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1. Of the following name/symbol combinations of elements, which one is WRONG? (a) uranium/U (b) sulfur/S (c) nitrogen/N (d) potassium/K (e) iron/I 2.

Of the following symbol/name combinations of elements, which one is WRONG? (a) C/carbon (b) B/barium (c) F/fluorine (d) N/nitrogen (e) U/uranium 3. The chemical symbol for manganese is (a) Mn (b) Mo (c) Ma (d) Ga (e) Mg 4. The number 0.005436 has how many significant figures? (a) 7 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 (e) 6 5. The number 10.00 has how many significant figures? (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (e) 5 6. What is the volume of a 2.50 gram block of metal whose density is 6.72 grams per cubic centimeter? (a) 16.8 cubic centimeters (b) 2.69 cubic centimeters (c) 0.0595 cubic centimeters (d) 0.372 cubic centimeters (e) 1.60 cubic centimeters 7. A cube of 1.2 inches on the side has a mass of 36 grams. What is the density in g/cm3? (a) 21 (b) 2.2 (c) 30. (d) 1.3 (e) 14 8. Nitric acid is a very important industrial chemical: 1.612 x 1010 pounds of it were produced in 1992. If the density of nitric acid is 12.53 pounds/gallon, what volume would be occupied by this quantity? (1 gallon = 3.7854 liters) (a) 7.646 x 1011 liters (b) 8.388 x 109 liters (c) 1.287 x 109 liters (d) 5.336 x 1010 liters (e) 4.870 x 109 liters 9. Identify the INCORRECT statement. (a) Helium in a balloon: an element (b) Paint: a mixture (c) Tap water: a compound (d) Mercury in a barometer; an element 10. 4. 11.

An unused flashbulb contains magnesium and oxygen. After use, the contents are changed to magnesium oxide but the total mass does not change. This observation can best be explained by the (a) Law of Constant Composition. (b) Law of Multiple Proportions. (c) Avogadro's Law. (d) Law of Conservation of Mass. Which answer includes all the following that are chemical changes and not physical changes? I. freezing of water II. rusting of iron III. dropping a piece of iron into hydrochloric acid (H2 is produced) IV. burning a piece of wood V. emission of light by a kerosene oil lamp (a) III and IV (b) II and V (c) I, II, III, IV, and V (d) II, III, and V (e) II, III, IV, and V 12. Which response lists all of the following properties of sulfur that are physical properties and not other properties? I. It reacts with hydrogen when heated. II. It is a yellow solid at room temperature. III. It is soluble in carbon disulfide. IV. Its density is 2.97 g/cubic centimeter V. It melts at 112�C. (a) II, III, IV, and V (b) II, IV, and V (c) I (d) II, III, and IV (e) III, IV, and V

Answers to Chapter 1 1. (e) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (e) 9. (c) 10. (d) 11. (e) 12. (a) The formula weight of the compound, Al2(SO4)3 18H2O is: (a) 394.4 g (b) 666.4 g (c) 110,900 g (d) 466.8 g (e) 561.2 g 2. The weight of a millimole of (NH4)2HPO4 is: (a) 132 g (b) 114 g (c) 1.14 x 10-3 g (d) 0.132 g (e) 6.02 x 1020 g 3. How many moles of alanine, C3H7NO2, are there in 159 g of alanine? (a) 1.42 x 104 (b) 1.78 (c) 0.992 (d) 0.560 (e) 3.31 How many atoms are in one mole of CH3OH? (a) 6 (b) 6.0 x 1023 (c) 12.0 x 1023 (d) 3.6 x 1024

(e) 3 5. The mass in grams of 2.6 x 1022 chlorine atoms is: (a) 4.4 (b) 11 (c) 0.76 (d) 1.5 (e) 3.2 6. How many aluminum atoms are there in 3.50 grams of Al2O3? (a) 4.13 x 1022 (b) 4.90 x 1022 (c) 2.07 x 1022 (d) 1.68 x 1022 (e) 2.45 x 1022 7. Which one of the samples contains the most atoms? (a) 1 mol of CO2(g) (b) 1 mol of UF6(g) (c) 1 mol of CH3COCH3(l) (d) 1 mol of He(g) (e) all contain the same number of atoms 8. Which one of the samples contains the most molecules? (a) 1 mol of CO2(g) (b) 1 mol of UF6(g) (c) 1 mol of CH3COCH3(l) (d) 1 mol of He(g) (e) all contain the same number of molecules 9. Which one of the samples has the largest mass? (a) 1 mol of CO2(g) (b) 1 mol of UF6(g) (c) 1 mol of CH3COCH3(l) (d) 1 mol of He(g) (e) all have the same mass 10. Which of the following statements is(are) FALSE? 1. The percent by mass of each element in a compound depends on the amount of the compound. 2. The mass of each element in a compound depends on the amount of the compound. 3. The percent by mass of each element in a compound depends on the amount of element present in the compound. (a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 only (c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3 (e) another combination 11. Guanidin, HNC(NH2)2, is a fertilizer. To three significant figures, what is the percent by mass of nitrogen in the fertilizer? (a) 45.2% (b) 49.4% (c) 54.8% (d) 65.1% (e) 71.1% 12. Calculate the percent, by weight, of carbon in 154 g of C4H8O3? (a) 46% (b) 31% (c) 72% (d) 27% (e) 55% Analysis of a sample of a covalent compound showed that it contained 14.4% hydrogen and 85.6% carbon 16.


by mass. What is the empirical formula for the compound? (a) CH (b) CH2 (c) CH3 (d) C2H3 (e) none of these An oxide of lead contains 90.65% Pb, by weight. The empirical formula is: (a) Pb (b) PbO (c) Pb3O4 (d) Pb2O3 (e) PbO2

15. A 0.500 g sample of a compound containing only antimony and oxygen was found to contain 0.418 g of antimony and 0.082 g of oxygen. What is the simplest formula for the compound? (a) SbO (b) SbO2 (c) Sb3O4 (d) Sb2O5 (e) Sb2O3 A compound contains, by mass, 40.0% carbon, 6.71% hydrogen, and 53.3% oxygen. A 0.320 mole sample of this compound weighs 28.8 g. The molecular formula of this compound is: (a) C2H4O2 (b) C3H6O3 (c) C2H4O (d) CH2O (e) C4H7O2 What mass of cerussite, PbCO3, would contain 35.0 grams of lead? (a) 27.1 g (b) 45.1 g (c) 42.4 g (d) 35.6 g (e) 51.7 g


Answers to Chapter 2 1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (d) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (e) 9. (b) 10. (b) 11. (e) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (e) 16. (b) 17. (b)

1. Balance the following equation with the smallest whole number coefficients. Choose the answer that is the sum of the coefficients in the balanced equation. Do not forget coefficients of "one." PtCl4 + XeF2 PtF6 + ClF + Xe (a) 16 (b) 22 (c) 24 (d) 26 (e) 32 2. Balance the following equation with the smallest whole number coefficients. Choose the answer that is the sum of the coefficients in the balanced equation. Do not forget coefficients of "one." Cr2(SO4)3 + RbOH Cr(OH)3 + Rb2SO4


(a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 13 (d) 14 (e) 15 3. Balance the following equation using minimum integral coefficients: NH3 + O2 NO2 + H2O The stoichiometric coefficient for oxygen gas O2 is: (a) 1 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 7 (e) 5 4. When iron pyrite (FeS2) is heated in air, the process known as "roasting" forms sulfur dioxide and iron(III) oxide. When the equation for this process is completed and balanced, using the smallest whole number coefficients, what is the coefficient for "O2"? ___ FeS2 + ___ O2 ___ SO2 + ___ Fe2O3 (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 7 (d) 8 (e) 11 5. How many moles of KBrO3 are required to prepare 0.0700 moles of Br2 according to the reaction: KBrO3 + 5KBr + 6HNO3 6KNO3 + 3Br2 + 3H2O (a) 0.210 (b) 0.0732 (c) 0.0704 (d) 0.220 (e) 0.0233 6. Which of the following statements is FALSE for the chemical equation given below in which nitrogen gas reacts with hydrogen gas to form ammonia gas assuming the reaction goes to completion? N2 + 3H2 2NH3 (a) The reaction of one mole of H2 will produce 2/3 moles of NH3. (b) One mole of N2 will produce two moles of NH3. (c) One molecule of nitrogen requires three molecules of hydrogen for complete reaction. (d) The reaction of 14 g of nitrogen produces 17 g of ammonia. (e) The reaction of three moles of hydrogen gas will produce 17 g of ammonia. 7. Calcium carbide, CaC2, is an important preliminary chemical for industries producing synthetic fabrics and plastics. CaC2 may be produced by heating calcium oxide with coke: CaO + 3C CaC2 + CO What is the amount of CaC2 which can be produced from the reaction of excess calcium oxide and 10.2 g of carbon? (Assume 100% efficiency of reaction for purposes of this problem.) (a) 18.1 g (b) 28.4 g (c) 20.8 g (d) 19.8 g (e) 27.2 g 8. 12. 11. 9.

Calculate the mass of hydrogen formed when 25 grams of aluminum reacts with excess hydrochloric acid. 2Al + 6HCl Al2Cl6 + 3H2 (a) 0.41 g (b) 1.2 g (c) 1.8 g (d) 2.8 g (e) 0.92 g When 12 g of methanol (CH3OH) was treated with excess oxidizing agent (MnO4-), 14 g of formic acid (HCOOH) was obtained. Using the following chemical equation, calculate the percent yield. (The reaction is much more complex than this; please ignore the fact that the charges do not balance.) 3CH3OH + 4MnO43HCOOH + 4MnO2 (a) 100% (b) 92% (c) 82% (d) 70% (e) 55% A commercially valuable paint and adhesive stripper, dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO), (CH3)2SO, can be prepared by the reaction of oxygen with dimethyl sulfide, (CH3)2S, using a ratio of one mole oxygen to two moles of the sulfide: O2 + 2(CH3)2S 2(CH3)2SO If this process is 83% efficient, how many grams of DMSO could be produced from 65 g of dimethyl sulfide and excess O2? (a) 68 g (b) 75 g (c) 83 g (d) 51 g (e) 47 g The formation of ethyl alcohol (C2H5OH) by the fermentation of glucose (C6H12O6) may be represented by: C6H12O6 2C2H5OH + 2CO2 If a particular glucose fermentation process is 87.0% efficient, how many grams of glucose would be required for the production of 51.0 g of ethyl alcohol (C2H5OH)? (a) 68.3 g (b) 75.1 g (c) 115 g (d) 229 g (e) 167 g The limiting reagent in a chemical reaction is one that: (a) has the largest molar mass (formula weight). (b) has the smallest molar mass (formula weight). (c) has the smallest coefficient. (d) is consumed completely. (e) is in excess. 13. If 5.0 g of each reactant were used for the the following process, the limiting reactant would be: 2KMnO4 +5Hg2Cl2 + 16HCl 10HgCl2 + 2MnCl2 + 2KCl + 8H2O (a) KMnO4 (b) HCl


(c) H2O (d) Hg2Cl2 (e) HgCl2 14. What mass of ZnCl2 can be prepared from the reaction of 3.27 grams of zinc with 3.30 grams of HCl? Zn +2HCl ZnCl2 + H2 (a) 6.89 g (b) 6.82 g (c) 6.46 g (d) 6.17 g (e) 6.02 g 15. How many grams of NH3 can be prepared from 77.3 grams of N2 and 14.2 grams of H2? (Hint: Write and balance the equation first.) (a) 93.9 g (b) 79.7 g (c) 47.0 g (d) 120.0 g (e) 13.3 g 16. Silicon carbide, an abrasive, is made by the reaction of silicon dioxide with graphite. SiO2 +3C SiC + 2CO If 100 g of SiO2 and 100 g of C are reacted as far as possible, which one of the following statements will be correct? (a) 111 g of SiO2 will be left over. (b) 44 g of SiO2 will be left over. (c) 82 g of C will be left over. (d) 40 g of C will be left over. (e) Both reactants will be consumed completely, with none of either left over. 17. Calculate the mass of 6.00% NiSO4 solution that contains 40.0 g of NiSO4? (a) 667 g (b) 540 g (c) 743 g (d) 329 g (e) none of these 18. How many grams of water are contained in 75.0 grams of a 6.10% aqueous solution of K3PO4? (a) 75.0 g (b) 73.2 g (c) 70.4 g (d) 68.1 g (e) 62.8 g 19. The mass (in grams) of FeSO4 7H2O required for preparation of 125 mL of 0.90 M solution is: (a) 16 g (b) 25 g (c) 13 g (d) 31 g (e) 43 g 20. What is the molarity of phosphoric acid in a solution labeled 20.0% phosphoric acid (H3PO4) by weight with a density = 1.12 g/mL? (a) 0.98 M (b) 2.3 M (c) 2.7 M (d) 3.0 M (e) 3.6 M 21. How many mL of 17 M NH3 must be diluted to 500.0 mL to make a 0.75 M solution? 3. 2. 24. 23. 22.

(a) 13 mL (b) 22 mL (c) 39 mL (d) 73 mL (e) none of these How many grams of Ag2CO3 are required to react with 28.5 mL of 1.00 M NaOH solution? Ag2CO3 +2NaOH Ag2O + Na2CO3 + H2O (a) 7.87 g (b) 3.93 g (c) 15.7 g (d) 10.8 g (e) 8.16 g How many milliliters of 0.200 M NH4OH are needed to react with 12.0 mL of 0.550 M FeCl3? FeCl3 + 3NH4OH Fe(OH)3 + 3NH4Cl (a) 99.0 mL (b) 33.0 mL (c) 8.25 mL (d) 68.8 mL (e) 132 mL When 250. mL of a 0.15 M solution of ammonium sulfide (NH4)2S is poured into 120. mL of a 0.053 M solution of cadmium sulfate CdSO4, how many grams of a yellow precipitate of cadmium sulfide CdS are formed? The other product is (NH4)2SO4. (Hint: Write out and balance the equation. Is this a limiting reagent problem? ) (a) 5.4 g (b) 0.92 g (c) 2.6 g (d) 1.9 g (e) 530 g

Answers to Chapter 3 1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (e) 5. (e) 6. (e) 7. (a) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (a) 11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (d) 14. (d) 15. (b) 16. (d) 17. (a) 18. (c) 19. (d) 20. (b) 21. (b) 22. (b) 23. (a) 24. (b)

1. What alkaline earth metal is located in period 3? (a) Li (b) Na (c) Ca (d) Mg (e) Sr Which of the following is classified as a metal? (a) Ge (b) As (c) F (d) V (e) Ar Which of the following is a weak acid? (a) H2SO4 (b) HClO3 (c) HF (d) HCl (e) HNO3 4. Which one of the following is likely to be the most soluble base?

(e) Ammonia is considered to be a weak base. (d) This could be the net ionic equation for HNO3 reacting with Cu(OH)2. (c) When ammonia is added to water. 15. H3PO4. (c) There are several common acids that are insoluble. The spectator ion(s) in the following reaction is/are: Na2CO3(aq) + Ba(NO3)2(aq) BaCO3(s) + 2NaNO3(aq) (a) Na+ and Ba2+ (b) Ba2+ and CO32(c) CO32. Which one of the following statements is TRUE? (a) One mole of any acid will ionize completely in aqueous solution to produce one mole of H+ ions. .(a) Ca(OH)2 (b) Cu(OH)2 (c) Ga(OH)3 (d) Zn(OH)2 (e) Zr(OH)3 5. (c) HF. (b) The acid. Which one of the following salts is insoluble? (a) NH4Cl (b) Ca(NO3)2 (c) BaCO3 (d) Na2S (e) Zn(CH3COO)2 8. (b) The reaction is reversible. Determine the oxidation number of carbon in K2CO3. Consider the following reaction: NH3(g) + H2O(l) NH4+(aq) + OH-(aq) Which one of the following statements is false? (a) The double arrows indicate that ammonia. an acid reacts with base to produce a salt and H2O. (c) The base involved must be a strong soluble base. Which assignment of oxidation number is INCORRECT for the blinking element? (a) K2Cr2O7. (d) All of the IA and IIA metal hydroxides are soluble. +1 (d) SeO32-. is an insoluble base. Cu(OH)2. the salt remaining could possibly be CuS. the net ionic equation is always H+ + OHH2O (b) "Spectator ions" appear in the total ionic equation for a reaction. +4 (e) Cu(NO3)2.and NO3(d) Na+ only (e) Na+ and NO311. (b) Solutions of weak acids always have lower concentrations of H+ than solutions of strong acids. some ammonia is produced. (e) In a neutralization reaction. is a weak electrolyte. (e)This could be the net ionic equation for H3PO4 reacting with Al(OH)3. Consider the following reaction: 4NH3 + 5O2 4NO + 6H2O The element being oxidized and the oxidizing agent are: (a) N and NH3 (b) N and O2 14. What is the net ionic equation for the acid-base reaction that occurs when nitric acid is added to copper(II) hydroxide? (a) H+(aq) + OH-(aq) H2O(l) (b) 2H+(aq) + Cu(OH)2(s) Cu2+(aq) + 2H2O(l) (c) 2HNO3(aq) +Cu(OH)2(s) Cu(NO3)2(s) + 2H2O(l) (d) 2H+(aq) + 2NO3-(aq) + Cu2+(aq) + 2OH-(aq) Cu(NO3)2(s) + 2H2O(l) (e) 2H+(aq) + 2NO3-(aq) + Cu2+(aq) + 2OH-(aq) Cu2+(aq) + 2NO3-(aq) + 2H2O(l) Which of the following statements is FALSE given the following net ionic equation? H3PO4(aq) + 3OH-(aq) PO43-(aq) + 3H2O(l) (a) If all the water evaporated away. What salt is formed in the following acid/base reaction? HClO3 + Ba(OH)2 (a) BaCl2 (b) ClOBa (c) H2O (d) BaClO3 (e) Ba(ClO3)2 9. HCl. (e) All weak acids are insoluble. +3 (c) H2PO2-. +2 18. +6 (b) NH3. NH4+ and OHions are produced in a 1:1 ratio. 12. (a) 0 (b) +2 (c) +4 (d) -2 (e) some other value 17. (c) The base. and HNO3 are all examples of strong acids. 16. 6. What is the net ionic equation for the acid-base reaction that occurs when acetic acid and potassium hydroxide solutions are mixed? (a) H+(aq) + OH-(aq) H2O(l) (b) H+(aq) + KOH(s) K+(aq) + H2O(l) (c) CH3COOH(aq) + KOH(s) KCH3COO(aq) + H2O(l) (d) CH3COO-(aq) + H+(aq) + K+(aq) + OH-(aq) K+(aq) + CH3COO-(aq) + H2O(l) (e) CH3COOH(aq) + OH-(aq) CH3COO-(aq) + H2O(l) 13. but not in the net ionic equation. 7. (b) The acid involved must be a strong electrolyte. is only very slightly soluble in water. Which one of the following statements is FALSE? (a) For the reaction of a strong acid with a strong soluble base. (d) When solutions of NH4Cl and NaOH are mixed. (d) Titration is a process which can be used to determine the concentration of a solution. (d) This is classified as a neutralization reaction. Which of the following statements is FALSE given the following net ionic equation? 2H+(aq) + Cu(OH)2(s) Cu2+(aq) + 2H2O(l) (a) If all the water evaporated away. (a) BaS2O4 (b) BaSO3 (c) BaSO2 (d) BaSO4 (e) BaS 10. The precipitate formed when barium chloride is treated with sulfuric acid is _______ . the salt remaining could possibly be Na3PO4. NH3. (e) This is classified as a neutralization reaction.

