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2556 1 ()

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1) Biology of Cells
2) Biochemistry and Molecular biology system
3) Skin and related connective tissue
4) Reproductive system
tion
5) CNS and PNS
6) Cardiovascular system
7) Endocrine system
8) Gastrointestinal system
9) Gender, Ethnic, Behavior considerations
10) Specimen collections and Lab interpretations

-1-

11) Hematopoietic and Lymphoreticular

12) Human Development and Genetics
13) Immune response
14) Microbial biology and Infec15) Musculoskeletal system
16) Pharmacology
17) Quantitative methods
18) Renal/Urinary system
19) Respiratory system

Biology of cell
1) 50 spindle fiber activity cell
mitosis
A. Interphase
B. Prophase
C. Metaphase
D. Anaphase
E. Telophase

-2-

Biochemistry and Molecular biology system

1) 40 DM type 2 aerobic respiration

A. Insulin release
B. Cortisol release
C. Endorphin release
D. Muscle glucose uptake
E. HDL-Cholesterol production
2) 50

A. Glycogenesis
B. Gluconeogenesis
C. Aerobic glycolysis
D. Anaerobic glycolysis
E. Pentose phosphate pathway
3)
....ATGCCAAA.....
RNA probe
A. UUUGGCAU
B. UACGGUUU
4) 30 / 4 / 10

A. Bone mass
B. Lean body mass
C. Muscle strength
D. Resting heart rate
E. Maximal oxygen consumption
5) 20 DM type I 560 mg/dL ketone

A. Beta-oxidation
B. gluconeogenesis
C. Tricarboxylic acid cycle
D. EmbdenMeyerhof pathway
E. Hexose monophosphate shunt
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6) 1 Serum glucose 65
mg/dl, Ketone bodies +ve
A. Lipolysis
B. Glycolysis
C. Proteolysis
D. Glycogenolysis
E. Gluconeogenesis
7) 5
A. Ketone fatty acid
B. Gluconeogenesis

-4-

Skin and related connective tissue

1) Cell
A. Fibroblast
B. Keratinocyte
C. Langerhans cell
D. Merkel cell
E. Neural crest cell
2) 40 3

A. Granulation tissue formation

B. Persistence of skin appendages
C. diminished edema and erythema
D. Good cardiac output with tissue perfusion
E. Maintenance of underlying connective tissue
3) 6
phenylalanine amino acid
A. Alanine
B. Leucine
C. Histidine
D. Tyrosine
E. Tryptophan
4) Vesiculobullous eruption acantholytic Suprabasal Organelle
A. Desmosome
B. Mitochondria
5) 5 defense mechanism

A. Stratum corneum
B. Stratum lucidum
C. Stratum granulosum
D. Stratum spinosum
E. Stratum basale

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6) 40 ANA Positive

A. Acantholytic Balloon cell

B. Vacuolization Basal cell layer
C. Acanthocyte with orthokeratosis
D. Individual keratinocyte ...............
E. Separation Basal cell layer from dermis
7) 35

A.
B.
C.
D.
E. capillary refill 2
8) granulation tissure granulation
tissue
A. Smooth muscle cell
B. Fibroblast
C. Capillary
D. Neutrophil
9) 25 1
A. Collagen
B. Chondroitin sulfate
C. Elastin
D. Fibronectin
E. Hyaluronic acid

-6-

Reproductive system
1) 30 thyriod hormone thyroxine
thyroxine
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Estrogen
progesterone
beta-hCG
thyroid stimulating hormone
serotonin

2) 15
46,xy
A. True hermaphrodite
B. Male pseudohermaphrodite
C. Female pseudohermaphrodite
D. Ovary dysgenesis
E. Testis dysgenesis
3) 25 Cul-de-sac
6 (weeks )
A. Estrogen
B. Prolactin
C. Progesterone
D. Human chorionic gonadotropin
E. FSH & LH
4) 46, XY uterine, uterine tube, internal male genitalia
A. Embryonic cell MIH
B. Mullerian inhibitory hormone receptor gene mutation
C. Embryonic cell Estrogen
D. Mullerian testosterone
5) 30
"placenta accreta" myometrium
A. Atrophy
B. Hypertrophy
C. Hyperplasia
D. Cloudy swelling
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E. Desidual change
6) 28 left adnexa, HCG positive, 5
predisposing factor
A. Adenomyosis
B. Polycystic ovarian syndrome
C. HSV
D. Pelvic inflammatory disease
E. Disordered proliferation endometrium
7) 30 6
Prolactin
A. Cloc....
B. Bromocriptine
C. hCG
D. hMG
E. Recombinant FSH
8) 25 28 1

A. Uterine vein
B. Femoral vein
C. Periumbilical vein
D. Inferior vena cava
E. Great saphenous vein

9) 35 35-40

A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. LH
D. FSH
E. hCG
10) 25 1 6

A. Oxytocin
B. Prolactin
-8-

C. Estrogen
D. Progesterone
E. Androgen
11) 35 vagina

A. dose
B.
C.
D.
E.
12)
3
A. Progesterone withdrawal bleeding
B. Estrogen withdrawal bleeding
C. Progesterone active bleeding
D. Estrogen active bleeding
E. Progesterone breakthrough bleedinging
13) FSH LH cell
A. Leydig cell
B. Sertoli cell
C. Follicle cell
D. Corpus luteum
E. Spermatogonium
14) 24 5 8 .
keratinized stratified squamous epithelium, bone,
respiration epithelium, intestinal epithelium
A. Epithelial tumor
B. Mesenchyme tumor
C. Germ cell tumor
D. Metastasis tumor
E. Stromal tumor
15) 35 pap smear permalignant lesion
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A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

reactive glandular atypia

microglandular hyperplasia
reactive squamous epithelial atypia
Endocervical glandular dysplasia
cervical intraepithelial neoplasia III

