which one of the following water contents does clay become a suitably plastic material for the traditional ceramics plastic forming processes? (a) 5%. (b) cermet. (c) increase dimensional accuracy. Answer. or (e) threads. (b) 17. and (e) 91 . (c) hot pressing. Answer. (b) 10%.6 In the final product made of a polycrystalline new ceramic material. (d) injection molding. (d). (d) thin sections. or (b) false. (c) composite. (b) and (c) 17.9 Which one of the following terms best describes what a cemented carbide is? (a) ceramic. (b) improve surface finish. Answer. (a) 17.7 Which one of the following processes for the new ceramic materials accomplishes shaping and sintering simultaneously? (a) doctor-blade process.Answer. (c) 20%.

18. 92 . Describe it. causing residual stresses and product defects.7 Indicate the mathematical equation for the flow curve. (2) better surface finish. Answer. Indicate some of the advantages of cold working relative to warm and hot working. (18. Answer.1) as Yf = Kεn. Deep drawing is a sheet metal forming process used to fabricate cup-shaped parts.9 Describe the effect of strain rate in metal forming. In sheet metal processes. 18. Reasons why friction is undesirable in metal forming: (1) inhibits metal flow during deformation. 18. it occurs when the friction stress is greater than the shear flow stress of the metal. thereby forcing its cross-section to assume the profile of the orifice. How does increasing temperature affect the parameters in the flow curve equation? Answer.10 Why is friction generally undesirable in metal forming operations? Answer. (3) increased strength due to work hardening. Answer. Because these operations are generally performed on presses. This is accomplished by preheating the forming tools.11 What is sticking friction in metalworking? Answer. The flow curve is defined in Eq. bar drawing is a bulk deformation process used to reduce the diameter of a cylindrical workpart. Answer.8 What is isothermal forming ? Answer. Increasing strain rate tends to increase the resistance to deformation.4 Why is the term pressworking often used for sheet metal processes? Answer.5 18. An isothermal forming operation is performed in such a way as to eliminate surface cooling and thermal gradients in the workpart.18 18. The tendency is especially prominent in hot forming operations. (4) possible directional properties due to grain flow. Extrusion is a compression process in which the work material is forced to flow through a die orifice.2 Extrusion is a fundamental shaping process. the area-to-volume ratio is high. the shape changes are significant. 18. Increasing temperature decreases both K and n in the flow curve equation. and the workparts have a low area-to-volume ratio.6 18. In bulk deformation. 18. 18. Advantages of cold working are: (1) better accuracy. (2) increases forces and power required. and (3) wearing of the tools. and (5) no heating of work required. Sticking friction is when the work surface adheres to the surface of the tool rather than slides against it. What is the difference between deep drawing and bar drawing? Answer. 18.3 18.1 FUNDAMENTALS OF METAL FORMING Review Questions What are the characteristics that distinguish bulk deformation processes from sheet metal processes? Answer.

4 The average flow stress is the flow stress multiplied by which of the following factors? (a) n. where n is the strain hardening exponent. (c). (c) 18.1 Which of the following are bulk deformation processes (more than one)? (a) bending. (b) (1+n). or (b) low volume-to-area ratio. or (c) increases flow stress.3 The flow curve expresses the behavior of a metal in which of the following regions of the stress-strain curve? (a) elastic region. (c) isotropic mechanical properties.6 Which of the following are advantages and characteristics of hot working relative to cold working (more than one)? (a) fracture of workpart less likely.73. Answer. and (e) rolling.Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 13 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). (b) increased strength properties. (e) lower deformation forces required.6Tm. (c). 18. Answer. (b) deep drawing. or (b) plastic region.7 Increasing strain rate tends to have which one of the following effects on flow stress during hot forming of metal? (a) decreases flow stress. all correct answers must be given. Answer. (c) extrusion. (d) 18. During a forming operation. (c) 0. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. and (f) more significant shape changes are possible. (d). 18. Answer. (c) 1/n.5 Hot working of metals refers to which one of the following temperature regions relative to the melting point of the given metal on an absolute temperature scale? (a) room temperature. (b) has no effect. Determine the flow stress at this strain and the average flow stress that the metal experienced during the operation.8 The coefficient of friction between the part and the tool in cold working tends to be which of the following relative to its value in hot working? (a) higher. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. the final true strain that the metal experiences = 0. (d) less overall energy required. or (d) 0. or (c) no effect. (b) lower. and (e). Problems Flow Curve in Forming 18. For each question.2Tm. (b). or (d) 1/(1+n).1 K = 600 MPa and n = 0. (d) 18. (b) 18. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. (a). Answer. and (f). 18.20 for a certain metal. (d) forging.4Tm.2 Which of the following is typical of the work geometry in sheet metal processes? (a) high volume-to-area ratio. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. (e). Answer. Answer. (b) 18. Answer. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. 93 . (b) 0.

Determine the flow stress at the new length and the average flow stress that the metal has been subjected to during the deformation.26 = 29.6 For a certain metal. Solution: Yf = K = 700 = Kε n = 700ε .9 MPa. f 18.75(1+n) = 0.73) 0.5 in.30/1. Average flow stress Y = 600(0.4 MPa.19 = 31.3/2.501 Flow stress Yf = 35.27 ε must be equal to 1. Solution: ε = ln (157/100) = ln 1.451) 0. f 18.5 Derive the equation for average flow stress.30 = 514.75n 0.19/1.000 lb/in2 and n = 0. f 18.5 = -0.3 in.75 Yf f Kε n/(1+n) = 0.000(0.451 Flow stress Yf = 850(0.65 = 0.3 A particular metal has a flow curve with parameters: strength coefficient K = 35.27 = 700/1.352 lb/in2.2/1.2 = 469.26/1.333 94 . A tensile specimen of the metal with gage length = 2. Average flow stress Y = 40.75 Kε n 1/(1+n) = 0. f 18.7 Determine the value of the strain hardening exponent for a metal that will cause the average flow stress to be 3/4 of the final flow stress after deformation. A cylindrical specimen of the metal with starting diameter = 2.69315) 0.4 MPa.75 1 = 0.69315) 0.27.30 = 669. (18.2) in the text.Solution: Flow stress Yf = 600(0. Determine the flow stress at this new length and the average flow stress that the metal has been subjected to during deformation.19 = 37.26.73) 0. Solution: Y = 0.000(0.309 lb/in2.0. Average flow stress Y = 850(0.5 MPa. Determine the average flow stress that the metal experiences if it is subjected to a stress that is equal to its strength coefficient K. Eq.25 = 0.000 lb/in2 and strain hardening exponent n = 0.5/3.501) 0.240 lb/in2.27 = 551.1)]: Yf = Kε n Y over the range ε = 0 to ε = ε is given by ∫Kε n dε = K ∫ε n dε = Kε n+1/ε (n+1) = Kε n /(n+1) f 18. Average flow stress Y = 35.000(0.26 = 23.2 A metal has a flow curve with parameters: K = 850 MPa and strain hardening exponent n = 0.75n n = 0. K = 700 MPa and n = 0.0 in is compressed to a length of 1. Y = 700(1.75 + 0.5 in and length = 3.451) 0.206 lb/in2.19. Solution: ε = ln (1. Solution: Flow stress equation [Eq.0) = ln 0.0) .000(0. (18.0) = ln 1.0 in is stretched to a length = 3. Determine the flow stress at this compressed length and the average flow stress that the metal has experienced during deformation.57 = 0. A tensile specimen of the metal with gage length = 100 mm is stretched to a length = 157 mm.2 = 563. Solution: ε = ln (3.69315 Flow stress Yf = 40.501) 0.27/1.30.4 The strength coefficient and strain hardening exponent of a certain test metal are K = 40.2 MPa f 18.

4) 1.1/0. Determine the flow stress if the strain rate is: (a) 0.5724 Ao/Af = 1. (b) h = 75 mm. and (c) h = 51 mm.8 K = 35. Construct a plot of the strain rate as a function of length as the specimen is pulled to a length = 200 mm.8 = ε . determine the amount of reduction in cross-sectional area experienced by the part.000 = 35.5 = 0.7726 = 0.000 ε . Solution: (a) strain rate = 200/100 = 2.0 in.1/0.500 s-1 18.. strain rate = 0.0 = 0.17 = 0.15 = 0.000 lb/in2 and the strain-rate sensitivity exponent m = 0.1538 sec-1 At L = 7.40 for a metal used in a forming operation in which the workpart is reduced in cross-sectional area by stretching.000 lb/in2 and n = 0.000 ε . the relative speed of the plattens compressing the part = 200 mm/s..19 = 0.625 s-1 At L = 170 mm. During the deformation.01/sec (b) 1. strain rate = 1/6.0 in/sec.000) = 35.0 in starting gage length is subjected to a tensile test in which the grips holding the end of the test specimen are moved with a relative velocity = 1.667 s-1 At L = 160 mm.0/sec.588 s-1 At L = 180 mm.1333 sec-1 At L = 8. Solution: Y = Kε n/(1+n) f 20.8) = -0.5 in.0 = 0.1/0.4/(1.10 A specimen with 6.5 = 0.526 s-1 At L = 200 mm. The strength constant C = 30.5724 ε = ln(Ao/Af) = 0.20 = 0. Determine the strain rate at (a) h = 100 mm.555 s-1 At L = 190 mm.18 = 0.16 = 0.22314 ln ε = -0.1/0.18.4 28.11 A workpart with starting height h = 100 mm is compressed to a final height of 50 mm. strain rate = 0.4 = -0.000 lb/in 2.1/0. strain rate = 0. If the average flow stress on the part is 20. strain rate = 1/8.1429 sec-1 At L = 7. Construct a plot of the strain rate as a function of length as the specimen is pulled to a length = 8..9 The gage length of a tensile test specimen = 150 mm.0 s -1 (b) strain rate = 200/75 = 2.0 in.1667 sec-1 At L = 6.0 in.1 m/s.4(20.12 A hot working operation is carried out at various speeds. Solution: The following values are calculated for the plot: At L = 150 mm.1/0.000/35. Solution: The following values are calculated for the plot: At L = 6. 95 . strain rate = 0..7726 Af = Ao/1.55786 ε = 0. (c) 100/sec.0 = 0.667 s -1 (c) strain rate = 200/51 = 3. strain rate = 1/7.22314/0.5 in.1250 sec-1 18.000 = 0. strain rate = 1/6. strain rate = 0. strain rate = 0. It is subjected to a tensile test in which the grips holding the end of the test specimen are moved with a relative velocity = 0.922 s -1 18..4 0.4 ln ε = ln (0.15.0 in.564Ao Strain Rate 18. strain rate = 1/7.

15 = 30.659 (b) If temperature were 600°C. (a) Determine C and m. (b) If the temperature were 600°C.000 lb/in2 (c) Yf = 30. and at a strain rate = 250/s.4 (b) If temperature were decreased to 900°F.1973 = 45000/3.5215 – 2.601.9565 = (300/10) m = (30) m ln 1.4849)m = 5.601.4849 m = 5.4 (2) C = 45000/3000.0366 m = 0.1973 0. At a strain rate = 10/sec. the stress = 45.13 A tensile test is performed to determine the parameters C and m in Eq.01) . the stress = 300 MPa.000 lb/in 2.Solution: (a) Yf = C(strain rate)m = 30.4 C = 14.7038 – 5. (a) Determine C and m.0819 = 14.6726 = 95.4) for a certain metal.658 (2) C = 300/(250) .4012 m m = 0. (b) If the temperature were 900°F. what changes would you expect in the values of C and m? Solution: (a) Two equations: (1) 160 = C(12) m and (2) 300 = C(250) m (1) ln 160 = ln C + m ln 12 or ln 160 . what changes would you expect in the values of C and m? Solution: (a) Two equations: (1) 23. and at a strain rate = 300/sec. the strength constant C would increase and the strainrate sensitivity exponent m would decrease.000/23.1973 (1) C = 23000/10 = 23000/1.1.0752 3.9656 = m ln 30 0.601.000 lb/in 2.14 A tensile test is carried out to determine the strength constant C and strain-rate sensitivity exponent m for a certain metal at 1000°F.67117 = 3.m ln 250 = ln C (1) and (2): ln 160 .15 = 15. (18.036 lb/in2 (b) Yf = 30.000 = C(10) m and (2) 45. C = 95.000 = 1.660 Averaging these values.m ln 12 = ln C (2) ln 300 = ln C + m ln 250 or ln 300 .0) .6286 m = 0.m ln 250 5.000(100) .1361 = 95. the stress is measured at 23. the stress is measured at 160 MPa. the strength constant C would decrease and the strain-rate sensitivity exponent m would increase.000(0.5215 m (5.7038 – 5.207 (1) C = 160/(12) .858 lb/in2 18.000 = C(300) m 45.5752 = 14.207 = 160. At a strain rate = 12/s.000(1.207 = 300/3.15 = 59.0752 – 2.m ln 12 = ln 300 . 18. 96 . The temperature at which the test is performed = 500°C.

Answer.8 19. 19. 19. Rolled products include flat sheet and plate stock. Answer.19 19. A two-high rolling mill consists of two opposing rolls between which the work is compressed. 19. identify some additional bulk forming processes that use rolls to effect the deformation. 19. (2) impression die forging. Answer.2 List some of the products produced on a rolling mill.1 BULK DEFORMATION PROCESSES IN METALWORKING Review Questions What are the reasons why the bulk deformation processes are important commercially and technologically? Answer. What are the two basic types of forging equipment? Answer. Answer.6 Besides flat rolling and shape rolling.4 What is a two-high rolling mill? Answer. Because its presence constrains the metal in the die to fill the details of the die cavity.7 One way to classify forging operations is by the degree to which the work is constrained in the die. and (3) most of the processes produce little material waste. 19. and roll forging. 19. and presses. thread rolling. which impact the workpart. round bar and rod stock. Reasons why the bulk deformation processes are important include: (1) they are capable of significant shape change when hot working is used. and (3) closed die forging. rails. Some other processes that use rolls are ring rolling. (2) they have a positive effect on part strength when cold working is used. The three basic types are: (1) open die forging. name the three basic types. some are net shape processes. Ways to reduce force in flat rolling include: (1) use hot rolling. roll piercing. and (3) use smaller diameter rolls. structural shapes such as I-beams and channels. gear rolling. (2) reduce draft in each pass.3 Identify some of the ways in which force in flat rolling can be reduced.10 What is isothermal forging ? 97 . 19. 19. which apply a gradual pressure to the work. The two types of forging machines are hammers. By this classification.5 What is a reversing mill in rolling? Answer.9 Why is flash desirable in impression die forging? Answer. A reversing mill is a two-high rolling mill in which the direction of rotation of the rolls can be reversed to allow the work to pass through from either side.

1. Because if the drawing stress exceeded the yield strength. 98 . 19. (b). 19. and (f).4 Which of the four basic bulk deformation processes use compression to effect shape change (more than one)? (a) bar and wire drawing. Products made by discrete extrusion include: toothpaste tubes. Isothermal forging is a hot forging operation in which the die surfaces are heated to reduce heat transfer from the work into the tooling. See Article 19.1 The maximum possible draft in a rolling operation depends on which of the following parameters (more than one)? (a) coefficient of friction between roll and work. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. Answer. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 22 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). (a). Answer. all correct answers must be given. aluminum beverage cans. or (g) upsetting. (c) four-high mill. (d) stock thickness. 19. the work is squeezed through the die opening by compression the term indirect compression is sometimes used. or (e) three-high configuration. Answer. Products produced by continuous extrusion include: structural shapes (window frames. (b) continuous rolling mill. 19. (c) forging.3. (c) roll velocity. 19.12 Name some products that are produced by extrusion. (f) tube sinking. (b) hobbing.3 Production of pipes and tubes is associated with which of the following bulk deformation processes (more than one)? (a) extrusion. Bar and wire drawing (a) is the only tricky answer. and (f) strength coefficient of the work metal. 19. although tensile stresses are applied to the work. (e) strain. and (d) rolling. 19. Answer. (a) and (b). Answer. and rods of various cross-section. (d) roll forging.11 Distinguish between direct and indirect extrusion. (c). (c) ring rolling. 19.2 Which of the following rolling mill types are associated with relatively small diameter rolls in contact with the work (more than one)? (a) cluster mill. why must the drawing stress never exceed the yield strength of the work metal? Answer. shower stalls. They are both examples of how compressive stresses applied to the outside surface of a solid cylindrical cross-section can create high tensile stresses in the interior of the cylinder. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. and battery cases.13 What does the centerburst defect in extrusion have in common with the roll piercing process? Answer. (e) roll piercing. Answer. (a). (a) and (c). For each question. (b) roll diameter.Answer. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. tubes and pipes.14 In a wire drawing operation. channels). and (d). each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. (b) extrusion. (e). the metal on the exit side of the draw die would stretch rather than force metal to be drawn through the die opening. (d) reversing mill.

(a).19.0 in thick slab is 10.6 Which of the following are classified as forging operations (more than one)? (a) coining. and upset forged to form the nail head. under the assumptions of a perfectly plastic metal. 19. (c) forging. drawn into wire stock.72. (b) Which of the following bulk deformation processes are involved in the production of nails for lumber construction (more than one)? (a) bar and wire drawing.02 wo 40(wo)(16) = 30(1.0333 µ = (0. no friction. Determine: (a) the minimum required coefficient of friction that would make this rolling operation possible.13 19.1 A 40 mm thick plate is to be reduced to 30 mm in one pass in a rolling operation. and rotational speed = 18.02w o) = 640/30. is which of the following (one answer)? (a) zero. (b). (b) fullering. (c) impact extrusion. The production of tubing is possible in indirect extrusion but not in direct extrusion: (a) true or (b) false? Answer. (a). (c) forging.18.30 = 10 mm. Theoretically. and (d). Roll radius = 300 mm. (b) exit velocity under the assumption that the plate widens by 2% during the operation.2 A 2.7 19. (e) thread rolling. (d) roll forging. (b) extrusion. (b). (b) extrusion. (d). Flash causes build-up of pressure inside the die which causes the work metal to fill the cavity.5)/18.vr)/vr = (20.0 in wide and 12.10 Johnson's formula is associated with which of the four bulk deformation processes (one answer)? (a) bar and wire drawing. Bar stock is rolled. (c). Thickness is to be reduced in three steps in a hot rolling operation. and no redundant work.tf = 40 .6 = 20. (b) 0.0 ft long. µ2 = 10/300 = 0. Tube and pipe cross-sections can be produced by either direct or indirect extrusion. and (f) upsetting.5 Flash in impression die forging serves no useful purpose and is undesirable because it must be trimmed from the part after forming: (a) true or (b) false? Answer.9 19. the maximum reduction possible in a wire drawing operation. 19. towovo = tfwfvf wf = 1.63.915 m/min (c) s = (vf .5 = 0. Each step will reduce the slab to 75% of its previous thickness.1826 (b) Plate widens by 2%. Answer. and (c) forward slip. Answer.02w o)vf vf = 40(wo)(16)/ 30(1. (c) 1.5 rev/min. It is expected 99 . and (d) rolling.8 19.915 .5 = 0. (b). Answer. Entrance speed = 16 m/min. and (f). and (d) rolling.0. Answer. or (d) 2.0333) 0. Solution: (a) Maximum draft dmax = µ2 R Given that d = to . (b) Problems Rolling 19.

12945) = 3. Roll radius at each stand = 250 mm.89 mm Pass 3: d = 37.98 .78 ft/min. Thickness of the starting plate = 25 mm and width = 300 mm. Step 1: vf = (2.1575 Let x = fraction reduction per pass.0) = 0.75)(2. The plate is wide enough relative to its thickness that no increase in width occurs. Roll diameter = 700 mm and coefficient of friction between rolls and work = 0.753 x 2.53 mm Pass 2: d = 43.tf)/dmax = (50 .x) n = 25/50 = 0.6.875 mm This converts into a maximum possible reduction x = 7.0)(40)/(0. and roll speed is the same for the three steps. Solution: (a) After three passes.53(0.875 = 3.63 = 37. Final thickness is to be 13 mm.03 x 10.15) 2 (350) = 7. = 26.3 A series of cold rolling operations are to be used to reduce the thickness of a plate from 50 mm down to 25 mm in a reversing two-high mill.032 x 10.0)(1.12945) = 6. wf = (1.4.98 mm Pass 4: d = 32.03)(1.5) 1/4 = 0.0)(1.0) = 10.15) 2 (350) = 7.89 .875/50 = 0. Step 2: vf = (0. If the entry speed of the slab in the first step is 40 ft/min.1575. (b) Pass 1: d = 50(0.71 mm Pass 5: d = 28.91 mm.27 = 28.63 mm.0)(10. which exceeds the maximum possible reduction of 0. tf = 28.71 . tf = (0. suppose that the percent reduction were specified to be equal for each pass. the following relationship must be satisfied: 50(1 . Under the assumption that the forward slip is equal at each stand.4 In the previous problem.3 in.3. determine: (a) speed vr at each stand. (a) What is the minimum number of passes required? (b) What is the draft for each pass? Solution: (a) Maximum possible draft occurs on first pass: dmax = µ2 R = (0.844 in.12945 .x) n = 25 (1 . Determine: (a) minimum number of passes required.0)(40)/(0. Equal drafts of 6 mm are to be taken at each stand. tf = 50 .91 = 32.87055 x = 1 .00 mm 19.78 ft/min.752 x 2.27 mm.17 → 4 passes (b) Draft per pass d = (50 .927) = 312. tf = 37.0) = 51.0)(1. and n = number of passes.03)(1.033 x 10. rather than the draft.5) 1/5 = 0.4. tf = 32.25)/7.03)(10.875 mm Minimum number of passes = (to . towoLo = tfwfLf (2. The number of passes must be an integer.0)(12 x 12) = (0.927)Lf Lf = (2. Try n = 5: (1 .752 x 2.71 mm.0) = 51.844)(10. tf = 43.0)(12 x 12)/(0. and (b) draft for each pass? Solution: (a) Maximum draft dmax = µ2 R = (0.0) = 51.53 .0)(10.032 x 10.78 ft/min. determine: (a) length and (b) exit velocity of the slab after the final reduction.12945) = 4.25 mm 19.75)(0.71(0. 19.0)(1.25)/4 = 6.0)(1. the slab will widen by 3% in each step.0.5 (1 .47 mm.12945) = 5.1591.927 in.51/n Try n = 4: (1 .89(0.03 x 10.47 = 43.8409 x = 1 .0)(40)/(0.0)(10.87055 = 0.025 ft (b) Given that roll speed is the same at all three stands and that towovo = tfwfvf .98(0.0.5.15.x) = 0.8409 = 0. and (b) forward slip s. which is within the maximum possible reduction of 0.844)(10.71 = 25. The specification is that the draft is to be equal on each pass. Rotational speed at the first stand = 20 rev/min. Step 3: vf = (0. 100 .1575.x) = (.75 x 2.75 x 2. To reduce from to = 50 mm to to = 25 mm in n passes.5 A continuous hot rolling mill has two stands.x) = (.12945) = 4.75)(0.that for this metal and reduction.

42 m/min.6 = 13 mm.01% at each stand.42) = 47. (b) Forward slip s = (vf . The final thickness is to be 0.x) 8 = 0. 1).5v1 = 1.6 A continuous hot rolling mill has eight stands. towovo = t1w1v1 = t2w2v2 Since there is no change in width. (1 + s)vr1 = v1 (Eq. 2 and 3). t2 = 19 .1 m/min. determine the exiting speeds at each rolling stand. Let vr1 = roll speed at stand 1.5v1 Substituting (Eq. if the entering speed at the first stand = 26 m/min.10) 1/8 = 0.5(34.50v2 v2 = 1.2 m/min (Eq.0 in. to = 25 mm. (b) rotational speed of the rolls at stands 2 through 8. Let v2 = exiting plate speed at stand 2. and length = 10 ft.x) = (0.3 in. vr2 = ? Forward slip s = (vf .2/31.74989 = r = 0.3 (1 . in 8 stands.(c) Also.089 s = 0. Solution: (a) Let to = entering plate thickness at stand 1.vr (1 + s)vr = vf At stand 1.0.5vr1 vr2 = 1. Let v1 = exiting plate speed at stand 1 and entering speed at stand 2. Let vr2 = roll speed at stand 2. (d) What is the draft at stands 1 and 8? (e) What is the length and exit speed of the final strip exiting stand 8? Solution: (a) To reduce from to = 3. Let vo = entering plate speed at stand 1.0 in.5(31. previously calculated in (b) v2 = 1. Assume that no widening of the slab occurs during the rolling sequence.2 m/min.10 (1 .3/3. Let t1 = exiting plate thickness at stand 1 and entering thickness at stand 2. width = 15.3 in.x) 8 = 0.74989 x = 1 . (b) 25vo = 19v1 v1 = 25(26)/19 = 34. wo = w1 = w2 Therefore.75v1 = 0.4 = 1. t1 = 25 . and it is assumed that the forward slip will be equal at each stand. 1) At stand 2. thus vr2 = 1.4) = 34. and (c) forward slip. Roll diameter at each stand = 36 in.0(1 . 19.2) = 51. tovo = t1v1 = t2v2 1. 3) Combining (Eqs. (1 + s)vr2 = 1. (1 + s)vr2 = v2 (Eq. and rotational speed at stand number 1 = 30 rev/min. It is observed that the speed of the slab entering stand 1 = 240 ft/min.2 (1 + s) = 34. The dimensions of the starting slab are: thickness = 3. Let t2 = exiting plate thickness at stand 2. 1): (1 + s)vr1 = v1 (1 + s)(31. (1 + s)vr2 = v2 = 1.vr)/vr svr = vf .6 = 19 mm.089 (c) v1 = 34.0 in.0vo = 0.vr)/vr svr = vf .2501 = 25.0 = 0.vr (1 + s)vr = vf 101 . 2) By constant volume. vr1 = π DNr = π (2 x 250)(10-3)(20) = 31.5(1 + s)vr1 . to tf = 0. Determine: (a) percent reduction at each stand.5v1 (Eq. Percent reduction in thickness is to be equal at all stands.3 m/min. 3.

The work material has a strength coefficient = 240 MPa and a strain hardening exponent = 0. Since s is a constant. At stand 8: (1 + s)vr8 = v8.78/(1-r)7 = 224.10609 x 282.1 rev/min Nr5 = 0.10609 x 282.426N r2 = 0.r)2v2 = .0.7503 in.14 = 1. = t8w8v8 Since there is no change in width.78) = 0. 3vo = 3(1 . . (b) roll torque.. towovo = t1w1v1 = t2w2v2 = . v1 = exit speed of slab.10609 x 282. (1 + s)vr1 = v1 (1 + s)(282.78/(1-0.10609 x 282. v8 = exit speed of slab. v2 = exit speed of slab. vr1 : vr2 : . and its speed = 30 m/min. vr1 = π DNr1 = (2π x 18/12)(30) = 282.r)v1 = 3(1 .10609vr2 Rearranging. : v8 Given that Nr1 = 30 rev/min. 3(1 .9.At stand 1: (1 + s)vr1 = v1 . Determine: (a) roll force.132 s = 0.78 = 1.78/(1-r)5 = 126. .3) = 2400 ft/min.3 rev/min Nr7 = 0.2501) 7(.10609 x 282.132 s = 0.3 rev/min Nr4 = 0.5 rev/min Nr8 = 0.7 L8 = 100 ft A plat that is 250 mm wide and 25 mm thick is to be reduced in a single pass in a two-high rolling mill to a thickness of 20 mm.10609 x 282.2501) = 0. w8 Therefore. wo = w1 = w2 = .78/(1-r)3 = 71.8/377. . .8 ft/min from above Nr2 = 0. = t8v8 to = 3.25 = 0.426(40) = 377.2.78/(1-r)2 = 53.0(1 .0(10 ft) = 0.04) = 426. The roll has a radius = 500 mm.132. Solution: (a) Draft d = 25 .78/(1-r) = 0. where vr1 = roll speed.8 (1 + s) = 426. By constant volume. Draft at stand 8 d8 = 3. .74989 = 426.r)8v8 . where r = 0. (e) Length of final strip Lf = L8 towoLo = t8w8L8 Given that wo = w8.20 = 5 mm. 19.8 ft/min From equations for forward slip.10609 x 282.04 ft/min (1 + s)(377.10609 = 9.78/(1-r)6 = 168.132 Check with stand 2: given v2 = 426.10609vr Nr2 = 0.78/(1-r)4 = 94. where vr2 = roll speed.2501) = 40 rev/min Nr3 = 0. .10609 x 282.9 rev/min (c) Given vo = 240 ft/min v1 = 240/(1-r) = 240/0. tovo = t1v = t2v2 = . : vr8 = v1 : v2 : . as before (d) Draft at stand 1 d1 = 3.2501 as determined in part (a). . Contact length L = (500 x 5) .2501) = 0.9 rev/min Nr6 = 0. . Etc.74989 = 320 ft/min v2 = 320/0.223 102 . and (c) power required to accomplish this operation. vr2 = Nr2/0. At stand 2: (1 + s)vr2 = v2 . where vr8 = roll speed. .3L8 towovo = t8w8v8 tovo = t8v8 v8 = 240(3/0.5 = 50 mm True strain ε = ln(25/20) = ln 1. toLo = t8L8 3. .78 ft/min In general Nr = (30/282.0(.78) = 320 (1 + s) = 320/282.10006 in. . .

but that the power remains the same (within calculation error) as in the previous problem.604 N-m/s = 92.16.5(1.095 N (b) Torque T = 0.050) = 95.5 rev/min = 1. Determine: (a) roll force. power would probably increase because of lower mechanical efficiency in the cluster type rolling mill.35 x 10-3) = 23.829)(50 x 10-3) = 92.591 W 19..5 = 0.223 Y = 240(0.159 rev/s Power P = 2π (0.5(585. and (c) power required to accomplish this operation. Contact length L = (15 x 0.10 A 3.9 Solve Problem 19.2. Solution: (a) Draft d = 25 .1(250)(50) = 1. and its speed = 30 ft/min. Solution: (a) Draft d = 3.1823 Y = 25.1 rev/min = 0.771 lb 103 .829)( 50 x 10-3) = 46.5 in.5 = 2.35) = 1. Solution: (a) Draft d = 25 .414(2.7 using a roll radius = 250 mm. 19.0/2. Compare the results with the previous two problems.5) = ln 1.55 rev/min = 0.5(1. 19. The roll has a radius = 15 in.8.1 MPa f Rolling force F = 148.223 Y = 240(0.000 lb/in 2 and a strain hardening exponent = 0.318)(1.35 mm True strain ε = ln(25/20) = ln 1.311. Contact length L = (250 x 5) .7.1(250)(15.851.592 rev/s Power P = 2π (1. and note the important effect of roll radius on force. The work material has a strength coefficient = 25.174 N-m (c) N = (30 m/min)/(2π x 0.25 = 0.20 = 148.0 .81 mm True strain ε = ln(25/20) = ln 1.16 = 16.223) 0.851.1 MPa f Rolling force F = 148.20 = 5 mm.5) .829 N (b) Torque T = 0.554 N-m/s = 92. torque and power. In fact.7 and 19.8 Solve Problem 19.223) 0.417)(15.1(250)(35.5 = 15.20/1.095)(35.223) 0.25 = 0.604 W Note that the force and torque are reduced as roll radius is reduced.74 in.20/1.20 = 148.1 MPa f Rolling force F = 148.250) = 19.74)(9.591 N-m/s = 92.296 N-m (c) N = (30 m/min)/(2π x 0.628 N-m (c) N = (30 m/min)/(2π x 0.0 in thick slab that is 9 in wide is to be reduced in a single pass in a two-high rolling mill to a thickness of 2.318 rev/s Power P = 2π (0.81) = 585.311.20 = 148.20 = 0.311.Y = 240(0.159)(1.20/1.35 x 10-3) = 92.851.500) = 9.417)(15.1823) 0.554 W Note that this is the same power value (within calculation error) as in Problems 19.414 lb/in 2 f Rolling force F = 16.592)(585.50 in.20 = 5 mm.81 x 10-3) = 4. only assume a cluster mill with working rolls of radius = 50 mm.5 = 35.16/1.81 x 10-3) = 92.000(0.417 N (b) Torque T = 0. (b) roll torque.095)(35.0) = 404. True strain ε = ln(3. Contact length L = (50 x 5) .

22/1.1054) 0.167 in.13 Solve Problem 19.88) = 49.0.333 = 1.0) = 5. Determine: (a) roll force.548N = 39.000)(0.12 A hot rolling mill has rolls of diameter = 24 in.000 lb/in 2 Force F = 20.5 in thick plate by the maximum possible draft in one pass.5/tf) tf = to -d = 1.167) = ln 1. It can exert a maximum force = 400.000 (the limiting force of the rolling mill) (12d) 0.536 in-lb.22.74) = 26.111 = 0.tf Contact length L = (12d) 0. Draft d = 1.000)(2.672 MN = 672.88 rev/min vr = 2π RN = 2π (12/12)(7.697 W 19. Solution: (a) Draft d = 20 . the work material has a strength coefficient = 20.0112)(0.0 in. and (c) power required for this operation.5 = 400.0112 m True strain ε = ln(20/18) = ln 1.0 = 20.2) = 0.1054 Y = 600(0. In the heated condition.000(ε )0/1. The work material has a strength coefficient = 600 MPa and a strength coefficient = 0.600.18 mm = 0.026.82 rev/min.5 = 2.000 N = 7.000 N (b) Torque T = 0.333) 0.000 lb.22 = 300 MPa f Rolling force F = 300(0.0 12 d = 2.000 in-lb/min Contact length L = (12 x 0.11 A single-pass rolling operation reduces a 20 mm thick plate to 18 mm. The starting plate is 10 in wide.000 = 2.5 = 400.000/200.285 = 0.18 = 2.(b) Torque T = 0.000)(0.000 lb/in2. (c) N = (30 ft/min)/(2π x 15/12) = 3.5 .000(10) (12d) 0.026. (b) True strain ε = ln(1. Assume the strength coefficient remains K = 20.617.771)(2.333 in.0112) = 3.5 = 11.548N in-lb/min 5. Roll radius = 250 mm and rotational speed = 12 rev/min.74) = 554.2 hp 19. Contact length L = (250 x 2) .741 in-lb/min HP = (26.617.720 N-m (c) Given that N = 12 rev/min Power P = 2π (12/60)(672.12 except that the operation is warm rolling and the strain hardening exponent n = 0. ε = ln(1. 104 .82)(404. The starting plate is 200 mm wide.5(401.02 = 4 d = 4/12 = 0. It is desired to reduce a 1.600.5 ft/min 19. (b) associated true strain. Determine: (a) maximum possible draft.5 . The mill has a maximum horsepower = 100 hp. P = 2π N(400.5 Y = 20. Solution: (a) Assumption: maximum possible draft is determined by the force capability of the rolling mill and not by coefficient of friction between the rolls and the work. and (c) maximum speed of the rolls for the operation.000) = 67.5(672.000 lb/in 2 and a strain hardening exponent = zero.251 f (c) Given maximum possible power HP = 100 hp = 100 x 396000 (in-lb/min)/hp = 39. (b) roll torque.15. Power P = 2π (3.0112) = 37.0 mm.5/1.741 in-lb/min)/(396.771)(2.

223) .3 = 1.462) . ε = ln(1.15 = 13.5/1.000 in-lb/min Contact length L = (12 x 0. (d) 0.000)(2.5 ε = ln(1.5/1.486..555 in. (b) True strain ε = ln(1. which is very close to the trial value of d = 0.0.0 in.189 = 0.641 Y (d) 0.641 = 11.0. which does not equal the initial trial value of d = 0.462 Y = 17...600.189 lb/in2. (d) 0.462 lb/in2. The work material has a flow 105 . which does not equal the trial value of d = 0.55 Try d = 0. ε = ln(1.0.547 f Now use trial-and-error to values of Y and d that fit this equation.3 Try d = 0. Final height = 20 mm.691.600. (d) 0.578.55 in.4055) .Solution: (a) Assumption (same as in previous problem): maximum possible draft is determined by the force capability of the rolling mill and not by coefficient of friction between the rolls and the work.5873 = 0.223 Y = 17.5 = 400.5 . ε = ln(1.579 = 0.50 = 0.5 .5 .547/15.391(0.5 = 1.558.0) = ln 1. ε = ln(1.457) .15 = 15.7602 d = 0.547/15.000/34.555) 0.20. tf = 1.14 A cylindrical part is warm upset forged in an open die.555 = 0.555.457 Y = 17. tf = 1.5/0.5 = 400.489 = 0.5 = 2.25 = 0.5 = 11. Coefficient of friction at the die -work interface = 0.5 = 11.15 = 17.000N in-lb/min 6.15 f F = Y (10)(12d) 0. P = 2π N(400.945) = ln 1.3 in.887 lb/in2.5/tf) Y = 20.11 rev/min vr = 2π RN = 2π (12/12)(6.4055 Y = 17.489 lb/in2.5/0.945) = 0.000(ε )0.2) = ln 1.8315 d = 0. Try d = 0.55 = 0.58 in.000 (as given) f f Y (d) f 0.5 = 34.0.5 Try d = 0.462 (c) Given maximum possible power HP = 100 hp = 100 x 396000 (in-lb/min)/hp = 39.4 ft/min f f f f Forging 19.556.15 = 15. (d) 0.000 N = 6.5 .tf Contact length L = (12d) 0.5 = 11.391(0.745 d = 0. tf = 1.58) = 6.391(0.50 .000N = 39.747 d = 0. Draft d = 1.2 in.486.5 in.945 in.5/0. which is close to the trial value of d = 0.5 = 11.547/13.95 in.391ε .95) = ln 1.15 = 15.462 = 0.11) = 38..391(0.15/1. tf = 1.887 = 0. Do = 50 mm and h o = 40 mm.547/15.

2)(70.273 in 3 from part (a) above.3 = 1.92 = 1963.2)(57. (b) at height h = 2.693 Yf = 600(0. A = V/h = 78.495 = 1.000 lb/in2 and n = 0.060(32.2 MPa V = 78.3 = 5.12 = 516.1)(2.7 mm (from A = π D2/4) Kf = 1 + 0.948)(6.0834) 0.579 lb (b) Given h = 2.4(.557 N (c) Given h = 20.4(. ε = ln(40/30) = ln 1.3) = ln 1.9.40(0. (b) at h = 30 mm.9. At h = 2.5 in.1 F = 1.495 = 4. (c) h = 1.34) = 153.283 F = 1.822 lb (c) Given h = 1.5 in is upset forged in an open die to a height = 1.748 lb/in2 and h = 2. Solution: (a) V = π D2L/4 = π (50) 2(40)/4 = 78. Determine the force in the operation (a) just as the yield point is reached (yield at strain = 0.000(0.273/2. ε = ln(2. Coefficient of friction at the die -work interface = 0.5 . Yf = 40.7)/30 = 1.46) = 225. Determine the instantaneous force in the operation (a) just as the yield point is reached (yield at strain = 0.000(0.002) = 2.15.2)(3927) = 2.6)(1963.3. and (d) h = 1.333 = 0.540 mm3 from part (a) above.002.002) 0.6 MPa V = 78.560.4(.9 = 1.002) = 39.748)(4.540 mm3 from part (a) above.4(.7 mm (from A = π D2/4) Kf = 1 + 0.5 mm2 Kf = 1 + 0. At h = 30.273/2.693 N (b) Given h = 30.540 mm3 Given ε = 0.002) 0. ε = ln(40/20) = ln 2.34 in 2 Corresponding D = 2.693) 0.12 = 284.15 = 32.556)(4.curve defined by: K = 600 MPa and n = 0.273 in 3 Given ε = 0.92) = 80.495 A = V/h = 12.87)/1.15 A cylindrical workpart with D = 2.556 lb/in2 V = 12.1)(2.060 F = 1.5)/4 = 12. and h = 40 .9 = 6.9 in.61)/2.5 in and h = 2.287) 0. The work material has a flow curve defined by: K = 40.6 MPa.0 = 0.6)(2618) = 1.2.3.92 A = V/h = 78.695 lb 106 .273/1.4(.04(15. Solution: (a) V = π D2L/4 = π (2.3 in.5 in.5) 2(2.04 F = 1.892.540/20 = 3927 mm2 Corresponding D = 70.274 Yf = 40.287 Yf = 600(0.000(0.12 = 574.154 F = 1.5(0.045(27.15 = 27.87 (from A = π D2/4) Kf = 1 + 0. Yf = 600(0.002).1)(2.5/2.540/39.5/1. ε = ln(2. A = V/h = 12.273 in 3 from part (a) above.46 in 2 Corresponding D = 2.002).5) = 614.154(516.661 N 19.12.087 = 0. At h = 20.5)/2.002.045 F = 1. At h = 1.7)/20 = 1.15 = 15. and (c) at h = 20 mm.316 = 0. A = V/h = 78.540/30 = 2618 mm2 Corresponding D = 57.9) = ln 1.274) 0.10. A = V/h = 12.61 (from A = π D2/4) Kf = 1 + 0.92 = 1.1(284.0834 Yf = 40.2)(50)/39.92 in 2 Kf = 1 + 0.4(.283(574.948 lb/in2 V = 12.

(d) Given h = 1.5, ε = ln(2.5/1.5) = ln 1.667 = 0.511 Yf = 40,000(0.511) 0.15 = 36,166 lb/in2 V = 12.273 in 3 from part (a) above. At h = 1.5, A = V/h = 12.273/1.5 = 8.182 in 2 Corresponding D = 3.23 (from A = π D2/4) Kf = 1 + 0.4(.1)(3.23)/1.5 = 1.086 F = 1.086(36,166)(8.182) = 321,379 lb 19.16 A cylindrical workpart has a diameter = 2.0 in and a height = 4.0 in. It is upset forged to a height = 2.5 in. Coefficient of friction at the die -work interface = 0.10. The work material has a flow curve with strength coefficient = 25,000 lb/in 2 and strain hardening exponent = 0.22. Determine the plot of force vs. work height. Solution: Volume of cylinder V = π D2L/4 = π (2.5) 2(4.0)/4 = 19.635 in 3 We will compute the force F at selected values of height h: h = (a) 4.0, (b) 3.75, (c) 3.5, (d) 3.25, (e) 3.0, (f) 2.75, and (g) 2.5. These values can be used to develop the plot. The shape of the plot will be similar to Figure 21.13 in the text. (a) At h = 4.0, we assume yielding has just occurred and the height has not changed significantly. Use ε = 0.002 (the approximate yield point of metal). At ε = 0.002, Yf = 25,000(0.002) 0.22 = 6,370 lb/in2 Adjusting the height for this strain, h = 4.0 - 4.0(0.002) = 3.992 A = V/h = 19.635/3.992 = 4.92 in 2 Kf = 1 + 0.4(.1)(2.5)/3.992 = 1.025 F = 1.025(6,370)(4.92) = 32,125 lb (b) At h = 3.75, ε = ln(4.0/3.75) = ln 1.0667 = 0.0645 Yf = 25,000(0.0645) 0.22 = 13,680 lb/in2 V = 19.635 in 3 calculated above. At h = 3.75, A = V/h = 19.635/3.75 = 5.236 in 2 Corresponding D = 2.582 (from A = π D2/4) Kf = 1 + 0.4(.1)(2.582)/3.75 = 1.028 F = 1.028(13,680)(5.236) = 73,601 lb (c) At h = 3.5, ε = ln(4.0/3.5) = ln 1.143 = 0.1335 Yf = 25,000(0.1335) 0.22 = 16,053 lb/in2 At h = 3.5, A = V/h = 19.635/3.5 = 5.61 in 2 Corresponding D = 2.673 (from A = π D2/4) Kf = 1 + 0.4(.1)(2.673)/3.5 = 1.031 F = 1.031(16,053)(5.61) = 92,808 lb (d) At h = 3.25, ε = ln(4.0/3.25) = ln 1.231 = 0.2076 Yf = 25,000(0.2076) 0.22 = 17,691 lb/in2 At h = 3.25, A = V/h = 19.635/3.25 = 6.042 in 2 Corresponding D = 2.774 (from A = π D2/4) Kf = 1 + 0.4(.1)(2.774)/3.25 = 1.034 F = 1.034(17,691)(6.042) = 110,538 lb (e) At h = 3.0, ε = ln(4.0/3.0) = ln 1.333 = 0.2874 Yf = 25,000(0.2874) 0.22 = 19,006 lb/in2 At h = 3.0, A = V/h = 19.635/3.0 = 6.545 in 2 Corresponding D = 2.887 (from A = π D2/4)

107

Kf = 1 + 0.4(.1)(2.887)/3.0 = 1.038 F = 1.038(19,006)(6.545) = 129,182 lb (f) At h =2.75, ε = ln(4.0/2.75) = ln 1.4545 = 0.3747 Yf = 25,000(0.3747) 0.22 = 20,144 lb/in2 V = 19.635 in 3 calculated above. At h = 2.75, A = V/h = 19.635/2.75 = 7.140 in 2 Corresponding D = 3.015 (from A = π D2/4) Kf = 1 + 0.4(.1)(3.015)/2.75 = 1.044 F = 1.044(20,144)(7.140) = 150,136 lb (g) At h = 2.5, ε = ln(4.0/2.5) = ln 1.60 = 0.470 Yf = 25,000(0.470) 0.22 = 21,174 lb/in2 At h = 2.5, A = V/h = 19.635/2.5 = 7.854 in 2 Corresponding D = 3.162 (from A = π D2/4) Kf = 1 + 0.4(.1)(3.162)/2.5 = 1.051 F = 1.051(21,174)(7.854) = 174,715 lb 19.17 A cold heading operation is performed to produce the head on a steel nail. The strength coefficient for this steel is K = 550 MPa, and the strain hardening exponent n = 0.24. Coefficient of friction at the die-work interface = 0.10. The wire stock out of which the nail is made is 4.75 mm in diameter. The head is to have a diameter = 9.5 mm and a thickness = 1.5 mm. (a) What length of stock must project out of the die in order to provide sufficient volume of material for this upsetting operation? (b) Compute the maximum force that the punch must apply to form the head in this open-die operation. Solution: (a) Volume of nail head V = π Df2hf/4 = π (9.5) 2(1.5)/4 = 106.3 mm3. Ao = π Do2/4 = π (4.75) 2/4 = 17.7 mm2 ho = V/Ao = 106.3/17.7 = 6.0 mm (b) ε = ln(6.0/1.5) = ln 4 = 1.3863 Yf = 550(1.3863) 0.24 = 595 MPa Af = π (9.5) 2/4 = 70.9 mm2 Kf = 1 + 0.4(.1)(9.5/1.5) = 1.25 F = 1.25(595)(70.9) = 52,872 N 19.18 Obtain a large common nail (flat head). Measure the head diameter and thickness, as well as the diameter of the nail shank. (a) What stock length must project out of the die in order to provide sufficient material to produce the nail? (b) Using appropriate values for strength coefficient and strain hardening exponent for the metal out of which the nail is made (Table 3.5), compute the maximum force in the heading operation to form the head. Solution: Student exercise. Calculations similar to those above for the data developed by the student. 19.19 A hot upset forging operation is performed in an open die. The initial size of the workpart is: Do = 25 mm, and h o = 50 mm. The part is upset to a diameter = 50 mm. The work metal at this elevated temperature yields at 85 MPa (n = 0). Coefficient of friction at the die -work interface = 0.40. Determine: (a) final height of the part, and (b) maximum force in the operation. Solution: (a) V = π Do2ho/4 = π (25) 2(50)/4 = 24,544 mm3. Af = π Df2/4 = π (50) 2/4 = 1963.5 mm2. hf = V/Af = 24,544 /1963.5 = 12.5 mm.

108

(b) ε = ln(50/12.5) = ln 4 = 1.3863 Yf = 85(1.3863) 0 = 85 MPa Force is maximum at largest area value, Af = 1963.5 mm2 D = (4 x 1963.5/π )0.5 = 50 mm Kf = 1 + 0.4(.4)(50/12.5) = 1.64 F = 1.64(85)( 1963.5) = 273,712 N 19.20 A hydraulic forging press is capable of exerting a maximum force = 1,000,000 N. A cylindrical workpart is to be cold upset forged. The starting part has diameter = 30 mm and height = 30 mm. The flow curve of the metal is defined by K = 400 MPa and n = 0.2. Determine the maximum reduction in height to which the part can be compressed with this forging press, if the coefficient of friction = 0.1. Solution: Volume of work V = π Do2ho/4 = π (30) 2(30)/4 = 21,206 mm3. Final area Af = 21,206/hf ε = ln(30/hf) Yf = 400ε 0.2 = 400(ln 30/hf)0.2) Kf = 1 + 0.4µ(Df/hf) = 1 + 0.4(0.1)(Df/hf) Forging force F = KfYfAf = (1 + 0.04D f/hf)( 400(ln 30/hf)0.2)( 21,206/hf) Requires trial and error solution to find the value of hf that will match the force of 1,000,000 N. (1) Try hf = 20 mm Af = 21,206/20 = 1060.3 mm2 ε = ln(30/20) = ln 1.5 = 0.405 Yf = 400(0.405) 0.2 = 333.9 MPa Df = (4 x 1060.3/π )0.5 = 36.7 mm Kf = 1 + 0.04(36.7/20) = 1.073 F = 1.073(333.9)(1060.3) = 380,050 N Too low. Try a smaller value of hf to increase F. (2) Try hf = 10 mm. Af = 21,206/10 = 2120.6 mm2 ε = ln(30/10) = ln 3.0 = 1.099 Yf = 400(1.099) 0.2 = 407.6 MPa Df = (4 x 2120.6/π )0.5 = 51.96 mm Kf = 1 + 0.04(51.96/10) = 1.208 F = 1.208(407.6)(2120.6) = 1,043,998 N Slightly high. Need to try a value of hf between 10 and 20, closer to 10. (3) Try hf = 11 mm Af = 21,206/11 = 1927.8 mm2 ε = ln(30/11) = ln 2.7273 = 1.003 Yf = 400(1.003) 0.2 = 400.3 MPa Df = (4 x 1927.8/π )0.5 = 49.54 mm Kf = 1 + 0.04(51.12/11) = 1.18 F = 1.18(400.3)(1927.8) = 910,653 N (4) By linear interpolation, try hf = 10 + (44/133) = 10.33 mm Af = 21,206/10.33 = 2052.8 mm2 ε = ln(30/10.33) = ln 2.9042 = 1.066 Yf = 400(1.066) 0.2 = 405.16 MPa

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Df = (4 x 2052.8/π )0.5 = 51.12 mm Kf = 1 + 0.04(51.12/10.33) = 1.198 F = 1.198(405.16)(2052.8) = 996,364 N (5) By further linear interpolation, try hf = 10 + (44/48)(0.33) = 10.30 Af = 21,206/10.30 = 2058.8 mm2 ε = ln(30/10.30) = ln 2.913 = 1.069 Yf = 400(1.069) 0.2 = 405.38 MPa Df = (4 x 2058.8/π )0.5 = 51.2 mm Kf = 1 + 0.04(51.2/10.3) = 1.199 F = 1.199(405.38)(2058.8) = 1,000,553 N Close enough! Maximum height reduction = 30.0 - 10.3 = 19.7 mm 19.21 A part is designed to be hot forged in an impression die. The projected area of the part, including flash, is 15 in 2. After trimming, the part has a projected area = 10 in 2. Part geometry is relatively simple. As heated the work material yields at 9,000 lb/in 2, and has no tendency to strain harden. Determine the maximum force required to perform the forging operation. Solution: Since the work material has no tendency to work harden, n = 0. From Table 21.1, choose Kf = 6.0. F = 6.0(9,000)(15) = 810,000 lb. 19.22 A connecting rod is designed to be hot forged in an impression die. The projected area of the part is 6,500 mm2. The design of the die will cause flash to form during forging, so that the area, including flash, will be 9,000 mm2. The part geometry is considered to be complex. As heated the work material yields at 75 MPa, and has no tendency to strain harden. Determine the maximum force required to perform the operation. Solution: Since the work material has no tendency to work harden, n = 0. From Table 21.1, choose Kf =8.0. F = 8.0(75)(9,000) = 5,400,000 N.

Extrusion

19.23 A cylindrical billet that is 100 mm long and 40 mm in diameter is reduced by indirect (backward) extrusion to a 15 mm diameter. Die angle = 90°. If the Johnson equation has a = 0.8 and b = 1.5, and the flow curve for the work metal has K = 750 MPa and n = 0.15, determine: (a) extrusion ratio, (b) true strain (homogeneous deformation), (c) extrusion strain, (d) ram pressure, and (e) ram force. Solution: (a) rx = Ao/Af = Do2/Df2 = (40) 2/(15) 2 = 7.111 (b) ε = ln rx = ln 7.111 = 1.962 (c) ε x = a + b ln rx = 0.8 + 1.5(1.962) = 3.742 (d) Y = 750(1.962) 0.15/1.15 = 721.5 MPa,

f

p = 721.5(3.742) = 2700 MPa (e) Ao = π Do2/4 = π (40) 2/4 = 1256.6 mm2 F = 2700(1256.6) = 3,392,920 N. 19.24 A 3.0-in long cylindrical billet whose diameter = 1.5 in is reduced by indirect extrusion to a diameter = 0.375 in. Die angle = 90°. In the Johnson equation, a = 0.8 and b = 1.5. In the flow

110

curve for the work metal, K = 75,000 lb/in2 and n = 0.25. Determine: (a) extrusion ratio, (b) true strain (homogeneous deformation), (c) extrusion strain, (d) ram pressure, (e) ram force, and (f) power if the ram speed = 20 in/min. Solution: (a) rx = Ao/Af = Do2/Df2 = (1.5) 2/(0.375) 2 = 42 = 16.0 (b) ε = ln rx = ln 16 = 2.773 (c) ε x = a + b ln rx = 0.8 + 1.5(2.773) = 4.959 (d) Y = 75,000(2.773) 0.25/1.25 = 77,423 lb/in2

f

p = 77,423(4.959) = 383,934 lb/in2 (e) Ao = π Do2/4 = π (1.5) 2/4 = 1.767 in2 F = (383,934)(1.767) = 678,411 lb. (f) P = 678,411(20) = 13,568,228 in-lb/min HP = 13,568,228/396,000 = 34.26 hp 19.25 A billet that is 75 mm long with diameter = 35 mm is direct extruded to a diameter of 20 mm. The extrusion die has a die angle = 75°. For the work metal, K = 600 MPa and n = 0.25. In the Johnson extrusion strain equation, a = 0.8 and b = 1.4. Determine: (a) extrusion ratio, (b) true strain (homogeneous deformation), (c) extrusion strain, and (d) ram pressure at L = 70, 40, and 10 mm. Solution: (a) rx = Ao/Af = Do2/Df2 = (35) 2/(20) 2 = 3.0625 (b) ε = ln rx = ln 3.0625 = 1.119 (c) ε x = a + b ln rx = 0.8 + 1.4(1.119) = 2.367 (d) Y = 750(1.119) 0.25/1.25 = 493.7 MPa

f

It is appropriate to determine the volume of metal contained in the cone of the die at the start of the extrusion operation, to assess whether metal has been forced through the die opening by the time the billet has been reduced from L = 75 mm to L = 70 mm. For a cone-shaped die with angle = 75°, the height h of the frustum is formed by metal being compressed into the die opening: The two radii are: R1 = 0.5D o = 17.5 mm and R2 = 0.5D f = 10 mm, and h = (R1 - R2)/tan 75 = 7.5/tan 75 = 2.01 mm Frustum volume V = 0.333π h(R12 + R1R2 + R22) = 0.333π (2.01)(17.52 + 10 x 17.5 + 102) = 1223.4 mm3. Compare this with the volume of the portion of the cylindrical billet between L = 75 mm and L = 70 mm. V = π Do2 h/4 = 0.25π (35) 2(75 - 70) = 4810.6 mm3 Since this volume is greater than the volume of the frustum, this means that the metal has extruded through the die opening by the time the ram has moved forward by 5 mm. L = 70 mm: pressure p = 493.7(2.367 + 2 x 70/35) = 3143.4 MPa L = 40 mm: pressure p = 493.7(2.367 + 2 x 40/35) = 2297.0 MPa L = 10 mm: pressure p = 493.7(2.367 + 2 x 10/35) = 1450.7 MPa 19.26 A 2.0-in long billet with diameter = 1.25 in is direct extruded to a diameter of 0.50 in. The extrusion die angle = 90°. For the work metal, K = 45,000 lb/in2, and n = 0.20. In the Johnson extrusion strain equation, a = 0.8 and b = 1.5. Determine: (a) extrusion ratio, (b) true strain (homogeneous deformation), (c) extrusion strain, and (d) ram pressure at L = 2.0, 1.5, 1.0, 0.5 and zero in. Solution: (a) rx = Ao/Af = Do2/Df2 = (1.25) 2/(0.5) 2 = 6.25

111

With a reduction rx = 16. : pressure p = 42.7726) 0/1.5/1.549 + 2 x 1.25 = 1.549 + 2 x 2.8326) = 3. The volume of billet compressed forward to fill the frustum is given by: V = π R12(Lo . L = 2.330(3.25) = 285.000(4.0 in and length = 3.328 in L1 = 3. (c) ε = ln rx = ln 16 = 2.672/2.25) = L = 0.27 A direct extrusion operation is performed on a cylindrical billet with Lo = 3. what is the length of the extruded section? (d) Determine the ram pressure in the process.404 + 2 x 2. The volume of the frustum is V = 0. The operation is carried out hot and the hot metal yields at 15. Solution: (a) rx = Ao/Af = Do2/Df2 = (2.0 in.7726) = 4. 19.086 lb/in2 150.8326) 0.000 lb/in 2 f p = 15.5D f = 0. The die angle = 90°.549 (d) Y = 45.330(3. (c) What is the ram pressure corresponding to this position? (d) Also determine the length of the final part if the ram stops its forward movement at the start of the die cone.L1) Setting this equal to the volume of the frustum.R2)/tan 45 = 1.0 in on a side.672(16) = 42.7726 ε x = a + b ln rx = 0. and extrusion strain.229 lb/in2 19.8 + 1.5D o = 1.0/1.25 in. Die angle = 45° and orifice diameter = 0.05/1. The height of the frustum h = (R1 .5 in.5 in thick.3.330(3.0) 2/(0.0/1.000(2.0 in.3(2. : pressure p = 42.25 + 0.031/π = 0. so metal is forced through the die opening as soon as the billet starts to move forward in the chamber.20 = 42.0.8 and b = 1. : pressure p = 42. a = 0.330(3.0 .75 in. we have π (Lo .5 in.0/1.25) = L = 1. (a) What is the extrusion ratio? (b) Determine the ram position at the point when the metal has been compressed into the cone of the die and starts to extrude through the die opening.0 in and Do = 2. the final part length.000 lb/in 2 (n = 0).328 = 2.950 lb/in2 184.672 in.0 in. The operation is performed cold and the strength coefficient of the metal K = 26.677 lb/in2 251.333π (0.5/1.2.0 = 15. 112 .50 in.0) 2(Lo .140 lb/in2 (d) Length of extruded portion of billet = 2.0 . Final cross-section after extrusion is a square with 1.L1) = π (1.672 in.000(1.5(1.8 and b = 1. In the Johnson extrusion strain equation.404 Y = 15.0) = 106.330 lb/in2 f Unlike the previous problem.0.0 in and R2 = 0. the die angle α = 90°.000 lb/in2 and strain hardening exponent n = 0.031 in 3 (Lo . : pressure p = 42.549 + 2 x 0.5) 2 = 16.0 in.333π h(R12 + R1R2 + R22) = 0. (b) What is the shape factor of the product? (c) If the butt left in the container at the end of the stroke is 0.25) = L = 0.02 + 1. : pressure p = 42.549 + 2 x 0.L1) = 1.L1) = 1. true strain. excluding the cone shaped butt remaining in the die is L = 2.252) = 1.031 in 3 The billet has advanced a certain distance by the time this frustum is completely filled and extrusion through the die opening is therefore initiated.25) = L = 1. a = 0. In the Johnson extrusion strain equation.549 + 2 x 1.0 in.0 (b) The portion of the billet that is compressed into the die cone forms a frustum with R1 = 0.8326 (c) ε x = a + b ln rx = 0. (a) Compute the extrusion ratio.28 An indirect extrusion process starts with an aluminum billet with diameter = 2.25 = 0.75)(1.8 + 1.(b) ε = ln rx = ln 6.75 in.813 lb/in2 217.20.0 x 0.330(3.

The extrudate has a cross-sectional area Af = 1200 mm2.261 lb/in3 f p = 1.5.152.142 in2 Af = 1.057 (c) Total original volume V = 0. Thus.545 in. The perimeter of the extruded cross-section Cx = 4(1.4 mm 19.053 mm3.174) = 48.5(1.0 in 2 rx = 3.426 .571 in 3. Solution: From Problem 19.368.520. and (2) extrudate..16.000(1.571 = 7.142 = 1. Dimensions of the cross-section are given in Figure P19.5)(π x 22/4) = 1.8 mm. (b) shape factor.25 = 1.261)(2.1 mm2 Af = 2 x (12 x 50) = 1200 mm2 rx = 6082. compute the maximum force required to drive the ram forward at the start of extrusion.0 in.0)(π x 22/4) = 9.006(22.8 + 1.2/1.1. If the die angle in this operation = 90°.531 mm3 The final volume consists of two sections: (1) butt.5 = 19.0/π )0. Its volume V2 = LAf = 1. The butt volume V1 = 0. A = 1.0/3. (d) Y = 26.3(1.0 = 7.145) = 2.29 are: K = 240 MPa and n = 0.30 The flow curve parameters for the aluminum alloy of Problem 19.29. Its volume V2 = LAf = 9.478 mm3.1/1200= 5.8 and b = 1.54) = 122. Die angle = 90°. rx = 5.531 .5642 in.54 mm.5642) = 3. Original volume V = (3. and the corresponding Johnson strain equation has constants a = 0.5 = 0.368. The perimeter of the extruded cross-section Cx = 62 + 50 + 12 + 38 + 50 + 12 = 224 mm Kx = 0.0) = 4. Kx = 0.0 = 3.545) 2.068 ε = ln 5.29 An L-shaped structural section is direct extruded from an aluminum billet in which Lo = 250 mm and Do = 88 mm.855/1.8 + 1.623) = 3.0 x 1.855 in 3.98 + 0. length L = 7. The radius of the circle is R = (1.068 (b) To determine the die shape factor we need to determine the perimeter of a circle whose area is equal to that of the extruded cross-section. and (c) length of the extruded section if the butt remaining in the container at the end of the ram stroke is 25 mm.2 = 22.698 lb/in2 19.8) 2. The radius of the circle is R = (1200/π )0.145 ε x = 0.145) 0.478/1200 = 1140.0 in2. Thus.623 ε x = 0.Solution: (a) rx = Ao/Af Ao = π Do2/4 = π (2) 2/4 = 3.142/1. Cc = 2π (0.98 + 0.068= 1.25π (88) 2(250) = 1.006 (c) Given that the butt thickness = 0.234 113 . Determine: (a) extrusion ratio. The extrudate has a cross-sectional area Af = 1. Solution: (a) rx = Ao/Af Ao = π (88) 2/4 = 6082. and (2) extrudate.25 = 1. Cc = 2π (19.02(224/122.0 in 2. The butt volume V1 = (0.520.174 (b) To determine the die shape factor we need to determine the perimeter of a circle whose area is equal to that of the extruded cross-section. length L = 1.855 in.02(4.0 = 1.053 = 1.25π (88) 2(25) = 152.5 in.142 ε = ln 3. A = 1200 mm2.29.426 in 3 The final volume consists of two sections: (1) butt.

