MCAT Practice Test 7 SOLUTIONS

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MCAT

MEDICAL COLLEGE ADMISSION TEST

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MCAT Practice Test 7 Solutions

MCAT Practice Test 7 SOLUTIONS
Edited, produced, typeset, and illustrated by Steve Leduc Director of MCAT Program Development The Princeton Review CONTENTS PAGE

Physical Sciences solutions ..................................................... 3 Steve Leduc (Physics) Steve Leduc, Bethany Blackwell (General Chemistry) Verbal Reasoning solutions ...................................................12 Jennifer Wooddell Biological Sciences solutions ................................................32 Judene Wright (Biology) Bethany Blackwell (Organic Chemistry)

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Physical Sciences Solutions

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PHYSICAL SCIENCES SOLUTIONS
Passage I (Questions 1–7) 1. C. When looking for a correct Lewis structure, first check to see if a proposed structure at least accounts for the correct number of valence electrons. Each nitrogen atom has 5 valence electrons, and each hydrogen atom has 1. Therefore, the Lewis structure for N2H4 must account for (2 × 5) + (4 × 1) = 14 valence electrons. Since each line ( — ) in the structure represents a pair of electrons, the structure shown in choice A (with 6 lines and no lone pairs) accounts for 6 × 2 = 12 electrons, and the structure in choice B (with 6 lines and 2 lone pairs) accounts for (6 × 2) + (2 × 2) = 16, so neither of these can be correct. To decide between choices C and D, we now realize that a nitrogen atom needs just 3 electrons to complete its octet, so we expect each nitrogen to form 3 bonds as follows:

Therefore, the structure shown in choice C is best. 2. D. The Raschig process is given by Equation 1 in the passage. Because this equation is balanced, we can see that to produce 1 mole of hydrazine, 2 moles of ammonia are required. The mass of 2 moles of NH3 is 2[14.0 + 3(1.0)] = 34.0 grams. 3. D. According to the passage, the chemical formula of hydrazine hydrate is N2H4 · H2O. The mass of the hydrazine is 2(14.0) + 4(1.0) = 32.0 grams, and the mass of the water is 2(1.0) + 16.0 = 18.0 grams, so the total mass of the hydrate is 32.0 + 18.0 = 50.0 grams. Therefore, the percent by weight (or mass) of hydrazine in hydrazine hydrate is 32.0/50.0 × 100%. 4. A. The reaction given in this question shows the formation of hydrazine from its elements in their most stable form, so the enthalpy change ΔH° will be the standard enthalpy of formation, ΔHf°. According to Table 1, the value of ΔHf° for N2H4( ) is 50.6 kJ mol–1. 5. B. One way to compare the relative strengths of a pair of weak bases is to compare their Kb (basicity constant) values: the lower the Kb, the weaker the base. So, the fact that hydrazine is a weaker base than ammonia is reflected in the fact that hydrazine has a smaller basicity constant than ammonia; thus, choice B must be correct. Choices C and D can be eliminated since the number of protons a base can acept or its ability to hydrogen bond is unrelated to base strength. 6. C. The change in Gibbs free energy ΔG for the formation of hydrazine from its elements is the standard free energy of formation, ΔGf°. In order for a reaction to be spontaneous, the value of ΔG must be negative. However, according to Table 1, the value of ΔGf° is positive (149.2 kJ mol–1). 7. C. Gases are more disordered—and thus have a greater entropy—than liquids. In Equation 2, there are 0 moles of gaseous reactants and 7 moles of gaseous products. Therefore, the entropy increases (ΔS° > 0) because the number of moles of gaseous products is greater than the number of moles of gaseous reactants. Passage II (Questions 8–13) 8. B. Choice A is incorrect, since the strong nuclear force binds protons and neutrons within a nucleus; it does not bind atoms to each other. Choice D is eliminated because Coulombʼs law simply describes the force between charged particles (in this case, between the positively charged ions and the negatively charged electrons); the law does not “prohibit” the motion of the ions. Choice C can be eliminated since the ions do feel an electric force when the electron sea is displaced. The passage states that when the electrons are displaced, electric fields act; but we know that whenever an electric field acts on a charged particle, the particle experiences an electric force (F = qE). Therefore, the answer is B. When we consider the force between an ion and an electron, each of these particles feels the same magnitude of force, F (by Newtonʼs Third law), but the effects will be very different here, because the masses of the particles are so different. An ion is much more massive than an electron, and as a result, the acceleration of the ion, aion = F/mion, is much smaller than the acceleration of the electron, aelectron = F/melectron.

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MCAT Practice Test 7 Solutions

9. D. We know from our experience with the spring–block oscillator that the maximum elastic potential energy occurs when the spring is at its maximum stretch or at its maximum compression, which happens when the block is at either oscillation extreme. The same is true here. The maximum electrical potential energy occurs at the oscillation extremes, shown by Diagrams A and C in Figure 1. (Note that the potential energy would be zero in Diagram B.) 10. C. We use the equation given in the passage for f in terms of n: f ≈ 9.0n1/2. If n = 1018, then n1/2 = (1018)1/2 = 1018·1/2 = 109, so f ≈ 9.0 × 109 Hz. 11. A. Using the fundamental equation for waves, λf = v, we find that .

12. A. When the electron sea is at Point B in Figure 1, there is zero net force on the electrons (so choice B is wrong) and the potential energy is zero (so choice D is wrong). We can also eliminate choice C; not only does the passage make no mention of magnetic forces, but we also know that magnetic forces cannot alter the speeds of particles (magnetic forces do no work). As the electron sea passes through Point B and moves on to Point C, its speed decreases to zero. The answer must be A. Just as with the familiar spring–block system, the oscillator has its greatest speed—and thus its greatest momentum—as it passes through the equilibrium position. It is this momentum that causes the oscillator—in this case, the electron sea—to overshoot the equilibrium position (Point B in Figure 1) and move on to the other oscillation extreme. 13. B. At Position A, one of the oscillation extremes, the oscillator (the electron sea) has zero speed, and thus zero kinetic energy; all the energy of the system is in the form of potential energy. Then, as the oscillator travels through Position B, the equilibrium position, its potential energy is minimized and its kinetic energy is maximized. Therefore, in moving from Position A to Position B, potential energy is transformed into kinetic energy (choice A is backwards; B is correct). Choice C can be eliminated, since motion generates heat when thereʼs friction, but there is no friction here. (Furthermore, it is energy, not power, that may be transformed into heat.) Choice D can be eliminated since the electron sea is not at rest at Position B; on the contrary, it has its maximum kinetic energy (and thus maximum speed) and overshoots this position.

Passage III (Questions 14–19) 14. C. Choice A is eliminated since the first sentence of the passage makes it clear that silicon is not a rare element. The last sentence of the passage states that pure (elemental) silicon is nonreactive, so choice B is wrong. We can also eliminate choice D: silicon is a solid metal and thus exists in crystalline form. Choice C is best; the point of the second paragraph is that silicate minerals do not decompose easily. 15. A. First, eliminate choice D: a silicon atom contains 14 electrons, and choice D accounts for 15. The difference between choices A, B, and C is the description of the two electrons in the 3p subshell. The three lines after the “3p” in each of these choices denote the 3px, 3py, and 3pz orbitals. How do we place the two electrons in the 3p subshell into these three available orbitals? Hundʼs rule says that if more than one orbital is available, we place electrons with parallel spins into different orbitals before we pair them up (with opposite spins) in the same orbital. It follows that choice A is the correct configuration. 16. B. The silicon atom in SiCl3H has four bonds: one to each of the three chlorine atoms and one to the hydrogen atom. Only choice B describes a geometry with four bonds. 17. B. Elements in the same family have similar valence electron configurations and thus have similar chemical properties. Since potassium is a Group 1 metal, we eliminate choices C and D, which are both Group 2 metals. We also eliminate choice A, because even through hydrogen is in Group 1 in the periodic table, it is not considered a metal. Choice B, which like potassium is also a Group 1 metal, is best. 18. D. Choice A is wrong: There will be no ionic forces between these molecules because ions are created by metals reacting with nonmetals and all the elements in this molecule are nonmetals. Choice B is eliminated because covalent bonds are intramolecular, not intermolecular forces, and choice C is wrong since molecules of SiCl3H are incapable of hydrogen bonding. 19. C. The technique of distillation exploits the different boiling points of the components of a mixture to separate them.

Therefore. When the density becomes very high (as it would here). so the rate of decay of Ra-226 is 15 times faster than the rate of decay of Pu-239.5—is greater than the index of refraction for air—which for all practical purposes is 1). Because a pressure of 500 atm is very high. so choices C and D are eliminated.23 V) = –0. and P2 = 500 atm.34 eV E° = –1. A. Free-Standing Questions (24–27) 24. C.000 years). + 2 Cu2+ + 4 e– → 2 Cu(s) 2 H2O → O2 + 4 H + 4 e + – E° = +0. the additional volume of the molecules is negligible. Ra-226 decays faster. add the resulting reaction to the second reaction given in the question and then cancel the 4 e– that appear on opposite sides of the reaction arrows. If s3 = 103 m3. note carefully that this does not change the value of E° for the reaction. we find that = (+0. Multiply both sides of the first reaction by 2. all objects fall with the same acceleration: g. The value of V2 calculated above would be the volume of the sample not including the molecules themselves. 22. With P1 = 1 atm. V1 = 10 L. taking the non-ideality of the gas into account. we expect the gas to deviate from ideal behavior and thus eliminate choice A. it follows that volume is mass divided by density: V = m/. 23. then the reaction is In order to conserve mass number (the superscripts). and faster still through solids (because the bulk modulus—which measures resistance to compression—is so much greater in solids than in liquids or in gases). B. D. The volume of a cube is given by the formula V = s3. Light travels slower through a piece of glass than through the air (this is why the index of refraction for glass—typically around 1. . Since 24. where s is the length of a side. it must be true that 236 = A1 + A2 + 3·1. we expect the sound wave to speed up as it enters the glass from the air. this assumes that the gas continues to behave as an ideal gas. If 3 neutrons are produced in the fission reaction.02 L.000/1600 = 15.23 eV = –0. in the absence of air resistance (free fall). However. Now. Adding the values of E° for the separate reactions.02 L plus the volume occupied by the gas molecules. the volume will be 0. [Notice that the mass of the object is irrelevant.89 eV 2 Cu2+ + 2 H2O → 2 Cu(s) + O2 + 4 H+ 25. we get V2 = P1V1/P2 = 0. Using the equation y = ½at2. A. B. Dividing m = 106 kg by  = 103 kg/m3.] 27. Because density is mass divided by volume ( = m/V). P1V1 = P2V2. then s = 10 m. this observation eliminates choices A and C.Physical Sciences Solutions 5 Passage IV (Questions 20–23) 20. we get V = 103 m3. But here. D. the volume of the gas molecules themselves must be taken into account. we use Boyleʼs law.89 V. The final result is the reaction for which we want . Now what about sound? Sound generally travels faster through liquids than through gases. the half-life of Ra-226 is 15 times less than the half-life of Pu-239. 21. at typically low values of pressure and density. Since the temperature remains constant. B. so A1 + A2 = 233. with a = g. The reaction shown in choice A is the only one that conserves both mass number (the superscripts: A1 = A1 + 0) and electric charge [the subscripts: Z1 = (Z1 + 1) + (–1)]. we find that y = ½(10 m/s2)(10 s)2 = 500 m.34 V) + (–1. 26. Because Ra-226 has a shorter half-life (1600 years) than Pu-239 (24.

the rate law may be expressed more simply as Rate = k[acetone]a[H+]c. so choices A and B are eliminated.14 × 10–3 M. The question states that the reaction is first order with respect to acetone. very close to the shortest visible wavelength. According to the description given in the question. According to the passage. The visible region of the EM spectrum spans wavelengths from roughly 400 nm to 750 nm (or. C. so the intensity of the signal will necessarily be less. we use Beerʼs law (Equation 3 in the passage): A = εcl. the rate law given in Equation 2 can be simplified: as the last sentence of the passage states. which is larger (same numerator.99 × 10–6 M s–1). Therefore. or C (and in fact each is false). To find c. acetone has a mass of 58. but the value of P/r2 for choice D is 3/16 W·mi–2.0 g/mol and a density of 0. 390 nm to 780 nm). where P is the power used by the phone and r is the distance between the phone and the switching station. B. choice D is best. First. letʼs compare. B. light of wavelength 395 nm (which is very close to the shortest visible wavelength) is very near the ultraviolet region. Because we know that UV radiation is more energetic than visible. D.791 g/mL. Passage VI (Questions 33–37) 33. we use Table 1: in Experiment 1. there is no support in the passage for choice A. we learn that a person can hear and speak on a cell phone at the same time because the phone sends and receives voice data on two separate frequency channels. 31. therefore. Thus. First. to determine A. we can eliminate choice C for the same reason.6/4 = 3/20 W·mi–2. The values of [acetone] are the same and the rate constants are approximately the same. Now. 34. Since the overall rate is also twice as great (approximately) in Experiment 4 as in Experiment 6 (12. The value of ε is given in the question. So all we need to do is compare choices A and D. the reaction is zero order with respect to bromine. The first sentence of the second paragraph of the passage states that cell-phone channels operate at frequencies ranging between 824 MHz and 894 MHz. The regions that border the visible portion of the electromagnetic spectrum are the ultraviolet (UV) and the infrared (IR). Comparing choices C and D. To determine absorbance.8 29. Therefore. so choices B and C are eliminated. and the passage states that the path length l is 1 cm. say. UV light has a shorter wavelength than visible (recall the formula E = hc/λ for the energy of a photon with wavelength λ). the intensity is proportional to P/r2. A. 5. Write the equation for the power of a circuit element in the form I = P/V. so choice D is eliminated. eliminate choice A: the question asks for current. In addition. the data for Experiments 4 and 6 given in Table 1. and each cell phone scans all of its channels to find the one with the highest signal intensity. not the infrared. Therefore. B.25 A. we eliminate B—it has the same power but a greater distance. it seems reasonable to conclude that each pair of phones being used to transmit a conversation operates on a unique pair of frequencies. A = εcl = (198 M –1 cm–1)(4. 36. c. D. . Given that there is a wide range of available frequencies. the value of c is 1. The value of P/r2 for choice A is 0. Comparing choices A and B. but the value of [H+] is twice as great in Experiment 4 as in Experiment 6. that is. 198 M –1 cm–1. we conclude that the rate is proportional to the first power of [H+]. Therefore. then weʼll have I = P/V = (3 W)/(12 V) = ¼ A = 0. smaller denominator).6 MCAT Practice Test 7 Solutions Passage V (Questions 28–32) 28.9 × 10–6 M s–1 vs. 35. This is a range of 894 MHz – 824 MHz = 70 MHz. to determine the exponent c. so if V = 12 volts. so light of wavelength 395 nm is indeed in the visible region. 30. the absorbing species) is 4. The passage tells us that the maximum power of a cell-phone signal is P = 3 watts. not power. the reaction is zero order with respect to bromine. A. for pure acetone we find that 32. and as the last sentence of the passage states. and l. the concentration of Br2 (bromine. more precisely. D. C. From the passage. we need the values of ε.14 × 10–3 M)(1 cm) ≈ 200(4 × 10–3) = 0.

