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1. An ideal voltage source has a. Zero internal resistance b. Infinite internal resistance c. A load-dependent voltage d. A load-dependent current 2. A real voltage source has a. Zero internal resistance b. Infinite internal resistance c. A small internal resistance d. A large internal resistance 3. If a load resistance is 1 kohm, a stiff voltage source has a resistance of a. At least 10 ohm b. Less than 10 ohm c. More than 100 kohm d. Less than 100 kohm 4. An ideal current source has a. Zero internal resistance b. Infinite internal resistance c. A load-dependent voltage d. A load-dependent current 5. A real current source has a. Zero internal resistance b. Infinite internal resistance c. A small internal resistance d. A large internal resistance 6. If a load resistance is 1 kohm, a stiff current source has a resistance of a. At least 10 ohm b. Less than 10 ohm c. More than 100 kohm d. Less than 100 kohm 7. The Thevenin voltage is the same as the a. Shorted-load voltage b. Open-load voltage c. Ideal source voltage d. Norton voltage 8. The Thevenin resistance is equal in value to the a. Load resistance b. Half the load resistance c. Internal resistance of a Norton circuit d. Open-load resistance
9. To get the Thevenin voltage, you have to a. Short the load resistor b. Open the load resistor c. Short the voltage source d. Open the voltage source 10. To get the Norton current, you have to a. Short the load resistor b. Open the load resistor c. Short the voltage source d. Open the current source 11. The Norton current is sometimes called the a. Shorted-load current b. Open-load current c. Thevenin current d. Thevenin voltage 12. A solder bridge a. may produce a short b. may cause an open c. is useful in some circuits d. always has high resistance 13. A cold-solder joint a. shows good soldering technique b. usually produces an open c. is sometimes useful
d. always has low resistance 14. An open resistor has a. Infinite current through it b. Zero voltage across it c. Infinite voltage across it d. Zero current through it 15. A shorted resistor has a. Infinite current through it b. Zero voltage across it c. Infinite voltage across it d. Zero current through it 16. An ideal voltage source and an internal resistance is an example of the a. Ideal approximation b. Second approximation c. Higher approximation d. Exact model 17. Treating a connecting wire as a conductor with zero resistance is an example of the a. Ideal approximation b. Second approximation c. Higher approximation d. Exact model
18. The voltage out of an ideal voltage source a. Is zero b. Is constant c. Depends on the value of load resistance d. Depends on the internal resistance 19. The current out of an ideal current source a. Is zero b. Is constant c. Depends on the value of load resistance d. Depends on the internal resistance 20. Thevenin’s theorem replaces a complicated circuit facing a load by an a. Ideal voltage source and parallel resistor b. Ideal current source and parallel resistor c. Ideal voltage source and series resistor d. Ideal current source and series resistor 21. Norton’s theorem replaces a complicated circuit facing a load by an a. Ideal voltage source and parallel resistor b. Ideal current source and parallel resistor c. Ideal voltage source and series resistor d. Ideal current source and series resistor
22. One way to short a device is a. With a cold-solder joint b. With a solder bridge c. By disconnecting it d. By opening it 23. Derivations are a. Discoveries b. Inventions c. Produced by mathematics d. Always called theorems 24. Laws are proved by a. Definition b. Experiment c. Mathematics d. Formulas 25. Definitions are a. Man made b. Invented c. Made up d. All of the above
1. The nucleus of a copper atom contains how many protons? a. 1 b. 4 c. 18 d. 29 2. The net charge of a neutral copper atom is a. 0 b. +1 c. -1 d. +4 3. Assume the valence electron is removed from a copper atom. The net charge of the atom becomes a. 0 b. + 1 c. -1 d. +4 4. The valence electron of a copper atom experiences what kind of attraction toward the nucleus? a. None b. Weak c. Strong d. Impossible to say 5. How many valence electrons does a silicon atom have? a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 4 6. Which is the most widely used semiconductor? a. Copper b. Germanium c. Silicon d. None of the above 7. How many protons does the nucleus of a silicon atom contain? a. 4 b. 14 c. 29 d. 32 8. Silicon atoms combine into an orderly pattern called a a. Covalent bond b. Crystal c. Semiconductor d. Valence orbit
At room temperature an intrinsic silicon crystal acts approximately like a. Thermal energy d. Doping b. Lifetime c. A semiconductor has how many types of flow? a. An intrinsic semiconductor has some holes in it at room temperature. Doping b. 1 b. 4 16. Nucleus d. The merging of a free electron and a hole is called a. Covalent bond b. 1 b. What causes these holes? a. Lifetime c. Free electrons c. Thermal energy 12. Valence 14. Covalent bonding b. Bound electron b. Recombination 11. A battery b. Recommendation d. 3 d. A conductor c. The amount of time between the creation of a hole and its disappearance is called a. A conductor has how many types of flow? a. 4 .9. Each valence electron in an intrinsic semiconductor establishes a a. 3 d. Hole d. Recombination d. Proton 15. 2 c. The valence electron of a conductor is also called a a. Free electron c. An insulator d. A piece of copper wire 13. Free electron c. 2 c. Valence electrons 10.
Is greater than the number of holes c. No holes or free electrons 22. Absolute zero temperature equals a. None c. 25 degrees C d. Stays the same d. None of the above 18.17. Decreases b. A conductor has how many holes? a. None of the above 20. the number of free electrons a. Only those produced by thermal energy d. The number of free electrons and holes in an intrinsic semiconductor increases when the temperature a. Away from the negative potential b. Is less than the number of holes d. A few free electrons and holes b. At absolute zero temperature an intrinsic semiconductor has a. 50 degrees C 21. In an intrinsic semiconductor. Left b. Many holes c. Either way d. None of the above . In the external circuit d. The flow of valence electrons to the left means that holes are flowing to the a. No holes 23. Equals the number of holes b. Many b. None of the above 24. Right c. Many free electrons d. A few free electrons b. Toward the positive potential c. -273 degrees C b. 0 degrees C c. The same number as free electrons 19. Many holes c. Many free electrons d. holes will flow a. Increases c. At room temperature an intrinsic semiconductor has a. When a voltage is applied to a semiconductor.
Silicon 29. which of these would you use? a. 1 billion c. If you wanted to produce a p-type semiconductor.25. Donor atoms c. Same number as holes 31. 5 28. 29 32. Extrinsic b. Suppose an intrinsic semiconductor has 1 billion free electrons at room temperature. Impossible to say . how many holes are there? a. Negative charges d. If the temperature changes to 75'C. Fewer than 1 billion b. 1 b. Intrinsic c. Silver is the best conductor. p-type 30. Acceptor atoms b. 5 27. More than 1 billion d. 4 c. None c. Only those produced by thermal energy d. 1 b. Trivatent atoms have how many valence electrons? a. Atoms b. Holes are the minority carriers in which type of semiconductor? a. How many valence electrons do you think it has? a. 3 c. Holes act like a. 18 d. 1 b. Pentavalent impurity d. 4 d. 3 c. Crystals c. 4 d. n-type d. How many free electrons does a p-type semiconductor contain? a. Many b. Positive charges 26. A donor atom has how many valence electrons? a.
Negatively charged d. How many electrons are there in the valence orbit of a silicon atom within a crystal? a. 4 c. which way do the majority carriers flow? a. Right c. Crystal structure 35. Neutral b. 75degrees C 36. Gained an electron d. Left b.33. 8 d. Negative ions c. Lost an electron 38. 14 37. Which of the following describes an n-type semiconductor? a. Negatively charged d. 0 degrees C b. Which of the following doesn't fit in the group? a. 1 b. Which of the following describes a p-type semiconductor? a. Neutral b. Positively charged c. Which of the following is approximately equal to room temperature? a. Gained a proton b. Lost a proton c. A p-type semiconductor contains holes and a. Semiconductor c. 25 degrees C c. Four valence electrons d. Impossible to say 34. Conductor b. Has many free electrons . Pentavalent atoms d. An external voltage source is applied to a p-type semiconductor. If the left end of the crystal is positive. Positively charged c. Neither d. Positive ions are atoms that have a. Positive ions b. Has many holes 39. Donor atoms 40. 50 degrees C d.
Reverse current d. Very large c. 1 V d. Breakdown d. Diffusion of free electrons across the junction of an unbiased diode produces a. The voltage where avalanche occurs is called the a. 0 b. Majority carriers 42. Barrier potential d. The depletion layer . Forward breakdown c. In the breakdown region 46. 0. What causes the depletion layer? a. Ions d.3 V c. Holes b. To produce a large forward current in a silicon diode. Zero d. Barrier potential b.3 V b. Forward current b. Forward bias b. 2 mV per degree Celsius 44. Surface-leakage current is part of the a. Which of the following cannot move? a. Free electrons c.41. In a silicon diode the reverse current is usually a. Doping b. the applied voltage must be greater than a. Breakdown voltage 48.7 V c. Knee voltage d. What is the barrier potential of a silicon diode at room temperature? a. Depletion layer c. 0. 1 V 45. Reverse breakdown 47. 0.7 V d. 0. Ions 43. Reverse bias c. Very small b. Recombination c.
Forward voltage Chapter 3 1. Breakdown voltage d. Passive 2. Poor d. Nonlinear d. the recombination of free electrons and holes may produce a. All of the above 3. Bilateral b. the device is referred to as a. The knee voltage of a diode is approximately equal to the a. Becomes larger c. Nonlinear d. When the diode current is large. Breaks down 50. Heat b.49. the bias is a. Unilateral b. Inverse c. When the reverse voltage increases from 5 to 10 V. How is a nonconducting diode biased? a. Light c. Linear c. Forward b. Forward b. Poorly d. When the graph of current versus voltage is a straight line. Radiation d. Unipolar 4. Bipolar . Inverse c. What kind of a device is a diode? a. Linear c. Reverse 5. Becomes smaller b. the depletion layer a. Is unaffected d. Applied voltage b. Linear c. Reverse 6. What kind of device is a resistor? a. Nonlinear d. Active b. When a diode is forward-biased. Barrier potential c.
None of the above 10. 0 b. The ideal diode is usually adequate when a. Load resistance is high c. Forward current c. The reverse current consists of minority-carrier current and a. 300 mA d. 0. Source voltage is high d. The bulk resistance of a 1N4001 is a. How much forward diode voltage is there with the ideal-diode approximation? a. 1 kohm 12. All of the above . None of the above 13. Horizontal b.3 V c. 0 b. How much current is there through the second approximation of a silicon diode when it is reverse biased? a. More than 0. Tilted at 450 d. The load resistance is low 14.7 V d. 10 ohm d.7 V c. 1 V 9. 1 V 11. 1 mA c. 0. Zener current 8.23 ohm c. Surface-leakage current d.7. Doing precise calculations c. The source voltage is low d. 0 b.7 V d. The second approximation works well when a. Vertical c. 0. the graph above the knee becomes a. Troubleshooting b. Troubleshooting b. 0. If the bulk resistance is zero. Avalanche current b. 0 b. How much voltage is there across the second approximation of a silicon diode when it is forward biased? a.