6)( 3.25π (502 .2 MPa f F = pA o = 2107.402) = 706.53 114 .25.2 mm (d) ε = ln 2.Y = 240(1.8 and b = 1.25π (50) 2(h) = 1963.5 mm3 Total V = V1 + V2 = 9817.74 mm.5 = 76.97.969 mm3 V = 0.234+ 2 x 250/88) = 2107.73 MPa f p = Kx Y ε x = 1.25π (40) 2 = 1256. The final dimensions of the cup are: OD = 50 mm.897 mm.5.74/94.98 + 0.897) = 68. V2 = 0.816. height = 100 mm.8) 2.25/1. determine the extrusion force.25 mm.25 = 321.0218 ε x = 0.778 = 1.5 + 67.45 mm R2 = 373.5(1.86 mm2 rx = 1963.146.25π (502 . (d) If the metal has flow curve parameters K = 400 MPa and n = 0. ID = 40 mm.544) = 122. and the constants in the Johnson extrusion strain equation are: a = 0.86 mm2.98 + 0.33) = 912.8 mm Kx = 0. Cc = 2π R = 2π (19. Determine: (a) extrusion ratio.1600)(95) = 67. Cc = 2π R = 2π (10.0218) = 2. Kx = 0.86/π )0.25π (50) 2 = 1963.25 = 1.2 (6082.25 = 1.73)(2.75/706.0218) 0. V1 = 0.267 N 19.544 mm. (b) shape factor.22. Cc = 2π (15) = 94.32.16 = 223.217 (c) Volume of final cup consists of two geometric elements: (1) base and (2) ring. and thickness of base = 5 mm.217(321.45/68.5 mm3 (2) Ring OD = 50 mm. Solution: (a) rx = Ao/Af Ao = 0.25 = 1.75 mm2 Af = 0.6 mm2 F = 912.8 + 1.02(282.25π (50) 2(5) = 9817.969 mm3 Volume of starting slug must be equal to this value V = 76.6 MPa f Maximum ram force occurs at beginning of stroke when L is maximum at L = 250 mm p = Kx Y (ε x + 2L/Do) = 1.98 + 0. A = 706.06/π = 118.06 mm2 Cx = π Do + π Di = π (50 + 45) = 298. The radius of the circle is R = (706.52) = 373. (1) Base t = 5 mm and D = 50 mm.25) 2.16/1.969 mm3 h = 39.402)(95) = 0.016 (b) Ax = π Ro2 .151.47 mm Kx = 0.86 = 2. R = 19.5h = 76.3 MPa f Ao = 0.33 Y = 400(1.057(223.75.5 = 15 mm.623) 0.02(160/122.47) 2.3(1256.6) = 1. The perimeter of the extruded cross-section Cx = π (50 + 40) = 90π = 282.151.31 A cup-shaped part is backward extruded from an aluminum slug that is 50 mm in diameter.778 (b) To determine the die shape factor we need to determine the perimeter of a circle whose area is equal to that of the extruded cross-section.25π (2500 . ID = 40 mm. Cx = 2(20 + 60) = 160 mm Ao = π R2 = 1200 R2 = 1200/π = 381.1) = 12. Solution: (a) Ax = 20 x 60 = 1200 mm. R = 10.430 N 19. and (c) height of starting slug required to achieve the final dimensions.02(298.32 Determine the shape factor for each of the extrusion die orifice shapes in Figure P19. and h = 95 mm.π Ri2 = π (252 .

88 + 0.22.0695/4.7137 Y = 45.0962)/0.25π (2.10) = 300 + 250 = 550 mm2 Cx = 30 + 60 + 30 + 5 + 25 + 50 + 25 + 5 = 230 mm Ao = π R2 = 550.02(230/83.000 lb/in 2 and a strain hardening exponent = 0.0695 .07/tan 15)(1.25π (0.7137) 0.2(1 + 0.1964 = 0.44 = 0.30 = 284.25π (0.30/1. R = 13.9094 mm2 r = (9.07.4.23) = 83.425 115 .(c) Ax = 2(5)(30) + 5(60 .177 (d) Ax = 5(55)(5) + 5(85 . R2 = 550/π = 175. Coefficient of friction at the work-die interface = 0.0.0416 = 0. The metal has a strength coefficient = 45.75 Lc = 0.09) = 145.Af)/Ao Ao = 0.966 φ = 0.0 mm is drawn to 2. and (c) horsepower to perform the operation if the exit velocity of the stock = 2 ft/sec.14) 2.50 in and final diameter = 0.1964 .2 MPa f φ = 0.9094)/9. Coefficient of friction at the work-die interface = 0.2.75/0.12(2.22)(0. For the work metal.25 = 1.6 MPa f (c) Draw force F: F = Af σd = 4. R2 = 1675/π = 533.23 mm Cc = 2π R = 2π (13.22 σd = Y (1 + µ/tan α )φ (ln Ao/Af) = 284.9094(159. Determine: (a) area reduction.966) = 1.1.5) 2 = 4.626 Drawing 19.34 Rod stock is drawn through a draw die with an entrance angle of 12°.0695 mm2 Af = 0.09 mm Cc = 2π R = 2π (23. (b) draw force for the operation.365 Y = 500(0.25 = 1.5(.0962 in2 r = (0.0) 2 = 9.50) 2 = 0.12(D/Lc) D = 0.30. Solution: (a) r = (Ao .33 Wire of starting diameter = 3.22 = 34.07.02(680/145.35) = 0.50 + 0.98 + 0.3056 (b) Draw stress σd: ε = ln(7.98 + 0.51 (b) Draw force F: ε = ln(0.000(0.0 .5)/sin 15 = 0.5 N 19.0962) = ln 2.6) = 783.14 mm Kx = 0.12(D/Lc) D = 0.35 in. Determine: (a) area reduction. (b) draw stress.5) = 2. and (c) draw force required for the operation. Solution: (a) r = (Ao .247 lb/in 2 f φ = 0.0695 = 0.17.88 + 0. R = 23.5x5) = 1675 mm2 Cx = 2 x 55 + 16 x 25 + 8 x 15 + 10 x 5 = 680 mm Ao = π R2 = 1675. Starting diameter = 0.365) 0.25π (3.08) 2.5(3.22/1.5 mm in a die with entrance angle = 15° degrees.88 + 0. K = 500 MPa and n = 0.1964/0.5(3.08 mm Kx = 0.0 + 2.35) 2 = 0.Af)/Ao Ao = 0.365) = 159.9094) = ln 1.1964 in2 Af = 0.

3607 φ = 0.125(1 .7 .6 N-m/s = 4524.0.475 N-m/min = 4524.475 N (d) P = 271.125 + 0.3607) = 1.d = 90 .12(D/Lc) Df = 0.15 = 27.Af)/Ao .4417. The draw die has an entrance angle = 18°.5(.3 mm φ = 0.7 /4417.000 = 12.440 = 0.08.45 MPa f (c) F = Af σd = 4417.84 hp 19.Af)/Ao Ao = 0.5 mm Lc = 0.1118)/sin 12 = 0.3) = 1.5/24.2) = 0.1184/0.15 = 75 mm.7 = 0.12(0.0 m/min.5 = 0.250 = 0.6 W 19.125 in. The starting metal has a strength coefficient = 40.5 = 0.r)0. The motors driving the capstans at the die exits can each deliver 1.2231) 0.012273/0.35 Bar stock of initial diameter = 90 mm is drawn with a draft = 15 mm.Lc = 0.5(0.10.288)(0.475(1 m/min) = 271.000 lb/in 2 and a strain hardening exponent = 0.12(D/Lc) D = 0.35)/sin 12 = 0.8) . Y = 40.08/tan 18)(1.0.5(0.600 ft/lb/min HP = 423.012273 in2 009819 in2 ε = ln(0.36 Wire stock of initial diameter = 0.9)/ 6361.5(90 . (c) draw force required for the operation.125 .7 mm2 Df = Do . Solution: First draw: Do = 0.9) = ln 1.288 σd = Y (1 + µ/tan α )φ (ln Ao/Af) = 105(1 + 0.50 .75)/sin 18 = 24.15/1.1118 in D = 0. (b) draw stress.000(0.9 (61.88 + 0.25π (0.9 mm2 r = (6361.33 F = Af Y (1 + µ/tan α )φ (ln Ao/Af) f 116 .125 in is drawn through two dies each providing a 0.012773(1 .25π (90) 2 = 6361. and the coefficient of friction at the work-die interface = 0. and the coefficient of friction at the work-die interface is estimated to be 0. Determine: (a) area reduction.3646 Y = k = 105 MPa f φ = 0.50 hp at 90% efficiency.12(82.0.125) 2 = 0.88 + 0.1118) = 0.20 area reduction. Af = Ao(1 .425/0.009819) = ln 1.1184 Lc = 0.5(90 + 75) = 82. Determine the maximum possible speed of the wire as it exits the second die.3056 (b) Draw stress σd: ε = ln(6361.. Each die has an entrance angle of 12°.775 lb/in 2 f φ = 0.3646) = 61.021)(0. The metal behaves as a perfectly plastic material with yield stress = 105 MPa.25π (75) 2 = 4417.021 F = Af Y (1 + µ/tan α )φ (ln Ao/Af) f F = 0.88 + 0.88 + 0. Solution: (a) r = (Ao .1/tan 12)(1.0962(34.12(0.600/33.15. Ao = 0.03173 φ = 0.88 + 0. Af = 0.03173) = 1.45) = 271.7137) = 3530 lb (c) P = 3530(2 ft/sec x 60) = 423.247)(1 + 0.r) = 0.125(. and (d) power to perform the operation if exit velocity = 1.2231 r = (Ao .

775)(1 + 0.5/119 = 6. or the reductions to achieve the two stages could be reallocated to achieve a higher reduction in the first drawing operation.100) = 0.35 F = Af Y (1 + µ/tan α )φ (ln Ao/Af) f F = 0.12(D/Lc) Df = 0.2231 + 0.5 v = 742. The first operation would have to be operated at well below its maximum possible speed.r)0.2231 Total strain experienced by the work metal is the sum of the strains from the first and second draws: ε = ε 1 + ε 2 = 0.1118 + 0.1059 Lc = 0.000 ft-lb/min)/60 = 742.1059/0.0.47 ft/sec Note : The calculations indicate that the second draw die is the limiting step in the drawing sequence. Ao = 0.5 ft-lb/sec P = Fv = 119v = 742.1118(1 .Af)/Ao .5 hp at 90% efficiency = 1.5 ft-lb/sec as before in the first draw.1118) 2 = 0.009819 in2 r = (Ao .250 = 0.1118 in.88 + 0.009819(1 . P = Fv = 214v = 742.90(33.4462) = 214 lb..5(0.1/tan 12)(1.1118(.818)(1 + 0.09819(27.000(0.33)(0.009819/0.100 in D = 0. 117 .1118 .24 ft/sec Second draw: Do = 0.0269) = 1.12(0.88 + 0.2) = 0. or the second draw die could be powered by a higher horsepower motor.25π (0.818 lb/in 2 f φ = 0.007855(30.5 x 0.4462 Y = 40.F = 0.4462) 0.5 = 0.8) .r) = 0.5 v = 742.15/1.5(0.35)(0.100)/sin 12 = 0.5 hp at 90% efficiency = 742.5 = 0.0.007855) = ln 1.0269 φ = 0. 1.15 = 30.2231) = 119 lb 1.5/214 = 3. Af = Ao(1 .1/tan 12)(1.007855 in 2 ε = ln(0.2231 = 0.

D = blank diameter.7 Distinguish between redrawing and reverse drawing . 20. and (4) surface scratches.3. indicate how the clearance should be applied to the punch and die diameters. Answer. Measures of drawing feasibility include: (1) drawing ratio. (2) tearing. die size = blank size.14. it is usually measured as the difference between the final included angle of the bent part and the angle of the tooling used to make the bend. Answer.3 What is the difference between a cutoff operation and a parting operation? Answer. r = (D . the shape change is significant enough (e.Dp)/D.10 Identify the principal components of a stamping die that performs blanking. 20. In edge bending.6 What are some of the simple measures used to assess the feasibility of a proposed cup drawing operation? Answer. two draws are accomplished on the part.20 20. Stretch forming of sheet metal involves stretching and simultaneous bending of the workpart to achieve shape change. (2) bending.0) that it must be carried out in two drawing steps. 118 . 20. Answer. Springback is the elastic recovery of the sheet metal after bending. In reverse drawing. 20. In V-bending. A parting operation cuts a slug between adjacent parts in the strip. See Article 20. See Figure 20. and (3) thickness-to-diameter ratio. and Dp = punch diameter. In redrawing. probably with annealing between the steps. a simple punch and die which have the included angle are used to bend the part. 20. t/D. where t = stock thickness.9. (3) earing. 20.. For a blanking operation. divided by the angle of the tooling.8 What are some of the possible defects in drawn sheet metal parts? Answer. the punch force a cantilevered sheet metal section over a die edge to obtain the desired bend angle. 20. and the punch is smaller by twice the clearance. See Figure 20. The three operations are: (1) cutting. Drawing defects include: (1) wrinkling. (2) reduction.2 SHEET METALWORKING Identify the three basic types of sheet metalworking operations. In blanking of a round sheet metal part. the second in the opposite direction.4 Describe V-bending and edge bending.g.5 What is springback in sheet metal bending? Answer.1 20. Answer. DR = D/Dp.9 What is stretch forming ? Answer. A cutoff operation separates parts from a strip by shearing one edge of each part in sequence. drawing ratio greater than 2. one in one direction.4. and (3) drawing. Review Questions 20.

Answer. 20. all correct answers must be given. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 17 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). 119 . The Guerin process is a sheet metal forming process that uses a rubber die which flexes to force the sheet metal to take the shape of a form block (punch). and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. For each question. (c) 20. (b) be increased. 20. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point.15 Distinguish between roll bending and roll forming. Answer. since each correct answer is worth 1 point.14 Identify a major technical problem in tube bending? Answer. (c) shear strength. (b) 20.13 What is the Guerin process? Answer. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. and (2) straight-sided frame. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. Roll forming involves feeding a lone strip or coil through rotating rolls so that the shape of the rolls is imparted to the strip. 20.Answer. or (c) be unaffected. (b) shear. Answer.10.1. or (b) punch. or (e) yield strength. also called C-frame.3 The cutting force in a blanking operation depends on which mechanical property of the sheet metal (one best answer)? (a) compressive strength. Two press frame types are: (1) gap frame. and (c) tensile.6. (d) tensile strength. (b) modulus of elasticity. See Article 20. Roll bending involves the forming of large sheet and plate metal sections into curved forms. Answer.1 As sheet metal stock hardness increases. 20.5.1. 20.12 What are the relative advantages and disadvantages of mechanical versus hydraulic presses in sheet metalworking? Answer. (a) and (c).2 A round sheet metal slug produced in a hole punching operation will have the same diameter as which of the following? (a) die opening. Advantage of mechanical presses: faster cycle rates. (a) 20. the clearance between punch and die should: (a) be decreased. See Article 20. See Section 20.4 Sheet metal bending involves which of the following stresses and strains (may be more than one)? (a) compressive.11 What are the two basic categories of structural frames used in stamping presses? Answer. 20. Advantages of hydraulic presses: longer ram strokes and uniform force throughout stroke. Answer. A major technical problem in tube bending is collapse of the tube walls during the process.

(b) Which of the following processes are classified as high.060.0) = 0. (a) Which one of the following stamping dies is the most complicated? (a) blanking die.2 Thus. (d) explosive forming. At what clearance should the shears be set to yield an optimum cut? Solution: From Table 20. (d) solid gap. c = 0. and (i) tube forming.energy-rate forming processes (more than one)? (a) electrochemical machining. or (f) V-die. and (e) t/D = 2%. (a). (d) r = 65%. (b) DR = 2. (b) equal to.1. Holding force in drawing is most likely to be which of the following relative to maximum drawing force? (a) less than. (b) electromagnetic forming. (g) trimming.1 A power shears is used to cut soft cold rolled steel that is 4. (g) redrawing. Answer. (d) wiping die for edge bending.35. and (e).20.6 20. (c) r = 0. a = 0. (e) notching.0 mm thick cold rolled steel (half hard).75 mm thick. (e) Which one of the following press types is usually associated with the highest production rates in sheet metal stamping operations? (a) adjustable bed.0 . (e) progressive die. (c) safety factor used in calculating bending force. (b). (c) compound die. (c) hemming.70 mm. (c) electron beam cutting. a = 0. Answer. and (i). Answer.9 20.2(0. and (e) straight-sided. (c). (c).7 20.75) = 0. The following are measures of feasibility for several proposed cup drawing operations. 20. (f) hydroforming. Punch diameter = Db . (h) tube bending. (e) Guerin process. (b) amount of elastic recovery experienced by the metal after bending.2c = 75. (d) Which of the following are variations of sheet metal bending operations (more than one)? (a) coining. (f) shear spinning. Solution: From Table 20.11 Answer. (d) ironing.8 20. Answer.0 mm. which of the operations are likely to be feasible? (a) DR = 1. The part is circular with diameter = 75. Answer. Problems Cutting Operations 20.10 20. or (d) length before bending of the straight sheet metal section to be bent.075(2.060(4. Die diameter = Db = 75. (b) flanging. Determine the appropriate punch and die sizes for this operation.7.1.15 mm. c = at = 0. or (c) greater than. (b) open back inclinable. (b) combination die. Thus.5 Which one of the following is the best definition of bend allowance? (a) amount by which the die is larger than the punch.7.075. 120 . (c) press brake.0 mm. 20. and (h) shear spinning. (b) and (d).15) = 74.285 mm A blanking operation is to be performed on 2. Answer.

29 mm 20.2 mm thick.000 inch width dimension = 2.2)(298.1.0117) = 0.6 Determine the minimum tonnage press to perform the blanking and punching operation in Problem 20. L = 3. Solution: From Table 20.0 mm from Problem 20. and what can be done to correct the condition? 121 .0117 in.0117) = 3.7(TS)tL t =3.2(0. The outside diameter of the washer = 65 mm and the inside diameter = 30 mm.4766 in.5) = 193.144) = 64. Blanking die: dimensions are the same as for the part in Figure P20. c = 0. Thus.0 + 1.0)(235.7 Determine the tonnage requirement for the blanking operation in Problem 20.075(5/32) = 0. Determine the dimensions of the blanking punch and the die opening. c = 0.1.9766 in. a = 0.8 The foreman in the pressworking section comes to you with the problem of a blanking operation that is producing parts with excessive burrs.874 N 20. Solution: F = StL t = 2.4.4.4.20.000(5/32)(13. given that the stainless steel has a shear strength = 62.0 = 13.65) = 164.045.0 in. and (b) the punch and die sizes for the punching operation. Assume that blanking and punching occur simultaneously.000 lb/in 2.0 + 2. F = 62. 2.7(290)(3.0) = 125.075.3 A compound die will be used to blank and punch a large washer out of aluminum alloy sheet stock 3.65 mm F = 350(2.000 . top and bottom 1.3. Thus. The material is 5/32 inch thick stainless steel (half hard).0 + 1. L = π D = 75π = 235.2) = 0.5 + 2.5 Determine the blanking force required in Problem 20. Determine: (a) the punch and die sizes for the blanking operation.000 inch inset dimension remains the same.955 N 20.500 .4. Blanking punch: 3.144) = 30.2(0. L = 65π + 30π = 95π = 298. 1.2(0. if the aluminum sheetmetal has a tensile strength = 290 MPa.045(3. from Problem 20. 20.0 + 1. Solution: From Table 20. What are the possible reasons for the burrs.0117) = 1.0 .500 inch length dimension = 3. a = 0. Solution: F = 0.5 + 1.3. Solution: F = StL t = 5/32 in.5 mm F = 0.2 mm from Problem 20.2.71 mm Blanking die diameter = Db = 65 mm (b) Punching punch diameter = Dh = 30 mm Punching die diameter = Dh + 2c = 30 + 2(0.2.144 mm (a) Blanking punch diameter = Db .0 + 1.00 inch extension widths = 1.9766 in. if the steel has a shear strength = 350 MPa.97 tons 20.2c = 65 .4 A blanking die is to be designed to blank the part outline shown in Figure P20.2(0.938 lb = 62.

20.35 mm. Dimensions (lengths) of each end = 0.5 + 0.0.3756 in.000 in.5 inches that is 5/32 inch thick.2.9 if the bend is to be performed in a V-die with a die opening width = 38 mm.1875 + 0.75) = 2. R = 6. Solution: From drawing.337.A’ = 135°.35 mm A = 180 .75) = 18. L = 50 + 18.0. from the end.4173 in. measure the punch and die clearance to see if it equals the recommended value.A’ = 135°.5)/(4.5 BA = 2π (135/360)(9. the length of the neutral axis of the part will be 2(1. (2) Punch and die cutting edges are worn (rounded) which has the same effect as excessive clearance.98 + 37.3756) = 1. The stretched length of the bend along the neutral axis will be: B = 2π (90/360)(0.10 Solve Problem 20. (c) The operator should set the stop so that the tip of the V-punch contacts the starting blank at a distance = 2. A’ = 45°. The part drawing is given in Figure P20.000 in.37 + 37. Solution: For V-bending.75) = 1.37 mm Dimensions of starting blank: w = 32 mm.35 + 0.98 mm Dimensions of starting blank: w = 32 mm.0 inches by 1. 122 .Solution: Reasons for excessive burrs: (1) clearance between punch and die is too large for the material and stock thickness. Bending 20. The bend of 90° is to be made in the middle of the 4-inch length.0417 in.75 mm A = 180 .8122 in.12 Determine the bending force required in Problem 20. its length will be greater after the bend than before. Its length before bending = 4.5 x 0.5 = 115.33 x 0.15625) = 0. (2) If the die is not worn.33.75) = 27. if the bend radius = 3/16 inch. (a) Determine the dimensions of the two equal sides that will result after the bend.15625) = 0. The material has a tensile strength = 620 MPa. Kba = 0.8122) + 0. For convenience. Determine the blank size required. determine the length of the part's neutral axis after the bend.0 . die maker must rebuild the punch and die. A’ = 45°. Kbf = 1.9 A bending operation is to be performed on 4. Kba = 0.9. To correct the problem: (1) Check the punch and die cutting edges to see if they are worn.87 mm 20. R = 4. If not.11 An L-shaped part is to be bent in a V-bending operation on a press brake from a flat blank 4. BA = 2π (A/360)(R + Kbat) R/t = (9. Therefore. these sides should be measured to the beginning of the bend radius.1875 + 0.9 except that the bend radius R = 6. therefore.5(4.33 B = 2π (90/360)(0. Kba = 0. therefore. Therefore.4173 = 4. (b) Also.5 x 4. L = 50 + 27.48 mm 20. Solution: From drawing.333 BA = 2π (135/360)(6. BA = 2π (A/360)(R + Kbat) R/t = (6.75 mm thick cold rolled steel. regrind the faces to sharpen the cutting edges.333 x 4. (c) Where should the machine operator set the stop on the press brake relative to the starting length of the part? Solution: (a) R/t = (3/16)/(5/32) = 1.35)/(4.5 = 105. (b) Since the metal stretches during bending. If they are.

The metal has a tensile strength = 340 MPa. Solution: Reduction r = (D .000)(1.1/DR 20. Solution: For V-bending.0).75) 2/25 = 5.25 (b) r = (D . Kbf = 1.100)/225 = 0. (d) Does the operation seem feasible? Solution: (a) DR = D/Dp = 225/100 = 2.Dp)/D Drawing ratio DR = D/Dp r = D/D . and t/D is too small (less than 1%).18 A cup is to be drawn in a deep drawing operation.13 Solve Problem 20.25 inches.0114 = 1.667 N 20.5)(5/32) 2/0. r is too large (greater than 50%).Dp)/D = (225 . r < 50%. The height of the cup is 75 mm and its inside diameter = 100 mm. F = Kbf(TS)wt2/D = 1. Kbf = 0. given that the die opening = 15 mm.33.25 = 2728 lb.33(340)(20)(3) 2/15 = 5426 N Drawing Operations 20.Dp)/D = (175 .33(620)(32)(4.F = Kbf(TS)wt2/D = 1.0 mm thick and 20. 20. Solution: For edge-bending in a wiping die.75) 2/38 = 15.15 Solve Problem 20.75 inch.000 lb/in 2.14 Determine the bending force required in Problem 20.33(620)(32)(4.100)/175 = 0.Dp/D = 1 .14% (d) Feasibility? DR < 2. Kbf = 0.5)(5/32) 2/1.14 except that the operation is performed using a wiping die with die opening W = 0.75 (b) r = (D .33. F = Kbf(TS)wt2/D = 1. F = Kbf(TS)wt2/D = 0. the operation is not feasible because the 175 mm diameter blank size does not provide sufficient metal to draw a 75 mm cup 123 . However. 20. If the blank diameter = 225 mm.429 = 42.11 if the bend is to be performed in a V-die with a die opening width W = 1. and t/D > 1%.0089 = 0. (b) reduction.Dp/D = 1 . Compute the required force to bend the part.75 = 1128 lb.5% (c) t/D = 2/225 = 0.17 Derive an expression for the reduction r in drawing as a function of drawing ratio DR.33.33(70.12 except that the operation is performed using a wiping die with die opening W = 25 mm. Kbf = 1.0.33(70. Solution: (a) DR = D/Dp = 175/100 = 1.000)(1. determine: (a) drawing ratio. Solution: For V-bending.19 Solve Problem 20.18 except that the starting blank size diameter = 175 mm.33. The sheetmetal thickness = 2 mm. and (c) thickness-to-diameter ratio. 20.16 A sheetmetal part 3. Solution: For edge-bending in a wiping die.555 = 55.0 mm long is bent to an included angle = 60° and a bend radius = 7.9% (c) t/D = 2/175 = 0.89% (d) Feasibility? No! DR is too large (greater than 2. F = Kbf(TS)wt2/D = 0.909 N 20. The material has a tensile strength = 70.5 mm in a V-die.

compute the starting diameter of the blank to complete the 124 .(4 + 2.000)(7. Blank area = π D2/4 = π (175) 2/4 = 24. Cup area = π Dph + π Dp2/4 = 100π h + π (100) 2/4 = 100π h + 2500π = 314.52 .16h + 7854= 24. and the starting blank diameter = 7.0. assuming the corner radius on the punch has a negligible effect in our calculations and there is no earing of the cup. Punch and die radii = 4 mm. and the starting blank diameter = 150 mm. Set surface area of cup = surface are of starting blank: 314.0 inches.1875)(60.0.(Dp + 2.7) = π (4)(0.8 inches and the diameter (inside dimension) = 5.22 A cup drawing operation is performed in which the inside diameter = 80 mm and the height = 50 mm.01667 = 1.height.0. Determine: (a) drawing ratio.46 (c) F = π Dpt(TS)(D/Dp .199 h = 51. (d) Fh = 0.667% (c) F = π Dpt(TS)(D/Dp . (d) Fh = 0. (d) Fh = 0.15625) 2) = 0.16h + 7854.5 = 0.20 A deep drawing operation is performed in which the inside of the cylindrical cup has a diameter = 4.015(180) π (1502 . The stock thickness = 3.20 except that the stock thickness t = 3/16 inch. The actual cup height possible with a 175 mm diameter blank can be determined by comparing surface areas (one side only for convenience) between the cup and the starting blank. Assuming the punch radius = 0.125/7.133 lb.2 x 0.025 = 2.21 Solve Problem 20.2t + 2Rd)2) Fh = 0.125)(60.000) π (7.7) = π (4)(0.62) Fh = 114. To compute the cup surface area.125 + 2 x 0.875 (same as previous problem) (b) t/D = 0. 20.125 + 2 x 0.5 inches.5 inches.23 A deep drawing operation is to be performed on a sheetmetal blank that is 1/8 inch thick. Thus.(Dp + 2.0.0 = 1.16h = 16. Determine: (a) drawing ratio.(80 + 2.756 lb.875 (b) t/D = 0.000) π (7.418 N.015(180) π (1502 .000) π (7.52 .770 lb (same as previous problem) 20.5/4 . Punch and die radii = 5/32 inch.015(30.015(30. (b) reduction.5% (c) F = π Dpt(TS)(D/Dp . and (d) blankholder force.7) = 166. (c) drawing force.5/4.015Y π (D2 . let us divide the cup into two sections: (1) walls.015Y π (D2 .000 lb/in 2.2t + 2Rd)2) Fh = 0.0. Solution: (a) DR = 150/80 = 1.2 x 0.5 = 0.5/4 . Solution: (a) DR = 7. The height (inside dimension) of the cup = 3. Solution: (a) DR = 7. This is less than the specified 75 mm height.770 lb 20. (b) reduction.4.5/4.58752) Fh = 49.2 x 3 + 2 x 4) 2) = 0.7) = 354.15625) 2) = 49. and (d) blankholder force.1875/7.0 inches and a height = 2.942 N 20.053 mm2.7) = π (80)(3)(400)(150/80 .875 (b) r = (D – Dp)/D = )150 – 80)/80 = 70/150 = 0.0 mm. and (2) base. (c) drawing force.56 mm.000 lb/in2 and a yield strength = 30. The metal has a tensile strength = 60.(4 + 2.94.015(30. The stock thickness = 1/8 inch.52 .000)(7. Tensile strength = 400 MPa and a yield strength = 180 MPa for this sheetmetal.0 = 1.053 314.7) = 110.0.

Cup area = wall area + base area = π Dph + π Dp2/4 = 5π (3.2 x 0. 20. which would reduce DR.890 in.425 in.0 = 2.7855 = 97.847 in 2 A3 = π (4. radius.0. Test for feasibility: DR = D/Dp = 10.0126 = 1. assuming thickness t remains constant. this operation may not be feasible.846/0. These criteria values indicate that the operation is feasible.265 = 4.25π D2 = 25.7855D 2 Setting blank area = cup area: 0.847 + 14.375 radius at the base of the cup. A2 = 4.01.780 in.25/0.842/0.807 + 8. With a rounded punch radius.375 = 3.25) 2/4 = 14.0218 = 2. Because DR > 2. the zero punch radius makes this operation infeasible anyway.0 mm stock. The part is a cylindrical cup with height = 50 mm and inside diameter = 70 mm.7855D 2 Setting blank area = cup area: 0. The centroid is located at the center of the arc which is 0.050 in.375 sin 45 = 0. assuming thickness t remains constant.80 .25 + 2 x 0. Test for feasibility: DR = D/Dp = 137. and (3) base.operation with no material left in the flange. Is the operation feasible (ignoring the fact that the punch radius is too small)? Solution: Use surface area computation.89/5. 20.846 mm2.964.24 Solve Problem 20.25 in. which has a diameter = 5. the diameter of the circle described by the centroid is 4.842 D2 = 76.050/5.125/9. Solution: Use surface area computation. Cup area = wall area + base area = π Dph + π Dp2/4 = π (70)(50) + 0.25π D2 = 25.25π D2 Setting blank area = cup area: 0.0.589 in. which is above the value of 1% used as a criterion of feasibility in cup drawing.7855 = 18.0)(3. (b) Is the drawing operation feasible? Solution: Use surface area computation.7855D 2 = 76. whose height = 3. which is less than the limiting ratio of 2. A1 = π Dph = π (5.807 in 2 A2 = length of the quarter circle at the base multiplied by the circumference of the circle described by the centroid (Pappus-Guldin Theorem): length of quarter circle = π D/4 = 0. the operation in the present problem seems feasible.188 in2 Total area of cup = 53. Whereas the operation in Problem 20.825 D = 9.375 = 4.0 = 1.78π (0.0 .978 .188 = 76. Thus.26%.25π in2 Blank area = π D2/4 = 0.589) = 8.0 D = 10. Assume the corner radius on the punch = zero. (2) quarter toroid formed by the 0.265 beyond the center of the 0.900 D = 137.18%. however. (a) Find the required starting blank size Db.48 = 0.8) + 0..25π (70) 2 = 14.425) = 53.25π (2 x 0.842 in 2 Blank area = π D2/4 = 0. Blank area = π D2/4 = 0.25π (5) 2 = 25. this 125 .25 A drawing operation is performed on 3.7855D 2 = 14.25 = 101.48 mm.375) = 0.23 except use a punch radius = 0.23 was not feasible. Test for feasibility: DR = D/Dp = 9. The surface area of the cup will be divided into three sections: (1) straight walls. The thickness to diameter ratio t/D = 0. Of course. assuming thickness t remains constant. the blank size would be slightly smaller. with a punch radius Rp = 0.0.48/70 = 1.375 inch. t/D = 3/137.375 in.89 = 0.846 D2 = 14.

25 except that the height = 60 mm. assuming thickness t remains constant.6 mm2 A2 = length of the quarter circle at the base multiplied by the circumference of the circle described by the centroid (Pappus-Guldin Theorem): length of quarter circle = 2π Rp/4 = 0. 20.04%. (2) Wrinkles are caused by compressive buckling of the flange as it is drawn inward to form the cup.7855D 2 Setting blank area = cup area: 0. (2) quarter toroid formed by the 0. Also.71 mm.529. and (3) base. Solution: Use surface area computation.071 = 64. What are the causes of each of these defects and what remedies would you propose? Solution: (1) Ears are caused by sheet metal that has directional properties.1 mm2 A3 = π (50) 2/4 = 1963. Test for feasibility: DR = D/Dp = 147. A2 = 64.25π (70) 2 = 17. One remedy is to anneal the metal to reduce the directionality of the properties.7855D 2 = 17.125.375 radius at the base of the cup. (b) Increase the blankholder pressure against the work during drawing.995. Since the DR is greater than 2.142π (15.1 + 1963.shape would be difficult to draw because the drawing punch would act on the metal like a blanking punch.26 except that the corner radius on the punch = 10 mm. whose height = 60 .2 x 10 = 50 mm.31/70 = 2. the diameter of the circle described by the centroid is 50 + 2 x 7.375 in. This may not be possible since a design change is required.5 mm2 Blank area = π D2/4 = 0. this operation is considered infeasible.10 = 50 mm.0.28/70 = 2.0 D = 143.125. The material is anisotropic.0204 = 2.7855 = 21.71) = 3166. which has a diameter = 70 . There are several possible remedies: (a) increase the t/D ratio by using a thicker gage sheet metal.045/0.7855D 2 = 16. One has ears. Test for feasibility: DR = D/Dp = 143. this operation is considered infeasible.5 D2 = 16.071 beyond the center of the 0.8 mm2 Total area of cup = 10.27 Solve Problem 20.31 = 0.25π (2 x 10) = 15. Thus. t/D = 3/147.26 Solve Problem 20.047 . 20. Since the DR is greater than 2.10. 126 .045 D2 = 17.700 D = 147.28 mm.8 = 16. Solution: Cup area = wall area + base area Cup area = π Dph + π Dp2/4 = π (70)(60) + 0.5/0.7855D 2 Setting blank area = cup area: 0.125. The centroid is located at the center of the arc which is 10 sin 45 = 7.995. the punch radius Rp = 0 would render this operation difficult if not infeasible. Blank area = π D2/4 = 0.0.7855 = 20.28 The foreman in the drawing section of the shop brings to you several samples of parts that have been drawn in the shop. The surface area of the cup will be divided into three sections: (1) straight walls. The samples have various defects. A1 = π Dph = π (70)(50) = 10. as in the previous problem. another has wrinkles. and still a third has torn sections at its base. radius. 20.31 mm.6 + 3166.142 mm.045 mm2.

375 + 0.601 = 4.1963 = 23.375) 2] = 0.25 = 40.0.803 lb/in2 F = (10)(0. D .75 in.25.5 inches. (b) After stretching.(3) Tearing occurs due to high tensile stresses in the walls of the cup near the base. according to Eq.803) = 17.1073)(40.361 in.5 = 3.000(0.002 as start of yielding.361 in. The inside diameter of the cup = 2.000 lb/in 2 and n = 0.5 = 22.29 A cup-shaped part is to be drawn without a blankholder from sheetmetal whose thickness = 0. Solution: (a) Use ε = 0. the thickness of the sheet metal has been reduced to maintain constant volume.547/0.25)D2/4 = 0.547 in 3 Volume of blank = π D2t/4 = π (0. V1 = (1. tf = 0. its height = 1.5 .25)/4 = 0.12(20/22.30 A 20 inch long sheetmetal workpiece is stretched in a stretch forming operation to the dimensions shown in Figure P20. (3) base. Determine: (b) true strain experienced by the metal.459) = 43. computed in (a) does not provide sufficient metal to complete the drawing.1963D 2 Setting blank volume = cup volume: 0.2 x 0.25) + 2(0.459 lb/in2 F = 10(0. The thickness of the beginning stock t = 0.125π (2.118 = 0.2 x 0.5 . remains the same during stretching.5 + 2 x 0.1964 in 2 Circle made by centroid sweep has diameter = (2. A remedy would be to provide a large punch radius. (a) What is the minimum starting blank diameter that can be used. (22.1116) 0.375 inch.516 + 0.1963D 2 = 4.002) 0.375 + 0. (c) stretching force F. Tearing can also occur due to a die corner radius that is too small. assuming width L = 10 in. Other Operations 20.125 inch and the width = 10 inches.764 lb. (a) Find the stretching force F required near the beginning of the operation when yielding first occurs.25) 2] . V2 = 2.601 in 3 Total V = V1 + V2 + V3 = 2.16 D = 4.25π [(0.361) = 0.413 lb. The metal has a flow curve defined by K = 70.1964) = 1. (b) Because the sheet metal is rather thick.25) + 2. Yf = 70.. and the corner radius at the base = 0. (2) toroid at base. (20.375) 2π (0.Dp < 5t D < 5t + Dp = 5(0.5 .14)? (b) Does this blank diameter provide sufficient material to complete the cup? Solution: (a) According to Eq.75 in.516 in 3 V3 = (2.14).25) 2 .0 in.1073 in. The drawn cup consists of three sections: (1) cup walls.12)(14.5 inches.361/20) = ln 1.457 in. 127 . the length of the piece is increased from 20. F = LtYf Yf = 70. 20.430 + 1.25 inches. let us use volume rather than area to determine whether there is sufficient metal in a 3.5) 2)/4 = 1.75)/4 = 2.25 = 14. to 2(102 + 52)0.75 inch blank diameter.25/2)sin 45 = 2. The diameter of 3.30.375) π [(2.30(b).547 D2 = 4. ε = ln(22.(0. and (d) die force Fdie at the very end when the part is formed as indicated in Figure P20.1116 (c) At the final length of 22.81 in.000(0.(2.457π (0.430 in 3 V2 = (cross-section of quarter toroid) x (circle made by sweep of centroid) Cross-section of quarter toroid = 0.

32.4)sin 30 = 2. Solution: Based on sidewise displacement of metal through a shear angle of 30°. Solution: From part drawing.31 were made by shear spinning.2)/2.(d) Fdie = 2F sin A A = tan-1(5/10) = 26.732.32 If the part illustrated in Figure P20.4(0. The sand will act as an internal flexible mandrel to support the tube wall.413) sin 26.75 mm.5) = 1.4 – 1. (3) Pack sand into the tube. The starting thickness = 2. and (b) the spinning reduction r. The tubes will be used to deliver fluids in a chemical plant. 20. 20.25)/sin 30 = 25 + 75/0. radius = 25 + (100 .57 = 38.31 Determine the starting disk diameter required to spin the part in Figure P20.5 = 175 mm Starting diameter = 2(175) = 350 mm 20. Solution: (a) tf = t sin α = (2.57° Fdie = 2( 43.50 = 50% 20. 128 .31 using a conventional spinning operation.2 mm (b) r = (t .836 lb. The wall thickness on the tube = 4.34 A 75 mm diameter tube is bent into a rather complex shape with a series of simple tube bending operations. Shear strain γ = cot 30 = 1.4 = 0.4 mm. What can be done to correct the condition? Solution: Possible solutions: (1) Use a mandrel to prevent collapsing of tube wall. the walls of the tube are flattening badly. (2) Request the designer to increase the bend radius to 3D = 225 mm.33 Determine the shear strain that is experienced by the material that is shear spun in Problem 20. determine: (a) the wall thickness along the cone-shaped portion. In one of the bends where the bend radius is 125 mm.tf)/t = (2.

in which the chip does not segment and is formed from a ductile metal.10 Describe in words what the Merchant equation tells us. A finishing operation follows roughing and is used to achieve the final geometry and surface finish. In machining. 129 . (2) its capability to produce a variety of geometries to a part. 21. 21. Answer. feed. Answer. used in operations such as turning and boring. 21. The three common machining processes are: (1) turning. (2) drilling. depth of cut.4 Name the three most common machining processes.shaped tool in which the cutting edge is perpendicular to the direction of speed motion into the work material. and whether or not a cutting fluid is used. (3) it can achieve closer tolerances than most other processes. 21. used in operations such as milling and drilling. and (3) milling.5 Identify the parameters of a machining operation that are included within the scope of cutting conditions. The two categories are: (1) single -point tools. Cutting conditions include: speed. What are the two basic categories of cutting tools in machining? Give an example of a machining operation that uses each of the tooling types.2 Identify some of the reasons why machining is commercially and technologically important. Answer. and (3) continuous with built-up edge. 21. 21. in which the chip is formed into separated segments. A machine tool can be defined as a power-driven machine that positions and moves a tool relative to the work to accomplish machining or other metal shaping process. Answer.6 Define the difference between roughing and finishing operations in machining. Orthogonal cutting involves the use of a wedge. and (4) it can create good surface finishes.3 21. A roughing operation is used to remove large amounts of material rapidly and to produce a part geometry close to the desired shape.8 What is an orthogonal cutting operation? Answer.7 What is a machine tool? Answer. The reasons include: (1) its applicability to most materials. The three types are: (1) discontinuous. 21. Answer. which is the same as (2) except that friction at the tool-chip interface causes adhesion of the work material to the tool rake face.1 What distinguishes machining from other manufacturing processes? Answer. (2) continuous. Answer.21 THEORY OF METAL MACHINING Review Questions 21. and (2) multiple-edge cutting tools. 21. material is removed from the workpart so that the remaining material is the desired part geometry.9 Name and briefly describe the three types of chips that occur in metal cutting.

0 in3/min.11 What is the specific energy in metal machining? Answer.1 A lathe is used to perform which of the following machining operations (one best answer)? (a) broaching. 21. (b) flat plane. or (d) low v. Answer. f. and d = 0. (b) high v.100 inch. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. Answer. or (d) 3. Specific energy is the amount of energy required to remove a unit volume of the work material. all correct answers must be given.025 in 3/min. (c) milling. f = 0. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. high f and d. (c) 21.12 What does the term size effect mean in metal cutting? Answer.6 in 3/min. For each question.5 21. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. (b) drilling. Answer.6 The chip thickness ratio is which one of the following? (a) tc/to. 21. 21. (b) to/tc. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. (c) low v. (b) continuous with built-up edge. 21. (c) 3.010 in/rev. Answer. or (e) sphere. (d) screw threads. (b) Which of the three types of chip would be expected in a turning operation conducted at low cutting speeds on a brittle work material (one answer)? (a) continuous. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. The Merchant equation states that the shear plane angle increases when rake angle is increased and friction angle is decreased. f. as the tool-chip interface heats up during cutting. A tool-chip thermocouple is comprised of the tool and chip as the two dissimilar (metallic) materials forming the thermocouple junction. The size effect refers to the fact that the specific energy increases as the cross-section area of the chip (to x w) decreases. and d. or (d) turning. an emf is emitted from the junction which can be measured to indicate cutting temperature. (d) 21. (c) round hole. (d) 21.4 A roughing operation generally involves which one of the following combinations of cutting conditions? (a) high v. (b) 0.13 What is a tool-chip thermocouple? Answer.2 With which one of the following geometric forms is the drilling operation most closely associated? (a) external cylinder.3 in 3/min. or (c) discontinuous. Answer. which one of the following is the material removal rate? (a) 0. 130 . (c) f/d. (c) 21. and d. or (d) to/w.3 If the cutting conditions in a turning operation are v = 300 ft/min. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 11 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). low f and d.Answer.

β = 2(45) + α .85°.4286 φ = tan-1(. Eq.7 According to the Merchant equation.854 mm (c) Shear strain γ = cot 19.3 In an orthogonal cutting operation. (b) Problems Chip Formation and Forces in Machining 21.2φ β = 90 + 15 – 2(26.30/0.4615 cos 15/(1 .430 + 0.028 = 0. or (e) increase in shear plane angle. (b) and (e). Solution: (a) r = to/tc = 0.35 ° (b) Chip thickness at α = 0: tc = to/tan φ = 0. 21. or (d) steel.028 in. (b) brass.975 + 0. Calculate (a) the shear plane angle and (b) the shear strain for the operation.30 mm and the cut yields a deformed chip thickness = 0. Solution: From Problem 21. the tool has a rake angle = -5°.85 + tan (26.Answer.35 + tan (19. rearranging. (b) 0.35 = 0.15) = 1. (c) cast iron. Assuming that the friction angle remains the same. (21.948 131 . suppose the rake angle were changed to α = 0°. The chip thickness before the cut = 0.4116) = 22.37 – (-5)) = 2. (c) 21. Answer. Answer.37 ° (b) Shear strain γ = cot 22.β/2.12 mm.0) = 2.4615 sin 15)) = tan-1(.848 + 0.3°.1. and (c) the shear strain for the operation. (a) 21.025 inch. (c) 21.012 in and the cut yields a deformed chip thickness = 0.. φ = 45 + 0/2 – 51.5062) = 26.85 ° (b) Shear strain γ = cot 26.210 = 2.. determine (a) the shear plane angle.1 In an orthogonal cutting operation.16): φ = 45 + α /2 . all other factors remaining the same (more than one)? (a) decrease in friction angle. Calculate (a) the shear plane angle and (b) the shear strain for the operation.85 .37 + tan (22.85) = 51.9 For which one of the following values of chip thickness before the cut to would you expect the specific energy to be the greatest? (a) 0.4286 sin -5)) = tan-1(. (d) increase in cutting temperature.4615 φ = tan-1(. The chip thickness before the cut = 0.2 In Problem 21.518 = 2. Using the Merchant Equation.1.012/0. with α = 0 and β remaining the same at 51. or (c) 0.185 21. α = 15° and φ = 26.351 = 3. (b) the chip thickness.35 .4286 cos -5/(1 .65 = 0.65 mm.010 inch. (c) decrease in shear plane angle. Answer. Answer.10 Which of the following cutting conditions has the strongest effect on cutting temperature? (a) feed or (b) speed. the tool has a rake angle = 15°.3/2 = 19. Solution: (a) r = to/tc = 0.8 Which of the following metals would usually have the lowest unit horsepower (one answer)? (a) aluminum.199 21. (b) decrease in power requirements. an increase in rake angle would have which of the following results.3° Now.30/tan 19.

4 .2)/sin 22.0) = 1500 mm3/s 21.94° Fs = 300 cos 22.55.291 21.5 The cutting force and thrust force in an orthogonal cutting operation are: Fc = 1470 N and Ft = 1589 N. (c) the friction angle. The tool rake angle = 10° which produces a deformed chip thickness tc = 0.4 cos 10/(1 .9 N/mm2 = 95.β/2.4233) = 22.6.94 = 0.4 sin 10)) = tan-1(.0077 = 21.8° (c) β = 2(45) + 15 .9 lb. Determine: (a) the chip thickness after the cut.3646 = 8.24 = 1. and (d) the friction force.10) = 2.92 21.55 cos 15/(1 .25 mm. (c) the thrust force.9 MPa (b) φ = 45 + α /2 . rearranging.8 The orthogonal cutting operation described in previous Problem 21. (d) the coefficient of friction.6194) = 31. and d = 3.8 + tan (31.1° µ = tan 54. the chip thickness before the cut = 0.38 21. Use the orthogonal cutting model as an approximation of the turning process.167 lb/in2.3916) = 21.4. and (c) material removal rate.1 = 1.0 mm. to = 0.15) = 1.94 .23 = 95.38° Fs = 1470 cos 21.54 = 0. The chip thickness ratio is measured after the cut to be 0.25)(3. Solution: (a) r = to/tc.2(31. the width of the cut = 0. (b) shear strain.94 = 162. and the chip thickness ratio = 0. and (e) the shear strain.463 φ = tan-1(.0.7 An orthogonal cutting operation is performed using a rake angle of 15°. Determine: (a) shear plane angle.2φ β = 90 + 5 – 2(21.463 cos 10/(1 . f = 0.294 = 2.291sin 22.463 sin 10)) = tan-1(.0077 in 2 S = 162.3/8.38) = 52.7 involves a work material whose shear strength is 40. (b) the shear angle.55 = 0.4 + tan (26. 132 .0)/sin 21. the chip thickness before the cut = 0.25/0.4 The cutting conditions in a turning operation are: v = 2 m/s.5° (d) µ = tan 41.5 = 0.2(22.38 sin 5)) = tan-1(0. tc = to/r = 0. (b) φ = tan-1(.311 (c) MRR = (2 m/s x 103 mm/m)(0.200 in.38.000 lb/in 2.9/0.301 = 1.38 cos 5/(1 . Determine (a) the shear strength of the work material and (b) the coefficient of friction in the operation. the width of the cut = 5. Solution: (a) φ = tan-1(0.012/.38 = 789. Solution: (a) r = to/tc = 0. Determine (a) the shear strength of the work material and (b) the coefficient of friction in the operation. β = 2(45) + α . As = (0.022 in.38 – 1589 sin 21. (b) the cutting force.8) = 41.94) = 54.54 mm.8 . compute: (a) the shear force.012 in and w = 0.0.615 + 0.0/.23 mm2 S = 789.55 sin 15)) = tan-1(. Solution: φ = tan-1(0.38 = 3. β = 2(45) + 10 .4959) = 26. Based on your answers to the previous problem. The rake angle = 10°.015)(0.3 N As = (0.100 in.015.. The rake angle = 5°.24° µ = tan 52.6 The cutting force and thrust force have been measured in an orthogonal cutting operation: Fc = 300 lb and Ft = 291 lb.6)(5.0 mm.88 (e) γ = cot 31.21.4° (b) γ = cot 26. and the chip thickness ratio = 0.017 + 0..

the rake angle = -5°. Using the orthogonal model as an approximation of turning.8 + 41.10)/sin 31.6 .00702 in 2. determine: (a) the shear plane angle. Solution: (a) φ = tan-1(.7° (b) As = (0. Solution: (a) r = to/tc.20)/cos (29.11 Solve the previous problem except that the rake angle has been changed to -5° and the resulting chip thickness ratio = 0.5) = 50.20)/cos (29. (b) the shear force.2 cos (41.5° (b) As = (0.0028(40. Ft = 228 sin (50.5668) = 29.15)/cos (31.3384) = 18. (c) Ft = 91.00456 in 2.12 A turning operation is performed using the following cutting conditions: v = 300 ft/min. chip thickness before the cut = 0.15)/sin 29.35.000) = 91.6 . The rake angle on the tool in the direction of chip flow = 10°. and width of cut = 0. (b) the shear force. tc = to/r = 0.8 .. and (d) friction force.150 in. (d) the coefficient of friction. and (e) the shear strain. (c) the friction angle. (b) the shear angle.2 mm and w = 4. (d) F = 155 sin 15 .42.. (d) F = 665 sin (-5) .8 + tan (31.(-5)) = 870 lb.9° (d) µ = tan 42.000) = 351 lb.9 -20) = 238 lb.3851) = 21.9 . Fs = AsS = 0. Fs = AsS = 0.15) = 2.9 In an orthogonal cutting operation.8) = 42.2 sin (41.4 = 0.15)/cos (31.489 = 3.9 = 0. Ft = 351 sin (47.50.870 cos (-5) = 808 lb.0 mm.010 in/rev. (c) cutting force and thrust force.5 + 50. 21.2 lb.1° (c) β = 2(45) + (-5) .10 The shear strength of a certain work material = 50.5 mm (b) φ = tan-1(.00228 in 2.2 lb. The shear strength of the work material = 40.09 21.4.100 in.7) = 47.35 cos -5/(1 .00456(50. 133 . and d = 0.238 cos 20 = 359 lb.000) = 228 lb.2(18.15)/sin 18.2(21.5 . (c) cutting force and feed force.6 .012)(0.8 = 0.015)(0.7 = 0.000 lb/in 2. (b) Fc = 91. to = 0.(-5))/cos (18.2(29.(-5)) = 665 lb.000 lb/in 2. Solution: (a) φ = tan-1(. resulting in a chip ratio = 0. (c) β = 2(45) + 20 .(-5))/cos (18.5 -15) = 77.015 in. f = 0.9 -20) = 397 lb.6 .597 + 0. 21. An orthogonal cutting operation is performed using a tool with a rake angle = 20° at the following cutting conditions: Speed = 100 ft/min.35 sin -5)) = tan-1(0.Solution: (a) As = (0.5 -15) = 155 lb.4 cos -5/(1 . Fs = AsS = 0.9° Fc = 228 cos (50.5 sin 20)) = tan-1(0.6° Fc = 351 cos (47. 21. (d) F = 397 sin 20 .5 = 0. (c) β = 2(45) + (-5) .2/.015)(0.2 cos 15 = 115 lb.5 .77.00702(50. Determine: (a) the chip thickness after the cut. Determine: (a) the shear plane angle..5 + 50.4 sin -5)) = tan-1(0.7 + 47. The resulting chip thickness ratio = 0.7 + 47. The chip ratio r = 0.8 + 41.93 (e) γ = cot 31.5 cos 20/(1 .9 .

10) = 236 lb.2(22.10)/cos (22. f = 0.9 + 54.2 .000) = 98.7) = 568 N.010 in/rev and a depth of cut = 0.α ) Rearranging. (21.42 sin 10)) = tan-1(0.9 . 21. The resulting chip ratio = 0. (c) β = 2(45) + 7 .1 .9 + 54.α ) = cos φ cos α + sin φ sin α r (cos φ cos α + sin φ sin α ) = sin φ Dividing both sides by sin φ .1° Fc = 128 cos (54. (21.17 Derive the force equations for F.010)(0. N.D.4233) = 22.9 .10)/cos (24. Fs.40.6. The shear strength of the work material is known to be 50.2 cos (51.000) = 128 lb.000 lb/in 2. (21.4) is derived from Figure 21. Use the orthogonal cutting model as an approximation of the turning process.0° (b) As = (0. Ft = 128 sin (54.12) in the text) using the force diagram of Figure 21.9 . Determine the cutting force and the feed force.2 ..9 = 1. Solution: In the figure.2): r = to/tc = sin φ /cos (φ . 21. γ = cot φ + tan (φ . 21.1 .10) = 179 lb. we obtain r cos α /tan φ + r sin α = 1 r cos α /tan φ = 1 .9 + 41.9° (b) As = (0.20 mm/rev.0 + 51.2° Fc = 321 cos (41.2 . Using the orthogonal model as an approximation of turning.10)/sin 22.4462) = 24.42 cos 10/(1 . (21. Fs = AsS = 1.9 = 0.9) through (21. (c) β = 2(45) + 10 .2 .2)(3.0 mm.00245 in 2.2 lb. a feed of 0. 134 .7) = 387 N.E.2(24.15 Show how Eq.7)/cos (27. Eq.9 + 41.9) = 54. and Fn (Eqs.010)(0. Eq.284(250) = 321 N.5 cos 7/(1 .1 . The following conditions are used: v = 3.284 mm2. Solution: φ = tan-1(0.. Solution: (a) φ = tan-1(. γ = AC/BD = (AD + DC)/BD = AD/BD + DC/BD AD/BD = cot φ and DC/BD = tan (φ .2) and Figure 21. tan φ = r cos α /(1 .10)/sin 24.9 .5285) = 27. (21. and rake angle = 7° in the direction of chip flow.00256(50.2(27. 21.9° As = (0.9° Fc = 98.α ) Q.2 sin (51. (c) cutting force and feed force.7)/cos (27. Ft = 98.r sin α ) Q.00257 in 2. (b) the shear force.α ) Thus.0 + 51.5 sin 7)) = tan-1(0.5. 21.10) = 161 lb. determine: (a) the shear plane angle.D.00245(40.11. Solution: Begin with the definition of the chip ratio. Ff = 321 sin (41.0 m/s. β = 2(45) + 10 . r cos (φ .14 A turning operation is made with a rake angle of 10°.α ) = sin φ Using the trigonometric identity cos(φ .0 = 0.9) = 41.E.r sin α Rearranging. Fs = AsS = 0.0.Solution: (a) φ = tan-1(.3) is derived from the definition of chip ratio. and the chip thickness ratio is measured after the cut to be 0.16 Show how Eq.0)/sin 27.4 cos 10/(1 .1 . Fs = AsS = 0.13 Turning is performed on a work material with shear strength of 250 MPa.5(b). d = 3.10) = 229 lb.0) = 51.100 in.4 sin 10)) = tan-1(0.10)/cos (24.10)/cos (22.

D. Eq. What horsepower is required of the drive motor. Eq.5 mm.000 mm3/min = 12. Use Table 21.D. if the lathe has a mechanical efficiency = 87%? Use Table 21.D.18 In a turning operation on stainless steel with hardness = 200 HB.50 mm)(7. extend vector Fs in the opposite direction of its arrowhead. Vector Fn is now divided into two line segments. F = Fc sin α + Ft cos α . Power and Energy in Machining 21.500 J/s = 17.14. the cutting speed = 200 m/min.3 to obtain the appropriate unit horsepower value.3 to obtain the appropriate specific energy value.18. U = 2. How much power will the lathe draw in performing this operation if its mechanical efficiency = 90%.90 = 33. 135 . From Table 21.9): In Figure 23.500 W = 17.11.Solution: Eq.75/0. f = 0.5/0.19 In previous Problem 21.5 kW Accounting for mechanical efficiency. Next. Ft now makes an angle α with F.12): In Figure 23.5 mm) = 375.11): In Figure 23. The extended Fs vector is related to Fc as Fc cos φ .11. compute the lathe power requirements if feed = 0. except that a correction must be made for the “size effect.5 mm) = 750. and depth of cut = 7.75 kW Accounting for mechanical efficiency. U = 2. Thus Fs (original) = Fc cos φ . Thus.D.90 = 19. The vector F is divided into two line segments.E.8 J/mm3 MRR = vfd = (200 m/min)(103 mm/m)(0. Hence. MRR = vfd = (200 m/min)(103 mm/m)(0.Ft sin φ Q.3. N = Fc cos α .020 in/rev.20 In a turning operation on aluminum.250 in.E. (21.10): In Figure 23.750 W = 29.50 mm.3. construct a line from the intersection of Ft and Fc that is perpendicular to and intersects with vector Fn.50 mm/rev. Solution: From Table 21.25 mm/rev. feed = 0. Fn = Fc sin φ + Ft cos φ Q. (21. whose length = Fc cos α .38 J/mm3. U = 2. one of which = Ft cos φ and the other = Fc sin φ . cutting conditions are as follows: v = 900 ft/min.11. Pg = 17. With the correction factor.85) = 2. Eq. and d = 0. The distance along the previously constructed line between the Ft arrowhead (base of translated N vector) and F is Ft sinα . for f = 0.500 mm3/s P c = (12.8 J/mm3) = 17.750 J/s = 29. and from the intersection of Ft and Fc construct a line that is perpendicular to vector Fs.8 N-m/mm3 = 2. The constructed line is at an angle α with Fc.11.000 mm3/min = 6250 mm3/s P c = (6250 mm3/s)(2.38 J/mm3) = 29. translate vector N vertically upward until it coincides with the previously constructed line. Q. correction factor = 0. construct a line starting at the intersection of Ft and Fc that is perpendicular to the friction force F.” Using Figure 21.25 mm)(7. Pg = 29. The arrowhead of Ft will now be at the base of the translated base of N. A right triangle now exists in which Fc is the hypotenuse and the two sides are (1) the extended Fs vector and (2) the constructed line that runs between Fs and the intersection of Fc and Ft. Solution: This is the same basic problem as the previous. The length difference between the extended Fs vector and the original Fs vector is Ft sin φ .8 J/mm3. (21.85.06 kW 21. translate vector Ft to the right and downward at an angle α until its base is at the arrowhead of F.44 kW 21.500 mm3/s)(2.E. Hence. one of which = Fc sin α and the other = Ft cos α .8(0.Ft sin α Q.E. (21.

(c) the unit horsepower and specific energy for the work material in this operation.0 mm. HPu = 0.000 f f = 22. 22.326 hp/(in.0 hp 21.88 in. U = 2.24 For Problem 21. 21.400 f Again setting available power = required power.. feed = 0.2 in.8(0. The lathe motor is rated at 25 kW. HPc = HPu x MRR.88 = 10. Determine: (a) the horsepower consumed by the turning operation.7 and 21. Required Pc = (2.8 is v = 200 ft/min.45 mm/rev. From your answers to those problems.6 hp/(in 3/min) MRR = vfd = 400 ft/min(12 in.88 = 0. HPu = 1.250) = 54 in 3/min HPc = 0. HPg = HP/E MRR = vfd = 900 x 12(. the lathe has a mechanical efficiency = 0. 22.000 f Setting available power = required power.90) = 2.90) = 22.9.22 A turning operation is to be performed on a 20 hp lathe with efficiency = 90%.500/56.3.21 In a turning operation on plain carbon steel whose Brinell hardness = 275 HB.000 = 0. Solution: From Table 21.5 (103) = 22. (c) HPu = 0.000 = 0.8 N-m/mm3 = 2.9.12. thus U = 2. and its mechanical efficiency = 90%.2 in3/min)(1.)(0.8 J/mm3 MRR = vfd = (200 m/min)(103 mm/m)(6 mm)f = 1200(103)f mm3/min = 20(103)f mm3/s Available power Pc = Pg E = 25(103)(0. correction factor = 0.167 in.010 in/rev in the table. 21.01 in.2 hp HPg = 12.020 in/rev = to. a correction factor must be applied from Figure 21. Based on these values.94 hp. available horsepower = 0.150 in.52 hp required. Fc = 155 lb.012)(0.-lb/in3. (b) MRR = vfd = (200 x 12)(0. 3/min.400 f f = 22.3. determine the maximum feed that can be set for this operation. 3/min) (d) U = 155(200)/2. the job can be accomplished on the 20 hp lathe.764 ft-lb/in3 = 129. (b) the horsepower that must be generated by the lathe.8 N-m/mm3)( 20 x 103) f = 56. the cutting speed is set at 200 m/min and depth of cut = 6. (b) the metal removal rate in in.400 = 0.010 in/rev. Solution: (a) From Problem 21. At efficiency E = 90%. 136 . HPc = (7.3. HPc = 155(200)/33.6 hp/(in 3/min)) = 11.14 = 0.3.3/min.23 Suppose the cutting speed in Problems 21.94/2. Since feed is greater than 0. taking the correction factor into account. Solution: From Table 21.500W Required power Pc = (2.020)(0. (c) the unit horsepower (hp-min/(in3). find: (a) the horsepower consumed in the operation. 21. and (d) the specific energy (in-lb/in3).9(0.2/0.500 = 50. and depth of cut = 0.3 to obtain the appropriate unit horsepower value. Using the appropriate specific energy value from Table 21.402 mm (this should be interpreted as mm/rev for a turning operation) However. The work material is an alloy steel whose hardness is in the range 360 to 380 HB.25 hp/(in 3/min) for aluminum. for this feed. 3/min.Solution: From Table 21.446 mm/rev One more iteration using the correction factor yields a value around f = 0. correction factor in Figure 21.14.500 = 56. For f = 0.90(20) = 18 hp Since available horsepower exceeds required horsepower.87 = 14.52 N-m/mm3 and an iterative calculation procedure is required to match the unit power value with the feed.150 in.500/50.25)(54) = 12.100) = 2.52)(20 x 103) f = 50. can the job be performed on the 20 hp lathe? Use Table 21.80.) = 7./ft)(0. Cutting conditions are: v = 400 ft/min.8.

25 mm/rev.28 Solve Problem 21. HPc = HPu x MRR MRR = vfd = 400 x 12(. P c = U x MRR = 0.005)(0.8 = 2.7(2. the metal removal rate is about 40% greater.005 in/rev = to.6 = 179.0) = 3. For f = 0. Based on the unit horsepower values in Table 21. HPc = 179(300)/33.25 hp (b) HPg = 2. (b) the horsepower that must be generated by the lathe.0 hp/(in 3/min) for stainless steel.8(0.85.85.3 m/s.6) = 2. 21. The work material is an alloy steel with hardness = 325 Brinell hardness.010 in/rev in the table. the cutting conditions are: v = 5.7)(3.25 mm/rev in the table. U = 0. Solution: (a) From Table 21.63/3. and d = 0. determine: (a) the horsepower consumed by the turning operation.0 mm. 21. Based on the specific energy values in Table 21.54 hp 21. determine: (a) the cutting power and (b) the gross power in the turning operation. (b) Gross power Pg = 1970/0. Solution: (a) From Table 21.12.3.9(103) mm3/s. Since feed is lower than 0.63 hp.010)(0. a correction factor must be applied from Figure 21.100) = 3.6 hp/(in 3/min) for low carbon steel. Note that although the power used in this operation is virtually the same as in the previous problem.3.6(3.65 hp 21. (b) Gross power Pg = 1960/0. 137 . MRR = vfd = 5. in Watts. P c = U x MRR = 0.6 in3/min.8(103) mm3/s.005 in/rev and the work material is stainless steel (Brinell Hardness = 225 HB).9)(103) = 1.75 mm/rev.04 hp (c) MRR = (300 x 12)(0.27 A turning operation is carried out on aluminum (100 BHN). 21. Solution: (a) From Table 21. HPu = 1. Solution: (a) From Table 21. Fc = 179 lb. correction factor = 1.6 = 0.8) = 2. (b) HPg = 1.96(103) n-m/s = 1960 W.01)(0.8 = 2460 W.453 hp/(in3/min) U = 179(300 x 12)/3.0)(1.0 mm.3.010 in/rev. and d = 4.63/0.075 in. The lathe has a mechanical efficiency = 0. For f = 0. the cutting conditions are: v = 400 ft/min.0) = 2. and d = 2.85 = 2.80. correction factor = 0. a correction factor must be applied from Figure 21.Solution: (a) From Problem 21.075) = 3.6(103)(.000 in-lb/in3.75)(4.3.6 in 3/min HPc = 0. f = 0.16 hp (b) HPg = 2. f = 0.14.8)(103) = 1.3. HPc = HPu x MRR MRR = 400 x 12(. HPu = 0. MRR = vfd = 1.29 A turning operation is performed on an engine lathe using a tool with zero rake angle in the direction of chip flow.8 in 3/min HPc = 1.075) = 1.6 m/s.000 = 1.7 N-m/mm3 for aluminum.8 = 2450 W.24 except that the feed f = 0.3(103)(.27 but with the following changes: v = 1.75 mm/rev = to.97(103) n-m/s = 1970 W.25/0. HPu = 1.25)(2. Since feed is greater than 0.26 Solve Problem 21. f = 0.7 N-m/mm3 for aluminum.25(1.25 In a turning operation on low carbon steel (175 BHN). The lathe has a mechanical efficiency = 0.16/0.3.14.85 = 2.25. U = 0.