(b) the positively charged parts of atoms are moving about with a velocity approaching the speed of light. (c) 17. (b) two atoms of the same element must have the same number of protons.0 amu (e) 64. (a) 5. (c) it is impossible to determine accurately both the position and momentum of an electron simultaneously.901 amu. (d) electrons of atoms in their ground states enter energetically equivalent sets of orbitals singly before they pair up in any orbital of the set. Which name/formula combination is WRONG? (a) chlorous acid / HClO2 (b) dinitrogen tetroxide / N2O4 (c) ammonium nitrate / NH4NO3 (d) copper(II) periodate / CuIO4 (e) potassium permanganate / KMnO4 (d) the same mass numbers. The neutral atoms of all of the isotopes of the same element have (a) different numbers of protons. 5. What is the frequency of light having a wavelength of 4. 3. the other of 86. (c) 8.2 (e) 2. Given that the Activity Series is: Na>Mg>Cu>Ag>Au. Consider the species 72Zn.3 (b) 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 1. which one of the following answers represents the ions that would not be displaced from aqueous solution (reduced) by metallic magnesium? (a) Na+ (b) Cu2+ (c) Cu2+ and Au+ (d) Cu2+. These species have: (a) the same number of electrons.0%). (b) 18. (b) 19.43 x 10-19 J (b) 5. Naturally occurring rubidium consists of just two isotopes. (e) 9.10 x 104 s-1 (c) 4.06 x 1022 s-1 (e) 6.8 amu 6. Ag+ and Au+ (e) Na+. (d) 2. (d) the same number of protons and neutrons. (3) An electron can jump from the K shell (n = 1 major energy level) to the M shell (n = 3 major energy level) by emitting radiation of a definite frequency.50 x 10-6 cm? (a) 2. The Heisenberg Principle states that _____________.32 amu? (a) 65. How much energy is emitted as the excited electron falls to the lower energy level? (a) 7. (c) the same number of neutrons. From these experiments he concluded that: (a) electrons are massive particles. (b) the same number of protons. (a) 7. (a) 20. Ag+ and Au+ 20. (a) 21. (e) 13. (b) 6. and one with mass = 65.(c) O and NH3 (d) O and O2 (e) H and NH3 19.9 amu (d) 65. Answers to Chapter 4 1. The emission spectrum of gold shows a line of wavelength 2.84 x 10-12 s-1 (b) 2. (2) The lowest energy orbits are those closest to the nucleus. (a) no two electrons in the same atom can have the same set of four quantum numbers.2.23 amu (26.3 10. Which name/formula combination is WRONG? (a) phosphorous acid / H3PO4 (b) nitrogen oxide / NO (c) acetate ion / CH3COO(d) sodium chromate / Na2CrO4 (e) calcium hypobromite / Ca(BrO)2 21. (c) the same number of electrons. One of the isotopes consists of atoms having a mass of 84. (e) charged atoms (ions) must generate a magnetic field when they are in motion. (c) the positively charged parts of atoms are extremely small and extremely heavy particles. (c) 4. one with mass = 64.912 amu. 2. . (e) electrons travel in circular orbits around the nucleus. Which of the responses contains all the statements that are consistent with the Bohr theory of the atom (and no others)? (1) An electron can remain in a particular orbit as long as it continually absorbs radiation of a definite frequency. What is the percent natural abundance of the heavier isotope? (a) 15% (b) 28% (c) 37% (d) 72% (e) 85% 7.30 x 10-20 J (c) 6.16 x 10-20 J 9.67 x 1015 s-1 8.3 amu (b) 64. (d) the diameter of an electron is approximately equal to that of the nucleus. (d) 1. 11. 4. (d) 3. (c) 12.05 x 10-19 J (d) 3.4 amu (c) 64.676 x 10-7 m. Cu2+.29 x 1014 s-1 (d) 1. (d) 10. (b) 14.60 x 10-20 J (e) 5. (e) 15. (b) equal numbers of neutrons. Which of the following has a positive charge? (a) proton (b) neutron (c) anion (d) electron (e) atom Rutherford carried out experiments in which a beam of alpha particles was directed at a thin piece of metal foil. (e) the same mass number. (a) 1. What is the atomic weight of a hypothetical element consisting of two isotopes. (a) 16. (e) 11. (e) the same masses. 75As and 74Ge.

ms = +1/2 (b) n = 5. (d) 14. dyz. (b) l = subsidiary (or azimuthal) quantum number. 12. . and dxy. Fe.Which statement about the four quantum numbers which describe electrons in atoms is incorrect? (a) n = principal quantum number. (b) 10. l = 0. Which atomic orbital is spherical in shape? (Note: you should know and be able to recognize the shapes of the s orbital. (e) The magnetic quantum number is related to the orientation of atomic orbitals in space. n = 1. (a) 18. (c) 11. Cu. Co.. ml = 0. (c) the total number of electrons in s orbitals. paramagnetic (b) 5. 8 in the second energy level and 8 in the third energy level. ms = +1/2 19. (a) 3. (e) 17. l = 2. 3. (n+1) (c) ml = magnetic quantum number. py. paramagnetic 18. . Which one of the following sets of quantum numbers could be those of the distinguishing (last) electron of Mo? (a) n = 4. ml = 0... .. l = 1. ml = (-l). (b) 7. 2. (d) 6. The outer electronic configuration ns2np4 corresponds to which one of the following elements in its ground state? (a) As (b) Ca (c) Cr (d) Br (e) S 17. (b) 12. (e) 1. Ni. ms = -1/2 (e) n = 3.. 0. (a) 9.. 15. (c) 3. 26 neutrons and 22 electrons would be represented by the symbol: (a) 50V3+ (b) 26Cr2+ (c) 50Cr2+ (d) 50Mn2+ (e) none of these 6. Which of the following terms accurately describes the energy associated with the process: Li(g) Li+(g) + e(a) electron affinity (b) binding energy (c) ionization energy (d) electronegativity (e) none of these 5.. . and pz orbitals. . ml = +2. . Which element has the lowest first ionization energy? (a) He (b) Ne (c) Ar 14. Answers to Chapter 5 1. dx2-y2 and dz2 orbitals. ms = +1/2 (d) n = 5. (c) 19. diamagnetic (d) 0.. This information does not necessarily tell us: (a) the atomic number of the element. How many p electrons are there in an atom of rubidium? (a) 12 (b) 18 (c) 24 (d) 9 (e) 6 20. ml = -1. A neutral atom of an element has 2 electrons in the first energy level. The species that contains 24 protons. l = 1. 3. ms = +1/2 or -1/2. (e) 8. paramagnetic (c) 2..) (a) 2s (b) 3p (c) 3d (d) 4f (e) they are all spherical 13. (c) 5. (a) 2. . (e) the number of neutrons in the nucleus of an atom of the element. (+l) (d) ms = spin quantum number.. (a) 13. The maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in a sublevel for which l = 3 is: (a) 2 (b) 10 (c) 6 (d) 14 (e) 8 The ground state electron configuration for arsenic is: (a) [Ar] 4s2 4p13 (b) [Kr] 4s2 4p1 (c) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d12 4s2 4p1 (d) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d8 4p5 (e) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d10 4p3 Which of the following electron configurations is correct for nickel? (a) [Ar] 4s1 3d8 (b) [Kr] 4s1 4d8 (c) [Kr] 4s1 3d8 (d) [Kr] 4s2 3d8 (e) [Ar] 4s2 3d8 16.. ml = 9. In the ground state of a cobalt atom there are _____ unpaired electrons and the atom is _____. (e) 15. (c) 4. Select the term best describing the series of elements: Mn. (a) d-transition metals (b) representative elements (c) metalloids (d) alkaline earth metals (e) halogens 3. Which element has the largest atomic radius? (a) Li (b) Na (c) Rb (d) F (e) I 4. dxz. (d) the total number of electrons in p orbitals. (e) 16.. . diamagnetic (e) 2. 2.. px. The atom having the valence-shell configuration 4s2 4p5 would be in: (a) Group VIA and Period 5 (b) Group IVB and Period 4 (c) Group VIB and Period 7 (d) Group VIIA and Period 4 (e) Group VIIB and Period 4 2. l = 2. (b) 20. l = 2. (b) anything about the element's chemical properties. ms = -1/2 (c) n = 4.

9. (c) 11. (c) located closest to the nucleus. (b) located in the outermost occupied major energy level. (d) 1 triple bond between C and N. (c) 1 C-H bond. (d) located in d orbitals. Which of the following pairs of elements and valence electrons is incorrect? (a) Al . (d) Both 19F. (e) 7. (d) 8. 2. The correct dot formulation for nitrogen trichloride has: 10. which of the following statements is correct? (a) All three species contain 10 electrons.3 With regard to the species 16O2-. Which of the following is the most basic oxide? (a) N2O3 (b) N2O5 (c) P4O6 (d) P4O10 (e) Bi2O5 8. Which element has the highest first ionization energy? (Note: this is an exception to the general trend . Which of the following does not have a noble gas electron configuration? (or Which of the following is not isoelectronic with a noble gas?) (a) S2(b) Ba+ (c) Al3+ (d) Sb3(e) Sc3+ 5. (e) Oxygen has a less negative electron affinity than fluorine. 6.see notes. Answers to Chapter 6 1. Which of the following elements has the greatest attraction for electrons in a covalent bond? (a) Ge (b) As (c) Se (d) Br (e) Bi Which statement is wrong? (a) The atomic weight of carbon is about 12. (b) The most stable ion of lithium is Li+. Which one of the compounds below is most likely to be ionic? (a) GaAs (b) ScCl3 (c) NO2 (d) CCl4 (e) ClO2 The correct electron-dot formulation for hydrogen cyanide shows: (a) 2 double bonds and two lone pairs of electrons on the N atom. may be responsible for this.3 (b) Br . (b)The sum of the neutrons in all three species is 27. The valence electrons of representative elements are . (d) 10. Which of these isoelectronic species has the smallest radius? (a) Br(b) Sr2+ (c) Rb+ (d) Se2(e) They are all the same size because they have the same number of electrons. 1 C=N bond. (d) The radius of a sodium atom is larger than that of a sodium cation. 19F.4 (d) Sr . 1 C-N bond. (e) 1. (c) 4. (e) none of the above 4. 1 C-H bond and 1 lone pair of electrons on the N atom. (a) in s orbitals only. (c) 5. (d) 2. 1 N-H bond and 2 lone pairs of electrons on the C atom. (b) 1 C-H bond. (d) 13. (b) 12.and 20Ne contain 20 neutrons. 11. (b) 9.(d) Kr (e) Xe 7. Which of the following is an ionic hydride? (a) PH3 (b) H2S (c) HI (d) KH (e) CH4 13.7 (c) S . All of the following properties of the alkaline earth metals increase going down the group except (a) atomic radius (b) first ionization energy (c) ionic radius (d) atomic mass (e) atomic volume 12. Which one of the formulas for ionic compounds below is incorrect? (a) SrCl2 (b) Cs2S (c) AlCl3 (d) Al3P2 (e) CaSe Which is classified as nonpolar covalent? (a) the H-I bond in HI (b) the H-S bond in H2S (c) the P-Cl bond in PCl3 (d) the N-Cl bond in NCl3 (e) the N-H bond in NH3 7.and 20Ne. (a) 3. (c) A phosphorus atom is larger than an antimony atom.) (a) Be (b) B (c) C (d) N (e) O 8. (e) located in the innermost occupied shell. 9. (e) 1 triple bond between C and N.2 (e) Tl . 2 lone pairs of electrons on the C atom and 3 lone pairs of electrons on the N atom. (c) 6. (c) The sum of the protons in all three species is 28. 1 lone pair of electrons on the C atom and 1 lone pair of electrons on the N atom.

tetrahedral (b) BeBr2 . (e) 1. Choose the species that is incorrectly matched with the electronic geometry about the central atom. 1 N=Cl bond and 8 lone pairs of electrons. After drawing the correct Lewis dot structure(s). (c) 1 N-Cl bond. (e) 9. (a) 4. What is the hybridization of A? (a) sp (b) sp2 (c) sp3 (d) sp3d (e) sp3d2 9. (d) 2 N-Cl bonds. Draw one of the resonance structures of SO3.. (a) 10.tetrahedral (e) PF3 .trigonal bipyramidal (e) SeF6 . (e) 3 N-Cl bonds and 9 lone pairs of electrons. Which one of the following violates the octet rule? (a) PCl3 (b) CBr4 (c) NF3 (d) OF2 (e) AsF5 7..tetrahedral (e) BrO4.. Consider the bicarbonate ion (also called the hydrogen carbonate ion). Choose the molecule that is incorrectly matched with the electronic geometry about the central atom. (c) 12. (d) 6. 14. The electronic structure of the SO2 molecule is best represented as a resonance hybrid of ____ equivalent structures. Which of the following four molecules are polar: PH3 OF2 HF SO3? (a) all except SO3 (b) only HF (c) only HF and OF2 11.trigonal planar (d) AsF5 .octahedral 4. Which of the following species is planar? (a) NH3 (b) H3O+ (c) SO32(d) PF3 (e) NO3What kind of hybrid orbitals are utilized by the carbon atom in CF4 molecules? (a) sp (b) sp2 (c) sp3 (d) sp3d (e) sp3d2 A neutral molecule having the general formula AB3 has two unshared pair of electrons on A. (a) 13.tetrahedral (e) SO42. 2 N=Cl bonds and 7 lone pairs of electrons. the number of lone pairs of electrons around the central oxygen atom is (a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3 (e) 4 12.tetrahedral (c) SO32.. (c) 11.tetrahedral 6. Which polyatomic ion is incorrectly matched with its ionic geometry? (a) SiCl62. (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 (e) This molecule does not exhibit resonance.. (b) 3 N=Cl bonds and 6 lone pairs of electrons. Answers to Chapter 7 1.bent (c) BF3 . What hybridization is predicted for sulfur in the HSO3ion? (a) sp (b) sp2 (c) sp3 (d) sp3d (e) sp3d2 10. 13.. you would see: (a) two double bonds around the central carbon atom.trigonal planar (b) H2O .pyramidal (d) ClO3. 8. (b) 2.trigonal bipyramidal (b) PH4+ . (b) three single bonds around the central carbon atom.. (a) 3 N-Cl bonds and 10 lone pairs of electrons. (a) 15. (b) 5.pyramidal 2.10.linear (c) H2O .tetrahedral . (c) 3. In the Lewis structure for the OF2 molecule. (c) four single bonds around the central carbon atom.angular (d) NH4+ . Which of the following pairs of molecules and their molecular geometries is WRONG? (a) NF3 . Which molecule has a linear arrangement of all component atoms? (a) CH4 (b) H2O (c) CO2 (d) NH3 (e) BF3 5. (a) CF4 . (b) 8.tetrahedral 3. What is the total number of electrons in the correct Lewis dot formula of the sulfite ion? (a) 8 (b) 24 (c) 26 (d) 30 (e) 32 (d) NH3 .trigonal planar (b) ClO4. (d) 14.tetrahedral (c) ClO2. (a) NO2. The formal charge of S is (a) +2 (b) +1 (c) 0 (d) -1 (e) -2 15. (e) three equivalent resonance forms. (d) two equivalent resonance forms.. (d) 7.

(d) sidewise overlap of two parallel p orbitals. (c) The molecule contains four lone pairs of valence electrons. 1 bond. (c) may result from overlap of two s atomic orbitals. (a) 109o28' (b) 120o only (c) 90o and 120o (d) 45o and 90o (e) 90o and 180o 13.(d) none of these (e) all of these 11. (e) 11 lone pairs. (c) overlap of two p orbitals along their axes. (b) When one considers the molecular orbitals resulting from the overlap of any two specific atomic orbitals. What is the bond order in O2+? (a) 3. The perchloric acid molecule contains: (a) 13 lone pairs. and no other characteristics? (1) trigonal planar (2) one unshared pair of electrons on P (3) sp2 hybridized at P (4) polar molecule (5) polar bonds (a) 1. N2+. (b) 9 lone pairs. (d) 2 lone pairs. Which of the following is the correct electron configuration for C2? (a) 1s2 2s2 2py2 *1s2 *2s2 *2py2 (b) 1s2 *1s2 2s2 *2s2 2py2 *2pz1 2p1 (c) 1s2 *1s2 2s2 *2s2 2py2 2pz2 (d) 1s2 *1s2 2s2 *2s2 2py1 2pz1 (e) 1s2 *1s2 2s2 *2s2 2py1 *2py1 2pz1 *2pz1 4. The number of unpaired electrons in the B2 molecule is _____. 2 16. (c) 5. 2 (e) 3. no bonds.5 (d) 2. 0 (c) 2. 1 (d) 1. (e) 2. (e) sidewise overlap of two s orbitals. (a) One carbon is described by sp2 hybridization. (d) 9. Which response contains all of the characteristics listed that should apply to phosphorus trichloride.5 (e) 0 7. and 6 bonds. (d) 14. (c) 8. Therefore it has a bond order of (a) 3 (b) 7 (c) 1 (d) 5/2 (e) 2 3. 1. (d) may result from overlap of one s and one p atomic orbitals. (d) 16. Answers to Chapter 8 1. (b) overlap of an s and a p orbital. (e) may be either bonding or antibonding. 15. The F-S-F bond angles in SF6 are ______. Which one of the following statements is false? (a) Valence bond theory and molecular orbital theory can be described as two different views of the same thing. (e) . (c) 8 lone pairs. 2 bonds. 2. 5 (b) 2. no bonds. and 5 bonds. Draw the molecular orbital diagram for the molecular ion. (a) 4. (b) may result from overlap of p atomic orbitals along the molecular axis (head-on). (a) 6. B2+? (a) 1s2 *1s2 2s2 *2s2 2p2 (b) 1s2 *1s2 2s2 *2s2 2py2 (c) 1s2 *1s2 2s2 *2s2 2py2 2pz1 (d) 1s2 *1s2 2s2 *2s2 2p1 2py1 (e) none of the above. Which statement is false? A sigma molecular orbital (a) may result from overlap of p atomic orbitals perpendicular to the molecular axis (side-on). A triple bond contains ___ sigma bond(s) and ___ pi bond(s). (e) 7. and 7 bonds. (e) 13. (b) The molecule contains only one bond. (a) zero (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3 (e) 4 8. Draw a complete line-bond or electron-dot formula for acetic acid and then decide which statement is incorrect. (a) 0. 5 (e) another combination 14.5 (b) 2. Which molecule is nonpolar? (a) H2Se (b) BeH2 (c) PF3 (d) CHCl3 (e) SO2 12. (c) 3. 5. Carbon monoxide has ten bonding electrons and four antibonding electrons. 3 (b) 3. (b) 12. (e) 17. and 4 bonds. 17. 4. What is the correct electron configuration for the molecular ion. the bonding orbitals are always lower in energy than the antibonding orbitals. 4 (d) 2. Draw the molecular orbital diagram for B2. (d) One carbon is described by sp3 hybridization. (c) Molecular orbitals are generally described as being more delocalized than hybridized atomic orbitals. A (pi) bond is the result of the (a) overlap of two s orbitals. (d) 15. 2. 4. The number of electrons in the 2p molecular orbital is: (a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3 (e) 4 6. 3. 3 bonds. and 4 bonds. PCl3. (c) 10. (a) 11. 4 (c) 1. (e) Both oxygens are described by sp3 hybridization.0 (c) 1.

