MCAT Practice Test IV

SOLUTIONS

M CAT
MEDICAL COLLEGE ADMISSION TEST

IV
1

AAMC MCAT P RACTICE T EST IV S OLUTIONS
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MCAT P RACTICE T EST IV S OLUTIONS C ONTENTS :
Verbal Reasoning .............. 3

Physical Sciences .......... 19 Biological Sciences ...... 28

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VERBAL REASONING
Passage I 1. D Item I: Yes. The country’s level of development is included in a list of relevant factors given in lines 53-55. Item II. Yes. See line 53. “Circumstances” is a synonym for “context”. Item III. Yes. The author posits this as the most important consideration (lines 55-57). 2. B A: The passage never indicates who originated the concept of human rights, only that the idea was not forced on other nations by Western cultures. B: Yes. In the first paragraph, the author argues that the idea of human rights was familiar to most non-Western cultures before it was advocated to them by Western nations (lines 7-13). C: This choice contradicts the main idea of the first paragraph; that the idea of human rights is ancient and pervasive, and was not invented by certain Western cultures and then forced on the rest of the world. There is no mention of resistance to human rights specifically from non-Western cultures. D: The author states that they were familiar with the idea of freedom “even if there were no explicit covenants to that effect” (lines 10-12). “Traditional societies” here corresponds to the reference to non-Western cultures in line 9. 3. D A: This is the right answer to the wrong question. The claim that the idea of freedom was not alien to non-Western cultures comes later in the paragraph. The author cites the two documents mentioned in the question to show that the concept of human rights is an ancient one. B: Again, this is the right answer to the wrong question. It is true, according to the passage, but the author does not cite these two Declarations in order to show that it is true. Compare this choice to answer choice D. C: Again, right answer, wrong question. The second paragraph includes this statement in lines 14-15, but not in reference to the claim that human rights is an ancient idea as shown by the content of these two documents. D: Yes. This choice accurately describes the author’s purpose in this part of the passage. These two documents are cited as direct evidence that the concept of human rights is an ancient one. 4. A A: Yes. In lines 55-58, the author argues that the most important factor to consider is whether or not there is a trend toward greater human rights. The tone of the passage is strongly positive about increased recognition of human rights, and yet the author says that it will not happen all at once (lines 51-52). Thus, the author would call for cautious praise. B: While the passage does discuss monitoring in the third paragraph, the author never connects a positive trend towards recognition of human rights (as described in the question) with a need for intense monitoring (see lines 51-57). C: While the author argues that we must take level of development into account (lines 53-55), the passage never indicates that forgiveness of abuses is called for. In fact, the author states that there is no possible excuse for certain kinds of violations (lines 58-62). D: The passage states that implementation of human rights protections may take some time; we must consider whether or not there is a move toward human rights in a particular country when evaluating that case (lines 51-57). The scenario presented by the question clearly indicates a move in the right direction; the author would praise, not criticize this nation.

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the author does say that certain abuses are never tolerable (lines 58-62). but this does not correspond to the time when women writers plan to rejoin the world (lines 48-55). the author never indicates that state use of private property qualifies as a human rights abuse at any level.) on the right to vote qualifies as a violation of human rights. in part through citing Dr. While the passage never specifically calls for civil disobedience. not inconsistent with the overall tone of the passage. B: This choice takes words from the passage out of context. not that they are waiting for literature to recognize it. In lines 58-61 the passage lists torture as one of several abuses that can never be tolerated. a visible. In the second paragraph the author asserts that human rights may transcend or supersede the laws of nations. even in emergency situations. the credited response must be directly supported by the passage. The author does not suggest that placing conditions (which could include age. this answer takes words from the passage.5. recognizes the universality of humanity (lines 24-30). 4 . The author states in lines 38-41 that feminists (who. this choice takes words and ideas from the passage out of the context of the question. but for political and social power (lines 48-55). Thus the author argues that outside interference may in fact by called for. but does not form them into an appropriate answer. D A: In the passage as a whole. because it is already free. the passage indicates that true literature. Passage II 8. 6. Women writers. B A: The correct answer will weaken or be inconsistent with a claim made by the author. The author asserts that women writers claim to recognize humanity-as-a-whole (lines 45-47). the author criticizes human rights abuses. are not waiting for the liberation of the imagination. D: Again. in opposition to the statement made in the answer choice. D: This choice is entirely consistent with the author’s statement that “the walls of oppression would not crumble at the first clarion call” (lines 51-52). by definition. The author refers to the appearance of a new generation of authors (lines 58-59). We do not know that these “unjust laws” fall into this category. A A: Yes. and in the final paragraph sets out certain kinds of abuses that can never be tolerated. 7. the passage does not show that the OAS ever takes direct action to rectify specific abuses. Be careful not to use outside knowledge. citizenship. The author does not argue that freedom can never be curtailed. The author describes how Amnesty International calls public attention to specific abuses. While the Organization of American States did pass a human rights declaration (lines 37-39). . viable social factor” (lines 48-51). but the answer choice is consistent. and may “mobilize public support” to bring about action (lines 46-50). etc. . C A: The author claims that the United Nations has failed to become “an effective instrument for the promotion of human rights” (lines 32-35). the author claims that “women writers. regardless of level of development. B: Always pay close attention to the word “most” (as in “most benefit”) when it appears in a question. B: Yes. In fact. C: The passage itself suggests this to be true in its discussion of trends (lines 51-55). However. C: As in choice B. according to the author are not “women writers”) believe that the imagination cannot be liberated. B: See the explanation for choice A. D: The author does not suggest that people being abused by their own government would benefit by appealing to the leaders of the abusive state.” by using that term to describe themselves. as described in the passage. In paragraph 5. Be careful not to use outside knowledge or personal opinion to answer questions. C: See the explanation for choice A. C: Yes. regardless of the country’s level of development (lines 58-62). Evatt’s claims in lines 23-28. D: Yes. send the message that women need to segregate themselves only until they “become politically strong .

11. The author argues that literature [fiction and poetry (line 42)] should not be written in the language of politics (lines 12-14). B: Yes. not a distinction between men and women. A A: Yes. and feminism in the arts arose to eliminate “mythological divisions” (lines 3840). 24. D: The author mentions the struggle for equal employment as an appropriate arena for the politics of sex. The author objects to “women writers” on the basis that their writing assumes a certain agenda or set of premises (the politics of sex) from the beginning. not feminists do (lines 31-41). 14-23). as it is described in the passage. to answer the questions. where the author believes it does not belong. but never indicates that female authors should not make their views known in other ways. 31-38). but are already politicized. The author contrasts women writers who segregate themselves. D: The author does not believe any real separation exists. Furthermore. and gives no hint that women writers are evolving into feminists. that is. The author argues that the supposedly temporary strategy of segregation will turn into a permanent reality in 4-5 years. feminism came into being in order to eliminate the “myth-fed condition” of genderbased segregation (lines 32-34). According to the author. The author uses the term rather to describe the language of women who write as women. throughout the passage the author asserts a commonality. even women writers who engage in the politics of sex do not conceive of the separation as a permanent one (lines 55-56). B A: This choice contradicts the passage. rather than imaginatively seeking out new ideas (lines 14-23). but the author does not use the phrase to refer to that belief. in movements that fight in political or socioeconomic arenas for equality for women. C A: The author asserts that women who consciously write as women are engaged in the politics of sex (lines 1-3). those who are called women writers do not eventually become political. with a particular social and political agenda. the passage does not suggest that that component will be eradicated from all literature if the label “women writer” is used. the minute a person calls herself a woman writer. the author believes that “the separate male and female states of intellect” do not in fact exist (lines 14-17. Be careful to use the author’s own definition of feminism. C: Yes. C: This is what women writers (lines 14-23). and authors will find themselves divided into two categories: “women writers” and (male) “writers” (lines 58-64). not disagree with his or her own words. B: According to the author. 5 . Thus they import the politics of sex into literature. D A: The passage portrays the beliefs of women writers and feminists as mutually exclusive (lines 14-23.9. While the author claims that the human component of literature is denied by women writers (lines 24-30). 12. The politics of sex may include a belief in separate intellects. The author uses the label “women writers” to refer to something much more ideologically specific then simply “women who write. the author describes contexts in which the politics of sex is appropriate.” B: According to the passage. women writers already accept humanity-as-a-whole (lines 45-47). believing that they have an inherent common ground as women (lines 15-21). C: This choice is too extreme. she becomes political (lines 1-7. D: Yes. In lines 8-13. The author argues that the idea that women have separate life experiences is a myth (lines 31-38). B: Notice that this choice does not specify that these views would be expressed through literature. 31-40). The author would most likely agree. The passage does not indicate that the author would oppose greater wage equality in any way. not that all women who write use the language of politics. Thus. C: This is a direct paraphrase of the passage (lines 24-26). 10. D: According to the passage. The correct response will be a statement that is inconsistent with the author’s opinions as they are expressed in the passage. what the author criticizes is the incorporation of politics or politicized self-images into literature. with feminists who reject gender-based identities and selfsegregation (lines 31-40).

B: Prisoners’ concern or lack of concern for their own health is not an issue in the passage. inappropriately incorporate the language of politics into the world of literature (lines 12-14). 20-23). Compare this choice with answer choice D. D A. 24-30). Thus. D: Yes. D: As in choices A and B. and written in the language of politics. B: The passage defines literature as fiction or poetry when the author defines a “writer” as a “fiction writer or a poet” in line 42 (see also lines 12-13. C: Yes. Thus it would be reasonable to conclude based on the passage that the inmates refused a diagnostic procedure because of this distrust. The author argues that physician–patient confidentiality in prison is especially important. the passage does not suggest that prisoners refuse procedures out of fear that a weapon will be detected. true literature according to the author foments sympathy. This it cannot do. and the physician has a “duty to warn” the prison authorities. it is not specifically inconsistent with the author’s description of that impact [an uninspiring world in which all the “writers” are men (lines 60-66)]. Furthermore. from condition to condition. 6 . not antagonism between the sexes (lines 24-26). Literature should be driven by the imagination and should build connections between the sexes. D A: The correct answer will be a statement from the passage that is inconsistent with the scenario presented in the question. Both of these characteristics would disqualify it as literature in the eyes of the author (lines 12-13.. this choice requires too much speculation. by labeling themselves as such. C: While a novel is fiction. B. 42). the author does state that a patient should be given the opportunity to surrender the weapon voluntarily. In lines 38-46.” (lines 24-28). There is no direct evidence in the passage to support this choice. D: Such a tract would be non-fiction. While the author does raise the issue of detection of weapons (lines 38-43. 16. it would be discrepant or inconsistent with the author’s assertion that the language of politics should not be used in literature. C A: The passage does not ever raise the issue of prisoners’ beliefs regarding their right to privacy.” However. 62-67). according to the passage. the author does not indicate whether prisoners carry weapons for self-protection or for other. Later in the passage. A A: Yes. it would have no bearing on the passage’s discussion of the origins of classical feminism (lines 31-34). According to the passage.. as patient distrust could cause prisoners to fail to disclose important health-related information (lines 13-15. According to the author.13. Compare this choice to choice C—the passage directly addresses the possibility that patients may refuse to cooperate fully in their own diagnosis and treatment due to distrust of prison physicians. B: The author’s admiration for a woman writer’s work would not be inconsistent with the author’s depiction of the beliefs of women writers (lines 19-23). Passage III 15. The author places no conditions on or exceptions to the “duty to warn” held by a physician when a weapon is detected (lines 38-46). C: The scenario in the question is discrepant with the author’s disapproval of the work of women writers and concern over the potential impact of their use of the term “woman writer. if it is politicized (lines 24-30). the author asserts that the imminent threat posed by a weapon overrides the patient’s right to privacy. D: Yes. literature “engenders sympathies from sex to sex. This answer choice describes a nonfiction essay. 14. and C: All three of these choices are wrong for the same reason: they are not strong enough. if the author admired the work of a woman writer. If the author did in fact admire the fiction or poetry of a woman writer. but prison authorities are still involved (lines 62-67). women writers. more aggressive reasons.