31 Orthogonal cutting is performed on a metal whose mass specific heat = 1. Use the orthogonal cutting model as an approximation of the turning process.1 J/g.125) = 6.7 g/cm3)(1. Taking this correction factor into account.3 mm/90 mm2/s)0.6 lb.9(2. if the lathe has an efficiency = 85%. correction factor = 0.000 (HP/v) = 33. the chip thickness ratio is measured to be 0. Solution: (a) From Table 21.5392) = 28.0075 in/rev instead of 0.015 in.10)/cos(28. After the cut.000.5 cos(43. compute your best estimate of the cutting force for this turning operation.0 mm.4 . the depth of cut is 0.8 hp (b) HPc = vFc/33. Solution: ρ C = (2.333 = 20 + 246.000 (8. The cutting force is measured at Fc = 1100 N.3° β = 2(45) + 10 -2(28.075)/sin 28.125 in and the cutting speed is 300 ft/min. HPg = HP/E MRR = 300 x 12(.3 in 3/min.3 hp HPg = 8.010 in. (b) Based on horsepower.2469 x 103 C)(13.015)(0.9 cm2/s = 90 mm2/s U = 1100 N x 4 m/s/(4000 mm/s x 0. Since feed is greater than 0. HP = 83.375 hp/(in3/min) (c) Correction factor = 1.4 .15 from Fig. Determine: (a) the horsepower required in the operation.0 in diameter.1 J/g-C.833 N-m/mm3 T = 20 + (0. Solution: (a) Must find Fc and v to determine HP. and w = 2.30 A lathe performs a turning operation on a workpiece of 6.075) = 5. The following cutting conditions are used: v = 4.37) = 20° + 585° = 605 ° C 138 .75 in 3/min HPc = 0.00119) = 47. HPu = 1.99 hp.333 T = 20 + (0.3 mm. a correction factor must be applied from Figure 21.4° As = 0.45.3)(6.0075/0. to = 0. and (c) the unit horsepower as it would be listed in Table 21.97 J/cm3-°C = 2.5 sin 10)) = tan-1 (0.0075)(0. Rearranging.3 for a to of 0. Cutting Temperature 21. The rake angle of the tool = 10°.14 to account for the fact that f = 0. Use the orthogonal cutting model as an approximation of the turning process.015 in/rev. (b) MRR = 785 x 12(0. HPu = 1.075 in.833 N-m/mm3/2.10) = 83. density = 2.000(0.14. and depth = 0. feed = 0.3. The machine settings are: rotational speed = 500 rev/min.3 for a feed f = 0. (a) Using the appropriate value of specific energy from Table 21.99/5.7 g/cm3.The feed is .3/0. determine the cutting temperature if the ambient temperature = 20°C.326 hp/(in3/min) as it would appear in Table 21. HPu = 0.000 = 1. (b) the unit horsepower for this material under these conditions.375/1.75) = 8.85 = 9.00119 in 2 Fs = 40. Using Cook's equation.9 cm2/s. Fc = 47.3 = 0.0 m/s.0075(0.015 in/rev = to.015 = 0. and thermal diffusivity = 0.6(785)/33. v = 500 rev/min(6π /12 ft/rev) = 785 ft/min.°C) = 2. r = 0.0075 in/rev.33) . 21.3 + 43. The chip thickness after the cut is 0.0.4 x 1.010 in/rev.5 φ = tan-1(0.000 lb/in2. 21.3.95.15 = 0.5 lb.010 in/rev in the table.3 = 0.3 mm x 2 mm) = 1. compute the horsepower at the drive motor. The shear strength of the work = 40.3/300) = 913 lb. For f = 0. Fc = 33.3) = 43.97(10-3) J/mm3-°C K = 0. HPc = HPu x MRR.010 in/rev.97(10-3) J/mm3-C)(4000 mm/s x 0.3 hp/(in 3/min) for alloy steel of the specified hardness.95(1.5 cos 10/(1 .

3.11(4.3 and compute the cutting temperature by means of the Cook equation for a turning operation in which the following cutting conditions are used: speed v = 300 ft/min. thermal conductivity k = 0.000/200)(60 x 0.18 in 2/sec and a volumetric specific heat = 124 in-lb/in3 F. Therefore U = 400.14) 0.333 = 70 + 1282 = 1352 ° F 21.7) = 0. v = 300 ft/min x 12 in/ft/60 sec/min.333 = 70 + (0.° C /[(7.333 = 70 + (968)(1. T = 70 + (0.046 J/s-mm. If the feed f = to = 0.8 in 3/min.4 x 440. T = 70 + (0.000/124)(30 x 0. The following cutting conditions are used: v = 350 ft/min.460 J/ g.000(1.11 Cal/g..3).10. to = 0.000 in-lb/in 3.100 in.25 mm.4U/ρ C)(vto/K)0. and thermal diffusivity = 0.4(2.186 J.4 x 300. C = 0.333 = 70 + 1147 = 1217 ° F 139 .1 and the appropriate specific energy value from Table 21.309(103)(59.8)/3. The thermal properties of the work material are: volumetric specific heat = 200 in lb/in 3 F. Solution: From Table 21.0 mm. Thus. From note “a” at the bottom of the table.8/(0. The cutting force is measured at Fc = 200 lb.°C) = 3.4 x 250.7 mm2/s Using Cook’s equation.62(10-3) J/mm3-°C From Table 4.8 N-m/mm3 = 2. T = 70 + (0.046 J/s-mm.0075 in/rev.010/0.214) 0.4U/ρ C)(vto/K)0.2.100 in.87 x 10-3 g/mm3)(0.100 in. and thermal diffusivity = 0.008/0. feed = 0. (4.14) 0.° C From Eq. and w = 0. U = Fcv/vtow = 200(70)/(70 x 0.25 mm T = 0.010 x 0. Assume ambient temperature = 20°C.18) 0.14 in 2/sec. and depth d = 0.4U/ρ C)(vto/K)0.1. 1 cal = 4.000 in-lb/in 3.25)/12. = 60 in/sec.333 = 70 + (872)(3. Using values of thermal properties found in the tables and definitions of Section 4.34 It is desired to estimate the cutting temperature for a certain alloy steel whose hardness = 275 Brinell.32 Consider a turning operation performed on steel whose hardness = 225 HB at a speed = 3. The work material has a thermal diffusivity = 0.0075/0.000 in-lb/in 3. use the Cook formula to compute the cutting temperature in the operation given that ambient temperature = 70°F. ρ = 7.008 x 0.333 = 70 + (0.06)0.87 g/cm3 = 7.000 in-lb/in 3.0 m/s.100) = 250.3.01 x 0. to = f = 0.000/110)(70 x 0. taking ambient temperature in account T = 20 + 1201 = 1221° C 21.100) = 300. Assume ambient temperature = 70°F. Solution: MRR = vtow. thermal diffusivity K = k/ρ C K = 0.333 = 309(3.° C ρ C = (7.89) = 1201 C° Final temperature.46 J/g.° C) = 12. = 70 in/sec.1. C = 0.008 in.21. U for alloy steel (275 BHN) = 400.33 An orthogonal cutting operation is performed on a certain metal whose volumetric specific heat = 110 in-lb/in3-F.87 g/cm3)(0.87(10-3) g/mm3 From Table 4. U = 2.333 = T = 70 + (0. feed f = 0.62(10-3)(3(103)(0.186) = 0. Use the appropriate value of specific energy from Table 21.1) = 440.3.35 An orthogonal machining operation removes metal at 1.140 in 2/sec.°C.010 in and width of cut = 0.333 = 70 + (909)(4) 0.46 J/g. The cutting force in the process = 300 lb.0075 in/rev. compute an estimate of cutting temperature using the Cook equation. Solution: From Table 21. correction factor = 1.333 = 70 + 1436 = 1506 ° F 21.100) = 1800 in/min = 30 in/sec U = Fcv/vtow = 300(30)/(30 x 0. Using Cook's equation. determine the cutting temperature if the ambient temperature = 70°F. v = MRR/tow = 1.667) 0. Since f = 0.8 J/mm3 From Table 4. and depth = 4. Solution: v = 350 ft/min x 12 in/ft/60 sec/min.

2246 – 4.5 (10-3) J/mm3-C.47 m = 0.37 During a turning operation.45 Use K = 106.25)})0.3835 – 5.338 (1) K = 505/1000.2888) = 1. U = T(ρ C/0.333 = 5.m ln 100 = ln 592 .744 = 106.21.95(0.4)(20/{(200/60)(103)(0.44 (2) K = 592/1600.333 U = 680(8. If the temperature increase above ambient temperature (20°F) is measured by a tool-chip thermocouple to be 700°C. (1) 505 = K(100) m and (3) 592 = K(160) m (1) ln 505 = ln K + m ln 100 and (3) ln 592 = ln K + m ln 160 Combining (1) and (3): ln 505 .561 = 106. feed = 0.024) 0.75 x 10-3)(0.25 mm/rev. (3) v = 160 m/min.6052 m = 6.72 N-m/mm3 21.5 x 10-3/0. T = 552°C.m ln 160 6.87° C (pretty close to the given value of 552° C).45 Check equation with data point (2): T = 106.338 = 551.36 A turning operation uses a cutting speed = 200 m/min. (21.338 = 505/4. T = 505°C.1589 m = 0.4)(K/vto)0.23). Solution: Trigger equation T = Kvm Choose points (1) and (3) and solve simultaneous equations using T = Kvm as the model. and depth of cut = 4. Solution: Rearranging the Cook equation. The thermal diffusivity of the work material = 20 mm2/s and the volumetric specific heat = 3. (2) v = 130 m/min.333 U = (700 – 2-)(3.45(130) 0. T = 592°C.00 mm. determine the specific energy for the work material in this operation. Determine an equation for temperature as a function of cutting speed that is in the form of the Trigger equation. The following temperature data were collected during the cuts at three different cutting speeds (feed and depth were held constant): (1) v = 100 m/min. a tool-chip thermocouple was used to measure cutting temperature. Eq.0752 m 0.338 = 592/5. 140 .

(2) chuck.22 22. A 12 x 36 lathe has a 12 inch swing (maximum work diameter that can be accommodated) and a 36 inch distance between centers (indicating the maximum work length that can be held between centers). Turning is a machining process in which a single point tool removes material from the surface of a rotating cylindrical workpiece. 22.9 What is the difference between a live center and a dead center.7 What is meant by the designation 12 x 36 inch lathe? Answer. both are described in Article 25. prismatic parts are block-shaped or flat and are generally produced on a milling machine. 22.1. 22. Answer. common examples include form turning and drilling.3 Give two examples of machining operations in which generating and forming are combined to create workpart geometry. Boring produces an internal cylindrical shape from an existing hole. Forming involves the creation of work geometry due to the shape of the cutting tool.1 MACHINING OPERATIONS AND MACHINE TOOLS Review Questions Discuss the differences between rotational parts and prismatic parts in machining. examples include straight turning. (3) collet. Two examples are thread cutting on a lathe and slot milling.4 Describe the turning process.2 Distinguish between generating and forming when machining workpart geometries. Answer. A threading operation is performed on a turning machine and produces an external thread. and (4) face plate.6 How does a boring operation differ from a turning operation? Answer. Rotational parts are cylindrical or disk-shaped and are machined on a turning machine. taper turning. Generating refers to the creation of work geometry due to the feed trajectory of the cutting tool.6.8 Name the various ways in which a workpart can be held in a lathe.5 What is the difference between threading and tapping? Answer. and profile milling. Answer. while turning produces an external cylindrical shape. Methods of holding the work in a lathe include: (1) between centers.4.1. 22. the tool being fed in a direction parallel to the axis of work rotation. 22. shaper. 22. 22. Answer. See Article 25. while tapping is normally performed on a drilling machine and produces an internal thread. Answer. when these terms are used in the context of workholding in a lathe? 141 . 22. or planer.

cutting is accomplished by the peripheral teeth of the milling cutter and the tool axis is parallel to the work surface. 22. 22. the tools in the turret can be brought to work to perform multiple cutting operations on the work without the need to change tools as in operating a conventional engine lathe.12 What is the distinguishing feature of a radial drill press? Answer.g. milling.Answer. while a turning center performs turning type operations. A machining center is a CNC machine tool capable of performing multiple types of cutting operations involving rotating spindles (e. pallet shuttles to speed workpart changing. and automatic workpart positioning. in down milling. 22. a through hole exits the opposite side of the workpart.. cutting is accomplished by the flat face of the cutter whose axis is perpendicular to the work surface. 22. 22. What is pocket milling? Answer. 22. Profile milling generally involves the milling of the outside periphery of a flat part.13 What is the difference between peripheral milling and face milling? Answer. A live center is mounted in bearings and rotates with the work. 22. A machining center is generally confined to rotating spindle operations (e.18 What is a machining center? Answer.the work rotates about it. 22.15 Describe profile milling. Pocket milling uses an end milling cutter to machine a shallow cavity (pocket) into a flat workpart. while a dead center does not rotate . A center holds the work during rotation at the tailstock end of the lathe.20 What can a mill-turn center do that a conventional turning center cannot do? 142 . the cutter speed direction is opposite the feed direction. generally with single point tools. the direction of cutter rotation is the same as the feed direction. in face milling. the machine is typically equipped with automatic tool-changing. 22. A radial drill has a long radial arm along which the drill head can be positioned to allow the drilling of large workparts.16 Describe the difference between up milling and down milling? Answer. drilling). In peripheral milling.10 How does a turret lathe differ from an engine lathe? Answer. A blind hole does not exit the work. by comparison.14 22. A turret lathe has a toolholding turret in place of a tailstock. drilling). milling.19 What is the difference between a machining center and a turning center? Answer.17 How does a universal milling machine differ from a conventional knee-and-column machine? Answer.g.. Answer. 22.11 What is a blind hole? Answer. The universal milling machine has a worktable that can be rotated about a vertical axis to present the part at any specified angle to the cutter spindle. In up milling.

(b) lathe.2 In a turning operation. (c) drill bit. Multiple Choice Questions There are a total of 20 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). as compared to forming the geometry (more than one)? (a) broaching. and (f) 22. (b). (d) planer. (c) drilling. while external broaching is performed on one of the outside surfaces of the part. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. (a) 22.1 Which of the following are examples of generating the workpart geometry in machining. (c). and (d) profile milling. 22. (b) 22. Internal broaching is accomplished on the inside surface (hole) of a workpart. while in planing. (d).21 How do shaping and planing differ? Answer. and the speed motion is performed by the cutting tool. all correct answers must be given.22 What is the difference between internal broaching and external broaching? Answer. (a). and (e).23 Identify the three basic forms of sawing operation? Answer. Answer. or (d) 2 x feed.5 Knurling is performed on a lathe. (b) contour turning. (b) 2 x depth of cut. (2) bandsawing. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. The three forms of sawing are: (1) hacksawing. 22. the work is stationary during the cut. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. (d) milling. (c). (c) drilling. 143 .4 A facing operation is normally performed on which of the following machine tools (one best answer)? (a) drill press. Answer. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. (b) broaching. In shaping. 22. or (f) turning. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. but it is a metal forming operation rather than a metal removal operation: (a) true or (b) false? Answer. (c) 1 x feed. the cutting tool is stationary. (c) milling machine. The mill-turn center has the capacity to position a rotational workpart at a specified angular location. and (3) circular sawing. permitting milling or drilling to be performed at a location on the periphery of the part. (d) single point turning tool. For each question. or (e) threading tool. Answer. (b) cut-off tool. 22. (b) 22. and the workpart is moved past the tool in the speed motion.Answer. Answer. or (e) shaper. the change in diameter of the workpart is equal to which one of the following? (a) 1 x depth of cut. Answer. (e) planing.3 A lathe can be used to perform which of the following machining operations (more than one)? (a) boring.6 Which of the following cutting tools can be used on a turret lathe (more than one)? (a) broach. (b) and (d). 22.

the foreman has decreed that the single pass must be completed on the cylindrical workpiece in 5.10 22.0 mm. Answer.11 22.0 min.5 m/s. Using a feed = 0.3) = 1.5 m/s)/. (c) a workpart is fed linearly past a rotating cutting tool.22. Answer. (22.1 A cylindrical workpart 125 mm in diameter and 900 mm long is to be turned in an engine lathe.91 mm/s Tm = 900/1. (c) profiling mill. (b) engine lathe. (c). The piece is 400 mm long and 150 mm in diameter.2 In a production turning operation. and (e) universal milling machine. (b) MRR = vfd = (2.91 = 471.3 mm)(2.85 min.8 22. and (b) metal removal rate. End milling is most similar to which one of the following? (a) face milling. (b) knee-and-column. (b). (d) 22. (b) a tool with multiple teeth moves linearly past a stationary workpart. (22. and (d). (c) plain milling. (b) peripheral milling. and d = 2. (b) A broaching operation is best described by which one of the following: (a) a rotating tool moves past a stationary workpart.4): Tm = L/fr Substitute Eq. or (d) a workpart moves linearly past a stationary single point tool. what cutting speed must be used to meet this machining time requirement? Solution: Starting with Eq.12 Problems Turning and Related Operations 22. (b) A planing operation is best described by which one of the following: (a) a single point tool moves linearly past a stationary workpart. f = 0. (b) enlarge a drilled hole. (c) a workpart is fed past a rotating cutting tool. (d) ram mill. or (e) turret lathe. or (d) a workpart moves linearly past a single-point tool. Cutting conditions are: v = 2. (c) screw machine. (a) The basic milling machine is which one of the following: (a) bed type. (c) Reaming is used for which of the following functions (more than one)? (a) accurately locate a hole position. and (e) provide an internal thread. Determine: (a) cutting time.7 Which of the following turning machines permits very long bar stock to be used (one best answer)? (a) chucking machine. Answer.0 mm) = 1500 mm3/s 22.366 rev/s.125π = 6. fr = 6. Solution: (a) N = (2.9 22.5 m/s)(103)(. (d) improve tolerance on hole diameter.366(. (b) a tool with multiple teeth moves linearly past a stationary workpart. (d) speed lathe. or (d) slab milling. Answer.0 mm.3) (fr = Nf) into the denominator to obtain Tm = L/Nf 144 .2 s = 7. Answer.3 mm/rev.30 mm/rev and a depth of cut = 4. Answer. (c) improve surface finish on a hole.

6 A 4.062.0 in diameter and 48 in length is chucked in an engine lathe and supported at the opposite end using a live center. A = π (100 + 50){7502 + (100 – 50) 2}0.641 mm3 Tm = V/MRR = (1. f = 0.084 min from Problem 22. Rearranging to determine cutting speed: v = π DoL/fTm Tm = π (0. and h = 750 mm.4) can be used. one end must be turned to diameter.641 mm3)/(150. f = 0.5 A workbar with 5.3 rev/min 22. (b) cutting time. The bar will be held in a chuck and supported on the opposite end in a live center.062. (22.5 = 354.125 in.214 mm2)(3.3.67 in/min Tm = 40/3. The rough geometry of the piece has already been formed.125 in. 22.0 minutes.91 min.3 A tapered surface is to be turned on an automatic lathe. and d = 0. the time required to load and unload the bar is 5. Using an overhead crane available at the lathe. and Tm = 7.6 rev/min At end of cut (D2 = 200 mm).1257(103) m/min = 125. The total 145 . Solution: At a constant rotational speed and feed.00 . The workpiece is 750 mm long with minimum and maximum diameters of 100 mm and 200 mm at opposite ends.125)(0.5(0.000) 0. and this operation will be the final cut.3.0 mm. then the bar must be reversed to turn the other end. N = 750/(0. (c) MRR = (400 x 12)(0.5 rev/min 22. and (c) metal removal rate.25)(7. Feed = 0.5 = 150π (565. Tm = L/Nf and then rearranging to obtain rotational speed N = L/fTm Given L = 750 mm.0 in portion of the length is to be turned to a diameter of 4. R2 = 50 mm. feed rate fr is constant and Eqs.015 in/rev.0) = 0. fr = 305. (22.Then substituting for N from Eq.012) = 3.2 in3/min.25 mm)(3.0 mm) = 150.7 m/min 22. With this workholding setup.25 mm/rev. Solution: (a) depth d = (5. Determine (a) the time required to turn the taper and (b) the rotational speeds at the beginning and end of the cut.012 in/rev.75)/2 = 0.084 min (b) At beginning of cut (D1 = 100 mm). A 40.012) = 7. and the time to reverse the bar is 3.4. For each turning cut an allowance must be added to the cut length for approach and overtravel.00 in diameter workbar that is 25 in long is to be turned down to 3. N = 200. Determine the rotational speed that would be required to complete the job in exactly the same time as your answer to part (a) of that problem. (b) N = 400 x 12/5π = 305.15)/(0.4 In the taper turning job of previous Problem 22. suppose that the automatic lathe with surface speed control is not available and a conventional lathe must be used.000/100π = 636.000/200π = 318.0 mm.084) = 423. Determine: (a) the required depth of cut.214 mm2 Given depth of cut d = 3.4)(0. Combining.5 rev/min.75 in one pass at a speed = 400 ft/min and a feed = 0.000 mm3/min Area of frustrum of cone A = π (R1 + R2){h2 + (R1 – R2)2}0.0 minutes.25 mm/rev and depth of cut = 3.000 mm3/min) = 7. N = v/π D = 200.50 in diameter in two passes on an engine lathe using the following cutting conditions: v = 300 ft/min.0 mm) = 1.5 Given R1 = 100 mm. The automatic controls on the lathe permit the surface speed to be maintained at a constant value of 200 m/min by adjusting the rotational speed as a function of workpiece diameter.3) and (22.30)(10-3)(5.1) we get Tm = π DoL/vf (this equation is later used in Chapter 24). Solution: (a) MRR = vfd = (200 m/min)(103 mm/m)(0.67 = 10. volume cut V = Ad = (354.

Tm = (15 + 0. Solution: (a) A = 0. The part has an outside diameter = 45.0 min.61 + 3.8 Solve previous Problem 22.75 in.297 in/min.72 min.015) = 4. Drilling 22.75 in.4 x 12)(0.0 + 2.7 The end of a large tubular workpart is to be faced on a NC vertical boring mill. and the point angle = 118°.4 rev/min. Tm = 10.5)/4.020)(0.015) = 4.. length. Reverse bar which takes 3. fr = 286. Solution: First end: cut 15 in.7 except that the machine tool controls operate at a constant cutting speed by continuously adjusting rotational speed for the position of the tool relative to the axis of rotation. Tm = (10 + 0.73 in 3/min Tm = (total metal removed)/MRR = 164. and is continuously increased thereafter to maintain a constant cutting speed.5 ft/min. feed = 0.583 in/min.25π (0.020 in/rev) = 0.15) = 12..Di2) = 0.67 min (b) at Do = 45 in.020)(0.4(0.252) = 164. cut remaining 10 in.07 in3/min 22.583 = 3.. this reduces diameter to 3.5)/4. fr = 286. N = 300 x 12/3.015) = 4.29 min’ this reduces diameter to 3.5/4. Cutting conditions are: speed = 25 m/min. v = (30 rev/min)(45π /12) = 353.50 in. MRR = (353. fr = (30 rev/min)(0. Determine the total cycle time to complete this turning operation.allowance (approach plus overtravel) = 0..96 in3 MRR is constant throughout cutting if v is constant.50 in.15)(452 . Determine: (a) the cutting time to complete the drilling operation. MRR = (196. of 25 in.25)/2 = 10 in. The hole is a blind-hole at a depth = 50 mm.6 = 16.38 min’ this reduces diameter to 3.297 = 3.5(25.4) tan(90 – 118/2) = 12.150 in. 22.25π d(Do2 .583 in/min.. fr = 305. If the facing operation is performed at a rotational speed = 30 rev/min. N = 300 x 12/3.Di)/2 = (45 . Solution: (a) Total metal removed = 0. determine: (a) the cutting time to complete the facing operation.73 = 12. Solution: (a) Distance traveled L = (Do ..583 = 2.5 x 12)(0.4 mm diameter twist drill in a steel workpart.75π = 305. of 25 in. and depth = 0.297 in/min.5 rev/min.020 in/rev. fr = 305.6 in/rev Tm = 10/0.5(0.020)(0. N = 300 x 12/4π = 286.5 rev/min.38 + 3. N = 300 x 12/4π = 286. length.. (b) the cutting speeds and metal removal rates at the beginning and end of the cut.61 min..15) = 7. Tm = 15.5(0.0 in and inside diameter = 25 in.0 min.5/4.0 + 3. The rotational speed at the beginning of the cut = 30 rev/min.96/12.4 rev/min. this reduces diameter to 3.50 in.15) = 12.65 mm 146 . and (b) metal removal rate during the operation. feed = 0.44 min.29 = 19.9 A drilling operation is to be performed with a 25.4 ft/min.5 ft/min MRR = (353.5 x 12)(0.015) = 4. Loading and unloading bar takes 5. after the drill bit reaches full diameter. v = (30 rev/min)(45π /12) = 353. Total cycle time = 5.297 = 2.25 mm/rev.7 tan 31 = 7.75π = 305.96 min. v = (30 rev/min)(25π /12) = 196.4(0.73 in3/min at Di = 25 in.44 + 2.

Solution: N = 80. Tm = (0.056) + 99(0. The cutting speed = 300 ft/min.4π = 313.001(1. 22.916 = 0.2 mm/tooth.) = 13. The drill has a point angle = 100 degrees.7 rev/min.1) = 26.3 = 0.00075) = 2. the number of moves between holes = 99.7 min.0 in/min. Also.0. f = 0.25π (25.002 in/rev. Time to move between holes = 1.5 in.5 min(3.5 minutes to perform the drilling operation using high pressure fluid delivery of coolant to the drill point.63)/78. The milling cutter. Determine the time required from the beginning of the first hole to the completion of the last hole. which is 75 mm in diameter and has four teeth. the penetration feed (z-direction) = 0.75π = 1527.5 x 100) = 0. New feed f = 0.4) 2(78. and (b) the material removal rate during the cut.112/2 = 0.5 in above the work surface. With 100 holes.3(0. arranged in a 10 by 10 matrix pattern. and the feed rate between holes (x-y plane) = 15. Distance per hole = 0.11 A gundrilling operation is used to drill a 7/16-in diameter hole to a certain depth.3) = 39. Assume that x-y moves are made at a distance of 0.675.00075 in/min.75 A = 0.75) tan(90 .736 min (b) MRR = 0. Solution: Time to drill each hole: N = 300 x 12/0.12 A peripheral milling operation is performed on the top surface of a rectangular workpart which is 300 mm long by 100 mm wide.7 in/min. and d = 7.3 rev/min fr = 313. There are 100 holes in all.315 + 1.015) = 22. It takes 4.5 rev/min.5 in/2. overhangs the width of the part on both sides.25) = 78.2 mm3/min 22. Determine: (a) the time to make one pass across the surface.25) = 0.3 mm/min Tm = (50 + 7.N = 25(103)/25. Cutting conditions are: v = 80 m/min.315 in.10 A NC drill press is to perform a series of through-hole drilling operations on a 1.75)/22.015 in/rev.001 in/rev) = 3.1 min..000 mm/75π = 339.5 + A + 1.5 + 0. Each hole is 3/4 in diameter.7 in/min = 5.916 in/min.0 mm. All moves between holes are at a distance = 1.5/15 = 0. 147 . assuming the most efficient drilling sequence will be used to accomplish the job. New feed rate fr = 3600(0.112 min. How long will it take to perform the operation at the new cutting conditions? Solution: fr = 3000 rev/min(0.0 in/min.0 in/min.112 + 0.056 min. In order to improve the surface finish in the hole. New speed v = 3000(1 + 0. New drilling time Tm = 13. Milling 22. and the distance between adjacent hole centers (along the square) = 1. using a back and forth path between holes. fr = 1527.20) = 3600 rev/min. Total cycle time to drill 100 holes = 100(0. Time to retract drill from hole = 0. it has been decided to increase the speed by 20% and decrease the feed by 25%. and that this distance must be included in the penetration feed rate for each hole.5(0. the rate at which the drill is retracted from each hole is twice the penetration feed rate.75 in thick aluminum plate that is a component in a heat exchanger.0 min. Hole depth d = 4. The cutting conditions are: N = 3000 rev/min at a feed = 0.7(0.5 in.5 in.

Cutting conditions are: v = 3 m/s. A = O = (1(3-1)).fr = 339.5 = 0. f = 0.185 min.75 in Tm = (10.25 in3/min.0 in long by 3.0 + 2 x 1.82 in3/min.366 rev/s fr = 6. and (b) the metal removal rate during the cut.25)).5 = (7(75-7)).8(8)(0.5 = 21. and d = 0.98 min.46 = 0.0 in by 40.875) = 3437. The helical milling cutter.5 rev/min.82)/271. Solution: N = 500 x 12/3π = 636. The cutter has four teeth (cemented carbide inserts) and is 150 mm in diameter.5 in. Tm = (12.200 in.875 = 80 s = 1.5(4)(0.15 except that the workpiece is 5. and d = 0. A = O = 3/2 = 1.0) = 8.25)(11. A = (d(D-d)).46) = 7. 22.17 An open side planer is to be used to plane the top surface of a rectangular workpart. f = 0.5 rev/min.5(4)(0.0 in wide and the cutter is offset to one side so that the swath cut by the cutter = 1.0 in wide.010 in/tooth.366(4)(.46 in/min.5)/25. A = (d(D-d)). Cutting conditions are: v = 500 ft/min.6 mm/min.5 in diameter and eight teeth. Determine: (a) the time to make one pass across the surface.6 = 1.5(4)(0. Solution: N = 500 x 12/3π = 636. MRR = 3.020 in/pass.16 Solve previous Problem 22. f = 0. and (b) metal removal rate during cutting.009) = 11.64 in3/min.46) = 3. Other Operations 22.0(. 22.0 in wide.414)/25.0 mm.150 in.59 min. 25.0 in/min. fr = 636.414 in Tm = (12.010) = 25.46 in/min.6) = 190. MRR = 1.5 mm3/s 22. fr = 636.5-. and d = 0. The milling cutter has four teeth (cemented carbide inserts) and a 3.0 + 0. (b) MRR = 100(5)(6. MRR = 2.0(.46 = 0. is set up to overhang the width of the part on both sides.14 A slab milling operation is performed to finish the top surface of a steel rectangular workpiece 10. which has a 2.875 mm/s A = D/2 = 150/2 = 75 mm Tm = (400 + 75)/6.8 rev/min.2) = 271.5π = 152. Cutting conditions are: v = 25 ft/min.5 = 1.82 mm Tm = (300 + 21.250 in. The length of the 148 .75)/11 = 0.27 mm/tooth.0 in diameter. MRR = 100(7)(271.15 A face milling operation is performed to finish the top surface of a steel rectangular workpiece 12. and (b) the metal removal rate during the cut. 22. Solution: N = 100 x 12/2.010) = 25.0(.0 + 2 x 1. Determine: (a) time to make one pass across the surface.58 min.0 in long by 2.13 A face milling operation is used to machine 5 mm from the top surface of a rectangular piece of aluminum 400 mm long by 100 mm wide.333 min.27) = 6.150(25.5 = (. Cutting conditions are: v = 100 ft/min.0 in. fr = 152. Solution: (a) N = (3000 mm/s)/150π = 6.150(25. Determine: (a) the time to make one pass across the surface. f = 0. and d = 5.009 in/tooth.0 in wide.120 mm3/min.25(2.

15 = 0.1125 = 0.0 min.0/0. Time per forward stroke = (10 + 40 + 10)/(25 x 12) = 0. assuming that the part is oriented in such a way as to minimize the time? Solution: Orient work so that its length (L = 40 in. Time per reverse stroke = 0. Total time per pass = 0. Number of passes = 25.020 = 1250 passes Total time = 1250(0.75(.2625) = 525.) is in direction of stroke. How long will it take to complete the job.75(.15 min.0/0.15 min.stroke across the work must be set up so that 10 in are allowed at both the beginning and end of the stroke for approach and overtravel. Number of passes = 40.2625 min.20 + 0. including an allowance for acceleration and deceleration.35) = 437.020 = 2000 passes Total time = 2000(0. Time per forward stroke = (10 + 25 + 10)/(25 x 12) = 0. Total time per pass = 0.) is in direction of stroke. Time per reverse stroke = 0.15) = 0. The return stroke. This will minimize the number of passes required which will minimize time in this case. 149 .2) = 0. takes 75% of the time for the forward stroke.1125 min.35 min.5 min. Check: orient work so that its width (w = 25 in.15 + 0.2 min.

Answer. The three tool failure modes are: (1) fracture failure.3 What are the two principal locations on a cutting tool where tool wear occurs? Answer.23 CUTTING TOOL TECHNOLOGY Review Questions 23. and (4) carbon. Production tool life criteria include: (1) complete failure of the tool. called flank wear. The important tool wear mechanisms are: (1) abrasion. 23. (3) vanadium. (4) sound of the tool. depth of cut. (2) chromium. and (4) plastic deformation of the cutting edge. (2) visual observation of flank or crater wear. The two main aspects of cutting tool technology are: (1) tool material and (2) tool geometry.2 Name the three modes of tool failure in machining.9 What are the principal alloying ingredients in high speed steel? Answer. 23. and (9) length of cutting time for the tool. Wear occurs on the top face of the cutting tool as crater wear and on the side or flank of the tool. (3) diffusion. and/or work material hardness. 23. 23. (6) degradation of finish. (5) chip disposal problems.1 What are the two principal aspects of cutting tool technology? Answer. 23. (2) hot hardness to resist temperature failure. C is the speed-axis intercept on the log-log plot of the tool life data. 23. corresponding to the surface of the work. Principal alloying ingredients in HSS are: (1) either tungsten or a combination of tungsten and molybdenum. Answer. The parameter C is the cutting speed corresponding to a one-minute tool life. Three desirable properties are: (1) toughness to resist fracture failure. and nose radius wear. Portions of flank wear are often identified separately as notch wear. (8) workpiece count.8 Identify three desirable properties of a cutting tool material. Answer. (7) power increase. (2) adhesion.5 What is meant by the parameter C in the Taylor tool life equation? Answer. and (3) wear resistance to prolong the life of the tool during gradual wear. 23.6 In addition to cutting speed. (2) temperature failure. Some grades of HSS also contain cobalt. 150 . and (3) gradual wear. corresponding to the tool point. 23. (3) fingernail test to feel flank wear. The expanded version of the Taylor equation can include any of the following: feed. what other cutting variables are included in the expanded version of the Taylor tool life equation? Answer.7 What are some of the tool life criteria used in production machining operations? Answer.4 Identify the mechanisms by which cutting tools wear during machining.

ceramics.14 Identify the alternative ways by which a cutting tool is held in place during machining. 23. Ceramics possess low shear and tensile strength but good compressive strength. and (2) extreme pressure lubrication. 23. The steel cutting grades contain TiC and/or TaC in addition to WC-Co. an example being high speed. 23. There are three principal ways: (1) solid shank.hole delivery. Name the seven elements of tool geometry for a single point cutting tool. this combination of properties is best exploited by giving the tool a negative rake angle to tend to load the tool in compression.17 What is the principal lubricating mechanism by which cutting fluids work? Answer.chemical fluids. lower machine tool maintenance. Name the three main types of cutting fluid according to chemistry. and (3) chemical and semi. The two functional categories of cutting fluids are: (1) coolants and (2) lubricants.19 Why are cutting fluid filter systems becoming more common and what are their advantages? Answer. (2) emulsified oils. 23. 23.10 What is the difference in ingredients between steel cutting grades and non-steel cutting grades of cemented carbides? Answer. 151 . and CBN. (4) side relief angle. Other methods include: mist application. Answer. Answer.11 Identify some of the common compounds that form the thin coatings on the surface of coated carbide inserts. The non-steel cutting grades contain only WC and Co. Answer. Answer.18 What are the methods by which cutting fluids are applied in a machining operation? Answer. and (3) mechanically clamped inserts. in which the cutting edge is an integral part of the tool shank. in which a steady stream of fluid is direct at the operation. and Al2O3. The most common method of application is flooding. in which a thin solid layer of a salt such as iron sulfide is formed on the tool surface to provide lubrication. The three types of cutting fluids are: (1) cutting oils. SPD. TiC. Advantages of filter systems include: longer fluid life. fluid. Answer.23. and (7) nose radius.12 23. reduced disposal costs. which involves the formation of a thin fluid film to help separate and protect the contacting surfaces. better hygiene. 23. (6) side cutting edge angle. The common coatings are: TiN. 23. and longer cutting tool life. (3) end relief angle. During cutting. There are two lubricating mechanisms that are believed to be effective in metal cutting: (1) boundary lubrication. used for most hard tool materials including cemented carbides and coated carbides. Cutting fluid filter systems are becoming more common due to the environmental protection laws and the need to prolong the life of the fluid before disposal. (2) side rake angle. used for some cemented carbides. cermets. The seven elements of single point tool geometry are: (1) back rake angle.15 23. and manual application.13 Why are ceramic cutting tools generally designed with negative rake angles? Answer. (2) brazed inserts.16 Name the two main categories of cutting fluid according to function. (5) end cutting edge angle.

molds. (c). including tramp oil. (c) TiC.23. (b) depth of cut. Answer. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. and (e) WC. (b).3 Cast cobalt alloys typically contain which of the following main ingredients (more than one)? (a) aluminum. and (e). (d) 152 . Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. 23. (b) cobalt. (b) Problems with dry machining include: (1) overheating the tool. small chips.4 Which of the following is not a common ingredient in cemented carbide cutting tools (more than one)? (a) Al2O3. (a) What are those problems associated with the use of cutting fluids? (b) What are some of the new problems introduced by machining dry? Answer. fungi. or (c) feed. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 18 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). (c) CrC. 23. (a) 23. 23. (a). (c) increases toughness. (c) chromium. and bacteria. contaminated cutting fluids do not perform their lubricating function as well as when they are fresh and clean. (b) Ni. (d) nickel. Answer.2 As an alloying ingredient in high speed steel. (c) C5. and (d).20 Dry machining is being considered by machine shops because of certain problems inherent in the use of cutting fluids. and (3) absence of chip removal benefits in grinding and milling. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. (b). (d) TiC. 23. (c) 23.6 Steel cutting grades of cemented carbide are typically characterized by which of the following ingredients (more than one)? (a) Co. Answer. (c) and (d). or (d) C7. (b) Co. Answer. Answer. (b) C3. Answer. (2) operating at lower cutting speeds and production rates to prolong tool life. tungsten serves which of the following functions (more than one)? (a) forms hard carbides to resist abrasion. all correct answers must be given. In addition to causing odors and health hazards. (b) increases hardness. and (d) increases hot hardness. garbage. which C-grade would you select (one best answer)? (a) C1. and (e) WC. (d) TaC. which one has the greatest effect on tool wear? (a) cutting speed. (a) Cutting fluids become contaminated over time with a variety of contaminants. For each question. (a) and (c). Answer. and (e) tungsten.5 An increase in cobalt content has which of the following effects on WC-Co cemented carbides (one best answer)? (a) decreases transverse rupture strength. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. (b) improves strength and hardness. (c) increases corrosion resistance. 23.7 If you had to select a cemented carbide for an application involving finish turning of steel.1 Of the following cutting conditions.

80 13 0.50 mm of flank land wear. Are the resulting n and C values the same? 1 0.4 min using criterion FW = 0. T = 13. (b) Which of the following are the two main functions of a cutting fluid in machining (two answers only)? (a) improve surface finish on the workpiece. Solution: At v = 125 m/min.50 mm. Values of C and n may vary in part (b) due to variations in the plots.40 0. The last wear data value in each column is when final tool failure occurred. and (2) 165(10.3894 = 404.3026 n 0. (b) electroplating. T = 20.1 The following flank wear data were collected in a series of turning tests using a coated carbide tool on hardened alloy steel.46 C = 404.57 9 0. (c) physical vapor deposition. Flank wear. (b) reduce forces and power. (a) and (c). At v = 165 m/min.33 0. T = 10. (c) and (d). The values should be approximately the same as those obtained in part (c) below. mm.75 mm of flank wear as the criterion of tool failure.0) n = C (1) and (2) 125(20.45 0. (c) As a comparison. Using 0.35 5 0. at v = 125 m/min Flank wear. or (d) pressing and sintering. 153 .9 23.0 mm. The values should be approximately the same as those obtained in part (c) below. and (e) wash away chips.75 mm. (a) On a single piece of linear graph paper. calculate the values of n and C in the Taylor equation solving simultaneous equations. Answer. From the plot. (d) remove heat from the process.4 = ln 165 + n ln 10.97 Cutting time.0155 n = 5. determine the tool lives for the two cutting speeds.3894 = 404. (c) high speed steel.8 Which of the following processes are used to provide the thin coatings on the surface of coated carbide inserts (more than one)? (a) chemical vapor deposition. Which of the following materials has the highest hardness? (a) aluminum oxide.20 0. determine the values of n and C in the Taylor Tool Life Equation. plot flank wear as a function of time.47 7 0. Problems Tool Life and the Taylor Equation 23. Values of C and n may vary in part (b) due to variations in the plots. at v = 165 m/min Solution: At v = 125 m/min.30 mm/rev and the depth was 4. (b) On a piece of natural log-log paper.12 0.75 mm.4) n = 165(10.1059 + 2.46 23.50 mm. At v = 165 m/min.0 min using criterion FW = 0.1 except that the tool life criterion is 0. (a) and (b) Student exercises.7129 n = 0.50 0. 23.99 15 0.58 20 0.46 (2) C = 165(10.23.2776 n = 0.27 0.10 Answer. T = 5.73 25 0.6 min using criterion FW = 0.22 3 0.2 Solve Problem 23.0) n ln 125 + n ln 20.0 min using criterion FW = 0. min. (a) and (b) Student exercises. (c) Two equations: (1) 125(20. (b) cubic boron nitride. The feed rate was 0. or (e) tungsten carbide. mm.4) 0. Answer.3894 (1) C = 125(20.4) n = C. (d) titanium carbide. plot your results determined in the previous part.8283 + 3.0) 0.0 4.70 11 0. (c) reduce friction at the tool-chip interface.

0986 n n = 0.171 = 488/1.3365 = 1.6) n ln 125 + n ln 13. (c) v (20) .77/2.8277) C = 182.2619 .1914 = 83.3175 = (3.848 = 17.2619 = 182.6052 + 2. compute the tool life that corresponds to a cutting speed v = 300 ft/min.77 (b) 90 T.1059 + 1. 154 .2.0 m/s and a 20-min tool life at a speed v = 2.15 23.4012 . T = 10 min.4012 n 4...6052 .3948) C = 488 Check: C = 250(50) .77/(20) .4 = (7.3894 (1) C = 125(13.4.0 m/s. (2) v = 75 m/min.171 = 350(1.6) n = C (1) and (2) 125(13. and (c) the speed corresponding to a tool life of 20 min.4 = n ln 7. what is the likely tool material used in this operation? (c) Using your equation. T = 50 min.0) n = C.2 min.14286 0. T = 30 min. (2) v = 250 ft/min.0) = 291.4825 = 329 ft/min. (b) Based on the n and C values. v = C/Tn = 488/10.9661 n n = 0.77 Check: C = 75(30) . the likely tool material is high speed steel.13 min. and (2) 165(5.3175 + 3.2619 = 2.437) = 182.171 = (1. (a) Find the n and C values in the Taylor tool life equation.5649 n = 5.77/90 = 2.7228 n 0. (b) Project how long the tool would last at a speed v = 1.037 T = 2.0371/.5 Turning tests have resulted in 1-min tool life for a cutting speed v = 4.2619 C = 100(10) = 100(1. T = (C/v) 1/n = (488/300) 1/. (a) Determine the n and C values in the Taylor tool life equation.2. T = 7 min. 100(10) n =75(30) n ln 100 + n ln 10 = ln 75 + n ln 30 4.3 Tool life tests on a lathe have resulted in the following data: (1) v = 350 ft/min.3894 = 291. Solution: (a) Two equations: (1) 350(7) n = C and (2) 250(50) n = C 350(7) n = 250(50) n 350/250 = (50/7) n 1. (d) For T = 10 min.0 m/s.6 4. (c) At v = 300 ft/min.0373.171 = 250(1. (d) Compute the cutting speed that corresponds to a tool life T = 10 min.14 (2) C = 165(5.3026 n = 4.4 m/min.6267) 5. compute (b) the tool life for a speed of 90 m/min.2619 = 182.2776 n = 0.77 v = 182.9522) = 488 (b) Comparing these values of n and C with those in Table 24.(c) Two equations: (1) 125(13.3296 0.0) n = 165(5.818 = 15. Solution: (a) Two equations: (1) 100(10) n = C and (2) 75(30) n = C. 23.14286) n ln 1. Based on your equation.0 = ln 165 + n ln 5.2619 = 182. (a) Determine the parameters n and C in the Taylor tool life equation.8283 + 2.2877 = 1.2619 = 182.2619 = 75(2.6) 0.8421 n = 0. 23.171 C = 350(7) .3026) n 0.15 C = 291.77 T.4 Tool life tests in turning yield the following data: (1) v = 100 m/min.

120(20) n = 240 20n = 240/120 = 2. T = 47 min.677 n = 4. T = 25(4. Determine the Taylor tool life equation for this job. Consistency would be demonstrated by using the values from the middle data point (T = 12 min at v = 130 ft/min) in the equation and obtaining the same value of C as above (C = 229).692 n 5. but if cutting speed = 2.2314 = (4) 4. (2) v = 130 m/min.677) n 0. 23. which is close enough and well within expected random variation in typical tool life data.225 mm) = 174.1929 . (1) 160(5.Solution: (a) For data (1) T = 1.54 min. then C = 4. A feed rate of 0.08 min.4054 = 2.7 For the tool life plot of Figure 23.53 s = 2.4.43 23.1929 + 2.0 m/s)(0.9957 n = 0.0151 n n = 0.223 = 130(1.0 n ln 20 = ln 2.225 mm/rev is used in the operation.2012 C = 180 (14. the resulting data would be: (1) v = 160 m/min. For data (2) v = 2 m/s = 120 m/min.2314 = 240/60 = 4. 23.4.80s = 4.3 This represents a difference of less than 1. the workpart is 125 mm in diameter and 300 mm long. complete failure of the cutting tool is indicated by the end of each wear curve.6 In a production turning operation.50 mm flank wear.909) = 14.0 m/s. Determine the parameters n and C in the Taylor tool life equation for this data.08) 5.0 m/s = 60 m/min.08) n ln 180 + n ln(14. T = 5(2.25 min. T = 12 min) is consistent with the Taylor equation determined in Example Problem 23.0 T = (4.223 = 229.5.692 . (3) v = 100 m/min.225 mm) = 261.2314 = 240 (T)0.1 is: vT0. Using complete failure as the criterion of tool life instead of 0.363 min.6931 n = 0.0) 1/0.75) n = 100(47) n 155 . (1) v = 3 m/s = 180 m/min.3 m)/(3.3215 = 400 min.54) n = 120(109. If cutting speed = 3. 130(12) .54) = ln 120 + n ln(109. the tool can be used to produce 25 pieces between tool changes. 60(T)0. the tool must be changed every 5 workparts.7875 + 4.909 min.0 2.54) n = C (2) 120(109.2. (2) v = 2 m/s = 120 m/min. (1) 180(14.363) = 109. then check the resulting equation against the middle data point.8 In the tool wear plots of Figure 23.7404) = 226.75) n = C and (3) 100(47) n = C 160(5. Solution: Let us use the two extreme data points to calculate the values of n and C. Solution: Taylor equation calculated in Example 23.75 min. T = 5.2%. T = 14. show that the middle data point (v = 130 m/min. Solution: (1) Tm = π (125 mm)(0.7875 = (4.08) n = C 180(14.1.54) C = 308.3 m)/(20 m/s)(0.2314 (b) At v = 1.2012 . (2) Tm = π (125 mm)(0.0 min.0 m/s = 240 m/min.0 m/s.

0 m/s.50 mm in Example 23.239 (1) and (3): ln 120 + 0. The higher C value here reflects the higher wear level used to define tool life (complete failure of cutting edge here vs.25 = 1000.204 n n = 0. compute the corresponding cutting speeds in ft/min and m/sec using the two equations.1).2 = ln 120 + 0. Check both equations at T = 16 min = 960 s. where v is in m/sec and T is in seconds.4700 = 2.7875 + 2.8501 n 0.25 = 1000(Tref)0. compute the tool life when v = 1.1 (n = 0.08(2. (b) Using your equation. Convert this equation to the equivalent Taylor equation in the International System of units (metric).D.25 = 1000/2 = 500 ft/min.6052 + 3.5 m/s. 23.5 m/s and f = 0.1009 n n = 0.2877 = 1.4054 m = -0. (Tref)0.E.239 ln 10 + m ln 0.223 in Example 23.566 = 2. and that the C value is higher here (C = 236.08 m/s Tref = 1 min = 60 s. where v = m/s and T = s.6094) = 0.0436 m = 0.75 = ln 100 + n ln 47 5. f = 0.0 m/s. m. The following data were obtained during the tests: (1) v = 2. USCU: v = 1000/160.14/9600.8 here vs.25) 0.3048m/ft)(1 min/60 s) = 2.7492 n = 4. which would be considered good agreement for experimental data.1). Better results on determining the Taylor equation would be obtained by using regression analysis on all three data sets to smooth the variations in the tool life data. A series of turning tests are performed to determine the parameters n .ln 160 + n ln 5.2) m = K (2) (1.108 156 . (a) Determine n .7 (3) C = 100(47) 0.2040) -0.3048m/ft)(1 min/60 s) = 5.4998 + 3.54 m/s 23.0 min tool life. Eq.5939 + m (-1. a flank wear level of 0.5%.5503 + m (-1.2 = ln 90 + n ln 40 + m ln 0. customary units are used: ft/min for v and min for T.14 The converted equation is: vT0.10 Q. m.14.3) m = K (1) and (2): ln 120 + n ln 12 + m ln 0.78316 The converted value of C = 5.224 (1) C = 160(5.25 C = 1000 ft/min for a 1. where the U. SI: v = 14.9 use average: C = 236.4849 n = 4.25 = 14. T = 12 min. Solution: vT0. f = 0. This represents a difference of less than 0. Validate the metric equation using a tool life = 16 min.75) 0. f = 0.54 m/s Check: (500 ft/min)( 0.3 0.1).2 ln 120 + n ln 12 = ln 90 + n ln 40 4. T = 40 min. (2) v = 1.25 = 14.20 mm/rev. T = 10 min. (23.0752 + 1.224 here vs.8 Check against data set (2): 130(14.239 ln 12 + m ln 0.4). and K in the expanded version of the Taylor equation.20 mm/rev. n = 0.224 = 236. Note that the n value is very close to the value obtained in Example 23.25 = 2. Solution: Three equations to be solved simultaneously: (1) (2 x 60)(12) n(0.7.3 mm/rev.9 The Taylor equation for a certain set of test conditions is vT.25 = (60) 0. ft/min converts to m/s as (1000 ft/min)(0.14/5.224 = 236.224 = 235.3 mm/rev. and (3) v = 2.6889 n 0. C = 229 in Example 23.5 x 60)(40) n(0. and K.S. That is.78316) = 14.2) m = K (3) (2 x 60)(10) n(0.

015) m = K (1) and (2): ln 400 + n ln 10 + m ln 0.311 T = 2. MRR = (843.2629)(0.5 m/s.010) m = K (3) 400(8) n(0.2 are based on a feed rate of 0.6123)(0.108 =120(1. Determine how many cubic mm of steel would be removed for each of the following tool materials.5587) = 379.2877 = 1.12) = 101.12 The n and C values in Table 23.2297(2.1264 = 300(2.3026 n = 5. f = 0. (c) cemented carbide.3111/.108 = 182. (b) high speed steel.239(0.0794) + m (-4.010 in/rev. MRR = (150 x 12)(0. v = 1500/100.25 = 1500/1.2297 (1) and (3): ln 400 + n ln 10 + m ln 0.8) = 18. v = 200/100.239 = 2.2297(0.5 x 12)(0.010) m = K (2) 300(35) n(0. and (e) coated carbide.010 = n ln 8 + m ln 0.778 = 843.01)(0. T = 35 min.2297(2.010 = ln 400 + n ln 8 + m ln 0.2) 0.4) in the text relates tool life to speed and feed.0 mm.015 0. 23. and (3) v = 400 ft/min.6052) = 0.25.5587) = 379.3026) + m (-4. f = 0.10) = 1.010 = ln 300 + n ln 35 + m ln 0. For 10 min.80 in 3/min.3) 0. C = 200 ft/min.010) 0. (d) ceramic. m.0794) = m(-4.2. T = 10 min.8404) = K = 182.6052) 0.9915 + 2.5881) = 379.7038 + 3.3 mm/rev (1.2 in3 157 . f = 0.333 = 150 ft/min.015 in/rev. the following data were collected: (1) v = 400 ft/min.65 (b) v = 1.65 90(T)0. In a series of turning tests conducted to determine the parameters n .25 mm/rev and a depth of cut = 4.5 x 60)(T)0.5 ft/min.3 (2) 300(35) 0.0 in/rev.10) = 0.65 (T)0.0 in3 (c) Cemented carbide: n = 0.010) 0. For 10 min.239 = 33.1 = 60/1. metal removed = 10(0.2297(0.2297(0.1264 = 400(1. This feed is of course an extrapolation and not a real possible feed value. metal removed = 10(1.1997) 0.239(0.2297(2.10) = 10. Solution: (a) Plain carbon steel: n = 0. m.125.259 = 47. For 10 min.(1) K = 120(12) 0. C = 1500 ft/min.01)(0. 23.3026 .10.2527 n n = 0. What is the physical interpretation of the constant K? Solution: Three equations to be solved simultaneously: (1) 400(10) n(0.11 Eq.6 x 12)(0. T = 8 min.1264 = 400(1.010 ln 400 + n ln 10 = ln 300 + n ln 35 5.5553 n 0.125 = 200/1.05127 = 0.1264 (1) 400(10) 0.3 The constant K represents the cutting speed (ft/min) for a 1.015 n ln 10 + m ln 0.12 in 3/min. and K.015) 0.0 minute tool life at a feed rate of 1.4055 m m = 0.811)(0.6971)(0.239(0.72 in3 (b) HSS: n = 0.3 K = 379. C = 60 ft/min. Determine n .572 in 3/min. f = 0.1997 + 4. (2) v = 300 ft/min. MRR = (47. if a 10-min tool life were required in each case: (a) plain carbon steel.6 ft/min. metal removed = 10(10. and K.3 (3) 400(8) 0.01)(0. v = 60/100.3 min.8781) = 182.572) = 5.010 in/rev. (23.

000 ft/min.10) = 14. for tool life and m/min for cutting speed. feed rate fr = (0. for 5 holes.5 in diameter holes are drilled through cast iron plates that are 1.85) = 148.99 (202. the tool lasted for exactly 50 holes.99 v-1 = 2057. T = 50(0.0 in thick.382 + 3. The feed rate of the drill was 0. Tm = π DL/fv and T = (C/v) 1/n Tm = π (500)(1000)(10-6)/0. Units for the Taylor equation are min. time per hole = 1.82 4.14 The outside diameter of a cylinder made of titanium alloy is to be turned. Formulating the data as vTn = C.33(108) (v) -4.15 = 120(1.5π /12) = 611 rev/min.75 in/min. v = 2200/100. time per hole = 1.4(10-3)v = 3926.34 C = 120(1.18) -1 = 19. The starting diameter = 500 mm and the length = 1000 mm. (Ignore effects of drill entrance and exit from the hole.3478 = 4004. Solution: In this problem we want Tm = T.094) = 131. Formulating the data as vTn = C. where cutting speed v is expressed in ft/min. N = (120)/(. where Tm = machining time per piece and T = tool life. MRR = (1237 x 12)(0. Sample holes have been drilled to determine the tool life at two cutting speeds.23 = (400/v) 4. feed rate fr = (0.364 min) = 1.7073 n = 0. The cut will be made with a cemented carbide cutting tool whose Taylor tool life parameters are: n = 0.545 min.0 in/(1.29 C = 131. and tool life T is expressed in min. Both of these times must be expressed in terms of cutting speed.6417) = 131.10) = 30.(d) Ceramic: n = 0.25 = ln 120 + n ln 1.18 m/min Check: Tm = 3926. v = 12000/100.75 in/min) = 0.0 mm.32 23.99/v = 3926.545 min) = 27.13 A drilling operation is performed in which 0. N = (80)/(.5π /12) = 917 rev/min.3478 Setting Tm = T: 3926.52389(108) v = {0.833 in/min.00 in.3051 n = 4.33(108) (v) -4.3478(v) -4.5 in3 23.364 min.01)(0. At 120 surface ft/min. For 10 min.85 in 3/min.15 C = 80(27.4055 n = 0.0 in/(2.3478 v3.778 = 1237 ft/min. MRR = (2512 x 12)(0.52389(108)}0.3478 = 0.4 in3 (e) Coated carbide: n = 0. and d = 3. we have: 120(1.25 min.25) = 80(1.3478 = 2057. At 80 surface ft/min.003 in/rev. metal removed = 10(30. For 10 min.) Determine the values of n and C in the Taylor tool life equation for the above sample data. metal removed = 10(14. we have: 80(27. the tool lasted for exactly 5 holes. Compute the cutting speed that will allow the tool life to be just equal to the cutting time for this part. C = 10. T = 5(0.833 in/min) = 0.25.82) 0.25) n = 120(1.981 = 2512 ft/min.25) n = C (2) v = 120 ft/min.52389(108)}1/3. corresponding to the plate thickness.003)(611) = 1.60.01)(0.15 0.25 = 2200/1.4 mm/rev.003)(917) = 2.82) n = C Setting (1) = (2): 80(27.14 in 3/min. Consider the depth of cut to be exactly 1.14) = 301.99 (v) -1 T = (400/v) 1/.82 min.5978 n 2. for 50 holes.3478 = {0. C = 2200 ft/min.23 and C = 400.7875 + 0. Solution: (1) v = 80 ft/min.423 min 158 .2987 = 202. Cutting conditions are: f = 0.82) n ln 80 + n ln 27.6 = 12000/3.

56) 4.0)/12(0. (b) Rough milling of aluminum.0 = 55.0 = 1. This is a grade with no TiC and high cobalt.3478 = 19. the starting diameter = 26. Both of these times must be expressed in terms of cutting speed. A slot or keyway has been milled along its entire length.38 (476.25 and C = 1300.0 = 13004. Choose grade 2.T = (400/202.08229(108)}1/3 = {1. In the final pass.56) -1= 55.25 in and the length = 48.17 A turning operation is performed on a steel shaft with diameter = 5. and (e) sintered polycrystalline diamond.423 min 23.23 = (400/202. 23. Specify a steel-cutting grade suitable for finishing. for tool life and ft/min for cutting speed.08229(108) v = {1.389.125 in.16 A certain machine shop uses a limited number of cemented carbide grades in its operations. Specify a non-steel finishing grade. This is a grade with no TiC and low cobalt.8561(1012) (v) -4. Tm = π DL/12fv and T = (C/v) 1/n Tm = π (26.08229(108)}0.25)(48. Solution: In this problem we want Tm = T. where Tm = machining time per piece and T = tool life. (b) high speed steel. For each of the following tool materials. Choose grade 4. and depth of cut = 0.38 (v) -1 T = (1300/v) 1/. A cemented carbide cutting tool is to be used and the parameters of the Taylor tool life equation for this setup are: n = 0.389.0125 in/rev.389.18) 1/.38/v = 26. Determine the cutting speed which will make the tool life equal to the time required to complete the turning operation.3333 = 476.38 (v) -1= 2.18) 4. (d) Machining cast iron. These grades are listed below by chemical composition.8561(1012) (v) -4.0125)v = 26. Specify a non-steel roughing grade.0 = 2. Specify grade 1 for finishing and grade 4 for roughing.0 in and length = 32 in. Cast iron is included with the non-steel grades. indicate whether or not it is a reasonable candidate to use in the operation: (a) plain carbon steel. (c) cemented carbide. This is a grade with TiC and low cobalt. It is desirable to operate at a cutting speed so that the tool will not need to be changed during the cut.375 min Tooling Applications 23. (c) Finish turning of brass. explain your recommendation.0 Setting Tm = T: 26. 159 .56 ft/min Check: Tm = 26.0 in.56) 1/.389.0 v3.15 The outside diameter of a roll for a steel rolling mill is to be turned. Choose grade 1. Grade 1 2 3 4 %WC 95 82 80 89 %Co 5 4 10 11 %TiC 0 14 10 0 Solution: (a) Finish turning of unhardened steel. The cutting conditions will be: feed = 0. The turning operation reduces the shaft diameter.25 = (1300/476. (d) ceramic.375 min T = (1300/476.25 = (1300/v) 4. For each material that is not a good candidate. (a) Which grade should be used for finish turning of unhardened steel? (b) Which grade should be used for rough milling of aluminum? (c) Which grade should be used for finish turning of brass? (d) Which of the grades listed would be suitable for machining cast iron? For each case. Units for the Taylor equation are min. give the reason why it is not.0(v) -4.

the value of C is increased by 10%.Solution: The slot will result in an interrupted cut. Nevertheless. resulting in friction heat.12 = (1.3333 = 21. it has good toughness for the interrupted cut.18 In a turning operation using high speed steel tooling.25 min = 156.25 = 7:1. Increase = (47." What's the problem? What do you recommend to solve it? Solution: There are several problems here.42 min.40 . and hole depth = 40 mm. With coolant: 90(T)0. Second.5889) 8. A cutting oil is applied by the operator by brushing the lubricant onto the drill point and flutes prior to each hole. it must be a steel cutting grade with high toughness (high cobalt content). (d) Ceramic: this is not a good candidate because of its low toughness.3333 = 47. (b) HSS: this is a reasonable candidate.8) 8 = 110.10 mm/rev.95 min.2 .12 = (1. so toughness is important in the tool material. Cutting Fluids 23.20 A high speed steel 6. and the drill bit is failing prematurely due to overheating. the depth-to-diameter ratio is 1.75:0. First.42)/21. With cutting fluid. If it can be assumed that the effect of the cutting fluid is simply to increase the constant C by 25. (e) Sintered polycrystalline diamond: this is not suitable for cutting steel.6% 23.12 = 130 T = (130/90) 1/.125 = (1. what would be the increase in tool life if the original cutting speed of 125 ft/min were used in the operation? Solution: From Table 23. T = (225/125) 1/. thus causing overheating of the drill. he says.21. When a coolant is used in the operation. (a) Plain carbon steel: not economical because of low cutting speeds.120 and C = 130 (m/min) when the operation is conducted dry.21 = 121% 23.125 and C = 200 for dry cutting. The cutting conditions are: speed = 25 m/min. The appropriate n and C values in the Taylor equation are given in Table 23.2. T = (200/125) 1/.19 A production turning operation on a steel workbar normally operates at a cutting speed of 125 ft/min using high speed steel tooling with no cutting fluid. n = 0.95) = 67.444) 8. a cutting speed v = 90 m/min is used. which is greater than the 4:1 which is usually recommended. With cutting fluid: at v = 125 ft/min. C = 200 + 25 = 225. The foreman says that the "speed and feed are right out of the handbook" for this work material. and feed = 0. It has been found that the use of a coolant type cutting fluid will allow an increase of 25 ft/min in the speed without any effect on tool life.6) 8 = 42.0 mm twist drill is being used in a production drilling operation on mild steel. The Taylor tool life equation has parameters n = 0.125 = (1.40 min. "the chips are clogging in the flutes.1) = 143 T = (143/90) 1/. As a consequence the chips produced in the hole are having difficulty exiting. the 160 . it is likely to fracture during interrupted cutting.42 = 1.42. Solution: Dry: 90(T)0. Increase = (110.12 = 130(1 + 10%) = 130(1.2 in the text. Determine the percent increase in tool life that results if the cutting speed is maintained at v = 90 m/min. Dry: at v = 125 ft/min.2 min. (c) Cemented carbide: this is a reasonable candidate.

and we assume it cannot be changed. Since overheating is a problem. Finally. as a substitute for the cutting oil. it makes sense to try a coolant. Peck-drilling means drilling for a distance approximately equal to one drill diameter. a requirement of the drilling operation. etc. an emulsified oil might be tried in the operation. The 7:1 depth-to-diameter ratio is a given. with overheating as a problem. 161 .manual method of applying the cutting oil may not be particularly effective. The twist drill might be operated in a peck-drilling mode to solve the chip clogging problem. then retract the drill. A twist drill with a fluid hole could be used to more effectively deliver the cutting fluid to the drill point to help extract the chips. then drill some more. the cutting oil may not be removing heat from the operation effectively. Third. one with good lubricating qualities.

