# MCAT Practice Test 7 SOLUTIONS

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MCAT Practice Test 7 Solutions

MCAT Practice Test 7 SOLUTIONS
Edited, produced, typeset, and illustrated by Steve Leduc Director of MCAT Program Development The Princeton Review CONTENTS PAGE

Physical Sciences solutions ..................................................... 3 Steve Leduc (Physics) Steve Leduc, Bethany Blackwell (General Chemistry) Verbal Reasoning solutions ...................................................12 Jennifer Wooddell Biological Sciences solutions ................................................32 Judene Wright (Biology) Bethany Blackwell (Organic Chemistry)

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Physical Sciences Solutions

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PHYSICAL SCIENCES SOLUTIONS
Passage I (Questions 1–7) 1. C. When looking for a correct Lewis structure, ﬁrst check to see if a proposed structure at least accounts for the correct number of valence electrons. Each nitrogen atom has 5 valence electrons, and each hydrogen atom has 1. Therefore, the Lewis structure for N2H4 must account for (2 × 5) + (4 × 1) = 14 valence electrons. Since each line ( — ) in the structure represents a pair of electrons, the structure shown in choice A (with 6 lines and no lone pairs) accounts for 6 × 2 = 12 electrons, and the structure in choice B (with 6 lines and 2 lone pairs) accounts for (6 × 2) + (2 × 2) = 16, so neither of these can be correct. To decide between choices C and D, we now realize that a nitrogen atom needs just 3 electrons to complete its octet, so we expect each nitrogen to form 3 bonds as follows:

Therefore, the structure shown in choice C is best. 2. D. The Raschig process is given by Equation 1 in the passage. Because this equation is balanced, we can see that to produce 1 mole of hydrazine, 2 moles of ammonia are required. The mass of 2 moles of NH3 is 2[14.0 + 3(1.0)] = 34.0 grams. 3. D. According to the passage, the chemical formula of hydrazine hydrate is N2H4 · H2O. The mass of the hydrazine is 2(14.0) + 4(1.0) = 32.0 grams, and the mass of the water is 2(1.0) + 16.0 = 18.0 grams, so the total mass of the hydrate is 32.0 + 18.0 = 50.0 grams. Therefore, the percent by weight (or mass) of hydrazine in hydrazine hydrate is 32.0/50.0 × 100%. 4. A. The reaction given in this question shows the formation of hydrazine from its elements in their most stable form, so the enthalpy change ΔH° will be the standard enthalpy of formation, ΔHf°. According to Table 1, the value of ΔHf° for N2H4( ) is 50.6 kJ mol–1. 5. B. One way to compare the relative strengths of a pair of weak bases is to compare their Kb (basicity constant) values: the lower the Kb, the weaker the base. So, the fact that hydrazine is a weaker base than ammonia is reﬂected in the fact that hydrazine has a smaller basicity constant than ammonia; thus, choice B must be correct. Choices C and D can be eliminated since the number of protons a base can acept or its ability to hydrogen bond is unrelated to base strength. 6. C. The change in Gibbs free energy ΔG for the formation of hydrazine from its elements is the standard free energy of formation, ΔGf°. In order for a reaction to be spontaneous, the value of ΔG must be negative. However, according to Table 1, the value of ΔGf° is positive (149.2 kJ mol–1). 7. C. Gases are more disordered—and thus have a greater entropy—than liquids. In Equation 2, there are 0 moles of gaseous reactants and 7 moles of gaseous products. Therefore, the entropy increases (ΔS° > 0) because the number of moles of gaseous products is greater than the number of moles of gaseous reactants. Passage II (Questions 8–13) 8. B. Choice A is incorrect, since the strong nuclear force binds protons and neutrons within a nucleus; it does not bind atoms to each other. Choice D is eliminated because Coulombʼs law simply describes the force between charged particles (in this case, between the positively charged ions and the negatively charged electrons); the law does not “prohibit” the motion of the ions. Choice C can be eliminated since the ions do feel an electric force when the electron sea is displaced. The passage states that when the electrons are displaced, electric ﬁelds act; but we know that whenever an electric ﬁeld acts on a charged particle, the particle experiences an electric force (F = qE). Therefore, the answer is B. When we consider the force between an ion and an electron, each of these particles feels the same magnitude of force, F (by Newtonʼs Third law), but the effects will be very different here, because the masses of the particles are so different. An ion is much more massive than an electron, and as a result, the acceleration of the ion, aion = F/mion, is much smaller than the acceleration of the electron, aelectron = F/melectron.

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MCAT Practice Test 7 Solutions

9. D. We know from our experience with the spring–block oscillator that the maximum elastic potential energy occurs when the spring is at its maximum stretch or at its maximum compression, which happens when the block is at either oscillation extreme. The same is true here. The maximum electrical potential energy occurs at the oscillation extremes, shown by Diagrams A and C in Figure 1. (Note that the potential energy would be zero in Diagram B.) 10. C. We use the equation given in the passage for f in terms of n: f ≈ 9.0n1/2. If n = 1018, then n1/2 = (1018)1/2 = 1018·1/2 = 109, so f ≈ 9.0 × 109 Hz. 11. A. Using the fundamental equation for waves, λf = v, we ﬁnd that .

12. A. When the electron sea is at Point B in Figure 1, there is zero net force on the electrons (so choice B is wrong) and the potential energy is zero (so choice D is wrong). We can also eliminate choice C; not only does the passage make no mention of magnetic forces, but we also know that magnetic forces cannot alter the speeds of particles (magnetic forces do no work). As the electron sea passes through Point B and moves on to Point C, its speed decreases to zero. The answer must be A. Just as with the familiar spring–block system, the oscillator has its greatest speed—and thus its greatest momentum—as it passes through the equilibrium position. It is this momentum that causes the oscillator—in this case, the electron sea—to overshoot the equilibrium position (Point B in Figure 1) and move on to the other oscillation extreme. 13. B. At Position A, one of the oscillation extremes, the oscillator (the electron sea) has zero speed, and thus zero kinetic energy; all the energy of the system is in the form of potential energy. Then, as the oscillator travels through Position B, the equilibrium position, its potential energy is minimized and its kinetic energy is maximized. Therefore, in moving from Position A to Position B, potential energy is transformed into kinetic energy (choice A is backwards; B is correct). Choice C can be eliminated, since motion generates heat when thereʼs friction, but there is no friction here. (Furthermore, it is energy, not power, that may be transformed into heat.) Choice D can be eliminated since the electron sea is not at rest at Position B; on the contrary, it has its maximum kinetic energy (and thus maximum speed) and overshoots this position.

Passage III (Questions 14–19) 14. C. Choice A is eliminated since the ﬁrst sentence of the passage makes it clear that silicon is not a rare element. The last sentence of the passage states that pure (elemental) silicon is nonreactive, so choice B is wrong. We can also eliminate choice D: silicon is a solid metal and thus exists in crystalline form. Choice C is best; the point of the second paragraph is that silicate minerals do not decompose easily. 15. A. First, eliminate choice D: a silicon atom contains 14 electrons, and choice D accounts for 15. The difference between choices A, B, and C is the description of the two electrons in the 3p subshell. The three lines after the “3p” in each of these choices denote the 3px, 3py, and 3pz orbitals. How do we place the two electrons in the 3p subshell into these three available orbitals? Hundʼs rule says that if more than one orbital is available, we place electrons with parallel spins into different orbitals before we pair them up (with opposite spins) in the same orbital. It follows that choice A is the correct conﬁguration. 16. B. The silicon atom in SiCl3H has four bonds: one to each of the three chlorine atoms and one to the hydrogen atom. Only choice B describes a geometry with four bonds. 17. B. Elements in the same family have similar valence electron conﬁgurations and thus have similar chemical properties. Since potassium is a Group 1 metal, we eliminate choices C and D, which are both Group 2 metals. We also eliminate choice A, because even through hydrogen is in Group 1 in the periodic table, it is not considered a metal. Choice B, which like potassium is also a Group 1 metal, is best. 18. D. Choice A is wrong: There will be no ionic forces between these molecules because ions are created by metals reacting with nonmetals and all the elements in this molecule are nonmetals. Choice B is eliminated because covalent bonds are intramolecular, not intermolecular forces, and choice C is wrong since molecules of SiCl3H are incapable of hydrogen bonding. 19. C. The technique of distillation exploits the different boiling points of the components of a mixture to separate them.

Therefore. When the density becomes very high (as it would here). so the rate of decay of Ra-226 is 15 times faster than the rate of decay of Pu-239.5—is greater than the index of refraction for air—which for all practical purposes is 1). Because a pressure of 500 atm is very high. so choices C and D are eliminated.23 V) = –0. and P2 = 500 atm.34 eV E° = –1. A. Free-Standing Questions (24–27) 24. C.000 years). + 2 Cu2+ + 4 e– → 2 Cu(s) 2 H2O → O2 + 4 H + 4 e + – E° = +0. the additional volume of the molecules is negligible. Ra-226 decays faster. add the resulting reaction to the second reaction given in the question and then cancel the 4 e– that appear on opposite sides of the reaction arrows. If s3 = 103 m3. note carefully that this does not change the value of E° for the reaction. we ﬁnd that = (+0. Multiply both sides of the ﬁrst reaction by 2. all objects fall with the same acceleration: g. The value of V2 calculated above would be the volume of the sample not including the molecules themselves. 22. With P1 = 1 atm. V1 = 10 L. taking the non-ideality of the gas into account. we expect the gas to deviate from ideal behavior and thus eliminate choice A. it follows that volume is mass divided by density: V = m/. 23. then the reaction is In order to conserve mass number (the superscripts). and faster still through solids (because the bulk modulus—which measures resistance to compression—is so much greater in solids than in liquids or in gases). B. D. The volume of a cube is given by the formula V = s3. Light travels slower through a piece of glass than through the air (this is why the index of refraction for glass—typically around 1. . Since 24. where s is the length of a side. it must be true that 236 = A1 + A2 + 3·1. we expect the sound wave to speed up as it enters the glass from the air. this assumes that the gas continues to behave as an ideal gas. If 3 neutrons are produced in the ﬁssion reaction.02 L.000/1600 = 15.23 eV = –0. in the absence of air resistance (free fall). However. Now. Adding the values of E° for the separate reactions.02 L plus the volume occupied by the gas molecules. the volume will be 0. [Notice that the mass of the object is irrelevant.89 eV 2 Cu2+ + 2 H2O → 2 Cu(s) + O2 + 4 H+ 25. we get V2 = P1V1/P2 = 0. Using the equation y = ½at2. A. B. Dividing m = 106 kg by  = 103 kg/m3.] 27. Because density is mass divided by volume ( = m/V). P1V1 = P2V2. then s = 10 m. this observation eliminates choices A and C.Physical Sciences Solutions 5 Passage IV (Questions 20–23) 20. we get V = 103 m3. But here. D. the volume of the gas molecules themselves must be taken into account. we use Boyleʼs law.89 V. The ﬁnal result is the reaction for which we want . Now what about sound? Sound generally travels faster through liquids than through gases. the half-life of Ra-226 is 15 times less than the half-life of Pu-239. 21. at typically low values of pressure and density. Since the temperature remains constant. B. so A1 + A2 = 233. with a = g. The reaction shown in choice A is the only one that conserves both mass number (the superscripts: A1 = A1 + 0) and electric charge [the subscripts: Z1 = (Z1 + 1) + (–1)]. we ﬁnd that y = ½(10 m/s2)(10 s)2 = 500 m.34 V) + (–1. 26. Because Ra-226 has a shorter half-life (1600 years) than Pu-239 (24.