Therefore. D A: The passage indicates that a certain level of confidentiality and physician autonomy is necessary for good medical care (lines 9-15. found by a physician to have drugs and paraphernalia on or in his person. C: The question is not asking when an inmate’s ability to keep secrets is threatened. Confidentiality may not apply to cases where diagnostic tools reveal the presence of weapons. the quality of care would suffer. B: The passage suggests that the ability to keep certain kinds of information from prison authorities is one factor in physician autonomy (lines 24-32). the author indicates that inmates are less likely to expect confidentiality than are non-incarcerated patients of private doctors. but physician confidentiality is not itself threatened by the use of these tools. 24-25). Be careful not to take the words out of the context of the passage. C: The author uses the term “necessary information” to indicate information necessary to the patient’s medical treatment. However. C: This choice is wrong for the same reasons as choice A. The author mentions incompetence as an exception to the requirement that informed consent be provided by patients (lines 56-59). 67-70). the author does not suggest that the absence of these qualities is the only possible cause of a decline in the quality of medicine. However. D: Pay close attention to the words “most specifically” in the question. Finally. The author then goes on to argue that information regarding drug use could be crucial to a patient’s treatment. but the passage does not claim that it is the only necessary condition. 67-70). not as a reason why confidentiality would be especially important. the author explicitly and repeatedly argues that doctors must know of a patient’s drug use in order to effectively treat him or her (lines 1-7. B: Yes. B A: The author refers to “necessary information” in the context of explaining that without confidentiality. While inmates do not have “full Constitutional rights to privacy. if a physician was forced to break confidentiality.” physician confidentiality is one of those rights which they do have in most circumstances (lines 16-19). While one could imagine a patient’s psychiatric history being an important factor in their current medical treatment. The passage gives no indication that past criminal activities would likely be related to an inmate’s health. Thus. 24-25). confidentiality could be respected while the quality of care is poor for other reasons. 18. if the quality declines. 19. so physicians should not be required to reveal this “necessary information” to the authorities (lines 13-23. Respect for confidentiality is one necessary condition for good medical care (lines 9-15). psychiatric history is never specifically mentioned in the passage. it is not necessarily because of a lack of confidentiality. Therefore. and still lack autonomy. A A: Yes. 33-36. D: Yes. prisoners may fail to reveal information important for their own health care. The author claims that confidentiality and physician autonomy are necessary conditions for good medical care (lines 9-15. By claiming that “respect for patient confidentiality is particularly important in a prison hospital setting” because patients might distrust prison doctors (lines 20-23). The author introduces the passage through the example of prisoner A. Thus a physician could refuse to reveal information. 7 . However. D: The author states just the opposite. we don’t know from the passage that it is the only factor. B: This choice takes words out of context of the passage. the use of X rays is not depicted as “invasive” by the author. 33-36.17.

A major theme of the passage is the comparison between the belief that altruism is unique to humans (lines 8-14) and the author’s belief that animals as well may act altruistically through kin selection (lines 29-34. Therefore. B A: The correct response will be inconsistent with the author’s claim that physician confidentiality is especially important in prisons because inmates distrust doctors who are hired by the prison (lines 19-23). it would have no special importance in a prison setting. C: This choice would strengthen. A A: Yes. the author argues that we tend to attribute selfish acts to our animal nature. but the passage does not claim that the ability to do so is uniquely human. The passage describes selfishness as an animalistic. D A: This choice is too narrow to be the main idea. The author argues that inmate patients distrust prison hospitals because the doctors may be employees of the prison. then prison hospitals do not present a unique situation. D: Yes. 22. B: Yes. Secondly. We also tend to believe that we act for the benefit of others only when we can overcome that animal part of ourselves through our uniquely human capacity for reason or rationality (lines 11-14). altruism is a uniquely human imposition or overlay on our basic animal nature. inmates would have reason to fear that information given to a physician about activities such as drug use might be revealed to the authorities. D: This choice is too vague to have any impact on the author’s argument. human kindness may not be a “unique overlay. 23. In the context of the passage. When the passage uses the term “unique overlay. which acts against our animalistic tendencies. C: As in choice B. B: Both traits are listed as part of our “apish ancestry” (lines 9-11). C A: Altruism and rationality are not compared to each other. not the main point itself. The author argues that animals act altruistically when those acts benefit kin. while rationality is mentioned in line 13 in a very different context. It is directly stated in lines 8-9. Passage IV 21. 8 . If prison officials often question physicians about inmates. B: This is the opposite of the correct response. First of all. The author goes on to argue that natural selection may allow for altruism as well through kin selection. C: While this is an important part of the author’s argument about altruism in animals (lines 32-33).” but instead a characteristic that we share with the animal kingdom. D: Determinism is discussed in lines 44-52.” it is specifically in reference to altruistic behavior that we (falsely) believe to be non-animalistic. not uniquely human behavior (lines 8-11). If inmates do not believe that prison doctors are controlled by the institution. B: This choice (directly stated in lines 20-22) ignores the final three paragraphs of the passage. according to common belief. not weaken the author’s argument.20. the “unique overlay” is human rationality. the two are never compared to each other. Thus it is evidence for the main point. The passage states that we tend to believe that it is our rationality that allows us to behave altruistically (lines 11-14). but selfishness and aggressiveness are not compared to each other. D: This choice takes the passage’s reference to self-criticism out of context. In the first paragraph. while the physician–patient covenant would still be important. but it is only one small part of the author’s overall argument that altruism may be as “biological” as selfishness. This is the basis of the author’s assertion of the special need to respect physician confidentiality in prison settings. this is the opposite of the correct response. Be careful not to use common sense or outside knowledge. C: Yes. Therefore. It does not specify whether or not prisoners misunderstand their Constitutional rights to privacy. prisoners’ awareness that X rays will detect weapons would not affect the author’s argument about the need for patients to be able to trust their doctors and the unlikelihood that inmates will do so. the author argues that confidentiality should not be respected when weapons are detected (lines 38-46). We criticize ourselves for “animalistic” behavior (lines 8-11). 53-56). Nor does it indicate whether this misunderstanding is of a sort that would decrease the trust they place in their doctors. the author goes on to claim that human altruism may therefore be just as “animal” or biological as selfishness. Thus.

through the discussion of kin selection. Thus the author would likely argue that our natural tendency towards conflict may be tempered or counteracted by our coexisting natural tendency towards kindness. but may in fact arise from our biological nature (lines 26-42). However. B: Yes. 63-66).24. but the passage does not provide an example of how free will affects human behavior. 25. C: The passage states that civilization requires altruistic behavior and the suppression of selfish and aggressive biological instincts (lines 1-6). D: The question asks where the author most directly deals with the question of biologically-based altruism. evolutionary basis. C: This choice is inconsistent with the author’s rejection of genetic determinism (lines 44-50). could be used to illustrate “deterministic speculation” (lines 44-46). suggesting that we no longer. see ourselves as rational. The section of the passage referred to by the question presents the author’s claim that specific behaviors are not completely determined by genetics. when it describes the view of many that human beings use their unique capacity for reason to override animalistic. The author argues that our true biological nature includes both brutality and altruism (lines 37-39. This assertion is made in lines 46-50. and so that our ability to be kind distinguished us from non-human animals (lines 11-14). 9 . 27. selfish impulses (lines 9-14). the passage never raises the issue of spirituality. “Free will” is described. According to the passage. but is not completely determined by genetics. B: The author refers to Freud as an authority who has made this claim (lines 56-59). The passage indicates that altruism is not imposed upon our biological nature by rationality. Newton. D: Yes. Furthermore. The author does not deal with that question until the subsequent paragraph. like selfishness. C: Yes. 26. with no reference to authority or example. 28. we once believed that our capacity for altruism was not based in biology. 53-56). once we recognize that altruism. and gives Copernicus. C A: The sentence given in the question refers to the belief that specific behavior (hoarding and giving) can be determined by (“attributed to”) genetics. The statement in the question. C: The passage cites Hamilton as an authority on this point (lines 26-32). that some have attributed both selfish and altruistic behaviors to genetics. That part of the passage does not deal with the paradox raised in the quoted section of how this altruistic behavior could have a biological basis. A A: Yes. we imagined ourselves as rational creatures” (lines 61-63). that resolution does not come until the author’s discussion of kin selection in the third paragraph. but it is in the discussion of kin selection itself that the author most directly deals with the problem. This is just the opposite of free will as it is described in the passage (lines 46-50). we have been forced to accept that that belief is not valid (lines 56-60). and Freud as examples (lines 59-63). Compare this choice to answer choice B. The passage discusses rationality in the first paragraph in a different context. B A: The author discusses natural selection in the second paragraph in order to introduce the question of how altruism could be biological (lines 19-25). D A: The author indicates that while we once believed that we lived at the hub of the universe. we may see that we have more in common with other animals than we thought (lines 53-56. D: The author argues that human nature is not completely determined by genetics (lines 44-50). D: The author supports this assertion through reference to Freud (lines 1-6). 42-44). may have a genetic. C: The author claims that our biological nature includes both brutality and kindness (lines 37-39. D: The author introduces this view in the first paragraph in order to go on to reject it. A A: Yes. post-Freud. we are also by nature kind and altruistic (lines 42-44. The passage discusses kin selection (lines 26-34) in order to resolve the question of how altruism could have a biological basis. Evolution is related to kin selection by the passage (lines 29-34). Thus a statement describing deterministic beliefs would not illuminate or illustrate that claim. The main idea of the passage is that while we by nature are selfish and aggressive (lines 3-11). 42-44). B: The main point of the fourth paragraph (lines 51-66) is that altruistic behavior may have a biological basis. B: This choice misrepresents the author’s position. B: The passage states that “before Freud.

The author mentions a variety of ways in which flowers evolved so as to take better advantage of insects (lines 21-23. Modern insect species never explicitly come into the picture. The author constantly uses words and phrases like “probably” (lines 3.” “may have. the ovules themselves had to be protected (lines 24-26). B: Yes. A A: Yes. 42-50. 17. selfish behavior. B A: The passage refers to the structure and behavior of insects living 70-150 million years ago. The passage asserts that human social life and the survival of civilization requires reciprocal altruistic behavior. C A: This statement strengthens Freud’s argument by reinforcing his claim that we have a natural tendency toward aggression. 6) and “must have. B A: The author rejects biological determinism (lines 44-50). As for the theoretical basis of the passage. C: The only reference to modern times is a brief mention of modern survivors of ancient plants (lines 8-10). however. B: This choice also strengthens Freud’s claim that our biology drives us towards animalistic. C: Yes.” “would have.” Thus this statement weakens Freud’s argument. While the author may well be drawing on fossil evidence for his or her conclusions. but insects represented an alternative. that we all act for the good of others and of the social body (lines 1-6). However. we must temper or reduce our animal aggression through kindness and altruism (lines 1-6). The passage states that once beetles feeding on sap exuded by ovules (ovules play a vital role in reproduction) became a vehicle for pollination. D: The passage indicates just the opposite. was the problem to be solved (lines 56-68). Be careful not to rely on outside knowledge. Passage V 31. 10 . 51). 30. The passage is not framed in terms of (nor does it even discuss) ongoing evolutionary trends. B: This choice reverses the relationship between insects and flowers as it is presented in the passage. D: The passage never mentions genetic mutation. not an additional means for individual plant species (lines 18-23). and yet civilization requires altruism (lines 1-6). D: Only once does the passage specifically mention the fossil record (lines 1-3). the author does not argue for or defend natural selection as an appropriate theoretical model. 32.29. C: The passage argues just the opposite: that in order to live together and ensure the survival of our civilization. that is. C: The passage does discuss the dispersal of pollen to and from seed-bearing plants in the first two paragraphs (although the range of pollen dispersal is not discussed). The passage does discuss the advantages of insect over wind pollination. If lower animals are capable of altruism as well as selfishness. B: Yes. 19. This is not inconsistent with the statement by Freud cited in the question that we must renounce our nature in order to be altruistic. not expansion of the variety of means of fertilization. then we may be able to behave altruistically not by suppressing but by embracing our “animalistic. 29. biological instincts. The passage never indicates that flowers influenced the evolution of insects.” or “could be” (lines 13. 48. 32. dispersal of the seeds is never mentioned. D: The agonizing dilemma mentioned in the passage (with reference to Freud) is that we are selfish by nature. 24-28. The tone of the passage is clearly speculative. but simply assumes that the reader will accept it as valid. Restriction. the passage is primarily characterized by the author’s educated guesses about the likely course of flower evolution (see the explanation for choice B). 53-65).