Steps to reduce vibration in machining include: (1) increase stiffness or damping in the setup. (2) operating at speeds away from the natural frequency of the machine tool system.9 The unit cost in a machining operation is the sum of four cost terms. The machinability criteria include: (1) tool wear and tool life.3 Name some of the important mechanical and physical properties that affect the machinability of a work material. and tearing of the work surface when machining ductile materials. Because additional operations such as grinding. feed..2 What are the criteria by which machinability is commonly assessed in a production machining operation? Answer. and (3) vibration and machine tool factors such as setup and workpart rigidity. and (3) feed or chip load. e. Machinability can be defined as the relative ease with which a material can be machined using an appropriate cutting tool under appropriate cutting conditions. and backlash in the feed mechanism. (2) forces and power.6 What are the parameters that have the greatest influence in determining the ideal surface roughness Ri ? Answer.1 Define machinability. 24. (3) limiting cutting forces. or similar finishing processes must be included in the manufacturing sequence at higher cost.8 What are the factors on which the selection of feed in a machining operation should be based? Answer. The ideal surface roughness is determined by geometric parameters of the machining operation. and (4) surface roughness requirements. The factors are: (1) type of tooling. 24. The first three terms are: (1) part load/unload cost. What is the fourth term? 162 . (3) surface finish. (2) work material factors such as built-up edge effects. (2) roughing or finishing operation. and (3) the cost of the time to change the tool. (2) cost of time the tool is actually cutting the work. 24. The factors that affect surface finish are: (1) geometric factors such as type of operation. and (3) reducing forces in machining through changes in feed or depth and changes in cutter design.7 Name some of the steps that can be taken to reduce or eliminate vibrations in machining.24 ECONOMIC AND PRODUCT DESIGN CONSIDERATIONS IN MACHINING Review Questions 24. Answer. 24. The properties mentioned in the text include: hardness. and (4) ease of chip disposal. 24. which factors are affected by cutting speed. Answer.4 Why do costs tend to increase when better surface finish is required on a machined part? Answer. and thermal diffusivity. and (4) in some cases the end cutting edge of the tool.g.5 What are the basic factors that affect surface finish in machining? Answer. 24. lapping. strength. 24. whether turning or milling. (2) tool nose radius. Answer. 24. These parameters are: (1) the type of machining operation. and tool shape (nose radius in particular).

(b) drilling. (b) drilling. or (f) tool wear. (b) 24. (d) low carbon steel. (f) titanium alloys. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. (d). The fourth term is the cost of purchasing (and grinding. tends to push the U-shaped function toward a lower value in the case of cutting speed for minimum cost. 24. if applicable) the tool. whose rating = 1. (a) 24. or (e) turning. Answer. which of the following seems to be the most important (one answer)? (a) cutting forces. 24. and (f) 24. (e) low cutting forces. Answer. For each question. (d) surface roughness. (e) stainless steel. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (c) end milling. (g) zero shear plane angle. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. an increase in cutting speed will generally have which effect on surface finish? (a) degrade surface finish. (b) ease of chip disposal. (a) 24. (b) cast iron. which means lower value of Ra. (c) horsepower consumed in the operation. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 14 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). dealing with the actual cost of the cutting edge. all correct answers must be given. (b). (d) planing.Answer. (b) cutting temperature. which means high value of Ra or (b) improve surface finish. (f) low value of Ra. Cutting speed for minimum cost. (e). Answer. Answer. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. cutting speed for minimum cost or cutting speed for maximum production rate? Why? Answer. Answer.10 Which cutting speed is always lower for a given machining operation.7 Which one of the following operations is generally capable of the best surface finishes (lowest value of Ra) (one best answer)? (a) broaching. (c) end milling.1 Which of the following criteria are generally recognized to indicate good machinability (more than one)? (a) all of the following.2 Of the various methods for testing machinability. (c) high value of Ra. since each correct answer is worth 1 point.6 When cutting a ductile work material.0? (a) easier to machine than the base or (b) more difficult to machine than the base. (d) long tool life.4 163 . (e) 24.3 A machinability rating of greater than 1. or (e) sawing. (d) planing. or (g) unhardened tool steel. (a) 24. Answer.0 indicates that the work material is which of the following relative to the defined base material. In general. which of the following materials has the highest machinability (one best answer)? (a) aluminum.5 Which one of the following operations is generally capable of the closest tolerances (one best answer)? (a) broaching. The fourth term in the unit cost equation. (e) tool life. (c) copper.

or (b) cutting speed for minimum cost.2 (c) Different test conditions often result in different machinability results.8/58.4 = 0.22 = 198.6 m/min New material: v30 = 420/30.6/256.10 A high tooling cost and/or tool change time will tend to have which of the following effects on vmax or vmin? (a) decrease or (b) increase. test data resulted in a Taylor equation with parameters n = 0.1 A machinability rating is to be determined for a new work material using the cutting speed for a 60 min tool life as the basis of comparison.29 = 256. (a) Problems Machinability 24. the parameter values were n = 0.545 = 107.5 = 1.29 and C = 500.7% (b) (a) Base material: T150 = (450/150) 1/.8 Which of the following time components in the average production machining cycle is affected by cutting speed (more than one)? (a) part loading and unloading time.704= 58. For the base material (B1112). Units in both cases are: speed in m/min and tool life in min. Answer. A machinability rating is to be determined for a new work material.27 = 179. Compute the machinability rating for this case.107 = 110.7 m/min MR = 198. These results were obtained using cemented carbide tooling. (c) time the tool is engaged in cutting. Answer. (a) Compute a machinability rating for the new material using cutting speed for a 30 min tool life as the basis of comparison. (b) Suppose the machinability criterion were the cutting speed for a 10 min tool life rather than the present criterion.4 m/min New material: v10 = 400/10. (b) 24.21 = 169.21 and C = 400. (a) Compute a machinability rating for the new material.27 and C = 450.8) 4. and (b) setup time for the machine tool. and (d) tool change time.3/152. where speed is in m/min and tool life is min. Answer.7/179.11 = 111% (b) (a) Base material: v10 = 500/10.22 and C = 420.0) 3.8 min MR = 107. (c) What do the results of the two calculations show about the difficulties in machinability measurement? Solution: (a) Base material: v60 = 500/60.22 = (2.5 min New material: v10 = (420/150) 1/.27 = (3. test data resulted in Taylor equation parameter values of n = 0. (b) If the machinability criterion were tool life for a cutting speed of 150 m/min.5 m/min New material: v60 = 400/60. (c) and (d) Which cutting speed is always lower for a given machining operation? (a) cutting speed for maximum production rate. For the base material (B1112 steel).24.3 m/min MR = 169.9 24.29 = 152.6 m/min MR = 246.21 = 246. For the new material. the Taylor parameters were n = 0. For the new material.84 = 184% 164 .5 = 1.96 = 96% 24. what is the machinability rating for the new material? Solution: (a) Base material: v30 = 450/30. These results were obtained using cemented carbide tooling.6 = 1.

and speed = 2 m/s.96(10-9) = 3.6 A single-point HSS tool with a 3/64 in nose radius is used in a shaping operation on a ductile steel workpart. = 1.2.556 = 144.2 Ri = 1. rai = 1.13 = 225/1. and depth of cut = 0.4 except that the part is made of cast iron instead of aluminum and the cutting speed is reduced to 100 m/min. Recommended v30 = 0. (c) From Table 24. Determine the feed that will achieve the specified surface finish. and depth of cut = 4.125 in.35(144. Solution: For free-machining aluminum at 150 m/min. (24.02 Ra = 1. MR for C1008 = 0. From Fig. Solution: First determine v30 for the base material: v30 = 225/30.6 ft/min.3 Ra = 1.3 Tool life turning tests have been conducted on B1112 steel with high speed steel tooling. Solution: For cast iron at 150 m/min.100 in. (b) 4130 alloy steel with 190 Brinell hardness.75 mm.7 A part to be turned in an engine lathe must have a surface finish of 1.4(10-9) = 3.2. from Figure 24.65(144.35. Cutting speed = 150 m/min.20) 2/(32 x 1) = 0.24. MR for B1113 = 1.1. Solution: Ri = f2/32NR = (0. 24. Solution: Ri = f2/32NR = (0.25 = 1.0001 in.00125 mm. and the resulting parameters of the Taylor equation are: n = 0.3). 24.1. The nose radius on the tool = 0. f2 = Ri(32NR)/1. 24. (a) From Table 24.25 µm. so Ra = 1.1.0 mm.8 Solve previous Problem 24. Determine the surface roughness for this operation. 24.6) = 72 ft/min.63 µ m. 24. the nose radius on the tool = 1.6 µm.02 x 100 = 102 µ in. Recommended v30 = 0. (24.2 = 1. Assume that the same feed and depth of cut are to be used. Based on this information. extrapolating Figure 24. Solution: Ri = f2/32NR = (0. MR for 4130 = 0.6) = 195 ft/min. (b) From Table 24.9 x 150 = 285 µ in. 24. Cutting speed = 100 ft/min.010 in/rev and d = 0.0 mm.2f 2/32NR Rearranging. = 150 µin. Determine the surface roughness for this cut.2 in Eq. rai = 1.3 x 1. Recommended v30 = 1.196(10-8) m2 165 .2.0 in Eq.00015 in.4 In a turning operation on cast iron.196 mm (here. mm is interpreted mm/rev) 24.96(10-4) m = 0.3). Compute an estimate of the surface roughness for this cut. rai = 1.6(10-6)(32)(0.2 ratio rai = 1.50(144.84(10-8) m2 f = (3.5 A turning operation uses a 2/64 in nose radius cutting tool on a free machining steel with a feed rate = 0.010 in/rev and a cutting speed = 300 ft/min. feed = 0. feed rate = 0. From Fig.2 mm/rev. and machinability data given in Table 24. if the tool life desired in operation is 30 min: (a) C1008 low carbon steel with 150 Brinell hardness.75)(10-3)/1. f2 = Ri(32NR) = 1.50. = 100 µin. The feed and depth during these tests were: f = 0.65. From Fig. and (c) B1113 steel with 170 Brinell hardness. determine the cutting speed you would recommend for the following work materials. Surface Roughness 24.13 and C = 225.010) 2/(32 x 2/64) = 0.1. so Ra = Ri Ra = Ri = f2/32NR Rearranging.75)(10-3) = 38. The part is made of a free-machining aluminum alloy.5 = 1.6(10-6)(32)(0.2 = 31.6) = 94 ft/min.9 Ra = 1.015) 2/(32 x 3/64) = 0.2 ratio rai = 1.015 in/pass.84(10-8) m2)0.

The part is made of a free-machining steel. The work material is cast iron.248 mm (here. Solution: For cast iron at 75 m/min.35 in Eq. Items (2) and (3) will have a marginal effect.8)(10-6) = 0. a type of carbide insert with 4/64 in nose radius is to be used.3). (24. Therefore. from Figure 24. Determine the feed that will achieve the specified surface finish.13 A turning operation is to be performed on C1010 steel. To obtain the best possible finish. while at the same time maximizing the metal removal rate.0 mm.0 mm. Determine the minimum nose radius that will obtain the specified finish in this operation. Changes in tooling: (1) increase nose radius NR. mm is interpreted mm/rev) 24. and (3) increase relief angle. The cutting conditions have been selected as follows: v = 75 m/min.3).27.3 mm/rev.27 = 25. It has been decided that the speed should be in the range 200 ft/min to 400 ft/min.2 mm. and that the depth of cut will be 0. what changes in cutting conditions and tooling would you suggest to improve the surface finish? Solution: Changes in cutting conditions: (1) decrease chip load f.35Ri = 1.10 The surface finish specification in a turning job is 0. mm is interpreted mm/rev) 24.2 ratio rai = 1.4 x 10-6 in2 f = (50. (3) use cutting fluid.5 = 7.179 mm (here.12 A face milling operation is not yielding the required surface finish on the work.f = 3. (24. Determine the speed and feed combination that meets these criteria. Without knowing any more about the job.79(10-4) m = 0.35f 2/(32Ra) NR = 1.3 x 10-3)2/(32)(0. so Ra = 1.6 µm.3(4)(0. but this property tests well within the ductility range for the material specified by the designer. fr = Nntf = 509. Solution: For cast iron at 400 ft/min.2 ratio rai = 1. (2) increase rake angle. so Ra = Ri = f2/32NR Rearranging.196(10-8) m2)0. 24.35f 2/32NR Rearranging.00475 m = 4.27 = 32/1. The cutter uses four inserts and its diameter is 3. It is desired to achieve a surface finish of 64 µ-in (AA). Ri = f2/32NR Rearranging.35(0.0071) = 14. which is a ductile grade. N = v/π D = (400 x 12)/3π = 509. f = 0.0 in Eq. The machine shop foreman thinks the problem is that the work material is too ductile for the job. it stands to reason that we should operate at the highest possible v. The nose radius on the tool = 1. f2 = Ri(32NR) = 1.144(10-8) m2 f = (6.2 µin.2 ratio rai = 1. 166 . Solution: For free-machining steel at 90 m/min.44(10-9) = 6. The nose radius of the cutting tool must be selected. and d = 4.5 = 1. from Figure 24.4 x 10-6).9 A part to be turned in an engine lathe must have a surface finish of 1.75 mm 24.11 A face milling operation is to be performed on a cast iron part at 400 ft/min to finish the surface to 32 µ-in. Solution: Increasing feed will increase both MRR and Ra.2)(10-3) = 61.48(10-4) m = 0.0071 in/rev. The cutter is a four-tooth insert type face milling cutter.5 = 2. NR = 1.144(10-8) m2)0.080 in. f2 = 32(Ra)(NR) = 32(25. so Ra = 1.0 in.27 Ri Ri = Ra/1. Cutting conditions: v = 1. Determine the required feed rate (in/min) that will achieve the 32 µ-in finish. from Figure 24.8 µm.6(10-6)(32)(1. The tool nose radius = 3/64 in.1 x 10-3 = 0.46 in/min.2 x 10-6)(4/64) = 50. (2) increase cutting speed v. 24.5 m/s and d = 3.3 rev/min. Increasing speed will increase MRR and reduce Ra.

125(0. rai = 1.6 x 10-6)(3/64) = 83.43 Ra = 1.8 m/min.00/hr.1)(3.518) = 0.16 A HSS tool is used to turn a steel workpart that is 300 mm long and 80 mm in diameter.0 m/s. 25. Optimum cutting conditions are: v = 400 ft/min and f = 0.5] .45.4 x 49.45.692 = 23.015 in/tooth.43(0.43(0.35x4/π ) = 0.015x4/π ) = 22. and that each tooth projects an equal distance from the axis of rotation. rai = 1.35x4/π ) = 0.5D .125f 2/(0.125(0.787 min.8 x 103) = 3. 25.0087 in/rev. rai = 1. Machining Economics 24.26 = 50.45. Ri = f2/32NR f2 = 32(Ra)(NR) = 32(50.51 in3/min.5)]. MRR = 3. Estimate the surface roughness for (a) up-milling.50 min to change tools.13 = (1. and the tooling cost per cutting edge = $4.125f 2/(. Solution: (a) Up milling: Ri = 0. The operator and machine tool rate = $30.125f 2/(0.5D + fnt/π ) = 0. 24.00.125(0.26.35) 2/(30 . 25. which maximizes MRR = 3. It takes 2.506) 7.015x4/π ) = 22.15.0091 in/rev.13 and C = 75 (m/min) for a feed of 0.fnt/π ) = 0.2 x 10-6 in2 f = (76.15 Ri Ri = Ra/1. From Fig.14 Plain milling is performed to finish a cast iron workpart prior to plating. Compare at v = 300 ft/min. MRR = 2.43 Ra = 1.2 x 10-6).26 = 64/1.8) 1/.51 in 3/min.50/min vmax = 75/[(1/. From Fig. and cutting speed = 150 ft/min.503) = 0.45. and (c) cycle time and cost per unit of product.741 µ m. The parameters in the Taylor equation are: n = 0. (b) Down milling: Ri = 0.15 = 64/1.503 µm.13 .125f 2/(.125(0.4 x 10-6).35 mm/tooth.0.Try v = 400 ft/min. Ra = 1.26 Ri Ri = Ra/1.4 x 10-6 in2 f = (83. (c) Tm = π DL/fv = π (80)(300)/(.692 x 3. and cutting speed v = 1.13 = 75/[6. 25. Ri = f2/32NR f2 = 32(Ra)(NR) = 32(55. (b) Tmax = (75/49. Solution: (a) Co = $30/hr = $0. and (b) down-milling.15 A peripheral milling operation is performed using a slab milling cutter with four teeth and a 2. (b) Down milling: Ri = 0.5D+fnt/π ) = 0.5 = 0. Assuming first that the teeth are equally spaced around the cutter.5 = 0.0 min to load and unload the workpart and 3.0091 in/rev. 24.2 µ in. (b) tool life in min of cutting. The milling cutter has four equally spaced teeth and the diameter = 60 mm. The chip load f = 0. Ra = 1.50 in diameter.25+0. Feed = 0.5D .8 µ in.15 = 55.27 = 49. determine the theoretical surface roughness for (a) up-milling.25-0.8 µin.42 min.4 mm/rev. 167 .015) 2/(1.015) 2/(1. Solution: (a) Up milling: Ri = 0. From Fig.8 x 10-6)(3/64) = 76. From Fig.518 µm.35) 2/(30 + 0.6 µin.719 µ m. and (b) down-milling.fnt/π ) = 0. Determine: (a) cutting speed for maximum production rate.51 in 3/min. rai = 1.

Cc = 0. there are four cutting edges per insert.37 min/pc. The tool change time for the regrindable tooling = 3.013 in/rev.06 min.5/17 = 6. the price of the tool = $30.823 min/pc.5 + 2. Solution: (a) vmax = 1200/[(1/.5 + 4.27 .692 = 76.55/min Cc = 0.00))].013 x 590 x 12) = 1.5] . (c) Tm = π DL/fv = π (3)(18)/(.6 m/min.323 min.323 + 1. Determine: (a) cutting speed for maximum production rate. The parameters in the Taylor equation for this grade are: n = 0. determine cutting speed for minimum cost.42 = 17.55(5.41 pc/tool life Use np = 17 pc/tool life Tc = Th + Tm + Tt/np = 2.42 + 3.50 min to change tools.034) 3.13 = 42.89/1.00.89 min.50/(6.np = 23.07/pc 24.96/4.4 x 42.27 = (2. determine cutting speed for minimum cost.37) + 4. The workpart to be used in the 168 . and the grinder is paid at a rate = $20. (c) Tm = π DL/fv = π (80)(300)/(.00 and it is estimated that it can be used a total of 15 times before it must be scrapped.19 Solve previous Problem 24.0/17 = $3.0 in and diameter = 3.787 + 3.00.27 = (1.013 x 822 x 12) = 1.27 = 1200[. Cc = 0. (b) tool life in min of cutting.50(6.184 pc/tool life Use np = 6 pc/tool life Tc = Th + Tm + Tt/np = 2.0 min.0/7 = $3.18 A cemented carbide tool is used to turn a part with length = 18.63) + 4.27 = 1200/[2.55/pc 24.6) 1/. The same grade of cemented carbide tooling is available in two forms for turning operations in a certain machine shop: disposable inserts and brazed inserts.0 + 1.55/min vmin = 1200[.63 min/pc.16 except that in part (a).1)(.50 x 3.00/hr.0 min to load and unload the workpart and 1. The rate for the operator and machine tool = $33.843 = 7.823) + 2.06 min/pc.50(6.692 x 5. price of each insert = $6.704 x 2.27 .27 = 822 ft/min.5/6 = 6.50/min vmin = 75[.704 x 1.00))].55(5.5/3 = 4.96 min.85/pc 24.704 = 13.6 x 103) = 4.75)].825)]. (b) Tmax = (1200/822) 1/. For the brazed insert.704 = 4.323 = 3.55/((1/. Solution: (a) Co = $33/hr = $0.54 pc/tool Use np = 7 pc/tool life Tc = Th + Tm + Tt/np = 3. The standard time to grind or regrind the cutting edge is 5.0 + 4.42/3.27 = 590 ft/min. and the tooling cost per cutting edge = $2.13 = (1.20 Compare disposable and regrindable tooling. For the disposable inserts.0 min.843 + 1.0 min (this is an average of the time to index the insert and the time to replace it when all edges have been used).460) 3.50/((1/.13 = 75[.5/7 = 5. and the tool change time = 1.76) 7. Solution: (a) Co = $30/hr = $0. np = 76.0 + 1.5)]. np = 4.18 except that in part (a). Co = $33/hr = $0.00/6 = $3.25 and C = 300 (m/min) under the cutting conditions considered here.00/hr.32/pc 24.1)(1.27 and C = 1200.0 + 3.06) + 2. (b) Tmin = (75/42. np = 13.00/hr.055/1. Cc = 0. (c) Tm = π DL/fv = π (3)(18)/(.0 in. Machine time on the lathe costs $24. The feed = 0.17 Solve previous Problem 24.55/(2.843 min.066 pc/tool Use np = 3 pc/tool life Tc = Th + Tm + Tt/np = 3.13 .0/3 = $3.787 = 6. (b) Tmin = (1200/590) 1/. and (c) cycle time and cost per unit of product. It takes 3.55 x 1. The parameters in the Taylor equation are: n = 0.1)(.42 min/pc.

92) + 3.25 .40(3.1)(0.0 min. compare: (a) cutting speeds for minimum cost.4 + 1.01 min/pc np = 36.22 Three tool materials are to be compared for the same finish turning operation on a batch of 100 steel parts: high speed steel.50/8 = $1.40 x 3.9/0. Cc = 0.0 + 1.1)(0.34 pc/tool life Use np = 6 pc/tool Tc = 2.40/min.40(4. Cc = 0. but that unit costs are less in the previous problem where the objective is minimum cost per piece.42 + 3.0/18 = 4.40/min. Cc = 0. (b) Tmax = (1/0.0))].50/edge vmin = 300[0. (c) Tm = π (62.0/1.0 m/min.0) = 3.67/18 = $1.40(3.25 = 300[0.40/((1/0.0 + 1.4) = 1.08 = 2.0)].18) + 3. Comparing the results in this problem with those of the previous problem. cycle times are less.40/min.25 .4 m/min.21 Solve previous Problem 24.25 .5/2.30)(10-3)(154.87)].5)(375)/(0.4 = 3(1.25 = 228.59 = 8. (c) Tm = π (62.25 = 300[1. Ct = $30/15 + 5($20/60) = $3.1)(0.30)(10-3)(173. (b) tool lives.30)(10-3)(122) = 2. (c) Tm = π (62.30 mm/rev.0/((1/0.5 mm in diameter.1)(1.96 pc/tool life Use np = 8 pc/tool Tc = 2.78 pc/tool life Use np = 2 pc/tool Tc = 2. and ceramic.92 min/pc.40/min.1)(0. note that with the maximum production rate objective here.25 = 300[0.25 .0) = 3(1.4 = 3(4.2 m/min.87/0.0 + 1.50))].5)(375)/(0.0 min to load and unload the work.58) + 1.25 = 154. the 169 .67/edge vmax = 300[1. For the two tooling cases.25 .18 min/pc. determine the cutting speeds for maximum production rate. Cycle time and cost per piece are less.01 + 3.30)(10-3)(228) = 1.0/6 = 3.25 .0)].0/2 = 3.58 min/pc.0 + 1. cemented carbide.5)(375)/(0.59 min/pc np = 14.0/(3 x 3.674/pc Regrindable tooling: (a) Co = $24/hr = $0. (b) Tmin = (1/0. For the high speed steel tool.0/1.50/edge vmax = 300[1.67))].4) = 14.25 .72) + 1.1)(3) = 3(3.40/(3 x 1.0 + 2.5 min. Solution: Disposable inserts: (a) Co = $24/hr = $0.4) = 36. and it takes 2.0 + 3.40(3.16 pc/tool life Use np = 18 pc/tool Tc = 2. Cycle time and cost per piece are less.42 = 6.9)].0) = 9.08 + 1.182/pc Regrindable tooling: (a) Co = $24/hr = $0.40/((1/0. (b) Tmin = (1/0.0 min.1)(1.67)/0.25 = 300[1.comparison is 375 mm long and 62.5)(375)/(0.876/pc Disposable inserts are recommended.59 + 1.2) = 1. Ct = $30/15 + 5($20/60) = $3. (b) Tmax = (1/0.20 except that in part (a).67/6 = $2. Ct = $6/4 = $1.25 = 173.0/(3 x 1.25/1. (c) cycle time and cost per unit of production. Cc = 0.01 = 18.1)(3.40 x 1.25 min.4 x 3 + 3.0)].0/((1/0.50/2 = $2. (c) Tm = π (62.0/8 = 3.67/edge vmin = 300[0.0 m/min. 24.25 = 122.180/pc Disposable inserts are recommended. The feed = 0.40/(3 x 4.08 min/pc np = 3.72 min/pc.25 . 24. Which tool would you recommend? Solution: Disposable inserts: (a) Co = $24/hr = $0.42 min/pc np = 9.5)/0. Ct = $6/4 = $1.

000[.15/pc 170 .116 + 1.0 hr.00))].25(10-3)289) = 0.83/.25 = 289 m/min. vmin = 70[0.706 + 1.125 .50 x 1 + 1.4) = 4.0)/.125 .25 = 500[.6 pc/tool life Use np = 11 pc/tool life Tc = 2.50/(7 x 4. Both carbide and ceramic tools are in insert form and can be held in the same mechanical toolholder.125 and C = 70.50/. and for the ceramic: n = 0.44/0.1)(.0 min for both tools.6 and C = 3.0(60) + 100(7.50 x 1.08 min/pc. (b) tool lives. compare: (a) cutting speeds for minimum cost. Co = $30/hr = $0. (c) Tm = π (56)(290(10-6))/(0.8 hr = 7.706)/399 = 0.25 pc/hr.0 mm. Tool change time = 1.25(10-3)1756) = 0.50/edge. Time to change parts = 2. Co = $30/hr = $0.50 = 0. Tool change time = 3 min. (b) Tmin = (1/.0 + 0.50/((1/.50/min.1)(0. vmin = 500[. and depth = 3.0(60) + 100(2.7% Ceramic tooling: (a) Ct = $8/6 = $1.81 + 3.00/12 = $1.1)(0.50/((1/.50(2.50))]. vmin = 3.25 and C = 500.0 min.Taylor equation parameters are: n = 0. (d) Cc = 0.50) = 2.81min/pc np = 56/4.81 = 11. (f) What is the proportion of time spent actually cutting metal for each tooling? Solution: HSS tooling: (a) Ct = $15/15 + 1.44 min.116 min/pc np = 2. (d) Cc = 0.177 = 17.50/min.08) + 2.65 hr.0/12 = 2. Number of cutting edges per insert in both cases = 6.33))].0/11 = 7.00. Co = $30/hr = $0.25(10-3)42.50/min.581 = 58.0 + 0.79) + 1. The Taylor equation parameters for the cemented carbide are: n = 0.33)/.125 = 42.6 = 3. (f) Proportion of time spent cutting = 100(4.81)/828 = 0.50 x 3 + 2.16) + 1.0 + 1.50)/.50 x 3.00 and it is estimated that it can be ground and reground 15 times at a cost of $1.00/edge.50/(3 x 1.667(1.50/((1/. The part dimensions are: diameter = 56. (c) cycle time.08) = 828 min = 13.83)].16 min/pc.7 pc/tool life Use np = 12 pc/tool life Tc = 2.48/pc (e) Time to complete batch = 2.0 + 1.706min/pc np = 9/0.50) = 56 min.667 x 1.79) = 399 min = 6.50 = $2.50 = 3(1. (d) cost per production unit.0 mm and length = 290 mm.25 .000[.116 = 21 pc/tool life Tc = 2.00 and for the ceramic = $8.0 + 4. (e) total time to complete the batch and production rate.74 pc/hr. (c) Tm = π (56)(290(10-6))/(0.50 = 7(4. Production rate Rp = 100 pc/6. (c) Tm = π (56)(290(10-6))/(0. (f) Proportion of time spent cutting = 100(0. (b) Tmin = (1/.25 .50/11 = $3.50)].50(2. (d) Cc = 0. The cost per insert for the carbide = $6.1)(.0/.50(7.33/edge.783 hr = 14.1% Cemented carbide tooling: (a) Ct = $6/6 = $1.8 hr.50.6 .33/21 = $1.6 .79 min/pc. Feed = 0.1)(.6 = 1756 m/min.25 mm/rev.125 = 70[0. The price of the HSS tool is $15.1)(0.50 x 1 + 1.4 m/min. For the three tooling cases.50/(. Production rate Rp = 100 pc/13.77/pc (e) Time to complete batch = 2.0/21 = 2.000.0)]. The cost of machine time = $30/hr.50) = 9 min.706 = 12.50 x 1.0 + 2. (b) Tmin = (1/0. Setup time for the batch is 2.

518 = 51.1)(1.6 = 3. (f) Proportion of time spent cutting = 100(0.035 = 3.537 = 5.000/[.33/edge.00/5 = $1.22 except that in parts (a) and (b). Production rate Rp = 100 pc/6. The very small cutting time Tm and resulting low proportion of time spent cutting for ceramic tooling focuses attention on the nonproductive work elements in the batch time.14 min/pc.6 pc/tool life Use np = 5 pc/tool life Tc = 2.50/4 = $4. and puts pressure on management to seek ways to reduce these nonproductive elements. (f) Proportion of time spent cutting = 100(4.667(1) = . (b) Tmax = (1/0.25(10-3)380) = 0.00/edge.125 = 70/[7 x 3)]. and production rate compared to HSS tooling and even carbide tooling.50/min. (d) Cc = 0.667 min.0(60) + 100(2.667 x 1.57 hr.537)/394 = 0.0/4 = 7.00) + 2.13/pc (e) Time to complete batch = 2.0)].(e) Time to complete batch = 2.57/pc (e) Time to complete batch = 2.1)(3.67 hr.000/[(1/.125 . (d) Cc = 0.537 + 1.6 hr = 17.74 min/pc.8% Cemented carbide tooling: (a) Ct = $6/6 = $1. (f) Proportion of time spent cutting = 100(0.0)].0) = 3. vmax = 70/[(1/.0 min.67 hr = 7.74) = 394 min = 6.25 .9 pc/tool life Use np = 4 pc/tool life Tc = 2.60 hr.5% Comment: One might conclude that such a low proportion of time spent cutting would argue against the use of the calculated cutting speed for ceramic tooling. note that ceramic tooling provides a significant advantage in terms of unit cost.86 pc/hr. (c) Tm = π (56)(290(10-6))/(0.6% Ceramic tooling: (a) Ct = $8/6 = $1. (b) Tmax = (1/0. Production rate Rp = 100 pc/5.16) = 336 min = 5.25(10-3)484) = 4.0(60) + 100(2.537 min/pc np = 3/0. Co = $30/hr = $0.00) = 820 min = 13.50(7. setup time and workpart handling time. 171 .6 . Production rate Rp = 100 pc/13.25 .50/edge.1)(1) = 0.50(2.0(60) + 100(7. (c) Tm = π (56)(290(10-6))/(0.116)/336 = 0. Solution: HSS tooling: (a) Ct = $15/15 + 1. vmax = 3.6 .25)/820 = 0.0 + 0.32 pc/hr.6 = 3825 m/min.74) + 1.25 = 380 m/min.50/min. 24. determine the cutting speeds and tool lives for maximum production rate.50 = $2. vmax = 500/[(1/.57 hr = 15.1)(3) = 7(3) = 21 min.053 = 12 pc/tool life Tc = 2.25(10-3)3825) = 0. (c) Tm = (c) Tm = π (56)(290(10-6))/(0.0)].053 min/pc np = 0.50/min.0)]. (b) Tmax = (1/0. specifically.00 min/pc.667/0.125 = 48 m/min. Co = $30/hr = $0.1)(1.23 Solve previous Problem 24.0/12 = 2.25min/pc np = 21/4. However.0 + 0.136 = 13.125 .0/5 = 2. Co = $30/hr = $0.25 + 3.25 = 500/[(3 x 1.053 + 1.0] .0) = 3(1.23 pc/hr. batch time.25 = 4.0 + 4.1)(1.

The very small cutting time Tm and resulting low proportion of time spent cutting for ceramic tooling focuses attention on the nonproductive work elements in the batch time.00/hr. However.73 = 29. The starting diameter of the work is 3.23 and C = 850 (ft/min).23 = 850/[(3.007 in/rev and the depth of cut for each pass = 0.015) = 13. setup time and workpart handling time. The feed rate = 0. In addition. Tm = π (28)(14)/(200 x 12 x 0.7 min/pc np = 10/13. vmax = 850/[(1/.100 in.01 pc/hr This is a 56% increase in production rate relative to the 200 ft/min cutting speed. Is that possible? Assume that feed must remain unchanged in order to achieve the required surface finish. Determine: (a) the cutting speed for minimum cost per piece.6% Comment: One might conclude that such a low proportion of time spent cutting would argue against the use of the calculated cutting speed for ceramic tooling.50 per cutting edge.23 . Management has decreed that the production rate must be increased by 25%.0 min.4 min. batch time.57 hr. Tmax = (1/.NC lathe turns second pass (time depends on cutting speed).8 min. The parameters of the Taylor equation for the cutting tool in the operation are: n = 0.0)].8 = 2. This tool change time takes 1.50(2. 5 . The work cycle consists of the following steps (with element times given in parentheses where applicable): 1 .25 A NC lathe cuts two passes across a cylindrical workpiece under automatic cycle.0) = 10.015) = 34. (f) Proportion of time spent cutting = 100(0.348 x 3.1)(3. The applicable Taylor tool life equation has parameters: n = 0. 24.14) = 334 min = 5.015 in/rev.2 + 3/15 = 46.23 .73 pc/tool life Tc = 12 + 13. specifically.2 = 15 pc/tool life Tc = 12 + 34.053)/334 = 0.0 min.00/cutting edge. note that ceramic tooling provides a significant advantage in terms of unit cost. 2 .14) + 1. The operator loads and unloads the machine.0 in and the length of the bore = 14. and 6 .00 min. 3 . Tool change time = 3.23 = 500 ft/min.NC lathe positions tool for first pass (0.4 min). Rc = 60/29.(d) Cc = 0. (b) the average time required to complete one production cycle.016 = 1.NC lathe repositions tool for second pass (0. and the cost of machine time on this boring mill = $42. Tm = π (28)(14)/(500 x 12 x 0.1)(3.348(3. The diameter = 28. and puts pressure on management to seek ways to reduce these nonproductive elements.125 in.293 pc/hr Find vmax to compare with current operating speed.26 and C = 900 (ft/min).33/12 = $1.0 in. 24. 4 . starts cycle (1.2 min/pc np = 540/34. The cost of the operator and machine = $39/hr and the tool cost = $2.10 min).Operator loads part into machine.NC lathe turns first pass (time depends on cutting speed). What is the current production rate and the maximum possible production rate for this job? Solution: At the current operating speed v = 200 ft/min: T = (850/200) 1/.7 + 3/. and depth = 0.57 hr = 17.00 in and its length = 10 in.7 = 0. (c) cost of the production 172 . feed = 0. Current cutting conditions are: speed = 200 ft/min. the cutting tool must be periodically changed. Production rate Rp = 100 pc/5. and production rate compared to HSS tooling and even carbide tooling.Operator unloads part and places in tote pan (1.0) = 3.0(60) + 100(2.18/pc (e) Time to complete batch = 2. Rc = 60/46. The time required to load and unload the parts = 12.00 min).0 min.24 A vertical boring mill is used to bore the inside diameter of a large batch of tube-shaped parts.4 = 1.00 min).0)].23 = 540 min. and tooling cost = $3.96 pc/hr.

65/(2. cost/in 3 = 0. Tt = 2.6667) + (0.50(. The ideal roughness is given by Eq. (1) At 140.4.1)(.6667 min. with cost and time parameters as follows: Ct = $2.1) and an adjustment will have to be made using Figure 24.846 x 2.75 per cutting edge (each insert costs $7. (c) Cc = . the Taylor tool life equation parameters are n = 0.6667 = 164.6 x 12 x 0.65(2.0/2.65 = 2.00 per cutting edge.cycle.0 in3/MRR = 1. Ignoring work handling time.5 + 2.846(2. For T = 110 min.45 = $5. With a cutting fluid.5927 min.15 hr.0/(125 x 12 x 0. The n value is the same with or without fluid at n = 0.65/.125.63 min/pc. the Taylor tool life equation parameters are n = 0.00 and there are four edges per insert).26 . Use 1.6/2. the effect of a cutting fluid is to increase the value of C in the Taylor tool life equation. the C value is increased from C = 200 to C = 225 due to the use of the cutting fluid. (2) At 125 ft/min.9 = $0.36 = 4. vmin = 900[.50 x 2.341/in3. Tm = 1.5 + 2.50 x 2. The effect of the cutting fluid can be to either increase cutting speed (at the same tool life) or increase tool life (at the same cutting speed).100) = 0. volume cut per tool life = 110/0.65/min. Cutting speed used in the operation is v = 125 ft/min. Solution: Cutting dry.0)/.50/min.5 min.125 and C = 225. Ignoring work handling time.0 = 110 min (c) Which is better.2 to convert the 63 µ-in actual roughness to an ideal roughness. tool change time = 2.36 + 1.6) 8 = 43 min.45 = 7.65/((1/. (24.27 In a turning operation on ductile steel.9 passes/tool life Since there are two passes/workpiece. At v = 125 ft/min. or (2) cutting at 125 ft/min to give a 110 min tool life.65) = 11.00))]. np = 11.010 x 0.0 + 2.100) = 0.65 x 1 + 2.. Disposable inserts are used at a cost of $1. using cost per cubic in of metal machined as the criterion of comparison.5927 = 72.65 x 1. and Co = $30/hr = $0. 24.6 min.26 .26 As indicated in Section 24.0/(140.0 in 3 of metal cut as the basis of comparison. (a) What is the cutting speed that would result from using the cutting fluid if tool life remains the same as with no fluid? (b) What is the tool life that would result if the cutting speed remained at 125 ft/min. Time to index each 173 .0 in3/MRR = 1. cost/in 3 = 0.9 in 3 between tool changes. np = 2.6 ft/min to give a 43 min tool life.36 min/pc.63) = 2469 min = 41.5 + 2 x 2. The corresponding cutting speed for a 43 min tool life v = 225/430. Ignore effects of workpart handling time.45 pc/tool life Tc = 2.125 and C = 200.125 = 140. Feed = 0.00)/72.00)/2. how long will it take to complete the batch? Solution: (a) Co = $39/hr = $0.26 = 476 ft/min. (c) Economically.125 = (1. (b) Tmin = (1/. For T = 43 min. given that tooling cost = $2.100 in. Tm = 1.010 x 0. and operator and machine rate = $30/hr.5 min.5 + 2 x 2. Assume both passes have equal Tm. Conclusion: it is better to take the benefit of a cutting fluid in the form of increased cutting speed.1)(.353/in3.26 = 900[.6 ft/min.0(60) + 300(7. (d) If the setup time for this job is 3. 24. (1) cutting at a speed of 140. In a certain machining situation using HSS tooling.77/pc (d) Time to complete batch = 3. volume cut per tool life = 43/0.6 ft/min (b) Cutting at v = 125 ft/min with a cutting fluid gives a tool life T = (225/125) 8.50(.0 hours and the batch size = 300 parts.5 = $0.65 x 1 + 2.007) = 2.010 in/rev and depth = 0.00)/164. Tm = π (3)(10)/(476 x 12 x 0. Justify you answer with calculations. which effect is better.36) + (0.00/cutting edge. taking into account the material and cutting speed. tool life T = (200/125) 1/.65)].5927) + (0.5 in 3 between tool changes. it is desired to obtain an actual surface roughness of 63 µ-in with a 2/64 in nose radius tool.

15).2 = 63/1./rev for turning) C = vT0.75)}0.00 per hour including applicable overheads.5(10-6) in. Thus. Thus.14) results in Eq.4(10-6) in.0 in and its diameter = 3. (24. f2 = 32NR(Ri) = 32(2/64)(53.18 = 53.5 min.55 = 40.00731 = 609. Ri = Ra/1.65 x 0.23 f 0.23 = 337. Ct = $1. = 53. f2 = 32NR(Ri) = 32(2/64)(63 x 10-6) in.65 x 0.00731 in. Solution: Starting with Eq.14): Tc = Th + π DL/fv + (CoTt + Ct)(π DLv1/n-1)/fC1/n Tc = Th + (π DL/f)v-1 + (CoTt + Ct)(π DL/fC1/n)v1/n-1 dTc/dv = 0 .5 x 10-6) in.5 = 0.5(10-6) in.18.00794 = 582.(π DL/f)v-2 + (1/n – 1)(Ttπ DL/fC1/n)v1/n-2 = 0 (π DL/f)v-2 = (1/n – 1)(Ttπ DL/fC1/n)v1/n-2 = 0 (π DL/f) = (1/n – 1)(Tt π DL/fC1/n)v1/n 1 = (1/n – 1)(Tt /C1/n)v1/n v1/n = C1/n/[(1/n-1)Tt] vmax = C/[(1/n-1)Tt]n 24.2 f = (52.5{0.29 Q.75/f0.2 rai = 1. and f = feed. (24.23 = 609.23 = 353.75/0.75/0.2 = 52.2 f = (53.E. Solution: Cost and time parameters: Co = $39/hr = $0.5 = 0. (interpreted as in.2 = 52. The workpiece length = 30. where T = tool life.23))(0. Solve for (a) the feed in in/rev that will achieve the desired actual finish.23))(0.65/(0. Tt = (3(25)+45)/4 = 30 sec = 0.23 = 40.65/(0.4 x 10-6)0.0073 in/rev.(π DL/f)v-2 + (1/n – 1)(CoTt + Ct)(π DL/fC1/n)v1/n-2 = 0 (π DL/f)v-2 = (1/n – 1)(CoTt + Ct)(π DL/fC1/n)v1/n-2 = 0 (π DL/f) = (1/n – 1)(CoTt + Ct)π DL/fC1/n)v1/n 1 = (1/n – 1)((CoTt + Ct)/C1/n)v1/n v1/n = C1/n/[(1/n-1)(CoTt + Ct)] 174 .09357}0.1). = 63 x 10-6 in. (b) cutting speed for minimum cost per piece at the feed determined in (a).5 + 1. f2 = 32NR(Ri) = 32(2/64)(52. Hint: to solve (a) and (b) requires and iterative computational procedure. = 52.4 x 10-6) in.8): Tc = Th + π DL/fv + Tt(π DLv1/n-1)/fC1/n Tc = Th + (π DL/f)v-1 + (Ttπ DL/fC1/n)v1/n-1 dTc/dv = 0 .23/(1-0. min.23 = 355.23/(1-0.2 = 53.28 Verify that the derivative of Eq.23 = 40.55 = 40.8 ft/min.4(10-6) in. C = vT0.5{(0.4 µ-in.75)}0.6{0. Ri = Ra/1. C = vT0.insert = 25 sec and to replace an insert every fourth index takes 45 sec.65 x 0.75/f0.65/min. Iteration 1: assume Ri = Ra = 63 µ-in.23 = 612.2 rai = 1.5 vmin = 612.00725 = 612.5 x 10-6)0. ft/min.D Verify that the derivative of Eq.5 vmin = 582.65/(0.23 = 582.5 + 1.75/0.09357}0.2. The machine and operator’s rate = $39. in/rev.5 + 1.2 = 63/1.00725 in.75.6{(0. (24.5 ft/min Select v = 353.5 = 0.5{0. v = cutting speed.00794 in.23))(0.2 ft/min Iteration 3: At v = 355. the ratio from Figure 24. (24.75/cutting edge.6 vmin = 609. 24. Rearranging Eq.09357}0.8) results in Eq.9). (24.55 = 40. (24. (24.5 µ-in.23 = 40.5{(0.23/(1-0. The Taylor tool life equation for this tool and work combination is given by: vT0.55 = 40. Solution: Starting with Eq.8 ft/min Iteration 2: At v = 337.75)}0.2 ft/min.5 in.5 ft/min and f = 0. the ratio from Figure 24.75/f0.2 f = (63 x 10-6)0.2 = 63(10-6) in.

vmax = C/[(1/n-1)(CoTt + Ct)]n Q.D 175 .E.

Important reasons include: (1) applications on all types of materials.6 What is wheel grade? Answer.clay and ceramics. 25. and (6) metallic.7 Why are specific energy values so much higher in grinding than in traditional metal cutting processes? Answer.9 What are the three mechanisms of grinding wheel wear? Answer.2 GRINDING AND OTHER ABRASIVE PROCESSES Why are abrasive processes technologically and commercially important? Answer. 25. 25. which refers to the relative spacing of grains. and (4) diamond. and a dense structure indicates that the grains are close together. (2) silicate. in which the grains are pulled out of the bonding material. The principal abrasive grit materials include: (1) aluminum oxide. The bonding materials in grinding wheels are: (1) vitrified bond . (2) silicon carbide.smaller chip size means higher specific energy. The parameters are: (1) abrasive material. (2) extremely negative rake angles on the abrasive particles in a grinding wheel. (3) bonding material. some are plowing or deforming while others are simply rubbing and creating friction. (4) resinoid. Reasons for higher specific energy in grinding: (1) size effect . A soft grade indicates that the grains are released easily from the bonding material.1 25. (5) shellac. A hard wheel is one which retains the abrasive grains. 25. High temperatures in grinding create surface burns and cracks. and (3) bond fracture. How is temperature harmful in grinding? Answer. 25.3 What are some of the principal abrasive materials used in grinding wheels? Answer. which refers to the bond strength of the wheel in retaining abrasive grains. High temperatures can also soften the surfaces of workparts that have been heat treated to obtain high hardness. It indicates the bond strength of the bonding material used to shape the wheel. (2) very fine finishes. (2) grit size. Answer.8 Grinding creates high temperatures.25 25. (3) rubber. An open structure is one in which the grains are far apart. (4) wheel structure. Wheel grade refers to the wheel's ability to retain abrasive grains during cutting. The mechanisms are: (1) grain fracture. in which the grains become dull during cutting. (3) cubic boron nitride. and (3) not all of the grains in the wheel surface are engaged in cutting. Review Questions 25. and (3) close tolerances. What are the five principal parameters of a grinding wheel? Answer. Wheel structure indicates the relative spacing of the abrasive grains in the wheel.5 What is wheel structure? Answer. 176 . and (5) wheel grade. (2) attritious wear.4 Name some of the principal bonding materials used in grinding wheels. in which a portion of the grain breaks off during cutting. 25.

and the feed rates are lower by the same proportion. High finish abrasive processes include: honing. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 17 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). 25. 25.17 Name some of the abrasive operations available to achieve very good surface finishes. and polishing.11 What is truing . buffing. rods) are fed between two rotating wheels: (1) a high speed grinding wheel and (2) a low speed regulating wheel which is tilted at a slight angle to control the feed-through rate. (c) shaping. or (d) turning. (b) 25. 25. in reference to grinding wheels? Answer. the depth of cut is very high . (3) wash away chips. lapping. and to remove chips of work material that have become clogged in the wheel. 25.25. in reference to grinding wheels? Answer. 25. Instead of a grinding wheel. Answer. which has the highest hardness? (a) aluminum oxide.12 25. It uses a diamond-pointed tool fed slowly and precisely across the wheel while it rotates.13 What abrasive material would one select for grinding a cemented carbide cutting tool? Answer. (b) cubic boron nitride.14 What is centerless grinding ? Answer.. superfinishing. In creep feed grinding. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point.several thousand times higher than conventional grinding . For each question. (b) milling. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. Truing is similar to dressing. 25. To attain a perfect score on the quiz.16 How does abrasive belt grinding differ from a conventional surface grinding operation? Answer.15 How does creep feed grinding differ from conventional grinding? Answer. It uses a rotating disk or abrasive stick held against the wheel while it rotates. or (c) silicon carbide. and (4) reduce workpiece temperature.10 What is dressing . 25. Parts are pressed against the belt to accomplish grinding.1 Which of the following conventional machining processes is closest to grinding (one answer)? (a) drilling. all correct answers must be given. 177 . Answer. Dressing is a procedure applied to worn grinding wheels to break off dull grits and expose fresh grits. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. Choose a diamond wheel.g.2 Of the following abrasive materials. What are the functions of a grinding fluid? Answer. (2) remove heat. Centerless grinding is a grinding operation in which cylindrical workparts (e. but it also restores the ideal cylindrical shape to the wheel. Functions of a grinding fluid are: (1) reduce friction. abrasive belt grinding uses abrasive particles bonded to a flexible cloth belt loop which is moved through a pulley system to obtain the speed motion.

Answer. (b) 25.3 Smaller grain size in a grinding wheel tends to do which one of the following? (a) improve surface finish, (b) have no effect on surface finish, or (c) degrade surface finish. Answer. (a) 25.4 Which of the following would tend to give higher material removal rates? (a) larger grain size, or (b) smaller grain size. Answer. (a) 25.5 Which of the following will improve surface finish in grinding (more than one)? (a) higher wheel speed, (b) larger infeed, (c) lower wheel speed, (d) lower work speed. Answer. (a) and (d). 25.6 Which of the following abrasive materials is most appropriate for grinding steel and cast iron (one best answer)? (a) aluminum oxide, (b) cubic boron nitride, (c) diamond, or (d) silicon carbide. Answer. (a) 25.7 Which of the following abrasive materials is most appropriate for grinding hardened tool steel (one best answer)? (a) aluminum oxide, (b) cubic boron nitride, (c) diamond, or (d) silicon carbide. Answer. (b) 25.8 Which of the following abrasive materials is most appropriate for grinding nonferrous metals (one best answer)? (a) aluminum oxide, (b) cubic boron nitride, (c) diamond, or (d) silicon carbide. Answer. (d) 25.9 Which of the following will help to reduce the incidence of heat damage to the work surface in grinding (more than one)? (a) frequent dressing or truing of the wheel, (b) higher infeeds, (c) higher work speeds, or (d) lower wheel speeds. Answer. (a), (c), and (d). 25.10 Which of the following abrasive processes achieves the best surface finish (one best answer)? (a) centerless grinding, (b) honing, (c) lapping, or (d) superfinishing. Answer. (d) 25.11 Which of the following abrasive processes could be used to finish a hole or internal bore (more than one)? (a) centerless grinding, (b) honing, (c) cylindrical grinding, (d) lapping, or (e) superfinishing. Answer. (a), (b), and (c). 25.12 The term deep grinding refers to which of the following (one best answer)? (a) alternative name for any creep feed grinding operation, (b) external cylindrical creep feed grinding, (c) grinding operation performed at the bottom of a hole, (d) surface grinding which uses a large crossfeed, or (e) surface grinding which uses a large infeed. Answer. (b)

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Problems

25.1 In a surface grinding operation the wheel diameter = 150 mm and the infeed = 0.07 mm. The wheel speed = 1450 m/min, work speed = 0.25 m/s, and the cross-feed = 5 mm. The number of active grits per area of wheel surface C = 0.75 grits/mm2. Determine: (a) average length per chip, (b) metal removal rate, and (c) number of chips formed per unit time for the portion of the operation when the wheel is engaged in the work. Solution: (a) lc = (150 x 0.07) 0.5 = 3.24 mm (b) MRR = vwwd = (0.25 m/s)(103 mm/m)(5.0 mm)(0.07 mm) = 87.5 mm3/s = 5250 mm3/min (c) nc = vwC = (1450 m/min)( 103 mm/m)(5.0 mm)(0.75 grits/mm2) = 5,437,500 chips/min. 25.2 The following conditions and settings are used in a certain surface grinding operation: wheel diameter = 6.0 in, infeed = 0.003 in, wheel speed = 4750 ft/min, work speed = 50 ft/min, and cross-feed = 0.20 in. The number of active grits per square inch of wheel surface C = 500. Determine: (a) the average length per chip, (b) the metal removal rate, and (c) the number of chips formed per unit time for the portion of the operation when the wheel is engaged in the work. Solution: (a) lc = (Dd) 0.5 = (6.0 x 0.003) 0.5 = (0.018) 0.5 = 0.1342 in. (b) MRR = vwwd = (50 x 12)(0.20)(0.003) = 0.36 in3/min. (c) nc = vwC = (4750 x 12)(0.2)(500) = 5,700,000 chips/min. 25.3 An internal cylindrical grinding operation is used to finish an internal bore from an initial diameter of 250.00 mm to a final diameter of 252.5 mm. The bore is 125 mm long. A grinding wheel with an initial diameter of 150.00 mm and a width of 20.00 mm is used. After the operation, the diameter of the grinding wheel has been reduced to 149.75 mm. Determine the grinding ratio in this operation. Solution: GR = (volume of work material removed)/(volume of wheel removed) Volume of work material removed = (π /4)(125)(252.52 – 250.02) = 123,332 mm2 Volume of wheel removed = (π /4)(20)(1502 – 149.752) = 1177 mm2 GR = 123,332/1177 = 104.8 25.4 In a surface grinding operation performed on hardened plain carbon steel, the grinding wheel has a diameter = 200 mm and width = 25 mm. The wheel rotates at 2400 rev/min, with a depth of cut (infeed) = 0.05 mm/pass and a cross-feed = 3.50 mm. The reciprocating speed of the work is 6 m/min, and the operation is performed dry. Determine: (a) the length of contact between the wheel and the work, (b) the volume rate of metal removed. (c) If C = 0.64 active grits/mm2, estimate the number of chips formed per unit time. (d) What is the average volume per chip? (e) If the tangential cutting force on the work = 30 N, compute the specific energy in this operation? Solution: (a) lc = (200 x 0.05) 0.5 = 3.16 mm (b) MRR = vwwd = (6 m/min)(103 mm/m)(3.5 mm)(0.05 mm) = 1050 mm3/min (c) nc = vwC v = Nπ D = (2400 rev/min)(200π mm/rev) = 1,507,964 mm/min nc = (1,507,964 mm/min)(3.5 mm)(0.64 grits/mm2) = 3,377,840 grits/min (= chips/min). (d) 3,377,840 grits/min. = 3,377,840 chips/min. Average volume per chip = (1050 mm3/min)/( 3,377,840 chips/min) = 0.00031 mm3/chip (e) U = Fcv/MRR

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v = 1,507,964 mm/min = 1,508 m/min U = 30(1508)/1050 = 43.1 N-m/mm3 25.5 An 8-in diameter grinding wheel, 1.0 in wide, is used in a certain surface grinding job performed on a flat piece of heat-treated 4340 steel. The wheel is rotating to achieve a surface speed of 5000 ft/min, with a depth of cut (infeed) = 0.002 in per pass and a cross-feed = 0.15 in. The reciprocating speed of the work is 20 ft/min, and the operation is performed dry. (a) What is the length of contact between the wheel and the work? (b) What is the volume rate of metal removed? (c) If C = 300 active grits/in 2, estimate the number of chips formed per unit time. (d) What is the average volume per chip? (e) If the tangential cutting force on the workpiece = 10 lbs, what is the specific energy calculated for this job? Solution: (a) lc = (Dd) 0.5 = (8 x 0.002) 0.5 = (0.016) 0.5 = 0.1265 in. (b) MRR = vwwd = (20 x 12)(0.15)(0.002) = 0.072 in3/min (c) nc = vwC = (5000 x 12)(0.15)(300) = 2,700,000 chips/min. (d) Avg volume/chip = (0.072 in 3/min)/(2,700,000 chips/min) = 0.000000026 in 3 = 26 x 10 -9 in3. (e) U = Fcv/MRR = 10(5000 x 12)/0.072 = 8,333,333 in-lb/in3 = 21 hp/(in3/min). 25.6 A surface grinding operation is being performed on a 6150 steel workpart (annealed, approximately 200 BHN). The designation on the grinding wheel is 51-C-24-D-5-V-23. The wheel diameter = 7.0 in and its width = 1.00 in. Rotational speed = 3000 rev/min. The depth (infeed) = 0.002 in per pass, and the cross-feed = 0.5 in. Workpiece speed = 20 ft/min. This operation has been a source of trouble right from the beginning. The surface finish is not as good as the 16 µ-in specified on the part print, and there are signs of metallurgical damage on the surface. In addition, the wheel seems to become clogged almost as soon as the operation begins. In short, nearly everything that can go wrong with the job has gone wrong. (a) Determine the rate of metal removal when the wheel is engaged in the work. (b) If the number of active grits per square inch = 200, determine the average chip length and the number of chips formed per time. (c) What changes would you recommend in the grinding wheel to help solve the problems encountered? Explain why you made each recommendation. Solution: (a) MRR = vwwd = (20 x 12)(0.5)(0.002) = 0.24 in3/min. (b) lc = (Dd) 0.5 = (7.0 x .002) 0.5 = 0.1183 in. v = π DN = π (7.0/12)(3000) = 5498 ft/min = 65,973 in/min nc = vwC = 65,973(0.5)(200) = 6,597,300 grits/min (c) Changes in wheel to help solve problems cited: (1) use Al2O3 oxide abrasive rather than silicon carbide; (2) use smaller grain size that 24; (3) use shellac bond rather than vitifried bond; (4) use more open structure than number 5 to reduce wheel clogging. 25.7 The grinding wheel in a centerless grinding operation has a diameter = 200 mm, and the regulating wheel diameter = 125 mm. The grinding wheel rotates at 3000 rev/min and the regulating wheel rotates at 200 rev/min. The inclination angle of the regulating wheel = 2.5°. Determine the throughfeed rate of cylindrical workparts that are 25.0 mm in diameter and 175 mm long. Solution: From Eq. (25.11), fr = π DrNr sin I fr = π (125)(200) sin 2.5° = 25,000π (0.04362) = 3426 mm/min Parts throughfeed rate = (3426 mm/min)/(175 mm/pc) = 19.58 pc/min

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25.8

A centerless grinding operation uses a regulating wheel that is 150 mm in diameter and rotates at 500 rev/min. At what inclination angle should the regulating wheel be set, if it is desired to feed a workpiece with length = 3.5 m and diameter = 18 mm through the operation in exactly 45 sec. Solution: From Eq. (25.11), fr = π DrNr sin I fr = 3.5 m per 45 sec = 0.077778 m/s = 4.1667 m/min fr = π (150 x 10-3)(500 rev/min) sin I = 235.62 sin I (units are m/min) 4.1667 m/min = 235.62 sin I m/min sin I = 4.1667/235.62 = 0.0198 I = 1.135°

25.9

In a certain centerless grinding operation, the grinding wheel diameter = 8.5 in, and the regulating wheel diameter = 5.0 in. The grinding wheel rotates at 3500 rev/min and the regulating wheel rotates at 150 rev/min. The inclination angle of the regulating wheel = 3 degrees. Determine the throughfeed rate of cylindrical workparts that have the following dimensions: diameter = 1.25 in and length = 8.0 in. Solution: From Eq. (25.11), fr = π DrNr sin I = π (5.0)(150) sin 3° = 123.33 in/min. Parts feed at (8.0 in/part)/(123.33 in/min) = 0.0649 min/part = 3.9 sec/part

25.10

It is desired to compare the cycle times required to grind a particular workpiece using traditional surface grinding and using creep feed grinding. The workpiece is 200 mm long, 30 mm wide, and 75 mm thick. To make a fair comparison, the grinding wheel in both cases is 250 mm in diameter, 35 mm in width, and rotates at 1500 rev/min. It is desired to remove 25 mm of material from the surface. When traditional grinding is used, the infeed is set at 0.025 mm, and the wheel traverses twice (forward and back) across the work surface during each pass before resetting the infeed. There is no cross-feed since the wheel width is greater than the work width. Each pass is made at a work speed of 12 m/min, but the wheel overshoots the part on both sides. With acceleration and deceleration, the wheel is engaged in the work for 50% of the time on each pass. When creep feed grinding is used, the depth is increased by 1000 and the forward feed is decreased by 1000. How long will it take to complete the grinding operation (a) with traditional grinding and (b) with creep feed grinding? Solution: (a) Conventional surface grinding: Time of engagement/pass = 200 x 10-3 m/(12 m/min) = 0.01667 min = 1 s Forward and backward stroke = 2(1 s)/50% = 4 s Number of passes to remove 25 mm = 25/0.025 = 1000 passes Time to complete 1000 passes = 1000(4) = 4000 s = 66.67 min. (b) Creep feed grinding: Total length of feed = 200 mm + approach = 200 + (d(D-d))0.5 Given D = 250 mm and d = 25 mm, Total feed length = 200 + (25(250-25))0.5 = 275 mm fr = (12 x 103 mm/min)/1000 = 12 mm/min Time to feed = 275/12 = 22.917 min. Note : Creep feed grinding requires about 1/3 the time of conventional surface grinding for the situation defined here.

25.11

In a certain grinding operation, the grade of the grinding wheel should be “M” (medium), but the only available wheel is grade “T” (hard). It is desired to make the wheel appear softer by making changes in cutting conditions. What changes would you recommend? Solution: A hard wheel means that the grains are not readily pulled from the wheel bond. The wheel can be made to appear softer by increasing the force on the individual grits as given by Eq.

181

(25.8). According to this equation, the force on the abrasive grains will be increased by increasing work speed vw, decreasing wheel speed v, and increasing infeed d. 25.12 An aluminum alloy is to be ground in an external cylindrical grinding operation to obtain a good surface finish. Specify the appropriate grinding wheel parameters and the grinding conditions for this job. Solution: Grinding wheel specification: Abrasive type: silicon carbide Grain size: small - high grit size number Bond material: shellac bond Wheel structure: dense Wheel grade: medium to hard Wheel specification: XX- S-150-E-5-B -XY Grinding conditions: Wheel speed: high speed, around 1800 m/min (6000 ft/min) Work speed: low, around 10 m/min (30 ft/min) Infeed (depth of cut): low, around 0.012 mm (0.0005 in.) Crossfeed: low, around 1/6 of wheel width. 25.13 A high speed steel broach (hardened) is to be resharpened to achieve a good finish. Specify the appropriate parameters of the grinding wheel for this job. Solution: Grinding wheel specification: Abrasive type: cubic boron nitride Grain size: small - high grit size number Bond material: vitrified bond Wheel grade: soft to medium Wheel specification: XX- B-150-P-XY-V- XZ-1/8, where XX, XY, and XZ are manufacturer’s symbols. 25.14 Based on equations in the text, derive an equation to compute the average volume per chip formed in the grinding process. Solution: From Eq. (25.3), MRR = vwwd (in3/min) From Eq. (25.6), nc = vwC (chips/min) Volume per chip = MRR/nc = vwwd/vwC = v wd/vC

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26. The tool oscillates in a direction perpendicular to the work surface.1 Why are the nontraditional material removal processes important? Answer. Identify the significant disadvantages of electrochemical machining. and abrasive jet cutting? Answer. 183 . MRR increases and surface finish is degraded. but not including conventional machining. based on principal energy form. 26. Answer. and grinding. 26. The three types are: electrochemical machining. so that the shape of the tool is formed in the part.10 Identify two major disadvantages of plasma arc cutting. 26. perform the cutting. 26. WJC cuts with a narrow. Name the four categories. Answer.4 Describe the water jet cutting process. impinging against the work surface. Answer.6 26.9 What is meant by the term overcut in electric discharge machining? Answer. AWJC adds abrasive grits to the water stream. or kerf (in wire EDM). Overcut refers to the difference between the size of the electrode (tool) in EDM and the size of the machined hole. Water jet cutting uses a high-pressure. 26. The abrasives.8 How does increasing discharge current affect metal removal rate and surface finish in electric discharge machining? Answer. In ultrasonic machining. The four categories are: (1) mechanical.3 How does the ultrasonic machining process work? Answer.2 There are four categories of nontraditional machining processes. and (3) need to avoid surface damage which is often associated with conventional machining. (2) electrical. Answer. (2) unusual and complex workpart geometries. 26. 26.7 Name the three main types of electrochemical machining. abrasive water jet cutting. cavity. deburring. As discharge current increases. Disadvantages of ECM include: (1) cost of electrical power to operate the process. (3) thermal. high-velocity stream of water directed at the work surface to cut of the work. Reasons for importance are: (1) need to shape new metal alloys and non-metals that are difficult to machine by conventional processes. and is fed slowly into the work.26 NONTRADITIONAL MACHINING AND THERMAL CUTTING PROCESSES Review Questions 26.5 What is the difference between water jet cutting. and (4) chemical. and (2) cost of disposal of electrolyte sludge. and AJM cuts with abrasive particles that have been added to a high velocity air stream. abrasives contained in a slurry are driven at high velocity against the work by a tool vibrating at low amplitude and high frequency. high velocity water stream.