the rate law may be expressed more simply as Rate = k[acetone]a[H+]c. so choices A and B are eliminated.14 × 10–3 M. The question states that the reaction is ﬁrst order with respect to acetone. very close to the shortest visible wavelength. According to the description given in the question. According to the passage. The visible region of the EM spectrum spans wavelengths from roughly 400 nm to 750 nm (or. C. so the intensity of the signal will necessarily be less. we use Beerʼs law (Equation 3 in the passage): A = εcl. the rate law given in Equation 2 can be simpliﬁed: as the last sentence of the passage states. which is larger (same numerator.99 × 10–6 M s–1). Therefore. or C (and in fact each is false). To ﬁnd c. acetone has a mass of 58. but the value of P/r2 for choice D is 3/16 W·mi–2.0 g/mol and a density of 0. 390 nm to 780 nm). where P is the power used by the phone and r is the distance between the phone and the switching station. B. choice D is best. First. letʼs compare. B. light of wavelength 395 nm (which is very close to the shortest visible wavelength) is very near the ultraviolet region. Because we know that UV radiation is more energetic than visible. D.791 g/mL. Passage VI (Questions 33–37) 33. we use Table 1: in Experiment 1. there is no support in the passage for choice A. we learn that a person can hear and speak on a cell phone at the same time because the phone sends and receives voice data on two separate frequency channels. 31. therefore. Thus. First. to determine A. we can eliminate choice C for the same reason.6/4 = 3/20 W·mi–2. The values of [acetone] are the same and the rate constants are approximately the same. Now. 34. Since the overall rate is also twice as great (approximately) in Experiment 4 as in Experiment 6 (12. The value of ε is given in the question. So all we need to do is compare choices A and D. the reaction is zero order with respect to bromine. The ﬁrst sentence of the second paragraph of the passage states that cell-phone channels operate at frequencies ranging between 824 MHz and 894 MHz. The regions that border the visible portion of the electromagnetic spectrum are the ultraviolet (UV) and the infrared (IR). Comparing choices C and D. To determine absorbance.8 29. Therefore. so choices B and C are eliminated. and the passage states that the path length l is 1 cm. say. UV light has a shorter wavelength than visible (recall the formula E = hc/λ for the energy of a photon with wavelength λ). the intensity is proportional to P/r2. A. 5. Write the equation for the power of a circuit element in the form I = P/V. so choice D is eliminated. eliminate choice A: the question asks for current. In addition. the data for Experiments 4 and 6 given in Table 1. and each cell phone scans all of its channels to ﬁnd the one with the highest signal intensity. not the infrared. Therefore. B.25 A. we eliminate B—it has the same power but a greater distance. it seems reasonable to conclude that each pair of phones being used to transmit a conversation operates on a unique pair of frequencies. A = εcl = (198 M –1 cm–1)(4. 36. c. D. . Given that there is a wide range of available frequencies. the value of c is 1. The value of P/r2 for choice A is 0. Comparing choices A and B. but the value of [H+] is twice as great in Experiment 4 as in Experiment 6. that is. 198 M –1 cm–1. we conclude that the rate is proportional to the ﬁrst power of [H+]. Therefore. then weʼll have I = P/V = (3 W)/(12 V) = ¼ A = 0. smaller denominator).6 MCAT Practice Test 7 Solutions Passage V (Questions 28–32) 28.9 × 10–6 M s–1 vs. 35. This is a range of 894 MHz – 824 MHz = 70 MHz. to determine the exponent c. so if V = 12 volts. so light of wavelength 395 nm is indeed in the visible region. 30. the absorbing species) is 4. The passage tells us that the maximum power of a cell-phone signal is P = 3 watts. not power. the reaction is zero order with respect to bromine. A. for pure acetone we ﬁnd that 32. and as the last sentence of the passage states. and l. the concentration of Br2 (bromine. more precisely. D. C. From the passage. we need the values of ε.14 × 10–3 M)(1 cm) ≈ 200(4 × 10–3) = 0.

The other choices are Group 1 or Group 2 metals. this directly implies that ammonia should have the higher boiling point.5 g)/(0. D. we usually expect higher molecular weight compounds to have higher boiling points. Therefore. these elements gain an electron readily.86 °C/m. only choice C shows a new N–O bond forming. which is also listed in the table.5) = 2(0.707 and sin 30° = 0. n1 sin 1 = n2 sin 2. 1. Since sin 45° = 0. Since the halogens need only one more valence electron to complete their octet conﬁguration.5 cm3) = B = mB/VB = (3. NH4+. C is the highest.414. In Reaction 2. we ﬁnd Object A: Object B: Object C: Object D: A = mA/VA = (1. the statement in choice A is irrelevant (not to mention false). C. not lower ones. C. 51. and m is the molality of the solution. so n2 = (sin 45°)/(sin 30°). Because II is slower than I or III. NH4+ is therefore a weak acid. so the freezing point of the ethylene glycol solution will be 0°C – 20°C = –20°C. we have HOCl reacting with NO2– to form NO3– (and HCl). For ethylene glycol. 53. Because we are asked to compare the boiling points of ammonia and phosphine.75 m) ≈ (1)(2)(11) = 22°C ≈ 20°C.5 g/cm3 4 g/cm3 Clearly. 52.5 cm3) = 3 g/cm3 4 g/cm3 4. Kf is the freezing-point constant of the solvent. Using the formula weight for Pb(NO3)2. According to Table 1. and the Kf value for water is –1. If we apply this formula to each of the four objects listed in the table. In terms of the energy diagram. so choice B is best. the activation energy for Reaction II must be larger than the activation energy for I or III. And choice C is backwards.5 g)/(1. and Step III is fast. where i is the vanʼt Hoff factor of the solute. Free-Standing Questions (49–53) 49. we ﬁnd that n2 = (0. C. The best answer is D: since the intermolecular forces are stronger in ammonia than in phosphine (which actually canʼt hydrogen bond). Density is mass per volume:  = m/V.14 m. B. B.86 °C/m)(10.0 cm3) = D = mD/VD = (6. we ﬁnd that the molality of a saturated Pb(NO3)2(aq) solution is Since 377/331 is clearly a little more than 1.8 MCAT Practice Test 7 Solutions 47. i = 1. not a base. not intramolecular forces—and false besides. B. Passage IX (Questions 54–60) 54. The mechanism for Reaction 3 is given in the passage: Step I is fast. Step II is slow. C. Only the diagram in B shows this behavior. Choice B is also irrelevant—because boiling is related to the weakening of intermolecular forces. We take n1 = 1 (for air) and weʼre given that 1 = 45° and 2 = 30°. 55.707)/(0. the freezing point here will be lowered by (1)(1.0 g)/(1. the ammonium ion. While all the choices show the O–Cl bond breaking. . the solubility of Pb(NO3)2 in water at 0°C is 37. We use Snellʼs law.0 g)/(0.707) = 1. is the conjugate acid of the weak base NH3. Therefore.75 cm3) = C = mC/VC = (4. which would be more willing to lose an electron than gain one. so the O–Cl bond must break and a new N–O bond must be formed. 50. C. Snellʼs law becomes sin 45° = n2 sin 30°. we know from the available choices that the answer must be C.5. the rise in energy from reactants to activated complex should be higher for II than for I or III. Chlorine (choice B) is a halogen. The freezing point will be changed by iKf m. 48.7 g/100 mL.