the more polar the resulting bond is.and HOBr (b) H2O and OH(c) OBr. For the system shown here: HOBr + OHH2O + OBrBronsted would classify the base species as: (a) OH. (b) is a proton donor. (b) The antibonding molecular orbitals have more of the character of the more electropositive element than of the more electronegative element. 9. (c) 5. (c) the overlap of the atomic orbitals of two negative ions (d) all of these (e) none of these Which statement regarding stable heteronuclear diatomic molecules is false? (a) All have bond orders greater than zero. (c) 6. 3. (d) a sourse of H+ ions in water. (c) 8. (b) a species that can accept a proton. Which is the strongest acid? (a) HClO4 (b) HClO3 (c) HClO2 (d) HClO (e) HF Which of these species is probably the weakest acid? (a) HCl (b) H3PO4 (c) H2PO4(d) HPO42(e) HNO3 Consider the neutralization reactions between the following acid-base pairs in dilute aqueous solutions: (1) CH3COOH + NaOH (2) HNO3 + Mg(OH)2 (3) H3PO4 + Ba(OH)2 (4) HCl + KOH (5) H2CO3 + LiOH For which of the reactions is the net ionic equation: H+ + OHH2O ? (a) 1. due to electrons occupying the resulting bonding molecular orbital. 3 (d) 4 (e) 1 Which one of the following represents the net ionic equation for the reaction of nitric acid with aluminum hydroxide? (a) 3H+ + Al(OH)3 Al3+ + 3H2O (b) 3HNO3 + Al(OH)3 Al(NO3)3 + 3H2O (c) HNO3 + OHNO3. (d) 7. N2. (d) 7. (c) a source of OH. (e) a proton acceptor. 5 (c) 2.and HOBr (e) H2O and HOBr 5. (d) 2. Arrhenius defined an acid as: (a) a species that can donate a proton. a base _____ . (b) 6. Antibonding molecular orbitals are produced by (a) constructive interaction of atomic orbitals. (d) a water-former. (b) destructive interaction of atomic orbitals. (d) 9. (d) produces OH. 4.+ H2O (d) H+ + OHH2O (e) 3NO3.0250 M Ca(OH)2 solution? (a) 3. (e) One of the shortcomings of valence bond theory is its inability to account for the paramagnetism of the oxygen molecule.17 g . (a) 6. (c) 10. (e) 3. In the equation: HF + H2O H3O+ + F(a) H2O is a base and HF is its conjugate acid. According to the Lewis theory. (c) makes available a share in a pair of electrons. 4. (e) 5.and OH(d) OBr. (b) H2O is an acid and HF is the conjugate base. Answers to Chapter 10 1. (e) accepts a share in a pair of electrons. (b) 10. (e) The greater is the difference in energy between two overlapping atomic orbitals. (d) HF is a base and H3O+ is its conjugate acid.ions in aqueous solution. O2. (a) its conjugate base. 9. (d) The bonding molecular orbitals have more of the character of the more electronegative element than of the less electronegative element. 2. (d) 8. (b) a hydroxide donor. 10. 3 (b) 1. its conjugate acid. (a) 9. (c) an electron-pair acceptor.ions in water.+ Al3+ Al(NO3)3 Which one of the following is an amphoteric metal hydroxide? (a) KOH (b) Ba(OH)2 (c) Pb(OH)2 (d) LiOH (e) Mg(OH)2 10. a base is defined as: (a) a proton donor. 8. 7. (c) 4. (c) Their molecular orbital diagrams are more symmetrical than those of homonuclear diatomic molecules. How many grams of Ca(OH)2 are contained in 1500 mL of 0. (a) is a proton acceptor. Answers to Chapter 9 (a) 2. (e) HF is a base and F. (c) 1. (c) 4. (c) HF is an acid and F. (e) a species that can accept a pair of electrons.(d) One of the shortcomings of molecular orbital theory is its inability to account for a triple bond in the nitrogen molecule. In the Bronsted-Lowry system.

40 eq (d) 3.5 x 102 mL (e) 5.34 g (e) 4. What volume of 12.090 N (e) 0.066 N (d) 0. 10. (e) four on the left.0472 M (c) 0.0325 M (b) 0.033 N (b) 0.270 g (c) 1.56 L (e) 2. H2SO4(aq) + HI(aq) I2(s) + SO2(g) (a) 7 (b) 9 (c) 11 (d) 13 (e) 5 For the reaction between permanganate ion and sufite ion in basic solution.+ SO32MnO2 + SO42When this equation is balanced using the smallest whole number coefficients possible.0900 N H2SO4? (a) 0. what is the sum of all the coefficients? (Do not forget coefficients of one.4 x 103 mL (c) 83 mL (d) 7.12 N 8.600 eq (b) 1.0667 M (d) 0. Balance the molecular equation for the following redox reaction.00 M HCl? (a) 1.0 mL of 0. the unbalanced equation is: MnO4.5 x 102 mL (b) 1. (c) three on the right.75 mL of KOH solution for complete neutralization.158 M (b) 0.100 M HCl with 100 mL of 0. What is the molarity of the salt produced in the reaction of 200 mL of 0.840 L (d) 7. (d) four on the right.100 N HNO3 is required to neutralize 50. When the following equation is balanced with the smallest possible set of integers.5 g of (COOH)2 in 3000 mL of solution? (Assume the (COOH)2 is to be completely neutralized in an acidbase reaction.00 liters of 3. .540 g 12. Calculate the normality of a solution that contains 4. (b) two on the left. Use the smallest whole number coefficients possible.0 L (c) 0. How many grams of NaOH would be required to neutralize all the acid in 75.25 g 2.19 L (b) 21. When the following equation is balanced with the smallest possible set of integers.0935 M What volume of 0.079 M (e) 0.50 M KOH would be required to neutralize completely 500 mL of 0.061 M 6. mL 9.00 M phosphoric acid? (Assume the acid is to be completely neutralized by a base.139 M (d) 0. what is the sum of all the coefficients? (Do not forget coefficients of one.+ Se2MnO2 + Se (in basic solution) (a) 20 (b) 22 (c) 24 (d) 26 (e) 28 16.80 eq 7.2 x 102 mL 5. 13. mL (d) 125 mL (e) 150.+ H2S Cr3+ + S (in acidic solution) (a) 13 (b) 24 (c) 19 (d) 7 (e) 29 15.500 M KOH? (a) 0.14 L 3.78 g (c) 1.045 N (c) 0.25 M H3PO4 solution? (a) 2. KHP has one acidic hydrogen.60 eq (e) 4.) (a) 0. What is the molarity of the KOH solution? (Molecular weight of KHP = 204 g/mol.) Cr2O72.ions is (a) two on the right.85 g (d) 2.660 g (e) 0.) MnO4.20 eq (c) 2. How many equivalents of phosphoric acid are contained in 300 mL of 4. What is the sum of the coefficients? Don't forget coefficients of one.) (a) 0.) (a) 0.859 g What is the oxidation number for carbon in CaC2O4? (a) 0 (b) +2 (c) +3 (d) +4 (e) +6 11.0 mL of a 0. Consider the following unbalanced equation in acidic solution: NaClO3 + H2O + I2 HIO3 + NaCl 4.099 M (c) 0.0864 M (e) 0. What is the sum of all the coefficients? (Do not forget coefficients of one.150 N solution of Ba(OH)2? (a) 50.6745 gram sample of KHP reacts with 41. What volume of 0. the number of OH. (b) 0.(b) 2.6 M HCl must be added to enough water to prepare 5. Balance the following redox equation in acidic solution with the smallest whole number coefficients possible.32 g (d) 0. A 0.) Cu + SO42Cu2+ + SO2 (in acidic solution) (a) 9 (b) 10 (c) 11 (d) 12 (e) 13 14.0 mL (c) 100.0 mL (b) 75.

Consider the following unbalanced net ionic equation: NO2. What is the normality of this Na2C2O4 solution? (a) 0.108 N (d) 0.0 mL sample of 0.2 liters under a pressure of 1240 torr at 25oC. (c) Gases diffuse into each other and mix almost immediately when put into the same container.791 N A solution of nitrous acid was standardized in a reaction where HNO2 NO3. (a) 3. What mass of KMnO4 must be dissolved to prepare 1. (e) 25.+ Mn2+ MnO2 (in basic solution) (a) 19 (b) 16 (c) 13 (d) 11 (e) 7 Answers to Chapter 11 1.3 L (c) 32.3 L (d) 47.2 mL (e) 49. (a) 21.397 g (c) 0. Calculate the normality of a NaClO solution if 35. A 0.0502 M (d) 0.733 N (b) 0.441 N (e) 0.0 liters at the same pressure? (a) 32oC (b) -109oC 3. MnO4.9 g/eq (b) 93.ions oxidize Fe2+ into Fe3+ ions and are reduced to Mn2+ ions under acidic conditions? (a) 4. At what temperature will it occupy 10. (a) 8.810 N 20. (a) 12. (b) 15.537 N (b) 0. (e) Pressure must be exerted on a sample of a gas in order to confine it.100 N nitrous acid.4 mL (b) 37.238 grams of KMnO4? (a) 0.9 mL (c) 12. What volume of this 0.510 N (d) 0.8 L (e) 80.2 g/eq (e) 562. A sample of oxygen occupies 47. (b) Gases can be expanded without limit. (d) The molecular weight of a gaseous compound is a non-variable quantity.00 g of K2Cr2O7 in 200 mL of solution.216 N solution of KMnO4? The products in the reaction include MnO2 and IO3-.9 mL (b) 15.1 g (e) 70.500 N 22. (b) 16. 23. (d) 7.0316 M 18.0 mL of it just reacts with 0.2 L A sample of nitrogen occupies 5. (b) 18. (b) 10. How many grams of I2 were contained in the I2 solution? (a) 0.00 mL of the solution is required to react with 0.4 mL (c) 7. NaNO2.366 N (e) 0.00 N (c) 0.(in basic solution) (a) 0. (a) 13. (c) 20.8 g/eq 19. (b) 1.0625 N (e) 0. 2.6 mL (d) 98.+ MnO4NO3.34 g (b) 23.8 mL (e) 30. (b) 2. What is the normality of a K2Cr2O7 solution prepared by dissolving 5.70 mL (d) 67. (a) 25.275 N (c) 0.410 M (b) 0. (d) 5.100 N nitrous acid solution would be required to oxidation of 0.+ Mn2+ (in acidic solution) What is the molarity of a sodium nitrite.+ SO32Cr3+ + SO42.110 N KMnO4 solution? It is used in the reaction in which MnO4.159 g (e) 0.200 g of CoCl2 to CoCl3 according to the following net ionic equation? Co2+ + HNO2 Co3+ + NO (in acidic solution) (a) 33. What volume would it occupy at 25oC if the pressure were decreased to 730 torr? (a) 27.6 g 21.251 M (e) 0.150 N KI solution is required to react in basic solution with 34.317 g 17. What is the equivalent weight (in grams) of copper(II) nitrate for use in a reaction involving the conversion of copper(II) to copper metal? (a) 46.6 g/eq (d) 375.264 g (b) 0.and its concentration was determined to be 0.125 N (d) 0. What is the sum of all coefficients when the following net ionic equation is balanced using the smallest whole number coefficients possible? Do not forget coefficients of one. solution if 30.615 g of Zn according to the following unbalanced equation: Zn + ClOZn(OH)2 + Cl.50 liters under a pressure of 900 torr at 25oC. (e) 22.0833 M NaClO3 reacted with 30. What volume of a 0. which will be used in the following unbalanced reaction? Cr2O72.250 N (b) 1. Which statement is false? (a) The density of a gas is constant as long as its temperature remains constant.1 mL of a 0.A 25.8 mL 25.236 g (d) 0. (b) 9. .0 mL of an aqueous solution of I2.8 g (c) 115 g (d) 19.126 M (c) 0.1 mL 24.will be oxidized to CO2. (c) 4. (e) 17. (b) 19. (a) 24.250 M solution of Na2C2O4 is to be used in a reaction in which the C2O42.8 L (b) 29.25 L of 0. (d) 6.226 N (c) 0. (c) 11.(in acidic solution) (a) 0. (b) 14. (e) 23.8 g/eq (c) 187.

4 g of nitrogen gas and 4. (b) The actual volume of the gas molecules themselves is very small compared to the volume occupied by the gas at ordinary temperatures and pressures. What is the density of ammonia gas at 2.46 L (c) 6. The partial pressure of CH4 in torr is: (a) 143 (b) 100 (c) 10. After a period of time. P1/P2 = V2/V1 (a) I only (b) II only (c) III only (d) I.5 (e) 1.9 mL contains water vapor at a pressure of 10. (d) The partial pressures of both gases increase above their initial values. The density of chlorine gas at STP. (b) The partial pressure of N2 exceeds that of H2 in the container.100 g of hydrogen.00 atm pressure and a temperature of 25.95 L (d) 5.0 liter container having a pinhole leak at 30oC. (c) The partial pressures of the two gases remain equal.580 g sample of a compound containing only carbon and hydrogen contains 0.600 atm (d) 84 (e) 8.9 mL (e) 27.0 grams of argon has a pressure of 250 torr under conditions of constant temperature and volume. What is the molecular weight of a pure gaseous compound having a density of 4. What pressure (in atm) would be exerted by a mixture of 1.087 g.8 g of oxygen gas in a 200 mL container at 57oC? (a) 4. in grams per liter.95 g/L at -35 oC and 1020 torr? (a) 24 (b) 11 (c) 72 (d) 120 (e) 44 11. Boyle's law requires that I.20 (b) 0.8 mL (d) 25.720 g/L (b) 0.50 mol H2(g) and 0. II.3 7. (b) C2H6 (c) C2H5 (d) C4H10 (e) C4H12 A mixture of 90. (a) 32.222 g 10. 14.39 g/L (d) 16.00 liters at 35oC and 740 torr.(c) 154oC (d) 269oC (e) 370oC 4.2 atm 8.0oC is 22.2 (c) 3.50 mol N2(g) is introduced into a 15.2 (b) 3.9 (d) 4.183 g (c) 0. at what rate (in moles per minute) would oxygen gas diffuse? (a) 0.0oC? (a) 0. and III (e) another combination 5.0 mL at 24oC on a day when the barometric pressure was 736 torr.7 (b) 34 (c) 47 (d) 27 (e) 0. .1 atm (c) 19. If helium effuses through a porous barrier at a rate of 4.50 liter vessel at -37oC? (a) 26 atm (b) 4. (c) The average kinetic energies of different gases are different at the same temperature. What pressure (in atm) would be exerted by 76 g of fluorine gas in a 1. At STP.4 torr. What is the molecular (true) formula for the compound? (a) CH3 17. (e) The theory explains most of the observed behavior of gases at ordinary temperatures and pressures. 33.7 (d) 239 (e) 26.6 g/L (e) 0. A 0. which of the following is true? (a) The partial pressure of H2 exceeds that of N2 in the container. PV = constant III.695 g/L 9.363 g (e) 0.030 A sample of hydrogen gas collected by displacement of water occupied 30.980 g/L (c) 1.129 g (d) 0. (d) There is no net gain or loss of the total kinetic (translational) energy in collisions between gas molecules. A container with volume 71. Under conditions of fixed temperature and amount of gas.6 mL 15. P1V1 = P2V2 II.0 moles per minute. The volume of a sample of nitrogen is 6. What volume would the hydrogen occupy if it were dry and at STP? The vapor pressure of water at 24.67 L (e) 5. What volume will it occupy at STP? (a) 6. How many grams of the gas are in the container? (a) 0.0 grams of CH4 and 10.6 13.18 L 6.4 atm and a temperature of 465oC.59 L (b) 5.421 g (b) 0.6 mL of the gas has a mass of 0. (e) The partial pressure of H2 in the container increases above the initial value.480 g of carbon and 0. 12.50 16.6 mL (c) 36. Which one of the following statements is not consistent with the kinetic-molecular theory of gases? (a) Individual gas molecules are relatively far apart.4 mL (b) 21. is approximately: (a) 6. A mixture of 0.