0 b. 50 mA 17. Troubleshooting d. 0 b. If the resistor is ungrounded in Fig. 15 mA d. The trouble may be a. 14. How much load current is there in Fig. 3-19 (see your textbook) with the second approximation? a. -15 V 20. 0 b. 15 mA d. The load voltage measures zero in Fig. 20 V d. How much load current is there in Fig. 50 mA 19. If the diode is open in Fig. A shorted diode b. 3-19 (see your textbook) with the ideal diode? a.3 mA c. 3-19. 0 b. 14. An open diode c. 3-19 with the third approximation? a. 14. Source voltage is high c. 50 mA 18. 3-19.3 V c. 14. the load voltage is a. 20 V d.3 mA c. Too much supply voltage . 0 b. 15 mA d. An open load resistor d. How much load current is there in Fig.15. -15 V 21.3 mA c. the voltage measured with a DMM between the top of the resistor and ground is closest to a. 15 V c. The only time you have to use the third approximation is when a. 3-19. None of the above 16. Load resistance is low b.
6 V c. If the line voltage is 115 V rms. Full-wave signal c.Chapter 4 1. load current flows for what part of a cycle? a. 35 V . With a 5:1 step-down transformer. 0 V b. 35. 29. 163 V d. what is the secondary voltage? a. Half-wave signal b.4 V 6. Primary voltage b. 25 V c. the maximum peak load voltage is closest to a. With a half-wave rectified voltage across the load resistor. If N1/N2 = 2.7 V b. Sine wave 7. 40. Bridge-rectified signal d. Line voltage may be from 105 V rms to 125 rms in a half-wave rectifier. 60 V d. a turns ratio of 5: 1 means the rms secondary voltage is closest to a. Secondary voltage c. 15 V b. 240 V 2.6 V d. 0 degrees b. 36 V c. and the primary voltage is 120 V. which is larger? a. 90 degrees c. What is the peak secondary voltage if 115 V rms is applied to the primary winding? a. A transformer has a turns ratio of 4: 1. 23 V c. 21 V b. 180 degrees d. 360 degrees 5. 30 V d. No answer possible 3. 64. 650 V 4. In a step-down transformer. The voltage out of a bridge rectifier is a a. Neither d.
360 degrees 11. 9.8 V d. 19. With the same secondary voltage and filter. load current flows for what part of a cycle? a. 60 Hz c.8. 0 degrees b. 90 degrees c. What is the peak load voltage in a full-wave rectifier if the secondary voltage is 20 V rms? a.3 V 9. What is the approximate rms value of secondary voltage? a. Half-wave rectifier b. Full-wave rectifier c. 60 Hz c.) a. 24. Impossible to say 15. 240 Hz 14. 240 Hz 13.7 V c. Bridge rectifier d. 14. With the same secondary voltage and filter. 0 V b.3 V 12. 56. 0 V b. the output frequency of a half-wave rectifier is a. 30 Hz b. 120 Hz d. which produces the least load voltage? a. With a full-wave rectified voltage across the load resistor.4 V c. Impossible to say . Half-wave rectifier b. 0. 28. 180 degrees d. 28.6 V 10. which has the most ripple? a. What is the peak load voltage out of a bridge rectifier for a secondary voltage of 15 V rms? (Use second approximation.3 V d. 14. 15 V c.2 V b. Full-wave rectifier c.1 V d. 120 Hz d. If line frequency is 60 Hz. If line frequency is 60 Hz. 30 Hz b. We want a peak load voltage of 40 V out of a bridge rectifier. Bridge rectifier d. the output frequency of a bridge rectifier is a.
28. Full-wave rectifier c.7 mV 18. 20 V c. b. The diodes in a bridge rectifier each have a maximum dc current rating of 2 A. None of these Chapter 5 1. It decreases when current increases. the load voltage will a.3 mV d. 56. This means the dc load current can have a maximum value of a. 14. If the load current is 5 mA and the filter capacitance is 1000uF.3 pV b. Decrease b. Bridge rectifier d. 2 A c. It equals the current times the resistance. Half-wave rectifier b.3 V d.1 V b. 41. Increase d. d. 21.3 nV c. If the filter capacitance is increased. Impossible to say 17. If the secondary voltage increases in a bridge rectifier with a capacitor-input filter. 21. Decrease b. 8 A 19. what is the peak-to-peak ripple out of a bridge rectifier? a. 4 A d. c. If the filtered load current is 10 mA. None of these 21. 34 V 20. What is the PIV across each diode of a bridge rectifier with a secondary voltage of 20 V rms? a. It is approximately constant. the ripple will a.16. What is true about the breakdown voltage in a zener diode? a. It destroys the diode. . which of the following has a diode current of 10 mA? a. Stay the same c. Increase d. Stay the same c. 1 A b.
Operating in the breakdown region d. The load voltage is approximately constant when a zener diode is a. In a loaded zener regulator.2. Zener current c. None of these 9. Series current b. Increases d. It is a constant-cuffent device. Decreases b. Decreases b. Large c. It works in the forward region. b. d. A zener diode a. Equals the source voltage divided by the series resistance . Small b. the total voltage across the zener diode is the sum of-the breakdown voltage and the voltage across the a. Is a battery b. Forward-biased b. It is a rectifier diode. Load current d. Stays the same c. Measured in volts d. Is forward-biased 4. Series resistor c.In the second approximation. Which of these is the best description of a zener diode? a. the zener current a. If the series resistance decreases in an unloaded zener regulator. c. Has a barrier potential of 1 V d. 3. which is the largest current? a. Subtracted from the breakdown voltage 5. Equals the voltage divided by the resistance 6. Reverse-biased c. If the load resistance decreases in a zener regulator. Zener diode 7. Source b. It is a constant-voltage device. the zener current a. The voltage across the zener resistance is usually a. Unbiased 8. Zener resistance d. Increases d. Stays the same c. Has a constant voltage in the breakdown region c.
ordinary diodes don't work properly because of a. To display the digit 8 in a seven-segment indicator. Series current b. Zener test current c. Breakdown d. Charge storage 14. Breakdown does not destroy a zener diode provided the zener current is less than the a. Total current 12. Forward-biased b. Reverse bias c. The capacitance of a varactor diode increases when the reverse voltage across it a. Increases d. F must be on d. which of these currents remains approximately constant? a. Increases c. Decreases b. 0. Stores charges 15. Equals the source voltage divided by the series resistance 11. 10 V c. the load voltage will be closest to a. When the source voltage increases in a zener regulator. C must be lighted b.nor reverse-biased d. Breaks down d. If the zener diode in a zener regulator is connected with the wrong polarity. G must be off c. 14 V d. Forward bias b. Emitting light .10. Breakdown voltage b. Stays the same c. the series current a. At high frequencies. 18 V 13. Zener current c. Neither forward. Maximum zener current rating d. All segments must be on 17. Banier potential 16. a. Reverse-biased c. If the load resistance decreases in a zener regulator. Decreases b.7 V b. A photodiode is normally a. Load current d.
Varactor diode d. Decreases b. Stays the same c. Has more bandwidth 22. the capacitance a. Increases d. Varistor d. Zener diode 20. Light-emitting diode b. Tunnel diode b. Reverses direction 19. the capacitance a. Schottky diode d. When the light increases. When the reverse voltage increases. Stays the same c. Back diode 24. Zener diode b.18. Zener diode b. Decreases b. If the depletion layer gets wider. The device to use for rectifying a weak ac signal is a a. The device associated with voltage-controlled capacitance is a a. Increases c. The varactor is usually a. Decreases b. Increases d. A blown-fuse indicator uses a a. Back diode . Light-emitting diode d. Is unaffected d. Is variable 21. Reverse-biased c. Constant-cuffent diode c. Step-recovery diode c. Forward-biased b. Photodiode c. Unbiased d. Optocoupler 25. the reverse minority carrier current in a photodiode a. Which of the following has a negative-resistance region? a. Operated in the breakdown region 23. Light-emitting diode c.
Back diode b. Zener diode b. Marconi d. To isolate an output circuit from an input circuit. Schockley 4.26. 2 c. Schottky diode c. you need to use reverse bias with a a. 4 2.25 V is the a. Optocoupler c. Faraday c. 3 d. The diode with a forward voltage drop of approximately 0. Amplify weak signals b. Seven-segment indicator d. For typical operation. In an npn transistor. A transistor has how many doped regions? a. Tunnel diode 27. the majority carriers in the base are a. What is one important thing transistors do? a. Neither d. All of the above Chapter 6 1. Back diode d. Varactor d. Regulate voltage d. Rectify line voltage C. Holes c. Constant-current diode 28. which is the device to use? a. 1 b. Who invented the first junction transistor? a. Photodiode c. Step-recovery diode b. Free electrons b. Both . Bell b. Emit light 3.
Most of the electrons in the base of an npn transistor flow a. the collector diode has to be a. Recombine with collector holes 12.3 V c. Most of the electrons that flow through the base will a. Collector current to base current c. Have a negative charge c.7 V d. Forward-biased b. Base current to collector current d. 0 b. Lightly doped c. Flow into the collector b. The base of an npn transistor is thin and a. 0. Most of the electrons in the base of an npn transistor do not recombine because they a. Into the base supply 10. Operating in the breakdown region 8. Forward-biased b. For normal operation of the transistor. Collector current to emitter current b. Reverse-biased c. Emitter current to collector current . Heavily doped b. 0. The emitter diode is usually a. Have a long lifetime b. Doped by a pentavalent material 9. Into the collector c. 1 V 6. Flow out of the base lead c. The current gain of a transistor is the ratio of the a. Reverse-biased c. Out of the base lead b. Must flow a long way through the base d.5. Into the emitter d. Nonconducting d. The barrier potential across each silicon depletion layer is a. Operating in the breakdown region 7. Nonconducting d. Recombine with base holes d. Flow out of the base 11. Metallic d.
13. A valence electron c. The fact that only a few holes are in the base region means the base is a. Base current b. Increasing the collector supply voltage will increase a. d. If the current gain is 200 and the collector current is 100 mA. Collector-base junction d. What is the most important fact about the collector current? a. Less than the base supply voltage b. None of the above 15. Lightly doped b. Cannot answer 20. 18. A majority carrier 17. Base-collector junction c. the electrons in the emitter have enough energy to overcome the barrier potential of the a. None of the above 14. c. It is measured in milliamperes. In a normally biased npn transistor. Cannot answer . A conduction-band electron d. It is small. 20 A 19. It equals the base current divided by the current gain. When a free electron recombines with a hole in the base region. Emitter current d. Another free electron b. the base current is a. Less than the collector supply voltage b. The collector-emitter voltage is usually a. Collector current c. 0.5 mA b. The base-emitter voltage is usually a. It approximately equals the emitter current. Equal to the collector supply voltage c. the free electron becomes a. Undoped d. Recombination path 16. 2 mA c. More than the collector supply voltage d. Equal to the base supply voltage c. b. Base-emitter junction b. 2 A d. Heavily doped c. More than the base supply voltage d.