1 Which of the following processes use mechanical energy as the principal energy source (may be more than one)? (a) grinding. The four steps are: (1) cleaning. When exposed.11 What are some of the fuels used in oxyfuel cutting. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. and (3) photographic resist. (d) 11. (d) ultrasonic machining. propylene. and (2) metallurgical damage to cut surface.000°F). and (e). Answer. 184 .000°C (20. (b) laser beam machining.000°F). Answer.3 Applications of electron beam machining are limited to metallic work materials due to the need for the work to be electrically conductive: (a) true or (b) false. and (4) demasking. (d) 26. (a). Answer.2 Ultrasonic machining can be used to machine both metallic and nonmetallic materials: (a) true or (b) false. (d) removing metal from aircraft wing panels.12 26. What are the three methods of performing the masking step in chemical machining. (c) 8300°C (15. Answer. (b) 5500°C (10. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. (3) etching. Answer. it chemically transforms and can be removed from the surface of the work. all correct answers must be given. (c) and (d). propane.4 Which one of the following is closest to the temperatures used in plasma arc cutting? (a) 2750°C (5000°F). (b) 26. (c) removing material to make shallow pockets in metal. For each question. Answer. 26. Answer. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. Principal fuels are acetylene. leaving the desired surface unprotected by the maskant. 26. and (e) cutting of plastic sheets. A photoresist is a masking material that is sensitive to light. (2) screen resist. (e) 16. (2) masking.5 Chemical milling is used in which of the following (may be more than one)? (a) drilling holes with high depth-to. (a) 26.000°F).13 26.diameter ratio. and (f) wire EDM. (b) making intricate patterns in sheet metal. (d). 26. What is a photoresist in chemical machining? Answer. and natural gas 26. (c). Answer. (c) milling.14 Name the four principal steps in chemical machining. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 18 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). (e) water jet cutting. The three steps are: (1) cut and peel. Two disadvantages are: (1) rough surface on cut edge. MAPP (methylacetylene-propadiene).500°C (30. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point.000°F).Answer.

(d) d/u. Answer. (b) chemical milling. t = time. where A = degree of anisotropy. (d) oxyfuel cutting. The matrix is rectangular.6 Etch factor is which of the following in chemical machining (more than one)? (a) A. (e) oxyfuel cutting. less than 0. in a 3/8. Answer. and its width is 3 mm (1/8 in).0 by 0. which one is noted for the highest material removal rates? (a) electric discharge machining.003 inch diameter through a plate of aluminum that is 1/16-inch thick (one best answer)? (a) abrasive jet machining. (c) C I t. and u = undercut. (c) A through-hole in the shape of the letter L in a 12. (c) EDM. (b) chemical milling. and present arguments to support your selection. (f) ultrasonic machining. (e) oxyfuel cutting. and (g) wire EDM. (b) chemical milling. (d) laser beam machining.11 Problems General 26. (d) A blind-hole in the shape of the letter G in a 50 mm (2. (e) oxyfuel cutting. (c) EDM. (c) Which of the following processes would be appropriate for cutting a narrow slot. Answer.inch thick sheet of fiber-reinforced plastic (more than one)? (a) abrasive jet machining.7 26. (e) and (g). (a) and (d). (f) water jet cutting. (b) An engraved aluminum printing plate to be used in an offset printing press to make 275 by 350 mm (11 by 14 in) posters of Lincoln's Gettysburg address. and (g) wire EDM. Of the following processes.0 in) cube of steel. Answer. d = depth of cut.0625 in).004 in) diameter holes in a plate of 3. C = specific removal rate. (b) 1/A.0 in) with the separation between holes in each direction = 1.9 26.26. 0. (f) water jet cutting. and (g) wire EDM.25 inch on a side and 1-inch deep in a steel workpiece (one best answer)? (a) abrasive jet machining.15 in). Assume that either the part geometry or the work material (or both) preclude the use of conventional machining. identify one or more nontraditional machining processes that might be used. and (e) u/d. (f) water jet cutting.0 by 5. I = current. 75 by 125 mm (3.8 26.6 in) and the width of the hole is 3 mm (1/8 in). Answer. 26.10 26.0 by 0. and (g) wire EDM. (f) water jet cutting. (c) EDM. (c) laser beam machining.125 in) thick hardened tool steel. (d) laser beam machining.5 in) thick plate of glass. (b) chemical milling.2 mm (0.5 mm (0. the depth of the hole is 3. (d) laser beam machining. The overall size of the "G" is 25 by 19 mm (1. (a) A matrix of 0.1 For each of the following applications.6 mm ( 0. The size of the "L" is 25 by 15 mm (1. 185 . (d) and (f). (d) Which of the following processes could be used to cut a large piece of 1/2-inch plate steel into two sections (more than one)? (a) abrasive jet machining.75 in). (e) oxyfuel cutting. (b) electrochemical machining.1 mm (0. (e) plasma arc cutting. (c) EDM. Which of the following processes would be appropriate for cutting a hole of 0. (e) Which of the following processes would be appropriate to drill a hole with a square cross-section. and (g) water jet cutting.8 mm (0. (d) laser beam machining.015 inch wide. Answer.

(a) If the ECM process is 90 percent 186 . (26.2). whose specific removal rate C is indicated in Table 26. The material being cut is pure aluminum.1. and the voltage = 12 volts.42 x 10-2 mm3/A-s)(1800 A) = 6156 x 10-2 mm3/s = 61. Manual methods based on portable saws are currently used to perform the cutting operation. making a negative of the speech and transferring this to either a silk screen or directly to the photoresist would seem to be the most straightforward methods. determine the rate of metal removal in mm3/min.9(3693. the workpart must be an electrically conductive material.6 mm3/min) = 3324. but the plant manager thinks it would be too expensive. 26. What nontraditional process(es) would you recommend to the company for this application? Justify your answer by indicating the characteristics of the process that make it attractive. hole diameter = 0. Electrochemical Machining 26.1.Solution: (a) Application: matrix of holes in 0. separation between holes = 0. Fiber glass is not electrically conductive. but production is slow and scrap rates are high. WJC cuts through fabrics quickly and cleanly. PAC is therefore not an appropriate process for this application.125 inch thick hardened steel.2 Much of the work at the Cut-Anything Company involves cutting and forming of flat sheets of fiber-glass for the pleasure boat industry. (b) Application: engraved aluminum printing press plate for 11 in. which properties make them difficult to cut. This is probably the best process. The applied current = 1500 amps. in block of steel. (d) Application: the letter “G” drilled to a depth of 0. determine the working gap? Solution: (a) From Table 26.42 x 10-2 mm3/A-s From Eq. 26.15 in.1.2 mm3/min (b) Given resistivity r = 140 ohm-mm. Possible processes: ECM and EDM would be useful for pocketing operations such as this. The material being cut is nickel (valence = 2).3 A furniture company that makes upholstered chairs and sofas must cut large quantities of fabrics. (a) If the process is 90% efficient. Many of these fabrics are strong and wear-resistant. Solution: In plasma arc cutting.4 The frontal working area of the electrode is 2000 mm2 in a certain ECM operation in which the applied current = 1800 amps and the voltage = 12 volts.125/0.56 mm3/s = 3693. (26.5 inch thick plate glass.6) MRR = frA = (CI/A)A = CI = (3. Rearranging. Solution: Water jet cutting would be an ideal process for this application. I = EA/gr in Eq. (c) Application: through-hole in the shape of the letter “L” drilled through 0. Possible process: USM works on glass and other brittle non-metallic materials. Possible processes: EBM and LBM can make holes of this size with depth-to-diameter ratios as large as 0.095 mm 26. whose specific removal rate C is given in Table 26. LBM might also work. Possible process: photochemical engraving . and the process could be readily automated.5 in 2. by 14 in posters..004 = 31. the frontal working area of the electrode is 2. The foreman says the company should invest in a plasma arc cutting machine. C = 3.004 in.5 In an electrochemical machining operation. g = EA/Ir g = (12 V)(2000 mm2)/(1800 A)(140 ohm-mm) = 0.6 mm3/min At 90% efficiency MRR = 0. (b) If the resistivity of the electrolyte = 140 ohm-mm.0625 in. What do you think? Justify your answer by indicating the characteristics of the process that make PAC attractive or unattractive in this application.25.

1. fr = 0.9 Same as Problem 26.7 A 3.8.2 ohm-in. (26.000135 I/2. and its shape includes a hole in its center to permit the flow of electrolyte and to reduce the area of the cut. (b) If the work material were tin.8 An electric discharge machining operation is being performed on tungsten.189(0.1 in/min. MRR = KI/Tm1. The block is 2.0000476 I I = 0. (26. Use metric units and express the answer in mm3.553 = 0. MRR = KI/Tm1.S. C = 0. The overcut is expected to be 0.7).553 in 2 From Table 26.23) = 13.6 A square hole is to be cut using ECM through a plate of pure copper (valence = 1) that us 20 mm thick. Tm = 232°C for tin From Eq.3 s 26. but the electrode that is used to cut the hole is slightly less that 25 mm on its sides to allow for overcut. fr = 0.90) = 0.000126(1500) = 0. except the new material to be compared with tungsten is zinc.1 = 0. If the efficiency of the ECM operation is 90%.0/20 = 0. The hole is 25 mm on each side.349 mm/s Time to machine = (20 mm)/(0.5 in diameter through-hole is to be cut in a block of pure iron (Valence = 2) by electrochemical machining. (26.1.3675 mm/s At 95% efficiency.3. (b) I = EA/gr. At 90% efficiency MRR = 0.280/22. This tool design results in a frontal area of 200 mm2.6) fr = CI/A = (7. Use U. Solution: From Table 26. Solution: (a) From Table 4.349 mm/s) = 57. At 90% efficiency fr = 0.0032 in.000126 in 3/A-min.206 in3/hr. g = EA/Ir = 12(2. what current will be required to complete the cutting operation in 20 minutes? Solution: Electrode frontal gap area A = 0.0000476 = 2101 A.23 = 664(20)/(2321.5)/(1500 x 6. Electric Discharge Machining 26. MRR = fr x A = (CI/A)(A) = CI MRR = CI = 0. C = 7.25π (3.02) = 2.280/812 = 16.1.0 inch thickness in 20 minutes requires a feed rate fr = 2.005 in on a side. determine the working gap? Solution: (a) From Table 26.1.7). (b) If the resistivity of the electrolyte = 6.35 x 10-2 mm3/A-s From Eq. Customary units and express the answer in in 3.189 in 3/min at 100% efficiency.95(0.146 = 0.1/0. To cut through a 2.0000529 I in/min at 100% efficiency.355 mm3/s = 58. Rearranging.2) = 0.0000476 I in/min. the electrode tool will have a center hole of 3.23) = 13. 187 .0 in thick. Using an efficiency of 95%.9(0.23 = 664(20)/(34101.1701 in 3/min = 10.000135 in 3/A-min. 26. The outside diameter of the electrode is undersized to allow for overcut. determine the amount of material removed in the same time.35 x 10-2 mm3/A-s)(1000 A)/(200 mm2) = 0. Tm = 3410°C for tungsten From Eq.0 in which will produce a center core that can be removed after the tool breaks through.878 mm3 26.efficient.0000529 I) = 0. fr = CI/A = 0. determine how long it will take to cut the hole. (a) Determine the amount of metal removed in the operation after one hour at a discharge amperage = 20 amps.5997 mm3/s = 2159 mm3 (b) From Table 4. The applied current = 1000 amps. determine the rate of metal removal in in 3/hr.52 .1. C = 0.3675 mm/s) = 0. To speed the cutting process.

155 = 42.23 = 5.0 inch thickness = 2.1.00525 in 2 fr = 0.1.7).553 = 0. 26. 26.083 in/min.08 I/17.155 mm2 fr = 49. MRR = 5.08(7)/12201.23 = 5. Using a discharge current = 20 amps (which would be typical for EDM).3 min = 14.14 A wire EDM operation is used to cut out punch and die components from 25 mm thick tool steel plates.1327 in.001 in.000292 I in 3/min Given that MRR = 0.08 I/28021.7).11 A metal removal rate of 0.23 = 101.75(0.23) = 6640/8065 = 0.93/16. Tm = 1220°F for aluminum.6/45.10 Suppose the hole in Problem 26. However.02 mm.23 (USCS). what is the expected allowable feed rate that can be used in the operation? Solution: From Table 4.005 in.13 A wire EDM operation is to be performed on a slab of 3/4 in thick aluminum using a brass wire electrode whose diameter = 0. (27. 3 26.000292 = 34.4/1.01/0. Tm = 420°F for Zinc From Eq.007 in.005685/0. It is anticipated that the overcut will be 0. Tm = 2802°F for iron.01 in 3/min is achieved in a certain EDM operation on a pure iron workpart.24)/26511.4.7 were to be cut using EDM rather than ECM.6/17.005685 in 3/min Frontal area of kerf = 0. (26.6/1685 = 0.165 mm. in preliminary cuts.57 hr.1.23) = 101.08(34.0107 in3/min 26.0/0. Using a discharge current = 7 amps. MRR = 5.8233 mm3/s Frontal area of kerf = 0.00525 = 1.0603 in.79 mm/min 26.00584/2.007) = 0.00584 in 3/min Cross-sectional area of tool from previous problem A = 2.4.393 = 0. MRR = 5.01 in 3/min.002293 = 874.08(20)/(61701. Tm = 6170°F for tungsten From Eq. Tm = 2802°F for iron. What changes in discharge current and frequency of discharges should be made to improve the finish? 188 .08(20)/28021. so that the kerf width will be 0.925 = 0. What metal removal rate would be achieved on nickel in this EDM operation. 3/s = 3.23) = 101. Using a discharge current = 10 amps.62 in. (26.000292 I = 0.12 In a wire EDM operation performed on 7 mm thick C1080 steel using a tungsten wire electrode whose diameter = 0.08 I/Tm1. Tm = 1500°C for 1080 steel Using Eq.Solution: (a) From Table 4. MRR = 5. how long would it take to cut the hole? Solution: For EDM.002293 in/min.125 mm.0) = 1. MRR = KI/Tm1. Using Eq. Solution: From Figure 6.393 = 0. MRR = 5.1.00221 in. Tm = 2651 F for iron.248 = 0.7).1.165(7. (26. From Table 4.23 = 5. MRR = KI/Tm1. the surface finish on the cut edge is poor. so that the kerf width will be 0.23 = 35.24 A. MRR = 664(10)/(15001.7).23 = 173.01 I = 0. if the same discharge current were used? Solution: From Table 4. using Eq.08(20)/(4201.7). 3 (b) From Table 4.553 in 2 fr = MRR/A = 0. 3/s = 0.1. (26.56/6255 = 0.80% carbon steel from the phase diagram of Figure 6. what is the allowable feed rate that can be used in the operation? Estimate the melting temperature of 0. Past experience suggests that the overcut will be 0. Time to machine the 2. 0. From Table 4.

0 in.86) = 386. (c) Given Fe = 1.8 in Maskant opening b’ = b – u = 6..75 = 6.0) = 54π = 169. 189 . "Perhaps the concentration is incorrect.16965 in 3/min = 10.17 In a certain chemical blanking operation. A = 200 x 400 – (30 x 30 .28 mm Maskant opening width = W – 2u = 200 – 2(6.001 = 400 min. (b) time required to machine to depth.9(a). surface finish in EDM could be improved by reducing discharge current and increasing frequency of discharges. and that the material removal rate (MRR) would therefore increase during the cut as the area increased.14 mm 26. The sheet is 0. (b) Time to machine (etch) = 12/0. it is desired to cut an ellipse-shaped pocket to a depth of 0.4/0." he suggests.807 mm2 MRR = (0. 2 MRR = (0.25 mm thick.4 mm3/min. The penetration rate for this combination is 0. undercut u = d/Fe = 0.Solution: As indicated in Figure 26.33 hr.0 = 0.2 = 8. A solution of hydrochloric and nitric acids will be used as the etchant.2 mm Maskant opening a’ = a – u = 9. and that the material removal rate (MRR) would therefore increase during the cut as the area increased.8 in 26. Solution: (a) Neglecting the fact that the initial area would be less than the given dimensions of 9 in. (c) required dimensions of the opening in the cut and peel maskant to achieve the desired pocket size on the part. The semiaxes of the ellipse are: a = 9. = 8. Solution: (a) Neglecting the fact that the initial area would be less than the given dimensions of 200 mm by 400 mm.0 in and b = 6.15 Chemical milling is used in an aircraft plant to create pockets in wing sections made of an aluminum alloy.86) = 186. (c) required dimensions of the opening in cut and peel maskant required to achieve the desired pocket size on the part.π (15) 2) = 80.024 mm/min and the etch factor is 1.024 = 500 min.025 mm are not being achieved.2 = 5. Solution: The problem in this chemical blanking operation is that the screen resist method of masking cannot achieve the tolerances specified. The corners of each rectangle are radiused to 15 mm.807 mm2) = 1915. Analyze the problem and recommend a solution. The starting thickness of one workpart of interest is 20 mm.67 hr. A series of rectangular-shaped pockets 12 mm deep are to be formed with dimensions 200 mm by 400 mm.65 in 2) = 0.86 = 8. (b) time required to machine to the specified depth.4/2. Determine: (a) metal removal rate in mm3/min. The photoresist method should have been used.0)(6. undercut u = d/Fe = 12/1.0. As it turns out. and the process should be changed over to adopt this method.4 in. = 6. Determine: (a) metal removal rate in in3/hr.0 – 0. a sulfuric acid etchant is used to remove material from a sheet of magnesium alloy.000 – 193 = 79. the process is producing a large proportion of scrap.16 In a chemical milling operation on a flat mild steel plate.75. (c) Given Fe = 2.024 mm/min)(79. Chemical Machining 26.18 in3/hr (b) Time to machine (etch) = 0. The part is an aluminum alloy and the etchant is NaOH.0 – 0.001 in/min)(169.86 mm Maskant opening length = L – 2u = 400 – 2(6.65 in. area of an ellipse A = π ab = π (9. The foreman in the CHM department complains that there must be something wrong with the sulfuric acid. The screen resist method of masking was used to permit high production rates to be achieved.75. by 6 in.28 mm Radius on corners = R – u = 15 – 6. Specified tolerances of ±0.

determine the diameter of the holes that should be used in the pattern. Undercut u = 0.75.75 = 0.015 in.0075/1. the effective hole depth on each side = one-half of the stock thickness = 0. consisting of a matrix of 0. stock thickness of the aluminum sheet is 0. The pattern to be cut out of the sheet is a hole pattern.26. 190 . etching will occur on both sides of the part. Solution: From Table 26. Fe = 1. In chemical blanking. If photochemical machining is used to cut these holes.2.100 in diameter holes.0914 in.18 In a chemical blanking operation.2(0.015/2 = 0.0043 in.100 . and contact printing is used to make the resist (maskant) pattern. Therefore.0075 in.0043) = 0. Diameter of opening = 0.

thereby permitting slower cooling rates for conversion of austenite to martensite. Answer. Carburizing adds carbon to the surface of low-C steel. The purposes of annealing include: (1) control properties. (3) recrystallize cold-worked metals.1 27. 27.3 27. 27. thereby transforming the surface into high-C steel for grater hardening potential. Answer.5 What information is conveyed by the TTT curve? Answer. Identify the important reasons why metals are annealed.8 27. What is the mechanism by which carbon strengthens steel during heat treatment? Answer. molybdenum. 27. The hardenability alloying elements operate by pushing the nose of the TTT curve to the right. Answer.7 Define hardenability ? Answer. 27.2 HEAT TREATMENT OF METALS Why are metals heat treated? Answer. Precipitation hardening is a heat treatment in which very fine particles (precipitates) are formed so that dislocation movement is blocked and the metal is thus strengthened and hardened. The TTT curve indicates what phases in the iron. Martensite formation by heating steel into the austenite region and quenching. Tempering involves heating and soaking of martensite for about one hour. manganese. Review Questions 27. 27.10 Define precipitation hardening ? Answer. Hardenability is the relative capacity of a steel to be hardened by transformation to martensite.12 Identify the selective surface hardening methods.carbon phase diagram will be produced under various conditions of cooling. Indicate how the hardenability alloying elements in steel affect the TTT curve.27 27. and increase toughness and ductility. and nickel. 27.4 What is the most important heat treatment for hardening steels? Answer.6 What function is served by tempering ? Answer. 191 . If the steel is heat treated. Important hardenability elements are: chromium. and (4) relieve stresses from prior metal working. relieve stresses.9 Name some of the elements which have the greatest effect on the hardenability of steel.11 How does carburizing work? Answer. followed by slow cooling to reduce brittleness. Metals are heat treated to effect metallurgical changes that beneficially alter properties. martensite is formed which depends on the presence of carbon to create the nonequilibrium structure of this phase. (2) reduce brittleness and improve toughness. 27.

2 Of the following quenching media. For each question. however. (a). Answer. or (f) relieve stresses. (b) carbonitriding. (c). or (e) vacuum furnaces. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. Answer. (b) fluidized bed furnaces.3 On which one of the following metals can the treatment called austenitizing be performed? (a) aluminum alloys. (b) increase toughness. or (d) pure water.1 Which of the following are the usual objectives of heat treatment (more than one)? (a) increase hardness. or (e) strength. (b) brine. electron beam (EB) heating. (b) 27. induction hardening. (c) austenitizing. (d) 27. or (e) nitriding. (d) normalizing. (d) reduce brittleness. (f) 27.Answer. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. (e) quenching. (c) carburizing. (c) induction heating. (b) brass.8 Which of the following are selective surface hardening methods (more than one)? (a) electron beam heating. the hardening and strengthening of the metal occurs in which one of the following steps (one answer only)? (a) aging. (c) recrystallization of the metal. all correct answers must be given. (e) reduce density. (b) annealing.5 The Jominy end-quench test is designed to indicate which one of the following? (a) cooling rate. (c). each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. and laser beam (LB) heating.4 The treatment in which the brittleness of martensite is reduced is called which one of the following? (a) aging. (d) chromizing. (a). (b). Answer. (b) ductility. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 14 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). Answer. (d). and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. (d) hardness. high-frequency (HF) resistance heating. (b) quenching. (a) 27. (c) oil. (c) 27. (d) laser beam heating. 27. (c) copper alloys. (c) The reader might be tempted to select (d) because the Jominy test indicates hardness. Answer.6 In precipitation hardening. and (f). Answer. Answer. 192 . To attain a perfect score on the quiz. (c) hardenability. Answer. which one produces the most rapid cooling rate? (a) air. or (f) tempering. 27. or (c) solution treatment. or (d) steel. The selective surface hardening methods include: flame hardening. the reason for measuring hardness in the Jominy test is to measure hardenability.7 Which one of the following surface hardening treatments is the most common? (a) boronizing. 27. and (d).

28. Answer. Shot peening is primarily used to improve the fatigue strength of metals by introducing cold working the metallic surface. adding luster. Answer. and (5) ultrasonic cleaning.6 Name some of the important chemical cleaning methods. what is the main function performed by shot peening? Answer. 28. In mass finishing. (2) solid particles. alloy steels.velocity ions into the surface of a substrate material. 28. honing. such as metal chips. What are the reasons? Answer. The chemical cleaning methods can be categorized as follows: (1) alkaline cleaning.1 What are some of the important reasons why manufactured parts must be cleaned? Answer. and the alloys of nickel and cobalt. abrasive grits. and enhancing surface properties. 193 . (3) solvent cleaning. parts are mechanically cleaned and deburred in bulk. and mass finishing (such as barrel tumbling). (2) emulsion cleaning.5 In addition to surface cleaning. Reasons for mechanical surface treatments include: deburring. (3) buffing and polishing compounds. and (4) to enhance product appearance and performance. and (4) oxide films. shop dirt.8 What is the difference between diffusion and ion implantation? Answer. polishing. improving smoothness. Calorizing is the diffusion of aluminum into carbon steel. but the process involves penetration of high. Mechanical cleaning methods include: belt grinding.2 Mechanical surface treatments are often performed for reasons other than or in addition to cleaning. These method also accomplish other functions such as deburring and surface finish improvement. 28.4 Identify some of the mechanical cleaning methods. (2) to improve hygiene conditions.28 CLEANING AND SURFACE TREATMENTS Review Questions 28.9 What is calorizing ? Answer. rust. (4) acid cleaning and pickling. Ion implantation produces a similar result. Diffusion coating is a diffusion process in which atoms or molecules move across a boundary between two contacting materials. lapping. 28. and scale. usually in a barrel by the mixing action of an abrasive media.3 What are the basic types of contaminants that must be cleaned from metallic surfaces in manufacturing? Answer.7 What is meant by the term mass finishing ? Answer. The process is also known as aluminizing. and dust. 28. (3) to remove contaminants which might chemically react with the surface. Basic contaminant types are: (1) oil and grease. 28. buffing. 28. The reasons include: (1) to prepare the surface for subsequent industrial processing.

each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point.3 Shot peening is a mechanical cleaning method used primarily to remove surface scale from metallic parts: (a) true or (b) false. 28. (d) SiC.7 Calorizing is the same as which of the following? (a) aluminizing. Answer. (d) to prepare the surface for subsequent processing. or (e) vapor degreasing. (a). (b) blast finishing. (b) doping. or (d) trichlorethylene. (b).6 Which of the following processes generally produces a deeper penetration of atoms in the impregnated surface? (a) diffusion or (b) ion implantation. (d). Answer. (b) to enhance mechanical properties of the surface. (c) 194 .1 Reasons why workparts must be cleaned include which of the following (more than one)? (a) for better appearance.4 In sand blasting.2 Which of the following chemicals is associated with alkaline cleaning (more than one)? (a) borax. (c) sulfuric acid. which one of the following abrasives is used? (a) Al2O3. (c) hot sand blasting. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. (a) 28. (a) 28.Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 16 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). 28. (d) limestone. (c) emery. include which of the following (more than one)? (a) Al2O3.5 The abrasive media used in mass finishing. Answer. 28. (b) crushed nut shells. (c). Answer. Answer. Answer. (c). (b) Principal function is to cold work the surface to improve fatigue strength. (d) tumbling. all correct answers must be given. 28. For each question. and (e). (c) diffusion. (b). (e) 28. Answer. and (e) SiC. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. or (e) SiO 2. and (e). (b) sodium hydroxide. 28. Answer. such as barrel tumbling. (c) nylon beads. since each correct answer is worth 1 point.8 Carburizing involves which one of the following? (a) acid pickling. (a). Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (c) to improve hygiene conditions for worker. (b) corundum. (d). (a). or (e) to remove contaminants that might chemically attack the surface. or (d) siliconizing.

8 How does electroless plating differ from electrochemical plating? Answer. (2) chemical surface treatments. (4) organic coating painting. 29. (3) vapor deposition processes such as PVD and CVD. (3) wear resistance. Anodizing uses electrochemical processing methods to convert the metallic surface. 195 .7 What is the most commonly plated substrate metal? Answer. 29. A conversion coating is a thin coating produced by chemical reaction of the metallic surface. such as anodizing. (3) provide a specified color. Identify the most common types of coating processes.10 How does anodizing differ from other conversion coatings? Answer. The reasons are: (1) corrosion protection of the substrate metal. (1) Corrosion protection.9 What is a conversion coating ? Answer.6 29. Best example is aluminum anodizing. A solid mandrel has certain geometric features. and (2) sacrificial protection. The mechanisms are (1) barrier protection. in which the coating simply covers the substrate to protect it. electroplating uses electrolysis. 29. 29. (4) increased electrical conductivity.3 What are the many reasons why a metallic surface is plated? Answer. One of the mandrel types in electroforming is a solid mandrel. How is the part removed from a solid mandrel? Answer. and (4) prepare surface for subsequent processing.4 What is meant by the term cathode efficiency in electroplating? Answer. (5) porcelain enameling. and oxides.1 29. The common coating processes are: (1) plating. Answer. (33. 29. and (6) enhanced lubricity of the surface. The cathode efficiency is the actual amount of metal deposited on the surface relative to the theoretical amount given by Eq. such as a taper. that permit the part to be removed.5 What are the two basic mechanisms of corrosion protection? Answer. and (6) thermal and mechanical treatments. (2) attractive appearance. 29.1). The most common conversion coatings are phosphates. in which the coating metal corrodes sacrificially to protect the substrate. chromates. Review Questions 29. (2) enhance appearance.2 COATING AND DEPOSITION PROCESSES Why are metals coated? Answer. Steel. Electroless plating uses only chemical reactions to form the plating. (5) improved solderability. Parts are also sometimes removed by taking advantage of a difference in coefficient of thermal expansion.29 29.

and cutting tool coatings (e. (2) dyes or pigments. 196 . and flow coating.20 What is meant by the term transfer efficiency in organic coating technology? Answer. Titanium nitride (TiN). TiC and TiN. Physical vapor deposition (PVD) refers to a family of processes in which a material is converted to its vapor phase in a vacuum chamber and condensed onto a substrate surface as a very thin film. Transfer efficiency indicates how much of the organic coating liquid reaches the target surface.g.21 Describe the principal methods by which organic coatings are applied to a surface.11 What is physical vapor deposition? Answer.4. Sputtering yield is defined as the number of atoms ejected from the surface of a substance per ion bombarding the surface. antireflection coatings on optical lenses.17 What are some of the advantages of chemical vapor deposition? Answer. Identify the four major types of ingredients in organic coatings? Answer. In PVD. the reaction product nucleates and grows on the substrate surface. Answer. What is a commonly used coating material deposited by PVD onto cutting tools? Answer. 29. In CVD a coating is formed on a heated substrate by the chemical reaction or dissociation of vapors and/or gases.. Titanium carbide (TiC) and aluminum oxide (Al2O3) might also be mentioned.18 What are the two most common titanium compounds that are coated onto cutting tools by chemical vapor deposition? Answer. Answer.19 29.14 29. The main methods include: brushing and rolling. indicate the distinction. 29. (3) solvents.29. and (4) good bonding to substrate surface.2. These methods are described in Article 33. The three types are: (1) vacuum evaporation. PVC applications include: decorative coatings on trophies and automotive trim. and (3) ion plating. Advantages include: (1) capability to deposit refractory materials at temperatures below their melting or sintering temperatures.16 Define sputtering yield ? Answer. 29. TiN).13 What are some of the applications of PVD? Answer. 29. which provide color.12 What is the difference between physical vapor deposition (PVD) and chemical vapor deposition (CVD)? Answer. 29. and (4) additives such as surfactants and plasticizers. deposition of metal in electronic connections. (2) sputtering. spraying. 29.15 Name the three basic types of PVD. The major ingredients are: (1) binder. 29. immersion (dip coating). 29. the coating vapors are synthesized by heating the coating material and allowing it to condense as a thin film on the surface of the workpart. which are polymers.22 The terms drying and curing have different meanings. (3) process is performed at atmospheric pressure. 29. (2) grain size control.

29. (b) chromate coatings. (b) magnesium.2 Which one of the following terms is used in connection with dip coating of lead onto a substrate such as sheet steel? (a) aluminizing.4 Which of the following is most typical of the thickness of an electroplated coating (choose either of two acceptable answers)? (a) 0. or (e) terneplating. or (e) zinc. (c) electroless plating.7 Sputtering is a form of which one of the following? (a) chemical vapor deposition. What does the term mechanical galvanizing refer to? Answer. Frit is glassy porcelain prepared as fine particles (powders) by crushing and milling. (b) chromium. (c) steel. or (d) 0. Answer. Mechanical galvanizing refers to the mechanical plating of zinc onto a substrate. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. all correct answers must be given.Answer. (d) ion implantation.23 29. For each question. (c) copper. (c) diffusion. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 17 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). (b) defect in arc welding. (d) titanium. Answer. what is frit? Answer. Answer. (c) 0. or (e) tin. (a) and (d). Curing involves a chemical change in the organic resin (polymerization and/or cross-linking) which hardens the coating. (b) anodizing. (b) 0. (b) 29. To attain a perfect score on the quiz.5 Which of the following processes involves electrochemical reactions (more than one)? (a) anodizing. or (e) zinc. Drying means evaporation of solvents in the organic coating liquid. (d) nickel.001 in. Answer. (c) steel. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point.1 Which one of the following plate metals produces the hardest surface on a metallic substrate? (a) cadmium.3 Which one of the following plating metal is associated with the term galvanizing ? (a) iron.6 With which one of the following metals is anodizing most commonly associated (one answer)? (a) aluminum. either (a) or (b) is acceptable 29.0001 in. Answer. (b) lead. or (e) phosphate coatings. since each correct answer is worth 1 point.003 in. (c) conversion coating.100 in. or (e) physical vapor deposition. with thicknesses up to 0. (d) galvanizing. Answer. (a) 29. 29. (e) 197 .010 in. 29. (e) 29.24 In porcelain enameling. (d) tin. (e) 29. Answer. (d) electroplating.

(b) liquid solution. Answer. (b) brazing.75 x 10-2 mm3/A-s. C = 4. Answer. or (d) reducing nickel carbonyl to metallic Ni. (e) mechanical deformation to work harden the surface.2 A sheetmetal steel part with surface area A = 100 cm2 is to be zinc plated. (a) The Mond process is used for which one of the following? (a) chemical vapor deposition of silicon nitride onto silicon. Answer.95(4.11 29. C = 4.1 What volume (cm3) and weight (g) of zinc will be deposited onto a cathodic workpart if 10 amps of current are applied for one hour? Solution: From Table 29.75 x 10-2 mm3/A-s)(10 A)(1 hr)(3600 s/hr) = 1624. Answer. and (e) roller coating.10 29.35 mm3 Area A = 100 cm2 = 10. (c) molten liquid.12 29. Volume V = ECIt = 0.1. cathode efficiency E = 95%.1. (c) metallizing.75 x 10-2 mm3/A-s)(15 A)(12 min)(60 s/min) = 487.35 mm3/10. (d) nitrogen.15) = 11.000 mm2 Plating thickness d = 487.15 g/cm3. What average plating thickness will result if 15 amps are applied for 12 minutes in a chloride electrolyte solution? Solution: From Table 29. cathode efficiency E = 95%. (a) 29.29.75 x 10-2 mm3/A-s.6245 cm3 Density of zinc from Table 4.5 mm3 = 1.14 Problems Electroplating 29. (d) immersion.1 ρ = 7. (c) neon.3 A sheetmetal steel part with surface area A = 15.95(4. (d) Which of the following thin film processes is most common in semiconductor processing? (a) chemical vapor deposition or (b) physical vapor deposition.9 29. Answer. (d) Which of the following are alternative names for thermal spraying (more than one answer)? (a) flexible overlay process. Porcelain enamel is applied to a surface in which one of the following forms? (a) liquid emulsion. Weight W = 1.8 Which of the following gases is the most commonly used in sputtering and ion plating? (a) argon. or (d) metal spraying. (c) physical vapor deposition for coating TiN onto cutting tools. (c) fluidized bed. (b) hard facing.0 in2 is to be chrome plated. or (e) oxygen.000 mm2 = 0.049 mm 29.6245(7. (b) electrostatic spraying. (d) electroplating.13 29. (c) dip coating. Answer.615 g 29. (b) chlorine. (a) The principal methods of applying powder coatings are which of the following (select two best answers)? (a) brushing. What average plating thickness will result if 15 amps are applied for 10 minutes in a chromic acid-sulfate bath? 198 . (b) an electroplating process. (c) and (d). Hard facing utilizes which one of the following basic processes? (a) arc welding. Answer. Volume V = ECIt = 0. or (d) powders. (b) and (c).

each with a surface area A = 7. Area A = 100(7. cathode efficiency E = 15%.036 t = 0.02477 in 3.5) = 12.Solution: From Table 29.1(20) 2) = 0. C = 3.92 x 10-4)(12 x 20 + 0.42 x 10-2 mm3/A-s)(20 A)(30 min)(60 s/min) = 1169.87 x 10-4)(8)(10) = 0. C = 2. Determine the average plating thickness on the parts.5 in 2.7 Increasing current is applied to a workpart surface in an electroplating process according to the relation I = 12.1. cathode efficiency E = 95%.02477 in 3) = 0.80(3.698 lb/in3 Weight of plated gold = (0.92 x 10-4)(15)(10) = 0.8) = 780 in 2 Plating thickness d = 0. min. 29.003954 t = 0.02477/12.5 = 0.003954 = 9.6 mm3.95(1.01729 lb = 0. amps. The plating process applies a current I = 120 amps.00198 in.00207 in 3. and the part is submersed in the plating solution for a duration of 20 min. Determine the average thickness of the plated metal resulting from this operation.695 = 0.69 x 10-4 in3/A-min.0 + 0. Volume V = ECIt = 0.022 mm 29. C = 0.1.277 oz.98(2. cathode efficiency E = 15%. Required volume of plate metal = 36(0. each with a surface area = 0.00207/15 = 0.075 cm thick and whose face dimensions are 14 cm by 19 cm. Volume V = ECIt = 0.8 A batch of 100 parts are to be nickel plated in a barrel plating operation. using a current I = 20 amps for a duration t = 30 min.5 in 2 Plating thickness d = 0. C = 3.57/780 = 0.95 cm2 = 53. and t = time.6/53. where I = current.5 in 2 are to be gold plated in a batch plating operation. Volume V = ECIt = 0.5 A part made of sheet steel is to be nickel plated.698 lb/in 3)(0. Plating thickness d = 0.698 lb/in 3. Volume V = ECIt = 0. Solution: (a) From Table 29.57 in 3. cathode efficiency E = 95%.1 min. and the batch takes 40 minutes to complete. With Q = 25 pieces and average area per piece = 0.036 in 3 Plated volume V = ECIt = 0. At $300/oz. cathode efficiency E = 80%. Area A = 2(19 x 14) + 0. value of plated gold = $300(0. What volume of coating will be applied in the process? Solution: From Table 29. (a) What average plating thickness will result if 8 amps are applied for 10 min in a cyanide bath? (b) What is the value of the gold that will be plated if one ounce of gold is valued at $300? The density of gold = 0. 0.001 in onto the surface if 15 amps of current are applied? Solution: From Table 29.15(0.277) = $82.42 x 10-2 mm3/A-s. The parts are identical. Solution: From Table 29. V = 0.15(0.92 x 10-4 in3/A-min.69 x 10-4 in3/A-min)(15 A) t = 0.95(3.25 x 10-4)(120)(40) = 0. How long will it take to deposit a copper plating (assume valence = +1) of thickness = 0.2t)dt = EC(12t + 0.001) = 0. cathode efficiency E = 98%.00386 in3 29. (b) Given density for gold ρ = 0.8 in2.00073 in.99 29.1. The part is a rectangular flat plate which is 0. 199 .6 A steel sheetmetal part has total surface area A = 36 in2. C = 1.1.2t.695 mm2 Plating thickness d = 1169.25 x 10-4 in3/A-min. Plated volume V = EC∫Idt = EC∫(12 + 0.036/0.4 Twenty-five jewelry pieces.075 x 2(19 + 14) = 536. The plating metal is chromium.92 x 10-4 in3/A-min.1. Solution: From Table 29.87 x 10-4 in3/A-min. The plating operation is carried out in an acid sulfate electrolyte.003954 t in 3.1.1t2) over the range 0 to 20 min.000138 in. total area A = 25(0. C = 0. 29.

3 t mm3)/(90.010 mm on the surface of each part. cathode efficiency E = 15%. 200 . If it is desired to plate an average thickness = 0.5 x 10-2 mm3/A-s)(80 A) t = 0.010/0. t = 0.3 t mm3 With Q = 40 pieces and average area per piece = 22.7 mm2. Volume V = ECIt = 0. how long should the plating operation be allowed to run at a current = 80 amps? Solution: From Table 29.010 mm.9 A batch of 40 identical parts are to be chrome plated using racks. 0.03304(10-4) = 0.44 min.15(2.010 Thus.5 x 10-2 mm3/A-s.03304(10-4) t mm Given that d = 0.1.800 mm2) = 0.800 mm2 Plating thickness d = V/A = (0. total area A = 40(22.03304(10-4) t = 0.29.7 cm2.3027 x 104 = 3027 s = 50. Each part has a surface are = 22. C = 2.7) = 908 cm2 = 90.

In arc welding and resistance welding. Review Questions 30. Discuss the reasons why most welding operations are inherently dangerous. Most welding operations are carried out at high temperatures that can cause serious burns on skin and flesh. Answer. Advantages: (1) provides a permanent joint.2 What were the two discoveries of Sir Humphrey Davy that led to the development of modern welding technology? Answer.10 Define and sketch a fillet weld ? 201 . (4) quality defects sometimes difficult to detect. What is an autogenous weld ? Answer. It is a fusion weld made without the addition of filler metal. so the parts are joined permanently. (3) difficult to disassemble. 30. (2) joint strength is typically as high as strength of base metals.8 What is the difference between machine welding and automatic welding? Answer. smoke. (5) edge. In a solid state weld. a human worker must continuously control the arc and the relative movement of the welding head and the workpart. the high electrical energy can cause shocks which are fatal to the worker.1 FUNDAMENTALS OF WELDING What are the advantages and disadvantages of welding compared to other types of assembly operations? Answer. What is meant by the term faying surface? Answer. (2) welding is inherently dangerous. fumes.3 in text for sketches. Answer. 30. Answer. (3) most economical in terms of material usage.3 30. The faying surfaces are the contacting surfaces in a welded joint. In a fusion weld. See Figure 28. the fuels are a fire hazard. whereas in machine welding. so labor cost is high and the skilled labor to perform it is sometimes scarce. Other hazards include sparks. the metal is melted. (3) lap. 30. and weld spatter.4 30. (4) tee.30 30. Disadvantages: (1) usually performed manually.6 30. An automatic welding operation uses a weld cycle controller which regulates the arc movement and workpiece positioning. the metal is not melted. A fusion weld is a weld in which the metal surfaces have been melted in order to cause coalescence. 30. (2) corner.9 Name and sketch the five joint types.7 What is the fundamental difference between a fusion weld and a solid state weld? Answer. In arc welding. (4) versatile in terms of where it can be accomplished. Five joint types are: (1) butt. the electric arc emits intense ultraviolet radiation which can cause blinding. In gas welding. Define the term fusion weld.5 30. (1) electric arc and (2) acetylene gas.

Answer.5 in text for sketch.Answer. 30. all correct answers must be given. 30.15 What is the unit melting energy in welding. 30. Heat transfer efficiency is the ratio of the actual heat received at the work surface divided by the total heat generated by the source. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. The HAZ is a region of base metal surrounding the fusion zone in which melting has not occurred. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. since each correct answer is worth 1 point.13 Why is a surfacing weld different from the other weld types? Answer. See Figure 28. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point.12 30. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 11 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). 30.18 What is the heat affected zone (HAZ) in a fusion weld? Answer. lap.11 Define and sketch a groove weld ? Answer.16 Define and distinguish the two terms heat transfer efficiency and melting efficiency in welding. 30. and what are the factors on which it depends? Answer. Because it does not join to distinct parts. Because the heat is concentrated in a small region for greatest efficiency and minimum metallurgical damage. but instead adds only filler metal to a surface. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. Melting efficiency is the ratio of heat required for melting divided by the heat received at the work surface. A continuous weld would be made along the entire length of the fillet weld. and tee joints. The unit melting energy is the amount of heat energy required to melt one cubic inch or one cubic mm of metal. What is the difference between a continuous weld and an intermittent weld as the terms apply to a fillet weld of a lap joint? Answer. whereas an intermittent weld would only fill the joint along certain portions (usually equally spaced) of the total length. 202 . For each question.4 in text for sketch. See Figure 28. but temperatures from welding were high enough to cause solid state microstructural changes. 30. 30. A fillet weld is a weld joint of approximately triangular cross-section used to fill in the edges of corner. and how is this form of solidification different from that which occurs in casting? Answer.17 What is epitaxial grain growth. Epitaxial grain growth occurs when atoms from the molten pool solidify on already existing lattice sites of the adjacent solid base metal. A groove weld is a weld joint used to fill in the space between the adjoining edges of butt and other weld types except lap.14 Why is it desirable to use energy sources for welding that have high heat densities? Answer.

30. (d) lap. (b) The amount of heat required to melt a given volume of metal depends strongly on which of the following properties (more than one)? (a) coefficient of thermal expansion. (c) square.3 30. or (d) triangular.30. (c) single fillet weld for tee joint. (d) Groove welds are most closely associated with which one of the following joint types: (a) butt. 203 . for a butt weld.5 30. (c) low power. and (d). (d) U-groove weld as in Figure 30. (b) corner.5(f). (c) edge. (e) tee. or (d) low power density. the metal with the lower melting temperature always melts while the other metal remains solid: (a) true. (b) round. Answer. A fillet weld has a cross-sectional shape that is approximately which one of the following? (a) rectangular.6 30. Solution: (a) Square groove weld as in Figure 30.5(f).4(c) but one side only. (b) high power density. Which one of the following heat sources is most consistent with this objective? (a) high power.5(d) but both sides as in Figure 30. Answer. but both sides as in Figure 30.4(d) but one side only. (b) Failures also occur in the heat affected zone because metallurgical damage often occurs in this region. (c) lap. Answer.1 Prepare sketches showing how the part edges would be prepared and aligned with each other and also showing the weld cross-section for the following welds: (a) square groove weld. or (e) thermal conductivity.8 Problems Joint design 30.2 A fillet weld can be used to join which of the following joint types (more than one): (a) butt. Answer. since this is the part of the joint that has been melted: (a) true. (b) corner.4 30. (b) single fillet weld for a lap joint. (c) For metallurgical reasons. (c) melting temperature. (d) lap. Answer. (a) A flange weld is most closely associated with which one of the following joint types: (a) butt. (c) edge. and (d) double U-groove weld for a butt weld. otherwise. 30. (b) heat of fusion. Answer. Both metals melt. (e) tee. (c). (c) Same as Figure 30.1 Welding can only be performed on metals that have the same melting point.7 30. (b) Similar to Figure 30. (b) false. Answer. (b) and (c) Weld failures always occur in the fusion zone of the weld joint. (b). (b) corner. both sides. it is desirable to melt the weld metal with minimum energy input. (d) tee.5(a). (d) modulus of elasticity. (b) Welding can be accomplished between certain combinations of dissimilar metals. (b) false. Answer.

1 inch.2) for SI units: Um = 3.467 x 10-5 (3160) 2 = 146. 30. (30.467 x 10-5 Tm2 Um = 1.07 J/mm3 Eq.33 x 10-6 Tm2 Um = 3.33 x 10-6 Tm2 Um = 3.625 Btu/sec Power density PD = (0.60(3000) = 1800 J/s = 1800 W.25 Btu/sec Power density PD = (1.88 J/mm3 Eq. and the heat intensity decreases as the radius increases. Tm for copper = 1350 K (2440 R) Eq.4 Compute the unit energy for melting for the following metals: (a) aluminum and (b) plain low carbon steel. as follows: 60% of the heat is concentrated in a circular area that is 3 mm in diameter.75 . Power P = 0. What is the power densities in: (a) the 0. Use temperatures as follows to construct the plot: 250°C.5 Compute the unit energy for melting for the following metals:(a) copper and (b) titanium.25 inch.00785 in 2 = 159 Btu/sec-in2 (b) A = π (0. The heated area is circular.0412 in 2 Power P = (0. 500°C.16 Btu/sec-in2 (c) Power densities are sufficient certainly in the inner circle and probably in the outer ring for welding.6 Make the calculations and plot on linearly scaled axes the relationship for unit melting energy as a function of temperature.1) 2/4 = 0.252 .2) for USCS units: Um = 1.0.33 x 10-6 Tm2 Um = 3.33 x 10-6 (1760) 2 = 10. (30.2) for USCS units: Um = 1. (30.1 inch diameter inner circle and (b) the 0.467 x 10-5 (3730) 2 = 204. (30. This power density is sufficient for welding.00785 in 2 150 Btu/min = 2.0412 in 2 = 15.Power density 30. 750°C.25 Btu/sec)/0.33 x 10-6 Tm2 Um = 3. and the heat intensity decreases with increasing radius as follows: 50% of the power is transferred within a circle of diameter = 0. The heated area is approximately circular.2) for USCS units: Um = 1.5) = 1. Tm for plain low carbon steel = 1760 K (3160 R) Eq.4 Btu/in3 (b) From Table 30. Power density PD = 1800 W/7. 204 . Is the resulting power density enough to melt metal? Solution: Area A = π (3.50)(2.467 x 10-5 Tm2 Um = 1.25 inch diameter ring that lies around the inner circle? (c) Are these power densities sufficient for melting metal? Solution: (a) Area A = π (0.625 Btu/sec)/0. and 75% is transferred within a concentric circle of diameter = 0.467 x 10-5 (2440) 2 = 87.5 Btu/sec.33 x 10-6 (2070) 2 = 14. (30. Solution: (a) From Table 30.467 x 10-5 Tm2 Um = 1.0.33 x 10-6 (1350) 2 = 6. Unit melting energy 30. (30.2) for USCS units: Um = 1.50(2.2) for SI units: Um = 3.5 Btu/in3 30.3 A welding heat source is capable of transferring 150 Btu/min to the surface of a metal part. (30.2.27 J/mm3 Eq.467 x 10-5 Tm2 Um = 1.2) for SI units: Um = 3.2.0686 mm2 Power P = 0.2.5) = 0.32 J/mm3 Eq.2. Tm for aluminum = 930 K (1680 R) Eq. Tm for titanium = 2070 K (3730 R) Eq.1 Btu/in3 30.467 x 10-5 (1680) 2 = 41.2) for SI units: Um = 3.0) 2/4 = 7.3 Btu/in3 (b) From Table 30. (30.33 x 10-6 (930) 2 = 2.0686 mm2 = 255 W/mm2. Solution: (a) From Table 30.2 A heat source can transfer 3000 J/sec to a metal part surface.12)/4 = 0.

if the heat transfer efficiency = 0.2) for SI units: Um = 3. and 3500°F.8 and f2 = 0. if the metal to be welded is medium carbon steel? (b) How much heat must be generated at the welding source. The plot is left as a student exercise. (30.9 and f2 = 0. 3000°F.45 in 3 Hm = 137. On the plot. mark the positions of some of the welding metals in Table 30.467 x 10-5 Tm2 From Table 30. Solution: Eq.2.7) = 98.467 x 10-5 (3460) 2 = 175.91 J/mm3 For Tm = 500 ° C = (500 + 273) = 773°K: Um = 3.045 in2 and is 10 inches long.4(0.6? Solution: (a) Eq. 1000°F.8/(0.8 x 0. if the metal to be welded is austenitic stainless steel? (b) How much heat must be generated at the welding source.33 x 10-6 Tm2. (30.8 A fillet weld has a cross-sectional area Aw = 20.8 and the melting efficiency = 0.0 mm2 and is 200 mm long.045(10) = 0.9 A certain groove weld has a cross-sectional area Aw = 0. if the heat transfer efficiency = 0.40 J/mm3 For Tm = 1500 ° C = (1500 + 273) = 1773°K: Um = 3.8 Btu/in3 For Tm = 2500 ° F = (2500 + 460) = 2960°R: Um = 1. 1500°C. 205 .9 and the melting efficiency = 0.467 x 10-5 (1460) 2 = 31. Use temperatures as follows to construct the plot: 500°F.8 Btu at weld (b) Given f1 = 0.20 J/mm3 30.148/(0.2) for SI units: Um = 3.7.4 Btu/in3 For Tm = 2000 ° F = (2000 + 460) = 2460°R: Um = 1.99 J/mm3 For Tm = 750 ° C = (750 + 273) = 1023°K: Um = 3.6) = 77.467 x 10-5 (1960) 2 = 56. For Tm = 250 ° C = (250 + 273) = 523°K: Um = 3.5 Btu/in3 For Tm = 3000 ° F = (3000 + 460) = 3460°R: Um = 1.2. Solution: Eq.33 x 10-6 (773) 2 = 1.33 x 10-6 (2273) 2 = 17.7? Solution: (a) Eq. On the plot.33 x 10-6 Tm2 From Table 30.2.2. (a) What quantity of heat (in Btu) is required to accomplish the weld.45) = 61.48 J/mm3 For Tm = 1000 ° C = (1000 + 273) = 1273°K: Um = 3.29(4000) = 37.467 x 10-5 (960) 2 = 13.47 J/mm3 For Tm = 2000 ° C = (2000 + 273) = 2273°K: Um = 3.467 x 10-5 Tm2. The plot is left as a student exercise. The plot is based on the following calculated values.467 x 10-5 (3960) 2 = 230.1 Btu at source. Tm for medium carbon steel = 3060 R Um = 1.9 x 0.33 x 10-6 (1023) 2 = 3.467 x 10-5 (2460) 2 = 88.6 Btu/in3 For Tm = 3500 ° F = (3500 + 460) = 3960°R: Um = 1.6. 2000°F.33 x 10-6 (1773) 2 = 10.467 x 10-5 (3060) 2 = 137. (30. Tm for austenitic stainless steel = 1670 K Um = 3. H = 37. H = 61. The plot is based on the following calculated values. (a) What quantity of heat (in joules) is required to accomplish the weld. For Tm = 500 ° F = (500 + 460) = 960°R: Um = 1. mark the positions of some of the welding metals in Table 30. (30. 2500°F.1000°C.3 Btu/in3 For Tm = 1500 ° F = (1500 + 460) = 1960°R: Um = 1.148 J at weld (b) Given f1 = 0.29 J/mm3 Volume of metal melted V = 20(200) = 4000 mm3 Hm = 9.2) for USCS units: Um = 1.33 x 10-6 (523) 2 = 0. and 2000°C.0 Btu/in3 30.467 x 10-5 (2960) 2 = 128. 30.2) for USCS units: Um = 1. 1500°F.392 J at source.4 Btu/in 3 Volume of metal melted V = 0.7 Make the calculations and plot on linearly scaled axes the relationship for unit melting energy as a function of temperature.33 x 10-6 (1273) 2 = 5.5 Btu/in3 For Tm = 1000 ° F = (1000 + 460) = 1460°R: Um = 1.33 x 10-6 (1670) 2 = 9.

Energy balance in welding 30.284 lb/in3 = 7900 kg/m3.467 x 10-5 Tm2 From Table 30.70) + ρ Hf = 0.70) + ρ Hf = 0.11)(2700 .30.33 x 10-6 (660 + 273) 2 = 2. (b) Steel properties (from standard sources): heat of fusion Hf = 117 Btu/lb = 272. Tm for aluminum = 1680 R Um = 1.6/(0.45 J/mm3 This compares with Eq.11 Btu/lb.5 Btu/in3 This is about a 27% difference.4 Btu/in 3 Volume of metal melted V = 0.°F = 460 J/kg. A continuous fillet weld is to be made with a cross-sectional area Aw = 15.9 and f2 = 0. which would increase the calculated values based on Um = ρ C(Tm . 30. except that the metal to be welded is aluminum.9.096(170) = 40.2).0 mm2.096(0. These values show a greater difference than for aluminum. (30.2)? Solution: (a) Aluminum properties (from standard sources): heat of fusion Hf = 170 Btu/lb = 395.045(10) = 0.123 J/kg.70) + 0.21) + ρ Hf Um = (2.70) + 0.215 Btu/lb.10 Solve the previous problem.4 Btu/in3 This compares with Eq.23 J/mm3 This is about a 37% difference. (30.7 x 10-6 kg/mm3)(900 J/kg-C))(660 . melting temperature Tm = 1220°F = 660°C.4(0.S. Find the values of the properties needed in these calculations either in this text or in other references.21) + (7. and (2) the heat of fusion. (30. Assume that the melting efficiency f 2 = 0.284(117) = 115. which is the product of the volumetric specific heat and the temperature rise.°C.11 Compute the unit melting energy for (a) aluminum and (b) steel as the sum of: (1) the heat required to raise the temperature of the metal from room temperature to its melting point. (30. Um = ρ C(Tm .4 Btu/in3 This is about a 3% difference. Are the values close enough to validate Eq. The metal to be welded is copper whose melting point is given in Table 30.467 x 10-5 (1220 + 460) 2 = 41. Um = ρ C(Tm .90 J/mm3 This is about a 10% difference.467 x 10-5 (1680) 2 = 41. 206 . (30.2): Um = 1.284(0.2): Um = 1. (30.1 Btu at source. melting temperature Tm = 2700°F = 1480°C.33 x 10-6 (1480 + 273) 2 = 10.215)(1220 . Um = ρ C(Tm . These values for aluminum show good agreement.2): Um = 3.45) = 18. density ρ = 0. Use either the U. This is transferred to the work surface with a heat transfer efficiency f 1 = 0. Customary units or the International System. In SI.°F = 900 J/kg.35) = 59.21) + (2.2.62 J/mm3 This compares with Eq.Tambient) + ρ Hf . density ρ = 0. specific heat C = 0.7 x 10-6 kg/mm3)(395390 J/kg) Um = 2.21) + ρ Hf Um = (7.096 lb/in3 = 2700 kg/m3.1 Btu/in3 This compares with Eq.25. (30.467 x 10-5 (2700 + 460) 2 = 146.9 x 10-6 kg/mm3)(460 J/kg-C))(1480 .45 in 3 Hm = 41.9 x 0. Determine the travel speed at which the welding operation can be accomplished. Um = ρ C(Tm .2) for USCS units: Um = 1. specific heat C = 0.12 The welding power generated in a particular arc welding operation = 3000 W.390 J/kg.°C. and the corresponding melting efficiency is half the value for steel.6 Btu at weld (b) Given f1 = 0.7. In SI. In USCS.9 x 10-6 kg/mm3)(272123 J/kg) Um = 7. This is at least partially accounted for by the fact that the specific heat of steel increases significantly with temperature. H = 18. so that this value can be compared to the unit melting energy calculated by Eq.2. In USCS.2): Um = 3. Solution: (a) Eq.

5) = 1250 J/s = 1250 W.40 J/mm3 f1 f2 HR = UmAw v HR = Um Aw v/f1 f2 = 5.8 x 0.2. The surface will be applied by making a series of parallel.487 Btu HR = 0.4 mm/s.07 x 15) = 7. the total thickness melted during welding = 6.0 mm.17 A spot weld is to be made using an arc welding operation. on average.8. 30. and Tm = 2000°F for the metal to be welded.9 x 0. 30. 30.95 x 0.467 x 10-5 (1680) 2 = 41. Aw = 0.5)HR/(88. A continuous fillet weld is to be made with a cross-sectional area Aw = 0.467 x 10-5 (1800 + 460) 2 = 74.025) = 0.2.15 mm/s.487/4 = 0. Tm = 1680°R for aluminum. and the operation required the arc to be on for 4 sec.85 x 0. whose melting point is assumed to be the same.5.7 in/min. determine the rate of heat generation required at the welding source to accomplish this weld.33 x 10-6(1000 + 273) 2 = 5.14 In a certain welding operation to make a groove weld.4(0.5. f 2 = 0.4 Btu/in 3 Hw = 41.40(22)(5)/(0.85. If f 1 = 0. and the metal to be welded was aluminum. using welding passes separated by 5 mm.13 Solve the previous problem except that the metal to be welded is high carbon steel.16 In a certain welding operation to make a fillet weld.207/(0. f 2 = 0.005 in 3.07 J/mm3 v = f1 f2 HR/UmAw = 0.07 J/mm3 v = f1 f2 HR/UmAw = 0. Aw = 22.1 Btu/min. Solution: Um = 1. Solution: From Table 30.0 mm will be added to the plate.214 = 70. 30. Solution: Um = 1. If f 1 = 0. Tm = 1350°K for copper.122 Btu/sec = 7. 30.5)(125)/(74.33 x 10-6(1350) 2 = 6.5) = 0. Determine the travel speed at which the welding operation can be accomplished. 30. If f 1 = 0.0 mm2.214 HR HR = 15/.95 and f 2 = 0.31 Btu/min.18 A surfacing weld is to be applied to a rectangular low carbon steel plate which is 200 mm by 350 mm.95.6)(3000)/(9.95(0. Tm = 1650°K for high carbon steel.5. Solution: From Table 30. determine the rate of heat generation that was required at the source to accomplish this weld. The total volume of (melted) metal forming the weld = 0. determine the rate of heat generation required at the welding source to accomplish this weld.04) = 16.6.207 Btu H = 0.0 mm/s.5. Ignore the 207 .15 The power source in a particular welding operation generates 125 Btu/min which is transferred to the work surface with an efficiency f 1 = 0.25)(3000)/(6.2. Um = 3. The melting point for the metal to be welded Tm = 1800°F and its melting efficiency f 2 = 0.8 Btu/in 3 v = 15 = f1 f2 HR/UmAw = 0.005) = 0.04 in2. overlapped welding beads running lengthwise on the plate. and the melting efficiency f 2 = 0. Um = 1. and Tm = 1000°C for the metal to be welded.33 x 10-6(1650) 2 = 9.025 in2 and v = 15 in/min.9(0. A thickness of 2.467 x 10-5 (2000 + 460) 2 = 88. Solution: Um = 3.9(0.9 Btu/in 3 v = f1 f2 HR/UmAw = 0.0 mm2 and v = 5 mm/sec. The operation will be carried out automatically with the beads laid down in one long continuous operation at a travel speed v = 7. Um = 3. the cross-sectional area of the weld = 25. but with penetration into the base metal.Solution: From Table 30.07 x 25) = 7.8(0. The metal to be applied is a harder (alloy) grade of steel.

2.32(6 x 5)(7)/(0. Assuming the heat transfer efficiency = 0.000/7 = 2000 s = 33.6.000 mm Time to travel at v = 7 mm/s = 14.8 and the melting efficiency = 0. Solution: (a) From Table 30.33 min.32 J/mm3 HR = Um Aw v/f1f2 = 10.33 x 10-6(1760) 2 = 10.8 x 0. 208 . Tm = 1760°K for low carbon steel. determine: (a) the rate of heat that must be generated at the welding source.6) = 4515 J/s (b) Total length of cut = 350 x (200/5) = 14.minor complications of the turnarounds at the ends of the plate. and (b) how long will it take to complete the surfacing operation. Um = 3.

31.4 What do the terms arc-on time. and "other.3 Define what an electrical arc is.5 Electrodes in arc welding are divided into two categories. in solid state welding. which covers the welding operation and protects the molten pool from the atmosphere. SAW is an arc welding process that uses a continuous. In arc welding. Consumable and nonconsumable. Review Questions 31.6 What are the two basic methods of arc shielding? Answer. Answer. Because the stick electrodes must be changed frequently. and (2) flux. which would be difficult to do automatically.9 Why is the shielded metal arc welding (SMAW) process difficult to automate? Answer. oxyfuel welding.10 Describe submerged arc welding (SAW). In fusion welding. LBW. 31. Name and define the two types. Arc welding. The three terms mean the same thing: the proportion of the total time in a shift that the arc is actually on. 31. 31. What is the fundamental feature that distinguishes fusion welding from solid state welding? Answer. resistance welding. thermit welding.1 31. consumable bare wire electrode. An electrical arc is a discharge across a gap in a circuit. Answer. such as in GMAW. in addition to being the electrode for the process. and operating factor have in common? Provide a definition of these terms. Answer. Answer." The other category includes EBW.2 WELDING PROCESSES Name the principal groups of processes included in fusion welding. 31. The consumable type.8 Describe the shielded metal arc welding (SMAW) process. no melting occurs. such as argon and helium. Because molten metal from the electrode is transferred across the arc and contributes to the heating of the molten weld pool. melting occurs at the faying surfaces. SAW. It is much easier to automate the feeding of continuous filler wire. Answer. and others. also provide filler metal for the welding joint.7 Why is the heat transfer efficiency greater in arc welding processes that utilize consumable electrodes? Answer. 209 . The nonconsumable type are made of materials that resist melting. Answer. 31. and arc shielding is provided by a cover of granular flux. (1) Shielding gas. FCAW. 31. SMAW is an arc welding process that uses a consumable electrode consisting of a filler metal rod coated with chemicals that provide flux and shielding. or GTAW. the arc is sustained by a thermally ionized column of gas through which the current can flow. such as tungsten and carbon. arc time.31 31.

