Chapter 1 1. An ideal voltage source has a. Zero internal resistance b. Infinite internal resistance c. A load-dependent voltage d.

A load-dependent current a. Zero internal resistance 2. A real voltage source has a. Zero internal resistance b. Infinite internal resistance c. A small internal resistance d. A large internal resistance c. A small internal resistance 3. If a load resistance is 1 kohm, a stiff voltage source has a resistance of a. At least 10 ohm b. Less than 10 ohm c. More than 100 kohm d. Less than 100 kohm b. Less than 10 ohm 4. An ideal current source has a. Zero internal resistance b. Infinite internal resistance c. A load-dependent voltage d. A load-dependent current b. Infinite internal resistance 5. A real current source has a. Zero internal resistance b. Infinite internal resistance c. A small internal resistance d. A large internal resistance d. A large internal resistance 6. If a load resistance is 1 kohm, a stiff current source has a resistance of a. At least 10 ohm b. Less than 10 ohm c. More than 100 kohm d. Less than 100 kohm c. More than 100 kohm 7. The Thevenin voltage is the same as the a. Shorted-load voltage b. Open-load voltage c. Ideal source voltage d. Norton voltage b. Open-load voltage 8. The Thevenin resistance is equal in value to the a. Load resistance b. Half the load resistance c. Internal resistance of a Norton circuit d. Open-load resistance c. Internal resistance of a Norton circuit

9. To get the Thevenin voltage, you have to a. Short the load resistor b. Open the load resistor c. Short the voltage source d. Open the voltage source b. Open the load resistor 10. To get the Norton current, you have to a. Short the load resistor b. Open the load resistor c. Short the voltage source d. Open the current source a. Short the load resistor 11. The Norton current is sometimes called the a. Shorted-load current b. Open-load current c. Thevenin current d. Thevenin voltage a. Shorted-load current 12. A solder bridge a. may produce a short b. may cause an open c. is useful in some circuits d. always has high resistance a. may produce a short 13. A cold-solder joint a. shows good soldering technique b. usually produces an open c. is sometimes useful d. always has low resistance b. usually produces an open 14. An open resistor has a. Infinite current through it b. Zero voltage across it c. Infinite voltage across it d. Zero current through it d. Zero current through it 15. A shorted resistor has a. Infinite current through it b. Zero voltage across it c. Infinite voltage across it d. Zero current through it b. Zero voltage across it 16. An ideal voltage source and an internal resistance is an example of the a. Ideal approximation b. Second approximation c. Higher approximation d. Exact model b. Second approximation

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17. Treating a connecting wire as a conductor with zero resistance is an example of the a. Ideal approximation b. Second approximation c. Higher approximation d. Exact model a. Ideal approximation 18. The voltage out of an ideal voltage source a. Is zero b. Is constant c. Depends on the value of load resistance d. Depends on the internal resistance b. Is constant 19. The current out of an ideal current source a. Is zero b. Is constant c. Depends on the value of load resistance d. Depends on the internal resistance b. Is constant 20. Thevenin’s theorem replaces a complicated circuit facing a load by an a. Ideal voltage source and parallel resistor b. Ideal current source and parallel resistor c. Ideal voltage source and series resistor d. Ideal current source and series resistor c. Ideal voltage source and series resistor 21. Norton’s theorem replaces a complicated circuit facing a load by an a. Ideal voltage source and parallel resistor b. Ideal current source and parallel resistor c. Ideal voltage source and series resistor d. Ideal current source and series resistor b. Ideal current source and parallel resistor 22. One way to short a device is a. With a cold-solder joint b. With a solder bridge c. By disconnecting it d. By opening it b. With a solder bridge 23. Derivations are a. Discoveries b. Inventions c. Produced by mathematics d. Always called theorems c. Produced by mathematics 24. Laws are proved by a. Definition b. Experiment c. Mathematics d. Formulas b. Experiment

25. Definitions are a. Man made b. Invented c. Made up d. All of the above d. All of the above

Chapter 2 1. The nucleus of a copper atom contains how many protons? a. 1 b. 4 c. 18 d. 29 d 2. The net charge of a neutral copper atom is a. 0 b. +1 c. -1 d. +4 a 3. Assume the valence electron is removed from a copper atom. The net charge of the atom becomes a. 0 b. + 1 c. -1 d. +4 b 4. The valence electron of a copper atom experiences what kind of attraction toward the nucleus? a. None b. Weak c. Strong d. Impossible to say b 5. How many valence electrons does a silicon atom have? a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 4 d 6. Which is the most widely used semiconductor? a. Copper b. Germanium c. Silicon d. None of the above c 7. How many protons does the nucleus of a silicon atom contain?

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a. 4 b. 14 c. 29 d. 32 b 8. Silicon atoms combine into an orderly pattern called a a. Covalent bond b. Crystal c. Semiconductor d. Valence orbit b 9. An intrinsic semiconductor has some holes in it at room temperature. What causes these holes? a. Doping b. Free electrons c. Thermal energy d. Valence electrons c 10. Each valence electron in an intrinsic semiconductor establishes a a. Covalent bond b. Free electron c. Hole d. Recombination a 11. The merging of a free electron and a hole is called a. Covalent bonding b. Lifetime c. Recombination d. Thermal energy c 12. At room temperature an intrinsic silicon crystal acts approximately like a. A battery b. A conductor c. An insulator d. A piece of copper wire c 13. The amount of time between the creation of a hole and its disappearance is called a. Doping b. Lifetime c. Recombination d. Valence b 14. The valence electron of a conductor is also called a a. Bound electron b. Free electron c. Nucleus d. Proton b 15. A conductor has how many types of flow?

a. 1 b, 2 c. 3 d. 4 a 16. A semiconductor has how many types of flow? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 b 17. When a voltage is applied to a semiconductor, holes will flow a. Away from the negative potential b. Toward the positive potential c. In the external circuit d. None of the above d 18. A conductor has how many holes? a. Many b. None c. Only those produced by thermal energy d. The same number as free electrons b 19. In an intrinsic semiconductor, the number of free electrons a. Equals the number of holes b. Is greater than the number of holes c. Is less than the number of holes d. None of the above a 20. Absolute zero temperature equals a. -273 degrees C b. 0 degrees C c. 25 degrees C d. 50 degrees C a 21. At absolute zero temperature an intrinsic semiconductor has a. A few free electrons b. Many holes c. Many free electrons d. No holes or free electrons d 22. At room temperature an intrinsic semiconductor has a. A few free electrons and holes b. Many holes c. Many free electrons d. No holes a