The author speculates about how the structure of flowers. B: The passage states just the opposite. lines 60-62) existed before bees et. The flower petals fused to form a tubular corolla. C: We don’t care how the flies survived before corollas evolved. D A: To answer the question. C: Yes. D: Whether or not flowers can now be chemically induced to form corollas has no bearing on the author’s argument about how corollas originally evolved. B: Yes. but the passage gives no indication of how long before. the botanist would need to explain why this represents a reproductive or evolutionary advantage. It may well have done so in reality. 11 . the author does not suggest that tubular corollas were more accommodating to “specialized and flower-constant species. C A: In terms of number of species. appeared on the scene. the passage suggests just the opposite. and long-tongued flies) came into being (lines 53-55). D: No mention is made of how the reproductive structure of flowers affected insect evolution. Flowers evolved ways to screen out unwanted visitors and to restrict pollination to certain insect species (lines 65-68). By discussing a shift from “promiscuous” to “restricted” pollination. Furthermore. B: The botanist. but it is never discussed in the passage. which kept the attractive nectar hidden from and out of reach of beetles and short-tongued flies (lines 56-64). Thus. contributed to reproductive success. the passage indicates that this was not in fact the case. This could be appropriately extended to speculation about how the color of flowers may play a role in attracting those same insects. This change. in the context of the passage. non-flying insects (see last paragraph). moths. and butterflies has no direct relevance to this question. al. In the passage. the author describes restrictive pollination as a “great step forward in floral design” (lines 65-68). one must frame the botanist’s claims in terms of the issues raised in the passage. This choice would tend to strengthen that claim by suggesting that “promiscuous pollination” was now no longer possible. as well as to the main idea of the passage as a whole. C: The fact that the genes which control one advantageous development (corollas) also cause a disadvantageous development (fungus) would have no impact on the author’s claims about why and how insects are related to the evolution of flowers. B: The passage presents the “big picture” of long-term evolutionary trends in flower structures. then the author’s hypothesis that the corolla evolved in the Tertiary Period in order to allow access only to long-tongued flying insects (lines 61-64) is questionable. to explain in the context of the passage why flowers evolved to be pollinated by a single species of fly. There is nothing in that picture that could be directly used to answer questions about biochemistry. Reproductive structures evolved that screened out short-tongued. including pigmented petals (lines 48-50). 36. The evolutionary goings-on of bees. and that these flowers now depended on a limited number of insects pollinators. In terms of sheer number of insects. The passage concerns itself with the evolution of insects only to the extent that it affects the evolution of flowers. Knowing why beetles retained short tongues would not help us understand why flowers evolved to exclude them. may have evolved so as to maximize pollination by the most appropriate insects. D: We know from the passage when flowers originated (lines 1-3) and when specific types of winged insects (bees. according to the author.” just that they were less accommodating to beetles and inadequately equipped flies. would need to explain why flowers evolved to admit only long-tongued flies. If the long-tongued insects of the Tertiary Period (lines 53-57) could not fly. 34. 35. butterflies. C: Yes. We can infer from the latter discussion that other types of winged insects (including small flies. the passage does not mention evolutionary trends that might have boosted the number of insects (regardless of species) attracted to flowers. C A: The correct answer will be related to a theme already present in the passage. moths. D: Yes. and throughout the passage refers to advantages conferred by various stages of floral evolution. The passage is about the evolutionary influence of insects on flowers. We care why the flowers evolved so as to attract only these flies. and gives no hint as to what role climate might play.33. B A: The correct answer will weaken the author’s assertion that corollas evolved in order to restrict access to certain insects that fly regularly between flowers of the same species (lines 60-68).

The orangutan. the author does not describe this as “temperamental” behavior. while supported by the passage (lines 4-6). the chimp clearly displays its initiative as it tests the peg in various holes (lines 19-20). 12 . the passage shows in its discussion of Berosini’s orangutans that they can be trained (lines 1-4. 39. as if thinking of something else” completes the task (lines 22-29). D: Yes. In the first paragraph. in their own way. B A: The author does not claim that they lack initiative. and in the third paragraph describes how orangutans do respond. the passage explains how orangutans have little social interaction with each other in the wild. C: Limited attention span is never mentioned.Passage VI 37. The final paragraph argues that a better understanding of animals may help us better respect other species. B: Yes. while the chimpanzee looks “inferential. to the stimulus provided by the intelligence test. is too narrow to be the central thesis of the passage. 35-38). The passage describes how the chimpanzee takes the hexagonal peg and experiments until it finds the correct hole (lines 15-21). in which the author mentions the difficulty of training orangutans. not interested in the support and approval of others (lines 8-12). B: The author writes that orangutans are different than chimpanzees (paragraphs 2 and 3). In the first paragraph the author discusses Berosini’s claim that orangutans are difficult to train because they are “self-contained” (lines 4-6). D: Yes. but the passage does not indicate that it is a more appropriate method. but does not suggest that this difference makes them more interesting. they care little about the “social support and approval of others” (lines 8-10). only that we cannot observe it in action (lines 22-29). 40. The quote from Miles is given to illustrate the claim that an orangutan is “irredeemably his or her own person. is not problem solving but the asocial and independent nature of these animals. on the other hand. C: This choice takes words from the passage out of context. the theme of the first paragraph. the passage states that chimps look “inferential. In fact. just that they don’t care much about receiving human (or ape) approval (lines 8-10). C: Yes. ingenious.” 38. that is the way in which the author uses the term in the context of the passage. Thus we cannot observe how the orangutan has solved the problem. The final two paragraphs build on that theme to argue that “true training” must be reciprocal. ingenious and ever so active. D A: This statement. In contrast. that is. While we might not naturally think of the word “poetic” in order to describe independent behavior. In fact. The author uses orangutans as one example in the context of the passage’s overall argument about training and sensitivity. appears to be uninvolved in the test until it “casually.” that is. Even if this choice were supported by the passage. C: While orangutans may be difficult to train because they “are not dependent on social support and approval” (lines 410). B: A lack of social interaction does not constitute or indicate a lack of responsiveness to any external stimuli. which sounds like reasonably interesting behavior. Finally. and ever so active” while problem solving (lines 15-16). C A: The passage does not discuss the comparative speed with which chimps and orangutans understand or solve problems. The first three paragraphs demonstrate the intelligence and responsiveness of animals. D: The author does not argue that orangutans distrust humans. Miles’ judgment that orangutans are no less smart than chimpanzees (lines 29-31) and her evaluation of the nature of their intelligence (lines 31-34). The fact that Berosini successfully trains orangutans [which according to the author involves a reciprocal and respectful relationship between trainer and trainee (lines 38-42)] indicates that these orangutans must trust humans to some extent. not our own. D A: While the author claims that orangutans have few social encounters (lines 6-10). the passage never indicates whether or not they are aggressive in the encounters that they do have. which requires sensitivity to and respect for these qualities in the “trainee. B: Chimpanzees use a different method to solve problems. it would be too narrow to qualify as the main idea or central thesis.” D: The author cites Prof.

C: The author does refer to the natural social structure (or lack thereof) of orangutans (lines 6-7).” 13 . However. “symmetrical” relationship. The example given is not one of disobedience. but rather through respectful attentiveness. the author states that the “intelligent responsiveness of trainers” within this reciprocal relationship may be seen as respect for the animal (lines 58-61). but to suggest that showing proper respect for other species will make us less alone in the world. 54-55). The author argues that training does not end once a dog has appropriately responded to a command. Rather. not demand the obedience or cooperation of other species by obeying or heeding what they say to us (lines 47-50). D: Yes. C: As in B. D: Nowhere in the passage does the author attempt to justify demanding obedience. but the passage never mentions the use of rewards. the author suggests that if we come to understand that animals have something of value to say to us. this choice is not appropriate to the main idea of the cited part of the passage. 43.41. the author suggests that we should earn. and of the passage. D A: The author never recommends any form of punishment. is on the attentiveness of the trainer as a prerequisite for the attentiveness of the animal being trained. the author proposes that we recognize the unique and varied intelligence of the apes. but not in reference to training techniques. In the cited part of the passage. but of “intelligent responsiveness” (lines 42-47. The author states that this is also true when we train other humans (line 48). B: While this choice is not inconsistent with the overall tone of the passage. A A: Yes. D: Trainers may well like their trainees. The intent of the author in those lines is not to show our similarity with apes.” not “I like you. this choice is not at odds with the positive attitude of the author towards animals. B A: The author indicates just the opposite. In fact. Therefore we should not “drop” the child or discontinue training. We gain the attention of animals or humans being trained by interacting with and responding to them (lines 47-53). 48-53). C: The passage indicates just the opposite. D: By “heed the animal” the author means pay attention to what the animal is saying through its behavior during training. C: This choice takes the statement that the trainer must “obey” or heed the trainee out of context (lines 48-50). not that apes are just like us. B: The focus of the aphorism. but that he or she attentively listens to them in the course of continuing the training. 42. neither is it supported or suggested by any statement made by the author. a good trainer should say “I hear you. A A: Yes. The author describes a proper training as one that establishes a “symmetrical” (line 41) or cooperative relationship with the animal (or human) being trained (lines 38-42. Secondly. but instead recognize what the child is communicating through his or her lack of attention. The author wishes to eliminate sentimental attitudes toward animals (lines 6164). B: Yes. 44. It is this intelligence that attracts us to animals (lines 54-55). the author does not argue that true training is accomplished through demonstrating affection. it has just begun. The passage as a whole argues that we should treat and train animals with respect for their own intelligence. B: In the passage. In the subsequent paragraph. Therefore. we will perhaps feel less alone in the world. and we must continue to attentively interact and communicate with the animal (lines 42-50). The main idea of the paragraph in which this statement appears is that training is a two-way. This choice is inconsistent with the main idea of the passage. which stresses listening to and working together with the animal being trained. By this the author does not mean that the trainer gives in to the demands of those being trained.

since orangutans are trainable (lines 1-4.” and that makes us aware of our own knowledge of the world around us (lines 14-18). which comes only with consciousness. 14 . If we apply this to the new information in the question. A A: Yes. they must be able to concentrate on the trainer’s commands. The author does not tell us how long each animal takes to fit the peg in the hole. not experimentation. and so would exhibit different behaviors. B: Animals without consciousness have knowledge of the world around them (lines 16-17). and so they have not come to depend on the support and approval of others (lines 6-10). according to the passage. C: An animal may not have language [“a vehicle for complex thought processes” (lines 23-24)]. D: Neither the passage nor the new information in the question gives us any evidence that the same would be true for chimpanzees. Their life in the wild is not conditioned by social interaction with other apes. The author defines consciousness as “the facility for deep introspection that enables us to see into our own minds and those of others. This attitude manifests itself in captivity as well. B: The comparative speed of chimps’ and orangutans’ thought processes is never an issue in the passage. D: Yes. or they may be concentrating on the task in a less visible way. C: The author does not indicate that an orangutan’s “insight oriented” approach is any less efficient than a chimp’s “problem solving” orientation (lines 31-34). just that they accomplish it in different ways. just that they don’t appear to be concentrating on the task at hand (lines 22-34). with different challenges.45. In the first paragraph. Passage VII 47. 35-36). 46. making it difficult to train them because they are not anxious to gain the approval of the trainer (lines 4-6). D: This choice contradicts the author’s statement that “an animal without consciousness may ‘know’ the world it inhabits” (lines 16-17). B: This choice is incompatible with the author’s suggestion that orangutans are no less intelligent than chimpanzees (lines 29-31). This choice says nothing about knowledge of self. accomplish the same task through insight (lines 32-33). C: The author indicates that orangutans are just as intelligent as chimpanzees (lines 29-31). we could reasonably conclude that wild-born orangutans do not exhibit chimp-like problem-solving behaviors in captivity because they did not need or depend on them in their natural environment. Chimps pick up the peg and test it in different holes until they find the right one (lines 15-21). they do in fact successfully complete the test. Finally. A A: Yes. An animal without self-consciousness would not have this awareness. Orangutans. They may be concentrating on other things (dreams and visions). D A: The passage does not suggest that orangutans cannot concentrate. the author relates the behavior of orangutans in the wild to their behavior in captivity. Those born in captivity would have been raised in a very different context. and so may be able to learn from their experiences in that world. but the passage does not suggest that animals have no way to express themselves. Thus a person with consciousness is aware of him or her self as an individual distinct from other individuals and from the surrounding environment. Note that in the end.

B: Culture could affect human evolution even if it did not contribute to our sense of specialness. but for a statement that is suggested by the information presented in the question stem. Here. Genetic evolution. only that most humans do not fully utilize it. B: The issue presented in the question stem relates to humanity’s supposed “insatiable appetite for knowledge” (line 36). Advances in art and learning are not “novel artifacts” analogous to computers (line 71). If most humans pay attention only to their immediate physical surrounding. The passage defines natural selection as “adaptation to shifting circumstances and environments” (lines 4041). Choices A. there is no element of change or adaptation. voters adapt their electoral preferences to the changing (declining) economic climate. and the ability to more easily travel and transport goods over long distances significantly transformed society (lines 68-71). B. when a particular invention or “novel artifact” transforms entire societies (lines 68-71). It is possible that having such a narrow focus carries some advantage. according to the author. D Note: This is an unusual question type. If the new information in the question were shown to be true. nature” (lines 1-7). Even if animals had culture and consciousness. cultural evolution involves “novel artifacts. if we are in fact “nothing but an animal” (lines 7-10). requires tens of thousands of years (lines 51-53). B: This choice is wrong for the same reasons as choice A. Both the new information in the question and the correct answer choice are inconsistent with the author’s argument in the passage. Culture is one part of the answer to that question. B: This choice describes television producers responding and adapting to popular tastes. language allows for (not guarantees) complex thought. D: Yes. The steam engine was a new invention or novel artifact.48. The relative pace of genetic and cultural evolution has no direct relevance. C: According to the passage. which sometimes transform entire societies virtually instantaneously” (lines 68-71). A: If most humans limit their attention to their immediate surroundings. D: Yes. and we are not told that the spread of socialist ideas led to the transformation of entire societies. C: Here. Darwin’s theory was revolutionary because it showed us that we are “not separate from. the author’s claim about the effects of culture on human evolution does not depend on the acceptance of the claim that only humans have consciousness and culture [and thus curiosity about the world (paragraph 3)]. D: This answer describes the adaptation of language to shifts in terminology from generation to generation. If genetic mutation did cause rapid social changes. D A: These are two separate issues. it would undermine the author’s assertion that “what has enabled Homo sapiens to speed up the pace of change in its world is culture” (lines 53-55). A A: Yes. but accepting the author’s description of the effects of culture on evolution (rapid change) does not depend on the acceptance of the claim that Darwin forced us to change our self-image through recognition of our animal nature. 51. and D all do so). the author’s argument about the nature and speed of cultural evolution could still be valid—it would simply apply to other animals as well. C: As in choice B. According to the passage. 50. C. it would indicate that the passage is in error. D: The exploration of outer space is not currently something that dramatically affects society as a whole in the same way as long-distance travel (choice C) or the electronic computer (lines 69-71). 15 . and C all focus on issues from the wrong parts of the passage. a mutated version of a “weaken” question. C: Yes. The passage argues that cultural evolution contributes something to human evolution that genetic evolution does not: “the potential for exceedingly rapid rates of cultural change” (lines 60-63). but a part of. that does not suggest that language does not in fact have this capacity. C A: The passage says that cultural evolution occurs through cause and effect. The correct answer will not fit this definition. and the answer choice gives no indication that the entire society was rapidly transformed. The author’s argument about cultural evolution does not depend on the argument that consciousness and culture distinguish us from other animals. However. This raised the question of why we see ourselves as unique or special. B. The passage states that civilized human beings have a thirst for knowledge about themselves and the world (lines 30-36). No novel artifacts are involved. the question does not ask for a choice that weakens the passage (A. that does not show that they gain no benefit from their capacity for consciousness. and most people cared little about anything but their immediate physical environment. and that civilized animals (human beings) do not necessarily seek knowledge and understanding. 49.