(e) If 22. The ideal gas law predicts that the molar volume (volume of one mole) of gas equals: (a) gRT/PV (b) (MW)P/RT (c) 1/2ms-2 (d) RT/P (e) 22.2 liters of methane react with an excess of oxygen. (b) 19. HF (a) AsH3. The normal boiling point of a liquid is 4. (d) 13.(c) 2. (c) The density of each gas is the same.0 (e) 1.2) liters. Calculate the weight of KClO3 that would be required to produce 29. (b) 7. (b) 1. H2Te (b) AsH3.2 g (c) 14. (d) 14. (d) There are twice as many O2 and H2 molecules as Ne atoms. (d) 12. the combined masses of the products will be 80. (b) 17. (e) 10.0 g. AsH3.0 (d) 8. (e) Real gases do not always obey the ideal gas laws. (e) 18. (d) 21. (a) Each flask has the same number of gas molecules. 22. (d) 5. P Answers to Chapter 12 1. which pair of variables are inversely proportional to each other (if all other conditions remain constant)? (a) P.0 liter flasks are filled with H2. the volume of carbon dioxide produced at STP is (44/16)(11. For a gas. V (e) n. CH3NH2.0 g. AsH3. (d) 15. respectively.82 g (b) 12. (d) If 16. (d) Molecules of an ideal gas are assumed to have no significant volume. H2Te.4 g (e) 73.5 L of oxygen measured at 127oC and 760 torr. 23. . (c) 23.00 atm? (a) HF (b) HCl (c) HBr (d) HI (e) H2SO4 6. (e) 3. (a) 8. HF (e) HF. Three 1. V (c) V. T (d) n. H2Te Which of the following boils at the highest temperature? (a) CH4 (b) C2H6 (c) C3H8 (d) C4H10 (e) C5H12 5. (e) 6. the maximum amount of carbon dioxide produced will be 22. Which probably has the lowest boiling point at 1. (b) The velocity of the gas molecules is the same in each flask.4 liters of methane at STP react with 64.5 g 22.6 g (d) 24. A real gas most closely approaches the behavior of an ideal gas under conditions of: (a) high P and low T (b) low P and high T (c) low P and T (d) high P and T (e) STP 19. Which of the following statements is false? (a) The properties of N2(g) will deviate more from ideality at -100oC than at 100oC. (a) 25. Which response includes only those compounds that can exhibit hydrogen bonding? CH4. (c) Molecules of CH4(g) at high pressures and low temperatures have no attractive forces between each other. Which one of the following statements about the following reaction is false? CH4(g) + 2O2(g) CO2(g) + 2H2O(g) (a) Every methane molecule that reacts produces two water molecules. What type of interparticle forces holds liquid N2 together? (a) ionic bonding (b) London forces (c) hydrogen bonding (d) dipole-dipole interaction (e) covalent bonding 3.0 g of oxygen reacts with excess methane. (d) 4. (c) 9. 20. What type of intermolecular forces are due to the attraction between temporary dipoles and their induced temporary dipoles? (a) metallic bond (b) London dispersion (c) hydrogen bond (d) ionic bond (e) covalent bond 2. at STP. 2KClO3(s) 2KCl(s) + 3O2(g) (a) 7. Which of the following statements is true? 520oC 25. (e) 22. CH3NH2 (c) CH4. What total gas volume (in liters) at and 880 torr would result from the decomposition of 33 g of potassium bicarbonate according to the equation: 2KHCO3(s) K2CO3(s) + CO2(g) + H2O(g) (a) 56 L (b) 37 L (c) 10 L (d) 19 L (e) 12 L 21. (c) 16.4 L at any temperature and pressure 24.0 g of oxygen. (c) 20.0 g of methane react with 64. (c) 11.4 liters of carbon dioxide at STP can be produced. H2Te (d) CH3NH2. T (b) P. (c) If 11. (b) Van der Waal's equation corrects for the nonideality of real gases.0 g of oxygen. (a) 2. (e) None of the above is true. (d) 24. (b) If 32. O2 and Ne.41 18.

(e) the temperature at which the liquid will usually boil. molecular solid (c) KF(s).p. Which of the following phase changes is(are) endothermic? 1. an increase in the intermolecular forces in the liquid 3. (c) The metallic solid can be viewed as positive ions closely packed in a sea of valence electrons. condensation 6. and 3 (b) 4.9 (b) 6. covalent solid (e) S(s). an atom lying at the corner of a unit cell is shared equally by how many unit cells? (a) one (b) two (c) eight (d) four (e) sixteen 14. According to the phase diagram given for Compound Y. 2. In any cubic lattic. For water (m.69 (e) 5. (a) 77 (b) 68 (c) 64 (d) 57 (e) 50 9. 7. (c) the temperature at which the gas molecules have more kinetic energy than the molecules in the liquid. sublimation 5. (c) At the pressure and temperature of point 1. 15. metallic solid . Which statement is false? (a) Molecular solids generally have lower melting points than covalent solids. Y( l) Y(g) Where on a phase diagram can you locate conditions under which only one phase exists? (a) at an intersection of two lines (b) at the normal boiling point (c) at an intersection of three lines (d) in an area bounded by lines (e) at the triple point 13.(a) the temperature at which the vapor pressure equals 760 torr. Which one of the following classifications is incorrect? (a) H2O(s). b.10 10. an increase in the size of the open vessel containing the liquid (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 1 only (d) 2 only (e) 3 only 8. Which of the following compounds would be expected to have the highest melting point? (a) BaF2 (b) BaCl2 (c) BaBr2 (d) BaI2 (e) H2O 12. (d) At the pressure and temperature at point 3.04 (d) 5.p. For mercury (m.6 J/g @ -39oC Heat of vaporization = 292 J/g @ 357oC Specific Heat (solid) = 0. ionic solid (d) SiC(s).p. (d) the only temperature at which there can be equilibrium between liquid and gas. (d) Most molecular solids melt at lower temperatures than metallic solids. freezing (a) 1. molecular solid (b) C4H10(s). an increase in temperature 2.18 J/goC Specific Heat (gas) = 2. (b) the temperature above which the substance cannot exist as a liquid regardless of the pressure. Y exists as a solid.138 J/goC Specific Heat (gas) = 0. Y(s) Y(g). melting 3. (e) The interactions among the molecules in molecular solids are generally stronger than those among the particles that define either covalent or ionic crystal lattices. what description is correct? 16. (e) At the temperature and pressure at point 2. Y(g) will spontaneously convert to Y(l).141 J/goC Specific Heat (liquid) = 0. (b) At 0oC and 1200 torr. 5.03 J/goC Calculate the amount of heat (in kJ) that must be absorbed to convert 108 g of ice at 0oC to water at 70oC.p. -39oC. 100oC) Heat of fusion = 333 J/g @ 0oC Heat of vaporization = 2260 J/g @ 100oC Specific Heat (solid) = 2. Y(s) will spontaneously convert to Y(g) and no Y(l) is possible. (a) At the temperature and pressure at point 4. (b) Metallic solids exhibit a wide range of melting points because metallic bonds cover a wide range of bond strength. (a) 61.56 (c) 6.104 J/goC Calculate the amount of heat that must be released to convert 20. b. 357oC) Heat of fusion = 11.0 g of mercury vapor at 387 oC to liquid mercury at 307oC (in kJ). Which of the following changes would increase the vapor pressure of a liquid? 1. vaporization 4. 0oC. deposition 2. and 6 (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 4 and 6 only (e) some other combination 11.09 J/goC Specific Heat (liquid) = 4.

Which pairs are miscible? 1. and 3 2. C6H12O6. Hydration is a special case of solvation in which the solvent is water. (d) 4.0 kg of water.42 oC 10. What is the approximate molecular weight of the substance? (For water. (b) 9.5 m BaCl2 solution. (b) osmotic pressure of the solute.42 oC (c) 99. 1.3 oC (d) 100. The oxygen end of water molecules is attracted toward Ca2+ ions. If 4. benzene. Which one of the following substances can be melted without breaking chemical bonds? (a) sodium sulfate (b) zinc chloride (c) sulfur dioxide (d) silicon dioxide (e) diamond Answers to Chapter 13 1.60 g/mL. What is the vapor pressure at 85oC of a solution prepared from 100 mL of water (density 1. C6H12 2. (c) 14. What are the ideal van't Hoff factors for the following compounds: Ba(OH)2. (e) 5. you can find them on the back of the exam envelope. (d) 13.512 oC/m) (Note: If the Kf and Kb are not given on the exam. 1 (b) 2. What is the molality of a solution labeled "8. are dissolved in 15. (a) 17. (d) mole fraction of solvent. 13. 4.840 m (e) 1. 5.2 g of naphthalene. 1. (a) 12. Consider the three statements below. 5 (e) none of the above 11. (c) 8.37 oC at 760 mm Hg. (II) A 0.00 g/mL) and 150 g of diglyme.) (a) 101. 1. (c) molarity of the solvent. water and methanol. (b) 2. Which observation(s) reflect(s) colligative properties? (I) A 0.69 m 4. (b) 3.8 oC 12. (e) 16.6 oC (c) 102. 2 (d) 6. The density of CCl4 is 1.67 m Calculate the mole fraction of C2H5OH in a solution that contains 46 grams of ethanol. C10H8. (e) 15. 1. 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 only (d) 1. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 1 and 2 only (e) 1. 2 (c) 3. C6H14O3.ions.2 grams of water. C2H5OH. (a) 11.626 oC (d) 100.44 m (d) 0. Consider the following pairs of liquids. and hexane. in 500 mL of carbon tetrachloride. HNO3 ? (a) 1. and 64 grams of methanol.750 m (d) 0. . (III) Pure water freezes at a higher temperature than pure methanol. 3.52 m (e) 0. 2. 2. The vapor pressure of a solution containing a nonvolatile solute is directly proportional to the (a) molality of the solvent. what will be the boiling point of the resulting solution? (Kb for water = 0.5 m NaBr solution has a higher vapor pressure than a 0.5 m NaOH solution freezes at a lower temperature than pure water. CH3OH 3. CH3OH. (a) 7. A solution made by dissolving 9. Kb = 0.51 oC/m) (a) 240 g/mol (b) 150 g/mol (c) 79 g/mol (d) 61 g/mol (e) 34 g/mol 1. K3PO4. Which statement(s) is(are) true? 1.64 oC (b) 100. assume it is water. Calculate the approximate initial boiling point (in oC) of a solution of 285 g of magnesium chloride in 2. 2.81 g of a nonvolatile nonelectrolyte in 90.0 g of water boiled at 100. The hydrogen end of water molecules is attracted toward Cl. C12H22O11.73 oC (e) 101. 9.500 m (c) 0. 3.42 (c) 1/2 (d) 2/3 (e) none of these 6. a nonvolatile substance? (a) 361 torr (b) 390 torr (c) 425 torr (d) 388 torr (e) 317 torr 8. 3 only 3. (a) 0. C6H6.8 oC (e) 104. (b) 6.1 oC (b) 101.250 m (b) 0. 2.17.6% glucose (C6H12O6) by weight?" (Note: If the question does not give the solvent. water and hexane (a) 1.) (a) 0. (a) only I (b) only II (c) only III (d) I and II (e) I and III The vapor pressure of pure water at 85oC is 434 torr. 3 (e) 2.27 grams of sucrose. (c) 7.26 m (b) 0. (c) 10. 5. (a) 1/3 (b) 0. Calculate the molality of a solution that contains 51.34 m (c) 0.) (a) 103. (Assume complete dissociation of the salt. (e) mole fraction of solute.

000 g/mol 4.0 g of an enzyme of molecular weight 98. (a) 8.) (a) -1. Calculate the osmotic pressure associated with 50.86 oC/m) (Assume complete dissociation of the salt. is 8.48 torr (e) 3. (b) 13.2 kJ (c) -36.6 kJ (e) +37.5 kJ/mol 5. Ni(s) + 4 CO (g) (a) 1.80 x 103 J (b) 8. The kJ. 1.00 g/mL.000 g sample of methanol.4 Answers to Chapter 14 1.0 liters by a constant external pressure of 5. Which one of the following thermodynamic quantities is not a state function? (a) Gibbs free energy (b) enthalpy (c) entropy (d) internal energy (e) work 2. (c) 14. Calculate E for the reaction in kJ/mol. (b) 4.000 g/mol (d) 32.6 kJ Calculate the amount of work done for the conversion of 1. What is the apparent formula weight of the organic compound? (Kf of camphor = 37. of camphor = 178. was combusted in the presence of excess oxygen in a bomb calorimeter conaining 4000 g of water. How much work is done on the gas? (a) w = +10 liter atm (b) w = -10 liter atm (c) w = +30 liter atm (d) w = -30 liter atm (e) The answer cannot be calculated.00 mole of Ni to Ni(CO)4 in the reaction below.0 oC.000 oC to 29. R. Assume that the gases are ideal.68 torr (c) 1.55 kJ/mol (d) -81. an ideal gas is compressed from 6.3 mg sample of an organic compound (a nonelectrolyte) was ground up with 420 mg of camphor to form a homogeneous mixture melting at 170.68 x 103 J (e) -494 J Ni(CO)4(g) 9. At a constant temperature.0 liters to 4.93 oC (e) 0. What is the apparent formula weight of the polymer? (a) 15. (c) 11.00 m NaCl solution? (Kf = 1.4 kJ/mol (e) -98.p.4 oC) (Note: This is a freezing point depression problem .765 oC. 3.639 oC. (b) 10.96 torr (d) 2.000 g/mol dissolved in water to give 2600 mL of solution at 30.31 J/mol K.80 x 103 J (d) -8. (d) 7.314 J/mol K.484 torr (b) 1.71 torr 16. The temperature of the water increased from 24. (d) 5. m. A 250 mL solution containing 21. Ho for the following reaction at 298 K is -36. Calculate H (in kJ/mol NaNO3) for this reaction. (a) -35. (a) 0. (a) 6. (c) 12. What is the heat change of the system? (a) +130 J (b) +30 J (c) -130 J (d) -30 J (e) 0 J A 5.86 oC (b) +1.000 g/mol (c) 26. The heat capacity of the calorimeter was 2657 J/oC. The universal gas constant.184 J/goC.4 g of a polymer in toluene had an osmotic pressure of 0.What is the freezing point of an aqueous 1.0 atm except: (a) N2(g) (b) Fe(s) (c) Ne(g) (d) H(g) (e) Hg(l) .) (a) 353 g/mol (b) 285 g/mol (c) 231 g/mol (d) 185 g/mol (e) 166 g/mol 15. 1/2 H2(g) + 1/2 Br2(l) HBr(g) Calculate Eo at 298 K. A system suffers an increase in internal energy of 80 J and at the same time has 50 J of work done on it.0 atm.7 kJ/mol (b) -151 kJ/mol (c) -2.68 x 103 J (c) -1.4 kJ (d) -37. (e) 2.0300 mol of NaOH(s) was added to 1000 mL of 0.note the Kf of camphor camphor is the solvent.000 oC. 8. (e) 16. The value of R is 8.0 oC.0300 M HNO3 initially at 23. and the addition of solid does not appreciably affect the volume of the solution. (a) 3. The temperature of the water rose to 23. Assume the specific heat of the final solution is 4. A 17.055 atm at 27 oC.7 oC/m.72 oC (d) -0.6 kJ/mol 6. (e) 7. CH3OH. HNO3(aq) + NaOH(s) NaNO3(aq) + H2O(l) (a) -63.18 J/goC.86 oC (c) -3. at 75oC. (d) 9. All of the following have a standard heat of formation value of zero at 25oC and 1.0 oC 14.000 g/mol (e) 38. (a) -314 kJ/mol (b) -789 kJ/mol (c) -716 kJ/mol (d) -121 kJ/mol (e) -69.000 g/mol (b) 18.2 kJ (b) +35. the density of each solution is 1. The specific heat of water is 4. A coffee cup calorimeter having a heat capacity of 451 J/oC was used to measure the heat evolved when 0. (d) 15.

0 kJ (b) +70. Ho = +115 kJ and So = +125 J/K. III. 4Na(s) + 2H2O(l) 11.0 oC: Fe3O4(s) + CO(g) 3FeO(s) + CO2(g) -1118 110. a solid changes to a liquid.7 J/K (b) 0.7 J/K (e) 384.13 x 103 kJ/K (d) 3.4 kJ/mol Gfo for SO3(g) = -370.0 kJ (e) +140.10. 130. II. given the average bond energies below. Br2(l) Br2(g) (a) 85oC (b) 373oC (c) 177oC (d) 59oC (e) 44oC 20.32 J/K (c) 303. . Calculate the standard heat of formation.2 kJ/mol at 25oC. for FeS2(s).5 (a) -198. Estimate the boiling point of Br2(l) ( S = 93. Br2(g) + 3F2(g) 2BrF3(g) Bond Bond Energy Br-Br F-F Br-F (a) -516 kJ (b) -410 kJ (c) -611 kJ (d) -665 kJ (e) -720 kJ 14. For the reaction.1 kJ (e) -86. a molecule is broken into two or more smaller molecules. (b) nonspontaneous at all temperatures.7 J/K 15. (a) I only (b) II only (c) III only (d) IV only (e) I. What is the change of entropy for one mole of liquid freon when it vaporizes at 25oC? (Hint: The vaporization process is at equilibrium and what is true for G at equilibrium?) (a) 57. What is the standard entropy change of the reaction below at 298 K with each compound at the standard pressure? 192 kJ 158 kJ 197 kJ Horxn for the following reaction at 25. For which of the following reactions would the Ho for the reaction be labeled Hfo? (a) Al(s) + 3/2 H2(g) + 3/2 O2(g) Al(OH)3(s) (b) PCl3(g) + 1/2 O2(g) POCl3(g) (c) 1/2 N2O(g) + 1/4 O2(g) NO(g) (d) CaO(s) + SO2(g) CaSO3(s) (e) The Ho for all these reactions would be labeled o Hf .0 kJ 17.7 kJ (c) +77.7 J/K (b) 76. IV. A + B C. Calculate Ho for the reaction: Na2O(s) + SO3(g) Na2SO4(g) given the following information: Ho (1) Na(s) + H2O(l) (2) Na2SO4(s) + H2O(l) SO3(g) (3) 2Na2O(s) + 2H2(g) (a) +255 kJ (b) -435 kJ (c) -581 kJ (d) +531 kJ (e) -452 kJ NaOH(s) + 1/2 H2(g) 2NaOH(s) + -146 kJ +418 kJ +259 kJ N2(g) + 3H2(g) So298 (J/mol K) 191. (d) spontaneous at temperatures greater than 600 K.6 2NH3(g ) 192. Calculate Go for the reaction at 25o. Calculate Hfo (kJ/mol) (a) -263 kJ (b) 54 kJ (c) 19 kJ (d) -50 kJ (e) 109 kJ 12. and IV 16.8 kJ (d) +37. So = +50 J/K. is 17. Ho = +30 kJ. Hfo.0 J/K). a liquid changes to a gas. a reaction occurs that results in an increase in the number of moles of gas. The heat of vaporization of freon.4 kJ/mol (a) -70.9 kJ. SBr4(g) S(g) + 2Br2(l) (a) +152 kJ (b) -56.0 kJ (c) -670.5 13.5 -272 -393.2 kJ 18. H = 30. Calculate Go for the reaction given the following information: 2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g) Gfo for SO2(g) = -300. (c) spontaneous at temperatures less than 600 K. given the following information: 2FeS2(s) + 5O2(g) 2FeO(s) + 4SO2(g) Horxn = -1370 kJ Hfo for SO2(g) = -297 kJ/mol Hfo for FeO(s) = -268 kJ/mol (a) -177 kJ (b) -1550 kJ (c) -774 kJ (d) -686 kJ (e) +808 kJ Estimate the heat of reaction at 298 K for the reaction shown. For the following reaction at 25oC.8 kJ (d) -140.2 J/K (d) -129. CCl2F2.3 The entropy will usually increase when I. Therefore the reaction is: (a) spontaneous at all temperatures.16 J/K (e) 239 J/K 19. II. III.688 J/K (c) 5.