23. The number of free electrons and holes in an intrinsic semiconductor increases when the temperature

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a. Decreases b. Increases c. Stays the same d. None of the above b 24. The flow of valence electrons to the left means that holes are flowing to the a. Left b. Right c. Either way d. None of the above b 25. Holes act like a. Atoms b. Crystals c. Negative charges d. Positive charges d 26. Trivalent atoms have how many valence electrons? a. 1 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 b 27. A donor atom has how many valence electrons? a. 1 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 d 28. If you wanted to produce a p-type semiconductor, which of these would you use? a. Acceptor atoms b. Donor atoms c. Pentavalent impurity d. Silicon a 29. Holes are the minority carriers in which type of semiconductor? a. Extrinsic b. Intrinsic c. n-type d. p-type c 30. How many free electrons does a p-type semiconductor contain? a. Many b. None c. Only those produced by thermal energy d. Same number as holes c 31. Silver is the best conductor. How many valence electrons do you think it has?

a. 1 b. 4 c. 18 d. 29 a 32. Suppose an intrinsic semiconductor has 1 billion free electrons at room temperature. If the temperature changes to 75'C, how many holes are there? a. Fewer than 1 billion b. 1 billion c. More than 1 billion d. Impossible to say c 33. An external voltage source is applied to a p-type semiconductor. If the left end of the crystal is positive, which way do the majority carriers flow? a. Left b. Right c. Neither d. Impossible to say b 34. Which of the following doesn't fit in the group? a. Conductor b. Semiconductor c. Four valence electrons d. Crystal structure a 35. Which of the following is approximately equal to room temperature? a. 0 degrees C b. 25 degrees C c. 50 degrees C d. 75degrees C b 36. How many electrons are there in the valence orbit of a silicon atom within a crystal? a. 1 b. 4 c. 8 d. 14 c 37. Positive ions are atoms that have a. Gained a proton b. Lost a proton c. Gained an electron d. Lost an electron d

38. Which of the following describes an n-type semiconductor? a. Neutral

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Which of the following describes a p-type semiconductor? a. Surface-leakage current is part of the a.b. To produce a large forward current in a silicon diode. Negative ions c. 2 mV per degree Celsius b 44. Doping b. Zero d. Majority carriers c 42. 0. Holes b. Positively charged c. 0. All of the above d 46. Recombination c. Is unaffected d. When the reverse voltage increases from 5 to 10 V. Barrier potential b. Ions b 43. Knee voltage d. Depletion layer c. 1 V d. Becomes smaller b. Negatively charged d. Forward breakdown Chapter 3 5 . Breaks down b 50. Radiation d. The depletion layer d 49. What is the barrier potential of a silicon diode at room temperature? a. 0. In a silicon diode the reverse current is usually a.7 V C.3 V b. 0 b. Breakdown voltage d 48. 1 V c 45. Negatively charged d. Pentavalent atoms d. Becomes larger c. Ions d.7 V d.3 V c. The voltage where avalanche occurs is called the a. Forward bias b. Barrier potential d. Very small b. Reverse current d. Positive ions b. the recombination of free electrons and holes may produce a. the depletion layer a. Diffusion of free electrons across the junction of an unbiased diode produces a. Donor atoms b 40. the applied voltage must be greater than a. In the breakdown region a c. What causes the depletion layer? a. Forward current b. Has many free electrons a 41. A p-type semiconductor contains holes and a. 0. Heat b. Positively charged c. Reverse breakdown c 47. Very large c. Reverse bias c. Has many holes a 39. Neutral b. Light c. Which of the following cannot move? a. When a diode is forward-biased. Free electrons C. Breakdown d.

3-19 (see your textbook) with the second approximation? 6 . Source voltage is high c. Linear c. Linear c.7 V d.1 . 0 b. 0 b. Unipolar c 4.7 V d. Doing precise calculations c. 10 ohm d. Reverse d 5. Reverse a 6. Forward voltage b 7. 0 b. Inverse c. If the bulk resistance is zero. The only time you have to use the third approximation is when a. When the diode current is large. The reverse current consists of minority-carrier current and a. Bilateral b. 1 kohm b 12. How much current is there through the second approximation of a silicon diode when it is reverse biased? a. Zener current c 8. None of the above b 13. the device is referred to as a. 14. Unilateral b.7 V c. Linear c. 0. Troubleshooting b. When the graph of current versus voltage is a straight line. 300 mA d. Nonlinear d. 0 b.23 ohm c. Troubleshooting b. 0 b.3 mA c. Load resistance is low b. 0. How is a nonconducting diode biased? a. The bulk resistance of a 1N4001 is a. Surface-leakage current d. Poor d. 1 V c 9. the bias is a. Passive b 2. Forward current c. All of the above d 15. The second approximation works well when a. the graph above the knee becomes a. None of the above a 10. 50 mA c 17. The ideal diode is usually adequate when a. Source voltage is high d. 0. Inverse c. Nonlinear d. How much voltage is there across the second approximation of a silicon diode when it is forward biased? a. Nonlinear d. Load resistance is high c. Applied voltage b. 15 mA d. Horizontal b. 1 mA c. What kind of a device is a diode? a. The knee voltage of a diode is approximately equal to the a. What kind of device is a resistor? a. Bipolar b 3. 1 V a 11. Forward b. More than 0. How much forward diode voltage is there with the ideal-diode approximation? a. Tilted at 450 d. The load resistance is low a 14. Vertical c. Active b. 0.3 V c. Breakdown voltage d. 3-19 (see your textbook) with the ideal diode? a. How much load current is there in Fig. Forward b. None of the above a 16. Avalanche current b. Barrier potential c. Poorly d. The source voltage is low d. How much load current is there in Fig. Troubleshooting d.