16) 30 16
Neural Tube Defect
A. alpha-fetoprotein
B. Integrin
C. hCG
D. Inulin-A
17) 30 5 10

A. Mercury
B. Cadmium
C. Copper
D. Lead
E. Lithium
18) 12 testicular volumn 6 ml , pubic hair tanner stage3 testicular
volumn 6 ml cell testis
A. Leydig cell
B. Sertoli cell
C. Spermatocyte
D. Spermatogonium
E. Seminiferous tubule
19) 25 30 ultrasound

A. Relaxin
B. Prostaglandin
C. Estrogen
D. Progesterone
E. hCG

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20)
A. Decreased cap hydrostatic pressure
B. Decreased interstitial hydrostatic pressure
C. Increased cap oncotic pressure
D. Increased cap permeability
E. Obstruction of lymphatic vessel

-11-

CNS & PNS

1) 65

A. Right anterior cerebral artery
B. Left anterior cerebral artery
C. Right middle cerebral artery
D. Left middle cerebral artery
E. Right posterior cerebral artery
2) 60
A. Insular lobe
B. Frontal lobe
C. Parietal lobe
D. Occipital lobe
E. Temporal lobe
3) frontal lobe frontal eye field area 8 2
lesion 2
4) 50 30 cachectic appearance, time place
disorientation, Horizontal and vertical nystagmus

A. Pituitary tumor
B. Thiamine deficiency
C. Alcohol intoxication
D. Chronic subdural hematoma
5) 70 Parkinson L-Dopa
Pathway
A. Mesolimbic pathway
B. Mesocortical pathway
C. Nigrostriatal pathway
D. Tubuloinfundibular pathway
E. Thalamostriate pathway
6) 60 fix dilate left pupil, Right hemiplegia
A. CN2
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B.
C.
D.
E.

CN3
CN4
CN5
CN6

7) . 10 5 papiliademia
bitemporal hemianopia
A. Optic tract
B. Optic nerve
C. Optic chiasma
D. Primary visual cortex
E. Lateral geniculate nucleus
8) 35 atrophy , Hyporeflexia
spasticity Hyperreflexia
A. Pons
B. Midbrain
C. Ventral root
D. Spinal cord
E. Cerebral cortex

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Cardiovascular system
1) A 50 year-old businessman, facing a hard time with his business, copes with heavy smoking and
alcohol drinking to develop anxiety and worrisome.
Which of the following condition has he got highest risk to develop? (Part1)
A. Aortitis
B. Cardiac arrhythmia
C. Cardiomyopathy
D. Cardiac syncope
E. Myocardial infarction
2) 30 BP 170/100 UA Angiography Right Renal artery

A. Renal prostaglandin
B. Plasma renin activity
C. Plasma ADH
D. Vascular sympathetic activity
E. Plasma ANP
3) stethoscope Systolic Diastolic blood pressure

A. Arterial elasticity
B. Arterial compliance
C. Vascular resistance
D. Turbulent flow of blood
E. Blood ejection from the heart
4) 25 mitral stenosis

A. End diastolic volume

B. Maximal heart rate
C. Resting heart rate
D. Heart contract
E. Total peripheral resistance
5)
A. Decrease interstitial hydrostatic pressure
B. Decrease capillary hydrostatic pressure
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C. Decrease capillary oncotic pressure

D. Increase ...
E. Obstruction lymph vessel
6) 50 3 Urine protein

A. Decrease interstitial hydrostatic pressure

B. Decrease capillary hydrostatic pressure
C. Decrease capillary oncotic pressure
D. Increase vascular permeability
E. Lymph vessel obstruction
7) 40 , enlarged neck vein , superficial
vien dilatation at upper chest wall ?
A. Pleura effusion
B. Pericardial effusion
C. Left-sided heart failure
D. Right- sided heart failure
E. SVC obstruction
8) 60 2 6

A. Venous Return
B. Ejection Fraction
C. Atrial pressure
D. Total peripheral resistance
E. pulmonary capillary wedge pressure

9) 50 pericardial effusion pericardiocentesis

intercostal space sternum intercostral space
A. 2nd
B. 3rd
C. 4th
D. 5th
E. 6th

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10) 2 cyanosis mid-systolic murmur left 3rd intercostal

space thrill
A. Tetralogy of fallot
B. Atrial septum defect
C. Bicuspid aortic valve
D. Coarctation of aorta
E. Transposition of great vessel
11) 25 lymphoma mediastinum 2
2
A. Systolic failure
B. Increase venous return
C. Spasm of coronary artery
D. Pulmonary outflow obstruction
E. decrease venticular compliance
12) brady cardia takycardia syndrome lesion SA node

A. Right marginal branch

B. Right main coronary a.
C. Left circumflex branch
D. Left main coronary a.
E. Left anterior descending a

13) 5 thalassemia Hct 21% cardiac output cardiac output

A. blood viscosity
B. arteriolar diameter
C. splanchnic blood flow
D. tissue oxygen tension
E. peripheral vascular resistance
14) 25
A.
B.
C.
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D.
E.
15)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
16) 60 BP 90/60 mmHg Troponin-T
yellow -tan and soft myocardium with depressed red -tan margins

A. Increase collagen deposit

B. Interstitial infiltrate of neutrophils
C. Dying neutrophils and myocardium
D. Early formation of granulation tissue
E. ...? contracted band necrosis

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Endocrine system
1) japan
potassium iodide
A. DNA adduction
B. uptake thyroid gland
2) 30

