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Impairment of conversion of vitamin D to its active form III. Inability of the active form of vitamin D to act on its target tissue A) I only B) I and II only C) I and III only D) II and III only The passage states that rickets is caused by insufficient vitamin D activity. Insufficient vitamin D activity would reduce the ability of the body to absorb ingested calcium from the small intestine. To maintain calcium levels in the blood plasma, parathyroid hormone would promote the breakdown of bone tissue, causing the bones to become weak. If there were a metabolic deficiency of parathyroid hormone, the body would be unable to break down bone tissue (option I), causing a higher than normal ratio of mineral to organic matter in the bones instead of a lower than normal ratio. However, if the body were unable to convert vitamin D to its active form, or if vitamin D were unable to act on its target tissue, overall vitamin D activity would be impaired (options II and III), which can lead to rickets. Thus,
D is the best answer.
I missed this question because I...
2. Why do calcium supplements often include vitamin D? A) Vitamin D is needed to prevent rickets. B) The activated form of vitamin D stimulates the absorption of calcium into Solution the blood. Guess Activated vitamin D acts on the small intestine to stimulate the absorption of calcium into the bloodstream. The inclusion of vitamin D in calcium supplements would ensure that vitamin D is present in the body to help promote this absorption. Thus, B is the best answer.
C) The activated form of vitamin D enhances the action of calcitonin. D) The activated form of vitamin D enhances the uptake of calcium by bone tissue. I missed this question because I...
3. A low level of calcium in the plasma will trigger an increase of:
I. II. III.
osteoclast activity. parathyroid hormone. vitamin C.
A) I only B) I and II only When the level of calcium in the blood plasma is low, the body responds by mobilizing stores of calcium from the bones via the activity of parathyroid hormone. Parathyroid hormone will increase the number of osteoclasts, which break down bone cells. Therefore, one would expect an
increase in both parathyroid hormone and osteoclast activity in order to increase the level of calcium in the blood plasma (options I and II). However, vitamin C (option III) promotes bone formation, a process that would further lower the calcium level in the plasma. Thus, B is the best answer.
C) I and III only D) II and III only I missed this question because I...
4. Under what condition would the level of calcitonin tend to increase? A) When there is a dietary deficiency of calcium B) When there is a dietary deficiency of vitamin D Solution C) When the level of calcium in the plasma is high Guess Calcitonin reduces bone resorption. Bone resorption occurs when the level of calcium in the blood plasma is low, but resorption is not needed when the level of calcium is high. Therefore, resorption would be reduced by calcitonin under conditions in which the level of calcium in the plasma is high. Thus, C is the best answer.
D) When the level of parathyroid hormone is too low I missed this question because I...
5. Which of the following persons would be most likely to have rickets? A) A child with a dietary deficiency in fat-soluble vitamins living in a tropical climate Solution B) A child with a dietary deficiency in fat-soluble vitamins living in a northern climate Guess The passage states that vitamin D is nonpolar and that it can be obtained through the action of ultraviolet rays on the skin. Nonpolar molecules tend to be lipid-soluble rather than water-soluble, and exposure to ultraviolet
rays tends to be less in northern climates than in tropical climates. Of the choices given, a child who has a dietary deficiency of fat-soluble vitamins and lives in a northern climate would be most likely to develop rickets. Thus, B is the best answer.
C) A child with a dietary deficiency in water-soluble vitamins living in a tropical climate D) A child with a dietary deficiency in water-soluble vitamins living in a northern climate I missed this question because I...
6. What would be the result of complete removal of the parathyroid glands? A) Severe neural and muscular problems due to deficiency of calcium in the plasma
Removal of the parathyroid gland would lead to hypocalcemia, a condition of low blood calcium, resulting from the lack of parathyroid hormone. This would cause increased neuromuscular excitability because of the change in membrane potential, which under normal physiological conditions, is partially kept in balance with extracellular calcium. Typically, the person would eventually die from severe respiratory muscle spasms. Thus, A is the best answer.
B) An increase in calcitonin production to compensate for calcium deficiency in the plasma C) A drastic change in the ratio of mineral to matrix tissue in bones D) Calcification of some organs due to accumulation of calcium in the plasma 7. Which of the following experiments would provide the best supporting evidence that neutrophils are the cause of the reperfusion injury? A) Performing the ischemia/reperfusion experiment using B (antibody-producing) cell-depleted animals and
8.. Information in the passage suggests most strongly that the function of the beta subunit involves: A) adhering neutrophils to the endothelium. Solution The passage states that the beta subunit is part of a heterodimer receptor . A reduction in the amount of damage would implicate a role for neutrophils in the injury process. C) Repeating the experiment with another antibody directed against the entire alpha/beta heterodimer. they can assess whether the degree of tissue damage is reduced in the absence of neutrophils.. Thus. and examining whether the degree of tissue damage is reduced D) Repeating the experiment with another antibody directed against the beta subunit. B is the best answer. and examining whether the degree of tissue damage is reduced I missed this question because I.examining whether the degree of tissue damage is reduced B) Performing the ischemia/reperfusion experiment using neutrophil-depleted animals and examining whether the degree of tissue damage is reduced The scientists were testing the hypothesis that toxins released by neutrophils are the cause of reperfusion injury. By repeating the experiment in neutrophildepleted mice.