90 degrees c. 35. 56. 35 V b 8. In a step-down transformer. 14. 40. Sine wave b 7.3 mA c.7 V c. 64. A shorted diode b. what is the secondary voltage? a.6 V d. and the primary voltage is 120 V. 60 V d. -15 V b 21. 50 mA b 18. 15 V c. 0 b. The load voltage measures zero in Fig. which is larger? a. 3-19. 90 degrees c. 15 mA d. 0. 180 degrees d. How much load current is there in Fig.3 V c.3 V c 9. Half-wave signal b. An open load resistor d. With a 5:1 step-down transformer. The trouble may be a. 0 V b. Full-wave signal c.4 V c. 50 mA b 19.3 V d. 20 V d. 0 b.4 V d 6. load current flows for what part of a cycle? a. 29. What is the approximate rms value of secondary voltage? a. 21 V b. 0 V b. Line voltage may be from 105 V rms to 125 rms in a half-wave rectifier. 3-19.a. 25 V c. 23 V c. 36 V c. 360 degrees c 5. What is the peak load voltage in a full-wave rectifier if the secondary voltage is 20 V rms? Chapter 4 1. 14. a turns ratio of 5: 1 means the rms secondary voltage is closest to a. 14. 30 V d. 180 degrees 7 . 14. If the resistor is ungrounded in Fig.6 V c. 0 b. 15 V b. 14. 28. The voltage out of a bridge rectifier is a a. 163 V d. 15 mA d. With a half-wave rectified voltage across the load resistor. 0 degrees b. Neither d. With a full-wave rectified voltage across the load resistor. A transformer has a turns ratio of 4: 1. If the diode is open in Fig.6 V c 10. 20 V d. the voltage measured with a DMM between the top of the resistor and ground is closest to a. Secondary voltage c. Too much supply voltage b a. 28.7 V b.1 V d. 0 V b. Primary voltage b. the maximum peak load voltage is closest to a. 0 b. -15 V a 20.3 mA c. 3-19 with the third approximation? a. 3-19. We want a peak load voltage of 40 V out of a bridge rectifier. load current flows for what part of a cycle? a. 0 degrees b. If the line voltage is 115 V rms. the load voltage is a. What is the peak secondary voltage if 115 V rms is applied to the primary winding? a. 240 V c 2. 650 V a 4. No answer possible a 3. An open diode c. If N1/N2 = 2. Bridge-rectified signal d.

2 V b.) a. d 2. which has the most ripple? a. 14. If the load current is 5 mA and the filter capacitance is 1000uF. If the secondary voltage increases in a bridge rectifier with a capacitor-input filter. Bridge rectifier d. What is the PIV across each diode of a bridge rectifier with a secondary voltage of 20 V rms? a. Has a barrier potential of 1 V d. Half-wave rectifier b. 120 Hz d. None of these a Chapter 5 1. This means the dc load current can have a maximum value of a. Increase d. 20 V c. d.d. What is true about the breakdown voltage in a zener diode? a. It destroys the diode. Bridge rectifier d. Which of these is the best description of a zener diode? a. which of the following has a diode current of 10 mA? a. 41. Has a constant voltage in the breakdown region c. 1 A b. 56. A zener diode a.3 V d. Impossible to say a 15. 15 V c. It is a constant-voltage device. If line frequency is 60 Hz. 28. Full-wave rectifier c. It is a rectifier diode.8 V d. None of these c 21. b. Impossible to say a d 18. It decreases when current increases. 34 V c 20. Decrease b.3 V c 12. 21. 240 Hz c 14. Stay the same c.3 nV c. It equals the current times the resistance. 9. 60 Hz c. Increase d. Impossible to say b 16. Half-wave rectifier b. b 3. It is approximately constant. b. Is a battery b. With the same secondary voltage and filter. what is the peak-to-peak ripple out of a bridge rectifier? a. which produces the least load voltage? a. Full-wave rectifier c. c. 2 A c. the ripple will a.3 mV d. c. the output frequency of a halfwave rectifier is a. The diodes in a bridge rectifier each have a maximum dc current rating of 2 A.3 pV b. the output frequency of a bridge rectifier is a. 4 A d. If line frequency is 60 Hz. It is a constant-cuffent device. 360 degrees d 11. 120 Hz d. 60 Hz c. 24. d. Bridge rectifier d. 240 Hz b 13. 30 Hz b. If the filter capacitance is increased. 8 A c 19.1 V b. If the filtered load current is 10 mA. 19. 21. Decrease b.7 mV 8 . With the same secondary voltage and filter. Full-wave rectifier c. What is the peak load voltage out of a bridge rectifier for a secondary voltage of 15 V rms? (Use second approximation. Is forward-biased b 17. 30 Hz b. It works in the forward region. the load voltage will a. Stay the same c. Half-wave rectifier b.

To display the digit 8 in a seven-segment indicator. Reverse bias c. The device associated with voltage-controlled capacitance is a a. Increases d.4. which of these currents remains approximately constant? a. Charge storage d 14. Decreases b. Load current d. Series resistor c. Forward bias b. Emitting light b 18. 18 V a 13. Zener test current c. Reverse-biased c. the total voltage across the zener diode is the sum of-the breakdown voltage and the voltage across the a. In a loaded zener regulator. The load voltage is approximately constant when a zener diode is a. Decreases b. a. F must be on d. When the light increases. Breakdown does not destroy a zener diode provided the zener current is less than the a. Stays the same c. Increases d. If the zener diode in a zener regulator is connected with the wrong polarity. which has the largest current? a. All segments must be on d 17. C must be lighted b. Series current b. Zener diode c 7. Zener current c. Forward-biased b. Photodiode c. the reverse minority carrier current in a photodiode a. ordinary diodes don't work properly because of a. Reverse-biased c. Decreases b. Source b. Breaks down d. Small b. When the source voltage increases in a zener regulator. Subtracted from the breakdown voltage a 5. 10 V c. Forward-biased b. Banier potential c 16. the zener current a. Stores charges a 15.In the second approximation. Varactor diode d. A photodiode is normally a. At high frequencies. Increases c. Load current d. None of these a 9. 14 V d. Neither forward. Large c. Decreases b. Zener resistance d. Is unaffected d. Breakdown d.7 V b. Stays the same c. Total current c 12. The capacitance of a varactor diode increases when the reverse voltage across it a. The voltage across the zener resistance is usually a. Decreases b. Breakdown voltage b. Stays the same c. the series current a. Zener diode c 9 . Unbiased c 8. Operating in the breakdown region d. 0. Reverses direction b 19. the zener current a. Equals the source voltage divided by the series resistance a 10. Light-emitting diode b. G must be off c. Series current b. If the series resistance decreases in an unloaded zener regulator. If the load resistance decreases in a zener regulator. Increases c. Equals the source voltage divided by the series resistance b 11. Zener current c. Increases d. If the load resistance decreases in a zener regulator.nor reverse-biased d. Maximum zener current rating d. the load voltage will be closest to a. Measured in volts d. Equals the voltage divided by the resistance c 6.

