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PAPER 2003
1. A particle of mass M and charge Q moving with velocity v
(1)
The solution of this problem can be obtained by resolving the motion along the three
coordinate axes namely
x
x x y z z y
F q
a (E v B v B )
m m
= = +
y
y y z x x z
F
q
a (E v B v B )
m m
= = +
z
z z x y y z
F q
a (E v B v B )
m m
= = +
For the given problem,
x y
E E 0, = =
y z
v v 0 = = and
x z
B B 0 = =
Substituting in equation (2), we get
x z
a a 0 = = and
y y x z
a E v B =
If the particle passes through the region undeflected a
y
is also zero, then
y x z
E v B =
4
y 3 2
z
z
E
10
B 10 Wb / m
v 10
= = =
3. A thin rectangular magnet suspended freely has a period of oscillation equal to T. Now it is
broken into two equal halves (each having half of the original length) and one piece is made
to oscillate freely in the same field. If its period of oscillation is T, the ratio T'/T is
(A)
1
2 2
(B) 1/2
(C) 2 (D) 1/4
3. B.
When the magnet is divided into 2 equal parts, the magnetic dipole movement
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M' = pole strength length
M
2
= and moment of inertia
2
1
I' mass (length)
12
=
=
2
1 m
12 2 2
 

\ .
I
I'
8
=
Time period
I'
2
M'B
= t
I / 8
2
M
B
2
= t
T
T'
2
=
T' 1
T 2
=
4. A magnetic needle lying parallel to a magnetic field requires W units of work to turn it
through 60. The torque needed to maintain the needle in this position will be
(A) \3 W (B) W
(C) (\3/2) W (D) 2W
4. A.
W = MB(cos u
2
cos u
1
)
Initially magnetic needle is parallel to a magnet field, therefore
1
0, u =
2
60 u =
W MB(cos 60 cos 0 ) =
MB =
e MB sin 60 ZW 3 / 2 3W = = =
5. The magnetic lines of force inside a bar magnet
(A) are from northpole to southpole of the magnet
(B) do not exist
(C) depend upon the area of crosssection of the bar magnet
(D) are from southpole to northpole of the magnet.
5. D.
The magnetic lines of force inside a bar magnet are from south pole to north pole of the
magnet.
6. Curie temperature is the temperature above which
(A) a ferromagnetic material becomes paramagnetic
(B) a paramagnetic material becomes diamagnetic
(C) a ferromagnetic material becomes diamagnetic
(D) a paramagnetic material becomes ferromagnetic.
6. A.
Curie temperature is the temperature above which a ferromagnetic material becomes
paramagnetic.
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7. A spring balance is attached to the ceiling of a lift. A man hangs his bag on the spring and
the spring reads 49 N, when the lift is stationary. If the lift moves downward with an
acceleration of 5 m/s
2
, the reading of the spring balance will be
(A) 24 N (B) 74 N
(C) 15 N (D) 49 N
7. A.
Reading of spring balance = m(g a) = 5 4.8 = 24 N
8. The length of a wire of a potentiometer is 100 cm, and the e.m.f. of its stand and cell is E
volt. It is employed to measure the e.m.f. of a battery whose internal resistance is 0.5 O. If
the balance point is obtained at =30 cm from the positive end, the e.m.f. of the battery is
(A)
30 E
100.5
(B)
30 E
100 0.5
(C)
30(E 0.5i)
100
= = =
9. A strip of copper and another germanium are cooled from room temperature to 80 K. The
resistance of
(A) each of these decreases
(B) copper strip increases and that of germanium decreases
(C) copper strip decreases and that of germanium increases
(D) each of these increases.
9. C.
The temperature coefficient of resistance of copper is positive and that of germanium is
negative, therefore when copper and germanium are cooled, resistance of copper strip
decreases and that of germanium increases.
10. Consider telecommunication through optical fibres. Which of the following statements is not
true?
(A) Optical fibres can be of graded refractive index.
(B) Optical fibres are subject to electromagnetic interference from outside.
(C) Optical fibres have extremely low transmission loss.
(D) Optical fibres may have homogeneous core with a suitable cladding
10. B.
Optical fibres are subject to electromagnetic interference from outside.
11. The thermo e.m.f. of a thermocouple is 25 V/C at room temperature. A galvanometer of
40 ohm resistance, capable of detecting current as low as 10
5
A, is connected with the
thermocouple. The smallest temperature difference that can be detected by this system is
(A) 16C (B) 12C
(C) 8C (D) 20C
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11. A.
E = 25 u 10
6
V
IR = 10
5
40 = 4 10
4
V
4
6
4 10
16 C
25 10
u = =
12. The negative Zn pole of a Daniell cell, sending a constant current through a circuit,
decreases in mass by 0.13 g in 30 minutes. If the electrochemical equivalent of Zn and Cu
are 32.5 and 31.5 respectively, the increase in the mass of the positive Cu pole in this time is
(A) 0.180 g (B) 0.141 g
(C) 0.126 g (D) 0.242 g
12. C.
Zn zx
Cu Cx
m Z
m Z
=
I and t are same for both Cu and Zn electrodes
Cu
0.13 31.5
m 32.5
=
Cu
0.13 32.5
m 0.126 g.
32.5
= =
13. Dimensions of
0 0
1
c
, where symbols have their usual meaning, are
(A) [L
1
T] (B) [L
2
T
2
]
(C) [L
2
T
2
] (D) [LT
1
]
13. C.
14. A circular disc X of radius R is made from an iron pole of thickness t, and another disc Y of
radius 4R is made from an iron plate of thickness t/4. then the relation between the moment
of inertia I
X
and I
Y
is
(A)
Y X
I 32I = (B)
Y X
I 16I =
(C)
Y X
I 32 I = (D)
Y X
I 64 I =
14. D.
If t is the thickness and R is the radius of the disc, then mass = tR
2
t
= density of the material of the disc.
Moment of inertia of disc X,
4
x
1
I R t
2
= t (i)
Moment of inertia of disc Y,
4
y
I 32 R t = t (ii)
From equation (i) and (ii)
y x
I 64 I =
15. The time period of a satellite of earth is 5 hours. If the separation between the earth and the
satellite is increased to 4 times the previous value, the new time period will become
(A) 10 hours (B) 80 hours
(C) 40 hours (D) 20 hours
15. C.
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Time period of a satellite T =
3
e
2 r
R g
t
r = distance between satellite and the earth.
3/ 2
T r
3/ 2
1 1
2 2
T r
T r
 
=

\ .
2 1
T 8T 8 5 40 = = = hours
16. A particle performing uniform circular motion has angular momentum L. If its angular
frequency is doubled and its kinetic energy halved, then the new angular momentum is
(A) L/4 (B) 2L
(C) 4L (D) L/2
16. A.
Angular momentum of a particle performing uniform circular motion
L = Ie
Kinetic energy,
2
1
K I
2
= e
Therefore,
2
2K 2K
L = e =
e e
1 1 2
2 2 1
L K
L K
e
=
e
1
2
L
2 2 4
L
= =
2
L
L
4
= .
17. Which of the following radiations has the least wavelength?
(A) rays (B) rays
(C) orays (D) Xrays
17. D.
18. When U
238
nucleus originally at rest, decays by emitting an alpha particle having a speed u,
the recoil speed of the residual nucleus is
(A)
4u
238
(B)
4u
234
(C)
4u
234
(D)
4u
238
18. B.
According to principle of conservation of linear momentum the momentum of the system
remains the same before and after the decay.
Atomic mass of uranium = 238 and after emitting an alpha particle.
= 238 4 = 234
238 0 = 4u + 234 v
4u
v
234
= .
19. Two spherical bodies of mass M and 5M and radii R and 2R respectively are released in free
space with initial separation between their centres equal to 12R. If they attract each other
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due to gravitational force only, then the distance covered by the smaller body just before
collision is
(A) 2.5R (B) 4.5R
(C) 7.5R (D) 1.5R
19. C.
The two spheres collide when the smaller sphere covered the distance of 7.5 R.
20. The difference in the variation of resistance with temperature in a metal and a semiconductor
arises essentially due to the difference in the
(A) crystal structure
(B) variation of the number of charge carries with temperature
(C) type of bonding
(D) variation for scattering mechanism with temperature.
20. B.
Variation of the number charge carriers with temperature.
21. A car moving with a speed of 50 km/hr, can be stopped by brakes after at least 6 m. If the
same car is moving at a speed of 100 km/hr, the minimum stopping distance is
(A) 12 m (B) 18 m
(C) 24 m (D) 6 m
21. C.
22. A boy playing on the roof of a 10 m high building throws a ball with a speed of 10 m/s at an
angle of 30 with the horizontal. How far from the throwing point will the ball be at the height
of 10 m from the ground?
[g = 10 m/s
2
, sin 30 = , cos 30 = \3/2]
(A) 5.20 m (B) 4.33 m
(C) 2.60 m (d) 8.66 m.
22. D.
The ball will be at the height of 10 m from the ground when it cover its maximum horizontal
range.
Maximum horizontal range
2
u sin 2
R
g
u
=
2
3 1
(10) 2
2 2
R 8.66
10
= = m.
23. An ammeter reads upto 1 ampere. Its internal resistance is 0.81 ohm. To increase the range
to 10 A the value of the required shunt is
(A) 0.03 O (B) 0.3 O
(C) 0.9 O (D) 0.09 O
23. D.
S =
g
g
I G
1 0.81
0.09
I I 10 1
= = O
24. The physical quantities not having same dimensions are
(A) torque and work (B) momentum and Plancks constant
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(C) stress and Youngs modulus (D) speed and (
0
c
0
)
1/2
24. B.
Dimensions of momentum = kg m/sec = [MLT
2
]
Dimensions of Plancks constant = joule sec = [ML
2
T
1
]
Dimensions of momentum = dimensions of Plancks constant.
25. Three forces start acting simultaneously on a particle moving with
velocity v
, remaining unchanged.
A
B C
25. D.
According to triangle law of vector addition if three vectors addition if three vectors are
represented by three sides of a triangle taken in same order, then their resultant is zero.
Therefore resultant of the forces acting on the particle is zero, so the particles velocity
remains unchanged.
26. If the electric flux entering and leaving an enclosed surface respectively is 
1
and 
2
, the
electric charge inside the surface will be
(A)
2 1 0
( )   c (B)
2 1
0
( )  + 
c
(C)
2 1
0
( )  
c
(D)
2 1 0
( )  +  c
26. A.
According to Gausss theorem, charge in flux =
0
charge enclosed by the surface
c
2 1 0
q ( ) =   c .
27. A horizontal force of 10 N is necessary to just hold a block stationary
against a wall. The coefficient of friction between the block and the
wall is 0.2. The weight of the block is
(A) 20 N (B) 50 N
(C) 100 N (D) 2 N
10 N
27. D.
Weight of the block = R = 0.2 10 = 2N.
28. A marble block of mass 2 kg lying on ice when given a velocity of 6 m/s is stopped by friction
in 10 s. then the coefficient of friction is
(A) 002 (B) 0.03
(C) 0.04 (D) 0.01
28. C.
Retardation
u 6
0.6
t 10
= = = m/sec
2
Frictional force = mg = ma
a 0.6
0.06.
g 10
= = =
29. Consider the following two statements.
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(1) Linear momentum of a system of particles is zero.
(2) Kinetic energy of system of particles is zero.
(A) A does not imply B and B does not imply A.
(B) A implies B but B does not imply A
(C) A does not imply B but b implies A
(D) A implies B and B implies A.
29. C.
30. Two coils are placed close to each other. The mutual inductance of the pair of coils depends
upon
(A) the rates at which current are changing in the two coils
(B) relative position and orientation of the two coils
(C) the materials of the wires of the coils
(D) the currents in the two coils
30. C.
The mutual inductance of the pair of coils depends on geometry of two coils, distance
between two coils, distance between two coils, relative placement of two coils etc.
31. A block of mass M is pulled along a horizontal friction surface by a rope of mass m. If a force
P is applied at the free end of the rope, the force exerted by the rope on the block is
(A)
Pm
M m +
(B)
Pm
M m
(C) P (D)
Pm
M m +
31. D.
Force on block = mass acceleration =
PM
M m +
32. A light spring balance hangs from the hook of the other light spring balance and a block of
mass M kg hangs from the former one. Then the true statement about scale reading is
(A) both the scales read M kg each
(B) the scale of the lower one reads M kg and of upper one zero
(C) the reading of the two scales can be anything but sum of the reading will be M kg
(D) both the scales read M/2 kg.
32. A.
Both the scales read M kg each.
33. A wire suspended vertically from one of its ends stretched by attaching weight of 200 N to
the lower end. The weight stretches the wire by 1 mm. Then the elastic energy stored in the
wire is
(A) 0.2 J (B) 10 J
(C) 20 J (D) 0.1 J
33. D.
The elastic potential energy stored in the wire,
1
U stress strain volume
2
=
1 F
A
2 A
A
=
=
1
F
2
A =
3
1
200 10 0.1 J
2
=
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34. The escape velocity for a body projected vertically upwards from the surface of earth is 11
km/s. If the body is projected at an angle of 45 with the vertical, the escape velocity will be
(A) 11\2 km/s (B) 22 km/s
(C) 11 km/s (D) 11/\2 m/s
34. C.
The escape velocity of a body is independent of the angle of projection.
35. A mass M is suspended from a spring of negligible mass. The spring is pulled a little and
then released so that the mass executes SHM of time period T. If the mass is increased by
m, the time period becomes 5T/3. then the ratio of m/M is
(A) 3/5 (B) 25/9
(C) 16/9 (D) 5/3
35. C.
T M
T' M m
=
+
9
25
M
M m
=
+
9M + 9m = 25 M
m 16
M 9
=
36. Heat cannot by itself flow from a body at lower temperature to a body at higher temperature
is a statement of consequence of
(A) second law of thermodynamics (B) conservation of momentum
(C) conservation of mass (D) first law of thermodynamics.
36. A.
Second law of thermodynamics.
37. Two particles A and B of equal masses are suspended from two massless springs of spring
constants k
1
and k
2
respectively. If the maximum velocities, during oscillations, are equal, the
ratio of amplitudes of A and B is
(A)
1
2
k
k
(B)
2
1
k
k
(C)
2
1
k
k
(D)
1
2
k
k
37. C.
1 2
2 1
a k
a k
= .
38. The length of a simple pendulum executing simple harmonic motion is increased by 21%.
The percentage increase in the time period of the pendulum of increased length is
(A) 11% (B) 21%
(C) 42% (D) 10%
38. D.
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Time period of simple pendulum is given by.
T 2
g
= t
New length
21 121
'
100 199
= + =
T' ' 21
T 100
= =
T' 11
T 10
=
1
T' T T
10
= +
T = 10% of T.
39. The displacement y of wave travelling in the xdirection is given by
y = 10
4
sin 600t 2x
3
t  
+

\ .
metres,
where x is expressed in metres and t in seconds. The speed of the wavemotion, in ms
1
is
(A) 300 (B) 600
(C) 1200 (D) 200
39. A.
Velocity of wave = n=
600 2
2 2
t
t
= 300 m/sec.
40. When the current changes from +2 A to 2 A in 0.05 second, an e.m.f. of 8 V is induced in a
coil. The coefficient of selfinduction of the coil is
(A) 0.2 H (B) 0.4 H
(C) 0.8 H (D) 0.1 H
40. D.
If e is the induced e.m.f. in the coil, then
di
e L
dt
=
Therefore,
e
L
di / dt
=
Substituting values, we get
8 0.05
L 0.1H
4
= =
41. In an oscillating LC circuit the maximum charge on the capacitor is Q. The charge on the
capacitor when the energy is stored equally between the electric and magnetic field is
(A) Q/2 (B) Q/\3
(C) Q/\2 (D) Q
41. C.
energy stored in capacitor =
2
1 Q
E
2 C
=
2 2
1 1 Q 1 q
2 2 C 2 C
=
q =
Q
2
.
42. The core of any transformer is laminated so as to
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(A) reduce the energy loss due to eddy currents
(B) make it light weight
(C) make it robust and strong
(D) increase the secondary voltage.
42. A.
43. Let F
and T
and T 0 F =
(B) r T 0 =
and T 0 F =
(C) r T 0 =
and T 0 F =
(D) r T 0 =
and T 0 F =
43. D.
Torque = Force Position vector
T F r =
r T r (F r ) 0 = =
F T F (F r ) 0 = =
44. A radioactive sample at any instant has its disintegration rate 5000 disintegrations per
minute. After 5 minutes, the rate is 1250 disintegrations per minute.
Then, the decay constant (per minute) is
(A) 0.4 In 2 (B) 0.2 In 2
(C) 0.1 In 2 (D) 0.8 In 2.
44. A.
2In2
0.4 In 2.
5
= =
45. A nucleus with Z = 92 emits the following in a sequence; o, o, 
, 
, o, o, o, o, 
, 
, o, 
+
,

+
, o. The Z of the resulting nucleus is
(A) 76 (B) 78
(C) 82 (D) 74
45. B.
The Z of resultant nucleus = 92 16 + 4 2 = 78
46. Two identical photo cathodes receive light of frequencies f
1
and f
2
. if the velocities of the
photoelectrons (of mass m) coming out are respectively v
1
and v
2
, then
(A)
2 2
1 2 1 2
2h
v v (f f )
m
= (B)
1/ 2
1 2 1 2
2h
v v (f f )
m
+ = +
]
(C)
2 2
1 2 1 2
2h
v v (f f )
m
+ = + (D)
1/ 2
1 2 1 2
2h
v v (f f )
m
=
]
46. A.
2 2
1 2 1 2
1
m(v v ) h(f f )
2
=
2 2
1 2 1 2
2h
v v (f f )
m
= .
47. Which of the following cannot be emitted by radioactive substance during their decay?
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(A) protons (B) neutrinos
(C) helium nuclei (D) electrons
47. A.
48. A 3 volt battery with negligible internal resistance is connected in a
circuit as shown in the figure. The current I, in the circuit will be
(A) 1 A (B) 1.5 A
(C) 2 A (D) 1/3 A
3V
3
3
3
i
48. B.
The current through the circuit,
V 3
I 1.5 A
R 2
= = =
49. A sheet of aluminium foil of negligible thickness is introduced between the plates of a
capacitor. The capacitance of the capacitor
(A) decreases (B) remains unchanged
(C) becomes infinite (D) increases.
49. B.
When a sheet of aluminium foil of negligible thickness is introduced between the plates of a
capacitor, the capacitance of capacitor remains unchanged.
50. The displacement of a particle varies according to the relation x = 4(cos tt + sin tt). the
amplitude of the particle is
(A) 4 (B) 4
(C) 4\2 (D) 8
50. C.
The amplitude of given wave equation = 4 2 .
51. A thin spherical conduction shell of radius R has a charge q. another charge Q is placed at
the centre of the shell. The electrostatic potential at a point P at a distance R/2 from the
centre of the shell is
(A)
0
2Q
4 R tc
(B)
0
2Q
4 R tc
0
2q
4 R tc
(C)
0 0
2Q q
4 R 4 R
+
tc tc
(D)
0
(q Q) 2
4 R
+
tc
51. C.
The total potential at P =
0
1 1
(q 2Q)
4 R
+
tc
52. The work done in placing a charge of 8 10
18
coulomb on a condenser of capacity 100
microfarad is
(A) 16 10
32
joule (B) 3.2 10
26
joule
(C) 4 10
10
joule (D) 32 10
32
joule
52. D.
Required work done is
2
2
1 Q
w
2 C
=
=
18 2
32
4
1 (8 10 )
32 10 J
2 10
=
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53. The coordinates of a moving particle at any time t are given by x = ot
3
and y = t
3
. The
speed to the particle at time t is given by
(A)
2 2
3t o +  (B)
2 2 2
3t o + 
(C)
2 2 2
t o +  (D)
2 2
o + 
53. B.
Speed =
2 2 2 2 2 2 2
v (3 t ) (3 t ) 3t = o +  = o + 
.
54. During an adiabatic process, the pressure of a gas is found to be proportional to the cube of
its absolute temperature. The ratio
p
v
C
C
for the gas is
(A) 4/3 (B) 2
(C) 5/3 (D) 3/2
54. A.
P
V
C 4
C 3
= .
55. Which of the following parameters does not characterize the thermodynamic state of matter?
(A) temperature (B) pressure
(C) work (D) volume
55. C.
The work done does not characterize a thermodynamic state of matter. It gives only a
relationship between two different thermodynamic state.
56. A carnot engine takes 3 10
6
cal of heat from a reservoir at 627C, and gives it to a sink at
27C. The work done by the engine is
(A) 4.2 10
6
J (B) 8.4 10
6
J
(C) 16.8 10
6
J (D) zero.
56. B.
Work done by the engine while taking heat
Q = 3 10
6
cal is W = 2 10
6
4.2 = 8.4 10
6
J.
57. A spring of spring constant 5 10
3
N/m is stretched initially by 5 cm from the unstretched
position. Then the work required to stretch is further by another 5 cm is
(A) 12.50 Nm (B) 18.75 Nm
(C) 25.00 Nm (D) 6.25 Nm
57. B.
Required work done = 25 6.25 = 18.75 Nm.
58. A metal wire of linear mass density of 9.8 gm is stretched with a tension of 10 kgwt between
two rigid supports 1 metre apart. The wire passes at its middle point between the poles of a
per magnet and it vibrates in resonance when carrying an alternating current of frequency n.
The frequency n of the alternating source is
(A) 50 Hz (B) 100 Hz
(C) 200 Hz (D) 25 Hz
58. A.
Frequency of oscillation n
1 T
2L m
=
2 2
3
1 10 9.8 1 1
10 10 50Hz
2L 9.8 10 2L 2 1
= = = =
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59. A tuning fork of known frequency 256 Hz makes 5 beats per second with the vibrating string
of a piano. The beat frequency decreases to 2 beats per second when the tension in the
piano string is slightly increased. The frequency of the piano string before increasing the
tension was
(A) (256 + 2) Hz (B) (256 2) Hz
(C) (256 5) Hz (D) (256 + 5) Hz
59. C.
60. A body executes simple harmonic motion. The potential energy (P.E.), the kinetic energy
(K.E.) and total energy (T.E.) are measured as function of displacement x. Which of the
following statement is true?
(A) K.E. is maximum when x = 0 (B) T.E. is zero when x = 0
(C) K.E. is maximum when x is maximum (D) P.E. is maximum when x = 0.
60. A.
Since at x = 0, the potential energy is minimum, the kinetic energy is maximum.
61. In the nuclear fusion reaction,
2 3 4
1 1 2
H H He n + + given that the repulsive potential energy between the two nuclei is 7.7
10
14
J, the temperature at which the gases must be heated to initiate the reaction is nearly
[Boltzmanns constant k = 1.38 10
23
J/K]
(A) 10
7
K (B) 10
5
K
(C) 10
3
K (D) 10
9
K
61. D.
14
9
23
7.7 10 2
T 3.7 10 K.
3 1.38 10
= =
62. Which of the following atoms has the lowest ionization potential?
(A)
14
7
N (B)
133
55
Cs
(C)
40
18
Ar (D)
16
8
O
62. B.
Since
133
55
Cs has larger size among the four atoms given, thus the electrons present in the
outermost orbit will be away from the nucleus and the electrostatic force experienced by
electrons due to nucleus will be minimum. Therefore the energy required to liberate electron
from outer orbit will be minimum in the case of
133
55
Cs.
63. The wavelengths involved in the spectrum of deuterium
2
1
( D) are slightly different from that
of hydrogen spectrum, because
(A) size of the two nuclei are different
(B) nuclear forces are different in the two cases
(C) masses of the two nuclei are different
(D) attraction between the electron and the nucleus is different in the two cases.
63. C.
64. In the middle of the depletion layer of a reversebiased pn junction, the
(A) electric field is zero (B) potential is maximum
(C) electric field is maximum (D) potential is zero
64. A.
65. If the binding energy of the electron in a hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV, the energy required to
remove the electron from the first excited state of Li
++
is
(A) 30.6 eV (B) 13.6 eV
(C) 3.4 eV (D) 122.4 eV.
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65. A.
The energy of the first excited state of Li
++
is
2 2
0
2 2 2
Z E 3 13.6
E 30.6 eV.
n 2
= = =
66. A body is moved along a straight line by a machine delivering a constant power. The
distance moved by the body in time t is proportional to
(A) t
3/4
(B) t
3/2
(C) t
1/4
(D) t
1/2
66. B.
Distance goes as t
3/2
67. A rocket with a liftoff mass 3.5 10
4
kg is blasted upwards with an initial acceleration of 10
m/s
2
. Then the initial thrust of the blast is
(A) 3.5 10
5
N (B) 7.0 10
5
N
(C) 14.0 10
5
N (D) 1.75 10
5
N
67. A.
68. To demonstrate the phenomenon of interference we require two soruces which emit
radiation of
(A) nearly the same frequency
(B) the same frequency
(C) different wavelength
(D) the same frequency and having a definite phase relationship.
68. A.
Initial thrust of the blast = m a = 3.5 10
4
10
= 3.5 10
5
N
69. Three charges q
1
, +q
2
and q
3
are placed as shown in the figure.
The xcomponent of the force on q
1
is proportional to
(A)
2 3
2 2
q q
cos
b a
u (B)
2 3
2 2
q q
sin
b a
+ u
(C)
2 3
2 2
q q
cos
b a
+ u (D)
2 3
2 2
q q
sin
b a
u
q3
q1 q2
x
b
a
y
69. B.
2 3
x 2 2
q q
F sin
b a
+ u
70. A 220 volt, 1000 watt bulb is connected across a 110 volt mains supply. The power
consumed will be
(A) 750 watt (B) 500 watt
(C) 250 watt (D) 1000 watt
70. C.
2 2
consumed 2
V (110)
P 250 watt.
R (220) / 1000
= = =
71. The image formed by an objective of a compound microscope is
(A) virtual and diminished (B) real and diminished
(C) real and enlarged (D) virtual and enlarged
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71. C.
The objective of compound microscope is a convex lens. We know that a convex lens forms
real and enlarged image when an object is placed between its focus and lens.
72. The earth radiates in the infrared region of the spectrum. The spectrum is correctly given by
(A) Rayleigh Jeans law (B) Plancks law of radiation
(C) Stefans law of radiation (D) Wiens law
72. D.
73. To get three images of a single object, one should have two plane mirrors at an angle of
(A) 60 (B) 90
(C) 120 (D) 30
73. B.
The number of images formed of two plane mirrors are placed at an angle u is n =
360
1
u
Here n = 3
360
3 1
=
u
360
90
4
u = =
74. According to Newtons law of cooling, the rate of cooling of a body is proportional to (Au)
n
,
where A u is the difference of the temperature of the body and the surroundings, and n is
equal to
(A) two (B) three
(C) four (D) one
74. D.
According to Newtons law of cooling.
Rate of cooling
d
dt
u
Au
Therefore n = 1.
75. The length of a given cylindrical wire is increased by 100%. Due to the consequent decrease
in diameter the change in the resistance of the wire will be
(A) 200% (B) 100%
(C) 50% (D) 300%
75. D.
%change =
3R
100% 300%
R
= .
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PAPER 2004
1. Which one of the following represents the correct dimensions of the coefficient of viscosity?
(A) ML
1
T
2
(B) MLT
1
(C) ML
1
T
1
(D) ML
2
T
2
1. C.
Dimensions of q (coefficient of viscosity)
2
0 0 0 1
MLT
M L M LT
= ML
1
T
1
2. A particle moves in a straight line with retardation proportional to its displacement. Its loss of
kinetic energy for any displacement x is proportional to
(A) x
2
(B) e
x
(C) x (D) log
e
x
2. A.
2
f i
mk
K K x
2
=
2
f i
K k x .
3. A ball is released from the top of a tower of height h metres. It takes T seconds to reach the
ground. What is the position of the ball in T/3 seconds?
(A) h/9 metres from the ground (B) 7h/9 metres from the ground
(C) 8h/9 metres from the ground (D) 17h/18 metres from the ground.
3. C.
4. If A B B A, =
then the angle between A and B is
(A) t (B) t/3
(C) t/2 (D) t/4
4. A.
5. A projectile can have the same range R for two angles of projection. If T
1
and T
2
be the time
of flights in the two cases, then the product of the two time of flights is directly proportional to
(A) 1/R
2
(B) 1/R
(C) R (D) R
2
5. C.
Range is same for complimentary angles.
1
2u sin
T
g
u
= and
2
2u sin (90 )
T
g
u
=
and
2
u sin 2
R
g
u
=
1 2
2u sin 2u cos 2R
TT .
g g g
u u
= =
6. Which of the following statements is false for a particle moving in a circle with a constant
angular speed?
(A) The velocity vector is tangent to the circle.
(B) The acceleration vector is tangent to the circle.
(C) The acceleration vector points to the centre of the circle.
(D) The velocity and acceleration vectors are perpendicular to each other.
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6. B.
The acceleration vector is along the radius of circle.
7. An automobile travelling with speed of 60 km/h, can brake to stop within a distance of 20 cm.
If the car is going twice as fast, i.e 120 km/h, the stopping distance will be
(A) 20 m (B) 40 m
(C) 60 m (D) 80 m
7. D.
If the initial speed is doubled, the stopping distance becomes four times, i.e. 80 m.
8. A machine gun fires a bullet of mass 40 g with a velocity 1200 ms
1
. The man holding it can
exert a maximum force of 144 N on the gun. How many bullets can he fire per second at the
most?
(A) one (B) four
(C) two (D) three
8. D.
Change in momentum for each bullet fired is
40
1200 48 N
1000
= =
If a bullet fired exerts a force of 48 N on mans hand so man can exert maximum force of 144 N,
number of bullets that can be fired = 144/48 = 3 bullets.
9. Two masses m
1
= 5 kg and m
2
= 4.8 kg tied to a string are hanging
over a light frictionless pulley. What is the acceleration of the masses
when lift free to move?
(g = 9.8 m/s
2
)
(A) 0.2 m/s
2
(B) 9.8 m/s
2
(C) 5 m/s
2
(D) 4.8 m/s
2
9. A.
2 1 2
1 2
m m
a g 0.2 m/ s
m m
 
= =

+
\ .
m1
m2
10. A uniform chain of length 2 m is kept on a table such that a length of 60 cm hangs freely
from the edge of the table. The total mass of the chain is 4 kg. What is the work done in
pulling the entire chain on the table?
(A) 7.2 J (B) 3.6 J
(C) 120 J (D) 1200 J
10. B.
Work done = mgh = 1.2 0.3 10 = 3.6 J.
11. A block rests on a rough inclined plane making an angle of 30 with the horizontal. The
coefficient of static friction between the block and the plane is 0.8. If the frictional force on
the block is 10 N, the mass of the block (in kg) is (take g = 10 m/s
2
)
(A) 2.0 (B) 4.0
(C) 1.6 (D) 2.5
11. A.
m = 2 kg
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12. A force
F (5i 3j 2k)N = + +
Here
f i
s r r (2i j) = =
W (5i 3j 2k)(2i j) = + + = 10 3 = 7 J.
13. A body of mass m, accelerates uniformly from rest to v
1
in time t
1
. The instantaneous power
delivered to the body as a function of time t is
(A)
1
1
mv t
t
(B)
2
1
2
1
mv t
t
(C)
2
1
1
mv t
t
(D)
2
1
1
mv t
t
13. B.
Power
2
1 1 1
2
1 1 1
v v mv t
P F v mav m t
t t t
   
= = = =
 
\ . \ .
14. A particle is acted upon by a force of constant magnitude which is always perpendicular to
the velocity of the particle, the motion of the particle takes place in a plane. It follows that
(A) its velocity is constant (B) its acceleration is constant
(C) its kinetic energy is constant (D) it moves in a straight line.
14. C.
When a force of constant magnitude which is always perpendicular to the velocity of the
particle acts on a particle, the work done and hence change in kinetic energy is zero.
15. A solid sphere is rotating in free space. If the radius of the sphere is increased keeping mass
same which one of the following will not be affected?
(A) moment of inertia (B) angular momentum
(C) angular velocity (D) rotational kinetic energy.
15. B.
Let it be assume that in free space not only the acceleration due to gravity it acting but also
there are no external torque acting but also there are no external torque acting on the
sphere. If due to internal changes in the system, the radius has increased, then the law of
the conservation of angular momentum holds good.
16. A ball is thrown from a point with a speed v
0
at an angle of projection u. From the same point
and at the same instant person starts running with a constant speed v
0
/2 to catch the ball.
Will the person be able to catch the ball? If yes, what should be the angle of projection?
(A) yes, 60 (B) yes, 30
(C) no (D) yes, 45
16. A.
For the person to be able to catch the ball, the horizontal component of the velocity of the
ball should be same as the speed of the person.
0
0
v
v cos
2
u =
u = 60.
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17. One solid sphere A and another hollow sphere B are of same mass and same outer radii.
Their moment of inertia about their diameters are respectively I
A
and I
B
such that
(A) I
A
= I
B
(B) I
A
> I
B
(C) I
A
< I
B
(D) I
A
/I
B
= d
A
/d
B
Where d
A
and d
B
are their densities.
17. C.
Moment of inertia of a uniform density solid sphere, A =
2
2
MR
5
And of hollow sphere B =
2
2
MR
3
Since M and R are same, I
A
< I
B
.
18. A satellite of mass m revolves around the earth of radius R at a height x from its surface. If g
is the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the earth, the orbital speed of the satellite
is
(A) gx (B)
gR
R x
(C)
2
gR
R x +
(D)
1/ 2
2
gR
R x
 

+
\ .
18. D.
For the satellite, the gravitational force provides the necessary centripetal force i.e.
2
e 0
2
GM m Mv
(R X) (R X)
=
+ +
and
e
2
GM
g
R
=
1/ 2
2
0
gR
v
R X
 
=

+
\ .
19. The time period of an earth satellite in circular orbit is independent of
(A) the mass of the satellite
(B) radius of its orbit
(C) both the mass and radius of the orbit
(D) neither the mass of the satellite nor the radius of its orbit.
19. A.
The time period of satellite is given by
3
(R h)
T 2
GM
+
= t
where, R + h = radius of orbit satellite, M = mass of earth.
20. If g is the acceleration due to gravity on the earths surface, the gain in the potential energy
of object of mass m raised from the surface of the earth to a height equal to the radius R of
the earth is
(A) 2 mgR (B)
1
mgR
2
(C)
1
mgR
4
(D) mgR
20. B.
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21. Suppose the gravitational force varies inversely as the nth power of distance. Then the time
period planet in circular orbit of radius R around the sun will be proportional to
(A)
n 1
2
R
+  

\ .
(B)
n 1
2
R
 

\ .
(C) R
n
(D)
n 2
2
R
 

\ .
21. A.
(n 1) / 2
T R
+
22. A wire fixed at the upper end stretches by length by applying a force F. The work done in
stretching is
(A) F/2 (B) F
(C) 2F (D) F/2
22. D.
Work done =
2 2
1 1
kx k
2 2
= where is the total extensions.
1 1
(k ) F
2 2
= =
23. Spherical balls of radius R are falling in a viscous fluid of viscosity q with a velocity v. The
retarding viscous force acting on the spherical ball is
(A) directly proportional to R but inversely proportional to v.
(B) directly proportional to both radius R and velocity v.
(C) inversely proportional to both radius R and velocity v.
(D) inversely proportional to R but directly proportional to velocity v.
23. B.
Retarding viscous force = 6 Rv tq
24. If two soap bubbles of different radii are connected by a tube,
(A) air flows from the bigger bubble to the smaller bubble till the sizes are interchanged.
(B) air flows from bigger bubble to the smaller bubble till the sizes are interchanged
(C) air flows from the smaller bubble to the bigger.
(D) there is no flow of air.
24. C.
The pressure inside the smaller bubble will be more
i 0
4T
P P
r
 
= +

\ .
Therefore, if the bubbles are connected by a tube, the air will flow from smaller bubble to the
bigger.
25. The bob of a simple pendulum executes simple harmonic motion in water with a period t,
while the period of oscillation of the bob is t
0
in air. Neglecting frictional force of water and
given that the density of the bob is
4
1000
3
 

\ .
kg/m
3
. What relationship between t and t
0
is
true?
(A) t = t
0
(B) t = t
0
/2
(C) t = 2t
0
(D) t = 4t
0
25. C.
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0
T 1 1
1
T '
1
1
3
= =
 
\ .
0
T
2
T
=
or, T = 2T
0
26. A particle at the end of a spring executes simple harmonic motion with a period t
1
, while the
corresponding period for another spring is t
2
. If the period of oscillation with the two springs
in series is t, then
(A) T = t
1
+ t
2
(B)
2 2 2
1 2
T t t = +
(C)
1 1 1
1 2
T t t
= + (D)
2 2 2
1 2
T t t
= +
26. B.
2 2 2
1 2
t t T + =
27. The total energy of particle, executing simple harmonic motion is
(A) x (B) x
2
(C) independent of x (D) x
1/2
27. C.
In simple harmonic motion, as a particle is displaced from its mean position, its kinetic
energy is converted to potential energy and vice versa and total energy remains constant.
The total energy of simple harmonic motion is independent of x.
28. The displacement y of a particle in a medium can be expressed as
y = 10
6
sin(110t + 20 x + t/4) m, where t is in seconds and x in meter. The speed of the
wave is
(A) 2000 m/s (B) 5 m/s
(C) 20 m/s (D) 5t m/s.
28. B.
1
v 5 ms
k
e
= =
29. A particle of mass m is attached to a spring (of spring constant k) and has a natural angular
frequency e
0
. An external force F(t) proportional to coset (e=e
0
) is applied to the oscillator.
The time displacement of the oscillator will be proportional to
(A)
2 2
0
m
e e
(B)
2 2
0
1
m( ) e e
(C)
2 2
0
1
m( ) e + e
(D)
2 2
0
m
e + e
29. B.
For forced oscillations, the displacement is given by
x A sin( t ) = e +  with
0
2 2
0
F / m
A =
e e
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30. In forced oscillation of a particle the amplitude is maximum for a frequency e
1
of the force,
while the energy is maximum for a frequency e
2
of the force, then
(A) e
1
= e
2
(B) e
1
> e
2
(C) e
1
< e
2
when damping is small and e
1
> e
2
when damping is large
(D) e
1
< e
2
30. A.
Both amplitude and energy get maximised when the frequency is equal to the natural
frequency. This is the condition of resonance.
e
1
= e
2
31. One mole of ideal monoatomic gas ( = 5/30) is mixed with one mole of diatomic gas
( = 7/5). What is for the mixture? denotes the ratio of specific heat at constant pressure,
to that at constant volume.
(A) 3/2 (B) 23/15
(C) 35/23 (D) 4/3
31. A.
Q = Q
1
+ Q
2
1 2 1 2
m 1 2
n n n n
1 1 1
+
= +
m
3
2
=
32. If the temperature of the sun were to increase from T to 2T and its radius from R to 2R, then
the ratio of the radiant energy received on earth to what it was previously will be
(A) 4 (B) 16
(C) 32 (D) 64.
32. D.
According to Stefans law,
P AT
4
and A r
2
P r
2
T
4
33. Which of the following statements is correct for any thermodynamic system?
(A) The internal energy changes in all processes.
(B) Internal energy and entropy are state functions.
(C) The change in entropy can never be zero.
(D) The work done in an adiabatic process is always zero.
33. B.
34. Two thermally insulated vessels 1 and 2 are filled with air at temperatures (T
1
, T
2
), volume
(V
1
, V
2
) and pressure (P
1
, P
2
) respectively. If the valve joining two vessels is opened, the
temperature inside the vessel at equilibrium will be
(A) T
1
+ T
2
(B) (T
1
+ T
2
)/2
(C)
1 2 1 1 2 2
1 1 2 2 2 1
TT (PV P V )
PVT P V T
+
+
(D)
1 2 1 1 2 2
1 1 1 2 2 2
TT (PV P V )
PVT P T T
+
+
34. C.
The number of moles of system remains same
According to Boyles law,
P
1
V
1
+ P
2
V
2
= P(V
1
+ V
2
)
1 2 1 1 2 2
1 1 2 2 2 1
TT (PV P V )
T
PVT P V T
+
=
+
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AIEEE PAPER04PH8
FIITJEE Ltd., ICES House, 29A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi110016, Ph: 26515949, 26569493, Fax: 01126513942.
35. A radiation of energy E falls normally on a perfectly reflecting surface. The momentum
transferred to the surface is
(A) E/c (B) 2E/c
(C) Ec (D) E/c
2
35. B.
surface
2E
P P .
c
A = A =
36. The temperature of two outer surfaces of a composite slab,
consisting of two materials having coefficients of thermal
conductivity K and 2K and thickness x and 4x, respectively are
T
2
and T
1
(T
2
> T
1
). The rate of heat transfer through the slab,
in a steady state is
2 1
A(T T )K
f,
x
 

\ .
with f equal to
(A) 1 (B)
(C) 2/3 (D) 1/3
x
4x
2K K
T1 T2
36. D.
2 1
2
2T T kA
q T
x 3
A =
]
= j
2 1
kA
T T
3x
37. A light ray is incident perpendicular to one face of a 90 prism and is
totally internally reflected at the glassair interface. If the angle of
reflection is 45, we conclude that the refractive index n
(A)
1
n
2
< (B) n 2 >
(C)
1
n
2
> (D) n 2 <
45
45
37. B.
Angle of incidence i > C for total internal reflection.
Here i = 45 inside the medium.
45 > sin
1
(1/n)
n > \2.
38. A plane convex lens of refractive index 1.5 and radius of curvature 30 cm is silvered at the
curved surface. Now this lens has been used to form the image of an object. At what
distance from this lens an object be placed in order to have a real image of the size of the
object?
(A) 20 cm (B) 30 cm
(C) 60 cm (D) 80 cm
38. A.
1 m
1 2 1
F f f
= +
and
1
1 1 1 1
(1.5 1)
f 30 60
 
= =

\ .
and
m
f 15 cm. =
F = 10 cm.
Object should be placed at 20 cm from the lens.
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Nitin M Sir (physicsiitjee.blogspot.com)
AIEEE PAPER04PH9
FIITJEE Ltd., ICES House, 29A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi110016, Ph: 26515949, 26569493, Fax: 01126513942.
39. The angle of incidence at which reflected light totally polarized for reflection from air to glass
(refractive index n), is
(A) sin
1
(n) (B) sin
1
(1/n)
(C) tan
1
(1/n) (D) tan
1
(n)
39. D.
Brewsters law: According to this law the ordinary light is completely polarised in the plane
of incidence when it gets reflected from transparent medium at a particular angle known as
the angle of polarisation.
n = tan i
p
.
40. The maximum number of possible interference maxima for slitseparation equal to twice the
wavelength in Youngs doubleslit experiment is
(A) infinite (B) five
(C) three (D) zero
40. B.
For interference maxima, d sin u = n
Here d = 2
sin u = n/2 and is satisfied by 5 integral values of n (2, 1, 0, 1, 2), as the maximum
value of sin u can only be 1.
41. An electromagnetic wave of frequency v = 3.0 MHz passes from vacuum into a dielectric
medium with permittivity c = 4.0. Then
(A) wavelength is doubled and the frequency remains unchanged
(B) wavelength is doubled and frequency becomes half
(C) wavelength is halved and frequency remains unchanged
(D) wavelength and frequency both remain unchanged.
41. C.
Refractive index,
0
2
c
= =
c
Speed and wavelength of wave will becomes half, the frequency remaining unchanged
(frequency of a wave depends on the source as due to refraction, it is assumed that the
energy is conserved. hv remains the same)
42. Two spherical conductor B and C having equal radii and carrying equal charges in them
repel each other with a force F when kept apart at some distance. A third spherical
conductor having same radius as that of B but uncharged brought in contact with B, then
brought in contact with C and finally removed away from both. The new force of repulsion,
between B and C is
(A) F/4 (B) 3F/4
(C) F/8 (D) 3F/8.
42. D.
2
0
1 (q/ 2)(3q/ 4) 3F
F' .
4 d 8
= =
tc
43. A charged particle q is shot towards another charged particle Q which is fixed, with a speed
v it approaches Q upto a closest distance r and then returns. If q were given a speed 2v, the
closest distances of approach would be
(A) r (B) 2r
(C) r/2 (D) r/4
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AIEEE PAPER04PH10
FIITJEE Ltd., ICES House, 29A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi110016, Ph: 26515949, 26569493, Fax: 01126513942.
43. D.
By principle of conservation of energy
2
1 KqQ
mv
2 r
= (i)
Finally,
2
2
1 KqQ
m(2v)
2 r
= (ii)
Equation (i) (ii),
1 r '
4 r
=
r
r '
4
= .
44. Four charges equal to Q are placed at the four corners of a square and a charge q is at its
centre. If the system is in equilibrium the value of q is
(A)
Q
(1 2 2)
4
+ (B)
Q
(1 2 2)
4
+
(C)
Q
(1 2 2)
2
+ (D)
Q
(1 2 2)
2
+
44. B.
q =
Q
(1 2 2)
4
+ +
45. Alternating current can not be measured by D.C. ammeter because
(A) A.C. cannot pass through D.C.
(B) A.C. changes direction
(C) average value of current for complete cycle is zero
(D) D.C. ammeter will get damaged.
45. C.
46. The total current supplied to the circuit by the battery is
(A) 1 A (B) 2 A
(C) 4 A (D) 6 A
46. C.
The given circuit can be written as
6 V
I 4A
1.5
= =
O
.
6 V
2
3
1.5
6
47. The resistance of the series combination of two resistances is S. When they are joined in
parallel through total resistance is P. If S = nP, then the minimum possible value of n is
(A) 4 (B) 3
(C) 2 (D) 1
47. A.
Let resistances be R
1
and R
2
So, S = R
1
+ R
2
;
1 2
1 2
R R
P
R R
=
+
S = nP
1 2
1 2
1 2
nR R
R R
R R
+ =
+
2
1 2 1 2
(R R ) nRR + =
If R
1
= R
2
, so minimum value of n = 4.
Nitin M Sir (physicsiitjee.blogspot.com)
Nitin M Sir (physicsiitjee.blogspot.com)
AIEEE PAPER04PH11
FIITJEE Ltd., ICES House, 29A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi110016, Ph: 26515949, 26569493, Fax: 01126513942.
48. An electric current is passed through a circuit containing two wires of the same material,
connected in parallel. If the length and radii of the wires are in the ratio of 4/3 and 2/3, then
the ratio of the currents passing through the wire will be
(A) 3 (B) 1/3
(C) 8/9 (D) 2.
48. B.
1 2
2 1
I R
I R
=
[current divider rule since voltage is same in parallel]
2
1 2 1
2
2 1 2
I L r
I L r
=
2
1
2
I 3 2 1
I 4 3 3
 