This implies that when the beta subunit is blocked by antibodies. when antibodies were directed against the beta subunit of the receptor. B) transferring proteinases from endothelium to neutrophils. and the results are shown in Figure 1. Solution Guess . The animals were then studied for 10 days. However. D) the generation of antibody against the subunit. Thus. no subsequent reduction in tissue damage occurred. 9. When antibodies were directed against the alpha subunit... C) hydrogen bonding with the alpha subunit. The scientist applied antibody B to lab animals at different stages during ischemia and reperfusion.Guess present on the membrane of neutrophil cells that plays a role in the adhesion of neutrophils to endothelial cells. the receptor is no longer able to perform its function of helping the neutrophil adhere to endothelial cells. A is the best answer. implying that the neutrophils were still able to adhere to the endothelial cells. a reduction in tissue damage was observed. I missed this question because I.
Guess Administration of antibody B reduced tissue damage following ischemia. B) Antibody B can block the initiation of events that result in the release of harmful. avoiding the release of the toxic chemicals such as free radicals and proteases. This should be more effective than trying to minimize damage from the toxins after they have already been released.Figure 1 Treatment of animals with antibody B at different time points during an ischemia/reperfusion experiment The figure shows that the animals can be protected from tissue injury if the antibody treatment is received: A) at any time during ischemia or reperfusion. However. Thus. presumably by preventing neutrophils from being able to adhere to the vascular endothelium. there was a substantial reduction in tissue damage as compared to that of the control. B is the best answer. biologically active molecules. it will not be rejected by the patient. Thus. therefore. B) after reperfusion only. The graph shows that when the antibody was administered during reperfusion the amount of tissue damage that occurred was nearly the same as that of the control. D is the best answer. The scientist claimed that antibody B offers a better means for preventing organ injury than agents such as free radical or protease inhibitors.. both times that antibody treatment was administered prior to reperfusion. I missed this question because I. . D) before reperfusion only. C) during reperfusion only. Which of the following reasons offers the best support for this claim? Solution A) Antibody B is a high-affinity antibody. 10. which had not received antibody treatment.. antibody B treatment would prevent neutrophils from invading the ischemic tissue. If this truly is the case.
producing anti-mouse antibodies. repeated usage in the same patient would elicit the production of human anti-mouse antibodies. a particular patient may not have a severe reaction to antibody B until after multiple exposures. the human body would recognize it as a foreign antigen and mount an immune response. B is the best answer.. 11... D) Antibody B exhibits a high half-life and can be used at any dosage at any time. Which of the following is the most logical reason for the rejection? Solution A) Because the antibody was generated in the mouse. The scientist wanted to use antibody B clinically (i. D) Because the antibody was generated in the mouse. it will not recognize anything else other than the beta subunit. . B) Because the antibody was generated in the mouse.C) Antibody B is a very specific antibody. to treat humans).. it can only be used in vitro. I missed this question because I. it will not recognize human antigens. I missed this question because I. Because an initial immune response to a specific antigen usually takes longer and is weaker than subsequent responses to the same antigen. Thus.. 12. therefore. C) Because the antibody was generated in the mouse. Guess Antibody B was produced in mice. Which of the following situations would most likely occur in patients with defects in the neutrophil adhesion receptors during bacterial infections? A) A presence of pus at sites of bacterial infections Solution B) An absence of pus at sites of bacterial infections Pus is usually generated when neutrophils destroy cells by phagocytosis.e. therefore. it can never be used in humans. but this proposal was rejected.
Thus. C is the best answer. The neutrophils containing these particular point mutations can still migrate through the endothelium. 14. This implies that the neutrophils can still bind to the endothelial cells. Cell adhesion is required for migration to occur. D) The cell has a defective cell membrane. this cell can still migrate through endothelium. . B) It forms faster at all temperatures because its rate of formation is independent of its path. If the neutrophil has a defect in its adhesion receptors. Which of the following conclusions about the effect of Solution this mutation can be drawn? A) The cell cannot release toxic products such as prostaglandins. it will not be able to bind to and engulf bacterial cells. C) An increase in the amount of circulating red blood cells D) A decrease in the amount of circulating white blood cells I missed this question because I. However. 13.. B) The cell has only functional beta subunits. Thus. Guess C) The cell can bind to endothelium. and no pus will be generated. C) Its reaction profile has the lower energy of activation.Guess To do so. Which of the following rationales explains which compound is the product of kinetic control? A) Its semicarbazone has the lower melting point.. neutrophils must first adhere to the cells that they are attacking. B is the best answer. A neutrophil has point mutations in the genes coding for the alpha and the beta subunits of the adhesion receptor.
. because the more stable product forms faster B) Cyclohexanone’s. Thus. I missed this question because I. because it is produced under equilibrium conditions and is more stable than the other product Guess The melting point data in Table 1 indicate that the thermodynamically controlled product is the semicarbazone of 2-furaldehyde. 16. Which semicarbazone is the product of thermodynamic control? A) Cyclohexanone’s. C is the best answer. D) Its reaction profile has the higher energy of activation. because it contains more alkyl substituents to a double Solution bond than does the other product C) 2-Furaldehyde’s.. C is the best answer. 15. Based on its structure (shown below). D) 2-Furaldehyde’s..The kinetically controlled product is formed faster than the thermodynamically controlled product because the energy of activation for the formation of the kinetically controlled product is lower.. because its potential energy is higher I missed this question because I. The thermodynamically controlled product is the one that is formed under equilibrium conditions and is more stable. Thus. the aldehydic proton in 2-furaldehyde should appear in its 1H NMR spectrum as a: .