Holes c. Which of the following has a negative-resistance region? a. 0. Tunnel diode b 27. Schottky diode d. Decreases b. Stays the same c. Regulate voltage d. What is one important thing transistors do? a. Photodiode c.28. 1 b. Decreases b. A blown-fuse indicator uses a a. A transistor has how many doped regions? a. 0. The diode with a forward voltage drop of approximately 0.7 V d. Schockley d 4. All of the above d Chapter 6 1. Constant-current diode b a. Who invented the first junction transistor? a. Stays the same c. Reverse-biased c. If the depletion layer gets wider. Light-emitting diode c. Back diode c 26. which is the device to use? a. Constant-current diode c. 3 d. you need to use reverse bias with a 20. Reverse-biased c. the capacitance a. 0 b. Step-recovery diode b. the capacitance a. Back diode d. Forward-biased b. Varistor d. Back diode d 24. Schottky diode c. Optocoupler a 25. Bell b. Step-recovery diode c. Marconi d. Zener diode b. Both b 5. Operating in the breakdown region a 10 . Zener diode b. Zener diode b. The barrier potential across each silicon depletion layer is a. 1 V c 6. Increases d.25 V is the a. Forward-biased b. 2 c. Varactor d. Amplify weak signals b. The device to use for rectifying a weak ac signal is a a. Operated in the breakdown region b 23. Nonconducting d. Rectify line voltage C. Optocoupler c. Back diode b. Faraday c. Seven-segment indicator d. Unbiased d. The varactor is usually a. Is variable a 21. Free electrons b. For typical operation. To isolate an output circuit from an input circuit. When the reverse voltage increases. Neither d. the majority carriers in the base are a. Emit light a 3. Increases d. Light-emitting diode d. The emitter diode is usually a. Has more bandwidth a 22. 4 c 2. Tunnel diode b.3 V c. In an npn transistor.

Base-collector junction c. Must flow a long way through the base d. Emitter current d. Equal to the base supply voltage c. Forward-biased b. the electrons in the emitter have enough energy to overcome the barrier potential of the a. It approximately equals the emitter current. Heavily doped b. More than the collector supply voltage d. Collector current to base current c. Collector current to emitter current b. In a normally biased npn transistor. Metallic d. Most of the electrons in the base of an npn transistor flow a. Most of the electrons that flow through the base will a. Base-emitter voltage b. The current gain of a transistor is the ratio of the a. Reverse-biased c. It is small.7 V b 11 . Another free electron b. Nonconducting d.7. Collector-base junction d. When a free electron recombines with a hole in the base region. More than the base supply voltage d. None of the above d 15. Cannot answer a 14. Lightly doped b. What is the most important fact about the collector current? a.5 mA b. Equal to the collector supply voltage c. Most of the electrons in the base of an npn transistor do not recombine because they a. Base current b. A valence electron c. Flow out of the base a 11. The fact that only a few holes are in the base region means the base is a. Lightly doped c. Flow into the collector b. A conduction-band electron d. 2 mA c. It is measured in milliamperes. Less than the base supply voltage b. Less than the collector supply voltage b. For normal operation of the transistor. Emitter current to collector current b 13. Into the emitter d. the collector diode has to be a. Doped by a pentavalent material b 9. Increasing the collector supply voltage will increase a. If the current gain is 200 and the collector current is 100 mA. Into the base supply b 10. b. The base-emitter voltage is usually a. Out of the base lead b. 2 A d. The collector-emitter voltage is usually a. The power dissipated by a transistor approximately equals the collector current times a. Collector-emitter voltage c. Have a long lifetime b. It equals the base current divided by the current gain. Collector current c. The base of an npn transistor is thin and a. Heavily doped c. the free electron becomes a. d. Recombine with collector holes a 12. the base current is a. 20 A a 19. 0. 0. Have a negative charge c. Base supply voltage d. Base current to collector current d. Cannot answer a 20. d 18. Undoped d. Into the collector c. Operating in the breakdown region b 8. Base-emitter junction b. Flow out of the base lead c. A majority carrier b 17. c. Recombination path a 16. Recombine with base holes d. None of the above a 21.

The graph of current gain versus collector-current indicates that the current gain a. Active region c. Supply current d. Ignoring the bulk resistance of the collector diode.7 V d. Remains the same c. 1 V d. 2 mA d. A few tenths of a volt C. Saturation region d.3 V c. Can be any of the above d 5. Decrease b. 3. Collector current a 2. 3 A c. 300 mA b. Smaller than the ideal value b. Supply voltage a Chapter 7 1. what is the collector cuffent? a. Breakdown region c 7.22. Base diode d. 0 b. When the base resistor decreases. 10 A b 25. Resistance d. Cutoff region b. Varies slightly c. Equals the collector current divided by the base current c 3. 1 V a 26. 0. Power supply b 24. 1 mA c. The base-emitter voltage of the second approximation is a. Transistor b 23. 0. Any of the above d 4. The base-emitter voltage of an ideal transistor is a. Stay the same c. Emitter current c. Inaccurate c 27. Is constant b. A small collector current with zero base current is caused by the leakage current of the a. Current source c. If the base resistor is open. Larger than the ideal value d. 0 b. If the base resistor is very small. Varies significantly d. what does the current gain do? a. Base current c. 0.33 A d. A transistor acts like a diode and a a. The same as the ideal value c. Voltage source b. Increases d. the answer will usually be a. 0 b. 1 V c 29. When the collector current increases. In the active region. the collector voltage will probably a.7 V d. Emitter diode b. 10 mA a a. 0 b. the transistor will operate in the a. If you recalculate the collector-emitter voltage with the second approximation. Increase d. Stays the same c..3 V c. Collector diode c. the collector-emitter saturation voltage is a. Increases d. Decreases b. Base current b. Base supply voltage b. Collector resistance d 28. If the base current is 100 mA and the current gain is 30. 0. Current gain d. the collector current is not changed significantly by a. The current gain of a transistor is defined as the ratio of the collector current to the 12 . As the temperature increases. the current gain a. the collector current is a. Do all of the above a 6. Decreases b.