Passage VII (Questions 38–42) 38. neither one answers the question. Increasing the repulsive forces—or reducing the attractive forces—between reactants would not allow them to interact more readily. It follows that the reactants must interact more readily in Reaction 2 than they do in Reaction 1. A. B. Choice B is false. 44. and a battery stores chemical energy (which is then converted to electrical energy during the batteryʼs operation). I = V/R. 42. but the only additional information the passage gives about Reactions 1 and 2 concerns thermodynamics (namely. we can see that R must decrease as V decreases if we wish to keep I constant. . so the rate of formation of Cl– in Reaction 3 is proportional to [H+]2. The passage states that the voltage of the battery is 12 V. the potential energy gained by the capacitor will necessarily be less than the work done by the battery. as it is repelled by the charge already present on the plates. a typical acoustic wave— such as that produced by a human voice—has a frequency around 175–350 Hz and travels through the air at a speed of about 350 m/s. 46. A. and while choices A and D are true. so does V). Choice D is also wrong. Items I and III are true. but electromagnetic waves are transverse (the electric and magnetic fields oscillate perpendicular to the direction of propagation). D. so without any additional information. thus eliminating choices B. which is less than ½ m. 40.002 A = 2 × 10–3 A. while choices B and C are wrong. choice A is correct. In general. For example. then it will be (1 × 10–2)/102 = 1 × 10–4 M/s at pH 2. The discharge cycle occurs when the capacitor is fully charged and the switch S is then closed to the right. The passage indicates that Reaction 1 is extremely slow. and Figure 2 shows that at time t = 0. V is proportional to Q. so we cannot compare the rates from the information given. As this charge accumulates. Resistors dissipate energy as heat when current flows through them. sound waves have lower frequencies and longer wavelengths than electromagnetic waves. The answer is C. Passage VIII (Questions 43–48) 43. 39. Therefore. Positive charge will accumulate on the top plate of the capacitor and negative charge will accumulate on the bottom plate. so as Q decreases. C. no additional charge can accumulate. 45. So. If the pH is increased from 1 to 2. and that Reaction 2 is faster. Sequence III in the second reaction mechanism given in the passage tells us that the reaction of (unlabeled) SO3 and (labeled) H218O to form SO318O2– is fast. the values of the equilibrium constants). the discharge current is 0. 41. resistors do not store energy. The passage states that the rate law for Reaction 3 is Rate = k[ClO3–][Br–][H+]2. A charged capacitor stores electrical potential energy. choice A is best. D. the voltage across the capacitor increases. But an 846 MHz electromagnetic wave has a wavelength of λ = c/f = (3 × 108 m/s)/(846 × 106 Hz). Therefore. using Ohmʼs law in the form R = V/I. This question concerns kinetics. the work done by the battery is converted into potential energy of the capacitor plus some heat. if the rate of formation of Cl– is 1 × 10–2 M/s at pH 1. Therefore. until it matches the voltage of the battery. D. then the value of [H+] decreases by a factor of 10. C. its voltage decreases (remember that for a capacitor. we can calculate that the resistance of the variable resistor at t = 0 must have been R = V/I = (12 V)/(2 × 10–3 A) = 6000 Ω. the wavelength of such a wave is roughly 1 to 2 m. using λ = v/f. B. Therefore. Since we know that current flowing through the resistor r causes the resistor to dissipate energy as heat. so it follows that the rate of formation of Cl– would decrease by a factor of 102. Sound waves through the air are longitudinal (air molecules oscillate in the direction parallel to the direction of wave propagation). from Ohmʼs law. As the capacitor loses its charge. at this point. so the answer must be C. A. and D. Therefore.Physical Sciences Solutions 7 37. C. Total energy is conserved in the process of charging the capacitor. The values of Keq tell us nothing about the rates of the reactions. Therefore.

The other choices are Group 1 or Group 2 metals. this directly implies that ammonia should have the higher boiling point.5 g)/(0. D. we usually expect higher molecular weight compounds to have higher boiling points. Therefore. these elements gain an electron readily.86 °C/m. only choice C shows a new N–O bond forming. which is also listed in the table.5) = 2(0.707 and sin 30° = 0. n1 sin 1 = n2 sin 2. 1. Since sin 45° = 0. Since the halogens need only one more valence electron to complete their octet configuration.5 cm3) = B = mB/VB = (3. NH4+. C is the highest.414. In Reaction 2. we find Object A: Object B: Object C: Object D: A = mA/VA = (1. the statement in choice A is irrelevant (not to mention false). C. not lower ones. C. 51. and m is the molality of the solution. so n2 = (sin 45°)/(sin 30°). Because II is slower than I or III. NH4+ is therefore a weak acid. so the freezing point of the ethylene glycol solution will be 0°C – 20°C = –20°C. we have HOCl reacting with NO2– to form NO3– (and HCl). For ethylene glycol. 53. Because we are asked to compare the boiling points of ammonia and phosphine.75 m) ≈ (1)(2)(11) = 22°C ≈ 20°C.5 g/cm3 4 g/cm3 Clearly. 52.5 cm3) = 3 g/cm3 4 g/cm3 4. Kf is the freezing-point constant of the solvent. Using the formula weight for Pb(NO3)2. According to Table 1. and the Kf value for water is –1. If we apply this formula to each of the four objects listed in the table. In terms of the energy diagram. so choice B is best. the activation energy for Reaction II must be larger than the activation energy for I or III. And choice C is backwards.5 g)/(1. and Step III is fast. where i is the vanʼt Hoff factor of the solute. Free-Standing Questions (49–53) 49. we find that n2 = (0. C. The best answer is D: since the intermolecular forces are stronger in ammonia than in phosphine (which actually canʼt hydrogen bond). Density is mass per volume:  = m/V.14 m. B. B.86 °C/m)(10.0 cm3) = D = mD/VD = (6. we find that the molality of a saturated Pb(NO3)2(aq) solution is Since 377/331 is clearly a little more than 1.8 MCAT Practice Test 7 Solutions 47. i = 1. not a base. not intramolecular forces—and false besides. B. Passage IX (Questions 54–60) 54. The mechanism for Reaction 3 is given in the passage: Step I is fast. Step II is slow. C. Only the diagram in B shows this behavior. Choice B is also irrelevant—because boiling is related to the weakening of intermolecular forces. We take n1 = 1 (for air) and weʼre given that 1 = 45° and 2 = 30°. 55.707)/(0. the freezing point here will be lowered by (1)(1.0 g)/(1. the ammonium ion. While all the choices show the O–Cl bond breaking. . the solubility of Pb(NO3)2 in water at 0°C is 37. We use Snellʼs law.0 g)/(0.707) = 1. is the conjugate acid of the weak base NH3. Therefore.75 cm3) = C = mC/VC = (4. which would be more willing to lose an electron than gain one. so the O–Cl bond must break and a new N–O bond must be formed. 50. C. Snellʼs law becomes sin 45° = n2 sin 30°. we know from the available choices that the answer must be C.5. the rise in energy from reactants to activated complex should be higher for II than for I or III. Chlorine (choice B) is a halogen. The freezing point will be changed by iKf m. 48.7 g/100 mL.

the value of Δv/Δt is (–20 m/s)/(0. and it can form hydrogen bonds with water. In Case I. 39. Converting each of these to moles. According to Table 1.0 – 37. the value of Δv/Δt is (–20 m/s)/(0. C. B.7 g of the solute to dissolve and the remainder. ethylene glycol (a diol. and m is the molality of the solution. the ratio of the average acceleration in Case II to that in Case I is (–80 m/s2)/(–200 m/s2) = 2/5 = 0. So.Physical Sciences Solutions 9 56. 58. the solubility of Pb(NO3)2 in water at 0°C is 37. The kinetic energy of each car before the collision is ½mv2 = ½(1000 kg)(20 m/s)2 = 2 × 105 J. Since the two cars have equal but opposite momenta before the collision. notice that the value of Δv is the same in both cases.4. so the total kinetic energy of both cars is twice this value. B. [As an alternate solution. The answer must be D. Thus. 4 × 105 J. 63. namely. because as Table 1 shows.3 g. There is no support for the claim that the air pressure would have to be higher in hard rubber tires than in soft rubber tires. does the ʻlike dissolves likeʼ generalization apply to ethylene glycol and water? Yes.1 s) = –200 m/s2. Kf is the freezing-point constant of the solvent. where i is the vanʼt Hoff factor of the solute. In Case II. eliminate choices C and D: osmosis certainly does apply to biological fluids. which is 3 times greater than the value of i for ethylene glycol (for which i = 1).0 g of lead nitrate were added to 100 mL of water at 0°C and allowed to equilibrate.] 62. so there is no reason to doubt the validity of choice B and so it is eliminated. by threefold. This will cause the remaining fluid inside the cell to become more concentrated. the question now is.25 s) = 0. the amount by which the freezing point is lowered is proportional to i.7 = 1. and slippage on curves would indeed be more likely (choice C is true and thus eliminated). solvent will flow out of the cell. if 39. the total momentum before the collision is zero. 57. we can see that the two cars will both stop after the collision. 59. Since both solutions in this question are aqueous and have the same concentration.1 s)/(0. . By definition. osmosis is the flow of solvent through a semipermeable membrane into a more concentrated solution. we find that Therefore. the solution of lead nitrate will lower the freezing point of water by a greater extent. eliminate choices A and D: the generalization ʻthe solubility of a solute doubles for every ten–degree rise in temperatureʼ cannot be said to apply to an aqueous solution of ethylene glycol. weʼd expect 37. Thus. the solubility is infinite at 0°C and at 20°C. By conservation of total momentum. so if the fluid outside the cell is hypertonic. If the coefficients of friction were reduced. Average acceleration is defined to Δv/Δt. the concentrations are not the same on both sides of the cell wall. 60.4. A. shown here) is a polar molecule. Therefore. Because the value of i is 3 for lead nitrate [since Pb(NO3)2 dissociates into Pb2+ + 2 NO3–]. and if the fluid outside the cell is hypertonic. thus.25 s) = –80 m/s2. the ratio of the average accelerations is simply the inverse of the ratio of the stopping times: (0. The freezing point will be lowered by iKf m. Therefore. An example of an aqueous solution containing 10% lead nitrate by weight would be one that contained 10 g of lead nitrate in 100 g of solution—that is. B. A. so their combined kinetic energies before the collision will be completely converted to heat and deformation energy afterwards. D. since like water. the best answer is C. B. to be left undissolved. 10 g of lead nitrate in 90 g of water. then more distance would be required to stop (choice A is true and thus eliminated). the total momentum after the collision will also be zero.7 g/100 mL. The efficiency of the carʼs engine is independent of the tires. First. the mole fraction of lead nitrate in the solution would be Passage X (Questions 61–66) 61. First.

the waves moving northward decrease in wavelength while the waves moving southward increase in wavelength. According to the passage. By Newtonʼs Second law. the total momentum is pA&B = (2m)vA&B. The passage states that cars A and B are initially 100 m apart. the acceleration will be reduced if the collision time is increased. choice B says that these stresses were caused by surface waves (that is. C. when 30t = 100 + 20t. since the question asks for the post–collision speed [singular] of both cars). For car A. As a wave source moves. Choice A is correct. waves in the earthʼs crust). Since f = 1/T. while those behind the source get expanded. (This is the Doppler Effect expressed in terms of wavelength. the total momentum of the cars is pA + pB = mvA + mvB = m(vA + vB). The passage tells us that the size of lasting deformations falls off as (L/d)3. 65. force is proportional to acceleration. but nodes are points of no displacement.” so we conclude that A is a better answer than B. thus reducing the force the person feels. surface waves have a periodicity of about 10 seconds. we get vA&B = ½(vA + vB) = ½(30 m/s + 20 m/s) = 25 m/s. So. B. A. we can use the equation x = x0 + vt to give their positions at any time t. the equation v = λf implies that the speed of these waves is v = λf = (20. Because acceleration. Passage XI (Questions 67–71) 67. This is the same reason why air bags reduce the force on vehicle occupants involved in a collision. 66. 69. so the force will be reduced if the acceleration is reduced. since they do not provide clear evidence for a less random explanation.) So. C. the lasting deformations are inversely proportional to d 3. the effect of which is transmitted in all possible directions (as the waves on the surface of the pond expand from the point of impact). . if λ = 20 km = 20. we have xA = 30t. C. We eliminate choice D for a similar reason: if destructive interference were maximum. so we eliminate C. Neither choice A nor choice C would cast doubt on the coincidence hypothesis. But the second-to-last sentence of the third paragraph of the passage tells us that such surface waves “cause little lasting deformation. the waves in front of the source get compressed. with car B ahead of car A. what mechanism could be responsible for transmitting the influence of the main quake to the locations of the subsequent quakes? But choice D would support an alternate hypothesis: if the subsequent quakes occurred in all possible directions around the location of the main quake. Solving this equation for t. letʼs take the initial position of car A to be x0 = 0 and the initial position of car B to be x0 = 100 m. Canceling the mʼs and dividing by 2. where d is the distance from the quake center. so choice B is best. waves in front of the source have a higher frequency while those behind have a lower frequency. an air bag increases the time it takes for the occupant to come to rest. by conservation of total momentum. 70. D. Choice B could help support the coincidence hypothesis: if the distances from the main quake to the subsequent quakes were excessive. if the source of the waves moves from south to north. and for car B we have xB = 100 + 20t. this means that surface waves have a frequency of about 1/10 Hz.10 MCAT Practice Test 7 Solutions 64. 71. after the inelastic collision (which we can assume is perfectly inelastic.000 m. ā = Δv/Δt. So. which reduces the occupantʼs acceleration. in terms of frequency. Choice C says that the earth shook at nodes of a standing wave. we get t = 10 s. is inversely proportional to the time interval. D.000 m)(1/10 Hz) = 2000 m/s. So. In other words. Before the collision. Although both choices A and B mention local stress (which allowed the triggered quake to occur even though the energy transfer was relatively small). Since both cars travel at a constant speed (car A at 30 m/s. it must be true that m(vA + vB) = 2mvA&B. then the lasting deformations decrease by a factor of 43 = 64. this would support the hypothesis that the main quake was the cause of the subsequent ones—just like a rock dropped into a pond. if the distance increases by a factor of 4 (from 4L to 16L). 68. there should be little or no displacement. Therefore. car B at 20 m/s). Car A overtakes car B when xA = xB—that is. A.

we will know the value of nliquid/nair. Alternatively. the energy of the atom increases.1 mole of electrons. if we know 1 and 2.500 N/m2. 75. we see that the indicator undergoes a color change when pKa (of HIn) = pH. –C/9 is greater (less negative) than –C/4.1 faraday is equal to the magnitude of charge on 0. The angle of incidence (1) is known. so when [HIn] = [In–]. we find that ΔP = gY = (1000 kg/m3)(10 m/s2)(0. which increases the energy of the atom. and find that nliquid/nair = (sin 1)/(sin 2). which is the relative refractive index of the liquid compared to air. we only need the angle of refraction. Therefore.25 m) = 2. which is therefore incorrect). To determine the ratio nliquid/nair. as follows. we have Ka = [H3O+]. the energy of the atom is –C/4.1 mole of electrons are available to accomplish this reduction. 73. 76. The difference in hydrostatic pressure between two points in a fluid separated by a vertical distance Y is equal to gY. Now. we apply Snellʼs law. D. The indicator changes color at the end point of the titration—that is. B. HIn. the species with the highest electron affinity must be one of the reactants. An indicator. D. and Y. only will be reduced. and when the electron is in the n = 3 shell. at the point when [HIn] = [In–]. Because C is a positive constant.Physical Sciences Solutions 11 Free-Standing Questions (72–77) 72. The equilibrium constant for this reaction is given by Ka = [In–][H3O+]/[HIn]. because the angle of reflection is known and the angle of reflection is equal to the angle of incidence. so the process described in the question must involve the absorption of a photon. H+(aq) must have a higher electron affinity than Cd(s). we can use the formula given in the question. Choices B and C are wrong since the atom does not emit or absorb an electron when one of its electrons “jumps” from one energy level (shell) to another. is a weak acid. 74. nair sin 1 = nliquid sin 2. so it participates in a proton–transfer equilibrium in aqueous solution: HIn + H2O  In– + H3O+. 2. so choice D is best. g. Taking the negative log of both sides of this equation. because each hydrogen ion takes an electron from cadmium. By definition. A. this eliminates choices C and D. its energy is –C/9. so 0. 77. Because the given reaction occurs spontaneously in the forward direction. where  is the density of the fluid and g is the acceleration due to gravity. Substituting in the given values of . . So. The reverse process of an electron moving from the n = 3 shell to the n = 2 shell would result in the emission of a photon (as given in choice A. so when the electron goes from the n = 2 shell to the n = 3 shell. B. if 0. 1 faraday is the magnitude of charge on 1 mole of electrons. But since it takes 3 electrons to reduce each Al3+ ion to Al. When the electron is in the n = 2 shell. C. in order to determine nliquid/nair.