Thus. Thus. D) spread the crystals evenly over the surface of the funnel. B is the best answer. 17. C) remove insoluble impurities.. Because there are no hydrogens on the carbon next to the carbonyl carbon. In each experiment... B) doublet. I missed this question because I. the signal for the aldehydic proton is not split. Guess Rinsing the crystals with cold water will wash away the impurities soluble in cold water. the crystals are collected on a Hirsch funnel and washed with two portions of cold water in order to: A) recrystallize the product. The aldehydic proton will appear as a singlet. C) triplet. What is the hybridization of the carbonyl carbon in cyclohexanone? A) s B) sp Solution C) sp2 .Solution Guess A) singlet. 18. D) quartet.. Solution B) remove soluble impurities. I missed this question because I. A is the best answer.
Thus. This leads to an increase in blood volume and therefore blood pressure. D) sp3 19.Guess The carbonyl carbon in cyclohexanone is bonded to three other atoms (two carbons in the ring and the carbonyl oxygen). B) An excess of glucagon C) A shortage of thyroxine D) A shortage of insulin I missed this question because I. C is the best answer. the carbon is sp2 hybridized.. There are three hybrid orbitals. 20. Thus.. A is the best answer. What mechanism probably would be responsible for the increased urine output induced by hypertension according to Hypothesis B? A) Increased blood flow to the bladder Solution . which of the following endocrine disorders would cause hypertension that could NOT be rectified by physiologically normal kidneys? A) An excess of aldosterone Aldosterone is a hormone released by the adrenal glands. Assuming Hypothesis B to be correct. Physiologically normal kidneys respond to aldosterone by increasing the reabsorption of both sodium and water.
therefore increasing blood volume and pressure. Thus.Guess B) Increased renal tubular reabsorption of solutes and water C) Increased collecting duct permeability to water D) Increased glomerular filtration rate The glomerular filtration rate is proportional to the glomerular capillary blood pressure minus the sum of the plasma osmotic pressure and the Bowman’s capsule hydrostatic pressure. I missed this question because I. which Solution hypothesis would these results best support? A) Hypothesis A. The kidneys respond to this drop in pressure by activating the renin–angiotensin system of hormones. because the kidneys were responding to decreased glomerular blood pressure The reduced flow of blood through the renal arteries due to the clamps would cause a decrease in glomerular blood pressure. Without a corresponding increase in the rate of tubular reabsorption of water. which would increase the glomerular filtration rate. because the volume of body fluids was probably decreasing I missed this question because I. C is the best answer.. If restriction of blood flow to the kidneys (by placing clamps on the renal arteries) resulted in an immediate but small increase in blood pressure. . because the clamps caused the kidneys to receive less blood Guess C) Hypothesis B. this would lead to an increase in urine output. Thus. D is the best answer.... An increase to the systemic blood pressure would initially increase the glomerular capillary blood pressure. followed by the gradual development of severe hypertension. 21. because the clamps increased the vascular resistance to blood flow B) Hypothesis A. D) Hypothesis B. This increases the amount of sodium and water that is reabsorbed by the kidneys.
enhanced activity of which of the following basic muscle types would be most likely to cause hypertension? A) Striated Solution B) Smooth Guess Enhanced activity of smooth muscles in blood vessels would cause vasoconstriction.. 23. and according to Hypothesis A. B is the best answer.22. A is the best answer. According to Hypothesis A. Solving the equation for cardiac Guess output (CO) and letting the original CO equal then equal . Reducing this equation shows that the new CO is . Thus. I missed this question because I. or an increase of B) increased by 1/2.. If blood pressure doubled and the resistance to blood flow increased by 50%. Synthesis of antibody proteins in eukaryotic cells is associated with what organelle? . the new CO would . C) decreased by 1/3. the amount of blood pumped by the heart would have: A) increased by 1/3. Thus. D) decreased by 1/2. Solution The passage states that P = CO × VR. the old CO. increased vasoconstriction is a major cause of hypertension. C) Cardiac D) Multinucleate 24.
associative neuron. motor neuron I missed this question because I. brain. motor neuron The knee-jerk reflex is a simple monosynaptic stretch reflex. antibodies are translated by ribosomes attached to the rough endoplasmic reticulum. A tap to the tendon that connects the quadriceps to the patella activates a sensory neuron that directly synapses with a motor neuron in the spinal cord. motor neuron. associative neuron. motor neuron D) Sensory neuron. associative neuron. A is the best answer. 25. Which of the following represents the complete pathway that the nerve impulse travels in effecting this response? Solution A) Sensory neuron. The most effective way to remove triethylamine during the workup of an organic reaction would be to extract the reaction mixture with aqueous: . brain. motor neuron C) Sensory neuron. C is the best answer. associative neuron. Thus. D) Golgi apparatus I missed this question because I.. In the human "knee-jerk" reflex. 26. causing the quadriceps to contract..A) Nucleus B) Mitochondrion C) Endoplasmic reticulum As secreted proteins... the knee is struck and the lower leg jerks forward. Thus. Guess B) Sensory neuron.
Solution A) sodium bicarbonate. Solution Guess Compound 1 What is the orientation of the tert-butyl and chloro substituents. Washing with aqueous hydrochloric acid will result in the formation of triethylamine hydrochloride. Triethylamine would most likely be soluble in an organic solvent. D) hydrochloric acid. equatorial C) Equatorial. 27. The predominant conformation of this compound is also the most stable one and has the cyclohexane ring in the chair conformation with the larger tert-butyl substituent in the equatorial orientation and the smaller chloro substituent in the axial orientation. axial B) Axial. B) sodium bisulfite. This salt is water-soluble and will be removed with the water wash. axial Compound 1 is cis-1-tert-butyl-4-chlorocyclohexane. Thus.. C is the best answer.. in the predominant conformation of Compound 1? A) Axial. . D is the best answer. C) sodium sulfate. respectively. Thus. Guess I missed this question because I.