If the current gain is 100. Destroved d. 10.8. A circuit with a fixed emitter current is called a. 100 microamp d. Flat b a. Emitter voltage c. Emitter current c. The collector current is 10 mA. Base bias b. If a transistor operates at the middle of the load line. Off the load line b 11. Up c. an increase in the current gain will move the Q point a. 6 V c. Emitter voltage b. Three different Q points are shown on a load line. Unknown b 20. The first step in analyzing emitter-based circuits is to find the a. Nowhere d. Increases d. Vertical c. Decreases b. If the collector resistor decreases to zero in a base-biased circuit. 6 mA d 18. the collectoremitter voltage will equal a. the load line will become a. The Q point will be 16. the voltage increases when the collector current a. Emitter current d. At the upper end of the load line c. Intermediate current gain c. Unchanged d. If the base supply voltage increases. Nowhere d. At the lower end of the load line d. 500 microamp c. Saturated b. If the current gain is unknown in an emitter-biased circuit. Up c. Emitter bias c. Down b. 10 microamp c. 40 microamp b. If the base supply voltage is disconnected. Cutoff point c 9. When the Q point moves along the load line. Does none of the above a 19. the base current is a. Off the load line b 12. In the middle of the load line b. Down b. Horizontal b. 0 V b. If a transistor operates at the middle of the load line. Useless d. the Q point moves a.5 V d. Maximum current gain d. Base current d 23. Nowhere d. the collector current is closest in value to a. The base current is 50 microamp. the collector voltage is 13 . Low b. the transistor will probably be a. If the current gain is 125. 1 microamp b. Transistor bias d. Collector current d. Base current b. Off the load line c 13. you cannot calculate the a. an increase in the base resistance will move the Q point a. the output voltage from the transistor is a. High c. Stays the same c. 1 mA c 17. Two-supply bias b 21. None of the above c 15. When there is no base current in a transistor switch. Collector supply voltage d 14. If the base resistor is shorted. Down b. Minimum current gain b. In cutoff c. Suppose the base resistor is open. Collector current b 22. If the emitter resistor is open. Off the load line a 10. Up c. The upper Q point represents the a. 1 mA d.

Stable Q point d 5. Increase the emitter voltage d. the collector voltage Chapter 8 1. Base b. Collector current decreases c. Unknown a 25. Greater than the collector supply voltage a 4. Large base current d. Base bias is associated with 14 . Collector-feedback bias d. Remains almost the same b. Base voltage b. With voltage-divider bias. Decrease the emitter voltage b. an increase in emitter resistance will a. Q point moves up b. Cutoff region c. Stable Q point a. Emitter voltage c. Low b. Breakdown region a 9. More resistors to work better b 8. Increases d. Decreases by a factor of 6 c. Varying emitter current c. The collector voltage of a VDB circuit is not sensitive to changes in the a. Unchanged d. If the emitter resistance decreases. If the emitter resistance increases in a VDB circuit. When the current gain increases from 50 to 300 in an emitterbiased circuit. Unknown b 24. Collector c. Current gain increases a c. Emitter bias c. Less than the base supply voltage b. Breaks down the transistor a 27.7 V less than the a. Increases d. If the collector resistor is open. the collector voltage a. Precision resistors d. Q point stays where it is d. Saturation region d. Low b. Amplifiers b. Decrease the emitter current d 6. VDB has a stable Q point like a. Stays the same c. Ground voltage a 3. For emitter bias. Increases by a factor of 6 d. Greater than the base supply voltage d. Emitter resistance c. the voltage across the emitter resistor is the same as the voltage between the emitter and the a. Base bias b. Unchanged d. Only one supply c. Current gain d. With VDB. the base voltage is a. If the emitter resistance decreases. Active region b. the collector voltage is a. Equal to the base supply voltage a. Switching circuits c. For emitter bias. Collector voltage d.a. the a. Unstable collector voltage b. Emitter-feedback bias b 7. Stays the same c. Is zero a 26. Decreases b. Emitter d. Collector resistance c 10. VDB is noted for its a. the collector current a. Doubles c 11. VDB needs a. High c. VDB normally operates in the a. Only three resistors b. Decreases b. Ground d 2. Decrease the collector voltage c. the voltage at the emitter is 0. High c. Supply voltage b.

the collector voltage will a. Near 0 V d. the collector voltage will a. Stay the same c. Collector current d. The currents of a pnp transistor are a. Near zero d. Double a 14.d. Decrease b. Opposite npn currents c. The current gain of a pnp transistor is a. the collector voltage will a. Usually smaller than npn currents b. Stay the same c. With pnp voltage-divider bias. Double d. The majority carriers in the emitter of a pnp transistor are a. Stay the same C. Large c. Emitter resistance b. Double b 18. Equal the collector supply voltage c 19. Increase d. Fixed emitter current b 12. Stay the same c. Base current b. Holes b. the collector voltage will a. Double b. The base voltage of two-supply emitter bias (TSEB) is a. Stable a 21. Emitter current c. Current gain d. Emitter voltage c 22. you must use a. Resistors d. Trivalent atoms d. Positive power supplies c. Negative b 26. The collector current divided by the emitter current c. If the collector resistance increases in a VDB circuit. None of these b 25. Almost totally insensitive to changes in current gain d. Remain the same d. Free electrons c. the collector current will a. Increase slightly d. If the emitter resistance doubles with TSEB. 0. The Q point of TSEB does not depend on the a. the base current must be very a. Decrease b. If the emitter resistance increases with TSEB. Increase a 17. Negative power supplies b. Increase d. Equal the collector supply voltage d 20. If the emitter resistor opens with TSEB. Greatly affected by temperature changes c 15. Small b. In TSEB. Which is the largest current in a pnp transistor? a. Very large c. If a splash of solder shorts the collector resistor of TSEB. Drop to zero b. Usually larger than npn currents d. Drop in half c. Collector resistance c. Unstable d. Equal the collector supply voltage C. Hypersensitive to changes in current gain b. Pentavalent atoms a 23.3 V c 16. Stay the same d. 1. The Q point of a VDB circuit is a.7 V b. Grounds c 15 . The ratio of collector current to base current d 24. Increase b 13. The negative of the npn current gain b. Somewhat sensitive to changes in current gain c. If the emitter resistance doubles in a VDB circuit. Decrease b. the collector current will a. Drop in half b.