the passage does not explain how the “idea of personhood” (line 21) came into existence. A A: Yes. C: Yes. In paragraphs 3 and 4. This leads to the authorʼs defense of human action on the world as natural (paragraph 4) and as beneficial (paragraph 6). but it is too narrow to be the central thesis of the entire passage. the author would say that there is no reason to panic. but it is more inclusive than choices B and D. the author might believe that human activity is playing some role in the increasing rate of extinction. Mind. Therefore. The difference between cultural and genetic adaptation is one point made in service of the authorʼs larger argument about the nature of human influence on the world. or that the existence of reason in some other species indicates a faster rate of adaptation. Furthermore. the author states that the changes in the world wrought by human activity are not “making its ʻnaturalʼ continuance impossible” (lines 52–56) and that the presence of human beings has not made North America “a poorer place” (lines 62–64). described as “Consciousness. then. either “naturally” or through human action. the passage suggests that biodiversity is not as important as the life historians (line 4) believe it to be. C: Be careful not to use outside knowledge. Furthermore. C A: The author criticizes those who argue that maintaining biodiversity should be a priority (lines 11–17). The author then introduces the argument that humans are unique in their capacity for consciousness and so for rapid cultural adaptation (paragraphs 3 and 4). but it is too narrow to be the central thesis or main point of the entire passage. 80. B: The author does not suggest that genetic or cultural adaptation led to the human capacity for reason. In paragraph 5 the author concedes that “in some parts of the world” human beings are in fact “trampling this planetʼs most ancient and delicate harmonies” (lines 44–48). 44–56. Choice C is not a perfect answer. This choice is consistent with the tone of the passage. 44–56. D A: The author does not suggest that the rate of extinction will decrease. and overall the best of the four choices. biological classification is never discussed. Overall. the correct answer still must be relevant to and consistent with the themes presented in the passage. the rest of the passage leads up to and supports it. B: This choice is inconsistent with the tone of the passage. There is no reason to think that the authorʼs . The author describes the belief that we must “stem the erosion of biodiversity” or the rate of extinction largely in order to criticize that belief (lines 11–17 and 44–56). we could not infer that other animals are on an evolutionary or adaptive path towards reason. The author argues that the need to preserve native habitats and species on Earth is not as pressing as some would have us believe (lines 11–22. D: The author makes this point in the first sentence of the passage. the author argues that the human facility for reason. B: This point is made in lines 33–34. At the end of the passage. Insight.” (line 23) gives us the ability to think through and rapidly adapt to new situations (lines 35–43). there is no link between biodiversity and human survival mentioned in the passage. and 60–64). Thus. and 60–64). C: This choice is too extreme. Overall. First. If some other species had an even greater capacity for reasoned judgement. we could infer that that species would have a similar (even greater) ability to adapt. 79. The passage does not suggest that the capacity for reason plays a role in defining biological classifications.12 MCAT Practice Test 7 Solutions VERBAL REASONING SOLUTIONS Passage I (Questions 78–84) 78. D: This choice is not relevant to the new information in the question stem (we donʼt know that the existence of other reasoning animals would further erode biodiversity). D: Yes. Even though this argument is explicitly made only in the last two paragraphs (and stated most directly in lines 52–56). it is inconsistent with the authorʼs implication that a decrease in biodiversity is not as tragic for the environment as some have made it out to be (lines 11–22. The author describes the opinion of those who are concerned or panicked about the increasing rate of extinction (lines 3–10). C A: Even though the question stem introduces new information. the author describes and criticizes the position of life historians who believe disaster through mass extinctions is at hand (paragraphs 1 and 2). 81. but then goes on to indicate that these ideas do not “give an adequate picture of recent biological history” (lines 15–17).

D A: The author never raises the issue of selfishness. B: In the passage. D: This choice is too extreme. While moving around to different areas could involve adapting to and manipulating different environments. we canʼt speculate about what might occur and then read that possibility into the choice as it is written. the author indicates that the emphasis some place on biodiversity is exaggerated (lines 15–17). we will have too pessimistic a view of ourselves and of the future (lines 60–66). choice C explicitly includes the necessary themes. C A: Beware of using your own definition of “cultural. this statement is not consistent with the focus of the passage. the author writes. B: This choice takes a view opposite to that of the author. B: As in choice A. In lines 3–6. In the final paragraph. . Therefore. The author emphasizes the value and importance of human action on the world. In fact. The author states that if we donʼt recognize the positive changes caused by human behavior. However. C: Yes.. 83. A main theme in the passage is the unique ability of human beings to culturally adapt to. C: This choice is inconsistent with the theme of the passage as a whole. as described in the passage. while this choice has a negative or critical tone towards human behavior (suggesting that we must pay attention to selfish motives that guide it). the author does not go so far as to suggest that biodiversity is irrelevant. 84.Verbal Reasoning Solutions 13 opinion would change in a discussion of human habitation of Mars. the author appears to be concerned that we are currently placing too much importance on the existence of other species (lines 15–22 and 23–32). Therefore.. Furthermore. The author suggests that the historians believe human action plays a role. we can infer that the author would discuss the role of human adaptability or inventiveness in colonizing and surviving on Mars.. This means that the more we believe that change caused by human beings is largely destructive. not getting to know members of other societies or cultures. C: The correct answer will describe evidence presented by the historians to show that human beings are in part at fault for the current extinction rate. This choice is a trap based in part on the reference to “domesticable” (line 43). on Earth or elsewhere. the author describes cultural adaptation as learning how to understand and use new aspects of the environment through the use of reason. the author discusses how humans have changed the environment to suit their own desires (lines 44–60). but instead with the possibility of placing too little value on human beings (lines 52–64). this answer uses a different definition of “cultural” than does the author. When you compare this answer to choice C. the more we are obliged to yearn for disasters” (lines 64–66). B: This choice is too extreme to describe the life historiansʼ views. D: As in choice A. D: Yes. The passage does suggest that life historians raise “the specter of the sort of wholesale die-offs that ended the reign of the dinosaurs” (lines 3–8) as a frightening analogy to what may be occurring today. Note that the historians claim that extinctions are happening faster than “at all but a few times in the past” (lines 5–6). and take advantage of.” The word “rapidly” in the answer choice is a bit strong. their surroundings (lines 33–43). the extinction of the dinosaurs (which happened before humans came along) is not given as evidence that we risk destroying species. the author describes cultural adaptation as the use of reason to puzzle out new circumstances and to adapt the environment to suit our own needs. D: No analogy is drawn between humans and dinosaurs. However. A A: Yes. C: Yes. the author writes. while this choice indicates that humans move around until they find an environment that already suits them as is. but this is still the best choice of the four. the authorʼs attitude toward human action in and on the world is largely positive.” By cultural adaptation. 82. do not claim that humans are at risk of extinction (or that the dinosaurs caused their own demise). Furthermore. In the passage. In paragraphs 4 and 5. but not that they believe human intervention is the only cause. he never states that it is especially important to preserve other species. The author also indicates that this involves changing our environment to suit our own needs (lines 51–56). either for their own sake or because of their usefulness to human beings. “What alarms so many life historians is not that extinctions are occurring but that they appear to be occurring at a greater rate than they have at all but a few times in the past. the more likely it is that destruction or disaster will occur. “The more convinced we are that our species is a plague. The life historians. The author is not concerned with the possibility that other species might be undervalued. it is possible that similar rates of extinction at times occurred before human history began. the author means the use of reason to adapt to new circumstances (lines 35–43).

This faculty is used by artists to interpret rather than to objectively portray reality. the author writes. whereas previous painters relied on “an activity which we can only call interpretative” (lines 31–32). B: Yes. Roman. attempted to avoid the intervention of interpretation (paragraph 2). “without any intervention either of the tidy mind or the untidy emotions” (lines 6–7).14 MCAT Practice Test 7 Solutions Passage II (Questions 85–94) 85. In the second paragraph the author states that artists in the past were not successful in their attempts to “see the world objectively” (line 24) in part because “there always intervened between the visual event and the act of realizing the vision an activity which we can only call interpretative” (lines 29–32). D: This choice reverses the chronology presented in the passage. tried to realize “his sensations in the presence of nature” (lines 60–61). Here. the passage discusses perspective and interpretation in order to discuss the revolutionary aspect of Cézanneʼs ideas. The author makes this statement in order to contrast those artists with Cézanne (lines 56–61). In the second paragraph. 87. he tried to eliminate any distinction or difference between nature and art by showing “the reality that did not change” beneath the “shimmering and ambiguous surface of things” (lines 14–16). that is. A A: Yes. D: Cézanne. these artists are not described as revolutionary. an “extra-visual [faculty]” (lines 42–43). that is. the use of imagination or intellect (paragraph 3). Cézanne. In the rest of the passage. 19–24. the author describes how Cézanne. it is the pursuit of a single idea. The author makes this statement in the first paragraph (lines 8–14) in service of a larger argument about the distinct and revolutionary nature of Cézanneʼs ideas. C A: This choice is too narrow to be the central thesis. perception means the evidence presented by the senses. was the first painter who determined to “see the world objectively” (line 3). Furthermore. However. not the pursuit of “realism” itself that defines a revolutionary. The last paragraph sums up how this effort distinguished Cézanne from his predecessors. Yet the author states that “revolutionary leaders are people with a single and a simple idea” who doggedly pursue that idea (lines 19–21). Thus. described by the author as a revolutionary. the main focus of the passage is on Cézanne himself. and 56–61). who is portrayed as a revolutionary (lines 1–7. D: While this is true according to the passage (lines 24–29). C: The passage describes how artists before Cézanne tried (unsuccessfully) to “represent the world ʻas it really isʼ ” (lines 24–29). The author writes in paragraph 2 that interpretation “seemed to be made necessary by the very nature of perception” (lines 32–33). It is Cézanne. the author lists perspective (line 48) as part of the use of intellect. objectivity and interpretation are inconsistent with each other. it is too narrow to be the central thesis. not to distinguish between nature and art. The author begins by stating that Cézanne wished to see the world objectively. Cézanne founded “the modern movement in art” which attempted to avoid interpretation and to present the world “as an object. B A: This choice contradicts the passage. C: This choice contradicts the passage. who tried to “penetrate to the reality that did not change” (lines 15–16) by “ ʻrealizingʼ his sensations in the presence of nature” (lines 60–61). C: Yes. unlike previous artists. and Renaissance) when painters relied on interpretation (lines 24–29). In fact. “Great revolutionary leaders are people with a single and a simple idea. 14–18. without any intervention either of the tidy mind or the untidy emotions” (lines 6–7). The author cites previous periods of art (Greek. and it is the very persistency with which they pursue this idea which endows it with power” (lines 19–21). 86. . according to the author. In the third paragraph. B: Perspective and interpretation are presented as complementary. B: The author states that part of Cézanneʼs revolution was his attempt to represent the world objectively by eliminating interpretation from his art (lines 1–7. Thus. by the act of seeing. and 56–61).

That is. as it presented itself to their senses in various lights. both subjective and objective views represent objects and/or nature. B: This choice is inconsistent with the passageʼs description of Cézanneʼs pursuit of objectivity. and interpretation is consistent with subjectivity. Objects and nature are not distinguished from each other. while viewing or presenting an object within an ideal space entails subjectivity. In the second paragraph. B A: While the author states that in the Greek. Cézanne sought to “penetrate to the reality that did not change” and not to paint “the bright but deceptive picture presented by the kaleidoscope of the senses” (lines 15–18). not to expand upon the concept (lines 5–7. . D A: Notice the word “not” at the end of the question stem. B: Yes. Roman. the author suggests that they could in fact see or perceive it. 89. not subjectivity) attempted “ ʻrealizingʼ his sensations in the presence of nature” (lines 60–61). the author specifically indicates that it was Cézanneʼs dedication to pursuing the idea of objectivity that made his work influential (lines 19–21). A A: Yes. and 56–61). The author states that interpretation “always intervened between the visual event and the act of realizing the vision” (lines 29–31). See the solution for choice B. the author writes that the Impressionists “had seen the word subjectively—that is to say. The author does not describe any specific works of art from these periods (see paragraph 2). Roman. they failed to portray “the world ʻas it really isʼ ” (line 29) or “what the eye sees” (line 49). and Renaissance art was not able to represent the world as it is. C: While a subjective portrayal (or view) may rely on imagination to “create an ideal space occupied by ideal forms” (lines 44–45). or from various points of view” (lines 8–11). the passage does not discuss or describe specific works of art. while artists before Cézanne may have been unable to portray reality. C: The passage is about artistsʼ attempts to represent reality in their art. In lines 25–29. Therefore. This choice is a trap based in part on the last line of the passage. this is in support of the claim that Greek. the author implies just the opposite. the passage gives a specific definition of subjectivity in lines 8–11. See the solution for choice A. The second and third paragraphs discuss how artists before Cézanne either did not wish to or were unable to represent reality. The author states that “the modern movement in art begins with the single-minded determination of a French painter [Cézanne] to see the world objectively” (lines 1–3). The use or intervention of intellect and imagination involves interpretation (lines 41–52). B: Yes. C: As in choice B. Cézanne strove to avoid the use of “extra-visual faculties” such as imagination and intellect (lines 5–7 and 56–61). C: While the nature of perception is discussed in lines 32–40. In the first paragraph. the author states that revolutionary leaders pursue “a single and a simple idea. Second. 90. This answer choice is the opposite of what the author suggests. it would not be his (inadvertent or unwilling) use of such faculties that gave his work power. 91. this is not given as the definition of subjectivity. D: First. That is. Even if he failed to do so. While Impressionism is discussed in the first paragraph. and Renaissance periods artists attempted to make art “imitative” (lines 24–29). the author states that before Cézanne “there have been attempts to make art ʻimitativeʼ ” and to “represent the world ʻas it really is. Cézanne sought to eliminate the use of interpretation. the author never discusses what artists before Cézanne thought about its value.ʼ ” B: This choice is out of scope. where the author writes that Cézanne (who strove for objectivity. D: According to the passage. this does not mean that all subjective views involve ideal space. B A: Note the words “without intervention” in this answer choice. D: There is no later evidence that contradicts the claim that such art tried to represent the world as it is. nor does either represent a distinction between subjective and objective approaches. not in support of the claim that it tried to do so. this contradicts the passage. and it is the very persistency with which they pursue this idea that endows it with power” (lines 19–21).Verbal Reasoning Solutions 15 88. 14–18. D: Yes.

16 MCAT Practice Test 7 Solutions 92. B A: The passage does not argue that Cézanne pursued similar goals. a view or perspective that is no more accurate than the view of Earth from Sirius. Note that the question asks about artists before Cézanne. Finally. Therefore. D: Yes. the author draws an analogy between perspective and mapmaking. it would be consistent with the statement that he was familiar with the art made by his predecessors. the use of perspective) still do not give us a picture of underlying and unchanging reality (lines 51–52) and so also require interpretation. even if the author had made the claim that Cézanne pursued similar goals. C: Yes. The fact that Cézanne himself rejected interpretation does not support the claim that previous artists failed to do so. See also the explanation for question 90. they rely on the intellect as a guide. The “art of the museums” is the art of Cézanneʼs predecessors (lines 56–58). D: This choice is essentially the same as choice C. If Cézanne learned the concept of objective painting from another artist. C: The author compares perspective and mapmaking in order to argue that both fail to show the reality beneath objects (lines 51–52). The author argues that mapmaking and the use of perspective are similar in that both rely on the intellect to construct one version (not the underlying truth) of “what the eye sees” (lines 41–52).) The Mercator projection is also just one representation. While Greek and Roman art was “imitative” and tried to “represent the world “as it really is” (lines 24–29). 93. The author does not describe improvements or evolution in the use of perspective. See in particular lines 51–52 where the author states. This is just one representation of reality out of many possible views. the author states that these extra-visual faculties (for example. who showed the world “in various lights. (Note the similarity of this argument to the authorʼs description of the Impressionists. we do not need outside knowledge in order to infer that a Mercator projection is a map. “Like the map.” Therefore. it would weaken this claim by indicating that modern art did not begin with Cézanne. it would be consistent. The author then goes on in the third paragraph to argue that artists before Cézanne relied on “extra-visual faculties” such as imagination and intellect in order to “solve such problems” (lines 41–48). D: The author does not describe Cézanneʼs working methods. If Cézanne learned from other artists. choice A. it serves to guide the intellect. C A: The passage does not describe or analyze specific paintings. not inconsistent with that claim. rather than suggesting that one is better than the other. When artists use perspective to try to represent the world realistically. D Note: Lines 48–51 tell us that “a system of perspective is no more an accurate representation of what the eye sees than a Mercatorʼs projection…. it serves to guide the intellect…. maps fail as well. The author claims in the first paragraph that “what we call the modern movement in art begins with the… determination of a French painter [Cézanne] to see the world objectively” (lines 1–3). or from various points of view” [lines 10–11]. Furthermore. A: This is inconsistent with the passage. B: Yes. perspective does not give us any glimpse of the reality. “Like the [Mercator] map. C: If Cézanne had learned objective painting from another artist. an answer choice that focuses solely on Cézanne himself is unlikely to be correct. At the end of the second paragraph the author states that “the very nature of perception” seemed to require interpretation in order to translate visual sensations onto the canvas. the new information in the question stem would be consistent. B: The question focuses on artists before Cézanne. B: The author makes no such comparison. not inconsistent with the statement that Cézanne respected other artistsʼ (including his predecessorsʼ) attempts to represent nature.” . Choices A and B have the same problem. nor does he suggest that mapmaking has not evolved to become more sophisticated. 94. the author states that Cézanne was the first to attempt to “see the world objectively” (lines 1–7).” The next sentence begins.

