01 –GENERAL Question 1 of 109

Number: 399 Question: Which of the following statements is correct ? 1. If a clearway or a stopway is used, the lift-off point must be attainable at least at the end of the

permanent runway surface. 2. An underrun is an area beyond the runway end which can be used for an aborted take-off. 3. A clearway is an area beyond the runway which can be used for an aborted take-off. 4. A stopway means an area beyond the take-off runway, able to support the aeroplane during an aborted

take-off.

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Question 2 of 109
Number: 293 Question: Consider the graphic representation of the power required versus the true airspeed (TAS), for a piston-engined aeroplane with a given mass. The tangent from the point of origin to the point of contact on the curve, at

1. maximum thrust. 2. maximum endurance. 3. critical angle of attack.

4. maximum specific range.

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Question 3 of 109
Number: 294 Question: For a piston engine aeroplane, the speed for maximum range is:

1. that which gives the minimum value of induced drag. 2. that which gives the maximum value of lift 3. 1.4 times the stall speed in clean configuration.

4. that which gives the maximum lift to drag ratio.

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Question 4 of 109
Number: 1075

Question: An airport has a 3000 metres long runway, and a 2000 metres clearway at each end of that runway. For the calculation of the maximum allowed take-off mass, the take-off distance available cannot be greater than:

1. 5000 metres.

2. 4500 metres. 3. 6000 metres. 4. 4000 metres.

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Question 5 of 109
Number: 840 Question: Assuming that the required lift exists, which forces determine an aeroplane's angle of climb?

1. 2. 3. 4.

Weight, drag and thrust. Weight and thrust only. Weight and drag only. Thrust and drag only.

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Question 6 of 109
Number: 841 Question: How does the best angle of climb and best rate of climb vary with increasing altitude for an aeroplane with a normal aspirated piston engine?

1. Best angle of climb increases while best rate of climb decreases. 2. Both increase.

3. Both decrease. 4. Best angle of climb decreases while best rate of climb increases.

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Question 7 of 109
Number: 844 Question: The angle of climb with flaps extended, compared to that with flaps retracted, will normally be:

1. Not change. 2. Increase at moderate flap setting, decrease at large flap setting.

3. smaller.

4. Larger.

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Question 8 of 109
Number: 850 Question: How does the specific range change when the altitude increases for jet aeroplane flying with the speed for maximum range?

1. Decreases. 2. Does not change. 3. Increases only if there is no wind.

4. First increases than decreases.

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Question 9 of 109
Number: 851 Question: At Reference. Assuming constant L/D ratio, which of the diagrams provided correctly shows the movement of the "Thrust Required Curve". Mass m1 is higher than mass m2.

1. a 2. d 3. b

4. c

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Question 10 of 109
Number: 814 Question: The length of a clearway may be included in:

1. the take-off run available. 2. the accelerate-stop distance available. 3. the distance to reach V1.

4. the take-off distance available.

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Question 11 of 109
Number: 405 Question: Which of the following are to be taken into account for the runway in use for take-off ?

1. Airport elevation, runway slope, outside air temperature, pressure altitude and wind components.

2. Airport elevation, runway slope, standard temperature, pressure altitude and wind components. 3. Airport elevation, runway slope, outside air temperature, standard pressure and wind components. 4. Airport elevation, runway slope, standard temperature, standard pressure and wind components.

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Question 12 of 109
Number: 407 Question: Changing the take-off flap setting from flap 15° to flap 5° will normally result in:

1. a shorter take-off distance and an equal climb. 2. a shorter take-off distance and a better climb. 3. a better climb and an equal take-off distance.

4. a longer take-off distance and a better climb.

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Question 13 of 109
Number: 801 Question: What will be the effect on an aeroplane's performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is decreased?

1. 2. 3. 4.

It will decrease the take-off distance required. It will increase the accelerate stop distance. It will increase the take-off ground run. It will increase the take-off distance required.

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Question 14 of 109
Number: 802 Question: If the aerodrome pressure altitude increases it will:

1. increase the take-off distance available. 2. decrease the take-off distance. 3. decrease the take-off run.

4. increase the take-off distance.

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Question 15 of 109

Number: 2739 Question: Considering a rate of climb diagram (ROC versus TAS) for an aeroplane. Which of the diagrams shows the correct curves for "flaps down" compared to "clean" configuration?

1. b

2. a 3. d 4. c

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Question 16 of 109
Number: 2740 Question: What is the most important aspect of the 'backside of the power curve'?

1. The altitude cannot be maintained.

2. The speed is unstable. 3. The elevator must be pulled to lower the nose. 4. The aeroplane will not stall.

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Question 17 of 109
Number: 2741 Question: What is the effect of increased mass on the performance of a gliding aeroplane?

1. The gliding angle decreases. 2. There is no effect. 3. The lift/drag ratio decreases.

4. The speed for best angle of descent increases.

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Question 18 of 109
Number: 2777 Question: Which force compensates the weight in unaccelerated straight and level flight ?

1. the thrust 2. the resultant from lift and drag 3. the drag

4. the lift

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Question 19 of 109
Number: 2778 Question: In which of the flight conditions listed below is the thrust required equal to the drag?

1. 2. 3. 4.

In level flight with constant IAS In a climb with constant IAS In a descent with constant TAS In accelerated level flight

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Question 20 of 109
Number: 2779 Question: The load factor in a turn in level flight with constant TAS depends on

1. the radius of the turn and the bank angle. 2. the true airspeed and the bank angle. 3. the radius of the turn and the weight of the aeroplane.

4. the bank angle only.

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Question 21 of 109
Number: 2780 Question: The induced drag of an aeroplane

1. increases with increasing airspeed. 2. is independent of the airspeed.

3. decreases with increasing airspeed. 4. decreases with increasing gross weight.

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Question 22 of 109
Number: 2781 Question: The induced drag of an aeroplane at constant mass in un-accelerated level flight is greatest at:

4. maximum specific range. VA 3. at stalling speed (VS). is the same as the minimum drag speed. is always higher than the minimum drag speed. minimum specific range. 3. the point where a tangent from the origin touches the drag curve. the lowest achievable speed in a given configuration 4. Flag this question Question 24 of 109 Number: 2783 Question: The point where Drag coefficient/Lift coefficient is a minimum is 1. minimum drag.1. VMO 2. 2. 3. 3. Flag this question Question 25 of 109 Number: 2784 Question: The airspeed for jet aeroplanes at which "power required" is minimum 1. . 4. VS1 Flag this question Question 23 of 109 Number: 2782 Question: The lowest point of the thrust required curve of a jet aeroplane is the point for: 1. maximum endurance. on the "back side" of the drag curve. 2. 2. the lowest point of the drag curve. is always lower than the minimum drag speed.

2. Flag this question Question 27 of 109 Number: 2786 Question: At a higher gross mass on a piston-engined aeroplane. 2. Flag this question Question 29 of 109 Number: 2788 Question: An aeroplane with reciprocating engines is flying at a constant angle of attack. the airspeed must be decreased and the drag will increase. configuration and altitude: 1. a higher coefficient of drag is required. is lower than the minimum drag speed in the climb and higher than the minimum drag speed in the descent.4. an increase in airspeed and power is required. configuration and altitude at higher gross mass 1. the point at which a tangent from the origin touches the power required curve: 1. is the maximum drag speed. is the point where the Lift to Drag ratio is a maximum. in order to maintain a given angle of attack. 3. the airspeed must be increased and the drag will also increase. an increase in airspeed is required but power setting does not change. Flag this question Question 28 of 109 Number: 2787 Question: On a reciprocating engine aeroplane. mass and configuration. 4. is the point where the Lift to Drag ratio is a minimum. Flag this question Question 26 of 109 Number: 2785 Question: On the Power versus TAS graph for level flight. the lift/drag ratio must be increased. 4. 2. With increasing altitude the drag . 4. is the point where Drag coefficient is a minimum. 3. 3. requires an increase in power and decrease in the airspeed. the airspeed must be increased and the drag will remain unchanged. to maintain a given angle of attack.

but not beyond. remains unchanged but the TAS increases. 2. angle of attack and configuration the power required 1. 3. 2. increases the power required. moving the Centre of Gravity from the forward safe limit to the aft safe limit: 1. a Centre of Gravity close to. Flag this question Question 30 of 109 Number: 2789 Question: On a reciprocating engine aeroplane. 4. improves the longitudinal stability. decreases and the CAS decreases too because of the lower air density. affects neither drag nor power required. decreases the maximum range. . 4. 2. decreases slightly because of the lower air density. Flag this question Question 32 of 109 Number: 2791 Question: Compared to a more forward position. increases the stalling speed. increases but TAS remains constant.1. Flag this question Question 31 of 109 Number: 2790 Question: Assuming the gross mass. with increasing altitude at constant gross mass. 2. 3. altitude and airspeed remain unchanged. remains unchanged but the TAS increases. increases and the TAS increases by the same percentage. the aft limit: 1. increases the induced drag. decreases the induced drag and reduces the power required. 3. 4. remains unchanged but the the CAS increases. 3. increases at constant TAS.

a lower speed requires a higher thrust. 3. Flag this question Question 34 of 109 Number: 2800 Question: In straight horizontal steady flight. a higher speed requires a higher thrust. 4. more thrust and a lower coefficient of lift. 3. at speeds below that for minimum drag: 1. 2. 4. the aeroplane can not be controlled manually.4. 2. Flag this question Question 35 of 109 Number: 2801 Question: A lower airspeed at constant mass and altitude requires 1. in unaccelerated climb. in descent with constant IAS. more thrust and a lower coefficient of drag. Flag this question Question 36 of 109 Number: 2803 . the aeroplane can be controlled only in level flight. improves the maximum range. 4. in unaccelerated level flight. 2. a higher coefficient of lift. 3. less thrust and a lower coefficient of lift. Flag this question Question 33 of 109 Number: 2799 Question: The intersections of the thrust available and the drag curve are the operating points of the aeroplane 1. in accelerated level flight.

3. 4. a thrust reduction results in an acceleration of the aeroplane. SR = Indicated Airspeed/Total Fuel Flow 2. but the stopway must have the same width as the runway. No. 4. 2. Flag this question Question 37 of 109 Number: 2804 Question: When flying the "Backside of Thrust curve" means 1. a lower airspeed requires less thrust because drag is decreased. Flag this question Question 38 of 109 Number: 2807 Question: Which of the equations below defines specific range (SR)? 1. Yes. 3. 2. Yes.Question: The coefficient of lift can be increased either by flap extension or by 1. decreasing the 'nose-up' elevator trim setting. unless its centreline is on the extended centreline of the runway. increasing the CAS. increasing the angle of attack. 3. a lower airspeed requires more thrust. No. the thrust required is independent of the airspeed. SR = Mach Number/Total Fuel Flow Flag this question Question 39 of 109 Number: 2812 Question: Can the length of a stopway be added to the runway length to determine the take-off distance available ? 1. SR = True Airspeed/Total Fuel Flow 4. 2. increasing the TAS. . SR = Groundspeed/Total Fuel Flow 3. but the stopway must be able to carry the weight of the aeroplane. 4.

2. the length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway available. 4. Flag this question Question 42 of 109 Number: 2822 Question: The take-off distance required increases 1. 3. decreases the field length limited take-off mass. 2. the runway length minus stopway. due to head wind because of the drag augmentation. 4. decreases the take-off distance. . 3. due to slush on the runway. 3. the runway length plus half of the clearway.Flag this question Question 40 of 109 Number: 2816 Question: The take-off distance available is 1. Flag this question Question 43 of 109 Number: 2823 Question: Due to standing water on the runway the field length limited take-off mass will be 1. has no influence on the allowed take-off mass. 2. due to downhill slope because of the smaller angle of attack. Flag this question Question 41 of 109 Number: 2820 Question: A higher pressure altitude at ISA temperature 1. 2. lower. the total runway length. due to lower gross mass at take-off. higher. 4. increases the climb limited take-off mass. without clearway even if this one exists.

by headwind. 2. 3. by a lower take-off mass because the aeroplane accelerates faster to V1. unaffected. Flag this question Question 46 of 109 Number: 2843 Question: In unaccelerated climb 1. only higher for three and four engine aeroplanes. The specific range increases and the optimum altitude decreases. 2. 2. by uphill slope. Flag this question Question 45 of 109 Number: 2841 Question: On a long distance flight the gross mass decreases continuously as a consequence of the fuel consumption. lift equals weight plus the vertical component of the drag. . Flag this question Question 44 of 109 Number: 2824 Question: On a dry runway the accelerate stop distance is increased 1. thrust equals drag plus the downhill component of the gross weight in the flight path direction. thrust equals drag plus the uphill component of the gross weight in the flight path direction.3. 4. The specific range decreases and the optimum altitude increases. 3. The specific range and the optimum altitude increases. Flag this question Question 47 of 109 Number: 2845 Question: The rate of climb is approximately equal to: 1. lift is greater than the gross weight. 3. 4. The result is: 1. The speed must be increased to compensate the lower mass. 4. by low outside air temperature. the angle of climb multiplied by the TAS. 4.

the aeroplane decelerates if the altitude is maintained. the increase of altitude to horizontal air distance expressed as a percentage. 3. 4.2. 1. the aeroplane decelerates if it is in the region of reversed command. 3. 2. the aeroplane accelerates if the altitude is maintained. the angle of climb divided by the TAS. 4. Flag this question Question 49 of 109 Number: 2847 Question: Any acceleration in climb. 2. improves the rate of climb if the airspeed is below VY. with a constant power setting. 2. rate of climb to true airspeed. 3. the increase of altitude to distance over ground expressed as a percentage. true airspeed to rate of climb. the still-air gradient divided by the TAS. Flag this question Question 50 of 109 Number: 2850 Question: The 'climb gradient' is defined as the ratio of 1. 3. improves the climb gradient if the airspeed is below VX. Flag this question Question 51 of 109 Number: 2852 Question: A higher outside air temperature . the aeroplane descends if the airspeed is maintained. decreases rate of climb and increases angle of climb. 4. decreases the rate of climb and the angle of climb. Flag this question Question 48 of 109 Number: 2846 Question: If the thrust available exceeds the thrust required for level flight 1. 4. the still-air gradient multiplied by the TAS.

increases the angle of descent. 3. 2. (assuming IAS is constant) 1. 2. increases the angle of climb but decreases the rate of climb. increases the descent distance over ground. 3. has no effect on rate of climb. is the altitude at which the best climb gradient attainable is 5% 4. as compared to zero wind condition. 4. Flag this question Question 54 of 109 Number: 2863 Question: The absolute ceiling 1. 3. 4. is the altitude at which the rate of climb theoretically is zero.1. 4. 2. 2. does not have any effect on the angle of flight path during climb. does not have any noticeable effect on climb performance. decreases angle and rate of climb. can be reached only with minimum steady flight speed . Flag this question Question 53 of 109 Number: 2854 Question: A constant headwind 1. reduces the angle and the rate of climb. increases the angle of the descent flight path. improves angle and rate of climb. is the altitude at which the aeroplane reaches a maximum rate of climb of 100 ft/min. reduces the angle of climb but increases the rate of climb. 3. Flag this question Question 52 of 109 Number: 2853 Question: A headwind component increasing with altitude. increases the rate of descent.

mass and fuel on board. 4. is the altitude at which the best rate of climb theoretically is zero. is the altitude at which the speeds for low speed buffet and for high speed buffet are the same. speed. is the altitude at which the aeroplane reaches 50 ft/min. 1.Drag)/Weight) x 100 Climb Gradient = ((Thrust + Drag)/Lift) x 100 Climb Gradient = (Lift/Weight) x 100 Climb Gradient = ((Thrust . Question 56 of 109 Number: 2665 Question: In a given configuration the endurance of a piston engine aeroplane only depends on: 1. the maximum CL/CD² ratio 3. 4. Flag this question Question 57 of 109 Number: 13329 Question: For a jet aeroplane. 3. 2. 4. mass and fuel on board. the maximum CL/CD ratio Flag this question Question 58 of 109 Number: 13346 Question: What is the equation for the climb gradient expressed in percentage during unaccelerated flight (applicable to small angles only) 1. speed and mass. depends upon thrust setting and increase with increasing thrust. Climb Gradient = ((Thrust . 2. altitude. 3. the maximum climb angle is achieved at a speed corresponding to: 1. 2. 3.1 Vs 4. 1. altitude.Question 55 of 109 Number: 2864 Question: The aerodynamic ceiling 1. speed.Mass)/Lift) x 100 .2 Vs 2. speed and mass.

a headwind component 1.000 feet over mountains. decreases the ground distance flown during that climb. High temperature and high relative humidity 4. 3. altitude read directly from the altimeter 3. . is used to calculate the FL above the Transition Altitude. Flag this question Question 61 of 109 Number: 2085 Question: Which of the following combinations adversely affects take-off and initial climb performance ? 1. is used to establish minimum clearance of 2. 2. Low temperature and low relative humidity 2. height above the surface 2. 3. is equal to the pressure altitude. 2. High temperature and low relative humidity 3.Flag this question Question 59 of 109 Number: 2083 Question: Density altitude is the 1. decreases the climb time. altitude reference to the standard datum plane Flag this question Question 60 of 109 Number: 2084 Question: The Density Altitude 1. is used to determine the aeroplane performance. pressure altitude corrected for 'non standard' temperature 4. increases the amount of fuel for the climb. Low temperature and high relative humidity Flag this question Question 62 of 109 Number: 2087 Question: During climb to the cruising level. 4.

that the IAS must be decreased. Distance from brake release to V2. 4. distance to V1 and stop. the altitude where the rate of climb reduces to 100 ft/min is called: 1. increases the climb time. 100 ft/min 4. 3. 2. Flag this question Question 65 of 109 Number: 2090 Question: The maximum rate of climb that can be maintained at the absolute ceiling is: 1.4. 2. 125 ft/min 2. none. that the IAS must be increased. Flag this question Question 64 of 109 Number: 2089 Question: During climb with all engines. Service ceiling. Thrust ceiling. . Absolute ceiling. Aerodynamic ceiling. 2. 0 ft/min Flag this question Question 66 of 109 Number: 2157 Question: Take-off run is defined as the 1. 500 ft/min 3. Flag this question Question 63 of 109 Number: 2088 Question: The effect that a tailwind has on the value of the maximum endurance speed is: 1. that a tailwind only affects the holding speed. assuming an engine failure at V1. 4. 3.