Complete amplifier circuit d. A dc short An ac open A dc open and an ac short A dc short and an ac open A dc open and an ac short a. b. the top of a capacitor is a. a. Smaller than the negative half cycle c. Maximum c. In a CE amplifier with a large input signal. Base-emitter voltage c. Alternating c. DC emitter current c. Equal to the negative half cycle c. c. Open to supply voltage d. Bypass capacitor Coupling capacitor Dc open Ac open Bypass capacitor 6. For dc. Minimum d. If the ac voltage across the emitter diode is 1 mV and the ac emitter current is 0. Change in collector current b. Transistors 14. DC equivalent circuit b. c. Open to ac b. Collector current d. Maximum 3. Zero 2. Capacitors c. Equal to the negative half cycle b. The output voltage of a CE amplifier is a. Power supply b. Shorted to ac d. the ac emitter current is Chapter 9 1. the current in a coupling circuit is a. Inverted c. In a bypass circuit. Collector diode d. An open A short An ac ground A mechanical ground An ac ground 5. 10 ohm 4. Inductors d. AC base voltage 13. The capacitor that produces an ac ground is called a a. Maximum c. c. Zero b. c. Voltage-divider biased circuit b. 10 ohm c. Capacitors 9. All of the above 16 . the ac resistance of the emitter diode is a. Resistors b.1 mA. 180 degrees out of phase with the input d. Emitter diode c. AC base voltage d. DC emitter current b. Larger than the negative half cycle d. Average b. The capacitors of a CE amplifier appear a. d. The ac equivalent circuit is derived from the original circuit by shorting all a. the positive half cycle of the ac emitter current is a. Transistor b. 1 kohm b.b. Distorted 10. Zero b. Average a. To reduce the distortion in a CE amplifier. c. Shorted to dc c. d. A graph of ac emitter current versus ac base-emitter voltage applies to the a. AC emitter current d. Amplified b. Minimum d. Larger than the negative half cycle 11. The current in a coupling circuit for high frequencies is a. When the ac base voltage is too large. Reducing all dc sources to zero is one of the steps in getting the a. Shorted to ac 7. Distorted d. 100 ohm d. AC equivalent circuit 8. A coupling capacitor is a. b. AC equivalent circuit c. Ac emitter resistance equals 25 mV divided by the a. Constant c. 1 ohm b. b. DC emitter current 12. Emitter diode 15. Sinusoidal b. All of the above d. reduce the a. Quiescent base current b. d.

Less the one b 17 . Beta b. AC emitter current 19. The ac collector current is approximately equal to the a. Large d. Beta increases b. AC collector voltage d. Equal c. Supply voltage increases c. Generator voltage c. CB stage b. Load resistance b 9. Bypass capacitor 17. Positive feedback c. AC only d. Compared to a CE stage. Generator resistance d. Negative feedback d. Small d. Ac emitter resistance c. Smaller b. DC collector voltage d. The ac collector current equals the ac base current times the a. AC only 18. Base bias b. A swamped amplifier uses a. a swamped amplifier has an input impedance that is a. Has an ac voltage d. Equal c. AC base voltage 20. The emitter is at ac ground in a a. AC collector resistance d. AC current gain d. AC collector resistance increases a 5. Load resistor b. AC base voltage c. To reduce the distortion of an amplified signal. AC source current d. Has no de voltage c. AC bypass current b. Compared to the ac resistance of the emitter diode. Small b. The emitter of a swamped amplifier a. Beta decreases d. Neither dc nor ac c. AC emitter resistance c. the effects of the emitter diode become Chapter 10 1. Input voltage b. The voltage across the load resistor of a CE amplifier is a. Bypass capacitor c. None of these c 2. The input impedance of the base increases when a. In a swamped amplifier. CC stage c. A grounded emitter c 11. Is grounded b. AC collector resistance b. DC voltage on it b. AC current gain 3. Dc emitter voltage b. AC collector resistance d 6. CE stage d. The output voltage of a CE stage is usually a. Larger d. The voltage gain equals the output voltage divided by the a. Emitter feedback resistance c. AC emitter current c. Supply voltage b. Coupling capacitor d. Dc and ac b.16. Generator voltage a 4. Voltage gain is directly proportional to a. Has no ac voltage c 10. Dependent on re' c. The ac emitter current times the ac emitter resistance equals the a. Collector resistance b. Constant b. the feedback resistance of a swamped amplifier should be a. Zero c 7. you can increase the a. DC current gain c. DC only c. The emitter of a CE amplifier has no ac voltage because of the a. Zero c 8. AC base current b.