A. Pineal gland
B. Hypothalamus
C. Anterior pituitary gland
D. Posterior pituitary gland
E. Autonomic nervous system
3) A 45 year-old man presents with episodes of headache, palpitation and sweating. On examination
he is found to hypertensive. Adrenal tumor is suspected.
Which of the following urine examinationdifferential diagnosis?
A. Cortisol
B. Dopamine
C. Aldosterone
D. 17-ketosteroid
E. Vanillylmandelic acid
4) 40 2 cm. ultrasound solid mass
Scintigraphy activity activity

A. Follicular adenoma
B. Toxic nodular goiter
C. Hashimoto thyroiditis
D. Thyroglossal duct cyst
E. Granulomatous thyroiditis
5) 40 2
hormone

A. Growth Hormone
B. Thyroid Hormone
C. Parathyroid Hormone
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D. Luteinizing Hormone
E. 17-OH progesterone
6) 25
A. Cortisol
B. Epinephrine
C. Melaton
D. Norepinephrine
E. Adrenocorticotropic hormone
7) 15 50 135 breast tanner stage2 , public hair tanner
stage1 webneck Hormone
A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. FSH
D. LH
E. Dihydroslenedione
8) 1 TSH T3,T4

A. Physiologic goiter
B. Iodine deficiency
C. Thyroid adenoma
D. Autoimmune thyroiditis
E. Anterior pituitary tumor
9) thyroid gland muscle spasm of hand

injury
A. Thyroid
B. Thymus
C. Parathyroid
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D. Sympathetic nerve
E. Larynx
10) Postpartum pituitary necrosis
Sheehans Syndrome

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Gastrointestinal system
1) 20
A. Chief cell
B. Parietal cell
C. Paneth cell
D. Mucous cell
E. Enteroendocrine cell
2) 2
sigmoid colon
A. Nodular lymphoid hyperplasia
B. Hypertrophy of muscle wall
C. Absent myenteric ganglion cells
D. Transmural coagulative necrosis
E. Abundant thickening and dry mucous
3) 55

A. Pancreas
B. Myocardium
C. Gastric goblet cell
D. Gallbladder
E. Lower esophageal junction
4) A 35-year old woman complains of heartburn especially after meals for 2 years. The esophageal
endoscopic examination reveals red velvety appearance of lower esophageal mucosa and the
esophagogastric junction has moved up 3 cm from the normal position. Which of the following disease
has the greatest risk to occur from this condition?
A. Achalasia
B. Mallory Weiss syndrome
C. Adenocarcinoma
D. Carcinosarcoma
E. Squamous cell carcinoma
5) 40 4 Protein , Albumin ,
direct bilirubin , Total bilirubin , AST , ALT pathology ballooning degeneration
of hepatocyte, Inflammatory cell portal triad ......, hepatocyte disruption ...
A. Ceruloplasmin
B. Hyaluronic acid
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C. HB
D. Ferritin
6) 70 3-4
?
A. Gastrin
B. Secretin
C. Intrinsic factor
D. Cholecystokinin
E. VIP
7)
crepitation lung
A. Duodenal Atresia
B. Pyloric stenosis
C. Esophageal atresia
D. Diaphragmatic Hernia
8) 25
Colonoscopy Linear mucous ulcer Thickness of intestinal wall Mucosa
Descending ileum Ascending colon
A. Hepatic abscess
B. Intussusception
C. Toxic megacolon
D. Fistula formation
E. Adenocarcinoma
9) 50 Hepatocellular carcinoma

A. Aflatoxin
B. Tamarind
C. Aniline dyes
D. Nitrosamine

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10) 50 guarding rebound tenderness of

abdomen patch , omentum mesentery
enzyme
A. Lipase
B. Trypsin
C. Amylase
D. Carboxypeptidase
E. Cholesterol esterase
11) 10 BP 90/60 pulse 96 blood gas pH 7.23 urine pH 5

A. Plasma ammonium
B. Plasma bicarbonate
C. Urine bicarbonate
D. Urine ammonium
E. Urine titratable acid
12) 20 .
hormone
A. CCK
B. Gastrin
C. Insulin
D. Glucagon
E. Motilin
13) 5 6 . shrunken skin
poor skin turgor
A. Efferent arteriolar dilation
B. Decrease plasma aldosterone
C. Decrease plasma angiotensin II
D. Increase sympathetic activity
E. Increase ANP
14) inflammatory bowel disease
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A. malnutrition
B. stercobilin
15) 25 years old patient with cough, Atypical chest pain, Regurgitation and dysphagia,
Esophagogastoscopy Glandular Epithelium with Increse Globet and Mucus secreating cell
adaptation
A. Atrophy
B. Hypertrophy
C. Hyperplasia
D. Metaplasia
E. Dysplasia
16) Inflammatory Bowel diease total colanectomy

A. Constipation
B. Megaloblastic anemia
C. Severe malnutrition
D. Decrease bile pool
E. Decrease urinary urobilinogen

20) 40 Marked jaundice aPTT = 40 sec. PT = 40 sec.