= =

\ .
.
49. In a metre bridge experiment null point is obtained at 20 cm from one end of the wire when
resistance X is balanced against another resistance Y. If X < Y, then where will be the new
position of the null point from the same end, if one decides to balance a resistance of 4X
against Y?
(A) 50 cm (B) 80 cm
(C) 40 cm (D) 70 cm
49. A.
We have from meter bridge experiment,
1 1
2 2
R
R
=
, where
2
= (100
1
) cm
In the first case, X/Y = 20/80
In the second case
4X
Y 100
=
= 50 cm.
50. The thermistors are usually made of
(A) metals with low temperature coefficient of resistivity
(B) metals with high temperature coefficient of resistivity
(C) metal oxides with high temperature coefficient of resistivity
(D) semiconducting materials having low temperature coefficient of resistivity.
50. C.
These are devices whose resistance varies quite markedly with temperature mean having
high temperature coefficient of resistivity. [Their name are derived from thermal resistors].
Depending on their composition they can have either negative temperature coefficient or
positive temperature coefficient or positive temperature coefficient or positive temperature
coefficient characteristics.
The negative temperature coefficient types consists of a mixture of oxides of iorn, nickel and
cobalt with small amounts of other substance. The positive temperature coefficient types are
based on barium titanate.
51. Time taken by a 836 W heater to heat one litre of water from 10C to 40C is
(A) 50 s (B) 100 s
(C) 150 s (D) 200 s
51. C.
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AIEEE PAPER04PH12
FIITJEE Ltd., ICES House, 29A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi110016, Ph: 26515949, 26569493, Fax: 01126513942.
Let t be the time taken, then
836 t
1000 1 (40 10)
4.2
= [using Q = mst]
t = 150 sec.
52. The thermo emf of a thermocouple varies with the temperature u of the hot junction as
E = a u + bu
2
in volts where the ratio a/b is 700C. If the cold junction is kept at 0C, then the
neutral temperature is
(A) 700C
(B) 350C
(C) 1400C
(D) no neutral temperature is possible for this thermocouple.
52. D.
E = au + bu
2
At neutral temperature dE/du = 0
n
dE
a 2b 0
d
= + u =
u
;
n
a
2b
u =
Now
a
700 C
b
= (given)
u
n
=700/2 = 350C
Now
c
0 C. u =
So,
n
0 C u >
But mathematically
n
0 C u < .
53. The electrochemical equivalent of a metal is 3.3 10
7
kg per coulomb. The mass of the
metal liberated at the cathode when a 3 A current is passed for 2 seconds will be
(A) 19.8 10
7
kg (B) 9.9 10
7
kg
(C) 6.6 10
7
kg (D) 1.1 10
7
kg
53. A.
m = Zit,
m = 3.3 10
7
3 2 = 19.8 10
7
kg.
54. A current I ampere flows along an infinitely long straight thin walled tube, then the magnetic
induction at any point inside the tube is
(A) infinite (B) zero
(C)
0
2i
4 r
t
tesla (D)
2i
r
tesla
54. B.
Considering Amperes loop (shown by dotted line), no current is enclosed by this loop.
Therefore, the magnetic field will be zero inside the tube.
55. A long wire carries a steady current. It is bent into a circle of one turn and the magnetic field
at the centre of the coil is B. It is then bent into a circular loop of n turns. The magnetic field
at the centre of the coil will be
(A) nB (B) n
2
B
(C) 2nB (D) 2n
2
B
55. B.
0
n i
B'
2r '
= =
2 2 0
i
n n B
t
=
.
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Nitin M Sir (physicsiitjee.blogspot.com)
AIEEE PAPER04PH13
FIITJEE Ltd., ICES House, 29A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi110016, Ph: 26515949, 26569493, Fax: 01126513942.
56. The magnetic field due to a current carrying circular loop of radius 3 cm at a point on the axis
at a distance of 4 cm from the centre is 54 T. What will be its value at the centre of the
loop?
(A) 250 T (B) 150 T
(C) 125 T (D) 75 T
56. A.
Using formula
2
0
2 2 3/ 2
iR
B
2(R X )
=
+
, we get
2
0
2 2 3/ 2
i(3)
54
2[(3) (4) ]
=
+
(i)
At the centre of the coil, X = 0 and B =
0
i
2(3)
B = 250 T.
57. Two long conductors, separated by a distance d carry current I
1
and I
2
in the same direction.
They exert a force F on each other. Now the current in one of them increased to two times
and its direction reversed. The distance is also increased to 3d. The new value of the force
between them is
(A) 2F (B) F/3
(C) 2F/3 (D) F/3
57. C.
Force between two long conductor carrying current
0 1 2
I I
F
2 d
=
t
According to question
0 1 2
( 2I )(I )
F'
2 d
=
t
From equation (i) and (ii),
3
F' F.
2
=
58. The length of a magnet is large compared to its width and breadth. The time period of its
width and breadth. The time period of its oscillation in a vibration magnetometer is 2 s. The
magnet is cut along its length into three equal parts and three parts are then placed on each
other with their like poles together. The time period of this combination will be
(A) 2 s (B) 2/3 s
(C) 2\3 s (D) 2/\3 s .
58. B.
Time period of vibration,
T
T 2
MB
= t
Where = moment of inertia of magnet, M = magnetic moment
2
m
I
12
=
and M = pole strength
2
1 m I
I' 3
12 3 3 9
   
= =
 
\ . \ .
(B)
2 1
(W W )
5Rt
(C)
2 1
W W
Rnt
(D)
2 1
n(W W )
Rt
61. B.
n d
I
R' dt

=
or,
2 1
2 1
W W 1
I n
R' t t
=
]
(W
1
and W
2
are not the magnetic field, but the values of flux associated with one turn of coil)
2 1
n(W W ) 1
I
(R 4R) t
=
+
or,
2 1
n(W W )
I
5Rt
=
62. In a uniform magnetic field of induction B a wire in the form of semicircle of radius r rotates
about the diameter of the circle with angular frequency e. The axis of rotation is
perpendicular to the field. If the total resistance of the circuit is R the mean power generated
per period of rotation is
(A)
2
B r
2R
t e
(B)
2 2
(B r )
2R
t e
(C)
2
(B r )
2R
t e
(D)
2 2
(B r )
8R
t e
62. B.
Magnetic flux = BA cos u = B
2
r
cos t
2
t
e
2
ind
d 1
B r
dt 2

c = = t e sin et
2 2 2 4 2 2
ind
B r sin t
P
R 4R
c t e e
= =
Now, <sin
2
et> = (mean value)
2 2
(B r )
P .
8R
t e
< > =
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AIEEE PAPER04PH15
FIITJEE Ltd., ICES House, 29A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi110016, Ph: 26515949, 26569493, Fax: 01126513942.
63. In a LCR circuit capacitance is changed from C to 2C. For the resonant frequency to remain
unchanged, the inductance should be changed from L to
(A) 4L (B) 2L
(C) L/2 (D) L/4
63. C.
res
1
LC
e =
if e
res
is to remain same, the product LC should also not change.
LC = L'C'
LC = L'2C
L' = L/2
64. A metal conductor of length 1 m rotates vertically about one of its ends at angular velocity 5
radians per second. If the horizontal component of earths magnetic field is 0.3 10
4
T, then
the e.m.f. developed between the two ends of the conductor is
(A) depends on the nature of the metal used
(B) depends on the intensity of the radiation
(C) depends both on the intensity of the radiation and the metal used
(D) is the same for all metals and independent of the intensity of the radiation.
64. B.
emf. developed is given by
2
ind
1
B R 50 V.
2
c = e =
65. According to Einsteins photoelectric equation, the plot of the kinetic energy of the emitted
photo electrons from a metal V
s
the frequency, of the incident radiation gives straight line
whose slope
(A) depends on the nature of the metal used
(B) depends on the intensity of the radiation
(C) depends both on the intensity of the radiation and the metal used
(D) is the same for all metals and independent of the intensity of the radiation.
65. D.
max
KE h W = v {y = mx + C}
Slope of the line in the graph is h, the
Plancks constant.
K.E.
= h
W
66. The work function of a substance is 4.0 eV. Then longest wavelength of light that can cause
photoelectron emission from this substance approximately
(A) 540 nm (B) 400 nm
(C) 310 nm (D) 220 nm
66. C.
hc
W =
34 8
longest 19
hc 6.6 10 3 10
W 4.0 1.6 10
= =
longest
310 nm. ~
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AIEEE PAPER04PH16
FIITJEE Ltd., ICES House, 29A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi110016, Ph: 26515949, 26569493, Fax: 01126513942.
67. A charged oil drop is suspended in a uniform field of 3 10
4
V/m so that it neither falls nor
rises. The charge on the drop will be (take the mass of the charge = 9.9 10
15
kg and g =
10 m/s
2
)
(A) 3.3 10
18
C (B) 3.2 10
18
C
(C) 1.6 10
18
C (D) 4.8 10
18
C.
67. A.
Since ball is hanging in equilibrium, force by gravity is balanced by electric force.
qE = mg
m g
q
E
15
4
9.9 10 10
3 10
q = 3.3 10
18
C
68. A nucleus disintegrates into two nuclear parts which have their velocities in the ratio 2 : 1.
The ratio of their nuclear sizes will be
(A) 2
1/3
: 1 (B) 1 : 3
1/2
(C) 3
1/2
: 1 (D) 1 : 2
1/3
68. B.
1/ 3
1 2
2 2
R m
R 2m
 
=

\ .
1/ 3 1
2
R
1: 2
R
= .
69. The binding energy per nucleon of deuteron
2
1
( H) and helium nucleus
4
2
( He) is 1.1 MeV and
7 MeV respectively. If two deuteron nuclei react to form a single helium nucleus, then the
energy released is
(A) 13.9 MeV (B) 26.9 MeV
(C) 23.6 MeV (D) 19.2 MeV
69. C.
Energy released = total binding energy of product total binding energy of reactants
28 (2 2.2) = 28 4.4 = 236 MeV.
70. An oparticle of energy 5 MeV is scattered through 180 by a fixed uranium nucleus. The
distance of the closest approach is of the order of
(A) 1 (B) 10
10
cm
(C) 10
12
cm (D) 10
15
cm
70. C.
At closest approach, all the kinetic energy of the oparticle will converted into the potential
energy of the system, K.E. = P.E.
1 2
0
q q 1
5 MeV
4 r
=
tc
5 10
6
e = 9 10
9
2
1 2
Z Z e
r
9 19
6
9 10 92 2 1.6 10
r
5 10
r = 5.3 10
14
m = 5.3 10
12
cm.
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AIEEE PAPER04PH17
FIITJEE Ltd., ICES House, 29A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi110016, Ph: 26515949, 26569493, Fax: 01126513942.
71. When npn transistor is used as amplifier
(A) electrons move from base to collector (B) holes move from emitter to base
(C) electrons move from collector to base (D) holes move from base to emitter.
71. A.
When npn transistor is used, majority charge carrier electrons of n type emitter move from
emitter to base and then base to collector.
72. For a transistor amplifier in common emitter configuration having load impedance of 1 kO (h
fe
= 50 and h
oe
= 25) the current gain is
(A) 5.2 (B) 15.7
(C) 24.8 (D) 48.78
72. D.
In CE configuration,
fe
i
0e L
h
A
1 h R
=
+
=
6 3
50
48.78
1 25 10 1 10
=
+
73. A piece of copper and another of germanium are cooled from room temperature to 77 K, the
resistance of
(A) each of them increases
(B) each of them decreases
(C) copper decreases and germanium increases
(D) copper increases and germanium decreases.
73. D.
Copper is metallic conductor and germanium is semiconductor therefore as temperature
decreases resistance of good conductor decreases while for semiconductor it increases.
74. The manifestation of band structure in solids is due to
(A) Heisenbergs uncertainty principle (B) Paulis exclusion principle
(C) Bohrs correspondence principle (D) Boltzmanns law
74. B.
75. When pn junction diode is forward biased
(A) the depletion region is reduced and barrier height is increased
(B) the depletion region is widened and barrier height is reduced.
(C) both the depletion region and barrier height reduced
(D) both the depletion region and barrier height increased.
75. C.
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1
FIITJEE
SOLUTION TO AIEEE2005
PHYSICS
1. A projectile can have the same range R for two angles of projection. If t
1
and t
2
be the
times of flights in the two cases, then the product of the two time of flights is
proportional to
(1) R
2
(2) 1/R
2
(3) 1/R (4) R
1. (4)
2
1 2 2
2u sin2 2R
t t
g g
= =
2. An annular ring with inner and outer radii R
1
and R
2
is rolling without slipping with a
uniform angular speed. The ratio of the forces experienced by the two particles
situated on the inner and outer parts of the ring, F
1
/F
2
is
(1)
2
1
R
R
(2)
2
1
2
R
R
 

\ .
(3) 1 (4)
1
2
R
R
2. (4)
2
1 1 1
2
2 2 2
F R R
F R R
= =
3. A smooth block is released at rest on a 45 incline and then slides a distance d. The
time taken to slide is n times as much to slide on rough incline than on a smooth
incline. The coefficient of friction is
(1)
k 2
1
1
n
= (2)
k 2
1
1
n
=
(3)
s 2
1
1
n
= (4)
s 2
1
1
n
=
3. (1)
2
1
1 g
d t
2
2
=
( )
2
k 2
1 g
d 1 t
2
2
=
2
2 2
2
1 k
t 1
n
t 1
= =
4. The upper half of an inclined plane with inclination is perfectly smooth while the
lower half is rough. A body starting from rest at the top will again come to rest at the
bottom if the coefficient of friction for the lower half is given by
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2
(1) 2sin (2) 2cos
(3) 2tan (4) tan
4. (3)
mg s sin =
s
mgcos .
2
S/2
S/2
5. A bullet fired into a fixed target loses half of its velocity after penetrating 3 cm. How
much further it will penetrate before coming to rest assuming that it faces constant
resistance to motion?
(1) 3.0 cm (2) 2.0 cm
(3) 1.5 cm (4) 1.0 cm
5. (4)
F.3
2
2
1 1 v
mv m
2 2 4
=
F(3+x)
2
1
mv
2
=
x = 1 cm
6. Out of the following pair, which one does NOT have identical dimensions is
(1) angular momentum and Plancks constant
(2) impulse and momentum
(3) moment of inertia and moment of a force
(4) work and torque
6. (3)
Using dimension
7. The relation between time t and distance x is t=ax
2
+bx where a and b are constants.
The acceleration is
(1) 2abv
2
(2) 2bv
3
(3) 2av
3
(4) 2av
2
7. (3)
t = ax
2
+ bx
by differentiating acceleration =  2av
3
8. A car starting from rest accelerates at the rate f through a distance S, then continues
at constant speed for time t and then decelerates at the rate f/2 to come to rest. If the
total distance traversed is 15 S, then
(1) S=ft (2) S = 1/6 ft
2
(3) S = 1/2 ft
2
(4) S = 1/4 ft
2
8. (none)
2
1
ft
S
2
=
0
v 2Sf =
During retardation
t
1
t
2
t
V
0
V
S
2
= 2S
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3
During constant velocity
15S 3S = 12S = v
o
t
2
ft
S
72
=
9. A particle is moving eastwards with a velocity of 5 m/s in 10 seconds the velocity
changes to 5 m/s northwards. The average acceleration in this time is
(1)
2
1
m/ s
2
towards northeast (2)
2
1
m/ s
2
towards north.
(3) zero (4)
2
1
m/ s
2
towards northwest
9. (4)
f i
V V
a
t
=
r r
r
( )
5j 5i 1
j i
10 2
= =
2
1
a ms
2
= towards north west
(S)
(W)
(E)
(N)
i
10. A parachutist after bailing out falls 50 m without friction. When parachute opens, it
decelerates at 2 m/s
2
. He reaches the ground with a speed of 3 m/s. At what height,
did he bail out?
(1) 91 m (2) 182 m
(3) 293 m (4) 111 m
10. (3)
s = 50 +
( )
( )
2
3 2 10 50
2 2
 


\ .
= 293 m.
11. A block is kept on a frictionless inclined surface with angle
of inclination . The incline is given an acceleration a to
keep the block stationary. Then a is equal to
(1) g/tan (2) g cosec
(3) g (4) g tan
a
11. (4)
mg sin = ma cos
a gtan =
ma
mg
N
12. A spherical ball of mass 20 kg is stationary at the top of a hill of height 100 m. It rolls
down a smooth surface to the ground, then climbs up another hill of height 30 m and
finally rolls down to a horizontal base at a height of 20 m above the ground. The
velocity attained by the ball is
(1) 40 m/s (2) 20 m/s
(3) 10 m/s (4) 10 30 m/s
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12. (1)
mgh = mv
2
v 2gh =
2 10 80 40 = = m/s
13. A body A of mass M while falling vertically downwards under gravity breaks into two
parts; a body B of mass 1/3 M and a body C of mass 2/3 M. The centre of mass of
bodies B and C taken together shifts compared to that of body A towards
(1) depends on height of breaking (2) does not shift
(3) body C (4) body B
13. (2)
No horizontal external force is acting
cm
a 0 =
since
cm
v 0 =
cm
x 0 =
14. The moment of inertia of a uniform semicircular disc of mass M and radius r about a
line perpendicular to the plane of the disc through the centre is
(1)
2
1
Mr
4
(2)
2
2
Mr
5
(3) Mr
2
(4)
2
1
Mr
2
14. (4)
2
R
2I 2M
2
=
2
MR
I
2
=
15. A particle of mass 0.3 kg is subjected to a force F=kx with k=15 N/m. What will be
its initial acceleration if it is released from a point 20 cm away from the origin?
(1) 3 m/s
2
(2) 15 m/s
2
(3) 5 m/s
2
(4) 10 m/s
2
15. (4)
2
kx
a 10m/ s
m
= =
16. The block of mass M moving on the frictionless
horizontal surface collides with a spring of spring
constant K and compresses it by length L. The
maximum momentum of the block after collision is
(1) MKL (2)
2
KL
2M
(3) zero (4)
2
ML
K
M
16. (1)
2
2
1 P
KL
2 2m
= P MK L =
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17. A mass m moves with a velocity v and collides
inelastically with another identical mass. After
collision the 1
st
mass moves with velocity v/3 in a
direction perpendicular to the initial direction of
motion. Find the speed of the 2
nd
mass after
collision
m
m
v
Before
collision
After
collision
v/3
(1) v (2) 3 v
(3) 2v/3 (4) v/3
17. (3)
1
mv mv cos =
1
mv
0 mv sin
3
=
1
2
v v
3
=
m
V
1
v
3
m
v
Before
collision
After
collision
18. A 20 cm long capillary tube is dipped in water. The water rises up to 8 cm. If the
entire arrangement is put in a freely falling elevator the length of water column in the
capillary tube will be
(1) 8 cm (2) 10 cm
(3) 4 cm (4) 20 cm
18. (4)
Water will rise to the full length of capillary tube
19. If S is stress and Y is Youngs modulus of material of a wire, the energy stored in the
wire per unit volume is
(1) 2S
2
Y (2) S
2
/2Y
(3) 2Y/S
2
(4) S/2Y
19. (2)
1
U
2
= stress strain
2
S
2Y
=
20. Average density of the earth
(1) does not depend on g (2) is a complex function of g
(3) is directly proportional to g (4) is inversely proportional to g
20. (3)
g =
av
G4
R
3
21. A body of mass m is accelerated uniformly from rest to a speed v in a time T. The
instantaneous power delivered to the body as a function time is given by
(1)
2
2
mv
t
T
(2)
2
2
2
mv
t
T
(3)
2
2
1 mv
t
2 T
(4)
2
2
2
1 mv
t
2 T
21. (1)
P= (ma).v
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6
= m a
2
t
= m
2
2
V
t
T
22. Consider a car moving on a straight road with a speed of 100 m/s. The distance at
which car can be stopped is  
k
0.5 =
(1) 800 m (2) 1000 m
(3) 100 m (4) 400 m
22. (2)
2
k
1
mgs mu
2
=
2
k
u
s 1000m
2 g
= =
23. Which of the following is incorrect regarding the first law of thermodynamics?
(1) It is not applicable to any cyclic process
(2) It is a restatement of the principle of conservation of energy
(3) It introduces the concept of the internal energy
(4) It introduces the concept of the entropy
23. (none)
More than one statements are incorrect
24. A T shaped object with dimensions shown in
the figure, is lying on a smooth floor. A force F is
applied at the point P parallel to AB, such that
the object has only the translational motion
without rotation. Find the location of P with
respect to C
P
l
2 l
F
r
A B
C
(1)
2
3
l (2)
3
2
l
(3)
4
3
l (4) l
24. (3)
P will be the centre of mass of system
25. The change in the value of g at a height h above the surface of the earth is the
same as at a depth d below the surface of earth. When both d and h are much
smaller than the radius of earth, then which one of the following is correct?
(1)
h
d
2
= (2)
3h
d
2
=
(3) d 2h = (4) d = h
25. (3)
( )
2 3
GM GM
R
R h
=
+
( ) R d
d = 2h
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26. A particle of mass 10 g is kept on the surface of a uniform sphere of mass 100 kg
and radius 10 cm. Find the work to be done against the gravitational force between
them to take the particle far away from the sphere
(you may take G = 6 . 6710
11
Nm
2
/ kg
2
)
(1)
10
13.34 10 J
(2)
10
3.33 10 J
(3)
9
6.67 10 J
(4)
10
6.67 10 J
26. (4)
w = GMm / R = 6.67 10
10
J
27. A gaseous mixture consists of 16 g of helium and 16 g of oxygen. The ratio
P
v
C
C
of the
mixture is
(1) 1.59 (2) 1.62
(3) 1.4 (4) 1.54
27. (2)
1 v1 2 v2
v
1 2
n c n c
c
n n
+
=
+
=
29R
18
P
47R
c
18
= ,
P
v
c
1.62
c
=
28. The intensity of gamma radiation from a given source is I. On passing through 36 mm
of lead, it is reduced to
I
8
. The thickness of lead which will reduce the intensity to
I
2
will be
(1) 6 mm (2) 9 mm
(3) 18 mm (4) 12 mm
28. (4)
Use I = I
0
e
x
29. The electrical conductivity of a semiconductor increases when electromagnetic
radiation of wavelength shorter than 2480 nm is incident on it. The band gap in (eV)
for the semiconductor is
(1) 1.1 eV (2) 2.5 eV
(3) 0.5 eV (4) 0.7 eV
29. (3)
g
hc
E 0.5eV = =
30. A photocell is illuminated by a small bright source placed 1 m away. When the same
source of light is placed
1
2
m away, the number of electrons emitted by photo
cathode would
(1) decrease by a factor of 4 (2) increase by a factor of 4
(3) decrease by a factor of 2 (4) increase by a factor of 2
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30. (2)
2
1
I
r
31 Starting with a sample of pure
66
Cu, 7/8 of it decays into Zn in 15 minutes. The
corresponding halflife is
(1) 10 minutes (2) 15 minutes
(3) 5 minutes (4)
1
7
2
minutes
31. (3)
1/ 2 1/ 2 1/ 2
t t t 0 0 0
0
N N N
N
2 4 8
1/ 2
3t 15 =
1/ 2
t 5 =
32. If radius of
27
13
Al nucleus is estimated to be 3.6 Fermi then the radius
125
52
Te nucleus
be nearly
(1) 6 fermi (2) 8 fermi
(3) 4 fermi (4) 5 fermi
32. (1)
1
3
R 125
R 6
3.6 27
 
= =

\ .
fermi
33. The temperatureentropy diagram of a reversible engine
cycle is given in the figure. Its efficiency is
(1) 1/2 (2) 1/4
(3) 1/3 (4) 2/3
2So
2To
T
To
S
S
33. (3)
BC
W
Q
=
0 0
0 0
S T
2
1/ 3
3S T
2
= =
S
T
A C
B
S
0
2S
0
2T
0
T
0
34. The figure shows a system of two concentric spheres of radii
r
1
and r
2
and kept at temperatures T
1
and T
2
respectively. The
radial rate of flow of heat in a substance between the two
concentric sphere is proportional to
T1
T2
r1
r2
(1)
2 1
1 2
r r
r r
(2)
2
1
r
ln
r
 

\ .
(3)
1 2
2 1
r r
r r
(4) ( )
2 1
ln r r
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34. (3)
( )
( )
1 2
1 2
2 1
4 r r K dQ
T T
dt r r
 
=

\ .
35. A system goes from A to B via two processes I and II as shown
in the figure. If U
1
and U
2
are the changes in internal energies
in the processes I and II respectively, the
(1) U
1
= U
2
(2) relation between U
1
and U
2
can not be determined
(3) U
2
> U
1
(4) U
2
< U
1
P
V
II
I
A
B
35. (1)
Internal energy is state function
36. The function sin
2
(t) represents
(1) a periodic, but not simple harmonic motion with a period 2/
(2) a periodic, but not simple harmonic motion with a period /
(3) a simple harmonic motion with a period 2/
(4) a simple harmonic motion with a period /.
36. (4)
( ) 1 cos2 t
y
2
=
37. A Youngs double slit experiment uses a monochromatic source. The shape of the
interference fringes formed on a screen is
(1) hyperbola (2) circle
(3) straight line (4) parabola
37. (3)
Straight line
Note: If instead of youngs double slit experiment, youngs double hole experiment
was given shape would have been hyperbola.
38. Two simple harmonic motions are represented by the equation y
1
= 0.1
sin 100 t
3
 
+

\ .
and y
2
= 0.1 cost. The phase difference of the velocity of particle 1
w.r.t. the velocity of the particle 2 is
(1) /6 (2) /3
(3) /3 (4) /6
38. (1)
Phase difference () = 99t + /3 /2
at t = 0 = /6.
39. A fish looking up through the water sees the outside world contained in a circular
horizon. If the refractive index of water is 4/3 and the fish is 12 cm below the surface,
the radius of this circle in cm is
(1) 36 7 (2) 36 / 7
(3) 36 5 (4) 4 5
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10
39. (2)
2
h 36
r
7 1
= =
40. Two point white dots are 1 mm apart on a black paper. They are viewed by eye of
pupil diameter 3 mm. Approximately, what is the maximum distance at which these
dots can be resolved by the eye? [ Take wavelength of light = 500 nm ]
(1) 5 m (2) 1m
(3) 6 m (4) 3m
40. (1)
( )
( ) 1mm
1.22
Resolution limit
3mm R
= =
R = 5 m
41. A thin glass (refractive index 1.5) lens has optical power of 5D in air. Its optical
power in a liquid medium with refractive index 1.6 will be
(1) 1 D (2) 1D
(3) 25 D (4) 25 D
41. (none)
a m
air
m
1
P
P
1
 

\ .
=
 

\ .
l
l
P
m
=5/8 D
42. The diagram shows the energy levels for an electron
in a certain atom. Which transition shown represents
the emission of a photon with the most energy ?
(1) III (2) IV
(3) I (4) II
n=4
n=3
n=2
n=1
I II III IV
42. (1)
E
2 2
1 2
1 1
n n
 

\ .
43. If the kinetic energy of a free electron doubles. Its deBroglie wavelength changes by
the factor
(1)
1
2
(2) 2
(3)
1
2
(4) 2
43. (3)
h
2Km
=
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11
44. In a common base amplifier, the phase difference between the input signal voltage
and output voltage is
(1)
4
(2)
(3) 0 (4)
2
44. (3)
No phase difference between input and output signal.
45. In a full wave rectifier circuit operating from 50 Hz mains frequency, the fundamental
frequency in the ripple would be
(1) 50 Hz (2) 25 Hz
(3) 100 Hz (4) 70.7 Hz
45. (3)
frequency = 2 (frequency of input signal).
46. A nuclear transformation is denoted by X(n, )
7
3
Li . Which of the following is the
nucleus of element X ?
(1)
12
C
6
(2)
10
5
B
(3)
9
5
B (4)
11
4
Be
46. (2)
1 4 7
0 2 3
X n He Li + +
47. A moving coil galvanometer has 150 equal divisions. Its current sensitivity is
10 divisions per milliampere and voltage sensitivity is 2 divisions per millivolt. In
order that each division reads 1 volt, the resistance in ohms needed to be connected
in series with the coil will be
(1) 10
3
(2) 10
5
(3) 99995 (4) 9995
47. (4)
I
g
=15mA Vg = 75mV
g
g g
V
V
R
I I
=
48. Two voltameters one of copper and another of silver, are joined in parallel. When a
total charge q flows through the voltameters, equal amount of metals are deposited.
If the electrochemical equivalents of copper and silver are z
1
and z
2
respectively the
charge which flows through the silver voltameter is
(1)
1
2
q
z
1
z
+
(2)
2
1
q
z
1
z
+
(3) q
1
2
z
z
(4) q
2
1
z
z
48. (2)
q
1
Z
1
=q
2
Z
2
q=q
1
+q
2
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2
2
1
q
q
Z
1
Z
=
+
49. In the circuit, the galvanometer G shows
zero deflection. If the batteries A and B
have negligible internal resistance, the
value of the resistor R will be
2V
12V
500
R
A
G
B
(1) 200 (2) 100
(3) 500 (4) 1000
49. (2)
12R
2
500 R
=
+
50. Two sources of equal emf are connected to an external resistance R. The internal
resistance of the two sources are R
1
and R
2
(R
2
> R
1
). If the potential difference
across the source having internal resistance R
2
is zero, then
(1) R = R
2
(R
1
+ R
2
)/R
2
R
1
) (2) R = R
2
R
1
(3) R = R
1
R
2
/ (R
1
+ R
2
) (4) R = R
1
R
2
/ (R
2
R
1
)
50. (2)
1 2
2E
I
R R R
=
+ +
2
E R I 0 =
R = R
2
R
1
51. A fully charged capacitor has a capacitance C it is discharged through a small coil of
resistance wire embedded in a thermally insulated block of specific heat capacity s
and mass m. If the temperature of the block is raised by T. The potential
difference V across the capacitance is
(1)
2mC T
s
(2)
mC T
s
(3)
ms T
C
(4)
2ms T
C
51. (4)
Dimensionally only 4
th
option is correct.
52. One conducting U tube can slide inside another as
shown in figure, maintaining electrical contacts
between the tubes. The magnetic field B is
perpendicular to the plane of the figure. if each tube
moves towards the other at a constant speed V,
then the emf induced in the circuit in terms of B, l
and V where l is the width of each tube will be
A
D
x
B
x x x x
x x x x
x x x x
x x
C
D
V
V
(1) BlV (2) BlV
(3) zero (4) 2 BlV
52. (4)
d
2B v
dt
= l
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53. A heater coil is cut into two equal parts and only one part is now used in the heater.
The heat generated will now be
(1) doubled (2) four times
(3) one fourth (4) halved
53. (1)
2
V t
H
R
=
2
'
V
H' t
R
= Given R = R/2
54. Two thin, long parallel wires separated by a distance d carry a current of i A in the
same direction. They will
(1) attract each other with a force of
0
i
2
/(2d)
(2) repel each other with a force of
0
i
2
/ (2d)
(3) attract each other with a force of
0
i
2
(2d
2
)
(4) repel each other with a force of
0
i
2
/(2d
2
)
54. (1)
Using the definition of force per unit length due to two long parallel wires carrying
currents.
55. When an unpolarized light of intensity I
0
is incident on a polarizing sheet, the intensity
of the light which does not get transmitted is
(1)
0
1
I
2
(2)
0
1
I
4
(3) zero (4) I
0
55. (1)
When unpolarised light of intensity I
o
is incident on a polarizing sheet, only I
o
/2 is
transmitted.
56. A charged ball B hangs from a silk thread S which makes an
angle with a large charged conducting sheet P, as show in
the figure. The surface charge density of the sheet is
proportional to
(1) cos (2) cot
(3) sin (4) tan
+
+
+
+
+
+
+
S
B
P
56. (4)
tan =
( )
o
q
2 mg
Mg
o
q
2
57. Two point charges + 8q and 2q are located at x = 0 and x = L respectively. The
location of a point on the x axis at which the net electric field due to these two point
charges is zero is
(1) 2L (2) L/4
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14
(3) 8L (4) 4L
57. (1)
( )
2 2
k2q k8q
0
x
x L
+ =
x = 2L
58. Two thin wires rings each having a radius R are placed at a distance d apart with
their axes coinciding. The charges on the two rings are +q and q. The potential
difference between the centres of the two rings is
(1) QR/4
0
d
2
(2)
2 2
0
Q 1 1
2 R
R d
(
+
(3) zero (4)
2 2
0
Q 1 1
4 R
R d
(
+
58. (2)
1
2 2
kq kq
v
R
R d
=
+
2
2 2
kq kq
v
R
R d
= +
+
59. A parallel plate capacitor is made by stacking n equally spaced plates connected
alternatively. If the capacitance between any two adjacent plates is C then the
resultant capacitance is
(1) (n 1)C (2) (n + 1)C
(3) C (4) nC
59. (1)
C
eq
=(n1) C (Q all capacitors are in parallel)
60. When two tuning forks (fork 1 and fork 2) are sounded simultaneously, 4 beats per
second are heard. Now, some tape is attached on the prong of the fork 2. When the
tuning forks are sounded again, 6 beats per seconds are heard. If the frequency of
fork 1 is 200 Hz, then what was the original frequency of fork 2?
(1) 200 Hz (2) 202 Hz
(3) 196 Hz (4) 204 Hz
60. (3)
f
1
f
2
 =4
Since mass of second tuning fork increases so f
2
decrease and beats increase so
f
1
>f
2
f
2
=f
1
4 = 196
61. If a simple harmonic motion is represented by
2
2
d x
dt
+ x = 0, its time period is
(1)
2
(2)
2
(3) 2 (4) 2
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61. (2)
2
=
=
2
T
=
62. The bob of a simple pendulum is a spherical hollow ball filled with water. A plugged
hole near the bottom of the oscillation bob gets suddenly unplugged. During
observation, till water is coming out, the time period of oscillation would
(1) first increase and then decrease to the original value.
(2) first decreased then increase to the original value.
(3) remain unchanged.
(4) increase towards a saturation value.
62. (1)
First CM goes down and then comes to its initial position.
63. An observer moves towards a stationary source of sound, with a velocity one fifth of
the velocity of sound. What is the percentage increase in the apparent frequency?
(1) zero. (2) 0.5%
(3) 5% (4) 20%
63. (4)
v v / 5 6f
f f
v 5
+
= =
% increase in frequency = 20%
64. If I
0
is the intensity of the principal maximum in the single slit diffraction pattern, then
what will be its intensity when the slit width is doubled?
(1) 2I
0
(2) 4I
0
(3) I
0
(4) I
0
/2
64. (3)
Maximum intensity is independent of slit width.
65. Two concentric coils each of radius equal to 2 cm are placed at right angles to each
other. 3 Ampere and 4 ampere are the currents flowing in each coil respectively. The
magnetic induction in Weber/m
2
at the centre of the coils will be (
0
= 4 10
7
Wb/Am)
(1) 12 10
5
(2) 10
5
(3) 5 10
5
(4) 7 10
5
65. (3)
2 2 o
1 2
B I I
2r
= +
7
2
4 10
B 5
2 2 10
=
B = 510
5
66. A coil of inductance 300 mH and resistance 2 is connected to a source of voltage
2V. The current reaches half of its steady state value in
(1) 0.05 s (2) 0.1 s
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16
(3) 0.15 s (4) 0.3 s
66. (2)
R
t
L
o
I I 1 e
 