Increases distortion c. the ac output voltage will a. Increase c. Decreases input impedance a 14. Remain the same d. Decrease b. AC coupling c. Emitter resistance of first stage d. Load resistance b. Half the cycle c. Remain the same d. The feedback resistor a. Decreases collector resistance d. Stabilizes voltage gain b. Remain the same d. Increases collector resistance d. The feedback resistor a. If the output coupling capacitor is open. If the collector resistor is shorted. Remain the same d. Increase c. Remain the same d. Equal zero b 18. Increases voltage gain b. If the input coupling capacitor is open. Decrease b. Significant to the analysis d. If the emitter resistor is open. Important to voltage gain b. Equal zero d a. If the emitter bypass capacitor is shorted. Decrease b. The ac collector resistance of the first stage includes the a. Remain the same d. the ac output voltage will a. Input impedance of second stage d 15. Increase c. Equal zero c 22. Decreases input impedance b 13. Remain the same d. Increase c. the ac input voltage will a. Unimportant d 12. Equal zero a 19. Impedance coupling b 18 . For class B operation. Transformer coupling is an example of a. the ac input voltage will a. Direct coupling b. the ac input voltage will a. Decrease b. DC coupling d. Increase c. Decrease b. Equal zero b 21. Less than half a cycle d. Less than a quarter of a cycle b 2. Critical to input impedance c. Increase c. the ac input voltage will 1. If the bypass capacitor is open. Decrease b. Decrease b. the ac input voltage will a. Equal zero b 23. The whole cycle b. Remain the same d. If the collector resistor is open. Remain the same d. the ac output voltage will a. Reduces distortion c. If the load resistance is open. If the emitter bypass capacitor opens. Increase c. Equal zero a 17. Increase c.a. Decrease b. Decrease b. the ac input voltage will a. Increase c. Decrease b. Equal zero a 16. the collector current flows a. Equal approximately zero a 24. If any capacitor is open. Input impedance of first stage c. Equal zero d 20. Increase c. Remainthe same d. the ac output voltage will Chapter 11 a.

Load resistance decreases b 15.6 kohm b 19. Large signal c. Wideband c 12. An audio amplifier operates in the frequency range of a. Transformer-coupled between stages b. Impedance coupled a 5. VCEQ b. If RC = 3. Class A b. Very small quiescent current drain b. Load resistance decreases d. 2VCEQ c. 20 Hz to 20 kHz c. Is negatively clamped at the base b. Using a heat sink c. For maximum peak-to-peak output voltage. Is negatively clamped d. A tuned RF amplifier is a. Q increases c. the Q point should be a.6 kohm and RL = 10 kohm. DC acts one way and ac acts another d. Maximum efficiency of 78. DC emitter resistance b. 2. Is amplified and inverted c. The first stage of a preamp is a. coil Q increases c. Narrowband b. I kohm d. Small signal d. 0 to 20 Hz b.3. An amplifier has two load lines because a. Above 20 kHz b 4. Near saturation b. Operated at audio frequencies c. All of the above d 8. Using a derating curve d. The power rating of a transistor can be increased by a.65 kohm c. The quiescent collector current is the same as the 19 . It has ac and dc collector resistances b. Has harmonics c. The bandwidth of a class C amplifier decreases when the a. All of the above b 10. Resonant frequency increases b. Direct coupled d. One advantage of a class B push-pull amplifier is a. All of the above d 11. The ac load line is the same as the dc load line when the ac collector resistance equals the a. Near cutoff c. DC collector resistance d. Tuned RF amplifiers d. Class C d. the ac load resistance equals a. Capacitance increases b 16. Raising the temperature b.5 percent c. Supply voltage divided by collector current c 18. Push-pull is almost always used with a. Operating with no input signal b 17. 20 to 200 kHz d. Flows for half a cycle b 14. At the center of the dc load line d. When the Q point is at the center of the ac load line. 2IcQ b 9. All of the above d 13. The collector current of a class C amplifier a. 10 kohm b. the maximum peak-to-peak output voltage equals a. Resonant frequency increases b. At the center of the ac load line d 7. A tuned RF stage b. It has two equivalent circuits c. Is an amplified version of the input voltage b. 3. The transistor dissipation in a class C amplifier decreases when the a. Greater efficiency than class A d. Produces brief pulses of collector current d. AC emitter resistance c. A dc amplifier c 6. The input signal of a class C amplifier a. Class B c. ICQ d. Class C amplifiers are almost always a. XL decreases d. Wideband c.

Shorted to ground d. Junction temperature d.a. The power gain of an amplifier a. DC load line c. The same as the load current b 5. Zero b 2. Low b. Has less slope than the dc load line c. 0 b. Is steeper than the dc load line d. 2 percent c. The total ac emitter resistance of an emitter follower equals a. Remains the same d. With class A. Total ac current from the generator b. Less than half the cycle b. Neither load line a a. Decreases b. Clipped on positive voltage peak c. Vc divided by Rc d. Open b. Total dc current from the supply c. 3 percent d. Half the cycle c. Equals output power divided by input power d. Current gain from base to collector d. When the ambient temperature increases. Emitter diode a. Increases c. Voltage-divider current a 20. the maximum transistor power rating a. Equals the dc load line b. DC collector current b. Ambient temperature c. Approximately equal to one c. Both load lines d. Positive peak of input voltage b. For a Q point near the center of the dc load line. RE c 3. Clipped on negative voltage peak d. Is smaller than the voltage gain c. VE divided by RE c. The input impedance of the base of an emitter follower is usually 25. Is horizontal c 21. The ac load line usually a. The current drain of an amplifier is the a. Greater than one d. Positive peak of output voltage d. Is the same as the voltage gain b. AC collector current c. The instantaneous operating point swings-along the a. Much less than one b. Equals load power c 27. An emitter follower has a voltage gain that is a. Unclipped b. clipping is more likely to occur on the a. High c. 4. Negative peak of emitter voltage c 22. Heat sinks reduce the a. the efficiency is a. Total collector current d. Clipped on negative current peak a 24. In a class A amplifier. The entire cycle d 23. Current gain from collector to base b 26. re + re' d. AC load line b. 20 percent b Chapter 12 1. re c. the output signal should be a. Negative peak of output voltage c. The same as the ac emitter current b. Transistor power b. If the load power is 3 mW and the dc power is 150 mW. The ac base voltage of an emitter follower is across the a. The dc emitter current for class A emitter followers is 20 . None of the above a 29. the collector current flows for a. Less than the whole cycle d. Collector current c 28. re' b.