A. Plasmin
B. Calcium
C. Vit k
D. Vit c
E. Fibrinogen

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Gender,Ethnics and Behavioral considertions

1) 3 15

A. Addict
B. Depression
C. Family history
D. Peer relationship
E. Lack of knowledge
2) 25
tumor marker
A. Autonomy
B. Beneficence
C. Non-maleficence
D. Equity
E. Conflict of interest
3)
A.
B.
C.
4) 50 1 2
popliteal a dosalis pedis BMI=35
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

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Specimen collections and Lab interpretations

1) 50 Alcoholic cirrhosis CBC
Hb 10, Hct 32, WBC 6000: PMN 60%, L 35%, E5% Plt 100000
tube ?
A. Plain tube
B. EDTA tube
C. Heparin tube
D. Sodium Citrate tube
E. NaF tube
2) 30 multiple group vesicle on erythematous border vesicle fluid
A. Gram stain
B. AFB
C. Wright stain
D. KOH preparation
E. India ink
3) fulminant hepatitis CBC, liver function test, Glucose, coagulogram

A. EDTA
B. Lithium heparin
C. Sodium citrate
D. Sodium fluoride
E. Acid-citrate-dextrose
4) 30 steroid test
A. Patch test
B. IgE
C. Skin biopsy
D. Prick test
E. Intradermal test

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Hematopoietic and Lymphoreticular

1) 10 Hb Hct WBC 9000 cells/mm3 platelet
350000/mm3
A. Liver
B. Spleen
C. Lymph node
D. Bone marrow
E. Kidney
2) 70 10 Osteoarthritis 3-4 Hematocrit 30%
Blood smear Hypochromic microcytic anemia

A. Serum iron
B. Serum ferritin
C. Transferrin
D. Hemosiderin
E. TIBC
3) 20 mild pale, spleen 2
cm. below left costal margin HbTyping HbA 90%, HbA2 2%, HbF 1%, HbH 7%

(Normal : HbA 97%, HbA2 2%, HbF 1%)

A. HbE/beta-0 thalassemia
B. beta-0/ beta-0 thalassemia
C. beta-0/beta+ thalassemia
D. alpha-1/alpha-1 thalassemia
E. alpha-2/ alpha-2 thalassemia
4) 30 1
A. Ptosis
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Cardiac arrest
D. Acute renal failure
E. Prolong venous clotting time
5) 5 3 aPTT 60 sec, PT 12 sec
blood component
A. Aged plasma
B. Cryoprecipitate
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C. Fresh whole blood

D. Fresh frozen plasma
E. Factor VII concentrate
6) 30 10 Hct 28%
blood smear ?
Basophilic stippling
7) 20 MCV 65 Hb 10 WBC 9000 RDW 18% cell

A. HbE disease
B. HbH disease
C. Iron deficiency
D. G6PD deficiency
9) 15 4 Hematocrit 37%, Petechiae,
Platelet 7,000
A. Mast cell Mediator
B. Autoantibody Platelet
C. Cytokine Platelet
D. Abnormal Coagulation factor
E. Immune complex Complement
10) leukemia bone marrow transplant stem cell

A. Plasticity
B. Induction
C. Maturity
D. Migration
E. Proliferation
11) 35 standing plasma test Triglyceride 400 mg/dL plasma
lipoprotein
A. Chylomicron
B. Very Low Density Lipid
C. Intermediate Density Lipid
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D. Low Density Lipid

E. High Density Lipid
12) 25 16 Hb 12% ,Hb typing : A 94% ,A2 5% ,F 1 %

A. Normal
B. Heterozygous HbE
C. Beta-thalassemia
D. Alpha thalassemia 1 trait
E. Alpha thalassemia 2 trait
F. Telophase
13) petechiae CBC: Paltelet 185000
A. Hb typing
B. Coombs test
C. Cytogenetic test
D. Antinuclear antibody
14) 5 prolonged
prothrombin time
A. B6
B. B12
C. C
D. E
E. K
15) peptic ulcer 3 HCT 10%, Hb 30%, WBC 9000(N80%,
L20%)
reticulocyte count 8% MCV 86
A. Hemolysis
B. Iron deficiency
C. B12 deficiency
D. G6PD deficiency
E. Acute blood loss

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16) 25 16 beta-thalassemia Bart's hydrop

Hb
A. Hb S
B. Hb C
C. Hb H
D. Hb F
E. Hb Barts
17) central cyanosis
A. Methemoglobin
B. Sulfhemoglobin
C. Carboxyhemoglobin
18)
A. O2 bubbles
B. N2 bubbles
C. CO2 bubbles
D. Fat emboli
E. Thrombi emboli

19) 10 CBC: Hb13, Hct 40%, plt 250,000, WBC 19,000 (W:80 band : 10 L:10)

A. Histamine
B. IL
C. PG
D. NO
E. O2 derived free radical
20) 20 2
A. Sinus histiocytosis
B. Follicular hyperplasia
C. Interfollicular hyperplasia
D. Paracorticol hyperplasia
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E. Granulomonous inflammation

21) 3 Hct 42% direct bilirubin 18 blood group A Rh- O Rh+

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Hb typing
Coombs test
Acid elution test
Liver function test
OF

22) 55 BP 180/35

A. Methemoglobin
B. Sulfhemoglobin
C. Deoxyhemoglobin
D. Carboxyhemoglobin
E. Carbaminohemoglobin
23) 75 moderate pale conjunctivae , no jaundice , glossitis CBC Lab : Hb 7 MCU 123 WBC
4000 platelet 98000 Blood smear

A. Thiamine
B. Riboflavin
C. Pyridoxine
D. Folic acid
E. Nicotinic acid

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Human development and Genetics

1) 35 8 weeks

A. Beta-hCG
B. Estriol
C. Hb A1c
D. Fasting blood sugar
E. Pregnancy associated plasma proteinA
2) 65 1 Stool occult blood positive
Polyp Adenocarcinoma

A. Autosomal Dominant
B. Autosomal Recessive
C. X-linked recessive
D. Multifactorial Inheritance
E. Mitochondrial Inheritance
3) 1 Upward slant , palpebral fissure, flat nasal bridge , Clinodactyly , Simian
crease 47,XX +21 Karyotype
A. Duplication
B. Transversion
C. Translocation
D. Nondisjunction
E. Uniparital disomy
4) 3 10