Figure a 3. what is the effect of a lower mass? Rate of descent / Glide angle / CL/CD ratio 1. increases / increases / constant . T . Figure d Flag this question Question 68 of 109 Number: 1445 Question: In a steady descending flight (descent angle GAMMA) equilibrium of forces acting on the aeroplane is given by: (T = Thrust. If the forward speed is kept constant.D = W sin GAMMA 4. D = Drag. T + W sin GAMMA = D 3.W sin GAMMA 2.3. increases / constant / increases 3. horizontal distance along the take-off path from the start of the take-off to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane is 35 ft above the take-off surface. Figure c 4. T . W = Weight) 1. Figure b 2. increases / increases / decreases 4. distance to 35 feet with an engine failure at V1 or 115% all engine distance to 35 feet. decreases / constant / decreases 2. T + D = . 4.W sin GAMMA = D Flag this question Question 69 of 109 Number: 1446 Question: An aeroplane executes a steady glide at the speed for minimum glide angle. Flag this question Question 67 of 109 Number: 1444 Question: Which of the following diagrams correctly shows the movement of the power required curve with increasing altitude from H1 to H2? 1.

Flag this question Question 73 of 109 Number: 1458 Question: Which of the following combinations basically has an effect on the angle of descent in a glide? (Ignore compressibility effects. 4. 2. Flag this question Question 72 of 109 Number: 1449 Question: The maximum indicated air speed of a piston engine aeroplane without turbo charger. decreases. The speed for minimum drag. at the optimum cruise altitude. at the lowest possible altitude. 4.Flag this question Question 70 of 109 Number: 1447 Question: An aeroplane is in a power off glide at speed for minimum glide angle. 2. 2. 3. at the service ceiling. 3. The speed for maximum lift coefficient. 4. in level flight. at the practical ceiling. increases. Flag this question Question 71 of 109 Number: 1448 Question: Maximum endurance for a piston engine aeroplane is achieved at: 1. may increase or decrease depending on the type of aeroplane.) . is reached: 1. 3. The speed that corresponds to the speed for maximum climb angle. The speed that approximately corresponds to the maximum rate of climb speed. If the pilot increases pitch attitude the glide distance: 1. remains the same.

3. 2. . 3. 2. the maximum range speed decreases and the maximum gradient climb speed increases. Flag this question Question 74 of 109 Number: 1459 Question: Two identical aeroplanes at different masses are descending atzero wind and zero thrust. 2. the maximum range speed decreases and the maximum gradient climb speed is not affected. The maximum thrust is equal to the total drag. the maximum range speed increases and the maximum gradient climb speed is not affected. Altitude and configuration. 3. 4. At a given angle of attack the lighter aeroplane will always glide further than the heavier aeroplane. 2. At a given angle of attack the heavier aeroplane will always glide further than the lighter aeroplane.1. the maximum range speed decreases and the maximum gradient climb speed decreases. Flag this question Question 76 of 109 Number: 1462 Question: The maximum speed in horizontal flight occurs when: 1. Configuration and mass. The thrust is equal to minimum drag. the effect a headwind has on the values of the maximum range speed and the maximum gradient climb speed respectively is that: 1. The thrust does not increase further with increasing speed. 4. 4. At a given angle of attack. 3. both the vertical and the forward speed are greater for the heavier aeroplane. Configuration and angle of attack. Flag this question Question 75 of 109 Number: 1460 Question: Compared with still-air. Mass and altitude. The thrust is equal to the maximum drag. Which of the following statements correctly describes their descent characteristics ? 1. 4. There is no difference between the descent characteristics of the two aeroplanes.

the actual take-off mass equals the field length limited take-off mass. the distance from brake release to V1 will be equal to the distance from V1 to the 35 feet point. while maintaining the appropriate minimum glide angle speed? 1. Tailwind. Headwind. 4. 2. 4. Tailwind. Flag this question Question 79 of 109 Number: 1669 Question: When an aircraft takes off with the mass limited by the TODA: 1. Flag this question Question 80 of 109 Number: 2035 Question: A four jet-engine aeroplane (mass = 150 000 kg) is established on climb with all engines operating. the end of the runway will be cleared by 35 feet following an engine failure at V1. 3. Decrease of aircraft mass. 2. 3. High mass. Each engine has a thrust of 75 000 Newton. 3.Flag this question Question 77 of 109 Number: 1472 Question: Which of the following factors will lead to an increase of ground distance during a glide. 4. The lift-to-drag ratio is 14. 2. Increase of aircraft mass. Low mass. The gradient of climb is: (given: g= 10 m/s²) . Headwind. Flag this question Question 78 of 109 Number: 1473 Question: Which of the following factors leads to the maximum flight time of a glide? 1. the "balanced take-off distance" equals 115% of the "all engine take-off distance".

286%. independent of the aircraft mass. 3.86%. the minimum drag decreases and the IAS for minimum drag decreases. 4. a function of the density altitude. Flag this question Question 82 of 109 Number: 1954 Question: Which of the following statements is correct? 1. the minimum drag decreases and the IAS for minimum drag increases.05 VMCG. 3. 3. 1. Flag this question Question 81 of 109 Number: 1953 Question: Regarding unaccelerated horizontal flight. proportional to aircraft mass. 2. the minimum drag increases and the IAS for minimum drag increases. . a function of the pressure altitude. 2. 2.1. 4. VR should not be higher than 1. 4.86%. 4. 7. 3. VR is the speed at which. the nose wheel comes off the runway. during rotation. Minimum Drag is: 1. 12. Flag this question Question 83 of 109 Number: 1955 Question: If the aircraft mass. 27%. VR is the speed at which the pilot should start to rotate the aeroplane. VR should not be higher than V1. in a horizontal unaccelerated flight. 2. the minimum drag increases and the IAS for minimum drag decreases. decreases: 1.

T : ISA Pressure Altitude: 4000 ft Headwind component: 5 kt Flaps: up Runway: Tarred and Dry Factored runway length: 2000 ft Obstacle height: 50 ft 1.1. 3200 lbs Flag this question Question 87 of 109 Number: 3587 . 2. 3. Flag this question Question 85 of 109 Number: 3580 Question: At reference or see Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2. With regard to the landing chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the landing distance from a height of 50 ft . With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the maximum allowable take off mass . 4. accelerate-stop distance available. 3.Flag this question Question 84 of 109 Number: 1946 Question: The stopway is an area which allows an increase only in the: 1.A. landing distance available.A. 2. Given : O. approximately:1800 feet approximately: 1450 feet approximately: 1300 feet approximately: 2000 feet Flag this question Question 86 of 109 Number: 3582 Question: At reference or see Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2. 4. take-off distance available. > 3650 lbs 3. Given : O.firm soil 1.T : ISA +15°C Pressure Altitude: 0 ft Aeroplane Mass: 2940 lbs Headwind component: 10 kt Flaps: Landing position (down) Runway: short and wet grass. 2900 lbs 4. take-off run available. 3000 lbs 2.4.

A. determine the landing distance (from a screen height of 50 ft) .5 cm of wet snow. Using the Landing Diagram. in relation to that for a dry runway: . 2375 ft 1600 ft 2000 ft 1900 ft Flag this question Question 88 of 109 Number: 3597 Question: At reference or see Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2. 1020 ft 2. The landing distance will be. both limitations are increased 3.T : 30°C Pressure Altitude: 1000 ft Aeroplane Mass: 2950 lbs Tailwind component: 5 kt Flaps: Approach setting Runway: Short. in the following conditions: Given : Pressure altitude: 4000 ft O. Considering a take-off with flaps at: 1. for the ambient conditions. 2. the obstacle limit is increased but the runway limit decreases 4. for single engine aeroplane. 5°. 4.T. show the following limitations with flap 10° selected: . 3. 20°. With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the take off distance over a 50 ft obstacle height.obstacle limit: 4 630 kg Estimated take-off mass is 5 000kg. Given : O. both limitations are increased Flag this question Question 90 of 109 Number: 3677 Question: A runway is contaminated with 0. wet grass. the obstacle limit is increased but the runway limit decreases 2. 5°.: 5°C Aeroplane mass: 3530 lbs Headwind component: 15 kt Flaps: down Runway: tarred and dry Landing gear: down 1. 1550 ft 3.runway limit: 5 270 kg . 880 ft Flag this question Question 89 of 109 Number: 3674 Question: Take-off performance data. 20°.2. 1350 ft 4.4. The flight manual of a light twin nevertheless authorises a landing in these conditions.Question: At reference or see Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2. firm subsoil 1.A.

an increased landing distance and improved go-around performance 3. unchanged Flag this question Question 91 of 109 Number: 5484 Question: An increase in atmospheric pressure has. a reduced landing distance and degraded go around performance 2. among other things. the following consequences on takeoff performance: 1. among other things. increased 4. a reduced landing distance and improved go-around performance Flag this question Question 92 of 109 Number: 5485 Question: A decrease in atmospheric pressure has. the following consequences on take-off performance: 1. among other things. an increased take-off distance and improved initial climb performance 3. a reduced take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance 2. a reduced take-off distance and improved initial climb performance 4. a reduced take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance .1. an increased landing distance and degraded go-around performance 4. reduced 2. substantially decreased 3. an increased take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance Flag this question Question 93 of 109 Number: 5486 Question: An increase in atmospheric pressure has. the following consequences on landing performance: 1.

a reduced take-off distance and improved initial climb performance 3. Improved 2. Flag this question Question 96 of 109 Number: 5498 Question: At reference or see Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2. Unchanged Flag this question Question 95 of 109 Number: 5492 Question: The pilot of of an aircraft has calculated a 4 000 m service ceiling.2. 3. Degraded 3. 395 m . an increased take-off distance and improved initial climb performance 4. 4. equal to 4 000 m.1. based on the forecast general conditions for the flight and a take-off mass of 3250 kg. unchanged. only a new performance analysis will determine if the service ceiling is higher or lower than 4 000 m. 540 m 3. If the take-off mass is 3 000 kg. 615 m 2. less than 4 000 m. the service ceiling will be: 1. if a short field take-off is adopted 4. Airport characteristics: hard. The carriage of an additional passenger will cause the climb performance to be: 1. dry and zero slope runway Actual conditions are: pressure altitude: 1 500 ft outside tempereature: +18°C wind component: 4 knots tailwind For a take-off mass of 1 270 kg. the take-off distance will be: 1. Unchanged. 2. An extract of the flight manual of a single engine propeller aircraft is reproduced in annex. an increases take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance Flag this question Question 94 of 109 Number: 5489 Question: The pilot of a single engine aircraft has established the climb performance. higher than 4 000 m.

465 m Flag this question Question 97 of 109 Number: 13762 Question: Which one of the following statements is true concerning the effect of changes of ambient temperature on an aeroplane's performance. A decrease will cause an increase in the take-off ground run. 2. An increase will cause a decrease in take-off distance required. 3. decreases with increasing altitude. decreases with increasing altitude. an increase of the field length limited take-off mass but a decrease of the climb limited take-off mass. A decrease will cause an increase of the climb gradient. Flag this question Question 98 of 109 Number: 14293 Question: Ignoring the effect of compressibility. 4. an increase of both the field length limited take-off mass and the climb limited take-off mass.4. a decrease of the field length limited take-off mass but an increase of the climb limited take-off mass. An increase will cause a decrease in the landing distance required. 4. but only at low speeds. Flag this question Question 99 of 109 Number: 14295 Question: The effect of a higher take-off flap setting up to the maximum certified take-off flap setting is: 1. Flag this question . 3. 4. assuming all other performance parameters remain constant? 1. 2. is independent of altitude. 2. the effect a change of altitude has on the value of the coefficient of lift is that it: 1. a decrease of both the field length limited take-off mass and the climb limited take-off mass. 3. increases with increasing altitude.

3% . Airport pressure altitude: 5000 ft. 18909ft Question 101 of 109 Number: 14154 Question: For this question use Reference CAP698 third edition July 2006 SEP 1 Figure 2. Wind component: 5 kts Tailwind 1. 18073ft 2. 20109ft 4. determine the ground distance to reach a height of 1500 ft above the reference zero inthe following conditions: Given : O. 1. 3.A. 18073ft 2. Speed:100 KIAS. the lift-off point may be beyond the end of TORA. 16665ft 3. Aeroplane mass: 3300 lbs. for the single engine aeroplane.T at Take-off: ISA.3. determine the ground distance to reach a height of 1500 ft above the reference zero inthe following conditions: Given : O. Flag this question Question 101 of 109 Number: 14154 Question: For this question use Reference CAP698 third edition July 2006 SEP 1 Figure 2. A stopway is an area beyond the end of TORA able to support the aeroplane mass during an abandoned take-off. Speed:100 KIAS. for the single engine aeroplane.T at Take-off: ISA. for the single engine aeroplane. Using the climb performance chart. Aeroplane mass: 3450 lbs. A declared safe area is an area beyond the runway end which can be used for an abandoned take-off. If a clearway or a stopway is used in the take-off calculations. Airport pressure altitude: 5000 ft. 20109ft 4. Using the climb performance chart. Airport pressure altitude: 3000 ft.A. Using the climb performance chart.3. A clearway is an area beyond the runway end which can be used for an abandoned take-off.3. 18909ft Flag this question Question 102 of 109 Number: 14155 Question: For this question use Reference CAP698 third edition July 2006 SEP 1 Figure 2. 4. Aeroplane mass: 3300 lbs.Question 100 of 109 Number: 14296 Question: Which of the following statements is correct ? 1. determine the rate of climb and the gradient of climb in the following conditions: Given : O. Wind component: 5 kts Tailwind 1. Speed:100 KIAS.A.T at Take-off: ISA. 1310ft/min and 11. 2. 16665ft 3.

the point of contact (A) determines the speed of: 1. maximum specific range. 4.9% Flag this question Question 103 of 109 Number: 14026 Question: For this question use reference. Thrust and drag only. 4. Flag this question Question 104 of 109 Number: 14455 Question: The following parameters affect the take off ground run: 1 decreasing take off mass 2 increasing take off mass 3 increasing density 4 decreasing density 5 increasing flap setting 6 decreasing flap setting 7 increasing pressure altitude 8 decreasing pressure altitude Which parameters will decrease the take off ground run? 1. 5 and 8 3. 2. 3. 1030ft/min and 8. When drawing the tangent from the origin. 6 and 7 2. 6 and 8 Flag this question Question 105 of 109 Number: 14718 Question: Besides lift. maximum endurance. Consider the graphic representation of the power required versus true air speed (TAS).4% 4. for a piston engined aeroplane with a given mass. maximum thrust. 1. 1120ft/min and 9. .3% 3. 1. 3. 2. drag and thrust. 3. 1170ft/min and 9. Weight. 5 and 7 4. 2. the forces that determine the gradient of climb of an aeroplane are: 1. 3. 4. Weight and thrust only. 2.2. critical angle of attack.