.33 A d. 3. Base-emitter voltage b. 0. Inaccurate 27. In the active region. the answer will usually be a. Base supply voltage d. 0 b. Collector-emitter voltage c. The base-emitter voltage of the second approximation is a. Base current c. A small collector current with zero base current is caused by the leakage current of the a. Voltage source b. Resistance d. the collector current is not changed significantly by a. 0. 0. 3 A c. Larger than the ideal value d. 300 mA b.7 V d. A transistor acts like a diode and a a. The power dissipated by a transistor approximately equals the collector current times a. Transistor 23. Current gain d. 0. 0. the collector current is a. Collector diode c.3 V c.7 V d. Collector resistance 28. Base diode d. Base supply voltage b. 1 V 26. The same as the ideal value c. 10 A 25. The base-emitter voltage of an ideal transistor is a. Emitter diode b. Smaller than the ideal value b. Power supply 24.3 V c. Current source c.21. 0 b. If you recalculate the collector-emitter voltage with the second approximation.7 V 22. 1 V . If the base current is 100 mA and the current gain is 30.
Any of the above 4. what is the collector cuffent? a. Cutoff region b. 1 mA c. Increase d. When the base resistor decreases. Decreases b. As the temperature increases. The graph of current gain versus collector-current indicates that the current gain a. Emitter current c. Collector current 2. Equals the collector current divided by the base current a. Increases d. Varies slightly c. Stays the same c. 10 mA 3. Can be any of the above 5. 2 mA d. Remains the same c. Active region c. the transistor will operate in the a. Decreases b. Varies significantly d. Saturation region d. Decrease b. the collector voltage will probably a. If the base resistor is open. The current gain of a transistor is defined as the ratio of the collector current to the a. Stay the same c. 0 b. Do all of the above 6. Base current b. When the collector current increases.29. Breakdown region . Supply current d. Increases d. If the base resistor is very small. the current gain Chapter 7 1. Is constant b. what does the current gain do? a.
At the lower end of the load line d. an increase in the current gain will move the Q point a. an increase in the base resistance will move the Q point a. the collector-emitter saturation voltage is a. If the base supply voltage is disconnected. Nowhere d. Down b. Collector supply voltage 14.7. None of the above . the transistor will probably be a. Nowhere d. A few tenths of a volt c. Ignoring the bulk resistance of the collector diode.5 V d. Intermediate current gain c. 0 V b. Off the load line 12. Off the load line 10. Suppose the base resistor is open. the collector-emitter voltage will equal a. 0 b. In the middle of the load line b. Minimum current gain b. If the base supply voltage increases. Supply voltage 8. 6 V c. Up c. If a transistor operates at the middle of the load line. Destroved d. 1 V d. Nowhere d. The Q point will be a. Up c. Off the load line 13. Saturated b. Up c. In cutoff c. If a transistor operates at the middle of the load line. Down b. Cutoff point 9. Off the load line 11. Down b. Maximum current gain d. the Q point moves a. 10. The upper Q point represents the a. Three different Q points are shown on a load line. If the base resistor is shorted. At the upper end of the load line c.
1 mA d. If the current gain is 100. Useless d. Low b. Vertical c. When the Q point moves along the load line. High c. Base current b. Emitter voltage b. the collector current is closest in value to a. the voltage increases when the collector current a. The base current is 50 microamp. If the current gain is 125. Flat 16. 1 mA 17. The first step in analyzing emitter-based circuits is to find the a. 500 microamp c. Horizontal b. Emitter current c. 10 microamp c. The collector current is 10 mA. the output voltage from the transistor is a. 40 microamp b. Unchanged d. If the collector resistor decreases to zero in a basebiased circuit. Base current . the load line will become a. 100 microamp d. Two-supply bias 21. When there is no base current in a transistor switch. Emitter voltage c. Does none of the above 19. Collector current d. Emitter bias c. 6 mA 18. A circuit with a fixed emitter current is called a. Base bias b. the base current is a. If the current gain is unknown in an emitter-biased circuit. Unknown 20.15. 1 microamp b. Increases d. Emitter current d. Stays the same c. Decreases b. Collector current 22. Transistor bias d. you cannot calculate the a.
Low b. Base b. Ground 2. Decreases by a factor of 6 c. If the emitter resistor is open. If the emitter resistance decreases. Unchanged d. Low b. Q point moves up b. Unknown 25. Unchanged d. Increases d. Collector current decreases c. If the collector resistor is open. For emitter bias. Current gain increases Chapter 8 1. Breaks down the transistor 27. Stays the same c. Collector c. the a. If the emitter resistance decreases. Q point stays where it is d. the voltage across the emitter resistor is the same as the voltage between the emitter and the a. Is zero 26. Ground voltage .23. the collector current a. the collector voltage is a.7 V less than the a. Remains almost the same b. Emitter voltage c. the collector voltage is a. High c. When the current gain increases from 50 to 300 in an emitter-biased circuit. the voltage at the emitter is 0. High c. Collector voltage d. Decreases b. the collector voltage a. Increases by a factor of 6 d. For emitter bias. Base voltage b. Unkiiown 24. Emitter d.
Decrease the collector voltage c. Only one supply c. Current gain d. With VDB. VDB is noted for its a. Equal to the base supply voltage c. Varying emitter current c. Precision resistors d. Greater than the collector supply voltage 4. With voltage-divider bias. Only three resistors b. More resistors to work better 8. the collector voltage a. an increase in emitter resistance will a. VDB needs a. Decrease the emitter voltage b. Unstable collector voltage b. Supply voltage b. If the emitter resistance increases in a VDB circuit. Saturation region d.3. VDB has a stable Q point like a. Collector resistance 10. Cutoff region c. Emitter bias c. Increases d. Active region b. Doubles . Stable Q point 5. VDB normally operates in the a. Emitter-feedback bias 7. Decreases b. The collector voltage of a VDB circuit is not sensitive to changes in the a. Stays the same c. Less than the base supply voltage b. Increase the emitter voltage d. Breakdown region 9. Collector-feedback bias d. the base voltage is a. Large base current d. Decrease the emitter current 6. Emitter resistance c. Greater than the base supply voltage d. Base bias b.
the collector voltage will a. Increase d. Drop in half b. Equal the collector supply voltage . Very large c. Drop in half c. Almost totally insensitive to changes in current gain d. If the emitter resistance doubles in a VDB circuit. Stable Q point d. If the emitter resistance increases with TSEB. The base voltage of two-supply emitter bias (TSEB) is a. the collector voltage will a. If the emitter resistance doubles with TSEB.3 V 16. Equal the collector supply voltage c. Stay the same c. Decrease b. Double d. Increase d. the collector current will a.7 V b. Switching circuits c. the collector voltage will a. Fixed emitter current 12. Somewhat sensitive to changes in current gain c. 0. Increase 13. Double b. Increase 17. Stay the same c. Stay the same d. Amplifiers b. Double 18. Hypersensitive to changes in current gain b. Stay the same C. Remain the same d. Near 0 V d. Decrease b. Greatly affected by temperature changes 15. Double 14. If a splash of solder shorts the collector resistor of TSEB. Drop to zero b. If the collector resistance increases in a VDB circuit. The Q point of a VDB circuit is a. 1.11. the collector current will a. Base bias is associated with a.
Increase slightly d. Trivalent atoms d. The current gain of a pnp transistor is a. Free electrons c. Large c. Which is the largest current in a pnp transistor? a.19. Near zero d. the base current must be very a. Usually smaller than npn currents b. Emitter current c. Small b. Collector resistance c. Usually larger than npn currents d. Equal the collector supply voltage 20. the collector voltage will a. Emitter resistance b. Stay the same c. The majority carriers in the emitter of a pnp transistor are a. Current gain d. With pnp voltage-divider bias. Negative power supplies b. Holes b. you must use a. Opposite npn currents c. Resistors d. Grounds . Negative 26. Unstable d. The negative of the npn current gain b. None of these 25. In TSEB. Emitter voltage 22. If the emitter resistor opens with TSEB. Positive power supplies c. Base current b. The currents of a pnp transistor are a. The collector current divided by the emitter current c. The Q point of TSEB does not depend on the a. Decrease b. Stable 21. The ratio of collector current to base current 24. Collector current d. Pentavalent atoms 23.
Reducing all dc sources to zero is one of the steps in getting the a. d. Shorted to dc c. Minimum d. For dc. DC equivalent circuit b. The current in a coupling circuit for high frequencies is a. Minimum d. The ac equivalent circuit is derived from the original circuit by shorting all a. Voltage-divider biased circuit 8. Open to ac b. Resistors b. the current in a coupling circuit is a. Bypass capacitor Coupling capacitor Dc open Ac open 6. Average 3. The capacitors of a CE amplifier appear a. Maximum c. Capacitors c. Transistors 4. Average 2. Zero b. Open to supply voltage d. Maximum c. Inductors d. the top of a capacitor is a. A dc short An ac open A dc open and an ac short A dc short and an ac open 5. b. The capacitor that produces an ac ground is called a a.Chapter 9 1. Shorted to ac 7. c. c. Zero b. b. AC equivalent circuit c. An open A short An ac ground A mechanical ground . A coupling capacitor is a. c. Complete amplifier circuit d. d. b. In a bypass circuit. d.
Base-emitter voltage c. Quiescent base current b. If the ac voltage across the emitter diode is 1 mV and the ac emitter current is 0. the positive half cycle of the ac emitter current is a. Emitter diode c. Collector diode d. The output voltage of a CE amplifier is a. Ac emitter resistance equals 25 mV divided by the 13. 180 degrees out of phase with the input d. Load resistor . Coupling capacitor d. AC base voltage a. AC emitter current d. Bypass capacitor c. the ac resistance of the emitter diode is a. Power supply 15. Equal to the negative half cycle b. Smaller than the negative half cycle c.9. Change in collector current 12.1 mA. Constant c. Amplified b. The emitter of a CE amplifier has no ac voltage because of the a. 10 ohm c. Collector current d. In a CE amplifier with a large input signal. DC emitter current b. Inverted c. To reduce the distortion in a CE amplifier. DC emitter current c. All of the above 16. 1 ohm b. Distorted d. Larger than the negative half cycle d. DC voltage on it b. the ac emitter current is a. reduce the a. A graph of ac emitter current versus ac base-emitter voltage applies to the a. Equal to the negative half cycle 11. Sinusoidal b. Alternating 10. Transistor b. 1 kohm 14. When the ac base voltage is too large. 100 ohm d.
Input voltage b. AC collector resistance b. Generator voltage Chapter 10 1. Constant b. None of these 2. AC collector resistance d. Dc and ac b. The input impedance of the base increases when a. AC only d. Supply voltage increases c. AC bypass current 19. CC stage c. AC emitter current c. AC base voltage c. Beta decreases d. Generator voltage 4. Small d. AC collector resistance increases . Supply voltage 20. CE stage d. AC current gain d. The ac collector current equals the ac base current times the a. DC only c. AC source current d. The emitter is at ac ground in a a. The ac emitter current times the ac emitter resistance equals the a.17. Dependent on re' c. AC emitter resistance c. Less the one 3. Dc emitter voltage b. DC current gain c. AC base current b. The ac collector current is approximately equal to the a. CB stage b. The voltage across the load resistor of a CE amplifier is a. The voltage gain equals the output voltage divided by the a. Beta increases b. AC collector voltage d. The output voltage of a CE stage is usually a. Neither dc nor ac 18.