31. The steps are: (1) the parts are inserted between electrodes. Answer.12 Why are the temperatures much higher in plasma arc welding than in other AW processes? Answer. Cross-wire welding is a form of resistance projection welding used to fabricate welded wire products such as shopping carts and stove grills. the contact points are designed into the geometry of the parts as embossments or projections. either flux-cored wire or bare wire with externally supplied shielding gas.15 Describe the sequence of steps in the cycle of a resistance spot welding operation. Answer. and low melting point.18 31. PGW is a fusion welding process in which coalescence is obtained over the entire contact surfaces of the two parts by heating them with an appropriate fuel mixture and then applying pressure to bond the surfaces.14 What are the desirable properties of a metal that would provide good weldability for resistance welding? Answer.21 Laser beam welding and electron beam welding are often compared because they both produce very high power densities. What are they? 210 . Answer. (4) hold. 31. 31. during which the weld nugget solidifies. 31. 31. 31. What is that disadvantage? Answer.19 Why is the oxyacetylene welding process favored over the other oxyfuel welding processes? Answer. Answer.16 What is resistance projection welding ? Answer.1 to 0. (3) weld. Most prominent in the group is resistance spot welding.20 Electron beam welding has a significant disadvantage in high-production applications. Define pressure gas welding . 31. thus concentrating the energy into a smaller area. and molding shoes to contain the molten pool. Because acetylene and oxygen burn hotter than other oxyfuels. RPW is a resistance welding process in which coalescence occurs at one or more relatively small points on the parts.13 Define resistance welding . and (5) the electrodes are opened and the parts removed. low electrical and thermal conductivity. EGW is an arc welding process that uses a continuous consumable electrode. LBM has certain advantages over EBM. The time to draw the vacuum adds significantly to the production cycle time.17 Describe cross-wire welding .11 Describe electrogas welding (EGW) process and identify its major application. in which the current is switched on for a brief duration (0. (2) squeeze the parts between the electrodes.31. High resistivity. resulting in much higher power densities. RW consists of a group of fusion welding processes that utilize a combination of heat and pressure to accomplish coalescence of the two faying surfaces. 31. 31. Because the arc is restricted in diameter.4 sec). Answer. EBW is usually carried out in a vacuum for a high quality weld.

(1) cracks. In continuous-drive friction welding. particularly arc welding. ultrasonic. (6) selecting proper welding conditions. (3) whether the base metals are similar or dissimilar (dissimilar base metals are generally more difficult to weld). one part is rotated at a constant speed and forced into contact with the stationary part with a certain force so that friction heat is generated at the interface.). Answer. (2) nondestructive evaluation. (2) roll welding. In inertia friction welding.22 There are several modern-day variations of forge welding. and radiographic tests. Answer. and (9) proper design of the weldment to minimize warpage. 31. melting point. (4) surface condition (surfaces should be clean and free of oxides. Describe and distinguish the two types. and other visible defects. 31..26 What are some of the important welding defects? Answer.g. 31. which includes dimensional checks and inspection for warpage. and (3) the laser beam can be focused and directed with conventional optical mirrors and lenses. Answer. etc. What are some of the measures that can be taken to reduce the incidence and extent of distortion? Answer. cracks. coefficient of thermal expansion). then the flywheel is disengaged from the drive motor and the parts are forced together. (3) and hot pressure welding. (2) presetting of the parts in relative orientations to compensate for warpage. 31. (3) heat sinks.28 Identify the factors that affect weldability. It is the actuator which is attached to one of the two parts to be welded with USW and which provides the oscillatory motion that results in coalescence of the two surfaces. when the right temperature is reached. (5) balance the weld about the neutral axis of the part. (2) cavities.29 What are some of the design guidelines for weldments that are fabricated by arc welding? 211 . (1) No vacuum chamber is required and (2) no x-rays are emitted in LBM. 31. (1) Cold welding.25 Distortion (warpage) is a serious problem in fusion welding. 31. (4) incomplete fusion. Answer.Answer. The three categories are: (1) visual inspection. and (3) destructive tests. (8) stress relief of the weldment.6.24 What is a sonotrode in ultrasonic welding? Answer. (4) tack welding at several points along the joint rather than continuous weld. magnetic particle.27 What are the three basic categories of inspection and testing techniques used for weldments? Name some typical inspections and/or tests in each category. the rotating part is connected to a flywheel which is brought up to proper speed. The two types are: (1) continuous-drive friction welding and (2) inertia friction welding. moisture. explained in the text in Section 29. (5) imperfect shape or contour of weld cross-section. which includes conventional mechanical tests adapted to weld joints. which includes dye-penetrant. the original welding process. Name the variations. The following measures. thermal conductivity. and metallurgical tests. can be used to reduce warpage in arc welding: (1) welding fixtures.23 There are two basic types of friction welding. and (5) filler metal and its composition relative to the base metals. (7) preheating of base parts. Factors affect weldability include: (1) welding process. 31. so that the kinetic energy of the flywheel is converted to friction heat for the weld. (3) solid inclusions. 31. the rotating part is stopped abruptly and the two parts are forced together at forging pressures. (2) metal properties (e.

(2) The design of the assembly must provide access room to allow the welding gun to reach the welding area. (b) GMAW. 31. Answer. 31. The arc is sustained in arc welding processes by the transfer of molten metal across the gap between the electrode and the work: (a) true. (c) explosive welding. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 27 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (b) resistance spot welding. (c) GTAW. vertical. (b) GMAW. as opposed to horizontal.5 Which of the following processes are classified as solid state welding (more than one)? (a) CW.4 Which of the following processes are classified as solid state welding? (a) friction welding. or (d) SMAW. (b) electron beam welding. (b) HPW. (b) 212 . Answer. (b) false. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. and (d) 31. (d) RSW. (c) pressure gas welding. (b) false. and (e) upset welding. Answer. (a) and (b) 31. Answer. Answer. (a) and (c) 31.6 An electric arc is a discharge of current across a gap in an electrical circuit. not by the transfer of molten metal. (c) LBW. Answer.7 Which one of the following arc welding processes uses a nonconsumable electrode? (a) FCAW.Answer. (b) friction welding. Machining is sometimes required to achieve satisfactory fit-up. Answer. (a). (c) roll welding. all correct answers must be given. and (d) OAW. but by the presence of a thermally ionized column of gas through which the current flows. or (d) SMAW. (c) GTAW. Answer. design of the assembly should allow flat welding to be performed. (d) percussion welding. (d) thermit welding.2 Which of the following processes is/are classified as fusion welding (more than one)? (a) electrogas welding. (b). or overhead arc welding positions. (3) Whenever possible. (b) The arc is sustained.8 MIG welding is a term sometimes applied when referring to which one of the following processes? (a) FCAW. For each question. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. The guidelines for weldments by arc welding include: (1) Good fit-up of parts to be welded is important to maintain dimensional control and minimize distortion.1 The feature that distinguishes fusion welding processes from solid state welding is that melting of the faying surfaces occurs during fusion welding: (a) true. (a) 31. (c) 31.3 Which of the following processes are classified as fusion welding (more than one)? (a) diffusion welding. (c) and (d) 31.

(c) SAW. 31. or (a) TIG. (a) Copper is a relatively easy metal to weld because its thermal conductivity is high: (a) true. Answer. such as aluminum and copper. (b) false. (d). (b). Answer.31. (a) The term "laser" stands for "light actuated system for effective reflection": (a) true. (b) false. (b) carbon monoxide. and no filler metal is added: (a) true. Answer. but also the quality of the resulting weld: (a) true. (b) Shielding gases used for welding do not include which of the following (more than one)? (a) argon. (b) Pressure is applied in RW processes and is key to the success of these processes. Higher resistance is required in the conversion of electrical power to heat energy.10 31. The heat readily flows 31. Answer. metals with high resistivity are generally preferable. or (d) SMAW. Answer. Answer. (a) and (b) The term weldability takes into account not only the ease with which a welding operation can be performed. (d) hydrogen.13 31.16 31. and (e) nitrogen. and (e) Resistance welding processes make use of the heat generated by electrical resistance to achieve fusion of the two parts to be joined. hence. Answer." Which of the following solid state welding processes applies heat from an external source (more than one)? (a) diffusion welding. (d) ultrasonic welding. no pressure is used in these processes. (b) false. (b) false.11 31. (b) PAW.15 Oxyacetylene welding is the most widely used oxyfuel welding process because acetylene mixed with an equal volume of air burns hotter than any other commercially available fuel: (a) true. or (d) SMAW. Answer. (b) Laser stands for "light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation. (b) GMAW. (c) GTAW. Answer.12 31. Answer. (c) friction welding. (c) helium. Metals that are easiest to weld in resistance welding are ones that have low resistivities since low resistivity assists in the flow of electrical current: (a) true. are difficult to weld in RW. (b) forge welding.18 31. Answer. (a) Which one of the following arc welding processes produces the highest temperatures? (a) CAW. but this is one of the main reasons why copper is generally difficult to weld. (b) false. (b) GMAW. one of the highest of any metal. (b) True that copper has a high thermal conductivity.19 213 .14 31. (d) Which of the following AW processes uses an electrode consisting of continuous consumable tubing containing flux and other ingredients in its core? (a) FCAW. (c) GTAW.17 31. or (b) false. (b) Metals with low resistivities.9 "Stick" welding is a term sometimes applied when referring to which one of the following processes? (a) FCAW.

3 A shielded metal arc welding operation is performed on steel at E = 30 volts and I = 225 amps. and 2. the welding stick must be changed.5 min to unload the completed weldment at the end of the cycle. fitter and robot work simultaneously.0) + 2. The heat transfer efficiency f 1 = 0. Determine: (a) arc time and (b) production rate for this work cell.5 = 15. and the travel speed used by the welder averages 400 mm/min. and while the welder is working.1 A SMAW operation is accomplished in a work cell using a fitter and a welder.2 J/mm3) = 421. and the fitter who loads and unloads the parts.4 A GTAW operation is performed on stainless steel.0/15. The electrode wire spool must be changed every five workparts. and the final weld bead is composed of equal volumes of 214 . Problems Arc welding 31.5 + 5. Limiting cycle is the fitter: arc time = 5. (a) Determine the average arc time in this welding cycle.5 = 5.75)(30)(225) = 4303. Every 750 mm of weld length. While the fitter is working.into the body of the parts that are to be welded. Solve for: (a) the rate of heat generation at the weld and (b) the volume rate of metal welded. With two fixtures.133 min. given that the spool of flux-cored weld wire must be changed every five weldments. they switch places. The unit melting energy for steel = 10. which takes 0. I = 125 amps.8) + 2.0 min to accomplish the change. The fitter takes 5.0 mm diameter is added to the operation.133 + 2.85)(0. 31. The conditions are: E = 25 volts. the fitter is idle.67 pc/hr. f 1 = 0. rather than remaining at the localized region where the joint is to be made.5 + 5. The cell consists of the robot (using GMAW instead of SMAW or FCAW).2 In the previous problem. At the end of each work cycle. Solution: (a) Fitter: Tc = 5.133 = 33.0 minutes and is accomplished by the fitter. suppose an industrial robot cell were installed to replace the welder.1 W (b) WVR = (4303.0 = 6.7% (c) SMAW Rp = 60/15. Solution: (a) HRw = f1f2EI = (0.85 and melting efficiency f 2 = 0. (c) What are the production rates for these two cases (weldments completed per hour)? Solution: (a) SMAW cycle time Tc = 5.0 min. Arc time = 5.0 = 35. The total length of the several weld seams to be made is 2000 mm. Robot: Tc = 2000/400 = 5.133 = 3.0 min.5 + 2000/400 + (2000/750)(0. (b) How much improvement in arc time would result if the welder used FCAW (manually operated).5 + 2000/400 + (1/5)(5. Arc time = 5. the welder is idle (resting).0/9.5 = 5.5% (b) Rp = 60/9.75.0 = 55.5 + 2.0) = 9. If filler metal wire of 3.9 mm3/sec.0 + 2.0 + 2. two welding fixtures.0/14. the robot welding at one fixture while the fitter unloads and loads at the other. which task requires 5. 31.3 J/mm3. and f 2 = 0.96 pc/hr FCAW Rp = 60/14. whose unit melting energy Um = 9. and it takes the welder 5.5 = 14.65. 31.70.29 pc/hr.0% (b) FCAW cycle time Tc = 5.2 J/mm3.0 min.0 + 1.5 min to place the unwelded components into the welding fixture at the beginning of the work cycle.1 W)/(10.5 + (1/5)(5.0 = 4.8 min.

9 for FCAW.0 ft.9 x 25 x 125) = 0.01462)/(0.88 x 80) = 9. The tube is slowly rotated under a stationary welding head.50 in 3 per minute. (b) What is the travel speed if the cross-sectional area of the weld bead = 0. using a submerged arc welding operation under automatic control at a voltage of 25 volts and current of 300 amps.7 A continuous weld is to be made around the circumference of a round steel tube of diameter = 6. The rate at which the filler metal is added to the weld is 0.6(5) = 153 mm3/s Filler wire A = π D2/4 = π (3) 2/4 = 7.5.2 in/rev) = 0.05 in 2? Solution: (a) f1f2EI = UmAwv Awv = welding volume rate = WVR = (0.2 in/rev. Solution: From Table 31. f1f2EI = Um(WVR) 1 Btu/sec = 1055 J/s = 1055 W.6 mm2 (b) Aw v = 30. From Table 30.77 mm/s 31.9 = 46.50)/7. Um = 3. feed rate of filler wire = 153(0.125(0.70)(25)(125) = 9.5 A flux-cored arc welding operation is performed to butt weld two aluminum plates together.2.120) = 0.76 in/min.06967 rev/min.01462 in 3/sec. I = 125 amps.5 Aw Aw = 1421.07 = 10. = 0. so 75 Btu/sec = 79.1.7)(25)(300)/(158. If the unit melting energy for the steel = 150 Btu/in3. determine: (a) the rotational speed of tube and (b) the time required to complete the weld.125 W f2 = Um(WVR)/ f1EI = 79. Using tabular data and equations given in this and the preceding chapter. and measurements indicate that the final weld bead consists of 57% filler metal and 43% base metal. Solution: (a) f1f2EI = UmAwv v = f1f2EI/UmAw 1 Btu/sec = 1055 J/s = 1055 W.250 W v = 0. Therefore. and heat transfer efficiency is assumed to be f 1 = 0.6 A gas metal arc welding test is performed to determine the value of melting efficiency f2 for a certain metal and operation. a typical value for GMAW. 31.05 = 17. Tm = 930°K for aluminum.9/46. The cross-sectional area of the weld seam = 80 mm2 and the melting efficiency of the aluminum is assumed to be f 2 = 0. 31.65(0.263 in/sec = 15.95(0. The welding conditions are: E = 25 volts.3(Aw)(5) 1421. using the following conditions: E = 20 volts and I = 250 amps.877 in 3/min.5 = 30.877/0. Solution: (a) HRw = f1f2EI = UmAwv 0. The unit melting energy for the metal is known to be 75 Btu/in 3.07 mm2 At 50% filler metal.82 mm/s.250 x 0. so 150 Btu/sec = 158. The cross-sectional area of the weld bead is 0. 215 .95 and the assumed melting efficiency f 2 = 0. v = (WVR)/Aw = 0.filler and base metal.50 in 3/min)/0.9(0.05 in2. and (b) the feed rate (in mm/sec) at which the filler wire must be supplied. Rotational speed N = (15. (a) Find f 2.12 in 2.76 in/min)/(226.88 J/mm3 f1f2EI = UmAwv v = f1f2EI/UmAw = 0.33 x 10-6 (930) 2 = 2. Circumference C = π D = 12 x 6π = 226. determine: (a) cross-sectional area of the weld bead.57 = 0. If the travel speed in the operation v = 5 mm/sec.5)(20)(250)/(2.7.90.41 (b) Given that Aw = 0. The heat transfer efficiency for SAW is f 1 = 0. f2 = 0.54 in/min. determine the likely value for travel speed v in the operation.

0017) = 0. it is desired to form a weld nugget that is 6. and that only one-third of the electrical energy generated will be used to form the weld nugget (the rest being dissipated into the work).19 in and thickness = 0.5)/4 = 49.64 x 106 A2. To achieve required strength.1 mm3) = 142.2 mm3 Hm = 10(127. Process parameters are: current = 9500 A and time duration = 0.19) 2/4 = 0.19) 2(0.350 A.5)/4 = 127.17 sec.9 J/mm3)(49.255/1.35 x 103 = 12. Solution: (a) PD = I2R/A A = π D2/4 = π (0.10 A resistance spot welding operation is performed on two pieces of 0.1% 31.35 min.2) = 1272 J Required heat for the RSW operation H = 1272/(1/3) = 3816 J H = I2Rt = I2(125 x 10-6)(0.454 = 0.8 A RSW operation is used to make a series of spot welds between two pieces of aluminum. I = 12.17) = 1534 W-sec = 1. and the resistance at the interface is 75 micro-ohms. the weld duration t = 0.554 Btu/sec PD = 8. The unit melting energy for aluminum Um = 2.000 amps.0 mm in diameter by 2.351 = 35.15) = 405 W-sec = 405 J Weld nugget volume V = π D2d/4 = π (5) 2(2. Resistance welding 31.1 mm3 Heat required for melting = UmV = (2. so 9025 W = 8. 31.0 J/mm3. and (b) the proportion of energy generated that went into formation of the weld nugget.2) = 25 x 10-6 I2 = 3816 J I2 = 3816/(25 x 10-6) = 152.175 = 17.4 J Proportion of heat for welding =142.454 Btu Weld nugget volume V = π D2d/4 = π (0.15 sec.060 in. determine the minimum current level required in this operation.90 J/mm3. Assume the resistance = 100 micro-ohms.0 mm in diameter and 4. Continuous motion 216 . The weld duration will be set at 0.02835 = 302 Btu/sec-in2 (b) H = I2Rt = (9500) 2 (100 x 10-6)(0.554/0.040 in thick sheet steel (low carbon). time duration = 0.(b) Time to weld around circumference = C/v = (226.3 sec.5% 31. Assume that the resistance = 75 micro-ohms.5 mm thick. Welding current I = 6.5 mm thick austenitic stainless steel to fabricate a container. How much of the total energy generated is used to form the weld nugget? Solution: H = I2Rt = (5000) 2(75 x 10-6)(0.2 in/rev)/(15.76 in/min) = 14. Determine: (a) the average power density in the interface area defined by the weld nugget.000 amps.0 mm. Solution: Hm = UmV V = π D2d/4 = π (6) 2(4.11 A resistance seam welding operation is performed on two pieces of 2.9 The unit melting energy for a certain sheet metal to be spot welded is Um = 10.5 mm thick.0 mm thick.4/405 = 0. The thickness of each of the two sheets to be welded is 3. This results in a weld nugget of diameter = 0.255 Btu Proportion of heat for welding = 0. If it is assumed that the electrical resistance between the surfaces is 125 micro-ohms. The resulting weld nugget measures 5. each 2. The unit melting energy for steel = 150 Btu/in 3.02835 in 2 I2R = (9500) 2 (100 x 10-6) = 9025 W 1 Btu/sec = 1055 W.0017 in 3 Heat required for melting = UmV = (150 Btu/in 3)(0.2 sec. The weld current in the operation is 10.060)/4 = 0.

and (c) the rotational speed of the electrode wheels. This movement is likely to have the effect of making the weld spot elliptical in shape.0 s.77 mm. The individual weld nuggets formed in this RSEW operation have dimensions: diameter = 6 mm and thickness = 3 mm (assume the weld nuggets are disc-shaped).61 mm/s. = 276. Surface speed of electrode wheel v = 25 mm/1.14 mm3 217 . H = I2Rt = (10. and the center-to-center separation between weld nuggets is 25 mm.3) = 2225 J Proportion of heat for welding =788/2225= 0.9 mm/min)/(200π mm/rev) = 0.82 mm3) = 788 J H = I2Rt = (10. and might this have the effect of elongating the weld nugget (making it elliptical rather than round)? Solution: (a) Um = 3.29 J/mm3)(84.33 x 10-6 (1670) 2 = 9. 31.836 rev/min. where I = amp and t = sec.welding is used.3) = 3000 J Proportion of heat for welding =788/3000 = 0. At the end of the power-on time.263 (b) Total cycle time per spot weld = 1. Therefore.29 J/mm3 from previous problem.23 mm/s) = 5.3 sec)(19. These weld nuggets must be contiguous to form a sealed seam.12 Suppose in the previous problem that a roll spot welding operation is performed instead of seam welding. Given the conditions from the previous problem.3 sec = (0. N = v/π D = (1153. The sheet metal being spot welded is low carbon steel whose unit melting energy = 10 J/mm3. Distance moved per spot weld in order to have contiguous spot welds for the seam = D = 0.3 sec. determine: (a) the unit melting energy of stainless steel using the methods of the previous chapter.3 sec = 19. Hm = (9. Solution: (a) From Table 30. The desired weld nugget size is: diameter = 4 mm and thickness = 2 mm (assume a disc-shaped nugget). surface speed of electrode wheel v = 6. Movement of wheel during 0. The power unit driving the process requires an off-time between spot welds of 1. The interface resistance increases to 100 micro-ohms.441 rev/min.354 (c) Total cycle time per weld = 0. Determine the power-on time the current must be applied in order to perform this spot welding operation. Given these conditions. N = v/π D = (276. (b) Hm = UmV V = π D2d/4 = π (6.25 in. with 200 mm diameter electrode wheels.8 mm/min)/(200π in/rev) = 1. with the changes noted here.0 = 1.8 mm/min. The resistance R = 85 micro-ohms.9 mm/min.0) 2(3.000) 2(100 x 10-6)(0. (c) At this higher rotational speed.23 mm/s = 1153.3 + 1.2.29 J/mm3)(84.3 sec as in previous problem. Solution: Hm = UmV V = π D2d/4 = π (4) 2(2)/4 = 25.13 An experimental power source for spot welding is designed to deliver current as a ramp function of time: I = 100.3 sec. determine: (a) the proportion of energy generated that goes into the formation of each weld nugget.82 mm3) = 788 J from previous problem.00 mm/1. 31. the current is stopped abruptly.3 sec = 4. and (b) the rotational speed of the electrode wheels.0)/4 = 84.000 t. Tm = 1670°K for austenitic stainless steel. (c) Power-on time during cycle = 0.29 J/mm3. (b) the proportion of energy generated that goes into the formation of each weld nugget.000) 2(75 x 10-6)(0. It is assumed that 1/4 of the energy generated from the power source will be used to form the weld nugget. Um = 3. how much does the wheel move during the current on-time. Distance moved per spot weld = 25 mm as given.82 mm3 Hm = (9.33 x 10-6 (1670) 2 = 9.

so that the cross-section of the fused metal is 0.94 Btu/sec-in.3 m3/hr)(91.75(1.4/0.000t)2 R dt = 100.031943 t = (0. Solution: Power density PD = f1EI/A Power P = f1EI = 0.30) 2/4 = 0. beam current = 30 milliamp. and melting efficiency f 2 = 0. Calculate the average power density in the area in watt/mm2. heat transfer efficiency f 1 = 0.000R ∫ t2 dt = (105)2(85 x 10-6)t3/3 evaluated between 0 and t.6 t3 = 1005.0 mm thick.85. 2 Electron beam welding 31. 2 Power density PD = 0.15 An oxyacetylene torch supplies 10 ft3 of acetylene per hour and an equal volume rate of oxygen for an OAW operation on 3/16 in steel. (b) rate of heat transferred to the work surface.5 W Area A = π D2/4 = π (0.08 Btu/sec (b) Rate of heat received at work surface = f1 HR = 0.25.35 mm by 3. If accelerating voltage = 25 kV.08 Btu/sec) = 1. The unit melting energy = 5. and (c) average power density in the circular area.317 s.5 x 106 J/hr = 7642 J/s (b) Rate of heat received at work surface = f1 HR = 0.5/0. Oxyfuel Welding 31.0 W/mm2 31.1104 in. 218 .000t3/3 = 31481.14 Suppose in Example 31. and (c) average power density in the circular area.031943) 1/3 = 0.60(1910)/63.5 = 0.25 = 1005. determine the travel speed at which this weld can be made along the seam.6/31481.35 mm wide. Compute: (a) rate of heat liberated during combustion. The weld joint is to be 0.17 An electron beam welding operation is to be accomplished to butt weld two sheet metal parts that are 3.25(4.700 Btu/hr = 4.4 J H = 251.1104 in 2) = 6.75.0 mm. H = 850. The heat transfer efficiency f 1 = 0.85(50 x 103)(65 x 10-3) = 2762. If 75% of the heat from the flame is concentrated in a circular area on the work surface whose diameter = 0. Heat generated by combustion is transferred to the work surface with an efficiency f1 = 0.02 Btu/sec)/(0.5 t3 = 1005.6 = 18.0 J/mm3.7 x 106 J/m3) = 27.375 in.02 Btu/sec (c) Area of circle in which 75% of heat is concentrated A = π D2/4 = π (0.14 mm3) = 251.16 The voltage in an EBW operation = 50 kV and the beam current = 65 milliamp. find: (a) rate of heat liberated during combustion.6 mm2 Power density PD = 0.0) 2/4 = 63.3 in the text that the fuel used in the welding operation is MAPP instead of acetylene.0707 mm3 PD = 2762.3 mm in diameter. Solution: (a) Rate of heat generated by the torch HR = (0. (b) rate of heat transferred to the work surface.85.074 W/mm2 31.6 J Power P = ∫ I2R dt = ∫(100. Solution: (a) Rate of heat generated by the torch HR = (10 ft3/hr)(1470 Btu/ft3) = 14.Hm = (10 J/mm3)(25.25(7642) = 1910 J/s (c) Area of circle in which 60% of heat is concentrated A = π D2/4 = π (9.0707 = 39.375) 2/4 = 0. and the proportion of heat concentrated in the 9 mm circle is 60% instead of 75 %. The electron beam is focused on a circular area that is 0.

05 mm2 v = 0.0 x 1.000314 = 6792 Btu/sec-in2 219 . and the circular area on which the beam is focused has a diameter = 0.000314 in 3 Power P = 0.85(0.020 in. determine the average power density in the area in Btu/sec in 2.90(25 x 103)(100 x 10-3)/1055 = 2. beam current = 100 milliamp. Solution: Power density PD = f1EI/A Area in which beam is focused A = π D2/4 = π (0.133 Btu/sec PD = 2.020) 2/4 = 0.35)(3. If the heat transfer efficiency f 1 = 90%.18 An electron beam welding operation uses the following process parameters: accelerating voltage = 25 kV.133/0.05) = 91.75)(25 x 103)(30 x 10-3)/(5.05 mm/s 31.0) = 1.Solution: Available heat for welding HRw = f1f2EI = UmAwv Travel velocity v = f1f2EI/UmAw Cross sectional area of weld seam Aw = (0.

32. whereas in solid state welding no filler metal is added. It is caused by the adhesive attraction between the liquid molecules and the solid surfaces that define the narrow openings.1 32. Certain changes in joint configuration are usually made to improve the strength of brazed joints. (2) have a low melting temperature. the butting surface areas are increased in various ways such as scarfing or stepping the edges. and (5) protect the joint until solidification occurs. In brazing and soldering. Several of the adaptations are illustrated in the figures of this chapter. The parts to be brazed are dipped into a molten salt or molten metal bath which supplies the heating for the operation. What are some of these changes? Answer.3 What is the technical difference between brazing and soldering? Answer. the overlap area is made as large as possible. AND ADHESIVE BONDING Review Questions How do brazing and soldering differ from the fusion welding processes? Answer.9 What is dip brazing ? Answer. A brazing flux should do the following: (1) inhibit the formation of oxides and other unwanted byproducts during the brazing. In soldering the filler metal melts at a temperature of 840 degrees F or below. SOLDERING. no melting of the base metal(s) occurs. (4) be a good wetting agent.8 What are the desirable characteristics of a brazing flux? Answer.5 32. 220 . (4) joint areas might be inaccessible for welding but brazing or soldering is possible. 32. and (5) the high strength of a welded joint is not a requirement.10 Define braze welding . Butt and lap joints. 32.32 32. In brazing and soldering filler metal is used.7 The molten filler metal in brazing is distributed throughout the joint by capillary action. (3) have a low viscosity when melted. In brazing the filler metal melts at a temperature above 840 degrees F (450 degrees C). In butt joints.6 What are the two joint types most commonly used in brazing? Answer.4 Under what circumstances would brazing or soldering be preferred over welding? Answer. Capillary action is the physical tendency of a liquid to be drawn into a small diameter tube or other narrow openings in spite of the force of gravity. How do brazing and soldering differ from the solid state welding processes? Answer. 32. 32. Brazing or soldering might be preferred if: (1) the base metals have poor weldability. (3) production rates might be faster and less expensive than welding. (2) the components cannot tolerate the higher heat and temperatures of welding. What is capillary action? Answer.2 BRAZING. In brazed or soldered lap joints. 32. 32.

Curing is the chemical reaction in which the adhesive transforms from liquid to solid and in the process forms the surface attachment between the two adherends. These chemical solvents are hazardous to the environment and to humans. Wave soldering involves the flow of molten solder onto the underside of a printed circuit board to provide soldered connections between the component leads that project through holes in the boards. 32.20 What are some of the methods used to cure adhesives? Answer. and (4) the color of the filler metal is often different than the color of the base metals. 32. (3) good electrical and thermal conductivity of the joint. 32. (3) convey solder to the joint. and (4) withdraw excess solder from the joint. Why are rosins as soldering fluxes losing favor in industry? Answer. Advantages of soldering: (1) lower heat energy required than brazing or welding. such as a V-joint. 221 . 32. It differs from a conventional welding operation in that no melting of the base metals occurs. 32.21 Name the three basic categories of commercial adhesives. A structural adhesive is capable of forming a strong permanent joint between strong. and (5) ease of repair and rework. epoxies).13 What are the two most common alloying metals used in solders? Answer. 32.16 List the advantages often attributed to soldering as an industrial joining process? Answer.18 What is meant by the term structural adhesive? Answer. The functions include: (1) provide heat to the parts. (2) high service temperatures may weaken a brazed joint. Tin and lead. (1) low mechanical strength unless reinforced and (2) elevated service temperatures can weaken the joint. Disadvantages and limitations: (1) the strength of the brazed joint is generally less than that of a welded joint. The curing methods include: chemical reaction between two components of the adhesive (e. (2) melt the solder. (3) part sizes are limited. use of ultraviolet light.19 An adhesive must cure in order to bond.11 What are some of the disadvantages and limitations of brazing? Answer.14 What are the functions served by the bit of a soldering iron in hand soldering? Answer. Since natural rosin is insoluble in water. Braze welding is used for adding braze metal to a more conventional geometry weld joint.. 32. What is meant by the term curing ? Answer. chemical solvents must be used to remove the flux after the joining operation. heating of the adhesive. 32.Answer. (2) various heating methods available.17 What are the disadvantages and drawbacks of soldering? Answer.15 What is wave soldering ? Answer. 32. rigid components. (4) capable of making air-tight and liquid-tight joints. and application of pressure.g. 32. It differs from the typical brazing operation in that no capillary action occurs.12 32.

2 The strength of a brazed joint is typically which one of the following relative to the filler metal out of which it is made: (a) equal to.025 mm (0.g. For each question. 32. 32.). (4) surfaces to be bonded must be very clean. or (b) false. 32.23 What are some of the methods used to apply adhesives in industrial production operations? Answer. The surfaces of the adherends must be very clean.1 In brazing. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. (5) spraying. (4) certain adhesives are flexible after curing. starch.250 to 2.20 in.25 What are some of the limitations of adhesive bonding? Answer. or (b) false. (3) bonding occurs over entire surface area of joint.). (3) service temperatures are limited.001 to 0. 32.5 to 5.100 in.001 in. (2) fragile parts can be joined. Methods include: (1) manual brushing.24 Identify some of the advantages of adhesive bonding compared to alternative joining methods. Answer. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. (2) inorganic adhesives (e. collagen). Answer. Limitations of adhesive bonding: (1) adhesively bonded joints are generally not as strong as other joining techniques.22 What is an important precondition for the success of an adhesive bonding operation? Answer.). (b) Neither brazing or soldering involve melting of the base metals.0025 to 0.025 to 0. (6) inspection of the bond is difficult.3 Scarfing in the brazing of a butt joint involves the wrapping of a sheath around the two parts to be joined to contain the molten filler metal during the heating process: (a) true. sodium silicate). and (7) roll coating. 32.0001 to 0. (5) low curing temperatures. (b) 32. (2) the adhesive must be compatible with the adherend materials.010 in. (c) 0. or (d) 2. Special surface preparation is sometimes required immediately prior to application of the adhesive in order to insure cleanliness.0 mm (0. (5) curing times can limit production rates.010 to 0.. (3) silk screening.g. Advantages of adhesive bonding: (1) applicable to a wide variety of materials . Answer. (6) automatic dispensers.. 32. (b) Scarfing involves a preparation of the two edges to increase surface area for brazing. (4) use of flow guns.Answer. all correct answers must be given. (6) some adhesives are suited to sealing as well as bonding. 222 . Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 24 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). and (3) synthetic adhesives (e. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers.similar or dissimilar..). since each correct answer is worth 1 point. The categories are: (1) natural adhesives (e. and (7) simplified joint design. Answer. To attain a perfect score on the quiz.10 to 0. (2) use of manual rollers. thus permitting them to tolerate strains encountered in service.4 Clearances between surfaces in brazing are which one of the following: (a) 0.250 mm (0.g. thermoplastic and thermosetting polymers such as epoxies and acrylics). (b) 0. 32.50 mm (0. the base metals melt at temperatures above 840°F (450°C) while in soldering they melt at 840°F (450°C) or below: (a) true. (b) stronger than. or (c) weaker than.

(a). (a) 32.5 Which of the following is an advantage of brazing (more than one): (a) dissimilar metals can be joined. or (e) tin. (d).13 Adhesively bonded joints are strongest under which type of stresses (pick two best answers): (a) cleavage. which one of the following is the term used for the parts that are joined: (a) adherend. (b) less heat and energy required than fusion welding. (b) 32. (c) soldering iron. (d) stronger joint than welding. (c). (b) mechanical interlocking. (c) and (e). Answer. (d) adhibit.15 Roughening of the faying surfaces tends to (a) increase. 32. (b). Answer. Answer. and (e) wave soldering. (c) multiple joints can be brazed simultaneously. (c) shear.9 Which of the following metals is used in solder alloys (more than one)? (a) antimony. in which a primary chemical bond is formed between the adhesive and the parts being joined. (c) water-soluble organic fluxes. 32. (b) promote wetting of the surfaces.7 Which one of the following is not a function of a flux in brazing or soldering? (a) chemically etch the surfaces to increase roughness for better adhesion of the filler metal. Answer. or (b) false. 32.10 A soldering gun is capable of injecting molten solder metal into the joint area: (a) true. (b) The trigger on a soldering gun is used to switch on the electric resistance heating elements. (b) adherent. and (d) tension. (c) secondary bonding forces between atoms of opposing surfaces. Answer. 32. (b) gold. 32.6 Which of the following soldering methods are not used for brazing (more than one)? (a) dip soldering. (c) and (d).14 Which of the following are the mechanisms that operate in adhesive bonding (more than one)? (a) chemical bonding. and (c). Answer. or (b) reduce the strength of an adhesively bonded joint because it increases the effective area of the joint and promotes mechanical interlocking. or (d) remove or inhibit formation of oxide films. and (d) surface tension of the fluid adhesive. (b) Weldbonding is a combination of adhesive bonding and spot welding.12 Weldbonding is an adhesive joining method in which heat is used to melt the adhesive: (a) true. (b). or (b) false. 32. (b) infrared soldering. Answer. and (e).11 In adhesive bonding. (e) ad infinitum. (b) peeling. (c) lead. 32. (d) silver. (d) torch soldering. (a) 32. 223 . (a) Preferred because it is water-soluble. Answer.Answer. (a).8 Which type of soldering flux is preferred for electrical and electronics connections? (c) inorganic fluxes such as zinc chloride. (a). and (c). (c) adhesive. Answer. (b) natural rosin fluxes. (c) protect the faying surfaces during the process. Answer. 32.

Answer. (a) 224 .

or (3) excessive tensile load on the cross-sectional area of the bolt or screw. 33. welding. Mechanical assembly uses a mechanical fastening method for joining two (or more) parts.33 33. Torque-turn tightening involves the tightening of the threaded fastener to a certain low torque level. and to make adjustments. 33. the outside part is expanded by heating to fit over the mating component. 33. whereas a bolt is assembled using a nut. and then advancing the fastener by a specified additional amount of turn. 33. 225 . 33. upon warming to room temperature.8 What is a rivet? Answer. A screw is generally assembled into a blind threaded hole. Answer. the internal part is cooled so that it can be readily inserted into the mating component. 33. In an expansion fit. etc.5 What is torque-turn tightening ? Answer. (1) The method is fast. Also. 33. to replace worn-out components.7 What are the three ways in which a threaded fastener can fail during tightening? Answer. In a shrink fit.)? Answer. Then cooling causes an interference fit with the component.3 What is the technical difference between a screw and a bolt? Answer.4 What is a stud (in the context of threaded fasteners)? Answer.1 MECHANICAL ASSEMBLY How does mechanical assembly differ from the other methods of assembly discussed in previous chapters (e. A rivet is an unthreaded headed pin used to join two parts by inserting the pin through holes in the parts and deforming the unheaded portion over the opposite side.g.not possible with welding and brazing.9 What is the difference between a shrink fit and expansion fit in assembly? Answer. Both are externally threaded fasteners. brazing.6 Define proof strength as the term applies in threaded fasteners. it expands to cause an interference fit with its mating part. (2) stripping of the internal fastener threads. many of the mechanical fastening methods allow for disassembly . (2) no tooling is required. and (3) the parts can be designed with self-aligning features. Review Questions 33. For maintenance and repair service.2 What are some of the reasons why assemblies must be sometimes disassembled? Answer. Then. 33.. Proof strength can be defined as the maximum tensile stress that an externally threaded fastener can sustain without permanent deformation.10 What are the advantages of snap fitting? Answer. (1) Stripping of the bolt or screw threads. A stud is an externally threaded fastener that does not have the usual head possessed by a bolt.

33. In stapling. that is. (2) Reduce the number of threaded fasteners required. 226 . To attain a perfect score on the quiz. Riley [11] suggests that each module or subassembly to be produced on a single assembly system has a maximum of 12 or 13 parts and should be designed around a base part to which other components are added. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. 33. and similar fastening mechanisms that can be accomplished more rapidly. slots. Assembly is by simple insertion.12 What are integral fasteners? Answer. 33.13 Identify some of the general principles and guidelines for design for assembly.33. For each question. the number of directions in which new components are added to the existing subassembly. (4) Reduce parts orientation difficulties by designing parts to be symmetrical and minimizing the number of asymmetric features. (c) stall-motor wrenches. If all of the components can be added vertically from above. e. Some of the general principles and guidelines in design for assembly include: (1) Use the fewest number of parts possible to reduce the amount of assembly required. (4) Use only high quality components. or (b) machining. This allows easier handling and insertion during assembly. Use threaded fasteners only where justified. (a) 33. Integral fasteners make use of a forming operation on one of the parts to be joined to interlock the components and create a mechanically fastened joint. (5) Use of snap fit assembly.1 Most externally threaded fasteners are produced by: (a) cold forming. holes. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. The preferred practice for automated assembly is to separate the operations at different stations rather than to simultaneously handle and fasten multiple components at the same workstation. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (5) Avoid parts that tangle. the fasteners are preformed.11 What is the difference between industrial stitching and stapling? Answer. instead use snap fits. (2) Reduce the need for multiple components to be handled at once. (b) snap fit. eliminating the need for threaded fasteners.14 Identify some of the general principles and guidelines that apply specifically to automated assembly. usually from above. Some of the principles and guidelines that apply specifically to automated assembly include: (1) Use modularity in product design. Parts with hooks. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 18 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). or (d) torque wrench. In stitching the U-shaped fasteners are formed during the assembly process. Answer. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. this is the ideal situation. Poor quality components cause jams in feeding and assembly mechanisms that result in downtime. Answer. where disassembly or adjustment is required. all correct answers must be given. (3) Standardize fasteners in order to reduce the number of sizes and styles of fasteners required in the product. Answer. (3) Limit the required directions of access. retaining rings.. integral fasteners. 33. frustrating assembly workers or jamming automatic feeders.2 Which of the following methods is used for applying the required torque to achieve a desired preload of a threaded fastener (more than one)? (a) sense of feel by a human operator. and curls are more likely to become entangled in parts bins.g.

the external part is heated sufficiently to increase its size for assembly. it is more desirable to use few large threaded fasteners rather than many small ones because the large fasteners are easier to handle and since there are fewer of them. Answer.7 The difference between industrial stitching and stapling is that the U-shaped fasteners are formed during the stitching process while in stapling the fasteners are preformed: (a) true. Answer.4 Which of the following are the common ways in which threaded fasteners fail during tightening (more than one)? (a) excessive pressure applied to the bolt or screw head by the tightening tool (e. it then expands to form the interference fit. (a) and (e).5 The difference between a shrink fit and an expansion fit is that in a shrink fit the internal part is cooled to a sufficiently low temperature to reduce its size for assembly. In a shrink fit the external part is heated and then cooled to shrink it onto the internal part. When brought back to room temperature in either case. they require less assembly time. Answer.Answer. or (b) false. (a) true. Answer. so as to minimize the number of ways the parts will go together. and (d) no heat affected zone in the base parts. (c) the components can be designed with features that facilitate parts mating. (b). (a) 33. (a). or (d) stripping of the internal or external threads. 33. or (b) false. (b). (a). and (d) 33.3 Which of the following are reasons for using mechanical assembly (more than one)? (a) ease of assembly. All of the other answers go against design-for-assembly principles. (a). (c) design with as many different fastener types as possible to achieve maximum flexibility in design.6 The advantages of snap fit assembly include which of the following (more than one)? (a) assembly can be accomplished quickly. 227 . Snap fit joints are not recognized as being stronger than joints produced by other assembly methods. screwdriver) resulting in failure of the head. (b) no special tools are required. (b). Answer (c) certainly includes the scope of mechanical assembly but it is not a reason for using it. 33. (b) ease of disassembly. (c). whereas in an expansion fit. an interference fit is formed. (b) From the standpoint of assembly cost. (c) in some cases involves a melting of the base parts. or (b) false. (b) design the product using bolts and nuts wherever possible to allow for disassembly. 33. In an expansion fit.g.9 Which of the following are considered good product design rules for automated assembly (more than one)? (a) design the assembly with the fewest number of components possible. 33. and (c). and (d) the resulting joint is stronger than with most other assembly methods.. Answer. Answer. (c). (c) excessive tensile stresses. (d) design parts with asymmetric features to mate with other parts having corresponding (but reverse) features. it is more desirable to use many small threaded fasteners rather than few large ones in order to distribute the stresses more uniformly: (a) true. (b). Answer. and (d). (b) excessive shearing stresses on the threads due to inadequate length of engagement. and (e) limit the required directions of access when adding components to a base part.8 From the standpoint of assembly cost. and (d) 33. the internal part is cooled to contract it for assembly.

Problems Threaded Fasteners 33.5 mm) is to be turned into a threaded hole and tightened to one/half of its proof strength. Determine: (a) the smallest nominal size of an alloy steel bolt (proof strength = 120.99 mm2 σ = 0. Solution: As = 0. or 3/4-10. and a higher strength but smaller bolt would be preferable. 10 threads/in) in an automobile final assembly plant. pitch p = 1.1).9382 x 1. determine the torque that should be applied.9382 x 2) 2 = 156. 33.2 x 16) = 3750 N.1 N-mm = 15. However.000(0. 33. T = CDF = 0.334 = 2495 lb/in2 33.1 A 5-mm diameter bolt is to be tightened to produce a preload = 25 N.0. Determine the maximum torque that should be used if C = 0.000 N-mm F = T/CD = 12. If the torque coefficient C = 0. 33.18.22. Solution: T = CDF = 0.20.7 = 23.94 MPa.3/0. 5/8-11.25.4) = 15. 8 threads/in) is currently planned for a certain application.000 lb/in 2 (Table 33. T = CDF = 0. which is 33.5) 2 = 57.4 N. 3/8-16. 16 threads/in) in a certain application should be stressed to its proof stress of 33.7 A 1-8 UNC low carbon steel bolt (diameter = 1. As = 0. 5/16-18.0.50)(1000) = 110 in-lb. Solution: F = T/CD = 125/(0.0 in.75) = 833.5) = 240 in-lb. 33.4 A 1/2-in diameter screw is to be preloaded to a tension force F = 1000 lb.23.657.0775) = 2557.2 A Metric 10 x 1.25π (10 . determine the tension in the bolt.9743/16) 2 = 0.5 A torque wrench is used on a 3/4-10 UNC screw (3/4 in nominal diameter.94 N/mm2 = 23.000 lb/in 2 (see Table 33. and (b) compare the torque required to obtain the preload for the original 1-in bolt and the alloy steel bolt selected in part (a) if the torque coefficient in both cases C = 0. this bolt is too large for the size of the components involved.5 of 300 MPa = 150 MPa = 150 N/mm2 F = σAs = 150(57.25(0.5 N-mm = 0.2 x 0.3 lb.0775 in2 F = σAs = 33.20.22(0.375)(2557.2875 N-m. 228 . 33.334 in2 σ = 833.75 . A torque of 125 in-lb is generated by the wrench. Torque coefficient C = 0.0.99) = 8698.1). If the torque coefficient C = 0.6 The designer has specified that a 3/8-16 UNC low-carbon bolt (3/8 in nominal diameter.3 A M16x2 bolt (16 mm diameter.5 screw (10 mm diameter. Solution: As = 0.000 lb/in 2) that could be used to achieve the same preload from the following standard UNC sizes used by the company: 1/4-20. 1/2-13.25π (0.66 N-m.25π (0. Determine the maximum torque that should be used if the torque coefficient C = 0.23(5)(250) = 287. pitch p = 2 mm) is subjected to a torque of 12 N-m during tightening.0. Solution: T = 12 N-m = 12. Solution: T = CDF = 0. Determine the torque that should be used to tighten the bolt.9743/10) 2 = 0.25π (16 .7 mm2 σ = 3750/156. which is 300 MPa.20.000/(0.375 . As = 0. It is to be preloaded to 75% of its proof strength. If the torque coefficient C = 0.5 lb.18(10)(8698. determine the tensile stress on the bolt.

6057) = 14.752 -1.992 lb.998 in and the shaft has an outside diameter = 1.132)/(13 x 252) = 234.6 MPa Max σe = 2pfDc2/( Dc2 .0.752 .0.02)(252 .8 A dowel pin made of steel (E = 209.0 = 25.000)(0.000 in.000 lb/in2.Dp2) = 25. T = CDF = 0. (3) 3/8-16. (6) 3/4-10 Try (1): (D .000(0.1665 in2/0. (b) For the original 1-8 bolt.10 A steel collar is press fitted onto a steel shaft.1.408 lb/in2 (b) Max σe = 2pfDc2/( Dc2 .5 MPa (b) Max σe = 2pfDc2/( Dc2 .000/2. The gear has a diameter of 55 mm at the base of its teeth.Dp2)/DpDc2 = 209.9743/n) 2 (D . (5) 5/8-11. Solution: (a) pf = Ei(Dc2 -Dp2)/DpDc2 = 30 x 106(0.1 MPa (b) When Dc = 35 mm.002)(1.1 MPa 33.25π (1.1665 in2 = 0.6) 229 . The modulus of elasticity of steel E = 30 x 106 lb/in2.992) = 1. (2) 5/16-18.000 MPa) is to be press fitted into a steel collar.000 lb/in2 Eq. Solution: (a) pf = Ei(Dc2 .Dp2) = 2(234.4605 in.9) Eq.10 mm. Compute: (a) the radial pressure between the shaft and the gear.9743/n) = (0. Solution: (a) pf = Ei(Dc2 .0.000 lb/in2 and its modulus of elasticity E = 22 x 106 lb/in2.Solution: (a) As = 0. determine the maximum interference that should be used with this assembly.9743/n) = (0.25π = 0.625)(14.0.0. Using a safety factor SF = 2. The nominal inside diameter of the ring is 1.25π (D .11 The yield strength of a certain metal Y = 50.10)(552 .132)/(13 x 352) = 277.2(1.25 . use Max σe = Y/SF = 50.02 mm.2 MPa Max σe = 2(277.0.75 x 120. (a) Compute the radial pressure and the maximum effective stress if the interference between the shaft OD and the collar ID is 0. (33.2)(352)/(352 . (b) Determine the effect of increasing the outside diameter of the collar to 35.132) = 643.0 .500 in.5364 in.408)(1. T = CDF = 0.000 lb/in2 33.4605 will be sufficient. It is to be used for the outer ring of a press-fit assembly with a mating shaft made of the same metal. For the 5/8-11 bolt.2(0.000 in and its outside diameter = 2.02)(352 . (4) 1/2-13. Determine: the radial (interference) pressure on the assembly.9743/n) = 0. Possible bolt sizes are: (1) 1/4-20. The collar has an internal diameter = 0. > 0.75(33. Interference Fits 33.6)(252)/(252 . and (b) the maximum effective stress in the collar at its inside diameter.9743/8) 2 = 0. and (b) the maximum effective stress in the gear at its inside diameter. Obviously.9743/11) = 0. The pin has a nominal diameter of 13.0 x 1.1665 in 2 As = 0.9743/n) 2 = 0. For the alloy bolt. Solution: Max σe ≤ Y/SF .0 mm.2013 in. pf = 209. σ = 120.0 mm on the radial pressure and the maximum effective stress.000(0. and the collar has an outside diameter = 25.625 .998 in-lb.0.5)(552)/ (552 .752)/ (1.9 A gear made of aluminum (modulus of elasticity E = 69.02)/(1.750 in. none of the D values below 0.Dp2)/DpDc2 = 69. Try (5): (D .000) = 0.0.4605 in.0. The outside diameter of the collar is 1.992) = 2.212 in2 (D .000 lb/in 2 Max σe = 2pfDc2/(Dc2 .Dp2) = 2(40.02) = 120.874 in-lb.302)/(30 x 552) = 161. As = F/σ = 14992/(0.0 mm.9743/20) = 0.000 MPa) is press-fitted onto an aluminum shaft.6057 in2 F = σAs = 0.000(0.752) = 40.302) = 460 MPa 33. Use 5/8-11 bolt. The nominal internal diameter of the gear = 30 mm and the interference = 0.132) = 643. (33.0)(14.Dp2) = 2(161.

8 x 10-6 mm/mm per °C. Determine: (a) the initial inside diameter of the collar at room temperature so that this clearance is satisfied.507 .1.21) T2 .0042 in.5) 2 2 2 Rearranging. The shaft diameter = 1. (a) What is the temperature to which the pin must be cooled 230 .Dp2)/2D c2 = 25.00233)(3. yield strength = 450 MPa. respectively.1.52 .02 mm.21 = -0.00057 in. Solution: (a) If the clearance = 0.007.507/1. 33.500 lb/in2 pf = Ei(Dc2 -Dp2)/DpDc2 Eq.20 = 24.7 x 10-6 D1(1000 .1 x 10-6(30)(500 . (b) the radial pressure and (c) maximum effective stress on the resulting interference fit at room temperature (70°F).D1 = D2 .0)(2. Properties of the pin and collar metal are: coefficient of thermal expansion = 12.16 A pin is to be inserted into a collar using an expansion fit. the outer and inner diameters of the collar = 75. determine the temperature to which the shaft must be cooled.950 lb/in2 (c) Max σe = 2(34.13 A steel ring has an inside diameter = 30 mm and an outside diameter = 50 mm at room temperature (21°C).02)/ (3. For steel.4977 in. (b) Interference i = 1.52) = 10. 33.00623 D1 D1 = 1.000.000(2.0 x 10-6 m/m/°C. Solution: (D2 .00623 = 1.D1) = -0. If the coefficient of thermal expansion of the pin is α = 6.Rearranging..52)/(22 x 106 x (2.0)(700 .02)) = 0.D1 = 6.007 = 1. If the coefficient of thermal expansion of steel α = 12. For ease of assembly when the collar is heated to an elevated temperature of 1000°F.4977 = 0.500 in.D1 = 0.02 . E = 30.Dp ) i = 10. and the pin has a diameter = 40. and modulus of elasticity = 209 GPa. (33. At room temperature (20°C).6 + 21 = -180.04 mm.D1) = α D1(T2 .507 = D1 + 0. The pin is to be reduced in size for assembly into the collar by cooling to a sufficiently low temperature that there is a clearance of 0.8 x 10-6(40)(T2 .02) = 34. then the inside diameter of the collar must be D2 = Dp + 0.00 mm and 40.70) = 4221 x 10-6 = 0.6 T2 = -201.507 .200 lb/in2 33.12 A shaft made of aluminum is 40.00 mm. pf = 30 x 106 (0.1.000 in at room temperature is to be shrink fitted onto a steel shaft by heating it to an elevated temperature while the shaft remains at room temperature.000 lb/in 2 and α = 6.52) = 93.02 .52)/(1.20/(24.15 A steel collar whose outside diameter = 3.00623 D1 1. Solution: D2 .30 = 12.0 mm in diameter at room temperature (21°C). the clearance between the shaft and the collar is to be 0. determine the inside diameter of the ring when heated to 500°C.20 mm in order to be expansion fitted into a hole.1. determine the increase in diameter of the pin. Solution: (D2 .500(1.1 x 10-6 mm/mm per °C.6° C 33.5 x 3.007 in.21) D2 = 30 + 0.02)/(2 x 2. pf = σe(Dc2 .T1) = 6.500 + 0.52 .8 x 10-6 x 40) = -201.00233 in. 33.7 x 10-6 in/in per °F. 1.14 A 1-inch diameter steel pin is to be heated from room temperature (70°F) to 700°F.7 x 10-6 in/in per °F.500 .174 = 30. If it must be reduced in size by 0. Its coefficient of thermal expansion α = 24.7 x 10-6(1.70) 1.174 mm.007 in.00623 D1 = 1.1.950)(3. i = pf DpDc /E(Dc .

8(10-6) = 480.00 – 0.8 MPa (c) Max σe = 2pfDc2/(Dc2 – Dp2) = 2(74.Dp2)/DpDc2 pf = 209(109)(0.24(10-6) T2 T2 = -104.02)(752 – 402)/(40(752) = 0.02 = 12(10-6)(40.000(10-6) + 9604.02)(T2 – 20) -0.8)(752)/(752 – 402) = 209 MPa If Y = 450 MPa and Max σe = Y/SF.04) – 40.06 = 480.2(10-6) = 480.9° C (b) pf = Ei(Dc2 .24(10-6) T2 -50.07477(109) N/m2 = 74.24(10-6) T2 – 9604.8(10-6) -60.15 231 . then SF = Y/( Max σe ) = 450/209 = 2.for assembly? (b) What is the radial pressure at room temperature after assembly? (c) What is the safety factor in the resulting assembly? Solution: (a) D2 – D1 = α D1(T2 – T1) = (40.395.

Laminated object manufacturing produces a solid physical model by stacking layers of sheet stock that are each cut to an outline corresponding to the cross-sectional shape of a CAD model that has been sliced into layers.7 Describe the RP technology called laminated object manufacturing.5 34. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. What is the common approach used in all of the material addition technologies to prepare the control instructions for the RP system? Answer. 34. A long filament of wax or polymer. The text describes the common approach as a three step process: (1) Geometric modeling . and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required 232 . (1) Liquid. (2) tessellation of the geometric model. Rapid prototyping consists of a family of fabrication processes developed to make engineering prototypes in minimum possible lead times based on a computer-aided design (CAD) model of the item. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. Answer. which one is the most widely used? Answer. Solid ground curing works by curing a photosensitive polymer layer by layer to create a solid model based on CAD geometric data. Instead of using a scanning laser beam to accomplish the curing of a given layer.4 What are the three types of starting materials in rapid prototyping? Answer. Answer.8 What is the starting material in fused deposition modeling? Answer.34 RAPID PROTOTYPING Review Questions 34. what other feature distinguishes the rapid prototyping technologies? Answer. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 14 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). The layers are bonded one on top of the previous prior to cutting. which consists of modeling the component on a CAD system to define its enclosed volume. Answer. and (3) powders.2 34. and (3) slicing of the model into layers that approximate the solid geometry. 34. 34. Stereolithography. in which the CAD model is converted into a format that approximates its surfaces by facets (triangles or polygons).3 34.1 What is rapid prototyping ? Provide a definition of the term. For each question.6 Of all of the current rapid prototyping technologies. the entire layer is exposed to an ultraviolet light source through a mask that is positioned above the surface of the liquid polymer. Besides the starting material. all correct answers must be given. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. Describe the RP technology called solid ground curing. The part build process also distinguishes the different RP technologies. (2) solid. 34.

Answer. Compute an estimate for the time required to build the part. (d) solid ground curing. Answer.10 mm. The outside dimension of the square = 100 mm and the inside dimension = 90 mm (wall thickness = 5 mm except at corners). (e) 34.3 Of all of the current material addition rapid prototyping technologies. (c) selective laser sintering.6 Which of the following RP technologies uses powders as the starting material (more than one)? (a) ballistic particle manufacturing. (d) and (e) 34. Answer. (d) solid ground curing. (b) limited material variety. and (f) 34. (c) selective laser sintering.25 mm. and (f) stereolithography. (c) and (e) 34. and (e) stereolithography. The diameter of the laser beam (“spot size”) = 0. Layer thickness = 0. and (e) stereolithography. and the beam is moved across the surface of the photopolymer at a velocity of 500 mm/s. (e).4 Which of the following RP technologies use a liquid as the starting material (more than one)? (a) ballistic particle manufacturing. (c) laminated object manufacturing. The height of the tube (z-direction) = 80 mm. and (e) stereolithography. Answer. (e) solid ground curing. (b) Examples include small batch sizes of plastic parts that could not be economically injection molded. and one-of-a-kind parts such as bone replacements. Neglect the time for postcuring.7 Rapid prototyping technologies are never used to make production parts: (a) true or (b) false. parts with intricate internal geometries. (a).2 Which of the following rapid prototyping processes starts with a photosensitive liquid polymer to fabricate a component (more than one)? (a) ballistic particle manufacturing. 34. (b) fused deposition modeling.5 Which one of the following RP technologies uses solid sheet stock as the starting material? (a) ballistic particle manufacturing. Answer. (c) part accuracy.1 A prototype of a tube with a square cross-section is to be fabricated using stereolithography. 34.1 Machining is never used for rapid prototyping because it takes too long: (a) true or (b) false. Answer. (b) Desktop milling is the principal material removal technology used for rapid prototyping. (d) solid ground curing. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. 34.reduces the score by 1 point. (b). Answer. (d) solid ground curing. (d) selective laser sintering. (b) fused deposition modeling. (b) fused deposition modeling.8 Which of the following are problems with the current material addition rapid prototyping technologies (more than one)? (a) inability to convert a solid part into layers. (c) selective laser sintering. and (d) part shrinkage. (c) 34. which one is the most widely used? (a) ballistic particle manufacturing. 233 . (c) laminated object manufacturing. if 10 s are lost each layer to lower the height of the platform that holds the part. and (e) three dimensional printing. Answer. (c). and (d) Problems 34. (b) fused deposition modeling. (b) fused deposition modeling.

22 x 500) = 11. Solution: Cross-sectional area of filament = π D2/4 = 0.9 s = 134.20 mm Number of layers nl = 40 mm/(0. Ti = (1900 mm2)/(0.313 mm3)/200 = 256. The radius of the cone at its base = 35 mm and its height = 40 mm.1 is to be fabricated using fused deposition modeling instead of stereolithography. the feed rate from the spool is zero. if 10 s are lost each layer to lower the height of the platform that holds the part.Solution: Layer area Ai same for all layers.000 mm3)/( 37.4 Solve Problem 34.4 hr 34.25π (1.20 mm/layer) = 400 layers Tc = 400(20.000 mm3 Tc = (152.2) = 5.25 mm.040 s = 84.2 + 10 = 25.66 + 10 = 21.25 mm)(500 mm/s)+ 10 s = 15. 34.2 s Number of layers nl = (80 mm)/(0.66 s 234 . Solution: Use same basic approach as in stereolithography.2 Solve Problem 34.1 except that the layer thickness = 0.20 mm/layer) = 200 layers Average volume per layer Vi= (51.6 mm/s) = 37.24 hr 34. Solution: Volume of cube V = π R2h/3 = π (35) 2(40)/3 = 51. Part volume V = 1900(80) = 152. Compute an estimate for the time required to build the part. average area/layer = (256. Solution: Layer area Ai same for all layers.10 mm/layer) = 800 layers Tc = 800(25.2) = 20.6 hr 34. Ti = (1900 mm2)/(1.33 s = 134.6 mm of length per second while the workhead is depositing material. The layer thickness = 0. and the beam is moved across the surface of the photopolymer at a velocity of 500 mm/s. except using the following additional information.25 mm.5 A cone-shaped part is to be fabricated using stereolithography.25) 2 = 1. Ai = 1002 – 902 = 1900 mm2 Time to complete one layer Ti same for all layers. It is known that the diameter of the filament fed into the extruder workhead is 1.55 mm3/s Part volume = part cross sectional area x height = Ah A = 1002 – 902 = 1900 mm2 and h = 80 mm.0 min = 1.3.24 hr This is very close to previous calculated value . Layer area Ai same for all layers.20 mm) = 1282.227 mm)(30. and the filament is fed into the workhead from its spool at a rate of 30. Ai = 1002 – 902 = 1900 mm2 Time to complete one layer Ti same for all layers. Ti = (1900 mm2)/(0.22 min = 2.94 + 4000 = 8047.25 mm)(150 mm/s)+ 10 s = 10.8 mm2 Average time per layer Ti = 1282.20 mm.133 s Number of layers nl = (80 mm)/(0. The extruder workhead moves in the x-y plane at a speed of 150 mm/s.3 The part in Problem 34.55 mm3/s) + (400 layers)(10 s delay/layer) = 4047. Layer thickness is to be 0.2 s Number of layers nl = (80 mm)/(0. Ai = 1002 – 902 = 1900 mm2 Time to complete one layer Ti same for all layers.56 mm3 Since thickness t = 0. A delay of 10 s is experienced between each layer to reposition the workhead.22 mm.20 mm.133 + 10 = 20.227 mm2 Volumetric rate of filament deposition = (1.13 min = 2. Neglect postcuring time. Compute an estimate for the time required to build the part. Between layers.56 mm3)/(0.160 s = 336.40 mm/layer) = 200 layers Tc = 200(25.2 + 10 = 25.20 mm and the width of the extrudate deposited on the surface of the part = 1.133) = 8053.within round-off error.0 min = 5.313 mm3 Layer thickness t = 0.8/(0.40 mm.25 mm)(500 mm/s)+ 10 s = 15. The diameter of the laser beam = 0.