A A: Yes.52. B: This choice is only partially correct. make any claims about allowing for steady consumption. D: Yes. each position must be based on an assumption that growth is a necessity. but the author never implies that it is the only vehicle. it is reasonable to conclude that any recent case of successful development will include these two conditions. D: The critics described in the second half of the passage argue that democracy. The passage does indicate that culture is uniquely human (lines 10-13. Language is necessary for culture. By describing language as a “vehicle for complex thought processes” (lines 23-24). 18-23). The critics and proponents of democracy are arguing over what type of political regime best allows for and promotes economic development. not authoritarianism. If each side is evaluating the value of democracy based on whether or not it leads to economic growth (lines 13-16. B: This choice is too extreme. C: The critics of the opinion expressed in the question argue that consumption and investment are not mutually exclusive (lines 46-54). C: Language is a vehicle for complex thought (lines 23-24). However. the advocates of democracy argue that consumption in the areas of health and education also constitutes investment in human capital (lines 48-51). but as far as we know culture is not necessary for language. The premises reproduced in the question state that development is best promoted in conditions of political stability. B A: The opinion cited in the question is challenged by the proponents of democracy in lines 41-54. The premises stated in the question indicate that the governments presiding over recent successful development have all intervened in the economy. but not that nonhuman animals may have languages. but with no reference to an increase in production. These scholars claim that democratically-elected leaders who implemented such policies would be removed from office by consumers who do not perceive limited consumption to be a social benefit (lines 712). D: See the explanation for choice C. cumulative learning experience” (lines 22-23). B: The first set of scholars described in the passage believes that democracy and economic growth are incompatible (lines 1-3). Thus. they propose holding down wages to force a reduction in consumption (lines 6-10). Passage VIII 53. but not that stability is absolutely necessary for development. and to pass on wisdom to current and future generations (lines 24-27). They do not. 21-23. language is a crucial part of culture (lines 20-24). 55. B: Yes. especially for developing nations (lines 16-19. The scenario of an unstable interventionist government is not inconsistent with the position described in the question. the author does not suggest that culture is a prerequisite for the existence of language. 32-34). Therefore. The author describes language as a vital aspect of culture in the context of discussing how culture allows us to “participate in a collective. A A: Yes. 16 . 36-38). D A: According to the passage. the author suggests that language too is unique to human animals. 54. best promotes necessary growth (lines 55-63). and that development is most likely to occur in the presence of political stability. D: The critics of the opinion cited in the question make no reference to decreased demand (see paragraph 5). C: The premises draw no direct connection between stability and intervention. some forms of consumption contribute both to investment surplus and human welfare. C: The critics of democracy do not see social benefits as necessary. however. In the fifth paragraph.

B: Only Ahura Mazda is eternal (lines 10-12). The scholars who argue that democracy limits growth claim that both a reduction in consumption (which would likely result when low-income people are forced to increase their savings) and political stability are necessary conditions for growth. The first view presented in the passage asserts that intensive state intervention in the economy comes first in the course of economic development. while citizen participation can only come later (lines 36-40). The scholars who argue that democracy is incompatible with economic growth claim that a necessary longterm reduction in consumption cannot occur in a democratic state. the author states that both primal spirits (Angra Mainyu and Ahura Mazda) deliberately chose between good and evil. the evil Angra Mainyu will be destroyed in the great battle between good and evil at the end of time (lines 21-23). C. 17 . 60. 58. The percentage of wages kept in savings accounts would not be available for consumption (spending). and yet those collectives were democratic in nature. Passage IX 59. D A: The world market has no direct relevance to this history. The history provided in the question indicates that the two can coexist. B: The passage indicates just the opposite. Those who believe democracy cannot coexist with economic growth base this belief in part on a claim that democracy opens up a regime to pressures from different groups in society. not a creation of Ahura Mazda. those who believe democracy holds back economic growth are more concerned with the economic development of the nation as a whole than with the concerns of individual groups within the nation (lines 1619). B: Yes. B A: According to this argument. A A: Yes. However. Thus this discovery would have no effect on the author’s argument. A A: Yes. C: As described in the passage. D: This choice misrepresents the relationship between consumption and democracy presented in the first half of the passage. C: Angra Mainyu is “equally uncreated” (lines 14-15). the scholars who believe democracy hurts growth. D: The author does not explicitly address this issue in the first half of the passage. This does not mean that forced limitations on consumption prevent democracy from developing. 57. as described here.56. The author never discusses what the views of these scholars might be regarding the protection of minority groups. and that the only way to increase this surplus is to limit consumption (lines 3-7). D: This is the belief of the Zurvanite heretics (lines 43-46). and D: The author draws no comparison between Indian and Babylonian conceptions of time (Indian conceptions are not mentioned in the passage) and does not claim that the Zurvanites were influenced only by Babylonian ideas. because the politicians who impose it will be voted out of office (lines 7-12). the state redistributed land and organized the collectives. An authoritarian regime would be less vulnerable to this kind of public pressure. B A. not of all Zoroastrians. it would be logically inconsistent for these scholars to claim that policies limiting consumption lead to instability. C: The new information in the question gives no evidence of a lack of investment. and that all persons are required to make the same choice. it is likely that the required percentage exceeds their current rate of savings. In lines 16-20. C: The passage indicates just the opposite—see the explanation for choice A. Thus. Note that these are low-income workers. The claim that democracy hampers economic growth is predicated in part on the belief that growth requires an investable surplus. D: Yes. as stated in choice B. making it difficult to maintain the stability necessary for development (lines 13-20). an authoritarian government does not need popular support (lines 7-12). do not appear to be concerned with the issue of fairness. B: We do not know from the story presented that China in the 1950s was politically unstable. and so would be available for investment (lines 5-6).

65. just that this claim was one of the “most striking elements” in his teaching (lines 27-29). This discovery would have no effect on the author’s position. just this one religion. B A: According to the author. Zoroaster predates the Orphic Greeks. The Zurvanites (who were converts to Zoroastrianism. it does not characterize Zoroastrianism as a whole. one group could have influenced the other. B: We know that Zoroastrianism did not maintain wholly consistent doctrines. the author moves on to a new issue. as it gave rise to the Zurvanite heresy. it is simply asserted as a fact (lines 29-33). B: Yes. (lines 26-27).. B: The author suggests that the Zurvanite conception of time as a sentient being was based in Babylonian speculations that time is cyclical. C: This is a different issue.e. The author discusses Zoroaster’s fundamental doctrine of separateness to demonstrate the heretical nature of the Zurvanites in lines 52-56. C: Yes. The author very strongly argues that the Zurvanites committed “a deep and grievous heresy” by claiming that the two primal beings were brothers (lines 52-56). 64.C. the Zurvanites would not in fact have “betrayed Zoroaster’s fundamental doctrine. 63. D: Yes.. C: Yes. Zoroaster lived between 1400 and 1200 B. Therefore. D: See the explanation for choice C. The passage gives no clue as to whether or not other religions did so. roughly 6 to 8 centuries before the existence of the Orphic Greeks. 62. The author describes the teachings of Zoroaster in the first two and a half paragraphs. D: Yes. lines 25-27) interpreted Zoroaster’s writings in a way that was inconsistent with Zoroaster’s own beliefs (lines 40-43). This is the basis of the author’s accusation of heresy. and so unending (lines 29-35). D A: The passage tells us nothing about all religions. this is a separate issue. An early Zurvanite denial that history has an end (i. existing eternally” (lines 9-12). a claim that history and time do not end) would strengthen. it is impossible that the Orphic Greeks had an influence on Zoroaster. free will. The author discusses the utter separateness of the primal spirits later in the passage in the discussion of the Zurvanite heresy (lines 52-56). D: Again.C. C A: The Zurvanites and the Orphic Greeks both existed in the 6th century B. religious doctrines. The author does not give any explicit support for the claim that the Zurvanites were familiar with the Babylonian idea of time. thus violating Zoroaster’s tenet that the two were completely “distinct by origin and nature” (lines 52-56). Thus. B: This choice is also too limited. Therefore. and certainly not of all. 18 . With the word “moreover” in line 56. C A: The author does not claim that Zoroaster was the first to proclaim the end of history. Zoroaster’s teaching was unprecedented because he proclaimed Ahura Mazda as the “one uncreated god. D A: This choice is too narrow to serve as the main point.” D: The author does not argue that Zoroaster had no premonitory inkling of what heresies were to come. not weaken the author’s argument. The rest of the passage explains how the Zurvanites heretically broke with those teachings. C: This is the view of the Zurvanite heretics (lines 37-40). If Zoroaster himself made this claim. B: See the explanation for choice A. it is not inconceivable that he had some influence on them. The Zurvanite’s believed that Ahura Mazda and Angra Mainyu were twins from the same father. This discovery would not be inconsistent with the passage. The author mentions Zoroaster’s vision as part of the introductory description of how the religion came into being (lines 3-7). C: There is no discussion in the passage of justification of any. The origin and nature of Zoroastrian religion are described in order to set the stage for the author’s discussion of the Zurvanite heresy.61.

0. we conclude that the attractive molecular forces between surfaces were weakest between wood surfaces.001 m3. the acceleration of the sliding block. Therefore. which means µs = (sin θ)/(cos θ) = tan θ. And whether the base area is 0. (While choices B. but not on its base area. 19 . then the force of static friction just before the block begins to slide has magnitude µsmg cos θ. And even though choice D is a true statement. The gravitational force on the sliding block does zero work since it’s perpendicular to the displacement of the sliding block. 68.002 m3.001 m3.001 m3. since static friction attains its maximum strength just before the block starts to slide. 0.068 kg.055 kg. we’re interested here only in the behavior of the pure compound. a = Fnet/m. However. D. electronegativity is reserved for an individual atom (not a molecule) and its propensity for attracting electrons when forming a bond with another atom. Since the threshold mass was smallest for the wood block.PHYSICAL SCIENCES Passage I 66. If this angle is θ. the threshold mass for the stone block is the same: 0. The experiment described in the passage measures the minimum mass that must be placed on the hook to get the block to begin sliding. or 0. part of the experiment has a steel block sliding on a wooden board. where m is the mass of the block. the threshold mass for the wood block is essentially the same: 0. in the gaseous phase. 70.003 m3. 71. A compound’s boiling point depends on the strength of its intermolecular forces and the ability of its molecules to enter the gaseous state from the liquid state. 72. the static friction force should be smaller with any block material. by measuring the angle that the board makes with the horizontal. So. it does not answer the question: the N2 and O2 molecules will still contain a triple bond and double bond. static friction) depends on the type of material the block on the table is composed of. its gravitational potential energy decreases and is converted to kinetic energy. and the force of kinetic friction does negative work. or 0. Whether the base area is 0.002 m3. therefore. Choice B is eliminated since. If the wooden board on which the blocks slide is coated with lubricant. the researchers can determine the coefficient of static friction: µs = tan θ.003 m3. A. they don’t answer the question. First. the researchers will want to measure the angle at which the block starts to slide down. 67. The experiment described in the passage does not have metal surfaces in contact. whether the base area is 0. Just before the block slides. for one thing. Since FT remains constant (as we’re told in the question). 0. or 0. To do the same thing by tipping the board. so the answer is A. so µsmg cos θ = mg sin θ. According to the data in Table 1. 69. where FT is the tension in the string. the threshold mass for the steel block is the same: 0. D. and the gravitational force on the block has magnitude mg sin θ. We can conclude that the threshold mass (and.003 m3. C. The net force on the sliding block is FT – Ff. A. is constant. The force of kinetic friction on the sliding block has magnitude Ff = µmg. But once again. C. The lone pair of electrons on the nitrogen atom in NH3 is donated to the transition metal cation to form a coordinate covalent bond. Choice A is eliminated since the reactivity of a compound with other compounds is irrelevant. B. both of the falling mass and of the wooden block on the table.002 m3.) 74. As the mass on the hook falls. C. A. since a compound’s boiling point does not depend on its ability to form bonds with atoms of another compound. we’d expect the threshold mass would decrease in all cases. This procedure allows the researchers to deduce the maximum force of static friction between the various blocks and the wooden board. we can eliminate choice A.049 kg. Therefore. respectively. This force remains constant while the block slides. D. the concept of electronegativity does not apply here. the tension in the string does positive work. and D are all true statements. Passage II 73. these forces balance. which means its speed will increase linearly with time (v = at). the net force on the block is also constant.