5. Smaller b. Decreases collector resistance d. Increases voltage gain b. Positive feedback c. a swamped amplifier has an input impedance that is a. Zero 7. The feedback resistor a. Unimportant 12. Small b. Generator resistance d. Zero 8. Compared to the ac resistance of the emitter diode. DC collector voltage d. A swamped amplifier uses a. A grounded emitter 11. you can increase the a. Important to voltage gain b. Voltage gain is directly proportional to a. The emitter of a swamped amplifier a. the effects of the emitter diode become a. the feedback resistance of a swamped amplifier should be a. Is grounded b. Has no ac voltage 10. AC collector resistance 6. Large d. Emitter feedback resistance c. Ac emitter resistance c. Beta b. Has an ac voltage d. Equal c. Collector resistance b. Negative feedback d. Equal c. Has no de voltage c. Decreases input impedance . Compared to a CE stage. Significant to the analysis d. In a swamped amplifier. Load resistance 9. To reduce the distortion of an amplified signal. Larger d. Reduces distortion c. Base bias b. Critical to input impedance c.
Decrease b. Decreases input impedance 14. If the bypass capacitor is open. Load resistance b. Decrease b. Decrease b. The feedback resistor a. Remain the same d. If the input coupling capacitor is open. Stabilizes voltage gain b. Remain the same d. Equal zero 20. Increase c. Equal zero 16. Remain the same d. If any capacitor is open. Increase c. Decrease b. the ac output voltage will a. If the collector resistor is shorted. Input impedance of second stage 15. Equal zero 17. Remain the same d. Increase c. Increases distortion c. Remain the same d. Decrease b. If the load resistance is open. the ac output voltage will a. Equal zero . Equal zero 18. Input impedance of first stage c. Emitter resistance of first stage d. Increase c. Remain the same d. Decrease b. The ac collector resistance of the first stage includes the a. the ac output voltage will a. the ac output voltage will a. the ac input voltage will a. Increase c. Increases collector resistance d. Increase c. If the emitter bypass capacitor opens. the ac input voltage will a.13. Equal zero 19.
Increase c. Increase c. Decrease b. For class B operation. Remain the same d. Transformer coupling is an example of a. 20 Hz to 20 kHz c. AC coupling c. the ac input voltage will a. Direct coupling b. Equal zero 23. Increase c. Decrease b. The whole cycle b. Remain the same d. 20 to 200 kHz d. Narrowband b. If the emitter bypass capacitor is shorted. the ac input voltage will a. the ac input voltage will a. If the output coupling capacitor is open. the ac input voltage will a. Direct coupled d. Equal zero Chapter 11 1. Half the cycle c. Wideband c. Remain the same d. Impedance coupling 3. Equal zero 22. Increase c. Decrease b. If the emitter resistor is open. A tuned RF amplifier is a. If the collector resistor is open. Less than a quarter of a cycle 2. the collector current flows a. Remain the same d. Less than half a cycle d. Above 20 kHz 4. Decrease b. 0 to 20 Hz b.21. DC coupling d. Equal approximately zero 24. An audio amplifier operates in the frequency range of a. Impedance coupled .
When the Q point is at the center of the ac load line. Class C amplifiers are almost always a. A tuned RF stage b. At the center of the dc load line d. All of the above 11. VCEQ b. Greater efficiency than class A d. 2VCEQ c. An amplifier has two load lines because a. At the center of the ac load line 7. DC acts one way and ac acts another d. Is negatively clamped at the base b. Small signal d. Produces brief pulses of collector current d. Class C d. Transformer-coupled between stages b. Tuned RF amplifiers d. It has ac and dc collector resistances b. Near cutoff c. It has two equivalent circuits c. the Q point should be a. Very small quiescent current drain b. The input signal of a class C amplifier a. Wideband 12. All of the above 8. The first stage of a preamp is a. A dc amplifier 6. Class B c. Maximum efficiency of 78. All of the above . the maximum peak-to-peak output voltage equals a. Class A b.5 percent c. One advantage of a class B push-pull amplifier is a. ICQ d. Push-pull is almost always used with a. Is amplified and inverted c. 2IcQ 9. All of the above 10. Operated at audio frequencies c. For maximum peak-to-peak output voltage.5. Large signal c. Near saturation b.
Is steeper than the dc load line d. Raising the temperature b. DC collector current b. The collector current of a class C amplifier a. Is negatively clamped d. Load resistance decreases 15. Resonant frequency increases b.13. The quiescent collector current is the same as the a. Equals the dc load line b. DC emitter resistance b. XL decreases d.6 kohm and RL = 10 kohm. Using a derating curve d. the ac load resistance equals a. Is an amplified version of the input voltage b. 2. The bandwidth of a class C amplifier decreases when the a. Is horizontal .6 kohm 19. The power rating of a transistor can be increased by a. Capacitance increases 16. Total collector current d. Resonant frequency increases b. DC collector resistance d. If RC = 3. Has harmonics c. 10 kohm b. I kohm d. The transistor dissipation in a class C amplifier decreases when the a. The ac load line is the same as the dc load line when the ac collector resistance equals the a. Load resistance decreases d. Q increases c. coil Q increases c. Using a heat sink c. Has less slope than the dc load line c. AC collector current c. Supply voltage divided by collector current 18. Operating with no input signal 17. AC emitter resistance c. Flows for half a cycle 14. The ac load line usually a.65 kohm c. Voltage-divider current 20. 3.
Less than the whole cycle d. Equals output power divided by input power d. clipping is more likely to occur on the a. Is the same as the voltage gain b. the maximum transistor power rating a. Increases c. Positive peak of input voltage b. The current drain of an amplifier is the a. For a Q point near the center of the dc load line. Neither load line 25. Current gain from base to collector d. Total ac current from the generator b. The entire cycle 23. In a class A amplifier. Unclipped b. Half the cycle c. AC load line b. Total dc current from the supply c. Equals load power 27. When the ambient temperature increases. Heat sinks reduce the a. the output signal should be a. None of the above . Current gain from collector to base 26. With class A. Decreases b. Clipped on positive voltage peak c.21. Less than half the cycle b. Remains the same d. Negative peak of emitter voltage 22. Is smaller than the voltage gain c. the collector current flows for a. Clipped on negative current peak 24. Junction temperature d. Transistor power b. Both load lines d. The instantaneous operating point swings-along the a. The power gain of an amplifier a. Positive peak of output voltage d. Clipped on negative voltage peak d. Ambient temperature c. Collector current 28. DC load line c. Negative peak of output voltage c.
29. Approximately equal to one c. VE divided by RE c. Low b. Load resistor d. Load resistor d. The same as the ac emitter current b. DC collector resistor c. DC emitter resistor c. The ac base voltage of an emitter follower is across the a. Open 4. re c. 0 b. 3 percent d. Emitter diode b. Greater than one d. If the load power is 3 mW and the dc power is 150 mW. the efficiency is a. Shorted to ground d. The same as the load current 5. Emitter diode and external ac emitter resistance 6. Much less than one b. Zero 2. 20 percent 3. The total ac emitter resistance of an emitter follower equals a. Vc divided by Rc d. The output voltage of an emitter follower is across the a. re + re' d. High c. 2 percent c. Emitter diode b. The dc emitter current for class A emitter followers is Chapter 12 1. The input impedance of the base of an emitter follower is usually a. RE a. An emitter follower has a voltage gain that is a. Emitter diode and external ac emitter resistance . re' b.
Clipped 13. 30 kohm b. VG divided by re b. Negative half cycle of input 14. 1 V b. VG c. vin d. More horizontal than the dc load line c. 5 V d. Equal to the generator voltage c. Equal to the supply voltage 9. If the Q point is at the middle of the dc load line. If Beta = 200 and re = 150 ohm. Upward current swing c. 600 n c. 5 kohm 8. If an emitter follower has VCEQ = 5 V. The same as the dc load line b.7. Less than the generator voltage b. Vertical 12. the input impedance of the base is approximately a. The output voltage of an emitter follower is approximately a. Left voltage swing b. Smaller b. ICQ = 1 mA. The ac emitter current is closest to a. and re = 1 kohm. 0 b. The input voltage to an emitter follower is usually a. Greater than the generator voltage d. 3 kohm d. the output voltage will be a. Vcc 11. clipping will first occur on the a. 10 V . Steeper than the dc load line d. Positive half cycle of input d. 2 V c. the maximum peak-to-peak unclipped output is a. The ac load line of an emitter follower is usually a. Larger c. Equal d. vin divided by re' c. If the input voltage to an emitter follower is too large. vin divided by re 10. VG divided by re' d.
DC collector resistance 16. the external ac emitter resistance equals a. If R1 is open in an emitter follower. Clipping on both peaks 18. the voltage gain is approximately a. Different from the dc load line c. Clipping at saturation c. A square wave out of an emitter follower implies a. If the load resistance of an emitter follower is very large. If the load resistor of Fig. 1 17. the output voltage across the load is closest to a. Three transistors c. which of the following are different from their normal values: a. A very low input impedance b. 0. The same as the dc load line b. Only dc voltages c. 12-la in your textbook is shorted. A very high current gain d. The ac load line of the emitter follower is a. No clipping b. Both dc and ac voltages d. Output voltage is normal d. Clipping at cutoff d. 0. One VBE drop 19. 5 mV b. If an emitter follower has re' = 10 ohm and re = 90 ohm.25 V d. 0. If the generator voltage is 5 mV in an emitter follower. 0 b. which of these is true? a. Generator resistance b.15. Impedance of the base c. DC base voltage is Vcc b. 150 mV c. Horizontal d.5 V 21. DC collector voltage is zero c. 0. DC base voltage is zero . Neither dc nor ac voltages 22.9 d. A Darlington transistor has a. Vertical 20. Only ac voltages b.5 c. DC emitter resistance d.
the input impedance of the base is closest to a. The distortion in an emitter follower is 27. Useful at times d. 2 d. If a CE stage is direct coupled to an emitter follower. Very high c. 8 Mohm a. The center of the dc load line c. 800 kohm d. 8 kohm b. Always low d. Not acceptable 24. Destroying the compensating diodes c. Crossover distortion d. Saturation d. If RE = 1 kohm and RL = 100 ohm. Compensates for temperature changes d. Excessive current drain . A Darlington transistor has a Beta of 8000. 3 26. Is very high 30. Large d. The center of the ac load line 28.23. Cutoff b. The transistors of a class B push-pull emitter follower are biased at or near a. Very low b. Usually destructive 29. Thermal runaway is a. how many coupling capacitors are there between the two stages? a. Thermal runaway b. A small quiescent current is necessary with a class B push-pull amplifier to avoid a. 0 b. Often high c. Good for transistors b. High when clipping occurs 25. the distortion in an emitter follower is a. The ac resistance of compensating diodes a. Usually. Always desirable c. Seldom low b. 80 kohm c. Must be included b. 1 c. Is usually small enough to ignore c.