(e) varies inversely with the absolute temperature.030 M/s 3 0. (d) the rate of consumption of oxygen equals the rate of consumption of water.020 M/s 0.020 M 0. 2 (b) decrease. 4 (e) not change 7. (a) increase.2 kJ 22.010 M 0. the reactant concentration is 0. (e) H is equal to E for the reaction: 2H2(g) + O2(g) 2H2O(g) (a) the order with respect to A is 1 and the order overall is 1. (e) the order with respect to B is 2 and the order overall is 3. Which statement is false? (a) The thermodynamic quantity most easily measured in a "coffee cup" calorimeter is H. The decomposition of dimethylether at 504 oC is first order with a half-life of 1570 seconds.7 kJ. 2 (c) increase.0 g sample? (a) 686 kJ (b) 519 kJ (c) 715 kJ (d) 597 kJ (e) 469 kJ 23.005 M/s The rate law for the reaction is: (a) Rate = k[NH4+][NO2-] (b) Rate = k[NH4+]2[NO2-]2 (c) Rate = k[NH4+]2[NO2-] (d) Rate = k[NH4+][NO2-]2 (e) none of the above 5.0 x 107 s (b) 4. Given the following data for this reaction: NH4+(aq) + NO2-(aq) N2(g) + 2H2O(l) EXPT [NH4+] [NO2-] RATE 1 2 0.00 grams of SiO2 with excess carbon in the reaction below? Ho for the reaction is +624.(e) spontaneous only at 25oC. (d) the order with respect to B is 2 and the order overall is 2.015 M 0. (d) between ions in aqueous solution is extremely rapid because there are no bonds that need to be broken. 4 (d) decrease.020 M 0.13 x 105 kJ (c) 5.1 x 104 s (e) 2.091 M 24. (e) If the work done by the system is greater than the heat absorbed by the system. CS2 CS + S What is the half-life of this reaction at 1000oC? (a) 5. and sulfur is first order with k = 2. 21.84 M (b) 0. the rate of the reaction would _____ by a factor of _____. C2H5OH.010 M 0. (b) is independent of the amount of contact surface of a solid involved.069 M (c) 0.06 kJ (d) 1. SiO2(s) + 3C(s) SiC(s) + 2CO(g) (a) 366 kJ (b) 1.8 x 10-7 s-1 at 1000oC. The speed of a chemical reaction (a) is constant no matter what the temperature is. What are the units of k for the rate law: Rate = k[A][B]2. (c) the order with respect to A is 2 and the order overall is 3. What fraction of an initial amount of dimethylether remains after 4710 seconds? (a) 1/3 (b) 1/6 (c) 1/8 (d) 1/16 (e) 1/32 9.7 x 10-6 s (c) 3. (c) between gases should in all cases be extremely rapid because the average kinetic energy of the molecules is great. to carbon monosulfide. 1. E is negative. after 2. How much heat is absorbed in the complete reaction of 3. (c) H is sometimes exactly equal to E. is 1372 kJ/mol ethanol. (d) For an endothermic process.33 x 104 kJ (e) 31. The half-life for a first-order reaction is 32 s. 3. with the rate equation: . CS2. The combustion of ethane (C2H6) is represented by the equation: 2C2H6(g) + 7O2(g) 4CO2(g) + 6H2O(l) In this reaction: (a) the rate of consumption of ethane is seven times faster than the rate of consumption of oxygen. CS. Which statement is incorrect? (a) At constant pressure. when the concentration unit is mol/L? (a) s-1 (b) s (c) L mol-1 s-1 (d) L2 mol-2 s-1 (e) L2 s2 mol-2 Given: A + 3B 2C + D This reaction is first order with respect to reactant A and second order with respect to reactant B. 2. H is negative. (c) water is formed at a rate equal to two-thirds the rate of formation of CO2.062 M? (a) 0. (d) H is often nearly equal to E. (e) CO2 is formed twice as fast as ethane is consumed. H= E+P V (b) The thermodynamic symbol for entropy is S. What was the original concentration if. For a reaction 2A + B Rate = k[A]2[B] 2C. (b) No work is done in a reaction occurring in a bomb calorimeter. The standard heat of combustion of ethanol. How much heat (in kJ) would be liberated by completely burning a 20.0 minutes.010 M 0. If the concentration of A is doubled and the concentration of B is halved. 6. (b) the order with respect to A is 2 and the order overall is 2.8 x 105 s (d) 6. The decomposition of carbon disulfide.5 x 106 s 8. (b) the rate of formation of CO2 equals the rate of formation of water. (c) Gibbs free energy is a state function. 4.

13. A possible mechanism for the reaction. Mechanism slow NOCl NO + Cl 1 Cl + NOCl NOCl2 + NO + Cl2 Overall: 2NOCl 2NO + Cl2 Mechanism 2 2NOCl NO NOCl2 NOCl2 + NO + Cl2 slow fast NOCl2 2NO fast fast Overall: 2NOCl 2NO + Cl2 Mechanism 3 NOCl NOCl + Cl Cl2 NO + Cl NO + fast. (b) At the same temperature the rate of reaction B is greater than the rate of reaction A. (e) obvious if its activation energy is known. (b) obvious if its heat of reaction is known. (3) The reverse reaction has an activation energy greater than 50 kJ/mol. (c) obvious if its reaction order is known. is: (1) A + A (2) A2 + A A2 A3 fast.13 M 10. What is the activation energy (in kJ) of a reaction whose rate constant increases by a factor of 100 upon increasing the temperature from 300 K to 360 K? (a) 27 (b) 35 (c) 42 (d) 53 (e) 69 19. 2 A correct reaction mechanism for a given reaction usually is: (a) the same as its balanced chemical equation. equilibrium slow Overall: 2NOCl 2NO + Cl2 (a) 2. (III) an increase in the percentate of "high energy" collisions with increasing temperature. which of the following statements are correct? (Hint: Draw the potential energy diagram. 2A + B D. At 300 K. 17. If reaction A has an activation energy of 250 kJ and reaction B has an activation energy of 100 kJ. If the rate constant at T1 = 300 K is k1 and the rate constant at T2 = 320 K is k2. (d) The energy of reaction B must be greater than the energy of reaction A. (c) The energy of reaction A must be greater than the energy of reaction B.075 M (e) 0.067 (c) 15. (a) k[A] (b) k[B] (c) k[A][B] (d) k[B]2 (e) k[A][B]2 14. what is the energy of reaction E for this step? (a) 22 kJ (b) -22 kJ (c) 52 kJ (d) -52 kJ (e) 126 kJ Suppose the reaction: A + 2B following mechanism: Step 1 Step 2 A+B AB + B AB AB2 occurs by the slow 15. AB2 fast Overall A + 2B AB2 The rate law expression must be Rate = _________. If the activation energy in the forward direction of an elementary step is 52 kJ and the activation energy in the reverse direction is 74 kJ. (II) an increase in the rate constant with increasing temperatures. Most reactions are more rapid at high temperatures than at low temperatures. (d) sometimes difficult to prove. which of the following statements must be correct? (a) If reaction A is exothermic and reaction B is endothermic then reaction A is favored kinetically.) (1) The reverse reaction has an activation energy equal to 50 kJ/mol. (Hint: Solve for k2/k1.) (a) 3 x 10-29 (b) 0. This is consistent with: (I) an increase in the activation energy with increasing temperature. equilibrium slow C+ (3) A3 + B A + C + D fast According to the mechanism. then the reaction is __ times faster at 320 K than at 300 K. the following reaction is found to obey the rate law: Rate = k[NOCl]2: 2NOCl 2NO + Cl2 Consider the three postulated mechanisms given below. (4) The change in internal energy is less than zero. Given that a reaction absorbs energy and has an activation energy of 50 kJ/mol. 16.0 (d) 525 (e) 3 x 10-28 18. (e) The rate of reaction A at 25 oC equals the rate of reaction B at 100 oC. (5) The change in internal energy is greater than zero. (2) The reverse reaction has an activation energy less than 50 kJ/mol. 3 (b) 3 (c) 1 (d) 2 (e) 1.(d) 0. (a) only I 12. the rate law will be: (a) Rate = k[A]2 (b) Rate = k[A][B] (c) Rate = k[A]2[B] (d) Rate = k[A] (e) Rate = k[A]3 . (a) (1) and (4) (b) (2) and (4) (c) (3) and (4) (d) (2) and (5) (e) (3) and (5) 11. Suppose the activation energy of a certain reaction is 250 kJ/mol. Then choose the response that lists all those that are possibly correct and no others.

4 24. (c) Qc is less than Kc. [H2] = 0. (e) If a reaction is thermodynamically spontaneous. (a) 1. Qc. more H2 and I2 will be produced.0420 mole N2. (a) 10. Which of the following statements are true? (1) Reactions with more negative values of Go are spontaneous and proceed at a higher rate than those with less negative values of Go. (b) the frequency of molecular collisions increases. (2) The activation energy. is usually about the same as E for a reaction. (e) 23. (d) 16.0 (d) 4. 2. the rate of reaction increases. (d) always decreases the rate for a reaction. (3) The activation energy for a reaction does not change significantly as temperature changes. (c) Activation energy is a kinetic quantity rather than a thermodynamic quantity. 2. (c) The rate law is: rate = k[H2S]2[O2]. Ea. 2H2S(g) + O2(g) 2S(s) + 2H2O(l). 4 (e) 1. (e) neither the forward nor the reverse reaction has stopped. (d) 11. (b) Qc is less than Kc. The best explanation is: As the reactant concentration increases. (e) 21. At 445oC. (e) 19. N2(g) + 3H2(g) (a) 0. 2SO3(g) 2SO2(g) + O2(g) The conventional equilibrium constant expression (Kc) for the system as described by the above equation is: (a) [SO2]2/[SO3] (b) [SO2]2[O2]/[SO3]2 (c) [SO3]2/[SO3]2[O2] (d) [SO2][O2] (e) none of these 3. (b) 25. is TRUE for the above system? (a) Qc = Kc. (b) The reaction is fourth order overall. In a 3. (e) 20. (b) 12.516 mole H2 and 0. Which statement is false? (a) If a reaction is thermodynamically spontaneous it may occur rapidly. (e) always increases the activation energy for a reaction. 3 (d) 2. it must have a low activation energy. (d) The rate law is: rate = k[H2S][O2]. (d) 18. (c) both the forward and the reverse reactions have stopped. (c) does not affect a reaction energy path. more HI will be produced. 4 (b) 3. (e) the order of reaction increases. If the equilibrium constant for the reaction A + 2B C + 5/2 D has a value of 4. (c) 9. and HI in a vessel at 445oC has the following concentrations: [HI] = 2. (c) the rate constant increases. When the system A + B C + D is at equilibrium. (b) 24.94 (e) 0.063 (c) 2. the following amounts are found in equilibrium at 400 oC: 0. For the reaction. 2HI(g) H2(g) + I2(g) A mixture of H2. (d) 3.25 (b) 0. Which items correctly complete the following statment? A catalyst can act in a chemical reaction to: (I) increase the equilibrium constant. 2. 4 (c) 1. .0 M. (a) the sum of the concentrations of A and B must equal the sum of the concentrations of C and D. Which one of the following statements concerning the reaction quotient. (e) 2. I2. (a) only I & II (b) only II & III (c) only III & IV (d) only I & III (e) only II & IV 21. (b) changes the equilibrium concentration of the products. (c) 4. When the concentration of reactant molecules is increased. 2A + 4B 2NH3(g) 23. (II) lower the activation energy. 25. (d) the reverse reaction has stopped.503 4. (d) the activation energy increases. Consider the following reversible reaction.0. it will not occur spontaneously.10 M. (d) 17. (IV) provide a new path for the reaction. (d) 5. A catalyst: (a) actually participates in the reaction. (a) 22. (e) The rate law cannot be determined from the information given.99 (c) 16. (e) 1.(b) only II (c) only III (d) only I and II (e) only II and III 20.0357 mole NH3. (d) 6.00 liter container. (b) If a reaction is thermodynamically spontaneous it may occur slowly. (b) 13. Answers to Chapter 16 1. what is the value of the equilibrium constant for the reaction 2C + 5D at the same temperature? (a) 0. (a) the average kinetic energy of molecules increases.0 (d) 8. (4) Reactions usually occur at faster rates at higher temperatures. which one of the following statements is absolutely true? (a) The reaction is first order with respect to H2S and second order with respect to O2. (e) 15. the system is at equilibrium. (b) 7. (d) If a reaction is thermodynamically nonspontaneous. (c) 14. (III) decrease E for the reaction. (b) the forward reaction has stopped.0 (e) 16 5. 3. 22. 0. Evaluate Kc.50 M and [I2] = 0. Kc for the following reaction is 0. 3.202 (b) 1. (e) 8.020. 2.

00 L container: A(g) + B(g) 2C(g) The equilibrium concentrations at 200oC were determined to be: [B] = 3.85 x 10-4 M (d) 4. what will be the new equilibrium concentration of A? A(g) + B(g) (a) 0. Consider the equilibrium system: 2ICl(s) I2(s) + Cl2(g) Which of the following changes will increase the total amount of of Cl2 that can be produced? (a) removing some of the I2(s) (b) adding more ICl(s) (c) removing the Cl2 as it is formed (d) decreasing the volume of the container (e) all of the above 14.225 mol (b) 0.200 M .040 mol/L of N2 and 0. 2H2O(g) 2H2(g) + O2(g) Given that the forward reaction (the conversion of "left-hand" species to "right-hand" species) is endothermic. What is the equilibrium concentration of O2? (a) 0. At equilibrium. Consider the reversible reaction at equilibrium at 392oC: 2A(g) + B(g) C(g) The partial pressures are found to be: A: 6.040 M (e) none of these 11.0532 (d) 54. Kc = 0.15 mol/L 15. calculate the equilibrium concentration of NO in mol/L (a) 0. Consider the reaction: N2(g) + O2(g) 2NO(g) Kc = 0.34 x 10-3 M 8. The concentration of HI in the tube at equilibrium was found to be 0.10 mol/L 9.146 (c) 0.040 for the system below at 450oC.87 mol/L (d) 0.050 mol/L of O2.11 M (d) 0. NOCl.030 M (d) 0.500 M How many moles of A must be added to increase the concentration of C to 0.50 gram sample of pure NOCl is heated at 350oC in a volume of 1. more H2 and I2 will be produced. After equilibrium is reached.305 mol (c) 0. the concentration of SO3 is 0.37 mol/L (b) 0.10 moles of A and 0. 6.70 atm.10 at 2000oC Starting with initial concentrations of 0. heated to 425oC and held at this temperature until equilibrium was reached.55 x M (b) 1. NOCl(g) (a) 0.20 moles of A. (a) 7.40 mole of PCl3 in a 2.40 moles of C and 0. dissociates on heating as shown below.0 liter container was found to contain 0. what is the equilibrium concentration of Cl2 in the same system? PCl5(g) (a) 0. B: 10.700 M at 200oC? (a) 0.10 moles of B are added to this system.040 mol/L of O2. The reversible reaction: 2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g) has come to equilibrium in a vessel of specific volume at a given temperature.0055 mol/L (b) 0. a 1. If 0. For the gas-phase reaction.6 at 425oC NO(g) + 1/2 Cl2(g) 12. which of the following changes will decrease the equilibrium amount of H2O? (a) adding more oxygen (b) adding a solid phase calalyst (c) decreasing the volume of the container (the total pressure increases) (d) increasing the temperature at constant pressure (e) adding He gas The conventional equilibrium constant expression (Kc) for the system below is: 2ICl(s) (a) [I2][Cl2]/[ICl]2 (b) [I2][Cl2]/2[ICl] (c) [Cl2] (d) ([I2] + [Cl2])/2[ICl] (e) [Cl2]/[ICl]2 13.010 M (b) 0.011 mol/L (d) 0. Kc = 0.40 mole of Cl2 and 0. Nitrosyl chloride.040 for the system below at 450oC: C(g) + D(g) I2(s) + Cl2(g) (a) 9.78 x 10-3 M (e) 2. 0.20 moles of B.107 (d) 1. the concentrations of the reactants were 0. Consider the following system in a 1.060 mol/L of SO2 and 0.610 mol (e) 0. (e) Qc is greater than Kc.876 (b) 9. more HI will be produced.07 M (b) 0.26 (c) 0.0706 mol/L.75 x 10-4 (e) 0. the percent dissociation is found to be 57. H2 + I2 10-3 2HI Kc = 54.00 M [C] = 0.40 mole of D.47 mol/L (c) 0.26 M 10.417 mol (d) 0.0 liter container. When a 1.700 mol 16. Evaluate Kp for this reaction. Calculate Kc for the reaction as written.5 (e) 121 17.17 x 10-3 M (c) 1. Consider the gas-phase equilibrium system represented by the equation: PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) [A] = 0.020 M (c) 0. Before the reaction began.94 x 10-3 (b) 0.60 atm.1 atm. C: 3.0096 mol/L (c) 0.(d) Qc is greater than Kc. A quantity of HI was sealed in a tube.23 mol/L (e) 0.040 mol/L.00 liter. 0.16 M (c) 0. Calculate the equilibirum concentration of H2 (and I2). If a reaction is initiated with 0.080 mol/L (e) 0.2%.0421 7.04 M (e) 0.

which of the following statements can be made about K. In a sample of pure water.68 (c) 2.8 kJ at 100oC? (a) 1. (b) 5. (b) 19. (d) 15.87 (d) 1. Which salt is not derived from a strong acid and a strong soluble base? (a) MgCl2 (b) Ba(NO3)2 (c) LiClO4 (d) CsBr (e) NaI 3. What is the [H+] for this solution? (a) 2. (e) 2.02 M solution of an unknown weak acid is 3.3 J 20.5 (c) 5. (a) 0. (d) 12.8 Answers to Chapter 17 1.96 (d) 3. acidic (b) 6.7 (b) 4.0 (e) [H3O+] = [OH-] 5.7 x 10-4 18.8 (d) 9.2 (b) 4.050 M solution of Ba(OH)2 is: (a) 1. (e) It may be changed by the addition of a catalyst.2 x 10-8 7. (a) 17. Which one of the following is a strong electrolyte? (a) H2O (b) KF (c) HF (d) HNO2 .8 (e) 8.0 (d) pOH = 7. If Kw is 2. the equilibrium constant? (a) It always remains the same at different reaction conditions.0 x 10-2 M (c) 1. basic (d) -8. What is the concentration of hydroxide ions in this solution? (a) 4. (c) 9. (b) 6. Which one of the following is a weak acid? (a) HNO3 (b) HI (c) HBr (d) HF (e) HClO3 2. only one of the following statements is always true at all conditions of temperature and pressure. (c) 7. (b) 3. A solution in which [H+] = 10-8 M has a pH of ___ and is ___.04 (b) 9.40 (b) 0.53 (e) none of these 6. (a) 10.0 x 10-7 M (b) [OH-] = 1.7.64 (c) 2. (a) 8.72 (b) 7. What is the approximate pH of a solution labeled 6 x 10-5 M HBr? (a) 4.0 x 10-3 (b) 2.2 (d) 2.00 (c) 7. neutral (e) 8. (c) 18.0 x 10-8 M 11.0 x 10-7 M (c) pH = 7.0 x 10-12 (e) 6.9 x 10-15 at 10oC.052 (e) 6. The pH of a 0. Calculate the value of Go for the reaction at 427o.9 (c) 3.1 x 105 (c) -5.3 x 10-10 M (e) 2. (a) -33 kJ (b) -54 kJ (c) 54 kJ (d) 33 kJ (e) 1.80. 1. (c) It changes with changes in the temperature.01 (b) 7. (d) It increases if the concentration of one of the reactants is increased.6 x 10-12 M (d) 6.0124 grams of Ca(OH)2? (a) 11. (b) It increases if the concentration of one of the products is increased. (c) 13.30.5 x 10-3 (c) 5. The equilibrium constant at 427oC for the reaction: N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) is Kp = 9.4 x 10-6 (e) 13. what is the pKa of this acid? (a) 5. (c) 20. (e) (CH3)3N 4.4 (d) 0.0 x 10-13 M (d) 5. basic (c) -6. (b) 16.27 (d) 7.6 x 10-5 M (c) 3.83 The pH of a solution is 4.4 x 10-5. For a specific reaction. Which one is always true? (a) [H3O+] = 1.PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) Evaluate Kp for the reaction at 450oC.17 (e) 10. What is the pH of 500 mL of solution containing 0. (a) 8. (c) 10. what is the pH of pure water at 10oC? (a) 6.0 x 10-10 M (e) 2.2 9. What is the equilibrium constant for a reaction that has a value of Go = -41.0 x 10-12 (d) 4. (b) 4.2 x 10-9 M (b) 1.0 x 10-5 M 8.5 19. basic 12. The [H3O+] in a 0. (c) 11.0 x 10-5 M (b) 5. The pOH of a solution of NaOH is 11. (c) 14.