poetic tone and language of the passage. an anthropologist would analyze those beliefs in a more scientific way (such as their role within the structure of primitive society). the death of a sunflower leads to the birth of other flowers in the future (lines 22–24). B: Yes. the author gives no particular biological mechanism as the cause. and 6 the author suggests that some common language or mode of communication drives the cycle of nature. overall. For example. in which a certain angle of light recurs once a year. for example. C. and D. “the sunflowerʼs golden language” (line 28). C: While one could say that the sunflower is an environment at certain times for certain insects. A: While the author does discuss the beliefs of her ancestors. has adapted to exist in one unique niche in its environment. In fact. but rather describes some kind of “communal knowledge” and “mysterious…summons” as the way in which biological changes or cycles are coordinated (lines 34– 42). This is not the language that a biologist would use. The author uses poetic images and language to communicate these ideas. B: While the author does discuss the interactive balance among species. a dream barely remembered” (lines 45–48). any choice that represents the author as a scientist will be incorrect. C Note: The language of the author and the tone of the passage are clearly non-scientific. C: Yes. Therefore. the author describes biological cycles as guided by some form of communication.” Rather. and “You are the result of the love of thousands” (line 60).Verbal Reasoning Solutions 17 Passage III (Questions 95–101) 95. Some examples of this language are: “a drama of need and survival” (lines 25–26). and states that a “summons” or “current we cannot explain” and “communal knowledge” underlies the regularity of this cycle. The author describes the cycle of life through the changing seasons in which. Furthermore. not on peopleʼs beliefs about nature. the author does not say that these insects. “the people who came before me” (who may or may not be “primitive”) in the last paragraph. D: The author does describe changes through the seasons (or at least within one season [line 25]) but does not indicate that it is sensitivity to and detection of environmental changes that drives biological cycles. D: The author mentions genes only once (line 31). “I felt something like a heartbeat. to open” (lines 27–30). the focus of the passage as a whole is on nature itself. A: While the author does describe the “drama of need and survival” enacted on and around the sunflower (lines 25–26). B Note: Choices A. the author describes bamboo plants that flower at the same time once a century. 5. The author discusses nature in spiritual or poetic terms. “the language of the earth” (line 43). Finally. or from “some current we cannot explain” or “communal knowledge. B. and D all give scientific explanations that are inconsistent with the personal. it is not from the perspective of an ecologist. Be careful not to use outside knowledge. using images meant to invoke feelings and sensations rather than to provide scientific explanation or analysis. the author describes what guides plant and animal behavior as “a certain knowing”(lines 30–31) or “communal knowledge” (lines 41–42) and “the language of the earth” (line 43). an ecologist would be unlikely to describe the coordinated flowering of bamboo plants (lines 36–42) as arising from a mysterious summons. not by adaptation. This by itself is enough to eliminate choices A. she does not directly address the issue of competition for resources among similar species or suggest that such competition drives the regularity of biological cycles. an ecologist would seek to explain the biological mechanisms that cause these plants to flower simultaneously. 96. In paragraphs 4. The author also describes how one kind of bamboo blooms once every 100 years (lines 36–40) and the celestial cycle of the sun observed by ancient peoples (lines 51–57).” and states that an “old voice from gene or cell taught the plant to oppose the pull of gravity and find its way upward. The author also refers to “the sunflowerʼs golden language. For example. . a hardly perceptible current that stirred a kinship and longing in me. or any other species mentioned in the passage. we find a certain species of bamboo in such disparate environments as the jungles of Malaysia and Pennsylvanian gardens (lines 38–39).

a dream barely remembered” (lines 43–48). given that it also exists in Malaysian jungles [lines 36–40]). Elsewhere in the passage. the passage indicates that death and destruction. and death” (lines 25–27). the author describes how the sandstorm plays a role in the cycle of nature by blowing away the sunflowerʼs dead petals. D: Yes. after which “the birds arrived to carry the seeds to the future” (lines 22–24). Be careful not to use outside knowledge or opinion. given that throughout the passage the author discusses the symbiotic relationship between plants.” As part of this drama. C: The passage suggests that.” and as a “current we cannot explain” (lines 36–42). a hardly perceptible current that stirred a kinship and longing in me. D: Yes.) There is no other reference in the passage to artificially introduced species. including that between humans and nature. B: In the last paragraph. Therefore. we can reasonably infer that human land use does not affect that symbiotic relationship. D: While the author mentions bamboo in Pennsylvanian gardens (bamboo which is likely to be nonnative. she never suggests that we actually disrupt or do harm to the environment. “Be still. not an indication of the cruelty of nature. B A: There is little mention in the passage of human land use. but the author never mentions this problem. B: This choice is too negative to be supported by the overall positive tone of the passage. A: For example. this answer choice has a strongly negative tone that is inconsistent with the passage. Therefore we can infer that plants and animals. Watch and listen. the author describes “the people who came before me” and their attempts to observe and make sense of the world. See also the explanation for choice A. she does not suggest that the meaning of the death of a horse and of a sandstorm are as mysterious as this unknown language. 99. the author describes how a certain type of bamboo continues to flower on its 100-year cycle. B: Yes. not as ugly or as a blemish upon the world. the only direct reference is to a “suburban garden in Pennsylvania” (line 39). just like the plants in the jungles of Malaysia. exhaustion. humans cannot not fully understand the language of nature (lines 27–28 and 40–42). You are the result of the love of thousands” (lines 59–60). the lives of plants and animals seem to carry on with no intervention from human beings. . D A: This choice is too extreme. The author also describes the “summons” that causes bamboo to flower in synchrony as “mysterious. The author tells of standing in a forest and feeling “something like a heartbeat. this is true of some types of bamboo when they spread beyond the garden. D Note: This is an EXCEPT/LEAST/NOT question. Human land use is never directly discussed in the context of native plants and animals (if we can assume that the bamboo discussed in paragraph 5 is not native to suburban Pennsylvania). In fact. humans do lack the ability to detect some intraspecies messages. native or nonnative. she does not suggest that the bamboo displaced native species. the sandstorm plays a role in allowing the sunflowerʼs seeds to be disseminated [lines 20–24]). and choose the one that is not supported. is also described as part of nature. Therefore. represented by the dead horse and the storm. she presents this as just another change “in the greater world of the plant. as outsiders. for which you must eliminate the choices that are supported by the passage. It is possible then that humans will be unable to fully satisfy their curiosity. and between plants and animals. the author never expresses a negative attitude towards human impact on the environment. are not dependent on humans for their survival. However. the author states that. In that case. The author also describes the voices of the ancestor counseling. While this statement may be true in the real world. (Be careful not to use outside knowledge.18 MCAT Practice Test 7 Solutions 97.” they can in fact exist in harmony other species. “the sunflowerʼs golden language” [lines 27–28]). While the author does indicate that some things are beyond her comprehension (for example. 98. In reality. C: See also the solution for choice B. while inconvenient for the author (lines 20–22). The author suggests that death and destruction are a part of life (for example. While the author describes humans as something of an outsider (lines 27–28). C: As in choice B. “there was escape. “As an outsider. The theme of the passage as a whole is one of harmony and kinship. While the author does call the sight of the dead horse “disturbing” (line 19). The sandstorm. even though humans may be “outsiders. with no reference to harm or disruption caused by human activity. I never learned the sunflowerʼs golden language” (lines 27–28). it is not supported by the passage. The author indicates that. In paragraphs 3 and 4 the author describes the dead horse and the sandstorm as part of “the greater world of the plant” and so as players in “a drama of need and survival. are necessary parts of the process and cycle of life.” not as something that mars natureʼs beauty.

B: This choice imposes a much too scientific explanation that has no support in the passage. Schöenbergʼs music is not itself chaotic (lines 50–51). . animals (as part of nature) are benefactors. If humans were seen as the parents. “denying a priori functional precedence to any one [note]” (lines 40–41). C: The message comes from natural (“water. granting insight and knowledge to humans (recipients). A A: Yes. it is less regulated and orderly than chromatic music.” like a (life sustaining) “heartbeat. C: The passage distinguishes between “chromatic” music and the use of the chromatic scale (lines 1–5). among other things. this answer choice reverses the relationship between humans and other animals as it is portrayed in the passage. does not write as a scientist. and expresses a desire to “Watch and listen” to nature (lines 59–60). Schöenberg embraced rather than rejected a broadened range. “take for granted nothing except the existence of a given limiting sound world” (lines 22–23). C: Yes. and to learn what she can from it.” The author senses it. “Simultaneity and progression” refer to the way in which music moves from one note or tonality to another. Here are some of the phrases and sentences describing atonal music that tell us that it has fewer rules than chromatic music: “extended the range of tonal relationships to the point at which the traditional articulative procedures were no longer adequate” (lines 6–9). The author suggests we should learn from and be guided by nature (as the author wishes for herself). D A: Rejecting regulating principles would not lead one to reject chaotic progressions. however. Atonality rejects “chromaticism. In lines 27–45. but instead that we should receive its message and become as much a part of it as we can. it is a communication from other species. Therefore. and connects the author to the rest of nature. However. D: The “hardly perceptible current” comes through “the language of the earth” (lines 43–45). representing the role of humans in general.Verbal Reasoning Solutions 19 100. “absence of a priori functional connections among the twelve notes of the semitonal scale” (lines 27–28). B: This choice is the opposite of what the author states in lines 5–7. the author does not suggest that humans should study nature as an object as does a scientist. The author. as did our ancestors. “based upon a rejection of any general principles regulating simultaneity and progression” (lines 10–12). “this ultimate expansion of possible relations” (lines 14–15). The author also describes her desire to “Watch and listen” (lines 59–60) and learn from plants and animals and the symbiotic relationships between them. Therefore. but instead gives us personal stories and emotive images that show how all of life is intertwined. not a desire to communicate with other humans. and “no attribute other than that represented by the pitch-class name of what is informally called a note…is defined by this referential permutation of the semitonal scale” (lines 46–49). when he writes. B: See also the solutions for question 95. the central thesis alone—that atonal music has fewer rules than traditional chromatic music—will lead you to the credited response in a majority of the questions. the author refers to a language or method of communication that connects and guides other forms of life. not supernatural sources. D: Yes. and so feels “kinship” with or connection to the rest of nature. C A: The passage portrays the author as awed by the natural processes she observes in the world. this answer choice reverses the relationship between humans and other animals suggested by the passage. D: As in choice A. The author suggests that there are things in nature (like “the certain knowing” that guides the birds [lines 30–31]) that we do not fully understand. In paragraph 6.” but still uses “the twelve notes of the chromatic scale” [lines 1–2]). trees…mosses” [lines 43–45]). if only faintly. 101. the passage indicates that this “hardly perceptible current” is this same kind of communication using “the language of the earth. this would imply that we know more than nature and that we should exert some measure of control over other animals. “The expanded harmonic vocabulary of late nineteenth-century music had extended the range of tonal relationships” and that the “final step in this development was taken by Arnold Schöenberg” (lines 9–10). Therefore. Therefore. The author states that Schöenberg rejected. 102. “any general principles regulating simultaneity and progression” (lines 10–12). Passage IV (Questions 102–106) Note: This passage includes quite a bit of technical language and will be difficult for most people to understand.

duration. but the degree to which this ordering actually determines the musical procedures varies greatly from one work to another. 105. Atonal compositions deny “a priori [intrinsic] functional precedence to any one [note]” (lines 38–41). B: This is true of atonal music. The author states that the diatonic. C: The author does not directly discuss the working methods of twelve-tone composers. The author states. D: This choice contradicts the passage. if it is to have any meaning. In contrast. the semitonal scale” (lines 22–24). This choice is essentially given by the information in the question stem. choice D. If twelve-tone composers are rejecting traditional diatonic scales. A A: Yes. B: The author does not criticize the traditional scale. repetitiveness is never mentioned. If atonal compositions follow fewer rules. 104. once we realize that the twelve-tone scale (atonal music) is contrasted in the passage with the traditional diatonic musical scale. the author suggests that their methods may shift. unlike the atonal system. In fact. on the other hand. and so forth” (lines 19–21). “Neither register. it makes sense to conclude that their structure would be less obvious to listeners. C: Yes. while the atonal composer “can take for granted nothing except the existence of a given limiting sound world. . You donʼt need to know what these things are in order to infer that they represent certain rules or guidelines telling composers how to organize or structure their music. The author states that in Schöenbergʼs system. D: Atonal music uses the “twelve notes of the semitonal scale” (lines 24–28). A A: Yes. B A: The author never discusses how harmonious each type of music sounds. choice D (the correct answer) and the summary of information from the passage given in the stem of question 104. The author states that “an unambiguous ordering is assumed” (lines 50–51) and that “the premise of an ordered arrangement of the twelve notes. timbre. the author never raises the issue of quality. The author states in particular that atonal music does not follow “a ʻsystemʼ of composition” (lines 28–33). “may take for granted the existence of specific properties of that system: a seven-tone scale. 106. believed that it was needlessly repetitive. Both choices mix up diatonic and atonal music. If. D: This choice contradicts both question 102. B: Yes. and that it is not “reducible to a set of foundational assumptions” (lines 29–31).20 MCAT Practice Test 7 Solutions 103. diatonic music composers are limited by certain rules and assumptions (lines 18–21). including the author. The statement that some composers rejected one for the other certainly does not suggest that the two are more similar than different. by stating that the way in which the ordering of the notes determines the composition may vary between different works by the same composer (lines 50–54). even though they may be by the same composer” (lines 50–54). but the degree to which this ordering actually determines the general musical procedures varies greatly from one work to another. triadic harmonic structure. an “unambiguous ordering is assumed. even though they may be by the same composer” (lines 50–54). while it is diatonic music that uses “a seven-tone scale” (lines 18–21). If anything. The author states that an “unambiguous ordering is assumed. C: Compare this choice to question 103. rules (lines 18–21). then it must be true that composers may accept or reject those scales. atonal music is likely to sound less harmonious because it breaks with the traditional rules of harmony. However. must somehow govern the essential musical events in a consistent and logical manner” (lines 57–60). not the diatonic system. C A: The passage indicates just the opposite. or intensity…is defined by” the use of the semitonal scale in atonal music (lines 45–50). D: The passage does not suggest that traditional compositions are better.” that is. C: The main theme of the passage is the fundamental difference between the two systems. The author also states that in atonality there is an “absence of a priori [intrinsic] connections among the twelve notes” (lines 26–27). a key center. music did follow certain rules. B: This choice is too extreme. it is diatonic music that is based on the seven-note scale (lines 18–21). the fact that some composers reject it is not enough upon which to conclude that it is inadequate or flawed. rather than remain consistent from one composition to another. There is no evidence in the passage that anyone. The author writes that it is the diatonic system that “take[s] for granted the existence of certain properties of that system. then by knowing the rules we would also know a lot about the basic organization or structure of that music.