The original situation given in the question has the transmitter and receiver moving away from each other at 300 m/s. 83. First. by definition. 82. Look at Table 2. more NH3 should be formed. consuming NH3. we’d expect the change in frequency to be between –1. Fractional distillation separates the components of a mixture by their boiling points. Sulfur has a molecular weight of just 32. consuming NH3. The answer must be D: If the receiver moves at 300 m/s toward the jet. so increasing the temperature will cause the equilibrium to shift to the left. If the change in λ increases. “change in λ. Therefore. or light waves). There is nothing in the passage to support the statement in D. 20 . while the radio waves used in these experiments have frequencies in the millions of hertz. therefore. then the velocity of either one is zero with respect to the other. then their relative velocity of separation will be greater than the velocity of the jet itself. so. C. and the relative velocities of the transmitters and receivers in these experiments are hundreds of meters per second. The key to answering this Doppler Effect question is to find a situation in which the transmitter and receiver have the same relative velocity. so does the change in λ (and vice versa).68 Hz (the values for f = 2. a significant fraction of the speed of sound but only a miniscule fraction of the speed of radio waves. Of the choices given only the graph in choice A increases. Therefore.75. Sound waves have frequencies of less than 20. –2. B is false (and. This immediately rules out choice C. We can also rule out choices A and B: If the receiver is moving in the opposite direction as the jet. the frequency received is higher than the frequency emitted. We can therefore think of heat as a product. A. f. According to Reaction I. 84. If there is no relative velocity. Since the reaction begins with 32 g of O2 (which is 1 mole of O2).00 × 106 Hz and 3. In each case. 76. so is C). the reaction could consume one mole of S atoms. 81. D. of 2. First.” the graph should increase. C. so our task is to find another situation in which the transmitter and receiver are also separating at a relative velocity of 300 m/s. the addition of a reactant will shift the equilibrium to the right. B.2 Hz. Of the choices given. It is a true statement (since radio waves travel at the speed of light). the magnitude of the “Change in f ” increases as f increases. D. We see that as the speed increases. 77. in this case. so does the change in λ. A. Since the wavelength received is shorter than the wavelength emitted. it is the limiting reagent. Since a frequency. D. eliminate choice D. We always associate a frequency shift upward with relative motion toward (whether it’s with sound waves. Choice B is wrong since a decrease in pressure will cause the reaction to favor the side with the greater number of gas molecules. f and λ were constant. Only choice C. Passage III 78. By Le Châtelier’s principle. 79.1 g/mol.000 Hz. adding a catalyst to a reaction that’s already at equilibrium will have no effect. so having 36 g of S means that there will be some unreacted sulfur. Choice C is wrong since Reaction IV is exothermic (∆H is negative). the equilibrium would be shifted to the left. there is no Doppler shift.00 × 106 Hz. only choice D could explain relative motion toward.00 × 106 Hz and 3.79 Hz and –2. Look again at Table 2: As the speed increases. the distance between adjacent peaks increases. radio waves. eliminate choices B and C. 80. so the best response is A. only the speed with which the transmitter moves away is varied. A. The most volatile compound— the one with the lowest boiling point—will be isolated first. which is 600 m/s.5 × 106 Hz is between 2. one mole of O2 molecules reacts with one mole of sulfur atoms to form one mole of SO2. if we graph speed vs. Since all the O2 has already been consumed. According to the data in Table 1. so. if H2 is added.00 × 106 Hz. A. falls in this range. then the jet is moving away from the receiver at a relative velocity of only 600 – 300 = 300 m/s. respectively). then the wavelength received also increases. If the transmitting and receiving jets are flying side by side.

is already in a –4 (its lowest) oxidation state and won’t be reduced further in a reaction with water. so it is the anode. C. Oxygen is reduced in Equation 1. the object experiences an apparent loss of weight of (5 grams)(g). C. at STP (P2 = 760 mmHg and T2 = 0°C = 273 K). Note: Choice C is false since hydrogen is in a +1 oxidation state in CH4 and thus not in its lowest oxidation state. and the voltage drop across. we have 450 Pa = P0 + ρg(10 cm). D. Now. which is in turn proportional to the number of electrons that flow through it [I = Q/t = (ne)/t]. Therefore. OH– ions would not be produced. so the pressure at depth h below the surface of the second liquid is given by the formula P = (50 Pa) + (80 Pa/cm)(h).1ρ H2O 21 . substituting this result into the first equation gives 250 Pa = 50 Pa + ρg(5 cm).7ρ H2O ) = 2. 92. the researcher would think that the oxygen concentration is greater than it actually is (since “the oxygen concentration is proportional to the potential”). When h = 10 cm. The pressure at depth h below the surface of a liquid is P = P0 +ρgh. its oxidation state decreasing from 0 (in O2) to –2 (in OH–). If we multiply both sides of the first equation by 2. Let V be the volume of the object. C. which we’re told is 15 grams. so ρobjectV = 15 grams. the resistor R. totally submerged).” Therefore. so the buoyant force on the object must have magnitude (5 grams)(g).] If we now have a liquid with twice the density of the first. so Equation 3 would not occur. the cadmium electrode must be the site of oxidation. reduction occurs at the silver electrode (immediately eliminating choice D).000. we get 50 Pa = P0. thus increasing the current in. [You can check that this formula works for all the entries in the table given with the question. Since P = 250 Pa when h = 5 cm. B. The buoyant force on the object is given by the expression ρfluidVg (note that Vsub = V since the object is immersed. we get 500 Pa = 2P0 + ρg(10 cm). then more electrons would be produced (as a result of Equation 3 which follows from a reaction similar to Equation 1). At T1 = 30°C = 303 K and P1 = 756 mmHg. So. 89. The carbon atom in CH4. A. Independent Questions 90. the volume of the gas is V2 = V1 ⋅ P 756 mmHg 273 K (10)(756)(273) 1 T2 ⋅ = (10 L) ⋅ ⋅ = L P2 T1 760 mmHg 303 K (760)(303) 87. According to the passage. C. The “millivolt recorder” simply measures the voltage drop across the resistor R. so ρfluidV = 5 grams. which is proportional to the current I through it (V = IR). where P0 is the pressure on the surface (which is Patm if the container is open to the atmosphere) and ρ is the density of the liquid. then ρ′g = (2ρ)g = 2(ρg) = 2(40 Pa/cm) = 80 Pa/cm. so ρg = 200 Pa/5 cm = 40 Pa/cm. The combination of (stoichiometric amounts of) a strong acid with a weak base will leave the aqueous solution the most acidic and thus with the lowest pH. P = (50 Pa) + (40 Pa/cm)(h). Therefore. the voltage drop would be greater than what it would be if only oxygen were present. and no current would flow through R for the voltmeter to register. we have V1 = 10 L. and since P = 450 Pa when h = 10 cm. Since the object “suffers an apparent loss of 5 grams” when immersed. 88. that is.000 parts per million. Therefore. We can now combine these equations to find that ρobject V ρ fluid V = 15 grams 5 grams ⇒ ρobject ρ fluid = 3 ⇒ ρ object = 3ρ fluid = 3ρ benzene = 3(0. thus decreasing the accuracy of the oxygen determination. however. and “the electrochemical reaction is completed at the cadmium electrode. and then subtracting the second equation from this one. If another gas were in the stream that also undergoes a reduction similar to that of oxygen gas. (5 grams)(g) = ρfluidVg. we have 250 Pa = P0 + ρg(5 cm). Multiplying both the numerator and denominator of this fraction by 104 = 10.Passage IV 85. 91. Use the Combined Gas law: P1V1/T1 = P2V2/T2. D. The mass of the object is ρobjectV. we see that 1% = 104/106 = 10. Therefore. As a result. this formula gives P = (50 Pa) + (80 Pa/cm)(10 cm) = 850 Pa. One percent is equal to 1/100. 86.

A. The passage states that a white dwarf has the same mass. dividing this by 2 L. As a result. B.2 mol)/(2 L) = 0. 98. A small amount of additional heat energy absorbed by the sample will thus melt some of it. 99. the molarity determined for the NaOH(aq) solution would be too high. the result is C7H4ClO2–. D. [Since the solid NaOH dissolved spontaneously in solution. choices C and D are eliminated. M. To find the conjugate base of chlorobenzoic acid. ∆H must be negative for Equation 1. since the acid is diprotic. pH > 7). Since an aqueous solution of a dissolved solute has greater disorder than the separate pure solid NaOH(s) and pure liquid H2O(l). By equating mg with GMm/r2. it is ready to undergo a phase transition from solid to liquid. more base will be required to neutralize this acid than if the acid were only monoprotic. Passage V 94. the value of g = GM/r2 is much greater at the surface of a white dwarf than at the surface of the Sun.1 kg sample of metal is held over the flame for only a “fraction of a second.5 × 10 −3 g mol M 204. we see that the gravitational field strength. the student will derive a value that’s greater than the true value. and nothing in the passage supports choice C or D. so A is a better response than B. The passage states that the instructor “prepared a solution of NaOH(aq) by dissolving 8 g of NaOH(s) (MM = 40.2 g mol 200 g mol 400 4 100 95. so Item I is true. Since the temperature of a compound remains constant during a phase change. so Item III is also true. If the KHP sample contains water. simply remove an H+.93. the number of moles of KHP present in the sample of KHP used by Student A is n= m 0.” Eight grams of NaOH(s) thus represents 8/40 = 1/5 = 0. Therefore. Since the temperature rose during the mixing process. Therefore. Using Equation 2. At the equivalence point of the titration of a weak acid by a strong base. And.5 g 1 1 1 = ≈ = g mol = × g mol = 0. g. Choice C says it best: The kinetic energy of the gas from the ordinary companion star that collides completely inelastically with the surface of the white dwarf becomes heat energy. A. the student would then conclude that more NaOH is needed to reach the equivalence point (since the student derived a greater-than-actual value for the number of moles of KHP). choice A is the answer.1 mol/L = 0. Since the metal is at its exact melting point.] 96.55 g 0.1 M. where M is the mass of the star and r is its radius.00) in 2 L of H2O. and Table 2 shows that Student A had 0. then the mass of the sample will be greater than the mass of the KHP alone. not triprotic. 102. r. as the Sun. we find that [NaOH] = (0. 97. 22 . when the student uses this to calculate the number of moles of KHP in the sample. C. momentum is not converted to energy. The passage gives the molar mass of KHP as M = 204. It is safe to assume that if the 0. A.” there won’t be enough heat energy to melt all of it. since all three hypotheses include the fact that the white dwarf does experience nuclear fusion. because the number of moles of KHP used in the calculation is greater than the actual number of moles of KHP titrated. 100. This eliminates choices B and D. the answer must be C. This statement is equivalent to choice A. Nothing in the passage supports choice A or B.55 g of KHP. C. A. since momentum is conserved in the collision and. eliminate choices C and D: According to the formula given in Table 1. Passage VI 101. the value of ∆G must be negative for this reaction. First. not A. Choice D must be eliminated. but a much smaller radius. at the surface of a star is given by the formula g = GM/r2. but the temperature will not change. Choice B is false. D. Therefore. the solution is basic (that is. so the answer must be B. Thus.2 g/mol. which is why Item II is false. HC7H4ClO2. in addition. C.2 mol. succinic acid is diprotic. Since M is the same but r is much smaller for a white dwarf.25 × 10 −2 g mol = 2. the entropy increased during the mixing process.