The drug colchicine inhibits microtubule reorganization and would therefore inhibit phagocytosis of uric acid crystals by leukocytes. Solution 29. Filtrate is formed as fluid passes from the glomerular capillaries through the glomerular membrane into the Bowman’s capsule. A is the best answer. This region of the nephron is known as the glomerulus. Uric acid enters the urine both through filtration and secretion in the kidney. Colchicine most likely relieves gout symptoms through what mechanism? A) Prevention of uric acid diffusion through cell membranes B) Inhibition of leukocyte phagocytosis of uric acid crystals Phagocytosis requires that the cell change shape dramatically as it surrounds and engulfs large extracellular particles. This function relies on the ability of the microtubules to disassemble and reorganize.. Thus. I missed this question because I. B is the best answer. Guess . equatorial 28. B) loop of Henle. C) distal convoluted tubule. The process of filtration of uric acid in the kidney takes place in the: A) glomerulus. Microtubules are one of the cytoskeletal elements that help determine cell shape. Thus.D) Equatorial. D) proximal convoluted tubule..
31. but its activity in vivo is 3 times the normal level. A is the best answer.. However. PRPP synthetase purified from the patient does not show this increased enzymatic activity in vitro. Thus.. Guanine is one type of purine that is found in cells.C) Inhibition of uric acid crystal formation D) Maintenance of the pH optimum for PRPP synthetase I missed this question because I.. enhancing its activity. the likely genetic basis of the increased levels of uric acid is a mutation: A) affecting an allosteric site of PRPP synthetase. a uric acid precursor. This activity-enhancing molecule most likely is not present in the in vitro reaction mix. 30. . Thus. What nitrogenous base would promote the formation of uric acid crystals in gout? A) Cytosine Solution B) Uracil C) Guanine Guess The passage states that uric acid is formed by the breakdown of purines to xanthine. In the patient described in the passage.. but rather that an allosteric site on the enzyme has been affected. D) Thymine I missed this question because I. C is the best answer. Solution Guess The passage indicates that the patient produces the normal amount of PRPP synthetase. The fact that the enzyme binds the substrate and converts it to product at normal levels in vitro suggests that the active site of the enzyme has not been altered. The mutant PRPP can most likely bind an intracellular molecule at an allosteric site. which changes the shape of the enzyme.
I missed this question because I. Some animals have developed the ability to excrete nitrogenous waste largely in the form of uric acid. Because the excretion of uric acid does not require large amounts of water. including the ability to excrete nitrogenous waste in the form of uric acid.B) affecting the active site of PRPP synthetase. The adjacent carbonyl group stabilizes the anion through resonance. which is nontoxic and does not require large amounts of water for its excretion. B is the best answer. what animal would excrete Solution nitrogen primarily in the form of uric acid? A) Wild pig B) Flying bird Guess Species of flying birds have evolved many characteristics that reduce their overall body mass. A . C) in a promotor gene regulating the rate of transcription of the PRPP synthetase gene. making the birds lighter.. The amide N–H proton is slightly acidic because the: A) resulting anion is resonancestabilized. 32. The first step of the Hofmann rearrangement involves the abstraction of one of the protons on the nitrogen. the amount of water that birds must ingest is decreased.. The removal of the amide proton results in the formation of an anion with the negative charge on the nitrogen. Considering its lifestyle. D) in a gene coding for a transcription factor for the PRPP synthetase gene. Thus. C) Carnivorous shark D) Herbivorous bony fish 33.
C) aromatic ring is electrondonating. Thus. What is the major product when 2-phenylacetamide.resonance structure of the anion can be drawn in which the negative charge resides on the oxygen.. a Hoffman rearrangement of a primary amide results in the loss of the carbonyl carbon and the formation of an amine with one fewer carbon. I missed this question because I.. 34. A is the best answer. D) amide is not basic. below. B) N–H bond is polar. . Thus. is treated with bromine and aqueous base under the conditions in the passage? Solution Guess A) B) C) According to the passage. C is the best answer.
. Thus. C) 2200 cm–1 D) 3300 cm–1 . What product would be expected if this side reaction were important for Compound 1? Solution A) Benzamide B) 3-Nitroaniline C) 3-Nitrobenzamide Guess D) 3-Nitrobenzoic acid Hydrolysis of Compound 1 would result in the formation of the corresponding carboxylic acid. The C=O stretch of an amide appears at approximately 1650 cm–1. D is the best answer. 36.. The students monitored the conversion of Compound 1 to m-nitroaniline by infrared spectroscopy.D) I missed this question because I. The disappearance of which band would indicate that the starting material had been consumed? Solution A) 1550 cm–1 B) 1650 cm–1 Guess As Compound 1 is consumed.. B is the best answer. I missed this question because I. It has been reported that under some conditions hydrolysis of the amide can compete with the Hofmann rearrangement. the IR spectrum will show the loss of absorptions attributed to the carbonyl group. 3-nitrobenzoic acid. Thus.. 35.