the value of Δv/Δt is (–20 m/s)/(0. and it can form hydrogen bonds with water. In Case I. 39. Converting each of these to moles. According to Table 1.0 – 37. the value of Δv/Δt is (–20 m/s)/(0. C. B.7 g of the solute to dissolve and the remainder. ethylene glycol (a diol. and m is the molality of the solution. the ratio of the average acceleration in Case II to that in Case I is (–80 m/s2)/(–200 m/s2) = 2/5 = 0. So.Physical Sciences Solutions 9 56. 58. the solubility of Pb(NO3)2 in water at 0°C is 37. The kinetic energy of each car before the collision is ½mv2 = ½(1000 kg)(20 m/s)2 = 2 × 105 J. Since the two cars have equal but opposite momenta before the collision. notice that the value of Δv is the same in both cases.4. so the total kinetic energy of both cars is twice this value. B. [As an alternate solution. The answer must be D. Thus. 4 × 105 J. 63. namely. because as Table 1 shows.3 g. There is no support for the claim that the air pressure would have to be higher in hard rubber tires than in soft rubber tires. does the ʻlike dissolves likeʼ generalization apply to ethylene glycol and water? Yes.1 s) = –200 m/s2. Kf is the freezing-point constant of the solvent. where i is the vanʼt Hoff factor of the solute. In Case II. eliminate choices C and D: osmosis certainly does apply to biological ﬂuids. which is 3 times greater than the value of i for ethylene glycol (for which i = 1).0 g of lead nitrate were added to 100 mL of water at 0°C and allowed to equilibrate.] 62. so there is no reason to doubt the validity of choice B and so it is eliminated. by threefold. This will cause the remaining ﬂuid inside the cell to become more concentrated. the question now is.25 s) = 0. the amount by which the freezing point is lowered is proportional to i.7 = 1. and slippage on curves would indeed be more likely (choice C is true and thus eliminated). solvent will ﬂow out of the cell. if 39. the total momentum before the collision is zero. 57. we can see that the two cars will both stop after the collision. 59. Since both solutions in this question are aqueous and have the same concentration.1 s)/(0. . By deﬁnition. osmosis is the ﬂow of solvent through a semipermeable membrane into a more concentrated solution. we ﬁnd that Therefore. the solution of lead nitrate will lower the freezing point of water by a greater extent. eliminate choices A and D: the generalization ʻthe solubility of a solute doubles for every ten–degree rise in temperatureʼ cannot be said to apply to an aqueous solution of ethylene glycol. weʼd expect 37. Thus. the solubility is inﬁnite at 0°C and at 20°C. By conservation of total momentum. so if the ﬂuid outside the cell is hypertonic. If the coefﬁcients of friction were reduced. Average acceleration is deﬁned to Δv/Δt. the concentrations are not the same on both sides of the cell wall. 60.4. A. shown here) is a polar molecule. Therefore. Because the value of i is 3 for lead nitrate [since Pb(NO3)2 dissociates into Pb2+ + 2 NO3–]. and if the ﬂuid outside the cell is hypertonic. thus.25 s) = –80 m/s2. the ratio of the average accelerations is simply the inverse of the ratio of the stopping times: (0. The freezing point will be lowered by iKf m. Therefore. An example of an aqueous solution containing 10% lead nitrate by weight would be one that contained 10 g of lead nitrate in 100 g of solution—that is. B. A. so their combined kinetic energies before the collision will be completely converted to heat and deformation energy afterwards. D. since like water. the best answer is C. B. to be left undissolved. 10 g of lead nitrate in 90 g of water. then more distance would be required to stop (choice A is true and thus eliminated). the total momentum after the collision will also be zero.7 g/100 mL. The efﬁciency of the carʼs engine is independent of the tires. First. the mole fraction of lead nitrate in the solution would be Passage X (Questions 61–66) 61. First.

the waves moving northward decrease in wavelength while the waves moving southward increase in wavelength. According to the passage. By Newtonʼs Second law. the total momentum is pA&B = (2m)vA&B. The passage states that cars A and B are initially 100 m apart. the acceleration will be reduced if the collision time is increased. choice B says that these stresses were caused by surface waves (that is. C. when 30t = 100 + 20t. since the question asks for the post–collision speed [singular] of both cars). For car A. As a wave source moves. Choice A is correct. waves in the earthʼs crust). Since f = 1/T. while those behind the source get expanded. (This is the Doppler Effect expressed in terms of wavelength. the total momentum of the cars is pA + pB = mvA + mvB = m(vA + vB). The passage tells us that the size of lasting deformations falls off as (L/d)3. 65. force is proportional to acceleration. but nodes are points of no displacement.” so we conclude that A is a better answer than B. thus reducing the force the person feels. surface waves have a periodicity of about 10 seconds. we get vA&B = ½(vA + vB) = ½(30 m/s + 20 m/s) = 25 m/s. So. B. A. we can use the equation x = x0 + vt to give their positions at any time t. the equation v = λf implies that the speed of these waves is v = λf = (20. Because acceleration. Passage XI (Questions 67–71) 67. This is the same reason why air bags reduce the force on vehicle occupants involved in a collision. 66. 69. so the force will be reduced if the acceleration is reduced. since they do not provide clear evidence for a less random explanation.) So. C. the lasting deformations are inversely proportional to d 3. the effect of which is transmitted in all possible directions (as the waves on the surface of the pond expand from the point of impact). . if λ = 20 km = 20. we have xA = 30t. C. We eliminate choice D for a similar reason: if destructive interference were maximum. so we eliminate C. Neither choice A nor choice C would cast doubt on the coincidence hypothesis. But the second-to-last sentence of the third paragraph of the passage tells us that such surface waves “cause little lasting deformation. the waves in front of the source get compressed. with car B ahead of car A. what mechanism could be responsible for transmitting the inﬂuence of the main quake to the locations of the subsequent quakes? But choice D would support an alternate hypothesis: if the subsequent quakes occurred in all possible directions around the location of the main quake. Solving this equation for t. letʼs take the initial position of car A to be x0 = 0 and the initial position of car B to be x0 = 100 m. Canceling the mʼs and dividing by 2. where d is the distance from the quake center. so choice B is best. waves in front of the source have a higher frequency while those behind have a lower frequency. an air bag increases the time it takes for the occupant to come to rest. by conservation of total momentum. 70. D. Choice B could help support the coincidence hypothesis: if the distances from the main quake to the subsequent quakes were excessive. if the source of the waves moves from south to north. and for car B we have xB = 100 + 20t. this means that surface waves have a frequency of about 1/10 Hz.10 MCAT Practice Test 7 Solutions 64. 71. after the inelastic collision (which we can assume is perfectly inelastic.000 m. ā = Δv/Δt. So. which reduces the occupantʼs acceleration. in terms of frequency. Choice C says that the earth shook at nodes of a standing wave. we get t = 10 s. is inversely proportional to the time interval. D.000 m)(1/10 Hz) = 2000 m/s. So. In other words. Before the collision. Although both choices A and B mention local stress (which allowed the triggered quake to occur even though the energy transfer was relatively small). Since both cars travel at a constant speed (car A at 30 m/s. it must be true that m(vA + vB) = 2mvA&B. then the lasting deformations decrease by a factor of 43 = 64. this would support the hypothesis that the main quake was the cause of the subsequent ones—just like a rock dropped into a pond. if the distance increases by a factor of 4 (from 4L to 16L). 68. there should be little or no displacement. Therefore. car B at 20 m/s). Car A overtakes car B when xA = xB—that is. A.

we will know the value of nliquid/nair. Alternatively. the energy of the atom increases.1 mole of electrons. if we know 1 and 2.500 N/m2. 75. we see that the indicator undergoes a color change when pKa (of HIn) = pH. –C/9 is greater (less negative) than –C/4.1 faraday is equal to the magnitude of charge on 0. The angle of incidence (1) is known. so when [HIn] = [In–]. we ﬁnd that ΔP = gY = (1000 kg/m3)(10 m/s2)(0. which increases the energy of the atom. and ﬁnd that nliquid/nair = (sin 1)/(sin 2). which is the relative refractive index of the liquid compared to air. we only need the angle of refraction. Therefore.25 m) = 2. which is therefore incorrect). To determine the ratio nliquid/nair. as follows. we have Ka = [H3O+]. the energy of the atom is –C/4.1 mole of electrons are available to accomplish this reduction. 73. 76. The difference in hydrostatic pressure between two points in a ﬂuid separated by a vertical distance Y is equal to gY. Now. we apply Snellʼs law. D. The indicator changes color at the end point of the titration—that is. B. HIn. the species with the highest electron afﬁnity must be one of the reactants. An indicator. D. and Y. only will be reduced. and when the electron is in the n = 3 shell. at the point when [HIn] = [In–]. Because C is a positive constant.Physical Sciences Solutions 11 Free-Standing Questions (72–77) 72. The equilibrium constant for this reaction is given by Ka = [In–][H3O+]/[HIn]. because the angle of reﬂection is known and the angle of reﬂection is equal to the angle of incidence. so the process described in the question must involve the absorption of a photon. H+(aq) must have a higher electron afﬁnity than Cd(s). we can use the formula given in the question. Choices B and C are wrong since the atom does not emit or absorb an electron when one of its electrons “jumps” from one energy level (shell) to another. is a weak acid. 74. nair sin 1 = nliquid sin 2. so it participates in a proton–transfer equilibrium in aqueous solution: HIn + H2O  In– + H3O+. 2. so choice D is best. g. Taking the negative log of both sides of this equation. because each hydrogen ion takes an electron from cadmium. By deﬁnition. A. this eliminates choices C and D. its energy is –C/9. so 0. 77. Because the given reaction occurs spontaneously in the forward direction. where  is the density of the ﬂuid and g is the acceleration due to gravity. Substituting in the given values of . . So. The reverse process of an electron moving from the n = 3 shell to the n = 2 shell would result in the emission of a photon (as given in choice A. so when the electron goes from the n = 2 shell to the n = 3 shell. B. if 0. 1 faraday is the magnitude of charge on 1 mole of electrons. But since it takes 3 electrons to reduce each Al3+ ion to Al. When the electron is in the n = 2 shell. C. in order to determine nliquid/nair.