3 Ag+(aq) + Al(s) → 3 Ag(s) + Al3+(aq) 3 Ag+(aq) + 3e– → 3 Ag(s) Al(s) → Al3+(aq) + 3e– E° = +0.34 V E° = +1. B. 104. Therefore. While choices B and C are both true.66 V Balancing the electrons in these reactions.5 g/mol.25 L) = 2 M.34 V) gives a cell voltage of +1. The oxidation of Zn(s) has a potential of +0. then the concentration is (0.66 V E° = +2. Consider each molecule of Fe2(SO4)3 as composed of 2 Fe3+ cations and 3 SO42– anions. The best response is D: The “runaway” (that is. eliminate choices A and C: Fusion of bare nuclei is not the same as bonding of atoms containing electrons. First. B. the cell voltage must be positive (Ecell > 0 ⇒ ∆G < 0 ⇒ spontaneous). The electrical repulsion is much lower between a pair of single protons than between a pair of 6-proton nuclei. And choice D is false. and therefore should move much faster. D. D. D. Thus.46 V Since pure solids are omitted from the equilibrium and reaction-quotient expressions. the half-reactions must be reduction: oxidation: Ag+(aq) + e– → Ag(s) Al(s) → Al3+(aq) + 3e– E° = +0. very rapid) nature of the fusion reaction would be manifested by a sudden. a mass of 29. B. the compound is iron(III) sulfate. cast doubt on this statement.103. they don’t answer the question. than carbon nuclei at the same temperature.25 L. iron(III)—eliminating choices A and B. the second sentence in the paragraph describing Hypothesis III would. The following balanced nuclear reactions show that decay of either 56Ni or 56Co is accompanied by the emission of 56 0 + 56 0 + (that is. on average.10 V 107. e+: 56 and 56 28 Ni → 27 Co + +1 e 27 Co → 26 Fe + +1 e 105. If this is present in an aqueous solution of volume 250 mL = 0.10 V.80 V E° = +1. while each carbon nucleus contains six protons. 108. since hydrogen nuclei (which are simply protons) are much lighter than carbon nuclei. large increase in brightness. C.5 mol)/(0. because each hydrogen nucleus is only a single proton. which is the measurement made by Student 3: oxidation: reduction: Zn(s) → Zn2+(aq) + 2e– 2+ – Cu (aq) + 2e → Cu(s) Cu2+(aq) + Zn(s) → Cu(s) + Zn2+(aq) E° = +0. Since the molar mass of the white solid used by Student 4 is 58. we have Q= [Al 3+ ] [Ag + ]3 23 . Since the reaction is spontaneous. Passage VII 106. iron is in a +3 oxidation state—that is. we multiply the reduction half-reaction by 3 (but not its potential!): reduction: oxidation: Giving the overall reaction. 109.76 V E° = +0. Since SO42– is sulfate (SO32– is sulfite). Combining this with the reduction of Cu2+ (E° = +0. both 56Ni and 56Co undergo β+ decay).5 mol of the solid. if anything.76 V (reverse the reaction given in Table 2).25 g represents 0.80 V E° = +1. a positron. The answer must be B: It is easier to fuse two hydrogen nuclei (two protons) than two carbon nuclei. As for choice A.

g/mol and that of H2O is 18 g/mol.5 g L 101. if we plot conductance vs. and 1 mole of O atoms. we find that the partial pressure of H2O(g) in the product mixture is pH 2 O = XH 2 O ⋅ ptotal = 2 3 ⋅ (1.49 M. Independent Questions 115. which is equivalent to 22. So. either K+ or NO3–. any of these added to a saturated solution of KNO3 would cause precipitation of crystals. The balanced reaction is CH4(g) + 2 O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2 H2O(g). the fact that the student’s solution and the 2. Therefore. the solute concentration of the KNO3(aq) solution is 226. hydrogen.5 g/L. the KNO3(aq) point should be to the left of the NaCl(aq) point in the plot. D.) 117. However. 2. if the length of the pipe is 1 m. 1 g. we find that λ = 2 m. Since each mole of KNO3 contains 6. respectively. molarity. (Note that choices C and D can be eliminated immediately since they’re not empirical formulas. Therefore. and oxygen have molar masses of 12 g. Each of the compounds in choices A. By the common-ion effect. the mole fraction of KNO3 in the solution is XKNO 3 = nKNO 3 nKNO 3 + nH 2 O = ( ( 226. So.02 × 1023) ≈ 1.241 moles of KNO3 contain (2.Passage VIII 110. has no common ion with KNO3 and would not cause precipitation.1 L (= 100 mL). and D contains a common ion with KNO3—that is. D.3 × 1024 K+ ions. C. B.2 torr) = 0. Since carbon. the formula for this compound must be CH2O. Since the concentration of the KNO3(aq) solution is 2. the student’s 1-liter solution contains 2. 24 . Since this must be equal to λ/2.5 g/L and whose H2O concentration is 906. D. Thus. And since the molarity of the student’s solution is less than that of the NaCl(aq) solution.241 moles of KNO3. An empirical formula contains the smallest whole number subscripts that have the same ratio as the subscripts on the atoms in the compound’s actual molecular formula.65 g in 0. 113. 112. C. According to Table 1. B. then both ends are displacement antinodes (A). 114. 2 moles of H atoms. the mole fraction of H2O(g) in the product mixture is nH 2 O 2 2 XH 2 O = = = nCO 2 + nH 2 O 1 + 2 3 Applying Dalton’s law. NH4Cl. The distance from one antinode to the adjacent antinode on a standing wave is always equal to one-half the wavelength. A. C.5 g L 101.8 torr 116. Therefore.1 g/L (see Table 1).02 × 1023 K+ ions. The simplest standing wave—the fundamental standing wave—must therefore have a node (N) in the center of the pipe: A N A. eliminating Points A and C.1 g L 18 g mol 111.241 M. Choice C. the distance from one antinode to the other antinode on the fundamental standing wave is 1 m. in a 1 L solution whose KNO3 concentration is 226.241 M solution has a condosity of 2. and 16 g. According to the data in Table 1. The molar mass of KNO3 is 101. the answer must be Point D.241) × (6.1 g mol 226.49 M NaCl(aq) solution have the same conductance means that they’d lie on the same horizontal line in the plot. If the pipe is open at both ends. the sample described in the question contains 1 mole of C atoms. The passage states that the condosity of a solution is the molar concentration of sodium chloride that has the same conductance as the solution. the student’s KNO3(aq) 2.1 g mol )(1 L) )(1 L) )(1 L) + ( 906.

then the voltage drops. First. there is no reason to believe (or evidence to support) the extraordinary contention that the total potential energy of the continents before the collision was equal to their total potential energy afterwards. to obtain an accurate dating. Then. it is measuring the relative amount of parent and daughter nuclei that is critical. so there was no impulse before the collision. The total momentum of the colliding objects is conserved in a collision. C. We’re told that “the age of the rock can be determined by measuring the amount of radioactive potassium in the rock and the amount of its decay product. The following balanced nuclear reaction 40 0 + shows that the decay of 40K is accompanied by the emission of a positron. 119. By Newton’s Third law. The rate at which the charge builds is not steady. there was no contact force between the continents before their collision. Newton’s Third law says nothing about mass. the half-life of carbon-14 is only about 5700 years. argon gas in the sample. But these continents did not cleanly bounce of each other: The formation of the mountain ranges in North America and Africa tells us that. energy (in either form) is not necessarily conserved. so radiocarbon dating is not a reliable method for determining the age of specimens (such as rocks) that are hundreds of millions of years old. charge begins to build up on the capacitor plates. since impulse is force multiplied by time. the wave in a rope does not transfer rope particles from one end of the rope to the other. because we’re “fighting against” the electric field in the capacitor created by the charge that’s already there. once the voltage is turned off. For example. Mechanical waves transport momentum and energy from one point to another. we know that energy was not conserved. but not to the magnitude of the force the continents exert on each other. on the other hand.118.) 25 . then by Conservation of Momentum.] The second paragraph contains the clue to answering this question. The second paragraph of the passage tells us that 40K is radioactive. The passage states that the daughter nucleus of the decay of 40K is 40Ar. However. Radiocarbon dating is used only for artifacts that are at most tens of thousands of years old. researchers would want the decay product to be trapped in the rock since its formation. where the objects simply bounce of each other. A. (The masses of the continents are relevant to their resulting accelerations. Passage IX 120. As for potential energy (gravitational. e+: 40 19 K → 18 Ar + +1 e . we have m1v1 + m2v2 = (m1 + m2)v′. [Radiocarbon (carbon-14) dating. Also. Thus. 122. When the voltage is turned on. does require the presence of organic material. 121. but gradually decreases. It makes no sense to say that impulse (choice D) was conserved. is kinetic energy conserved. If the continents stick together after the collision. at a rate that decreases with time. Since the voltage between the capacitor plates is proportional to the charge (Q = CV). so v′ = (m1v1 + m2v2)/(m1 + m2). only in elastic collisions. so all of it can be measured to determine how much decay has occurred. A. and water waves created thousands of miles offshore do not transport water that distance. so no organic material need be present to use this type of radioactive dating procedure to ascertain the age of the rock. the charge gradually leaks off.” Clearly then. Choice B is eliminated because it says “any gases” (only the relative amounts of potassium and argon gas are necessary for this procedure). and nothing in the passage supports choice D. Collisions conserve the momentum of the system. B. This is shown in graph A. since it’s more difficult to place additional charge on a capacitor that already has some charge. also with a rate that decreases with time. So. but they do not cause particles of the medium to travel great distances. the voltage between Points A and B will exhibit the same behavior as the charge on the capacitor. D. A. the force that the first continent exerts on the second continent is equal in magnitude to the force that the second continent exerts on the first. 123. the voltage rises. B. we can eliminate choice A. supposedly). 124. quickly at first and then more slowly near the end.

all of the photoelectron’s energy after its release from the cathode is its electrical potential energy. the electric field between the plates points to the left in Figure 1. that carries a current I is given by the equation P = I2R. A. 26 . directed to the right. C. moving across the gap toward the anode. Since the difference between the second ionization energy and the third is so large. 133. the distance between the plates. X is a Group 2 element. So. more electrons will be ejected. This energy is then converted to kinetic energy as the electron accelerates across the gap to the anode. B. and oxygen a negative charge in the oxide. that is. then the maximum kinetic energy of each ejected electron is equal to Ephoton – φ. Therefore. oxygen should have a much greater electron density than X in the oxide molecule. So. Each photon with energy above the metal’s work function that is absorbed by the metal surface will eject an electron. So. 130. This is also consistent with the statement in the passage that the oxide is an ionic compound. 127. “the potential difference between the cathode and anode is approximately equal to the battery voltage. 131. Increasing the frequency of each incident photon increases the energy of each incident photon. Passage XI 132. so choices A and D may be eliminated. Molarity is equal to moles of solute divided by liters of solution. at the intermediate temperature of 1200°C. X must be melted and thus a liquid.Passage X 125. it’s reasonable to conclude that element X has two valence electrons. it is an alkaline earth metal. C. If we know the density of the saturated solution in. each absorbed photon can cause the ejection of only a single electron. there is very little energy left over as kinetic energy of the electron. V = 50 V. Therefore. C. Because the electron feels a force to the right.] 136. Since the electron is ejected by a photon whose energy is only slightly greater than the work function of the metal. 128. 135. If the ejected electrons have more kinetic energy. say. B. It is reasonable to conclude that the oxide of X under study is a neutral molecule. The third ionization energy is so high because an electron is being removed from a +2 cation with a noble-gas configuration. Since oxygen has a much greater electronegativity than X (according to Table 2). 134. in fact. so the answer must be C (hydrogen gas). if more such photons strike the cathode. if Ephoton is increased. we should increase L. This eliminates choices A and B. 129. B. [Note: Oxygen is not flammable since it does not reaction with oxygen to produce heat. we’re told that E = V/L. we’ll get: (grams/L) ÷ (grams/mol solute) = mol solute/L. The force on the electron is FE = qE = eE. The passage states that the evolved gas is flammable. B. grams per liter of solution. Therefore. First.” However. The net movement of charge through an element in a circuit—which occurs here when an electron moves from the cathode to the anode—is the definition of current. According to the data in Table 1. the element X has a melting point of 839°C and a boiling point of 1484°C. So. R. D. If φ denotes the cathode metal’s work function (which is a constant for each metal). to decrease E. so increasing the energy of each photon will not change the number of electrons ejected (only changing the number of incident photons would do that). it will accelerate to the right. 126. The power dissipated by a resistor. we expect X to have a positive charge. A. which is the molarity. As the passage states. Since R = 100 Ω. Since the cathode is negatively charged and the anode is positively charged. However. Changing R will not affect the voltage between the electrodes. eliminate choices C and D. then so will KEmax for the ejected electrons. the electric field between the electrodes does depend on L. B. A. the power dissipated when I = 10–3 A is P = (10–3 A)2(100 Ω) = (10–6 × 102) W = 10–4 W. then if we divide this by the known molar mass of the solute (in grams per mole of solute). they’ll have a greater speed.