the author calls for changes in the U. The author states that computers help firms meet the “complex requirements” of the global market (lines 36–39). living standard. for them to generate a significant profit. living standard. This is not a great choice. the author asserts that “The high road is not an easy course for employers to take” (lines 31–32). “For the United States to compete in a eventual global economy based on skilled workers and quality products. and income equity” (lines 5–10)..S. B: Nothing in the new information in the question stem or in the passage tells us that those who invest in a high-road firm would question the personnel policies (investment in attracting and maintaining highly skilled workers) that make it a highroad firm. the author does not suggest that training is required to use what is generated by computers. it is reasonable to infer that it will take some time. B: The author does not argue that any use of computers or technology will by itself increase a firmʼs business. it makes a prediction for which there is not enough support in the passage or in the question stem. but it is the best supported of the four.S. Secondly. the best answer will weaken the reported relationship between computer skills and what employees do or do not earn in the workplace. Therefore. given that the passage lists “the quality and variety of products” (line 34) as one important factor in the global market. it seems likely that investors would in fact care about product quality. and income equity” (lines 5–10). additional employer investment in training [the high road] is needed now” (lines 57–60). . the author points out that only 20% of U. Compare this choice to choice C. B: Yes. “For the United States to compete in a eventual global economy based on skilled workers and quality products. In the first paragraph the author states that the “low road” approach. or contrast between. must limit a nationʼs economic competitiveness. the focus of the passage is on the United States. while 40% are limited to the low road (lines 22–25). In fact. while it is reasonable to infer that the firm may struggle for awhile. In the first paragraph the author speaks in broader terms. Given that this is a recently founded small firm. not firms. the finding that less training is required to follow computer-generated schedules than to devise oneʼs own schedule is not inconsistent with the passage. The author states in paragraph 2 that “only dominant firms can afford to commit resources to training and keeping employees by providing full benefits with high wages” (lines 14–17). in part through improved quality control. we can conclude that the author is particularly concerned about the competitiveness of the United States. there is no discussion of. However. However. we have no reason to believe that it will not eventually attain competitive success. C: The author does not focus specifically on the concerns of technology-based economies. B A: The author is concerned with the ability of nations. the finding that customers may respond better to a personal letter than to E-mail is not enough to undermine the authorʼs argument that computer-based methods are necessary in order to compete in a global market. this choice is about the influence of computers on a firmʼs competitiveness in the market. the author applies this concern specifically to the United States by arguing that.S. Finally. D: The author never discusses less-developed nations. The author herself is clearly in favor of the high-road approach. additional employer investment in training [or the high road] is needed now. In paragraph 6. and that the ability to use computers increases the earning potential of employees (lines 52–56). 109. 108. in paragraph 4. C: Yes. Therefore. “if the norm.Verbal Reasoning Solutions 21 Passage V (Questions 107–116) 107. D: This choice is too strong. D Note: The credited response will be undermine the authorʼs argument in the passage. A: The author suggests that employees may require training in order to be able to use computers. workers are on the high road (lines 20–21). Furthermore. Note also that the question specifically asks about the influence of computers in the workplace. arguing that. must limit a nationʼs economic competitiveness. to compete in a global market. C A: Nothing in the passage or in the new information in the question stem indicates that investors would not care about product quality. economies that are more or less technological. “if the norm. economy and educational system. Therefore. given the high level of investment in labor required by the high road. not about the influence of computers in the workplace itself. stating that the “low road” approach. Policies at all levels should encourage the coordination of employer-provided training and broader schooling” (lines 57–62). Since the passage as a whole focuses on concerns and prescriptions specific to the U. in paragraphs 2 and 3.

110. D: The passage discusses different types of employees. and that is in the context of regulations that protect some firms from competition. B: Yes. not in insufficient vocational training during high school. not a middle-road employee. Furthermore. in paragraph 6 the author states. the problem lies in the lack of further education and training after high school. workers receive no formal training beyond a high-school education. The author contrasts these workers on one hand with lowroad workers who have no post-high-school training (lines 22–25) and on the other with high-road employees who have a depth of education and training that allows then to “react quickly to changing technologies and markets” (lines 11–14). that automation necessarily involves computers) is given by the passage or by the question. not the “muddy middle road” (lines 25–30). C: Someone who returned to college to upgrade their qualifications is more likely to be a high-road worker. which falls more within the scope of the passage. D: The credited response needs to focus on training. In particular. this answer choice has no direct relevance to the passage or to the new information in the question stem. In paragraph 3 the author describes workers on the middle-road as “getting some advanced education or jobrelated training but unlikely to enter the dynamic high-road labor market and attract employers who would train them thoroughly to join their core workers” (lines 27–30). . she does not explicitly advocate it.” C: The author states in lines 22–23 that “About 40 percent of U. D: Yes. B: Yes. there is no suggestion that these regulations are unfair or counterproductive in any way. Although the issue of an agreement to repay tuition is new.. which is much more strongly supported by the passage. B: See the solution for choice A and lines 66–70. C: The high road calls for firms to invest in their own workers (lines 11–17). Compare this choice to choice B. If mechanics using computerized methods earned less than mechanics using traditional methods.” and that these workers are thus relegated to low-road jobs. Furthermore. to both firm and worker.22 MCAT Practice Test 7 Solutions C: The author does not argue that computers increase efficiency. of computer usage in industrial production. Policies at all levels should encourage the coordination of employer-provided training and broader schooling. Therefore. 111. “For the United States to compete in an eventual global economy based on skilled workers and quality products. A A: Yes. Therefore. additional employer investment in training is needed now. in the passage. 112. Throughout the passage.S. The author argues that “Workers who use computers on the job also earn more than do those of the same education level who do not use computers at work” (lines 52–54). and within that the need for well educated and highly trained employees in order to make the high road possible. The author mentions governmental regulation only once (lines 19–20). B A: While the author mentions regulations that protect certain firms (lines 17–20). Cutting costs elsewhere is not within the scope of this discussion. This choice does not specifically correspond to the authorʼs description of the “muddy middle road” (lines 25–30). the author calls on more firms to take the high-road approach by investing in the education and training of their own workers (lines 57–62). someone who was unable to get or hold a job for any length of time because of lack of education comes closest to the lowroad employees described in the passage. the choice as a whole is most consistent with the authorʼs call for increased investment in the training of workers. the author stresses the value of the high-road approach. A person with limited job training would then fit into the “middle road” category. not reasons why people may be chronically unemployed. D: While the author does discuss the advantages. B A: The focus of the passage is on training and education. Compare this to choice B. A worker with the ability and flexibility to switch to unfamiliar procedures would be a high-road. not to benefit from the training provided by other firms.e. it would undermine this part of the authorʼs argument. no connection between automation and computer usage (i.

“If investment in workers outpaces the number of good jobs. Therefore. Furthermore. Remember that you are looking for the best choice of the four. D A: The author suggests instead that investment in training increases costs. this is a different kind of involvement. the author clearly indicates that employer-provided training is itself of great value (lines 57–60). if newly appointed managers received more training and access to sophisticated equipment. Therefore. the new information does not support this particular conclusion made in the passage and presented in this answer choice. Furthermore. B: The author describes workers who are more independent. only that they received more training once they moved up. if the jobs donʼt exist. as specified by the question. and nothing that is inconsistent with any part of the passage (the author does not argue that power sharing means that all workers. This statement is directly supported by the passage. she does not compare the earnings of workers at different levels in this context. In paragraph 4.or middle-road firm. Therefore. While a worker would be even better off with a combination of job-based and comprehensive training. then. the more one will be paid (lines 46–56). C: This choice is too extreme. The passage describes this outcome as improved quality control (lines 39–43). it is not specific to increased worker involvement in the production process. D: While this practice might improve quality. A A: Yes. Furthermore. The new information in the question does not tell us that these former low-level employees moved up (and likely were paid more) because of training. in the sense that they have the “expertise and responsibility” (lines 39–43) to monitor their own work. she does state that in general the more training and technological expertise one has. Finally. on the other hand. This is why only “dominant firms can afford to commit resources to training and keeping employees by providing full benefits with high wages” (lines 14–17). Furthermore. the author states. it would support the authorʼs argument that increased involvement of workers in the production process both requires computers and increases quality. workers will not be able to get high (or higher) paying jobs. If anything. In highly paid work. as in choice C. it is not in the production process. where employees are most likely to be called upon to perform a wide range of tasks and to take on a certain amount of responsibility. we could reasonably infer that they would be paid more. D: Yes. C: We do not know from the question stem that this is a low.” That is. The lowroad firms. are equal). B: The author indicates that while on-the-job training is quite valuable. minimize their investment in worker training in order to keep labor costs low (lines 5–8). the question also asks what would promote the outcome attributed to increased involvement. the author provides the example of quality control. 114. the author discusses how formal training will cause a worker to be paid better than similar workers who do not get such training (lines 49–52). including management. In lines 75–78. C: While this choice describes increased involvement. on-the-job training would not fully compensate for other educational deficiencies. and so that there would be a disparity in earnings between management and workers. 115. then even with training. many very competent workers will face an employment market of many very undemanding jobs. the author calls for a “coordination of employerbased training and broader schooling” (lines 61–62). “specific training degrades rapidly. to call increased access to training and equipment given to managers an “inequity” would be too negative a statement to be supported by the wording of the passage. D: Yes.Verbal Reasoning Solutions 23 113. While the author does not discuss employees who hold managerial positions. a firm in which workers have the ability and opportunity to move into managerial positions is more likely to be a high-road firm. If workers used a computer bulletin board to share quality-control tips. and narrow skills seldom transfer well to new job requirements” (lines 68–70). the lack of comprehensive education is not presented as a reason why training does not create high-wage jobs. not necessarily an ideal answer. B: There is nothing in the new information presented in the question that speaks to the issue of power sharing. this choice says nothing to the issue of how training does not create high-wage jobs mentioned in the second part of the question. D A: The author concludes that occupational preparation and access to training are “complementary in their effect on earnings” (lines 46–48). and states that skilled workers who “demonstrate expertise and responsibility” (line 43) can use computerized systems to check quality at all stages of production. we have no indication that worker participation in hiring would contribute to quality. This choice is inconsistent with that description in the passage. .

(For example. that is. The question stem tells us that this resident of seventeenth-century France began having children at age 20. then. and another 25% would be likely to die before the parent died 20 years later. the author states that increases in average life expectancy were “due mainly to success in reducing infant. If low-road firms make up a higher percentage of the total than do workers for those firms.” . D: These statistics about U. C A: The key issue in the question stem is that low-road workers make up a lower percentage of total workers (40%) than the percentage of total firms represented by low-road firms (50%). Passage VI (Questions 117–121) 117. C: Yes. and women in childbirth) than to improved health of the elderly. The author draws no connection between how many elderly people there are on one hand. 118. the passage does not describe moving into a retirement community in terms of “breaking with the past. and another 25% would be likely to die before the parent died 20 years later. 25 years after the parent had died. then low-road firms would make up 50% of the total number of firms. Half of the children would be expected to die by the end of those 20 years. C Note: The passage states that 25% of the people born in seventeenth-century France die within a year of being born. childhood. By saying that “death had no more relation to old age than to any other period of life” (lines 6–8). B: Be careful not to speculate beyond the scope of the passage. B: This number is too low. the new information indicates just the opposite. 75% would be expected to die by age 45. While it may make sense to say that if a person believes they are more likely to survive into adulthood and beyond they might (or should) be more concerned with long-term planning. 119. 50% of the total would die by the time the parent died at age 40. D: This number is too high. the total employed by low-road firms would be 500 people.or high-road firms. and another 25% of those people die before the age of 20 (lines 9–12). and the respect accorded those people on the other. If low-road firms make up 50% of total firms but account for a lower percentage (40%) of total workers. children.24 MCAT Practice Test 7 Solutions 116. and the non-low-road firms employed on average 20 people each. and died at age 40. we can conclude that. 25% would probably have died in their first year of life. Given that there is no evidence that the percentage of firms that are low-road is decreasing over time. C: As in choice B. 25% of the children would die within a year. this is consistent with the conclusion that such firms would employ fewer workers. even though older people could expect to live even longer than before (lines 23–25).) Note also that the author of the passage states that low-road firms are likely to resort to outsourcing and downsizing in order to cut costs (lines 5–8). each load-road firm must on average hire fewer workers than each non-low-road firm. D A: Both the passage and the new information in the question stem describe the attitude of people in retirement communities in positive terms (lines 35–38 and 68–73). and another 25% of the original number would die by the age of 20.S. B: If anything. Over 10% (25%) would probably have died in their first year of life. Finally. Just because infants and children were more likely to die in the past does not necessarily mean that parents cared less about those infants. A A: Yes. firms tell us nothing about firms outside the United States. Therefore. this statement has no support in the passage. the increase in average life expectancy was due more to better health in early life (infants. If those low-road firms employed on average 10 people each. and maternal mortality” (lines 19–21). the author never raises this issue in the passage. this distinction does not give us any reason to think that low-road firms are more likely to fail. In those 20 years. or 33 ¹/³% of the total of 1500 people employed by both low. if we had 50 lowroad and 50 middle. you need to be careful to stay as close as possible to the information provided in the passage. D: As in choices B and C. Later in the passage. the author indicates that people commonly died at a relatively young age of causes that had nothing to do with aging. Therefore. A: This number is too low. then low-road firms must hire fewer workers. The wording of this choice (“ambivalence”) indicates that the retirees are questioning or doubting their decision. C: Yes.and non-low-road firms.

“In the last hundred years.” Furthermore. These numbers tell us nothing about what happened after 1978. C: We have no way of inferring that the new arrivals were leaving difficult situations behind.S.Verbal Reasoning Solutions 25 B: While the positive tone (“satisfaction”) is appropriate. or young adults.S. D A: The fact that there are more elderly people does not explain why the life expectancy of an infant has increased by more than the additional years a person at age sixty can expect to live. The difference is explained in the passage by the fact that most of the improvement came though reduced mortality of children and women in childbirth (lines 19–21). The author then goes on to discuss the “demographic of mortality” in the U. D: Yes. and to support the claim that “for an entire generation to reach old age with its membership almost intact is new” (lines 4–6). and the U. The author cites mortality statistics from seventeenth-century France as an example illustrating how. children. D: The passage presents a sharp contrast between mortality in seventeenth-century France and the U.6 years) increase in average life expectancy of a newborn (due largely to “success in reducing infant. . B: Nowhere in the passage does the author suggest that people believe demographic changes are unique to U. it has no direct relevance to the comparison between seventeenthcentury France and the twentieth-century United States. The author labels the former “average life expectancy” and the latter “longevity.3 to 73. It also matches the positive attitude of retirees towards their “new life” described by the author of the passage.8-year increase in the additional years a white male could expect to live after the age of sixty (lines 23–25) on the other hand.S.” People are not living that much longer overall (longevity). The statistic dealing with longevity is specific to men.. and so can expect less of a payoff over the rest of his life span. the comparison between France and the U. and the word “optimism” in the answer choice is appropriate to the positive attitude expressed by the director. in 1980 on the other. C: Yes. S. Even if this were the case. C A: While this relationship is suggested by the passage. Be careful not to read too much into the directorʼs use of the word “pilgrims. the demographics of mortality have changed more than in the six previous centuries” (lines 16–18). most people died before they reached old age. B: The passage compares the longevity of a white male of sixty in 1900 and in 1978. (lines 16–30). culture. the discussion of France serves to introduce the authorʼs contrast between average life expectancy in the past and today. in 1900 and in 1980 to illustrate how average life expectancy has significantly increased due to medical advances. 121. we are not told that longevity continues to increase in an “ongoing trend. and maternal mortality”) on one hand with the 2. 120. which is the likelihood that a person in the later stages of adulthood (e. The statistics about greater life expectancy are all from the U. there is nothing in the passage to suggest that people moving into retirement communities are similar or analogous in this respect. C: There is no evidence in these statistics or in the rest of the passage that women live longer than men. and that many such developments have “evolved…into communities with traditions of their own” (lines 60–62). and the comparison drawn is between overall life expectancy (at birth) and increased longevity of men who have already attained a certain age. the credited response must also match up with some statement or theme in the passage.” While the pilgrims who came to North America from England may have been leaving behind religious persecution and economic hardship. or that independence is a major concern for retirees. The author states. but more people are surviving past the age of sixty-five (overall life expectancy). age 60) will live even longer. would not counter that belief. The author of the passage does not suggest that moving into a retirement community constitutes becoming independent of oneʼs family.” Therefore. as the author never mentions demographic change in France. The author of the passage tells us that “many gerontologists concluded that the elderly found in their segregated lives the advantages…advertised in the real-estate brochures” (lines 70–73).3-year (from 47. We can infer that having common traditions would likely involve having similar values or goals. The author also states that “many retirees welcomed these complexes as a new adventure” (lines 37–38). The author distinguishes this issue from that of “longevity” (lines 21–25). D: Yes. the intent of the reference to France is to show how people used to commonly die as infants.S. A person of sixty has already benefited from those improvements. childhood.S. in 1900 on one hand. in the past. and that many more people now live long enough to be considered “elderly. The author provides these statistics in part to contrast the 26.g.