Is a current-controlled device c. Prone to thermal runaway 32. Is usually less than the load resistance Chapter 13 1. A unipolar transistor uses a. Has no effect on MPP d. The ac emitter resistance of an emitter follower a. the output voltage a. 50 percent c. Approaches infinity d. Equals the dc emitter resistance b. In the two-transistor voltage regulator. For a class B push-pull emitter follower to work properly. 100 percent 35. Approaches zero b. Either one or the other. A JFET a. All of the above 33. Only free electrons c. Larger than the output current d. Be able to control the quiescent current b.5 percent d. Has a very large voltage gain 2. Only holes d. Have a power rating greater than the output power c. but not both 3. 25 percent b. The maximum efficiency of a class B push-pull amplifier is a. The input impedance of a JFET a. Is larger than the load resistance c. Has much smaller ripple than the input voltage c. Both free electrons and holes b.31. Is impossible to predict . The zener current in a zener follower is a. Smaller than the output current c. Approaches one c. Have a voltage gain of I d. Has a low input resistance d. the emitter diodes must a. Equal to the output current b. Is larger than the zener voltage d. Is a voltage-controlled device b. Is regulated b. Match the compensating diodes 34. 78.
4. Drain current b. Reverse-biased c. None of the above 6. Input resistance c. ID(sat) c. The width of the channel b. Compared to a bipolar transistor. Like a single drain curve 11. The gate-source diode of a JFET should be 8. Gate-source cutoff voltage a. The transconductance curve is a. The gate controls a.or reverse-biased d. Gate current c. RDS equals pinchoff voltage divided by the a. Ideal drain current d. When the drain saturation current is less than IDSS. Battery 9. Drain-source voltage c. Gate-source voltage d. the JFET has a much higher a. Either forward. Nonlinear d. Bipolar transistor b. Current 7. Resistor d. Forward-biased b. Current source c. The pinchoff voltage has the same magnitude as the a. Similar to the graph of a resistor c. The transconductance increases when the drain current approaches a. Linear b. Voltage gain b. a JFET acts like a a. The proportional pinchoff voltage d. All the above 5. Drain current for zero gate voltage 10. IS . The drain current c. 0 b. IDSS d. Gate voltage b. Supply voltage d.
Low input capacitance c. Expand c. Conduct d. gmrs/(l + gmrs) d. 300 MHz to 3 GHz 18. gmrd/(l + gmrd) 14. Higher gm 17. a source follower has a. Chopped 16. gmrd b. When the gate voltage becomes more negative in an n-channel JFET. Large voltage gain b. the depletion layers are a. When a JFET is cut off. the channel between the depletion layers a. VHF stands for frequencies from a. 30 to 300 MHz d. Large c. gmrs c. gmrd/(l + gmrd) 13. Low input impedance d. A small distortion c. A voltage gain of less than one b. When the input signal is large. Shrinks b. Far apart b. A cascode amplifier has the advantage of a. gmrd b. Stop conducting . Touching d. 3 to 30 MHz c. All of these 15. A high input resistance d. gmrs/(l + gmrs) d. 300 kHz to 3 MHz b. Close together c. A CS amplifier has a voltage gain of a.12. A square wave d. A source follower has a voltage gain of a. Conducting 19. The input signal used with a JFET analog switch should be a. gmrs c. Small b.
Ground d. then RDS equals a. If a JFET has IDSS = 10 mA and VP = 2 V. Output current Chapter 14 1.20. Voltage divider b. Self-bias produces a. Voltage-divider bias b. D-MOSFET c. E-MOSFET d. Supply voltage d. Transconductance indicates how effectively the input voltage controls the a. Volts d. Negative feedback c. Forward feedback d. 1 kohm d. Self-bias c. Gate bias d. Amperes c. Voltage gain b. Ohms b. Negative gate supply voltage 24. Transconductance is measured in a. Positive feedback b. you must have a a. Power FET . Reverse feedback 23. Mhos or Siemens 25. JFET b. 400 ohm c. Which of the following devices revolutionized the computer industry? a. The easiest way to bias a JFET in the ohmic region is with a. Source bias 22. Input resistance c. To get a negative gate-source voltage in a selfbiased JFET circuit. Source resistor c. 5 kohm 21. 200 ohm b.
2. The voltage that turns on an EMOS device is the a. Gate-source cutoff voltage b. Pinchoff voltage c. Threshold voltage d. Knee voltage 3. Which of these may appear on the data sheet of an enhancement-mode MOSFET? a. VGS(th) b. ID(on) c. VGS(on) d. All of the above 4. The VGS(on) of an n-channel E-MOSFET is a. Less than the threshold voltage b. Equal to the gate-source cutoff voltage c. Greater than VDS(on) d. Greater than VGS(th) 5. An ordinary resistor is an example of a. A three-terminal device b. An active load c. A passive load d. A switching device
6. An E-MOSFET with its gate connected to its drain is an example of a. A three-terminal device b. An active load c. A passive load d. A switching device 7. An E-MOSFET that operates at cutoff or in the ohmic region is an example of a. A current source b. An active load c. A passive load d. A switching device 8. CMOS stands for a. Common MOS b. Active-load switching c. p-channel and n-channel devices d. Complementary MOS 9. VGS(on) is always a. b. c. d. Less than VGS(th) Equal to VDS(on) Greater than VGS(th) Negative
10. With active-load switching, the upper E-MOSFET is a a. b. c. d. Two-terminal device Three-terminal device Switch Small resistance
14. When the internal temperature increases in a power FET, the a. Threshold voltage increases b. Gate current decreases c. Drain current decreases d. Saturation current increases 15. Most small-signal E-MOSFETs are found in
11. CMOS devices use a. b. c. d. Bipolar transistors Complementary E-MOSFETs Class A operation DMOS devices a. b. c. d. Heavy-current applications Discrete circuits Disk drives Integrated circuits
16. Most power FETS are 12. The main advantage of CMOS is its a. b. c. d. High power rating Small-signal operation Switching capability Low power consumption a. b. c. d. Used in high-current applications Digital computers RF stages Integrated circuits
17. An n-channel E-MOSFET conducts when it has 13. Power FETs are a. b. c. d. Integrated circuits Small-signal devices Used mostly with analog signals Used to switch large currents a. b. c. d. VGS > VP An n-type inversion layer VDS > 0 Depletion layers
18. With CMOS, the upper MOSFET is a. b. c. d. A passive load An active load Nonconducting Complementary
2. Positive feedback means the returning signal a. Opposes the original change b. Aids the original change c. Is equivalent to negative feedback d. Is amplified 3. A latch always uses a. Transistors b. Feedback c. Current d. Positive feedback 4. To turn on a four-layer diode, you need a. A positive trigger b. low-current drop out c. Breakover d. Reverse-bias triggering 5. The minimum input current that can turn on a thyristor is called the
19. The high output of a CMOS inverter is a. b. c. d. VDD/2 VGS VDS VDD
20. The RDS(on) of a power FET a. b. c. d. Is always large Has a negative temperature coefficient Has a positive temperature coefficient Is an active load
1. A thyristor can be used as a. A resistor b. An amplifier c. A switch d. A power source
a. Holding current b. Trigger current c. Breakover current d. Low-current drop out
6. The only way to stop a four-layer diode that is conducting is by a. A positive trigger b. Low-current drop out c. Breakover d. Reverse-bias triggering 7. The minimum anode current that keeps a thyristor turned on is called the a. Holding current b. Trigger current c. Breakover current d. Low-current drop out 8. A silicon controlled rectifier has a. Two external leads b. Three external leads c. Four external leads d. Three doped regions 9. A SCR is usually turned on by a. Breakover b. A gate trigger c. Breakdown d. Holding current
10. SCRs are a. Low-power devices b. Four-layer diodes c. High-current devices d. Bidirectional 11. The usual way to protect a load from excessive supply voltage is with a a. Crowbar b. Zener diode c. Four-layer diode d. Thyristor 12. An RC snubber protects an SCR against a. Supply overvoltages b. False triggering c. Breakover d. Crowbarring 13. When a crowbar is used with a power supply, the supply needs to have a fuse or a. Adequate trigger current b. Holding current c. Filtering d. Current limiting
Latch 18. Breakover b. The triac is equivalent to a.14. A thyristor with a gate lead d. Transistor b. Triac d. Current b. The trigger voltage of an SCR is closest to a. Three-layer device d. Any thyristor can be turned on with a. Light 15. A Shockley diode is the same as a a. Reverse-bias triggering 19. The diac is a a. Reverse-bias triggering . Low-current drop out d. Two SCRs in parallel 17.7 V c. Four-layer diode b. Voltage c. The unijunction transistor acts as a a. Diac c. 0. Low-current dropout d. diac d. Two diacs in parallel c. four-layer diode b. The photo-SCR responds to a. 4 V d. 0 b. Any thyristor can be turned off with a. Breakover voltage 21. Breakover b. Forward-bias triggering c. triac 20. Unidirectional device c. Bidirectional device 16. Forward-bias triggering c. A four-layer diode b. SCR c. Humidity d.
Generator voltage 3. Excessive power dissipation b. SCR action a. Exceeding the critical rate of rise produces a. Diac c. Input resistance b. Negative feedback b. 0. Reverse-bias triggering 23. Midband voltage gain c. A factor of 2 b. The stray-wiring capacitance has an effect on the a. Unijunction transistor b. At low frequencies.22. If the power gain doubles. 0. 10 dB Chapter 16 1. the coupling capacitors produce a decrease in a.35Amid b. A latch is based on a. the voltage gain is a. Lower cutoff frequency b.995Amid 5. Output voltage . False triggering c. Input voltage d. Frequency b. Positive feedback c. pnpn diode d. Voltage gain c. The four-layer diode d. Frequency response is a graph of voltage gain versus a.707Amid d. Switch 24.5Amid c. 0. A four-layer diode is sometimes called a 2. 0. Input resistance 4. 6 dB d. Generator resistance d. Low-current drop out d. 3 dB c. the decibel power gain increases by a. Upper cutoff frequency d. At the lower or upper cutoff frequency. Power gain c.
10 dB 7. 86 dB d. the decibel voltage gain is a. The total ordinary voltage gain is a. 10 c. the decibel voltage gain is a. The total decibel voltage gain is a. Two stages have decibel voltage gains of 20 and 40 dB. 40 dB d. 20 dB c. If the voltage gain is 100. Two stages have voltage gains of 100 and 200.6. If the voltage gain is 2000. 60 dB 9. 6 dB b. If the voltage gain doubles. the ratio f/f2 represents how many decades? a. the decibel voltage gain is a.1 b. 1 b. 1000 11. 86 dB 10. and f2 = 10 Hz. 40 dB b. 46 dB c. 20 dB c. 3 dB c. 106 dB 12. 100 d. 3 d. 46 dB b. 66 dB d. One frequency is 8 times another frequency. How many octaves apart are the two frequencies? a. 3 c. 66 dB c. A factor of 2 b. the decibel voltage gain increases by a. 60 dB 8. If f = 1 MHz. 40 dB d. 2 c. 4 13. 6 dB d. 5 . 4 d. 6 dB b. If the voltage gain is 10. 2 b.