3. 4. does not have any effect on the angle of flight path during climb. 2. does not affect the climb performance. Flag this question Question 109 of 109 Number: 14730 Question: With an true airspeed of 194 kt and a vertical speed of 1 000 ft/min. Flag this question Question 106 of 109 Number: 14724 Question: What happens when flying at the "backside of the power curve"? 1. The elevator must be pulled to lower the nose. 4. 2.4. reduces both the climb gradient and the rate of climb. 4. Weight and drag only. (assuming IAS is constant) 1. Flag this question Question 107 of 109 Number: 14726 Question: The effect that an increased outside air temperature has on the climb performance of an aeroplane is that it: 1. increases the climb gradient and decreases the rate of climb. reduces the climb gradient and increases the rate of climb. has no effect on rate of climb. 2. The aeroplane will not stall. decreases angle and rate of climb. the climb angle is about: . The speed is unstable. improves angle and rate of climb. 3. Flag this question Question 108 of 109 Number: 14727 Question: A headwind component increasing with altitude. as compared to zero wind condition. 3. The altitude cannot be maintained.

long distance operating speed. 2. a shorter ground roll. a constant headwind component: 1. 3% Flag this question 02-CLASS B SINGLE ENGINE Question 1 of 32 Number: 2817 Question: The result of a higher flap setting up to the optimum at take-off is 1. 4. a higher V1. 3° 3. increases the angle of flight path during climb. increases the maximum endurance. a longer take-off run. landing gear operating speed. 8% 4. 4. Flag this question Question 2 of 32 Number: 2855 Question: When compared to still air conditions. . 3. 3. an increased acceleration. 2. 4. design low operating speed. increases the best rate of climb. 3. Flag this question Question 3 of 32 Number: 2859 Question: The speed VLO is defined as 1. 2. lift off speed. decreases the angle of climb. 5° 2.1.

4. 2. The ROC is affected by the mass. VMC. 2. With regard to the graph for landing performance. 3. 3. IAS.Flag this question Question 4 of 32 Number: 2862 Question: The stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the aeroplane is controllable in landing configuration is abbreviated as 1. 2. ESS. The ROC and the ROC speed are independant of the mass. The ROC speed increases with increasing mass. VS. The ROC speed decreases with increasing mass. Which kind of speed can be directly used to determine this limitation? 1. Flag this question Question 7 of 32 Number: 1451 Question: At reference or see Performance Manual SEP1 1 Figure 2. what is the minimum headwind component required in order to land at Helgoland airport? . TAS. VS1. 4. 3. 4. VSO. Flag this question Question 5 of 32 Number: 13360 Question: Maximum Tyre Speed can limit the Lift-off Speed. 4. Flag this question Question 6 of 32 Number: 2095 Question: What is the influence of the mass on maximum rate of climb (ROC) speed if all other parameters remain constant ? 1. Groundspeed. but not the ROC speed.

Weather: assume ISA conditions. 4. 2. 4. 10 kt. 2. low ambient temperature and short runway. Mass: 3200 lbs. no obstacles in the climb-out path. Low field elevation. The lift coefficient increases with increasing altitude. Only at low speeds the lift coefficient decreases with increasing altitude. low ambient temperature and short runway. short runway and a high ambient temperature. close-in obstacles in the climb-out path.) 1. Flag this question Question 8 of 32 Number: 1464 Question: How does the lift coefficient for maximum range vary with altitude? (No compressibility effects. 3. distant obstacles in the climb-out path. 15 kt. 3. short runway and a low ambient temperature. 4. Flag this question Question 10 of 32 Number: 1641 Question: The combination of factors that most requires a low-angled flap setting for take-off is: 1. 3. long runway and a high ambient temperature. 5 kt. No wind. High field elevation. .Given: Runway length: 1300 ft. Runway elevation: MSL. Flag this question Question 9 of 32 Number: 1640 Question: The combination of factors that most requires a low-angled flap setting for take-off is: 1. High field elevation. The lift coefficient is independent of altitude. no obstacles in the climb-out path. High field elevation. The lift coefficient decreases with increasing altitude. Obstacle height: 50 ft 1. no obstacles in the climb-out path. 2. Low field elevation.

Given : O. 2. short runway and a low ambient temperature. close-in obstacles in the climb-out path. long runway and a high ambient temperature. 3. approximately: 2050 ft . approximately : 1900 feet approximately : 1400 feet approximately : 750 feet approximately : 950 feet Flag this question Question 13 of 32 Number: 3583 Question: At reference or see Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.A. With regard to the landing chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the landing distance from a height of 50 ft . approximately : 1850 feet approximately : 1700 feet approximately : 1120 feet approximately : 1370 feet Flag this question Question 12 of 32 Number: 3577 Question: At reference or see Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.A. 2. With regard to the landing chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the landing distance from 50ft. approximately: 2450 ft 2.T : ISA 15°C Pressure Altitude: 0 ft Aeroplane Mass: 2940 lbs Tailwind component: 10 kt Flaps: Landing position (down) Runway: Tarred and Dry 1. High field elevation.A. 3. 4.2.2. Low field elevation.T : 27 °C Pressure Altitude: 3000 ft Aeroplane Mass: 2900 lbs Tailwind component: 5 kt Flaps: Landing position (down) Runway: Tarred and Dry 1. Low field elevation.4. long runway and a high ambient temperature. Given : O. 3.T : -7°C Pressure Altitude: 7000 ft Aeroplane Mass: 2950 lbs Headwind component: 5 kt Flaps: Approach setting Runway: Tarred and Dry 1. no obstacles in the climb-out path. Given : O.4. distant obstacles in the climb-out path. 4. With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the take off distance to a height of 50 ft. 4. Flag this question Question 11 of 32 Number: 3576 Question: At reference or see Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.

4.T : ISA + 15°C.T : ISA+10°C Pressure Altitude: 5000 ft Aeroplane mass: 3400 lbs Headwind component: 5 kt Flaps: up Runway: Tarred and Dry 1. 3. 4. 1370 ft/min 2. approximately: 1150 ft Flag this question Question 14 of 32 Number: 3584 Question: At reference or see Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2. 1210 ft/min Flag this question Question 17 of 32 Number: 3675 . Given : O.2. 1150 ft/min 3.A.A.3. Speed:100 KIAS 1. O. 1290 ft/min 4. approximately: 1260 ft 4.3.2 1. With regard to the climb performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the climb speed (ft/min). 71 and 82 KIAS 73 and 84 KIAS 68 and 78 KIAS 65 and 75 KIAS Flag this question Question 15 of 32 Number: 3585 Question: At reference or see Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.A. Flaps: up. 2. 2. approximately: 4150 ft approximately: 3860 ft approximately: 5040 ft approximately: 3680 ft Flag this question Question 16 of 32 Number: 3586 Question: At reference or see Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1. With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the take off distance to a height of 50 ft.T : 38°C Pressure Altitude: 4000 ft Aeroplane Mass: 3400 lbs Tailwind component: 5 kt Flaps: Approach setting Runway: Dry Grass Correction factor: 1.Aeroplane Mass: 3400 lbs. 3. Pressure Altitude: 0 ft. Given : O. With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the take off speed for (1) rotation and (2) at a height of 50 ft.

temperature 21°C. an increased landing distance and degraded go-around performance 2. this climb gradient corresponds to a rate of climb of approximately: 1.5 m / kt headwind " "+ 10 m / kt tail wind " "± 15 m / % runway slope " "± 5 m / °C deviation from standard temperature " The take-off distance from an airport at 2 000 ft elevation. no wind at 0 ft pressurealtitude. Using the following corrections : "± 20 m / 1 000 ft field elevation " ". no wind. the aircraft will have: 1. 2% up-slope. 5 kt tail wind is : 1. 810 m 3. a reduced landing distance and better go-around performance 4.0 m/s 3. no wind at 0 ft pressurealtitude. 3 300 ft/min 4. 3.25 hPa. a reduced landing distance and degraded go-around performance 3. 25° and 35°. 970 m 4.5 m / kt headwind. an increased landing distance and better go-around performance Flag this question Question 19 of 32 Number: 3680 Question: The take-off distance of an aircraft is 800m in standard atmosphere.Question: A climb gradient required is 3. .+ 10 m / kt . 890 m Flag this question Question 20 of 32 Number: 5487 Question: The take-off distance of an aircraft is 600m in standard atmosphere.3%. For an aircraft maintaining 100 kt true airspeed . 330 ft/min Flag this question Question 18 of 32 Number: 3679 Question: An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions. If a pilot chooses 25° instead of 35°. 870 m 2.30 m/s 2. 33. Using the following corrections: ± 20 m / 1 000 ft field elevation. QNH 1013.

4% Flag this question Question 24 of 32 . If a pilot chooses 35° instead of 25°. 5. 1% up-slope. a reduced landing distance and degraded go-around performance an increased landing distance and better go-around performance a reduced landing distance and better go-around performance an increased landing distance and degraded go-around performance Flag this question Question 22 of 32 Number: 5490 Question: A runway is contaminated by a 0. temperature 17°C. 2. QNH 1013. 3.5% 2. 755 m 685 m 555 m 715 m Flag this question Question 21 of 32 Number: 5488 Question: An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions. 3. 3. 2. 4. 4. the aircraft will have: 1.25 hPa. The take-off distance from an airport at 1 000 ft elevation. 5. ± 15 m / % runway slope.5% 3. The take-off distance in relation to a dry runway will be: 1.± 5 m / °C deviation from standard temperature. increased very significantly decreased decreased unchanged Flag this question Question 23 of 32 Number: 5494 Question: With an true airspeed of 194 kt and a vertical speed of 1 000 ft/min.1% 4.tail wind. 4. 4. 3. the climb gradient is about: 1. 25° and 35°.5 cm layer of wet snow. 10 kt tail wind is: 1. 2.

10 % 2. 2.Number: 5495 Question: On a twin engined piston aircraft with variable pitch propellers. 2. Flag this question Question 27 of 32 Number: 13754 Question: If the actual landing mass is higher than planned: 1. The performance limited take-off mass is independent of the wind component. 4. The climb limited take-off mass is independent of the wind component. for a given mass and altitude. equal to 95 kt equal to 125 kt inferior to 95 kts is between 95 and 125 kt Flag this question Question 25 of 32 Number: 5496 Question: If the airworthiness documents do not specify a correction for landing on a wet runway. 5 % Flag this question Question 26 of 32 Number: 13763 Question: Which of the following statements is correct? 1. 20 % 3. 4. . The accelerate stop distance required is independent of the runway condition. The best rate of climb speed will be obtained for a speed: 1. the landing distance will be unaffected. the minimum drag speed is 125 kt and the holding speed (minimum fuel burn per hour) is 95 kt. The take-off distance with one engine out is independent of the wind component. 3. the landing distance will be longer. 15 % 4. 2. 3. the landing distance must be increased by: 1.

Runway:Tarred and Dry.T : ISA. Tailwind component: 2.A.1 With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the take off distance to a height of 50 ft . Given :O.A.T : ISA. approximately : 2500 feet approximately : 2800 feet approximately : 2200 feet approximately : 1440 feet Flag this question Question 30 of 32 Number: 14019 Question: For this question use reference or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2. approximately : 1500 feet 2.Flaps: up. Headwind component: 5 kt.4 With regard to the landing chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the landing distance from a height of 50 ft . 4.Factored runway length: 2000 ft. 3000 lbs 3.3. Aeroplane Mass: 3500 lbs. 3. Pressure Altitude: 1000 ft. Given :O.A.Given :O. Tailwind component: 5 kt. Flag this question Question 28 of 32 Number: 14015 Question: For this question use reference or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2. approximately : 1700 feet 3.5 kt. Pressure Altitude: 4000 ft. the approach path will be steeper and threshold speed higher. approximately : 1150 feet Flag this question Question 29 of 32 Number: 14018 Question: For this question use reference or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2. 2. 4. Flaps:up. 2900 lbs 2. Obstacle height: 50 ft 1. Flaps: Landing position (down).T : 30°C. Runway:Tarred and Dry 1.Runway: Tarred and Dry 1. approximately : 920 feet 4.Pressure Altitude: 1000 ft. > 3650 lbs 4. 3200 lbs .Aeroplane Mass: 3450 lbs. the approach path will be steeper.1 With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the maximum allowable take off mass.

Flag this question Question 2 of 75 Number: 834 Question: Other factors remaining constant and not limiting. 540 m Flag this question 03-CLASS B MULTINE ENGINE Question 1 of 75 Number: 833 Question: In which of the following distances can the length of a stopway be included? 1. Flag this question Question 32 of 32 Number: 6524 Question: Use Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2. In the take-off run available. 4. In the all-engine take-off distance. increases the angle of the descent flight path. increases the descent distance over ground. how does increasing pressure altitude affect allowable take-off mass? . 3. In the one-engine failure case. 3. 2. 465 m 4.1 Given: OAT + 18 C Aerodrome Pressure Altitude: 1500ft Aeroplane Mass: 1270 kg Wind Component: 4kt tailwind Runway Surface: Hard Dry Runway Slope: 0% The approximate take-off distance to 50ft is: 1. take-off distance. 2. 395 m 2. In the accelerate stop distance available. 4. 615 m 3. increases the rate of descent.Flag this question Question 31 of 32 Number: 14728 Question: During a descent a headwind will: 1. increases the angle of descent.

2.1. the failure of any engine on a multi-engine aeroplane. 2. Both will remain the same. Flag this question Question 4 of 75 Number: 845 Question: Vx and Vy with take-off flaps will be: 1. 3. lower than that for clean configuration. There is no effect on allowable take-off mass. Allowable take-off mass decreases. 3. Both will decrease. 2. Flag this question Question 3 of 75 Number: 837 Question: The requirements with regard to take-off flight path and the climb segments are only specified for: 1. 4. 4. 2. 3. Vx will decrease and Vy will increase. Allowable take-off mass remains uninfluenced up to 5000 ft pressure altitude. . how does increasing altitude affect Vx and Vy in terms of TAS? 1. 2 engine aeroplane. the failure of two engines on a multi-engine aeroplane. changed so that Vx increases and Vy decreases compared to clean configuration. the failure of the critical engine on a multi-engines aeroplane. 4. same as that for clean configuration. higher than that for clean configuration. 3. Flag this question Question 5 of 75 Number: 846 Question: Other factors remaining constant. Both will increase. Allowable take-off mass increases. 4.

10 2. 6. 4.Flag this question Question 6 of 75 Number: 852 Question: Long range cruise is a flight procedure which gives: 1. 10 4. 2. 3 . 2 .Undercarriage retracted. 4. 8. 6. the angle of attack for maximum range for an aeroplane with turbojet engines is: 1. 3. a specific range which is approximately 99% of maximum specific range and a lower cruise speed. a specific range which is approximately 99% of maximum specific range and a higher cruise speed. 2. 4. 9 Flag this question Question 9 of 75 Number: 825 Question: In the event of engine failure below V1. lower than the angle of attack corresponding to maximum endurance equal to the angle of attack corresponding to maximum lift to drag ratio.All engines at the take-of thrust.Undercarriage extended. the first action to be taken by the pilot in order to decelerate the aeroplane is to: . Flag this question Question 8 of 75 Number: 809 Question: The minimum climb gradient required on the 2nd flight path segment after the take-off of a jet aeroplane is defined by the following parameters: 1 . 2. 5 . 1. a 1% higher TAS for maximum specific range. equal to the angle of attack corresponding to maximum endurance equal to the angle of attack corresponding to zero induced drag. 5. The correct statements are: 1. 3. Flag this question Question 7 of 75 Number: 856 Question: With zero wind.Climbing speed of V2. 8 .Flaps in take-off position. 6 . 7 .Climbing speed of V2 10kts.Climbing speed of 1. 5. 9 . 1.3VS. 4. 9 3. an IAS which is 1% higher than the IAS for maximum specific range.Operative engine(s) at takeoff thrust. 4 .Flaps up. 1. 10 Commencing height 35ft. 3.

reverse engine thrust. which of the following is correct? 1. 4. sometimes greater than the rotation speed VR. apply wheel brakes. 2. when a turbojet aeroplane mass is increased by 5% . reduce the engine thrust. V1 may not be less than V2min. 2. 4. If an engine failure is recognized before reaching V1. 2.5% 3. the take-off must be aborted. Flag this question Question 12 of 75 Number: 2319 Question: An aeroplane operating under the 180 minutes ETOPS rule may be up to: 1.5% 2. its hourly consumption is approximately increased by: 1. Flag this question Question 10 of 75 Number: 799 Question: At a given altitude. 180 minutes flying time from a suitable airport in still air. 10% 4. V1 is sometimes greater than the rotation speed VR. 5% Flag this question Question 11 of 75 Number: 800 Question: Considering the take-off decision speed V1. with one engine inoperative. the minimum take-off safety speed. 3. 3. 90 minutes flying time from the first enroute airport and another 90 minutes from the second enroute airport in still air with one engine inoperative.1. 7. deploy airbrakes or spoilers.assuming the engines specific consumption remains unchanged. . 2.