Furthermore. and both contributed profoundly useful principles to the field of education” (lines 42–44). While promoters of the readiness program may label parents who favor other approaches as “uncaring” (lines 57–59). D A: This choice is too extreme. it is the forgotten parents and the children themselves who will pay for the short-sighted ambition of this policy” (lines 75–77). While the author would agree that it is impractical.” However. and so is easier to implement. the author states that “the advocates of generalized readiness are clearly directing their appeal to school administrators” (lines 55–57). “Readiness. “In the long run. Furthermore. It is true that the author states that parents favor developmentally appropriate instruction (lines 30–34 and 57–59). although a confused approach. The author thinks that such a theory or “confused approach” (lines 69–70) would be ineffective. That is. however. For example. is easily implemented because its promoters are positioned to move immediately” (lines 69–72). 123. A developmentally appropriate approach. the author does not go so far as to call this fraud. the author calls them a “confused approach” (line 70) and states. C: Yes. the author states that advocates of this approach such as Piaget and Gesell “had direct experience with children in an educational setting. such a theory would likely be generally accepted. the author argues that this approach does in fact reflect the views of those who know how children learn. B: The author suggests that administrators are reluctant to adopt the developmentally appropriate approach because they are more “concerned with uniformity” (line 75). However. For example. C: Yes. or to claim that the promoters are making a great deal of money. Therefore. The author does believe that these promoters are selling a theoretical approach that is conceptually and practically flawed. Furthermore.26 MCAT Practice Test 7 Solutions Passage VII (Questions 122–127) 122. The author also states that administrators are reluctant to implement it because they are more concerned with “uniformity” (lines 72–75). such theories are “the usual practice at the professional level of education” (lines 34–35). they are less than ethical in part because they are ineffective or impractical. C A: This choice is only partially supported by the passage. the author does not believe they are practical or effective. The author goes on to state that the promoters suggest that. C: The author refers to the promotersʼ own business (lines 30–32) but never indicates that corporate sponsorship is involved. B: This choice is too extreme. See the explanations for choices A and B. D: In paragraph 7. The author gives no indication that administrators believe that developmentally appropriate instruction is unproven or that it would require extensive research. the author tells us earlier in the passage that “the usual practice at the professional level of education” is to treat “learning as an abstraction” (lines 34–37). which approaches learning through practical . Through the passageʼs description of developmentally appropriate instruction. C A: The authorʼs critique of the self-serving motivation of those who “sell” such theories (lines 30-34) and of the long-term counterproductive effect of their implementation (lines 75–77) is enough to support the label “unethical. the fact that parents support it is not a reason why administrators reject it. Lastly. B: The author says nothing good about these theories and would be more likely to agree that they are unethical than ethical. The author also states that they are doing so in part “to keep their business financially solvent” (lines 31–32). the passage argues that such theories are ineffective. The author states. However. and because the readiness approach as an alternative is “easily implemented because its promoters are positioned to move immediately” (lines 69–72). the author states that such theories or approaches represent “the usual practice at the professional level of education of treating learning as an abstraction that has little to do with the learner” (lines 34–37). the passage never mentions “consumers” as a target or focus. The author also bemoans the fact that despite this flaw. “An administrator wise enough to adopt the readiness program is promised higher percentages on standardized tests and more content teachers” (lines 63–65). 124. because it is not based on actual experience with and knowledge of how children learn (lines 48–54). D: See the solution for choice C. their concerns relate more to convenience. it is clear that it involves responding and adapting to the specific needs and abilities of children at different developmental stages (see lines 30–34 and 41–47). the author does not describe administrators as sharing this view. the readiness approach does not require as much attention to the specific needs of different students. The author doesnʼt go so far as to claim that these promoters are out to control the entire educational system.

Furthermore. not developmentally appropriate instruction. while the author suggests that School Readiness does not provide a variety of approaches appropriate to different developmental levels. Income depends on much more than just oneʼs high-school education. This is more likely to be possible in a restaurant. The author states. Given the authorʼs deep suspicion of the Readiness Program (see the explanation for choice B). not just a newspaper report. which entails pulling in all the fish in the vicinity without focusing on and approaching each one as an individual. A finding can be relevant and yet at the same time inaccurate. 44–47. B Note: The correct answer will compare something that is more uniform and generic like the readiness program to something that is more individualized. D: It is the readiness program. in order to match the relationship presented in the question stem. that is “slickly presented” (line 69). Casting a line with a fishing rod would be more specific and individualized than dragging a net behind a boat. To make this concession. where a greater variety of foods is likely to be available. or developmentally inappropriate. we can infer that this test of high-school students could measure how effective their education was in preparing them for college. while a family dinner at home may be more personal. B: There is no information in the question stem or in the passage that tells us how a test of the effectiveness of a studentʼs education would also tell us something about how fairly or honestly the students were graded. this would be too easy and rapid a concession to the view that the program may have some value. the author would need the kind of evidence referred to in paragraph 2. not taking the specific characteristics of each recipient into account (like School Readiness).Verbal Reasoning Solutions 27 observation and direct experience (lines 37–47 and 48–55) would then be a departure from traditional practices. A yearly form letter is generic. D: Compare this choice to choice A. Therefore. C A: Neither the passage nor the question stem leads us to conclude that the author would believe that promoting language skills at this age is unreasonable. it is not necessarily adapted or adaptable to the needs of each individual. 127. 125. to evaluate the usefulness of high-school curricula. Furthermore. C: This choice reverses the comparison. D: This choice mentions a variety of dishes prepared in a restaurant. that is. However. It is reasonable to draw a connection between high-school test scores. C: The scores themselves could not be used to evaluate the reliability or appropriateness of the test that generated those scores. D: This choice is too extreme. and 69–77). . B: Given the authorʼs unrelentingly critical view of the Readiness Program in the passage (see lines 28–40. and so would be less convenient than the readiness program. While the author would likely remain deeply suspicious of the report and of the program. “The appropriate instrument for measuring educational effectiveness is a test noted for its reliability and validity” (lines 11–13). and the value or effectiveness of the high-school education. 48–54. B: Yes. the author does not discuss cost effectiveness of either program. 126. The two scenarios also need to be presented in that particular order. like developmentally appropriate teaching. apparent or reported success in the teaching of language skills would not itself be seen by the author as irrelevant to the goals of education. we can infer that the author of the passage would doubt the validity of a newspaper report showing the programʼs positive effects. it is much more of a stretch to say that these scores could be used to predict a studentʼs future income. Personal notes would be adapted to each individual (like developmentally appropriate teaching). C: Yes. the studentsʼ performance in college. The test itself and its underlying principles would need to be evaluated by some standard external to the test itself in order to “[establish] its credentials” (line 15–18). A: The passage does not indicate that developmentally appropriate teaching is more technologically advanced than School Readiness. A A: Yes.

” A: Yes. The author argues that even if one has “made a promise to obey. Since the objection does not indicate that politicians are in fact better decision makers than the average person. if the person has no option to break it. it would be consistent to say that laws created by the government would be legitimate only if they were consistent with the will of the governed. C A: This choice weakens rather than supports the passage. The authorʼs response is a logically valid refutation of the objection. it would challenge the authorʼs claim that it is impossible to avoid responsibility for oneʼs own actions by transferring that responsibility to someone else (lines 20–23). it is because the person believes it to be the right thing to do. to keep or break that promise” (lines 14–15). A law that was not in accordance with the will of the governed would illegitimately punish moral people for doing what they thought was right. Therefore. B: The author writes that “the responsible individual will often have to take into account what other individuals are doing when that individual is calculating the consequences of his or her action” (lines 33–36). for acting in accordance with their own moral responsibility. it would weaken the authorʼs claim that it is impossible to enslave “your will to someone elseʼs will” (line 12). this is a different issue from that of the possibility of putting oneʼs will under the control of another by promising to obey that person. This choice weakens the passage. that is. D: The point of the author is that we are responsible for our own decisions and that individuals should make those decisions for themselves. the author states that “if the government requires a moral person to act in a particular fashion and that person complies. C A: The authorʼs response is directly relevant (see the solution for choice C). However. The issue is the transferability of responsibility from an individual to the government. A Note: The theme of the passage is stated in the first sentence: “In a fundamental sense. While the author does make this statement in the passage (lines 3–4). This choice itself incorrectly suggests that the author assumes the objector does imply that people should be forced to disobey their consciences. if the person has no option to break it. too” is meant to show why we should “let people decide for themselves what is right and wrong” (lines 45–48) since members of a government are not inherently better. Therefore. The issue of being forced to disobey oneʼs conscience is not directly involved in either the objection or in the authorʼs response. not the moral responsibility of the government for its own actions. and ʻto err is humanʼ applies to us all” (lines 53–55). every person is morally responsible for deciding what is right and what is wrong and acting accordingly. Once the promise is made. The author believes that people must in the end decide moral issues for themselves: “the final arbiter is the individual” (line 30). 130. D: See the explanation for choice B. The fact that the people described in the question stem may not make decisions based in part on the effects of their actions on others does not affect the authorʼs argument that they should do so. not simply because the government requires it” (lines 24–28). This is one application of the overall theme of the passage. an individual is still obliged to carry it for him or herself (lines 6–9).28 MCAT Practice Test 7 Solutions Passage VIII (Questions 128–132) 128. If someone is incapable of breaking a promise. C: Yes. one is still in fact free to obey or disobey. The author argues in the passage that “A government is made up of individuals who are fundamentally similar to me. it may as well be me” (lines 50–52). The author argues. . The authorʼs reply that “the designated decision makers could decide anything. it neither supports nor challenges the passage. they would no longer be morally responsible. they would no longer be morally responsible. In paragraph 4. The implication that politicians should also obey their consciences is not directly relevant to the argument about whether or not it is morally valid to hand over moral authority for our own decisions to those politicians. “Since someone has to decide what is the right thing for me to do. 129. to keep or break that promise” (lines 14–15). The author argues that while the burden may be heavy. Once the promise is made. or more moral. B: The authorʼs response is relevant (see the solution for choice C). If someone is incapable of breaking a promise. C: Yes. The new information in the question stem is not directly relevant to the authorʼs suggestion that other people matter. B: This choice contradicts the main theme of the passage. the authorʼs response that what applies to us applies to politicians (they could decide anything) is directly relevant to the objection. The author argues that even if one has “made a promise to obey. one is still in fact free to obey or disobey. it does not invalidate or make irrelevant the authorʼs response to the objection. decision makers.

B Note: The central thesis of the passage is stated in the first sentence: “In a fundamental sense. See also the explanation for choice D. Therefore. the promotion and advantages of order are not by themselves sufficient reasons to obey a law.” it might as well be the individual (lines 50–52). it should be because one has decided that the action is moral in and of itself. in which case I will listen to that person and may very well go along with him or her because I believe that to be a strategy more likely to achieve a satisfactory result” (lines 55–60). it does not in and of itself support the central thesis about individual moral responsibility. Note also that the author writes. and ʻto err is humanʼ applies to us all” (lines 53–55). “Sometimes a government member may claim to have access to more information or expertise in a particular matter. 131. D: See the solutions for choices B and C. However. The author supports the argument that individuals must ultimately decide for themselves what is right with the claim that “A government is made up of individuals who are fundamentally similar to me. even if it is fallible. If officials were ten thousand times more likely to be correct. See the explanation for choice B. Therefore. every person is morally responsible for deciding what is right and what is wrong and acting accordingly. when one does obey. “The fact that the government has decreed ʻEveryone shall drive on the leftʼ may result in people so arranging themselves. D: If government officials were much more likely than private individuals to make correct moral decisions. but rather a potential conflict between the decision of a government official and of a private citizen. whom to consult. “That the government does require a particular behavior may be an important factor to be taken into account. The author states that. Note that the author never suggests that laws should be obeyed in all or most cases. D: The author does recommend “if you are ignorant. It tells us nothing about how individual moral responsibility relates to the law or to a decision to follow the law. “but when to consult. but the final arbiter is the individual” (lines 28–30).” The rest of the passage supports and expands upon this theme. The new information in the question would undermine. C A: “Conflicting experts” is not at issue here. C: See the solution for choice B. and how to decide between conflicting experts is still the individualʼs problem. the author would say that lawmakers should ultimately rely on their own judgement. If officials were ten thousand times more likely to be correct. . And so is the final decision” (lines 60–63). it would weaken the authorʼs claim that “since someone has to decide.Verbal Reasoning Solutions 29 C: The author does say that we must take effects on others into account. Rather. The author makes no distinction between individuals in general and lawmakers in particular (“ ʻto err is humanʼ applies to us all” [lines 54–55]). C: Yes. consult an expert. it would have no relevance to or impact on the authorʼs argument that moral responsibility can be a heavy burden (lines 3–5). 132. the information in the question stem is entirely consistent with the passage and does not indicate that the central thesis must be changed or modified. and conformity with the traffic flow is a desirable thing” (lines 36–39). without using our (much more fallible) individual judgement. with the official being much more likely to be correct. If officials were so much more likely to be correct. The fact that in some cases people find it advantageous to follow the law is not inconsistent with the authorʼs overall argument that people must ultimately decide issues of right and wrong for themselves. not support this assertion. it would suggest that perhaps sometimes we should just do as commanded. This new information simply indicates that in some cases people find it beneficial to follow the law. The author states. The author argues that government officials and private individuals are essentially equivalent in their capacity to make moral judgements (lines 48–55). it neither strengthens nor undermines the central thesis. and that maintaining order (for example by driving on the same side of the street as everyone else [lines 33–39]) may in fact be beneficial. B: See the solution for choice C. Therefore. then one might say the final arbiter might as well be an official. A: While this choice is consistent with the passage (lines 33–39).” but then goes on to say. B: Yes.

S. D A: This choice is not specific enough to Gibbon or to his views nor does it provide sufficient evidence upon which to conclude that such a bias would invalidate his conclusions. D: Compare this choice to choice B. The author provides evidence for this view in part by describing in paragraph 4 some modern instances of factionalist strife that parallel events in Roman history. and yet Rome also knew “violent mobs screaming noble platitudes in order to remove a tyrannical ruler. rather than individuals. Ethnic conflict in Bosnia would be analogous to the examples of the Crimean Chersonites and the Caucasus (lines 41–46) given in the passage. The widely supported civil rights movement in the U. it does not make sense to say that Gibbon claimed that a Roman emperor was the first tyrant because humans are divisive and contentious.N. 134. An attack meant to stop an invasion could be seen as an attempt to limit strife. for example. the author does not go so far as to suggest that Gibbon believes that leaders have no influence whatsoever on world history. Therefore. B: Nothing in the passage would lead us to conclude that having a vast territory contributes to peace. While tyranny could in some cases be related to the human tendency towards factionalism and strife. B: Yes. this choice describes movement away from factionalism and/or strife. not strengthen Gibbonʼs argument by showing that people may be able to overcome their tendency to separate themselves into factions and to pit those factions against each other. The passage also mentions how Milan and Nicomedia functioned as “capital cities decades before the formal . rather than an example of how “humanityʼs predilection for factionalism” (lines 3–4) and “tendency toward strife” (line 64) drive history. The Roman Empire itself lasted for hundreds of years. Gibbon sees history as determined by “humanityʼs predilection for factionalism” (lines 3–4). this answer choice focuses on the U. This is the only choice of the four that can be connected to Gibbonʼs views as discussed in the passage. D: As in choices A and C. B A: Gibbon sees human nature as defined by “humanityʼs predilection for factionalism” (lines 3–4) and “the tendency towards strife” (line 64). this answer choice does not present a view that would follow from Gibbonʼs beliefs about human nature. Gibbon located “humankindʼs best hope in moderate politics and flexible institutions that would not become overbearing” (lines 56–58) and believed that “a state or an empire can endure only if it generally limits itself to adjudicating disputes among its citizens”(lines 69–71). B: This choice is consistent with the passage. 135. response to that invasion. Constitution is the only factor listed in these answer choices that could relate to political institutions and their role in limiting conflict and thus in maintaining stability. this particular assertion does not illustrate or follow from the negative attributes of human nature discussed by Gibbon. and Diocletian” (lines 12–15). C: Be careful not to bring outside knowledge or opinion to bear. C: While the invasion of Kuwait by Iraq would fit with Gibbonʼs view of human nature as defined by a “tendency toward strife” (line 64). it is unlikely that Gibbon would attribute domestic peace to patriotism. only to see another take his place” (lines 62–64).30 MCAT Practice Test 7 Solutions Passage IX (Questions 133–137) 133. 136. Gibbon defines the role of a good government as a mediator of disputes (lines 69–71) because he views human nature as defined by factionalism (lines 2–4) and strife (lines 64–65). endure” (lines 20–21). The U. B: Yes. C: This would be consistent with the passage. D: Yes. The description of Rome in this answer choice presents a positive picture. would weaken. Gibbon himself describes the influence upon history of certain leaders. Aurelian. “the story of the Empireʼs restoration in the third century under the able rule of Claudius. Nothing in the passage suggests that a country will unify (and stay unified over a long period of time) in the face of an external threat. Therefore. C: This assertion does not follow from Gibbonʼs view that human nature tends towards factionalism and strife (lines 2–4 and 64–65). one of patriotic virtue and unification despite Romeʼs multi-ethnic character. Probus. While the author says that in the long run “only patterns. Although human nature is one of these forces of history. B A: Gibbon sees history as essentially defined by conflict and factionalism (lines 3–4 and 64–65). The author writes about “the sheer accumulation and repetition of events over centuries” (lines 15–16) as part of the story of the Empireʼs restoration. D A: Rome is described as a polity “founded on patriotic virtue” (line 35).S.