SSI d. The voltage gain of an amplifier decreases 20 dB per decade above 20 kHz. d. DC signals only c. Neither ac nor dc signals 3. and the other is semilogarithmic c. b. On a single chip c. Increase the generator resistance. Both axes are semilogarithmic d. 200 c.000 Chapter 17 1. The tail current of a diff amp is a. Two times either collector current d. The op amp can amplify a. Forms of discrete circuits b.14. If you want to improve the high-frequency response of an amplifier. 20. Equal to either collector current c. 2000 d. Decrease the coupling capacitances. which of these would you try? a. Neither axis is linear 15. 20 b. Equal to the difference in base currents . Half of either collector current b. Components are soldered together in a. 16. what is the ordinary voltage gain at 20 MHz? a. AC signals only b. Also called hybrid ICs 2. Monolithic ICs 4. and the other is logarithmic b. Combinations of thin-film and thick-film circuits d. Integrated circuits c. Semilogarithmic paper means a. Both ac and dc signals d. Increase the emitter bypass capacitance. If the midband voltage gain is 86 dB. Discrete circuits b. One axis is linear. c. Monolithic ICs are a. One axis is linear. Shorten leads as much as possible.
The node voltage at the top of the tail resistor is closest to a. The input offset current equals the a. RE 9. Collector supply voltage b. Tail current times base resistance 6. Emitter supply voltage d. 2 times Beta 10. 1 MHz 11. The collector currents are equal c. Input bias current b. A dc signal has a frequency of a. Difference between two base-emitter voltages 7. 2re' d.The voltage gain of a diff amp with a differential output is equal to RC divided by a. Collector voltage divided by collector resistance 8. Common-mode voltage gain . When the two input terminals of a diff amp are grounded. Zero c. The base currents are equal b. Tail current d. 0 b. The ac output voltage is zero 12. An output error voltage usually exists d. a. The input impedance of a diff amp equals re' times a.5. Collector current divided by current gain d. Sum of two emitter currents c. Average of two base currents c. re'/2 c. RC c. The tail current equals the a. 60 Hz c. One source of output error voltage is a. re' b. Difference in collector resistors c. Difference between two emitter currents b. RE d. 0 b. Collector current divided by current gain d. 0 to over 1 MHz d. Difference between two base currents b.
13. The same d. the voltage across each emitter diode is a. The inverting input c. High 19. Swamped amplifier 16. re'/2 c. Equal to voltage gain c. The common-mode rejection ratio is a. Greater than voltage gain d. Single-ended input and differential output c. re' b. CE amplifier d. A common-mode signal is applied to a. The tail of a diff amp acts like a a. 2re' d. Diff amp b. Equal to the common-mode voltage gain 20. The common-mode voltage gain of a diff amp is equal to RC divided by a. Single-ended input and single-ended output b. The typical input stage of an op amp has a a. Differential input and differential output . Zero b. Very low b. Current source c. The noninverting input b. None of the above 15. Transistor d. Class B push-pull amplifier c. Both inputs d. Differential input and single-ended output d. Diode 17. 0. Top of the tail resistor 14.7 V c. 2RE 18. When the two bases are grounded in a diff amp. Equal to the voltage gain d. Battery b. The common-mode voltage gain is a. Smaller than voltage gain b. Often expressed in decibels c. The input stage of an op amp is usually a a.
1 b. Base-emitter capacitance c. Beta 2. the cutoff frequency b. Unity d. Input bias current c. the open-loop voltage gain is a. Power bandwidth 3.5 MHz d. the only offset that produces an error is the a. A compensating capacitor prevents a. What usually controls the open-loop cutoff frequency of an op amp? a. 1 MHz c. Input offset voltage d. Common-mode voltage gain 5. 1. Zero d. the unity-gain frequency is a.000. Less than the input bias current b. Amid c. The cutoff frequency of an op amp equals the unitygain frequency divided by Chapter 18 1. At the unity-gain frequency. Oscillations c. Less than the input offset voltage d.21. Collector-base capacitance d. If the cutoff frequency is 15 Hz and the midband openloop voltage gain is 1.000. Equal to zero c. Input offset current b. Voltage gain b. Very large 4. The input offset current is usually a. Input offset current d. Compensating capacitance a. 15 MHz . 25 Hz b. With both bases grounded. Unimportant when a base resistor is used 22. Closed-loop voltage gain c. Stray-wiring capacitance b.
Slew rate b. BIFET op amp .5 MHz d. Peak value decreases c. Initial slope decreases d. High d. A 741C uses a. Voltage gain is maximum d. If the unity-gain frequency is 5 MHz and the midband open-loop voltage gain is 200. Bipolar op amp d. 1 MHz c. Discrete resistors b.6. Low b. Frequency decreases b. A 741C cannot work without a. A small coupling capacitor 12. Dc return paths on the two bases d. a. Source follower c. Frequency c. Discrete resistors b. Voltage gain increases 10. Capacitance 8. Medium c. Voltage gain d. Extremely high 13. The initial slope of a sine wave is directly proportional to a. the cutoff frequency is a. Linear operation occurs c. When the initial slope of a sine wave is greater than the slew rate. The power bandwidth increases when a. A large coupling capacitor 11. Active-load resistors d. 15 MHz 7. Inductors c. Distortion occurs b. The op amp works best 9. 1. The input impedance of a BIFET op amp is a. Passive loading c.000. 25 Hz b. Diff amp b. An LF157A is a a.
A compensating capacitor 16.000. Cc increases d. If funity is 10 MHz and midband open-loop voltage gain is 1. Zero b. Closed-loop cutoff frequency d. If the frequency is greater than the power bandwidth. An op amp has an open base resistor. Peak value increases c. 15 MHz 17. Slightly different from zero c. 20 Hz c. 30 V 15. Distortion may occur 21. Slew rate decreases 20.14. +15V c. 0 b. 20 kHz c. the MPP value of an op amp is closest to a. Output offset voltage increases d. 10 Hz b. A coupling capacitor b. then the open-loop cutoff frequency of the op amp is a. The open-loop cutoff frequency of a 741C is controlled by a. The power bandwidth d. The unity-gain frequency equals the product of closed-loop voltage gain and the a. Load resistance 18. a. The output voltage will be a. A normal output signal occurs c. 50 Hz d. 100 Hz 19. An amplified sine wave . 1 MHz d. 10 Hz b. Frequency decreases b. Tail current c.000. Compensating capacitance b. Slew-rate distortion occurs b. -15 V d. The output short circuit current c. The initial slope of a sine wave increases when a. If the two supply voltages are plus and minus 15 V. Maximum positive or negative d. The 741C has a unity-gain frequency of a.
If the load resistance is large. The input resistance 29. Cutoff frequency b. Large closed-loop output impedance . An input impedance of 2 Mohm c. The ratio of the input resistance to the feedback resistance b. The open-loop voltage gain c. Large closed-loop voltage gain b. 1 V 23. The feedback resistance divided by the input resistance d.000 b. the output a.000.22. A 741C has a. Small open-loop voltage gain c. A voltage gain of 100. The noninverting amplifier has a a. the MPP value is a. Large closed-loop input impedance d. 5 mV c. 10 mV d. An op amp has a voltage gain of 500. +15 V c. An output impedance of 75 ohm d. All of the above 28. 30 V 24. the input voltage is a. 10 dB per octave d. A 741C has supply voltages of plus and minus 15 V. Above the cutoff frequency. 10 dB per decade b. 0 b. 20 dB per decade 25. Generator frequency d. Is normal d. The voltage gain of an op amp is unity at the 26. Unity-gain frequency c. Power bandwidth a. 20 dB per octave c. 27 V d. 2 microvolts b. If the output voltage is 1 V. the voltage gain of a 741C decreases approximately a. Has no offset 27. The closed-loop voltage gain of an inverting amplifier equals a. Is larger b. Appears triangular c. When slew-rate distortion of a sine wave occurs.
One b. Current-to-voltage converter c. Three d. Very large d. When an op amp is not saturated. Small open-loop voltage gain c. Equal to +15 V 6. Is proportional to differential voltage gain 2. May not equal 1 .30. Opposes the input signal c. Almost equal b. Two or more input signals c. Voltage amplifier b. Large closed-loop output impedance 31. The voltage between the input terminals of an ideal op amp is a. No more than two input signals b. Four a. Closed-loop bandwidth of zero d. The voltage follower has a a. the voltages at the noninverting and inverting inputs are Chapter 19 1. With negative feedback. May equal 1 d. How many types of negative feedback are there? a. A closed-loop input impedance of infinity d. Equal to the output voltage d. A VCVS amplifier approximates an ideal a. Zero b. The feedback fraction B a. Much different c. Is always less than 1 b. Two c. the returning signal a. Voltage-to-current converter d. Closed-loop voltage gain of unity b. Aids the input signal b. A summing amplifier can have a. Current amplifier 4. A small open-loop voltage gain 3. Very small c. Equal to the input voltage 5. Is usually greater than 1 c. Is proportional to output current d.
Error voltage c. May not equal 1 d. In a VCVS amplifier. Feedback fraction b. Is usually much greater than 1 c. The loop gain AOLB a. Is usually much smaller than 1 b. Input offset voltage d. Open load resistor 8. Shorted feedback resistor c. Distortion c. 1 c. No negative supply voltage b. Current amplifier 13. Input voltage 9. Gain when B is 1 d. A voltage follower has a voltage gain of a. An ICVS amplifier has no output voltage. Is between 0 and 1 11. Differential voltage gain of the op amp c. Current-to-voltage converter c. Gain at funity 10. Equal to the open-loop input impedance c. Voltage amplifier b. More than 1 d. Voltage-to-current converter d.7. Loop gain 14. The open-loop voltage gain equals the a. A possible trouble is a. No feedback voltage d. A . any decrease in open-loop voltage gain produces an increase in a. Feedback voltage d. Negative feedback reduces the a. Ideally zero 12. Usually larger than the open-loop input impedance b. With an ICVS amplifier. The closed-loop input impedance with an ICVS amplifier is a. Output voltage b. the circuit approximates an ideal a. Gain with negative feedback b. Much less than 1 b. Sometimes less than the open-loop impedance d.
Zero b. Equal to the input voltage 16. Very small c. Through the load resistor 19. Current cannot flow to ground through a. funity b. The open-loop bandwidth equals a. which of these is constant? a. fmax 22. f2(CL) b. An ac ground c. ACL d. Through the feedback resistor c. Ideally zero d. f2(OL) c. To ground d. The input impedance of a current-to-voltage converter is a. For a given op amp.15. A mechanical ground b. Output voltage to input current 17. the input current flows a. Ideally infinite 20. The voltage between the input terminals of a real op amp is a. Output current to input voltage b. In a current-to-voltage converter. funity/ACL d. The closed-loop bandwidth equals a. Very large d. An ordinary ground 18. f2(OL) c. Through the input impedance of the op amp b. ACLf2(CL) . Input voltage to output current c. Large c. Small b. A virtual ground d. fmax 21. The transresistance of an amplifier is the ratio of its a. funity/ACL d. funity b. Output voltage to input voltage d. Feedback voltage c.