=

\ .
R
0.693 t
L
=
.3 0.693
t 0.1sec
2
= =
67. The self inductance of the motor of an electric fan is 10 H. In order to impart
maximum power at 50 Hz, it should be connected to a capacitance of
(1) 4F (2) 8F
(3) 1F (4) 2F
67. (3)
1
f
2 LC
=
2 2
1
C
4 f 10
=
C = 1F
68. An energy source will supply a constant current into the load of its internal resistance
is
(1) equal to the resistance of the load.
(2) very large as compared to the load resistance.
(3) zero.
(4) nonzero but less than the resistance of the load.
68. (2)
o
E E
I if R r
R r r
= <<
+
69. A circuit has a resistance of 12 and an impedance of 15 . The power factor of the
circuit will be
(1) 0.8 (2) 0.4
(3) 1.25 (4) 0.125
69. (1)
R 12 4
cos 0.8
Z 15 5
= = = =
70. The phase difference between the alternating current and emf is /2. Which of the
following cannot be the constituent of the circuit?
(1) C alone (2) R.L
(3) L. C (4) L alone
70. (2)
0<phase difference for RL circuit < /2
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17
71. A uniform electric field and a uniform magnetic field are acting along the same
direction in a certain region. If an electron is projected along the direction of the fields
with a certain velocity then
(1) its velocity will decrease. (2) its velocity will increase.
(3) it will turn towards right of direction of motion. (4) it will turn towards left of
direction of motion.
71. (1)
F e E v B eE
(
= + =
r r r r
r
eE
a
m
=
r
r
( )
o
eE
v t v t
m
=
72. A charged particle of mass m and charge q travels on a circular path of radius r that
is perpendicular to a magnetic field B. The time taken by the particle to complete one
revolution is
(1)
2 mq
B
(2)
2
2 q B
m
(3)
2 qB
m
(4)
2 m
qB
72. (4)
m
2
r=Bqr
= Bq/m
2 m
T
qB
=
73. In a potentiometer experiment the balancing with a cell is at length 240 cm. On
shunting the cell with a resistance of 2 the balancing length becomes 120 cm. The
internal resistance of the cell is
(1) 1 (2) 0.5
(3) 4 (4) 2
73. (4)
1
2
240
r R 1 2 1 2
120
(
(
= = =
(
(
l
l
74. The resistance of hot tungsten filament is about 10 times the cold resistance. What
will be the resistance of 100 W and 200 V lamp when not in use?
(1) 40 (2) 20
(3) 400 (4) 200
74. (1)
2
hot
V 200 200
R 400
P 100
= = =
cold resistance = R
hot
/10 = 400/10 = 40
75. A magnetic needle is kept in a nonuniform magnetic field. It experiences
(1) a torque but not a force (2) neither a force nor a torque
(3) a force and a torque. (4) a force but not a torque.
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18
75. (3)
In non uniform magnetic field, dipole experiences both force and torque.
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41. A particle located at x = 0 at time t = 0, starts moving along the positive xdirection with a velocity
v that varies as v = x . The displacement of the particle varies with time as
(1) t
3
(2) t
2
(3) t (4) t
1/2
Ans: (2)
Sol.
dx dx
dt
dt
x
= =
x t
2
42. A mass of M kg is suspended by a weightless string. The horizontal force that is required to
displace it until the string makes an angle of 45 with the initial vertical direction is
(1) Mg( 2 1) (2) Mg( 2 1) +
(3) Mg 2 (4)
Mg
2
Ans: (1)
Sol. F A sin 45 = Mg (A A cos 45)
F = Mg (2 1)
43. A bomb of mass 16 kg at rest explodes into two pieces of masses of 4 kg and 12 kg. The velocity
of the 12 kg mass is 4 ms
1
. The kinetic energy of the other mass is
(1) 96 J (2) 144 J
(3) 288 J (4) 192 J
Ans: (3)
Sol. m
1
v
1
= m
2
v
2
2
2 2
1 1
KE m v 4 144 288J
2 2
= = =
44. A particle of mass 100 g is thrown vertically upwards with a speed of 5 m/s. the work done by the
force of gravity during the time the particle goes up is
(1) 0.5 J (2) 0.5 J
(3) 1.25 J (4) 1.25 J
Ans: (3)
Sol. mgh = mg
2
v
1.25J
2g
=
.
45. A whistle producing sound waves of frequencies 9500 Hz and above is approaching a stationary
person with speed v ms
1
. The velocity of sound in air is 300 ms
1
. If the person can hear
frequencies upto a maximum of 10,000 Hz, the maximum value of v upto which he can hear the
whistle is
(1) 30 ms
1
(2) 15 2 ms
1
(3) 15/ 2 ms
1
(4) 15 ms
1
Ans: (4)
Sol.
( )
app
f 300
f v 15m/ s
300 v
= =
46. A electric dipole is placed at an angle of 30 to a nonuniform electric field. The dipole will
experience
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(1) a torque only
(2) a translational force only in the direction of the field
(3) a translational force only in a direction normal to the direction of the field
(4) a torque as well as a translational force
Ans: (4)
Sol. A torque as well as a translational force
47. A material B has twice the specific resistance of A. A circular wire made of B has twice the
diameter of a wire made of A. Then for the two wires to have the same resistance, the ratio A
A
/A
B
of their respective lengths must be
(1) 2 (2) 1
(3)
1
2
(4)
1
4
Ans: (1)
Sol.
A A
1
2
A
R
R
A
B B
2
2
B
R
R
A
2 2
A B A A A
2 2
B
A B A A
R 2 R
R 4R
= =
A
A
B
A
2 =
A
A
48. The Kirchhoffs first law ( i 0) =
= =
56. The maximum velocity of a particle, executing simple harmonic motion with an amplitude 7 mm, is
4.4 m/s. The period of oscillation is
(1) 100 s (2) 0.01 s
(3) 10 s (4) 0.1 s
Ans: (2)
Sol. A = v
max
max
2 2 A
T 0.01sec
v
= = =
57. A string is stretched between fixed points separated by 75 cm. It is observed to have resonant
frequencies of 420 Hz and 315 Hz. There are no other resonant frequencies between these two.
Then, the lowest resonant frequency for this string is
(1) 10.5 Hz (2) 105 Hz
(3) 1.05 Hz (4) 1050 Hz
Ans: (2)
Sol. ( )
( ) n 1
n
v 315, v 420
2 2
+
= =
A A
Solving
v
105
2
=
A
58. Assuming the sun to be a spherical body of radius R at a temperature of T K, evaluate the total
radiant power, incident on Earth, at a distance r from the Sun.
(1)
2 4
2
R T
r
(2)
2 2 4
0
2
4 r R T
r
(3)
2 2 4
0
2
r R T
r
(4)
2 2 4
0
2
r R T
4 r
where r
0
is the radius of the Earth and is Stefans constant.
Ans: (3)
Sol.
2
4 2 0
2
r
( T 4 R )
4 r
4 2 2
0
2
T R r
r
=
59. The refractive index of glass is 1.520 for red light and 1.525 for blue light. Let D
1
and D
2
be an of
minimum deviation for red and blue light respectively in a prism of this glass. Then
(1) D
1
> D
2
(2) D
1
< D
2
(3) D
1
= D
2
(4) D
1
can be less than or greater than depending upon the angle of prism
Ans: (2)
Sol. D = ( 1)A
D
2
> D
1
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60. In a Wheatstones bridge, there resistances P, Q and R connected in the three arms and the
fourth arm is formed by two resistances S
1
and S
2
connected in parallel. The condition for bridge
to be balanced will be
(1)
1 2
P R
Q S S
=
+
(2)
1 2
P 2R
Q S S
=
+
(3)
1 2
1 2
R(S S ) P
Q S S
+
= (4)
1 2
1 2
R(S S ) P
Q 2S S
+
=
Ans: (3)
Sol.
1 2
1 2
R(S S ) P
Q S S
+
=
61. The current I drawn from the 5 volt source will be
(1) 0.17 A (2) 0.33 A
(3) 0.5 A (4) 0.67 A
Ans: (3)
Sol.
5
i 0.5
10
= =
5
10
5
5 Volt
10
10
I
+
62. In a series resonant LCR circuit, the voltage across R is 100 volts and R = 1 k with C = 2F. The
resonant frequency is 200 rad/s. At resonance the voltage across L is
(1) 4 10
3
V (2) 2.5 10
2
V
(3) 40 V (4) 250 V
Ans: (4)
Sol.
100
i 0.1A
1000
= =
L C
6
0.1
V V 250
200 2 10
= = =
V
63 Two insulating plates are both uniformly charged in such a way that
the potential difference between them is V
2
V
1
= 20 V. (i.e. plate 2
is at a higher potential). The plates are separated by d = 0.1 m and
can be treated as infinitely large. An electron is released from rest on
the inner surface of plate 1. What is its speed when it hits plate 2?
(e = 1.6 10
19
C, m
e
= 9.11 10
31
kg)
(1) 32 10
19
m/s (2) 2.65 10
6
m/s
(3) 7.02 10
12
m/s (4) 1.87 10
6
m/s
0.1 m
Y
X
2 1
Ans: (2)
Sol.
2
1
mv eV
2
=
2eV
v
m
= = 2.65 10
6
m/s
64. The resistance of a bulb filament is 100 at a temperature of 100C. If its temperature coefficient
of resistance be 0.005 per C, its resistance will become 200 at a temperature of
(1) 200C (2) 300C
(3) 400C (4) 500C
Ans: (2)
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Sol. 200 = 100[1 +(0.005 t)]
T 100 = 200
T = 300 C
65. In an AC generator, a coil with N turns, all of the same area A and total resistance R, rotates with
frequency in a magnetic field B. The maximum value of emf generated in the coil is
(1) N.A.B. (2) N.A.B.R.
(3) N.A.B (4) N.A.B.R
Ans: (1)
Sol. NBA
66. The flux linked with a coil at any instant t is given by
2
10t 50t 250 = +
The induced emf at t = 3 s is
(1) 190 V (2) 190 V
(3) 10 V (4) 10 V
Ans: (3)
Sol.
d
e (20 t 50) 10
dt
= = = volt
67. A thermocouple is made from two metals, Antimony and Bismuth. If one junction of the couple is
kept hot and the other is kept cold then, an electric current will
(1) flow from Antimony to Bismuth at the cold junction
(2) flow from Antimony to Bismuth at the hot junction
(3) flow from Bismuth to Antimony at the cold junction
(4) not flow through the thermocouple
Ans: (1)
Sol. Flow from Antimony to Bismuth at cold junction
68. The time by a photoelectron to come out after the photon strikes is approximately
(1) 10
1
s (2) 10
4
s
(3) 10
10
s (4) 10
16
s
Ans: (3)
Sol. 10
10
sec.
69. An alpha nucleus of energy
2
1
mv
2
bombards a heavy nuclear target of charge Ze. Then the
distance of closest approach for the alpha nucleus will be proportional to
(1)
1
Ze
(2) v
2
(3)
1
m
(4)
4
1
v
Ans: (3)
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Sol.
1
m
70. The threshold frequency for a metallic surface corresponds to an energy of 6.2 eV, and the
stopping potential for a radiation incident on this surface 5 V. The incident radiation lies in
(1) Xray region (2) ultraviolet region
(3) infrared region (4) visible region
Ans: (2)
Sol.
1242eVnm
1100
11.2
=
Ultraviolet region
71. The energy spectrum of particles [number N(E) as a function of energy E] emitted from a
radioactive source is
(1)
N(E)
E0
E
(2)
N(E)
E0
E
(3)
N(E)
E0
E
(4)
N(E)
E0
E
Ans: (4)
Sol.
N(E)
E0
E
72. When
3
Li
7
nuclei are bombarded by protons, and the resultant nuclei are
4
Be
8
, the emitted
particles will be
(1) neutrons (2) alpha particles
(3) beta particles (4) gamma photons
Ans: (4)
Sol. Gammaphoton
73. A solid which is transparent to visible light and whose conductivity increases with temperature is
formed by
(1) Metallic binding (2) Ionic binding
(3) Covalent binding (4) Van der Waals binding
Ans: (3)
Sol. Covalent binding
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74. If the ratio of the concentration of electrons that of holes in a semiconductor is
7
5
and the ratio of
currents is
7
,
4
then what is the ratio of their drift velocities?
(1)
4
7
(2)
5
8
(3)
4
5
(4)
5
4
Ans: (4)
Sol.
e
n
n 7
n 5
=
e
n
I 7
I 4
=
d e
d n
(V )
(V )
e n
n e
I n 5
I n 4
=
75. In a common base mode of a transistor, t collector current is 5.488 mA for an emit current of 5.60
mA. The value of the base current amplification factor () will be
(1) 48 (2) 49
(3) 50 (4) 51
Ans: (2)
Sol.
b e c
I I I =
=
c
b
I
49
I
=
76. The potential energy of a 1 kg particle free move along the xaxis is given by
4 2
x x
V(x) J
4 2
=
The total mechanical energy of the particle 2 J. Then, the maximum speed (in m/s) is
(1) 2 (2) 3/ 2
(3) 2 (4) 1/ 2
Ans: (2)
Sol. k E
max
= E
T
U
min
U
min
(1) = 1/4 J
KE
max
= 9/4 J U =
3
2
J
77. A force of
Fk acts on O, the origin of the coordinate system. The torque about the point (1, 1)
is
(1)
( )
F i j (2)
( )
F i j
(3)
( )
F i j + (4)
( )
F i j +
Ans: (3)
Sol.
( i j) ( Fk) = +
G
=  F(
i j) +
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78. A thin circular ring of mass m and radius R is rotating about its axis with a constant angular
velocity . Two objects each of mass M are attached gently to the opposite ends of a diameter of
the ring. The ring now rotates with an angular velocity =
(1)
m
(m 2M)
+
(2)
(m 2M)
m
+
(3)
(m 2M)
(m 2M)
+
(4)
m
(m M)
+
Ans: (1)
Sol. L
i
= L
f
mR
2
= (mR
2
+ 2MR
2
)
=
m
m 2M
+
79. If the terminal speed of a sphere of gold (density = 19.5 kg/m
3
) is 0.2 m/s in a viscous liquid
(density = 1.5 kg/m
3
) of the same size in the same liquid.
(1) 0.2 m/s (2) 0.4 m/s
(3) 0.133 m/s (4) 0.1 m/s
Ans: (4)
Sol.
s s
g g
v ( )
v ( )
=
A
A
v
s
= 0.1 m/s
80. The work of 146 kJ is performed in order to compress one kilo mole of gas adiabatically and in
this process the temperature of the gas increases by 7 C. The gas is
(R = 8.3 J mol
1
K
1
)
(1) monoatomic (2) diatomic
(3) triatomic (4) a mixture of monoatomic and diatomic
Ans: (2)
Sol. 146 = C
v
T
C
v
= 21 J/mol K
81. The rms value of the electric field of the light coming from the Sun is 720 N/C. The average total
energy density of the electromagnetic wave is
(1) 3.3 10
3
J/m
3
(2) 4.58 10
6
J/m
3
(3) 6.37 10
9
J/m
3
(4) 81.35 10
12
J/m
3
Ans: (2)
Sol. U
av
=
2 6
0 rms
E 4.58 10
= J/m
3
2 6 3
rms
E 4.58 10 J/ m
=
82. A coin is placed on a horizontal platform which undergoes vertical simple harmonic motion of
angular frequency . The amplitude of oscillation is gradually increased. The coin will leave
contact with the platform for the first time
(1) at the highest position of the platform (2) at the mean position of the platform
(3) for an amplitude of
2
g
Ans: (3)
Sol. A
2
= g
A = g/
2
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83. An electric bulb is rated 220 volt 100 watt. The power consumed by it when operated on 110
volt will be
(1) 50 watt (2) 75 watt
(3) 40 watt (4) 25 watt
Ans: (4)
Sol.
2 2
1 2
1 2
V V
Resistance
P P
= =
P
2
= 25 W
84. The anode voltage of a photocell is kept fixed. The wavelength of the light falling on the cathode
is gradually changed. The plate current I of the photocell varies as follows :
(1)
O
I
(2)
O
I
(3)
O
I
(4)
O
I
Ans: (3)
85. The rad is the correct unit used to report the measurement of
(1) the rate of decay of radioactive source
(2) the ability of a beam of gamma ray photons to produce ions in a target
(3) the energy delivered by radiation to a target.
(4) the biological effect of radiation
Ans: (4)
86. If the binding energy per nucleon in
7
3
Li and
4
2
He nuclei are 5.60 MeV and 7.06 MeV
respectively, then in the reaction
7 4
3 2
p Li 2 He +
energy of proton must be
(1) 39.2 MeV (2) 28.24 MeV
(3) 17.28 MeV (4) 1.46 MeV
Ans: (3)
Sol. E
P
= (8 7.06 7 5.60) MeV = 17.28 MeV
87. If the lattice constant of this
semiconductor is decreased, then which
of the following is correct?
EC
EV
Eg
Condutton band width
Band gap
Valence badn width
(1) All E
c
, E
g
, E
v
decrease
(2) All E
c
, E
g
, E
v
increase
(3) E
c
, and E
v
increase but E
g
decreases
(4) E
c
, and E
v
, decrease E
g
increases
Ans: (4)
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88. In the following, which one of the diodes is reverse biased?
(1)
R
+ 5 V
(2)
R
+ 10 V
+ 5 V
(3)
R
10 V
5 V
(4)
R
10 V
Ans: (1)
89.
The circuit has two oppositely connect ideal diodes
in parallel. What is the current following in the
circuit?
4
3 2
D1
12 V
D2
(1) 1.33 A (2) 1.71 A
(3) 2.00 A (4) 2.31 A
Ans: (3)
Sol. D
1
is reverse biased therefore it will act like an open circuit.
12
i 2.00 A
6
= =
90. A long solenoid has 200 turns per cm and carries a current i. The magnetic field at its centre is
6.28 10
2
Weber/m
2
. Another long solenoid has 100 turns per cm and it carries a current i/3. The
value of the magnetic field at its centre is
(1) 1.05 10
4
Weber/m
2
(2) 1.05 10
2
Weber/m
2
(3) 1.05 10
5
Weber/m
2
(4) 1.05 10
3
Weber/m
2
Ans: (2)
Sol. B
2
=
2
2 1 2 2
1 1
B n i (6.28 10 )(100 i / 3)
1.05 10
n i 200(i)
= = W/m
2
91. Four point masses, each of value m, are placed at the corners of a square ABCD of side A. The
moment of inertia through A and parallel to BD is
(1) mA
2
(2) 2 mA
2
(3)
2
3mA (4) 3 mA
2
Ans: (4)
Sol. I = 2m (A/ 2 )
2
= 3 mA
2
92. A wire elongates by A mm when a load W is hanged from it. If the wire goes over a pulley and two
weights W each are hung at the two ends, the elongation of the wire will be (in mm)
(1) A/2 (2) A
(3) 2A (4) zero
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93. Two rigid boxes containing different ideal gases are placed on a table. Box A contains one mole
of nitrogen at temperature T
0
, while Box B contains one mole of helium at temperature (7/3) T
0
.
The boxes are then put into thermal contact with each other and heat flows between them until
the gases reach a common final temperature. (Ignore the heat capacity of boxes). Then, the final
temperature of the gases, T
f
, in terms of T
0
is
(1)
f 0
5
T T
2
= (2)
f 0
3
T T
7
=
(3)
f 0
7
T T
3
= (4)
f 0
3
T T
2
=
Ans: (4)
Sol. U = 0
f 0 f 0
3 5 7
R(T T ) 1 R(T T ) 0
2 2 3
+ =
T
f
=
0
3
T
2
94. Two spherical conductors A and B of radii 1 mm and 2 mm are separated by a distance of 5 cm
and are uniformly charged. If the spheres are connected by a conducting wire then in equilibrium
condition, the ratio of the magnitude of the electric fields at the surface of spheres A and B is
(1) 1 : 4 (2) 4 : 1
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 2 : 1
Ans: (4)
Sol.
A B
B A
E r 2
E r 1
= =
95. An inductor (L = 100 mH), a resistor (R = 100 ) and a
battery (E = 100 V) are initially connected in series as
shown in the figure. After a long time the battery is
disconnected after short circuiting the points A and B. The
current in the circuit 1 mm after the circuit is
E
A
B
R
L
(1) 1 A (2) 1/e A
(3) e A (4) 0.1 A
Ans: (2)
Sol. I = I
0
Rt / L
e
=
1
A
e
* * * * * *
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P Ph hy ys si ic cs s C Co od de e O O
41. The displacement of an object attached to a spring and executing simple harmonic motion is
given by x = 2 10
2
cos t metres. The time at which the maximum speed first occurs is
(1) 0.5 s (2) 0.75 s
(3) 0.125 s (4) 0.25 s
Sol. (1)
x = 2 10
2
cos t
v = 0.02 sin t
v is maximum at t =
1
0.5sec
2
=
42. In an a.c. circuit the voltage applied is E = E
0
sin t. The resulting current in the circuit is
I = I
0
sin t
2
. The power consumption in the circuit is given by
(1)
0 0
E I
P
2
= (2) P = zero
(3)
0 0
E I
P
2
= (4) P 2 E
0
I
0
Sol. (2)
cos = 0
So power = 0
43. An electric charge 10
3
C is placed at the origin (0, 0) of XY coordinate system. Two points A
and B are situated at ( 2, 2 ) and (2, 0) respectively. The potential difference between the
points A and B will be
(1) 9 volt (2) zero
(3) 2 volt (4) 4.5 volt
Sol. (2)
Both points are at same distance from the charge
44. A battery is used to charge a parallel plate capacitor till the potential difference between the
plates becomes equal to the electromotive force of the battery. The ratio of the energy stored in
the capacitor and the work done by the battery will be
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3)
1
4
(4)
1
2
Sol. (4)
1
qv
1
2
qv 2
=
45. An ideal coil of 10H is connected in series with a resistance of 5 and a battery of 5V. 2 second
after the connection is made the current flowing in amperes in the circuit is
(1) (1 e) (2) e
(3)
1
e
(4)
1
(1 e )
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Sol. (4)
Rt
L
0
i i 1 e
=
=
( )
1
1 e
46. A long straight wire of radius a caries a steady current i. The current is uniformly distributed
across its cross section. The ratio of the magnetic field at
a
2
and 2a is
(1)
1
4
(2) 4
(3) 1 (4)
1
2
Sol. (3)
2
0 2
a i a
B2
2 4 a
=
0
1
i
B
4 a
(i)
2 0
B 2 (2a) i =
0
2
i
B
4 a
(ii)
1
2
B
1
B
=
47. A current I flows along the length of an infinitely long, straight, thin walled pipe. Then
(1) the magnetic field is zero only on the axis of the pipe
(2) the magnetic field is different at different points inside the pipe
(3) the magnetic field at any point inside the pipe is zero
(4) the magnetic field at all points inside the pipe is the same, but not zero
Sol. (3)
Use Amperes law
48. If M
O
is the mass of an oxygen isotope
17
8
O , M
p
and M
N
are the masses of a proton and a
neutron respectively, the nuclear binding energy of the isotope is
(1)
2
O P
(M 8M )C (2)
2
O P N
(M 8M 9M )C
(3)
2
O
M C (4)
2
O N
(M 17M )C
Sol. (2)
Binding energy = (M
O
8M
P
9 M
N
)C
2
49. In gamma ray emission from a nucleus
(1) both the neutron number and the proton number change
(2) there is no change in the proton number and the neutron number.
(3) only the neutron number changes
(4) only the proton number changes
Sol. (2)
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50. If in a pn junction diode, a square
input signal of 10V is applied as
shown
5V
5V
RL
Then the output signal across R
L
will be
(1)
10V
(2)
10V
(3)
5V
(4)
+5V
Sol. (4)
51. Photon of frequency has a momentum associated with it. If c is the velocity of light, the
momentum is
(1) /c (2) hc
(3) h/c
2
(4) h/c
Sol. (4)
h h
P
c
= =
52. The velocity of a particle is v = v
0
+ gt + ft
2
. If its position is x = 0 at t = 0, then its displacement
after unit time (t = 1) is
(1) v
0
+ 2g + 3f (2) v
0
+ g/2 + f/3
(3) v
0
+ g + f (4) v
0
+ g/2 + f
Sol. (2)
x 1
2
0
0 0
dx (V gt ft )dt = + +
x = v
0
+
1 1
g f
2 3
+
53. For the given uniform square lamina ABCD, whose centre is O,
(1)
AC EF
2I I =
(2)
AD EF
I 3I =
(3)
AC EF
I I =
(4)
AC EF
I 2I =
A B
C D
F
E
Sol. (3)
AC EF
I I = (from
rd
axis theorem)
54. A point mass oscillates along the xaxis according to the law x = x
0
cos (t /4). If the
acceleration of the particle is written as
a = A cos(t + )
(1) A = x
0
, = /4 (2) A = x
0
2
, = /4
(3) A = x
0
2
, = /4 (4) A = x
0
2
, = 3/4
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Sol. (4)
v = x
0
sin (t /4)
a = x
0
2
cos t
4
+
a = A cos(t + )
A = x
0
2
;
3
4
=
55. Charges are placed on the vertices of a square as shown. Let E be the
electric field and V the potential at the centre. If the charges on A and B
are interchanged with those on D and C respectively, then
(1) E
G
remains unchanged, V changes
(2) Both E
G
and V change
(3) E
G
and V remains unchanged
(4) E
G
changes, V remains unchanged
A B
C D
q q
q q
Sol. (4)
As E
G
is a vector quantity
56. The halflife period of a radioactive element X is same as the mean life time of another radio
active element Y. Initially they have the same number of atoms. Then
(1) X will decay faster than Y
(2) Y will decay faster than X
(3) X and Y have same decay rate initially
(4) X and Y decay at same rate always.
Sol. (2)
1/ 2
x
ln2
t =
mean
y
1
=
;
dN
N
dt
=
x y
ln2 1
=
x y
= (0.6932)
y x
>
57. A Carnot engine, having an efficiency of = 1/10 as heat engine, is used as a refrigerator. If the
work done on the system is 10 J, the amount of energy absorbed from the reservoir at lower
temperature is
(1) 99 J (2) 90 J
(3) 1 J (4) 100 J
Sol. (2)
1
2
2
T
W Q 1
T
=
2
1
T
1
T
=
10
2
10
Q 1
9
=
2
1
T 1
1
10 T
=
2
1
T 1 9
1
T 10 10
= =
2
1
10 Q
9
=
1
2
T 10
T 9
=
Q
2
= 90 J
58. Carbon, silicon and germanium have four valence electrons each. At room temperature which
one of the following statements is most appropriate?
(1) The number of free conduction electrons is significant in C but small in Si and Ge.
(2) The number of free conduction electrons is negligible small in all the three.
(3) The number of free electrons for conduction is significant in all the three.
(4) The number of free electrons for conduction is significant only in Si and Ge but small in C.
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Sol. (4)
59. A charged particle with charge q enters a region of constant, uniform and mutually orthogonal
fields E
G
and B
G
with a velocity v
G
perpendicular to both E
G
and B
G
, and comes out without any
change in magnitude or direction of v
G
. Then
(1)
2
v E B/ B =
G G
G
(2)
2
v B E/ B =
G G
G
(3)
2
v E B/ E =
G G
G
(4)
2
v B E/ E =
G G
G
Sol. (1)
v B E =
G G
G
60. The potential at a point x (measured in m) due to some charges situated on the xaxis is given
by V(x) = 20/(x
2
4) Volts. The electric field E at x = 4 m is given by
(1) 5/3 Volt/m and in the ve x direction (2) 5/3 Volt/m and in the +ve x direction.
(3) 10/9 Volt /m and in the ve x direction (4) 10/9 Volt/m and in the +ve x direction.
Sol. (4)
x 2
20
V
x 4
=
2 2
dV 20
E (2x 0)
dx (x 4)
= =
160 10
144 9
= =
61. Which of the following transitions in hydrogen atoms emit photons of highest frequency?
(1) n = 2 to n = 6 (2) n = 6 to n = 2
(3) n = 2 to n = 1 (4) n = 1 to n = 2
Sol. (3)
2
2 2
1 2
1 1
h Rhcz
n n
=
62. A block of mass m is connected to another block of mass M by a spring (massless) of spring
constant k. The blocks are kept on a smooth horizontal plane. Initially the blocks are at rest and
the spring is unstretched. Then a constant force F starts acting on the block of mass M to pull
it. Find the force on the block of mass m
(1)
mF
M
(2)
(M m)F
m
+
(3)
mF
(m M) +
(4)
MF
(m M) +
Sol. (3)
Kx = ma =
mF
m M +
63. Two lenses of power 15 D and + 5D are in contact with each other. The focal length of the
combination is
(1) 20 cm (2) 10 cm
(3) + 20 cm (4) + 10 cm
Sol. (2)
P = P
1
+ P
2
= 10
1
f
P
= 0.1 m 10 cm
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64. One end of a thermally insulated rod is kept at a
temperature T
1
and the other at T
2
. The rod is
composed of two sections of lengths A
1
and A
2
and
thermal conductivities k
1
and k
2
respectively. The
temperature at the interface of the two sections is
T1
T2
k1 k2
A2
A1
(1) (k
2
A
2
T
1
+ k
1
A
1
T
2
) / (k
1
A
1
+ k
2
A
2
) (2) (k
2
A
1
T
1
+ k
1
A
1
T
2
) / (k
2
A
1
+ k
1
A
2
)
(3) (k
1
A
2
T
1
+ k
2
A
1
T
2
) / (k
1
A
2
+ k
2
A
1
) (4) (k
1
A
1
T
1
+ k
2
A
2
T
2
) / (k
1
A
1
+ k
2
A
2
)
Sol. (3)
1 1 2 2
1 2
(T T)k (T T )k
=
A A
l 1 2 2 2 1
1 2 2 1
Tk T k
T
k k
+
=
+
A A
A A
65. A sound absorber attenuates the sound level by 20 dB. The intensity decreases by a factor of
(1) 1000 (2) 10000
(3) 10 (4) 100
Sol. (4)
1
0
I
B 10log
I
=
2
0
I'
B log
I
=
given
2 1
B B 20 =
20 = 10 log
I'
I
I' 100I =
66. If C
p
and C
v
denote the specific heats of nitrogen per unit mass at constant pressure and constant
volume respectively, then
(1) C
p
C
v
= R/28 (2) C
p
C
v
= R/14
(3) C
p
C
v
= R (4) C
p
C
v
= 28R
Sol. (1)
Mayer Formula
67. A charged particle moves through a magnetic field perpendicular to its direction. Then
(1) the momentum changes but the kinetic energy is constant
(2) both momentum and kinetic energy of the particle are not constant
(3) both, momentum and kinetic energy of the particle are constant
(4) kinetic energy changes but the momentum is constant
Sol. (1)
68. Two identical conducting wires AOB and COD are placed at right angles to each other. The wire
AOB carries an electric current I
1
and COD carries a current I
2
. The magnetic field on a point lying
at a distance d from O, in a direction perpendicular to the plane of the wires AOB and COD, will
be given by
(1)
1 2
0 1 2
I I
2 d
+
(2)
( )
1 2
2 2 0
1 2
I I
2 d
(3) ( )
0
1 2
I I
2 d
(4)
( )
2 2 0
1 2
I I
2 d
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Sol. (2)
2 2 0
1 2
I
(I I )
2 d
69. The resistance of a wire is 5 ohm at 50C and 6 ohm at 100C. The resistance of the wire at 0 C
will be
(1) 2 ohm (2) 1 ohm
(3) 4 ohm (4) 3 ohm
Sol. (3)
5 1 50
6 1 100
+
=
+
5 = R
0
(1+ 50)
R
O
= 4
70. A parallel plate condenser with a dielectric of dielectric constant K between the plates has a
capacity C and is charged to a potential V volts. The dielectric slab is slowly removed from
between the plates and then reinserted. The net work done by the system in this process is
(1) (K1)CV
2
(2) CV
2
(K 1)/K
(3) (K1)CV
2
(4) zero
Sol. (4)
71. If g
E
and g
m
are the accelerations due to gravity on the surfaces of the earth and the moon
respectively and if Millikans oil drop experiment could be performed on the two surfaces, one will
find the ratio
electronic charge on the moon
electronic charge on the earth
to be
(1) 1 (2) 0
(3) g
E
/g
m
(4) g
m
/g
E
Sol. (1)
72. A circular disc of radius R is removed from a bigger circular disc of radius 2R such that the
circumferences of the discs coincide. The centre of mass of the new disc is /R from the centre of
the bigger disc. The value of is
(1) 1/3 (2) 1/2
(3) 1/6 (4) 1/4
Sol. (1)
In this question distance of centre of mass of new disc is R not
R
.
3M M
R R 0
4 4
+ =
1
3
=
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73. A round uniform body of radius R, mass M and moment of inertia I, rolls down (without slipping)
an inclined plane making an angle with the horizontal. Then its acceleration is
(1)
2
gsin
I
1
MR
+
(2)
2
gsin
MR
1
I
+
(3)
2
gsin
I
1
MR
(4)
2
gsin
MR
1
I
Sol. (1)
Mg sin f = Ma
fR = I
a
R
a =
2
gsin
I
1
MR
+
f
Mg
N
74. Angular momentum of the particle rotating with a central force is constant due to
(1) Constant Force (2) Constant linear momentum.
(3) Zero Torque (4) Constant Torque
Sol. (3)
75. A 2 kg block slides on a horizontal floor with a speed of 4 m/s. It strikes a uncompressed spring,
and compresses it till the block is motionless. The kinetic friction force is 15 N and spring constant
is 10,000. N/m. The spring compresses by
(1) 5.5 cm (2) 2.5 cm
(3) 11.0 cm (4) 8.5 cm
Sol. (1)
76. A particle is projected at 60 to the horizontal with a kinetic energy K. The kinetic energy at the
highest point is
(1) K (2) Zero
(3) K/2 (4) K/4
Sol. (4)
77. In a Youngs double slit experiment the intensity at a point where the path difference is
6
(
being the wavelength of the light used) is I. If I
0
denotes the maximum intensity,
0
I
I
is equal to
(1)
1
2
(2)
3
2
(3) 1/2 (4) 3/4
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Sol. (4)
2
max
I
cos
I 2
=
78. Two springs, of force constants k
1
and k
2
, are connected to a
mass m as shown. The frequency of oscillation of the mass is f. If
both k
1
and k
2
are made four times their original values, the
frequency of oscillation becomes
(1) f/2 (2) f/4
(3) 4f (4) 2f
m
k2 k1
Sol. (4)
1 2
k k 1
f
2 m
+
=
1 2
k k 1
f ' 2 2f
2 m
+
= =
79. When a system is taken from state i to state f along the path iaf, it
is found that Q = 50 cal and W = 20 cal. Along the path ibf
Q = 36 cal. W along the path ibf is
(1) 6 cal (2) 16 cal.
(3) 66 cal. (4) 14 cal.
a
i b
f
Sol. (1)
80. A particle of mass m executes simple harmonic motion with amplitude a and frequency . The
average kinetic energy during its motion from the position of equilibrium to the end is
(1)
2
ma
2
2
(2)
1
4
2
ma
2
2
(3) 4
2
ma
2
2
(4) 2
2
ma
2
2
Sol. (1)
2 2 2 2 2
1
ma f ma
4
=
*************
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A AI IE EE EE E 2 20 00 08 8, , P PA AP PE ER R( (C C 5 5) )
Note: (i) The test is of 3 hours duration.
(ii) The test consists of 105 questions of 3 marks each. The maximum marks are 315.
(iii) There are three parts in the question paper. The distribution of marks subjectwise in each part is as under for each correct
response.
Part A Mathematics (105 marks) 35 Questions
Part B Chemistry (105 marks) 35 Questions
Part C Physics (105 marks) 35 Questions
(iv) Candidates will be awarded three marks each for indicated correct response of each question. One mark will be deducted
for indicated incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for
an item in the Answer Sheet.
M Ma at th he em ma at ti ic cs s
PART A
1. AB is a vertical pole with B at the ground level and A at the top. A man finds that the angle of
elevation of the point A from a certain point C on the ground is 60. He moves away from the pole
along the line BC to a point D such that CD = 7 m. From D the angle of elevation of the point A is 45.
Then the height of the pole is
(1)
7 3 1
2
3 1
m (2)
( )
7 3
3 1
2
+ m
(3)
( )
7 3
3 1
2
m (4)
7 3 1
2
3 1
+
Sol: (2)
BD = AB = 7 + x
Also AB = x tan 60 = x 3
x 3 7 x = +
x =
7
3 1
AB =
( )
7 3
3 1
2
+ .
45 60
A
B C D
7
x
2. It is given that the events A and B are such that P (A) =
1
4
,
A 1
P
B 2
 
=

\ .
and
B 2
P
A 3
 
=

\ .
. Then P (B) is
(1)
1
6
(2)
1
3
(3)
2
3
(4)
1
2
Sol: (2)
( )
( )
P A B 1
2 P B
= ,
( )
( )
P A B 2
3 P A
=
Hence
( )
( )
P A 3
4 P B
= . (But P (A) = 1/4)
( )
1
P B
3
= .
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3. A die is thrown. Let A be the event that the number obtained is greater than 3. Let B be the event that
the number obtained is less than 5. Then P (A B) is
(1)
3
5
(2) 0
(3) 1 (4)
2
5
Sol: (3)
A = { } 4, 5, 6 , B = { } 1, 2, 3, 4 .
Obviously P (A B) = 1.
4. A focus of an ellipse is at the origin. The directrix is the line x = 4 and the eccentricity is 1/2. Then the
length of the semimajor axis is
(1)
8
3
(2)
2
3
(3)
4
3
(4)
5
3
Sol: (1)
Major axis is along xaxis.
a
ae 4
e
=
1
a 2 4
2
 
=

\ .
a =
8
3
.
5. A parabola has the origin as its focus and the line x = 2 as the directrix. Then the vertex of the
parabola is at
(1) (0, 2) (2) (1, 0)
(3) (0, 1) (4) (2, 0)
Sol: (2)
Vertex is (1, 0)
(2, 0)
O
X =2
6. The point diametrically opposite to the point P (1, 0) on the circle x
2
+ y
2
+ 2x + 4y 3 = 0 is
(1) (3, 4) (2) ( 3, 4)
(3) ( 3, 4) (4) (3, 4)
Sol: (3)
Centre ( 1, 2)
Let (, ) is the required point
1
2
+
= 1 and
0
2
2
+
= .
7. Let f : N Y be a function defined as f (x) = 4x + 3, where Y = {y N : y = 4x + 3 for some x N}.
Show that f is invertible and its inverse is
(1) g (y) =
3y 4
3
+
(2) g (y) =
y 3
4
4
+
+
(3) g (y) =
y 3
4
+
(4) g (y) =
y 3
4
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Sol: (4)
Function is increasing
x = ( )
y 3
g y
4
= .
8. The conjugate of a complex number is
1
i 1
. Then the complex number is
(1)
1
i 1
(2)
1
i 1 +
(3)
1
i 1
+
(4)
1
i 1
Sol: (3)
Put i in place of i
Hence
1
i 1
+
.
9. Let R be the real line. Consider the following subsets of the plane R R.
S = {(x, y) : y = x + 1 and 0 < x < 2}, T = {(x, y) : x y is an integer}. Which one of the following is true?
(1) neither S nor T is an equivalence relation on R
(2) both S and T are equivalence relations on R
(3) S is an equivalence relation on R but T is not
(4) T is an equivalence relation on R but S is not
Sol: (4)
T = {(x, y) : xy I}
as 0 I T is a reflexive relation.
If x y I y x I
T is symmetrical also
If x y = I
1
and y z = I
2
Then x z = (x y) + (y z) = I
1
+ I
2
I
T is also transitive.
Hence T is an equivalence relation.
Clearly x x + 1 (x, x) S
S is not reflexive.
10. The perpendicular bisector of the line segment joining P (1, 4) and Q (k, 3) has yintercept 4. Then
a possible value of k is
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 2 (4) 4
Sol: (4)
Slope of bisector = k 1
Middle point =
k 1 7
,
2 2
+  

\ .
Equation of bisector is
y
7
2
= (k 1)
( )
k 1
x
2
  +

\ .
Put x = 0 and y = 4.
k = 4.
11. The solution of the differential equation
dy x y
dx x
+
= satisfying the condition y (1) = 1 is
(1) y = ln x + x (2) y = x ln x + x
2
(3) y = xe
(x1)
(4) y = x ln x + x
Sol: (4)
y = vx
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dy dv
v x
dx dx
= +
v +
dv
x 1 v
dx
= +
dv =
dx
x
v = log x + c
y
logx c
x
= +
Since, y (1) = 1, we have
y = x log x + x
12. The mean of the numbers a, b, 8, 5, 10 is 6 and the variance is 6.80. Then which one of the following
gives possible values of a and b?
(1) a = 0, b = 7 (2) a = 5, b = 2
(3) a = 1, b = 6 (4) a = 3, b = 4
Sol: (4)
Mean of a, b, 8, 5, 10 is 6
a b 8 5 10
6
5
+ + + +
=
a + b = 7 (1)
Given that Variance is 6.8
Variance =
( )
2
i
X A
n
=
( ) ( )
2 2
a 6 b 6 4 1 16
6.8
5
+ + + +
=
a
2
+ b
2
= 25
a
2
+ (7 a)
2
= 25 (Using (1))
a
2
7a + 12 = 0
a = 4, 3 and b = 3, 4.
13. The vector
a i 2j k = + +
G
lies in the plane of the vectors b
G
=
i j + and
c j k = +
G
and bisects the
angle between b
G
and c
G
. Then which one of the following gives possible values of and ?
(1) = 2, = 2 (2) = 1, = 2
(3) = 2, = 1 (4) = 1, = 1
Sol: (4)
( )
a b c = +
G
i 2j k
i 2j k
2
 
+ +
+ + =

\ .
= 2 and = 2 and = 2
= 1 and = 1.
14. The nonzero verctors a, b
G
G
and c
G
are related by a 8b =
G
G
and c 7b =
G
G
. Then the angle between a
G
and c
G
is
(1) 0 (2) /4
(3) /2 (4)
Sol: (4)
Since a 8b =
G
G
c 7b =
G
G
a
G
and b
G
are like vectors and b
G
and c
G
are unlike.
a
G
and c
G
will be unlike
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Hence, angle between a
G
and c
G
= .
15. The line passing through the points (5, 1, a) and (3, b, 1) crosses the yzplane at the point
17 13
0, ,
2 2
 

\ .
. Then
(1) a = 2, b = 8 (2) a = 4, b = 6
(3) a = 6, b = 4 (4) a = 8, b = 2
Sol: (3)
Equation of line passing through (5, 1, a) and (3, b, 1) is
y 1 x 5 z a
2 1 b a 1
= = =
.
If line crosses yzplane i.e., x = 0
x = 2 + 5 = 0
= 5/2,
Since, y = (1 b) + 1 =
17
2
( )
5 17
1 b 1
2 2
+ =
b = 4.
Also, z = (a 1) + a =
13
2
( )
5 13
a 1 a
2 2
+ =
a = 6.
16. If the straight lines
y 2 x 1 z 3
k 2 3
= = and
y 3 x 2 z 1
3 k 2
= = intersect at a point, then the
integer k is equal to
(1) 5 (2) 5
(3) 2 (4) 2
Sol: (1)
y 2 x 1 z 3
k 2 3
= = and
y 3 x 2 z 1
3 k 2
= =
Since lines intersect in a point
k 2 3
3 k 2
1 1 2
= 0
2k
2
+ 5k 25 = 0
k = 5, 5/2.
Directions: Questions number 17 to 21 are AssertionReason type questions. Each of these questions
contains two statements : Statement 1 (Assertion) and Statement2 (Reason). Each of these questions also
has four alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer. You have to select the correct choice.
17. Statement 1: For every natural number n 2,
1 1 1
... n
1 2 n
+ + + > .
Statement 2: For every natural number n 2,
( )
n n 1 n 1 + < + .
(1) Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is true
(2) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true, Statement 2 is a correct explanation for Statement 1
(3) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true; Statement 2 is not a correct explanation for
Statement 1.
(4) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false.
Sol: (3)
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P (n) =
1 1 1
...
1 2 n
+ + +
P (2) =
1 1
2
1 2
+ >
Let us assume that P (k) =
1 1 1
... k
1 2 k
+ + + > is true
P (k + 1) =
1 1 1 1
... k 1
1 2 k k 1
+ + + + > +
+
has to be true.
L.H.S. >
( )
1 k k 1 1
k
k 1 k 1
+ +
+ =
+ +
Since
( )
k k 1 k + > ( k 0)
( )
k k 1 1 k 1
k 1
k 1 k 1
+ + +
> = +
+ +
Let P (n) =
( )
n n 1 + < n + 1
Statement 1 is correct.
P (2) = 2 3 3 <
If P (k) =
( )
k k 1 (k 1) + < + is true
Now P (k + 1) =
( ) ( )
k 1 k 2 k 2 + + < + has to be true
Since (k + 1) < k + 2
( ) ( ) ( )
k 1 k 2 k 2 + + < +
Hence Statement 2 is not a correct explanation of Statement 1.
18. Let A be a 2 2 matrix with real entries. Let I be the 2 2 identity matrix. Denote by tr (A), the sum of
diagonal entries of A. Assume that A
2
= I.
Statement 1: If A I and A I, then det A = 1.
Statement 2: If A I and A I, then tr (A) 0.
(1) Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is true
(2) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true, Statement 2 is a correct explanation for Statement 1
(3) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true; Statement 2 is not a correct explanation for
Statement 1.
(4) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false.
Sol: (4)
Let A =
a b
c d
(
(
so that A
2
=
2
2
a bc ab bd 1 0
0 1
ac dc bc d
(
+ + (
= (
(
+ + (
a
2
+ bc = 1 = bc + d
2
and (a + d)c = 0 = (a + d)b.
Since A I, A 1, a = d and hence detA =
1 bc b
c 1 bc
= 1 + bc bc = 1
Statement 1 is true.
But tr. A = 0 and hence statement 2 is false.
19. Statement 1:
( ) ( )
n
n n 1
r
r 0
r 1 C n 2 2
=
+ = +
.
Statement 2:
( ) ( ) ( )
n
n n 1
n r
r
r 0
r 1 C x 1 x nx 1 x
=
+ = + + +
.
(1) Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is true
(2) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true, Statement 2 is a correct explanation for Statement 1
(3) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true; Statement 2 is not a correct explanation for
Statement 1.
(4) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false.
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Sol: (2)
( )
n
n
r
r 0
r 1 C
=
+
=
n
n n
r r
r 0
r C C
=
+
=
n n
n 1 n
r 1 r
r 0 r 0
n
r C C
r
= =
+
=
n 1 n
n2 2
+
= 2
n1
(n + 2)
Statement 1 is true
( )
n r n r n r
r r r
r 1 C x r C x C x + = +
=
n n
n 1 r n r
r 1 r
r 0 r 0
n C x C x
= =
+
= nx (1 + x)
n1
+ (1 + x)
n
Substituting x = 1
( )
n n 1 n
r
r 1 C n2 2
+ = +
Hence Statement 2 is also true and is a correct explanation of Statement 1.
20. Let p be the statement x is an irrational number, q be the statement y is a transcendental number,
and r be the statement x is a rational number iff y is a transcendental number.
Statement 1: r is equivalent to either q or p
Statement 2: r is equivalent to (p q).
(1) Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is true
(2) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true, Statement 2 is a correct explanation for Statement 1
(3) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true; Statement 2 is not a correct explanation for
Statement 1.
(4) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false.
Sol: (4)
Given statement r = p q
Statement 1 : r
1
= (p q) ( p q)
Statement 2 : r
2
= (p q) = (p q) ( q p)
From the truth table of r, r
1
and r
2
,
r = r
1
.
Hence Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
21. In a shop there are five types of icecreams available. A child buys six icecreams.
Statement 1: The number of different ways the child can buy the six icecreams is
10
C
5
.
Statement 2: The number of different ways the child can buy the six icecreams is equal to the
number of different ways of arranging 6 As and 4 Bs in a row.
(1) Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is true
(2) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true, Statement 2 is a correct explanation for Statement 1
(3) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true; Statement 2 is not a correct explanation for
Statement 1.
(4) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false.
Sol: (1)
x
1
+ x
2
+ x
3
+ x
4
+ x
5
= 6
5 + 6 1
C
5 1
=
10
C
4
.
22. Let f(x) =
( )
1
x 1 sin , if x 1
x 1
0, if x 1
 

\ .
   
+
 
 
 
 
\ . \ .
E =
1
17 6
cot tan
6 17
 
=

\ .
.
28. The differential equation of the family of circles with fixed radius 5 units and centre on the line y = 2 is
(1) (x 2)y
2
= 25 (y 2)
2
(2) (y 2)y
2
= 25 (y 2)
2
(3) (y 2)
2
y
2
= 25 (y 2)
2
(4) (x 2)
2
y
2
= 25 (y 2)
2
Sol: (3)
(x h)
2
+ (y 2)
2
= 25 (1)
2(x h) + 2(y 2)
dy
dx
= 0
(x h) = (y 2)
dy
dx
substituting in (1), we have
( ) ( )
2
2 2 dy
y 2 y 2 25
dx
 
+ =

\ .
(y 2)
2
y
2
= 25 (y 2)
2
.
29. Let I =
1
0
sinx
dx
x
and J =
1
0
cosx
dx
x
<
1 1
1
3 / 2
0
0 0
x 2 2
dx xdx x
3 3
x
= = =
I <
2
3
J =
1
0
cosx
dx
x
<
1
1
0
0
1
dx 2 x 2
x
= =
J 2.
30. The area of the plane region bounded by the curves x + 2y
2
= 0 and x + 3y
2
= 1 is equal to
(1)
5
3
(2)
1
3
(3)
2
3
(4)
4
3
Sol: (4)
Solving the equations we get the points of
intersection (2, 1) and (2, 1)
The bounded region is shown as shaded
region.
The required area = 2 ( ) ( )
1
2 2
0
1 3y 2y
= ( )
1
1
3
2
0
0
y 2 4
2 1 y dy 2 y 2
3 3 3
(
= = =
(
.
(2, 1)
(2, 1)
x + 2y
2
= 0
x + 3y
2
= 1
(1, 0)
x
y
31. The value of
sinxdx
2
sin x
4
 

\ .
is
(1) x + log cos x c
4
 
+

\ .
(2) x log sin x c
4
 
+

\ .
(3) x + log sin x c
4
 
+

\ .
(4) x log cos x c
4
 
+

\ .
Sol: (3)
sin x dx
sinxdx
4 4
2 2
sin x sin x
4 4
 
+

\ .
=
   
 
\ . \ .
= 2 cos cot x sin dx
4 4 4
   
+
 
\ . \ .
= dx cot x dx
4
 
+

\ .
= x + ln sin x c
4
 
+

\ .
.
32. How many different words can be formed by jumbling the letters in the word MISSISSIPPI in which no
two S are adjacent?
(1) 8 .
6
C
4
.
7
C
4
(2) 6 . 7 .
8
C
4
(3) 6 . 8 .
7
C
4
(4) 7 .
6
C
4
.
8
C
4
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Sol: (4)
Other than S, seven letters M, I, I, I, P, P, I can be arranged in
7!
2! 4!
= 7 . 5 . 3.
Now four S can be placed in 8 spaces in
8
C
4
ways.
Desired number of ways = 7 . 5 . 3 .
8
C
4
= 7 .
6
C
4
.
8
C
4
.
33. Let a, b, c be any real numbers. Suppose that there are real numbers x, y, z not all zero such that x =
cy + bz, y = az + cx and z = bx + ay. Then a
2
+ b
2
+ c
2
+ 2abc is equal to
(1) 2 (2) 1
(3) 0 (4) 1
Sol: (4)
The system of equations x cy bz = 0, cx y + az = 0 and bx + ay z = 0 have nontrivial solution if
1 c b
c 1 a
b a 1
= 0 1(1 a
2
) + c(c ab) b(ca + b) = 0
a
2
+ b
2
+ c
2
+ 2abc = 1.
34. Let A be a square matrix all of whose entries are integers. Then which one of the following is true?
(1) If detA = 1, then A
1
exists but all its entries are not necessarily integers
(2) If detA 1, then A
1
exists and all its entries are nonintegers
(3) If detA = 1, then A
1
exists and all its entries are integers
(4) If detA = 1, then A
1
need not exist
Sol: (3)
Each entry of A is integer, so the cofactor of every entry is an integer and hence each entry in the
adjoint of matrix A is integer.
Now detA = 1 and A
1
=
1
det(A)
(adj A)
all entries in A
1
are integers.
35. The quadratic equations x
2
6x + a = 0 and x
2
cx + 6 = 0 have one root in common. The other roots
of the first and second equations are integers in the ratio 4 : 3. Then the common root is
(1) 1 (2) 4
(3) 3 (4) 2
Sol: (4)
Let and 4 be roots of x
2
6x + a = 0 and , 3 be the roots of x
2
cx + 6 = 0, then
+ 4 = 6 and 4 = a
+ 3 = c and 3 = 6.
We get = 2 a = 8
So the first equation is x
2
6x + 8 = 0 x = 2, 4
If = 2 and 4 = 4 then 3 = 3
If = 4 and 4 = 2, then 3 = 3/2 (noninteger)
common root is x = 2.
C Ch he em mi is st tr ry y
PART B
36. The organic chloro compound, which shows complete stereochemical inversion during a S
N
2 reaction,
is
(1) (C
2
H
5
)
2
CHCl (2) (CH
3
)
3
CCl
(3) (CH
3
)
2
CHCl (4) CH
3
Cl
Sol. (4)
For S
N
2 reaction, the C atom is least hindered towards the attack of nucleophile in the case of
(CH
3
Cl).
Hence, (4) is the correct answer.
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37. Toluene is nitrated and the resulting product is reduced with tin and hydrochloric acid. The product so
obtained is diazotised and then heated with cuprous bromide. The reaction mixture so formed
contains
(1) mixture of o and pbromotoluenes (2) mixture of o and pdibromobenzenes
(3) mixture of o and pbromoanilines (4) mixture of o and mbromotoluenes
Sol. (1)
CH
3
NO
2
CH
3
NO
2
+
Sn/HCl
Sn/HCl
CH
3
NH
2
CH
3
NH
2
NaNO
2
/HCl
NaNO
2
/HCl
CH
3
N
2Cl
CuBr
CH
3
Br
CH
3
N
2
Cl
CuBr
CH
3
Br
CH
3
Nitration
38. The coordination number and the oxidation state of the element E in the complex [E(en)
2
(C
2
O
4
)]NO
2
(where (en) is ethylene diamine) are, respectively,
(1) 6 and 2 (2) 4 and 2
(3) 4 and 3 (4) 6 and 3
Sol. (4)
E
en
en
ox
NO
2
Coordination no. = 6 and Oxidation no. = 3
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39. Identify the wrong statements in the following:
(1) Chlorofluorocarbons are responsible for ozone layer depletion
(2) Greenhouse effect is responsible for global warming
(3) Ozone layer does not permit infrared radiation from the sun to reach the earth
(4) Acid rains is mostly because of oxides of nitrogen and sulphur
Sol. (3)
Ozone layer does not allow ultraviolet radiation from sun to reach earth.
40. Phenol, when it first reacts with concentrated sulphuric acid and then with concentrated nitric acid,
gives
(1) 2,4,6trinitrobenzene (2) onitrophenol
(3) pnitrophenol (4) nitrobenzene
Sol. (2)
OH
2 4
Conc.H SO
OH
SO
3
H
3
Conc.HNO
OH
NO
2
41. In the following sequence of reactions, the alkene affords the compound B
3 2
O H O
3 3 Zn
CH CH CHCH A B. =
The compound B is
(1) CH
3
CH
2
CHO (2) CH
3
COCH
3
(3) CH
3
CH
2
COCH
3
(4) CH
3
CHO
Sol. (4)
C H
3
CH CH CH
3
C H
3
CH
O O
CH
O
CH
3
(A)
H
2
O/Zn
C
H
C H
3
O
(B)
42. Larger number of oxidation states are exhibited by the actinoids than those by the lanthanoids, the
main reason being
(1) 4f orbitals more diffused than the 5f orbitals
(2) lesser energy difference between 5f and 6d than between 4f and 5d orbitals
(3) more energy difference between 5f and 6d than between 4f and 5d orbitals
(4) more reactive nature of the actinoids than the lanthanoids
Sol. (2)
Being lesser energy difference between 5f and 6d than 4f and 5d orbitals.
43. In which of the following octahedral complexes of Co (at. no. 27), will the magnitude of
o
be the
highest?
(1) [Co(CN)
6
]
3
(2) [Co(C
2
O
4
)
3
]
3
(3) [Co(H
2
O)
6
]
3+
(4) [Co(NH
3
)
6
]
3+
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Sol. (1)
CN
= +
    d A d B
1
dt 4 dt
=
46. The equilibrium constants
1
P
K and
2
P
K for the reactions X 2Y U and Z P Q, + U respectively are in
the ratio of 1 : 9. If the degree of dissociation of X and Z be equal then the ratio of total pressure at
these equilibria is
(1) 1 : 36 (2) 1 : 1
(3) 1 : 3 (4) 1 : 9
Sol. (1)
( )
X 2Y
1 0
1 x 2x
ZZZX
YZZZ
( )
( )
1
2 1
1
p
2x P
k
1 x 1 x
 
=

+
\ .
( )
Z P Q
1 0 0
1 x x x
+
ZZZX
YZZZ
( )
2
1
2
2
p
P x
k
1 x 1 x
 
=

+
\ .
1 1
2 2
4 P P 1 1
P 9 P 36
= =
47. Oxidising power of chlorine in aqueous solution can be determined by the parameters indicated
below:
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( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
diss
eg hyd
1
H
H H
2
2
1
Cl g Cl g Cl g Cl aq .
2
The energy involved in the conversion of ( )
2
1
Cl g
2
to Cl
(g)
(using the data,
2
1 1 1
diss Cl eg Cl hyd Cl
H 240 kJmol , H 349 kJmol , H 381kJmol )
= = =
will be
(1) +152 kJmol
1
(2) 610 kJmol
1
(3) 850 kJmol
1
(4) +120 kJmol
1
Sol. (2)
For the process ( )
2 aq
1
Cl g Cl
2
diss 2 eg hyd
1
H H of Cl Cl Cl
2
= + +
240
349 381
2
= +
= 610 kJ mol
1
48. Which of the following factors is of no significance for roasting sulphide ores to the oxides and not
subjecting the sulphide ores to carbon reduction directly?
(1) Metal sulphides are thermodynamically more stable than CS
2
(2) CO
2
is thermodynamically more stable than CS
2
(3) Metal sulphides are less stable than the corresponding oxides
(4) CO
2
is more volatile than CS
2
Sol. (1)
49. Bakelite is obtained from phenol by reacting with
(1) (CH
2
OH)
2
(2) CH
3
CHO
(3) CH
3
COCH
3
(4) HCHO
Sol. (4)
OH
HCHO +
OH
CH
2
OH
CH
2
OH
Polymerize
CH
2
CH
2
O
n
50. For the following three reactions a, b and c, equilibrium constants are given:
a. ( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
2 2 2 1
CO g H O g CO g H g ; K + + U
b. ( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
4 2 2 2
CH g H O g CO g 3H g ; K + + U
c. ( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
4 2 2 2 3
CH g 2H O g CO g 4H g ; K + + U
Which of the following relations is correct?
(1)
1 2 3
K K K = (2) K
2
K
3
= K
1
(3) K
3
= K
1
K
2
(4)
3 2
3 2 1
K .K K =
Sol. (3)
Equation (c) = equation (a) + equation (b)
Thus K
3
= K
1
.K
2
51. The absolute configuration of
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HO
2
C
O H
OH
CO
2
H
H
H
is
(1) S, S (2) R, R
(3) R, S (4) S, R
Sol. (2)
HO
2
C
O H
OH
CO
2
H
H
H
1 2
Both C
1
and C
2
have R configuration.
52. The electrophile, E
ii. H
3
O
+
iii.
4
HSO
iv. HSO
3
F
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of their acid strength?
(1) iv < ii < iii < I (2) ii < iii < i < iv
(3) i < iii < ii < iv (4) iii < i < iv < ii
Sol. (3)
(iv) > (ii) > (iii) > (i)
56. Which one of the following constitutes a group of the isoelectronic species?
(1)
2
2 2
C , O , CO, NO
(2)
2
2 2
NO , C , CN , N
+
(3)
2 2
2 2 2
CN , N , O , C
(4)
2 2
N , O , NO , CO
+
Sol. (2)
2
2 2
NO , C , CN and N
+
all have fourteen electrons.
57. Which one of the following pairs of species have the same bond order?
(1) CN
and NO
+
(2) CN
and CN
+
(3)
2
O
and CN
(4) NO
+
and CN
+
Sol. (1)
Both are isoelectronic and have same bond order.
58. The ionization enthalpy of hydrogen atom is 1.312 10
6
Jmol
1
. The energy required to excite the
electron in the atom from n = 1 to n = 2 is
(1) 8.51 10
5
Jmol
1
(2) 6.56 10
5
Jmol
1
(3) 7.56 10
5
Jmol
1
(4) 9.84 10
5
Jmol
1
Sol. (4)
6 6
2 1 2
1.312 10 1.312 10
E E E
1 2
 