In paragraph 3. that does not mean that it had no influence. While the Enlightenment did not wipe out all corruption (lines 47–52). it would challenge or undermine Gibbonʼs presumed view of history. not of change. The author states that Gibbon and Madison were influenced by “Enlightenment rationalism” (line 54). C: The author does not suggest that this alliance came about gradually (lines 41–46). If it is common to have societies that are both ethnically diverse (and so that Gibbon would expect to break apart into factions) and stable. it would be evidence of lack of change. The author describes “Gibbonʼs certainty that the tendency toward strife is a consequence of the human condition—of its variety of racial. Furthermore.Verbal Reasoning Solutions 31 division of the Empire into western and eastern halves and almost two centuries before Rome officially ceased to be the imperial capital” (lines 26–29). not of gradual change. Milan and Nicomedia acted as capital cities for hundreds of years before Rome ceased to be the imperial capital and was replaced. B: Yes. B A: This choice is too strong to be supported by the passage. D: Yes. cultural. the author lists the case of these two cities as an example of “insidious transformations” (line 23) or gradual changes. and economic experiences. . Even if the statement in this choice were supported by the passage. it comes in the context of the authorʼs discussion of patterns of history. which no belief system…can overcome” (lines 64–67). The author also cites Gibbonʼs belief that “human nature never changes and that humanityʼs predilection for factionalism…is the determinant of history” (lines 2–5). D: The lack of distinction between members of the Roman middle class (lines 33–37) is not described as a “transformation” or change and is not portrayed as something that came about slowly or gradually. 137.

142. Elevated core body temperature would also cause an increase in heart rate. rats an intermediate rate. which states that dietary restriction increases life span. Theory II states that life span is related to free radical production. 140. and that vitamin E can increase life span by eliminating free radicals. where the surviving fed rats drop to zero at approximately 125 weeks. Since diving is a new and possibly exciting experience for Sarah. C. The passage states that during the first two diving events Sarahʼs heart rate was elevated. The parasympathetic nervous system and hypothermia would cause decreases in heart and breathing rate (choices B and D are wrong). and the surviving fasting rats drop to zero at approximately 180 weeks. Theory I states that cells are preprogrammed to undergo 50 doublings. of the three species listed. A. The question text states that. Partially reduced oxygen species are themselves free radicals (choice B could lead to aging and can be eliminated). and C were not known to lead to free-radical production. The passage states that the higher heart and breathing rates were consistently elevated during the skiing trip. The evidence does not support Theory II. 144. The sympathetic nervous system (“fight or flight” system) causes the heart rate to increase. 141. 139. but that by the third event it was no longer elevated. B. it seems likely that her sympathetic nervous system would be activated. humans have the lowest metabolic rate. C. Theory II says nothing about genetics (choice B is wrong). and the heart rate increases to deliver that oxygen to the body more effectively. Theory II states that metabolic rate and free radical production are directly proportional. Note that even if choices A. rats have an intermediate metabolic rate. The most likely cause of this would be hypoxia due to the higher altitude. Activation of the sympathetic nervous system due to the stress of the new experience would increase heart and breathing rate. skiing would become less stressful and this could not account for a prolonged increase in heart rate (choice A is wrong). and mice have the highest metabolic rate. Theory I states that aging is triggered by hormones. Although hypoxia would lead to an increase in heart rate. and mice the highest rate. thus they cannot contribute to aging (choice D does not lead to aging and is the correct answer choice).32 MCAT Practice Test 7 Solutions BIOLOGICAL SCIENCES SOLUTIONS Passage I (Questions 138–142) 138. A. D. D. This is consistent with a new exciting event becoming less stressful with experience (choice D is wrong). Thus humans should have the lowest rate of free-radical production (and subsequent urinary elimination). since they indicate a reduced life span. but as Sarah gained experience. Absorption of ultraviolet radiation leads to free radical production (choice A could lead to aging and can be eliminated). and all living organisms undergo aging (choice D is wrong). Note that choices A and B support neither theory. thus the removal of an endocrine gland and subsequent increase in life span supports this theory. because in this case the octopus increases eating and lives longer (choice C is wrong). The only graph that depicts this is choice A. The parasympathetic nervous system leads to a decrease in heart rate (choice B is wrong). A. The evidence for Theory II states that dietary restriction increases life span of rats from 125 to 185 weeks. an additional 20 doublings would support Theory I. however this elevated rate would then be seen each time she dove. at sea level there is plenty of oxygen in the atmosphere to fully saturate the hemoglobin so hypoxia is unlikely (choice C is wrong). the breathing rate increases to bring in oxygen more quickly. and more than 20 doublings would support Theory II. so choice D is correct and choice C is wrong. . The questions asks for support of Theory II. This is shown in choice C. The passage states that vitamins E and C eliminate free radicals. Passage II (Questions 143–148) 143. Since the cells in culture had already doubled 30 times. Metabolic neutralization of toxins leads to free-radical production (choice C could lead to aging and can be eliminated). choice D is a clear contradiction of the information in the passage.

muscle injury is likely (Item II is true). The phosphorus ylide is the best choice. The maximum number of possible stereoisomers is 2n. not an ether. skin cells would not receive sufficient oxygen to survive. 146. Bone does not contain myoglobin. so if myoglobin is present in the urine. the skin is a fairly watertight barrier. the highest priority goes to the group in which the atom attached to the chiral carbon has the highest atomic number. 151. and the hypothalamus regulates appetite (among other things). Since myoglobin is a relatively large protein. which nucleophilically attacks the beta carbon of the α. increased blood pressure would certainly lead to increased urine formation. means that the kidney must have been damaged as well (Item III is true). Passage III (Questions 149–153) 149. containing a new C=C double bond. not the cause (choice A is wrong). 150. which would increase blood pressure. so eliminate choices A and D. Compound 6 reacts with a similar reagent to yield Compound 7. Note that only choice D contains Item II. choices A and B can be eliminated. D. Since urine production is directly related to blood pressure. C. The new bond forms between the atoms labeled b and c. there are 24 = 16 possible stereoisomers. A. but the other is a carbonyl oxygen.β-unsaturated ester (which is electrophilic due to conjugation to the ester carbonyl) in an intramolecular Michael reaction. The Hc alpha proton can be removed to form an enolate. 152. The fact that it is not. and Item III must also be true. ocean temperatures (even warm Caribbean Sea ocean temperatures) are typically cooler than body temperature. and further. Excitement or anxiety would activate the sympathetic nervous system. so a bone injury would not lead to myoglobin in the urine (Item I is false). B. D. D. An aldol reaction between these compounds would attach the new carbon group alpha to the ketone. Formaldehyde. making the functional group an ester. 147. the cerebellum coordinates and smoothes body movement. The brain stem regulates basic vital functions such as breath rate and heart rate. . if anything. Note that the cerebrum is involved in sending commands to muscles to contract. so it must be the correct answer choice. it is unlikely that blood pressure would be excessively high because of other compensatory mechanisms that kick in when skin vessels must be constricted to conserve heat (choice C is wrong). It is unlikely that water would be absorbed from the ocean. and this would lead to the increased during production (choice A is correct and choice B is wrong). so the skin would not need to be cooled by evaporation. it would normally exclude myoglobin from the urine. If the skin blood vessels were to remain constricted for great lengths of time. and the filtration apparatus of the kidney excludes proteins. While it is true that maintenance of muscle tone requires oxygen. not directly to the carbonyl carbon. Skin tone (color) is the result of oxygenation. by analogy to Step 4 in Figure 2. While dilation of the vessels would lead to a decrease in blood pressure. Both C and D can be eliminated because organometallic reagents (nucleophiles) will add to the carbonyl carbon to give an alcohol.Biological Sciences Solutions 33 145. where n is the number of stereocenters. 153. A. can also be eliminated since it cannot react under neutral conditions with a ketone. First count the number of stereocenters in the molecule: there are four. C. water would be drawn from the skin due to the higher osmotic pressure of the ocean (choice C is wrong). According to the Cahn–Ingold–Prelog priority rules. N has a higher atomic number than both C and H. C. but the cerebellum coordinates their activity. Since n = 4. While it is true that evaporative water loss would not be possible while diving. 148. A CO2Et group contains one oxygen as part of the backbone chain linking two carbon groups. choice B. Due to the presence of the double bond. Only choice D has these listed in the proper order. dilating skin vessels would not supply oxygen to the muscles (choice D is wrong). Myoglobin is a protein found only in muscle tissue.

162. D. Individual nucleotides in DNA and RNA are connected by a phosphate molecule that bridges the 3ʹ hydroxyl group of the sugar on one nucleotide to the 5ʹ hydroxyl group of the sugar on another nucleotide. The passage states that reverse transcriptase is used to produce DNA from an RNA template. C. The great variability of the gp120 protein assures that there would be several different versions of this viral protein within a single host. Since the viral protein and the receptor bind to each other. This question asks to compare the rates the SN1 and SN2 mechanisms under protic solvent conditions. Beneficial mutations for the host would have resulted in receptors that would not bind the virus (choices A and D are wrong). Since an alcohol can hydrogen bond and is more polar. The CD4 receptor on the helper T cell is there for normal T-cell function. and will be slower than either a primary substrate if the SN2 mechanism predominates. this would not account for their inability to neutralize all versions of the AIDS virus (choices A and C are wrong). A. 160. Foreign antigens are recognized by many different immune system cells. Engulfing and lysing antigen is the job of macrophages and other phagocytes (choice B is wrong). C. D. in which RNA is produced from a DNA template. and therefore have lower Rf values. This is the reverse of RNA synthesis (transcription). for example. B cells produce antibodies. Free-Standing Questions (161–164) 161. Choice D is simply untrue. protein synthesis produces protein from an RNA template (choice C is wrong). translation (synthesis) must be occurring during interphase. it will have stronger intermolecular interactions with the silica gel. etc. the phosphate and nitrogenous bases do not connect to one another (choice C is wrong). and the complementary bases between DNA strands are connected by hydrogen bonds (choice D is wrong). phagocytes. Viruses do not carry ribosomes and rely on the host cellʼs ribosomes to carry out their protein synthesis. B. DNA replication produces new DNA from a DNA template (choice A is wrong). and antibodies specific for one version may not be able to bind to and inactivate a different version. 158. This is simply a protein–protein interaction (choice C is wrong). 156. Thus its genetic information would be found in the nucleus. and there is no specific cell involved in antibody binding. C. including T cells. In thin layer chromatography. this is not truly convergent evolution. and carbohydrate synthesis does not require the use of nucleic acids at all (choice D is wrong).” this means its RNA genome has already been reverse transcribed to DNA and inserted into the host cell (CD4 cell) genome. and relatively uniform in structure.34 MCAT Practice Test 7 Solutions Passage IV (Questions 154–160) 154. If the virus has been “incorporated. the SN1 mechanism must be favored. or slower than a tertiary substrate if the SN1 mechanism predominates. (choice A is wrong). complex. Convergent evolution results in structures that have similar functions. and proteolysis (degradation) must be occurring during mitosis (choice C is . Coevolution benefiting the host and natural selection favoring mutation of the host would not have resulted in a receptor that would bind this devastating virus. it is simply through chance that the virus was able to create a protein that could bind to the CD4 receptor and allow it access to the cell. D. 157. where the host cellʼs DNA is also found. While it is true that antibodies are large. 163. Antibodies are highly specific markers produced by B cells that bind to and inactivate foreign proteins (antigens). so a virus that infects and destroys B cells would most severely affect antibody production. Choices A and C can be eliminated since they are both secondary substrates. if the virus had developed a receptor similar to the CD4 receptor (rather than developing the ligand for the receptor) this would be an example of convergent evolution. more polar compounds do not travel as far on the plate. The graph shows an increase in cyclin concentration during interphase and a decrease during mitosis. 155. antibodies have two antigen-binding sites. 159. B cells. B. The sugar and nitrogenous base are attached at the 1ʹ carbon of the sugar (choice B is wrong). Because a protic solvent is present. The more substituted substrate will react faster since it will yield a more stable carbocation intermediate. D. Thus. however evolution of the ligand (the gp120 protein) is not convergent evolution (choice B is wrong).

a type of stereoisomer. Choice A shows a hydride reduction of the ketone. this is not a perfect system). where n is the number of cell-division cycles. For C-7. patients undergoing this procedure must take drugs to suppress their own immune system so that it does not attack the new transplanted organ—clearly bodies make antigens that can be recognized. Grignard reagents attack electrophilic carbonyl carbons to form new C–C bonds and yield alcohols. Simple replication of the gene or segregation of the chromosomes carrying the gene would not result in synthesis of the cyclin protein. and 4) H. Due to the randomness of the procedure. Digestion. each of which produces an antibody distinct from all others. the priorities of the groups are: 1) the ring oxygen because it has a higher atomic number than the C or H. B. and 4) H. Groups 1. Hydroxyl groups appear in the 3200–3600 cm–1 range of an IR spectrum. For C-5. The structure then represents both enantiomers. any cell producing antibodies that recognize “self” are destroyed or suppressed (choice D is correct and C is wrong). however the cells that recognize the self-antigens are suppressed (choice B is wrong). 172. B. Therefore. including the intestines. and 3 trace a clockwise arc with Group 4 behind the molecule. the number of cells produced would be 27 = 128 (which is between 50 and 500). The peritoneal cavity is the subdivision of the ventral body cavity that contains the abdominal organs. D. and D are wrong). D. and secretion of enzymes takes place in the small intestine (choices A.Biological Sciences Solutions 35 correct and D is wrong). The body does make antigens that the immune system can recognize. A. 3) C-6 because of atomic number. the cells would go through 7 cycles of division. This is made possible by random B cell DNA rearrangement prior to transcription and translation of that cellʼs particular antibody. protein synthesis is halted during replication and during mitosis (choices A and B are wrong). Passage VI (Questions 170–174) 170. giving the stereocenter the R configuration. choice C shows no reaction at all. 3) C-6 because it has a higher atomic number than the H. and 3 days is 72 hours. Antibody–antigen interaction occurs extracellularly (choice A is wrong). so that autoimmunity does not occur (obviously. Very early in development. C. Antibodies are proteins with enormous variability. while carbonyl groups appear near 1700 cm–1. D. 2) C-4. Since the mouse cells divide every 10 hours. absorption. The perineum is the region between the external genitalia and the anus and is not a cavity at all (choice A is wrong). if the perspective of the bonds is not indicated (as in Compound 7). The pleural cavity is the subdivision of the ventral body cavity that contains the lungs (choice C is wrong). because it is more highly substituted than C-6. The only way for one structure to represent a mixture of isomers is if the molecule contains one or more chiral centers. We just usually do not detect our own. and choice D shows a 1. A. Penetration of the intestinal wall would allow the contents of the intestinal lumen (the inner hollow part of the intestines) to enter this cavity (choice B is correct and D is wrong). B. 167. Choices C and D are structural isomers. and 3 trace a counterclockwise arc with group 4 behind the molecule. Passage V (Questions 165–169) 165. . it is inevitable that some of the antibodies produced will recognize “self” antigens. 2. 168. The colon (large intestine) has only two functions: to reabsorb water and to store feces. 171. 169. Groups 1. Only choice A shows a pair of enantiomers that corresponds to the structure of Compound 7 in the passage. 2) C-8 because it is more highly substituted than C-6. 164. B. Consider organ transplantation. the priorities of the groups are: 1) the OH group because of atomic number. giving the stereocenter an S configuration. The result is an extremely diverse population of cells.4 addition of the methyl group and a hydride reduction of the ketone. in fact. The number of cells resulting from cell division is equal to 2n. 2. 166. Grignard reagents are prepared from their corresponding alkyl halides and magnesium metal.