A. Chronic infection
B. Umbilical hernia
C. Epispadias
D. Urachal hernia
E. Bladder exstrophy
5)

A. Agility
B. Lung capacity
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C. Maximum heart rate

D. Body lean mass
E. Partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood
6) 40 1 BP 160/100 mmHg Ultrasound multiple
cyst
A. Autosomal Dominant
B. Autosomal recessive
C. X-link recessive
D. Y-linked disorder
E. Mitochondrial disorder
7) 46, XX X
A. Streak gonad
B. Mullerian duct
C. Woffian duct
D. External male genitalia
E. Uterus
8) 15
2 46, XY
A. True hermaphrodite
B. Ovarian dysgenesis
C. Gonadal dysgenesis
D. Male pseudohermaphrodite
E. Female pseudohermaphrodite
9) CT scan dilate lateral ventricle and third ventricle
A. Hydrocephalus
B. Holoprocencephalon
C. Hyanencephalon

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Immune response
1) 30 exopthalmos, hand tremor, palpitation

A. Autoreactive T-cell in infiltration
B. Antibody-mediated inflammation
C. Antibody-stimulated phagocytosis
D. Antibody-activated thyroid receptor
E. Complement-mediated inflammation
2) 10 Immunoglobulin
Isotypes
A. IgM IgA
B. IgM IgD
C. IgG IgE
D. IgG IgA
E. IgG IgD
3) 30
margination neutrophil connective tissue
?
A.
B.
C. 6-24
D. 36-48
E. >72
4) 2-year old male suffers from recurrent fungal infection. He also has multiple granuloma. He has
abnormal nitroblue tetrazolium and dihydrorhodamine test. Which of the following is the defect of
neutrophil function in this patient?
A. Engulfing
B. Protease synthesis
C. Phagolysosome fusion
D. Attachment to microorganism
E. Reactive oxygen species formation
5) Hct platelet
A. Immune complex
B. cytokine platelet
C. Mast cell degranulation
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6) 45 1 X-ray reticulonodular lesion cavitary lesion

left upper lung field Tuberculosis cell
A. Mast cell
B. Eosinophil
C. Neutrophil
D. Plasma cell
E. Macrophage
7) 5 2 3 Ab

A. Matrix
B. Peroxidase
C. Nucleocapsid
D. Hemanglutinin
E. Nonstructural protein
8) 5 2 16
Anti : IgM(x)

Ani : IgG(x)

Anti : IgM(y)

Ani : IgGZ(y)

1:2

Negative

Negative

1 : 256

16

1 : 152

1 : 32

Negative

1 : 256

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

primary x infection
primary y infection
secondary x infection
secondary y infection
secondary x&y infection

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9) 35 urine protein3+, sugar

trace, wbc+, rbc+, oval fat bodies
A. Lupus nephritis
B. IgA nephropathy
C. Chronic interstitial nephritis
D. Minimal change disease
E. Acute post streptococcal glomerulonephritis

-36-

Microbial biology and Infection

1) 40 4 Gram
negative bacilli non lactose fermenter Colony swarming Urease test
positive
A. Escherichia Coli
B. Proteus mirabis
C. Klebsiella pneumoniae
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
E. Staphylococcus saqprophyticus
2) 2 gram positive cocci in chain agglutinate
lancefield group B antiserum
A.
B.
C.
D. Nasopharynx
E.
3) 10 3 imipenem
sputum examination
A. Candida albicans
B. Rhizopus oryzae
C. Nocardia asteroides
D. Aspergillus fumigatus
E. Cryptococcus neoformans

4) 5 crepitation X-ray
multiple small abscesses consolidation Pleural effusion
A. Stapghylococcus aureus
B. Haemophilus influenza
C. Mycoplasma pneunoniae
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae
E. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
5) 10 Neisseria meningitidis
A. Abscess
B. Cortical edema
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C. Bilateral atrophy
D. Diffuse adrenalitis
E. Adrenal hemorrhagic necrosis
6) 25 8-10 gram gram negative curved rod
2nd messenger host
A. IP3
B. G-protein
C. cAMP
D. Tyrosine kinase
E. Guanylyl cyclase
7) 25 blood film

A. Plasmodium ovale
B. Plasmodium malariae
C. Plasmodium knowlesi
D. Plasmodium vivax
E. Plasmodium falciparum

8) 40 MRI

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A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
9) 2 3 No reflex

A. myopathy
B. poliomyelitis
C. Polyradiculitis
D. transverse myelitis
E. Guillain-barre syndrome
10) 5 stiff neck WBC 800/cu.mm N 90% monoclonal 10% protein 90
glucose 20 (plasma glucose 150)
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Cryptococcus neoformans
C. Enterovirus
D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
E. Naegleria fowleri
11) 50 sp.gr 1.015 cloudy
appearance ........ protein trace 2 rbc 5-10 wbc 50-100 epithelial 1-2 staghorn calculi

A. Escherichia coli
B. Proteus mirabilis
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D. Staphylococcus aureus
E. Staphylococcus saprophyticus

12)
1.5mm
A. Mite
B. Tick
C. Crab louse crab lice
D. Flea
E. Bed bug
-39-

13) 55 10
3

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
14) 50

A. Fasiolopsis buski
B. Necator americanus
C. Opisthorchis viverrini
D. Paragonimus westermani
E. Schistosoma hematobium
15) 40 3

-40-


A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
16) AIDS

A. Isospora belli
B. Cyclospora cayetanensis
C. Cryptosporidium parvum
D. Enterocytozoon bieneusi
17) TB AFB
A. Plasma cell
B. T cell
C. Lymphocyte
D. Neutrophil
E. Macrophage
18) 25