= =

\ .
5 1
9.84 10 J mol
=
59. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
(1) Boric acid is a protonic acid
(2) Beryllium exhibits coordination number of six
(3) Chlorides of both beryllium and aluminium have bridged chloride structures in solid phase
(4) B
2
H
6
.2NH
3
is known as inorganic benzene
Sol. (3)
Al
Cl Cl
Cl Cl
Al
Cl
Cl
Be
Cl
Cl Cl
Be
Cl
Cl
Be
Cl
60. Given
3 2
Cr / Cr Fe / Fe
E 0.72 V, E 0.42 V.
+ +
= = The potential for the cell
CrCr
3+
(0.1 M)Fe
2+
(0.01 M)Fe is
(1) 0.26 V (2) 0.399 V
(3) 0.339 V (4) 0.26 V
Sol. (1)
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3 2
0 0
Cr
/ Cr Fe / Fe
As E 0.72 V and E 0.42 V
+ +
= =
2 3
2Cr 3Fe 3Fe 2Cr
+ +
+ +
( )
( )
2
3
0
cell cell 3
2
Cr
0.0591
E E log
6
Fe
+
+
=
( )
( )
( )
2
3
0.1
0.0591
0.42 0.72 log
6
0.01
= +
( )
( )
2
3
0.1
0.0591
0.30 log
6
0.01
=
2
6
0.0591 10
0.30 log
6 10
=
4
0.0591
0.30 log10
6
=
E
cell
= 0.2606 V
61. Amount of oxalic acid present in a solution can be determined by its titration with KMnO
4
solution in
the presence of H
2
SO
4
. The titration gives unsatisfactory result when carried out in the presence of
HCl, because HCl
(1) gets oxidised by oxalic acid to chlorine
(2) furnishes H
+
ions in addition to those from oxalic acid
(3) reduces permanganate to Mn
2+
(4) oxidises oxalic acid to carbon dioxide and water
Sol. (3)
HCl being stronger reducing agent reduces MnO
4
to Mn
2+
and result of the titration becomes
unsatisfactory.
62. The vapour pressure of water at 20
o
C is 17.5 mm Hg. If 18 g of glucose (C
6
H
12
O
6
) is added to 178.2 g
of water at 20
o
C, the vapour pressure of the resulting solution will be
(1) 17.675 mm Hg (2) 15.750 mm Hg
(3) 16.500 mm Hg (4) 17.325 mm Hg
Sol. (4)
0
s
solute
s
P P
X
P
=
s
s
17.5 P 0.1
P 10
=
s
s
17.5 P
0.01
P
=
P
s
= 17.325 mm Hg
63. Among the following substituted silanes the one which will give rise to cross linked silicone polymer on
hydrolysis is
(1) R
4
Si (2) RSiCl
3
(3) R
2
SiCl
2
(4) R
3
SiCl
Sol. (2)
R Si
Cl
Cl
Cl
2
H O
R Si
OH
OH
OH
Condensation
polymerization
R Si O Si R
O
O
Si
O
Si
Si
O
Si
n
64. In context with the industrial preparation of hydrogen from water gas (CO + H
2
), which of the following
is the correct statement?
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(1) CO and H
2
are fractionally separated using differences in their densities
(2) CO is removed by absorption in aqueous Cu
2
Cl
2
solution
(3) H
2
is removed through occlusion with Pd
(4) CO is oxidised to CO
2
with steam in the presence of a catalyst followed by absorption of CO
2
in
alkali
Sol. (4)
2
H O
2 2 2
CO H CO 2H + +
KOH
K
2
CO
3
65. In a compound atoms of element Y from ccp lattice and those of element X occupy 2/3
rd
of tetrahedral
voids. The formula of the compound will be
(1) X
4
Y
3
(2) X
2
Y
3
(3) X
2
Y (4) X
3
Y
4
Sol. (1)
No. of atoms of Y = 4
No. of atoms of X =
2
8
3
Formula of compound will be X
4
Y
3
66. Gold numbers of protective colloids A, B, C and D are 0.50, 0.01, 0.10 and 0.005, respectively. The
correct order of their protective powers is
(1) D < A < C < B (2) C < B < D < A
(3) A < C < B < D (4) B < D < A < C
Sol. (3)
Higher the gold number lesser will be the protective power of colloid.
67. The hydrocarbon which can react with sodium in liquid ammonia is
(1) CH
3
CH
2
CH
2
CCCH
2
CH
2
CH
3
(2) CH
3
CH
2
CCH
(3) CH
3
CH=CHCH
3
(4) CH
3
CH
2
CCCH
2
CH
3
Sol. (2)
3
Na/ Liq.NH
3 2 3 2
CH CH C CH CH CH C CNa
It is a terminal alkyne, having acidic hydrogen.
Note: Solve it as a case of terminal alkynes, otherwise all alkynes react with Na in liq. NH
3
.
68. The treatment of CH
3
MgX with CH
3
CCH produces
(1) CH
3
CH=CH
2
(2) CH
3
CCCH
3
(3)
CH
3
C
H
C
H
CH
3
(4) CH
4
Sol. (4)
3 3 4
CH MgX CH C C H CH +
69. The correct decreasing order of priority for the functional groups of organic compounds in the IUPAC
system of nomenclature is
(1) COOH, SO
3
H, CONH
2
, CHO (2) SO
3
H, COOH, CONH
2
, CHO
(3) CHO, COOH, SO
3
H, CONH
2
(4) CONH
2
, CHO, SO
3
H, COOH
Sol. (2)
3 2
SO H, COOH, CONH , CHO
70. The pK
a
of a weak acid, HA, is 4.80. The pK
b
of a weak base, BOH, is 4.78. The pH of an aqueous
solution of the corresponding salt, BA, will be
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(1) 9.58 (2) 4.79
(3) 7.01 (4) 9.22
Sol. (3)
It is a salt of weak acid and weak base
w a
b
K K
H
K
+
( =
pH = 7.01
P Ph hy ys si ic cs s
PART C
Directions: Questions No. 71, 72 and 73 are based on the following paragraph.
Wave property of electrons implies that they will show diffraction effects. Davisson and Germer demonstrated
this by diffracting electrons from crystals. The law governing the diffraction from a crystal is obtained by
requiring that electron waves reflected from the planes of atoms in a crystal interfere constructively (see in
figure).
Incoming
Electrons
Outgoing
Electrons
d
i
Crystal plane
71. Electrons accelerated by potential V are diffracted from a crystal. If d = 1 and i = 30, V should be
about (h = 6.6 10
34
Js, m
e
= 9.1 10
31
kg, e = 1.6 10
19
C)
(1) 2000 V (2) 50 V
(3) 500 V (4) 1000 V
Sol. (2)
2d cos i = n
2d cos i =
h
2meV
v = 50 volt
i
72. If a strong diffraction peak is observed when electrons are incident at an angle i from the normal to
the crystal planes with distance d between them (see figure), de Broglie wavelength
dB
of electrons
can be calculated by the relationship (n is an integer)
(1) d sin i = n
dB
(2) 2d cos i = n
dB
(3) 2d sin i = n
dB
(4) d cos i = n
dB
Sol. (4)
2d cos i = n
dB
73. In an experiment, electrons are made to pass through a narrow slit of width d comparable to their de
Broglie wavelength. They are detected on a screen at a distance D from the slit (see figure).
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D
d
y = 0
Which of the following graph can be expected to represent the number of electrons N detected as a
function of the detector position y(y = 0 corresponds to the middle of the slit)?
(1)
y
d
N
(2)
y
d
N
(3)
y
d
N
(4)
y
d
N
Sol. (4)
Diffraction pattern will be wider than the slit.
74. A planet in a distant solar system is 10 times more massive than the earth and its radius is 10 times
smaller. Given that the escape velocity from the earth is 11 kms
1
, the escape velocity from the
surface of the planet would be
(1) 1.1 kms
1
(2) 11 kms
1
(3) 110 kms
1
(4) 0.11 kms
1
Sol. (3)
v
esc
=
2GM 2G 10M
R R 10
= = 10 11 = 110 km/s
75. A spherical solid ball of volume V is made of a material of density
1
. It is falling through a liquid of
density
2
(
2
<
1
). Assume that the liquid applies a viscous force on the ball that is proportional to the
square of its speed v, i.e., F
viscous
= kv
2
(k>0). The terminal speed of the ball is
(1)
1 2
Vg( )
k
(2)
1
Vg
k
(3)
1
Vg
k
(4)
1 2
Vg( )
k
Sol. (1)
1
Vg
2
Vg =
2
T
kv
v
T
=
( )
1 2
Vg
k
76. Shown in the figure below is a meterbridge set up with null deflection in the galvanometer.
G
55 R
20 cm
The value of the unknown resistor R is
(1) 13.75 (2) 220
(3) 110 (4) 55
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Sol. (2)
55 R 55 8
R 220
20 80 2
= = =
77. A thin rod of length L is lying along the xaxis with its ends at x = 0 and x = L. Its linear density
(mass/length) varies with x as
 

\ .
n
x
k
L
, where n can be zero or any positive number. If the position x
CM
of the centre of mass of the rod is plotted against n, which of the following graphs best approximates
the dependence of x
CM
on n?
(1)
L
L/2
O n
xCM
(2)
L/2
O n
xCM
(3)
L
L/2
O n
xCM
(4)
L
L/2
O n
xCM
Sol. (1)
x
cm
=
 

\ .
= =
 

\ .
n
n
x
k .xdx
dmx dx.x
L
dm dm x
k dx
L
( )
( )
( )
+
+
(
(
( +
+
(
= =
(
+ (
(
+
L
n 2
L
n
n 1
0
n
0
kx
x n 1
n 2 L
n 2 kx
n 1 L
x
cm
=
L 2L 3L 4L 5L
, , , , , . . .
2 3 4 5 6
78. While measuring the speed of sound by performing a resonance column experiment, a student gets
the first resonance condition at a column length of 18 cm during winter. Repeating the same
experiment during summer, she measures the column length to be x cm for the second resonance.
Then
(1) 18 > x (2) x >54
(3) 54 > x > 36 (4) 36 > x > 18
Sol. (2)
n =
1 RT
4x M
xn =
1 RT
4 M
x T
79. The dimension of magnetic field in M, L, T and C (Coulomb) is given as
(1) MLT
1
C
1
(2) MT
2
C
2
(3) MT
1
C
1
(4) MT
2
C
1
Sol. (3)
F = qvB
B = F/qv = MC
1
T
1
80. Consider a uniform square plate of side a and mass m. The moment of inertia of this plate about an
axis perpendicular to its plane and passing through one of its corners is
(1)
5
6
ma
2
(2)
1
12
ma
2
(3)
7
12
ma
2
(4)
2
3
ma
2
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Sol. (4)
I = I
cm
+ m
2
2 2
2
a 2 ma ma 2
ma
2 6 2 3
 
= + =

\ .
81. A body of mass m = 3.513 kg is moving along the xaxis with a speed of 5.00 ms
1
. The magnitude of
its momentum is recorded as
(1) 17.6 kg ms
1
(2) 17.565 kg ms
1
(3) 17.56 kg ms
1
(4) 17.57 kg ms
1
Sol. (1)
P = mv = 3.513 5.00 17.6
82. An athlete in the olympic games covers a distance of 100 m in 10 s. His kinetic energy can be
estimated to be in the range
(1) 200 J 500 J (2) 2 10
5
J 3 10
5
J
(3) 20,000 J 50,000 J (4) 2,000 J 5,000 J
Sol. (4)
Approximate mass = 60 kg
Approximate velocity = 10 m/s
Approximate KE =
1
60 100 3000 J
2
=
KE range 2000 to 5000 joule
83. A parallel plate capacitor with air between the plates has a capacitance of 9 pF. The separation
between its plates is d. The space between the plates is now filled with two dielectrics. One of the
dielectrics has dielectric constant k
1
= 3 and thickness
d
3
while the other one has dielectric constant
k
2
= 6 and thickness
2d
3
. Capacitance of the capacitor is now
(1) 1.8 pF (2) 45 pF
(3) 40.5 pF (4) 20.25 pF
Sol. (3)
C =
0 0
1 2
A A
d d d 2d
9 18 3 6
=
+ +
=
0
18A
4d
C = 40.5 PF
3 6
C = 9 PF
84. The speed of sound in oxygen (O
2
) at a certain temperature is 460 ms
1
. The speed of sound in
helium (He) at the same temperature will be (assumed both gases to be ideal)
(1) 460 ms
1
(2) 500 ms
1
(3) 650 ms
1
(4) 330 ms
1
Sol. No option is correct
v =
RT
M
1 1 2
2 2 1
7
4
V M
5
5 V M
32
3
= =
2
460 21
V 25 8
=
v
2
=
460 5 2 2
21
= 1420
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85. This question contains Statement 1 and Statement2. Of the four choices given after the statements,
choose the one that best describes the two statements.
Statement I:
Energy is released when heavy nuclei undergo fission or light nuclei undergo fusion.
and
Statement II
For heavy nuclei, binding energy per nucleon increases with increasing Z while for light nuclei it
decrease with increasing Z.
(1) Statement 1is false, Statement 2 is true.
(2) Statement 1is true, Statement 2 is true; Statement 2 is correct explanation for Statement1.
(3) Statement 1is true, Statement 2 is true; Statement 2 is not a correct explanation for
Statement1.
(4) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is False.
Sol. (4)
86. This question contains Statement 1 and Statement2. Of the four choices given after the statements,
choose the one that best describes the two statements.
Statement I:
For a mass M kept at the centre of a cube of side a, the flux of gravitational field passing through its
sides is 4 GM.
and
Statement II
If the direction of a field due to a point source is radial and its dependence on the distance r for the
source is given as 1/r
2
, its flux through a closed surface depends only on the strength of the source
enclosed by the surface and not on the size or shape of the surface
(1) Statement 1is false, Statement 2 is true.
(2) Statement 1is true, Statement 2 is true; Statement 2 is correct explanation for Statement1.
(3) Statement 1is true, Statement 2 is true; Statement 2 is not a correct explanation for
Statement1.
(4) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is False.
Sol. (2)
g = GM/r
2
87. A jar filled with two non mixing liquids 1 and 2 having densities
1
and
2
respectively. A solid ball, made of a material of density
3
, is dropped in the
jar. It comes to equilibrium in the position shown in the figure.
Which of the following is true for
1
,
2
and
3
?
(1)
3
<
1
<
2
(2)
1
<
3
<
2
(3)
1
<
2
<
3
(4)
1
<
3
<
2
Sol. (4)
As liquid 1 floats above liquid 2,
1
<
2
Liquid 1
Liquid 2
2
The ball is unable to sink into liquid 2,
3
<
2
The ball is unable to rise over liquid 1,
1
<
3
Thus,
1
<
3
<
2
88. A working transistor with its three legs marked P, Q and R is tested using a multimeter. No
conduction is found between P and Q. By connecting the common (negative) terminal of the
multimeter to R and the other (positive) terminal to P or Q, some resistance is seen on the
multimeter. Which of the following is true for the transistor?
(1) It is an npn transistor with R as base (2) It is a pnp transistor with R as collector
(3) It is a pnp transistor with R as emitter (4) It is an npn transistor with R as collector
Sol. (2)
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Directions: Question No. 89 and 90 are based on the following paragraph.
Consider a block of conducting material of resistivity shown in the figure. Current I enters at A and
leaves from D. We apply superposition principle to find voltage V developed between B and C. The
calculation is done in the following steps:
(i) Take current I entering from A and assume it to spread over a hemispherical surface in the block.
(ii) Calculate field E(r) at distance r from A by using Ohms law E = j, where j is the current per unit
area at r.
(iii) From the r dependence of E(r), obtain the potential V(r) at r.
(iv) Repeat (i), (ii) and (iii) for current I leaving D and superpose results for A and D.
A B C D
a a b
v
I I
89. V measured between B and C is
(1)
I I
a (a b)
+
(2)
I I
a (a b)
+
(3)
I I
2 a 2 (a b)
+
(4)
I
2 (a b)
Sol. (3)
Choosing A as origin,
E = j =
2
I
2 r
V
C
V
B
=
( ) a b
2
a
I 1
dr
2 r
+
=
( )
I 1 1
2 a a b
(
(
+
V
B
V
C
=
( )
I 1 1
2 a a b
(
(
+
90. For current entering at A, the electric field at a distance r from A is
(1)
2
I
8 r
(2)
2
I
r
(3)
2
I
2 r
(4)
2
I
4 r
Sol. (3)
91. A student measures the focal length of convex lens by putting an object pin at a distance u from the
lens and measuring the distance v of the image pin. The graph between u and v plotted by the
student should look like
O
u (cm)
v (cm)
(1)
O
u (cm)
v (cm)
(2)
O
u (cm)
v (cm)
(3)
O
u (cm)
v (cm)
(4)
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Sol. (3)
1 1 1
constant
v u f
= =
92. A block of mass 0.50 kg is moving with a speed of 2.00 m/s on a smooth surface. It strikes another
mass of 1.00 kg and then they move together as a single body. The energy loss during the collision is
(1) 0.16 J (2) 1.00 J
(3) 0.67 J (4) 0.34 J
Sol. (3)
m
1
u
1
+ m
2
u
2
= (m
1
+ m
2
)v
v = 2/3 m/s
Energy loss =
( ) ( ) ( )
2
2 1 1 2
0.5 2 1.5
2 2 3
 

\ .
= 0.67 J
93. A capillary tube (A) is dropped in water. Another identical tube (B) is dipped in a soap water solution.
Which of the following shows the relative nature of the liquid columns in the two tubes?
(1)
A
B
(2)
A
B
(3)
A
B
(4)
A
B
Sol. (3)
Capillary rise h =
2Tcos
gr
Sol. (1)
y = 0.005 cos (x t)
comparing the equation with the standard form,
y = A cos
x t
2
T
(  

(
\ .
2/ = and 2/T =
= 2/0.08 = 25.00
=
96. Two coaxial solenoids are made by winding thin insulated wire over a pipe of cross sectional area A =
10 cm
2
and length = 20 cm. If one of the solenoids has 300 turns and the other 400 turns, their
mutual inductance is (
0
= 4 10
7
Tm A
1
)
(1) 2.4 10
5
H (2) 4.8 10
4
H
(3) 4.8 10
5
H (4) 2.4 10
4
H
Sol. (4)
M =
0 1 2
NN A
A
= 2.4 10
4
H
97. In the circuit below, A and B represent two inputs and C
represents the output.
The circuit represents
(1) NOR gate
(2) AND gate
(3) NAND gate
(4) OR gate
A
B
C
Sol. (4)
A B C
0 0 0
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 1
98. A body is at rest at x = 0. At t = 0, it starts moving in the positive xdirection with a constant
acceleration. At the same instant another body passes through x = 0 moving in the positive x
direction with a constant speed. The position of the first body is given by x
1
(t) after time t and that of
the second body by x
2
(t) after the same time interval. Which of the following graphs correctly
describes (x
1
x
2
)as a function of time t?
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(1)
O t
(x1 x2)
(2)
O t
(x1 x2)
(3)
O t
(x1 x2)
(4)
O t
(x1 x2)
Sol. (2)
x
1
(t) =
2
1
at
2
x
2
(t) = vt
x
1
x
2
=
2
1
at
2
vt
99. An experiment is performed to find the refractive index of glass using a travelling microscope. In this
experiment distance are measured by
(1) a vernier scale provided on the microscope (2) a standard laboratory scale
(3) a meter scale provided on the microscope (4) a screw gauage provided on the microscope
Sol. (1)
100. A thin spherical shell of radius R has charge Q spread uniformly over its surface. Which of the
following graphs most closely represents the electric field E(r) produced by the shell in the range 0
r< , where r is the distance from the centre of the shell?
(1)
O r
E(r)
R
(2)
O r
E(r)
R
(3)
O r
E(r)
R
(4)
O r
E(r)
R
Sol. (1)
E(r) =
2
0
0 if r < R
Q
if r R
4 r
101. A 5V battery with internal resistance 2 and a 2V battery with internal resistance 1 are connected to
a 10 resistor as shown in the figure. The current in the 10 resistor is
2V
1
2
5V
P1
P2
10
(1) 0.27 A P
2
to P
1
(2) 0.03 A P
1
to P
2
(3) 0.03 A P
2
to P
1
(4) 0.27 A P
1
to P
2
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Sol. (3)
2 1
P P
5 0 2
2 10 1
V V
1 1 1
2 10 1
+
=
+ +
2 1
P P
V V
I 0.03
10
= = from P
2
P
1
5 V
10
P1
2 V
1
2
P2
i
102. A horizontal overhead power line is at a height of 4m from the ground and carries a current of 100 A
from east to west. The magnetic field directly below it on the ground is (
0
= 4 10
7
T m A
1
)
(1) 2.5 10
7
T southward (2) 5 10
6
T northward
(3) 5 10
6
T southward (4) 2.5 10
7
northward
Sol. (3)
B =
7
0
i 4 10 100
2 R 2 4
=
= 5 10
6
T southward
103. Relative permittivity and permeability of a material are
r
and
r
, respectively. Which of the following
values of these quantities are allowed for a diamagnetic material?
(1)
r
= 0.5,
r
= 1.5 (2)
r
= 1.5,
r
= 0.5
(3)
r
= 0.5,
r
= 0.5 (4)
r
= 1.5,
r
= 1.5
Sol. (2)
104. Two full turns of the circular scale of a screw gauge cover a distance of 1 mm on its main scale. The
total number of divisions on the circular scale is 50. Further, it is found that the screw gauge has a
zero error of 0.03 mm while measuring the diameter of a thin wire, a student notes the main scale
reading of 3 mm and the number of circular scale divisions in line with the main scale as 35. The
diameter of the wire is
(1) 3.32 mm (2) 3.73 mm
(3) 3.67 mm (4) 3.38 mm
Sol. (4)
Diameter = M.S.R. + C.S.R L.C. + Z.E. = 3 + 35 (0.5/50) + 0.03 = 3.38 mm
105. An insulated container of gas has two chambers separated by an insulating partition. One of the
chambers has volume V
1
and contains ideal gas at pressure P
1
and temperature T
1
. The other
chamber has volume V
2
and contains ideal gas at pressure P
2
and temperature T
2
. If the partition is
removed without doing any work on the gas, the final equilibrium temperature of the gas in the
container will be
(1)
1 2 1 1 2 2
1 1 2 2 2 1
TT (PV P V )
PVT P V T
+
+
(2)
1 1 1 2 2 2
1 1 2 2
PVT P V T
PV P V
+
+
(3)
1 1 2 2 2 1
1 1 2 2
PVT P V T
PV P V
+
+
(4)
1 2 1 1 2 2
1 1 1 2 2 2
TT (PV P V )
PVT P V T
+
+
Sol. (1)
U = U
1
+ U
2
T =
( )
( )
1 1 2 2 1 2
1 1 2 2 2 1
PV P V T T
P V T P V T
+
+
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A AI IE EE EE E 2 20 00 08 8, , P PA AP PE ER R( (C C 5 5) )
A AN NS SW WE ER RS S
1. (2) 2. (2) 3. (3) 4. (1)
5. (2) 6. (3) 7. (4) 8. (3)
9. (4) 10. (4) 11. (4) 12. (4)
13. (4) 14. (4) 15. (3) 16. (1)
17. (3) 18. (4) 19. (2) 20. (4)
21. (1) 22. (1) 23. (2) 24. (1)
25. (2) 26. (2) 27. (1) 28. (3)
29. (2) 30. (4) 31. (3) 32. (4)
33. (4) 34. (3) 35. (4) 36. (4)
37. (1) 38. (4) 39. (3) 40. (2)
41. (4) 42. (2) 43. (1) 44. (4)
45. (2) 46. (1) 47. (2) 48. (1)
49. (4) 50. (3) 51. (2) 52. (2)
53. (3) 54. (3) 55. (3) 56. (2)
57. (1) 58. (4) 59. (3) 60. (1)
61. (3) 62. (4) 63. (2) 64. (4)
65. (1) 66. (3) 67. (2) 68. (4)
69. (2) 70. (3) 71. (2) 72. (4)
73. (4) 74. (3) 75. (1) 76. (2)
77. (1) 78. (2) 79. (3) 80. (4)
81. (1) 82. (4) 83. (3) 84. no option is correct
85. (4) 86. (2) 87. (4) 88. (2)
89. (3) 90. (3) 91. (3) 92. (3)
93. (3) 94. (2) 95. (1) 96. (4)
97. (4) 98. (2) 99. (1) 100. (1)
101. (3) 102. (3) 103. (2) 104. (4)
105. (1)
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A AI IE EE EE E 2 20 00 09 9, , B BO OO OK KL LE ET T C CO OD DE E( (A A) )
Note: (i) The test is of 3 hours duration.
(ii) The test consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 432.
(iii) There are three parts in the question paper. The distribution of marks subjectwise in each part is as under for each correct
response.
Part A Physics (144 marks) Question No. 1 to 2 and 9 to 30 consists FOUR (4) marks each and Question No. 3
to 8 consists EIGHT (8) marks each for each correct response.
Part B Chemistry (144 marks) Question No. 31 to 39 and 46 to 60 consists FOUR (4) marks each and Question
No. 40 to 45 consists EIGHT (8) marks each for each correct response.
Part C Mathematics(144 marks) Question No. 61 to 82 and 89 to 90 consists FOUR (4) marks each and Question
No. 83 to 88 consists EIGHT (8) marks each for each correct response.
(iv) Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above for correct response of each question. 1/4
th
marks will be deducted for
indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an
item in the answer sheet.
(v) * marked questions are from syllabus of class XI CBSE.
P Ph hy ys si ic cs s
PART A
1. This question contains Statement1 and Statement2. Of the four choices given after the statements,
choose the one that best describes the two statements.
Statement 1: For a charged particle moving from point P to point Q, the net work done by an
electrostatic field on the particle is independent of the path connecting point P to point Q.
Statement2: The net work done by a conservative force on an object moving along a closed loop is
zero
(1) Statement1 is true, Statement2 is false
(2) Statement1 is true, Statement2 is true; Statement2 is the correct explanation of Statement1.
(3) Statement1 is true, Statement2 is true; Statement2 is not the correct explanation of Statement1.
(4) Statement1 is false, Statement2 is true
Sol: (2)
Work done by conservative force does not
depend on the path. Electrostatic force is a
conservative force.
2. The above is a plot of binding energy per nucleon
E
b
, against the nuclear mass M; A, B, C, D, E, F
correspond to different nuclei. Consider four
reactions:
(i) A + B C + (ii) C A + B +
(iii) D + E F + and (iv) F D + E +
where is the energy released? In which reactions
is positive?
(1) (i) and (iv) (2) (i) and (iii)
(3) (ii) and (iv) (4) (ii) and (iii)
Sol: (1)
1
st
reaction is fusion and 4
th
reaction is fission.
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3. A pn junction (D) shown in the figure can act
as a rectifier. An alternating current source
(V) is connected in the circuit.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Sol: (3)
Given figure is half wave rectifier
4. The logic circuit shown below has the input waveforms A and B as shown. Pick out the correct
output waveform.
(1)
(2)
(3) (4)
Sol: (1)
Truth Table
A B Y
1 1 1
1 0 0
0 1 0
0 0 0
*5. If x, v and a denote the displacement, the velocity and the acceleration of a particle executing simple
harmonic motion of time period T, then, which of the following does not change with time?
(1) a
2
T
2
+ 4
2
v
2
(2)
aT
x
(3) aT + 2v (4)
aT
v
Sol: (2)
2 2 2
2
aT xT 4 4
T
x x T T
= = = = constant.
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6. In an optics experiment, with the position of the object fixed, a student varies the position of a convex
lens and for each position, the screen is adjusted to get a clear image of the object. A graph between
the object distance u and the image distance v, from the lens, is plotted using the same scale for the
two axes. A straight line passing through the origin and making an angle of 45
o
with the xaxis meets
the experimental curve at P. The coordinates of P will be
(1) (2f, 2f) (2)
f f
,
2 2
 

\ .
(3) (f, f) (4) (4f, 4f)
Sol: (1)
It is possible when object kept at centre of
curvature.
u = v
u = 2f, v = 2f.
*7. A thin uniform rod of length l and mass m is swinging freely about a horizontal axis passing through
its end. Its maximum angular speed is . Its centre of mass rises to a maximum height of
(1)
2 2
1
3 g
l
(2)
1
6 g
l
(3)
2 2
1
2 g
l
(4)
2 2
1
6 g
l
Sol: (4)
T.E
i
= T.E
f
2
1
I mgh
2
=
2 2
1 1
m mgh
2 3
= l
2 2
1
h
6 g
=
l
h
8. Let
4
Q
P(r) r
R
=
be the charge density distribution for a solid sphere of radius R and total charge Q.
for a point p inside the sphere at distance r
1
from the centre of the sphere, the magnitude of electric
field is
(1) 0 (2)
2
o 1
Q
4 r
(3)
2
1
4
o
Qr
4 R
(4)
2
1
4
o
Qr
3 R
Sol: (3)
1
r
2
4 2
2 0 1
1 4
0 0
Q
r4 r dr
R Qr
E4 r E
4 R
= =
.
r
P
R
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9. The transition from the state n = 4 to n = 3 in a hydrogen like atom results in ultraviolet radiation.
Infrared radiation will be obtained in the transition from
(1) 2 1 (2) 3 2
(3) 4 2 (4) 5 4
Sol: (4)
IR corresponds to least value of
2 2
1 2
1 1
n n
 


\ .
i.e. from Paschen, Bracket and Pfund series. Thus the transition corresponds to 5 3.
*10. One kg of a diatomic gas is at a pressure of 8 10
4
N/m
2
. The density of the gas is 4 kg/m
3
. What is
the energy of the gas due to its thermal motion?
(1) 3 10
4
J (2) 5 10
4
J
(3) 6 10
4
J (4) 7 10
4
J
Sol: (2)
Thermal energy corresponds to internal energy
Mass = 1 kg
density = 8 kg/m
3
Volume =
3
mass 1
m
density 8
=
Pressure = 8 10
4
N/m
2
Internal Energy =
5
2
P V = 5 10
4
J
11. This question contains Statement1 and Statement2. Of the four choices given after the statements,
choose the one that best describes the two statements.
Statement1: The temperature dependence of resistance is usually given as R = R
o
(1 + t). The
resistance of a wire changes from 100 to 150 when its temperature is increased from 27
o
C to
227
o
C. This implies that
3 o
2.5 10 / C
= .
Statement 2: R = R
i
(1 + T) is valid only when the change in the temperature T is small and R =
(R  R
o
) << R
o
.
(1) Statement1 is true, Statement2 is false
(2) Statement1 is true, Statement2 is true; Statement2 is the correct explanation of Statement1.
(3) Statement1 is true, Statement2 is true; Statement2 is not the correct explanation of Statement1.
(4) Statement1 is false, Statement2 is true
Sol: (1)
Directions: Question numbers 12 and 13 are based on the following paragraph.
A current loop ABCD is held fixed on the plane of the paper as shown
in the figure. The arcs BC (radius = b) and DA (radius = a) of the loop
are joined by two straight wires AB and CD. A steady current I is
flowing in the loop. Angle made by AB and CD at the origin O is 30
o
.
Another straight thin wire with steady current I
1
flowing out of the plane
of the paper is kept at the origin.
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12. The magnitude of the magnetic field (B) due to loop ABCD at the origin (O) is
(1) zero (2)
( )
o
b a
24ab
(3)
o
I b a
4 ab
(
(
(4) ( ) ( )
o
I
2 b a a b
4 3
(
+ +
(
Sol: (2)
Net magnetic field due to loop ABCD at O is
B = B
AB
+ B
BC
+ B
CD
+ B
DA
=
o o
I I
0 0
4 a 6 4 b 6
+ +
=
o o
I I
24a 24b
= ( )
o
I
b a
24ab
13. Due to the presence of the current I
1
at the origin
(1) The forces on AB and DC are zero
(2) The forces on AD and BC are zero
(3) The magnitude of the net force on the loop is given by ( ) ( )
o 1
II
2 b a a b
4 3
(
+ +
(
(4) The magnitude of the net force on the loop is given by ( )
o 1
II
b a
24ab
Sol: (2)
The forces on AD and BC are zero because magnetic field due to a straight wire on AD and BC is
parallel to elementary length of the loop.
14. A mixture of light, consisting of wavelength 590 nm and an unknown wavelength, illuminates Youngs
double slit and gives rise to two overlapping interference patterns on the screen. The central
maximum of both lights coincide. Further, it is observed that the third bright fringe of known light
coincides with the 4
th
bright fringe of the unknown light. From this data, the wavelength of the
unknown light is
(1) 393.4 nm (2) 885.0 nm
(3) 442.5 nm (4) 776.8 nm
Sol: (3)
3
1
= 4
2
2 1
3 3
590
4 4
= = =
1770
4
= 442.5 nm
15. Two points P and Q are maintained at the potentials of 10V and 4V respectively. The work done in
moving 100 electrons from P to Q is
(1)
17
19 10 J
(2)
17
9.60 10 J
(3)
16
2.24 10 J
(4)
16
2.24 10 J
Sol: (4)
W = QdV = Q(V
q
 V
P
) = 100 (1.6 10
19
) ( 4 10)
= + 100 1.6 10
19
14 = +2.24 10
16
J.
16. The surface of a metal is illuminated with the light of 400 nm. The kinetic energy of the ejected
photoelectrons was found to be 1.68 eV. The work function of the metal is (hc = 1240 eV nm)
(1) 3.09 eV (2) 1.41 eV
(3) 151 eV (4) 1.68 eV
Sol: (2)
2
o
1
mv eV 1.68eV
2
= =
hc 1240evnm
h
400nm
= =
= 3.1 eV 3.1 eV = W
o
+ 1.6 eV
W
o
= 1.42 eV
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*17. A particle has an initial velocity
3i 4j + and an acceleration of
0.4i 0.3j + . Its speed after 10 s is
(1) 10 units (2) 7 2 units
(3) 7 units (4) 8.5 units
Sol: (2)
u 3i 4j = +
r
;
a 0.4i 0.3j = +
r
u u at = +
r r r
=
( )
3i 4j 0.4i 0.3j 10 + + + =
3i j 4i 3j + + + =
7i 7j +
Speed is
2 2
7 7 7 2 + = units
*18. A motor cycle starts from rest and accelerates along a straight path at 2 m/s
2
. At the starting point of
the motor cycle there is a stationary electric sire. How far has the motor cycle gone when the driver
hears the frequency of the siren at 94% of its value when the motor cycle was at rest? (speed of
sound = 330 ms
1
).
(1) 49 m (2) 98 m
(3) 147 m (4) 196 m
Sol: (2)
Motor cycle, u = 0, a = 2 m/s
2
Observer is in motion and source is at rest.
O
S
v v
n n
v v
=
+
O
330 v 94
n n
100 330
= 330 v
O
=
330 94
100
O
94 33
v 330
10
= =
33 6
m/ s
10
s =
2 2
v u 9 33 33 9 1089
2a 100 100
= = 98 m.
*19. Consider a rubber ball freely falling from a height h = 4.9 m onto a horizontal elastic plate. Assume
that the duration of collision is negligible and the collision with the plate is totally elastic. Then the
velocity as a function of time the height as function of time will be
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Sol: (3)
2
1
h gt
2
= , v =  gt and after the collision, v = gt.
(parabolic) (straight line)
Collision is perfectly elastic then ball reaches to same height again and again with same velocity.
t 3t1 2t2
t1
v1
+v1
v
t
h
y
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20. A charge Q is placed at each of the opposite corners of a square. A charge q is placed at each of the
other two corners. If the net electrical force on Q is zero, then the Q/q equals
(1) 2 2 (2) 1
(3) 1 (4)
1
2
Sol: (1)
Three forces F
41
, F
42
and f
43
acting on Q are shown
Resultant of F
41
+ F
43
= 2 F
each
=
2
o
1 Qq
2
4 d
Resultant on Q becomes zero only when q charges are of
negative nature.
( )
4,2
2
o
1 Q Q
F
4
2d
2 2
dQ Q Q
2
d 2d
=
Q Q
2 q
2
=
Q
q
2 2
= or
Q
2 2
q
=
Q
q
Q
F42
F43
F41
q
*21. A long metallic bar is carrying heat from one of its ends to the other end under steadystate. The
variation of temperature along the length x of the bar from its hot end is best described by which of
the following figure.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Sol: (2)
We know that
dQ d
KA
dt dx
=
In steady state flow of heat
dQ 1
d . .dx
dt kA
=
H
 = k x =
H
 k x
Equation =
H
 k x represents a straight line.
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22. A transparent solid cylindrical rod has a refractive index of
2
3
. It is surrounded by air. A light ray is incident at the mid
point of one end of the rod as shown in the figure.
The incident angle for which the light ray grazes along the wall of the rod is
(1)
1
1
sin
2
 

\ .
(2)
1
3
sin
2
 


\ .
(3)
1
2
sin
3
 

\ .
(4)
1
1
sin
3
 

\ .
Sol: (4)
SinC =
3
2
.. (1)
Sin r = sin (90 C) = cosC =
1
2
2
1
sin
sinr
=
2 1
sin
2
3
=
1
1
sin
3
 
=

\ .
C
*23. Three sound waves of equal amplitudes have frequencies (v 1), v, (v + 1). They superpose to give
beats. The number of beats produced per second will be
(1) 4 (2) 3
(3) 2 (4) 1
Sol: (3)
Maximum number of beats = 1 ( 1) + = 2
*24. The height at which the acceleration due to gravity becomes
g
9
(where g = the acceleration due to
gravity on the surface of the earth) in terms of R, the radius of the earth is
(1) 2R (2)
R
2
(3)
R
2
(4) 2 R
Sol: (1)
( )
2
GM
g
R h
=
+
, acceleration due to gravity at height h
( )
2
2 2
g GM R
.
9 R
R h
=
+
=
2
R
g
R h
 

+
\ .
2
1 R
9 R h
 
=

+
\ .
R 1
R h 3
=
+
3R = R + h 2R = h
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*25. Two wires are made of the same material and have the same volume. However wire 1 has cross
sectional area A and wire2 has crosssectional area 3A. If the length of wire 1 increases by x on
applying force F, how much force is needed to stretch wire 2 by the same amount?
(1) F (2) 4F
(3) 6F (4) 9F
Sol: (4)
1 1 2 2
A A = l l
1 1 1 1
2
2
A A
A 3A 3
= = =
l l l
l
1
2
3 =
l
l
x
1
=
1
1
F
A
l .. (i)
2
2 2
F
x
3A
=
l ..(ii)
Here x
1
= x
2
2 1
2 1
F F
3A A
=
l l
F
2
=
1
1 1
2
3F 3F 3 =
l
l
= 9F
*26. In an experiment the angles are required to be measured using an instrument. 29 divisions of the
main scale exactly coincide with the 30 divisions of the vernier scale. If the smallest division of the
main scale is halfadegree(=0.5
o
), then the least count of the instrument is
(1) one minute (2) half minute
(3) one degree (4) half degree
Sol: (1)
Least count =
value of main scale division
No of divisions on vernier scale
=
1
MSD
30
=
o o
1 1 1
30 2 60
= = 1 minute
27. An inductor of inductance L = 400 mH and resistors of resistances R
1
= 2 and R
2
= 2 are connected to a battery of emf 12V as shown in
the figure. The internal resistance of the battery is negligible. The
switch S is closed at t = 0. The potential drop across L as a function
of time is
(1)
5t
6e V
(2)
3t
12
e V
t
(3)
( )
t / 0.2
6 1 e V
(4)
5t
12e V
Sol: (4)
1
1
F
I
R
= =
12
6A
2
=
2
2 2
dI
E L R I
dt
= +
( )
c
t / t
2 o
I I 1 e
=
o
2
E 12
I 6A
R 2
= = =
3
c
L 400 10
t 0.2
R 2
= = =
( )
t / 0.2
2
I 6 1 e
=
Potential drop across L = E R
2
I
2
= 12 2 6 (1 e
bt
) = 12 e
5t
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Directions: Question numbers 28, 29 and 30 are based on the following paragraph.
Two moles of helium gas are taken over the cycle ABCDA, as shown in the P T diagram.
*28. Assuming the gas to be ideal the work done on the gas in taking it from A to B is
(1) 200 R (2) 300 R
(3) 400 R (4) 500 R
Sol: (3)
W
AB
= Q  U = nC
p
dT nC
v
dT (at
constant pressure)
= n(C
p
C
v
)dt
= nRdT = 2 R (500 300) = 400 R
A B
C D
P
n = 2, = 1.67
300 K 500 K T
2 10
5
Pa
1 10
5
Pa
*29. The work done on the gas in taking it from D to A is
(1) 414 R (2) + 414 R
(3) 690 R (4) + 690 R
Sol: (1)
At constant temperature (isothermal process)
W
DA
=
1
2
P
nRTln
P
 

\ .
=
5
5
10
2.303 2R 300log
2 10
 

\ .
=
1
2.303 600Rlog
2
 

\ .
= 0.693 600 R =  414 R.
*30. The net work done on the gas in the cycle ABCDA is
(1) Zero (2) 276 R
(3) 1076 R (4) 1904 R
Sol: (2)
Net work done in a cycle = W
AB
+ W
BC
+ W
CB
+ W
BA
= 400 R + 2 2.303 500 R ln 2 400R 414 R
= 1000R x ln 2 600R x ln 2 = 400R x ln 2 = 276R
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C CH HE EM MI IS ST TR RY Y
PART B
31. Knowing that the Chemistry of lanthanoids (Ln) is dominated by its +3 oxidation state, which of the
following statements in incorrect ?
(1) Because of the large size of the Ln (III) ions the bonding in its compounds is predominantly ionic in
character.
(2) The ionic sizes of Ln (III) decrease in general with increasing atomic number.
(3) Ln (III) compounds are generally colourless.
(4) Ln (III) hydroxides are mainly basic in character.
Sol: (3)
3
Ln
+
compounds are mostly coloured.
32. A liquid was mixed with ethanol and a drop of concentrated
2 4
H SO was added. A compound with a
fruity smell was formed. The liquid was :
(1)
3
CH OH (2) HCHO
(3)
3 3
CH COCH (4)
3
CH COOH
Sol: (4)
Esterification reaction is involved
( ) 3
CH COOH
l
+
)
2 5 (
H
C H OH
+
l
3 2 5( ) 2 ( )
CH COOC H H O +
l l
*33. Arrange the carbanions, ( )
3 3
3
CH C, CCl , ( )
3 6 5 2
2
CH CH, C H CH , in order of their decreasing stability :
(1) ( ) ( )
6 5 2 3 3 3
3 2
C H CH CCl CH C CH CH > > > (2) ( ) ( )
3 3 6 5 2 3
2 3
CH CH CCl C H CH CH C > > >
(3) ( ) ( )
3 6 5 2 3 3
2 3
CCl C H CH CH CH CH C > > > (4) ( ) ( )
3 3 6 5 2 3
3 2
CH C CH CH C H CH CCl > > >
Sol: (3)
o
2 carbanion is more stable than
o
3 and Cl is I effect group.
*34. The alkene that exhibits geometrical isomerism is :
(1) propene (2) 2methyl propene
(3) 2butene (4) 2 methyl 2 butene
Sol: (3)
C=C
H
CH
3
CH
3
H
C=C
H
H
3
C H
CH
3
cis Trans
*35. In which of the following arrangements, the sequence is not strictly according to the property written
against it ?
(1)
2 2 2 2
CO SiO SnO PbO < < < : increasing oxidising power
(2) HF< HCl < HBr < HI : increasing acid strength
(3)
3 3 3 3
NH PH AsH SbH < < < : increasing basic strength
(4) B < C < O < N : increasing first ionization enthalpy.
Sol: (3)
Correct basic strength is
3 3 3 3
NH PH AsH BiH > > >
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36. The major product obtained on interaction of phenol with sodium hydroxide and carbon dioxide is :
(1) benzoic acid (2) salicylaldehyde
(3) salicylic acid (4) phthalic acid
Sol: (3)
Kolbe Schmidt reaction is
OH
ONa
OH
OH
NaOH
2
o
CO
6atm, 140 C
COONa
3
H O
+
COOH
Salicylic Acid
37. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding physissorptions ?
(1) It occurs because of vander Waals forces.
(2) More easily liquefiable gases are adsorbed readily.
(3) Under high pressure it results into multi molecular layer on adsorbent surface.
(4) Enthalpy of adsorption
( )
adsorption
H is low and positive.
Sol: (4)
Enthalpy of adsorption regarding physissorption is not positive and it is negative.
38. Which of the following on heating with aqueous KOH, produces acetaldehyde ?
(1)
3
CH COCl (2)
3 2
CH CH Cl
(3)
2 2
CH Cl CH Cl (4)
3 2
CH CHCl
Sol: (4)
3 2
aq.KOH
CH CHCl
3
OH
/
CH CH
\
OH
3
2
CH CHO
H O
*39. In an atom, an electron is moving with a speed of 600m/s with an accuracy of 0.005%. Certainity
with which the position of the electron can be located is
34 2 1
(h 6.6 10 kg m s ,
=
mass of electron,
31
m
e 9.1 10 kg
= )
(1)
4
1.52 10 m
(2)
3
5.10 10 m
(3)
3
1.92 10 m
(4)
3
3.84 10 m
Sol: (3)
h
x.m v
4
=
x =
h
4 m v
v =
0.005
600 0.03
100
=
34
3
31
6.625 10
x 1.92 10 m
4 3.14 9.1 10 0.03
= =
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40. In a fuel cell methanol is used as fuel and oxygen gas is used as an oxidizer. The reaction is
3 2 2 2
3
CH OH( ) O (g) CO (g) 2H O( )
2
+ + l l At 298K standard Gibbs energies of formation for
3 2
CH OH( ), H O( ) l l and
2
CO (g) are 166.2, 237.2 and 394.4 kJ
1
mol
respectively. If standard
enthalpy of combustion of methanol is 726kJ
1
mol
=
Also
o
f 3
G CH OH( ) l = 166.2 kJ mol
1
o
f 2
G H O( ) l = 237.2 kJ mol
1
o
f 2
G CO ( ) l = 394.4 kJ mol
1
Q G =
o
f
G products
o
f
G reactants.
= 394.4 2 (237.2) + 166.2
= 702.6 kJ mol
1
now Efficiency of fuel cell =
G
100
H
=
702.6
100
726
= 97%
41. Two liquids X and Y form an ideal solution. At 300K, vapour pressure of the solution containing 1 mol
of X and 3 mol of Y is 550 mm Hg. At the same temperature, if 1 mol of Y is further added to this
solution, vapour pressure of the solution increases by 10 mm Hg. Vapour pressure (in mmHg) of X
and Y in their pure states will be, respectively :
(1) 200 and 300 (2) 300 and 400
(3) 400 and 600 (4) 500 and 600
Sol: (3)
o o
T X X Y Y
P P x P x = +
X
x = mol fraction of X
Y
x = mol fraction of Y
550 =
o o
x Y
1 3
P P
1 3 1 3
   