C. a change in sympathetic activity should lead to a change in norepinephrine content in the blood. DNA and mRNA are inside the cell. choices A. and the blood flow was measured at the same time of day to eliminate the possibility of interference by diurnal (night/day) patterns. D. Usually the antigens are foreign and are associated with pathogens. C. D. and they had a reduced blood flow. If the disease were polygenic (caused by several genes). this could also cause the non-Mendelian inheritance pattern (choice C is suggested by the lack of Mendelian inheritance and can be eliminated). Since norepinephrine is the neurotransmitter used by the sympathetic nervous system. and the genes interacted in various ways. hydrocarbons. Passage VII (Questions 175–180) 175. and both types of fats have carbon– hydrogen bonds (they are in fact. they must assume that the subjects followed all procedures properly. D. typically found on a cellʼs surface. a lack of epinephrine receptors in skin blood vessels means that the sympathetic nervous system could not be affecting these vessels (choice C is wrong). and that no lifestyle changes were made during the study. so no assumption should be made regarding their effect on blood flow (choices A and B are wrong). B. 180. the age range was stated to be 18–28. A. it would display clear Mendelian inheritance patterns. Note also that pressure decreases as cross–sectional area increases. 178. Epinephrine can also stimulate the sympathetic system. was not controlled by the researchers (choice D was not controlled and is the correct answer choice). Because vitamin E is an antioxidant. are “fully saturated” with hydrogen (choice B is wrong). Unsaturated fats contain one or more C=C double bonds. which was the factor being measured. Only blood flow. the antigens are our own. with no C=C double bonds. . In vivo dilation of blood vessels would increase blood flow. Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter used by the parasympathetic system (choice B is wrong). Note also that dilation of blood vessels (except in rare instances) is not typically a function of the sympathetic nervous system. Saturated fats. choice C is wrong). so that any observed changes in blood flow would be known to be from the dietary supplements being tested. therefore. Fatty acids and vitamin E were the two substances being tested. While it is true that vitamin E alone increases blood flow more than fatty acids alone. and not from some other change in habits. and C were all controlled and can be eliminated. The fatty acid group was not given any supplementation to reduce oxidation of the fatty acids. 176.36 MCAT Practice Test 7 Solutions 173. Our immune system produces antibodies that bind to and mark antigens for destruction. not decrease it (choice D is wrong). If the gene for inflammatory bowel disease were simply recessive. Therefore. The antigen that is possibly involved in inflammatory bowel disease must be a surface protein on a cell in the digestive tract. Of the choices given. Blood pressure was not one of the parameters measured in this study (choice D is wrong). the fatty acid + vitamin E group would have more unoxidized fatty acids than the fatty acid group. Blood pressure is highest in the ventricles of the heart. Skin temperature was stated to be 32°C in all subjects. are not proteins. Incomplete penetrance and limited expressivity are departures from classic Mendelian inheritance (choices A and B are suggested by the lack of Mendelian inheritance and can be eliminated). and thus are “less saturated” with hydrogen atoms than saturated fats. D. Remember that antigens are simply proteins. we are not asked to compare these two groups (choice B is true but does not answer the question). such as bacteria and viruses. The number of carbon atoms do not differ between saturated and unsaturated fats (choice A is wrong). and are associated with our own cells. the capillaries are farthest from the heart and would have the lowest pressure. 179. and goes down as the distance from the heart increases. and therefore should not have such a reduced blood flow. This is to ensure consistency. D. 177. The researchers could not monitor the subjects 100% of the time during the study to make sure they were following their instructions. in fact the data shows that their blood flow was increased (choice D is wrong). The data show that vitamin E alone increases blood flow (choice A is wrong). Rarely. The data are consistent with choice C. and that capillaries have the highest collective cross-sectional area of all the vessels in the body. and could not lead to the inflammation described in the passage. 174.

which is represented by the peak labeled with a 3 in the gas chromatograph trace. C. etc. D. Free-Standing Questions (186–190) 186. and is not related to the degree of substitution. There is nothing in the question text that suggests that lipases are anything other than proteins (choice A is wrong). C. The phenotypes associated with these genotypes are red or roan. and hyperconjugation.). Alcohol stretches appear between 3200–3600 cm–1. the internal standard). choice B is wrong). Hydrolysis of a triglyceride yields three equivalents of fatty acid and one equivalent of glycerol. plant cells. The passage states that Figure 1 represents the 1H NMR spectrum of the major product. Resonance requires the delocalization of charge and/or electrons. rounded structure within the nucleus (choice A is wrong). They look similar under the microscope. Only the tertbutyl alcohol has two types of protons. D. D. The two signals in the spectrum indicate the compound has only two types of Hʼs (the small blip at 0 ppm represents TMS. B. Eliminate choice A. Steric interference (choice B) would destabilize a molecule. not acid. B. The roan-colored colt must be heterozygous and have the genotype RW. all products will be alcohols. Viruses. then this demonstrates that enzymes can interact with different substrate molecules as long as they have similar chemical linkages (choice C is correct and choices B and D are wrong). and the smooth ER is also composed of folded membranes. and its white-colored mother must have the genotype WW. More highly substituted carbocations are better stabilized by induction and hyperconjugation. on the other hand. making C the best choice. Choice D does not occur since OH– is a poor leaving group. It is unlikely that it would be confused with the Golgi apparatus (choice C is wrong). The passage states that the second most abundant product was sec-butyl alcohol. This converts a poor leaving group (OH–) into a good leaving group (H2O). If lipases can catalyze their hydrolysis as well as the hydrolysis of carboxylic acid esters that are not fats. Most fats are carboxylic acid esters. and contain the OH functionality. D. animal cells. C. 182. 183. Thus the colt inherited the W allele from its mother and must have inherited the R allele from its father. 188. and the plasma membrane is a well-defined boundary surrounding all the other organelles and cytoplasm. the inductive effect. C. 189. 184. The first step of the reaction must then be choice B. There are two possible genotypes that could donate the R allele: RR or RW. Bacteria are able to reproduce independently of any other organism as long as they are provided with a nutrient source such as glucose. are unable to reproduce without their host cells (bacteria. and both bacteria and viruses lack a nucleus and therefore lack a nuclear membrane (choice B is wrong). The nucleolus appears as a dark. so the colt father could have been either of these colors. The Golgi apparatus is a stack of flattened membrane. Choice C would occur if the alcohol were treated with a strong base. and choice D is unrelated. Since the numbers represent relative amounts of material. Choice A describes multiple steps in the conversion of an alcohol to an alkene. the mitochondria have an outer membrane surrounding a clearly folded inner membrane (cristae.Biological Sciences Solutions 37 Passage VIII (Questions 181–185) 181. Since the reaction was quenched with water. Since the question states 2 moles of the fatty acid have the R side chain while only 1 mole has the Rʹ side chain. the triglyceride must have a 2:1 R:Rʹ ratio. 190. the percentage of this compound can be calculated as follows: 185. virus have a protein capsid. 187. Both bacteria and viruses can undergo mutation (choice A is wrong). Treatment of an alcohol with a strong acid results in protonation of a lone pair of electrons on the oxygen atom. The passage indicates three ways to stabilize a carbocation: resonance. which integrate for 1 H (the OH group) and 9 H (the three equivalent methyl groups). Both bacteria and viruses contain protein in their outermost covering. . Let us represent the allele for red coat color with the letter R and the allele for white coat color with the letter W.

. and since no reference is made to this in the passage. In this case the cause of the problem is the aberrant stomach cells that are dividing out of control and producing tumors. The passage states that most people do not eradicate the infection (choice C is wrong). These are most often associated with viral (not bacterial) infection (choices A and B are wrong). The bacterial genes are not incorporated into host chromosomes. There is no reason to assume disruption of enzymatic activity or host cell protein synthesis. Targeting H. Antibodies are secreted from B cells into the plasma and into interstitial fluid. Choices C and D do not discuss results of Experiment 1. The stomach is extremely acidic (pH around 1) and this environment often denatures proteins. which involves blood vessel dilation (choice D is wrong). Acid is secreted to neutralize harmful pathogens and to initiate general food hydrolysis. Clearly. pylori infection would be accompanied with many other infections as well (choice C is wrong). however not all stomach cancers are caused by H. The primary function of the stomach is to grind and store food so that it can enter the small intestine slowly. Just because the immune system fails to recognize bacterial antigens does not mean that cancer is imminent. and there is no reason to target all body cells if only the stomach cells have cancer (choice C is wrong). and the movement of white blood cells (leukocytes) into the area. 196. A. they have effectively stopped dividing.38 MCAT Practice Test 7 Solutions Passage IX (Questions 191–197) 191. and D are wrong). All other macromolecules are digested in the small intestine by pancreatic and intestinal enzymes (choices A. Passage X (Questions 198–204) 198. tolerance to the infection is more likely (choice D is better than choice B). 195. Antibodies are generally effective against bacteria. of course. and this would not help eliminate the existing cancer cells (choice D is wrong). The passage states that different genes are expressed in different strains of the bacterium. Simple increased proliferation of cells is not enough to cause cancer. H. Very limited digestion and absorption occur in the stomach. The passage states that the cagA gene leads to inflammation. There is nothing in the passage to suggest immune suppression. or exhibit different resistance patterns. the mutation must occur in the cells that are proliferating (in this case the stomach cells. or exist in different countries (choices A. if this were the case. B. 194. so the gene therapy should be directed there. Mutation is more likely. the passage states that these bacteria frequently evade immune detection and that more than 75% of infected individuals do not develop cancer (choice C is wrong). In fact. 193. something about being with the other cells in the embryo aids in its differentiation. If the crowded mucosal cells remain in interphase. C. infected individuals who do not develop cancer must either have “robust” immune systems or must simply tolerate the infection without developing cancer. somehow the cells must mutate and lose control of their own division. D. pylori. subsequent swelling. the AB cell produces more kinds of tissue than when it is isolated. due to the rapid proliferation and subsequent DNA replication! However. A. which are somatic. Targeting the antibody-producing cells of the immune system would destroy the bodyʼs own natural defense against cancer (choice B is wrong). 192. 197. choice B is correct and A is wrong). this is an unusual case (choice B is wrong). D. and pepsinogen is secreted to initiate protein digestion. A therapy for any kind of disease should be targeted against the cause of the problem. in which case cancer would be less likely (choice D is wrong). this is a feature associated with viral infection (choice A is wrong). The fact that P1 cells develop identically regardless of whether they are intact or isolated supports the hypothesis that cell-to-cell communication is not needed for determination of fate (choice B is wrong). B. In an intact embryo. C. There is nothing to suggest that different strains attack different hosts. A. both extracellular spaces (choice D is wrong). pylori might help root out the cells that led to the out-of-control division (thus reducing the likelihood of future cancers). Therefore. B. Since the definition of “robust immune system” is vague at best. and C are wrong).

Gut differentiation only occurred when EMS cells were present (choices C and D are wrong) and occurred immediately in the P2–EMS cell combination (choice A is correct and B is wrong). Chemist 1ʼs mechanism requires two parts of the molecule to be brought together to form a cyclic transition state which is more ordered than the starting material. and the zygote divides to form AB and P1 cells. If the entropy of activation is less than zero. Eliminate choices B and D. and in any case. and choice D puts the carbonyl in the middle of the chain instead of in the terminal aldehyde position. From Figure 1 it can be seen that gut only arises from blastomere E. choice C has the oxygen embedded in the carbon chain instead of in a carbonyl functional group. 204. D. B. However. the phenolate ion of one starting material could react with the carbocation of the second starting material as they diffuse through the reaction flask. Cells did not develop normally in the absence of other cells. 202. an inhibitor of translation did disrupt development. the zygote and the AB cells are not found together and cannot influence one another (choice D is wrong). Chemist 2ʼs mechanism requires a bond to break. Normal development does not involve cell separation (choice B is wrong) and none of the experiments tested separation of the cells into the three primary tissue layers (choice D is wrong). and transcription is necessary for translation to occur. the entropy of the system is decreasing and the system is becoming more ordered. 207. making two intermediates from one starting material. from C and from D (choice B is wrong). 206. Germ cells are not somatic (choice D is wrong). but the AB cells were not able to differentiate normally. Choice A is missing the C=C double bond. Not other pathways leads to the gut. . A. The gut differentiation substances must be segregated until gut differentiation occurs. No cross products can form if the mechanism of the reaction is concerted (Chemist 1) since one bond is broken at one end of the molecule at the same time a new bond forms at the other end. Alcohol stretches appear between 3200 and 3600 cm–1. This indicates that the signal must be a protein (choice D is correct and choices B and C are wrong). C. DNA is never used as a signaling molecule (choice A is wrong). Since the P1 cells were able to divide and differentiate normally in the absence of the AB cells. C. This entropy change is positive (the system becomes more disordered). 208. 203. if the first step of the reaction involves bond cleavage to form two intermediates (Chemist 2).Biological Sciences Solutions 39 199. B. from MS. Nothing was done in Experiment 2 to prevent DNA replication. B. Note that this is the most likely choice anyway. so cell-to-cell signaling was necessary. Passage XI (Questions 205–208) 205. 201. interactions between them cannot be determined (choice C is wrong). and muscle arises from both ABs. D. this indicates that the P1 cells must be necessary for normal AB cell differentiation (choice B is correct and choice A is wrong). The only answer choice that states this is choice C. and from C (choice A is wrong). A. Choice A is tempting because Experiment 2 showed that an inhibitor of transcription did not disrupt normal development. However. However. whereas preventing transcription (mRNA or rRNA synthesis) had no effect on the cells. thus normal nematode development must involve transcription at some level (choice A is wrong). There is no chance the side chain can leave the starting material. The allyl vinyl ether reacts to form an intermediate that has a carbonyl group and a new C=C double bond at opposite ends of the carbon chain. 200. as proteins are almost always the signaling molecules between cells. Use Figure 1 and work backwards from “gut” to see the pathway: zygote to P1 to EMS to E. B. preventing translation (protein synthesis) prevented normal development. In Experiment 2. Neuronal tissue arises from both ABs. Use the arrow pushing mechanism given in Equation 2 of the passage. Since the P1 and P2 cells were not separated. from MS.

since the cells are described as “actively dividing. and DNA is a nucleic acid (choice D is wrong). and choice C is a better answer than either choice A or B. Compound II is completely nonpolar and will not dissolve in water. and meiosis only occurs in germ-line cells (sperm and ova. Cholesterol is a lipid that is the precursor for all steroid hormones. the disease must be linked to the X chromosome and have come from the mother (choice B is correct and D is wrong). The fact that more men than women have the disease (in fact only men have the disease) indicates that it is most likely sex-linked (choice C is wrong). 212. Fission is cell division in prokaryotes (choice A is wrong). Cells could not grow bigger to replace damaged tissue (choice D is wrong). A. If the gallbladder is removed. C. D. Compound I is an amine and can hydrogen bond with water molecules. making it fairly soluble. B. worn-out cells or simply to allow growth of an organism. glycogen is the storage form of glucose (choice B is wrong).40 MCAT Practice Test 7 Solutions Free-Standing Questions (209–214) 209. such as testosterone. Because only sons inherited the allele. C. but digestion of other molecules would not be affected. . 211. Thus if an increase is seen in the incorporated amount of this radiolabeled substance (as is shown in the graph). The fact that the children display the disease and the parents do not means that the disease is caused by a recessive allele (choice A is wrong). C. Cell growth is limited by surface-to-volume ratios. choice B is wrong). and neither father has the disease. Bile is an emulsifier that breaks up fat into micelles and allows more efficient digestion by lipases. Insulin is a protein (choice A is wrong). a polar solvent. fat digestion will be more difficult. The gallbladder stored bile made in the liver and releases it into the small intestine when fats are present there. DNA synthesis must be occurring (choice C is correct and D is wrong).” but the incorporation of thymidine clearly indicates DNA synthesis. 2-Deoxythymidine can only be incorporated into DNA and not RNA. 214. Certainly one can assume that either mitosis or meiosis (depending on whether these were somatic or germ line cells) is occurring as well. and sons get their Y chromosome from their father. 210. Mitosis is the normal process by which cells divide to replace old. 213.

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