A. Enteroinvasive E.coli
B. Enterotoxogenic E.coli
-41-

C. Enteropathogenic E.coli
D. Enteroaggregative E.coli
E. Enterohemorrhagic E.coli
19) 20 60 190

A. Post inflame hyperpigmentation

B. Acanthosis nigricans
C. Dermatophytes
20) 25 virus envelope neutralizing antibody virus

A. Attachment site
B. Capsid
C. Protease
D. RNA polymerase
E. Reverse transcriptase
21) 65 reactivation
A. Macrophage
B. Cytotoxic T cell
C. NK cell
D. Neutrophill
E. Plasma cell
22) 35 organism Giemza
stain

A.
B.
C.
D.

Dientamoeba fragilis
Giardia lamblia
Trichomonas vaginalis
Pentatrichomonas hominis

-42-

Musculoskeletal system
1) 20 hyperthyroidism subtotal thyroidectomy

A. Facial nerve
B. Vagus nerve
C. Trigeminal nerve
D. Hypoglossal nerve
E. Glossopharygeal nerve
2) hyporeflexia hyperreflexia, spasticity
Spinal cord???
3) 35
Herniated nucleus pulposus disc herniation
A. L2-L3
B. L3-L4
C. L4-L5
D. L5-S1
E. S1-S2
4) 20 anterior drawer sign +ve

A. Anterior cruciate ligament

B. Posterior cruciate ligament
C. Medial collateral ligament
D. Medial lemniscus
E. Lateral lemniscus
5) 28 thenar muscle loss of pain sensation

A. Ulnar nerve
B. Radial nerve
C. Median nerve
D. Axillary nerve
E. Musculocutaneous nerve
6) radical right mastectomy
winged scapular
-43-

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Medial pectoral nerve

Long thoracic nerve
Dorsal subscapular nerve
Upper subscapular nerve
Lower subscapular nerve

7) 40

A. Bone cyst
B. Stress fracture
C. Osteoarthritis
D. Osteosarcoma
E. Osteonecrosis
F. Osteoporosis
8) Injury surgical neck Humerus nerve
Axillary nerve
9) 70 4
extensor flexor, deep tendon reflex

A. Niacin
B. Thiamine
C. Riboflavin
D. Peridoxine
E. Cyanocobalamine
10) 11. 45 Asthma Open angle glaucoma Tomolol eye
drop Timolol eye drop
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Nasal mucosa
Conjunctiva
Trabecular meshwork
Choroid
Iris

11)

A. C1-C6
-44-

B.
C.
D.
E.

C2-C7
C3-C6
C4-C7
C5-T1

12) 55 Non-pitting edema, ankle painful with dorsiflex, increase S2

heart sound, lung clear
A. Varicose vein with pneumonia
B. Varicose vein with thromboembolism
C. Phlebothrombosis with pneumonia
D. Phlebothrombosis with thromboembolism
E. Phlebothrombosis with myocardial infarction
13) Fracture at neck of femur necrosis head of femur neck of
femur?
A. Obturator artery
B. Superior gluteal artery
C. Inferior gluteal artery
D. First perforating artery
E. Medial circumflex artery of femur
14) 50 motor cortex
A. Occipitofrontalis muscle
B. Orbicularis occuli muscle
C. Orbicularis oris muscle
D. Levator labii muscle
E. Nasalis muscle
15) 20 x-ray humerus medial
epicondyle
A. Abductor pollicis longus
B. Abductor pollicis brevis
C. Extensor pollicis brevis
D. Opponem pollicis
E. Abductor pollicis
-45-

16) 70 3
Osteoarthritis
A. Synovial hyperplasia
B. Subperiosteal thickness
C. Rhomboid crystals deposit
D. Fibrillation of articular cartilage
17) blue sclera
A. Callus formation
B. Calcium accretion
C. Magnesium accretion
D. Collagen bone matrix
E. Phosphate deposition
18) ....
A. Migraine
B. Bell palsy
C. Trigeminal neuralgia
D. Herpes
19) 60 fixed dilated left pupil 6 mm, right hemiplegia

A. Optic nerve
B. Oculomotor nerve
C. Trigeminal nerve
D. Abducens nerve
E. CN IV
20) 20 Inversion X-rays
fracture of fibular node
A. Tibialis anterior
B. Tibialis posterior
C. Peroneus longus
D. Peroneus terius
E. Flexor digitorium longus

-46-

21) 18 65 kg. 175 cm. 1 Tanner pubic

hair stage 5 genitalia tanner stage5
A. Bone remodeling
B. Arrest ossification of bone
C. Fusion metaphysis and epiphysis
D. Bone resorption bone formation
E. Change osteoblast to osteoclast

22) neck of humerus ischemic necrosis head of humerus

neck of humerus
1. obturator a.
2. inferior gluteal a.
3. superior gluteal a.
4. first perforating a.
5. medial femoral circumflex a.

-47-

Pharmacology
1) 10
A. EDTA
B. Deferoxamine
C. N-Acetyl cysteine
D. Atropine and 2-PAM
E. Sodium nitrite and Sodium thiosulfate
2) 64 4
ventricular arrythmias
A. Cisipride
B. Ondansefron
C. Dimenhydrinate
D. Dormperidone
E. Metroclopramide
3) 20 F 20 2 . .

A. N-acetylcysteine
B. Deferoxamine
C. Adrenaline
D. Fumezenil
E. Fomepisol
4) Pulmonary tuberculosis
A. INH
B. Rifampin
C. Pyrazinamide
D. Ethambutol
E. Streptomycin

5) 50 20 Paracetamol (50 mg) 10 4 .