This faculty is used by artists to interpret rather than to objectively portray reality. the author writes. whereas previous painters relied on “an activity which we can only call interpretative” (lines 31–32). B: Yes. Roman. attempted to avoid the intervention of interpretation (paragraph 2). “without any intervention either of the tidy mind or the untidy emotions” (lines 6–7).14 MCAT Practice Test 7 Solutions Passage II (Questions 85–94) 85. In the second paragraph the author states that artists in the past were not successful in their attempts to “see the world objectively” (line 24) in part because “there always intervened between the visual event and the act of realizing the vision an activity which we can only call interpretative” (lines 29–32). D: This choice reverses the chronology presented in the passage. tried to realize “his sensations in the presence of nature” (lines 60–61). Here. the passage discusses perspective and interpretation in order to discuss the revolutionary aspect of Cézanneʼs ideas. The author makes this statement in order to contrast those artists with Cézanne (lines 56–61). In the second paragraph. 87. he tried to eliminate any distinction or difference between nature and art by showing “the reality that did not change” beneath the “shimmering and ambiguous surface of things” (lines 14–16). that is. A A: Yes. D: Cézanne. these artists are not described as revolutionary. an “extra-visual [faculty]” (lines 42–43). that is. the use of imagination or intellect (paragraph 3). Cézanne. In the rest of the passage. 19–24. the author describes how Cézanne. it is the pursuit of a single idea. The author makes this statement in the ﬁrst paragraph (lines 8–14) in service of a larger argument about the distinct and revolutionary nature of Cézanneʼs ideas. C A: This choice is too narrow to be the central thesis. perception means the evidence presented by the senses. was the ﬁrst painter who determined to “see the world objectively” (line 3). Furthermore. However. not the pursuit of “realism” itself that deﬁnes a revolutionary. The last paragraph sums up how this effort distinguished Cézanne from his predecessors. Yet the author states that “revolutionary leaders are people with a single and a simple idea” who doggedly pursue that idea (lines 19–21). Thus. described by the author as a revolutionary. the main focus of the passage is on Cézanne himself. and 56–61). who is portrayed as a revolutionary (lines 1–7. D: While this is true according to the passage (lines 24–29). C: The passage describes how artists before Cézanne tried (unsuccessfully) to “represent the world ʻas it really isʼ ” (lines 24–29). The author writes in paragraph 2 that interpretation “seemed to be made necessary by the very nature of perception” (lines 32–33). It is Cézanne. the author lists perspective (line 48) as part of the use of intellect. objectivity and interpretation are inconsistent with each other. it is too narrow to be the central thesis. not to distinguish between nature and art. The author begins by stating that Cézanne wished to see the world objectively. Cézanne founded “the modern movement in art” which attempted to avoid interpretation and to present the world “as an object. B A: This choice contradicts the passage. C: This choice contradicts the passage. who tried to “penetrate to the reality that did not change” (lines 15–16) by “ ʻrealizingʼ his sensations in the presence of nature” (lines 60–61). C: Yes. unlike previous artists. and Renaissance) when painters relied on interpretation (lines 24–29). In fact. “Great revolutionary leaders are people with a single and a simple idea. 14–18. without any intervention either of the tidy mind or the untidy emotions” (lines 6–7). The author cites previous periods of art (Greek. and it is the very persistency with which they pursue this idea which endows it with power” (lines 19–21). 86. . according to the author. In the third paragraph. B: Perspective and interpretation are presented as complementary. B: The author states that part of Cézanneʼs revolution was his attempt to represent the world objectively by eliminating interpretation from his art (lines 1–7. Thus. by the act of seeing. and 56–61).

That is. as it presented itself to their senses in various lights. both subjective and objective views represent objects and/or nature. B: This choice is inconsistent with the passageʼs description of Cézanneʼs pursuit of objectivity. and interpretation is consistent with subjectivity. Objects and nature are not distinguished from each other. while viewing or presenting an object within an ideal space entails subjectivity. In the second paragraph. B A: While the author states that in the Greek. Cézanne sought to “penetrate to the reality that did not change” and not to paint “the bright but deceptive picture presented by the kaleidoscope of the senses” (lines 15–18). not to expand upon the concept (lines 5–7. . D A: Notice the word “not” at the end of the question stem. B: Yes. Roman. the author suggests that they could in fact see or perceive it. 89. not subjectivity) attempted “ ʻrealizingʼ his sensations in the presence of nature” (lines 60–61). the author speciﬁcally indicates that it was Cézanneʼs dedication to pursuing the idea of objectivity that made his work inﬂuential (lines 19–21). A A: Yes. and 56–61). The author states that interpretation “always intervened between the visual event and the act of realizing the vision” (lines 29–31). See the solution for choice B. the author writes that the Impressionists “had seen the word subjectively—that is to say. The author does not describe any speciﬁc works of art from these periods (see paragraph 2). Roman. they failed to portray “the world ʻas it really isʼ ” (line 29) or “what the eye sees” (line 49). and Renaissance art was not able to represent the world as it is. C: While a subjective portrayal (or view) may rely on imagination to “create an ideal space occupied by ideal forms” (lines 44–45). or from various points of view” (lines 8–11). the passage does not discuss or describe speciﬁc works of art. while artists before Cézanne may have been unable to portray reality. C: The passage is about artistsʼ attempts to represent reality in their art. In lines 25–29. Therefore. This choice is a trap based in part on the last line of the passage. this is in support of the claim that Greek. the author implies just the opposite. the passage gives a speciﬁc deﬁnition of subjectivity in lines 8–11. See the solution for choice A. The second and third paragraphs discuss how artists before Cézanne either did not wish to or were unable to represent reality. The author states that “the modern movement in art begins with the single-minded determination of a French painter [Cézanne] to see the world objectively” (lines 1–3). The use or intervention of intellect and imagination involves interpretation (lines 41–52). B: Yes. C: As in choice B. Cézanne strove to avoid the use of “extra-visual faculties” such as imagination and intellect (lines 5–7 and 56–61). C: While the nature of perception is discussed in lines 32–40. In the ﬁrst paragraph. the author states that revolutionary leaders pursue “a single and a simple idea. Second. 90. This answer choice is the opposite of what the author suggests. it would not be his (inadvertent or unwilling) use of such faculties that gave his work power. 91. this is not given as the deﬁnition of subjectivity. D: First. That is. Even if he failed to do so. While Impressionism is discussed in the ﬁrst paragraph. and Renaissance periods artists attempted to make art “imitative” (lines 24–29). the author states that before Cézanne “there have been attempts to make art ʻimitativeʼ ” and to “represent the world ʻas it really is. Cézanne sought to eliminate the use of interpretation. the author never discusses what artists before Cézanne thought about its value.ʼ ” B: This choice is out of scope. where the author writes that Cézanne (who strove for objectivity. D: According to the passage. this does not mean that all subjective views involve ideal space. B A: Note the words “without intervention” in this answer choice. D: There is no later evidence that contradicts the claim that such art tried to represent the world as it is. nor does either represent a distinction between subjective and objective approaches. not in support of the claim that it tried to do so. this contradicts the passage. and it is the very persistency with which they pursue this idea that endows it with power” (lines 19–21).Verbal Reasoning Solutions 15 88. 14–18. D: Yes.

16 MCAT Practice Test 7 Solutions 92. B A: The passage does not argue that Cézanne pursued similar goals. a view or perspective that is no more accurate than the view of Earth from Sirius. Note that the question asks about artists before Cézanne. Finally. Therefore. D: Yes. the author draws an analogy between perspective and mapmaking. it would be consistent with the statement that he was familiar with the art made by his predecessors. the use of perspective) still do not give us a picture of underlying and unchanging reality (lines 51–52) and so also require interpretation. even if the author had made the claim that Cézanne pursued similar goals. C: Yes. The fact that Cézanne himself rejected interpretation does not support the claim that previous artists failed to do so. See also the explanation for question 90. they rely on the intellect as a guide. The “art of the museums” is the art of Cézanneʼs predecessors (lines 56–58). D: This choice is essentially the same as choice C. If Cézanne learned the concept of objective painting from another artist. C: The author compares perspective and mapmaking in order to argue that both fail to show the reality beneath objects (lines 51–52). The author argues that mapmaking and the use of perspective are similar in that both rely on the intellect to construct one version (not the underlying truth) of “what the eye sees” (lines 41–52).) The Mercator projection is also just one representation. While Greek and Roman art was “imitative” and tried to “represent the world “as it really is” (lines 24–29). 93. The author does not describe improvements or evolution in the use of perspective. See in particular lines 51–52 where the author states. This is just one representation of reality out of many possible views. the author states that these extra-visual faculties (for example. who showed the world “in various lights. (Note the similarity of this argument to the authorʼs description of the Impressionists. we do not need outside knowledge in order to infer that a Mercator projection is a map. “Like the map.” Therefore. it would weaken this claim by indicating that modern art did not begin with Cézanne. it would be consistent. The author then goes on in the third paragraph to argue that artists before Cézanne relied on “extra-visual faculties” such as imagination and intellect in order to “solve such problems” (lines 41–48). D: The author does not describe Cézanneʼs working methods. If Cézanne learned from other artists. choice A. it serves to guide the intellect. C A: The passage does not describe or analyze speciﬁc paintings. not inconsistent with that claim. rather than suggesting that one is better than the other. When artists use perspective to try to represent the world realistically. D Note: Lines 48–51 tell us that “a system of perspective is no more an accurate representation of what the eye sees than a Mercatorʼs projection…. it serves to guide the intellect…. maps fail as well. The author claims in the ﬁrst paragraph that “what we call the modern movement in art begins with the… determination of a French painter [Cézanne] to see the world objectively” (lines 1–3). or from various points of view” [lines 10–11]. Furthermore. A: This is inconsistent with the passage. B: Yes. perspective does not give us any glimpse of the reality. “Like the [Mercator] map. C: If Cézanne had learned objective painting from another artist. an answer choice that focuses solely on Cézanne himself is unlikely to be correct. At the end of the second paragraph the author states that “the very nature of perception” seemed to require interpretation in order to translate visual sensations onto the canvas. the new information in the question stem would be consistent. B: The question focuses on artists before Cézanne. B: The author makes no such comparison. not inconsistent with the statement that Cézanne respected other artistsʼ (including his predecessorsʼ) attempts to represent nature.” . Choices A and B have the same problem. nor does he suggest that mapmaking has not evolved to become more sophisticated. 94. the author states that Cézanne was the ﬁrst to attempt to “see the world objectively” (lines 1–7).” The next sentence begins.