I missed this question because I.) . When glycerol reacts with three different fatty acids. D is the best answer. 39. Which of the following formulas represents a general structure of a fatty acid salt produced in Reaction 1? (Note: Rn = R1. 38. how many stereogenic centers does the product triacylglycerol contain? A) 0 B) 1 When glycerol reacts with three different fatty acids. or R3... The disappearance of the signal at which frequency accompanies the consumption of the starting material? Solution A) 65 ppm B) 107 ppm C) 120 ppm Guess D) 165 ppm As Compound 1 is consumed. the 13C NMR spectrum will show the loss of the signal attributed to the carbonyl group. Thus.. The conversion of Compound 1 to m-nitroaniline can also be monitored by 13 C NMR spectroscopy. The carbon of the carbonyl group appears at approximately 160–170 ppm. Thus. 37. C) 2 D) 3 I missed this question because I. only carbon 2 in the resulting triacylglycerol is attached to four different groups. R2. B is the best answer..
D) One of the fatty acid salts was unsaturated.. D is the best answer. 40. and a small percentage isomerized under the reaction conditions.. and it completely isomerized under the reaction conditions. If one of the R groups in the triacylglycerol contained a carbon–carbon double bond and if isomerization of the double bond occurred during the saponification reaction. I missed this question because I. B) Glycerol was transformed into a fatty acid salt under the reaction conditions. 41.Solution Guess A) Rn—CH2– Na+ B) Rn—CH2O– Na+ C) Rn—C(O)– Na+ D) Rn—CO2– Na+ A fatty acid would have the general formula Rn–CO2H. Thus. The corresponding fatty acid salt would have the general formula Rn–CO2–Na+. A triacylglycerol can also be accurately described as a: A) triacid of glycerol. D is the best answer.. Guess C) One of the fatty acid salts was unsaturated.. Which of the following is the most plausible explanation for the fact that the saponification of the triacylglycerol in the passage resulted in four different fatty acid salts? Solution A) The triacylglycerol molecule consisted of four different fatty acid units. . B) triether of glycerol. Thus. four fatty acids would be obtained instead of three. I missed this question because I.
C is the best answer. D is the best answer. How much sodium hydroxide is needed to completely saponify a triacylglycerol? A) A catalytic amount. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the solubility properties of fatty acid salts? A) They are soluble in polar media only. Because there are three ester linkages in a triacylglycerol. because each OH– ion reacts to form three fatty acid salts C) One equivalent.Solution C) triester of glycerol. because each OH– ion reacts to produce one molecule of Guess glycerol D) Three equivalents. 43. three equivalents of sodium hydroxide will be needed to completely saponify the triacylglycerol.. Thus. because OH– is continuously being regenerated during Solution saponification B) One-third of an equivalent.. Thus.. Solution B) They are soluble in nonpolar media only. The three acyl groups are joined to the glycerol backbone through ester linkages. I missed this question because I. Guess A fatty acid salt contains a long hydrocarbon chain. C) They can partially dissolve in both polar and nonpolar media. which is soluble in .. Guess D) trihydroxy glycerol. because one OH– ion is required to saponify each of the three fatty acid groups One hydroxide ion is required to hydrolyze one ester linkage of a triacylglycerol molecule. 42. I missed this question because I.
According to Figure 2.nonpolar solvents. Therefore. C) a reduction in FSH concentration. The cell type in the male reproductive system that is most analogous to the female ovum is the: . C is the best answer. 45. 44. D) They are completely insoluble in both polar and nonpolar media.. Figure 2 indicates that testosterone is part of a negative feedback loop that acts on the hypothalamus to prevent the release of GnRF. The salt also contains the charged group –CO2–Na+. I missed this question because I. In the presence of testosterone. C is the best answer. D) a reduction in LH concentration. less GnRF would be present to stimulate the release of FSH from the pituitary gland. Thus. A male taking excess testosterone may become infertile because of reduced spermatogenesis. this could result directly from: A) an increase in inhibin concentration.. causing a decrease in FSH available to act on the Sertoli cells. B) a reduction in inhibin concentration. which is soluble in polar solvents. FSH is less able to promote and maintain spermatogenesis. Thus.
Thus.. Therefore. C is the best answer. Which of the following hormones is(are) directly required for spermatogenesis? I. D is the best answer. This makes it most analogous to spermatozoa. Luteinizing hormone (LH) . Which of the following normal reproductive processes is likely to be most affected by the use of Solution chemotherapy? A) Sertoli cell function B) Testosterone production Guess C) Spermatogenesis Spermatogenesis is the production of spermatozoa by the meiotic division of spermatocytes. 47. Guess I missed this question because I. C) spermatid. 46.. the mature male gametes that contain the haploid number of paternally derived chromosomes. D) spermatozoon. Some drugs used in cancer chemotherapy kill proliferating cancer cells by selectively inhibiting various stages of the life cycle. Thus. B) primary spermatocyte. The mature ovum is the female gamete that has completed meiosis and contains the haploid number of maternally derived chromosomes. it would be the most affected by the use of chemotherapy.. D) Inhibin production I missed this question because I..Solution A) spermatogonium.
48. B) Lysosomes C) Mitochondria D) Cilia I missed this question because I. and III only I missed this question because I. The two hormones that directly stimulate Sertoli cells are FSH and testosterone. II. Thus. Thus.. IV. On the basis of their function as “nurse” cells. III. Spermatogenesis would not occur without Sertoli cells. 49. The organelle responsible for sorting and packaging proteins into vesicles for exocytosis is the Golgi apparatus.. which of the following organelles are most likely to be prominent in Sertoli cells? A) Golgi apparatus Solution Guess As nurse cells. C is the best answer..Solution II. Sertoli cells secrete many proteins and other nutrients for the developing spermatocytes to use. A is the best answer. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) Inhibin Testosterone Guess A) IV only B) I and IV only C) II and IV only Sertoli cells support and nourish the spermatocytes and promote the process of spermatogenesis. Which of the following statements correctly describes the distinction between the exocrine and endocrine portions of the testis? .. D) I.