+
 
+ +
\ . \ .
=
o o
X Y
P 3P
4 4
+
550 (4) =
o o
X Y
P 3P + .. (1)
Further 1 mol of Y is added and total pressure increases by 10 mm Hg.
550 + 10 =
o o
X Y
1 4
P P
1 4 1 4
   
+
 
+ +
\ . \ .
560 (5) =
o o
X Y
P 4P + .(2)
By solving (1) and (2)
We get,
o
X
P = 400 mm Hg
o
Y
P = 600 mm Hg
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42. The half life period of a first order chemical reaction is 6.93 minutes. The time required for the
completion of 99% of the chemical reaction will be (log 2=0.301) :
(1) 230.3 minutes (2) 23.03 minutes
(3) 46.06 minutes (4) 460.6 minutes
Sol: (3)
1
1/ 2
0.6932 0.6932
min
t 6.93
= = Q
Also t =
 
 
o
A
2.303
log
A
 
o
A = initial concentration (amount)
  A = final concentration (amount)
t =
2.303 6.93 100
log
0.6932 1
= 46.06 minutes
43. Given :
3
o
Fe / Fe
E 0.036V,
+
=
2
o
Fe / Fe
E
+
= 0.439V. The value of standard electrode potential for the
change,
3 2
(aq)
Fe e Fe (aq)
+ +
+ will be :
(1) 0.072 V (2) 0.385 V
(3) 0.770 V (4) 0.270
Sol: (3)
Q
3 o
Fe 3e Fe; E 0.036V
+
+ =
O o
1
G nFE 3F( 0.036) = =
= +0.108 F
Also
2
Fe 2e Fe;
+
+
o
E = 0.439 V
O
2
G = nF
o
E
= 2 F( 0.439)
= 0.878 F
To find
o
E for
3 2
(aq)
Fe e Fe (aq)
+ +
+
O
G = nFE
o
= 1FE
o
Q
o o o
1 2
G G G =
o
G 0.108F =  0.878F
FE
o
= +0.108F 0.878F
O
E = 0.878  0.108
= 0.77v
*44. On the basis of the following thermochemical data : (
o
(aq)
fG H 0)
+
=
2
H O( ) H (aq) OH (aq); H 57.32kJ
+
+ = l
2 2 2
1
H (g) O (g) H O( )
2
+ l ; H 286.20kJ =
The value of enthalpy of formation of OH
ion at
o
25 C is :
(1) 22.88 kJ (2) 228.88 kJ
(3) +228.88 kJ (4) 343.52 kJ
Sol: (2)
By adding the two given equations, we have
2(g)
H +
2(g) (aq) (aq)
1
O H OH
2
+
+ ; H =228.88 Kj
Here
o
f
H of
(aq)
H 0
+
=
o
f
H of OH
= 228.88 kJ
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45. Copper crystallizes in fcc with a unit cell length of 361 pm. What is the radius of copper atom ?
(1) 108 pm (2) 127 pm
(3) 157 pm (4) 181 pm
Sol: (2)
For FCC,
2a 4r = (the atoms touches each other along the face diagonal)
r =
2a 2 361
4 4
=
= 127 pm
46. Which of the following has an optical isomer ?
(1) ( )
3
3
CO NH Cl
+
(
(2) ( ) ( )
2
3
2
CO en NH
+
(
(3) ( ) ( )
3
2
4
CO H O en
+
(
(4) ( ) ( )
3
3
2 2
CO en NH
+
(
Sol: (4)
It is an octahedral complex of the type ( )
2
2
M AA X (
Where AA is bidentate ligand.
*47. Solid Ba ( )
3
2
NO is gradually dissolved in a
4
1.0 10 M
2 3
Na CO solution. At what concentration of
2
Ba
+
will a precipitate begin to form ?(K
sp
for Ba CO
3
= 5.1
9
10
).
(1) 4.1
5
10 M
(2)
5
5.1 10 M
(3)
8
8.1 10 M
(4)
7
8.1 10 M
Sol: (2)
( )
3 3 3 3
2
Ba NO CaCO BaCO 2NaNO + +
Here  
2 4
3 2 3
CO Na CO 10 M
( = =
2 2
sp 3
K Ba CO
+
( ( =
( )
9 2 4 2 5
5.1 10 Ba 10 Ba 5.1 10
+ +
( ( = =
At this value, just precipitation starts.
48. Which one of the following reactions of Xenon compounds is not feasible ?
(1)
3
XeO 6HF + Xe
6 2
F 3H O +
(2)
4 2 3
3Xe F 6H O 2 Xe XeO 12 + + + HF + 1.5
2
O
(3)
2 2 2
2XeF 2H O 2Xe 4HF O + + +
(4)
6 7
XeF RbF Rb(XeF ] +
Sol: (1)
Remaining are feasible
*49. Using MO theory predict which of the following species has the shortest bond length ?
(1)
2
2
O
+
(2)
2
O
+
(3)
2
O
(4)
2
2
O
Sol: (1)
Bond length
1
bond order
Bond order =
no..of bonding e no.of antibonding e
2
Bond orders of
2
2 2 2
O , O , O
+
and
2
2
O
+
are respectively
2.5, 1.5, 1 and 3.
50. In context with the transition elements, which of the following statements is incorrect ?
(1) In addition to the normal oxidation states, the zero oxidation state is also shown by these elements
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in complexes.
(2) In the highest oxidation states, the transition metal show basic character and form cationic
complexes.
(3) In the highest oxidation states of the first five transition elements (Sc to Mn), all the 4s and 3d
electrons are used for bonding.
(4) Once the
5
d configuration is exceeded, the tendency to involve all the 3d electrons in bonding
decreases.
Sol: (2)
In higher Oxidation states transition elements show acidic nature
*51. Calculate the wavelength (in nanometer) associated with a proton moving at
3 1
1.0 10 ms
(Mass of proton = 1.67
27
10 kg
and
34
h 6.63 10 Js
= ) :
(1) 0.032 nm (2) 0.40 nm
(3) 2.5 nm (4) 14.0 nm
Sol: (2)
h
mv
=
34
27 3
6.63 10
0.40
1.67 10 10
=
nm
52. A binary liquid solution is prepared by mixing nheptane and ethanol. Which one of the following
statements is correct regarding the behaviour of the solution ?
(1) The solution formed is an ideal solution
(2) The solution is nonideal, showing +ve deviation from Raoults law.
(3) The solution is nonideal, showing ve deviation from Raoults law.
(4) nheptane shows +ve deviation while ethanol shows ve deviation from Raoults law.
Sol: (2)
The interactions between n heptane and ethanol are weaker than that in pure components.
*53. The number of stereoisomers possible for a compound of the molecular formula
( )
3
CH CH CH CH OH Me = is :
(1) 3 (2) 2
(3) 4 (4) 6
Sol: (3)
About the double bond, two geometrical isomers are possible and the compound is having one chiral
carbon.
*54. The IUPAC name of neopentane is
(1) 2methylbutane (2) 2, 2dimethylpropane
(3) 2methylpropane (4) 2,2dimethylbutane
Sol: (2)
Neopentane is
3
3 3
3
CH

H C C CH

CH
*55. The set representing the correct order of ionic radius is :
(1)
2 2
Li Be Na Mg
+ + + +
> > > (2)
2 2
Na Li Mg Be
+ + + +
> > >
(3)
2 2
Li Na Mg Be
+ + + +
> > > (4)
2 2
Mg Be Li Na
+ + + +
> > >
Sol: (2)
Follow the periodic trends
56. The two functional groups present in a typical carbohydrate are :
(1) OH and COOH (2) CHO and COOH
(3) > C = O and  OH (4)  OH and CHO
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Sol: (3)
Carbohydrates are polyhydroxy carbonyl compounds.
*57. The bond dissociation energy of B F in
3
BF is 646 kJ
1
mol
. The correct reason for higher BF bond dissociation energy as compared to that of C F is :
(1) smaller size of Batom as compared to that of C atom
(2) stronger bond between B and F in
3
BF as compared to that between C and F in
4
CF
(3) significant p p interaction between B and F in
3
BF whereas there is no possibility of such
interaction between C and F in
4
CF .
(4) lower degree of p  p interaction between B and F in
3
BF than that between C and F in
4
CF .
Sol: (3)
option itself is the reason
58. In Cannizzaro reaction given below
2 Ph CHO
( )
2 2
( )
: OH
Ph CH OH PhCO
+
&&
the slowest step is :
(1) the attack of :
( )
OH
d 50 x 51
101 2
(
(
255 x 101
d 10.1
50 x 51
= =
*63. If the roots of the equation
2
bx cx a 0 + + = be imaginary, then for all real values of x, the expression
2 2 2
3b x 6bcx 2c + + is
(1) greater than 4ab (2) less than 4ab
(3) greater than 4ab (4) less than 4ab
Sol: (3)
2
bx cx a 0 + + =
Roots are imaginary
2 2 2
c 4ab 0 c 4ab c 4ab < < >
2 2 2
3b x 6bcx 2c + +
since
2
3b 0 >
Given expression has minimum value
Minimum value =
( )( )
( )
2 2 2 2
2 2
2
2 2
4 3b 2c 36b c
12b c
c 4ab
12b 4 3b
= = > .
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*64. Let A and B denote the statements
A: cos cos cos 0 + + =
B: sin sin sin 0 + + =
If ( ) ( ) ( )
3
cos cos cos
2
+ + = , then
(1) A is true and B is false (2) A is false and B is true
(3) both A and B are true (4) both A and B are false
Sol: (3)
( ) ( ) ( )
3
cos cos cos
2
+ + =
( ) ( ) ( ) 2 cos cos cos 3 0 ( + + + =
( ) ( ) ( )
2 2 2 2 2 2
2 cos cos cos sin cos sin cos sin cos 0 ( + + + + + + + + =
( ) ( )
2 2
sin sin sin cos cos cos 0 + + + + + =
*65. The lines
( )
2
p p 1 x y q 0 + + = and
( ) ( )
2
2 2
p 1 x p 1 y 2q 0 + + + + = are perpendicular to a common line
for
(1) no value of p (2) exactly one value of p
(3) exactly two values of p (4) more than two values of p
Sol: (2)
Lines must be parallel, therefore slopes are equal
( ) ( )
2 2
p p 1 p 1 + = + p =  1
66. If A, B and C are three sets such that A B A C = and A B A C = , then
(1) A = B (2) A = C
(3) B = C (4) A B =
Sol: (3)
67. If u, v, w
r r uur
are noncoplanar vectors and p, q are real numbers, then the equality
3u pv pw pv w qu 2w qv qu 0
( ( (
=
r r uur r uur r uur r r
holds for
(1) exactly one value of (p, q) (2) exactly two values of (p, q)
(3) more than two but not all values of (p , q) (4) all values of (p, q)
Sol: (1)
( )
2 2
3p pq 2q u v w 0
(
+ =
r r uur
But u v w 0
(
r r uur
2 2
3p pq 2q + = 0
2 2
2
2 2 2 2
q 7q q 7
2p p pq 0 2p p q 0
2 4 2 4
   
+ + + = + + =
 
\ . \ .
p = 0, q = 0,
q
p
2
=
This possible only when p = 0, q = 0 exactly one value of (p, q)
68. Let the line
x 2 y 1 z 2
3 5 2
+
= =
(2) 1
(3) 1 (4)
2
Sol: (4)
Let  
0
I cot x dx
(1)
( )
0
cot x dx
( =
 
0
cot x dx
(2)
Adding (1) and (2)
2I =  
0
cot x dx
+  
0
cot x dx
= ( )
0
1 dx
    x x 1if x Z
0 if x Z
( + =
(
=
Q
 
0
x
= =
I
2
=
71. For real x, let ( )
3
f x x 5x 1 = + + , then
(1) f is oneone but not onto R (2) f is onto R but not oneone
(3) f is oneone and onto R (4) f is neither oneone nor onto R
Sol: (3)
Given ( )
3
f x x 5x 1 = + +
Now ( )
2
f ' x 3x 5 0, x R = + >
f(x) is strictly increasing function
It is oneone
Clearly, f(x) is a continuous function and also increasing on R,
Lt
x
( ) f x = and Lt
x
( ) f x =
f(x) takes every value between and .
Thus, f(x) is onto function.
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72. In a binomial distribution
1
B n, p
4
 
=

\ .
, if the probability of at least one success is greater than or
equal to
9
10
, then n is greater than
(1)
4 3
10 10
1
log log
(2)
4 3
10 10
1
log log +
(3)
4 3
10 10
9
log log
(4)
4 3
10 10
4
log log
Sol: (1)
n
n
3
4
9 3 1
1 q n log 10
10 4 10
 

\ .
4 3
10 10
1
n
log log
*73. If P and Q are the points of intersection of the circles
2 2
x y 3x 7y 2p 5 0 + + + + = and
2 2 2
x y 2x 2y p 0 + + + = , then there is a circle passing through P, Q and (1, 1) for
(1) all values of p (2) all except one value of p
(3) all except two values of p (4) exactly one value of p
Sol: (1)
Given circles
2 2
S x y 3x 7y 2p 5 0 = + + + + =
2 2 2
S' x y 2x 2y p 0 = + + + =
Equation of required circle is S S' 0 + =
As it passes through (1, 1) the value of
( )
( )
2
7 2p
6 p
+
=
If 7 + 2p = 0, it becomes the second circle
it is true for all values of p
74. The projections of a vector on the three coordinate axis are 6,  3, 2 respectively. The direction
cosines of the vector are
(1) 6, 3, 2 (2)
6 3 2
, ,
5 5 5
(3)
6 3 2
, ,
7 7 7
(4)
6 3 2
, ,
7 7 7
Sol: (3)
Projection of a vector on coordinate axis are
2 1 2 1 2 1
x x , y y , z z
2 1 2 1 2 1
x x 6, y y 3, z z 2 = = =
( ) ( ) ( )
2 2 2
2 1 2 1 2 1
x x y y z z 36 9 4 7 + + = + + =
The D.Cs of the vector are
6 3 2
, ,
7 7 7
*75. If
4
Z 2
z
= , then the maximum value of Z is equal to
(1) 3 1 + (2) 5 1 +
(3) 2 (4) 2 2 +
Sol: (2)
4 4
Z Z
Z Z
 
= +

\ .
4 4
Z Z
Z Z
= +
4 4
Z Z
Z Z
+
4
Z 2
Z
+
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2
Z 2 Z 4 0
( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
Z 5 1 Z 1 5 0 1 5 Z 5 1 + +
*76. Three distinct points A, B and C are given in the 2 dimensional coordinate plane such that the ratio
of the distance of any one of them from the point (1, 0) to the distance from the point (  1, 0) is equal
to
1
3
. Then the circumcentre of the triangle ABC is at the point
(1) ( ) 0, 0 (2)
5
, 0
4
 

\ .
(3)
5
, 0
2
 

\ .
(4)
5
, 0
3
 

\ .
Sol: (2)
( ) P 1, 0 = ; ( ) Q 1, 0
Let ( ) A x, y =
AP BP CP 1
AQ BQ CQ 3
= = = ..(1)
( ) ( )
2 2
2 2 2 2
3AP AQ 9AP AQ 9 x 1 9y x 1 y = = + = + +
2 2 2 2 2 2
9x 18x 9 9y x 2x 1 y 8x 20x 8y 8 0 + + = + + + + + =
2 2
5
x y x 1 0
2
+ + = (2)
A lies on the circle
Similarly B, C are also lies on the same circle
Circumcentre of ABC = Centre of Circle (1) =
5
, 0
4
 

\ .
*77. The remainder left out when ( )
2n 1
2n
8 62
+
is divided by 9 is
(1) 0 (2) 2
(3) 7 (4) 8
Sol: (2)
( )
2n 1
2n
8 62
+
= ( ) ( )
n 2n 1
1 63 63 1
+
+
( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
( )
( ) ( )
( ) ( ) ( )
( )
( )
n 2n 1 2 n 2 2n 1 2n 1 2n 1 n n
1 2 1 2
1 63 1 63 1 c 63 c 63 .... 63 1 c 63 c 63 .... 1 63
+ + + +
= + + = + + + + + + + +
( ) ( )
( ) ( )
( ) ( )
( )
( )
n 1 2n
2n 1 2n 1 n n
1 2 1 2
2 63 c c 63 .... 63 c c 63 .... 63
+ +
= + + + + + +
Reminder is 2
*78. The ellipse
2 2
x 4y 4 + = is inscribed in a rectangle aligned with the coordinate axes, which in turn in
inscribed in another ellipse that passes through the point (4, 0). Then the equation of the ellipse is
(1)
2 2
x 16y 16 + = (2)
2 2
x 12y 16 + =
(3)
2 2
4x 48y 48 + = (4)
2 2
4x 64y 48 + =
Sol: (2)
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( )
2 2
2 2
x y
x 4y 4 1 a 2, b 1 P 2, 1
4 1
+ = + = = = =
Required Ellipse is
2 2 2 2
2 2 2 2
x y x y
1 1
a b 4 b
+ = + =
(2, 1) lies on it
2
2 2
4 1 1 1 3 4
1 1 b
16 4 4 3 b b
+ = = = =
2 2 2 2
2 2
x y x 3y
1 1 x 12y 16
4 16 16 4
3
+ = + = + =
 

\ .
1
2
A 2 A
V V
P (2, 1)
(4, 0)
*79. The sum to the infinity of the series
2 3 4
2 6 10 14
1 ......
3 3 3 3
+ + + + + is
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 6
Sol: (2)
Let
2 3 4
2 6 10 14
S 1 ....
3 3 3 3
= + + + + + (1)
2 3 4
1 1 2 6 10
S ....
3 3 3 3 3
= + + + + (2)
Dividing (1) & (2)
2 3 4
1 1 4 4 4
S 1 1 ....
3 3 3 3 3
 
= + + + + +

\ .
2 2
2 4 4 1 1
S 1 ......
3 3 3 3 3
 
= + + + +

\ .
2 2
2 4 4 1 4 4 3 4 2 6
S
1
3 3 3 2 3 3 2 3 3
1
3
 

= + = + = + =



\ .
2 6
S S 3
3 3
= =
80. The differential equation which represents the family of curves
2
c x
1
y c e = , where
1
c and
2
c are
arbitrary constants is
(1)
2
y' y = (2) y" y' y =
(3) yy" y' = (4) ( )
2
yy" y' =
Sol: (4)
2
c x
1
y c e = (1)
2
c x
2 1
y' c c e =
2
y' c y = (2)
2
y" c y' =
From (2)
2
y'
c
y
=
So,
( )
( )
2
2
y'
y" yy" y'
y
= =
81. One ticket is selected at random from 50 tickets numbered 00, 01, 02, ., 49. Then the probability
that the sum of the digits on the selected ticket is 8, given that the product of these digits is zero,
equals
(1)
1
14
(2)
1
7
(3)
5
14
(4)
1
50
Sol: (1)
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S = { 00, 01, 02, ., 49 }
Let A be the even that sum of the digits on the selected ticket is 8 then
A = { 08, 17, 26, 35, 44 }
Let B be the event that the product of the digits is zero
B = { 00, 01, 02, 03, ., 09, 10, 20, 30, 40 }
{ } A B 8 =
Required probability = ( )
( )
( )
1
P A B
1
50
P A/ B
14
P B 14
50
= = =
82. Let y be an implicit function of x defined by
2x x
x 2x cot y 1 0 = . Then ( ) y' 1 equals
(1) 1 (2) 1
(3) log 2 (4) log 2
Sol: (1)
2x x
x 2x cot y 1 0 = (1)
Now x = 1,
1 2 coty 1 = 0 coty = 0 y =
2
Now differentiating eq. (1) w.r.t. x
( ) ( ) ( )
2x x 2 x
dy
2x 1 logx 2 x cosec y cot y x 1 logx 0
dx
(
+ + + =
(
Now at 1,
2
 

\ .
( ) ( )
1,
2
dy
2 1 log1 2 1 1 0 0
dx
 

\ .
 
 

+ + =


\ . 
\ .
1, 1,
2 2
dy dy
2 2 0 1
dx dx
   
 
\ . \ .
   
+ = =
 
\ . \ .
83. The area of the region bounded by the parabola ( )
2
y 2 x 1 = , the tangent to the parabola at the
point (2, 3) and the xaxis is
(1) 3 (2) 6
(3) 9 (4) 12
Sol: (3)
Equation of tangent at (2, 3) to
( )
2
y 2 x 1 = is
1
S 0 =
x 2y 4 0 + =
Required Area = Area of OCB + Area of
OAPD Area of PCD
( ) ( ) ( )
3
2
0
1 1
4 x 2 y 4y 5 dy 1 x 2
2 2
= + +
3
3
2
0
y
4 2y 5y 1 4 9 18 15 1
3
(
= + + = +
(
28 19 9sq. units = =
0
D (0, 3)
P (2, 3)
2y = x + 4
A (1, 2)
B (4, 0)
C (0, 2)
A (1, 2)
(or)
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Area =
( ) ( )
3 3
2 2
0 0
2y 4 y 4y 5 dy y 6y 5 dy + = +
( )
( )
3
3
3
2
0
0
y 3
27
3 y dy 9 sq.units
3 3
(
( = = = =
(
84. Given ( )
4 3 2
P x x ax bx cx d = + + + + such that x = 0 is the only real root of ( ) P' x 0 = . If ( ) ( ) P 1 P 1 < ,
then in the interval   1, 1
(1) ( ) P 1 is the minimum and ( ) P 1 is the maximum of P
(2) ( ) P 1 is not minimum but ( ) P 1 is the maximum of P
(3) ( ) P 1 is the minimum and ( ) P 1 is not the maximum of P
(4) neither ( ) P 1 is the minimum nor ( ) P 1 is the maximum of P
Sol: (2)
( )
4 3 2
P x x ax bx cx d = + + + +
( )
3 2
P' x 4x 3ax 2bx c = + + +
Q x = 0 is a solution for ( ) P' x 0 = , c = 0
( )
4 3 2
P x x ax bx d = + + + (1)
Also, we have ( ) ( ) P 1 P 1 <
1 a b d 1 a b d a 0 + + < + + + >
Q ( ) P' x 0 = , only when x = 0 and P(x) is differentiable in (  1, 1), we should have the maximum and
minimum at the points x =  1, 0 and 1 only
Also, we have ( ) ( ) P 1 P 1 <
Max. of P(x) = Max. { P(0), P(1) } & Min. of P(x) = Min. { P(1), P(0) }
In the interval [ 0 , 1 ],
( ) ( )
3 2 2
P' x 4x 3ax 2bx x 4x 3ax 2b = + + = + +
( ) P' x Q has only one root x = 0,
2
4x 3ax 2b 0 + + = has no real roots.
( )
2
2 3a
3a 32b 0 b
32
< <
b > 0
Thus, we have a > 0 and b > 0
( ) ( )
3 2
P' x 4x 3ax 2bx 0, x 0, 1 = + + >
Hence P(x) is increasing in [ 0, 1 ]
Max. of P(x) = P(1)
Similarly, P(x) is decreasing in [1 , 0]
Therefore Min. P(x) does not occur at x =  1
85. The shortest distance between the line y x 1 = and the curve
2
x y = is
(1)
3 2
8
(2)
2 3
8
(3)
3 2
5
(4)
3
4
Sol: (1)
x y 1 0 + = (1)
2
x y =
dy
1 2y
dx
=
dy 1
dx 2y
= = Slope of given line (1)
1 1
1 y
2y 2
= =
2
1 1 1
y x
2 2 4
 
= = =

\ .
( )
1 1
x, y ,
4 2
 
=

\ .
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The shortest distance is
1 1
1
3 3 2 4 2
8
1 1 4 2
+
= =
+
Directions: Question number 86 to 90 are Assertion Reason type questions. Each of these questions
contains two statements
Statement1 (Assertion) and Statement2 (Reason).
Each of these questions also have four alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer. You have
to select the correct choice
86. Let ( ) ( )
2
f x x 1 1, x 1 = +
Statement1 : The set ( ) ( ) { } { }
1
x : f x f x 0, 1
= =
Statement2 : f is a bijection.
(1) Statement1 is true, Statement2 is true; Statement2 is a correct explanation for Statement1
(2) Statement1 is true, Statement2 is true; Statement2 is not a correct explanation for Statement1
(3) Statement1 is true, Statement2 is false
(4) Statement1 is false, Statement2 is true
Sol: (3)
There is no information about codomain therefore f(x) is not necessarily onto.
87. Let ( ) f x x x = and ( ) g x sinx = .
Statement1 : gof is differentiable at x = 0 and its derivative is continuous at that point.
Statement2 : gof is twice differentiable at x = 0.
(1) Statement1 is true, Statement2 is true; Statement2 is a correct explanation for Statement1
(2) Statement1 is true, Statement2 is true; Statement2 is not a correct explanation for Statement1
(3) Statement1 is true, Statement2 is false
(4) Statement1 is false, Statement2 is true
Sol: (3)
( ) f x x x = and ( ) g x sinx =
( ) ( )
gof x sin x x =
2
2
sinx , x 0
sinx , x 0
<
=
( ) ( )
2
2
2xcosx , x 0
gof ' x
2xcosx , x 0
<
=
Clearly, ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) L gof ' 0 0 R gof ' 0 = =
gof is differentiable at x = 0 and also its derivative is continuous at x = 0
Now, ( ) ( )
2 2 2
2 2 2
2cosx 4x sinx , x 0
gof " x
2cosx 4x sinx , x 0
+ <
=
( ) ( ) L gof " 0 2 = and ( ) ( ) R gof " 0 2 =
( ) ( ) L gof " 0 ( ) ( ) R gof " 0
gof(x) is not twice differentiable at x = 0.
*88. Statement1 : The variance of first n even natural numbers is
2
n 1
4
Statement2 : The sum of first n natural numbers is
( ) n n 1
2
+
and the sum of squares of first n natural
numbers is
( )( ) n n 1 2n 1
6
+ +
(1) Statement1 is true, Statement2 is true; Statement2 is a correct explanation for Statement1
(2) Statement1 is true, Statement2 is true; Statement2 is not a correct explanation for Statement1
(3) Statement1 is true, Statement2 is false
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FIITJEE Solutions to AIEEE  2009
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27
(4) Statement1 is false, Statement2 is true
Sol: (4)
Statement2 is true
Statement1:
Sum of n even natural numbers = n (n + 1)
( )
( ) n n 1
Mean x n 1
n
+
= = +
( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
2
2 2 2
2 2
i
1 1
Variance x x 2 4 ..... 2n n 1
n n
(
(
= = + + + +
(
( )
( )( )
( )
2 2
2 2 2 2
n n 1 2n 1
1 4
2 1 2 ..... n n 1 n 1
n n 6
+ +
( = + + + + = +
( ) ( ) ( ) ( )  ( )( )
2
n 1 2 2n 1 3 n 1 n 1 4n 2 3n 3 n 1 n 1
n 1
3 3 3 3
( + + + + + +
= = = =
Statement 1 is false.
89. Statement1 : ( ) ~ p ~ q is equivalent to p q .
Statement2 : ( ) ~ p ~ q is a tautology.
(1) Statement1 is true, Statement2 is true; Statement2 is a correct explanation for Statement1
(2) Statement1 is true, Statement2 is true; Statement2 is not a correct explanation for Statement1
(3) Statement1 is true, Statement2 is false
(4) Statement1 is false, Statement2 is true
Sol: (3)
p q
p q
~q
p ~ q
( ) ~ p ~ q
T T T F F T
T F F T T F
F T F F T F
F F T T F T
90. Let A be a 2 x 2 matrix
Statement1 : ( ) adj adj A A =
Statement2 : adj A A =
(1) Statement1 is true, Statement2 is true; Statement2 is a correct explanation for Statement1
(2) Statement1 is true, Statement2 is true; Statement2 is not a correct explanation for Statement1
(3) Statement1 is true, Statement2 is false
(4) Statement1 is false, Statement2 is true
Sol: (2)
n 1 2 1
adj A A A A
= = =
( )
n 2 0
adj adj A A A A A A
= = =
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FIITJEE Solutions to AIEEE  2009
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28
A AI IE EE EE E 2 20 00 09 9, , A AN NS SW WE ER R K KE EY Y
Test Booklet CodeA Test Booklet CodeB Test Booklet CodeC Test Booklet CodeD
PHY CHE MAT CHE MAT PHY MAT PHY CHE CHE PHY MAT
1. (2)
2. (1)
3. (3)
4. (1)
5. (2)
6. (1)
7. (4)
8. (3)
9. (4)
10. (2)
11. (1)
12. (2)
13. (2)
14. (3)
15. (4)
16. (2)
17. (2)
18. (2)
19. (3)
20. (1)
21. (2)
22. (4)
23. (3)
24. (1)
25. (4)
26. (1)
27. (4)
28. (3)
29. (1)
30. (2)
31. (3)
32. (4)
33. (3)
34. (3)
35. (3)
36. (3)
37. (4)
38. (4)
39. (3)
40. (4)
41. (3)
42. (3)
43. (3)
44. (2)
45. (2)
46. (4)
47. (2)
48. (1)
49. (1)
50. (2)
51. (2)
52. (2)
53. (3)
54. (2)
55. (2)
56. (3)
57. (3)
58. (2)
59. (2)
60. (3)
61. (3)
62. (3)
63. (3)
64. (3)
65. (2)
66. (3)
67. (1)
68. (2)
69. (4)
70. (4)
71. (3)
72. (1)
73. (1)
74. (3)
75. (2)
76. (2)
77. (2)
78. (2)
79. (2)
80. (4)
81. (1)
82. (1)
83. (3)
84. (2)
85. (1)
86. (3)
87. (3)
88. (4)
89. (3)
90. (2)
1. (1)
2. (4)
3. (1)
4. (3)
5. (3)
6. (1)
7. (1)
8. (1)
9. (2)
10. (1)
11. (2)
12. (4)
13. (3)
14. (3)
15. (2)
16. (2)
17. (2)
18. (1)
19. (1)
20. (2)
21. (2)
22. (2)
23. (2)
24. (1)
25. (1)
26. (1)
27. (3)
28. (2)
29. (2)
30. (2)
31. (2)
32. (1)
33. (2)
34. (3)
35. (2)
36. (2)
37. (1)
38. (4)
39. (1)
40. (3)
41. (4)
42. (1)
43. (2)
44. (2)
45. (3)
46. (2)
47. (1)
48. (4)
49. (2)
50. (1)
51. (2)
52. (2)
53. (4)
54. (1)
55. (2)
56. (1)
57. (1)
58. (4)
59. (4)
60. (3)
61. (2)
62. (2)
63. (1)
64. (3)
65. (1)
66. (1)
67. (2)
68. (4)
69. (1)
70. (4)
71. (4)
72. (1)
73. (3)
74. (4)
75. (3)
76. (2)
77. (1)
78. (1)
79. (2)
80. (1)
81. (4)
82. (3)
83. (3)
84. (1)
85. (4)
86. (1)
87. (3)
88. (4)
89. (2)
90. (2)
1. (4)
2. (4)
3. (4)
4. (3)
5. (2)
6. (1)
7. (4)
8. (4)
9. (4)
10. (3)
11. (1)
12. (3)
13. (4)
14. (3)
15. (2)
16. (4)
17. (3)
18. (3)
19. (4)
20. (1)
21. (2)
22. (3)
23. (3)
24. (3)
25. (4)
26. (1)
27. (2)
28. (3)
29. (2)
30. (2)
31. (4)
32. (2)
33. (3)
34. (4)
35. (2)
36. (3)
37. (1)
38. (4)
39. (2)
40. (2)
41. (1)
42. (4)
43. (2)
44. (1)
45. (4)
46. (3)
47. (1)
48. (2)
49. (3)
50. (3)
51. (3)
52. (4)
53. (1)
54. (3)
55. (1)
56. (2)
57. (1)
58. (3)
59. (3)
60. (2)
61. (4)
62. (3)
63. (4)
64. (1)
65. (3)
66. (4)
67. (3)
68. (4)
69. (4)
70. (4)
71. (3)
72. (4)
73. (1)
74. (4)
75. (4)
76. (3)
77. (4)
78. (4)
79. (3)
80. (2)
81. (2)
82. (3)
83. (3)
84. (4)
85. (1)
86. (1)
87. (2)
88. (3)
89. (4)
90. (1)
1. (1)
2. (1)
3. (1)
4. (1)
5. (4)
6. (2)
7. (1)
8. (1)
9. (1)
10. (4)
11. (4)
12. (4)
13. (4)
14. (1)
15. (3)
16. (3)
17. (1)
18. (1)
19. (1)
20. (4)
21. (4)
22. (1)
23. (2)
24. (4)
25. (2)
26. (4)
27. (2)
28. (1)
29. (2)
30. (4)
31. (4)
32. (3)
33. (4)
34. (4)
35. (1)
36. (3)
37. (3)
38. (4)
39. (3)
40. (1)
41. (4)
42. (4)
43. (2)
44. (4)
45. (2)
46. (2)
47. (2)
48. (2)
49. (1)
50. (1)
51. (3)
52. (3)
53. (1)
54. (3)
55. (4)
56. (4)
57. (1)
58. (2)
59. (3)
60. (2)
61. (4)
62. (4)
63. (1)
64. (1)
65. (2)
66. (3)
67. (2)
68. (4)
69. (4)
70. (2)
71. (3)
72. (3)
73. (1)
74. (4)
75. (4)
76. (1)
77. (2)
78. (1)
79. (1)
80. (3)
81. (1)
82. (4)
83. (4)
84. (1)
85. (1)
86. (3)
87. (4)
88. (3)
89. (1)
90. (1)
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A
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1
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AIEEE 2010 2
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PART A: CHEHISTRY
1. The standard enthalpy of formation of NH
3
is 46.0 kJ mol
1
. If the enthalpy of formation of H
2
from
its atoms is 436 kJ mol
1
and that of N
2
is 712 kJ mol
1
, the average bond enthalpy of NH bond in
NH
3
is
(1) 964 kJ mol
1
(2) +352 kJ mol
1
(3) + 1056 kJ mol
1
(4) 1102 kJ mol
1
1. (2)
Sol : Enthalpy of formation of NH
3
= 46 kJ/mole
N
2
+ 3H
2
2NH
3
H
f
= 2 x 46 kJ mol
Bond breaking is endothermic and Bond formation is exothermic
Assuming x is the bond energy of NH bond (kJ mol
1
)
712 + (3 x 436) 6x = 46 x 2
x = 352 kJ/mol
2. The time for half life period of a certain reaction A products is 1 hour. When the initial
concentration of the reactant A, is 2.0 mol L
1
, how much time does it take for its concentration to
come from 0.50 to 0.25 mol L
1
if it is a zero order reaction ?
(1) 4 h (2) 0.5 h (3) 0.25 h (4) 1 h
2. (3)
Sol : For a zero order reaction
x
k
t
= (1)
Where x = amount decomposed
k = zero order rate constant
for a zero order reaction
[ ]
0
1
2
A
k
2t
= (2)
Since [A
0
] = 2M , t
1/2
= 1 hr; k = 1
from equation (1)
0.25
t 0.25hr
1
= =
3. A solution containing 2.675 g of CoCl
3
. 6 NH
3
(molar mass = 267.5 g mol
1
) is passed through a
cation exchanger. The chloride ions obtained in solution were treated with excess of AgNO
3
to give
4.78 g of AgCl (molar mass = 143.5 g mol
1
). The formula of the complex is (At. Mass of Ag = 108 u)
(1) [Co(NH
3
)
6
]Cl
3
(2) [CoCl
2
(NH
3
)
4
]Cl (3) [CoCl
3
(NH
3
)
3
] (4) [CoCl(NH
3
)
5
]Cl
2
3. (1)
Sol : CoCl
3
. 6NH
3
xCl
AgNO
3
x AgCl
n(AgCl) = x n(CoCl
3
. 6NH
3
)
4.78 2.675
x
143.5 267.5
= x = 3
The complex is ( )
3 3
6
Co NH Cl (
4. Consider the reaction :
Cl
2
(aq) + H
2
S(aq) S(s) + 2H
+
(aq) + 2Cl
(aq)
The rate equation for this reaction is rate = k [Cl
2
] [H
2
S]
Which of these mechanisms is/are consistent with this rate equation ?
(A) Cl
2
+ H
2
H
+
+ Cl
+ Cl
+
+ HS
(slow)
Cl
+
+ HS
H
+
+ Cl
+ S (fast)
(B) H
2
S H
+
+ HS
(fast equilibrium)
Cl
2
+ HS
2Cl
+ H
+
+ S (slow)
(1) B only (2) Both A and B (3) Neither A nor B (4) A only
4. (4)
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Sol: Rate equation is to be derived wrt slow
Step from mechanism (A)
Rate = k[Cl
2
] [H
2
S]
5. If 10
4
dm
3
of water is introduced into a 1.0 dm
3
flask to 300 K, how many moles of water are in the
vapour phase when equilibrium is established ?
(Given : Vapour pressure of H
2
O at 300 K is 3170 Pa ; R = 8.314 J K
1
mol
1
)
(1) 5.56 x 10
3
mol (2) 1.53 x 10
2
mol (3) 4.46 x 10
2
mol (4) 1.27 x 10
3
mol
5. (4)
Sol :
PV
n
RT
= =
= 128 x 10
5
moles
=
5
1 1
3170 10 atm 1L
0.0821L atm k mol 300K
1.27 x 10
3
mol
6. One mole of a symmetrical alkene on ozonolysis gives two moles of an aldehyde having a molecular
mass of 44 u. The alkene is
(1) propene (2) 1butene (3) 2butene (4) ethene
6. (3)
Sol : 2butene is symmetrical alkene
CH
3
CH=CHCH
3
O
3
3 Zn / H O
2
2.CH CHO
Molar mass of CH
3
CHO is 44 u.
7. If sodium sulphate is considered to be completely dissociated into cations and anions in aqueous
solution, the change in freezing point of water (T
f
), when 0.01 mol of sodium sulphate is dissolved
in 1 kg of water, is (K
f
= 1.86 K kg mol
1
)
(1) 0.0372 K (2) 0.0558 K (3) 0.0744 K (4) 0.0186 K
7. (2)
Sol : Vant Hoffs factor (i) for Na
2
SO
4
= 3
T
f
= (i) k
f
m
= 3 x 1.80 x
0.01
0.0558 K
1
=
8. From amongst the following alcohols the one that would react fastest with conc. HCl and anhydrous
ZnCl
2
, is
(1) 2Butanol (2) 2Methylpropan2ol (3) 2Methylpropanol (4) 1Butanol
8. (2)
Sol : 3 alcohols react fastest with ZnCl
2
/conc.HCl due to formation of 3 carbocation and
2methyl propan2ol is the only 3 alcohol
9. In the chemical reactions,
NH
2
NaNO
2
HCl, 278 K
A
HBF
4
B
the compounds A and B respectively are
(1) nitrobenzene and fluorobenzene (2) phenol and benzene
(3) benzene diazonium chloride and fluorobenzene (4) nitrobenzene and chlorobenzene
9. (3)
Sol :
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NH
2
N
2
Cl
NaNO
2
HCl, 278 K
HBF
4
F
N
2
BF
3
HCl
(A) (B)
benzene diazonium
chloride
fluorobenzene
10. 29.5 mg of an organic compound containing nitrogen was digested according to Kjeldahls method
and the evolved ammonia was absorbed in 20 mL of 0.1 M HCl solution. The excess of the acid
required 15 mL of 0.1 M NaOH solution for complete neutralization. The percentage of nitrogen in
the compound is
(1) 59.0 (2) 47.4 (3) 23.7 (4) 29.5
10. (3)
Sol : Moles of HCl reacting with
ammonia = (moles of HCl absorbed ) (moles of NaOH solution required)
= (20 x 0.1 x 10
3
) (15 x 0.1 x 10
3
)
= moles of NH
3
evolved.
= moles of nitrogen in organic compound
wt. of nitrogen in org. comp = 0.5 x 10
3
x 14
= 7 x 10
3
g
% wt =
3
3
7 10
23.7%
29.5 10
11. The energy required to break one mole of ClCl bonds in Cl
2
is 242 kJ mol
1
. The longest
wavelength of light capable of breaking a single Cl Cl bond is
(c = 3 x 10
8
ms
1
and N
A
= 6.02 x 10
23
mol
1
)
(1) 594 nm (2) 640 nm (3) 700 nm (4) 494 nm
11. (4)
Sol : Energy required for 1 Cl
2
molecule =
3
A
242 10
N
Joules.
This energy is contained in photon of wavelength .
34 8 3
23
hc 6.626 10 3 10 242 10
E
6.022 10
= =
= 4947
0
A 494 nm
12. Ionisation energy of He
+
is 19.6 x 10
18
J atom
1
. The energy of the first stationary state (n = 1) of Li
2+
is
(1) 4.41 x 10
16
J atom
1
(2) 4.41 x 10
17
J atom
1
(3) 2.2 x 10
15
J atom
1
(4) 8.82 x 10
17
J atom
1
12. (2)
Sol :
2
2 2
He He
1 1
IE 13.6 Z
1
+ +
(
=
(
=
( )
2
He He
13.6Z where Z 2
+ +
=
Hence
2 18
He
13.6 Z 19.6 10
+
= J atom
1
.
( )
2
2
1 2 2 Li
Li
1
E 13.6 Z
1
+
+
= =
2
2
2 Li
2
He
He
Z
13.6 Z
Z
+
+
+
(
(
(
= 19.6 x 10
18
x
17
9
4.41 10 J/ atom
4
=
13. Consider the following bromides :
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Me Br
Br
Me Me
Br
Me
(A)
(B)
(C)
The correct order of S
N
1 reactivity is
(1) B > C > A (2) B > A > C (3) C > B > A (4) A > B > C
13. (1)
Sol : S
N
1 proceeds via carbocation intermediate, the most stable one forming the product faster. Hence
reactivity order for A, B, C depends on stability of carbocation created.
Me
Me
Me
Me
> >
14. Which one of the following has an optical isomer ?
(1) ( )( )
2
3
2
Zn en NH
+
(
(2) ( )
3
3
Co en
+
(
(3) ( ) ( )
3
2
4
Co H O en
+
(
(4) ( )
2
2
Zn en
+
(
(en = ethylenediamine)
14. (2)
Sol : Only option (2) is having nonsuper imposable mirror image & hence one optical isomer.
Zn
+
NH
3
NH
3
en
no optical isomer. It is
Tetrahedral with a plane of symmetry
Co
+
Co
+
en
en
en
en
en
en
optical isomer
( 1)
( 2)
2
3
3
H
2
O
H
2
O
Co
+
H
2
O
H
2
O
en
Horizontal plane is plane of symmtry
Zn
+
en
en
no optical isomer, it is
tetrahedral with a plane of symmetry
3)
4)
3
2
15. On mixing, heptane and octane form an ideal solution. At 373 K, the vapour pressures of the two
liquid components (heptane and octane) are 105 kPa and 45 kPa respectively. Vapour pressure of
the solution obtained by mixing 25.0g of heptane and 35 g of octane will be (molar mass of heptane
= 100 g mol
1
an dof octane = 114 g mol
1
).
(1) 72.0 kPa (2) 36.1 kPa (3) 96.2 kPa (4) 144.5 kPa
15. (1)
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Sol : Mole fraction of Heptane =
25/100 0.25
0.45
25 35
0.557
100 114
= =
+
Heptane
X 0.45 = .
Mole fraction of octane = 0.55 = X
octane
Total pressure =
0
i i
XP
= (105 x 0.45) + (45 x 0.55) kP
a
= 72.0 KPa
16. The main product of the following reaction is C
6
H
5
CH
2
CH(OH)CH(CH
3
)
2
conc. H SO
2 4
?
(1)
C C
H
5
C
6
H CH(CH
3
)
2
H
(2)
C C
C
6
H
5
CH
2
H CH
3
CH
3
(3) C C
C
6
H
5
H H
CH(CH
3
)
2
(4)
C CH
2
H
5
C
6
CH
2
CH
2
H
3
C
16. (1)
Sol :
CH
2
CH
OH
CH
CH
3
CH
3
CH
2
CH CH
CH
3
CH
3
CH CH HC
CH
3
CH
3
H
2
SO
4
conc.
loss of proton
(conjugated system)
Trans isomers is more stable & main product here
C C
H
CH(CH
3
)
2
H
(trans isomer)
17. Three reactions involving
2 4
H PO
(ii)
2 4
H PO
+ H
2
O
2
4
HPO
+ H
3
O
+
(iii)
2
2 4 3 4
H PO OH H PO O
+ +
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In which of the above does
2 4
H PO
act as an acid ?
(1) (ii) only (2) (i) and (ii) (3) (iii) only (4) (i) only
17. (1)
Sol : (i)
3 4
acid
H PO + H
2
3
H O
+
+
2 4
conjugate base
H PO
(ii)
2 4
acid
H PO
+ H
2
O
2
4
conjugate base
HPO
+
3
H O
+
(iii)
2 4
acid
H PO
+
acid
OH
3 4
conjugate acid
H PO + O
2
Only in reaction (ii)
2 4
H PO
acids as acid.
18. In aqueous solution the ionization constants for carbonic acid are
K
1
= 4.2 x 10
7
and K
2
= 4.8 x 10
11
Select the correct statement for a saturated 0.034 M solution of the carbonic acid.
(1) The concentration of
2
3
CO
is 0.034 M.
(2) The concentration of
2
3
CO
is greater than that of
3
HCO
.
(3) The concentration of H
+
and
3
HCO
H
+
+
3
HCO
K
1
= 4.2 x 10
7
B
3
HCO
H
+
+
2
3
CO
K
2
= 4.8 x 10
11
As K
2
<< K
1
All major
total A
H H
+ +
( (
and from I equilibrium,
3
A total
H HCO H
+ +
( ( (
2
3
CO
(
is negligible compared to
3
total
HCO or H
+
( (
19. The edge length of a face centered cubic cell of an ionic substance is 508 pm. If the radius of the
cation is 110 pm, the radius of the anion is
(1) 288 pm (2) 398 pm (3) 618 pm (4) 144 pm
19. (4)
Sol : For an ionic substance in FCC arrangement,
( )
2 r r
+
+ = edge length
( )
2 110 r
+ = 508
r
= 144 pm
20. The correct order of increasing basicity of the given conjugate bases (R = CH
3
) is
(1)
2
RCOO HC C R NH < = < < (2)
2
R HC C RCOO NH < < <
(3)
2
RCOO NH HC C R < < < (4)
2
RCOO HC C NH R < < <
20. (4)
Sol : Correct order of increasing basic strength is
RCOO
()
< CHC
()
<
( )
2
NH
< R
()
21. The correct sequence which shows decreasing order of the ionic radii of the elements is
(1) Al
3+
> Mg
2+
> Na
+
> F
> O
2
(2) Na
+
> Mg
2+
> Al
3+
> O
2
> F
(3) Na
+
> F
> Mg
2+
> O
2
> Al
3+
(4) O
2
> F
> Na
+
> Mg
2+
> Al
3+
21. (4)
Sol : For isoelectronic species higher the
Z
e
ratio , smaller the ionic radius
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z
e
for
2
8
O 0.8
10
= =
9
F 0.9
10
= =
11
Na 1.1
10
+
= =
2
12
Mg 1.2
10
+
= =
3
13
Al 1.3
10
+
= =
22. Solubility product of silver bromide is 5.0 x 10
13
. The quantity of potassium bromide (molar mass
taken as 120 g of mol
1
) to be added to 1 litre of 0.05 M solution of silver nitrate to start the
precipitation of AgBr is
(1) 1.2 x 10
10
g (2) 1.2 x 10
9
g (3) 6.2 x 10
5
g (4) 5.0 x 10
8
g
22. (2)
Sol : Ag
+
+ Br
AgBr
Precipitation starts when ionic product just exceeds solubility product
sp
K Ag Br
+
( ( =
13
sp 11
K
5 10
Br 10
0.05 Ag
( = = =
(
i.e., precipitation just starts when 10
11
moles of KBr is added to 1L of AgNO
3
solution.
No. of moles of KBr to be added = 10
11
weight of KBr to be added = 10
11
x 120
= 1.2 x 10
9
g
23. The Gibbs energy for the decomposition of Al
2
O
3
at 500C is as follows :
2
3
Al
2
O
3
4
3
Al + O
2
,
r
G = + 966 kJ mol
1
The potential difference needed for electrolytic reduction of Al
2
O
3
at 500C is at least
(1) 4.5 V (2) 3.0 V (3) 2.5 V (4) 5.0 V
23. (3)
Sol : G = nFE
G
E
nF
=
3
966 10
E
4 96500
= 2.5 V
The potential difference needed for the reduction = 2.5 V
24. At 25C, the solubility product of Mg(OH)
2
is 1.0 x 10
11
. At which pH, will Mg
2+
ions start precipitating
in the form of Mg(OH)
2
from a solution of 0.001 M Mg
2+
ions ?
(1) 9 (2) 10 (3) 11 (4) 8
24. (2)
Sol :
2
2
Mg 2OH Mg(OH)
+
+
2
2
sp
sp 4
2
OH H
K Mg OH
K
OH 10
Mg
p 4 and p 10
+
+
( ( =
( = =
(
= =
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25. Percentage of free space in cubic close packed structure and in body centred packed structure are
respectively
(1) 30% and 26% (2) 26% and 32% (3) 32% and 48% (4) 48% and 26%
25. (2)
Sol : packing fraction of cubic close packing and body centred packing are 0.74 and 0.68 respectively.
26. Out of the following, the alkene that exhibits optical isomerism is
(1) 3methyl2pentene (2) 4methyl1pentene
(3) 3methyl1pentene (4) 2methyl2pentene
26. (3)
Sol :
H
2
C=HC C
2
H
5
H
CH
3
only 3methyl1pentene has a chiral carbon
27. Biuret test is not given by
(1) carbohydrates (2) polypeptides (3) urea (4) proteins
27. (1)
Sol : It is a test characteristic of amide linkage. Urea also has amide linkage like proteins.
28. The correct order of
0
2
M / M
E
+
values with negative sign for the four successive elements Cr, Mn, Fe
and Co is
(1) Mn > Cr > Fe > Co (2) Cr > Fe > Mn > Co (3) Fe > Mn > Cr > Co (4) Cr > Mn > Fe > Co
28. (1)
29. The polymer containing strong intermolecular forces e.g. hydrogen bonding, is
(1) teflon (2) nylon 6,6 (3) polystyrene (4) natural rubber
29. (2)
Sol : nylon 6,6 is a polymer of adipic acid and hexamethylene diamine
C
O
(CH
2
)
4
C
O
NH (CH
2
)
6
NH
n
30. For a particular reversible reaction at temperature T, H and S were found to be both +ve. If T
e
is
the temperature at equilibrium, the reaction would be spontaneous when
(1) T
e
> T (2) T > T
e
(3) T
e
is 5 times T (4) T = T
e
30. (2)
Sol : G H T S =
at equilibrium, G = 0
for a reaction to be spontaneous G should be negative
e
T T >
PART B: PHYSICS
31. A rectangular loop has a sliding connector PQ of length and resistance R and it is moving with a
speed v as shown. The setup is placed in a uniform magnetic field going into the plane of the paper.
The three currents I
1
, I
2
and I are
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(1)
1 2
B v 2B v
I I , I
R R
= = =
(2)
1 2
B v 2B v
I I , I
3R 3R
= = =
(3)
1 2
B v
I I I
R
= = =
(4)
1 2
B v B v
I I , I
6R 3R
= = =
31. 2
Sol. A moving conductor is equivalent to a battery of emf = v B (motion emf)
Equivalent circuit
1 2
I I I = +
applying Kirchoffs law
1
I R IR vB 0 + = (1)
2
I R IR vB 0 + = (2)
adding (1) & (2)
R
R
I
1
I
2
2IR IR 2vB + =
2vB
I
3R
=
1 2
vB
I I
3R
= =
32. Let C be the capacitance of a capacitor discharging through a resistor R. Suppose t
1
is the time
taken for the energy stored in the capacitor to reduce to half its initial value and t
2
is the time taken
for the charge to reduce to onefourth its initial value. Then the ratio t
1
/t
2
will be
(1) 1 (2)
1
2
(3)
1
4
(4) 2
32. 3
Sol.
2 2
t / T 2 2t / T 0
0
q 1 q 1
U (q e ) e
2 C 2C 2C
= = = (where CR = )
2t /
i
U U e
=
1
2t /
i i
1
U Ue
2
=
1
2t /
1
e
2
=
1
T
t ln2
2
=
Now
t / T
0
q q e
=
t / 2T
0 0
1
q q e
4
=
2
t Tln4 2Tln2 = =
1
2
t 1
t 4
=
Directions: Questions number 33 34 contain Statement1 and Statement2. Of the four choices given after
the statements, choose the one that best describes the two statements.
33. Statement1 : Two particles moving in the same direction do not lose all their energy in a
completely inelastic collision.
Statement2 : Principle of conservation of momentum holds true for all kinds of collisions.
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(1) Statement1 is true, Statement2 is true; Statement2 is the correct explanation of Statement1.
(2) Statement1 is true, Statement2 is true; Statement2 is not the correct explanation of Statement
1
(3) Statement1 is false, Statement2 is true.
(4) Statement1 is true, Statement2 is false.
33. 1
Sol.
m
2
m
1
v
1
v
2
If it is a completely inelastic collision then
1 1 2 2 1 2
m v m v m v m v + = +
1 1 2 2
1 2
m v m v
v
m m
+
=
+
2 2
1 2
1 2
p p
K.E
2m 2m
= +
as
1 2
p and p
both simultaneously cannot be zero
therefore total KE cannot be lost.
34. Statement1 : When ultraviolet light is incident on a photocell, its stopping potential is V
0
and the
maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons is K
max
. When the ultraviolet light is replaced by X
rays, both V
0
and K
max
increase.
Statement2 : Photoelectrons are emitted with speeds ranging from zero to a maximum value
because of the range of frequencies present in the incident light.
(1) Statement1 is true, Statement2 is true; Statement2 is the correct explanation of Statement1.
(2) Statement1 is true, Statement2 is true; Statement2 is not the correct explanation of Statement
1.
(3) Statement1 is false, Statement2 is true.
(4) Statement1 is true, Statement2 is false.
34. 4
Sol. Since the frequency of ultraviolet light is less than the frequency of Xrays, the energy of each
incident photon will be more for Xrays
K.E
photoelectron
=h
Stopping potential is to stop the fastest photoelectron
0
h
V
e e
=
so, K.E
max
and V
0
both increases.
But K.E ranges from zero to K.E
max
because of loss of energy due to subsequent collisions before
getting ejected and not due to range of frequencies in the incident light.
35. A ball is made of a material of density where
oil
< <
water
with
oil
and
water
representing the
densities of oil and water, respectively. The oil and water are immiscible. If the above ball is in
equilibrium in a mixture of this oil and water, which of the following pictures represents its equilibrium
position ?
(1)
(2)
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(3)
(4)
35. 2
Sol.
oil water
< <
Oil is the least dense of them so it should settle at the top with water at the base. Now the ball is
denser than oil but less denser than water. So, it will sink through oil but will not sink in water. So it
will stay at the oilwater interface.
36. A particle is moving with velocity
v K(y i x j) = +
dx dy
Ky, Kx
dt dt
= =
dy dy dt Kx
dx dt dx Ky
= =
y dy = x dx
y
2
= x
2
+ c.
37. Two long parallel wires are at a distance 2d apart. They carry steady equal current flowing out of the
plane of the paper as shown. The variation of the magnetic field along the line XX' is given by
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
37. 1
Sol. The magnetic field in between because of each will be in opposite direction
B
in between
=
0 0
i i
j ( j)
2 x 2 (2d x)
0
i 1 1
( j)
2 x 2d x
(
=
(
at x = d, B
in between
= 0
for x < d, B
in between
=
( j)
for x > d, B
in between
=
( j)
towards x net magnetic field will add up and direction will be
( j)
towards x' net magnetic field will add up and direction will be
( j)
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38. In the circuit shown below, the key K is closed at t = 0. The current through the battery is
(1)
1 2
2 2
1 2
VR R
R R +
at t = 0 and
2
V
R
at t =
(2)
2
V
R
at t = 0 and
1 2
1 2
V(R R )
R R
+
at t =
(3)
2
V
R
at t = 0 and
1 2
2 2
1 2
VR R
R R +
at t =
(4)
1 2
1 2
V(R R )
R R
+
at t = 0 and
2
V
R
at t =
38. 2
Sol. At t = 0, inductor behaves like an infinite resistance
So at t = 0,
2
V
i
R
=
and at t = , inductor behaves like a conducting wire
1 2
eq 1 2
V(R R ) V
i
R R R
+
= =
39. The figure shows the position time (x t)
graph of onedimensional motion of a body
of mass 0.4 kg. The magnitude of each
impulse is
(1) 0.4 Ns (2) 0.8 Ns
(3) 1.6 Ns (4) 0.2 Ns
39. 2
Sol. From the graph, it is a straight line so, uniform motion. Because of impulse direction of velocity
changes as can be seen from the slope of the graph.
Initial velocity =
2
1m/ s
2
=
Final velocity =
2
1m/ s
2
=
i P 0.4 =
N s
i
Pj 0.4 =
N s
f
i
J P P =
= 0.4 0.4 = 0.8 N s ( J
= impulse)
J
= 0.8 Ns
Directions : Questions number 40 41 are based on the following paragraph.
A nucleus of mass M + m is at rest and decays into two daughter nuclei of equal mass
M
2
each.
Speed of light is c.
40. The binding energy per nucleon for the parent nucleus is E
1
and that for the daughter nuclei is E
2
.
Then
(1) E
2
= 2E
1
(2) E
1
> E
2
(3) E
2
> E
1
(4) E
1
= 2E
2
40. 3
Sol. After decay, the daughter nuclei will be more stable hence binding energy per nucleon will be more
than that of their parent nucleus.
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41. The speed of daughter nuclei is
(1)
m
c
M m
+
(2)
2 m
c
M
(3)
m
c
M
(4)
m
c
M m
+
41. 2
Sol. Conserving the momentum
1 2
M M
0 V V
2 2
=
1 2
V V = .(1)
2 2 2
1 2
1 M 1 M
mc . V . .V
2 2 2 2
= + .(2)
2 2
1
M
mc V
2
=
2
2
1
2 mc
V
M
=
1
2 m
V c
M
=
42. A radioactive nucleus (initial mass number A and atomic number Z) emits 3 particles and 2
positrons. The ratio of number of neutrons to that of protons in the final nucleus will be
(1)
A Z 8
Z 4
(2)
A Z 4
Z 8
(3)
A Z 12
Z 4
(4)
A Z 4
Z 2
42. 2
Sol. In positive beta decay a proton is transformed into a neutron and a positron is emitted.
0
p n e
+ +
+
no. of neutrons initially was A Z
no. of neutrons after decay (A Z) 3 x 2 (due to alpha particles) + 2 x 1 (due to positive beta
decay)
The no. of proton will reduce by 8. [as 3 x 2 (due to alpha particles) + 2(due to positive beta decay)]
Hence atomic number reduces by 8.
43. A thin semicircular ring of radius r has a positive charge q
distributed uniformly over it. The net field E
at the centre O is
(1)
2 2
0
q
j
4 r
(2)
2 2
0
q
j
4 r
(3)
2 2
0
q
j
2 r
(4)
2 2
0
q
j
2 r
43. 3
Sol. Linear charge density
q
r
 