poetic tone and language of the passage. an anthropologist would analyze those beliefs in a more scientiﬁc way (such as their role within the structure of primitive society). the death of a sunﬂower leads to the birth of other ﬂowers in the future (lines 22–24). B: Yes. the author gives no particular biological mechanism as the cause. and 6 the author suggests that some common language or mode of communication drives the cycle of nature. overall. For example. in which a certain angle of light recurs once a year. for example. C. and D. “the sunﬂowerʼs golden language” (line 28). C: While one could say that the sunﬂower is an environment at certain times for certain insects. A: While the author does discuss the beliefs of her ancestors. has adapted to exist in one unique niche in its environment. In fact. but rather describes some kind of “communal knowledge” and “mysterious…summons” as the way in which biological changes or cycles are coordinated (lines 34– 42). This is not the language that a biologist would use. The author uses poetic images and language to communicate these ideas. B: While the author does discuss the interactive balance among species. a dream barely remembered” (lines 45–48). any choice that represents the author as a scientist will be incorrect. C Note: The language of the author and the tone of the passage are clearly non-scientiﬁc. C: Yes. Therefore. the author describes biological cycles as guided by some form of communication.” Rather. and “You are the result of the love of thousands” (line 60).Verbal Reasoning Solutions 17 Passage III (Questions 95–101) 95. Some examples of this language are: “a drama of need and survival” (lines 25–26). and states that a “summons” or “current we cannot explain” and “communal knowledge” underlies the regularity of this cycle. The author describes the cycle of life through the changing seasons in which. Furthermore. not on peopleʼs beliefs about nature. the author does not say that these insects. “the people who came before me” (who may or may not be “primitive”) in the last paragraph. D: The author does describe changes through the seasons (or at least within one season [line 25]) but does not indicate that it is sensitivity to and detection of environmental changes that drives biological cycles. D: The author mentions genes only once (line 31). “I felt something like a heartbeat. to open” (lines 27–30). the focus of the passage as a whole is on nature itself. A: While the author does describe the “drama of need and survival” enacted on and around the sunﬂower (lines 25–26). B Note: Choices A. the author describes bamboo plants that ﬂower at the same time once a century. 5. The author discusses nature in spiritual or poetic terms. “the language of the earth” (line 43). Finally. or from “some current we cannot explain” or “communal knowledge. B. and D all give scientiﬁc explanations that are inconsistent with the personal. it is not from the perspective of an ecologist. Be careful not to use outside knowledge. using images meant to invoke feelings and sensations rather than to provide scientiﬁc explanation or analysis. the author describes what guides plant and animal behavior as “a certain knowing”(lines 30–31) or “communal knowledge” (lines 41–42) and “the language of the earth” (line 43). an ecologist would be unlikely to describe the coordinated ﬂowering of bamboo plants (lines 36–42) as arising from a mysterious summons. not by adaptation. This by itself is enough to eliminate choices A. she does not directly address the issue of competition for resources among similar species or suggest that such competition drives the regularity of biological cycles. an ecologist would seek to explain the biological mechanisms that cause these plants to ﬂower simultaneously. 96. In paragraphs 4. The author also describes how one kind of bamboo blooms once every 100 years (lines 36–40) and the celestial cycle of the sun observed by ancient peoples (lines 51–57).” and states that an “old voice from gene or cell taught the plant to oppose the pull of gravity and ﬁnd its way upward. The author also refers to “the sunﬂowerʼs golden language. For example. . a hardly perceptible current that stirred a kinship and longing in me. or any other species mentioned in the passage. we ﬁnd a certain species of bamboo in such disparate environments as the jungles of Malaysia and Pennsylvanian gardens (lines 38–39).

a dream barely remembered” (lines 43–48). given that it also exists in Malaysian jungles [lines 36–40]). Elsewhere in the passage. the passage indicates that death and destruction. and death” (lines 25–27). the author describes how the sandstorm plays a role in the cycle of nature by blowing away the sunﬂowerʼs dead petals. D: Yes. after which “the birds arrived to carry the seeds to the future” (lines 22–24). Be careful not to use outside knowledge or opinion. given that throughout the passage the author discusses the symbiotic relationship between plants.” As part of this drama. C: The passage suggests that.” and as a “current we cannot explain” (lines 36–42). a hardly perceptible current that stirred a kinship and longing in me. D: Yes.) There is no other reference in the passage to artiﬁcially introduced species. including that between humans and nature. B: In the last paragraph. Therefore. we can reasonably infer that human land use does not affect that symbiotic relationship. D: While the author mentions bamboo in Pennsylvanian gardens (bamboo which is likely to be nonnative. she never suggests that we actually disrupt or do harm to the environment. “Be still. not an indication of the cruelty of nature. B A: There is little mention in the passage of human land use. but the author never mentions this problem. B: This choice is too negative to be supported by the overall positive tone of the passage. A: For example. this answer choice has a strongly negative tone that is inconsistent with the passage. Therefore we can infer that plants and animals. Watch and listen. the author describes “the people who came before me” and their attempts to observe and make sense of the world. See also the explanation for choice A. she does not suggest that the meaning of the death of a horse and of a sandstorm are as mysterious as this unknown language. 99. the author describes how a certain type of bamboo continues to ﬂower on its 100-year cycle. B: Yes. not as ugly or as a blemish upon the world. the only direct reference is to a “suburban garden in Pennsylvania” (line 39). just like the plants in the jungles of Malaysia. exhaustion. humans cannot not fully understand the language of nature (lines 27–28 and 40–42). You are the result of the love of thousands” (lines 59–60). the lives of plants and animals seem to carry on with no intervention from human beings. . D A: This choice is too extreme. The author also describes the “summons” that causes bamboo to ﬂower in synchrony as “mysterious. The author tells of standing in a forest and feeling “something like a heartbeat. this is true of some types of bamboo when they spread beyond the garden. D Note: This is an EXCEPT/LEAST/NOT question. Human land use is never directly discussed in the context of native plants and animals (if we can assume that the bamboo discussed in paragraph 5 is not native to suburban Pennsylvania). In fact. humans do lack the ability to detect some intraspecies messages. native or nonnative. she does not suggest that the bamboo displaced native species. the sandstorm plays a role in allowing the sunﬂowerʼs seeds to be disseminated [lines 20–24]). and choose the one that is not supported. is also described as part of nature. Therefore. represented by the dead horse and the storm. she presents this as just another change “in the greater world of the plant. as outsiders. for which you must eliminate the choices that are supported by the passage. It is possible then that humans will be unable to fully satisfy their curiosity. and between plants and animals. the author never expresses a negative attitude towards human impact on the environment. are not dependent on humans for their survival. However. the author states that. In that case. The author also describes the voices of the ancestor counseling. While this statement may be true in the real world. (Be careful not to use outside knowledge.18 MCAT Practice Test 7 Solutions 97.” they can in fact exist in harmony other species. “the sunﬂowerʼs golden language” [lines 27–28]). While the author does indicate that some things are beyond her comprehension (for example. 98. In reality. C: See also the solution for choice B. while inconvenient for the author (lines 20–22). The author suggests that death and destruction are a part of life (for example. While the author describes humans as something of an outsider (lines 27–28). C: As in choice B. “there was escape. “As an outsider. The theme of the passage as a whole is one of harmony and kinship. While the author does call the sight of the dead horse “disturbing” (line 19). The sandstorm. even though humans may be “outsiders. with no reference to harm or disruption caused by human activity. I never learned the sunﬂowerʼs golden language” (lines 27–28). it is not supported by the passage. The author indicates that. In paragraphs 3 and 4 the author describes the dead horse and the sandstorm as part of “the greater world of the plant” and so as players in “a drama of need and survival. are necessary parts of the process and cycle of life.” not as something that mars natureʼs beauty.

” A: Yes. The author argues that even if one has “made a promise to obey. Since the objection does not indicate that politicians are in fact better decision makers than the average person. if the person has no option to break it. it would be consistent to say that laws created by the government would be legitimate only if they were consistent with the will of the governed. C A: This choice weakens rather than supports the passage. The authorʼs response is a logically valid refutation of the objection. it would challenge the authorʼs claim that it is impossible to avoid responsibility for oneʼs own actions by transferring that responsibility to someone else (lines 20–23). it is because the person believes it to be the right thing to do. to keep or break that promise” (lines 14–15). A law that was not in accordance with the will of the governed would illegitimately punish moral people for doing what they thought was right. Therefore. B: The author writes that “the responsible individual will often have to take into account what other individuals are doing when that individual is calculating the consequences of his or her action” (lines 33–36). for acting in accordance with their own moral responsibility. it would weaken the authorʼs claim that it is impossible to enslave “your will to someone elseʼs will” (line 12). this is a different issue from that of the possibility of putting oneʼs will under the control of another by promising to obey that person. This choice weakens the passage. that is. D: The point of the author is that we are responsible for our own decisions and that individuals should make those decisions for themselves. the author states that “if the government requires a moral person to act in a particular fashion and that person complies. C A: The authorʼs response is directly relevant (see the solution for choice C). However. The issue is the transferability of responsibility from an individual to the government. A Note: The theme of the passage is stated in the ﬁrst sentence: “In a fundamental sense. While the author does make this statement in the passage (lines 3–4). This choice itself incorrectly suggests that the author assumes the objector does imply that people should be forced to disobey their consciences. if the person has no option to break it. too” is meant to show why we should “let people decide for themselves what is right and wrong” (lines 45–48) since members of a government are not inherently better. Therefore. The issue of being forced to disobey oneʼs conscience is not directly involved in either the objection or in the authorʼs response. not the moral responsibility of the government for its own actions. and ʻto err is humanʼ applies to us all” (lines 53–55). every person is morally responsible for deciding what is right and what is wrong and acting accordingly. Once the promise is made. The author believes that people must in the end decide moral issues for themselves: “the ﬁnal arbiter is the individual” (line 30). 130. D: See the explanation for choice B. The fact that the people described in the question stem may not make decisions based in part on the effects of their actions on others does not affect the authorʼs argument that they should do so. not simply because the government requires it” (lines 24–28). This is one application of the overall theme of the passage. an individual is still obliged to carry it for him or herself (lines 6–9).28 MCAT Practice Test 7 Solutions Passage VIII (Questions 128–132) 128. If someone is incapable of breaking a promise. C: Yes. one is still in fact free to obey or disobey. The author argues in the passage that “A government is made up of individuals who are fundamentally similar to me. it may as well be me” (lines 50–52). The author argues. . The authorʼs reply that “the designated decision makers could decide anything. it neither supports nor challenges the passage. they would no longer be morally responsible. they would no longer be morally responsible. In paragraph 4. The implication that politicians should also obey their consciences is not directly relevant to the argument about whether or not it is morally valid to hand over moral authority for our own decisions to those politicians. “Since someone has to decide what is the right thing for me to do. 129. to keep or break that promise” (lines 14–15). The author argues that while the burden may be heavy. Once the promise is made. or more moral. B: The authorʼs response is relevant (see the solution for choice C). If someone is incapable of breaking a promise. C: Yes. The new information in the question stem is not directly relevant to the authorʼs suggestion that other people matter. B: This choice contradicts the main theme of the passage. the authorʼs response that what applies to us applies to politicians (they could decide anything) is directly relevant to the objection. The author argues that even if one has “made a promise to obey. one is still in fact free to obey or disobey. it does not invalidate or make irrelevant the authorʼs response to the objection. decision makers.