18 (b) 5. (d) 11. What is the percent ionization of an 1.84 % (d) 0.9 (c) 4. (a) 18.5 (b) 10. Which of the following is true about a 0. What is the percent hydrolysis? (a) 0. Which of the following solutions has the lowest pH at 25oC? (No calculations required. Which of the following weak acids ionizes to give the strongest conjugate base? (a) HClO (b) CH3COOH (c) HF (d) HNO2 (e) HCN 19.63 Consider a solution which is 0.050 M HClO? (a) 5.52 (e) 7.2 M ammonia (d) 0. What is the concentration of a sodium acetate solution if the pH of the solution is 9.6 14.1 M (d) 0. (a) Which of the following combinations cannot produce a buffer solution? (a) HNO2 and NaNO2 (b) HCN and NaCN (c) HClO4 and NaClO4 (d) NH3 and (NH4)2SO4 (e) NH3 and NH4Br 2.35 24.082 % (e) 0.62 (c) 8. (a) 7.18 (d) 5. (d) 2. (b) 23.48 (c) 1.30 M (CH3)3N? (a) 9. Calculate the pH of a 0.0094 % (d) 0. (c) 6.34.7 (e) 12. (e) 19.8 (c) 9.10 M (b) pH = 1 (c) [HX] > [H+] (d) [H+] = 0. .45 M (d) 0.19? (a) 0.5 x 10-5 (b) 1.20 M NH3 and 0.30 M (c) 0.89 3.43 M (c) 2. What is the pH of a solution composed of 0. is 5. (d) 15.10 M solution of a weak acid. (e) 17.28 (b) 0. (a) 21. Which of the following statements is true? 20. (c) 14.50 M solution of NaNO2.15 M 25.8 x 10-9 (b) 6. Evaluate Ka for the acid. (d) 22. a salt.24 (e) 5.5 x 10-7 (c) 7.0 x 10-6 (d) 4.2 M benzoic acid (e) pure water 16. HX. (a) 12. HX? (a) [X-] = 0.82 (d) 8. A 0.060 M NH4Cl? (a) 5.4 (d) 2. The pH of 0.10 M solution of a weak acid.00? (a) 0. (a) 13.10 M in CH3COOH and 0.(e) 3. CN-.011 % (e) 0. What is the approximate pH of a solution labeled 0.26 (d) 9. (c) 20.2 x 10-6 (e) 3. (b) 4. (d) 16. What is the concentration of ammonium chloride in a solution if its pH is 4. (d) 24.) (a) 0.10 M (e) both b and d Calculate the hydrolysis constant for the cyanide ion.0 x 10-10 (d) 5.15 M NH4Cl? (a) 2.30 M (b) 0.6 x 10-10 (e) none of these 21.22 % 18.0031 % (b) 0.2 (d) 11.15 (b) 4.00 22.2 % (c) 0.80? (a) 0. What is the pH of a solution labeled 0.12 (c) 5.2 M HF solution? (a) 2. is 0.4 % (b) 4.15 M trimethylammonium chloride. 23. (a) 3.06 (b) 5. (e) 10.25 M (b) 0. (c) 25.068 M (e) 0.0068 % (c) 0.059% ionized. (a) 9.0 x 10-7 (c) 4. 4.60 M (e) 0. (e) 5. Calculate the ratio [CH3COOH]/[NaCH3COO] that gives a solution with pH = 5.5 x 10-8 17. (e) 12. (c) 8.1 (e) 7.59 M What is the pH of 0.7 13.022 % Answers to Chapter 18 1. (a) 3. (a) 2.2 M hypochlorous acid (c) 0.1 (b) 3.2 M sodium hydroxide (b) 0. (CH3)3NHCl.38 (e) 8.36 (c) 0.2 15. 1.56 (e) 0.44 (d) 0.20 M in NaCH3COO.

96 (b) 9. How many grams of NaF would have to be added to 2. (a) 2.20 8. (3) At pH = 7. the pH increases.100 M NaOH to 30. (d) If HCl is added.32 (d) 3.) (4) At pH = 7.4 . (6) BaCl2 less than 7 equal to 7 equal to 7 less than 7 greater than 7. 3.2 (c) 7. (Hint: Write the equilibrium constant expression for the indicator.57 6.31 (d) 9.00 M NaOH.11 (e) 9.35 (b) 1. 8 (b) 3.0 mL of 1.00. (5) The pH at which the indicator changes color is pH = 4.5 (e) 4.8 8.0 mL of 0.12 (c) 1. For which pair is the pH at the equivalence point stated incorrectly? Acid-Base Pair pH at Equiv (a) HCl + NH3 (b) HNO3 + Ca(OH)2 (c) HClO4 + NaOH (d) HClO + NaOH (e) CH3COOH + KOH 12. Consider an indicator that ionized as shown below for which its Ka = 1.00 mole of ammonia and 1. 7.7.00. 5 (d) 1.9 g (e) 60. (c) If a small amount of HCl is added.20 M hydrochloric acid? (a) 2. What is the approximate pH of a solution prepared by mixing equal volumes of 0.2.05 M methylamine and 0.58 (d) 3.5 (e) 9. the OH.44 (e) 3.53 14. (e) If more CH3COOH is added.80 10. 4.6 6. 5 (e) another combination M sodium formate (3) 110 mL of water (a) 3. 5 (b) 2.10 M KOH.8 15. 4.95 (d) 2.11 (c) 4. Calculate the pH of the solution resulting from the addition of 20.0 x 10-4 HIn + H2O H3O+ + Inyellow red Which of the responses contains all the true statements and no others? (1) The predominant color in its acid range is yellow.5 .100 M HNO3. a solution containing this indicator (and no other colored species) will be red. (a) 1. 6 16.00? (a) 300 g (b) 36 g (c) 0. Calculate the pH of a solution prepared by mixing 300 mL of 0.64 (b) 3.20 M formic acid (2) 55 mL of 0.20 M ammonia with 0. 4 (c) 3.10 M HF and 200 mL of 0.63 (d) 10.0 mL of 0. (3) NH4N (7) NaCN . 2. g Calculate the pH that results when the following solutions are mixed.00 mole of ammonium chloride to form an aqueous solution with a total volume of 1.0 (d) 5. Which of the following salts give acidic aqueous solutions? (1) KNO3 (2) KCH3COO (5) (NH4)2SO4 (a) 2.96 (c) 3.84 g (d) 6. 6 (d) 1.00 L of 0.6 (b) 5. A buffer was prepared by mixing 1. (a) 1. the pH decreases very slightly. (1) 35 mL of 0. (2) In the middle of the pH range of its color change a solution containing the indicator will probably be orange.8 3. 3.39 (e) 4.70 (c) 1.0 mL of 0.57 (b) 1. 5. 5 (c) 2.10 M hydrochloric acid? (a) 4.2 . Which indicator (identified by a letter) could be used to titrate aqueous NH3 with HCl solution? Indicator Acid Range Color Color-Change pH (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 11.83 (c) 9. The following titration curve is the kind of curve expected for the titration of a ____ acid with a ____ base. What is the pH of this solution? (a) 8. What is the pH at the equivalence point in the titration of 100. pink blue yellow colorless none of these 1.82 (b) 2.3 .00 liter. 7. the pH decreases very slightly.ions react with the CH3COO. (b) If NaOH is added.9 Consider the titrations of the pairs of aqueous acids and bases listed on the left.100 M HF to yield a solution with a pH = 4.ions. 8 (e) 1. 4.52 (e) 2. most of the indicator is in the unionized form.(a) If a small amount of NaOH is added. the H+ ions react with CH3COOH ions. To 500 mL of this solution was added 30. 4.9 13.

Sn(OH)2. Which of the following pairs of compounds gives a precipitate when aqueous solutions of them are mixed? Assume that the concentrations of all compounds are 1.17 x 10-3 M at a certain temperature. (a) 8. using x to represent the molar concentration of silver(I) and y to represent the molar concentration of sulfide. The solubility product expression for tin(II) hydroxide. and will continue to precipitate until Qsp _____ Ksp.0 x 10-12 2. (e) 7.4 x 10-5 5. . (b) 13.5 x 10-5 M 11. (b) 15. or (d) is not different 10.1 x 10-8 (d) 3. Ag3PO4 would be least soluble at 25oC in (a) 0. weak (e) none of these 17. 1. equals (d) equals.5 x 10-7 (c) 8. What is the molar solubility.20 M nitrous acid by adding 0. Ksp = 1.4 x 10-7 M (c) 2. Consider the titration of 30.6 x 10-19.) (a) greater than 7 (b) equal to 7 (c) less than 7 (d) cannot be determined without more data (not including Ka and Kb) (e) is impossible to predict 7. (b) 11. equals (b) is less than.7 x 10-4 M (b) 9. is formulated as: (a) xy (b) x2y (c) xy2 (d) x2y2 (e) xy3 3.0 mL of 0. is greater than 12.6 x 10-4 6. If PbSO4 were used in an unglazed ceramic bowl. The pH at the equivalence point is _____.4 x 10-7 M (b) 6.7 x 10-11 M (d) 5.20 M Pb(NO3)2 solution is: (a) 1. (c). strong (c) strong.1 M AgNO3 (b) 0.4 x 10-6 (e) 1.4 g per 100 mL.1 M Na3PO4 (e) solubility in (a). (c) 2.(b) 6.1 M HNO3 (c) pure water (d) 0. Consider the following solubility data for various chromates at 25oC. Calculate Ksp for PbBr2. (d) 3. weak (d) weak. The solubility of silver sulfate in water at 100oC is approximately 1. What is the molar solubility of Cu(OH)2? (a) 3. (a) 17.2 x 10-3 M (c) 1.7 x 10-5 M (d) 4. how many milligrams of lead(II) could dissolve per liter of water? (a) 43 (b) 35 (c) 11 (d) 28 (e) 53 9. s. the salt will precipitate if Qsp _____ Ksp. (c) Many lead salts are often used as pigments. (c) 6. (b) 10.4 x 10-7 (c) 4. When we mix together.6 x 10-3 M (e) 8. from separate sources. strong (b) weak.8 x 10-14 The chromate that is the most soluble in water at 25oC on a molar basis is: (a) Ag2CrO4 (b) BaCrO4 (c) PbCrO4 (d) impossible to determine (e) none of these The molar solubility of PbBr2 is 2.1 x 10-5 (e) 3. The molar solubility of PbCl2 in 0.0 x 10-10 1.0500 M aqueous ammonia to it. (c) 5.0 M immediately after mixing. is (a) [Sn2+][OH-] (b) [Sn2+]2[OH-] (c) [Sn2+][OH-]2 (d) [Sn2+]3[OH-] (e) [Sn2+][OH-]3 2.3 x 10-6 (d) 4. (b) 16. What is the solubility product of this salt at 100oC? (a) 5. Answers to Chapter 19 1.2 x 10-6 4. of Ba3(PO4)2 in terms of Ksp? (a) s = Ksp1/2 (b) s = Ksp1/5 (c) s = [Ksp/27]1/5 (d) s = [Ksp/108]1/5 (e) s = [Ksp/4]5 For Cu(OH)2. (a) CuBr2 and K2CO3 (b) HNO3 and NH4I (c) BaCl2 and KClO4 (a) strong.7 x 10-8 (b) 3. (a) is greater than. is greater than (c) is less than. the ions of a slightly soluble ionic salt. (b).1 x 10-10 M (e) 1. is less than (e) equals. Ksp Ag2CrO4 BaCrO4 PbCrO4 9. (Note: This is the titration of a weak acid with a weak base. (d) 4. (d) 9. (a) 6. (d) 12.7 x 10-10 M 8. The solubility product expression for silver(I) sulfide. (d) 14.

7 g (e) 6.0 g 6.25 amperes flowing for 10 hours? (a) 12 g (b) 5.9 (d) 10.55 L (b) 0. (b) All electrochemical reactions involve the transfer of electrons. oxidation (d) cathode. A swimming pool was sufficiently alkaline so that CO2 absorbed from the air produced in the pool a solution which was 2 x 10-4 M in CO32. 4. CaCO3 and FeCO3 14.6 16. the . A solution is 0.8 x 10-7 M (d) 3. 6. What is the concentration of Au+ ions at this point? Ksp for AgCl = 1. (e) 1. reduction (c) cathode. The half-reaction that occurs at the anode during the electrolysis of molten sodium bromide is: (a) 2 BrBr2 + 2 e(b) Br2 + 2 e2 Br(c) Na+ + eNa (d) Na Na+ + e(e) 2 H2O + 2 e2 OH.0 (c) 6.M.40 amperes.0 hours with a current of 0. Which of the following statements is FALSE? (a) Oxidation and reduction half-reactions occur at electrodes in electrochemical cells.+ H2 During the electrolysis of aqueous KCl solution using inert electrodes.84 L (d) 0. 3.63 L (c) 0. (e) 6. reduction (e) cannot tell unless we know the species being oxidized and reduced.0 x 10-4 M (e) 1. 9 (b) 1. (c) 5.5 (e) 9. oxidation (b) anode. (d) 14.4 (e) 4. precipitation should occur only for: (a) 2 x 10-3 M Mg2+ + 2 x 10-3 M OH(b) 2 x 10-1 M Ba2+ + 2 x 10-3 M F(c) 2 x 10-3 M Ca2+ + 2 x 10-2 M OH(d) 2 x 10-3 M Ca2+ + 2 x 10-3 M OH(e) 2 x 10-4 M Pb2+ + 2 x 10-5 M SO42At what pH will Cu(OH)2 start to precipitate from a solution with [Cu2+] = 0.0 x 10-13.1 x 10-6 M chemical change that occurs at this electrode is called _______. gaseous hydrogen is evolved at one electrode and gaseous chlorine at the other electrode. 10 5. (a) 4.8 x 10-10 and for AuCl = 2. 9 (d) 1. then a precipitate should form of: (a) only MgCO3 (b) only CaCO3 (c) only FeCO3 (d) only CaCO3 and FeCO3 (e) MgCO3. (a) 2. 7. 5. (d) Oxidation occurs at the anode. (b) 3. In an electrolytic cell the electrode at which the electrons enter the solution is called the ______ . 9 (c) 2. If the pool water was originally 4 x 10-3 M in Mg2+. (c) 16.0015 M? (a) 9. When equal volumes of the solutions indicated are mixed. Molten AlCl3 is electrolyzed for 5. 6 x 10-4 M in Ca2+ and 8 x 10-7 M in Fe2+.001 M Pb(NO3)2 and 0. (c) 18.0 x 10-10 M (b) 4. Cl2. Metallic aluminum is produced at one electrode and chlorine gas. What mass (in grams) of nickel could be electroplated from a solution of nickel(II) chloride by a current of 0. 6.5 x 10-7 M (c) 1. (a) 10. What is the pH of a saturated solution of Mg(OH)2? (a) 3. 2. (e) All voltaic (galvanic) cells involve the use of electricity to initiate nonspontaneous chemical reactions.0010 M in both Ag+ and Au+.(d) Na2CO3 and H2SO4 (e) KCl and KNO3 13. 8. Which of the following responses describe or are applicable to the cathode and the reaction that occurs at the cathode? (1) the positive electrode (3) 2 Cl(5) 2 H2O Cl2 + 2 eO2 + 4 H+ + 4 e- 15. (8) ele circuit (10) re Answers to Chapter 20 1. How many liters of Cl2 measured at STP are produced when the electrode efficiency is only 65%? (a) 0.5 g (c) 0.02 L 7.5 (b) 10. Which solid will precipitate first if an aqueous solution of Na2CrO4 at 25oC is slowly added to an aqueous solution containing 0. (2) the (4) Cl2 (6) 2 H (7) electrons flow from the electrode to the external circuit (9) oxidation (a) 2. (a) 8. 6. (a) 15. (d) 17.100 M Ba(NO3)2 at 25oC? (a) BaCrO4(s) (b) NaNO3(s) (c) PbCrO4(s) (d) Pb(NO3)2(s) (e) none of these 18. (d) 9. 7. The solution around the electrode at which hydrogen gas is evolved becomes basic as the electrolysis proceeds. (d) 11.98 L (e) 1. (a) anode.0 (b) 8. 10 (e) 2. (a) 12. (a) 13. Some solid NaCl is added slowly until the solid AgCl just begins to precipitate. (c) 2. is produced at the other.046 g (d) 2. 5.1 (c) 10. (c) Reduction occurs at the cathode.0 (d) 9. 8. 8.2 17. (d) 7.