B. 141. so o must be at least 150 cm. And choice D is wrong. This means that the total amount of current in the parallel combination is 2 A + 1 A = 3 A. 27 . Choice A is eliminated since it’s too general: An electron may change its orbit by moving into a higher-energy orbit. D. A. “Fusion” means melting. B. the voltage drop across the 4 Ω resistor must also be 4 V. 142. The question tells us that this distance. then log[H3O+] = –6. the total distance from the person to his or her image is o + i = o + o = 2o. an electron must absorb energy. 140.Independent Questions 137. 2o. and this would occur at the point where the pipe diameter is greatest. so this must have been the current in the 3 Ω resistor. C. since to move to an orbit of larger radius. Choice B is also eliminated: An object (such as an electron) in a circular orbit is always undergoing acceleration. The speed v is lowest at the point where the cross-sectional area is greatest. is equal to the object distance in front of the mirror. but this process would correspond to an absorption. If the current through the 2 Ω resistor is 2 A. For a plane mirror. where A is the cross-sectional area of the pipe. v. B. According to Bernoulli’s Equation. The answer is C. i. is lowest. 139. but in the Bohr model. must be at least 300 cm. we use the Continuity Equation. 138. The pH of a solution is equal to –log [H3O+]. and the heat of fusion is the amount of heat absorbed when a substance is transformed from the solid to the liquid phase. this type of charge acceleration does not cause energy to be radiated. To find the point of minimum flow speed. Therefore. Therefore. Since the 4 Ω resistor is in parallel with the 2 Ω resistor. the current through the 4 Ω resistor is I = V/R = (4 V)/(4 Ω) = 1 A. the image distance behind the mirror. o (disregarding the sign convention that merely tells us that the image formed by a plane mirror is behind the mirror and is virtual). then the voltage drop across this 2 Ω resistor is V = IR = (2 A) × (2 Ω) = 4 V. If this is equal to 6. fluid pressure in a horizontal pipe is highest where the flow speed. not radiation of energy. which says that Av is constant. so [H3O+] = 10–6 M.

and this is described in the question as a passive mechanism (choices B. D. this in turn would promote the movement of water out of the cell by osmosis (cellular dehydration). Furthermore. 147. The interconnected ganglia of the sympathetic system allow for rapid systemic response. The type of neurotransmitter released is irrelevant (choices B and D. Hyperglycemia is high extracellular or plasma glucose levels. it can rapidly stimulate all ganglia in the system. 144. 146. 148. suppression of this hormone could not lead to hyperglycemia (choice B can be eliminated). Acetylcholine is the parasympathetic neurotransmitter. it is oxidized and the energy released is stored in the form of ATP. Since atropine is preventing acetylcholine (the normal parasympathetic neurotransmitter) from binding to its receptor. is a parasympathetic effect. osmosis is a passive process and does not require an energy source (choice A can be eliminated). 150. 145. Glucagon has the opposite effect of insulin. While excess glucagon could certainly lead to hyperglycemia. A. glucose is never used directly as an energy source. and C all describe sympathetic effects. the fibers that reduce the heart rate are parasympathetic fibers (choice A can be eliminated). while true. Passage II 149. A. excess insulin could not — the hormones have opposite effects (choice D is eliminated). sensory fibers only pick up information from an organ and send it to the brain. parasympathetic effects must turn off faster than sympathetic effects.” Acetylcholinesterase breaks down acetylcholine. and D can be eliminated). The passage implies that tissue glucose increases. Any nerve fiber that causes an effect on an organ is a motor fiber. would cause constriction of the pupil (choices C and D can be eliminated). First. Physostigmine in this case is acting as an “inhibitor of an inhibitor. Thus nerve fibers that cause cardiac slowing must be motor fibers (choices B and D can be eliminated). C. A. If physostigmine inhibits acetylcholinesterase. C. so suppressing insulin secretion could lead to higher plasma glucose. nor does water cross the plasma membrane through “ion exchange pumps” (choice B can be eliminated).BIOLOGICAL SCIENCES Passage I 143. C. 28 . B. The question states that morphine increases parasympathetic impulse traffic to the iris. thus if it is removed from circulation faster than norepinephrine (the sympathetic neurotransmitter). This makes C a better choice than D. but whether this occurs by exchange with water molecules is not clear. it is blocking the effects of the parasympathetic system. then acetylcholine would not be degraded. If this process were slowed. thus decreasing its levels. Choice C is true. Insulin’s job is to reduce plasma glucose levels. stimulation of digestive secretion. Lastly. In any case. The passage states that the effect of acetylcholine on the pupil is to cause constriction (choice B can be eliminated). and would be inactivated the fastest. because if one ganglion gets stimulated. and would support the hypothesis. it could not cause hyperglycemia (choice C can be eliminated). Choices A. Specifically. do not answer the question and can be eliminated). If the ganglia are not interconnected. Glucose released from the liver into the plasma comes from the catabolism (breakdown) of glycogen. and its levels would rise (choices A and C can be eliminated). and this. this is not possible (choice D can be eliminated). Choice D may or may not be true. Its job is to raise plasma glucose. Additional glucose molecules would raise the osmotic pressure (think “concentration”) of the extracellular space. only choice D. the passage states that acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter released by the parasympathetic system at the organ level (choice B can be eliminated). as in the parasympathetic system. as indicated in the last paragraph of the passage. A. D. increased sensitivity of all pancreatic endocrine responses would lead to increased levels of both insulin and glucagon in the blood.

This eliminates choices C and D. Item II is true. so Item I is false and choice C can be eliminated. this occurs between 12 and 24 hours after the onset of freezing. Hippuric acid and diethylbarbituric acid are amides. D. as an energy source. Choice A might be tempting. D. It is most likely water soluble due to the hydrogen-bonding ability of its hydroxyl group. Thus. B. D. and that the primary mechanism by which this occurs is accelerated glucose release from glycogen stores in the liver. Therefore. they will all have a strong. Only choice C. 153. The fact that Compound A slowly dissolves in refluxing aqueous NaOH to result in the formation of two new compounds is consistent only with choice B. we can eliminate choices A and B. The question specifically asks for the relationship of a beating heart to the cryoprotective role of glucose. it seems that the most effective physiological condition for surviving freezing episodes would be to have ample liver glycogen stores (choice D is true. is an amine. Choice C is not discussed anywhere in the passage as being a method of surviving freezing. 162. B. While pure compounds typically have sharp melting points. A. Lymph is also extracellular. Choice A can be eliminated since the melting point of a mixture is never higher than that of the components of the mixture. not amines. Choices A. Of the choices given. Cytoplasm is intracellular fluid. Since all four compounds in Table 1 contain a C=O double bond. but simple dehydration in the absence of glucose is not described in the passage as a survival mechanism. Choice A is true and has the most relevance with respect to the question being asked. and choice B can be eliminated. a beating heart requires a constant supply of ATP. C. These data suggest that Compound C has both a basic and an acidic functional group. and that the rate of survival increased with increased glucose. D. The frog’s tissues would be forced to rely solely on anaerobic respiration once the heart stopped beating and no longer circulated blood and oxygen throughout the body. and choice A can be eliminated. 159. 4-aminobenzoic acid. However. only D contains both a basic (amine) and an acidic (carboxylic acid) functional group. Figure 2 shows that frogs injected with glucose had a much higher rate of survival than frogs injected with saline. Based on the graph of Heart Rate in Figure 1. 152. The passage states that Compound B is a water-soluble alcohol. B. The passage states that only extracellular water freezes. since temperature equilibration and a reduction in the rate of ice formation are not glucose-related. The passage states that Compound C is soluble in both dilute acid and base. Item III is true. C. 161. choices B and C can be eliminated on the basis of irrelevance. Blood plasma is extracellular. C. impure mixtures tend to melt over a broad temperature range. Thus it is clear that glucose has some cryoprotective role in frogs (choices C and D can be eliminated).151. the main “theme” of the passage is that wood frogs can survive freezing episodes by increasing their extracellular glucose concentrations. Passage III 156. Since three of the four compounds in Table 1 contain carboxylic acids. not glucose. An ester is hydrolyzed under such conditions to form a carboxylate and an alkoxide. They can only be distinguished by their molecular weights. 157. 29 . they cannot be unambiguously distinguished based on their melting points. but B is better). Choice D is just false. and D to some extent are true. B. since the role of the excess glucose is to cause cellular dehydration. A. Since all four compounds melt in the range of 183–191°C. 155. 154. they cannot be distinguished based on solubilities or reactivities toward alcohols. sharp band at 1700 cm–1 in their IR spectra. 158. 160.

at either synapse II or synapse III. A homozygous recessive genotype is required to exhibit a recessive trait. the “jobs” of E. The question asks for the number of individuals in the population that are carriers of this trait. they “carry” the allele. which bacteria do not have! (Choice B can be eliminated. B. p + q = 1. 168. It may be that one of the daughter cells failed to receive the plasmid that carried the genes for conjugation. Antibiotics do not lead to mutations in bacteria (choice A can be eliminated). and bacteria are prokaryotic and do not contain membranebound organelles like lysosomes (choice D can be eliminated). A. A. always remember that the phrase “randomly mating population” is a tip off for using Hardy–Weinberg in some way. the rate of reproduction has nothing to do with antibiotic sensitivity (choice C can be eliminated).) There is nothing in the passage to support choice C. coli in the large intestine are to produce vitamins and to reduce the growth of other. we find that p = 0. M. Of the choices given. Plugging in the values we obtained previously. the best answer is choice A. coli were resistant before treatment. 30 . pathogenic bacteria. coli that normally inhabit the colon could enter the abdominal cavity and cause serious problems (choice C is true. 172. actin will bind only to myosin molecules. It is most likely that. nor does their lack of pathogenicity (choice D). No digestive enzymes are produced by the bacteria.) 170. Carriers are those individuals heterozygous for the trait. we get 2pq = 2 × 0. the answer is choice C. in other words. The ability to produce more vitamins (choice B) or to metabolize glucose faster (choice C) do not affect E. an interneuron. so it can be eliminated.4 = 0. the E. although this is still a relatively unlikely possibility. are a sensory neuron. the value of q2 is 0. coli’s ability to reproduce. and modification of metabolism would not alter antibiotic sensitivity (choice D can be eliminated). However. In the equation for genotype frequency. N-1 has two covalent bonds and two lone pairs.4. However. due to random mutation. Independent Questions 169. they continued to reproduce. N-7 has four covalent bonds and is thus an ammonium ion and has a (+) charge. and choices B and D are false). q = 0.6 × 0. C. Beginning with the neuron that senses the painful stimulus. thus. plasmids may not be equally distributed among daughter cells. choice B is a better answer than C. C. ATP binds to myosin. 165. nor can bacteria develop an “immune reaction” to antibiotics. The persistence of an organism in any environment is determined primarily by the number of surviving offspring it can produce (A is true). First.16. An immune system is required for that. so it is similar to a deprotonated amine and has a (–) charge. Plugging this value for q into the equation for allele frequency. D. these are the “2pq” individuals. in order. but don’t express it because of their dominant allele. Choices B and C actually are equally likely to occur. during muscle contraction. A. (Don’t be tempted by choice A.Passage IV 163. so if it were to rupture. the neurons. Additional neurons could be placed anywhere around the interneuron (which is found in the central nervous system at the spinal cord level). The cell membrane has nothing to do with moving the replicated chromosomes apart (choice B can be eliminated). p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1.6. and a motor neuron. B. C. The appendix is found at the beginning of the colon.48. some of the patient’s E. thus 16% of the population is homozygous recessive. C. 166. 164. not appendicitis (choice A can be eliminated). In the equation for genotype frequency. antibiotics do not induce mutation (choice B can be eliminated). The passage states that the genes for conjugation are carried on a plasmid (choice A can be eliminated). since the passage specifically mentions vitamin production and does not mention reduced growth of other bacteria. not to actin. Since 48% of 1000 is 480. Of the choices given. 171. tuberculosis causes tuberculosis. or 48% of the population is made up of carriers. The question states that 160 members of a 1000-member population exhibit a specific recessive trait. and no nutrient absorption occurs in the colon (choices A and D can be eliminated). 167. the sensory information would have to be relayed to the brain and processed. In order to perceive the pain. Since they were not killed by the antibiotics. and that during cell division.

in other words. this also supports the stochastic view. and choice D does not seem to support either the deterministic view or the stochastic view. the organomercurial alcohols formed have the –OH and the Hg(OAc) groups trans on the ring. D. and they do not differentiate into other cell types (choice D is false). hydroboration–oxidation makes the less-substituted alcohol. Furthermore. we would quickly run out of blood cells. does not involve skeletal rearrangements. After Step 1. C. If the receptors are being expressed in response to specific signals. as this would allow it to produce cell types according to the specific needs of the new host. they are enantiomers. Therefore. A. B. The O–H stretch of alcohols occurs at 3500 cm–1 in IR spectra. they are not likely to be reversible. A.Passage V 173. Since Items II and III are two-step synthetic reactions. the greatest advantage would come from a totipotent stem cell that differentiated deterministically. as directed by the host’s hormones and other external signals (choice C can be eliminated). Passage VI 177. Therefore. this supports only the deterministic view (choice A can be eliminated). The development of hormone receptors on the cultured stem cells implies that their differentiation will be controlled by the hormones that bind there. 182. if they were not replaced continuously by stem-cell division and differentiation. Blood cells generally have short life spans. as shown below: HgOAc HgOAc H2O –H HgOAc OH2 OH 179. and as stated in the passage. Since the two isomeric organomercurial alcohols in Equation 2 are non-superimposable mirror images of each other. they do not exit the body through the urinary and digestive systems (choice C is false). While hydration and oxymercuration–demercuration make the more-substituted alcohol. Blood cells are stored in the spleen (choice B is false). and the number of cells remaining would be incompatible with life. 176. but is their differentiation random or controlled? Random differentiation supports the stochastic view (choice C can be eliminated). More rapid division (choice B) does not address the differentiation issue. then a totipotent stem cell (one that can differentiate into all cell types) needs to be introduced (choices A and B can be eliminated). C. 178. This reaction sequence places the –OH group on the less-substituted carbon atom of the C=C double bond. choice C is correct. this also supports the deterministic view (choice C can be eliminated). 174. C. A. the cells are dividing more rapidly. If all blood-cell types need to be replaced. Choice D does not seem to support either view. D. A. 31 . 181. Stem cells that express hormone receptors support the deterministic view. but if the expression of the receptors is random. 180. This relative stereochemistry is most likely achieved through the intermediate in choice A wherein the 3-membered ring is opened by H2O. 175. If hormone X causes the formation of erythrocytes. only choice A can be correct.