In paragraph 3. that does not mean that it had no inﬂuence. While the Enlightenment did not wipe out all corruption (lines 47–52). it would challenge or undermine Gibbonʼs presumed view of history. not of change. The author states that Gibbon and Madison were inﬂuenced by “Enlightenment rationalism” (line 54). C: The author does not suggest that this alliance came about gradually (lines 41–46). If it is common to have societies that are both ethnically diverse (and so that Gibbon would expect to break apart into factions) and stable. it would be evidence of lack of change. The author describes “Gibbonʼs certainty that the tendency toward strife is a consequence of the human condition—of its variety of racial. Furthermore.Verbal Reasoning Solutions 31 division of the Empire into western and eastern halves and almost two centuries before Rome ofﬁcially ceased to be the imperial capital” (lines 26–29). not of gradual change. Milan and Nicomedia acted as capital cities for hundreds of years before Rome ceased to be the imperial capital and was replaced. B: Yes. B A: This choice is too strong to be supported by the passage. D: Yes. cultural. the author lists the case of these two cities as an example of “insidious transformations” (line 23) or gradual changes. and economic experiences. . Even if the statement in this choice were supported by the passage. it comes in the context of the authorʼs discussion of patterns of history. which no belief system…can overcome” (lines 64–67). The author also cites Gibbonʼs belief that “human nature never changes and that humanityʼs predilection for factionalism…is the determinant of history” (lines 2–5). D: The lack of distinction between members of the Roman middle class (lines 33–37) is not described as a “transformation” or change and is not portrayed as something that came about slowly or gradually. 137.

muscle injury is likely (Item II is true). The phosphorus ylide is the best choice. The maximum number of possible stereoisomers is 2n. not an ether. skin cells would not receive sufﬁcient oxygen to survive. 146. Bone does not contain myoglobin. so if myoglobin is present in the urine. the skin is a fairly watertight barrier. the highest priority goes to the group in which the atom attached to the chiral carbon has the highest atomic number. 151. and the hypothalamus regulates appetite (among other things). Since myoglobin is a relatively large protein. which nucleophilically attacks the beta carbon of the α. increased blood pressure would certainly lead to increased urine formation. means that the kidney must have been damaged as well (Item III is true). Passage III (Questions 149–153) 149. containing a new C=C double bond. not the cause (choice A is wrong). 150. which would increase blood pressure. so eliminate choices A and D. Compound 6 reacts with a similar reagent to yield Compound 7. Note that only choice D contains Item II. choices A and B can be eliminated. D. Since urine production is directly related to blood pressure. C. The new bond forms between the atoms labeled b and c. there are 24 = 16 possible stereoisomers. A. but the other is a carbonyl oxygen.β-unsaturated ester (which is electrophilic due to conjugation to the ester carbonyl) in an intramolecular Michael reaction. The Hc alpha proton can be removed to form an enolate. 152. The fact that it is not. and Item III must also be true. ocean temperatures (even warm Caribbean Sea ocean temperatures) are typically cooler than body temperature. and further. Excitement or anxiety would activate the sympathetic nervous system. so a bone injury would not lead to myoglobin in the urine (Item I is false). B. D. D. An aldol reaction between these compounds would attach the new carbon group alpha to the ketone. Formaldehyde. making the functional group an ester. 147. the cerebellum coordinates and smoothes body movement. The brain stem regulates basic vital functions such as breath rate and heart rate. . if anything. Note that the cerebrum is involved in sending commands to muscles to contract. so it must be the correct answer choice. it is unlikely that blood pressure would be excessively high because of other compensatory mechanisms that kick in when skin vessels must be constricted to conserve heat (choice C is wrong). It is unlikely that water would be absorbed from the ocean. and this would lead to the increased during production (choice A is correct and choice B is wrong). so the skin would not need to be cooled by evaporation. it would normally exclude myoglobin from the urine. If the skin blood vessels were to remain constricted for great lengths of time. and the ﬁltration apparatus of the kidney excludes proteins. While it is true that maintenance of muscle tone requires oxygen. not directly to the carbonyl carbon. Skin tone (color) is the result of oxygenation. by analogy to Step 4 in Figure 2. While dilation of the vessels would lead to a decrease in blood pressure. Both C and D can be eliminated because organometallic reagents (nucleophiles) will add to the carbonyl carbon to give an alcohol.Biological Sciences Solutions 33 145. where n is the number of stereocenters. 153. A. can also be eliminated since it cannot react under neutral conditions with a ketone. First count the number of stereocenters in the molecule: there are four. C. water would be drawn from the skin due to the higher osmotic pressure of the ocean (choice C is wrong). According to the Cahn–Ingold–Prelog priority rules. N has a higher atomic number than both C and H. C. but the cerebellum coordinates their activity. Since n = 4. While it is true that evaporative water loss would not be possible while diving. 148. A CO2Et group contains one oxygen as part of the backbone chain linking two carbon groups. choice B. Due to the presence of the double bond. Only choice D has these listed in the proper order. dilating skin vessels would not supply oxygen to the muscles (choice D is wrong). Myoglobin is a protein found only in muscle tissue.

162. D. Individual nucleotides in DNA and RNA are connected by a phosphate molecule that bridges the 3ʹ hydroxyl group of the sugar on one nucleotide to the 5ʹ hydroxyl group of the sugar on another nucleotide. The passage states that reverse transcriptase is used to produce DNA from an RNA template. C. The great variability of the gp120 protein assures that there would be several different versions of this viral protein within a single host. Since the viral protein and the receptor bind to each other. This question asks to compare the rates the SN1 and SN2 mechanisms under protic solvent conditions. Beneﬁcial mutations for the host would have resulted in receptors that would not bind the virus (choices A and D are wrong). Since an alcohol can hydrogen bond and is more polar. The CD4 receptor on the helper T cell is there for normal T-cell function. and will be slower than either a primary substrate if the SN2 mechanism predominates. this would not account for their inability to neutralize all versions of the AIDS virus (choices A and C are wrong). A. 160. Foreign antigens are recognized by many different immune system cells. Engulﬁng and lysing antigen is the job of macrophages and other phagocytes (choice B is wrong). C. D. in which RNA is produced from a DNA template. and therefore have lower Rf values. This is the reverse of RNA synthesis (transcription). for example. B cells produce antibodies. Free-Standing Questions (161–164) 161. Choice D is simply untrue. protein synthesis produces protein from an RNA template (choice C is wrong). translation (synthesis) must be occurring during interphase. it will have stronger intermolecular interactions with the silica gel. etc. the phosphate and nitrogenous bases do not connect to one another (choice C is wrong). and the complementary bases between DNA strands are connected by hydrogen bonds (choice D is wrong). phagocytes. Viruses do not carry ribosomes and rely on the host cellʼs ribosomes to carry out their protein synthesis. B. DNA replication produces new DNA from a DNA template (choice A is wrong). and antibodies speciﬁc for one version may not be able to bind to and inactivate a different version. 158. This is simply a protein–protein interaction (choice C is wrong). 156. Thus its genetic information would be found in the nucleus. and there is no speciﬁc cell involved in antibody binding. C. including T cells. In thin layer chromatography. this is not truly convergent evolution. and carbohydrate synthesis does not require the use of nucleic acids at all (choice D is wrong).” this means its RNA genome has already been reverse transcribed to DNA and inserted into the host cell (CD4 cell) genome. and relatively uniform in structure.34 MCAT Practice Test 7 Solutions Passage IV (Questions 154–160) 154. If the virus has been “incorporated. the SN1 mechanism must be favored. or slower than a tertiary substrate if the SN1 mechanism predominates. (choice A is wrong). complex. Convergent evolution results in structures that have similar functions. and proteolysis (degradation) must be occurring during mitosis (choice C is . Coevolution beneﬁting the host and natural selection favoring mutation of the host would not have resulted in a receptor that would bind this devastating virus. it is simply through chance that the virus was able to create a protein that could bind to the CD4 receptor and allow it access to the cell. D. 157. where the host cellʼs DNA is also found. While it is true that antibodies are large. 163. Antibodies are highly speciﬁc markers produced by B cells that bind to and inactivate foreign proteins (antigens). so a virus that infects and destroys B cells would most severely affect antibody production. Choices A and C can be eliminated since they are both secondary substrates. if the virus had developed a receptor similar to the CD4 receptor (rather than developing the ligand for the receptor) this would be an example of convergent evolution. more polar compounds do not travel as far on the plate. The graph shows an increase in cyclin concentration during interphase and a decrease during mitosis. 155. antibodies have two antigen-binding sites. 159. B cells. B. The sugar and nitrogenous base are attached at the 1ʹ carbon of the sugar (choice B is wrong). Because a protic solvent is present. The more substituted substrate will react faster since it will yield a more stable carbocation intermediate. D. Thus. however evolution of the ligand (the gp120 protein) is not convergent evolution (choice B is wrong).