66 V ? (a) -1.66 V (e) -1.) (a) +26. (d) The mass of the zinc electrode will decrease as the cell operates. in hours. calculate the potential of the cell. As the cell given below operates.4 (b) 5. If the concentrations of the two Cu2+ solutions are 1.00 (b) 1. (a) is not necessary in order for the cell to work (b) acts as a mechanism to allow mechanical mixing of the solutions (c) allows charge balance to be maintained in the cell (d) is tightly plugged with firm agar gel through which ions cannot pass (e) drives free electrons from one half-cell to the other 21. Calculate the potential (in volts) for the voltaic (or galvanic) cell indicated at 25oC.68 V (d) -1.50 V (b) 1.250 10. Which of the following is the strongest oxidizing agent? (a) Pb2+ (b) I2 (c) Ag+ (d) Pb (e) Cu2+ 11. What is Go per mole of dichromate ions for the reduction of dichromate ions. to Cr3+ by bromide ions.0 amperes be maintained to electroplate 60 g of calcium from molten CaCl2? (a) 27 hours (b) 8.3 kJ (b) -145 kJ (c) +145 kJ (d) -26.9 hours 8. if [Al3+] = 0. What is the reduction potential for the half-reaction at 25o C: Al3+ + 3eAl.00 g of aluminum(III) to the aluminum metal? (a) 1. the salt bridge _______ .Ag+ (1.(0. 20.44 V (b) Au.010 M) + 8H+ (0.45 V (d) 1.Au3+. 17.4 9.030 V (d) 1.0 M and 0. such as those diagrammed in your text.0 M) half-cells. -0. Which of the following statements is(are) true for all voltaic (or galvanic) cells? (I) Reduction occurs at the cathode.4 (c) 16.97 V (c) 1.2 V (c) 0.72 V What is the value of E for the half-cell: MnO4.2 (e) 12.06 V (d) Au.How long (in hours) must a current of 5.Zn2+ (1. which of the following statements is incorrect? (a) The zinc electrode is the anode. (a) 0. Estimate the equilibrium constant for the system indicated at 25oC.06 V (e) Fe.37 V A concentration cell is constructed by placing identical Cu electrodes in two Cu2+ solutions. Which answer identifies the cathode and gives the Eo for the cell? (a) Fe.21 V (e) 1.60 V (c) -1.94 V (c) Fe.0 V (e) 0.111 (e) 0.020 V (b) 1. using an average current of 10 amperes at an 80% electrode efficiency? (a) 8.Fe2+ versus Au. while the strip of lead loses mass and the concentration of lead increases in the solution around the lead strip. (c) Reduction occurs at the zinc electrode as the cell operates.0 M) / Ag (a) Pb2+ + 2 ePb (b) Pb Pb2+ + 2 e(c) Ag+ + eAg + (d) Ag Ag + e(e) none of the above For a voltaic (or galvanic) cell using Ag.3 kJ (e) -53. 1. Consider the standard voltaic (or galvanic) cell: Fe.20 M) + 5eM) + 4H2O ? (a) 1. in acidic solution? (Hint: Use the standard cell potential. ~1069 3Mg + 2Al3+ Mn2+ (0. Which of the following represents the reaction that occurs at the negative electrode in the above cell? Pb / Pb(NO3)2 (1. Br-.6 kJ 19. Cr2O72-.94 V 14.58 V (e) 1.44 V (d) 1. .86 V (c) 1. (e) The concentration of Ag+ will decrease as the cell operates. the strip of silver gains mass (only silver) and the concentration of silver ions in the solution around the silver strip decreases. How many faradays are required to reduce 1.50 (c) 3.84 V (b) -1.29 V (b) 0. 13.00 (d) 0. Ga / Ga3+ (10-6 M) || Ag+ (10-4 M) / Ag (a) 1.3 hours (c) 11 hours (d) 16 hours (e) 5.8 (d) 11. 1.0 M) and Zn.0020 M. would be required for the electroplating of 78 g of platinum from a solution of [PtCl6]2-.080 V 18. 1. (b) Electrons will flow through the external circuit from the zinc electrode to the silver electrode.52 V 16. 15.0 M) || AgNO3 (1. 3 Mg2+ + 2Al (a) (b) ~1023 (c) ~10-24 (d) ~10-36 (e) ~10-72 In voltaic cells.10 M and Eo = -1.020 12. 1. How long.

(a) 114 g (b) 1030 g (c) 258 g (d) 172 g (e) 544 g 9. (e) 5. (d) They are excellent conductors of heat and electricity. oceans (c) salt beds.35 grams (d) 0. (c) 11. (b) 8. sulfate (e) phosphate.2 x 1012 coulombs (e) 5.' a(n) _____ is chemically converted to a(n) _____. Soluble metal compounds tend to be found in the _____. Which metal can be found as the free element? (a) Na (b) Mn (c) Fe (d) Cr (e) Pt The Hall-Heroult process is used in the production of: (a) Mg (b) Fe (c) Al (d) Au 1. (e) 3. (c) 9. (a) 4. (a) sulfide. (a) only III (b) only II (c) only I (d) II and III (e) I. . In the standard notation for a voltaic cell. (d) 1. whereas insoluble metal compounds tend to be found in the _____ . (c) 21.1% (c) 27. (b) Their atomic radii increases with increasing molecular weight. II.5 grams 7. (a) 3.1% 8. oceans 3. (c) They are named the alkaline earth metals. (b) The active metals can occur in the free state while the less active metals occur in the combined state. (c) 5. (a) 1. (a) oceans. (e) They exhibit a +1 oxidation state in compounds. (d) 8. (c) Metals with positive reduction potentials can occur in the free state while metals with negative reduction potentials can occur in the combined state. (c) 6.0 x 109 coulombs (c) 7. (c) 2. Fe3O4. What is the weight percent iron in this ore? (a) 72.) (III) The voltage is less than or equal to zero.(II) The anode gains mass during discharge (note: this means operation of the cell. Cu3(CO3)2(OH)2? (a) 2+ (b) 1+ (c) 0 (d) 1(e) 2How many coulombs of electricity are required to produce one metric ton (1000 kg) of magnesium? There are 96.3% (b) 20. How much magnesium can be obtained from one pound of seawater if the concentration of Mg2+ is 0. 2. Some metals are found in the uncombined free state while other metals are found in the combined state. Answers to Chapter 22 1. silvery corrosive metals. salt beds (e) rivers. (d) 7. (b) 19. earth's crust (b) earth's crust.3 grams (c) 0. (b) 14. (c) 13. (e) 5.8% (d) 16. A reaction sequence for the reduction of one of the iron ores is as follows: 2 C(coke) + O2 2 CO Fe2O3 + 3 CO 2 Fe + 3 CO2 Calculate the amount of coke necessary to produce 800 g of Fe.8 pounds of magnetite. (b) 9. (e) 18. 10.7 grams (b) 1. oceans (d) oceans. (a) 4. oxide (b) carbonate. oxide (c) hydroxide. (c) 16. In the process known as 'roasting.500 coulombs in one faraday. (d) 2. What is a deciding factor? (a) Metals with negative reduction potentials can occur in the free state while metals with positive reduction potentials occur in the combined state. (d) 6. the double vertical line "||" represents: (a) a phase boundary (b) gas electrode (c) a wire (metal) connection (d) a salt bridge (e) a standard hydrogen electrode (e) Cu 6. (e) none of the above 2.7% (e) 23. MgCl2 Mg(l) + Cl2 (a) 4. For every 100 pounds of iron ore there are 27. (d) 10.13 weight percent? Assume 100% recovery.3 x 108 coulombs Answers to Chapter 21 1. and III 22. (d) 17. What is the charge on the copper ion in the mineral azurite. (c) 22. phosphide 4.0 x 109 coulombs (b) 2. (d) There is no way we can predict which metals will be free or combined. (a) 7.59 grams (e) 2.9 x 109 coulombs (d) 1. (a) 10. (b) 12. oxide (d) oxide. Which of the following is NOT true for the Group 1A elements? (a) Most of them are soft. (e) 20. (c) 15.

HX? (a) Their aqueous solutions are acidic. Of the following oxides. Chlorine gas is prepared commercially by: (a) electrolysis of carbon tetrachloride. (b) 6. (c) 2. (b) Na2O. Which of the following substances is the strongest reducing agent? (a) Cl2 (b) Cl(c) Br2 (d) Br(e) I2 4. (d) Their compounds with metals are generally ionic in nature.10% (c) 12. Which of the following is NOT true for the halogens? (a) They are nonmetals.84% (b) 9. which one possesses the greatest acid strength in water? (a) HClO4 (b) H2CO3 (c) H3BO3 (d) HClO (e) HBrO 7. Some element groups of the periodic table are more likely to contain elements that are gases than other groups. 1.3% (d) 15. Which element group is the most reactive of all the metallic elements? (a) alkali metals (b) alkaline earth metals (c) coinage metals (d) transition metals (e) Group 2B metals In a surprisingly large number of their properties beryllium resembles aluminum. (c) The electronic configuration of their outermost electrons is ns2 np6. What is the electron configuration of Mn3+ ion? (a) [Ar] 4s2 3d10 (b) [Ar] 4s2 3d2 (c) [Ar] 3d5 (d) [Ar] 3d4 (e) [Ar] 4d1 3d3 11. (e) Elemental halogens exist as diatomic molecules. 3. (c) 7.0oC and 742 torr. . (c) 4. (d) 11. (b) They show the -1 oxidation number in most of their compounds. Which of the following groups contains the greatest number of gaseous elements? (a) IA (b) IIA (c) IVA (d) VIA (e) VIII (or 0) 2.3. (c) electrolysis of NaCl(aq). What mass of lithium nitride could be formed from 104 g of lithium and excess nitrogen gas? (a) 35 g (b) 60 g (c) 105 g (d) 140 g (e) 174 g 8. 6. the most basic is: (a) MgO. (d) 9. (e) HF exhibits hydrogen bonding. Such a relationship is called: (a) amphoterism (b) an allotropic relationship (c) a diagonal relationship (d) the periodic law (e) an isoelectronic series The nitrate of which of the following cations would exhibit paramagnetism to the GREATEST extent? (a) Co3+ (b) Cr3+ (c) Fe3+ (d) Mn3+ (e) V3+ Answers to Chapter 23 1. and boron resembles silicon. (e) 8. (b) HF has the lowest of the H-X bond energies. 6. (b) 5. Which of the following properties of the alkaline earth metals decreases with increasing atomic weight? (a) ionic radii (b) ionization energy (c) atomic radii (d) activity (e) atomic number 5. The most abundant metal in the earth's crust is: (a) Cu (b) Fe (c) Na (d) Al (e) Ca Which element has the electron configuration [Ar] 3d7 4s2? (a) Fe (b) Co (c) Cr (d) Ti (e) Zn 10. ___ double bonds and ___ lone pairs of electrons. (e) electrolysis of AlCl3(aq).6% 7. (c) 4. (d) oxidation of chloride ion with Br2(aq). (c) HI is the largest.0 L of CO2 was collected at 50. 5.8% (e) 20. Draw the correct Lewis formula for chlorous acid. 9. The structure contains ___ single bonds. Which one of the following does not correctly describe one or all of the hydrogen halides. (c) P2O3. Of the oxyacids listed below. A 300 g sample of CaCO3 was heated until 10. (d) HCl has the lowest boiling point. (b) 10. (a) 3. (e) SO2. (d) BeO. What percentage of the CaCO3 had decomposed? (a) 6. (b) oxidation of chloride ion with F2(g).

(b) 8. (d) H2Po has the lowest boiling point. 13. (a) 1. (b) 14. the correct method is to add sulfuric acid to water. the donor atom of a ligand is (a) a Lewis acid. (c) 3.sulfurous acid (e) TeO2 . (b) 6. 7 (c) 1. (b) The electronegativity of Group VIA elements decreases as one goes down the group. Which statement about the Group VIA elements is false? (a) All have an outer electronic configuration of ns2 np4. In which one of the following is the oxidation state of nitrogen given incorrectly? (a) N2O3. +3 (e) H2N2O2. 1. (d) It is often present in acid rain. (e) During the dilution of sulfuric acid. (d) 11. (a) ligand (b) donor (c) oxidation (d) coordination (e) chelating 2. 10. 3. The ______ sphere is enclosed in brackets in formulas for complex species. (a) 7. K2[Cu(CN)4]. In coordination chemistry. What is the major mineral present in phosphate rock? (a) Ca3(PO4)2 (b) Na2HPO4 (c) Ca10(PO4)6F2 (d) NaH2PO4 (e) Ca10(PO4)6(OH)2 Answers to Chapter 24 1. (c) 13. (b) All are colorless. H2Se and H2Te are all gases at room temperature and atmospheric pressure. (b) 9. . (d) Oxygen has the highest boiling point and melting point.sulfuric acid (b) SeO2 .sulfuric acid (d) SO2 . What maximum mass of sulfuric acid can be produced from the sulfur contained in 100 kilograms of iron pyrite that is 75. (e) 16. 2. (c) The sulfur atom is sp2 hybridized. The Lewis acid is (a) [Pt(CN)4]2(b) Na+ (c) Pt (d) Pt2+ (e) CN4. 5 (b) 3. (b) the counter ion (c) the central metal atom. (b) 15. (c) 5. (d) 4.4 kg (b) 123 kg (c) 136 kg (d) 144 kg (e) 168 kg 14. +3 (b) N2H4. 5 (e) none of these 8. (e) Polonium has the smallest first ionization energy. (d) 10.0% FeS2? (a) 84. (e) 12. Consider the coordination compound. Which of the following has a pyramidal structure (molecular geometry)? (a) CBr4 (b) PF3 (c) BF3 (d) OF2 (e) BrCl 9. (c) Most are found in sulfide deposits.(a) 2. Which acid listed on the right cannot be obtained by adding water to the substance on the left? (a) H2S2O7 . (e) the atom in the ligand that accepts a share in an electron pair from the metal.selenous acid (c) SO3 . (e) All are covalent compounds. Which of the following statements about sulfuric acid is false? (a) It is a strong acid. Consider the coordination compound. A coordinate covalent bond exists between (a) K+ and CN(b) Cu2+ and CN(c) K+ and [Cu(CN)4]2(d) C and N in CN(e) K+ and Cu2+ Given the list of ligands and their corresponding names. (c) All except H2O are toxic. (e) 2. (c) 17. 4 (d) 2. Which compound gives photochemical smog a brownish color? (a) NO (b) HNO2 (c) NO2 (d) N2O4 (e) N2O3 17. Which of the following does not correctly describe ammonia? (a) pyramidal molecule (b) polar molecule (c) extremely soluble in water (d) forms basic aqueous solutions (e) none of these 16. (d) the atom in the ligand that shares an electron pair with the metal. Which statement about the Group VIA hydrides is false? (a) H2S. (b) One mole of sulfuric acid reacts completely with two moles of potassium hydroxide. +5 (d) NaNO2. +2 (c) HNO3. +1 15. Na2[Pt(CN)4]. 11. 1. and it includes the central metal ion plus the coordinated groups. 0. choose the pair that disagree. LIGAND NAME (a) OH(b) CNhydroxo cyanide 5.tellurous acid 12.

chloro aqua ammine 14. (b) Diamagnetic metal ions cannot have an odd FORMULA NAME number of electrons. It is octahedral. (b) [Zn(NH3)2Cl2] (tetrahedral) II. (d) [Co(NH3)5Cl]2+ (octahedral) IV. (c) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ (square planar) III. the hybridization of the metal's orbitals in complex? [Co(OH2)6]2+ is: (a) 0 3 (a) sp (b) 1 (b) sp2d (c) 2 (c) dsp2 (d) 4 3 2 (d) sp d (e) 6 (e) d2sp3 18. 13. (d) [Ni(CO)4] tetracarbonylnickel(0) (e) Ca[PtCl4] calcium tetrachloroplatinate(II) (e) Low spin complexes contain strong field ligands. the d electrons on a metal ion occupy the eg set of orbitals before they Which name-formula combination is NOT correct? occupy the t2g set of orbitals. (a) [Co(NH3)4(OH2)I]SO4 tetraammineaquaiodocobalt(III) sulfate (c) Low spin complexes can be paramagnetic. [Cu(OH2)6]2+ has one unpaired electron. and is relatively very small. V (a) geometrical isomerism (e) III. 12. (Crystal Field Theory) Which one of the following statements is FALSE? (a) In an octahedral crystal field. (a) 1. (b) K[Cr(NH3)2Cl4] potassium diamminetetrachlorochromate(III) (d) In high spin octahedral complexes. oct is less (c) [Mn(CN)5]2pentacyanomanganate(II) ion than the electron pairing energy. 10. IV (b) optical isomerism 19. Select the correct IUPAC name for: [Co(NH3)6]2+ (a) hexammoniacobaltate(II) ion (b) hexaamminecobaltate(II) ion (c) hexammoniacobalt(II) ion (d) hexaamminecobalt(II) ion (e) hexammoniacobalt ion 8. (3) The complex is d2sp3 hybridized. 2. The metal ion is a d5 ion. (e) coordination isomerism [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3.(c) Cl(d) H2O (e) NH3 6. (Valence Bond Theory) The coordination complex. dxz and dyz (c) +1 (c) dxz and dyz (d) +2 (d) dxz. The ligands are weak field ligands. Which of the following statements are true? (1) The complex is octahedral. IV image is said to exhibit which of the following? (d) II. [Cr(OH2)6]Cl3 and the yellow compound. IV. Which geometrical isomerism? response includes all the following statements that (a) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] (square planar) are true. Select the correct IUPAC name for: [FeF4(OH2)2](a) diaquatetrafluoroiron(III) ion (b) diaquatetrafluoroferrate(III) ion (c) diaquatetrafluoroiron(I) ion (d) diaquatetrafluoroferrate(I) ion (e) none of these 7. II (b) III. (a) I. (c) linkage isomerism (Crystal Field Theory) Consider the violet-colored (d) reactive isomerism compound. dyz and dz2 (e) +3 (e) dx2-y2 and dz2 17. 16. (2) The complex is an outer orbital complex. It is diamagnetic. (Valance Bond Theory) Magnetic measurements (Crystal Field Theory) How many unpaired electrons indicate that [Co(OH2)6]2+ has 3 unpaired electrons. It is a low spin complex. which orbitals are raised least [Pt(NH3)3Cl]Cl? in energy? (a) -1 (a) dxy and dx2-y2 (b) 0 (b) dxy. (4) The complex is diamagnetic. 11. (5) The coordination number is 6. Which of the following statements is false? In which one of the following species does the transition metal ion have d3 electronic configuration? (a) [Cr(NH3)6]3+ (b) [Co(OH2)6]2+ (c) [CoF6]3(d) [Fe(CN)6]3(e) [Ni(OH2)6]2+ . 5 (d) 2. 4 (b) 1. 3 (e) 4. 3. 5 15. 9. are there in a strong field iron(II) octahedral Therefore. 5 (c) 2. (Crystal Field Theory) When the valence d orbitals of What is the oxidation number of the central metal the central metal ion are split in energy in an atom in the coordination compound octahedral ligand field. and no false statements? I. V A molecule that cannot be superimposed on its mirror (c) I. (Crystal Field Theory) Consider the complex ion Which one of the following complexes can exhibit [Mn(OH2)6]2+ with 5 unpaired electrons. (e) [Cu(CN)2](linear) V.