180 minutes flying time from a suitable airport under the prevailing weather condition with one engine inoperative. 4. 3.78 Mach are the same (at ISA temperature TAS=460 kt) 2. which is situated outside the chart. All the curves start at the same point. Due to higher TAS at this mass it takes more time to develop the optimal rate of descent. .24. 2. What do you expect in the crossover altitude 29 200 ft (OAT = ISA) ? 1. The rate of climb decreases since climb performance at a constant Mach number is grossly reduced as compared to constant IAS. at the normal cruising speed. 3. 180 minutes flying time from suitable airport in still air. Because at this mass it takes about 3 minutes to decelerate to the optimum speed for drift down at the original cruising level.78. No noticeable effect since the true airspeed at 300 kt IAS and . why does the curve representing 35 000 kg gross mass in the chart for drift down net profiles start at approximately 3 minutes at FL370? 1.3. Flag this question Question 13 of 75 Number: 2320 Question: ETOPS flight is a twin engine jet aeroplane flight conducted over a route. Because at this mass the engines slow down at a slower rate after failure. 4. where no suitable airport is within an area of 1. 75 minutes flying time at the approved one engine out cruise speed. 60 minutes flying time in still air at the approved one engine out cruise speed. 2. With regard to the drift down performance of the twin jet aeroplane. 30 minutes flying time at the normal cruising speed. because of the inertia involved. 60 minutes flying time in still air at the normal cruising speed. 4. there is still some thrust left during four minutes. Flag this question Question 15 of 75 Number: 2631 Question: You climb with a climb speed schedule 300/. Flag this question Question 14 of 75 Number: 2321 Question: At reference or see Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.

3. Performance will be better than in the chart. 3.3. It does not matter which take-off technique is being used. Flag this question Question 16 of 75 Number: 2738 Question: At reference or see Performance Manual MEP1 Figure 3. does not affect the aeroplane performance since it is independent of the power plant. 2. equal to the speed for maximum range cruise with no wind. Yes. the chart has been made for this situation. 4. lower compared to the speed for maximum range cruise with no wind. the performance will be worse than in the chart. During the acceleration to the Mach number . With regard to the graph for the light twin aeroplane. 4. higher compared to the speed for maximum range cruise with no wind. 3. 4. Flag this question Question 18 of 75 Number: 2810 Question: To achieve the maximum range over ground with headwind the airspeed should be 1. 4. The rate of climb increases since the constant IAS-climb is replaced by the constant Mach-climb.78 the rate of climb is approximately zero. 2.2. increases the power required and the total drag due to the additional drag of the windmilling engine and the compensation of the yaw moment. . increases the power required and decreases the total drag due to the windmilling engine. will the accelerate and stop distance be achieved in a take-off where the brakes are released before take-off power is set? 1. Flag this question Question 17 of 75 Number: 2792 Question: The critical engine inoperative 1. No. reduced to the gust penetration speed. 2. decreases the power required and increases the total drag due to the additional drag of the windmilling engine and the compensation of the yaw moment.

Flag this question Question 20 of 75 Number: 2829 Question: V1 has to be 1. higher than VR. 4. 3. only headwinds are considered. 3. The higher the average temperature (OAT) the lower is the speed for descent.Flag this question Question 19 of 75 Number: 2819 Question: How is wind considered in the take-off performance data of the Aeroplane Operations Manuals ? 1. Unfactored headwind and tailwind components are used. The higher the gross mass the lower is the speed for descent. Not more than 80% headwind and not less than 125% tailwind. Flag this question Question 21 of 75 Number: 2837 Question: Which statement is correct for a descent without engine thrust at maximum lift to drag ratio speed? 1. 2. equal to or higher than VMCG. 2. The higher the gross mass the greater is the speed for descent. equal to or higher than VMCA. 4. Since take-offs with tailwind are not permitted. The mass of an aeroplane does not have any effect on the speed for descent. Not more than 50% of a headwind and not less than 150% of the tailwind. 4. 2. equal to or higher than V2. 3. Flag this question Question 22 of 75 Number: 2848 Question: As long as an aeroplane is in a steady climb: .

4. 2. . decreases with increasing altitude since the thrust available decreases due to the lower air density. critical engine failure speed. take-off decision speed. 4. VX is always less than VY. VX is increased and VY is decreased. 4. increases with increasing altitude due to the higher true airspeed. 2. increases with increasing altitude since the drag decreases due to the lower air density. VY and VX are not affected by a higher gross mass. VX may be greater or less than VY depending on altitude. Flag this question Question 24 of 75 Number: 2851 Question: Higher gross mass at the same altitude decreases the gradient and the rate of climb whereas 1. 3. 2. 2. VY and VX are increased. 3. VY is always greater than VMO. take-off climb speed or speed at 35 ft. 3. VX is always greater than VY. is independent of altitude.1. Flag this question Question 23 of 75 Number: 2849 Question: The best rate of climb at a constant gross mass 1. VY and VX are decreased. lift off speed. 4. 3. Flag this question Question 25 of 75 Number: 2858 Question: The speed V2 is defined for jet aeroplane as 1.

3. VY. 50% head wind and 100% tail wind. 50% head wind and 150% tail wind.Flag this question Question 26 of 75 Number: 2860 Question: VX is 1. the speed for best rate of climb. 2. . Flag this question Question 29 of 75 Number: 13328 Question: For a jet aeroplane. VX. 2. 100% head wind and 100% tail wind. 150% head wind and 50% tail wind. Flag this question Question 28 of 75 Number: 13267 Question: What percentages of the head wind and tail wind component are taken into account when calculating the take off field length required? 1. that corresponding to the point of the minimum power required the Drag versus TAS curve. V2. 2. Flag this question Question 27 of 75 Number: 2861 Question: The speed for best rate of climb is called 1. the speed for best specific range. the speed for best angle of flight path. the speed for best angle of climb. the speed for maximum range is: 1. 3. 4. VO. 4. 3. 4.

failure of the critical engine or all engines operating whichever requirement gives the greater distance.7 Given: OAT: 10°C Pressure Altitude: 2000 ft Gross Mass: 3750 lbs Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the two engine rate of climb for the conditions given? 1. 3. that corresponding to the point of the minimum drag at the Drag versus TAS curve. one engine inoperative only. 1200 ft/min Flag this question Question 32 of 75 Number: 15458 Question: Use Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3. that corresponding to the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the Drag versus TAS curve. 1050 ft/min 3. 2. 500 ft/min 2. 3. What is the one engine inoperative rate of climb for the conditions given? 1. that corresponding to the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the Power required versus TAS curve. failure of the critical engine only.7 Given: OAT: 0°C Pressure Altitude: 18000 ft Gross Mass: 3750 lbs Mixture: leaned to 25°F rich of peak EGT Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. Flag this question Question 31 of 75 Number: 15495 Question: Use Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3. all engines operating only.2. 870 ft/min 4. 890 ft/min . Flag this question Question 30 of 75 Number: 13348 Question: The take-off runway performance requirements for transport category aeroplanes are based upon: 1. 4. 4.

2. 430 ft/min 3. 200 ft/min 4. 500 ft/min

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Question 33 of 75
Number: 15446 Question: Use Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.2 Given: OAT: 20°C Pressure Altitude: 2000 ft RWY: 24L Wind: 120°/ 8 kts Take off Mass: 4500 lbs Heavy Duty Brakes installed. Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the Accelerate and Stop Distance under the conditions given?

1. 3600 ft 2. 3400 ft

3. 4200 ft 4. 4500 ft

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Question 34 of 75
Number: 15447 Question: Use Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.2 Given: OAT: -10°C Pressure Altitude: 4000 ft RWY: 30L Wind: 180°/10 kts Take off Mass: 4600 lbs Heavy Duty Brakes installed. Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the Accelerate and Stop Distance under the conditions given?

1. 4600 ft 2. 3800 ft 3. 3550 ft

4. 4250 ft

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Question 35 of 75
Number: 15437 Question: Use Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.2 Given: OAT: 25°C Pressure Altitude: 3000 ft RWY: 24L Wind: 310°/20kts Take off Mass: 4400 lbs Heavy Duty Brakes installed Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the Accelerate and Stop Distance under the conditions given?

1. 4300 ft 2. 3350 ft

3. 3750 ft 4. 4000 ft

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Question 36 of 75
Number: 15423 Question: Use Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.2 Given: OAT: 20°C Pressure Altitude: 2000 ft RWY: 07R Wind: 120°/ 15 kts Take off Mass: 4500 lbs Heavy Duty Brakes installed. Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the Accelerate and Stop Distance under the conditions given?

1. 3250 ft

2. 3450 ft 3. 3800 ft 4. 3650 ft

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Question 37 of 75
Number: 15424 Question: Use Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.2 Given: OAT: 25°C Pressure Altitude: 3000 ft RWY: 26L Wind: 310°/20kts Take off Mass: 4400 lbs Heavy Duty Brakes installed Other conditions as associated in the header of the of the graph. What is the Accelerate and Stop Distance under the conditions given?

1. 4300 ft

2. 3500 ft 3. 3800 ft 4. 3350 ft

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Question 38 of 75
Number: 15425 Question: Use Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.2 Given: OAT: -10°C Pressure Altitude: 4000 ft RWY: 12R Wind: 180°/10 kts Take off Mass: 4600 lbs Heavy Duty Brakes installed. Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the Accelerate and Stop Distance under the conditions given?

1. 4300 ft

2. 3550 ft 3. 4600 ft

4. 3800 ft

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Question 39 of 75
Number: 2091 Question: How does the thrust of a propeller vary during take-off run, assuming unstalled flow conditions at the propeller blades? The thrust

1. increases while the aeroplane speed builds up. 2. varies with mass changes only. 3. has no change during take-off and climb.

4. decreases while the aeroplane speed builds up.

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Question 40 of 75
Number: 2092 Question: A twin engine aeroplane is flying at the minimum control speed with take-off thrust on both engines. The critical engine suddenly fails. After stabilising the engine failure transient which parameter(s) must be maintainable?

1. Altitude 2. Heading, altitude and a positive rate of climb of 100 ft/min 3. Straight flight and altitude

4. Straight flight

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Question 41 of 75
Number: 2097 Question: Approaching in turbulent wind conditions during manual flight requires

1. no change 2. an increase in VREF 3. a steeper approach path

4. an increase in approach speed

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Question 42 of 75
Number: 1465

The one engine out take-off distance will become greater than the ASDR. The drag decreases. The drag remains almost constant. so Mach buffet will start immediately. 2. 1. The speed for maximum rate of climb. Flag this question Question 45 of 75 Number: 1477 Question: If the value of the balanced V1 is found to be lower than VMCG. 2. The ASDR will become greater than the one engine out take-off distance. at which the flaps may be selected one position further UP. The TAS continues to increase.3G" altitude is exceeded. The drag increases considerably.) 1. Flag this question Question 43 of 75 Number: 1470 Question: What happens when an aeroplane climbs at a constant Mach number? 1. Flag this question Question 44 of 75 Number: 1471 Question: Which of the following provides maximum obstacle clearance during climb? 1. IAS stays constant so there will be no problems. which may lead to structural problems. The speed for maximum climb angle Vx. 4. 3. 4. during the initial climb after take off. which of the following is correct ? 1. 2. The drag increases initially and decreases thereafter. 3. The "1. 3. The lift coefficient increases. constant IAS is maintained? (Assume a constant mass.2Vs. .Question: What happens to the drag of a jet aeroplane if. 4. 2. The speed.

Flag this question Question 46 of 75 Number: 1638 Question: Which statement concerning the inclusion of a clearway in take-off calculation is correct? 1. that corresponding to the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the Power required versus TAS curve. 2. 2. Flag this question . 4. The usable length of the clearway is not limited. 4. that corresponding to the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the Drag versus TAS curve. 3. that corresponding to the point of the minimum power required at the Drag versus TAS curve. that corresponding to the point of the minimum drag at the Drag versus TAS curve. V1 is increased. The VMCG will be lowered to V1. 4. the speed for maximum range is: 1. manoeuvrability during approach with full flaps and gear down. obstacle clearance in the approach area. Flag this question Question 48 of 75 Number: 3471 Question: The approach climb requirement has been established to ensure: 1. Flag this question Question 47 of 75 Number: 1957 Question: For a jet aeroplane. all engines operating. 4. manoeuvrability in case of landing with one engine inoperative. The field length limited take-off mass will increase.3. V1 remains constant. 3. 2. V1 must be increased to at least the value of VMCG. minimum climb gradient in case of a go-around with one engine inoperative. 3.

Which order of increasing speeds in the performance diagram is correct? .3 % Flag this question Question 51 of 75 Number: 3842 Question: The drift down procedure specifies requirements concerning the: 1. weight during landing at the alternate.0.1% per C Wing anti-ice ON .7 % 2. 4.25hPa Anti-ice systems Wing and Engine ON Use the following corrections to determine the climb gradient after take-off at the given aerodrome. 4. 115 m 4. engine power at the altitude at which engine failure occurs.9 % 3. Flag this question Question 52 of 75 Number: 3844 Question: Given a jet aircraft.1.0% Engine anti-ice ON . 3. a light twin climbs on a 10% over-the-ground climb gradient.Question 49 of 75 Number: 3676 Question: Following a take-off determined by the 50ft (15m) screen height. in a standard atmosphere and still-air. It will clear a 900 m high obstacle in relation to the runway (horizontally). 100 m Flag this question Question 50 of 75 Number: 3678 Question: The climb gradient of an aircraft after take-off. situated at 10 000 m from the 50 ft clearing point with an obstacle clearance of: 1. It will not clear the obstacle 3.0. 2. obstacle clearance after engine failure. 85 m 2. at 0ft pressure altitude.5% 1.9 % 4. Given: Aerodrome Pressure Altitude 1000ft OAT +17 C Atmospheric Pressure 1013. climb gradient during the descent to the net level-off altitude.0. 4.2% per 1000ft Deviation from standard temperature +/. Aerodrome elevation +/. 4. 3. is 6%.

65 and 75 %. Vx. Vs. 3. Yes. Maximum endurance speed. Vs. The 75% power setting in relation to the 65 % results in: 1. Maximum range speed. Vx 3. Maximum range speed Flag this question Question 53 of 75 Number: 4224 Question: Is there any difference between the vertical speed versus forward speed curves for two identical aeroplanes having different masses ? (assume zero thrust and wind) 1. 2. the difference is that for a given angle of attack both the vertical and forward speeds of the heavier aeroplane will be larger. Maximum endurance speed. Maximum range speed 2. It will clear a 160 m obstacle in relation to the runway (horizontally). Vx 4. Yes. 3. 2. same speed and an increase of the fuel-burn per hour and fuel-burn/distance. 75 m 2. No difference. Flag this question Question 54 of 75 Number: 5491 Question: Following a take-off. 105 m 3. an increase in speed and fuel-burn/distance. same speed and fuel-burn/distance. Yes. the difference is that the lighter aeroplane will always glide a greater distance. 90 m Flag this question Question 55 of 75 Number: 5493 Question: The flight manual of a light twin engine recommends two cruise power settings. but an increase in the fuel-burn per hour. a light twin climbs on a gradient of 5%. situated at 5 000 m from the 50 ft point with an obstacle clearance margin of: 1.1. but an unchanged fuel-burn per hour. the difference is that the heavier aeroplane will always glide a greater distance. limited by the 50 ft screen height. it will not clear the obstacle 4. Long range speed. . 4. Maximum range speed.

Flag this question Question 58 of 75 Number: 13759 Question: Which statement regarding V1 is correct? 1. 4. 2. Flag this question Question 56 of 75 Number: 5497 Question: At a given mass. VR is the lowest climb speed after engine failure. fuel consumption and fuel-burn/distance. V1 must not exceed VMCG. The minimum speed a pilot must maintain in short final is: 1. In case of engine failure below VR the take-off should be aborted. VR is the speed at which rotation should be initiated. 3. 125 kt Flag this question Question 57 of 75 Number: 13758 Question: Considering VR. VR is the lowest speed for directional control in case of engine failure. 120 kt 4.4. 115 kt 2. V1 must not exceed VR. Flag this question Question 59 of 75 Number: 13761 . 4. 3. the reference stall speed of a twin engine turbo-prop aeroplane is 100 kt in the landing configuration. 123 kt 3. The V1 correction for up-slope is negative. an increase in speed. 2. which statement is correct? 1. reverse thrust is only allowed to be taken into account on the remaining symmetric engines. When determining the V1.

Pressure Altitude: 4000 ft. 1. 4000 ft Flag this question Question 62 of 75 Number: 14298 Question: At reference or use Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.23 VSRO and must be maintained down to 50 ft height 4. A tailwind component increases the ground distance. Wind: 180°/10 kts. Heavy Duty Brakes installed. Take off Mass: 4600 lbs. 1. Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. VSRO and must be maintained down to 35 ft height Flag this question Question 61 of 75 Number: 14297 Question: Use Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3. 1. A headwind component increases the ground distance. 3750 ft 4. RWY: 30L.23 VSRO for turbojet powered and 1. RWY: 24L. What is the Accelerate and Stop Distance under the conditions given? 1.30 for turboprop powered aeroplanes 3. Take off Mass: 4400 lbs.2 VMCA 2. 3350 ft 2. Wind: 310°/20kts. 2. A tailwind component increases the time in the descent 4. A tailwind component increases fuel and time to descent.Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. 3. What is the Accelerate and Stop Distance under the conditions given? . Flag this question Question 60 of 75 Number: 13752 Question: According to JAR 25 the landing reference speed VREF may not be less than 1. 4300 ft 3.2 Given: OAT: 25°C.2) Given: OAT: -10°C.Question: Which statement is correct for a descent without engine thrust at maximum lift to drag ratio speed? 1. Pressure Altitude: 3000 ft. Heavy Duty Brakes installed.