Paracetamol toxicity
A. Hepatic CYP450 induction
B. Decrease renal clearance
C. Decrease hepatic gluconidation
D. Increase Paracetamol absorption
-48-

E. Increase hepatocyte glutathione

6) 30 pulmonary tuberculosis

A. Isoniazid
B. Rifampin
C. Ethambutol
D. Streptomycin
E. Pyrazinamide
7) BP 100/70 HR 90 BP 130/100 HR 100
receptor
A. Alpha1, beta2
B. Alpha1, beta1
C. Alpha2, beta1
D. Alpha2, beta2
E. Beta1, beta1
8) 2 KOH branching septate hyphae
tropical fungistatic cream
A. 7
B. 14
C. 21
D. 28
E. 35
9) HIV Uridine-thymidine analog azido group -OH group 3'
deoxyribose

A. Unwinding of DNA
B. Initiation
C. Elongation
D. Termination
E. DNA methylation
10) 45 serum uric acid 12 mg/dL Probenecid

A. Competitive inhibitor at proximal tubule
-49-

B.
C.
D.
E.

Increase excretion at proximal tubule

Increase degradation at liver
Decrease synthesis
Form complex and excrete

11) Dose-killing antibody 1,2,3,4 MIC(Minimal inhibitory concentration)

A. Gentamicin
B. Penicillin
C. Tetracycline
D. Erythropoietin
E. Chloramphenical
12) 60 Oseltamivir
A. Maturation
B. Virion assembly
C. Reverse transcription
D. Release from host cell
E. Release to host cell
13) 55 primary hypertension Lab RAAS Antihypertensive
drug
A. Atenolol
B. Enalapril
C. Clomazine
D. Hydralasine
E. Hychlorothiazide
-50-

14) BPH finasteride

A. Testosterone
B. Dihydrotestosterone
C. Dehydroepiandrosterone
D. Androstenedione
E. Estrone
15) 50 1

A. Anticholinergic
B. Adrenergic antagonist
C. Dopamine agonist
D. Benzodiazepines
E. Serotonin reuptake inhibitor
16) 50 1 osteoporosis

A. Raloxifene
B. Mifepristone
C. Clomiphene
D. Norethindrone
E. Glycosaminoglycan
17)
A. Anticholinergic
B. Dopamine agonist
C. Adrenergic antagonist
D. Benzodiazepine
E. Serotonin reuptake inhibitor
18) 4-5 20


A. Zinc phosphide
B. Chlorinated hydrocarbon
C. Organophosphate
D. Paraquat
E. Botulinum toxin

-51-

20) dermatome T10 Unilateral vesicle

A. Acyclovir
B. Ribavirin
C. Dinovo
21) 50 BP 160/95 mmHg Thiazide

A. Distal convoluted tubule

B. Proximal convoluted tubule
C. Collecting duct
D. Descending limb of Henles loop
E. Ascending limb of Henles loop
22) Hydrochlorothiazide hypokalemia apical site of distal tubule
A. Symport
B. Antiport
C. Na/KATPase
23) glaucoma
A. Timolol
B. Pilocarpine
C. Phenylephrine
D. Lanoprost
24) Blood smear

A. Chloroquine
B. Quinine
C. Artesunate
D. Primaquine
-52-

25) Isotretinoin side effect

Teratogenic effect
26) 30 heart failure furosemide 2
A. Hyperuricemia
B. Hyperchloremia
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hypernatremia
E. Hyperkalemia
27) 15 pupil constrict , pulse ~65 , Respi rate
A. Atropine
B. Naloxone
C. Adrenaline
D. Methadone
28) 25 asthma wheezing oropharyngeal candidiasis

A. Salbutamol
B. Belcomethrasne
C. Ipratropium bromide
D. Systemic corticosteroid
E. Cromolyn
29) DM type1 Insulin
A. Glipizide
B. Glyburide
C. Metformin
D. Rosiglitazone
E. Chlorpropamide
30) 45 Peptic ulcer omeprazole
A. Gastrin
B. Ghrerin
C. Secretin
D. CCK
E. Motilin
-53-

31) Anxiety Diazepam 1 3-4

withdrawal
A. Irritability
B. Cataplexy
C. Constipation
D. Bradycardia
E. Sleep apnea
32) 9 BP 60/40, HR 120, wheezing, Bronchospasm
A. Adrenaline
B. Dexamethasone

-54-

Quantitative methods
1)
A. Quota sampling
B. Systemization sampling
C. Simple random sampling
D. Proposing sampling
E. Cluster samplin
2) 10 80, ..., 480

A. Mode
B. Mean
C. Range
3) Sensitivity
Disease

No Disease

+
60

40

20

80

4) 1000 10 1
4 case fatality rate
A. 0.1
B. 1
C. 10
D. 0.5
E. 50

-55-

Renal / Urinary system

1) 55 2 Urinalysis

10-15 m
A. Acute tubular necrosis
B. Chronic renal disease
C. Acute pyelonephritis
D. Acute glomerulonephritis
2) 40 Acute Glaucoma Carbonic andhydrase inhibitor Acidosis Urine
pH 7.0 HCO3 HCO3
A. Proximal Tubule
B. Descending Limb of Henle's Loop
C. Ascending Limb of Henle's Loop
D. Distal Tubule
E. Collecting Tubule
3) End stage kidney disease Hb7 Hct 21 Plt 150,000
1. Renin
2. Vasopressin
3. Prostaglandin
4. EPO
5. PTH
4) 30
creatinineserum
A. Acute pyelonephritis
B. Acute tubular necrosis
C. Acute papillary necrosis
D. Wedge-shape infarction
E. Crescentic glomerulonephritis
-56-