(c) oct for [Cr(OH2)6]3+ is less than oct for [Cr(NH3)6]3+.69 x 1013 kJ/mol (d) 1. (d) 2. . Particle masses in amu are: proton = 1. A positron has a mass number of _____. (e) cannot form low spin complexes.39 MeV (e) 56.46 MeV (b) 6. electron (d) 1. (b) 15.007277. electron = 0. Emission of which one of the following leaves both atomic number and mass number unchanged? (a) positron (b) neutron (c) alpha particle (d) gamma radiation (e) beta particle Which type of radiation is the least penetrating? (a) alpha (b) beta (c) gamma (d) x-ray (e) neutron 10. Conversion factor for E = mc2 is 931 MeV/amu. a charge of _____. (c) usually produce low spin complexes and high crystal field splittings. 20. (a) 4He (b) 16O (c) 32S (d) 55Mn (e) 238U 6. (c) 1. (b) 17. (d) A solution of [Cr(OH2)6]Cl3 transmits light with an approximate wavelength range of 4000 . The mass defect for an isotope was found to be 0. (b) 5.23 MeV (d) 11.23 x 1020 kJ/mol (c) 3. 2. electron (e) 0. proton (c) 0. lies below the "band of stability: (n/p ratio too low).93 MeV (a) Both chromium metal ions are paramagnetic with 3 unpaired electrons. (d) 11. 1+. (b) 6. (a) 18.0005486. (c) n/p ratios that confer nuclear stability. (d) 3. (a) 14. Calculate the binding energy in kJ/mol of atoms. Which isotope below has the highest nuclear binding energy per gram? No calculation is necessary. for which the atomic mass is 9. (a) 6. proton 8. (d) 8. One would predict that it decays via _____. (1 J = 1 kg m2/s2) (a) 3. 35Ar. The actual mass of a 37Cl atom is 36.4200 angstroms.341 amu 9. (d) 10.23 x 1023 kJ/mol 4. (a) 16. A radioisotope of argon. (b) usually produce low spin complexes and small crystal field splittings.33 MeV (c) 6.01219 amu. 2+. 5. 0. neutron = 1. (b) numbers of protons and/or neutrons that confer nuclear stability. Calculate the mass defect (amu/atom) for a 37Cl atom. (b) 20.23 x 103 kJ/mol (e) 1.388 amu (c) 0. (a) 0. (b) 19. 1+. (d) Einstein postulated the Theory of Relativity in which he stated that matter and energy are equivalent. (d) atomic masses that confer nuclear stability.008665. proton (b) 1. Which of the following statements is incorrect? (a) Mass defect is the amount of matter that would be converted into energy if a nucleus were formed from initially separated protons and neutrons. (e) atomic masses that indicate fissile isotopes. (d) usually produce high spin complexes and high crystal field splittings. (a) neutron emission (b) beta emission Answers to Chapter 25 1.410 amu/atom. (c) 9. and a mass equal to that of a(an) _____.966 amu. (b) Nuclear binding energy is the energy released in the formation of an atom from subatomic particles. The "magic numbers" for atoms are (a) numbers of electrons that confer atomic stability. 7. (c) Nuclei with highest binding energies are the most stable nuclei. (e) Mass number is the sum of all protons and electrons in an atom.623 amu (b) 0. (e) The two complexes absorb their complementary colors.69 x 1010 kJ/mol (b) 1.(e) none of these 3. (Crystal Field Theory) Strong field ligands such as CN: (a) usually produce high spin complexes and small crystal field splittings. 2+. (a) 0. (b) oct for [Cr(NH3)6]3+ is calculated directly from the energy of yellow light. Calculate the binding energy per nucleon (in units of MeV) for 9Be. (a) 12. (b) 13. (d) 4.263 amu (d) 0. (b) 7.

Consider the case of a radioactive element X which decays by electron (beta) emission with a half-life of 4 days to a stable nuclide of element Z. a neutron is split into a proton and an electron. Which of the following describes what occurs in the fission process? (a) A heavy nucleus is fragmented into lighter ones. After 5. (c) 2. The missing term is _____ . (e) All nuclear fission reactions are spontaneous.1 yr (c) 25 yr (d) 37.0240 micrograms (e) 1.25 x 105 years? (a) 0.5 years. fission occurs and the products are three neutrons. (d) In fission reactions. 56Fe readily undergoes fission. (b) Nuclear fission is an energetically favorable process for heavy atoms. what is the immediate nuclear product? (a) 59Ni (b) 58Ni (c) 58Cu (d) 59Zn (e) 58Zn 24. (b) No new elements can be produced. How much of an initial 10.04 micrograms 13. When 235U is bombarded with one neutron. (a) 139Ba (b) 141Ba (c) 139Ce 15. the new isotope formed is: (a) 210At (b) 212At (c) 211Po (d) 211Rn (e) 207Bi 25. The half life of 231Pa is 3.0 g of element X is required to produce 1. (a) gas ionization detector (b) cloud chamber (c) fluorescence detector (d) spectrophotometer (e) photographic detector 12. how old is the Peruvian corn? The half-life of 14C is 5730 years. (c) Due to its instability. When 59Cu undergoes positron emission.25 x 104 years. What is the half-life of this isotope in seconds? (a) 87 (b) 110 (c) 164 (d) 264 (e) 2. Which one of the following statements about nuclear reactions is false? (a) Particles within the nucleus are involved. (c) Rate of reaction is independent of the presence of a catalyst. then element X has an atomic number equal to n-1. The 14C activity of some ancient Peruvian corn was found to be 10 disintegrations per minute per gram of C.0 minutes. As a result of the process of electron capture ("Kcapture") by 211At. A Geiger-Muller tube is a _____ .5 g of element Z after 8 days (to 2 significant figures). (b) Element Z will weigh exactly the same as element X when decay is complete (weighed to an infinite number of significant figures).5 yr (e) 50 yr 16. (b) A neutron is split into a neutron and proton. (d) If element X as an atomic number equal to n. What fraction of the initial number of C-11 atoms in a sample will have decayed away after 80 minutes? (a) 1/16 (b) 1/8 (c) 1/4 (d) 7/8 (e) 15/16 How old is a bottle of wine if the tritium (3H) content (called activity) is 25% that of a new wine? The halflife of tritium is 12. (d) A proton is split into three quarks. 20. (e) They are often accompanied by the release of enormous amounts of energy. Which one of the following would be most likely to undergo thermonuclear fusion? (a) 2H (b) 4He (c) 56Fe (d) 141Ba (e) 235U 21.(c) positron emission (d) alpha emission (e) fission 11.0102 micrograms (b) 0. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? (a) After 8 days the sample will consist of one-fourth element Z and three-fourths element X. (c) Two light nuclei are combined into a heavier one. .240 micrograms (c) 2. If present-day plant life shows 15 dpm/g. Complete and balance the following equation. Its halflife is 20 minutes. the counter registered 281 counts/second.40 microgram sample remains after 3. (a) 1455 years (b) 1910 years (c) 3350 years (d) 3820 years (e) 9080 years 18. (d) Rate of reaction is independent of temperature. 239Pu + alpha particle _____ + neutron (a) 2 115Ag (b) 2 106Rh (c) 235U (d) 233Pa (e) 242Cm 23. A Geiger counter registered 1000 counts/second from a sample that contained a radioactive isotope of polonium.18 17. 19. Carbon-11 is a radioactive isotope of carbon. 14. (e) None of the above. 22. and _____ . Which of the following statements about nuclear fission is always correct? (a) Very little energy is released in fission processes.18 micrograms (d) 0. 94Kr. (e) A particle and anti-particle appear in an area of high energy density. (a) 1/4 yr (b) 3.

Select the best name for: 5. What makes carbon such a unique element? (a) Elemental carbon comes in two forms. (a) 2-methyl-1-butene (b) 2-ethyl-1-propene (c) 2-ethyl-1-pentane (d) 3-methyl-2-butene (e) pentene 9.5. (a) 10. (c) 11.4-dimethylcyclopentane 7.3-dimethylbutane (c) 2. (a) 13. (c) Carbon forms covalent bonds rather than ionic bonds. (b) 2. although the ground state configuration would predict the formation of fewer bonds.1. (a) 21.5-dimethylcyclopentane (d) 2. Name the following compound: (a) 5-methyl-5-ethyloctane (b) 5-methyl-5-propylheptane (c) 4-ethyl-4-methyloctane (d) 3-methyl-3-propyloctane (e) 3-methyl-3-propylheptane Select the correct IUPAC name for: (a) 6-ethyl-4-methylcyclohexene (b) 6-ethyl-3-methylcyclohexene (c) 3-ethyl-5-methylcyclohexene (d) 6-ethyl-4-methylcyclohex-1-ene (e) 6. (b) 20. (a) 24. (e) 15. (e) 23. Select the correct IUPAC name for: (a) 4-ethyl-cis-3-octene (b) 4-ethyl-trans-3-octene (c) 4-butyl-cis-3-hexene (d) 5-ethyl-trans-5-octene (e) 5-ethyl-cis-5-octene 10. . (b) Carbon forms four bonds. (d) 6. (d) 3. diamond and graphite.4-dimethylhexane (d) 3. (c) 17. What is the IUPAC name of the following compound? The general formula for noncyclic alkenes is: (a) CnH2n+2 (b) CnH2n (c) CnH2n-2 (d) CnHn+2 (e) CnHn The correct name for the compound given below is: 8. (d) To a greater extent than any other element. carbon-12 and carbon-13. carbon can bond to itself to form straight chains. 2. (a) (a) 1. A molecule with the formula C3H8 is a(n): (a) hexane (b) propane (c) decane (d) butane (e) ethane 4. (d) 9.5-trimethylpentane 6. The hybridization of carbon atoms in alkanes is (a) sp (b) sp2 (c) sp3 (d) sp3d (e) sp3d2 3.(d) 139Xe (e) 142I Select the correct IUPAC name for: Answers to Chapter 26 1.5-dimethylhexane (e) 3. branched chains and rings. (c) 14. (c) 8. (a) 5.4-dimethylcyclopentane (b) 1. (e) 7. (a) 19. (e) Carbon has two stable isotopes. (c) 18.3-trimethylpentane (b) 1-ethyl-1. (c) 25. 11.3-dimethylcyclopentane (c) 2. (a) 12. 1. (c) 16.3-dimethylcyclopentane (e) 2.4-dialkylcyclohexene (a) 1. (a) 4. (b) 22.

What is the name of the following compound? (a) primary amine (b) secondary amine (c) tertiary amine (d) primary amide (e) secondary amide 22.5-dimethyl-4-hexanol (e) none of these (a) C8H10 (b) C6H6 (c) C6H8 (d) C8H12 (e) C8H6 13. Select the IUPAC name for: (CH3)2CHCH(OH)CH2C(CH3)3. carbon-carbon bonds in benzene are delocalized around the ring (b) 1 double bond (c) 2 double bonds (d) 3 double bonds (e) 4 double bonds 14.5-trimethyl-3-hexanol (b) 1.3-trimethylbutanoic acid (c) 1-hydroxy-2.3-dimethylbenzene (d) 1. (a) 2. boiling points of alcohols are much higher than those of corresponding alkanes. (a) 1. Select the best name for: . Which one of the following is a secondary alcohol? (a) 2.7-dimethyl-4-nonyne (e) 2. Give the IUPAC name of this compound: CH3OCH2CH3. The following chemical structure represents a molecule of what molecular formula? 19. Which is NOT a physical property of alcohols or phenols? (a) Phenols are generally only slightly soluble in water.3-diethylbenzene (c) 1. Para-xylene is the same as: (a) 1.1-dimethylisopentanol (d) 2.2-dimethylbenzene (b) 1. 15.4-dimethylpentanone (d) 2-carboxyisohexane (e) none of these 24. (c) The hydroxyl group of an alcohol is nonpolar.4-dimethylbenzene Which of the following formulas represents an alkene? (a) CH3CH2CH3 (b) CH3CH3 (c) CH3CH2CHCH2 (d) CH3CH2Cl (e) CHCH 16. (b) The solubilities of normal primary alcohols in water decrease with increasing molecular weight.(a) CH3CH2OH (b) CH3OH (c) CH3CH(OH)CH3 (d) (CH3)C3OH (e) none of these 18.1.7-dimethyl-5-nonyne (d) 3.6-dibromophenol (d) m-dibromophenol (e) o-dibromophenol 17. The compound below is classified as a _____ .1. Select the IUPAC name for the compound below. How many actual double bonds does the benzene ring possess? (a) None.3-dibromophenol (b) 2.5-dibromophenol (c) 2.5. (a) pentyl amine (b) methyl-n-propyl amine (c) diethyl amine (d) 2-aminopentane (e) isobutylamine 23.4-pentamethylbutanol (c) 1.4-diethylbenzene (e) 1.4. (d) Due to hydrogen bonding. (e) Boiling points of normal primary alcohols increase with increasing molecular weight. 20.6-diethyl-3-nonyne (b) 2.4-dimethylpentanoic acid (b) 1.6-diethyl-3-heptyne 12. The systematic name for the compound in Problem 21 is _____ .5-diethyl-3-nonyne (c) 3. (a) 2. (a) dimethyl ether (b) methoxyethane (c) methylethyloxide (d) propyl ether (e) none of the above 21.

(a) 24. CH3CH=CH2 (a) ketones (b) acids (c) aldehydes (d) esters (e) alcohols (1) . Answers to Chapter 27 1. The best classification for the following compound is: _____ . (d) 28. ethanol (ethyl alcohol)? (a) ethanal. (a) aldehyde (b) ester (c) ketone (d) carboxylic acid (e) alcohol 26. (a) 25. (a) 14. Which of the following does NOT exhibit geometric isomerism? (Hint: draw them!) (a) 4-octene (b) 2-pentene (c) 3-hexene (d) 2-hexene (3) (a) m-chlorobenzoic acid (b) o-chlorobenzaldehyde (c) p-chlorobenzoate (d) m-chlorosalicylic acid (e) none of these 25. (c) 17. (d) 23. 2. (a) acetamide (b) formyl acetamide (c) dimethyl acetate (d) N. (a) 1. (c) 3. (CH3)2O (e) propanol. (c) 11. (a) 13. Which of the following hydrocarbons does not have isomers? (a) C7H16 (b) C6H14 (c) C5H10 (d) C4H8 (e) C3H8 3. (b) 7. (c) 18. (b) have different compositions of elements. (c) 5. The compound given below is called _____ . (a) butyl acetate (b) ethyl pentanoate (c) propyl pentanoate (d) ethyl butanoate (e) butyl ethanoate 27. Which of the following compounds is a functional group isomer of C2H5OH.) (d) CH3CH2CH2CH3 (e) none of the above 6. The compound illustrated below is called _____ . (d) 12. For which of the compounds below are cis-trans isomers possible? CH3CH=CHCH2CH3 CH3CH=CHCH3 (2) (a) only 2 (b) both 1 and 2 (c) both 2 and 3 (d) all three (e) only 3 8. (b) 22. (c) have the same molecular formula. (c) 6. (d) have a different content of the isotopes of hydrogen. (b) 8. (e) 15. (b) 26. CH3CHO (b) acetic acid. (c) 16. (a) 10. The name of the alkane isomer of cis-3-hexene is: (a) 2-methylpentane (b) 3-methylpentane (c) n-hexane (d) 2. (e) react vigorously with one another. (b) 21. (b) 27. (b) 4. (C2H5)2O (d) dimethyl ether. Which one of the following compounds is an isomer of CH3CH2CH2CH2OH? (a) CH3CH2CH2OH (b) CH3CH(OH)CH3 (c) CH3CH2CH2CHO (Note: This is one way to write an aldehyde.(c) 20. (d) 2. The functional group given below is characteristic of organic _____ . How many aromatic isomers of dibromobenzene exist? (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 6 (e) 8 5.N-dimethylformamide (e) dimethylamine 28.3-dimethylbutane (e) cyclohexane 4. (a) 19. Two isomeric forms of a saturated hydrocarbon (a) have the same structure. C3H7OH 7. CH3COOH (c) diethyl ether. (a) 9.

Which of the following compounds displays optical isomerism? (a) CH2(OH)-CH2(OH) (b) CH3-CHCl-COOH (c) CH2=CHCl (d) CHCl=CHCl (e) CH3-O-C2H5 10. 17. then HBr (d) Cl2. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 3 (e) 1 and 3 14. 15. (e) The first step in the mechanism is the cleavage of the Cl-Cl bond to give chlorine atoms. How many alcohols are structural isomers with the formula: C5H11OH? (a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8 (e) 9 12.3-dichlorobutane (d) 2. (a) ionization (b) esterification (c) hydrolysis (d) saponification (e) neutralization 20. How many isomeric alkanes of the molecular formula C5H12 are there? (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (e) 5 11. (b) The reaction will give a single product of C2H5Cl. What is the sum of the coefficients in the balanced equation for the complete combustion of 2- . then Br2 (e) H2. (d) CH3CH2COOH (e) CH3CH2OH What is the expected product formed from the reaction between 2-butene and Cl2? (a) 1-chlorobutane (b) 2-chlorobutane (c) 2. Which of the following alcohols forms a ketone when oxidized? (a) 1-propanol (b) methanol (c) 2-methyl-2-propanol (d) 2-propanol (e) all of the above 23. (a) alkene (b) alkane (c) alkyne (d) alkyl halide (e) aldehyde A reaction in which a carboxylic acid reacts with a base to form a salt and water is called _____ . What is the first stable intermediate product when ethanol is oxidized with a mild oxidation agent? (a) CH3COOH (b) CO2 (c) CH3CHO (d) CH3CH2OH (e) CH3OCH3 22. then Br2 (c) Cl2. How many moles of sodium hydroxide will react with one mole of: (a) structural isomers (b) geometric isomers (c) conformational structures (d) identical structures (e) optical isomers 13. Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the reaction between Cl2 and C2H6? (a) It is a substitution reaction. then HBr (b) HCl. Which of the following will undergo an addition reaction with chlorine? (a) CH3CH2CH2CH3 (b) CH3CH2CH=CHCH3 (c) C6H6 (a) 5 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 2 (e) 1 21. Ethanol can be oxidized stepwise. (d) The reaction can be initiated with either sunlight or heat. then Br2 Dehydration of an alcohol leads to the formation of an _____ .(e) 1-hexene 9. Which of the following statements concerning conformations is (are) TRUE? (1) Ethane has an infinite number of conformations. 16.2-dichlorobutane (e) 3. 18. What is the relationship between the structures shown? 19. (2) The eclipsed conformation of a molecule is slightly more stable and energetically favored than the staggered conformation.3-dichlorobutane The reaction of ethyne with which of the following gives CH2Br-CHBrCl? (a) HCl. (3) A conformation is one specific geometry of a molecule. (c) The reaction mechanism involves free radicals.

(c) 8.represents the polymer named _______ . Do not forget coefficients of 1.24. (a) an acid and an alcohol (b) a ketone and an alcohol (c) an alkane and a ketone (d) only an acid (e) an amine and an acid 25. (c) 17. (d) 7. (a) water and an alkene (b) ethanol and propanoic acid (c) glycerol and soap (d) ethanol and a soap (e) a triester of glycerol with fatty acids 26. (d) 23. (e) 6. (d) 12. (c) 11. (b) 5. methylbutane? Use smallest whole number coefficients. (b) 16. (e) 21. (c) 13. (c) 2. (a) 10 (b) 13 (c) 17 (d) 20 (e) 23 The organic starting materials for the preparation of an ester could be _______ . The segment -CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2. (b) 15. (a) 19. (b) 10. (a) polybutylene (b) polyhexene (c) polypropylene (d) polystyrene (e) polyethylene Answers to Chapter 28 1. (e) 20. (e) 4. (a) 25. (e) 14. Hydrolysis (saponification) of a fat would yield ______ . (e) . (e) 9. (c) 26. (b) 18. (e) 3. (c) 22. (d) 24.