3550 ft 4. 2.1. 3. 3800 ft 2. 4250 ft Flag this question Question 63 of 75 Number: 15278 Question: Use Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3. 2. 2000 ft 2150 ft 1550 ft 1670 ft Flag this question Question 64 of 75 Number: 15280 Question: Use Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.1 Given: OAT: 24°C Pressure Altitude: 3000 ft RWY: 30R Wind: 060°/4 kts Take off Mass: 3800 lbs Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the two engine rate of climb for the conditions given? 1.1 Given: OAT: 24°C Pressure Altitude: 3000 ft RWY: 12L Wind: 080°/12 kts Take off Mass: 3800 lbs Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph.20°C Pressure Altitude: 14000 ft Gross Mass: 4000 lbs Mixture: full rich Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the Take-off Distance under the conditions given? 1. 170 ft/min 2. 4. 970 ft/min 3. 1550 ft/min 4. 1350 ft 1150 ft 1050 ft 1750 ft . What is the Ground Roll Distance under the conditions given? 1. 1300 ft/min Flag this question Question 65 of 75 Number: 15281 Question: Use Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3. 4.7 Given: OAT: . 3. 4600 ft 3.

1970 ft/min 4. 1500 ft 4. 4.7 Given: OAT: 10°C Pressure Altitude: 2000 ft Gross Mass: 3750 lbs Mixture: full rich Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. 1700 ft 1420 ft 1950 ft 1600 ft Flag this question Question 69 of 75 Number: 15264 . 2. What is the Ground Roll Distance under the conditions given? 1. What is the Take-off Distance under the conditions given? 1.Flag this question Question 66 of 75 Number: 15273 Question: Use Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.1 Given: OAT: -15°C Pressure Altitude: 4000 ft RWY: 12R Wind: 080°/12 kts Take off Mass: 4000 lbs Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the two engine rate of climb for the conditions given? 1. 1600 ft Flag this question Question 68 of 75 Number: 15275 Question: Use Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3. 1830 ft 2. 1770 ft/min 3. 1270 ft 3. 430 ft/min 2.1 Given: OAT: 24°C Pressure Altitude: 3000 ft RWY: 12L Wind: 080°/12 kts Take off Mass: 3800 lbs Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. 3. 1570 ft/min Flag this question Question 67 of 75 Number: 15274 Question: Use Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.

20°C Pressure Altitude: 14000 ft Gross Mass: 4000 lbs Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. 1370 ft/min 3. 4. 550 ft/min 2.7 Given: OAT: . What is the two engine rate of climb for the conditions given? 1. 1270 ft 4. 1220 ft 2. 175 ft/min 625 ft/min 375 ft/min 1250 ft/min Flag this question Question 72 of 75 Number: 15357 Question: Use Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.1 Given: OAT: 24°C Pressure Altitude: 3000 ft RWY: 30R Wind: 060°/4 kts Take off Mass: 3800 lbs Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph.Question: Use Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3. What is the one engine inoperative rate of climb for the conditions given? 1. 2.7 Given:OAT: .20°C Pressure Altitude: 18000 ft Gross Mass: 4000 lbs Mixture: leaned to 25°F rich of peak EGT Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. 1550 ft Flag this question Question 71 of 75 Number: 15254 Question: Use Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3. 1050 ft/min 4. What is the Take-off Distance under the conditions given? 1. 1830 ft 3.1 Given: OAT: -15°C Pressure Altitude: 4000 ft RWY: 12R Wind: 080°/12 kts Take off Mass: 4000 lbs Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. 870 ft/min Flag this question Question 70 of 75 Number: 15256 Question: Use Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3. What is the Ground Roll Distance under the conditions given? . 3.

A higher V₁.2 With regard to the graph for the light twin aeroplane. 3. 2. Has no effect on the maximum permitted take-off mass up to 5. A longer ground roll. 2150 ft 4. 4. increasing the aerodrome pressure altitude: 1.1. 2. Has no effect on the maximum permitted take-off mass. if the brakes are released before take-off power is achieved.000 ft pressure altitude above which it increases. 4. Flag this question Question 75 of 75 Number: 6526 Question: The engine failure during take-off run results in: 1. 1670 ft 3. 3. unaffected because all take-off techniques are accounted. . A shorter take-off run. 1780 ft Flag this question Question 73 of 75 Number: 14723 Question: Use Performance Manual MEP1 Figure 3. An increased acceleration. 2. the accelerate/stop distance will be: 1. 3. Will cause the maximum permitted take-off mass to decrease. shorter than the graphical distance. Flag this question Question 74 of 75 Number: 6525 Question: Assuming other factors remain constant and not limiting. 2000 ft 2. Will cause the maximum permitted take-off mass to increase. 4. longer than the graphical distance. the same as the graphical distance because both techniques are accounted.

VMU= Minimum unstick speed (disregarding engine failure). with wind: Flap angle: 5° 15° 25° FLLTOM (kg): 66 000 69 500 71 500 CLTOM: 72 200 69 000 61 800 Wind correction: Head wind:+120kg / kt.= Minimum take-off safety speed. 67 700 kg / 15 ° 4. VMCA= Air minimum control speed. V1= take-off decision speed. Which of the following statements is correct? 1. 2. 2. 3. VLOF: Lift-off speed . IAS increases and TAS increases.Flag this question 04-CLASS A Question 1 of 187 Number: 291 Question: A jet aeroplane is climbing at constant Mach number below the tropopause. VR= Rotation speed. leads to the following values. 3. Tail wind: -360kg / kt. 69 700 kg / 25 ° 3. IAS decreases and TAS increases. Given that the tail wind component is equal to 5 kt. IAS increases and TAS decreases. 72 200 kg / 5 ° Flag this question Question 3 of 187 Number: 1072 Question: Given: VS= Stalling speed. 69 000 kg / 15 ° 2. VS< VMCA< V2 min VMU<= VMCA< V1 V2min< VMCA> VMU VR< VMCA< VLOF Flag this question . of a certified turbojet aeroplane with 5°. IAS decreases and TAS decreases. The correct formula is: 1. V2 min. the maximum mass on brake release and corresponding flap angle will be: 1. 4. Flag this question Question 2 of 187 Number: 1063 Question: The determination of the maximum mass on brake release. 15° and 25° flaps angles on take-off. 4.

55 000 kg Flag this question Question 7 of 187 .Question 4 of 187 Number: 1073 Question: Regarding take-off. is an airspeed at which the aeroplane is airborne but below 35 ft and the pilot is assumed to have made a decision to continue or discontinue the take-off . 70 000 kg 4. is always equal to VEF (Engine Failure speed).4. Given: Field length avalaible= 2400 m.1950 m. The certificated value of the Take-off Run is: 1. is the airspeed on the ground at which the pilot is assumed to have made a decision to continue or discontinue the take-off. 2. 56 000 kg 3. Flag this question Question 6 of 187 Number: 1076 Question: At reference or see Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4. The maximum allowed take-off mass is: 1. 2243 m. 4. the actual measured take-off runs from brake release to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane is 35 feet above the take-off surface are: . 3. Flag this question Question 5 of 187 Number: 1074 Question: During certification test flights for a turbojet aeroplane. 2096 m. 2. Considering both possibilities to determine the take-off run (TOR). Outside air temperature= -10°C. 52 000 kg 2. is the airspeed of the aeroplane upon reaching 35 feet above the take-off surface. the other factors remaining unchanged. all engines operating . 4. 2009 m. with the critical engine failure recognized at V1. For a twin engine turbojet aeroplane two take-off flap settings (5° and 15°) are certified. the take-off decision speed V1: 1. 3. Airport pressure altitude= 7000 ft. 1950 m.1747 m.

increase in the flaps extended case. high OAT. smaller. Flag this question Question 9 of 187 Number: 835 Question: If there is a tail wind. Flag this question Question 8 of 187 Number: 1078 Question: The net flight path gradient after take-off compared to the actual climb gradient is: 1. not be affected. 3. High flap setting. decrease. high PA. 2.15 VSR for all turbojet and turbo-propeller aeroplanes.13 VSR for two.20 VSR for all turbo-propeller aeroplanes. low OAT. equal. 2. low PA.Number: 1077 Question: The lowest take-off safety speed (V2 min) is: 1. 4. depends on type of aircraft and may be smaller or larger respectively. Low flap setting. 1. Flag this question Question 10 of 187 Number: 836 Question: Which of the following sets of factors will increase the climb-limited TOM (every factor considered independently)? 1. . 4. 3. 3. 1. low OAT. 2. Low flap setting. increase. larger. 3.and three-engine turbo-propeller and turbojet aeroplanes. low PA. 1. 4.20 VSR for all aeroplanes. low OAT. the climb limited TOM will: 1. Low flap setting. 1. 2. 4. high PA.

Flag this question Flag this question .125D Aerodynamics.125D 3. 4. 1500 ft above field elevation. 3. The half-width of the obstacle-corridor at the distance D from the end of the TODA is at least: 1. 2. 3. When gear retraction is completed. 0. 4. increase the angle of climb. 400 ft above field elevation. Service ceiling.Flag this question Question 11 of 187 Number: 838 Question: At which minimum height will the second climb segment end? 1. 2. Flag this question Question 12 of 187 Number: 839 Question: A head wind will: 1. Flag this question Question 13 of 187 Number: 842 Question: An operator shall ensure that the net take-off flight path clears all obstacles. Theoretical ceiling. 2. increase the climb flight path angle.125D 90m + 0. Economy. 3. 90m + D/0. 90m + 1.125 2. 35 ft above ground. 1. increase the rate of climb. shorten the time of climb.

The time to climb increases Flag this question Question 15 of 187 Number: 847 Question: How does TAS vary in a constant Mach climb in the troposphere (under ISA conditions) ? 1. Flag this question Question 16 of 187 Number: 848 Question: The optimum long-range cruise altitude for a turbojet aeroplane: 1. . The effect on time to climb will depend on the aeroplane type. Flag this question Question 17 of 187 Number: 849 Question: Considering TAS for maximum range and maximum endurance. 1. both will increase with increasing altitude. is only dependent on the outside air temperature. TAS decreases. other factors remaining constant. The time to climb decreases. 3. The time to climb does not change. 2. both will stay constant regardless of altitude. TAS increases. 2. 4. TAS is not related to Mach Number. 2. is always equal to the powerplant ceiling. 4. is independent of the aeroplane mass. 3.Question 14 of 187 Number: 843 Question: What is the effect of tail wind on the time to climb to a given altitude? 1. 3. 4. 2. TAS is constant. increases when the aeroplane mass decreases.

4. Flag this question Question 19 of 187 Number: 855 Question: At the destination aerodrome the landing distance available is 3000m. TAS for maximum range will increase with increased altitude while TAS for maximum endurance will decrease with increased altitude. 2. . Flag this question Question 18 of 187 Number: 854 Question: A commercial flight is planned with a turbojet aeroplane to an aerodrome with a landing distance available of 2400 m. For a commercial flight the mass of a turbojet aeroplane at landing must be such that the aeroplane can be landed within: 1. 1565 m. The aeroplane mass must be such that on arrival the aeroplane can be landed within: 1. Flag this question Question 20 of 187 Number: 857 Question: Two identical turbojet aeroplane (whose specific fuel consumptions are considered to be equal) are at holding speed at the same altitude. 1 090 m. The appropriate weather forecast indicates that the runway at the estimated time of arrival will be wet. 2. 2 070 m. 3578 kg/h. 1800 m. 1 250 m. 3. 3804 kg/h. 3365 kg/h. 4. 2609 m. 3. 2. The mass of the first aircraft is 130 000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is 4300 kg/h. both will decrease with increasing altitude. 4044 kg/h. 1 655 m.3. The mass of the second aircraft is 115 000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is: 1. 3. 1 440 m. 4. 4.

11. The maximum take-off mass under 2nd segment conditions is: 1. Flag this question Question 24 of 187 Number: 812 Question: Which of the following distances will increase if you increase V1. 3. 101 596 kg 74 064 kg 209 064 kg 286 781 kg Flag this question Question 23 of 187 Number: 810 Question: Minimum control speed on the ground. Minimum gross gradient (2nd segment) = 2. 2. nose wheel steering only. 4.7 kg/NM. is based on directional control being maintained by: 1. nose wheel steering and differential braking.06 kg per Newton of thrust and per hour and. 4.Drag) / Weight.035 kg per Newton of thrust and per hour.17 kg/NM.7% SIN(Angle of climb) = (Thrust. 14 kg/NM. primary aerodynamic control. Drag = 72 569 N. 3. but VR remains unchanged? 1.Flag this question Question 21 of 187 Number: 858 Question: A jet aeroplane equipped with old engines has a specific fuel consumption of 0. Flag this question Question 22 of 187 Number: 808 Question: Given that the characteristics of a three engine turbojet aeroplane are as follows: Thrust = 50 000 Newton / Engine. Accelerate Stop Distance . g = 10 m/s². the same aeroplane equipped with modern engines with a specific fuel consumption of 0. In the same flying conditions. primary aerodynamic control only. a fuel mileage of 14 kg per Nautical Mile. 3. has a fuel mileage of: 1. 8. in a given flying condition. VMCG. 10. 2.7 kg/NM. 2. 4. primary aerodynamic control and nose wheel steering.

V1 is lower or equal to VR 4. An uphill slope increases the allowable take-off mass. Allowable take-off mass is not affected by runway slope. All Engine Take-off distance 4. Flag this question Question 27 of 187 Number: 817 Question: The effect of increasing the flap setting. assuming other factors remain constant and not limiting? 1. from zero to the recommended take-off setting. 4. V1 is higher VR Flag this question Question 26 of 187 Number: 815 Question: How does runway slope affect allowable take-off mass. Decreased TOD required and decreased field length limited TOM. 3. 2. Increased TOD required and decreased field length limited TOM. Increased TOD required and increased field length limited TOM. 3. A downhill slope decreases allowable take-off mass.2. on the length of the Take-off Distance Required (TODR) and the Field-Length-Limited Take-off mass (TOM) is: 1. 4. Take-off run 3. 2. A downhill slope increases allowable take-off mass. Take-off distance Flag this question Question 25 of 187 Number: 813 Question: Which of the following answers is true? 1. V1 is lower VMCG 3. Flag this question Question 28 of 187 Number: 818 Question: How is VMCA influenced by increasing pressure altitude? . Decreased TOD required and increased field length limited TOM. V1 is higher VLOF 2.

VMCA increases with increasing pressure altitude. VR is the speed at which rotation should be initiated. which statement is correct? 1. 2. 2. VMCA decreases with increasing pressure altitude. 2. the field limited take-off mass. Flag this question Question 31 of 187 Number: 821 Question: Which statement is correct? 1.05 VMCA and not less than V1. 3. VR must not be less than 1.1 VMCA and not less than V1.1. the climb limited take-off mass. VR is the lowest climb speed after engine failure. VR is the lowest speed for directional control in case of engine failure. 4. 4. VMCA is not affected by pressure altitude VMCA decreases with pressure altitude higher than 4000 ft. In case of engine failure below VR the take-off should be aborted. Flag this question Question 30 of 187 Number: 820 Question: Considering VR. 2. Flag this question . Flag this question Question 29 of 187 Number: 819 Question: Which one of the following is not affected by a tail wind? 1. 4. the take-off run. VR must not be less than 1. 3. VR must not be less than 1. 3.1 V1. VR must not be less than VMCA and not less than 1. the obstacle limited take-off mass. 3.05 VMCA and not less than 1.05 V1. 4.

which of the following statements is true? 1.3050 m with failure of the critical engine recognised at V1 . VR VREF VMCA V2 Flag this question Question 34 of 187 Number: 824 Question: During certification flight testing on a four engine turbojet aeroplane the actual take-off distances measured are: . Take-off with anti-skid inoperative is never permitted. 4. 2555 m 2. .Question 32 of 187 Number: 822 Question: Which of the following represents the minimum for V1? 1.2555 m with all engines operating and all other things being equal The take-off distance adopted for the certification file is: 1. 2. VMU 3. 2938 m 3. 3050 m 4. VLOF Flag this question Question 33 of 187 Number: 823 Question: Which of the following represents the maximum value for V1 assuming max tyre speed and max brake energy speed are not limiting? 1. 2. VMCG 4. The accelerate stop distance decreases. 3513 m Flag this question Question 35 of 187 Number: 826 Question: If the antiskid system is inoperative. 3. VR 2.