a type of stereoisomer. Choice A shows a hydride reduction of the ketone. this is not a perfect system). where n is the number of cell-division cycles. For C-7. patients undergoing this procedure must take drugs to suppress their own immune system so that it does not attack the new transplanted organ—clearly bodies make antigens that can be recognized. Grignard reagents attack electrophilic carbonyl carbons to form new C–C bonds and yield alcohols. Simple replication of the gene or segregation of the chromosomes carrying the gene would not result in synthesis of the cyclin protein. and 4) H. Due to the randomness of the procedure. Digestion. each of which produces an antibody distinct from all others. the priorities of the groups are: 1) the ring oxygen because it has a higher atomic number than the C or H. B. and 4) H. Groups 1. Hydroxyl groups appear in the 3200–3600 cm–1 range of an IR spectrum. For C-5. The structure then represents both enantiomers. any cell producing antibodies that recognize “self” are destroyed or suppressed (choice D is correct and C is wrong). however the cells that recognize the self-antigens are suppressed (choice B is wrong). 172. B. Therefore. including the intestines. and 3 trace a clockwise arc with Group 4 behind the molecule. the number of cells produced would be 27 = 128 (which is between 50 and 500). The peritoneal cavity is the subdivision of the ventral body cavity that contains the abdominal organs. D. and D are wrong). D. and secretion of enzymes takes place in the small intestine (choices A.Biological Sciences Solutions 35 correct and D is wrong). The body does make antigens that the immune system can recognize. A. 3) C-6 because of atomic number. the cells would go through 7 cycles of division. This is made possible by random B cell DNA rearrangement prior to transcription and translation of that cellʼs particular antibody. protein synthesis is halted during replication and during mitosis (choices A and B are wrong). Passage VI (Questions 170–174) 170. giving the stereocenter the R conﬁguration. choice C shows no reaction at all. 3) C-6 because it has a higher atomic number than the H. and 3 days is 72 hours. Antibody–antigen interaction occurs extracellularly (choice A is wrong). so that autoimmunity does not occur (obviously. Very early in development. C. Antibodies are proteins with enormous variability. while carbonyl groups appear near 1700 cm–1. D. 2) C-4. Since the mouse cells divide every 10 hours. absorption. The perineum is the region between the external genitalia and the anus and is not a cavity at all (choice A is wrong). if the perspective of the bonds is not indicated (as in Compound 7). The pleural cavity is the subdivision of the ventral body cavity that contains the lungs (choice C is wrong). because it is more highly substituted than C-6. The only way for one structure to represent a mixture of isomers is if the molecule contains one or more chiral centers. We just usually do not detect our own. and choice D shows a 1. A. Penetration of the intestinal wall would allow the contents of the intestinal lumen (the inner hollow part of the intestines) to enter this cavity (choice B is correct and D is wrong). B. 167. Choices C and D are structural isomers. and 3 trace a counterclockwise arc with group 4 behind the molecule. Passage V (Questions 165–169) 165. . it is inevitable that some of the antibodies produced will recognize “self” antigens. 2. 168. The colon (large intestine) has only two functions: to reabsorb water and to store feces. 171. 169. Groups 1. Only choice A shows a pair of enantiomers that corresponds to the structure of Compound 7 in the passage. 2) C-8 because it is more highly substituted than C-6. 164. B. Consider organ transplantation. the priorities of the groups are: 1) the OH group because of atomic number. giving the stereocenter an S conﬁguration. The result is an extremely diverse population of cells.4 addition of the methyl group and a hydride reduction of the ketone. in fact. The number of cells resulting from cell division is equal to 2n. 2. 166. Grignard reagents are prepared from their corresponding alkyl halides and magnesium metal.

C. a change in sympathetic activity should lead to a change in norepinephrine content in the blood. DNA and mRNA are inside the cell. choices A. and the blood ﬂow was measured at the same time of day to eliminate the possibility of interference by diurnal (night/day) patterns. D. Usually the antigens are foreign and are associated with pathogens. C. D. and they had a reduced blood ﬂow. If the disease were polygenic (caused by several genes). this could also cause the non-Mendelian inheritance pattern (choice C is suggested by the lack of Mendelian inheritance and can be eliminated). Since norepinephrine is the neurotransmitter used by the sympathetic nervous system. and the genes interacted in various ways. hydrocarbons. Passage VII (Questions 175–180) 175. and both types of fats have carbon– hydrogen bonds (they are in fact. they must assume that the subjects followed all procedures properly. D. typically found on a cellʼs surface. a lack of epinephrine receptors in skin blood vessels means that the sympathetic nervous system could not be affecting these vessels (choice C is wrong). and that no lifestyle changes were made during the study. so no assumption should be made regarding their effect on blood ﬂow (choices A and B are wrong). B. 180. the age range was stated to be 18–28. A. it would display clear Mendelian inheritance patterns. Note also that pressure decreases as cross–sectional area increases. 178. Epinephrine can also stimulate the sympathetic system. was not controlled by the researchers (choice D was not controlled and is the correct answer choice). Because vitamin E is an antioxidant. are “fully saturated” with hydrogen (choice B is wrong). Unsaturated fats contain one or more C=C double bonds. which was the factor being measured. Only blood ﬂow. the antigens are our own. with no C=C double bonds. . In vivo dilation of blood vessels would increase blood ﬂow. Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter used by the parasympathetic system (choice B is wrong). Note also that dilation of blood vessels (except in rare instances) is not typically a function of the sympathetic nervous system. Saturated fats. choice C is wrong). so that any observed changes in blood ﬂow would be known to be from the dietary supplements being tested. therefore. Fatty acids and vitamin E were the two substances being tested. While it is true that vitamin E alone increases blood ﬂow more than fatty acids alone. and not from some other change in habits. and C were all controlled and can be eliminated. The fatty acid group was not given any supplementation to reduce oxidation of the fatty acids. 176.36 MCAT Practice Test 7 Solutions 173. Our immune system produces antibodies that bind to and mark antigens for destruction. not decrease it (choice D is wrong). If the gene for inﬂammatory bowel disease were simply recessive. Therefore. The antigen that is possibly involved in inﬂammatory bowel disease must be a surface protein on a cell in the digestive tract. Of the choices given. Blood pressure was not one of the parameters measured in this study (choice D is wrong). the fatty acid + vitamin E group would have more unoxidized fatty acids than the fatty acid group. Blood pressure is highest in the ventricles of the heart. Skin temperature was stated to be 32°C in all subjects. are not proteins. Incomplete penetrance and limited expressivity are departures from classic Mendelian inheritance (choices A and B are suggested by the lack of Mendelian inheritance and can be eliminated). and thus are “less saturated” with hydrogen atoms than saturated fats. D. Remember that antigens are simply proteins. we are not asked to compare these two groups (choice B is true but does not answer the question). such as bacteria and viruses. The number of carbon atoms do not differ between saturated and unsaturated fats (choice A is wrong). and are associated with our own cells. the capillaries are farthest from the heart and would have the lowest pressure. 179. and goes down as the distance from the heart increases. and therefore should not have such a reduced blood ﬂow. This is to ensure consistency. D. 177. The researchers could not monitor the subjects 100% of the time during the study to make sure they were following their instructions. in fact the data shows that their blood ﬂow was increased (choice D is wrong). The data show that vitamin E alone increases blood ﬂow (choice A is wrong). Rarely. The data are consistent with choice C. and that capillaries have the highest collective cross-sectional area of all the vessels in the body. and could not lead to the inﬂammation described in the passage. 174.

which is represented by the peak labeled with a 3 in the gas chromatograph trace. C. etc. D. Free-Standing Questions (186–190) 186. and is not related to the degree of substitution. There is nothing in the question text that suggests that lipases are anything other than proteins (choice A is wrong). C. The phenotypes associated with these genotypes are red or roan. and hyperconjugation.). Alcohol stretches appear between 3200–3600 cm–1. the internal standard). choice B is wrong). Hydrolysis of a triglyceride yields three equivalents of fatty acid and one equivalent of glycerol. plant cells. The passage states that Figure 1 represents the 1H NMR spectrum of the major product. Resonance requires the delocalization of charge and/or electrons. rounded structure within the nucleus (choice A is wrong). They look similar under the microscope. Only the tertbutyl alcohol has two types of protons. D. D. The two signals in the spectrum indicate the compound has only two types of Hʼs (the small blip at 0 ppm represents TMS. B. Eliminate choice A. Steric interference (choice B) would destabilize a molecule. not acid. B. The roan-colored colt must be heterozygous and have the genotype RW. all products will be alcohols. Viruses. then this demonstrates that enzymes can interact with different substrate molecules as long as they have similar chemical linkages (choice C is correct and choices B and D are wrong). and the smooth ER is also composed of folded membranes. and its white-colored mother must have the genotype WW. More highly substituted carbocations are better stabilized by induction and hyperconjugation. on the other hand. making C the best choice. Choice D does not occur since OH– is a poor leaving group. It is unlikely that it would be confused with the Golgi apparatus (choice C is wrong). The passage states that the second most abundant product was sec-butyl alcohol. This converts a poor leaving group (OH–) into a good leaving group (H2O). If lipases can catalyze their hydrolysis as well as the hydrolysis of carboxylic acid esters that are not fats. Most fats are carboxylic acid esters. and contain the OH functionality. D. animal cells. C. 182. 183. Thus the colt inherited the W allele from its mother and must have inherited the R allele from its father. 188. and the plasma membrane is a well-deﬁned boundary surrounding all the other organelles and cytoplasm. the inductive effect. C. 189. 184. The ﬁrst step of the reaction must then be choice B. There are two possible genotypes that could donate the R allele: RR or RW. Bacteria are able to reproduce independently of any other organism as long as they are provided with a nutrient source such as glucose. are unable to reproduce without their host cells (bacteria. and both bacteria and viruses lack a nucleus and therefore lack a nuclear membrane (choice B is wrong). The nucleolus appears as a dark. so the colt father could have been either of these colors. The Golgi apparatus is a stack of ﬂattened membrane. Choice C would occur if the alcohol were treated with a strong base. and choice D is unrelated. Since the numbers represent relative amounts of material. Choice A describes multiple steps in the conversion of an alcohol to an alkene. the mitochondria have an outer membrane surrounding a clearly folded inner membrane (cristae.Biological Sciences Solutions 37 Passage VIII (Questions 181–185) 181. Since the reaction was quenched with water. Since the question states 2 moles of the fatty acid have the R side chain while only 1 mole has the Rʹ side chain. the triglyceride must have a 2:1 R:Rʹ ratio. 190. the percentage of this compound can be calculated as follows: 185. virus have a protein capsid. 187. Both bacteria and viruses can undergo mutation (choice A is wrong). Treatment of an alcohol with a strong acid results in protonation of a lone pair of electrons on the oxygen atom. The passage indicates three ways to stabilize a carbocation: resonance. which integrate for 1 H (the OH group) and 9 H (the three equivalent methyl groups). Both bacteria and viruses contain protein in their outermost covering. . Let us represent the allele for red coat color with the letter R and the allele for white coat color with the letter W.