Thus. I missed this question because I. and carboxypeptidase. The pancreas produces which of the following substances for the digestive system? A) Bile salts B) Emulsifier C) Gastric juices D) Proteolytic enzymes The pancreas produces several proteolytic enzymes. D is the best answer. the endocrine portion secretes only steroids. B) The exocrine portion releases its products into ducts.Solution A) The exocrine portion secretes only peptides. chymotrypsin.. Thus. endocrine glands release their products into the bloodstream. the endocrine portion secretes only chemical substances. 50. Which of the following characteristics clearly marks fungi as eukaryotes? A) They have cell walls.. the endocrine portion releases its products into the blood. B) They contain ribosomes. which are released into the small intestine where they are converted to their active forms of trypsin. Exocrine glands secrete their products through ducts. . 51. D) The exocrine portion is the target tissue for the products of the endocrine portion. B is the best answer. Guess C) The exocrine portion secretes only cellular elements.
A is the best answer. Guess D) They exhibit sexual reproduction. From which germ layer(s) do the tissues of the heart and blood vessels differentiate? I. Thus. I missed this question because I. The products are cyclopentanol and 18O-labeled acetic acid.. Cyclopentanol is the leaving group.. 52. attacking the protonated carbonyl carbon. which product would be expected to contain 18O? Solution Guess A) CH3CO2H The first step of the hydrolysis would be the protonation of the carbonyl oxygen. If the ester shown below were hydrolyzed in acidic H218O. C is the best answer.. One characteristic that distinguishes eukaryotic cells from prokaryotic cells is that eukaryotic cells contain membrane-bound organelles such as mitochondria. Thus. The H218O would then act as a nucleophile. Ectoderm . B) CH3OH C) D) I missed this question because I.. 53.Solution C) They contain mitochondria.
D) raising the environmental temperature. 55. Therefore. it would be most useful to compare the behavior of: A) sighted and sightless lizards. Thus.. Guess Water is lost through the skin primarily as a means to keep the body at normal temperatures. raising the environmental temperature would cause a person to perspire. A is the best answer.Solution II. B) lizards responding to flashing of normal dewlaps versus treated dewlaps that absorb UV. Mesoderm Endoderm Guess A) II only The heart and blood vessels both differentiate from the mesoderm. To determine the significance of UV reflectance by the dewlap. Thus. releasing water to the environment where it can evaporate and cool down the body. C) increasing water consumption. The most effective method for producing an increase in the total amount of water lost through the skin during a certain period would be: A) inhibiting kidney function. Solution B) decreasing salt consumption. . D is the best answer. in response to flashing of the dewlap. B) III only C) I and II only D) I and III only I missed this question because I. 54.. III.
If these lizards use UV light in communication. . I missed this question because I. C) the five lizard species. a mutation that eliminated UV photoreceptors would probably cause the LEAST disadvantage to: A) species A.. B is the best answer. Thus. it can be determined whether a correlation exists between the lizards’ behavior and the reflectivity of the dewlap with which the lizards were flashed. 56. Guess Assuming that the lizards use the UV-reflectivity of the dewlap primarily as a means of intraspecies communication. Its dewlaps are the least UV-reflective of the five lizard species. which indicates that species E is least likely to rely heavily upon this form of communication in the first place.. D is the best answer.To determine the significance of UV reflectance by the dewlap. D) the five lizard species under illumination by red light only. D) species E. If the reflectivity of the dewlap is kept as the only variable. when they are placed together in the same habitat. C) species D. it would be most useful to compare the response of lizards to dewlaps that reflect UV light to the response of lizards to dewlaps that do not reflect UV light. Thus. species E would most likely be least affected by a mutation that eliminated UV photoreceptors. Solution B) species B.
D is the best answer. a structure found only in males. The fact that the pigment is expressed in the dewlap. Two organisms that do not meet this criteria are considered separate species.I missed this question because I.. Solution B) must be on the Y chromosome. D is the best answer. the locus of a gene for the UV reflectance pigment: A) must be on the X chromosome.. 57.. Two neighboring lizard populations would be considered separate species if: A) one population inhabited the forest and the other lived in a field. Solution C) they did not communicate with each other. D) could be on a sex chromosome or on an autosome. Guess Based on the information presented. is not sufficient to eliminate any chromosome as the location of this gene.. Thus. . D) they did not interbreed and produce fertile offspring. I missed this question because I. B) one population had a UV-reflective dewlap and the other did not. If Anolis lizards have X-Y chromosomal sex determination. C) must be on an autosome. 58. Thus. Guess One of the key factors that determines a species is the ability to successfully breed and produce fertile offspring. the gene encoding UV-reflectance pigment could be on a sex chromosome or an autosome.
they will not be passed on to the next generation unless the organism produces offspring. B is the best answer. passing on the genes that cause the advantageous phenotype.. Thus.. Solution Guess Although many different types of adaptations may help an individual organism survive. Which of the following conclusions about dewlap reflectance is supported by information in the passage? A) Lizard habitat is determined by dewlap reflectance for each species... To evolve by natural selection and become a general characteristic of the species. the genes that cause dewlaps to reflect UV light must become a significant portion of the gene pool. Thus.I missed this question because I. which will most likely occur if individuals with UV-reflective dewlaps produce more offspring than do individuals without them. D) Dewlap reflectance is highest at the blue end of the visible spectrum. A is the best answer. This supports the conclusion that high dewlap reflectance is most important in brightly lit habitats. 60. Guess Figure 1 shows that the three species of lizards that live in unshaded fields possess dewlaps that are significantly more capable of reflecting UV light than do the two species of lizards that live in the shaded understory. Dewlaps that reflect UV light would evolve by natural selection only if: A) individuals with UV-reflective dewlaps produced more offspring than did individuals without them. Solution B) High dewlap reflectance is most important in brightly lit habitats. C) High dewlap reflectance is most important in dimly lit habitats. C) individuals with UV-reflective dewlaps were less subject to predation than . 59. B) individuals with UV-reflective dewlaps were better able to communicate than individuals without them. I missed this question because I.