Flag this question Question 39 of 187 Number: 408 Question: In accordance with JAR-25. when acceleration starts from VLOF to V2. when acceleration to flap retraction speed is started. when landing gear is fully retracted. VMCA only applies to four-engine aeroplanes The aeroplane will not gather the minimum required climb gradient The aeroplane is uncontrollable below VMCA Flag this question Question 38 of 187 Number: 404 Question: Which of the following will decrease V1? 1. Inoperative anti-skid. when the critical engine has failed. Increased outside air temperature. when flap retraction is completed. It has no effect on the accelerate stop distance. 3. Flag this question Question 37 of 187 Number: 403 Question: Which of the following is true with regard to VMCA (air minimum control speed)? 1. 4. 4. 4.3. The accelerate stop distance increases. 2. Straight flight can not be maintained below VMCA. 4. the reference landing speed (VREF) has the following minimum margin above the reference stalling speed in the landing configuration (VSR0): . Inoperative flight management system. 2. 2. Flag this question Question 36 of 187 Number: 402 Question: During take-off the third segment begins: 1. Increased take-off mass. 3. 3.

the height by which acceleration and flap retraction should be completed. 3293 ft / min. -1267 ft / min. 2. Flag this question Question 42 of 187 Number: 797 Question: During certification flight testing of a transport aeroplane. 15% 2. 20% Flag this question Question 40 of 187 Number: 795 Question: Use the attached graphic. 3.1720 m with failure of critical engine at V1. 3.1. 0 ft / min. based on pressure altitudes. with all other things remaining unchanged. The take-off distance adopted for the certification file is: . SIN( Angle of climb) = (Thrust. 1267 ft / min. 1 kt = 100 ft/min. the required 35 ft vertical distance to clear all obstacles is: 1. 4. 4.1547 m with all engines running . 23% 3. 2. the minimum vertical distance between the lowest part of the aeroplane and all obstacles within the obstacle domain. Flag this question Question 41 of 187 Number: 796 Question: In relation to the net take-off flight path. 10% 4. the height at which power is reduced to maximum climb thrust.Drag)/ Weight 1. the distances measured from brake release to the 35 feet point are equal to: . What is the maximum vertical speed of a three engine turbojet aeroplane with one engine inoperative (N-1) and a mass of 75 000 kg? Using the following: g = 10 m/s².

Flag this question Question 43 of 187 Number: 798 Question: For a turboprop powered aeroplane (performance class A) on a commercial flight. 1339 m. 4. 4. The limitation presented in this chart is taken relative to air.1. Consider the take-off performance for the twin jet aeroplane climb limit chart. 2. At higher temperatures the VMBE determines the climb limit mass. 2. It must be ensured that the landing mass of the aeroplane allows a full stop landing on a dry runway within a landing distance of: 1. 1547 m. At higher temperatures the flat rated engines determines the climb limit mass. 1779 m.5. 1771 m. 1147 m. 3. Flag this question Question 45 of 187 Number: 2323 Question: At reference or see Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4. 4.5. Flag this question Question 44 of 187 Number: 2322 Question: At reference or see Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4. 1720 m. At lower temperatures one has to take the danger of icing into account. With regard to the take-off performance of a twin jet aeroplane. 3. 1978 m. The engines are pressure limited at lower temperature. 1540 m. . 3. why does the take-off performance climb limit graph show a kink at 30°C and PA 0 ft? 1. Why has the wind been omitted from the chart? 1. at higher temperatures they are temperature limited. 2. a 2200 m long runway at the destination aerodrome is expected to be wet.

decrease the maximum mass for take-off. must be equal to or lower than V1. The effect of the wind must be taken from another chart. Flag this question Question 47 of 187 Number: 2625 Question: If the take-off mass of an aeroplane is brake energy limited a higher uphill slope would 1. 3. is the speed at which rotation to the lift-off angle of attack is initiated. decrease the required take-off distance. 2. increase the maximum mass for take-off. Flag this question Question 48 of 187 Number: 2626 Question: If the take-off mass of an aeroplane is tyre speed limited. must be higher than VLOF. 4. 3. 4.2. 3. Flag this question Question 46 of 187 Number: 2624 Question: The speed VR 1. have no effect on the maximum mass for take-off. 3. 4. Flag this question Question 49 of 187 Number: 2627 Question: The first segment of the take-off flight path ends . must be higher than V2. increase the maximum mass for take-off. downhill slope would 1. There is a built-in safety measure. 2. There is no effect of the wind on the climb angle relative to the ground. increase the required take-off distance. 4. have no effect on the maximum mass for take-off. 2. decrease the maximum mass for take-off.

2. selecting a lower V1.1. 10 degrees up to a height of 400 ft. The rate of climb increases since the constant IAS-climb is replaced by the constant Mach-climb. the bank angle should not exceed 1. a lower flap setting for take-off and selecting a higher V2. Flag this question Question 51 of 187 Number: 2629 Question: The climb limited take-off mass can be increased by 1.78 the rate of climb is approximately zero. 2. at reaching V2. 4. 4. 3.78. 2. Flag this question Question 52 of 187 Number: 2630 Question: In the event that the take-off mass is obstacle limited and the take-off flight path includes a turn. selecting a lower VR. .78 Mach are the same (at ISA temperature TAS=460 kt) 3. What do you expect in the crossover altitude 29 200 ft (OAT = ISA) ? 1. at completion of gear retraction. During the acceleration to the Mach number . 4. at completion of flap retraction. at 35 ft above the runway. 25 degrees up to a height of 400 ft. 3. The rate of climb decreases since climb performance at a constant Mach number is grossly reduced as compared to constant IAS. Flag this question Question 50 of 187 Number: 2628 Question: You climb with a climb speed schedule 300/. selecting a lower V2. No noticeable effect since the true airspeed at 300 kt IAS and . 2.

3. Wind: Maximum allowable tailwind: 15 kt. Landing mass: 50 000 kg. 3. Runway condition: dry. 3. QNH: 1013 hPa. to fly a profile as close as possible to the optimum altitude as the aeroplane mass reduces. What is the minimum field length required for the worst wind situation. 4. 15 degrees up to height of 400 ft. Flag this question Question 54 of 187 Number: 2867 Question: "Stepped climbs" are used on long-distance flights: 1. increases with increasing mass. to fly as close to the tropopause as possible. 2. 4. landing a twin jet aeroplane with the anti-skid inoperative? Elevation: 2000 ft. 3100 m. Flag this question Question 53 of 187 Number: 2729 Question: At reference or see Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4. 3. Maximum allowable headwind: 50 kt 1. Flag this question Question 56 of 187 . is only limiting at low altitudes. 2. decreases with increasing mass and is independent of altitude.28. 20 degrees up to a height of 400 ft. only if the headwind is less or the tailwind is greater than forecast at high altitude. 2900 m. 2600 m. Flaps: as required for minimum landing distance. 2700 m. 4. 2. decreases with increasing mass and increasing altitude. Flag this question Question 55 of 187 Number: 2793 Question: The speed range between low speed buffet and high speed buffet 1. for piston-engined aeroplanes only not for jet aeroplanes. 4.

. Go-Around Thrust 2. 4. increases in proportion to the airspeed. 2. can be reduced by increasing the load factor. increases with decreasing OAT. Maximum Take-off Thrust 4. is independent of the airspeed. Flag this question Question 57 of 187 Number: 2795 Question: Which of the jet engine ratings below is not a certified rating? 1. increases slightly with increasing airspeed. is independent of the airspeed. Maximum Cruise Thrust Flag this question Question 58 of 187 Number: 2796 Question: At constant thrust and constant altitude the fuel flow of a jet engine 1. decreases slightly with increasing airspeed. 2. limits the manoeuvring load factor at high altitudes. 3. is inversely proportional to the airspeed. 2. Maximum Continuous Thrust 3. 4. 3. 4. exists only above MMO. Flag this question Question 59 of 187 Number: 2798 Question: The thrust of a jet engine at constant RPM 1. 3. does not change with changing altitude. has to be considered at take-off and landing.Number: 2794 Question: The danger associated with low speed and/or high speed buffet 1.

4. 3. 3. can be flown in a steady climb only. a lower coefficient of lift. can be reached with the 'best rate of climb' speed in level flight. is achieved in unaccelerated level flight with minimum fuel flow.Flag this question Question 60 of 187 Number: 2802 Question: A higher altitude at constant mass and Mach number requires 1. 2. is the same as maximum specific range with wind correction. Flag this question Question 63 of 187 Number: 2808 Question: The long-range cruise speed is selected because: 1. is always lower than the speed for maximum specific range. 3. is the speed at which the aeroplane achieves 99% of maximum specific range. Flag this question Question 61 of 187 Number: 2805 Question: "Maximum endurance" 1. it achieves the specific range with a headwind 2. is always higher than the speed for maximum specific range. a lower coefficient of drag. a higher angle of attack. can be either higher or lower than the speed for maximum specific range. . a lower angle of attack. 2. 2. 4. 4. the higher speed achieves 99% of the maximum still-air range. Flag this question Question 62 of 187 Number: 2806 Question: The speed for maximum endurance: 1.

Only for take-off. 1. 2. 4. Flag this question Question 65 of 187 Number: 2811 Question: The engine failure take-off run is: 1. the distance of the point of brake release to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane attains a height of 50 ft above the runway assuming a failure of the critical engine at V1.15 times the distance from the point of brake release to the point at which VLOF is reached assuming a failure of the critical engine at V1. No. 1. is the altitude up to which cabin pressure of 8 000 ft can be maintained. it is the best speed for economy. 3. 3. increases as mass decreases and is the altitude at which the specific range reaches its maximum. Only for landing. 3. is the altitude at which the specific range reaches its minimum. 2. Flag this question Question 66 of 187 Number: 2813 Question: May anti-skid be considered to determine the take-off and landing data ? 1. Flag this question . 2. the horizontal distance along the take-off path from the start of the take-off to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane is 35 ft above the take-off surface. it is the cruise-climb speed for one or two engines inoperative. 4. Flag this question Question 64 of 187 Number: 2809 Question: The optimum altitude 1. 4.3. Yes. decreases as mass decreases. 4.5 times the distance from the point of brake release to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane attains a height of 35 ft above the runway with all engines operative.

the take-off should only be rejected if a stopway is available. 3. 2. a height of 50 ft must be reached within the take-off distance. the take-off may be continued if a clearway is available. the take-off must be continued. decreases the take-off distance. the take-off must be rejected if the speed is still below VLOF.Question 67 of 187 Number: 2814 Question: In case of an engine failure recognized below V1 1. 2. 3. can be used if the headwind component during take-off is at least 10 kt. 4. the take-off is to be continued unless V1 is less than the balanced V1. 4. 3. Flag this question Question 69 of 187 Number: 2818 Question: Reduced take-off thrust 1. . the take-off must be rejected. 2. is not recommended at very low temperatures (OAT). has the benefit of improving engine life. Flag this question Question 68 of 187 Number: 2815 Question: In case of an engine failure which is recognized at or above V1 1. 2. increases the climb limited take-off mass. the take-off should be rejected if the speed is still below VR. can be used if the actual take-off mass is higher than the performance limited take-off mass. Flag this question Question 70 of 187 Number: 2821 Question: A higher outside air temperature (OAT) 1. increases the field length limited take-off mass. 3. 4.

Flag this question Question 73 of 187 Number: 2827 Question: A 'Balanced Field Length' is said to exist where: 1. the take-off mass is field-length limited by the stopway to produce the maximum take-off mass. The clearway does not equal the stopway. 4. 4. Flag this question Question 71 of 187 Number: 2825 Question: Uphill slope 1. 2. 4. the acceleration/stop distance available is equal to the take-off distance available. decreases the accelerate stop distance only. 3. 2. 3. increases the take-off distance more than the accelerate stop distance. The accelerate stop distance is equal to the take-off distance available.4. Flag this question Question 72 of 187 Number: 2826 Question: V1 for a balanced-field is calculated when: 1. 3. 2. the speed is equal to V2. decreases the brake energy limited take-off mass. The one engine out take-off distance is equal to the all engine take-off distance. increases the allowed take-off mass. Flag this question Question 74 of 187 Number: 2828 . decreases the take-off distance only. The accelerate stop distance is equal to the all engine take-off distance. the take-off mass is field-length limited by the clearway to produce the maximum take-off mass.

1. the Mach number for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing altitude. 3. 1. 3. if the tailwind component is decreased. the TAS for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing altitude. 4.1 VMCA. If at the lower altitude either considerably less headwind or considerably more tailwind can be expected.15 VR. the Mach number for long range cruise decreases continuously with decreasing altitude. if the aeroplane mass is decreased. If the maximum altitude is below the optimum altitude. 1. if the temperature (OAT) is increased. .1 VSO. 4. If at the lower altitude there is a greater headwind. 3. 4. Flag this question Question 76 of 187 Number: 2831 Question: Below the optimum cruise altitude 1. the IAS for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing altitude. if the aeroplane mass is increased.15 VMCG. 2. 2. 1. 2.Question: V2 has to be equal to or higher than 1. 4. 2. Flag this question Question 75 of 187 Number: 2830 Question: The optimum cruise altitude increases 1. 3. Flag this question Question 77 of 187 Number: 2832 Question: Under which condition should you fly considerably lower (4 000 ft or more) than the optimum altitude ? 1. If at the lower altitude there is less tailwind.

3. Flag this question Question 80 of 187 Number: 2835 Question: If the level-off altitude is below the obstacle clearance altitude during a drift down procedure 1.Flag this question Question 78 of 187 Number: 2833 Question: If. Long Range Cruise Descent. after cabin depressurization. fuel jettisoning should be started at the beginning of drift down. to conduct a visual approach with one engine out. after engine failure if the aeroplane is above the one engine out maximum altitude. 3. 4. the climb requirements with one engine inoperative in the approach configuration. Flag this question Question 81 of 187 Number: 2838 Question: The maximum mass for landing could be limited by 1. ETOPS. 2. Flag this question Question 79 of 187 Number: 2834 Question: 'Drift down' is the procedure to be applied 1. 3. 2. Emergency Descent Procedure. 2. 4. Drift Down Procedure. fuel jettisoning should be started when the obstacle clearance altitude is reached. . 4. the procedure that should be adopted is: 1. the drift down should be flown with flaps in the approach configuration. to conduct an instrument approach at the alternate. after experiencing an engine failure when cruising above the one-engine-inoperative ceiling. the recommended drift down speed should be disregarded and it should be flown at the stall speed plus 10 kt. an aeroplane is unable to maintain its cruising altitude.

92% 3. reduced. 4. 3. not affected. improved. 3. 4. first improved and later reduced. Flag this question Question 82 of 187 Number: 2839 Question: The landing field length required for turbojet aeroplanes at the destination (wet condition) is the demonstrated landing distance plus 1.2. 4. 3. the climb requirements with one engine inoperative in the landing configuration. Flag this question Question 85 of 187 Number: 2844 . the climb requirements with all engines in the landing configuration but with gear up. 67% 2. 70% 4. 43% Flag this question Question 84 of 187 Number: 2842 Question: With one or two engines inoperative the best specific range at high altitudes is (assume altitude remains constant) 1. 2. 92% 67% 43% 70% Flag this question Question 83 of 187 Number: 2840 Question: The landing field length required for jet aeroplanes at the alternate (wet condition) is the demonstrated landing distance plus 1. the climb requirements with all engines in the approach configuration. 2.

Climb Gradient = ((Thrust .Mass)/Lift) x 100 Flag this question Question 86 of 187 Number: 2856 Question: The speed V1 is defined as 1.Drag)/Weight) x 100 3. take-off decision speed. 3. safe rotation speed for take-off . Climb Gradient = ((Thrust + Drag)/Lift) x 100 4. as reference stall speed and may not be less than 1-g stall speed. 3. speed for best specific range. Flag this question Question 88 of 187 Number: 2865 Question: The maximum operating altitude for a certain aeroplane with a pressurised cabin 1. Cimb Gradient = (Lift/Weight) x 100 2. Climb Gradient = ((Thrust . . engine failure speed. 2. 3. 2. is only certified for four-engine aeroplanes. is dependent on the OAT. speed for best angle of climb.Question: Which of the equations below expresses approximately the unaccelerated percentage climb gradient for small climb angles? 1. 2. design stress speed. is dependent on aerodynamic ceiling. 4. Flag this question Question 87 of 187 Number: 2857 Question: The speed VSR is defined as 1. 4. take-off climb speed.