choice D fails to take into account the other major determinant of blood pressure. However. the passage describes it as one of the enzyme inhibitors that “were developed” (choice A can be eliminated). 190. and in any case NE is not ACh! (Choice A can be eliminated. this gives us no information about the role that the endothelium plays in response to ACh (choice D can be eliminated). and of course tension decreases during washout in the ring without endothelium. This only occurred in the ring with endothelium. 184. According to the passage. so this gives us no information about the role of the endothelium specifically. it is fair to say that the presence of endothelium caused at least a 10-fold increase in sensitivity of the aortic muscle. Since R is much larger than R′. Since concentrations of ACh above 10–6 M were not tested. 187. 185. The bond angle in an equilateral triangle is 60°. Passage VIII 189. Choice D is tempting because it mentions the two factors that determine cardiac output (heart rate and stroke volume) and we know that cardiac output is a major determinant of blood pressure. choice B can be eliminated. eliminating choices C and D. 32 . Furthermore. we cannot make any conclusions about NE’s effect on the smooth muscle’s sensitivity to ACh (choices A and B can be eliminated). choice B is the best response. the peripheral resistance. Since muscle relaxation occurred at 10–7 M ACh.) Tension decrease in both rings is approximately equal. The tension increases in both rings upon addition of NE (intact endothelium and damaged endothelium). C. B. A. not all the L-arginine consumed will be converted to NO. It would be most helpful in a situation where blood pressure was rapidly dropping and needed to be increased. Since both carbon atoms of the epoxide are equally substituted. and since the ring with endothelium responded to an ACh concentration of 10–7 M. and if anything. such as during a hemorrhage. has no effect at 10–8 M. This eliminates choice C. attack of Nu: will be primarily at the carbon bearing R′. While blood volume does play a role in blood pressure. the ring without endothelium was not sensitive at all to ACh at any concentration tested (choice D can be eliminated). A. Choice D can be eliminated because the passage states that the configuration of the carbon that is attacked by the nucleophile undergoes inversion. A. Since we have no data on the effects of ACh in the absence of NE. The fact that relaxation due to ACh only occurred in the ring with intact endothelium supports the conclusion that intact endothelium is necessary for this process. Vasoconstriction would lead to an increase in blood pressure (choice A can be eliminated) and a reduction in blood flow (choices B and C can be eliminated). not blood vessels (choices C and D can be eliminated). The two major factors that determine blood pressure are the cardiac output and the peripheral resistance. Still. This leaves choice A as the answer. is slower in the ring without endothelium (choice B can be eliminated). so it is untrue to say that its effect is greatest at this concentration (choice D can be eliminated). Choice B can be eliminated because it makes no sense. 186. Clearly ACh. The NE that caused the increase in tension in the first place is being removed. This means that a trans diol must result. which would cause a reduction in tension. The somatic nervous system deals only with the stimulation and contraction of skeletal muscle. L-NMMA is not a naturally-occurring substance. B. hydrolysis of an epoxide under acidic conditions results in inversion of stereochemistry. Choice B can be eliminated because the stereochemistry of the left carbon in the product is drawn incorrectly (it is inverted).Passage VII 183. the regiochemistry is dictated by sterics. since ACh causes vasodilation (a parasympathetic effect) and NE causes vasoconstriction (a sympathetic effect). 191. one cannot have a diol that is both axial and equatorial. 188. so the amount of L-arginine in the diet cannot tell us anything about the status of the blood pressure (choice C can be eliminated). C. A. Muscle tension should decrease in the presence of ACh. D.

like seeds. A. she is heterozygous and has the genotype XhX. Tautomerism is a structural equilibrium and usually involves movement of a proton. they possess a cell wall (choice D can be eliminated). Spores are. Independent Questions 194. the greater nucleophilicity of diethylamine over ethanol explains its higher reactivity. CBr4 is the least polar of the bromomethanes because the four C–Br bond dipoles cancel each other out due to the tetrahedral symmetry of the molecule. B. D. as in this keto–enol equilibrium. The heart is derived from mesoderm. This results in no dipole whatsoever for CBr4. they will germinate (choice C can be eliminated). A 5-membered ring results from intramolecular hydrogen bonding in a 1. C. Because women receive an X chromosome from their fathers. in other words. C. They are surrounded by a tough coat that helps them survive environmental extremes. in a sense. 197. a woman with a hemophiliac father must carry at least one X chromosome with the recessive allele for hemophilia on it. B. because she displays normal blood clotting. 33 . use the Rule of Multiplication: 1/2 × 1/2 × 1/2 = 1/8. her other X chromosome must be normal.. When they have “weathered the tough times” and are again in a favorable environment. 5 H Ph O 193. Since styrene oxide acts as an electrophile in these ring-opening reactions. 195. Remember the basic themes about fungi: they have a haploid life cycle (choice A can be eliminated). and they can reproduce asexually by spore formation. However. and so is the skeletal system. . The eye and spinal cord are derived from ectoderm (choices A and C can be eliminated). A. For the probability of all three of their sons having hemophilia. Here’s the Punnett square: Xh X Y X X h X XX X h Y XY From the Punnett square we can see that the probability of having a son with hemophilia (genotype XhY) is 1/2.192. 196.2-diol: H O 2 3 1 4 . 198. and the liver is derived from endoderm.. A man with normal blood clotting has the genotype XY.

and molecules elute on GC approximately according to increasing boiling point. Since a new group is added (alkyl). as the other three choices are clearly incorrect. Venous pooling would lead to edema as fluid moved from the veins to the surrounding tissues. cells will rely more heavily on anaerobic respiration. would increase. then less of it is returning to the heart. fever would result in increased fluid loss in an attempt to cool the body through perspiration (choice D can be eliminated). C. C. D. D. This eliminates choices B and D. choices A and B can be eliminated. Drugs that decrease inflammation would not affect platelet or red blood cell counts (choices B and C can be eliminated). Since branched isomers boil at lower temperatures than their straight-chain isomers. Choices B and C can be eliminated since the molecules contain no stereocenters. choices B and C can be eliminated. choice B would occur and can be eliminated. not an addition. 206. AlCl3 is quite a strong Lewis acid since the aluminum atom has only a sextet of electrons.. (Note that while choice A is not obviously true based on the passage and requires some outside knowledge to answer. Since the incoming group is an electrophile (n-propyl chloride). shivering) and decreased respiration rate are compensatory mechanisms for when the body temperature is too low (choices B and C can be eliminated). 202. Decreased venous return leads to decreased stroke volume. If anything. this is termed a substitution. lymphatic fluid volume. 34 . which leads to decreased blood pressure. Since DNA replication occurs in S phase. The molecules are structural (constitutional) isomers because they have different structures. Because of the decreased cardiac output (and the venous pooling). it would merely prevent the decrease associated with this cascade of events (choice D can be eliminated). If the blood is pooling in the venous circulation. so the blood overall will have a lower oxygen content (choice D is true and eliminated). However. Thus.Passage IX 199. 200. a catalyst such as AlCl3 is usually used. a decrease in blood pressure. and since the antibody binds to a macrophage protein. Thus. Increased skeletal muscle activity (i.) 201. Lastly. blocking the inflammatory response would not necessarily lead to an increase in blood pressure. Since T cells are not discussed in the passage anywhere. choice C is a better response than choice A. 207. Molecule 1 will elute first since it has the lowest molecular weight. D. as part of the events leading to shock. In electrophilic aromatic substitutions. a drug that interferes with DNA replication would cause cells to arrest in this phase. and in an attempt to compensate. Passage X 204.e. A. 205. macrophage activation must be inhibited (choice A can be eliminated). Fever (increased body temperature) would lead to dilation of capillaries in the skin in an effort to direct more blood to the surface of the body so as to increase heat loss. less blood is being passed through the pulmonary system. the end-product of which is lactic acid (choice A is true and eliminated). If this is to be prevented. this is an electrophilic aromatic substitution. which leads to decreased cardiac output. B. C. Choice A can be eliminated since the molecules do not differ in σ-bond rotations. From the diagram. The inflammatory response depicted in the diagram shows hypotension. Only choice C would not occur. A. if oxygen content is decreased. 203. if anything. it is clear that the events leading to septic shock involve activation of macrophages. this question should be tackled using process of elimination. and an old group is removed (H).

Choice A is good evidence. A.Passage XI 208. This is specifically stated near the end of the second paragraph (choice C is true and choice A is false). The GTP is not bound to the protein until after it binds to the receptor (choice A is false). 209. D. If choice B were true. Since the enzyme is clearly not being phosphorylated. D. hydrolysis of GTP serves to inactivate the G protein. but viruses do not. B. this would present weak evidence for the necessity of the signaling pathway. choice D is simply false. 213. and some viruses contain both RNA and protein (enzymes. B. and C are all described in the second paragraph as being part of the chain of events involved in intracellular signaling. Remember that the two most common ways to activate (or for that matter. and if choice C were true. increasing the size of the chest cavity and creating negative pressure. Choice C is extremely weak evidence. D. it is the best answer choice. and with the other three choices being false. this would clearly refute the hypothesis that the G protein is required. Lastly. because they are lipid soluble (choice B can be eliminated). and respiratory gases do not need to be actively transported. Bacteria have a rigid cell wall but are not the only organisms that do. Independent Questions 214. however. In fact. The best evidence that something is required to activate a pathway is to show that the pathway cannot be activated in the absence of that something. since the pathway can be activated in their absence. The lungs are inflated when the diaphragm contracts. this would present even better evidence for the role of the G protein in this pathway. Binding of the G proteins to the membrane-bound enzyme does not result in hydrolysis of GDP. choice D presents evidence for the fact that G proteins may not play a role in intracellular signaling. how can it be said that G proteins and adenylate cyclase play any role together in signaling pathways? Lastly. but does not deal with the question being asked. choice D. air then rushes in to fill this “vacuum” (choice C can be eliminated). but this is not as good as choice A. which assumes that the G protein has already been activated. 212. 35 . choice D can be eliminated). Choices A. B. and what would we get if GTP were phosphorylated anyway? GQP (guanosine quadrophosphate)? 210. 215. As in Question 208. Bacteria do not have a nuclear membrane (choice C can be eliminated). or (2) change its shape (tertiary structure). Binding of an activated G protein to an inactive enzyme is unlikely to change the primary structure (i. not the G protein (choice C can be eliminated). it seems a likely method. well after the activation of both the G protein and the membrane-bound enzyme (choices C and D are false). A. the best answer here is choice D. Diffusion of gases is not rapid enough to inflate the lungs (choice A can be eliminated). it can be assumed from the passage that binding of an activated G protein to an inactive enzyme would activate that enzyme. Choice D. Note that it is unlikely that binding of the G protein to the inactive enzyme would have any effect on the structure of the G protein itself. plants also have a cell wall. Choice B may be true. but not as good as choice B. this would help refute the hypothesis. the point is to change the enzyme. 211. is not mentioned anywhere. choice B clearly shows that G proteins are required to regulate intracellular signaling. the amino acid sequence) of either player involved (choices A and B can be eliminated). While choice B is not explicitly stated in the passage. if the ratios are not even consistent from cell type to cell type. so the presence of this structure would not necessarily classify the organism as a bacterium (choice B can be eliminated).e. C. If the enzyme were always found in the activated state (choice D). Hydrolysis of GTP does not occur until the end of the pathway. Bacteria reproduce by fission. to deactivate) an enzyme is to (1) phosphorylate it. if the enzyme can be activated in the absence of a G protein. Therefore. This is another question that is best tackled by process of elimination.. Furthermore.

217.216. as well as the secretion of estrogen and progesterone. These plants would be pink and have long leaves. Molecule 1 is an ester (RO(CO)R). all phenotypes would appear. A. 219. and thus 2 × 3 = 6 total phenotypes: long white. 36 . and D can be eliminated). which stimulates the anterior pituitary to release FSH and LH. short pink. there would be no reason to increase reabsorption of Na+. If they were bred randomly. if anything. and red). the level of aldosterone would decrease (choice C can be eliminated). A. B. 218. to increase the amount of Na+ retained by the body (remember that reabsorption means to take something from the urine and return it to the bloodstream). If excessive quantities of NaCl were consumed. The thyroid gland and the adrenal glands have no role in the menstrual cycle (choices A. There are two leaf phenotypes (long and short) and three color phenotypes (white. short white. Only Molecule 1 is not an ether (R–O–R). long pink. long red. which regulate the uterus during the menstrual cycle. A cross between homozygous long white plants (LLWW) and homozygous short red plants (llRR) would produce an F1 generation that was heterozygous at both locations (LlWR). D. The hypothalamus releases GnRH. in other words. which stimulate the ovary to undergo oogenesis and follicle maturation. The function of aldosterone is to increase Na+ reabsorption by the kidneys (choices B and D can be eliminated). C. and short red. pink.

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