=

\ .
2
K.dq
E dEsin ( j) sin ( j)
r
= =
} }
2
K qr
E d sin ( j)
r r
=
}
y
x
d
2
0
K q
sin ( j)
r
}
2 2
0
q
( j)
2 r
=
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44. The combination of gates shown below yields
(1) OR gate (2) NOT gate
(3) XOR gate (4) NAND gate
44. 1
Sol. Truth table for given combination is
A B X
0 0 0
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 1
This comes out to be truth table of OR gate
45. A diatomic ideal gas is used in a Car engine as the working substance. If during the adiabatic
expansion part of the cycle, volume of the gas increases from V to 32V the efficiency of the engine is
(1) 0.5 (2) 0.75 (3) 0.99 (4) 0.25
45. 2
Sol. The efficiency of cycle is
2
1
T
1
T
=
for adiabatic process
TV
1
= constant
For diatomic gas
7
5
=
1 1
1 1 2 2
T V T V
=
1
2
1 2
1
V
T T
V
 
=

\ .
7
1
5
1 2
T T (32)
=
5 2/ 5
2
T (2 ) =
= T
2
x 4
T
1
= 4T
2
.
1 3
1 0.75
4 4
 
= = =

\ .
46. If a source of power 4 kW produces 10
20
photons/second, the radiation belong to a part of the
spectrum called
(1) Xrays (2) ultraviolet rays (3) microwaves (4) rays
46. 1
Sol. 4 x 10
3
= 10
20
x hf
3
20 34
4 10
f
10 6.023 10
=
f = 6.03 x 10
16
Hz
The obtained frequency lies in the band of Xrays.
47. The respective number of significant figures for the numbers 23.023, 0.0003 and 2.1 x 10
3
are
(1) 5, 1, 2 (2) 5, 1, 5 (3) 5, 5, 2 (4) 4, 4, 2
47. 1
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48. In a series LCR circuit R = 200 and the voltage and the frequency of the main supply is 220 V and
50 Hz respectively. On taking out the capacitance from the circuit the current lags behind the voltage
by 30. On taking out the inductor from the circuit the current leads the voltage by 30
o
. The power
dissipated in the LCR circuit is
(1) 305 W (2) 210 W (3) Zero W (4) 242 W
48. 4
Sol. The given circuit is under resonance as X
L
= X
C
Hence power dissipated in the circuit is
2
V
P
R
= = 242 W
49. Let there be a spherically symmetric charge distribution with charge density varying as
0
5 r
(r)
4 R
 
=

\ .
upto r = R, and (r) = 0 for r > R, where r is the distance from the origin. The
electric field at a distance r(r < R) from the origin is given by
(1)
0
0
4 r 5 r
3 3 R
 
\ .
(2)
0
0
r 5 r
4 3 R
 
\ .
(3)
0
0
4 r 5 r
3 4 R
 
\ .
(4)
0
0
r 5 r
3 4 R
 
\ .
49. 2
Sol. Apply shell theorem the total charge upto distance r can be calculated as followed
2
dq 4 r .dr. =
2
0
5 r
4 r .dr.
4 R
(
=
(
3
2
0
5 r
4 r dr dr
4 R
(
=
(
r 3
2
0
0
5 r
dq q 4 r dr dr
4 R
 
= =

\ .
} }
3 4
0
5 r 1 r
4
4 3 R 4
(
=
(
2
kq
E
r
=
3 4
0 2
0
1 1 5 r r
.4
4 r 4 3 4R
(  
=
( 
\ .
0
0
r 5 r
E
4 3 R
(
=
(
50. The potential energy function for the force between two atoms in a diatomic molecule is
approximately given by
12 6
a b
U(x)
x x
= , where a and b are constants and x is the distance between
the atoms. If the dissociation energy of the molecule is D = [U(x = ) U
at equilibrium
], D is
(1)
2
b
2a
(2)
2
b
12a
(3)
2
b
4a
(4)
2
b
6a
50. 3
Sol.
12 6
a b
U(x)
x x
=
U(x = ) = 0
as,
13 7
dU 12a 6b
F
dx x x
(
= = +
(
at equilibrium, F = 0
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6
2a
x
b
=
2
at equilibrium 2
a b b
U
2a 4a
2a
b
b
= =
 
 


\ .
\ .
2
at equilibrium
b
D U(x ) U
4a
( = = =
51. Two identical charged spheres are suspended by strings of equal lengths. The strings make an
angle of 30with each other. When suspended in a liquid of density 0.8 g cm
3
, the angle remains
the same. If density of the material of the sphere is 16 g cm
3
, the dielectric constant of the liquid is
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1
51. 3
Sol. From F.B.D of sphere, using Lamis theorem
F
tan
mg
= (i)
when suspended in liquid, as remains same,
F'
tan
mg 1
d
=
 

\ .
(ii)
T
F
mg
using (i) and (ii)
F F' F
where, F'
mg K
mg 1
d
= =
 

\ .
F F'
mg
mg K 1
d
=
 

\ .
or
1
K 2
1
d
= =
52. Two conductors have the same resistance at 0
o
C but their temperature coefficients of resistance are
1
and
2
. The respective temperature coefficients of their series and parallel combinations are
nearly
(1)
1 2
1 2
,
2
+
+ (2)
1 2
1 2
,
2
+
+ (3)
1 2
1 2
1 2
,
+
+
(4)
1 2 1 2
,
2 2
+ +
52. 4
Sol. Let R
0
be the initial resistance of both conductors
At temperature their resistance will be,
1 0 1 2 0 2
R R (1 ) and R R (1 ) = + = +
for, series combination, R
s
= R
1
+ R
2
s0 s 0 1 0 2
R (1 ) R (1 ) R (1 ) + = + + +
where
s0 0 0 0
R R R 2R = + =
0 s 0 0 1 2
2R (1 ) 2R R ( ) + = + +
or
1 2
s
2
+
=
for parallel combination,
1 2
p
1 2
R R
R
R R
=
+
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0 1 0 2
p0 p
0 1 0 2
R (1 )R (1 )
R (1 )
R (1 ) R (1 )
+ +
+ =
+ + +
where,
0 0 0
p0
0 0
R R R
R
R R 2
= =
+
2
0 0 1 2 1 2
p
0 1 2
R R (1 )
(1 )
2 R (2 )
+ + +
+ =
+ +
as
1 2
and are small quantities
1 2
is negligible
or
1 2 1 2
p 1 2
1 2
[1 ( ) ]
2 ( ) 2
+ +
= = +
+ +
as
2
1 2
( ) + is negligible
1 2
p
2
+
=
53. A point P moves in counterclockwise direction on a circular path
as shown in the figure. The movement of P is such that it
sweeps out a length s = t
3
+ 5, where s is in metres and t is in
seconds. The radius of the path is 20 m. The acceleration of P
when t = 2 s is nearly
(1) 13 m/s
2
(2) 12 m/s
2
(3) 7.2 m/s
2
(4) 14 m/s
2
53. 4
Sol. S = t
3
+ 5
speed,
2
ds
v 3t
dt
= =
and rate of change of speed
dv
6t
dt
= =
tangential acceleration at t = 2s, a
t
= 6 x 2 = 12 m/s
2
at t = 2s, v = 3(2)
2
= 12 m/s
centripetal acceleration,
2
2
c
v 144
a m/ s
R 20
= =
net acceleration =
2 2
t i
a a +
2
14 m/ s
54. Two fixed frictionless inclined plane making an angle 30
o
and 60
o
with the vertical are shown in the figure. Two
block A and B are placed on the two planes. What is the
relative vertical acceleration of A with respect to B ?
(1) 4.9 ms
2
in horizontal direction
(2) 9.8 ms
2
in vertical direction
(3) zero
(4) 4.9 ms
2
in vertical direction
54. 4
Sol. mg sin = ma
a = g sin
where a is along the inclined plane
vertical component of acceleration is g sin
2
relative vertical acceleration of A with respect to B is
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2 2 2
g
g[sin 60 sin 30] 4.9 m/ s
2
= = in vertical direction.
55. For a particle in uniform circular motion the acceleration a
or
2 2
v v
a cos i sin j
R R
=
x
y
P (R, )
a
c
a
c
Directions: Questions number 56 58 are based on the following paragraph.
An initially parallel cylindrical beam travels in a medium of refractive index
0 2
(I) I = + , where
0
and
2
are positive constants and I is the intensity of the light beam. The intensity of the beam is
decreasing with increasing radius.
56. As the beam enters the medium, it will
(1) diverge
(2) converge
(3) diverge near the axis and converge near the periphery
(4) travel as a cylindrical beam
56. 2
Sol. As intensity is maximum at axis,
will be maximum and speed will be minimum on the axis of the beam.
beam will converge.
57. The initial shape of the wave front of the beam is
(1) convex
(2) concave
(3) convex near the axis and concave near the periphery
(4) planar
57. 4
Sol. For a parallel cylinderical beam, wavefront will be planar.
58. The speed of light in the medium is
(1) minimum on the axis of the beam (2) the same everywhere in the beam
(3) directly proportional to the intensity I (4) maximum on the axis of the beam
58. 1
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59. A small particle of mass m is projected at an angle with the
xaxis with an initial velocity v
0
in the xy plane as shown in the
figure. At a time
0
v sin
t
g
mgv t cos k
(3)
2
0
1
mgv t cos k
2
(4)
2
0
1
mgv t cos i
2
where
i, j and k are unit vectors along x, y and zaxis respectively.
59. 3
Sol. L m(r v) =
2
0 0 0 0
1
L m v cos t i (v sin t gt )j v cos i (v sin gt)j
2
(
(
= + +
(
0
1
mv cos t gt k
2
(
=
(
2
0
1
mgv t cos k
2
=
60. The equation of a wave on a string of linear mass density 0.04 kg m
1
is given by
t x
y 0.02(m)sin 2
0.04(s) 0.50(m)
(  
=
( 
\ .
. The tension in the string is
(1) 4.0 N (2) 12.5 N (3) 0.5 N (4) 6.25 N
60. 4
Sol.
2 2
2
2 2
(2 / 0.004)
T v 0.04 6.25 N
k (2 / 0.50)
= = = =
PART C: HATHEHATICS
61. Let cos( + ) =
4
5
and let sin( ) =
5
13
, where 0 ,
4
, then tan 2 =
(1)
56
33
(2)
19
12
(3)
20
7
(4)
25
16
61. 1
cos ( + ) =
4
5
tan( + ) =
3
4
sin( ) =
5
13
tan( ) =
5
12
tan 2 = tan( + + ) =
3 5
56
4 12
3 5
33
1
4 12
+
=
62. Let S be a nonempty subset of R. Consider the following statement:
P: There is a rational number x S such that x > 0.
Which of the following statements is the negation of the statement P ?
(1) There is no rational number x S such that x 0
(2) Every rational number x S satisfies x 0
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(3) x S and x 0 x is not rational
(4) There is a rational number x S such that x 0
62. 2
P: there is a rational number x S such that x > 0
~P: Every rational number x S satisfies x 0
63. Let
a j k and c i j k = =
. Then vector b
satisfying a b c 0 and a b + =
= 3 is
(1)
2i j 2k + (2)
i j 2k (3)
i j 2k + (4)
i j 2k +
63. 4
c b a =
b c 0 =
( ) ( ) 1 2 3
b i b j b k i j k + + = 0
b
1
b
2
b
3
= 0
and a b
= 3
b
2
b
3
= 3
b
1
= b
2
+ b
3
= 3 + 2b
3
( ) ( )
3 3 3
b 3 2b i 3 b j b k = + + + +
.
64. The equation of the tangent to the curve y = x +
2
4
x
, that is parallel to the xaxis, is
(1) y = 1 (2) y = 2 (3) y = 3 (4) y = 0
64. 3
Parallel to xaxis
dy
dx
= 0
3
8
1
x
= 0
x = 2 y = 3
Equation of tangent is y 3 = 0(x 2) y 3 = 0
65. Solution of the differential equation cos x dy = y(sin x y) dx, 0 < x <
2
is
(1) y sec x = tan x + c (2) y tan x = sec x + c (3) tan x = (sec x + c)y (4) sec x = (tan x + c)y
65. 4
cos x dy = y(sin x y) dx
2
dy
y tanx y sec x
dx
=
2
1 dy 1
tanx sec x
dx y y
=
Let
1
t
y
=
2
1 dy dt
dx dx y
=
dy
dx
t tan x = sec x
dt
dx
+ (tan x) t = sec x.
I.F. = e
} tan x dx
= sec x
Solution is t(I.F) = } (I.F) sec x dx
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1
y
sec x = tan x + c
66. The area bounded by the curves y = cos x and y = sin x between the ordinates x = 0 and x =
3
2
is
(1) 4 2 + 2 (2) 4 2 1 (3) 4 2 + 1 (4) 4 2 2
66. 4
( ) ( ) ( )
5 3
4 4 2
5 0
4 4
cosx sinx dx sinx cosx dx cosx sinx 4 2 2
+ + =
} } }
cos x sin x
4
5
4
3
2
2
0
67. If two tangents drawn from a point P to the parabola y
2
= 4x are at right angles, then the locus of P is
(1) 2x + 1 = 0 (2) x = 1 (3) 2x 1 = 0 (4) x = 1
67. 2
The locus of perpendicular tangents is directrix
i.e, x = a; x = 1
68. If the vectors
a i j 2k, b 2i 4j k and c i j k = + = + + = + +
are mutually orthogonal, then (, ) =
(1) (2, 3) (2) (2, 3) (3) (3, 2) (4) (3, 2)
68. 4
a b 0, b c 0, c a 0 = = =
2 + 4 + = 0 1 + 2 = 0
Solving we get: = 3, = 2
69. Consider the following relations:
R = {(x, y)  x, y are real numbers and x = wy for some rational number w};
S =
m p
, m, n, p and q are integers such that n, q 0 and qm = pn
n q
 
` 
\ .
)
. Then
(1) neither R nor S is an equivalence relation
(2) S is an equivalence relation but R is not an equivalence relation
(3) R and S both are equivalence relations
(4) R is an equivalence relation but S is not an equivalence relation
69. 2
xRy need not implies yRx
S:
m p
s
n q
qm = pn
m m
s
n n
reflexive
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m p
s
n q
p m
s
q n
symmetric
m p p r
s , s
n q q s
qm = pn, ps = rq ms = rn transitive.
S is an equivalence relation.
70. Let f: R R be defined by f(x) =
k 2x, if x 1
2x 3, if x 1
+ >
, S
2
=
10
10
j
j 1
j C
=
and S
3
=
10
2 10
j
j 1
j C
=
.
Statement1: S
3
= 55 2
9
Statement2: S
1
= 90 2
8
and S
2
= 10 2
8
.
(1) Statement1 is true, Statement2 is true; Statement2 is not the correct explanation for Statement1
(2) Statement1 is true, Statement2 is false
(3) Statement1 is false, Statement2 is true
(4) Statement1 is true, Statement2 is true; Statement2 is the correct explanation for Statement1
74. 2
S
1
= ( )
( )( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
10 10
8
j 1 j 2
10! 8!
j j 1 90 90 2
j j 1 j 2 ! 10 j ! j 2 ! 8 j 2 !
= =
= =
.
S
2
=
( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
10 10
9
j 1 j 1
10! 9!
j 10 10 2
j j 1 ! 9 j 1 ! j 1 ! 9 j 1 !
= =
= =
.
S
3
=
( )
( )
( )
10 10 10
10 10
j j
j 1 j 1 j 1
10!
j j 1 j j j 1 C j C
j! 10 j !
= = =
( + = =
= 90 . 2
8
+ 10 . 2
9
= 90 . 2
8
+ 20 . 2
8
= 110 . 2
8
= 55 . 2
9
.
75. Let A be a 2 2 matrix with nonzero entries and let A
2
= I, where I is 2 2 identity matrix. Define
Tr(A) = sum of diagonal elements of A and A = determinant of matrix A.
Statement1: Tr(A) = 0
Statement2: A = 1
(1) Statement1 is true, Statement2 is true; Statement2 is not the correct explanation for Statement1
(2) Statement1 is true, Statement2 is false
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(3) Statement1 is false, Statement2 is true
(4) Statement1 is true, Statement2 is true; Statement2 is the correct explanation for Statement1
75. 2
Let A =
a b
c d
 

\ .
, abcd 0
A
2
=
a b a b
c d c d
   
 
\ . \ .
A
2
=
2
2
a bc ab bd
ac cd bc d
  + +

+ +
\ .
a
2
+ bc = 1, bc + d
2
= 1
ab + bd = ac + cd = 0
c 0 and b 0 a + d = 0
Trace A = a + d = 0
A = ad bc = a
2
bc = 1.
76. Let f: R R be a continuous function defined by f(x) =
x x
1
e 2e
+
.
Statement1: f(c) =
1
3
, for some c R.
Statement2: 0 < f(x)
1
2 2
, for all x R
(1) Statement1 is true, Statement2 is true; Statement2 is not the correct explanation for Statement1
(2) Statement1 is true, Statement2 is false
(3) Statement1 is false, Statement2 is true
(4) Statement1 is true, Statement2 is true; Statement2 is the correct explanation for Statement1
76. 4
f(x) =
x
x x 2x
1 e
e 2e e 2
=
+ +
f(x) =
( )
( )
2x x 2x x
2
2x 2
e 2 e 2e e
e
+
+
f(x) = 0 e
2x
+ 2 = 2e
2x
e
2x
= 2 e
x
= 2
maximum f(x) =
2 1
4
2 2
=
0 < f(x)
1
2 2
x R
Since 0 <
1 1
3
2 2
< for some c R
f(c) =
1
3
77. For a regular polygon, let r and R be the radii of the inscribed and the circumscribed circles. A false
statement among the following is
(1) There is a regular polygon with
r 1
R
2
= (2) There is a regular polygon with
r 2
R 3
=
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(3) There is a regular polygon with
r 3
R 2
= (4) There is a regular polygon with
r 1
R 2
=
77. 2
r =
a
cot
2 n
a is side of polygon.
R =
a
cosec
2 n
cot
r
n
cos
R n
cosec
n
= =
2
cos
n 3
for any n N.
78. If and are the roots of the equation x
2
x + 1 = 0, then
2009
+
2009
=
(1) 1 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 2
78. 2
x
2
x + 1 = 0 x =
1 1 4
2
x =
1 3 i
2
=
1 3
i
2 2
+ , =
1 i 3
2 2
= cos i sin
3 3
+ , = cos i sin
3 3
2009
+
2009
= 2cos2009
3
 

\ .
=
2 2
2cos 668 2cos
3 3
(  
+ + = +
 (
\ .
=
2 1
2cos 2 1
3 2
 
= =

\ .
79. The number of complex numbers z such that z 1 = z + 1 = z i equals
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) (4) 0
79. 1
Let z = x + iy
z 1 = z + 1 Re z = 0 x = 0
z 1 = z i x = y
z + 1 = z i y = x
Only (0, 0) will satisfy all conditions.
Number of complex number z = 1
80. A line AB in threedimensional space makes angles 45 and 120 with the positive xaxis and the
positive yaxis respectively. If AB makes an acute angle with the positive zaxis, then equals
(1) 45 (2) 60 (3) 75 (4) 30
80. 2
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= cos 45 =
1
2
m = cos 120 =
1
2
n = cos
where is the angle which line makes with positive zaxis.
Now
2
+ m
2
+ n
2
= 1
1 1
2 4
+ + cos
2
= 1
cos
2
=
1
4
cos =
1
2
( Being acute)
=
3
.
81. The line L given by
x y
5 b
+ = 1 passes through the point (13, 32). The line K is parallel to L and has
the equation
x y
c 3
+ = 1. Then the distance between L and K is
(1) 17 (2)
17
15
(3)
23
17
(4)
23
15
81. 3
Slope of line L =
b
5
Slope of line K =
3
c
Line L is parallel to line k.
b 3
5 c
= bc = 15
(13, 32) is a point on L.
13 32 32 8
1
5 b b 5
+ = =
b = 20 c =
3
4
Equation of K: y 4x = 3
Distance between L and K =
52 32 3
23
17 17
+
=
82. A person is to count 4500 currency notes. Let a
n
denote the number of notes he counts in the n
th
minute. If a
1
= a
2
= ...... = a
10
= 150 and a
10
, a
11
, ...... are in A.P. with common difference 2, then the
time taken by him to count all notes is
(1) 34 minutes (2) 125 minutes (3) 135 minutes (4) 24 minutes
82. 1
Till 10
th
minute number of counted notes = 1500
3000 =
n
2
[2 148 + (n 1)(2)] = n[148 n + 1]
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n
2
149n + 3000 = 0
n = 125, 24
n = 125 is not possible.
Total time = 24 + 10 = 34 minutes.
83. Let f: R R be a positive increasing function with
x
f(3x)
lim
f(x)
= 1. Then
x
f(2x)
lim
f(x)
=
(1)
2
3
(2)
3
2
(3) 3 (4) 1
83. 4
f(x) is a positive increasing function
0 < f(x) < f(2x) < f(3x)
0 < 1 <
f(2x) f(3x)
f(x) f(x)
<
x x x
f(2x) f(3x)
lim1 lim lim
f(x) f(x)
By sandwich theorem.
x
f(2x)
lim
f(x)
= 1
84. Let p(x) be a function defined on R such that p(x) = p(1 x), for all x [0, 1], p(0) = 1 and p(1) = 41.
Then
1
0
p(x)
}
dx equals
(1) 21 (2) 41 (3) 42 (4) 41
84. 1
p(x) = p(1 x)
p(x) = p(1 x) + c
at x = 0
p(0) = p(1) + c 42 = c
now p(x) = p(1 x) + 42
p(x) + p(1 x) = 42
I =
1 1
0 0
p(x) dx p(1 x) dx =
} }
2 I =
1
0
(42) dx
}
I = 21.
85. Let f: (1, 1) R be a differentiable function with f(0) = 1 and f(0) = 1. Let g(x) = [f(2f(x) + 2)]
2
.
Then g(0) =
(1) 4 (2) 0 (3) 2 (4) 4
85. 1
g(x) = 2(f(2f(x) + 2)) ( ) ( )
d
f 2f(x) 2
dx
 
+

\ .
= 2f(2f(x) + 2) f(2f(x) + 2) . (2f(x))
g(0) = 2f(2f(0) + 2) . f(2f(0) + 2) . 2(f(0) = 4f(0) f(0)
= 4(1) (1) = 4
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86. There are two urns. Urn A has 3 distinct red balls and urn B has 9 distinct blue balls. From each urn
two balls are taken out at random and then transferred to the other. The number of ways in which
this can be done is
(1) 36 (2) 66 (3) 108 (4) 3
86. 3
Total number of ways =
3
C
2
9
C
2
= 3
9 8
2
= 3 36 = 108
87. Consider the system of linear equations:
x
1
+ 2x
2
+ x
3
= 3
2x
1
+ 3x
2
+ x
3
= 3
3x
1
+ 5x
2
+ 2x
3
= 1
The system has
(1) exactly 3 solutions (2) a unique solution
(3) no solution (4) infinite number of solutions
87. 3
D =
1 2 1
2 3 1
3 5 2
= 0
D
1
=
3 2 1
3 3 1
1 5 2
0
Given system, does not have any solution.
No solution.
88. An urn contains nine balls of which three are red, four are blue and two are green. Three balls are
drawn at random without replacement from the urn. The probability that the three balls have different
colour is
(1)
2
7
(2)
1
21
(3)
2
23
(4)
1
3
88. 1
n(S) =
9
C
3
n(E) =
3
C
1
4
C
1
2
C
1
Probability =
9
3
3 4 2 24 3! 24 6 2
6!
9! 9 8 7 7 C
= = =
.
89. For two data sets, each of size 5, the variances are given to be 4 and 5 and the corresponding
means are given to be 2 and 4, respectively. The variance of the combined data set is
(1)
11
2
(2) 6 (3)
13
2
(4)
5
2
89. 1
x
2
= 4
y
2
= 5
x = 2
y = 4
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i
x
5
= 2 x
i
= 10; y
i
= 20
x
2
= ( ) ( )
2
2 2
i i
1 1
x x y 16
2 5
 
=

\ .
x
i
2
= 40
y
i
2
= 105
z
2
=
( ) ( )
2
2 2
i i
1 x y 1 145 90 55 11
x y 40 105 9
10 2 10 10 10 2
+  
+ = + = = =

\ .
90. The circle x
2
+ y
2
= 4x + 8y + 5 intersects the line 3x 4y = m at two distinct points if
(1) 35 < m < 15 (2) 15 < m < 65 (3) 35 < m < 85 (4) 85 < m < 35
90. 1
Circle x
2
+ y
2
4x 8y 5 = 0
Centre = (2, 4), Radius = 4 16 5 + + = 5
If circle is intersecting line 3x 4y = m
at two distinct points.
length of perpendicular from centre < radius
6 16 m
5
< 5
10 + m < 25
25 < m + 10 < 25
35 < m < 15.
* * *
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READ THE FOLLOWING INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY:
1. Thc candidacs should lill in hc rcquircd pariculars on hc Tcs Booklc and Answcr Shcc (Sidc (Sidc (Sidc (Sidc  1i 1i 1i 1i
wih Bluc/Black Ball Poin Pcn Bluc/Black Ball Poin Pcn Bluc/Black Ball Poin Pcn Bluc/Black Ball Poin Pcn.
2. Ior wriin/markin pariculars on Sidc Sidc Sidc Sidc  2 22 2 ol hc Answcr Shcc, usc Bluc/Black Ball Poin Pcn onlv Bluc/Black Ball Poin Pcn onlv Bluc/Black Ball Poin Pcn onlv Bluc/Black Ball Poin Pcn onlv.
`. Thc candidacs should no wric hcir Roll Numbcrs anvwhcrc clsc (cxccp in hc spccilicd spacci on
hc Tcs Booklc/Answcr Shcc.
4. Ou ol hc lour opions ivcn lor cach qucsion, onlv onc opion is hc corrcc answcr.
5. Ior cach incorrcc rcsponsc, onc incorrcc rcsponsc, onc incorrcc rcsponsc, onc incorrcc rcsponsc, onc  lourh lourh lourh lourh (1/4i ol hc oal marks allocd o hc qucsion would bc
dcduccd lrom hc oal scorc. No d No d No d No dcducion cducion cducion cducion lrom hc oal scorc, howcvcr, will bc madc il no il no il no il no
rcsponsc rcsponsc rcsponsc rcsponsc is indicacd lor an icm in hc Answcr Shcc.
6. Handlc hc Tcs Booklc and Answcr Shcc wih carc, as undcr no circumsanccs (cxccp lor
discrcpancv in Tcs Booklc Codc and Answcr Shcc Codci, will anohcr sc bc providcd.
7. Thc candidacs arc no allowcd o do anv rouh work or wriin work on hc Answcr Shcc. All
calculaions/wriin work arc o bc donc in hc spacc providcd lor his purposc in hc Tcs Booklc
iscll, markcd 'Spacc lor Rouh Vork`. This spacc is ivcn a hc boom ol cach pac and in 4 pacs
(Pacs 20  2`i a hc cnd ol hc booklc.
8. On complcion ol hc cs, hc candidacs mus hand ovcr hc Answcr Shcc o hc Inviilaor on duv
in hc Room/Hall. Howcvcr, Howcvcr, Howcvcr, Howcvcr, hc candidacs arc allowcd o akc awav his Tcs Booklc wih hcm. hc candidacs arc allowcd o akc awav his Tcs Booklc wih hcm. hc candidacs arc allowcd o akc awav his Tcs Booklc wih hcm. hc candidacs arc allowcd o akc awav his Tcs Booklc wih hcm.
9. Lach candidac mus show on dcmand his/hcr Admi Card o hc Inviilaor.
10. No candidac, wihou spccial pcrmission ol hc Supcrincndcn or Inviilaor, should lcavc his/hcr
sca.
11. Thc candidacs should no lcavc hc Lxaminaion Hall wihou handin ovcr hcir Answcr Shcc o hc
Inviilaor on duv and sin hc Acndancc Shcc aain. Cascs whcrc a candidac has no sincd hc
Acndancc Shcc a sccond imc will bc dccmcd no o havc handcd ovcr hc Answcr Shcc and dcal
wih as an unlair mcans casc. Thc candidacs arc also rcquircd o pu hcir lcl hand THIMB Thc candidacs arc also rcquircd o pu hcir lcl hand THIMB Thc candidacs arc also rcquircd o pu hcir lcl hand THIMB Thc candidacs arc also rcquircd o pu hcir lcl hand THIMB
imprcssion in hc spacc providcd in hc Acndancc Shcc. imprcssion in hc spacc providcd in hc Acndancc Shcc. imprcssion in hc spacc providcd in hc Acndancc Shcc. imprcssion in hc spacc providcd in hc Acndancc Shcc.
12. Isc ol Llccronic/Manual Calculaor and anv Llccronic Icm likc mobilc phonc, pacr cc. is
prohibicd.
1`. Thc candidacs arc ovcrncd bv all Rulcs and Rculaions ol hc Board wih rcard o hcir conduc in
hc Lxaminaion Hall. All cascs ol unlair mcans will bc dcal wih as pcr Rulcs and Rculaions ol hc
Board.
14. No par ol hc Tcs Booklc and Answcr Shcc shall bc dcachcd undcr anv circumsanccs.
15. Candidacs arc no allowcd o carrv anv cxual macrial, princd or wricn, bis ol papcrs, pacr, Candidacs arc no allowcd o carrv anv cxual macrial, princd or wricn, bis ol papcrs, pacr, Candidacs arc no allowcd o carrv anv cxual macrial, princd or wricn, bis ol papcrs, pacr, Candidacs arc no allowcd o carrv anv cxual macrial, princd or wricn, bis ol papcrs, pacr,
mobilc phonc, clccronic dcvicc or anv ohcr mobilc phonc, clccronic dcvicc or anv ohcr mobilc phonc, clccronic dcvicc or anv ohcr mobilc phonc, clccronic dcvicc or anv ohcr macrial cxccp hc Admi Card insidc hc cxaminaion macrial cxccp hc Admi Card insidc hc cxaminaion macrial cxccp hc Admi Card insidc hc cxaminaion macrial cxccp hc Admi Card insidc hc cxaminaion
hall/room. hall/room. hall/room. hall/room.
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FIITJEE (Hyderabad Classes) Limited. 5914/B, Saifabad, (Opp. Secretariat) Hyderabad. 500 063. Phone: 04066777000 03 Fax: 04066777004
A
A
I
I
E
E
E
E
E
E
2
2
0
0
1
1
1
1
(
(
S
S
e
e
t
t
Q
Q
)
)
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen. Use of
Pencil is strictly prohibited.
2. The Answer Sheet is kept inside the Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take
out the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars carefully.
3. The test is of 3 hours duration.
4. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 360.
5. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Physics, Mathematics, Chemistry having
30 questions in each part of equal weight age. Each question is allotted 4(four) marks for each correct
response.
6. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in instruction No. 5 for correct response of each
question (one fourth) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No
deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet.
7. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in each question
will be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted accordingly as per
instruction 6 above.
8. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars/marking responses on Side1 and Side2 of the
Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.
9. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile
phone, any electronic device, etc., except the Admit Card inside the examination hall/room.
10. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only. This space is
given at the bottom of each page and in 3 pages (Pages 21 23) at the end of the booklet.
11. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
12. The CODE for this Booklet is Q. Make sure that the CODE printed on Side2 of the Answer Sheet is the
same as that on this booklet. In case of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to
the Invigilator for replacement of both the Test Booklet and the Answer Sheet.
13. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.
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AIEEE20112
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PART A : PHYSICS
1. The transverse displacement ( ) y x,t of a wave on a string is given by ( )
( )
2 2
ax bt 2 ab xt
y x,t e
+ +
= .
This represents a
(1) wave moving in x direction with speed
b
a
(2) standing wave of frequency b
(3) standing wave of frequency
1
b
(4) wave moving in + x direction with
a
b
2. A screw gauge gives the following reading when used to measure the diameter of a wire.
Main scale reading : 0 mm
Circular scale reading : 52 divisions
Given that 1 mm on main scale corresponds to 100 divisions of the circular scale.
The diameter of wire from the above date is :
(1) 0.052 cm (2) 0.026 cm (3) 0.005 cm (4) 0.52 cm
3. A mass m hangs with the help of a string wrapped around a pulley on a frictionless bearing. The pulley
has mass m and radius R. Assuming pulley to be a perfect uniform circular disc, the acceleration of the
mass m, if the string does not slip on the pulley, is
(1) g (2)
2
g
3
(3)
g
3
(4)
3
g
2
4. Work done in increasing the size of a soap bubble from a radius of 3 cm to 5 cm is nearly (Surface
tension of soap solution = 0.03 Nm
1
):
(1) 0.2 mJ (2) 2 mJ (3) 0.4 mJ (4) 4 mJ
5. A thin horizontal circular disc is rotating about a vertical axis passing through its centre. An insect is at
rest at a point near the rim of the disc. The insect now moves along a diameter of the disc to reach its
other end. During the journey of the insect, the angular speed of the disc:
(1) continuously decreases (2) continuously increases
(3) first increases and then decreases (4) remains unchanged
6. Two particles are executing simple harmonic motion of the same amplitude A and frequency along the
xaxis. Their mean position is separated by distance ( )
0 0
X X A > . If the maximum separation between
them is ( )
0
X A + , the phase difference between their motion is :
(1)
3
(2)
4
(3)
6
(4)
2
7. Two bodies of masses m and 4 m are placed at a distance r. The gravitational potential at a point on the
line joining them where the gravitational field is zero is:
(1)
4Gm
r
(2)
6Gm
r
(3)
9Gm
r
(4) zero
8. Two identical charged spheres suspended from a common point by two massless strings of length l are
initially a distance ( ) d d 1 << apart because of their mutual repulsion. The charge begins to leak from
both the spheres at a constant rate. As a result the charges approach each other with a velocity v. Then
as a function of distance x between them,
(1)
1
v x
(2)
1/ 2
v x (3) v x (4)
1/ 2
v x
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AIEEE20113
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9. A boat is moving due east in a region where the earths magnetic field is
5 1 1
5.0 10 NA m
due north and
horizontal. The boat carries a vertical aerial 2m long. If the speed of the boat is 1.50 ms
1
, the
magnitude of the induced emf in the wire of aerial is :
(1) 0.75 mV (2) 0.50 mV (3) 0.15 mV (4) 1 mV
10. An object, moving with a speed of 6.25 m/s, is decelerated at a rate given by :
dv
2.5 v
dt
=
where v is the instantaneous speed. The time taken by the object, to come to rest, would be :
(1) 2 s (2) 4 s (3) 8 s (4) 1 s
11. A fully charged capacitor C with initial charge q
0
is connected to a coil of self inductance L at t = 0. The
time at which the energy is stored equally between the electric and the magnetic field is :
(1) LC
4
(2)
0
I
2 R
(3)
0
2
I
4 R
(4)
0
2
I
R
14. A thermally insulated vessel contains an ideal gas of molecular mass M and ratio of specific heats . It is
moving with speed and is suddenly brought to rest. Assuming no heat is lost to the surroundings, its
temperature increases by :
(1)
( )
2
1
M K
2 R
(2)
2
M
K
2R
(3)
( )
2
1
M K
2R
(4)
( )
( )
2
1
M K
2 1 R
+
15. A mass M, attached to a horizontal spring, executes S.H.M. with amplitude A
1
. When the mass M passes
through its mean position then a smaller mass m is placed over it and both of them move together with
amplitude A
2
. The ratio of
1
2
A
A
 