5) 50 5

A. RBC cast
B. WBC cast
C. Broad cast
D. Decreased GFR
E. Microalbuminuria
6) 144. 25 BP 170/110 BP

A. Zona Granulosa
B. Zona Fasciculata
C. Zona Reticularis
D. Chromaffin cell
E. Ganglionic cell
7) 45 creatinine clearance test Urine flow 30 mL/hr, serum creatinine
2 mg/dL, urine creatinine 2 mg/mL glomerular filtration rate
A. 10 mL/min
B. 15 mL/min
C. 50 mL/min
D. 100 mL/min
E. 120 mL/min
8) multiple myeloma Glycosuria, Amino acid urea,
Phosphaturia Nephron
A. Glomerulus
B. Proximal tubule
C. Henles loop
D. Distal tubule
E. Collecting duct
9) 40
refer pain
A. Left shoulder
B. Epigastrium
-57-

C. Intracapsular space
D. Lower abdomen
E. Perianal area
10) 60 plasma total
bilirubin 6 mg/dL direct bilirubin 5.5 mg/dL urine
A. Hemoglobinuria
B. Urobilinogen
C. Direct bilirubin
D. Indirect bilirubin
E. Direct bilirubin Indirect bilirubin
11) 35 protein 3+ , WBC 510/HPF
, RBC 10-25/HPF, oval fat body 2-3/HPF, RBC cast 0-1/HPF
A. IgA nephropathy
B. Chronic interstitial nephritis
C. Minimal change disease
D. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
E. Lupus nephritis
12) 20 Nephrotic syndrome Kidney biopsy

A. T9
B. T10
C. T11
D. T12
E. L1
13)
Calcitriol
14) Episode headache, hypertension cancer urine
A. VMA
B. Cortisol

-58-

15) 25 Serum Na = 142 K = 3.3 Cl = 102 Bicarb = 10

Arterial blood gas pH = 7.32 PCO2 = 12 Acid-base
A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensated
E. Respiratory acidosis with Metabolic compensated

-59-

Respiratory system
1) arterial blood gas room air syringe
blood gas

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

PaO2

PaCO2

pH

2) 30
A. Oxygen bubble
B. Nitrogen bubble
C. Carbon dioxide bubble
D. Fat embolism
E. Thromboembolism
3) Asthma Wheezing PaCO2 35 sat O2 85%

A. FEV1
B. FVC
C. FEV1 / FVC
D. Airway resistant
E. maximal expiratory flow rate
4) 40 ..., nodule at both upper lobe

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
5) 65 CXR:
alveoli /
A. Acquired RDS
B. Lobarpneunonia
-60-

C. Acute Pulmonary edema

D. Bronctrial asthma
E. Pleural effusion
6) 6 bronchus
A. Right upper lobe
B. Right middle lobe
C. Right lower lobe
D. Left upper lobe
E. Left lower lobe
7) 30
nasal septum
A. Acute rhinitis
B. Acute sinusitis
C. Allergic rhinitis
D. Angiofibroma of nasal cavity
E. Mucocele of paranasal sinus
8) 70 20 70 PaO2, PaCO2
20
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
9) 27
A. Pericardium
B. Parietal pleural
C. Lung parenchymal
D. Diaphragm
E. Intercostal muscle
10) 20

A. Variable Stroke volume

B. Variable Tidal volume
-61-

C. Physiologic dead space

D. Anatomical pulmonary shunt
E. Ventilation/Perfusion mismatch
11) 70 1-2 20 2
increased anteroposterior diameter of the chest , hyperresonanse on percussion ,
distant of the breath sound occasional wheeze

A. Elastase
B. Nitric oxide
C. Interleukins
D. Leukotrienes
E. Arachidonic acid
12) 50 20 2
Broncho alveolar larvage Asbestosbody
A. Non-caseating granuloma
B. Diffuse interstitial fibrosis
C. Mucous gland hyperplasia
D. Airway dilatation with scarring
E. Alveolar damage with hyaline membrane
13) 50 Squamous cell carcinoma of lung

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Hypercalcemia
Hypernatremia
Hyperuricemia
Hyponatremia
Hypoglycemia

14) 40 1 5 kg 3 x-ray left pleural

effusion 50% pleural fluid protein 5 LDH 500 WBC 2000 ( L 90% N 10%)
mesothelial cell LDH 300 protein 7
A. TB
B. Lung cancer
C. Lung abscess
D. viral pneumonia
E. pleural infarction
-62-

15) 50 spirometry flow-volume-curve

A. Silicosis
B. Kyphosis
C. Atelectasis
D. Emphysema
E. Respiratory distress syndrome
16) 2 1200 ground glass appearance Respiratory
distress syndrome ...
A. Respiratory muscle
B. Bronchial
C. Pulmonary surfactant
17) Pleural effusion LDH, glucose, protein mesothelial cell
A. Viral pneumonia
B. SLE
C. Bronchial carcinoma
D. TB
E. Congestive heart failure
18) 70 2 1 40 FEV1 60% of
predicted, FVC 95% of predicted, FEV1/FVC 65% Bronchus
A. Goblet cell
B. Ciliated cell
C. Collagen fiber
D. Submucosal mucous gland
E. Alveolar radial traction force
19) 5 chronic asthma 12 .
RR 60/min Ronchi Wheezing at expiration

Trachea
A. Bronchus
B. Bronchiole
C. Alveolar duct
D. Alveoli
-63-

20) 20
A. Tissue hypoxia
B. Ketoacidosis
C. Increase CO2 production
D. Increase pulmonary blood flow
E. Increase intrapulmonary shunt

-64-