4. 3. 2. that the climb-limited take-off mass will increase. Flag this question Question 89 of 187 Number: 2671 Question: If the field-length-limited take-off mass and V1 were calculated using balanced field-lengths. There is no legal minimum value. The minimum value according to regulations is 400 ft. variable dependant on the height of any obstacle within the obstacle accountability area. The effect a headwind has on the value of this limit is: 1. None.g. 2. 2. 3. an increased field-length-limited take-off mass and a reduced V1. Flag this question Question 91 of 187 Number: 2673 Question: Which of the following statements with regard to the actual acceleration height at the beginning of the 3rd climb segment is correct? 1. Flag this question Question 92 of 187 . the use of any additional clearway in the calculation would cause: 1. 4. an increased field-length-limited take-off mass and an increased V1. because this will be determined from case to case during the calculation of the net flight path. noise abatement.4. 4. 3. The minimum value according to regulations is 1000 ft. Flag this question Question 90 of 187 Number: 2672 Question: The take-off mass of an aeroplane is restricted by the climb limit. an increased obstale-limited take-off mass and an increased V1. A lower height than 400 ft is allowed in special circumstances e. is the highest pressure altitude certified for normal operation. an increased obstacle-limited take-off mass with the same V1. that the climb-limited take-off mass will decrease.

The landing distance is the distance from 35 ft above the surface of the runway to the full stop. When determining the obstacle clearance during drift-down. Flag this question Question 93 of 187 Number: 2675 Question: Which one of the following statements concerning drift-down is correct? 1.Number: 2674 Question: According to JAR-OPS 1. The drift-down procedure requires a minimum obstacle clearance of 35 ft. Reverse thrust is one of the factors always taken into account when determining the landing distance required. The drift-down procedure requires a minimum descent angle after an engine failure at cruising altitude.08 VSR 3. VSR 4. 3. Malfunctioning of an anti-skid system has no effect on the required runway length. An engine failure at high cruising altitude will always result in a drift-down. 1. because it is not permitted to fly the same altitude with one engine inoperative as with all engines operating.2 VSR Flag this question Question 95 of 187 Number: 2677 Question: The take-off safety speed V2 for two-engine or three-engine turbo propeller powered aeroplanes may not be less than: 1. 1.13 VSR 2.15 Vs . which one of the following statements concerning the landing distance for a turbojet aeroplane is correct? 1. 4. 4. 1. When determining the maximum allowable landing mass at destination. 60% of the available landing runway length should be taken into account. 2. fuel dumping may be taken into account. 2. 3. 1. Flag this question Question 94 of 187 Number: 2676 Question: In accordance with JAR 25 the take-off safety speed V2min for turbo-propeller powered aeroplanes with more than three engines may not be less than: 1.

3. only affected by the aeroplane gross mass. 4. The speed for maximum rate of climb.13VSR 4. the pressure altitude at which the speed for high speed buffet as TAS is a maximum. unchanged. 2. Flag this question Question 99 of 187 .74 the new crossover altitude will be 1. 3.2. 1. Flag this question Question 97 of 187 Number: 2634 Question: The optimum cruise altitude is 1. The speed at which the excess of thrust available over thrust required is greatest. 2.15 Vs1 Flag this question Question 96 of 187 Number: 2633 Question: If the climb speed schedule is changed from 280/.74 to 290/. 1. higher. 1. 4. Flag this question Question 98 of 187 Number: 2666 Question: Which speed provides maximum obstacle clearance during climb? 1. 3. 2. lower. V2 10 kt.3 VS 3. the pressure altitude at which the best specific range can be achieved. the pressure altitude up to which a cabin altitude of 8000 ft can be maintained. the pressure altitude at which the fuel flow is a maximum. V2. 4.

The minimum legally allowed acceleration height is at 1500 ft. An aeroplane usually flies above the optimum cruise altitude. There is no requirement for minimum climb performance when flying at the acceleration height..05 VMCG< VEF<= VR 2. 2. An aeroplane always flies below the optimum cruise altitude. Flag this question Question 101 of 187 Number: 2669 Question: Which statement regarding the influence of a runway down-slope is correct for a balanced takeoff? Down-slope. Flag this question Question 102 of 187 Number: 13357 Question: The correct formula is: (Remark: "<=" means "equal to or lower") 1. reduces V1 and increases the accelerate stop distance required (ASDR).Number: 2667 Question: Which of the following statements with regard to the optimum cruise altitude (best fuel mileage) is correct? 1. 3. 4. 3. An aeroplane always flies on the optimum cruise altitude. 3. 2. The maximum acceleration height depends on the maximum time take-off thrust may be applied. reduces V1 and reduces take-off distance required (TODR). 4. 2. increases V1 and increases the take-off distance required (TODR). as otherwise Mach buffet can occur. increases V1 and reduces the accelerate stop distance required (ASDR). 1. An aeroplane sometimes flies above the optimum cruise altitude. 1. Flag this question Question 100 of 187 Number: 2668 Question: Which of the following statements is applicable to the acceleration height at the beginning of the 3rd climb segment ? 1.. 4. V2min<= VEF<= VMU . The minimum one engine out acceleration height must be maintained in case of all engines operating. because this is most attractive from an economy point of view. as this provides the largest specific range. because ATC normally does not allow to fly continuously at the optimum cruise altitude.

3. High take-off mass. anti skid is not usable. small flap extension. VMCG<=VEF < V1 4. 4. small flap extension. Low take-off mass. The ROC is affected by the mass. The ROC speed decreases with increasing mass. large flap extension. what is the influence of mass on the maximum rate of climb (ROC) speed? 1. the runway is wet. Flag this question Question 106 of 187 . 1. 2. large flap extension. low field elevation. The ROC speed increases with increasing mass. High take-off mass. low field elevation. low field elevation. Flag this question Question 105 of 187 Number: 13334 Question: If all other parameters remain constant. 2.3. it is dark. 4. 3. 4. The ROC and the ROC speed are independent of the mass. 2. 3. but not the ROC speed.05 VMCA<= VEF<= V1 Flag this question Question 103 of 187 Number: 13359 Question: Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used when: 1. high field elevation. Flag this question Question 104 of 187 Number: 13362 Question: In certain conditions V2 can be limited by VMCA 1. obstacles are present close to the end of the runway. Low take-off mass.

1. has no effect on the take-off speed V1. VMCG. 4. 6 and 7 2. V1. 3. 1.Number: 13354 Question: Which combination of answers of the following parameters give an increase or decrease of the take off ground run: 1 decreasing take off mass 2 increasing take off mass 3 increasing density 4 decreasing density 5 increasing flap setting 6 decreasing flap setting 7 increasing pressure altitude 8 decreasing pressure altitude 1. 5 and 8 4. VLOF. 4. decreases the take-off speed V1. 6 and 8 3. 2. Flag this question Question 109 of 187 Number: 2093 Question: The speed V2 is 1. VMCA. 4. increases the IAS for take-off. V2 Flag this question Question 108 of 187 Number: 2086 Question: What effect has a downhill slope on the take-off speeds? The slope 1. 3. VMC 3. 5 and 7 Flag this question Question 107 of 187 Number: 13336 Question: In accordance to JAR 25 which of the following listed speeds are used for determination of V2min: 1. the take-off safety speed. 4. VR. 2. 2. decreases the TAS for take-off. 2. VSR. . 3.

take-off distance available equals accelerate stop distance available. Depending on density altitude and mass. V2 Flag this question Question 111 of 187 Number: 2096 Question: The long range cruise speed is in relation to the speed for maximum range cruise. 1. that speed at which the PIC should decide to continue or not the take-off in the case of an engine failure. 2. 3. 4. the lowest airspeed required to retract flaps without stall problems. the lowest safety airspeed at which the aeroplane is under control with aerodynamic surfaces in the case of an engine failure. 3. VMCA 2. Flag this question Question 113 of 187 Number: 2155 . Depending on the OAT and net mass. one engine acceleration from V1 to VLOF plus flare distance between VLOF and 35 feet are equal.2. all engine acceleration to V1 and braking distance for rejected take-off are equal. 4. VMCG 3. Flag this question Question 110 of 187 Number: 2094 Question: Which of the following speeds may vary if a stopway or clearway is available? 1. Lower 2. V1 4. 4. 3. Higher Flag this question Question 112 of 187 Number: 2154 Question: Field length is balanced when 1. calculated V2 is less than 110% VMCA and V1.

20% Flag this question Question 115 of 187 Number: 2159 Question: Which of the following is true according to JAA regulations for turbo propeller powered aeroplanes not performing a steep approach? 1. only by using standard turns. 3. when acceleration starts from V2 to the speed for flap retraction.5 x runway. . 2. when landing gear is fully retracted. Flag this question Question 114 of 187 Number: 2158 Question: The minimum value of V2 must exceed VMC by: 1. Maximum Landing Distance at the destination aerodrome and at any alternate aerodrome is 0. Flag this question Question 116 of 187 Number: 2160 Question: For take-off obstacle clearance calculations.5 x runway. Maximum Take-off Run is 0.7 x LDA (Landing Distance Available). 2. 15% 4. 4. 30% 2.95 x LDA (Landing Distance Available). when flap retraction begins. 4. Maximum Landing Distance at destination is 0. when flaps are selected up. 3. obstacles may be avoided 1.Question: The second segment begins 1. Maximum use of clearway is 1. 10% 3.

by banking not more than 15° between 50 ft and 400 ft above the runway elevation. holding. maximum endurance and maximum climb angle. 4. 3. decrease. 2. by banking as much as needed if aeroplane is more than 50 ft above runway elevation. 4. 3.2. Flag this question Question 120 of 187 . because the lift coefficient decreases. 4. maximum drag. because the lift coefficient increases. 3. 4. 2. the margin to low speed buffet will: 1. maximum climb angle. IAS increases. glide angle increases. minimum glide angle and maximum range. aircraft mass decreases. remain constant. by standard turns . maximum climb angle and minimum glide angle.but only after passing 1500 ft. increase. Flag this question Question 119 of 187 Number: 1450 Question: During a descent at constant Mach Number. Flag this question Question 118 of 187 Number: 1443 Question: The lift coefficient decreases during a glide with constant Mach number. because the lift coefficient decreases. 2. maximum range. minimum drag and minimum glide angle. increase. TAS decreases. 3. mainly because the: 1. because the Mach number remains constant. Flag this question Question 117 of 187 Number: 1442 Question: Which of the following three speeds of a jet aeroplane are basically identical? The speeds for: 1.

increase at first and decrease later on. 4. how will the climb angle / the pitch angle change? 1. increase / decrease. Flag this question Question 121 of 187 Number: 1453 Question: A jet aeroplane is flying long range cruise. 4. Reduce / remain constant. . 3. Increase / increase. decrease / decrease. Flag this question Question 123 of 187 Number: 1455 Question: During a cruise flight of a jet aeroplane at constant flight level and at the maximum range speed. 3. 4. 2. Remain constant / decrease. 2. remain constant. decrease / increase. 2. Reduce / decrease. How does the specific range / fuel flow change? 1. 3. increase. Increase / decrease. Decrease / decrease. 2. the IAS / the drag will: 1. 3. Flag this question Question 122 of 187 Number: 1454 Question: During a glide at constant Mach number. the pitch angle of the aeroplane will: 1.Number: 1452 Question: A jet aeroplane is climbing at a constant IAS and maximum climb thrust. Remain constant / become larger. Decrease / increase. decrease.

a clean configuration and ignoring compressibility effects. 4. Flag this question Question 127 of 187 Number: 1467 . maximum range speed.4. Flag this question Question 124 of 187 Number: 1456 Question: An aeroplane descends from FL 410 to FL 270 at its cruise Mach number and from FL 270 to FL 100 at the IAS achieved at FL 270. 3. maximum angle climb speed. Assuming idle thrust. An aeroplane flies most of the time above the optimum altitude because this yields the most economic result. maximum range speed. maximum angle of climb speed. 2. Vs. An aeroplane always flies below the optimum altitude. which of the following statements is correct ? 1. Maximum endurance speed. Maximum endurance speed. Vs. 3. 2. An aeroplane always flies at the optimum altitude because this is economically seen as the most attractive altitude. 4. 2. how does the angle of descent change (i) in the first and (ii) in the second part of the descent? 1. because Mach buffet might occur. maximum angle climb speed. An aeroplane sometimes flies above or below the optimum altitude because optimum altitude increases continuously during flight. (i) Increases (ii) Remains constant (i) Remains constant (ii) Decreases (i) Decreases (ii) Increases (i) Increases (ii) Decreases Flag this question Question 125 of 187 Number: 1463 Question: With respect to the optimum altitude. long range speed. increase / increase. maximum range speed. maximum range speed. 3. 4. Flag this question Question 126 of 187 Number: 1466 Question: Which of the following sequences of speed for a jet aeroplane is correct ? (from low to high speeds) 1.

Minimum specific fuel consumption. 2. 4.Question: If a flight is performed with a higher "Cost Index" at a given mass which of the following will occur? 1. In order to prevent loss of speed stability and tuck-under. 4. Flag this question Question 129 of 187 Number: 1469 Question: The speed for maximum lift/drag ratio will result in: 1. The aircraft can be operated close to the buffet onset speed. 3. In order to achieve speed stability. which of the following is the reason for the use of 'maximum range speed' ? 1. 4. Flag this question Question 128 of 187 Number: 1468 Question: For a jet transport aeroplane. The maximum range for a propeller driven aeroplane. The maximum endurance for a propeller driven aeroplane. 2. Minimum drag. Minimum fuel flow. 3. 2. . Flag this question Question 130 of 187 Number: 1474 Question: Which of the following is a reason to operate an aeroplane at 'long range speed'? 1. The maximum angle of climb for a propeller driven aeroplane. 2. The maximum range for a jet aeroplane. 3. A higher cruise mach number. It is efficient to fly slightly faster than with maximum range speed. 3. A lower cruise Mach number. An increased long range performance. Longest flight duration. 4. An increased maximum range.

the runway is dry. groundspeed. it is dark. the actual take-off mass is greater than the climb limited take-off mass. the actual take-off mass including a margin is greater than the performance limited take-off mass. the runway is wet. 2. the runway is wet. 2. Flag this question Question 134 of 187 Number: 1636 Question: The use of reduced take-off thrust is permitted. windshear is reported on the take-off path. only if: 1. the runway is contaminated. Flag this question Question 133 of 187 Number: 1635 Question: Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used when: 1. obstacles are present close to the end of the runway. TAS. 3. 4. 3. it is dark. 3. 4. 3. 2. 4. Flag this question Question 132 of 187 Number: 1633 Question: Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used when: 1. the actual take-off mass is lower than the performance limited take-off mass. 2. EAS. IAS. .Flag this question Question 131 of 187 Number: 1632 Question: The speed used to determine the "maximum tyre-speed limit" is the: 1.

The value of the critical Mach number at various masses and altitudes. Flag this question Question 135 of 187 Number: 1637 Question: When V1 has to be reduced because of a wet runway the one engine out obstacle clearance / climb performance: 1.4. To ensure that the brake wear is not excessive. the take-off distance available is lower than the take-off distance required. Because overheated brakes will not perform adequately in the event of a rejected take-off. increases / increases. The values of the Mach number at which low speed and Mach buffet occur at various masses and altitudes. 4. remains constant / remains constant. 2. 3. 2. 2. 4. Flag this question Question 136 of 187 Number: 1660 Question: Which data can be extracted from the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart? 1. To ensure that the thermal blow-out plugs are not melted. decreases / decreases. 3. Flag this question Question 138 of 187 Number: 1662 Question: Which is the correct sequence of speeds during take-off? . The value of maximum operating Mach number (MMO) at various masses and power settings. 4. The value of the Mach number at which low speed and shockstall occur at various masses and altitudes. decreases / remains constant. 3. Flag this question Question 137 of 187 Number: 1661 Question: Why should the temperature of the wheel brakes be checked prior to take off?" 1. To ensure that the wheels have warmed up evenly.

Never exceed speed 3. 2. The reduced thrust take-off technique does not preserve engine life. 4. VMCG. 3. 3. 4. High speed buffet limit 2. Maximum operating Mach number 4. 2. Maximum operating speed Flag this question Question 141 of 187 Number: 1665 Question: Which of the following statements regarding the reduced thrust take-off technique is correct? 1. The Stalling speed. 3. V2.1. VMCA. V1. VMCG. 2. Reduced thrust can be used when the actual take-off mass is less than the performance limited take-off mass. VR. V1. V1. VR. The Minimum control speed air. . Which speed limit will be exceeded? 1. V2. Reduced thrust is used in order to save fuel. VR. Flag this question Question 139 of 187 Number: 1663 Question: A jet aeroplane is climbing with constant IAS. VR. Flag this question Question 140 of 187 Number: 1664 Question: A jet aeroplane descends with constant Mach number. V1. V2. The Maximum operating Mach number. 4. The Mach limit for the Mach trim system. Which operational speed limit is most likely to be reached? 1. The maximum reduction of thrust permitted for the MRJT using a reduced thrust take-off is 20%. VMCG. V2.