\ .
is :
(1)
M m
M
+
(2)
1/ 2
M
M m
 

+
\ .
(3)
1/ 2
M m
M
+  

\ .
(4)
M
M m +
16. Water is flowing continuously from a tap having an internal diameter
3
8 10 m
(2)
3
9.6 10 m
(3)
3
3.6 10 m
(4)
3
5.0 10 m
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AIEEE20114
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17. This question has Statement 1 and Statement 2. Of the four choices given after the statements,
choose the one that best describes the two statements.
Statement1 : Sky wave signals are used for long distance radio communication. These signals are in
general, less stable than ground wave signals.
Statement2 : The state of ionosphere varies from hour to hour, day to day and season to season.
(1) Statement1 is true, Statement2 is true; Statement2 is the correct explanation of Statement1.
(2) Statement1 is true, Statement2 is true; Statement2 is not the correct explanation of Statement1.
(3) Statement1 is false, Statement2 is true.
(4) Statement1 is true, Statement2 is false.
18. Three perfect gases at absolute temperatures T
1
, T
2
and T
3
are mixed. The masses of molecules are m
1
,
m
2
and m
3
and the number of molecules are n
1
, n
2
and n
3
respectively. Assuming no loss of energy, the
final temperature of the mixture is :
(1)
1 1 2 2 3 3
1 2 3
n T n T n T
n n n
+ +
+ +
(2)
2 2
1 1 2 2 3 3
1 1 2 2 3 3
n T n T n T
n T n T n T
+ +
+ +
(3)
2 2 2 2 2 2
1 1 2 2 3 3
1 1 2 2 3 3
n T n T n T
n T n T n T
+ +
+ +
(4)
( )
1 2 3
T T T
3
+ +
19. A pulley of radius 2 m is rotated about its axis by a force
( )
2
F 20t 5t = Newton (where t is measured in
seconds) applied tangentially. If the moment of inertia of the pulley about its axis of rotation made by the
pulley before its direction of motion if reversed, is :
(1) more than 3 but less than 6 (2) more than 6 but less than 9
(3) more than 9 (4) less than 3
20. A resistor R and 2F capacitor in series is connected through a switch to 200 V direct supply. Across
the capacitor is a neon bulb that lights up at 120 V. Calculate the value of R to make the bulb light up 5 s
after the switch has been closed. ( )
10
log 2.5 0.4 =
(1)
5
1.7 10 (2)
6
2.7 10 (3)
7
3.3 10 (4)
4
1.3 10
21. A Carnot engine operating between temperatures T
1
and T
2
has efficiency
1
.
6
When T
2
is lowered by 62
K, its efficiency increases to
1
3
. Then T
1
and T
2
are, respectively :
(1) 372 K and 330 K (2) 330 K and 268 K (3) 310 K and 248 K (4) 372 K and 310 K
22. If a wire is stretched to make it 0.1% longer, its resistance will :
(1) increase by 0.2% (2) decrease by 0.2% (3) decrease by 0.05% (4) increases by 0.05%
23. Direction:
The question has a paragraph followed by two statements, Statement 1 and statement 2. Of the
given four alternatives after the statements, choose the one that describes the statements.
A thin air film is formed by putting the convex surface of a plane convex lens over a plane glass plate.
With monochromatic light, this film gives an interference pattern due to light reflected from the top
(convex) surface and the bottom (glass plate) surface of the film.
Statement1 : When light reflects from the airglass plate interface, the reflected wave suffers a phase
change of .
Statement2 : The centre of the interference pattern is dark.
(1) Statement1 is true, Statement2 is true; Statement2 is the correct explanation of Statement1.
(2) Statement1 is true, Statement2 is true; Statement2 is not the correct explanation of Statement1.
(3) Statement1 is false, Statement2 is true. (4) Statement1 is true, Statement2 is false.
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AIEEE20115
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24. A car is fitted with a convex sideview mirror of focal length 20cm. A second car 2.8 m behind the first
car is overtaking the first car at relative speed of 15 m/s. The speed of the image of the second car as
seen in the mirror of the first one is :
(1)
1
m/ s
15
(2) 10m/ s (3) 15m/ s (4)
1
m/ s
10
25. Energy required for the electron excitation in Li
++
from the first to the third Bohr orbit is :
(1) 36.3 eV (2) 108.8 eV (3) 122.4 eV (4) 12.1 eV
26. The electrostatic potential inside a charged spherical ball is given by b
2
= + where r is the distance
from the centre; a, b are constants. Then the charge density inside ball is
(1)
0
6a r (2)
0
24 a r (3)
0
6a (4)
0
24 a r
27. A water fountain on the ground sprinkles water all around it. If the speed of water coming out of the
fountain is v, the total area around the fountain that gets wet is :
(1)
4
2
v
g
(2)
4
2
v
2 g
(3)
2
2
v
g
(4)
4
v
g
28. 100g of water is heated from 30
0
C to 50
0
C. Ignoring the slight expansion of the water, the change in its
internal energy is (specific heat of water is 4148 J/kg/K):
(1) 8.4 kJ (2) 84 kJ (3) 2.1 kJ (4) 4.2 kJ
29. The half life of a radioactive substance is 20 minutes. The approximate time interval ( )
2 1
t t between
the time t
2
when
2
3
of it has decayed and time t
1
and
1
3
of it had decayed is :
(1) 14 min (2) 20 min (3) 28 min (4) 7 min
30. This question has Statement 1 and Statement 2. Of the four choices given after the statements,
choose the one that best describes the two statements.
Statement1 : A metallic surface is irradiated by a monochromatic light of frequency v > v
0
(the threshold
frequency). The maximum kinetic energy and the stopping potential are K
max
and V
0
respectively. If the
frequency incident on the surface doubled, both the K
max
and V
0
are also doubled.
Statement2 : The maximum kinetic energy and the stopping potential of photoelectrons emitted from a
surface are linearly dependent on the frequency of incident light.
(1) Statement1 is true, Statement2 is true; Statement2 is the correct explanation of Statement1.
(2) Statement1 is true, Statement2 is true; Statement2 is not the correct explanation of Statement1.
(3) Statement1 is false, Statement2 is true.
(4) Statement1 is true, Statement2 is false.
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AIEEE20116
FIITJEE (Hyderabad Classes) Limited. 5914/B, Saifabad, (Opp. Secretariat) Hyderabad. 500 063. Phone: 04066777000 03 Fax: 04066777004
PART B: MATHEMATICS
31. The lines
1
L : y x 0 = and
2
L : 2x y 0 + = intersect the line
3
L : y 2 0 + = at P and Q respectively. The
bisector of the acute angle between
1
L and
2
L intersect
3
L at R .
Statement 1 : The ratio PR: RQ equals 2 2 : 5 .
Statement 2 : In any triangle, bisector of an angle divides the triangle into two similar triangles.
(1) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true; Statement 2 is not a correct explanation for Statement
1
(2) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false.
(3) Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is true.
(4) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true; Statement 2 is a correct explanation for Statement 1
32. If
2 4
A sin x cos x = + , then for all real x
(1)
13
A 1
16
(2) 1 A 2 (3)
3 13
A
4 16
(4)
3
A 1
4
33. The coefficient of
7
x in the expansion of
( )
6
2 3
1 x x x + is
(1) 132 (2) 144 (3)132 (4) 144
34.
( ) { }
x 2
1 cos 2 x 2
lim
x 2
 



\ .
(1) equals 2 (2) equals 2 (3) equals
1
2
(4) does not exist
35. Statement 1 : The number of ways of distributing 10 identical balls in 4 distinct boxes such that no
box is empty is
9
3
C
Statement 2 : The number of ways of choosing any 3 places from 9 different places is
9
3
C .
(1) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true; Statement 2 is not a correct explanation for Statement
1
(2) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false.
(3) Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is true.
(4) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true; Statement 2 is a correct explanation for Statement 1
36.
2
2
d x
dy
equals
(1)
1
3
2
2
d y dy
dx
dx
 
 



\ .
\ .
(2)
2
2
2
d y dy
dx
dx
 
 



\ .
\ .
(3)
3
2
2
d y dy
dx
dx
 
 



\ .
\ .
(4)
1
2
2
d y
dx
 


\ .
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AIEEE20117
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37. If
dy
y 3 0
dx
= + > and ( ) y 0 2 = , then ( ) y ln2 is equal to
(1) 5 (2) 13 (3) 2 (4) 7
38. Let R be the set of real numbers
Statement 1 : ( ) { }
A x, y R R: y x is an int eger = is an equivalence relation on R .
Statement 2 : ( ) { }
B x, y R R: x y for some rational number = = is an equivalence relation on
R .
(1) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true; Statement 2 is not a correct explanation for Statement
1
(2) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false.
(3) Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is true.
(4) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true; Statement 2 is a correct explanation for Statement 1
39. The value of
( )
1
2
0
8log 1 x
dx
1 x
+
+
is
(1) log2
8
(2) log2
2
is
(1) ( ) 0, (2) ( ) , 0 (3) ( ) { } , 0 (4) ( ) ,
44. If the angle between the line
y 1 z 3
x
2
= =
 


\ .
, then
equals
(1)
3
2
(2)
2
5
(3)
5
3
(4)
2
3
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AIEEE20118
FIITJEE (Hyderabad Classes) Limited. 5914/B, Saifabad, (Opp. Secretariat) Hyderabad. 500 063. Phone: 04066777000 03 Fax: 04066777004
45. If
$
( )
1
a 3i k
10
= +
r
$
and
$
( )
1
b 2i 3j 6k
7
= +
r
$ $
, then the value of
( ) ( ) ( )
2a b . a b a 2b
(
+
r r r r r r
is
(1) 3 (2) 5 (3) 3 (4) 5
46. Equation of the ellipse whose axes are the axes of coordinates and which passes through the point
( ) 3, 1 and has eccentricity
2
5
is
(1)
2 2
5x 3y 48 0 + = (2)
2 2
3x 5y 15 0 + = (3)
2 2
5x 3y 32 0 + = (4)
2 2
3x 5y 32 0 + =
47. Let I be the purchase value of an equipment and ( ) V t be the value after it has been used for t years.
The value ( ) V t depreciates at a rate given by differential equation
( )
( )
dV t
k T t
dt
= , where k 0 > is a
constant and T is the total life in years of the equipment. Then the scrap value ( ) V T of the equipment is
(1)
2
kT
I
2
(2)
( )
2
k T t
I
2
(3)
kT
e
(4)
2
I
T
k
48. The vector a
r
and b
r
are not perpendicular and c
r
and d
r
are two vectors satisfying: b c b d =
r r r r
and
a.d 0 =
r r
. Then the vector d
r
is equal to
(1)
a.c
c b
a.b
 
+ 

\ .
r r
r r
r r (2)
b.c
b c
a.b
 
+ 

\ .
r r
r r
r r (3)
a.c
c b
a.b
 


\ .
r r
r r
r r (4)
b.c
b c
a.b
 


\ .
r r
r r
r r
49. The two circles
2 2
x y ax + = and ( )
2 2 2
x y c c 0 + = > touch each other if
(1) a c = (2) a 2c = (3) a 2c = (4) 2 a c =
50. If C and D are two events such that C D and ( ) P D 0 , then the correct statement among the
following is
(1) ( ) ( ) P C D P C (2) ( ) ( ) P C D P C < (3) ( )
( )
( )
P D
P C D
P C
= (4) ( ) ( ) P C D P C =
51. The number of values of k for which the linear equations
4x ky 2z 0 + + = ; kx 4y z 0 + + = ; 2x 2y z 0 + + = possess a nonzero solution is
(1) 2 (2) 1 (3) zero (4) 3
52. Consider the following statements
P : Suman is brilliant
Q : Suman is rich
R : Suman is honest
The negation of the statement Suman is brilliant and dishonest if and only if Suman is rich can be
expressed as
(1) ( ) ( )
~ Q P ~ R (2) ~ Q ~ P R (3) ( ) ~ P ~ R Q (4) ( ) ~ P Q ~ R
53. The shortest distance between line y x 1 = and curve
2
x y = is
(1)
3 2
8
(2)
8
3 2
(3)
4
3
(4)
3
4
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AIEEE20119
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54. If the mean deviation about the median of the numbers a, 2a, , 50a is 50, then a equals
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 2
55. Statement 1 : The point ( ) A 1, 0, 7 is the mirror image of the point ( ) B 1, 6, 3 in the line
x y 1 z 2
1 2 3
= = .
Statement 2 : The line:
x y 1 z 2
1 2 3
= = bisects the line segment joining ( ) A 1, 0, 7 and ( ) B 1, 6, 3 .
(1) Statement 1 is true, Statement2 is true; Statement2 is not a correct explanation for Statement 1
(2) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false.
(3) Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is true.
(4) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true; Statement 2 is a correct explanation for Statement 1
56. Let A and B be two symmetric matrices of order 3.
Statement 1 : ( ) A BA and ( ) AB A are symmetric matrices.
Statement 2 : AB is symmetric matrix if matrix multiplication of A and B is commutative.
(1) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true; Statement 2 is not a correct explanation for Statement
1
(2) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false.
(3) Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is true.
(4) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true; Statement 2 is a correct explanation for Statement 1
57. If ( ) 1 is a cube root of unity, and ( )
7
1 A B + = + . Then ( ) A, B equals
(1) (1, 1) (2) (1, 0) (3) (1, 1) (4) (0, 1)
58. The value of p and q for which the function ( )
( )
2
3 / 2
sin p 1 x sinx
, x 0
x
f x q , x 0
x x x
, x 0
x
+ +
<
= =
>
is continuous for all x in R, is
(1)
5 1
p , q
2 2
= = (2)
3 1
p , q
2 2
= = (3)
1 3
p , q
2 2
= = (4)
1 3
p , q
2 2
= =
59. The area of the region enclosed by the curves
1
y x, x e, y
x
= = = and the positive xaxis is
(1) 1 square units (2)
3
2
square units (3)
5
2
square units (4)
1
2
square units
60. For
5
x 0,
2
 

\ .
, define ( )
x
0
f x t sint dt =
. Then f has
(1) local minimum at and 2
(2) local minimum at and local maximum at 2
(3) local maximum at and local minimum at 2
(4) local maximum at and 2
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FIITJEE (Hyderabad Classes) Limited. 5914/B, Saifabad, (Opp. Secretariat) Hyderabad. 500 063. Phone: 04066777000 03 Fax: 04066777004
PART C: CHEMISTRY
61. Among the following the maximum covalent character is shown by the compound :
(1)
2
SnCl (2)
3
AlCl (3)
2
MgCl (4)
2
FeCl
62. The presence or absence of hydroxyl group on which carbon atom of sugar differentiates RNA and DNA
?
(1) 2
nd
(2) 3
rd
(3) 4
th
(4) 1
st
63. Trichloroacetaldehyde was subjected to Cannizzaros reaction by using NaOH. The mixture of the
products contains sodium trichloroacetate and another compound. The other compound is :
(1) Trichloromethanol (2) 2, 2, 2Trichloropropanol
(3) Chloroform (4) 2, 2, 2Trichloroethanol
64. Sodium ethoxide has reacted with ethanoyl chloride. The compound that is produced in the above
reaction is :
(1) 2Butanone (2) Ethyl chloride (3) Ethyl ethanoate (4) Diethyl ether
65. The reduction potential of hydrogen half cell will be negative if :
(1) ( )
2
p H = 1 atm and H
+
(
=1.0 M (2) p( )
2
H =2 atm and H
+
(
=1.0 M
(3) ( )
2
p H = 2 atm and H
+
(
= 2.0 M (4) ( )
2
p H =1 atm and H
+
(
= 2.0 M
66. The strongest acid amongst the following compounds is :
(1) HCOOH (2) ( )
3 2 2
CH CH CH Cl CO H
(3)
2 2 2
ClCH CH CH COOH (4)
3
CH COOH
67. The degree of dissociation ( ) of a weak electrolyte,
x y
A B is related to vant Hoff factor (i) by the
expression :
(1)
i 1
x y 1
=
+ +
(2)
x y 1
i 1
+
=
(3)
x y 1
i 1
+ +
=
(4)
( )
i 1
x y 1
=
+
68. `a and `b are van der Waals constants for gases. Chlorine is more easily liquefied than ethane because
(1) a and b for
2
Cl a < and b for
2 6
C H
(2) a for
2
Cl a < for
2 6
C H but b for
2
Cl b > for
2 6
C H
(3) a for
2
Cl a > for
2 6
C H but b for
2
Cl < b for
2 6
C H
(4) a and b for
2
Cl > a and b for
2 6
C H
69. A vessel at 1000 K contains
2
CO with a pressure of 0.5 atm. Some of the
2
CO is converted into CO on
the addition of graphite. If the total pressure at equilibrium is 0.8 atm, the value of K is
(1) 3 atm (2) 0.3 atm (3) 0.18 atm (4) 1.8 atm
70. Boron cannot form which one of the following anions ?
(1)
4
BH
(2) ( )
4
B OH
(3)
2
BO
(4)
3
6
BF
71. Which of the following facts about the complex ( )
3 3
6
Cr NH Cl (
s wrong ?
(1) The complex is paramagnetic (2) The complex is an outer orbital complex
(3) The complex gives white precipitate with silver nitrate solution
(4) The complex involves
2 3
d sp hybridization and is octahedral in shape.
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AIEEE201111
FIITJEE (Hyderabad Classes) Limited. 5914/B, Saifabad, (Opp. Secretariat) Hyderabad. 500 063. Phone: 04066777000 03 Fax: 04066777004
72. Ethylene glycol is used as an antifreeze in a cold climate. Mass of ethylene glycol which should be
added to 4 kg of water to prevent it from freezing at
o
6 C will be :
[
f
K for water = 1.86 K kg mol
1
, and molar mass of ethylene glycol = 62g mol
1
)
(1) 204.30g (2) 400.00 g (3) 304.60 g (4) 804.32g
73. Which one of the following order represents the correct sequence of the increasing basic nature of the
given oxides ?
(1)
2 2 3 2
MgO K O Al O Na O < < < (2)
2 2 2 3
Na O K O MgO Al O < < <
(3)
2 2 2 3
K O Na O Al O MgO < < < (4)
2 3 2 2
Al O MgO Na O K O < < <
74. The rate of a chemical reaction doubles for every
o
10 C rise of temperature. If the temperature is raised
by
o
50 C, the rate of the reaction increases by about :
(1) 24 times (2) 32 times (3) 64 times (4) 10 times
75. The magnetic moment (spin only) of  
2
4
NiCl
is
(1) 5.46 BM (2) 2.83 BM (3) 1.41 BM (4) 1.82 BM
76. The hybridization of orbitals of N atom in
3 2
NO ,NO
+
and
4
NH
+
are respectively :
(1)
2 3
sp , sp, sp (2)
3 2
sp, sp , sp (3)
2 3
sp , sp , sp (4)
2 3
sp, sp , sp
77. In context of the lanthanoids, which of the following statements is not correct ?
(1) All the members exhibit +3 oxidation state
(2) Because of similar properties the separation of lanthanoids is not easy.
(3) Availability of 4f electrons results in the formation of compounds in +4 state for all the members
of the series.
(4) There is a gradual decrease in the radii of the members with increasing atomic number in the
series.
78. A 5.2 molal aqueous solution of methyl alcohol,
3
CH OH, is supplied. What is the mole fraction of methyl
alcohol in the solution ?
(1) 0.190 (2) 0.086 (3) 0.050 (4) 0.100
79. Which of the following statement is wrong ?
(1) Nitrogen cannot form d  p bond.
(2) Single N N bond is weaker than the single P P bond,
(3)
2 4
N O has two resonance structures
(4) The stability of hydrides increases from
3
NH to
3
BiH in group 15 of the periodic table
80. The outer electron configuration of Gd (Atomic No : 64 is :
(1)
8 0 2
4f 5d 6s (2)
4 4 2
4f 5d 6s (3)
7 1 2
4f 5d 6s (4)
3 5 2
4f 4d 6s
81. Which of the following statements regarding sulphur is incorrect ?
(1) The vapour at
o
200 C consists mostly of
8
S rings
(2) At
o
600 C the gas mainly consists of
2
S molecules
(3) The oxidation state of sulphur is never less than +4 in its compounds
(4)
2
S molecule is paramagnetic.
82. The structure of
7
IF is :
(1) trigonal bipyramid (2) octahedral (3) pentagonal bipyramid (4) square pyramid
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AIEEE201112
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83. Ozonolysis of an organic compound gives formaldehyde as one of the products. This confirms the
presence of :
(1) a vinyl group (2) an isopropyl group
(3) an acetylenic triple bond (4) two ethylenic double bonds
84. A gas absorbs a photon of 355 nm and emits at two wavelengths. If one of the emissions is at
680 nm, the other is at :
(1) 325 nm (2) 743 nm (3) 518 nm (4) 1035 nm
85. Silver Mirror test is given by which one of the following compounds ?
(1) Acetone (2) Formaldehyde (3) Benzophenone (4) Acetaldehyde
86. Which of the following reagents may be used to distinguish between phenol and benzoic acid ?
(1) Tollens reagent (2) Molisch reagent (3) Neutral Fe
3
Cl (4) Aqueous NaOH
87. Phenol is heated with a solution of mixture of KBr and KBrO
3
. The major product obtained in the above
reaction is
(1) 3Bromophenol (2) 4Bromophenol (3) 2, 4, 6 Tribromophenol (4) 2Bromophenol
88. In a face centred cubic lattice, atom A occupies the corner positions and atom B occupies the face centre
positions. If one atom of B is missing from one of the face centred points, the formula of the compound is
:
(1)
2
AB (2)
2 3
A B (3)
2 5
A B (4)
2
A B
89. The entropy change involved in the isothermal reversible expansion of 2 moles of an ideal gas from a
volume of 10
3
dm to a volume of 100
3
dm at
o
27 C is :
(1) 35.8J mol
1 1
K
(2) 32.3J
1 1
mol K
(3) 42.3J
1 1
mol K
(4) 38.3J
1 1
mol K
90. Identify the compound that exhibits tautomerism.
(1) Lactic acid (2) 2Pentanone (3) Phenol (4) 2 Butene
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AIEEE201113
FIITJEE (Hyderabad Classes) Limited. 5914/B, Saifabad, (Opp. Secretariat) Hyderabad. 500 063. Phone: 04066777000 03 Fax: 04066777004
READ THE FOLLOWING INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY
1. The candidates should fill in the required particulars on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet (Side1) with
Blue/Black Ball Point Pen.
2. For writing/marking particulars on Side2 of the Answer Sheet, use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only.
3. The candidates should not write their Roll Numbers anywhere else (except in the specified space) on the
Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
4. Out of the four options given for each question, only one option is the correct answer.
5. For each incorrect response, onefourth (1/4) of the total marks allotted to the question would be deducted
from the total score. No deduction from the total score, however, will be made if no response is indicated
for an item in the Answer Sheet.
6. Handle the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet with care, as under no circumstances (except for discrepancy in
Test Booklet Code and Answer Sheet Code), will another set be provided.
7. The candidates are not allowed to do any rough work or writing work on the Answer Sheet. All
calculations/writing work are to be done in the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet itself,
marked Space for Rough Work. This space is given at the bottom of each page and in 4 pages (Pages 20
23) at the end of the booklet.
8. On completion of the test, the candidates must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
9. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admit Card to the Invigilator.
10. No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, should leave his/her seat.
11. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the
Invigilator on duty and sign the Attendance Sheet again. Cases where a candidate has not signed the
Attendance Sheet a second time will be deemed not to have handed over the Answer Sheet and dealt with
as an unfair means case. The candidates are also required to put their left hand THUMB impression in the
space provided in the Attendance Sheet.
12. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator and any Electronic Item like mobile phone, pager etc. is prohibited.
13. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the Board with regard to their conduct in the
Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of the Board.
14. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.
15. Candidates are not allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile
phone, electronic device or any other material except the Admit Card inside the examination hall/room.
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AIEEE201114
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SOLUTIONS
PART A
PHYSICS
1. 1
Sol.
( )
( )
2
x,t
y e a x b t
= +
b
V
a
=
Wave moving in ve x direction.
2. 1
Sol. Diameter of wire
1
52 0.52mm 0.052cm
100
= = =
3. 2
Sol. Mg T = Ma .. (1)
2
1
T R I MR
2
= =
1
T Ma
2
= ( ) a R = .. (2)
From (1) and (2)
2g
a
3
=
T
a
Mg
R
4. 3
Sol.
( )
2 2
2 1
W T A T 8 r r 0.4 mJ = = =
5. 3
Sol. 0 =
Angular momentum is conserve
1 1
1 1 2 2 2
2
I
I I
I
= =
I
2
first decreases and then increases
first increases and then decreases.
6. 4
Sol.
1
0 =
2
2
=
X
0
X
0
+A
A
7. 3
Sol. Position of the null point from mass m,
r r
x
3
4m
1
m
= =
+
3 12 Gm
V Gm 9
r 2r r
 
= + =

\ .
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AIEEE201115
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8. 4
Sol. At any instant of separation between charges is x.
equilibrium condition =
2
2
Q x
K
2 x
=
l
2 3
Q Cx =
2
dQ dx
2Q C3x
dt dt
=
3/ 2
1/ 2
2
dx x
x
dt x
9. 3
Sol.
H
E B V 0.15mV = = l
10. 1
Sol.
dv
2.5 v
dt
=
Integrating the above equation.
2 v 2.5t C = +
at t 0,v 6.25 C 5 = = =
at
5
v 0 t 2s
2.5
= = =
11. 1
Sol. Charge oscillates simple harmonic motion q = q
0
sin t,
2
1 q
U
2 C
=
0
q
q t
4
2
= =
T 2
t LC LC
8 8 4
= = =
12.
Sol. Normal to the plane is z axis
z
1 1
A 10 1
cos , 60
A 20 2
= = = =
0
1 1 2 2 2 2
3
sin sin 2 3 sin 45
2
= = =
13. 4
Sol.
0
di
dB cos i sin j
2 R
(
=
(
T
di Rd
R
=
I
d =
d
0
2
I
dB cos i sin j
2 R
 
=

\ .
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AIEEE201116
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0
2
I
B j
R
14. 3
Sol. W U =
2
v
1
mv nC dT
2
=
m R
dT
M 1
=
( )
2
M 1 v
dT K
2R
=
15. 3
Sol. Energy of simple harmonic oscillator is constant.
( )
2 2 2 2
1 2
1 1
M A m M A
2 2
= +
2
1
2
2
A M m
M A
+
=
1
2
A M m
A M
+
=
16. 3
Sol. Equation of continuity
( ) ( ) a v top a v bottom =
( )
2
2 2 2
b
v 0.4 2 9.8 0.2 v u 2gh is used ( = =
v
b
= 2m/s (nearly)
3 2
8 10 0.4 d 4
( =
3
d 3.6 10 m
17. 1
Sol. Since ionospheric properties change with time, these signals are in general less stable than ground wave
signals.
18. 1
Sol. Data ( )
1 2 2 3 3 1 2 3
n,k,t n kT n kT n n n kT + + = + +
1 1 2 2 3 3
1 2 3
n T n T n T
T
n n n
+ +
=
+ +
19. 1
Sol. r F = I
( )
2 2
2 20t 5t 10 4t t = =
2
d
4t t
dt
=
( )
2 2
d 4t t dt =
3
2
t
2t
3
= (on integration)
0 t 6s = =
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AIEEE201117
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3
2
d t
2t
dt 3
= =
3
2
t
d 2t dt
3
 
=

\ .
3 4
2t t
3 12
= (on integration)
( ) in 6s 36rad =
2 n 36 =
36
n 6
2
= =<
20. 2
Sol.
( )
t / Rc
c
V E 1 e
=
t / Rc
120 3
1 e
200 5
= =
6
6
5
R 2.7 10
1.84 10
= =
21. 4
Sol.
1 2
1
1
T T 1
T 6
= =
( )
1 2
2
1
T T 62
1
T 3
= =
1 2
1 1
T T 62 1
T T 3
+ =
1
1 62 1
6 T 3
+ =
1
62 1
T 6
=
1
T 62 6 372K = =
1 2
1
T T 1
T 6
=
2
1
T 1
1
T 6
=
2
T 5
372 6
=
2
T 310K =
22. 1
Sol.
2
R l (for a given volume)
R 2
% %
R
=
l
l
Thus when wire is stretched by 0.1% resistance increases by 0.2%
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AIEEE201118
FIITJEE (Hyderabad Classes) Limited. 5914/B, Saifabad, (Opp. Secretariat) Hyderabad. 500 063. Phone: 04066777000 03 Fax: 04066777004
23. 1
Sol. As light enters from air to glass it suffers a phase change on and therefore at centre there will be
destructive interference.
24. 1
Sol.
1 1 1
v u f
+ =
2 2
1 dv 1 du
0
dt dt v u
=
2
2
dv v du
dt dt u
 
=

\ .
f = 20 cm
1 1 1
u 280 20
+ =
280
v cm
15
=
2
I
280
v 15
15 280
 
=

\ .
1
m/ s
15
=
25. 2
Sol.
2
n 2
Z
E 13.6
n
=
Li
9
E 13.6 122.4eV
1
++
= =
Li
9
E 13.6 13.6eV
9
+++
= =
( ) E 13.6 122.4 =
= 108.8 eV
26. 3
Sol. Potential inside () = ar
2
+ b
r
v
E 2ar
r
= =
Electric field inside uniformly charged solid volume varies with r. So charge density is constant
( )
2 3
net
2ar 4 r 8 ar = =
3
3
0
4
r
3
8 ar
=
0
6a =
27. 1
Sol. Max. range
2 2
u v
i.e.,
g g
= (radius of circle)
Area occupied
2
2 4
2
v v
g g
 
= =

\ .
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AIEEE201119
FIITJEE (Hyderabad Classes) Limited. 5914/B, Saifabad, (Opp. Secretariat) Hyderabad. 500 063. Phone: 04066777000 03 Fax: 04066777004
28. 1
Sol. Q U W = + (ignoring expansion)
U ms T 0.1 4.184 20 8.368kJ = = =
29. 2
Sol.
1
2
t 20 = minutes
2
t
0
N N e
=
1
t ln3 =
2
t
0 0 1
2 1
N N e t ln3
3
= =
2
t
0 0
2
N N e
3
=
2
1 3
t ln
2
=
2 1
1 3
t t ln ln3
2
(
=
(
1 1 0.693
ln
2
(
= =
(
= 20 min
30. 3
Sol.
max 0
KE h h =
0
h h e v =
0
0
h h
V
e e
=
is doubled
KE
max
= 2h h
0
( )
0
0
h 2h
V V
e e
= =
max
max
KE
KE
may not be equal to 2
0
0
V
V
( )
x 2
2 sin x 2
lim
x 2
R.H.L. 2 = , L.H.L. 2 =
Limit does not exist.
35. 4
Sol:
(n 1) (10 1) 9
(r 1) (4 1) 3
C C C
= =
Statement 1 is correct
Statement 2 is also correct
From 9 we can select 3 in
9
3
C ways. It is correct explanation.
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AIEEE201121
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36. 3
Sol:
2
d dx d 1 1 d dy
dy dy dy dy dy dx
dy
dx
dx
 

   

= =
 

 
\ . \ .  
 

\ . \ .
\ .
2 3
2
2
dy 1 d dy d y dy
dy dx dx dx dx
dx
dx
 
     
= = 
  

 
\ . \ . \ .
\ .

\ .
37. 4
Sol:
dy dy
y 3 dx
dx y 3
= + =
+
( ) ln y 3 x c + = +
x 0 y 2 = =
ln5 0 c = +
c ln5 =
( ) ln y 3 x ln5 + = +
x ln5
y 3 e
+
+ =
ln2 ln5
y 3 e
+
+ =
y 3 10 y 7 + = =
38. 2
Sol: x y is an integer
x x 0 = is an integer A is Reflexive
x y is an integer y x is an integer A is symmetric
x y, y z are integers
As sum of two integers is an integer.
( ) ( ) x y y z x z + = is an integer
A is transitive. Hence statement 1 is true.
Also
x
1
x
= is a rational number B is reflexive
x
y
= is rational
y
x
need not be rational
i.e.,
0
1
is rational
1
0
is not rational
Hence B is not symmetric
B is not an equivalence relation.
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AIEEE201122
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39. 4
Sol:
( )
1
2
0
log 1 x
I 8 dx
1 x
+
=
+
( )
( )
4
2
2
0
log 1 tan
8 sec d let x tan
1 tan
+
= =
+
4
0
8 log 1 tan d
4
   
= +


\ .
\ .
4
0
1 tan
8 log 1 d
1 tan
 
= +

+
\ .
( )
4 4
0 0
8 log2 d 8 log 1 tan d
= +
8log2 I
4
=
2I 2 log2 =
I log2 =
40. 3
Sol: Suppose roots are 1 pi, 1 qi + +
Sum of roots 1 pi 1 qi + + + = which is real
roots of 1 pi, 1 pi +
Product of roots ( )
2
1 p 1, = = +
p 0 since roots are distinct.
41. 2
Sol: n 5 =
Success = p
Failure = q
P (at least one failure)
31
32
1 P (no failure)
31
32
( )
31
1 P x 5
32
=
5 5
5
31
1 C p
32
5
1
p
32
5
1
p
32
1
p
2
1
p 0,
2
(
(
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AIEEE201123
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42. 3
Sol:
1 2 3 4 5 6
200 200 200 240 280 . ..
Sum = 11040
120 + 80 + 160 + 40 + 200 + 240 + = 11040
( )
n
2a n 1 d 80 40 11040
2
( + + + =
( )
n
240 n 1 40 10920
2
( + =
n 6 n 1 546 + = (
( ) n n 5 546 + =
n 21 =
43. 2
Sol:
1
x x 0 x x x
x x
> >
is negative
( ) x , 0
44. 4
Sol:
5
cos
14
=
3
sin
14
=
2
1 4 3
sin
1 4 1 4 9
+ +
=
+ + + +
2
3 5 3 2
3
14
5 14
+
= =
+
45. 4
Sol:
( ) ( ) ( ) { } ( ) ( ) ( )
{ }
2a b . a b a 2b 2a b . a. a 2b b b. a 2b a
( (
+ = + +
( (
( ) ( ) ( )
2 2 2
5 a b 5 a.b 5 = + =
46. 4
Sol:
( )
2
2 2 2 2 2
2 3 3a
b a 1 e a 1 a
5 5 5
 
= = = =

\ .
2 2
2 2
x y
1
a b
+ =
2 2
9 5
1
a 3a
+ =
2
32
a
3
=
2
32
b
5
=
Required equation of ellipse
2 2
3x 5y 32 0 + =
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AIEEE201124
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47. 1
Sol: ( ) ( )
dV
k T t dV k T t dt
dt
= =
Integrate
( )
( )
( )
2 2
k T t k T t
V c V c
2 2
= + = +
at t 0 V I = =
( )
2 2 2
kT kT kT
I c c I c V T I
2 2 2
= + = = =
48. 3
Sol: b c b d =
( ) ( )
a b c a b d =
( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
a.c b a.b c a.d b a.b d =
( ) ( ) ( )
a.c b a.b c a.b d =
a.c
d c b
a.b
 
= 

\ .
49. 1
Sol: ( )
1 2
a
c , 0 ; c 0, 0
2
 
= =

\ .
1 2
a
r ; r c
2
= =
1 2 1 2
a a
c c r r c c a
2 2
= = =
50. 1
Sol: ( ) ( )
( )
( )
( )
P C D
C
C D C P C D P C P P C
D P D
 
= = =

\ .
51. 1
Sol:
2
4 k 2
k 4 1 0 k 6k 8 0 k 4, 2
2 2 1
= + = =
52. 1
Sol: ( ) { } ( ) { }
~ P ~ R Q ~ Q P ~ R =
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AIEEE201125
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53. 1
Sol:
( )
2
P y , y =
Perpendicular distance from P to x y 1 0 + = is
2
y y 1
2
+
2
y y 1 0 y R + >
Coefficient
2
y 0 >
Min value
2
1 4ac b 3
4a
2 4 2
 
= = 

\ .
54. 2
Sol:
i
1
x A
n
A = Median =
25a 26a
25.5a
2
+
=
Mean deviation
{ } ( ) ( ) { }
1 2
a 25.5a 2a 25.5a 24.5a 23.5a ... 0.5a
50 50
= + = + +
{ }
2
312.5a 50
50
= = (Given)
625a 2500 a 4 = =
55. 1
Sol:
B (1,6,3)
1, 2, 3
A (1,0,7)
Statement 1 : AB is perpendicular to given line and mid point of AB lies on line
Statement 2 is true but it is not correct explanation as it is bisector only.
If it is perpendicular bisector then only statement 2 is correct explanation.
56. 1
Sol:
T T
A A, B B = =
( ) ( ) ( )
( )
( ) ( )
T
T
T T T
A BA BA A A B A AB A A BA = = = =
( ) ( ) ( )
( )
( ) ( )
T
T
T T T
AB A A AB A B A A BA AB A = = = =
Statement 1 is correct
Statement 2
( )
T
T T
AB B A BA AB = = = (Q AB is commutative)
Statement 2 is also correct but it is not correct explanation of Statement 1
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AIEEE201126
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57. 1
Sol:
2
1+ =
( )
( )
( ) ( )
7
7
2 14 2
1 1 A B A, B 1, 1 + = = = = + = + =
58. 2
( )
2
3 / 2
x 0 x 0
sin p 1 sinx
x x x
lim q lim
x
x
+ +
+
= =
( ) ( )
x 0
1
lim p 1 cos p 1 x cosx q
2
+ + + = =
1 3 1
p 1 1 p ; q
2 2 2
+ + = = =
59. 2
Sol:
O 1
e
1 e
0 1
1 1 3
Area xdx dx 1
x 2 2
= + = + =
60. 3
Sol: ( ) f ' x x sinx =
Given
5
x 0,
2
 

\ .
( ) f ' x changes sign from +ve to ve at
( ) f ' x changes sign from ve to +ve at 2
f has local max at , local min at 2
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AIEEE201127
FIITJEE (Hyderabad Classes) Limited. 5914/B, Saifabad, (Opp. Secretariat) Hyderabad. 500 063. Phone: 04066777000 03 Fax: 04066777004
PART C: CHEMISTRY
61. (2)
Sol : Greater charge and small size of cation cause more polarization and more covalent is that compound
62. (1)
Sol : In RNA, the sugar is D Ribose, where as in DNA the Sugar is D2deoxy Ribose
63. (4)
Sol :
( )
3 3 3 2
OH
2CCl CHO CCl COONa CCl CH OH
+
Cannizaro reaction is a disproportionation reaction
One aldehyde molecule is oxidized to salt of the carboxylic Acid, other one is reduced to
Alcohol. So the compound is
3 2
CCl CH OH
IUPAC Name is 2, 2, 2,  Trichloro ethanol
64. (3)
Sol :
2 5 3 3 2 5
( )
C H O Na CH C Cl CH C O C H
 
O O
+ Ethyl ethanoate
65. (2)
Sol :
2
2H 2e H (g)
+
+
o
E E 0.059 = log
2
H
2
P
H
+
 


 (
\ .
(here E is ve when
2
2
H
P H
+
( >
)
=
10
0.0591 2
log
2 1
 

\ .
=
.0591
.3010
2
= negative value
66. (2)
Sol : Electron releasing groups (Alkyl groups) de stabilizes conjugate base.
The +I effect of
3 7
C H is less than  I effect of Cl
K
a
of HCOOH is
5
17.9 10
a
K of
3 2
CH CH CH COOH

Cl
is
5
139 10
67. (4)
Sol : i = 1 ( ) n 1 n 1 + = +
i 1
n 1
y x
x y
A B xA yB
+
+
n = x+y
So
i 1
x y 1
=
+
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AIEEE201128
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68. (3)
Sol : ease of liquefaction
a
b
for ethane a = 5.49, b=0.0638
for
2
Cl a = 6.49, b = 0.0562
69. (4)
Sol :
2
CO (g) C +
2CO(g)
Initial moles p O
Equilibriumm moles px 2x
Total pressure at equilibrium = 0.8 atm ; Total no.of moles = p + x.
Therefore p n ;
0.5 p
x 0.3
0.8 p x
= =
+
2
2
CO
p
CO
P 0.6 0.6
K 1.8
P 0.2
= = = atm
70. (4)
Sol : As Boron has only four orbitals in the valence shell ( i.e. 2s, 2p
x
, 2p
y
& 2p
z
) it can show a maximum
valency of four only.
Therefore  
3
6
BF
is not possible
71. (2)
Sol : ( )
3 3
6
Cr NH Cl (
involves
2 3
d sp hybridization and it is an inner orbital complex.
72. (4)
Sol :
2
f f f
1 2
w 1000
T K m K
w m
= =
1
w &
2
w = wt of solvent & solute respecting
2
m = mw of solute
f
T =
( )
o 0 2
w 1000
0 6 6 1.86
4000 62
= =
Therefore
2
w 800g =
73. (4)
Sol : Across a period metallic strength decreases & down the group it increases
74. (2)
Sol : Temperature coefficient =2;
T
2 10
1
k
k
= ;
50
5 2 10
1
k
2 2 32
k
= = =
Therefore 32
1 2
k k =
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AIEEE201129
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75. (2)
Sol : In  
2
4
NiCl
, n = 2
= ( ) n n 2 + BM
= ( ) 2 2 2 2.82BM + =
76. (1)
Sol :
77. (3)
Sol : The general o.s of lanthanides is +3, only few elements exhibit +4 o.s.
78. (2)
Sol : Molefraction of solute ( )
2
X in aqueous solution =
m
1000
m
18
+
=
5.2
1000
5.2
18
+
= 0.09
79. (4)
Sol : Stability of hydrides decreases down the group from
3
NH to
3
BiH as MH bond energy decreases.
80. (3)
81. (3)
Sol : `S can exhibit a minimum oxidation state of 2
(Ex.
2
H S)
82. (3)
Sol : In
7
IF , I undergoes
3 3
sp d hybridisation
83. (1)
Sol : Vinyl group
2
CH CH
 
=

\ .
on ozonolosys give formaldehyde
84. (2)
Sol :
absorbed 1 2
1 1 1
= +
2
1 1 1
355 680
= +
2
742.8 = 743 nm
85. (2 , 4)
Sol : Formaldehyde and Acetaldehyde can be oxidized by tollens reagent to give silver mirror.
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AIEEE201130
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86. (3)
Sol : Phenol gives violet coloured comlex compound with neutral
3
FeCl , benzoic acid gives pale dull yellow
ppt. with neutral
3
FeCl
87. (3)
Sol : In acidic medium, KBr + KBrO
3
in turn produces
2
Br . Phenol reacts with
2
Br (aq) to give 2, 4, 6
trinitrophenol
88. (3)
Sol : Effective no.of A atoms =
1
8 1
8
=
Effective no.of B atoms =
1
5
2
( One is missing) =
5
2
Therefore formula is
1 5 2 5
2
A B A B =
89. (4)
Sol : For an ideal gas, for isothermal reversible process,
S = 2.303 nR log
2
1
v
v
 

\ .
= 2.303
100
2 8.314 log
10
 

\ .
= 38.3 J
1 1
mol .k
90. 2, (2, 3)
Sol : both 2pentanone, phenol can exhibit tautomerism
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Ltd., FIITJEE House, 29 A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi 110016, Ph: 46106000, 26569493, Fax: 26513942
website: www.fiitjee.com
A
A
I
I
E
E
E
E
E
E
2
2
0
0
1
1
2
2
(
(
S
S
e
e
t
t
C
C
)
)
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball Point
Pen. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.
2. The Answer Sheet is kept inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test
Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars carefully.
3. The test is of 3 hours duration.
4. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 360.
5. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Mathematics, Physics and
Chemistry having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each question is allotted 4
(four) marks for each correct response.
6. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in instruction No.5 for correct response of
each question. 1/4 (one fourth) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each
question. No deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item
in the answer sheet.
7. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in
each question will be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be
deducted accordingly as per instruction 6 above.
8. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars/marking responses on Side1 and
Side2 of the Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.
9. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager,
mobile phone, any electronic device, etc., except the Admit Card inside the examination
hall/room.
10. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only. This
space is given at the bottom of each page and in 3 pages (Pages 21 23) at the end of the
booklet.
11. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on
duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet
with them.
12. The CODE for this Booklet is C. Make sure that the CODE printed on Side2 of the Answer
Sheet is the same as that on this booklet. In case of discrepancy, the candidate should
immediately report the matter to the Invigilator for replacement of both the Test Booklet and the
Answer Sheet.
13. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.
t = 2 5
e
sin x
= 2 5 1 sin x 1
1
e
e
sin x
e
e
sin x
= 2 + 5 not possible
e
sin x
= 2 5 not possible hence no solution
2. Let
a and b is
(1)
6
(2)
2
(3)
3
(4)
4
2. 3
Sol. c d 0 =
, ,
,
2
2
5 a 6a b 8 b 0 + =
, ,
, ,
1
6a b 3 a b
2
= =
, ,
, ,
( )
a b
3
=
,
,
3. A spherical balloon is filled with 4500 cubic meters of helium gas. If a leak in the balloon causes the gas
to escape at the rate of 72 cubic meters per minute, then the rate (in meters per minute) at which the
radius of the balloon decreases 49 minutes after the leakage began is
(1)
9
7
(2)
7
9
(3)
2
9
(4)
9
2
3. 3
Sol. v =
2
4
r
3
After 49 minutes volume = 4500 49 (72) = 972
4
3
r
3
= 972 r
3
= 729 r = 9
v =
4
3
r
3
2
dv 4 dr
3r
dt 3 dt
= 72 = 4
2
dr
r
dt
dr 72 2
dt 4 9 9 9
= =
4. Statement 1: The sum of the series 1 + (1 + 2 + 4) + (4 + 6 + 9) + (9 + 12 + 16) + ...... + (361 + 380 +
400) is 8000.
Statement 2: ( )
( )
n
3
3 3
k 1
k k 1 n
=
=
(
}
=
cosx 2sinx
2 dx dx k
sinx 2cosx
+  
+ +

\ .
} }
= 2 log sin x 2 cos x + x + k a = 2
7. Statement 1: An equation of a common tangent to the parabola y
2
=16 3x and the ellipse 2x
2
+ y
2
= 4 is
y = 2x + 2 3 .
Statement 2: If the line y = mx +
4 3
m
, (m 0) is a common tangent to the parabola
y
2
= 16 3x and the ellipse 2x
2
+ y
2
= 4, then m satisfies m
4
+ 2m
2
= 24.
(1) Statement 1 is false, statement 2 is true
(2) Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is true; statement 2 is a correct explanation for statement 1
(3) Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is true; statement 2 is not a correct explanation for statement 1
(4) Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is false
7. 2
Sol. y
2
= 16 3x
2 2
x y
1
2 4
+ =
y = mx +
4 3
m
is tangent to parabola
which is tangent to ellipse c
2
= a
2
m
2
+ b
2
2
48
m
= 2m
2
+ 4 m
4
+ 2m
2
= 24 m
2
= 4
8. Let A =
1 0 0
2 1 0
3 2 1
 