25 mm. and the beam can be moved across the surface of the photopolymer at = 500 mm/s. and (3) top of cup. handle diameter = 12 mm.5 – 0. 235 .92 s (2) Ti2 = (1212. outside diameter = 75 mm. if 10 s are lost each layer to lower the height of the platform that holds the part and advance the sheet stock in preparation for the next layer. The handle bars connecting the cup and handle at the top and bottom of the part have a rectangular cross-section and are 10 mm thick and 12 mm wide. Area (1): A1 = π (75) 2/4 + π (12) 2/4 + (approximately)(12 x 32.78 min = 3.86 hr.2 mm2 Number of layers for each area: (1) nl1 = (10 mm)/(0. (2) cup ring and handle.1 mm Average time to cut a layer Ti = (146. 34.20 mm) = 146.20 mm.25 x 500) + 10 = 9.70) + 50(22.20 = 200 layers Tc = 200(10.57 hr.907 s + 231.2) = 525 layers (3) nl3 = (10 mm)/(0. Let us compute the areas of the three shapes.20 hr. which is 10 mm thick and includes the handle and handle bar.2 mm2)/(200 layers) = 29.5π (12) 2/4) A3 = 1099.292 s Number of layers nl = 40/0.37 s Total time for all layers Tc = 50(48.2 mm/layer) = 50 layers (2) nl2 = (125 – 10 – 10)/(0.2 min = 1.5 mm2)/(0.5) = 1546.4 s = 72. Compute an estimate of the time required to build the part.7 Stereolithography is to be used to build the part in Figure 34.7 mm2)/(0. The laser beam diameter = 0.20 mm. The thickness at the base of the cup is 10 mm.20 mm.2 mm2)/(0.92 + 10 = 48. 34. and handle bar.37) Tc = 13.0 – 56.5) = 4864.1 = 1212.0 – 56. Ignore cutting of the cross-hatched areas outside of the part since the cone should readily drop out of the stack owing to its geometry.3 min = 0.22 mm2/layer Since layer thickness t = 0.22 mm2)/(0.1 (in text). we need the circumference of each layer. which is 10 mm thick and consists of the cup ring. Solution: For LOM.37 + 10 = 22.1 + (390. For a cone. handle distance from cup = 70 mm measured from center (axis) of cup to center of handle.70 s (3) Ti3 = (1546.70 + 10 = 19.2 mm/layer) = 50 layers Time to complete one layers for each of the three shapes: (1) Ti1 = (4864. inside diameter = 65 mm.5π (12) 2/4) A1 = 4417. which is the outline to be cut by the laser beam.6 +113. Compute an estimate for the time required to build the part.66 s) = 4332.2 mm2 Average surface area per layer = (5844.6 The cone-shaped part in Problem 34.9 + 113. Dimensions of the part are: height = 125 mm.4 s = 34. circumference C = (29. Solution: The part can be sliced into cross sections that have one of three basic shapes: (1) base.5 – 0.5 A = π (35)(352 + 40)0.7 mm2 Area (3): A3 = π (752 – 652)/4 + π (12) 2/4 + (approximately)(12 x 32.Cycle time Tc = 200(21.5 mm2 Area (2): A2 = π (752 – 652)/4 + π (12) 2/4 = 1099. if 10 s are lost each layer to lower the height of the platform that holds the part. handle. the total surface area (not including the base) = π R(R2 + h2)0. Neglect postcuring time.25 x 500) + 10 = 12. The laser beam can cut the sheet stock at a velocity of 500 mm/s.1 mm)/(500 mm/s) + 10 s = 0.1 + (390. Layer thickness = 0. Layer thickness = 0.292 + 10 = 10.6 + 113.92) + 525(19.292) = 2058.5 = 5844.25 x 500) + 10 = 38.5 is to be built using laminated object manufacturing.

(2) IC fabrication.5 microns per cubic foot. and processing equipment (wear particles. Review Questions 35.4 What are the three major stages in the production of silicon-based integrated circuits? Answer. and gallium arsenide. For example. What are the alternatives to photolithography in IC processing? 35. Answer. transistors. and the chips are encapsulated in a package.2 Name some of the important semiconductor materials? Answer. The classification system indicates the quantity of particles of size 0. 35. X-ray lithography. a class 100 clean room contains 100 or fewer particles of size 0. 35. germanium. 35. cut into chips. altering.10 Why is ultraviolet light favored over visible light in photolithography? 236 . in which the wafers are tested. and dirt). 35. A photoresist is a polymer that is sensitive to light radiation in a certain wavelength range. and (3) IC packaging. The planar process refers to the fabrication of an IC chip by a sequence of layering processes .g. resistors) that have been fabricated and electrically intraconnected onto the surface of a small flat chip of semiconductor material. and removed in selected regions to form electronic devices on the face of the wafer. Important semiconductor materials include silicon (most important).7 What is the name of the process most commonly used to grow single crystal ingots of silicon for semiconductor processing? Answer.5 What is a clean room and explain the classification system by which clean rooms are rated? Answer. A clean room is a room or rooms where the air is purified to reduce airborne particles. to produce very pure silicon and shape it into wafers. 35. the sensitivity causes either an increase or a decrease in solubility of the polymer to certain chemicals. in which layers are added.3 Describe the planar process. viruses.9 What is a photoresist? Answer. An integrated circuit is a collection of electronic devices (e. It is the Czocralski process. and ion lithography. and hair). 35. and removing layers to create the devices and their intraconnection on the IC chip. diodes. altered. oil. Sources of contaminants include humans (bacteria. 35.5 microns or greater per cubic foot of air. Alternatives to photolithography are: electron lithography.6 What are some of the significant sources of contaminants in IC processing? Answer. cigarette smoke.8 Answer.1 PROCESSING OF INTEGRATED CIRCUITS What is an integrated circuit? Answer.adding.35 35. The three stages are: (1) silicon processing..

the Rent's Rule equation is: nio = C ncm.13 What layer material is produced by thermal oxidation in IC fabrication? Answer. SiO 2 is grown on the surface of the Si wafer. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. For each question. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. all correct answers must be given. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. The two types are: (1) through-hole mounting and (2) surface mount technology. DIP stands for dual in-line package. 35.2 An alternative name for chip in semiconductor processing is which one of the following (one answer)? (a) component. 35.11 Name the three exposure techniques in photolithography. 35. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 17 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). Answer.Answer. (d) package.16 35.14 What are some of the important design functions of IC packaging? Answer. (b) device.15 What is Rent's Rule ? Answer. Answer. 35. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. Design functions of IC packaging include: provide electrical connections to external circuits. (c) 1 million. 35. Postmolding refers to the use of transfer molding of epoxy around the chip and leadframe to form the package. 35. or (d) 100 million. What is a DIP? Answer. 35. an IC package with two rows of terminals on each side of a rectangular body containing the IC chip.18 What is the difference between postmolding and premolding in plastic IC chip packaging? Answer. The three exposure techniques are: (1) contact printing. encase chip for protection. (b) 10.000. or (e) wafer. Epitaxial deposition involves growth of a crystalline structure on the surface of a substrate which is an extension of the substrate's structure. the transferred images are sharper. Define epitaxial deposition. (2) proximity printing. where C and m are constants for a certain circuit type. 237 . and (3) projection printing.12 35. Answer.1 How many electronic devices would be contained in an IC chip in order for it to be classified in the VLSI category? (a) 1000. Rent's Rule indicates the number of input/output terminals nio required for an integrated circuit of a given number of internal circuits nc. and the chip and leadframe are then attached to it. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. Because it has a shorter wavelength. a premolded package is one in which an enclosure is molded beforehand. (c) die.17 Name the two categories of component mounting to a printed circuit board. (c) 35. and heat dissipation. Answer. adding a solid lid to complete the package.

(c) 35. (b) and (d). (e) silicon.10 Which etching process produces the more anisotropic etch in IC fabrication? (a) plasma etching. 35. (d) epoxies.11 Which of the following are the two principal packaging materials used in IC packaging? (a) aluminum. (d) physical vapor deposition. or (g) wet etching. Answer. (c) ion implantation. or (f) silver. Answer. (e) phosphorous.6 Which of the following processes are used to add layers of various materials in IC fabrication (more than one)? (a) chemical vapor deposition. Answer. which reduces the length to 950 mm. (a). A 30 mm wide flat is ground on the surface which 238 . (d) ultraviolet light. (c) infrared light. (e) plasma etching. (b) SiC. or (e) X-ray. (b) diffusion. (b) and (c).5 After exposure to light. (f) thermal oxidation.Answer.9 Which one of the following is the most common metal for intraconnection of devices in a silicon integrated circuit? (a) aluminum. (d) nickel. (b) arsenic. (e) silicon. (c) copper. (d) 35. or (f) potassium. or (f) silver. (c) Si3N4. (a) 35. or (b) wet chemical etching.3 Which one of the following is the source of silicon for semiconductor processing? (a) pure Si in nature. (b) incandescent light. Answer. Problems Silicon Processing and IC Fabrication 35. (d) nitrogen. and (f). (c) 35. (b) copper. (b) diffusion.7 Which of the following are doping processes in IC fabrication (more than one)? (a) chemical vapor deposition. (f) thermal oxidation. Answer. (c) boron.1 A single crystal boule of silicon is grown by the Czochralski process to an average diameter of 110 mm with length = 1200 mm. (c) gold. (d).8 Which one of the following impurity elements form electron acceptor (p-type) regions in silicon wafers? (a) antimony. (a) 35. (b) 35. (c) gold. (b) copper. The diameter is ground to 100 mm. or (g) wet etching. 35. (c) ion implantation. 35. (a) and (c). Answer. (d) nickel.12 Which of the following metals are commonly used for wire bonding of chip pads to the lead frame (two best answers)? (a) aluminum. Answer. Answer. or (d) SiO 2. a positive resist becomes which of the following? (a) less soluble or (b) more soluble to the chemical developing fluid. or (e) silicon dioxide. Answer. Answer. (d) 35.4 Which one of the following is the most common form of radiation used in photolithography? (a) electronic beam radiation. (d) physical vapor deposition. The seed and tang ends are removed. (e) plasma etching. (b) aluminum oxide.

extends from one end to the other.50 mm. assuming the entire 4 ft length can be sliced.972) + 9.625/4.0378) = 1269.820.As.354.92 = 761. As = π (50) 2(34.5θ = sin-1(1.33 mm.4605 in.25) 2(48)/4 = 1039. determine: (a) the original volume of the boule.0.25/2) 2(6.92°.0/(0. 0.8 → 1269 wafers (c) Area of one wafer Aw = Ac . The diameter is ground to 4.4.4605) 2 = 19. using an abrasive saw blade whose thickness = 0. 0.0 mm2 The area of a segment of the circle created by the 30 mm chord As = π R2θ/360 .625 inch is ground on the surface the entire length of the ingot.5(1200-950) = 125.095 = 54.0.2 A silicon boule is grown by the Czochralski process to a diameter of 5.5θ = sin-1(15/50) = 17. V2 = π D2L/4 = π (5. 35.672 in3 (b) Number of wafers = 48.5R2 sin θ.7 mm2 Volume of one wafer Vw = Awt = 7807.0128) = 48/(0.101/9.25) = π R2h/3 = 0.92)/360 .152 = 9.. where θ is the angle formed by two radii of the circle and the chord.921/2 = 2. R = 55) = π R2h/3 = 0.152 mm3 Total V = 2(395.28°.025 + 0. Determine: (a) the original volume of the boule. in 3. mm3. V2 = π R2L = π (55) 2(950) = 9.8 mm3 Volume of 1144 wafers = 1144(3903.6 → 1144 wafers (c) Area of one wafer Aw = Ac .465. reducing the effective length to 48.333π (55) 2(125) = 395.8 . and As = the area of the segment As created by the flat ground on the cylindrical surface. The ingot is then sliced into wafers of thickness = 0.5(50) 2 sin 34. Ac = π R2 = π (50) 2 = 7854. θ = 34. The ingot is then sliced into wafers 0.715.0128 inch.5(60-48) = 6. and (c) what is the volumetric proportion of silicon in the starting boule that is wasted during processing? Solution: (a) Total volume V = V1 (tang) + V2 (cylinder) + V3 (seed) V1 = V3 = (cone in which h = 0.5R2 sin θ.295 in3.921) = 19.As = 7854.50 + 0.7(0.028.25 inches and a length of 5 ft.354.025 inch thick.46°.3 = 7807.3 mm2 Aw = Ac .0.820.333π (5.028.972 mm3. . assuming the entire 950 mm length can be sliced.5 = 46.295) + 1039. 239 .0 .0.As. (b) how many wafers are cut from it.5) = 3903.0) = 43.082 in 3 V = 2(43.0194 in2 The area of a segment of the circle created by the 1.465. where Ac = area of the circle of radius R = 50 mm. Ac = π R2 = π (2.994 mm3 Volume wasted = 9. D = 5. (b) how many wafers are cut from it.8) = 4.994 = 5. using an abrasive saw blade whose thickness = 0. A primary flat of width 1. chord As = π R2θ/360 . where Ac = area of the circle of radius R = 4.095 .625 in.00 in.082 = 1125. and (c) what is the volumetric proportion of silicon in the starting boule that is wasted during processing? Solution: (a) Volume V = V1 (tang) + V2 (cylinder) + V3 (seed) V1 = V3 = (cone in which h = 0.921 inch (125 mm).101 mm3 Proportion wasted = 5. D = 110. and As = the area of the segment As created by the flat ground on the cylindrical surface.820.33) = 1144.095 mm3 (b) Number of wafers = 950/(0. The seed and tang ends are cut off.46. Assume that the seed and tang portions are conical in shape. Assuming that the seed and tang portions cut off the ends of the starting boule were conical in shape. where θ is the angle formed by two radii of the circle and the chord.52%.

3)/ 9503.6 mm Chip area Ac = (5) 2 = 25 mm2 The chips on the periphery of the processable area are lost.65π = 11.5(2.4 Solve the previous problem.621 = 527.053 mm2 Circumference C = π D = 175π = 549. What is the percent increase in (a) number of chips.672 .053 .3 = 153% increase Note : These results indicate the advantages of increasing wafer size.598.051/1125.549. our estimate of the chips produced is: n = 9503. and (c) processable wafer area. As = π (2.345.3/25 .621 in 3 Volume wasted = 1125. 35.4717 in 3 Volume of 1269 wafers = 1269(0. if each chip is 0.1503 = 18. (b) wafer diameter. The number of lost chips can be estimated by dividing the average chip dimension (assumed to be the length of the side) into the circumference of the circle.051 in 3 Proportion wasted = 527.053/25 .8691 in 2 Volume of one wafer Vw = Awt = 18. our estimate of the chips produced is: n = 24.8691(0.1 = 311 chips 35.65 inches in diameter.56 = 2.5 A 4. compared to the values in the previous problem? Solution: Processable area A = π D2/4 = π (175) 2/4 = 24.9 = 121. Assume the cut lines (streets) between chips are of negligible width. The number of lost chips can be estimated by dividing the average chip dimension (assumed to be the length of the side) into the circumference of the circle. 35.110 = 852 chips (a) Increase in number of chips = (852 – 311)/311 = 174% increase (b) Increase in wafer diameter = (200 – 125)/125 = 60% increase (c) Increase in processable area = (24. Thus.4 . How many square IC chips can be processed within this area. Solution: Processable area A = π D2/4 = π (3.4605) 2 sin 38. Solution: Processable area A = π D2/4 = π (110) 2/4 = 9503.1 . The number of lost chips can be estimated by dividing the average chip dimension (assumed to be the length of the side) into the circumference of the circle.69.0625 .0.4717) = 598.45.8/5 = 962 .3 mm2 Circumference C = π D = 110π = 345.4605) 2(38.467 in.56)/360 .0.As = 19.1.9503.82%.65) 2/4 = 10.467/0.0194 . Chip area Ac = (0. Thus.463/0.025) = 0.3 The processable area on a 125 mm diameter wafer is a 110 mm diameter circle. if each chip is 5 mm on a side? All chips must lie completely within the processable area.463 in 2 Circumference C = π D = 3.0625 in2 The chips on the periphery of the processable area are lost.8869 = 0. only use a wafer size of 200 mm whose processable area is 175 mm in diameter.6/5 = 380.θ = 38.25) 2 = 0.25 inch on a side? All chips must lie completely within the processable area.56°.0 inch wafer has a processable area that is only 3.1503 in 2 Aw = Ac .8 mm Chip area Ac = (5) 2 = 25 mm2 The chips on the periphery of the processable area are lost.25 = 167. How many square IC chips can be fabricated within this area.5 → 121 chips 240 . Thus.672 = 46.0372 . our estimated number of chips produced is: n = 10.11. Assume the cut lines (streets) between chips are of negligible width.

5 = 48/4.10 An integrated circuit used in a microprocessor will contain 1000 logic gates.8 → 113 logic gates 35. Chip area Ac = (0. 241 .2.56(0.11 A dual-in-line package has a total of 48 leads.5). Mask opening size = 10. Thus.8 It is desired to etch out a region of a silicon dioxide film on the surface of a silicon wafer. only use a wafer size of 6.5 = 10.65) 2/4 = 16.0 . The SiO2 film is 3 µm thick.25) 2 = 0.14. and the degree of anisotropy for plasma etching is infinity. u = d/∞ = 0 µm.400 + 0.982 in 2 Circumference C = π D = 4.a total of 64 I/O pins.0625 in2 The chips on the periphery of the processable area are lost.2 = 3/1.667) 2 = 113.982/0.2(0) = 10. If the starting thickness of the wafer was exactly 0.a total of 32 pins.44d Final thickness tf = 0.5(1000) 0.6 Solve the previous problem. This is a principal motivation for using larger wafer diameters.7 .0 µ m IC Packaging 35.608/0.5) = 5.3 → 142 input/output pins 35. Solution: Rents rule: nio = Cncm = 4. 35. what should be the size of the opening in the mask through which the etchant will operate? Solution: A = d/u = 1.0625 . The number of lost chips can be estimated by dividing the average chip dimension (assumed to be the length of the side) into the circumference of the circle.5) to determine the approximate number of input/output pins required in the package.40168 mm 35.5) to determine the approximate number of logic gates that could be fabricated in the IC chip for this package.65π = 14. the wafer area increases by 62%.7 The surface of a silicon wafer is thermally oxidized.12 It is desired to determine the effect of package style on the number of circuits (logic gates) that can be fabricated onto an IC chip to which the package is assembled. and the number of chips increases by 76%. Use Rent's Rule (C = 4.58.2(2.400 .003) = 0.5 nc0.9 In the previous problem.2 = 2. what is the final wafer thickness? Solution: A 3 µm film requires a layer of silicon = 0.25 = 271. our estimated of the chips produced is: n = 16. If the degree of anisotropy for the etchant in the process is known to be 1.5 and m = 0.5(nc)0. resulting in a SiO 2 film that is 3 µm thick.667 nc = (10. what should be the size of the mask opening? Solution: A = d/u = ∞.0 .a total of 256 pins. and (c) a pin grid array with 16 by 16 pins .5 and m = 0.608 in.4 = 213. (b) a square chip carrier with 16 pins on a side .0 inches whose processable area is 5.50 inches in diameter.0. Using Rent's Rule (C = 4.44(3 x 10-3) + 3 x 10-3 = 0.5 = 142. What is the percent increase in number of chips compared to the 50% increase in wafer diameter? Solution: Processable area A = π D2/4 = π (4.5 and m = 0. The width of the etched-out area is specified to be 10 µm.0 µ m 35.2. if plasma etching is used instead of wet etching. compute the estimated number of devices (logic gates) that could be placed on the chip in the following cases: (a) a DIP with 16 I/O pins on a side .400 mm thick. Solution: 48 = 4.5 µm.3 → 213 chips Note : the wafer diameter increases by about 27%.35. u = d/1. Use Rent's Rule (C = 4. Mask opening size = 10.

5 .25.12 = nio/6.16 Suppose it is desired to produce a memory device that will be contained in a dual-in-line package with 32 I/O leads.6 → 50 logic gates (b) Using Rent’s rule: nio = 4.0 nc0.Solution: (a) Using Rent’s rule: nio = 4.4427 ln (64 x 64) = 1.9 → 19 pins.4427 ln (1.12 = 6.11 nc = 50.0(4096) 0. find nc if nio = 256. as estimated by: (a) Rent's Rule (C = 6. and (b) the alternative computation method given in Eq. Compare the number of input/output pins required using (a) Rent's Rule (C = 6.3 → 16 pins (b) Eq.12).5 = 56.12).5 = 14.5 and m = 0.11)? Solution: (a) Rent’s rule: nio = 6. (35.11)? Solution: (a) Rent’s rule: nio = 6.5(nc)0.15 To produce a 1 megabit memory chip. nc0. 35.00816 nio = nc = 20.12 nc0.5 ln nio = ln 4.5 .5(nc)0.000) = 19.17 Given the following: crystal yield Yc = 50%.000.333) 8. what is the final weight of silicon that results after final test? 242 .143.11). (35.5 = 256/4.0 (1.5nio0.11): nio = 1.5 ln nio ln nio .0 nc0.4427 ln nc = 1.5 = 7. crystal-to. and (b) the alternative computation given in Eq.5.12 = (5. wafer yield Yw = 70%.305 memory cells.5 ln nio = 0. determine the value of n io and n c at which the number of logic gates equals the number of I/O terminals in the package.967. 35.5(nc)0.0 and m = 0.5nc0.0 = 32/6 = 5. (35. The closest possible values are nio = nc = 20 or 21.0 and m = 0.5 → 31 pins (b) Eq.000. find nc if nio = 64. (35.12 = 6.slice yield Ys = 50%.333) 1/.89 nc = 3236. and final test yield Yt = 90%.0 and m = 0.5 + 0.12).4427 = 22.13 In the Equation for Rent's Rule with C = 4. Yields in IC Processing 35.5 = 1. If a starting boule weighs 75 kg.3 → 3236 logic gates 35.333 nc = (5.5 . find nc if nio = 32.5 ln nio = ln 4.4427 ln nc 32 = 1. nio = 4. nc0.12 = 31. and (b) the alternative computation method given in Eq. (35.12 = 16.5 and (2) nio = nc.14 A static memory device will have a two dimensional array with 64 by 64 cells.22 nc = 202.333 = 1.0.3 → 202 logic gates (c) Using Rent’s rule: nio = 4.4427 ln nc ln nc = 32/1.18 nc = exp(22.11): nio = 1.11): nio = 1.294. how many I/O pins are predicted by: (a) Rent's Rule (C = 6.0 (64 x 64) 0.18) = 4.0 nc0.12 = 6. nc0.000) 0. Using nio in place of nc in Eq.4427 ln 4096 = 12 pins.50408 ln nio = 3. 35. Solution: (a) Rent’s rule: nio = 6. How many memory cells can be contained in the device.5 = 64/4.5 = 32/4. (1).728 memory cells (b) Eq. Solution: We have two equations and two unknowns: (1) nio = 4. (35. multiprobe yield Ym = 60%.

314 mm2 = 143. Eq. The density of point defects in the surface area is 0.83 = -143.25 cm2 Area of one chip Ac = 5 x 5 = 25 mm.14D D = 0. (35. and (b) the Bose-Einstein yield estimate. as the method of estimating yield.027) = e-1. (35.419(205) = 85.14D ln 0.32) = e-5.Solution: Overall yield Y = Yc Ys Yw Ym Yt = (0.15).0 in 2.83 = 1/(1 + 143.5)(0.72 in2 (a) Eq.384 = 0.18633 = -143. determine the density of point defects using Bose-Einstein statistics.806D = 1 .4 → 51 good chips (b) Eq.17/118.72(0.14): Ym = e-AD Processable area A = π (135) 2/4 = 14. Solution: Wafer area A = π (100) 2/4 = 7854 mm2 Chip area A = 0.15 35.806 = 0. (35.00344 (b) Eq.314 mm2 = 143. Determine the number of good chips using: (a) the Boltzmann yield estimate.14): Ym = e-AD = e-51.83 = 0.83(1 + 143.25(0.6525(7854) = 5125 mm2 = 51.0945 Wf = YWi = 0.21 In the previous problem.18 A silicon wafer with a nominal diameter of 100 mm is processed to fabricate square chips of 5 mm on a side.14): Ym = e-AD = e-17.67 = 0.25% of the total wafer area on one side. Eq.14D -0.14). Determine the multiprobe yield using: (a) the Boltzmann yield estimate.15): Ym = 1/(1 + AD) Processable area A = π (135) 2/4 = 14. Eq. The yield of good chips on this wafer is Ym = 75%.32) = 1/6.9 → 85 good chips 35.14).17 D = 0. Number of chips = 5125/25 = 205 chips total.22 A silicon wafer has a processable area of 20. (35.14 = 0.251 Number of good chips = 0.00130 defects/cm2.15): Ym = 1/(1 + AD) = 1/(1 + 51. The area of the processed chips occupies 65.83 = e-143. (35.14D) 0. what is their density D? Solution: Eq.14 cm2 0.0.14D) = 0.83 + 118. (35.15): Ym = 1/(1 + AD) = 1/(1 + 17.251(205) = 51. what is the density of point defects D? 243 .75 inches in diameter.419 Number of good chips = 0.18633/143. (a) Eq.67 = 0. Solution: Eq.75) 2/4 = 17.027 defects/cm2.14 cm2 0. (35. Eq.806D = 1 118. (35.09 kg 35.70)(0. (35.50)(0.0945(75) = 7.15). If the defects are all assumed to be point defects that are uniformly distributed over the surface (Poisson distribution). (35.60)(0. Solution: Processable area A = π (4.15).25 x 0.32 defects/in 2.00143 defects/cm2.19 A 5-inch diameter wafer is processed over a circular area that is 4. If the defects are all assumed to be point defects that are uniformly distributed over the surface (Poisson distribution). Eq. The density of point defects in the surface area is 0. and (b) the Bose-Einstein yield estimate.027) = 1/2. 35. (35.90) = 0.72 x 0.384 = 0. 35.20 The yield of good chips in multiprobe for a certain batch of wafers is 83%. The wafers have a nominal diameter of 150 mm with a processable area that is 135 mm in diameter.

Solution: Eq. (35.14): Ym = e-AD 0.2877 = -20D D = 0.2877/20 = 0.01438 defects/in2.75 = -20D -0.75 = e-20D ln 0. 244 .

Etching is used to remove copper cladding on the PCB surface to define the tracks and lands of the circuit. and when is it performed in the PCB fabrication sequence? Answer. and (2) photolithography. and (2) after the board has been populated with components. 36. (3) environmental protection. The levels are: (0) chip intraconnections. The three types are: (1) single -sided board. as distinguished by the method of attaching components to the board? Answer.5 Name the three principal types of printed circuit board? Answer. such as silk screening. 36.6 What is a via hole in a printed circuit board? Answer.1 ELECTRONICS ASSEMBLY AND PACKAGING What are the functions of a well-designed electronics package? Answer. The principal functions are: (1) power distribution and signal interconnection. The two methods are: (1) screening. Answer. (3) PCB to rack or chassis.4 Define what a printed circuit board (PCB) is.10 What are the two main categories of printed circuit board assemblies. (4) heat dissipation. (1) chip to package. 36. while a land is a small copper area for electrically attaching components. (5) minimize delays in signal transmission. What is etching used for in PCB fabrication? Answer. Continuity testing is an electrical test in which contact probes are brought into contact with track and land areas to insure the existence of electrical conduction paths. (2) structural support. and (4) wiring and cabling inside a cabinet. (2) double -sided board. A track is a copper conducting path on a PCB. The two categories are: (1) pin-in-hole technology. 36. Answer. and (3) multilayer board.3 What is the difference between a track and a land on a printed circuit board? Answer. A via hole is a hole in the printed circuit board whose sides are plated with copper to serve as a conducting path from one side of a PCB to the other or between intermediate layers in a multilayer board. and (2) surface mount technology. Review Questions 36. 36.2 Identify the levels of packaging hierarchy in electronics. 36. A PCB is a laminated flat panel of insulating material to which electronic components are attached and electrically interconnected. 245 .9 What is continuity testing . (2) component to PCB. also known as through-hole technology. 36.8 What are the two basic resist coating methods for printed circuit boards? Answer.7 36.36 36. Continuity tests are generally used: (1) after the bare board has been fabricated.

Crimping involves the mechanical forming of a terminal barrel to form a permanent connection with the stripped end of a conductor wire. and rework are more difficult. and (2) pressure connections. (2) higher packing densities. (2) SMT components are generally more expensive than THT components. A solder paste is a suspension of solder powders in a flux binder.17 Identify the two basic methods of making electrical connections. such as spurious surface capacitances and inductances. 36. (3) components can be mounted on both sides of the board.13 Identify some of the limitations and disadvantages of surface mount technology? Answer. (4) smaller PCBs are possible for the same function.20 What is a pin connector ? Answer. 36. 36. The two methods are: (1) adhesive bonding and wave soldering.16 36.14 What are the two methods of component placement and soldering in surface mount technology? Answer. Define crimping in the context of electrical connections? Answer. The flux binder includes an adhesive that attaches the SMT components to the board surface. (5) reduced number of holes drilled in the board.18 What is press-fit technology in electrical connections? Answer. (3) repair faulty solder joints. 36. The solder constitutes about 85% of the total volume of the paste. A pin connector is a connector with multiple pins or blades that are inserted into the holes of a mating receptacle to establish electrical contact. 36. and (4) repair of copper film that has lifted from the substrate surface. Advantages of SMT include: (1) smaller components.12 Identify some of the advantages of surface mount technology over conventional through-hole technology. testing. A press-fit technology in the context of electrical connections is an interference fit between a terminal pin and the plated hole into which it is inserted.36. and (6) certain undesirable electrical effects are reduced. Answer. and (2) solder paste and reflow soldering. 36. The two methods are: (1) soldering. Rework is required to correct the following types of defects: (1) replace defective components. (2) insert missing components. A terminal block consists of a series of evenly spaced receptacles that allow connection of individual wires or terminals. (3) inspection. Limitations and disadvantages of SMT include: (1) components are more difficult for humans to handle. 36. 246 . Answer.15 What is a solder paste ? Answer.11 What are some of the reasons and defects that make rework an integral step in the PCB fabrication sequence? Answer.19 Define what a terminal block is? Answer. 36. and (4) certain types of components are not available in SMT.

Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers.4 Which of the following polymeric materials is commonly used as an ingredient in the insulation layer of a printed circuit board (more than one)? (a) copper. (b) 36.001 inch. or (e) fourth. 36. (c) 0. (c) and (d). (b) first. or (b) electroplating. (c) reflow soldering. or (d) wiring and cabling connections. Answer. (d) phenolic. (b) gold. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. and (e) wave soldering. Which of the following is the most common resist type used in the processing of PCBs? (a) negative resists.3 Card-on-board (COB) packaging refers to which one of the following levels in the electronics packaging hierarchy? (a) zeroth. which of the following technologies results in greater problems during rework? (a) surface mount technology. (b) infrared soldering. or (e) fourth.7 Which of the following plating processes has the higher deposition rate in PCB fabrication? (a) electroless plating. Answer. (b) 36. (d) third. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. (d) torch soldering. (b) IC chip to package. 247 . (c) second. (c) 36.2 Surface mount technology is included within which one of the following levels of packaging? (a) zeroth. Answer. 36.010 inch. (b) first. (a) 36. (d) 36. Answer. Answer. 36. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. (c) nickel.9 Which of the following are the soldering processes used to attach components to printed circuit boards in through-hole technology (more than one)? (a) hand soldering. which one of the following is another common metal plated onto a PCB? (a) aluminum. (a) 36. all correct answers must be given.5 Typical thickness of the copper layer in a printed circuit board is which one of the following? (a) 0. or (d) tin.8 In addition to copper. Answer.1 The second level of packaging refers to which one of the following? (a) component to printed circuit board. (b) 0. For each question. and (f) polypropylene.6 Photolithography is widely used in PCB fabrication. or (d) 0.0001 inch. Answer. (c) intraconnections on the chip.100 inch. (a) and (e).10 In general. (c) second. or (b) through-hole technology. Answer. (e) polyethylene. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. (b) E-glass. (d) third. or (b) positive resists.Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 17 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). (c) epoxy. (c) 36. Answer.

and (d) 36.Answer. Answer. (b) insulation displacement. and (d) sockets.12 Which of the following electrical connection methods produce a separable connection (more than one): (a) crimping of terminals. Answer. (c) press fitting. (b) and (d) 248 . (b) terminal blocks. (b). (a). (a) 36. (c) retaining rings. or (d) pressure connections.11 Which of the following are methods of forming electrical connections (more than one)? (a) soldering.

(2) microactuators. 37. owing to their widespread use in microelectronics.5 What are some of the basic types of microsystem devices? Answer: The text indicates four classifications: (1) microsensors. 249 .7 What is meant by the term aspect ratio in microsystem technology? Answer: The aspect ratio is the height-to-width ratio of the features produced in the MST device.4 What is a hybrid microsensor? Answer: A hybrid microsensor is a sensing element (transducer) combined with electronics components in the same device. silicon also possesses useful mechanical properties. (3) microstructures and microcomponents.37 37. more conventional size? Answer: Because less material is used in microsystem products. 37. Answer: A microelectromechanical system (MEMS) is a miniaturized system consisting of both electronic and mechanical components. 37. and relatively low density. 37. such as high strength and elasticity. (2) in addition to its desirable electronic properties.8 What is the difference between bulk micromachining and surface micromachining ? Answer: Bulk micromachining refers to a relatively deep wet etching process into a single-crystal silicon substrate (Si wafer). (3) the technologies for processing silicon are well-established. typically. and (4) microsystems and micro-instruments.2 What is the approximate size scale in microsystem technology? Answer: The size range is 10-6 m to 10-3 m. Surface micromachining refers to the planar structuring of the substrate surface using much more shallow layering processes. and (4) use of single-crystal silicon permits the production of physical features to very close tolerances. so both the circuit and the microdevice can be fabricated in combination on the same substrate.6 Why is silicon a desirable work material in microsystem technology? Answer: The reasons given in the text are: (1) the microdevices in MST often include electronic circuits. Review Questions 37. 37.1 MICROFABRICATION TECHNOLOGIES Define microelectromechanical system.9 What is meant by the term nanotechnology? Answer: Nanotechnology refers to devices and structures that are even smaller than in microsystems. 37.3 Why is it reasonable to believe that microsystem products would be available at lower costs than products of larger. good hardness. 37. as well as the associated fabrication processes which involve the control of feature sizes measured on the nanometer (one nm = 10-9 m) scale.

6 Which of the following forms of radiation have wavelengths shorter than the wavelength of ultraviolet light used in photolithography (more than one)? (a) electron beam radiation. (d) potassium hydroxide. (a) True or (b) false. Answer: (a). (e) silicon. (c) 10-9 m to 10-6 m. and alteration.2 The typical range of feature sizes in microsystem technology is which one of the following? (a) 103 m to 10-2 m.7 Bulk micromachining refers to a relatively deep wet etching process into a single-crystal silicon substrate: (a) true or (b) false. (e) precision engineering. (d) lithography.Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 15 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). since each correct answer is worth 1 point. Answer: (b). For each question. Answer: (a). Answer: (e). (c) driver identification sensors for theft prevention. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. (c) lithographic applications. Answer: (d).8 In the LIGA process. and (c). 37. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. 37. (e) lithography. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point.4 The most common work material used in microsystem technology is which one of the following? (a) boron. (d). (d) oil pressure sensors. (c) height-to-width ratio of the MST device. 37. (c) micromachines. 250 . (b). Answer: (b).5 The aspect ratio in microsystem technology is best defined by which one of the following? (a) degree of anisotropy in etched features. all correct answers must be given. the letters LIGA stand for which one of the following? (a) let it go already. 37. (e) thickness-to-length ratio of the MST device. 37.3 Which of the following are current applications of microsystem technology in modern automobiles (more than one)? (a) air-bag release sensors. (b) little itty-bitty grinding apparatus. (c) X-ray radiation. 37. and (e). and plastic molding.9 Photofabrication means the same process as photolithography. (b) gold. (b) alcohol blood level sensors. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. 37.1 Microsystem technology includes which of the following (more than one)?(a) LIGA technology. (d) length-to-width ratio of the fabricated features. (b)10-6 m to 10-3 m. (b) microelectromechanical systems. (d) nanotechnology. (e) temperature sensors for cabin climate control. Answer: (a) and (c). 37. (b) height-to-width ratio of the fabricated features. grinding. (b) natural light. 37. electrodeposition. Answer: (a). (c) nickel.

37. thus permitting a suitable etchant to remove the exposed regions much more rapidly. This is not the same as photolithography. (b)10-6 m to 10-3 m. Photofabrication is an industrial process in which ultraviolet exposure through a pattern mask causes a significant increase in the chemical solubility of an optically clear material.Answer: (b). Answer: (c). in which resists are used to determine the regions to be etched. (c) 10-9 m to 10-6 m. 251 .10 The typical range of feature sizes in nanotechnology is which one of the following? (a) 10-3 m to 10-2 m.

6 Explain the operation of an optical encoder. Each command specifies a position or motion that is to be accomplished by the workhead relative to the processed object. one command at a time. (2) machine control unit. to a rotating shaft whose angular position and velocity are to be measured. and a disk containing a series of slots through which the light source can shine to energize the photodetector. measurements of the output (position) are fed back to verify that it corresponds to the desired input value. An optical encoder is a sensor for measuring angular position and rotational velocity. there is no feedback of the output value. As the shaft rotates. 38. the trajectory of the movement is controlled. In point-to-point. The processing equipment accomplishes the sequence of processing steps to transform the starting workpart into a completed part. a closed loop system is preferred. By counting the pulses and computing the frequency of the pulse train. When there is a significant reaction force resisting the motion of the positioning system. The three basic components are: (1) part program.38 38. 38. In an open loop system. Answer. the motion is from one location in space to the next with no regard for the path taken between starting and final locations.3 What is the difference between absolute positioning and incremental positioning? Answer. It consists of a light source. 38. In a closed loop system. It operates under the control of the machine control unit according to the set of instructions contained in the part program.5 Under what circumstances is a closed loop positioning system preferable to an open loop system? Answer. which are converted into an equivalent series of electrical pulses. the slots cause the light source to be seen by the photocell as a series of flashes. angular position and rotational speed can be determined. In incremental positioning. either directly or through a gear train.1 NUMERICAL CONTROL AND INDUSTRIAL ROBOTICS Review Questions Identify and briefly describe the three basic components of a numerical control system. The machine control unit in modern NC technology is a microcomputer which stores the program and executes it by converting each command into actions by the processing equipment. Answer. In continuous path.4 What is the difference between an open loop positioning system and a closed loop positioning system? Answer. 38. The disk is connected. In absolute positioning. The part program is the detailed set of commands to be followed by the processing equipment. a photodetector. the locations are defined relative to the origin of the axis system. each succeeding location is defined relative to the previous location. and (3) processing equipment.2 What is the difference between point-to-point and continuous path in a motion control system? Answer. 38.7 Why should the electromechanical system be the limiting factor in control resolution rather than the controller storage register? 252 . 38.

15 What is a programmable logic controller? Answer. (2) lower manufacturing lead times. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. Advantages of NC include: (1) reduced non. 38. A gripper is one form of end effector. what is the difference between powered leadthrough and manual leadthrough? Answer. (5) tape laying for fiber reinforced polymer composites. timing. A programmable logic controller (PLC) is a microcomputer-based device that uses programmed instructions to implement logic. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required 253 .12 38. 38. 38. In manual leadthrough.11 What is an industrial robot? Answer. (4) greater flexibility. Because the control resolution in the controller storage register can be increased simply by increasing the number of bits used to define the axis location. which are recorded into memory for later execution. counting. 38. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. An end effector is the special tooling that is attached to the robot's wrist to perform a particular application. which are then recorded into memory.9 Identify some of the non-machine tool applications of numerical control.13 How is an industrial robot similar to numerical control? Answer. (3) electrical wire wrap machines.8 What is manual data input in NC part programming? Answer. They are both positioning systems that can be programmed and reprogrammed. In powered leadthrough. (5) improved accuracy. and (6) coordinate measuring machines. 38. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. and (6) reduced human error. all correct answers must be given. Answer.10 What are some of the benefits usually cited for NC compared to using manual alternative methods? Answer. An industrial robot is a programmable machine possessing certain anthropomorphic features. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 13 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). The most common feature is a manipulator (arm) that can be programmed to perform industrial tasks. 38.14 In robot programming. Manual data input refers to a method of programming in which the machine tool operator accomplishes the programming of the NC machine using a menu-driven procedure. Programming is simplified to minimize the amount of training required by the operator.productive time. (2) electronic component insertion. (4) drafting.Answer. sequencing. What is an end effector ? Answer. 38. a teach pendant which controls the drive motors of the individual joints is used to move the manipulator into the desired joint positions. For each question. the manipulator is physically moved through the desired sequence of positions. The applications include: (1) arc welding and resistance welding. (3) simpler fixtures. and arithmetic functions to control industrial machinery and processes.

(d) point-to-point command. (b) geometry statement involving a volume of revolution about a central axis. or (e) tool path command in which the tool must Go Right in the next move. 38. (b). or (b) positioning. Answer. and (d).5 mm pitch drives a worktable in a NC positioning system. (a) 38. and (e) task requires mobility. Answer. and (e). Determine: (a) how many pulses are required to move the table the specified distance. (e) spot welding. 38. (c) repetitive work cycle.5 The arm-and-body of a robot manipulator generally performs which one of the following functions in an application? (a) orientation. (d) multiple work shifts. Answer. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (b) control resolution.1 The standard coordinate system for numerical control machine tools is based on which one of the following? (a) Cartesian coordinates. or (e) resistance welding. (c) 38. spray painting applications are which of the following? (a) continuous path.3 The ability of a positioning system to return to a previously defined location is measured by which one of the following terms? (a) accuracy. Answer. (c) inspection. The leadscrew is powered by a stepping motor which has 250 step angles. (b) cylindrical coordinates. The worktable is programmed to move a distance of 120 mm from its present position at a travel speed of 300 mm/min.point and not continuous path operations (more than one): (a) arc welding. (c). 38. and (f) turning.1 A leadscrew with a 7.7 In robotics. Answer. (a) 38.4 The APT command GORGT is which of the following (more than one)? (a) continuous path command. (b).2 Identify which of the following applications are point-to. (a) and (e). Answer.reduces the score by 1 point. (b) 38. (b) hazardous work environment. (c) hole punching in sheet metal. (c) name of the monster in a 1960s Japanese science fiction movie. (b) 38. (b) drilling. (b) assembly.6 A SCARA robot is normally associated with which of the following applications (one answer)? (a) arc welding. or (c) repeatability. or (c) polar coordinates. or (b) point-to-point. and (b) what is the required motor speed and pulse rate to achieve the desired table speed? 254 . (d) machine loading and unloading.8 Which of the following are characteristics of work situations that tend to promote the substitution of a robot in place of a human worker (more than one)? (a) frequent job changeovers. Answer. Answer. (d) milling. Problems Open Loop Positioning Systems 38. (c).

1667 in/rev) = 900 rev/min.122) + 3(0. and (c) repeatability. (b) accuracy.03 = 500/(2B –1) 2B – 1 = 500/0.122 mm. (b) Accuracy = 0. 0.5) = 166.076 mm.250 in. For the positioning system.668 0.5 x 1.0 in/min.5(0. (d) What is the minimum number of bits that the binary register should have so that the mechanical drive system becomes the limiting component on control resolution? Solution: (a) CR1 = p/ns = 7.03. The worktable driven by the leadscrew must move a distance = 10.122} = 0.016 = 16. A worktable is driven by the leadscrew.25) = 266. The leadscrew has 6 threads/in.025 Use B = 15 bits 38.69315 B = 9.000 pulses (b) N = rg fr /p = 5(30 in/min)/(0.5) = 72. the mechanical inaccuracies in the open loop positioning system can be described by a normal distribution whose standard deviation = 0.44) = 4000 pulses (b) N = vt /p = (300 mm/min)/(7.005) = 0. CR2 = L/2B = 500/212 – 1 = 500/4095 = 0. CR2} = Max{0.25 x 1. Determine: (a) how many pulses are required to move the table the specified distance. Determine: (a) number of pulses required to move the table. CR = Max{CR1.Solution: (a) α = 360/ns = 360/250 = 1.67 Hz 38.4 A stepping motor with 240 step angles is coupled to a leadscrew through a gear reduction of 5:1 (5 rotations of the motor for each rotation of the leadscrew). and there are 12 bits in the binary register used by the digital controller to store the programmed position.67 Hz 38.667 2B = = 16.7212 B = 14.1667) = 3600 Hz 255 . determine: (a) control resolution. (d) In order for the mechanical errors to be the limiting factor in control resolution in this problem. fp = rg fr ns/ 60p = 5(30)(240)/(60 x 0. 0. (c) Repeatability = ± 3 σ = ± 3(0.5 mm/250 = 0. and (b) the required motor speed and pulse rate to achieve the desired table speed.25 in/rev) = 80 rev/min. set CR1 = CR2.0)/(0. fp = vt ns/ 60p = 300(250)/(60 x 7.5° np = 360 rg x/pα = 360(5)(10)/(0. The table must move a distance of 5.8° np = 360x/pα = 360(5. fp = vt ns/ 60p = 20(200)/(60 x 0.00 in at a feed rate of 30. Its output shaft is directly coupled to leadscrew with pitch = 0.015 mm.2 Referring to the previous problem.3 A stepping motor has 200 step angles.5 CR + 3 σ = 0.005) = ± 0.0 in/min.00 in from its present position at a travel speed of 20.1667 x 1.8) = 4000 pulses (b) N = vt /p = (20 in/min)/(0.5 mm/rev) = 40 rev/min.668 B ln 2 = ln 16. and (b) what is the required motor speed and pulse rate to achieve the desired table speed? Solution: (a) α = 360/ns = 360/200 = 1.122 mm.03 mm. The range of the worktable axis is 500 mm.44° np = 360x/pα = 360(100)/(7. Thus. Solution: (a) α = 360/ns = 360/240 = 1.005 mm.

7 The drive unit of a positioning table for a component insertion machine is based on a stepping motor and leadscrew mechanism. leadscrew. and (c) the frequency of the pulse train required to drive the table at the desired speed.0008 . The specifications are for the table speed to be 25 mm/s over a 600 mm range and for the accuracy to be 0. gear box.38.2/(2 x 0.001 = p/(rg ns ) = 0.025 = 0.5 CR + 3(0. and the gear ratio = 5:1 (5 turns of the motor for each turn of the leadscrew). Assume CR = CR1 CR1 = 0.2) = 667.5 CR CR = 0.5 mm. (b) the associated step angle.0001 in.5 CR + 3(0.5 CR CR = 0. and (b) the frequency of the pulse train required to drive the table at the desired maximum speed. Determine: (a) the minimum number of step angles in the stepping motor.18/0.18 in. The table must have a linear speed = 35 in/min. The pitch of the leadscrew = 0.5 CR + 3(0.0003 0.0008 = 225 step angles (b) α = 360/225 = 1. and (b) the frequency of the pulse train required to drive the table at the desired maximum speed.025 .167 Hz 38.005 mm.5 CR + 0. The pitch of the leadscrew = 0. and table connection are characterized by a normal distribution with standard deviation = 0.0005 = 0.18) = 729.010 = 0. Assume CR = CR1 CR1 = 0. The design specifications require a table speed of 40 in/min and an accuracy = 0.0004 = 0. Assume CR = CR1 CR1 = p/(rg ns ) 256 . leadscrew.5 CR + 0.0003 = 0.18/ns ns = 0.5 CR + 3 σ 0.0.0008 in. and the gear ratio = 2:1 (2 turns of the motor for each turn of the leadscrew).001) = 100 step angles (b) fp = rg vt ns /60p = 2(40)(100)/(60 x 0.0.5 CR + 3 σ 0.0006 = 0. Determine: (a) the minimum number of step angles in the stepping motor to achieve the accuracy. gear box. Solution: (a) Accuracy = 0. and a positioning accuracy = 0.0006 0. The mechanical errors in the motor. Solution: (a) Accuracy = 0. and table connection are characterized by a normal distribution with standard deviation = 0.5 CR CR = 0.2 in.015 = 0.0.0008 = p/ns = 0.001 .5 The drive unit for a positioning table is driven by a leadscrew directly coupled to the output shaft of a stepping motor.001 = 0.001 in.001 in.0001) = 0.67 Hz 38. Solution: (a) Accuracy = 0. The pitch of the leadscrew = 4. and table connection are characterized by a normal distribution with standard deviation = 0.0008 = 0.0008 in. Determine: (a) the minimum number of step angles in the stepping motor.02 mm.2/2ns ns = 0. The mechanical errors in the motor.5 CR + 0.0002 in.6 The positioning table for a component insertion machine uses a stepping motor and leadscrew mechanism.6° (c) fp = vt ns /60p = 35(225)/(60 x 0.005) = 0. leadscrew.015 0.0002) = 0. Mechanical errors in the motor.025 mm.5 CR + 3 σ 0.

(b) fp = rg fr ns /60p = 16(500)(200)/60(5) = 5333.5 mm/min.5/(5 x 0. np = rg x ns/p = 16(100)(200)/5 = 64.0 mm.0 Hz Closed Loop Positioning Systems 38. and optical encoder. except that the optical encoder is directly coupled to the motor shaft rather than to the leadscrew. (a) What is the control resolution of each axis? (b) What are the required the rotational speeds and corresponding pulse train frequencies of each stepping motor in order to drive the table at 600 mm/min in a straight line from point (25.00458} = 0. The leadscrew has 6 threads/in and is coupled directly to the motor shaft (gear ratio = 1:1).025 mm (b) vt = 600 mm/min from (25.ns = 4. Rearranging. Each leadscrew has a pitch = 5.5 in at a feed rate = 20. The leadscrew has a pitch = 5.0 = 1029 rev/min.11 The worktable of a numerical control machine tool is driven by a closed loop positioning system which consists of a servomotor.3 Hz (c) N = rg fr /p = 16 x 500/5 = 1600 rev/min. (b) fp = fr ns /60p = 500(200)/60(5) = 333.5)/5.0 = 617. 150) ∆x = 100 . The number of step angles on each stepping motor is 20.5 = 1250 Hz 38. np = xns/p = 100(200)/5 = 4000 pulses.02) = 45 step angles (b) fp = rg vt ns /p = 5(25)(45)/4.25) to point (100.0 in/min. Rearranging.4(20)/60 = 205.8 The two axes of an x-y positioning table are each driven by a stepping motor connected to a leadscrew with a 10:1 gear reduction. Solution: (a) x = p np/ns .0/(10 x 20) = 0.8 Hz vty = 600 sin 59 = 514.4 rev/min.7 mm/min Nx = rgvtx/p = 10(308.150)? Ignore acceleration. Ny = rgvty/p = 10(514. fpx = Nx ns/60 = 617. Determine: (a) the pulse count received by the control system to verify that the table has moved exactly 100 mm.000 pulses. 38. There are 16 bits in each binary register used by the controller to store position data for the two axes. fpx = Ny ns /60 = 1029(20)/60 = 343.025.25 = 75 mm. Solution: (a) CR1 = p/rgns = 5. The optical encoder is connected directly to the leadscrew and generates 200 pulses/rev of the leadscrew. The table has been programmed to move a distance of 7.25 = 125 mm Angle A = tan-1(125/75) = 59° vtx = 600 cos 59 = 308. and (b) the pulse rate and (c) motor speed that correspond to the feed rate of 500 mm/min.535 = 0. (a) How many pulses are received by the control system to verify that the 257 . leadscrew. leadscrew.025 mm CR2 = L/(2B – 1)= 300/(216 – 1) = 300/65. The optical encoder generates 225 pulses per motor revolution. The table must move a distance = 100 mm at a feed rate = 500 mm/min. 0.0 mm and is connected to the motor shaft with a gear ratio of 16:1 (16 turns of the motor for each turn of the leadscrew).3 Hz (c) N = rg fr /p = 16 x 500/5 = 1600 rev/min.10 Same as the previous problem. 38.7)/5. Solution: (a) x = p np/rg ns .0 mm and provides an axis range = 300.9 A NC machine tool table is powered by a servomotor. ∆y = 150 . and optical encoder. 25) to (100.00458 mm CR = Max{0.

25 x 103 mm/s)/(20π mm/rev) = 19.33 in/min. (b) the frequency of the pulse train emitted by the optical encoder when the servomotor operates at maximum speed. fr = N f nt = 19. (b) fp = N ns /60 = 800(100)/60 = 1333.016 mm.Rearranging. Total travel distance = 300 mm in a direction parallel to one of the axes of the worktable. The motor rotates at a maximum speed of 800 rev/min. expressed in linear travel distance of the table axis.89 rev/s.4 s = 1.89(0.26 min. Determine: (a) The control resolution of the system. Cutting speed = 1. (b) fp = N ns = 14(250) = 3500 Hz (c) vt = Np = 14(4) = 56 mm/s 38.3 Hz (c) vt = N p/rg = 800(0. Determine: (a) feed rate and time to complete the cut. (b) the frequency of the pulse train emitted by the optical encoder when the servomotor operates at 14 rev/s.3 Hz (c) vt = Np = 800(0.2)/12 = 13. and (c) the travel speed of the table at the maximum rpm of the motor. expressed in linear travel distance of the table axis. (b) fp = N ns /60 = 800(100)/60 = 1333.1667 = 10.14 A leadscrew connected to a dc servomotor is the drive system for a positioning table. The leadscrew pitch = 4 mm. Tm = 300/3.15 A milling operation is performed on a NC machining center. The optical encoder attached to the leadscrew emits 250 pulses/rev of the leadscrew.978 mm/s)/(6 mm/rev) = 0.13 Solve the previous problem only the servomotor is connected to the leadscrew through a gear box whose reduction ratio = 12:1 (12 revolutions of the motor for each revolution of the leadscrew).12 A leadscrew coupled directly to a dc servomotor is used to drive one of the table axes of an NC milling machine. The axis uses a dc servomotor whose output shaft is coupled to a leadscrew with pitch = 6.002 in. (b) N = fr /p = (3. 258 . and (b) rotational speed of the motor and the pulse rate of the encoder at the feed rate indicated.978 mm/s. Determine: (a) The control resolution of the system. 38. np = xns/p = 7. 38. and (c) the travel speed of the table at the operating speed of the motor.2/100 = 0.978 = 75.1667 = 120 rev/min. The end milling cutter has four teeth and its diameter = 20. Solution: (a) CR = p/ns = 0.663 rev/s. The optical encoder attached to the leadscrew emits 100 pulses/rev of the leadscrew. The motor operates at a speed = 15 rev/s. 38. Solution: (a) N = (1. Solution: (a) CR = p/ns = 0.05 mm.table has moved the programmed distance? What are (b) the pulse rate and (c) motor speed that correspond to the specified feed rate? Solution: (a) x = p np/ns .0 mm.05)(4) = 3.25 m/s and chip load = 0. The leadscrew has 5 threads/in. Solution: (a) CR = p/ns = 4/250 = 0.2/100 = 0. The feedback sensing device is an optical encoder which emits 250 pulses per revolution. (b) fp = fr ns /60p = 20(225)/60(0.2) = 160 in/min.125 pulses.1667) = 450 Hz (c) N = fr /p = 20/0.0 mm.5(225)/0.002 in.

2) at fr = 7.05)(125)/60 = 125.663) = 165.5(-0.7/-2.17 A dc servomotor is used to drive the x-axis of a NC milling machine table.8 rev/min.5 CR + 0. 1.2) in a straight-line trajectory at a feed rate of 7.25 mm and repeatability = ±0.0 mm. Determine: (a) the control resolution of the system for the x-axis.1.012 in/min N = frx /p = (-3. Solution: (a) N = (30 x 103 mm/min)/(16π mm/rev) = 596.7 in. Cutting speed = 30 m/min and chip load = 0.58 Hz 38.5) to (1.15/3 = 0.5 in/min..10 CR = 0.20 = 3750 2B = 3751 259 .7° frx = 7.5 CR = 0.05 rev/min.16 An end milling operation is carried out along a straight line path which is 325 mm in length.25 mm = 0.4017) = -3.250/(5 x 125) = 0.25) = 12.54 min.94)/60 = 79.94 rev/min.15 mm.5. Determine: (a) feed rate and time to complete the cut. An optical encoder is used to provide the feedback measurement. (b) N = fr /p = (71. ∆y = 7.8(0.25 .0 mm. Solution: Repeatability = ± 3σ = 0.5 cos 113. The feedback sensing device is an optical encoder which emits 400 pulses per revolution. 1. the table must be moved from point (3.0 mm/rev) = 11.5) to point (1.3.5 in.52 Hz Industrial Robotics 38. Solution: (a) CR = p/rg ns = 0. It is connected to the leadscrew using a 1:5 gear ratio (one turn of the leadscrew converts to 5 turns of the encoder disk). Angle A = tan-1(5.7 = 7. 7.62 = 4.15 = 0. It is driven by pulley system capable of a mechanical accuracy = 0. ∆x = 1.5 in/min.012/(.0004 in. also (b) the rotational speed of the motor and (c) the frequency of the pulse train emitted by the optical encoder when the desired feed rate is achieved. The cut is in a direction parallel to the x-axis on a NC machining center. and (b) rotational speed of the motor and the pulse rate of the encoder at the feed rate indicated.0. The end milling cutter has two teeth and its diameter = 16.62 mm/min. The optical encoder emits 125 pulses per revolution.20 CR = CR2 = L/(2B – 1)= 750/(2B – 1) 750/(2B – 1)= 0. Determine the minimum number of bits required in the binary register for the axis in the robot's control memory.15 0.15 mm σ = 0.0.0.5) = 113. fr = N f nt = 596. (c) fp = rg ns N/60 = 5(12.06 mm.75 Hz 38.2 .20 2B – 1 = 750/0.5 = -2.0 .06)(2) = 71.62 mm/min)/(6. To execute a certain programmed instruction. which has 4 threads/in. The x-axis uses a dc servomotor connected directly to a leadscrew whose pitch = 6. The motor is coupled directly to the table leadscrew.05 mm Accuracy = 0.5.18 The largest axis of a Cartesian coordinate robot has a total range of 750 mm.fp = ns N = 250(0.5 = 5. (b) Move from (3.5 CR + 3 σ = 0. fp = ns N/60 = 400(11. Tm = 325/71. 7.

(a) Show that the specified accuracy can be achieved.030° = 2π (0.2 B ln 2 = ln 969.5 = 0. The joint must have an accuracy of 0.25 mm = 0. The mechanical errors in the system (due to backlash of the leadscrew and the gear reducer) can be represented by a normal distribution with standard deviation = ±0.2 0.5 CR = 0. Specify the number of step angles that the motor must have in order to meet the accuracy requirement. The accuracy of the joint-link combination.10 CR = 0.0131 0.0 mm.0131 Specified accuracy = 0.030 in.0131 = 0. the specified accuracy should be possible to achieve.87 → 12 bits.05 mm.725 in.030°.0169/0.0338 32.030)/360 = 0.0/(2 x 0.69315 B = 8.20 The designer of a polar configuration robot is considering a portion of the manipulator consisting of a rotational joint connected to its output link. A stepper motor serves as the drive unit for the linear joint of an industrial robot.030 .030 = 0. The pitch of the leadscrew is 5. (b) Given CR = 0.725/0.5 CR + 0.725/(2B – 1) = 0.5 CR + 0.20) = 12.0131 in.876 B = 9. It is assumed that the link is perfectly rigid.B ln 2 = ln 3751 0.0.20 mm Assume CR = CR1 = p/rg ns ns = p/(rg CR) = 5.92 → 10 bits 260 .0.0169 CR = 0. total range = 75° Converting this to an arc distance. 0.0338 2B – 1 = 32.19 B = 11. The motor is attached to a leadscrew through a 2:1 gear reduction (2 turns of the motor for 1 turn of the leadscrew).030° of rotation.0005236 rad. expressed as a linear measure at the end of the link which results from rotating the joint.030 0. Accuracy = 0. Solution: (a) Repeatability = ± 3 σ = ± 0.25 mm.5 CR + 3σ = 0.22978 38.15 0. (b) Determine the minimum number of bits required in the binary register of the robot's control memory to achieve the specified accuracy.2 2B = 969. given the repeatability error. End-of-link movement = LA where A = angle of movement in radians LA = 25(0.15 = 0. Solution: Repeatability = ± 3 σ = ± 3(0.0338 from part (a). The output link is 25 in long and the rotational joint has a range of 75°. range = (2π (75)/360) x 25 = 32.0338 = 968.6931 B = 6.05) = ± 0. The mechanical inaccuracies of the joint result in a repeatability error = ±0.15 mm Accuracy = 0. CR = L/(2B – 1) = 0.25 . is specified as 0.0338 in Since CR is positive.5 CR + 0. so there are no additional errors due to deflection.5 CR + 3 σ = 0.5 CR = 0.5 → ns = 13 step angles 38.0005236) = 0.

and (8) general system management.3 Define cellular manufacturing ? Answer. a composite part is a hypothetical part that includes all of the design and/or manufacturing attributes of a given part family. Answer. assembly.6 What is a flexible manufacturing system? Answer.4 What is the composite part concept in group technology? Answer. A flexible manufacturing system (FMS) is an automated group technology cell consisting of processing stations interconnected by an automated handling system and controlled by a computer.7 What makes an automated manufacturing system flexible? Answer. and (4) accommodate new part style introductions. 39. Cellular manufacturing involves the production of part families using groups of machines (generally manually operated) to produce a certain part family or a limited set of part families. multiple machines with mechanized handling. Answer. 39. (5) workpart control. (4)machine control. 39. GT is a general approach in which similarities among parts are identified and exploited in design and manufacturing.5 Name some of the possible machine cell designs in group technology. inspection. The tests of flexibility are: (1) process different part styles in non-batch mode. In GT. 39.39 39.8 Name some of the FMS software and control functions. (2) NC part program download. A part family is a collection of parts that are similar in design or manufacturing attributes. 39.1 GROUP TECHNOLOGY AND FLEXIBLE MANUFACTURING SYSTEMS Review Questions Define group technology? Answer. (3) deal gracefully with equipment breakdowns. Answer. 39.9 39. (7) work transport control. (3) production control. and sheet metal processing. 39. (2) accept changes in schedule. Applications include: machining.2 What is a part family ? Answer. flexible manufacturing cells.10 Identify some of the applications of FMS technology. GT machine cell designs include: single machines. The concept is useful in designing cells to produce the part family. Functions include: (1) NC part programming. (6) tool management. compared to conventional batch operations? 261 . What are the advantages of FMS technology. 39. and flexible manufacturing systems. multiple machines with manual handling.

and (4) greater flexibility in production scheduling. (e) part dimensions. and (d) weight. Answer. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. (e) 39. (e). (d) plastic parts. (d) major process. (2) reduced work-in-process. (e) medium volume. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. medium variety production. 39.7 Industrial robots can. (b) batch size. 39. (c) part family. all correct answers must be given. Answer. Answer.2 Most parts classification and coding systems are based on which of the following types of part attributes (more than one)? (a) annual production rate. (b) and (c). low volume production. Advantages include: (1) higher machine utilization. (b) 39. most easily handle which of the following part types in a flexible machining system (one best answer)? (a) heavy parts. (d) production schedule. (b) engineering drawings. (c) manufacturing. or (e) rotational parts.8 Flexible manufacturing systems and cells are generally applied in which one of the following areas? (a) high variety. 39. or (c) six machines. (b) design. (b) metal parts. or (e) weight of parts processed.5 A machine capable of producing different part styles in a batch mode of operation qualifies as a flexible manufacturing system: (a) true or (b) false.1 Production flow analysis is a method of identifying part families that uses data from which one of the following sources? (a) bill of materials. and (f) tolerances.6 The physical layout of a flexible manufacturing system is determined principally by which one of the following? (a) computer system. For each question. (c) low volume. Answer. (b) four machines. (b) 39. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. (e).Answer. (b) A flexible manufacturing system does not normally operate in a batch mode. Answer. 39. (b) material handling system. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. (3) lower manufacturing lead times. (c) nonrotational parts. (c). and (f). To attain a perfect score on the quiz. (b) low variety. (c) master schedule. or (e) route sheets. Answer. Answer. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 12 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). 39. (d) processing equipment. (d) mass production. Answer. in general. (e) 262 . (c) length-to-diameter ratio.3 Which of the following are part design attributes that are likely to be included in a parts classification and coding system (more than one)? (a) annual production.4 What is the dividing line between a manufacturing cell and a flexible manufacturing system? (a) two machines.

(d) 263 . (d) numerical control.9 Which of the following technologies is most closely associated with flexible machining systems (one best answer)? (a) lasers. (b) machine vision. (c) manual assembly lines. Answer. or (f) transfer lines.39.

(2) synchronous transfer. (2) interchangeable parts. Answer. and (3) pushing the work units along a conveyor between stations.7 Briefly define the three types of mechanized workpart transfer systems used in production lines. Answer. Because all production lines will suffer a certain amount of nonproductive time due to reliability problems. 40. Answer.2 Distinguish between a batch model production line and a mixed model production line. The methods include: (1) work units are simply passed by hand along a flat worktable from one station to the next.40 40.8 Why are parts sometimes fixed to the conveyor in a continuous transfer system in manual assembly? Answer. The three work transfer systems are: (1) continuous transfer. also known as division of labor.3 What are the advantages of the mixed model line for producing different product styles? Answer. Because the parts are big and/or heavy and cannot be conveniently removed by a human worker. Advantages of the mixed model line include: (1) no downtime between different models. (2) minimize or avoid high inventories of some models while there are stock-outs of other models. and (3) asynchronous transfer. and (3) getting the right parts to each workstation is more difficult because more parts are involved. 40. Answer.9 Why must a production line be paced at a rate higher than that required to satisfy the demand for the product? Answer. Three principles are described in the text: (1) specialization of labor. 40. Review Questions 40.6 Describe how manual methods are used to move parts between workstations on a production line. (2) scheduling the models is more difficult. 40.1 PRODUCTION LINES What is a production line ? Answer. and (3) production rates can be matched to demand rates for different models. and (3) work flow principle. with a setup changeover between the products.5 Identify two fundamental principles on which manual assembly lines are based. 264 . 40. A batch model line produces the different products in batches. in which parts move on a conveyor at a steady speed. while a mixed model line produces different products simultaneously. A production line is a sequence of workstations at which individual tasks are accomplished on each work unit as it moves from one station to the next to progressively make the product. in which parts move independently between stations with a stop-and-go action. (2) sometimes collecting them in boxes and then passing the boxes between stations. Limitations include: (1) line balancing problem is more complex. 40.4 What are some of the limitations of a mixed model line compared to a batch model line? Answer. Both lines are used to make multiple product types. in which parts all move simultaneously from station-to-station with a stop-and-go action. 40.