The maximum bank angle which can be used is 10°.Flag this question Question 142 of 187 Number: 1666 Question: Which statement. The obstacle limited mass can never be lower than the climb limited take-off mass. V1 must not exceed VMCG. 3. Flag this question Question 143 of 187 Number: 1667 Question: Regarding the obstacle limited take-off mass. The climb limited take-off mass decreases with increasing OAT. Wind speed plays no role when calculating this particular mass. A take-off in the direction of an obstacle is also permitted in tail wind condition. When determining the V1. The V1 correction for up-slope is negative. in relation to the climb limited take-off mass of a jet aeroplane. 50% of a head wind is taken into account when determining the climb limited take-off mass. 4. The climb limited take-off mass is determined at the speed for best rate of climb. 2. 4. 3. reverse thrust is only allowed to be taken into account on the remaining symmetric engines. V1 must not exceed VR. 4. 2. 3. 2. is correct? 1. which of the following statements is correct? . On high elevation airports equipped with long runways the aeroplane will always be climb limited. Flag this question Question 144 of 187 Number: 1668 Question: Which statement regarding V1 is correct? 1. Flag this question Question 145 of 187 Number: 1670 Question: For a take-off from a contaminated runway. which of the following statements is correct? 1.

1. and should start braking below the hydroplaning speed.and reverse technique. Dry snow is not considered to affect the take-off performance. For a balanced field length the required take-off runway length always equals the available runway length. 2. 4. A balanced field length provides the greatest margin between "net" and "gross" take-off flight paths. The take-off performance data for take-off must be determined in general by means of calculation. make a "positive" landing and apply maximum reverse thrust and brakes as quickly as possible. even if the performance data for contaminated runway is available. braking. . 3. A balanced field length provides the minimum required field length in the event of an engine failure. Flag this question Question 146 of 187 Number: 1671 Question: To minimize the risk of hydroplaning during landing the pilot should: 1. use maximum reverse thrust. postpone the landing until the risk of hydroplaning no longer exists. A balanced take-off provides the lowest elevator input force requirement for rotation. The greater the depth of contamination at constant take-off mass. 1. By selecting a higher V2. 2. A slush covered runway must be cleared before take-off. 2. 2. In what way can the performance limited TOM be increased? There are no limiting obstacles. 4. only a few values are verified by flight tests. use normal landing-. 3. By selecting a lower flap setting. 4. the more V1 has to be decreased to compensate for decreasing friction. Flag this question Question 147 of 187 Number: 1672 Question: Which of the following statements is true regarding a balanced field-length? 1. 3. Flag this question Question 148 of 187 Number: 1647 Question: During the flight preparation the climb limited take-off mass (TOM) is found to be much greater than the field length limited TOM using 5° flap.

2. VR is the speed at which the pilot should start to rotate the aeroplane. during rotation. 2. A high runway elevation and a head wind. 3. Flag this question Question 149 of 187 Number: 1648 Question: Which combination of circumstances or conditions would most likely lead to a tyre speed limited take-off? 1. Flag this question Question 151 of 187 Number: 1650 Question: Which of the following statements is correct? 1. 3. By selecting a higher flap setting. 2. Flag this question Question 150 of 187 Number: 1649 Question: If on a particular flight the value of V1 used on take-off exceeds the correct value of V1. A low runway elevation and a head wind. A low runway elevation and a cross wind. Flag this question . the accelerate/stop distance will exceed the accelerate/stop distance available. V2 may be too high so that climb performance decreases. 4. A high runway elevation and tail wind.05 VMCG. if an engine fails at a speed immediately above the correct value of V1 then: 1. VR should not be higher than V1. the one-engine-inoperative take-off distance may exceed the take-off distance available.3. VR should not be higher than 1. By selecting a lower V2. VR is the speed at which. the nose wheel comes off the runway. 3. 4. 4. 4. It may lead to over-rotation.

4. V1 in kt ground speed. 3. VR. VLOF in terms of ground speed. 3. the actual engine thrust output at the altitude of engine failure. 2. Flag this question Question 153 of 187 Number: 1652 Question: Which of the following statements. the landing mass limit at the alternate. concerning the obstacle limited take-off mass for performance class A aeroplane. In any case runway slope is one of the factors taken into account when determining the required landing field length. Flag this question Question 155 of 187 Number: 1656 Question: For jet aeroplanes which of the following statements is correct? 1.Question 152 of 187 Number: 1651 Question: The drift down requirements are based on: 1. It should be determined on the basis of a 35 ft obstacle clearance with the respect to the "net take-off flight path". 4. . 2. The required landing field length is the distance from 35 ft to the full stop point. Flag this question Question 154 of 187 Number: 1654 Question: The 'maximum tyre speed' limits: 1. 4. the maximum flight path gradient during the descent. It should not be corrected for 30° bank turns in the take-off path. 3. 2. the obstacle clearance during a descent to the new cruising altitude if an engine has failed. 2. It should be calculated in such a way that there is a margin of 50 ft with respect to the "net take off flight path". or VMU if this is lower than VR. It cannot be lower than the corresponding climb limited take-off mass. V1 in kt TAS. is correct? 1.

Theoretical ceiling. 4. This gross mass accounts for the lower Mach number at higher temperatures. 60% of the available distance is taken into account. obstacle clearance in the approach area. Flag this question Question 158 of 187 Number: 1643 Question: The approach climb requirement has been established so that the aeroplane will achieve: 1. Service ceiling. 3. 2. 4. 3. what is meant by "equivalent gross mass at engine failure" ? 1. 4. The equivalent gross mass at engine failure is the actual gross mass corrected for OAT higher than ISA +10°C. if the runway is expected to be dry. With regard to the drift down performance of the twin jet aeroplane. . 3. An anti-skid system malfunction has no effect on the required landing field length. 2. all engines operating. Flag this question Question 156 of 187 Number: 1658 Question: Which of the following factors determines the maximum flight altitude in the "Buffet Onset For the same power and assuming that the sine of the angle of climb varies inversely with mass. The increment accounts for the higher fuel flow at higher temperatures. When determining the maximum allowable landing mass at destination. minimum climb gradient in the event of a go-around with one engine inoperative. Aerodynamics. manoeuvrability in the event of landing with one engine inoperative. manoeuvrability during approach with full flaps and gear down. Economy. The increment represents fuel used before engine failure. 4. Flag this question Question 157 of 187 Number: 1785 Question: At reference or see Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3. 2.24. at what maximum mass will the aeroplane be able to achieve the minimum gradient? 1.

giving the highest Cd/Cl ratio. with one engine inoperative. 4. V2 has no connection with T/O flap setting.Flag this question Question 159 of 187 Number: 1644 Question: How is V2 affected if T/O flaps 20° is chosen instead of T/O flaps 10°? 1. at which the failure of the critical engine is expected to occur. V2 increases in proportion to the angle at which the flaps are set. of greatest lift-to-drag ratio. giving the lowest Cl/Cd ratio. the lift-off point. the appropriate airspeed must be the airspeed 1. 2. the point half way between V1 and V2. 3. 3. Flag this question Question 160 of 187 Number: 2034 Question: A twin jet aeroplane is in cruise. V2 decreases if not restricted by VMCA. for long-range cruise. 4. 4. and has to overfly a high terrain area. V2 has the same value in both cases. In order to allow the greatest clearance height. as it is a function of runway length only. . the middle of the segment between VLOF point and 35 ft point. 2. Flag this question Question 162 of 187 Number: 1952 Question: The decision speed at take-off (V1) is the calibrated airspeed: 1. the point where V2 is reached. Flag this question Question 161 of 187 Number: 1951 Question: The one engine out take-off run is the distance between the brake release point and: 1. 2. 3.

3. below which take-off must be rejected if an engine failure is recognized. 1. . at which the take-off must be rejected. maximum endurance. Maximum range. below which the take-off must be continued. 3. Flag this question Question 163 of 187 Number: 1956 Question: The tangent from the origin to the power required against true airspeed curve. 1. determines the speed for: 1.2. 4. Flag this question Question 165 of 187 Number: 1947 Question: VR cannot be lower than: 1. no turbulence)? 1. Maximum endurance. 4. 3. minimum power.2 Vs for twin and three engine jet aeroplane. Long range. above which take-off should be continued. 2. 3. 2. 4. maximum specific range. Flag this question Question 164 of 187 Number: 1959 Question: Which cruise system gives minimum fuel consumption during cruise between top of climb and top of descent? (still air. for a jet aeroplane. critical angle of attack. 2. V1 and 105% of VMCA.15 Vs for turbo-prop with three or more engines. Holding. 105% of V1 and VMCA. 4.

The climb limited take-off mass will increase if the headwind component increases. Flag this question Question 167 of 187 Number: 3472 Question: Which statement relating to a take-off from a wet runway is correct? 1. 4. 2. 3. 3. The performance limited take-off mass is the highest of: field length limited take-off mass climb limited take-off mass obstacle limited take-off mass. (i) Increase (ii) Increase. 3. The climb limited take-off mass depends on pressure altitude and outer air temperature .Flag this question Question 166 of 187 Number: 1949 Question: The effects of an increased ambient air temperature beyond the flat rating cut-off temperature of the engines on (i) the field-length-limited take-off mass and (ii) the climb-limited take-off mass are: 1. A reduction of screen height is allowed in order to reduce weight penalties Flag this question Question 168 of 187 Number: 4226 Question: When determining the maximum landing mass of an turbojet powered aeroplane during the planning phase what factor must be used on the landing distance available (dry runway) 1. (i) Decrease (ii) Increase. Screen height reduction cannot be applied because of the consequent reduction in obstacle clearance. 2. 4. (i) Decrease (ii) Decrease. (i) Increase (ii) Decrease. The climb limited take-off mass increases when a larger take-off flap setting is used. In the case of a reverser inoperative the wet runway performance information can still be used 4. 60/115 Question 172 of 187 Number: 13760 Question: Which statement is correct? 1. The use of a reduced VR is sufficient to maintain the same safety margins as for a dry runway 2.

102150 kg 2. VMCG and V1 should not exceed VR Flag this question 2.6% in order to provide an adequate margin of safe clearance. VR may not be lower than V1 3. 118455kg 3. 1. 1.Flag this question Question 173 of 187 Number: 13765 Question: Which of the alternatives represents the correct relationship? 1. 121310 kg 4. 115/100 Flag this question Question 169 of 187 Number: 4532 Question: On a segment of the take-off flight path an obstacle requires a minimum gradient of climb of 2.8%. V2 and V1 should not exceed VMCG 2.67 3. V1 may not be higher than Vmcg Flag this question . The correction for up-slope on the balanced V1 is negative 2. VMCL and V1 should not exceed VR 4. VMCA and V1 should not exceed V2 3. reverse thrust may only be used on the remaining symmetric engines 4. 106425 kg Flag this question Question 170 of 187 Number: 5252 Question: Which statement regarding V1 is correct ? 1. When determining V1. At a mass of 110000 kg the gradient of climb is 2.

Therefore he has to fly the speed corresponding to: . the 1.3g altitude is reached. Executing a desired step climb at high altitude can be limited by buffet onset at g-loads greater than 1. VMCA and V1 should not exceed V2 2. 2. a pilot wants to fly for maximum time. V2 and V1 should not exceed VMCG 4. 4. 4. A step climb is executed because ATC desires a higher altitude. VMCG and V1 should not exceed VR 3. The climb limited take-off mass increases when a larger take-off flap setting is used. Flag this question Question 172 of 187 Number: 13760 Question: Which statement is correct? 1. A step climb must be executed immediately after the aeroplane has exceeded the optimum altitude.Question 171 of 187 Number: 13757 Question: Which statement with respect to the step climb is correct? 1. just after levelling off. 2. The climb limited take-off mass will increase if the headwind component increases. The climb limited take-off mass depends on pressure altitude and outer air temperature Flag this question Question 173 of 187 Number: 13765 Question: Which of the alternatives represents the correct relationship? 1. 3. The performance limited take-off mass is the highest of: field length limited take-off mass climb limited take-off mass obstacle limited take-off mass. VMCL and V1 should not exceed VR Flag this question Question 174 of 187 Number: 13766 Question: With all engines out. A step climb is executed in principle when. 3.

6. Flag this question Question 176 of 187 Number: 14292 Question: Select from the following list of conditions those that must prevail in the second segment of the take-off net flight path for a Class A aeroplane are: 1. Undercarriage extended. 9 4. 8. Commencing height 35ft.1. the same as that required at an alternate airport. 5. 4. 9. 2. 5. Undercarriage retracted.3VS. the minimum power required. 4. 1. 3. the minimum angle of descent. 2. 10. 2. 9 3. 10 Flag this question Question 177 of 187 Number: 14300 Question: V1 for a balanced-field is calculated when: . Flaps up. 6. Climbing speed of 1. 4. the required runway length at a destination airport is: 1. less then that required at an alternate airport. 60% greater than that required at an alternate airport 3. Climbing speed of V2 + 10kts. for turbo-prop aeroplanes. All engines at take-off thrust. 10 2. 8. the critical Mach number. Operative engine(s) at take-off thrust. Flaps in take-off position. 1. Climbing speed of V2. the maximum lift. 7. 2. 3. 4. 3. 1. Flag this question Question 175 of 187 Number: 13751 Question: According to JAR-OPS 1. more than that required at an alternate airport. 1. 6. 4. 5.

Flag this question Question 178 of 187 Number: 14460 Question: With regard to the drift down performance of the twin jet aeroplane. If an engine failure is recognized after reaching V1. 2. Because at this mass the engines slow down at a slower rate after failure. 2. there is still some thrust left during four minutes 4. 4. All the curves start at the same point. why does the curve representing 35 000 kg gross mass in the chart for drift down net profiles start at approximately 4 minutes at FL370? 1. the take-off must be aborted. the acceleration/stop distance available is equal to the take-off distance available. 3. the take-off must be aborted. Flag this question Question 179 of 187 Number: 13777 Question: Considering the take-off decision speed V1. which of the following is correct? 1. V1 is sometimes greater than the rotation speed VR. V1 may not be less than V2min. the take-off mass is field-length limited by the clearway to produce the maximum take-off mass. 4. the speed is equal to V2.1. 3. because of the inertia involved. Flag this question Question 180 of 187 Number: 15228 Question: The correct formula is: (Remark: "<=" means "equal to or lower") . If an engine failure is recognized before reaching V1. the take-off mass is field-length limited by the stopway to produce the maximum take-off mass. Due to higher TAS at this mass it takes more time to develop the optimal rate of descent. Because at this mass it takes approximately 4 minutes to decelerate to the optimum speed for drift down at the original cruising level. 3. 2. the minimum take-off safety speed. which is situated outside the chart.

the same as that giving zero induced drag. 3. the failure of the critical engine of a multi-engined aeroplane at VEF. the failure of two engines of a three-engined or four-engined aeroplane at VEF. the same as that for the maximum endurance.05 VMCG< VEF<= VR 3. 3. less than that for the maximum lift to drag ratio. 4. 1. VMCG<=VEF < V1 Flag this question Question 181 of 187 Number: 14717 Question: The requirements of the take-off net flight path for a Class A aeroplane assume: 1. 1. 2. Flag this question Question 182 of 187 Number: 14719 Question: The angle of attack required to attain the maximum still-air range for a turbo-jet aeroplane is: 1. 3. 4. V2min<= VEF<= VMU 4. increase initially and then decrease. 4. the failure of any engine of a multi-engined aeroplane at VR. greater than that for the maximum lift to drag ratio. the failure of any engine of a multi-engined aeroplane at VEF. 2. remain almost constant. .1. Flag this question Question 183 of 187 Number: 14720 Question: For an aircraft climbing at a constant IAS and a constant mass the drag will: 1. 2. decrease.05 VMC<= VEF<= V1 2. increase considerably.

3. Increase the value of V1.32 VSRO 1. V2. 3.23VSRO VSRO. 4.1 VSRO Flag this question Question 186 of 187 Number: 14725 Question: The value of V1 has to be equal to or higher than: 1. VMC. Flag this question Question 185 of 187 Number: 14722 Question: The relationship of the reference landing speed (VREF) to the reference stalling speed in the landing configuration (VSRO) is that VREF may not be below: 1. VMCG. 4. 2. VR. during the drift-down following an engine failure is: 1. the use of a clearway in the take-off calculations will: 1. 1000ft 2. 2. 1. 1500ft. Increase the field-length-limited take-off mass. Not affect the value of V1. Not affect the value of the field-length-limited take-off mass. 35ft 3. . 3.Flag this question Question 184 of 187 Number: 14721 Question: Compared with balanced-field calculations for an aerodrome with no stopway or clearway. 4. Flag this question Question 187 of 187 Number: 14729 Question: The vertical interval by which a Class A aeroplane must avoid all obstacles in the drift-down path. 1. 2.

1350 ft 4. 1750 ft . the take-off distance will be: 1.1 Airport characteristics: hard. dry and runway slope zero Actual conditions are: pressure altitude: 1500 ft outside temperature: 18°C wind component: 4 knots tailwind For a take-off mass of 2800 lbs. 2000 ft 2. 1500 ft 3. 2000ft Flag this question Question 1 of 1 Number: 16897 Question: At reference or use Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4.

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