The – end of the microfilament does not begin to add actin until the free actin concentration is greater than 5. At concentrations lower than 1µM. actin is added to the + end of a microfilament. which statement best explains why the microfilament lengths do NOT change when the sarcomere shortens in a muscle contraction? .individuals without them. D) At any concentration I missed this question because I. C is the best answer. the + end of the microfilament grows faster than the – end. 61. I missed this question because I.. Below is a diagram of a muscle sarcomere.. Thus.. Based on the passage. At what concentration of free actin will the + end of the microfilament grow faster than the – end? A) Exactly at 1 µM B) Only between 1 µM and 4 µM C) At any concentration greater than 1 µM Figure 1 shows that at free actin concentrations greater than 1µM. implying that at any concentration greater than 1µM. D) individuals with UV-reflective dewlaps mated more frequently than did individuals without them.5µM. 62. the + end loses actin subunits. The rate at which actin is added to the + end is greater than the rate it is added to the – end..
B) The – ends of the microfilaments are capped by Z lines. Therefore. if amoeboid movement stops upon exposure to cytochalasins. to retain a stable length. . I missed this question because I. B is the best answer. Thus. Therefore. 63. Within a sarcomere. This is representative of how an amoeba moves.. Solution Guess The passage proposes that force is generated as a microfilament elongates and pushes against a structure such as the plasma membrane. The theory of force generation proposed in the passage is best supported by which of the following observations about Amoeba locomotion? A) Amoeboid movement stops upon exposure to cytochalasins. Thus. and the actin subunit concentration is kept above 1 µM in muscle cells.Solution Guess A) The – ends of the microfilaments are capped by Z lines. actin monomers are prevented from being added to or subtracted from that end. both ends of the microfilament must be capped.. Because one end of the microfilament is anchored in the Z line. This rules out the possibility of treadmilling. D) The – ends polymerize and the + ends depolymerize at the same rate. Cytochalasins are drugs that inhibit the growth of microfilaments. the microfilament length remains stable. microfilaments and their ability to elongate are both implicated as being necessary to generate the force for movement in an amoeba. C) The actin subunit concentration is kept above 4 µM in muscle cells. A is the best answer. and the + ends are capped by another protein.
0 µM and 4.B) Amoeboid movement cannot occur if mitosis is blocked. A is the best answer... D) Any concentration between 1. Based on Figure 1. C) Moving Amoeba cells produce more troponin than do stationary ones.5µM.25 µM Solution B) 1. C is the best answer. the rate at which actin subunits are added to the + end of the microfilament is equal to the rate at which actin filaments are removed from the – end. 65. This fits the definition of treadmilling. at what free actin subunit concentration (or range of concentrations) will the microfilament treadmill? A) 0. 64. D) The rate of movement is inversely proportional to the viscosity of the medium in which the Amoeba moves.5 µM Guess Figure 1 shows that at a free actin concentration of 1. at what free actin subunit concentration (or range of concentrations) will both the + and – ends of the microfilament experience a net loss of subunits? Solution A) At any concentration below 1 µM Figure 1 shows that at free actin concentrations less than 1µM. Thus. I missed this question because I. Thus.0 µM I missed this question because I. Based on Figure 1...0 µM C) 1. both the + and the – ends of the microfilament experience a net loss of actin subunits. Guess B) Exactly at 1 µM C) At any concentration above 1 µM .
I missed this question because I.. A is the best answer. During exocytosis of viral particles the plasma membrane goes through many distortions of its shape. D) Some viruses have capsules composed of myosin.. 67.D) Only between 1 µM and 4 µM I missed this question because I. Which of the following observations supports the hypothesis that microfilaments are involved in the release of viral particles? A) Exocytosis of viral particles from an infected cell is proportional to the rate Solution of microfilament polymerization. making it likely that the rate at which the viral particles can be expelled from the cell is dependent upon the rate of microtubule polymerization. Assuming that Amoeba uses microfilament-generated forces for locomotion. This requires polymerization of microfilaments. which of the Amoebas pictured below will move from left to right? A) Solution Guess B) . Thus. 66.. Guess B) Treatment with phalloidin does not prevent the exocytosis of virus particles from the infected cell. C) No known virus carries genes coding for actin subunits..