2 Manual methods of workpart transfer are probably closest to which one of the following mechanized methods of transfer? (a) asynchronous. Answer. Reasons include: tool changes. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. The repositioning time is called the transfer time.1 Batch model lines are most suited to which one of the following production situations? (a) job shop.40. and (3) multiple manning. 40. (a) 40.10 What are the reasons why the number of workstations cannot be determined simply from the ratio Twc/Tc? Answer. (c) 40. (b) continuous. 40. 40.14 What are some of the reasons for downtime on a machining transfer line? Answer. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. and gradual normal wear and tear on the equipment. it is the time to move parts from one station to the next.11 Why is the line balancing problem different on an automated transfer line than on a manual assembly line? Answer. 40. or (d) sequence in which the work elements must be done. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. all correct answers must be given. what is that name? Answer.3 Precedence constraints are best described by which of the following (one best answer)? (a) launching sequence in a mixed model line. Line balancing on an automated transfer line (e. so single station cells usually operate at relatively slow production rates.12 Repositioning time on a synchronous transfer line is known by a different name. The entire work cycle is performed at one station. sudden mechanical and electrical failures. (c) order of work stations along the line. There are many more possible solutions to the line balancing problem in the manual assembly case. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. Reasons are: (1) line balancing losses. 40. For each question.g. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 10 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). Line balancing on a manual assembly line (usually) involves assigning multiple work elements to workers or stations. Answer.. or (c) medium production. (b) limiting value on the sum of element times that can be assigned to a worker or station. or (c) synchronous. (b) mass production. Answer.13 Why are single station assembly cells generally not suited to high production jobs? Answer. (d) 265 . machining) involves allocation of (usually) single machining operations to workstations. (2) repositioning time during Tc.

78 → 27 workers 266 .5) = 53.Tr = 1. (b) increasing the number of stations n on the line.1 = 0. Problems Manual Assembly Lines 40.14 min.99125 min.04) = 26. Work content time = 42. and (c) reducing the average downtime Td. Ts = Tc . Determine: (a) hourly production rate to meet demand.9/(0.92.7 Answer. balancing efficiency Eb = 0. (d). (b) continuous. and (b) number of workers required. and (b) the number of workstations required if multiple manning can be used and the estimated manning level is M = 1.5 hr/shift.99125) = 46. line efficiency = 95%. Answer. Solution: (a) Rp = 100. and (f).2 In the previous problem. (c) machining. Assume line efficiency E = 0. (d) pressworking. Work units will be attached to a continuously moving conveyor. (b) automotive chassis fabrication. or (e) spotwelding.4 = 33.0.5 40.Tr = 1.1 A manual assembly line is being designed for a product with annual demand = 100. w = Min Int ≥ 42. 5 shifts/wk. w = Min Int ≥ 25.33 = 1.0/1.0/(.9 min.06 → 47 workers 40.1 = 1.40. (c) parts passed by hand. and (f) simple. How many workers are on the line? Solution: Tc = E/Rp = 60(0.04 min.4. compute (a) the ideal minimum number of workstations n min.95)/50 = 1. The line will operate 50 wks/year.93 x 1. (e) requires sensory capability.0 min.09125 = 38.09125 . The transfer line is most closely associated with which one of the following types of production operations? (a) assembly.09125 min. Ts = Tc . (d) The line efficiency (proportion uptime) on an automated line can be increased by which of the following approaches (more than one)? (a) improving the reliability of each workstation on the line. Solution: (a) nmin = Min Int ≥ Twc/Tc = 42.4 Which of the following phrases are most appropriate to describe the characteristics of tasks that are performed at automated workstations (more than one)? (a) complex. Repositioning time = 6 sec.97.000 units.6 40.3 A manual assembly line produces a small appliance whose work content time = 25. Answer. (d) involves straight-line motions. Desired production rate = 50 units/hr. (c) A dial indexing machine uses which one of the following types of workpart transfer? (a) asynchronous.33 units/hr (b) Tc = E/Rp = 60(. and balancing efficiency is 93%.6 → 34 stations 40. (a) and (c). and 7. 40. and repositioning time Tr = 6 sec.5 → 39 stations (b) n = w/M = 47/1.0.14 . or (d) synchronous. (c) involves a single work element. (b) consists of multiple work elements.000/(50 x 5 x 7. Answer.97)/53.92 x 0. (c).

8) = 1250 workers n = w/M = 1250/2.0 x 1. Determine: (a) line efficiency.8 min.95 min. 40. Proportion uptime E = 0. and (b) how many workers and (c) stations will be needed on the line? Solution: (a) Tc = E/Rp = 1. This results in an average daily production of 256 units/day. Both of these departments are highly automated.78125) = 1.15 = 0. (b) balancing efficiency.92(1.63875 min.Tr = Tc . Trim-chassis-final has no automation. Total work content time to assemble the product = 22. Determine: (a) hourly production rate of the plant.8/(32 x 1.4 A single model manual assembly line produces a product whose work content time = 48. Solution: Tc = E/Rp = 60(0.000/(50 x 10 x 8) = 60.5 hours of direct labor content on each car in this department.78125 min Ts = Tc .5. and the paint shop coats the bodies.85) = 27. w = Min Int ≥ Twc/EbTs = 15.90)/36 = 1.7 A manual assembly line has 17 workstations with one operator per station.6 hr on average.9 min. Assume E = Eb = 1.08Tc = 0. There are 15. where cars are moved by a continuous conveyor.2 minutes. determine: (a) the cycle time.78125) = 0. From previous experience with similar products. The body shop welds the car bodies using robots.0.08(1.95)/60 = 0.50 min. two shifts/day. w = Min Int ≥ Twc/EbTs = 50/(1.0 = 0. and (c) repositioning time Tr.0 . w = 24(1.6/8. = 8. balancing efficiency = 93%.40.5 = 500 stations 40.93 x .95 . the average manning level is 2.0.55 sec.25) = 32 workers Eb = Twc/wTs = 47. proportion uptime = 95%. 267 . (3) trim-chassis-final department. and a repositioning time of 0. (2) paint shop. Solution: (a) Rp = 240. The product has a Available shift time per day = 8 hr.000 units annually.0.6 A product whose total work content time = 50 minutes is to be assembled on a manual production line.15 = 1.9325 (c) Tr = 0. The plant will operate 50 weeks/yr. The required production rate is 30 units per hour.5 x 60/(0.15 min is allowed for each worker. The line has 24 workstations with a manning level M = 1.03 → 28 workers (c) n = 28/1. The workers remain seated along the line. It will be divided into three departments: (1) body shop.5.0(60)/30 = 2.25.Tr = 0.95 (b) Rp = 256/8 = 32 units/hr Tc = 60(0. Repositioning time per worker Tr is 8% of cycle time Tc. Solution: (a) E = 7.0 units/hr (b) Tc = E/Rp = 60(0.Tr = 2. The production rate of the line = 36 units per hour.92 Tc = 0.0 hours/shift.1425 min. Determine the balance delay. 5 days/week.0 min/unit (b) Ts = Tc .90. Ts = Tc . but downtime during the shift reduces actual production time to 7.67 → 19 stations 40. and 8.5 A final assembly plant for a certain automobile model is to have a capacity of 240.5 = 18.85 min.95)/32 = 1. If 9 seconds will be lost from the cycle time for repositioning. it is estimated that the manning level will be close to 1. and the transfer time = 6 seconds. (b) number of workers and workstations required in trim-chassis-final if no automated stations are used. A synchronous transfer system is used to advance the products from one station to the next.63875) = 0.0.

0 and w = Min Int ≥ Twc/EbTs = 32/(1. one-third of which have two workers.15 = 1.737 = 34.5 units per hour.667(24) x 1 = 32 workers w = Twc/EbTs.78 = 1. then Eb = 1.95(60)/47.5 min.50 .3% 40.10 The total work content for a product assembled on a manual production line is 48 min. what is the balance delay on the line? Solution: (a) Eb = 1.89)/45 = 1.0.8 A production line with four automatic workstations (the other stations are manual) produces a certain product whose total assembly work content time = 55. Ts = Tc . Repositioning time lost by each worker is 0. uptime efficiency = 89%. Tc = Ts + Tr = 1.1 = 1.9 Production rate for a certain assembled product is 47.7935 . Determine: (a) number of workers. (b) number of workers and (c) workstations on the line.0) = 0.5 = 1. find: (a) cycle time.068) = 55. the remaining stations each have one worker.15 = 1. (b) number of workstations.068 min.417 40.Tr = 0. There are 24 workstations on the line.55 units/hr (b) Actual Rp = 0. Rp = 60/Tp = 60/1.933 40. Repositioning time per worker is 9 sec.7935 min. It is known that the number of workers on the line is two more than the number required for perfect balance.65 min.Tr = 1.2 min.9(1. The manual stations each have one worker.933 = 93. w= Twc/EbTs = 55. Solution: (a) Tc = E/Rp = 0.78 units/hr Tc = 60E/Rp = 60(. The total assembly work content time = 32 minutes of direct manual labor.65/. The production rate on the line is 45 units/hr.0) = 32 workers But with 2 additional workers. (c) the balancing efficiency. 268 .Tr = 1. Eb = Twc/wTs = 22. (b) Ts = Tc .40) = 0.95)/31.55) = 31.333(24) x 2 + 0. If the balancing efficiency Eb = 0. and uptime efficiency of the line is 95%.941 (d) M = w/n = 34/24 = 1. and (d) average manning level. w = 0. (d) What is the average manning level on the line.Ts = Tc .97 → 56 workers (c) n = 56 + 4 = 60 stations (d) M = 56/60 = 0.2 x 10) = 10 + 14 = 24 stations (c) Eb = Twc/wTs = 32/(34 x 1. of direct manual labor.1867 min. Ts = 1.92 on the manual stations.1867) = 1.0 min If perfect balance.0. The work is transported using a continuous overhead conveyor which operates at a speed of 3 ft/min. w = 32 + 2 = 34 workers (b) n = 10 + (34 .2 = 1.40 min. Ts = Twc/wEb = 48/32 = 1.2 .0 min. The line operates at 95% uptime.0.. Ten workstations have two workers on opposite sides of the line so that both sides of the product can be worked on simultaneously.95 = 1.5 + .737 min. Because of the automated stations.2/(17 x 1.0 x 1.9Tc = 0. The remaining stations have one worker. Tp = Tc/E = 1.0/(0.2 min/cycle. It is known that 10% of the cycle time is lost due to repositioning.6435 min.92(34.92 x 1. where the average includes the automatic stations? Solution: (a) Tc = E/Rp = 60(0. (a) What is the maximum possible hourly production rate if line is assumed to be perfectly balanced? (b) If the actual production rate is only 92% of the maximum possible rate determined in part (a).

725 = 0.008 and average downtime when a breakdown occurs is 10. what would be its value? Solution: (a) Tc = 1.13 A 7-station transfer line has been observed over a 40-hour period.06 + 0.5 E = 25. (d) If the balancing efficiency were computed for this line. Each station has a frequency of failure p = 0. (b) the average actual production rate in parts/hour. Rp = 60/Tp = 60/3.5 + 0.10 + 1.15 4 0.0 min to make repairs and restart.92 + 0.60 = 3. If the value added per unit produced = $4.92 7 0.5 + . One station is used for loading and unloading.80 = 6.00.14 A 12-station transfer line was designed to operate with an ideal production rate = 50 parts/hour.842 40.80 2 1.0 minutes.80 + 1.78/8. Determine: (a) the number of parts produced during the week.50 + 0.95 5 1.16 Tp = 1.12 A dial-indexing table has 6 stations. The longest process takes 25 sec and the indexing time = 5 sec.0) = 0.78 min.06 6 0.10 min.5 = 25.075 Tp = 0.25 min.5/40 = 0. EH = 40E = 40 .15 + 0. It costs $75/hour to operate the line. and hours of downtime = 14.1 = 0.690 40. and (c) the line efficiency.5 hrs Q = 25.14. The other five perform processing operations.0) = 1. When a failure occurs it takes an average of 3.1 = 19.5 hours. Solution: (a) F = np = 20(0.95 + 1.05 min Eb = 6. The processing times at each station are: Station Process time (min) 1 0.225 = 0. However.5/0.05 = 0.76 units/hr (b) E = Tc/Tp = 0. The number of downtime occurrences = 110.5(60)/1. which is accomplished by a human worker. exclusive of materials.80 The transfer time between stations = 6 sec. Solution: (a) Assume p = 0 at the manual station F = np = 1(0) + 5(.Eb = Twc/wTs = 48/(32 x 1. the line does not achieve this rate. n(maximum Ts) = 7(1. A computer monitoring system has been proposed that will cost $25.50 min.5/3. and (b) line efficiency.015) = 0. Determine: (a) the average production rate Rp and (b) the line efficiency E. will the computer system pay for 269 .6435) = 0.008) = 0.15 + 0.9127 Automated Production Lines 40.484 40.725 = 82.25 = 1224 pc during the 40 hour period. Determine: (a) hourly production rate. Rp = 60/0.6 pc/hr (c) 40E = 25. Probability of a station failure is p = 0.11 An automated transfer line has 20 stations and operates with an ideal cycle time of 1.725 min.10 3 1. (b) Rp = 1224/40 = 30.10 = 1.000 (installed) and will reduce downtime on the line by 25%.35 units/hr (b) E = Tc/Tp = 1.16(10.6375 (d) Twc = Σ Ts = 0.60.015. The line operates 4000 hours per year.50 + 1. since the line efficiency E = 0.15) = 8.075(3.

and the probability of a station failure that leads to a downtime occurrence p = 0. Based on previous experience. Determine: (a) the optimum number of stations n on the line that will maximize production rate.4 = 42. and (b) the production rate Rp and proportion uptime E for your answer to part (a).8/n + n(0.1.4 min.8 min and is to be divided evenly amongst the workstations. so that the ideal cycle time for each station = 9.5 = 14 stations (b) Tp = 9. the average downtime per occurrence = 5.333 units/yr Revenues = $4.333/yr.8 min. Rp = 60/Tp = 60/2.8/n + 0.000/yr. The total work content time = 9.333) = $533. Tp = Tc/E = 1.0 min.75(0.0 min.000/yr With computer monitoring system: Tc = 1.Tc.05 = 196 n = (196) . Solution: Tc = 60/Rc = 60/50 = 1.4 = 0.000) = $480.000 units/yr Revenues = $4.86 pc/hr E = 0.05 = zero at minimum point n2 = 9.00(120.2 + 0.$480.333 .0) = 9.8) = 0. and Tp = 2.itself within one year of operation.05n dTp/dn = -9.33) = 133.7/1. This is more than enough to justify the $25.0 = 30 pc/hr In the current system: Annual production Q = 4000Rp = 4000(30) = 120. Use expected increase in revenues resulting from the computer system as the criterion. Tp = Tc + Ftd = 9.2/.000 = $53.01. Cost to operate line = same as in current system (neglecting increased cost of new system) Difference in revenues = $533.0 .01)(5.00Q = $4.000 investment. 40.8/0.333 .0 min. Solution: (a) Maximizing Rp is equivalent to minimizing Tp. Rp = 60/1.15 An automated transfer line is to be designed.6 = 1.25%)(2.05(14) = 0.8/n .8 = 33.50 270 .6 min.00(133. FTd = (1 . FTd = Tp .7 = 1.7 + 0.33 pc/hr Annual production Q = 4000(33.6 = 2.8/14 + 0.2) = 0. Ignore material costs in your calculations. Cost to operate line = $75H = $75(4000) = $300.8/n2 + 0.2 min. This is reduced by 25% with new system. Rp = 60/1. Tp = 1.2 min.

. for example. (2) equipment selection. and so forth.8 Identify some of the important factors that should enter into the make or buy decision. 41. even though the quoted price from the vendor is lower than the internal price? Answer. 41. and (4) advanced manufacturing planning. Secondary processes are used to refine the starting geometry and transform the material into final shape and size.2 MANUFACTURING ENGINEERING Define manufacturing engineering . Because purchasing the component may cause idle equipment and staff in the factory that the company must still pay for.3 Identify some of the details and decisions that are included within the scope of process planning.1 41.4 What is a route sheet? Answer. e.. (2) day-to-day technical problem solving and continuous improvement. 271 .g. What are the principal activities in manufacturing engineering? Answer. Review Questions 41. Principal activities of manufacturing engineering are: (1) process planning. Manufacturing engineering is a technical staff department responsible for planning the manufacturing processes for a product and its components. (4) identification of cutting tools and cutting conditions for machining operations.g. and (9) plant layout and facilities design. assembly) and manual portions of machine cycles (e. 41.5 What is the difference between a basic process and a secondary process? Answer. Table 41. manufacturing research. (5) methods for manual operations (e. (8) consideration must be given to the problem of moving materials and work-in-progress in the factory. See Example 41. Answer. drawn metal bar. Answer. why is it that purchasing a component from a vendor may cost more than producing the component internally. machining and sheet metal pressworking are common secondary processes. loading and unloading a production machine).g. (6) work standards (time standards for each operation).7 In the make or buy decision.. fixtures.1 in the text. molds. A basic process establishes the starting geometry of the work material. casting. and gages will be needed.1 lists the following details and decisions in process planning: (1) what processes are required and the sequence in which they are performed. rolled sheet metal. (3) what tools. A route sheet is a listing of the production operations and their sequence required to make a given part. 41. 41. a hole must be drilled before it can be tapped. which includes evaluation of new processing technologies. dies. A precedence constraint is a limitation on the order in which processing or assembly operations can be performed on a given workpart. It also lists the equipment and special tooling that is required. (3) advising the product designers in design for manufacturability. (7) estimates of production costs.6 What is a precedence constraint in process planning? Answer.41 41.

and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. (m) tempering of martensitic steel. 272 . The factors include: (1) cost. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. (b) facilities planning. (3) production quantity. upgradeability. (i) sheet metal stamping. 41. These factors include installability.Answer. 41.9 Name three of the general principles and guidelines in design for manufacturability? Answer. (c) process improvement. (6) Design the product to be foolproof during assembly. (2) design for quality. (9) Use modular design. (3) Use common parts across product lines. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 18 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct).5 lists the following DFM principles and guidelines: (1) Minimize number of components.12 What is meant by the term design for life cycle ? Answer. (11) Eliminate or reduce adjustment required. 41. 41. and (p) ultrasonic machining. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. (a). (e) product design. (e) forward hot extrusion to produce aluminum bars.2 Which of the following would be considered basic processes. (h) sand casting. (5) whether or not the component is a standard commercially available hardware item. (4) Product life. (6) supplier reliability. Answer. (d) electroplating. (3) design for life cycle. and disposability. maintainability. (b) anodizing. and (4) design for cost. It includes: (1) design for manufacturability. Concurrent engineering is an approach used by companies to reduce the time to bring a new product to market. (n) trepanning. Design for life cycle means that factors relating to the product after it has been manufactured should be taken into consideration in design. (d) process planning.10 What is concurrent engineering and what are its important components? Answer. (c). (l) surface grinding of hardened steel. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. 41. (2) Use standard commercially available components. (g) rolling. (f) impression die forging. (2) whether the process is available internally. Enabling technologies mentioned in the text are rapid prototyping and computer integrated manufacturing (which includes CAD/CAM). and (7) possible need for alternative sources.11 Identify some of the enabling technologies for concurrent engineering? Answer. (j) sintering of pressed ceramic powders. as opposed to secondary processes (more than one)? (a) annealing. (5) Design parts with tolerances that are within process capability. and (f). electronic data interchange should probably be included in the list. (o) turning. (10) Shape parts and products for ease of packaging. Table 41. (8) Design for ease of assembly. (7) Minimize flexible components. reliability. (d).1 Which of the following are the usual responsibilities of the manufacturing engineering department (more than one)? (a) advising on design for manufacturability. For each question. (4) Design for ease of part fabrication. In addition. (k) spot welding. serviceability. 41. (c) drilling with a twist drill. and (f) solving technical problems in the production departments. all correct answers must be given. It also includes certain organizational changes which attempt to bring different functions in the company together during product design to consider all possible aspects of the product.

(f) impression die forging. (l) surface grinding of hardened steel. (g) rolling. (e) forward hot extrusion to produce aluminum bars. (c) drilling with a twist drill. (e) forward hot extrusion to produce aluminum bars. (a). (k) spot welding. (d) electroplating. (n) trepanning. (f) impression die forging. as opposed to basic processes (more than one)? (a) annealing. (h) sand casting. (c) traditional process planning. (n) trepanning. or (d) none of the preceding. (g) rolling. (l). 41. (e). (j). (j) sintering of pressed ceramic powders. and (p) ultrasonic machining. (b) anodizing. (l) surface grinding of hardened steel. (i). (i) sheet metal stamping. (h) sand casting. (n). (b) 273 .Answer. 41. (g). (c) drilling with a twist drill. (b) anodizing. (o). 41. Answer. (d) electroplating.4 Which of the following are operations to enhance physical properties (more than one)? (a) annealing. Answer. and (p) ultrasonic machining. (c). (b) retrieval CAPP. (m) tempering of martensitic steel. (i) sheet metal stamping. and (h). (m) tempering of martensitic steel. (k) spot welding. (o) turning. Answer. and (p).5 Which one of the following types of computer-aided process planning relies on parts classification and coding in group technology? (a) generative CAPP.3 Which of the following would be considered secondary processes. (j) sintering of pressed ceramic powders. (o) turning. (f). and (m).

5 Define reorder point inventory system. an order to restock is issued when the inventory level for the given stock item declines to some point defined as the reorder point. Answer. Independent demand means that the demand or consumption of the item is unrelated to demand for other items. for example. Answer. 42.9 42. How is a pull system distinguished from a push system in production and inventory control? 274 .42 42. (2) sales forecasts. authorize overtime. End products and spare parts experience independent demand. components. Short term adjustments to increase capacity include: increase employment levels. 42. What is the difference between dependent and independent demand for products? Answer. Answer. Common use items are materials. and (3) inventory record file. 42. Answer. Aggregate planning is scheduling by general product line. increase number of shifts. what are common use items? Answer. increase shift hours. The inputs to MRP are: (1) master production schedule. Dependent demand refers to the fact that demand for the item is directly related to demand for something else. (2) bill-of-materials file for product structure. 42.6 In MRP. Make-to-stock is the case in which the company produces to replenish inventories of products. or subassemblies that are used for more than one item in the next level above in the product structure. 42. usually because the item is a component of an end product subject to independent demand. or a component that is used on more than one product. and it is appropriate to carry inventory. In a reorder point system. Production rate is greater than demand rate.10 Identify the principal objective in just-in-time production.4 What are the product categories usually listed in the master production schedule. The categories are: (1) firm customer orders. and subcontracting work to outside vendors.8 What are some of the resource changes that can be made to increase plant capacity in the short run? Answer. a starting material that is used on more than one component. as the Japanese view it.7 Identify the inputs to the MRP processor in material requirements planning.1 42. 42.2 PRODUCTION PLANNING AND CONTROL What is meant by the term make-to-stock production? Review Questions Answer.3 42. and (3) spare parts. the master production schedule indicates how many and when of each product model within the product line are to be produced. Reduction of in-process inventory. How does aggregate planning differ from the master production scheduling? Answer.

and (f) spare tires. and (f). (a). (b) firm customer orders.Answer. (b) investment. Answer. 42. 42. or (e) product design. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. and (3) order progress. (d) holding cost. In a pull system. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. For each question. (d) setup. (b) and (e).4 Which of the following are the terms in the economic order quantity formula (name three)? (a) annual demand rate. Answer. (c).11 What are the three phases in shop floor control? Answer.range production quantities. (d) orders for maintenance and spare parts. (d) production equipment. and (g). (c) general product lines. (e) interest rate. Answer. (b). (d) master production schedule. 42. (d). authorization to produce parts originates from downstream stations. 42. (c) low production quantities. Answer. (2) order scheduling. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 17 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). all correct answers must be given. (d) mass production. (b) 42. (b) independent demand items. (c) obsolescence.6 With which of the following manufacturing resources is capacity requirements planning primarily concerned (more than one)? (a) component parts. (f) stock-out. or (e) material requirements planning. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. (b) economic order quantity. and (e). (c) just-in-time production. Answer. 42. Answer. (b) direct labor. The three phases are (1) order release. (e) sales forecasts.5 Order point inventory systems are intended for which of the following (more than one)? (a) dependent demand items. (d). (c) cost per piece.7 The word kanban is most closely associated with which one of the following? (a) capacity planning. (c) 275 .1 Which one of the following terms best describes the overall function of production planning and control? (a) inventory control. and (e) raw materials. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. (c) inventory storage space. (c) manufacturing engineering. and (f) setup cost. (e). 42. In a push system.2 Which of the following are the categories usually listed in the master production schedule (more than one)? (a) components used to build the final products. (b) and (d). (b). and (g) storage. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. (b) batch size. and (e) mid. (b) manufacturing logistics. (e) spoilage. authorization to produce derives from parts being produced by upstream stations and forming queues in front of the production station. 42. Answer.3 Inventory carrying costs include which of the following (more than one)? (a) equipment downtime. (d) mass production quantities.

3(9. Holding cost rate = 30%/yr.65 min. 42. (c) managing work-in. Setup time to run a batch = 2. Annual demand is 60. holding cost rate = 2. or (e) sequencing jobs through a machine.000 units.30(4. (d) releasing orders to the shop. Annual demand = 50. What would the annual savings be if the product were produced in the economic order quantity? Solution: Current TIC = ChQ/2 + CsuDa/Q = 0. and unit cost of the product = $4. cost of downtime on the affected equipment is figured at $250/hr.5 hr. Solution: (a) EOQ = (2D a Csu/Ch)0.000/6000) = 3000 + 3000 = $6000 42.5 (EOQ)2 = 2Da CdtTsu/hCp Tsu = hCp(EOQ)2/2D a Cdt = 0. Determine: (a) economic order quantity and (b) total inventory costs for this situation.00)(7217/2) + 2.5 = (2 x 60.00)(6000/2) + 300(60. (a) Problems Inventory Control 42. Ch = $1.8 The term machine loading refers most closely to which one of the following? (a) assigning jobs to a work center.5%/month.00. Determine: (a) economic order quantity and (b) total inventory costs for this situation.00))0.4 A certain piece of production equipment is used to produce various components for an assembled product of the XYZ Company. Demand for each product is 2500 units per year. Batch size = 2000 units.2 Given: annual demand for product X is 20. Production downtime costs an estimated $200/hr. changeover (setup) time between products averages 2. Annual demand for the part is 15.00/unit.0 hr. Determine: (a) EOQ and (b) total inventory costs for this data.00))0. Setup cost to produce this product is $300.000 x 300/(. Solution: (a) EOQ = (2D a Csu/Ch)0. All of the components made on the equipment are of approximately equal value: Cp = $9.000 units.30 x 4. downtime cost during changeover = $200/hr.5 = 6000 units (b) TIC = ChQ/2 + CsuDa/Q = 0.5 x 250(50.3 A product is produced in batches.000 units.5 = (2 x 50.000 x 2. In how many minutes must the changeover (setup) between batches be completed in order for 100 units to be the economic order quantity? Solution: EOQ = (2D a CdtTsu /hCp)0. To keep in-process inventories low.025 x 6.06075 hr = 3.5 = 7217 units TIC at EOQ = ChQ/2 + CsuDa/Q = 0. Annual holding cost per part made on the equipment. Each unit costs $4.30(4.5 = (2 x 20. 276 .825 .0 hr.5 Current changeover (setup) time on a certain machine = 3.00 and the annual holding cost rate = 25%.25 x 4.625 = $16.00))0. it is desired to produce the components in batch sizes of 150 units (daily requirements for assembly).000 x 2 x 200/(12 x .000/2000) = 1200 + 15. and annual holding cost rate = 30%.process in the factory.25(4. (b) floor foundation in the factory.5 x 250/(0.42.000/2981) = 2683 + 2684 = $5387 42.5 = 2981 units (b) TIC = ChQ/2 + CsuDa/Q = 12 x 0.00)(150) 2/(2 x 2500 x 200) = 0.00.000 units.00)(2000/2) + 2. Cost of downtime on this machine is estimated at $200/hr.8660 = $8165 42.025(6. cost per unit = $6.000/7217) = 4330 + 4330 = $8660 Savings = 16. Answer.5 x 250(50.00)(2981/2) + 2 x 200(20.825 EOQ = (2D a Csu/Ch)0.1 A product is made-to-stock.00.

00 For the EOQ = 8944.00(775/2) + 20(15. if the changeover time could be reduced to six minutes. and assembly lead times are as follows: Item identification: Lead time (weeks): P1 1 S1 2 C2 1 M2 2 Given the product structure in Figure 42.6.000 x 50/0. TIC = 0.1) = $20. compared to the economic order quantity? Solution: (a) EOQ = (2D a Csu/Ch)0.64 (c) If Tsu = 6 min = 0.00 .00 x 200/1.61 = $447.05) 0.5 = (2 x 15.2.00) 0. EOQ = (2 x 40.000/4243) = 2121.05(8944/2) + 50(40. Cost to order the component is around $50.000/775) = 387. and S1 to meet the master schedule for P1. Solution: Period P1 Requirements Order Release S1 Requirements Order Release C2 Requirements Order Release 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 50 50 100 400 8 50 75 75 9 75 100 100 10 100 50 200 300 75 300 400 200 277 . Ignore demand for P1 beyond period 10.5 = 4243 pc (b) TIC = ChQ/2 + CsuDa/Q = 1. (a) What is the imputed holding cost per unit for this data? (b) If the actual annual holding cost per unit is only 5 cents. Ordering.00) 0.5 = 775 pc (d) TIC = 1.50 + 2121.00 annually (b) Given Ch = $0.79 Material Requirements Planning 42.00 x 200(15.5 = 8944.000 x 3.05(1000/2) + 50(40. what lot size should be ordered? (c) How much more is the current two-bin approach costing the company annually.447.3 → 8944 pc (c) For the two-bin approach in which Q = 1000.05.6 The two-bin approach is used to control inventory for a particular low-cost component.000 units. Solution: (a) EOQ = (2D a Csu/Ch)0.60 + 223. Required deliveries for P1 are given in Figure 42. Use a format similar to Figure 42.21 = $1802.60 42. determine the time-phased requirements for M2. Csu = CdtTsu = 200(0.000 x 50/Ch)0. The annual usage of the component is 40.000 x 50/1000 = $4. Assume no common use items and all on-hand inventories and scheduled receipts are zero.7 Quantity requirements are to be planned for component C2 in product P1.14 = $4242.000/1000) = 250 + 2000 = $2250.000 x 20/1.Also.50 + 387. TIC = 0. EOQ = (2 x 15.5 Ch = 2 x 40. determine: (c) EOQ and (b) total inventory costs.00(4243/2) + 3.1 hr. C2.21 Additional cost = 2250. manufacturing.10 = $774.7.5 1000 = (2 x 40.000/8944) = 223. Each bin holds 1000 units.

7.M2 Requirements Order Release 200 300 200 400 300 400 42. On-hand inventories are: 200 units for M5 and 100 units for C5.8 Solve the previous problem except that the following is known in addition to the information given: scheduled receipts of M5 are 250 units in period (week) 3 and 50 units in period (week) 4. Solution: Period P1 Requirements On-hand: 0 Net Requirements Order Release S2 Requirements On hand: 0 Net Requirements Order Release C5 Requirements On hand: 100 Net Requirements 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 50 50 75 150 150 200 400 400 9 75 75 100 200 200 10 100 100 50 100 100 150 300 300 100 200 100 100 278 .8 Requirements are to be planned for component C5 in product P1. Solution: Period P1 Requirements On-hand: 0 Net Requirements Order Release S2 Requirements On hand: 0 Net Requirements Order Release C5 Requirements On hand: 100 Net Requirements Order Release M5 Requirements On hand: 200 Net Requirements Order Release 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 50 50 75 150 150 200 400 400 9 75 75 100 200 200 10 100 100 50 100 100 150 300 300 100 200 100 100 100 100 100 0 400 300 300 100 200 400 400 400 0 200 42.2. Assume no common use items. Ordering. Ignore demand for P1 beyond period 10. Required deliveries for P1 are given in Figure 42. C5.6. and assembly lead times are as follows: Item identification: Lead time (weeks): P1 1 S2 1 C5 3 M5 2 Given the product structure in Figure 42. Use a format similar to Figure 42. manufacturing. and S2 to meet the master schedule for P1. determine the time-phased requirements for M5. zero for S2.

0 Run hours 50.0 min.0 5.333 Hrs/wk center 56.333 20. To meet the weekly production. Product 2: Time per batch = 5.0 + 400(3/60) = 6 + 20 = 26 hr Total hours for all four products = 56 + 50 + 20. this will require an additional setup 279 .0 + 900(3/60) = 5 + 45 = 50 hr Product 3: Time per batch = 7.333 ______ 152. and it is desired to determine how to allocate resources in that department to meet the required demand for these products for a certain week.0 50. five days per week and there are currently 3 work centers in the department.333 hr. let us propose to produce products 1 and 3 on work centers 1 and 2 and Products 2 and 4 on work centers 3 and 4.0 45. This is fewer than the number of hours required.333 Totals 42.333 Hrs/product 56.0 min. The plant normally operates one shift (7. 2.0 13.0 min. propose a way of scheduling to meet the weekly demand if there were four machines instead of three. Solution: Time to produce each product is the same as given in the preceding solution.333 = 20.0 46. Propose a way of scheduling the machines to meet the weekly demand.0 _____ 24.0 20.333 26. The demand and other data for the products are given as follows: Product 1 2 3 4 Weekly demand 750 900 400 400 Setup time 6 hr 5 hr 7 hr 6 hr Operation time 4.10 Four products are to be manufactured in Department A.333 hr Product 4: Time per batch = 6.Order Release M5 Requirements Scheduled Receipts On hand: 200 Net Requirements Order Release 100 100 250 450 -350 300 300 300 50 350 -100 400 400 100 300 0 0 Order Scheduling 42. In both cases. under the assumption that a single setup is required for each product. overtime must be used.333 + 26 = 152.0 50. Solution: Determine time to produce each product. To meet the weekly production.0 hours per shift). Available hours per week on 4 work centers if normal hours are assumed = 4 x (5 x 7) = 140 hr. The following schedule is proposed: Work center I II III Product 1 2 3 4 Quantity 750 900 400 400 Setup hours 6. overtime must be used. 3. In order to equalize the workload among machines as much as possible. assuming a single setup for each product: Product 1: Time per batch = 6.0 + 750(4/60) = 6 + 50 = 56 hr.0 ______ 128.0 min. Available hours per week on 3 work centers if normal hours are assumed = 3 x (5 x 7) = 105 hr.0 6. This is fewer than the number of hours required.0 7. 3.11 In the previous problem.0 ______ 152.0 + 400(2/60) = 7 + 13.

0 .33 Hrs/product 41.0 .00 ______ 128.0 + 0.QI) + 7.13334 QI = 76.0 5.0 + 400(2/60) = 76.0 _____ 35.0 6.0 + QIII(3/60) = 5.333 QI = 70. We next want to equalize the workload on work centers III and IV with Products 2 and 4. and C) to be processed at a particular work center.10 = 710 TI = 5.133 hr.0.05 QIII) = 0.333 .6.15) .0 + 0. and (e) critical ratio.0 QI = 71.0.10 QI = 76.0.06667Q I Work center II: TII =6.5.0 + 0.05Q III 2(0.05 QIII Work center IV: TIV = 5.We want to equalize the workload on work centers I and II with Products 1 and 3.05(710) = 40.16 = 3 Order C slack time = (24 .0.5 = 5 Order B slack time = (34 .33 Hrs/wk center 41. (c) shortest processing time. The following table indicates the remaining process time and production calendar due date for each order: Order A B C Remaining process time 5 days 16 days 7 days Due date Day 25 Day 34 Day 24 Determine the sequence of the orders that would be scheduled using: (a) first-come-first-serve.50 ______ 163.333/0.33 40.13334 = 528 TI = 6.0 + 0.15) .06667(750 . Solution: (a) FCFS: sequence = A .0 + 0.C (b) Earliest due date: sequence = C .15) .50 14.05(710) = 40.05 QIII Setting TIII = TIV: 5.06667 QI) = 0.0 + 400(3/60) = 76.C .0 + 0.QIII) + 6.0 Run hours 35.05(900 .B . B.0 .A 280 .80 13.13 40.B .333 .00 ______ 163.0 = 71.0.0. (d) least slack time.0 6.06667Q I = 76.A .20 hr TII = 76.0/0.05 QIII = 76.0 + 0. Work center III: TIII = 5.33 35.B (d) Least slack time: Order A slack time = (25 .0 = 70. Work center I: TI = 6.20 41. The orders arrived in the sequence A-B-C at the work center.50 26.50 20.50 hr TII = 76.06667Q I Setting TI = TII: 6.7 = 2 Sequence = C .50 hr.B (c) Shortest processing time: sequence = A .0 .33 Totals 42.80 20. (b) earliest due date.333 .06667Q I 2(0.333 .0 7.50 40.0 + QI(4/60) = 6.50 9. The following table summarizes the production at each work center: Work center I II III IV Product 1 1 3 2 2 4 Quantity 528 222 400 710 190 400 Setup hours 6.06667(528) = 41.0 5.0 + 0.06667(528) = 41.12 The current date in the production calendar of the XYZ Company is day 15.20 20.20 14. There are three orders (A.

0 Order B critical ratio = (34 .286 Sequence = B .15)/5 = 2.15)/7 = 1.C .(e) Critical ratio: Order A critical ratio = (25 .1875 Order C critical ratio = (24 .15)/16 = 1.A 281 .

43. each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point.4 What is the difference between control charts for variables and control charts for attributes? Answer. all correct answers must be given. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. called assignable variation. The two quality aspects are: (1) product features. rather than a freedom from deficiency (more than one)? (a) components within tolerance. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 12 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). 43. Answer. Answer. (c) no missing parts. and (4) points consistently near the upper or lower limits. In control charts for attributes. In control charts for variables. and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. measurements of the characteristic of interest are made. and (2) c chart for count of defects in a sample. 43.1 Which of the following would be classified as examples of a product feature. This indicates that something is wrong with the process.6 What are the two basic types of control charts for attributes? Answer. 43. For each question.7 When interpreting a control chart. The limits are defined as the process mean ± 3 standard deviations. Answer. (d) product weight. 43. The process in statistical control is characterized by only random variations. what does one look for to identify problems? Answer. Problems are indicated by the following: (1) x or R lie outside the LCL or UCL limits. How is a process operating in statistical control distinguished from one that is not? Answer. the characteristic of interest is identified as being acceptable of not acceptable.5 Identify the two types of control charts for variables. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. 282 .43 43. (2) trends or cyclical patterns in the data. (b). and (2) freedom from deficiencies.3 Define process capability . The two charts are: (1) x chart for sample means and (2) R chart for ranges. and (e) reliability. and (e). (b) location of ON/OFF switch. A process that is out of control exhibits additional variation that is not normal. (3) sudden changes in average.1 43. Review Questions 43. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. Process capability is the limits of the random variations of the process when it is in statistical control. The two charts are: (1) p chart for proportion of defects in a sample.2 QUALITY CONTROL What are the two principal aspects of product quality? Answer. (d).

Problems Process Capability and Statistical Tolerancing 43.012 cm The upper and lower limits of the process capability range are: 6. (a) What proportion of parts fall outside the tolerance limits? (b) If the process were adjusted so that its mean diameter = 6.3 43. The process is in statistical control and the output is normally distributed with a standard deviation = 0.004) = 6. Taguchi (more than one)? (a) acceptance sampling.7 Answer.263 . (c) loss function.237 . On the lower side of the tolerance limit.250 cm and the standard deviation remained the same.2. (a). (c) upper design tolerance limit.255)/0. (b) control charts.263.255 ± 3(0. using the standard normal distribution.255 cm and σ = 0. Answer. (e) Which of the following principles and/or approaches are generally credited to G.255)/0.237 to 2.250 ±0.00 283 . then the percentage of parts that are within tolerance will be closest to which one of the following when the process is operating in statistical control? (a) 35%. or (e) 100%.004 = +2. (c) radius of a cylindrical part.5 43. z = (6. (d) 99%.43. z = (6.004 cm and tolerance limits 2. (c) number of defects in a sample.2 If the product tolerance is set so that the process capability index = 1. (b) 65%. (d) Which one of the following best describes the situations for which the c chart is most suited? (a) control of defective parts. Answer. the design specification on the part is: diameter = 6.267 cm 43. (b) points near the central line. (c) R outside the control limits of the R chart. (c) and (e). (c) Which of the following identify an out-of-control condition in a control chart (more than one)? (a) consistently increasing value of x .2 In the previous problem. Determine the process capability. On the upper side of the tolerance limit. Answer. Solution: Process capability PC = µ ± 3σ = 6. (b) The R chart is used for which one of the following product or part characteristics? (a) number of rejects in the sample.6 43. In a control chart. Conclusion: there are virtually no defects on the lower side of the tolerance. (b) mean value of part characteristic of interest.0. Answer. (c) 95%. 43. Answer.004 = -4. (b) number of reworked parts in a sample. (b) process mean plus three standard deviations.013 cm.1 An automatic turning process is set up to produce parts with a mean diameter = 6. or (d) range of sample values. and (e) robust design. and (d) x outside the control limits of the x chart. or (d) proportion of defects in a sample.4 43.255 ± 0.004 cm.6.255 cm. the upper control limit is set equal to which one of the following? (a) process mean. and (d).50. what proportion of parts would fall outside the tolerance limits? Solution: (a) Given process mean µ = 6. (d) Pareto priority index.243 to 6. (c). or (d) upper value of the maximum range R.

263.0001 + 0. Determine the process capability.28. what proportion of parts would fall outside the tolerance limits? (c) With the adjusted mean at 28.6)/0. Pr(z < -3.23) = 92. (c) Process capability index PCI = 4.53) = 1.0 mm and σ = 0.41° to 92.258 284 .25) = 0.64) = 0.53 = +3.0041 = 0. z = (26.53 mm and tolerance limits 26.1° ± 0.53 = -4.0 to 30. Pr(z > 3. z = (6.77 Using tables of the standard normal distribution.6 mm.25) = 0. (b) If µ = 90° T = 92° .0 to 30.69°. z = (26. Solution: Process capability PC = µ ± 3σ = 28. The upper and lower limits of the process capability range are: 91.0 mm. 43. 43.6)/0.1 ± 3(0.28.6 mm and σ = 0.6.02%. 0.25. determine the value of the process capability index.0 .6.250)/0.0001 On the upper side of the tolerance limit. The design specification on the angle = 90 ±2°.6 ± 3(0.28.23°) = 2.0 mm.0041 The proportion of defects with the current process mean = 0.01.5 In the previous problem.0006 + 0.004 cm and tolerance limits 6. 43.0012 = 0.0006.53 mm and tolerance limits 26.4 A plastic extrusion process produces extrudate with a critical cross-section dimension = 28. The process is in statistical control and the output is normally distributed with standard deviation = 0.53) = 28.9 → virtually no defects.53 = +2. The process is in statistical control and the values of included angle are normally distributed with a standard deviation = 0.0002 = 0. (a) Determine the process capability. Pr(z > 2. using the standard normal distribution.0 mm and the standard deviation remained the same. 0. Pr(z < -3.41%.250 cm and σ = 0. the design specification on the part is: diameter = 28.25.0227 The proportion of defects with the current process mean = 0.77) = approx. (b) Given process mean µ = 28.0)/0.6 ± 1. On the lower side of the tolerance limit.0°.0 .237 to 6.1°.0001 The proportion of defects with the current process mean = 0. On the upper side of the tolerance limit.19 mm. (b) If the process could be adjusted so that its mean = 90. Solution: (a) Given process mean µ = 28.00) = 0. z = (30.12%. z = (30.88° = 4° PCI = 4°/(6 x 0. Using tables of the standard normal distribution. On the lower side of the tolerance limit. Using tables of the standard normal distribution.237 .0001 = 0.0)/0.0 mm. On the upper side of the tolerance limit.0006 The proportion of defects with the current process mean = 0. (b) Given process mean µ = 6. z = (6. determine the value of the process capability index. Pr(z > 2.59 mm The upper and lower limits of the process capability range are: 27.0 ±2.77.01 to 30.28. (a) What proportion of parts fall outside the tolerance limits? (b) If the process were adjusted so that its mean diameter = 28.0227 = 2.0 .263 .0 .64 Using tables of the standard normal distribution.0 mm.0/(6 x 0. Solution: (a) PC = 92.23°. Conclusion: there are virtually no defects on the lower side of the tolerance.004 = +3.0006 = 0.27%.004 = -3.Using tables of the standard normal distribution. Using tables of the standard normal distribution. Pr(z > 3.3 A sheet metal bending operation produces bent parts with an included angle = 92.53 mm. On the lower side of the tolerance limit.250)/0.79°.53 = -3.77) = approx.

Solution: Dimension C is determined by two middle parts.0004 = 4 Ti2 Ti2 = 0.010 in.50 cm dimension are parallel.002 inch.40 mm. Interpret this to be ± 0. However.8 has a critical assembly dimension C = 5.5 Ta2 = 4 Ti2 (0. Thus. Ta = ± 0.6 An assembly consists of four components stacked to create an overall dimension of 2.005 cm. which would yield Ta = 20(± 0. T1 = T. so that the thick assembly has the same profile.0667 mm. Determine the tolerance (a) under a worst case design approach. All parts will have identical bilateral tolerances.40/6 = 0.000 ± 0.00895 in. Let us apportion the tolerances among parts in proportion to their size. whose process capabilities are proportional to their respective dimensions.0001 = 10-4 Ti = 10-2 = 0. specifically the rolling process making the starting piece of sheet metal from which the laminating pieces are fabricated. this would not be a good application of statistical tolerancing because the process making the components is the same process. significantly beyond the specified tolerance.005 in.0179 in.5 = (0.0004/4 = 0. with a bilateral tolerance Ta = 0. T2 = 2T.010 in.000 cm. determine the tolerance for each part using: (a) worst case design and (b) statistical tolerancing. σa2 = 2 σi2 = 2(0.005 in. (b) Statistical tolerancing: Ta = (4 Ti2)0. which is well within the specified tolerance of ± 0. The sheet metal blanks are all cut with the same punch and die to the desired profile. T3 = 3T.010 inch.0212 cm 43.0667 mm = ± 0. T = 0. Solution: (a) Worst case: Ti = 0.9 An assembly consists of three parts stacked to form a final dimension of 30.00032) 0.00005 σa = (0. The relevant part dimensions making up the 30 mm total are 5 mm.00707 cm PC = µ ± 3σ = 2(2. and (b) using a statistical tolerancing approach. Interpret this to be ± 0.7 An assembly is made by stacking 20 flat pieces of sheet metal to produce a thick laminated structure.1333 mm = ± 0. Solution: (a) Worst case tolerancing: Ta = 0. 285 .010 inch).0667 mm.5 = 0.005) 2 = 0. It would be more appropriate to use worst case tolerancing here.500) ± 3(0. The dimensions of the individual parts are each 0.020 inch (±0.500 cm and standard deviation = 0.00005) 0. and 15 mm.43.500 inch. 10 mm. T2 = 0. Does a statistical tolerancing approach apply in this situation? Why? Solution: If statistical tolerancing were used.5 = 0.100 mm.0042)0.8 The assembly in Figure P43.625 inch. The thickness of the final assembly is specified as 1. whose thickness specification is 1/16 inch ±0. what is the process capability of the critical dimension C. The absence of independent processes making the individual components is a violation of one of the fundamental assumptions of statistical tolerancing. 43.020) 2 = 0. Given that the part tolerances are to be a constant proportion of the respective dimensions.. If each part is made from an independent process with process means for part thickness all set to 2. Ta = (20 x 0.040 in.0 mm with tolerance = ±0.010. T3 = 0. T1 = 0.250 ±0.020/4 = 0. 43. Assume the opposite sides of each part on the 2.00707) = 5.200 mm = ± 0. Expressing this as a bilateral tolerance.40 mm.002) = ± 0.20 mm. Parts are produced by independent manufacturing operations. All of the parts are cut from the same sheet metal coil.. T1 + T2 + T3 = T + 2T + 3T = 6T = 0.0333 mm .

including the base part.5 σa = 9 σa Statistical tolerancing: σa = (8σi2)0.03333) 2)0. (a) Determine the values of the center. Solution: Given that parts PCI = 1.21 + 0.373(0. and UCL for the x and R charts.26 5 9.17 + 0.80 mm.24 + 9.28 0.20 0.2 mm and σ = 0. s x R 1 9.20 R = Σ R/7 = (0.19 7 9.424 mm Control Charts 43.10 shows an assembly in which the critical dimension is C.5 = (T2 + (2T)2 + (3T)3)0. T3 = 3T.23 0. determine the recommended tolerance for C using: (a) worst case design and (b) statistical tolerancing. with process capability = ±0.(b) Statistical tolerancing: Ta = 0. 43.30 4 9. Critical dimension C = 5(10) .2 mm and σ = 0.15 0.17 0.7417 T T = 0.5.0535 mm .20 + 9.22 + 9.40 = (T1 2 + T22 + T32)0.24) = 9.1105 mm.32) 0.2) 2)0.0333 mm.12 0.20 0.373(0. T2 = 2T. let us apportion the tolerances among parts in proportion to their size.10 Figure P43.5 = (0.1069 mm.24 0.27 + 0. Ta = 8Ti = 8(0.17 + 9.30 + 0.23 Solution: x = Σ x /m = (9.24 2 9.3(10) = 20 mm.1069 T1 = 0.8485 = ± 0. Critical dimension C = 5(10) . Again. has a thickness = 10. UCL = x + A2 R = 9.2/6 = 0. and the PCI for the assembly will also be 1.17 3 9. T2 = 0.0. Given that assembly PCI = 1.5 = 0. and the dimension of interest has been measured for each part.5 PC = 1.19 0.1 mm for the thickness.20 .566 mm = ± 0. Each part used in the assembly.5 = 3. Given that the process capability index for the parts PCI = 1.20 mm = CL LCL = x .0. Ta = 0.0943 mm Ta = 9(0.27 6 9.21 8 9. The calculated values of x and R for each sample are given below (measured values are in mm).12 Ten samples of size n = 8 have been collected from a process in statistical control.1604 mm. except that the process capability index for the assembly is a more conservative 1.3207 mm = ± 0.19 + 9.7417 = 0.6 mm = ± 0. The PCI for the individual parts is still 1.0943) = 0.0.21 10 9.19 + 0.32 + 0. Thus.2/6 = 0.28 + 9.20 + 9.23)/10 = 9.5 = (8(0. Solution: Given that PCI = 1.0 mm.24) = 9.24 (a) x chart: x = 9. (a) Worst case tolerancing: there are 8 parts that determine critical dimension C.11 Solve part (b) of the previous problem.2138 mm = ± 0.40/3.5 = (T2 + 4T2 + 9T2)0.0.5 = (8(0.5.12 + 9. 43. 286 . Therefore.23)/10 = 0. T1 = T.26 + 0.20 + 0. each with independent variability. (b) Statistical tolerancing: Ta = (8Ti2)0.008889) 0.0.1069 mm = ± 0.283 mm.2895 mm. T3 = 0.32 9 9.5 = 0.0333 mm. then Ti = 6σ = 0.A2 R = 9.40 mm. then Ti = 6σ = 0.0.3(10) = 20 mm. (b) Construct the control charts and plot the sample data on the charts.15 + 9. Ta = 1.24 + 0.2) = 1.5 = (0.5 = (14T2)0. LCL.22 0.21 + 0.

011 3 0.006)/7 = 1.076(0.995 0.8713 cm (b) R chart: R = 0.008 6 0.010 + 0.136(0.860 cm = CL LCL = x .017 Solution: x = Σ x /m = (1.0.996 0.0077 in.0326 mm.008 + 0.8487 cm UCL = x + A2 R = 6.A2 R = 6. and UCL for x and R charts.027) 7 /3 = 0. LCL.998 0. Determine: (a) lower and upper 287 .027) = 6.017)/7 = 0.998 + 1. A2 R = 3 σx/ n σx = A2 R 43.000 in.R chart: R = 0.020 + 0.027 cm.000 .9923 in.020 5 0.A2 R = 1.995 + 1.114(0.0133 = CL LCL = D3 R = 0.24) = 0.000 R = Σ R/7 = (0. (c) What is your best estimate of the standard deviation of the process? Solution: (a) x chart: x = 6.004 + 0.114(0. and the diameter of the extrudate has been measured for each part. The calculated values of x and R for each sample are given below (measured values are in inches). (b) Student exercise.006 0. (a) Determine the values of the center.013 7 1.011 + 0.996 + 0. the average value of the sample means is x = 6.860 cm for the dimension of interest.027) = 0. the grand mean of the samples is x = 100 for the characteristic of interest.004 0.577(0.999 0.999 + 0.002 + 0.924(0.577(0. UCL = D4 R = 2.010 2 0.0133) = 1. = CL LCL = x .14 In 12 samples of size n = 7.000 + 0.0281 in. UCL = x + A2 R = 1.0133 = CL LCL = D3 R = 0 UCL = D4 R = 2.0133) = 0.0.419(0. 43.0519 cm (c) The x chart is based on ± 3 σx/ n Therefore. s x R 1 1.014 + 0.15 n /3 = 0. 43.0133) = 0.027 = CL LCL = D3 R = 0.0133 (a) x chart: x = 1. Determine: (a) lower and upper control limits for the x chart and (b) lower and upper control limits for the R chart.027) = 0. (b) Construct the control charts and plot the sample data on the charts.014 4 1.419(0.4474 mm.419(0.5.13 Seven samples of 5 parts each have been collected from an extrusion process that is in statistical control.027) = 6.860 + 0. and the mean of the ranges of the samples is R = 8.0205 cm UCL = D4 R = 1.013 + 0. (b) Student exercise. and the mean of the ranges of the samples is R = 0. R chart: R = 0.002 0.0133) = 0.00998 cm In nine samples of size n = 10.860 .

13(0 .75.308(8.7596.236 43.03545) = 0. The total number of parts in these ten samples was 900 and the total number of defects counted was 117.14) 2 = 62 (0.09 .5) = 1.10 = 0.0202) = 0.618. A p chart is to be constructed. 13(0 .83 ) / n (0. 89) / 25 = 0.87 ) / 90 = 0.308(8.3(0. Solution: Use p = 1 . The number of chips per wafer is 200. LCL and UCL for the p chart.09 + 3(0.078 → 0 UCL = p + 3 p (1 − p ) / n = 0.0796/n n = 5.11 + 3 0 .7.24 . (b) R chart: R = 8. Determine the center.0196 = 259.11(0.11 + 3(0.11 .0626) = 0.24 + .13 .1045.5) 10 /3 = 2.LCL = 0.control limits for the x chart and (b) lower and upper control limits for the R chart.09 (0. 91) / 90 = 0.19 and UCL = 0.5) = 97.5 = CL LCL = D3 R = 0.09 = CL LCL = p .03545) = 0.1507 43.3(0.19 The upper and lower control limits for a p chart are: LCL = 0.16 n /3 = 0. Determine the center. Solution: p = 0.382. and UCL for the p chart that might be used for this process.A2 R = 100 .11(0. estimate the standard deviation of the process? Solution: (a) x chart: x = 100 = CL LCL = x .5) = 15.10) = 0.18 The yield of good chips during a certain step in silicon processing of integrated circuits averages 91%. Six samples of 25 parts each have been collected.11 + 3(0.7/90 = 0.11 + 3 0 .0.0293 UCL = p + 3 p (1 − p ) / n = 0.87 ) / 90 = 0.223(8.8955.308(8.3 p (1 − p ) / n = 0.298 43.14 = 6 p (1 − p ) / n = 6 0 .777(8.3 0 .91 = 0.3 p (1 − p ) / n = 0.83)/n = 5.5(UCL + LCL) = 0. UCL = D4 R = 1.09 (0. (c) The x chart is based on ± 3 σx/ n Therefore.5(. 91) / 90 = 0. Determine the sample size n that is used with this control chart.17)(0.0.5) = 102.3(0.0796/0.13 = CL LCL = p .17 UCL . Solution: p = 2.11 + 3 0.3 p (1 − p ) / n = 0. Determine the center.17 (0 . 89) / 25 = 0.0. (c) Based on the data given.11 = CL LCL = p .0196 = 36(0.0626) = -0.24. LCL and UCL for the p chart.17 x 0. LCL.2 → 259 288 . A2 R = 3 σx/ n σx = A2 R 43.17 Ten samples of equal size are taken to prepare a p chart.024 UCL = p + 3 p (1 − p ) / n = 0. and the average number of defects per sample was 2.75/25 = 0. p = 11. UCL = x + A2 R = 100 + 0.11 .3 0 . Solution: d = 117/10 = 11.0202) = 0.83/n) 0.13 .09 .3 0.

5(UCL + LCL) = 0.0025 = 171 43.3 c = 116 .3 116 = 83.4275/n n = 0.7 → 83 UCL = c + 3 c = 116 + 3 116 = 148. The number of defects found ranged between 87 and 139 defect per car with an average of 116.3 → 148 289 .43. Solution: CL = 116 LCL = c . 05( 0.10 + 0) = 0.05 LCL = p . Determine the center and upper and lower control limits for the c chart that might be used in this situation.95 ) / n (0.95)/n = 0.05 = 3 0. p = 3 p (1 − p ) / n 0.21 Twelve cars were inspected after final assembly.20 The upper and lower control limits for a p chart are: LCL = 0 and UCL = 0.0025 = 32 (0.05)(0. Determine the minimum possible sample size n that is compatible with this control chart. Solution: p = 0.4275/0.05) 2 = 0.10.5(.3 p (1 − p ) / n = 0 Therefore.

9 Automated inspection can be integrated with the manufacturing process to accomplish some action.4 What is accuracy in measurement? Answer.g. an unknown quantity is compared with a known standard and a value of the quantity is obtained using an accepted and consistent system of units. laser measuring methods. What is meant by the term calibration? Answer. and low cost. time.8 What is the rule of 10? Answer. and (2) feedback of data to adjust the process. electric current.10 Give an example of a non-contact inspection technique. 44.. The rule of 10 means that the measuring instrument or gage must be ten times more precise than the object (part) being inspected. what are the desirable attributes and features of a measuring instrument? Answer. length). dimension) satisfies the specification or not.g. The desirable features include: high resolution. ease of calibration.5 44. It is a measurement procedure that is absent of systematic errors. 44. speed of response.6 44.. Precision in measurement is the degree to which random errors are minimized. 44. 44. 290 .1 MEASUREMENT AND INSPECTION How is measurement distinguished from inspection? Answer. What are these possible actions? Answer. high reliability. and electrical field techniques. a product characteristic is examined to see if it conforms to design specifications. and light radiation. Possible actions discussed in text are: (1) parts sortation. Calibration means checking the measuring instrument against a known standard. A graduated measuring device has markings (called graduations) on a linear or angular scale to measure an object's feature of interest (e. In measurement. Gaging determines whether the product characteristic (e. 44.2 How does gaging differ from measuring ? Answer.44 44. Accuracy is the degree to which the measured value agrees with the true value of the quantity of interest. 44.3 What are the six fundamental quantities in metrology? Answer.7 What is precision in measurement? Answer. mass. Besides good accuracy and precision. Review Questions 44. wide operating range.11 What is meant by the term graduated measuring device? Answer. In inspection. 44. The six quantities are: length. temperature. Non-contact inspection techniques include machine vision. Measuring determines the actual value of the characteristic. Answer.

each omitted answer or wrong answer reduces the score by 1 point. A CMM is an automated measuring machine consisting of a contact probe and a means to position the probe in three dimensions relative to workpart features and surfaces.14 Describe a scanning laser system. inductance). or (g) United States.15 What is a binary vision system? Answer.16 Name some of the non-optical non-contact sensor technologies available for inspection. For each question. 44. 44. and converts from time to a linear dimension. (b) length.2 Which of the following are attributes of the “metric system” of linear measurement (more than one)? (a) based on astronomical distances. 44. Answer. (f) Russia. Answer. The technologies include: electrical fields (capacitance. since each correct answer is worth 1 point. and (2) stylus-type electronic instruments which measure average roughness. (e) temperature. (d) rational prefixes for units. Percentage score on the quiz is based on the total number of correct answers. A photodetector on the far side of the object senses the light beam during its sweep except for the short time when it is interrupted by the object. This time period can be measured quickly with great accuracy. which one of the following fundamental physical quantities are we most concerned with? (a) electric current. (c) light radiation. all correct answers must be given. Answer. and ultrasonic techniques (high frequency sound). (b) France. 44.44. (c) Germany. or (f) time. Common methods are: (1) comparison of the specimen surface with standard test blocks having known surface roughness values. (d) and (e). (c) originated in Great Britain. 0 or 1). The scanning laser system uses a laser beam deflected by a rotating mirror to produce a beam of light that sweeps past an object. Answer. (b) defined in terms of the human body. In a binary vision system. Multiple Choice Quiz There are a total of 28 correct answers in the following multiple choice questions (some questions have multiple answers that are correct). Answer. when the probe contacts the part.1 In measurement and inspection for manufacturing.12 What are the common methods for assessing surface roughness? Answer. (d) Japan. (g) 291 . the x-y-z coordinates are recorded.3 Which one of the following countries does not embrace the International System of units? (a) China.13 What is a coordinate measuring machine ? Answer. 44. To attain a perfect score on the quiz. (e) Panama. 44. (d) mass. A microprocessor system measures the time interruption that is related to the size of the object in the path of the laser beam. radiation (X-ray). and each additional answer beyond the number of answers required reduces the score by 1 point. (b) 44. and (e) units are subdivided decimally. the light intensity of each pixel is reduced to either of two values (black or white.

(a). (c) laser techniques. or (e) stainless steel. (d) micrometer. (c) 100% perfect quality. (d) machine vision. (b).44. (b) Which of the following are likely to be GO/NO-GO gages (more than one)? (a) gage blocks. (d).8 44. (d). Answer. (d) checks minimum material condition. (b) limit gage. (b) coordinate measuring systems. (f) sine bar. (c) master gage. Answer. (b).7 44. Answer. A surface plate is most typically made of which one of the following materials? (a) aluminum oxide ceramic. Which of the following are examples of contact inspection (more than one)? (a) calipers. Which one of the following is the most important application of vision systems? (a) inspection. or (d) non. (e). Which of the following are contact sensing methods used in inspection (more than one)? (a) calipers. and (d) sortation of good parts from defects. Answer. (b) feedback of data to adjust the process. (h) surface plate. and (e) surface roughness.10 44. Answer. or (d) visual guidance and control of a robotic manipulator. (c) checks maximum size. (c) and (d). (e) outside calipers.4 The two basic types of inspection are inspection by variables and inspection by attributes. (b) cast iron.9 44. (e) micrometer. and (e) snap gage.destructive testing. (c) granite. (b) and (d) are mentioned in the text. (g) snap gages. (b) checks maximum material condition. (c) divider. (c) measuring. (b) dial indicator. and (i). The second of these inspections uses which one of the following: (a) destructive testing. (b). (b) coordinate measuring machine. which one of the following best describes the function of the GO gage? (a) checks limit of maximum tolerance. and (e). or (e) checks minimum size. Answer. (a). Answer. and (g).12 44. (c) dial indicators. (g). Answer. (b) gaging. (d) shaft diameter. (c) part length. and (h) ultrasonic techniques. (d) machine vision. (b) object identification. (b). (g) steel rule. (d) plug gage. Answer. In a GO/NO-GO gage. (d) hard polymers.13 292 . (c) safety monitoring. Answer. (a).6 44. (b) hole diameter. (c).11 44. (e) micrometers. (a) 44. (f) scanning laser systems. and (i) vernier caliper.5 44. and (f) X-ray radiation. (b) Automated 100% inspection can be integrated with the manufacturing process to accomplish which of the following (more than one): (a) better design of products. and (e). (c) Which of the following are graduated measuring instruments (more than one)? (a) bevel protractor. An outside micrometer would be appropriate in the measurement of which of the following (more than one)? (a) hole depth.

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