Open feedback resistor c. Open load resistor 25. Open feedback resistor c. the a. Open load resistor 27. Ideally zero Chapter 20 1. Power bandwidth 24. Shorted load resistor b. Usually larger than the open-loop input impedance b. No supply voltages b. Shorted load resistor 28.23. Negative feedback does not improve a. No input voltage d. A possible trouble is a. A possible trouble is a. No input voltage d. An ICVS amplifier has no output voltage. Open load resistor 26. No positive supply voltage b. Open feedback resistor c. An ICIS amplifier is saturated. An ICVS amplifier is saturated. In a linear op-amp circuit. R2 is open c. Gain-bandwidth product is constant . Stability of voltage gain b. Shorted load resistor b. A possible trouble is a. A VCVS amplifier has no output voltage. Input impedance is ideally infinite d. The closed-loop input impedance in a VCVS amplifier is a. Nonlinear distortion in later stages c. Excessive input voltage d. No feedback voltage d. Signals are always sine waves b. Op amp does not go into saturation c. Equal to the open-loop input impedance c. A possible trouble is a. Sometimes less than the open-loop input impedance d. Output offset voltage d.
Two supply voltages c. An instrumentation amplifier has a high a. In a controlled current source with op amps.5 V. Voltage amplifier b. Given a voltage reference of +2. Current amplifier 5. One bypass capacitor 4. Av 7. Differential amplifier d. Supply voltages d. The input signal for an instrumentation amplifier usually comes from a. Current-to-voltage converter c. Unchanged 3. Zero b. Minimum c. Instrumentation amplifier 8.2. CMRR d. the output offset voltage is a. Output impedance b. you need at least a. Supply voltage 6. Beta dc c. One coupling capacitor d. Maximum d. CMRR of the op amp b. In an ac amplifier using an op amp with coupling and bypass capacitors. we can get a voltage reference of +15 V by using a a. Inverting amplifier b. ACL b. funity d. Gain-bandwidth product c. Voltage-to-current converter d. To use an op amp. the circuit acts like a a. Noninverting amplifier c. the CMRR is limited mostly by a. A current booster on the output of an op amp will increase the short-circuit current by a. An inverting amplifier b. Tolerance of resistors 9. A differential amplifier d. A Wheatstone bridge . In a differential amplifier. One supply voltage b. Power gain c. A transducer c.
Unidirectional floating load current b. Greater than the feedback resistance d. Voltage gain of the first stage d. The load current equals ISC 15. In an averaging circuit. a. The purpose of AGC is to a. Guard driving reduces the a. Output op amp 11.01% c. Less than the feedback resistance c. Adjustable bandwidth circuit b.10. Second stage c. A current booster is never used b. The Howland current source produces a a. Common-mode input voltage 12. In the classic three op-amp instrumentation amplifier. Equal to the feedback resistance b. 1 ppm is equivalent to a. A stiff current source drives the load d. Leakage current in the shielded cable c. 0. The load is always floated c. Unequal to each other 13. Summing amplifier 14. Keep the output voltage almost constant d. 0. Reduce the CMRR of the circuit 17. CMRR of an instrumentation amplifier b. Mismatched resistors d. Increase the voltage gain when the input signal increases b. First stage b. Convert voltage to current c. 0. Bidirectional floating load current 16. 0. the differential voltage gain is usually produced by the a. Unidirectional single-ended load current d. Bidirectional single-ended load current c.0001% .001% d. Noninverting amplifier c. A D/A converter is an application of the a. In a voltage-controlled current source. the input resistances are a. Voltage-to-current converter d.1% b.
Sixteen outputs 22. Transition d. Ripple . 23. Eight outputs d. Has a high output impedance d. Increasing its value d. When a JFET is used in an AGC circuit. Voltage to current b. its output cannot a. Four outputs c. A D/A converter with four inputs has a. Has a current-boosted output b. Current to voltage 20. Voltage to sound d. An electrical quantity to a nonelectrical quantity d. Temperature to resistance c. An op amp with a rail-to-rail output a. Making a coarse adjustment 21. Cannot be less than 0 V. When we trim a resistor. Voltage-controlled resistance d. If an op amp has only a positive supply voltage. A thermistor converts a. Capacitance 24. Be zero c. Switch b. Making a fine adjustment a. Light to resistance b. Be ac coupled Chapter 21 1. A nonelectrical quantity to an electrical quantity 19.18. An input transducer converts a. it acts like a a. Attenuation b. The region between the passband and the stopband is called the a. Two outputs b. we are a. Voltage-controlled current source c. Equal the supply voltage d. Center c. Current to voltage c. Be negative b. Reducing its value b. Can swing all the way to either supply voltage c.
Phase shifter c. Inverse Chebyshev c. Elliptic d. 2 b. Bessel 9. Elliptic d. less than 1 d. small b. The bandwidth b. A bandstop filter is sometimes called a a. The center frequency of a bandpass filter is always equal to a. The approximation with a rippled passband is a. Inverse Chebyshev c. The all-pass filter has a. the order is a. 6 c. Notch filter d. Bessel 8. 13 . The approximation with a maximally-flat passband is a. 7 d. Butterworth b. 3-dB frequency 3. Chebyshev b. The Q of a narrowband filter is always a. No passband b. The approximation that distorts digital signals the least is the a. Bessel 7. If a filter has six second-order stages and one firstorder stage. Bandwidth divided by Q d. Elliptic d. One stopband c. Snubber b. Geometric average of the cutoff frequencies c. Time-delay circuit 5. Chebyshev c. equal to BW divided by f0 c.2. Butterworth b. a fast rolloff above cutoff 6. the same gain at all frequencies d. greater than 1 4.
Slow rolloff rate compared to the Cauer b. Elliptic d. Butterworth b. 360 dB per decade 11. If a Butterworth filter has 9 second-order stages. Linear phase shift is equivalent to a. If n = 10. The elliptic approximation has a a. Sallen-Key filters are also called a. One capacitor b. Bessel 15. Butterworth b. VCVS filters b. Rolloff rate of 20 dB per decade 17. Three resistors d. its rolloff rate is a. A first-order active-filter stage has a. Q = 0. Rippled passband 14. A first-order stage cannot have a a. Constant time delay d. 40 dB per decade c. Biquadratic filters d. Butterworth response b. Chebyshev response c. 20 dB per decade b. Inverse Chebyshev d. Maximally-flat stopband c. Chebyshev c. Two op amps c.707 b. Maximally-flat passband d. MFB filters c.10. Maximally-flat passband d. Monotonic stopband 13. the approximation with the fastest rolloff in the transition region is a. a high Q 16. Chebyshev c. Elliptic 12. The filter with the slowest rolloff rate is the a. 180 dB per decade d. Rippled stopband c. State-variable filters .
Rolloff rate increases d. Equal Q's b. Multiplied by the K values d. With Sallen-Key high-pass filters. Notch stages d. 3 third-order stages d. Staggered Q's 20. we should cascade a. GBW of the op amp 22. The all-pass filter is used when a. To get a Butterworth response with an 8th-order filter. Equal center frequencies c. To build a 10th-order filter. the stages need to have a. A maximally-flat passband is needed d. Added to the K values b. A rippled stopband is important . Voltage gain b. the pole frequency must be a. Bandwidth d. Inductors d. the a. the stages need to have a. Staggered center frequencies and Q's 21. Divided by the K values 23. 5 second-order stages c. Center frequency decreases b. Staggered bandwidths d. Equal Q's b. When Q is greater than 1. Subtracted from the K values c. Q decreases c. High rolloff rates are needed b. Phase shift is important c. MFB stages c.18. All-pass stages 25. 10 first-stage stages b. a bandpass filter should be built with a. Center frequency c. Low-pass and high-pass stages b. To get a Chebyshev response with a 12th-order filter. If BW increases. Unequal center frequencies c. 2 fourth-order stages 19. Ripples appear in the stopband 24. The Q of a Sallen-Key second-order stage depends on the a.
A constant time delay b. Has high component sensitivity d. To detect when the input is greater than a particular value. Predistortion c. KHN filter d. A second-order all-pass filter can vary the output phase from a. All of the above 29. Clamper c. use a a. A rippled passband Chapter 22 a. If GBW is limited. The state-variable filter a. Op amp never saturates b. Output shape is the same as the input shape d. Is also called Tow-Thomas filter d. 0 degrees to -360 degrees d. Linear phase shift d. 0 degrees to -180 degrees c. Double c. In a nonlinear op-amp circuit. Comparator b. and bandpass output b. Remain the same b. Is difficult to tune c. a designer may use a. Has a low-pass. 90 degrees to -90 degrees b. 0 degrees to -720 degrees 27.26. the Q of the stage will a. Limiter d. Relaxation oscillator . Feedback loop is never opened c. Delay equalizer c. Uses three or more op amps c. Uses less than three op amps 1. Increase 31. To correct for limited GBW. State-variable filter 28. Op amp may saturate 2. Tow-Thomas filter b. the a. The all-pass filter is sometimes called a a. Decrease d. high-pass. The biquadratic filter 30. Has low component sensitivity b.
If pulse width decreases and the period stays the same. Stays the same c. Is zero 8. A sinusoidal input b. Increases d.000. If the input is a rectangular pulse. The output of a relaxation oscillator is a a. Triangular wave c. A high voltage c. Square wave c. 0 b. Series of ramps a.3. Trip points 5. Spike 9. Sine wave b. The output is a. A low voltage b. Noise voltages c.5 uV c. Decreases b. Rectified sine wave d. When a large sine wave drives a Schmitt trigger. Ramp d. The input to a peak detector is a triangular wave with a peak-to-peak value of 8 V and an average value of 0. the closed-loop knee voltage of a silicon diode is a. Either a low or a high voltage d. If AOL = 200. 14 uV 10. Rectangular wave b. Ramp d. Sine wave b. 7 uV d. Rectangular pulse 6. 16 V . 4 V c. the output is a a. the duty cycle a. 1 uV b. the output of an integrator is a a. Square wave c. A sine wave 4. 8 V d. 3. The voltage out of a Schmitt trigger is a. Stray capacitances d. Hysteresis prevents false triggering associated with 7.
Is produced by hysteresis .100 Hz c. many IC comparators need an external a. A Schmitt trigger a. Noninverting input 18. Increases or decreases at a linear rate d. A comparator with a trip point of zero is sometimes called a a. Half-wave detector 14. Threshold detector b. Positive limit detector d. To work properly. Produces triangular output waves d. Capacitor d. Compensating capacitors d. Negative feedback c. Is designed to trigger on noise voltage 17. The input voltage to a positive limiter is a triangular wave of 8 V pp and an average value of 0. A Schmitt trigger uses a. Inductor c. 8 Vpp 12. 1 kHz d. Positive feedback b. Always increases b. Has two trip points c. Bypass circuit d. the output is a. 0 b. Compensating capacitor b. 2 Vpp c. Is a rectangular pulse c. Zero-crossing detector c. Output stage 15. The lowest frequency you should use is a. Pullup resistors 16. A relaxation oscillator depends on the charging of a capacitor through a a. Is a zero-crossing detector b. Resistor b. 10 kHz 13. Pullup resistor c. The discharging time constant of a peak detector is 10 ms.11. A ramp of voltage a. 6 Vpp d. If the reference level is 2 V.10 Hz b.