D is the best answer.. the microfilament should show a net increase in length toward the right.C) D) Diagram D shows a cell with a free actin concentration of 2µM with the + end of the microfilament oriented toward the right side of the cell. one of the methyl groups moves to the adjacent carbon. . At this concentration. B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 2 and 3 only I missed this question because I. Thus. causing the cell to move in a left-to-right direction. This rearrangement is not seen in equations 2 and 3. In which of the experiments is a rearrangement of the carbon skeleton observed? A) 1 only In Equation 1. A is the best answer. When it reaches the plasma membrane it should continue to lengthen and generate a force that pushes the membrane outward. Thus. 68..
the one represented by Equation 3 is the only method of alcohol formation that results in the hydroxyl group adding to the less substituted carbon. I missed this question because I. Alcohols have higher boiling points because hydrogen bonds are strong intermolecular forces and more energy is needed to overcome them. A is the best answer. D) resonance.69. which enable them to undergo hydrogen bonding. Thus. This is a result of: A) hydrogen bonding. . Which set of reagents or condition could be used to prepare the alcohol in the following reaction? Solution Guess A) H2SO4/H2O B) Hg(OAc)2/THF-H2O. C is the best answer. C) covalent bonding.... Solution Guess Alcohols contain hydroxyl groups. B) van der Waals forces. 70. Alcohols have higher boiling points than hydrocarbons of comparable molecular weight. D) Heat I missed this question because I.. H2O2/OH– Among the methods represented by the three equations in the passage. NaBH4/OH– C) THF:BH3. Thus.
In the Watson and Crick model of DNA structure.71. 72. B) C) D) I missed this question because I. the reaction of isopropylmagnesium bromide (a Grignard reagent) with acetone will result in the addition of the isopropyl group to the carbonyl carbon and the formation of 2.. Thus. A is the best answer. the nitrogenous bases form hydrogen bonds with each other in a 1:1 ratio: guanine pairs with cytosine.. As shown in answer choice A. and adenine pairs with .3-dimethyl-2-butanol. The discovery that the amount of thymine equals that of adenine and the amount of guanine equals that of cytosine in a given cell provides supporting evidence that: A) the Watson and Crick model of DNA is correct. Which of the following reactants can be used in a Grignard reaction to produce the same alcohol that was produced in Experiment 1? Solution A) Guess 2.3-Dimethyl-2-butanol was prepared in Experiment 1. Another way to prepare an alcohol is via a Grignard synthesis.
B is the best answer.. A is the best answer. the haploid number is 3. and the amount of adenine and thymine would be the same. I missed this question because I. Thus. 73. AaBbCc. C) 16 D) 32 I missed this question because I. in its diploid cells.. 74. C) the genetic code is universal. making the number of different haploid cells 23.thymine. Thus. What is the net volume of fresh air that enters the alveoli each minute. In this case. D) the code for one amino acid must be a triplet of bases. How many genotypically different kinds of haploid cells can it produce? Solution A) 4 B) 8 Guess The number of different possible gametes that can be formed by diploid organisms as a result of independent assortment of chromosomes during meiosis can be calculated using the formula 2n where n is the haploid number of chromosomes. B) DNA is the genetic material.. . or 8.. Consider an organism that has three pairs of chromosomes. This implies that the amount of guanine and cytosine would be the same.
C is the best answer... In mammals. is given as 800 mL/breath. Thus.. each chromosome still consists of two sister chromatids joined to each other at the centromere. or tidal volume.Solution Guess assuming that the breathing rate is 10 breaths/min. homologous pairs of chromosomes are separated into the two daughter cells. It is not until anaphase II of meiosis II that the centromere is split and the sister chromatids separate. B is the best answer. Therefore the net volume of air that reaches the alveoli each minute is equal to 650 mL/breath multiplied by 10 breaths/min. sister chromatids are pulled apart at the centromeres. During anaphase of mitosis. Thus. Of that 800 mL only 650 mL reaches the alveoli per breath (800 mL of air inhaled minus 150 mL of nonalveolar respiratory volume).. . or 6500 mL. and the nonalveolar respiratory system volume (dead space) is 150 mL? A) 65 mL B) 95 mL C) 6500 mL The amount of air entering the lungs in a single breath. C) The pairing of homologous chromosomes D) The breaking down of the nuclear membrane I missed this question because I. However. which of the following events occurs during mitosis but does NOT occur during meiosis I? A) Synapsis Solution B) The splitting of centromeres Guess One of the key differences between mitosis and meiosis occurs during their respective anaphases. each becoming an independent chromosome in the two diploid daughter cells. D) 7850 mL I missed this question because I. the tidal volume is 800 mL/breath. During anaphase I of meiosis I. 75.
77. tall vine depends on a dominant gene (T). Thus.. and tr. I missed this question because I. The short pink plant would have the genotype ttRr and could form the following gametes: tR and tr. pink plant would be expected to be pink AND tall? A) 3/4 Guess B) 1/2 C) 3/8 D) 1/4 Based on the given information. Guess . In a particular species of plant. C) destroy most mRNA as soon as it is synthesized.. the tall pink plant would have the genotype TtRr and could form the following gametes: TR. 1/4 would be both pink (Rr) and tall (TT or Tt).76. The possible genotypes of the offspring are displayed in the following Punnett square. B) transcribe mRNA molecules without using DNA. and a pink flower is the result of the heterozygous condition of the genes for red and white flowers (Rr). What fraction of the offspring from the cross of a tall. During prokaryotic protein synthesis. translation begins as soon as the newly synthesized mRNA strand begins to extend from the DNA strand. Tr. tR tr TR TtRR TrRr Tr TtRr Ttrr tR ttRR ttRr tr ttRr ttrr Of these. D is the best answer. This situation differs from that in eukaryotes. Solution pink plant (heterozygous for height) with a short. because eukaryotes: Solution A) carry out translation without using ribosomes. tR.
Thus. D is the best answer.D) localize the processes of transcription and translation in the nucleus and cytoplasm. Eukaryotes have membrane-bound organelles including the nucleus. which contains the DNA. Transcription of DNA into RNA occurs in the nucleus. respectively. The RNA is then transported to the cytoplasm where ribosomes translate it into proteins. .
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