\ .
. If u
1
and u
2
are column matrices such that Au
1
=
1
0
0
 



\ .
and Au
2
=
0
1
0
 



\ .
, then u
1
+ u
2
is
equal to
(1)
1
1
0
 



\ .
(2)
1
1
1
 



\ .
(3)
1
1
0
 



\ .
(4)
1
1
1
 



\ .
8. 4
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Sol. A =
1 0 0
2 1 0
3 2 1
 



\ .
Let u
1
=
a
b
c
(
(
(
(
; u
2
=
d
e
f
(
(
(
(
Au
1
=
1
1 1
0 u 2
0 1
( (
( (
=
( (
( (
Au
2
=
0
1
0
(
(
(
(
u
2
=
0
1
2
(
(
(
(
u
1
+ u
2
=
1
1
1
(
(
(
(
9. If n is a positive integer, then
( ) ( )
2n 2n
3 1 3 1 + is
(1) an irrational number (2) an odd positive integer
(3) an even positive integer (4) a rational number other than positive integers
9. 1
Sol.
( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
n n
2n 2n 2 2 n n
3 1 3 1 3 1 3 1 4 2 3 4 2 3
( (
+ = + = +
( (
=
( ) ( )
n n
n
2 2 3 2 3
(
+
(
=
{ }
n n n n n 1 n n 2 n n n n 1 n n 2
0 1 2 0 1 2
2 C 2 C 2 3 C 2 3 C 2 C 2 3 C 2 3
( (
+ + + +
=
n 1 n n 1 n n 3 n 1
1 3
2 C 2 3 C 2 3 3 2 3
+ +
(
+ + =
(some integer)
Which is irrational
10. If 100 times the 100
th
term of an AP with non zero common difference equals the 50 times its 50
th
term,
then the 150
th
term of this AP is
(1) 150 (2) 150 times its 50
th
term
(3) 150 (4) zero
10. 4
Sol. 100(T
100
) = 50(T
50
) 2[a + 99d] = a + 49d a + 149d = 0 T
150
= 0
11. In a PQR, if 3 sin P + 4 cos Q = 6 and 4 sin Q + 3 cos P = 1, then the angle R is equal to
(1)
5
6
(2)
6
(3)
4
(4)
3
4
11. 2
Sol. 3 sin P + 4 cos Q = 6 ...... (1)
4 sin Q + 3 cos P = 1 ...... (2)
From (1) and (2) P is obtuse.
(3 sin P + 4 cos Q)
2
+ (4 sin Q + 3 cos P)
2
= 37
9 + 16 + 24 (sin P cos Q + cos P sin Q) = 37
24 sin (P + Q) = 12
sin (P + Q) =
1
2
P + Q =
5
6
R =
6
12. An equation of a plane parallel to the plane x 2y + 2z 5 = 0 and at a unit distance from the origin is
(1) x 2y + 2z 3 = 0 (2) x 2y + 2z + 1 = 0
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(3) x 2y + 2z 1 = 0 (4) x 2y + 2z + 5 = 0
12. 1
Sol. Equation of plane parallel to x 2y + 2z 5 = 0 is x 2y + 2z + k = 0 ...... (1)
perpendicular distance from O(0, 0, 0) to (1) is 1
k
1 4 4 + +
= 1 k = 3 k = 3 x 2y + 2z 3 = 0
13. If the line 2x + y = k passes through the point which divides the line segment joining the points (1, 1) and
(2, 4) in the ratio 3 : 2, then k equals
(1)
29
5
(2) 5 (3) 6 (4)
11
5
13. 3
Sol. Point p =
6 2 12 2
,
5 5
+ +  

\ .
p =
8 14
,
5 5
 

\ .
8 14
p ,
5 5
 

\ .
lies on 2x + y = k
16 14
k
5 5
+ = k =
30
5
= 6
14. Let x
1
, x
2
, ......, x
n
be n observations, and let x be their arithematic mean and
2
be their variance.
Statement 1: Variance of 2x
1
, 2x
2
, ......, 2x
n
is 4
2
.
Statement 2: Arithmetic mean of 2x
1
, 2x
2
, ......, 2x
n
is 4x .
(1) Statement 1 is false, statement 2 is true
(2) Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is true; statement 2 is a correct explanation for statement 1
(3) Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is true; statement 2 is not a correct explanation for statement 1
(4) Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is false
14. 4
Sol.
2
=
2
2
i i
x x
n n
 

\ .
Variance of 2x
1
, 2x
2
, ....., 2x
n
=
( )
2
2
i
i
2x
2x
n n
 

\ .
=
2
2
i i
x x
4
n n
(
 
(

( \ .
= 4
2
Statement 1 is true.
A.M. of 2x
1
, 2x
2
, ......, 2x
n
=
1 2 n 1 2 n
2x 2x 2x x x x
2 2x
n n
+ + + + + +  
= =

\ .
Statement 2 is false.
15. The population p(t) at time t of a certain mouse species satisfies the differential equation
dp(t)
dt
= 0.5 p(t)
450. If p(0) = 850, then the time at which the population becomes zero is
(1) 2 ln 18 (2) ln 9 (3)
1
ln18
2
(4) ln 18
15. 1
Sol.
d(p(t)) 1
dt 2
= p(t) 450
d(p(t)) p(t) 900
dt 2
=
d(p(t))
2 dt
p(t) 900
=
} }
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2 ln p(t) 900 = t + c
t = 0 2 ln 50 = 0 + c c = 2 ln 50
2 ln p(t) 900 = t + 2 ln 50
P(t) = 0 2 ln 900 = t + 2 ln 50
t = 2 (ln 900 ln 50) =
900
2ln
50
 

\ .
= 2 ln 18.
16. Let a, b R be such that the function f given by f(x) = ln x + bx
2
+ ax, x 0 has extreme values at x = 1
and x = 2.
Statement 1: f has local maximum at x = 1 and at x = 2.
Statement 2: a =
1
2
and b =
1
4
(1) Statement 1 is false, statement 2 is true
(2) Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is true; statement 2 is a correct explanation for statement 1
(3) Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is true; statement 2 is not a correct explanation for statement 1
(4) Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is false
16. 2
Sol. f(x) =
1
x
+ 2b x + a
f has extremevalues and differentiable
f(1) = 0 a 2b = 1
f(2) = 0 a + 4b =
1
2
a =
1
2
, b =
1
4
f(1), f(2) are negative. f has local maxima at 1, 2
17. The area bounded between the parabolas x
2
=
y
4
and x
2
= 9y, and the straight line y = 2 is
(1) 20 2 (2)
10 2
3
(3)
20 2
3
(4) 10 2
17. 3
Sol. Required area
A =
2 2
0 0
y 5 y
2 3 y dy 2 dy
2 2
(
 
( = 

(
\ .
} }
=
2
3 / 2
3 / 2
0
y 10 20 2
5 2 0
3/ 2 3 3
(
(
= =
(
(
O
y = 2
x
2
=
9
4
x
2
= 9y
18. Assuming the balls to be identical except for difference in colours, the number of ways in which one or
more balls can be selected from 10 white, 9 green and 7 black balls is
(1) 880 (2) 629 (3) 630 (4) 879
18. 4
Sol. Number of ways of selecting one or more balls from 10 white, 9 green, and 7 black balls
= (10 + 1)(9 + 1)(7 + 1) 1 = 11 10 8 1 = 879.
19. If f: R R is a function defined by f(x) = [x]
2x 1
cos
2
 

\ .
, where [x] denotes the greatest integer
function, then f is
(1) continuous for every real x (2) discontinuous only at x = 0
(3) discontinuous only at nonzero integral values of x (4) continuous only at x = 0
19. 1
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Sol. f(x) =
2x 1 1
x cos x cos x
2 2
   
= ( (
 
\ . \ .
= [x] sin x is continuous for every real x.
20. If the lines
x 1 y 1 z 1 x 3 y k z
and
2 3 4 1 2 1
+
= = = = intersect, then k is equal to
(1) 1 (2)
2
9
(3)
9
2
(4) 0
20. 3
Sol. Any point on
x 1 y 1 z 1
2 3 4
+
= = = t is (2t + 1, 3t 1, 4t + 1)
And any point on
x 3 y k z
1 2 1
= = = s is (s + 3, 2s + k, s)
Given lines are intersecting t =
3
2
and s = 5 k =
9
2
21. Three numbers are chosen at random without replacement from {1, 2, 3, ...... 8}. The probability that their
minimum is 3, given that their maximum is 6, is
(1)
3
8
(2)
1
5
(3)
1
4
(4)
2
5
21. 2
Sol. Let A be the event that maximum is 6.
B be event that minimum is 3
P(A) =
5
2
8
3
C
C
(the numbers < 6 are 5)
P(B) =
5
2
8
3
C
C
(the numbers > 3 are 5)
P(A B) =
2
1
8
3
C
C
Required probability is
2
1
5
2
C B P(A B) 2 1
P
A P(A) 10 5
C
 
= = = =

\ .
.
22. If z 1 and
2
z
z 1
is real, then the point represented by the complex number z lies
(1) either on the real axis or on a circle passing through the origin
(2) on a circle with centre at the origin
(3) either on the real axis or on a circle not passing through the origin
(4) on the imaginary axis
22. 1
Sol. Let z = x + iy ( x 1 as z 1)
z
2
= (x
2
y
2
) + i(2xy)
2
z
z 1
is real its imaginary part = 0
2xy (x 1) y(x
2
y
2
) = 0
y(x
2
+ y
2
2x) = 0
y = 0; x
2
+ y
2
2x = 0
z lies either on real axis or on a circle through origin.
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23. Let P and Q be 3 3 matrices with P Q. If P
3
= Q
3
and P
2
Q = Q
2
P, then determinant of
(P
2
+ Q
2
) is equal to
(1) 2 (2) 1 (3) 0 (4) 1
23. 3
Sol. P
3
= Q
3
P
3
P
2
Q = Q
3
Q
2
P
P
2
(P Q) = Q
2
(Q P)
P
2
(P Q) + Q
2
(P Q) = O
(P
2
+ Q
2
)(P Q) = O P
2
+ Q
2
 = 0
24. If g(x) =
x
0
cos4t dt
}
, then g(x + ) equals
(1)
g(x)
g( )
(2) g(x) + g() (3) g(x) g() (4) g(x) . g()
24. 2 or 4
Sol. g(x) =
x
0
cos4t dt
}
g(x) = cos 4x g(x) =
sin4x
k
4
+ g(x) =
sin4x
4
[ g(0) = 0]
g(x + ) = g(x) + g() = g(x) g() ( g() = 0)
25. The length of the diameter of the circle which touches the xaxis at the point (1, 0) and passes through
the point (2, 3) is
(1)
10
3
(2)
3
5
(3)
6
5
(4)
5
3
25. 1
Sol. Let (h, k) be centre.
(h 1)
2
+ (k 0)
2
= k
2
h = 1
(h 2)
2
+ (k 3)
2
= k
2
k =
5
3
diameter is 2k =
10
3
k
k
(h, k)
(2, 3)
(1, 0)
26. Let X = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}. The number of different ordered pairs (Y, Z) that can be formed such that Y X, Z
X and Y Z is empty, is
(1) 5
2
(2) 3
5
(3) 2
5
(4) 5
3
26. 2
Sol. Y X, Z X
Let a X, then we have following chances that
(1) a Y, a Z
(2) a Y, a Z
(3) a Y, a Z
(4) a Y, a Z
We require Y Z =
Hence (2), (3), (4) are chances for a to satisfy Y Z = .
Y Z = has 3 chances for a.
Hence for five elements of X, the number of required chances is 3 3 3 3 3 = 3
5
27. An ellipse is drawn by taking a diameter of the circle (x 1)
2
+ y
2
= 1 as its semiminor axis and a
diameter of the circle x
2
+ (y 2)
2
= 4 as its semimajor axis. If the centre of the ellipse is the origin and
its axes are the coordinate axes, then the equation of the ellipse is
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(1) 4x
2
+ y
2
= 4 (2) x
2
+ 4y
2
= 8 (3) 4x
2
+ y
2
= 8 (4) x
2
+ 4y
2
= 16
27. 4
Sol. Semi minor axis b = 2
Semi major axis a = 4
Equation of ellipse =
2 2
2 2
x y
a b
+ = 1
2 2
x y
16 4
+ = 1
x
2
+ 4y
2
= 16.
28. Consider the function f(x) = x 2 + x 5, x R.
Statement 1: f(4) = 0
Statement 2: f is continuous in [2, 5], differentiable in (2, 5) and f(2) = f(5).
(1) Statement 1 is false, statement 2 is true
(2) Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is true; statement 2 is a correct explanation for statement 1
(3) Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is true; statement 2 is not a correct explanation for statement 1
(4) Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is false
28. 2
Sol. f(x) = 7 2x; x < 2
= 3; 2 x 5
= 2x 7; x > 5
f(x) is constant function in [2, 5]
f is continuous in [2, 5] and differentiable in (2, 5) and f(2) = f(5)
by Rolles theorem f(4) = 0
Statement 2 and statement 1 both are true and statement 2 is correct explanation for statement 1.
29. A line is drawn through the point (1, 2) to meet the coordinate axes at P and Q such that it forms a
triangle OPQ, where O is the origin. If the area of the triangle OPQ is least, then the slope of the line PQ
is
(1)
1
4
(2) 4 (3) 2 (4)
1
2
29. 3
Sol. Equation of line passing through (1, 2) with slope m is y 2 = m(x 1)
Area of OPQ =
2
(m 2)
2 m
=
2
m 4 4m
2m
+
=
m 2
2
2 m
+
is least if
m 2
2 m
= m
2
= 4 m = 2 m = 2
30. Let ABCD be a parallelogram such that AB q, AD p = =
, ,
, ,
and BAD be an acute angle. If r
,
is the vector
that coincides with the altitude directed from the vertex B to the side AD, then r
,
is given by
(1)
( )
( )
3 p q
r 3q p
p p
, ,
, , ,
, , (2)
p q
r q p
p p
 
= +

\ .
, ,
, , ,
, ,
(3)
p q
r q p
p p
 
=

\ .
, ,
, , ,
, , (4)
( )
( )
3 p q
r 3q p
p p
= +
, ,
, , ,
, ,
30. 2
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Sol. AE
,
= vector component of q on p
, ,
AE
,
=
( )
( )
p q
p
p q
, ,
,
, , From ABE; AB BE AE + =
, , ,
( )
( )
p q p
q r
p q
+ =
, , ,
, ,
, ,
( )
( )
p q
r q p
p p
= +
, ,
, , ,
, ,
A B
C D
E
r
,
q
,
p
,
PART B: PHYSICS
31. A wooden wheel of radius R is made of two semicircular parts (see figure); The two
parts are held together by a ring made of a metal strip of cross sectional area S
and length L. L is slightly less than 2R. To fit the ring on the wheel, it is heated so
that its temperature rises by T and it just steps over the wheel. As it cools down to
surrounding temperature, it presses the semicircular parts together. If the
coefficient of linear expansion of the metal is , and its Youngs' modulus is Y, the
force that one part of the wheel applies on the other part is :
(1) 2 SY T (2) SY T (3) SY T (4) 2SY T
31. 4
Sol. If temperature increases by T,
Increase in length L, L L T =
L
T
L
=
Let tension developed in the ring is T.
T L
Y Y T
S L
= =
T SY T =
From FBD of one part of the wheel,
F = 2T
F
T T
Where, F is the force that one part of the wheel applies on the other part.
F 2SY T =
32. The figure shows an experimental plot for discharging of a
capacitor in an RC circuit. The time constant of this circuit
lies between:
(1) 150 sec and 200 sec (2) 0 and 50 sec
(3) 50 sec and 100 sec (4) 100 sec and 150 sec
32. 4
Sol. For discharging of an RC circuit,
t /
0
V V e
=
So, when
0
V
V
2
=
t / 0
0
V
V e
2
=
1 t t
ln
2 ln2
= =
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From graph when
0
V
V
2
= , t = 100 s
100
144.3 sec
ln2
= =
33. In a uniformly charged sphere of total charge Q and radius R, the electric field E is plotted as a function of
distance from the centre. The graph which would correspond to the above will be
r
R
E
r
R
E
r R
E
r R
E
(1) (2) (3) (4)
33. 3
Sol. inside
3
0
1 Q
E r
4 R
 
=

\ .
, ,
outside
3
0
1 Q
E r
4 r
 

\ .
, ,
r
R
E
34. An electromagnetic wave in vacuum has the electric and magnetic fields E
,
and B
,
, which are always
perpendicular to each other. The direction of polarization is given by X
,
and that of wave propagation by
k
,
. Then :
(1) X
,
 B
,
and k  B E
, , ,
(2) X E and k  E B
, , , , ,
(3) X B and k  E B
, , , , ,
(4) X E and k  B E
, , , , ,
34. 3
Sol. Direction of polarization is parallel to magnetic field,
X B
, ,
and direction of wave propagation is parallel to E B
, ,
K 
,
E B
, ,
35. If a simple pendulum has significant amplitude (up to a factor of 1/e of original) only in the period between
t = Os to t = s, then may be called the average life of the pendulum. When the spherical bob of the
pendulum suffers a retardation (due to viscous drag) proportional to its velocity, with 'b' as the constant of
proportionality, the average life time of the pendulum is (assuming damping is small) in seconds:
(1)
0.693
b
(2) b (3)
1
b
(4)
2
b
35. 4
Sol. As retardation = bv
retarding force = mbv
net restoring torque when angular displacement is is given by
= mg / sin + mbv /
I = mg / sin + mbv /
where, I = m/
2
2
2
d g bv
sin
dt
= = +
/ /
mbv
v
,
mg
for small damping, the solution of the above differential equation will be
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bt
2
0
e sin(wt )
= +
angular amplitude will be =
bt
2
.e
According to question, in time (average lifetime),
angular amplitude drops to
1
e
value of its original value ()
6
0 2
0
e
e
=
6
1
2
=
2
b
=
36. Hydrogen atom is excited from ground state to another state with principal quantum number equal to 4.
Then the number of spectral lines in the emission spectra will be
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 6
36. 4
Sol. Number of spectral lines from a state n to ground state is
n(n 1)
6
2
= = .
37. A coil is suspended in a uniform magnetic field, with the plane of the coil parallel to the magnetic lines of
force. When a current is passed through the coil it starts oscillating; it is very difficult to stop. But if an
aluminium plate is placed near to the coil, it stops. This is due to :
(1) development of air current when the plate is placed.
(2) induction of electrical charge on the plate
(3) shielding of magnetic lines of force as aluminium is a paramagnetic material.
(4) electromagnetic induction in the aluminium plate giving rise to electromagnetic damping.
37. 4
Sol. Oscillating coil produces time variable magnetic field. It cause eddy current in the aluminium plate which
causes antitorque on the coil, due to which is stops.
38. The mass of a spaceship is 1000 kg. It is to be launched from the earth's surface out into free space. The
value of 'g' and 'R' (radius of earth) are 10 m/s
2
and 6400km respectively. The required energy for this
work will be ;
(1) 6.4 x 10
11
Joules (2) 6.4 x 10
8
Joules (3) 6.4 x 10
9
Joules (4) 6.4 x 10
10
Joules
38. 4
Sol. To launch the spaceship out into free space, from energy conservation,
GMm
E 0
R
+ =
2
GMm GM
E mR mgR
R R
 
= = =

\ .
= 6.4 x 10
10
J
39. Helium gas goes through a cycle ABCDA (consisting of two isochoric and
two isobaric lines) as shown in figure. Efficiency of this cycle is nearly:
(Assume the gas to be close to ideal gas)
(1) 15.4% (2) 9.1%
(3) 10.5% (4) 12.5%
2P
0
P
0
V
0
2V
0
D
A
B C
39. 1
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Sol. Work done in complete cycle = Area under PV graph
= P
0
V
0
from A to B, heat given to the gas
=
v 0 0 0
3 3 3
nC T n R T V P P V
2 2 2
= = =
from B to C, heat given to the system
p
5
nC T n R T
2
 
= =

\ .
0 0 0
5
(2P ) V 5P V
2
= =
from C to D and D to A, heat is rejected.
efficiency, =
work done by gas
100
heat given to the gas
0 0
0 0 0 0
P V
15.4%
3
P V 5P V
2
= =
+
40. In Young's double slit experiment, one of the slit is wider than other, so that the amplitude of the light from
one slit is double of that from other slit. If I
m
be the maximum intensity, the resultant intensity I when they
interfere at phase difference is given by
(1)
m
I
(4 5cos )
9
+ (2)
2 m
I
1 2cos
3 2
 
+

\ .
(3)
2 m
I
1 4cos
5 2
 
+

\ .
(4)
2 m
I
1 8cos
9 2
 
+

\ .
40. 4
Sol. Let A
1
= A
0
, A
2
= 2A
0
If amplitude of resultant wave is A then
2 2 2
1 2 1 2
A A A 2A A cos = + +
For maximum intensity,
2 2 2
max 1 2 1 2
A A A 2A A = + +
2 2 2
1 2 1 2
2 2 2
max 1 2 1 2
A A 2A A cos A
A A A 2A A
+ +
=
+ +
2 2
0 0 0 0
2 2
0 0 0 0
A 4A 2(A )(2A )cos
A 4A 2(A )(2A )
+ +
=
+ +
2
m
I 5 4cos 1 8cos ( / 2)
I 9 9
+ +
= =
41. A liquid in a beaker has temperature (t) at time t and
0
is temperature of surroundings, then according
to Newton's law of cooling the correct graph between log
e
(
0
) and t is
(1) (2) (3) (4)
41. 1
Sol. According to Newtons law of cooling.
0
d
( )
dt
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0
d
k( )
dt
=
0
d
k dt
=
} }
ln(
0
) = kt + c
Hence the plot of ln(
0
) vs t should be a straight line with negative slope.
42. A particle of mass m is at rest at the origin at time t = 0. It is subjected to a force F (t) = F
0
e
bt
in the x
direction. Its speed v(t) is depicted by which of the following curves?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
42. 3
Sol.
bt
0
F F e
=
bt 0
F F
a e
m m
= =
bt 0
F dv
e
dt m
=
t
bt
0
F
dv e dt
m
=
} }
t
bt
0
F 1
v e
m b
(
( =
(
bt
F
v e
mb
( =
v = 0 at t = 0
and
F
v as t
mb
So, velocity increases continuously and attains a maximum value of
F
v as t
mb
= .
43. Two electric bulbs marked 25W 220V and 100W 220V are connected in series to a 440Vsupply.
Which of the bulbs will fuse?
(1) both (2) 100 W (3) 25 W (4) neither
43. 3
Sol. Resistances of both the bulbs are
2 2
1
1
V 220
R
P 25
= =
2 2
2
2
V 220
R
P 100
= =
Hence R
1
> R
2
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When connected in series, the voltages divide in them in the ratio of their resistances. The voltage of 440
V devides in such a way that voltage across 25 w bulb will be more than 220 V.
Hence 25 w bulb will fuse.
44. Resistance of a given wire is obtained by measuring the current flowing in it and the voltage difference
applied across it. If the percentage errors in the measurement of the current and the voltage difference
are 3% each, then error in the value of resistance of the wire is
(1) 6% (2) zero (3) 1% (4) 3%
44. 1
Sol.
V
R
i
=
R V i
R V i
= +
V
100 3
V
=
V
0.03
V
=
Similarly,
i
0.03
i
=
Hence
R
0.06
R
=
So percentage error is
R
100 6%
R
=
45. A boy can throw a stone up to a maximum height of 10 m. The maximum horizontal distance that the boy
can throw the same stone up to will be
(1) 20 2 m (2) 10 m (3) 10 2 m (4) 20 m
45. 4
Sol. maximum vertical height =
2
u
10m
2g
=
Horizontal range of a projectile =
2
u sin2
g
Range is maximum when = 45
0
Maximum horizontal range =
2
u
g
Hence maximum horizontal distance = 20 m.
46. This question has statement 1 and statement 2. Of the four choices given after the statements, choose
the one that best describes the two statements
Statement 1 : Davisson germer experiment established the wave nature of electrons.
Statement 2 : If electrons have wave nature, they can interfere and show diffraction.
(1) Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is true
(2) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false
(3) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is the correct explanation for statement 1
(4) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true, Statement 2 is not the correct explanation for statement 1.
46. 3
Sol. Davisson Germer experiment showed that electron beams can undergo diffraction when passed
through atomic crystals. This shows the wave nature of electrons as waves can exhibit interference and
diffraction.
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47. A thin liquid film formed between a Ushaped wire and a light slider supports a
weight of 1.5 x10
2
N (see figure). The length of the slider is 30 cm and its weight
negligible. The surface tension of the liquid film is
(1) 0.0125 Nm
1
(2) 0.1 Nm
1
(3) 0.05 Nm
1
(4) 0.025 Nm
1
w
FILM
47. 4
Sol. The force of surface tension acting on the
slider balances the force due to the weight.
F = 2T / = w
2T(0.3) = 1.5 x 10
2
T = 2.5 x 10
2
N/m
F = 2Tl
w
48. A charge Q is uniformly distributed over the surface of non conducting disc of radius R. The disc rotates
about an axis perpendicular to its plane and passing through its centre with an angular velocity . As a
result of this rotation a magnetic field of induction B is obtained at the centre of the disc. If we keep both
the amount of charge placed on the disc and its angular velocity to be constant and vary the radius of the
disc then the variation of the magnetic induction at the centre of the disc will be represented by the figure
B
R
B
R
B
R
B
R
(1) (2) (3) (4)
48. 1
Sol. Consider ring like element of disc of radius r and thickness dr.
If is charge per unit area, then charge on the element
dq = (2 r dr)
current i associated with rotating charge dq is
(dq)w
i w r dr
2
= =
Magnetic field dB at center due to element
0 0
i dr
dB
2r 2
= =
R
0
net
0
B dB dr
2
= =
} }
0
R
2
=
dr
r
2 0
net
Q
B Q R
2 R
( = =
So if Q and w are unchanged then
net
1
B
R
Hence variation of B
net
with R should be a rectangular hyperbola as represented in (1).
49. Truth table for system of four NAND gates as shown in figure is
A
B
Y
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A B Y
0
0
1
1
0
1
0
1
0
1
1
0
A B Y
0
0
1
1
0
1
0
1
0
0
1
1
A B Y
0
0
1
1
0
1
0
1
1
1
0
0
A B Y
0
0
1
1
0
1
0
1
1
0
0
1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
49. 1
Sol.
A B y y
1
y
2
y
0 0 1 1 1 0
0 1 1 1 0 1
1 0 1 0 1 1
1 1 0 1 1 0
50. A radar has a power of 1 Kw and is operating at a frequency of 10 GHz. It is located on a mountain top of
height 500 m. The maximum distance upto which it can detect object located on the surface of the earth
(Radius of earth = 6.4 x 10
6
m) is
(1) 80 km (2) 16 km (3) 40 km (4) 64 km
50. 1
Sol. Maximum distance on earth where object can be
detected is d, then
2 2 2
(h R) d R + = +
2 2
d h 2Rh = +
since h << R, d
2
= 2hR
6
d 2(500)(6.4 10 ) 80 = = km
R
h d
R
51. Assume that a neutron breaks into a proton and an electron. The energy released during this process is
(Mass of neutron = 1.6725 x 10
27
kg; mass of proton = 1.6725 x 10
27
kg; mass of electron = 9 x 10
31
kg)
(1) 0.73 MeV (2) 7.10 MeV (3) 6.30 MeV (4) 5.4 MeV
51. 1
Sol.
p e n
m (m m ) m = +
= 9 x 10
31
kg.
Energy released = (9 x 10
31
kg)c
2
joules
31 8 2
13
9 10 (3 10 )
MeV
1.6 10
= 0.73 MeV.
52. A Carnot engine, whose efficiency is 40%, takes in heat from a source maintained at a temperature of
500 K It is desired to have an engine of efficiency 60%. Then, the intake temperature for the same
exhaust (sink) temperature must be
(1) efficiency of Carnot engine cannot be made larger than 50%
(2) 1200 K (3) 750 K (4) 600 K
52. 3
Sol.
S
500 T 40
100 500
= , T
S
= 300 K
600 T 300
100 T
= T = 750 K
53. This question has statement 1 and statement 2. Of the four choices given after the statements, choose
the one that best describes the two statements.
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If two springs S
1
and S
2
of force constants k
1
and k
2
, respectively, are stretched by the same force, it is
found that more work is done on spring S
1
than on spring S
2
.
Statement 1 : If stretched by the same amount, work done on S
1
, will be more than that on S
2
Statement 2 : k
1
< k
2
(1) Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is true
(2) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false
(3) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is the correct explanation for statement 1
(4) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true, Statement 2 is not the correct explanation for statement 1.
53. 1
Sol. F = K
1
S
1
= K
2
S
2
W
1
= FS
1
, W
2
= FS
2
K
1
S
1
2
> K
2
S
2
2
S
1
> S
2
K
1
< K
2
W K
W
1
< W
2
54. Two cars of masses m
1
and m
2
are moving in circles of radii r
1
and r
2
, respectively. Their speeds are
such that they make complete circles in the same time t. The ratio of their centripetal acceleration is
(1) m
1
r
1
: m
2
r
2
(2) m
1
: m
2
(3) r
1
: r
2
(4) 1 : 1
54. 3
Sol. a r
55. A cylindrical tube, open at both ends, has a fundamental frequency, f, in air. The tube is dipped vertically
in water so that half of it is in water. The fundamental frequency of the aircolumn is now
(1) f (2)
f
2
(3)
3f
4
(4) 2f
55. 1
Sol. f
0
=
v
2/
f
C
=
v
2/
56. An object 2.4 m in front of a lens forms a sharp image on a film 12 cm behind the lens. A glass plate 1cm
thick, of refractive index 1.50 is interposed between lens and film with its plane faces parallel to film. At
what distance (from lens) should object be shifted to be in sharp focus on film?
(1) 7.2 m (2) 2.4 m (3) 3.2 m (4) 5.6 m
56. 4
Sol. Case I: u = 240cm, v = 12, by Lens formula
1 7
f 80
=
Case II: v = 12
1 35
3 3
= (normal shift =
2 1
1
3 3
= )
f =
7
80
u = 5.6
57. A diatomic molecule is made of two masses m
1
and m
2
which are separated by a distance r. If we
calculate its rotational energy by applying Bohr's rule of angular momentum quantization, its energy will
be given by (n is an integer)
(1)
2 2 2
1 2
2 2 2
1 2
(m m ) n h
2m m r
+
(2)
2 2
2
1 2
n h
2(m m )r +
(3)
2 2
2
1 2
2n h
(m m )r +
(4)
2 2
1 2
2
1 2
(m m )n h
2m m r
+
57. 4
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Sol. r
1
=
2
1 2
m r
m m +
; r
2
=
1
1 2
m r
m m +
(I
1
+ I
2
) =
nh
n
2
=
h
K.E =
1
2
(I
1
+ I
2
)
2
=
2 2
1 2
2
1 2
n (m m )
2m m r
+ h
58. A spectrometer gives the following reading when used to measure the angle of a prism.
Main scale reading: 58.5 degree
Vernier scale reading : 09 divisions
Given that 1 division on main scale corresponds to 0.5 degree. Total divisions on the vernier scale is 30
and match with 29 divisions of the main scale. The angle of the prism from the above data
(1) 58.59
o
(2) 58.77
o
(3) 58.65
o
(4) 59
o
58. 3
Sol. L.C =
1
60
Total Reading = 585 +
9
60
= 58.65
59. This question has statement 1 and statement 2. Of the four choices given after the statements, choose
the one that best describes the two statements.
An insulating solid sphere of radius R has a uniformly positive charge density . As a result of this
uniform charge distribution there is a finite value of electric potential at the centre of the sphere, at the
surface of the sphere and also at a point out side the sphere. The electric potential at infinity is zero.
Statement 1 : When a charge q is taken from the centre to the surface of the sphere, its potential energy
changes by
0
qp
3
Statement 2 : The electric field at a distance r(r < R) from the centre of the sphere is
0
r
3
(1) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true, Statement 2 is not the correct explanation for statement 1.
(2) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false
(3) Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is true
(4) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is the correct explanation for statement 1
59. 3
Sol.
3
0
1 4
E dA r
3
 
=

\ .
}
, ,
E =
0
r
3
Statement 2 is correct
PE = (V
sur
V
cent
)q =
2
0
q
R
6
Statement 1 is incorrect
60. Proton, Deuteron and alpha particle of the same kinetic energy are moving in circular trajectories in a
constant magnetic field. The radii of proton, deuteron and alpha particle are respectively r
p
, r
d
and r
.
Which one of the following relations is correct?
(1)
p d
r r r
= = (2)
p d
r r r
= < (3)
d p
r r r
= >
60. 2
Sol. r =
2mK
Bq
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r
m
q
r
= r
p
< r
d
PART C: CHEHISTRY
61. Which among the following will be named as dibromidobis(ethylene diamine)chromium(III) bromide ?
(1) ( )
3
3
Cr en Br (
(2) ( )
2
2
Cr en Br Br (
(3) ( )
4
Cr en Br
(
(4) ( )
2
Cr en Br Br (
61. 2
Sol. ( )
2
2
Cr en Br Br (
dibromido bis (ethylene diamine)chromium(III) bromide
62. Which method of purification is represented by the following equation :
( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
523K 1700K
2 4 2
Ti s 2I g TiI g Ti s 2I g + +
(1) zone refining (2) cupellation (3) Poling (4) Van Arkel
62. 4
Sol. Van Arkel method
( ) ( ) ( )
523K
2 4
Ti s 2I g TiI g +
( ) ( ) ( )
1700 K
4 2
TiI g Ti s 2I g +
63. Lithium forms body centred cubic structure. The length of the side of its unit cell is 351 pm. Atomic radius
of the lithium will be :
(1) 75 pm (2) 300 pm (3) 240 pm (4) 152 pm
63. 4
Sol. For BCC, = 3a 4r
3 351
r 152pm
4
= =
64. The molecule having smallest bond angle is :
(1) NCl
3
(2) AsCl
3
(3) SbCl
3
(4) PCl
3
64. 3
Sol. As the size of central atom increases lone pair bond pair repulsions increases so, bond angle
decreases
65. Which of the following compounds can be detected by Molischs test ?
(1) Nitro compounds (2) Sugars (3) Amines (4) Primary alcohols
65. 2
Sol. Molischs Test : when a drop or two of alcoholic solution of naphthol is added to sugar solution and
then conc. H
2
SO
4
is added along the sides of test tube, formation of violet ring takes place at the junction
of two liquids.
66. The incorrect expression among the following is :
(1)
system
total
G
T
S
=
66. 3
Sol. G = RTln K and =
0 0 0
G H T S
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67. The density of a solution prepared by dissolving 120 g of urea (mol. Mass = 60 u ) in 1000g of water is
1.15 g/mL. The molarity of this solution is :
(1) 0.50 M (2) 1.78 M (3) 1.02 M (4) 2.05 M
67. 4
Sol. Total weight of solution = 1000 + 120 = 1120 g
Molarity =
120 1000
2.05M
60 1120/1.15
=
68. The species which can best serve as an initiator for the cationic polymerization is :
(1) LiAlH
4
(2) HNO
3
(3) AlCl
3
(4) BuLi
68. 3
Sol. lewis acids can initiate the cationic polymerization.
69. Which of the following on thermal decomposition yields a basic as well as an acidic oxide ?
(1) NaNO
3
(2) KClO
3
(3) CaCO
3
(4) NH
4
NO
3
69. 3
Sol. CaCO
3
2
Basic
Acidic
CaO CO +
70. The standard reduction potentials for Zn
2+
/ Zn, Ni
2+
/ Ni, and Fe
2+
/ Fe are 0.76, 0.23 and 0.44 V
respectively. The reaction X + Y
2+
X
2+
+ Y will be spontaneous when :
(1) X = Ni, Y = Fe (2) X = Ni, Y = Zn (3) X = Fe, Y = Zn (4) X = Zn, Y = Ni
70. 4
Sol. Zn + Fe
+2
Zn
+2
+ Fe
Fe + Ni
+2
Fe
2+
+ Ni
Zn + Ni
2+
Zn
+2
+ Ni
All these are spontaneous
71. According to Freundlich adsorption isotherm, which of the following is correct ?
(1)
0
x
P
m
(2)
1
x
p
m
(3)
1/ n
x
p
m
(4) All the above are correct for different ranges of pressure
71. 4
Sol.
0
x
P
m
is true at extremely high pressures
1
x
p
m
;
1/ n
x
p
m
are true at low and moderate pressures
72. The equilibrium constant (K
C
) for the reaction N
2
(g) + O
2
(g) 2NO(g) at temperature T is 4 x 10
4
. The
value of K
C
for the reaction, NO(g) N
2
(g) + O
2
(g) at the same temperature is :
(1) 0.02 (2) 2.5 x 10
2
(3) 4 x 10
4
(4) 50.0
72. 4
Sol.
4
2 2 C
N O 2NO K 4 10
+ =
1
2 2 C
C
1 1 1
NO N O K
2 2 K
+ =
1
C
4
1
K 50
4 10
= =
73. The compressibility factor for a real gas at high pressure is :
(1) 1 + RT/pb (2) 1 (3) 1 + pb/RT (4) 1pb/RT
73. 3
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Sol. At high pressure Z =
Pb
1
RT
+
74. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
(1) All amino acids except lysine are optically active
(2) All amino acids are optically active
(3) All amino acids except glycine are optically active
(4) All amino acids except glutamic acid are optically active
74. 3
Sol.
CH
2
NH
2
COOH
Glycine
75. Aspirin is known as :
(1) Acetyl salicylic acid (2) Phenyl salicylate
(3) Acetyl salicylate (4) Methyl salicylic acid
75. 1
Sol.
O
COOH
C
O
CH
3
Aspirin
Acetyl salicylic acid
76. OrthoNitrophenol is less soluble in water than p and m Nitrophenols because :
(1) oNitrophenol is more volatile in steam than those of m and pisomers
(2) oNitrophenol shows Intramolecular Hbonding
(3) oNitrophenol shows Intermolecular Hbonding
(4) Melting point of oNitrophenol is lower than those of mand pisomers.
76. 2
Sol.
N
O
O
H
O
Intramolecular Hbonding decreases water solubility.
77. How many chiral compounds are possible on monochlorination of 2methyl butane ?
(1) 8 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 6
77. 2
Sol. ( )
3 2 3 3
H C CH CH CH CH on monochlorination gives
( ) ( )
( )
2 2 3 3
I
Achiral
H C Cl CH CH CH CH ( ) ( )
( )
3 3 3
II
Chiral
H C CH Cl CH CH CH
C H
3
CH
2
C
CH
3
Cl
CH
3
CH
2
CH
CH
2
CH
3
C H
3
Cl
(IV)
chiral
(III)
Achiral
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78. Very pure hydrogen (99.9%) can be made by which of the following processes ?
(1) Reaction of methane with steam
(2) Mixing natural hydrocarbons of high molecular weight
(3) Electrolysis of water
(4) Reaction of salt like hydrides with water
78. 3
Sol. Highly pure hydrogen is obtained by the electrolysis of water.
79. The electrons identified by quantum numbers n and l :
(a) n = 4, l = 1 (b) n = 4, l = 0 (c) n = 3, l = 2 (d) n = 3 , l = 1
Can be placed in order of increasing energy as :
(1) (c) < (d) < (b) < (a) (2) (d) < (b) < (c) < (a) (3) (b) < (d) < (a) < (c) (4) (a) < (c) < (b) < (d)
79. 2
Sol. (a) (n + l) = 4 + 1 = 5 (b) (n + l) = 4 + 0 = 4 (c) (n + 1) = 3 + 2 = 5 (d) (n + 1) = 3 + 1 = 4
80. For a first order reaction, (A) products, the concentration of A changes from 0.1 M to 0.025 M in 40
minutes. The rate of reaction when the concentration of A is 0.01 M is :
(1) 1.73 x 10
5
M/ min (2) 3.47 x 10
4
M/min
(3) 3.47 x 10
5
M/min (4) 1.73 x 10
4
M/min
80. 2
Sol. =
2.303 0.1
k log
40 0.025
=
0.693
k
20
For a F.O.R., rate=k[A]; rate =
2 4
0.693
10 3.47 10 M/ min.
20
=
81. Iron exhibits + 2 and +3 oxidation states. Which of the following statements about iron is incorrect ?
(1) Ferrous oxide is more basic in nature than the ferric oxide.
(2) Ferrous compounds are relatively more ionic than the corresponding ferric compounds
(3) Ferrous compounds are less volatile than the corresponding ferric compounds.
(4) Ferrous compounds are more easily hydrolysed than the corresponding ferric compounds.
81. 4
Sol. FeO More basic, more ionic, less volatile
82. The pH of a 0.1 molar solution of the acid HQ is 3. The value of the ionization constant, Ka of this acid is :
(1) 3 x 10
1
(2) 1 x 10
3
(3) 1 x 10
5
(4) 1 x 10
7
82. 3
Sol.
3 1
a a
H K .C 10 K .10
+
(
= =
K
a
= 10
5
83. Which branched chain isomer of the hydrocarbon with molecular mass 72u gives only one isomer of
mono substituted alky halide ?
(1) Tertiary butyl chloride (2) Neopentane
(3) Isohexane (4) Neohexane
83. 2
Sol.
C H
3
C
CH
3
CH
3
CH
3
C H
3
C
CH
3
CH
3
CH
2
Cl
Neopentane
Mol. wt = 72u
only one compound
mono chlorination
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84. K
f
for water is 1.86K kg mol
1
. If your automobile radiator holds 1.0 kg of water, how many grams of
ethylene glycol (C
2
H
6
O
2
) must you add to get the freezing point of the solution lowered to 2.8C ?
(1) 72g (2) 93g (3) 39g (4) 27g
84. 2
Sol.
f f
T K .m =
wt 1000
2.8 1.86
62 1000
=
Wt = 93g
85. What is DDT among the following :
(1) Greenhouse gas (2) A fertilizer
(3) Biodegradable pollutant (4) Nonbiodegradable pollutant
85. 4
Sol. DDT nonbiodegradable pollutant.
86. The increasing order of the ionic radii of the given isoelectronic species is :
(1) Cl
, Ca
2+
, K
+
, S
2
(2) S
2
, Cl
, Ca
2+
, K
+
(3) Ca
2+
, K
+
, Cl
, S
2
(4) K
+
, S
2
, Ca
2+
, Cl
86. 3
Sol. For isoelectronic species, as the z/e decreases, ionic radius increases
87. 2Hexyne gives trans2Hexene on treatment with :
(1) Pt/H
2
(2) Li/NH
3
(3) Pd/BaSO
4
(4) LiAlH
4
87. 2
Sol.
C H
3
CH
2
CH
2
C C CH
3
C C
H
7
C
3
H CH
3
H
2Hexyne
Li/NH
3
Birch reduction
Trans2Hexene
88. Iodoform can be prepared from all except :
(1) Ethyl methyl ketone (2) Isopropyl alcohol
(3) 3Methyl 2 butanone (4) Isobutyl alcohol
88. 4
Sol. Iodoform is given by 1) methyl ketones RCOCH
3
2) alcohols of the type RCH(OH)CH
3
where R can be hydrogen also
C H
3
C
O
C
2
H
5
C H
3
CH
CH
3
OH
C H
3
C
O
CH
CH
3
CH
3
Isopropyl alchol
ethyl methyl ketone
3methyl 2butanone
can give Iodoform Test
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C H
3
CH
CH
3
CH
2
OH
Isobutyl alcohol
can't give
89. In which of the following pairs the two species are not isostructural ?
(1)
2
3 3
CO and NO
(2)
4 4
PCl and SiCl
+
(3) PF
5
and BrF
5
(4)
3
6 6
AlF and SF
89. 3
Sol. (1)
2 2
3 3
CO &NO Sp
hybridized, Trigonal planar
(2)
3
4 4
PCl & SiCl Sp
+
hybridized, Tetrahedral
(3) PF
5
Sp
3
d hybridized, Trigonal bipyramidal
BrF
5
Sp
3
d
2
hybridized, square pyramidal
(4)
3 3 2
6 6
AlF &SF Sp d
hybridized, octahedral
90. In the given transformation, which of the following is the most appropriate reagent ?
CH
HO
CHCOCH
3
CH
HO
CHCH
2
CH
3
Reagent
(1)
( )
2 2
NH NH , OH
1. The candidates should fill in the required particulars on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet
(Side1) with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen.
2. For writing/marking particulars on Side2 of the Answer Sheet, use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen
only.
3. The candidates should not write their Roll Numbers anywhere else (except in the specified
space) on the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
4. Out of the four options given for each question, only one option is the correct answer.
5. For each incorrect response, onefourth (1/4) of the total marks allotted to the question would
be deducted from the total score. No deduction from the total score, however, will be made if
no response is indicated for an item in the Answer Sheet
6. Handle the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet with care, as under no circumstance (except for
discrepancy in Test Booklet Code and Answer Sheet Code), will another set be provided.
7. The candidates are not allowed to do any rough work or writing work on the Answer Sheet. All
calculations/writing work are to be done in the space provided for this purpose, in the Test
Booklet itself, marked 'Space for Rough Work'. This space is given at the bottom of each page
and in 3 pages (Pages 21  23) at the end of the booklet.
8. On completion of the test, the candidates must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on
duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet
with them.
9. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admit Card to the Invigilator.
10. No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, should leave
his/her seat.
11. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet
to the Invigilator on duty and sign the Attendance Sheet again. Cases where a candidate has
not signed the Attendance Sheet a second time will be deemed not to have handed over the
Answer Sheet and dealt with as an unfair means case. The candidates are also required to
put their left hand THUMB impression in the space provided in the Attendance Sheet.
12. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator and any Electronic Item like mobile phone, pager etc. is
prohibited.
13. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the Board with regard to their
conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and
Regulations of the Board.
14. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.
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pager, mobile phone, electronic device or any other material except the Admit Card inside the
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KEY (SET  C}
PART A: HATHEHATICS
1. 2 2. 3 3. 3 4. 2
5. 1 6. 4 7. 2 8. 4
9. 1 10. 4 11. 1 12. 1
13. 3 14. 4 15. 1 16. 3
17. 3 18. 4 19. 1 20. 3
21. 2 22. 1 23. 3 24. 2 or 4
25. 1 26. 2 27. 4 28. 2
29. 3 30. 2
PART B: PHYSICS
31. 4 32. 4 33. 3 34. 3
35. 4 36. 4 37. 4 38. 4
39. 1 40. 4 41. 1 42. 3
43. 3 44. 1 45. 4 46. 3
47. 4 48. 1 49. 1 50. 1
51. 1 52. 3 53. 1 54. 3
55. 1 56. 4 57. 4 58. 3
59. 3 60. 2
PART C: CHEHISTRY
61. 2 62. 4 63. 4 64. 3
65. 2 66. 3 67. 4 68. 3
69. 3 70. 4 71. 4 72. 4
73. 3 74. 3 75. 1 76. 2
77. 2 78. 3 79. 2 80. 2
81. 4 82. 3 83. 2 84. 2
85. 4 86. 3 87. 2 88. 4
89. 3 90. 1
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