Much longer than the period b. Inductors b. the output of an active positive limiter is a. More than 0. Peak detection of the input signal c. Positive b. Negative c. Either positive or negative d.19. The Miller effect c. Either positive or negative d. A negative dc voltage to the input c. The circuit to oscillate b. In an active peak detector. The output of an active positive clamper is a.7 V 23. The positive clamper adds a. Bypass capacitor d. Feedback capacitor 22. The output to switch states d. Equal to the period d. Sinusoidal inputs d. The op-amp integrator uses a. The trip point of a comparator is the input voltage that causes a. An active half-wave rectifier has a knee voltage of a. A positive dc voltage to the input b. If the reference voltage is zero. Positive b. 0. A ramp 26. In an op-amp integrator. Inverting input b. Much shorter than the period c. A trip point to the input . Negative c. Much less than 0. the current through the input resistor flows into the a. VK b. the discharging time constant is a. A ramp 25. An ac signal to the output d.7 V d. Clamping to occur 21. Hysteresis 20. The same as the charging time constant 24. Noninverting input c.7 V c.
With LC tank circuits d. An LC tank circuit . Ripple from the power supply b. A window comparator a. A Wien-bridge oscillator uses a. Uses hysteresis to speed up response c. Lag circuit b. Between 0 and +90 degrees b. The voltage that starts an oscillator is caused by a. Lead-lag circuit d. Greater than 90 degrees c.27. Between 0 and +90 degrees b. The same as the input voltage 7. Greater than 90 degrees c. Between 0 and -90 degrees d. Negative feedback c. A coupling circuit is a a. Negative feedback c. A lead circuit has a phase angle that is Chapter 23 1 . An LC tank circuit 2. At high frequencies c. The input signal from a generator d. Lead circuit c. Has only one usable threshold b. Resonant circuit 6. Both types of feedback d. Clamps the input positively d. At low frequencies b. An oscillator always needs an amplifier with a. Both types of feedback d. Positive feedback b. The same as the input voltage 5. At small input signals a. Positive feedback 3. The Wien-bridge oscillator is useful a. Between 0 and -90 degrees d. Positive feedback b. Noise voltage in resistors c. A lag circuit has a phase angle that is a. Detects an input voltage between two limits 4.
Armstrong b. Phase shifter d. Two resistors c. For oscillations to start in a circuit. High 9. the loop gain must be greater than 1 when the phase shift around the loop is a. One resistor b. The most widely used LC oscillator is the a. A Wien bridge is sometimes called a 12. 0 b. the frequency of oscillation a. 270 degrees d. A lead-lag circuit d. A twin-T filter a. Initially. The phase-shift oscillator usually has a. Causes saturation and cutoff c. One capacitor 11. To vary the frequency of a Wien bridge. Produces maximum output voltage d. Decreases b. Wheatstone bridge 10. Increases d. Hartley 14. Twin-T oscillator c. 90 degrees b. Heavy feedback in an LC oscillator a. Notch filter b. Three resistors d. 1 c. Colpitts d. Clapp C. Two lead or lag circuits b. the loop gain of a Wien-bridge oscillator is a. 360 degrees 13. 180 degrees c. When Q decreases in a Colpitts oscillator. Low d. Remains the same c. Three lead or fag circuits c.8. Means B is small 15. Becomes erratic . you can vary a. Prevents the circuit from starting b.
To vary the frequency of an LC oscillator. A tickler coil 18. Quartz crystal . Large resistance 22.16. the one with the most stable frequency is the a. Transformer coupling c. you can vary a. One capacitor 19. The material with the piezoelectric effect is a. Low Q b. Resistive coupling d. Clapp c. Colpitts d. Equal d. All the above 21. Crystals have a very a. Two inductors c. Quartz b. High Q c. One resistor b. The Hartley oscillator uses a. Tourmaline d. The series and parallel resonant frequencies of a crystal are a. Armstrong b. Power coupling 17. Hartley 20. Negative feedback b. Colpitts d. Rochelle salts c. Clapp c. Of the following. The kind of oscillator found in an electronic wristwatch is the a. Two resistors c. Link coupling refers to a. Very far apart c. Very close together b. Small inductance d. Capacitive coupling b. Three resistors d. Low frequencies 23. Armstrong b. A tungsten lamp d.
the VCO frequency a. Space 30. Is greater than f0 c. 0 b. The quantity that remains constant in a pulse-width modulator is a. An astable 555 timer has the following number of stable states: a. Free-running frequency d. triangular c. 1 c. 2 d. Pulse width b. Phase difference . UTP decreases d. Space 29. Timing capacitance increases 27. Capture range b.24. Duty cycle d. The pulse width out of a one-shot multivibrator increases when the a. 3 25. 2 d. The output waveform of a 555 timer is a. rectangular d. 0 b. Period c. Period c. Timing resistor decreases c. When a PLL is locked on the input frequency. The bandwidth of the low-pass filter in a PLL determines the a. The quantity that remains constant in a pulse-position modulator is a. Lock range c. A monostable 555 timer has the following number of stable states: a. Supply voltage increases b. 1 c. 3 26. elliptical 28. Equals f0 d. Equals fin 31. Is less than f0 b. Duty cycle d. sinusoidal b. Pulse width b.
Open 5. A current-sensing resistor is usually a. Large d. Without current limiting. Simple current limiting produces too much heat in the a. Infinity c. the power dissipation of the pass transistor equals the collector-emitter voltage times the a. A destructive level 7. Load resistor c. Small c. Negative feedback b. No feedback d. With foldback current limiting. Pass transistor d.Chapter 24 1. A capacitor may be needed in a discrete voltage regulator to prevent a. Ambient air 6. Have too little load current 4. and the load current approaches a. During regulation. Phase limiting 2. Zener diode b. Negative feedback b. Base current b. Zener current d. Load current c. A small value b. the load voltage approaches zero. Zero b. The zener current d. a shorted load will probably a. Oscillations d. Voltage regulators normally use a. Positive feedback c. Excessive load current c. Destroy diodes and transistors c. Have a load voltage equal to the zener voltage d. Foldback current 3. Produce zero load current b. Current sensing .
5% 9. 1% c. the ripple out of a voltage regulator is a.8. Either positive or negative d. Current limiting b. Equal to the input voltage divided by the output current 11. 2% d. 1% c. All the above occur 14. Negative c. Very small b. Much larger c. Compared to the ripple into a voltage regulator. 0 b. Impossible to determine 12. the output ripple is a. Thermal shutdown occurs in an IC regulator if a. 1 mV c. Much smaller d.7 V between the minimum and maximum load current. the source regulation is a. A regulated input voltage 15. Equal in value b. A coupling capacitor on the output pin d. 1000 V 13. If a linear three-terminal IC regulator is more than a few inches from the filter capacitor. A voltage regulator has a ripple rejection of -60 dB. Internal temperature is too high c. The 78XX series of voltage regulators produces an output voltage that is a. 5% 10. Unregulated . Very large c. Equal to the load voltage divided by the load current d. -60 mV b. the load regulation is a. If the input ripple is 1 V. 2% d. If the output of a voltage regulator varies from 20 to 19. Current through the device is too high d. 10 mV d. If the output of a voltage regulator varies from 15 to 14. Positive b. The output impedance of a voltage regulator is a.8 V when the line voltage varies over its specified range. you may get oscillations inside the IC unless you use a. A bypass capacitor on the input pin c. 0 b. Power dissipation is too high b.
A current-sensing resistor 19. Shunt with the load 18. you have to a. Increase the switching frequency 22. Linear regulator b. Decrease the duty cycle b. 40 V 17. A phase splitter produces two output voltages that are a. Dc-to-dc converter 21. Efficiency . A load resistor b. Current limiting c. Another transistor d. Decrease the input voltage c. A decrease in efficiency d.16. Line regulation d. To get more output voltage from a buck switching regulator. A zener impedance c. Very small 20. A decrease in load resistance b. Opposite in phase d. Equal in phase b. A current booster is a transistor in a. 3 V b. Series with the IC regulator b. Shunt regulator d. Less power dissipation in the rectifier diodes 23. Load regulation b. Unequal in amplitude c. Switching regulator c. The 78XX-12 produces a regulated output voltage of a. A power supply with low output impedance has low a. we can drive its baseemitter terminals with the voltage across a. To turn on a current booster. 4 V c. An increase of line voltage into a power supply usually produces a. 12 V d. Increase the duty cycle d. An increase in load voltage c. A series regulator is an example of a a. Parallel with the IC regulator c. Either series or parallel d.
It wastes power b. Inefficient d. The zener follower is an example of a a. Input power is high 28. Built-in short-circuit protection b. Little wasted power 27. A series regulator is more efficient than a shunt regulator because a. The pass transistor replaces the series resistor d. Linear 30. Zener follower 25. The input current to a shunt regulator is a. Output power is high c. Input power is low b. Series regulator c. Noisy c. A zener-diode regulator is a a. Equal to load current d. It uses a series resistor and a shunt transistor c. A switching regulator is considered a. It switches the pass transistor on and off . Quiet b. Switching regulator d. Used to store energy in a magnetic field 26. All of the above 29. It can boost the voltage c. Shunt regulator b. An advantage of shunt regulation is a. Variable b. It has a series resistor b. Shunt regulator c. Low power dissipation in the pass transistor c. Boost regulator b. The ratio of output to input power is low d. Constant c.24. A shunt regulator is inefficient because a. Little power is wasted d. Series regulator 31. The efficiency of a voltage regulator is high when a. Buck regulator d. High efficiency d.
Diode d. Voltage divider 36. Capacitor-input filter c. Capacitor-input filter c. Shunt regulator b. Output voltage is low 33. A step-up regulator c. The regulator with the highest efficiency is the a. Switching regulator d. The dropout voltage of standard monolithic linear regulators is closest to a. An inverting regulator d. The efficiency of a linear regulator is high when the a. Zener voltage is low d. Choke-input filter b. All of the above . Foldback limiting b. Low efficiency c.7 V c.1 V 35. The buck-boost regulator is also a. 0. Dc-to-dc converter 37.32. Series regulator c. A high zener voltage 34. the pass transistor has the least power dissipation when the regulator has a. 0. Pass transistor has a high power dissipation c. 3. Buck topology d. In a boost regulator. A step-down regulator b. In a buck regulator. Choke-input filter b. the output voltage is filtered with a a. Headroom voltage is low b.3 V b. Diode d. If the load is shorted. 2 V d. Voltage divider 38. the output voltage is filtered with a a.
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