. and since no reference is made to this in the passage. In this case the cause of the problem is the aberrant stomach cells that are dividing out of control and producing tumors. The passage states that most people do not eradicate the infection (choice C is wrong). These are most often associated with viral (not bacterial) infection (choices A and B are wrong). The bacterial genes are not incorporated into host chromosomes. There is no reason to assume disruption of enzymatic activity or host cell protein synthesis. Targeting H. Antibodies are secreted from B cells into the plasma and into interstitial ﬂuid. Choices C and D do not discuss results of Experiment 1. The stomach is extremely acidic (pH around 1) and this environment often denatures proteins. which involves blood vessel dilation (choice D is wrong). Acid is secreted to neutralize harmful pathogens and to initiate general food hydrolysis. Clearly. pylori infection would be accompanied with many other infections as well (choice C is wrong). however not all stomach cancers are caused by H. The primary function of the stomach is to grind and store food so that it can enter the small intestine slowly. Just because the immune system fails to recognize bacterial antigens does not mean that cancer is imminent. and there is no reason to target all body cells if only the stomach cells have cancer (choice C is wrong). and the movement of white blood cells (leukocytes) into the area. 196. A. they have effectively stopped dividing.38 MCAT Practice Test 7 Solutions Passage IX (Questions 191–197) 191. and D are wrong). All other macromolecules are digested in the small intestine by pancreatic and intestinal enzymes (choices A. Passage X (Questions 198–204) 198. tolerance to the infection is more likely (choice D is better than choice B). 195. Antibodies are generally effective against bacteria. of course. and this would not help eliminate the existing cancer cells (choice D is wrong). The passage states that different genes are expressed in different strains of the bacterium. Simple increased proliferation of cells is not enough to cause cancer. H. Very limited digestion and absorption occur in the stomach. The passage states that the cagA gene leads to inﬂammation. There is nothing in the passage to suggest immune suppression. or exhibit different resistance patterns. the mutation must occur in the cells that are proliferating (in this case the stomach cells. or exist in different countries (choices A. if this were the case. B. 194. so the gene therapy should be directed there. Mutation is more likely. the passage states that these bacteria frequently evade immune detection and that more than 75% of infected individuals do not develop cancer (choice C is wrong). In fact. 193. something about being with the other cells in the embryo aids in its differentiation. If the crowded mucosal cells remain in interphase. C. infected individuals who do not develop cancer must either have “robust” immune systems or must simply tolerate the infection without developing cancer. somehow the cells must mutate and lose control of their own division. D. pylori. subsequent swelling. the AB cell produces more kinds of tissue than when it is isolated. due to the rapid proliferation and subsequent DNA replication! However. A. which are somatic. Targeting the antibody-producing cells of the immune system would destroy the bodyʼs own natural defense against cancer (choice B is wrong). 192. 197. choice B is correct and A is wrong). this is an unusual case (choice B is wrong). D. and pepsinogen is secreted to initiate protein digestion. A therapy for any kind of disease should be targeted against the cause of the problem. in which case cancer would be less likely (choice D is wrong). this is a feature associated with viral infection (choice A is wrong). The fact that P1 cells develop identically regardless of whether they are intact or isolated supports the hypothesis that cell-to-cell communication is not needed for determination of fate (choice B is wrong). B. In an intact embryo. C. There is nothing to suggest that different strains attack different hosts. A. both extracellular spaces (choice D is wrong). pylori might help root out the cells that led to the out-of-control division (thus reducing the likelihood of future cancers). Therefore. B. Since the deﬁnition of “robust immune system” is vague at best. and C are wrong).

Gut differentiation only occurred when EMS cells were present (choices C and D are wrong) and occurred immediately in the P2–EMS cell combination (choice A is correct and B is wrong). Chemist 1ʼs mechanism requires two parts of the molecule to be brought together to form a cyclic transition state which is more ordered than the starting material. and the zygote divides to form AB and P1 cells. If the entropy of activation is less than zero. Eliminate choices B and D. and in any case. and choice D puts the carbonyl in the middle of the chain instead of in the terminal aldehyde position. From Figure 1 it can be seen that gut only arises from blastomere E. choice C has the oxygen embedded in the carbon chain instead of in a carbonyl functional group. 204. D. B. However. the phenolate ion of one starting material could react with the carbocation of the second starting material as they diffuse through the reaction ﬂask. Cells did not develop normally in the absence of other cells. 202. an inhibitor of translation did disrupt development. the zygote and the AB cells are not found together and cannot inﬂuence one another (choice D is wrong). Chemist 2ʼs mechanism requires a bond to break. Normal development does not involve cell separation (choice B is wrong) and none of the experiments tested separation of the cells into the three primary tissue layers (choice D is wrong). and transcription is necessary for translation to occur. the entropy of the system is decreasing and the system is becoming more ordered. 207. making two intermediates from one starting material. from C and from D (choice B is wrong). 206. Germ cells are not somatic (choice D is wrong). but the AB cells were not able to differentiate normally. Choice A is missing the C=C double bond. Not other pathways leads to the gut. . A. The gut differentiation substances must be segregated until gut differentiation occurs. No cross products can form if the mechanism of the reaction is concerted (Chemist 1) since one bond is broken at one end of the molecule at the same time a new bond forms at the other end. Alcohol stretches appear between 3200 and 3600 cm–1. This indicates that the signal must be a protein (choice D is correct and choices B and C are wrong). C. DNA is never used as a signaling molecule (choice A is wrong). Since the P1 cells were able to divide and differentiate normally in the absence of the AB cells. C. This entropy change is positive (the system becomes more disordered). 208. 203. if the ﬁrst step of the reaction involves bond cleavage to form two intermediates (Chemist 2).Biological Sciences Solutions 39 199. B. from MS. Nothing was done in Experiment 2 to prevent DNA replication. B. Note that this is the most likely choice anyway. so cell-to-cell signaling was necessary. Passage XI (Questions 205–208) 205. 201. interactions between them cannot be determined (choice C is wrong). and muscle arises from both ABs. D. this indicates that the P1 cells must be necessary for normal AB cell differentiation (choice B is correct and choice A is wrong). The only answer choice that states this is choice C. and from C (choice A is wrong). A. Choice A is tempting because Experiment 2 showed that an inhibitor of transcription did not disrupt normal development. However. However. whereas preventing transcription (mRNA or rRNA synthesis) had no effect on the cells. thus normal nematode development must involve transcription at some level (choice A is wrong). There is no chance the side chain can leave the starting material. The allyl vinyl ether reacts to form an intermediate that has a carbonyl group and a new C=C double bond at opposite ends of the carbon chain. 200. as proteins are almost always the signaling molecules between cells. Use Figure 1 and work backwards from “gut” to see the pathway: zygote to P1 to EMS to E. B. preventing translation (protein synthesis) prevented normal development. In Experiment 2. Neuronal tissue arises from both ABs. Use the arrow pushing mechanism given in Equation 2 of the passage. Since the P1 and P2 cells were not separated. from MS.

since the cells are described as “actively dividing. and DNA is a nucleic acid (choice D is wrong). and choice C is a better answer than either choice A or B. Compound II is completely nonpolar and will not dissolve in water. and meiosis only occurs in germ-line cells (sperm and ova. Cholesterol is a lipid that is the precursor for all steroid hormones. the disease must be linked to the X chromosome and have come from the mother (choice B is correct and D is wrong). The fact that more men than women have the disease (in fact only men have the disease) indicates that it is most likely sex-linked (choice C is wrong). 212. Fission is cell division in prokaryotes (choice A is wrong). Cells could not grow bigger to replace damaged tissue (choice D is wrong). A. If the gallbladder is removed. C. D. Compound I is an amine and can hydrogen bond with water molecules. making it fairly soluble. B. worn-out cells or simply to allow growth of an organism. glycogen is the storage form of glucose (choice B is wrong).40 MCAT Practice Test 7 Solutions Free-Standing Questions (209–214) 209. such as testosterone. Because only sons inherited the allele. C. but digestion of other molecules would not be affected. . 211. Thus if an increase is seen in the incorporated amount of this radiolabeled substance (as is shown in the graph). The fact that the children display the disease and the parents do not means that the disease is caused by a recessive allele (choice A is wrong). C. Cell growth is limited by surface-to-volume ratios. choice B is wrong). and neither father has the disease. Bile is an emulsiﬁer that breaks up fat into micelles and allows more efﬁcient digestion by lipases. Insulin is a protein (choice A is wrong). a polar solvent. fat digestion will be more difﬁcult. The gallbladder stored bile made in the liver and releases it into the small intestine when fats are present there. DNA synthesis must be occurring (choice C is correct and D is wrong).” but the incorporation of thymidine clearly indicates DNA synthesis. 2-Deoxythymidine can only be incorporated into DNA and not RNA. 214. Certainly one can assume that either mitosis or meiosis (depending on whether these were somatic or germ line cells) is occurring as well. and sons get their Y chromosome from their father. 210. Mitosis is the normal process by which cells divide to replace old. 213.