and re = 1 kohm. A very low input impedance b. clipping will first occur on the 21 . Emitter diode and external ac emitter resistance c 7. The input voltage to an emitter follower is usually a. If Beta = 200 and re = 150 ohm. Emitter diode b. 0 b. the input impedance of the base is approximately a. Larger c. DC emitter resistor c. 3 kohm d. Generator resistance b. the output voltage will be a. Equal d. A very high current gain d. If an emitter follower has re' = 10 ohm and re = 90 ohm.9 d. If the load resistance of an emitter follower is very large. 0. A Darlington transistor has a. Emitter diode and external ac emitter resistance d 6.b. 2 V c. Equal to the supply voltage a 9. VG divided by re b. Smaller b. ICQ = 1 mA. DC emitter resistance d. 1 V b. Greater than the generator voltage d. 0. The ac load line of the emitter follower is a. Clipping on both peaks d 18. Equal to the generator voltage c. vin d. Three transistors c. The same as the dc load line b. DC collector resistance c 16. Different from the dc load line c.25 V d. Load resistor d. More horizontal than the dc load line c. 0 b. One VBE drop c 19. 12-la in your textbook is shorted. vin divided by re' c. VG c. If the load resistor of Fig. 0. DC collector resistor c. No clipping b. 5 V d. VG divided by re' d. Vertical b 20. Load resistor d. A square wave out of an emitter follower implies a. Vcc c a. If the input voltage to an emitter follower is too large. the maximum peak-to-peak unclipped output is a. The ac emitter current is closest to a. Negative half cycle of input d 14. Upward current swing c. Vertical c 12. The output voltage of an emitter follower is approximately a. If the generator voltage is 5 mV in an emitter follower. 5 kohm a 8. Less than the generator voltage b. Clipped d 13. The same as the dc load line b. Positive half cycle of input d. Clipping at cutoff d. 1 c 17.5 V a 21. 30 kohm b. Horizontal d. the output voltage across the load is closest to a. 600 n c. 150 mV c. The output voltage of an emitter follower is across the a. vin divided by re d 10. If the Q point is at the middle of the dc load line. If an emitter follower has VCEQ = 5 V. 5 mV b. Clipping at saturation c. The ac load line of an emitter follower is usually a. Impedance of the base c. Left voltage swing b. which of the following are different from their normal values: 11. the external ac emitter resistance equals a. the voltage gain is approximately a. 0. Steeper than the dc load line d. 10 V b 15.5 c.

Is regulated b. Only dc voltages c. Output voltage is normal d. For a class B push-pull emitter follower to work properly. Very low b. Often high c. Crossover distortion d. Is a voltage-controlled device b. Has a low input resistance d. Destroying the compensating diodes c. The center of the ac load line a 28. 80 kohm c. the input impedance of the base is closest to a. The ac resistance of compensating diodes a. A small quiescent current is necessary with a class B pushpull amplifier to avoid a. Smaller than the output current c. 8 kohm b. Thermal runaway is c. Is usually less than the load resistance d Chapter 13 a. In the two-transistor voltage regulator. Thermal runaway b. Have a voltage gain of I d. The center of the dc load line c. The maximum efficiency of a class B push-pull amplifier is a. Prone to thermal runaway b 32. 100 percent c 35. Is a current-controlled device c. Good for transistors b. 2 d. which of these is true? a. 8 Mohm c 27. Is very high b 30. A JFET a. 78. If R1 is open in an emitter follower. how many coupling capacitors are there between the two stages? a. Has a very large voltage gain a. A unipolar transistor uses 22 . Seldom low b. Very high c. Must be included b. 0 b. All of the above d 33. Have a power rating greater than the output power c. DC base voltage is zero d 23. Equals the dc emitter resistance b.5 percent d. Always low d. If a CE stage is direct coupled to an emitter follower. the distortion in an emitter follower is a. Is larger than the load resistance c. Be able to control the quiescent current b. Only ac voltages b. Usually. Excessive current drain c 31. Compensates for temperature changes d. DC base voltage is Vcc b. DC collector voltage is zero c. Large d. Saturation d. Cutoff b. Both dc and ac voltages d. 1 c. 25 percent b. Always desirable c. Is a voltage-controlled device 2. Usually destructive d 29. 3 a 26. Neither dc nor ac voltages a 22. If RE = 1 kohm and RL = 100 ohm. The distortion in an emitter follower is a. The ac emitter resistance of an emitter follower a. the output voltage a. The zener current in a zener follower is a. Equal to the output current b. Has no effect on MPP d. the emitter diodes must a. Has much smaller ripple than the input voltage c.a. Larger than the output current d. Not acceptable a 24. A Darlington transistor has a Beta of 8000. 800 kohm d. Match the compensating diodes d 34. High when clipping occurs d 25. Is larger than the zener voltage d. Useful at times d. The transistors of a class B push-pull emitter follower are biased at or near a. Is usually small enough to ignore 1. 50 percent c.

Drain current for zero gate voltage d. gmrs/(l + gmrs) d. A cascode amplifier has the advantage of a. Voltage gain b. Conducting 23 . Only holes d. A CS amplifier has a voltage gain of a. Large c. A high input resistance d. Linear b. gmrd/(l + gmrd) c. A voltage gain of less than one b. the JFET has a much higher a. 300 kHz to 3 MHz b. Nonlinear 11. gmrd b. IDSS 12. Drain-source voltage c. Ideal drain current d. Approaches zero b. The transconductance increases when the drain current approaches a. Input resistance 7. but not both 3. Touching d.a. When the drain saturation current is less than IDSS. All the above d. The gate-source diode of a JFET should be a. The pinchoff voltage has the same magnitude as the a. gmrs/(l + gmrs) 14. but not both d.or reverse-biased d. Compared to a bipolar transistor. Drain current for zero gate voltage 10. IDSS d. Gate voltage b. None of the above b. Far apart b. a JFET acts like a a. Nonlinear d. Approaches infinity d. Like a single drain curve c. Drain current b. Close together c. Input resistance c. gmrd b. Bipolar transistor b. Low input impedance d. The width of the channel b. IS c. Gate-source cutoff voltage 8. All of these d. The input impedance of a JFET a. the depletion layers are a. gmrs/(l + gmrs) d. Higher gm b. Current b. Reverse-biased c. 3 to 30 MHz c. The proportional pinchoff voltage d. 30 to 300 MHz d. Gate-source voltage d. Either forward. Battery c. A source follower has a voltage gain of a. VHF stands for frequencies from a. Small b. The drain current c. Either one or the other. Supply voltage d. Small 16. 30 to 300 MHz 18. ID(sat) c. Chopped a. Resistor d. gmrd 13. Current source c. The transconductance curve is a. Forward-biased b. Approaches infinity 4. Resistor 9. When a JFET is cut off. 0 b. A square wave d. Low input capacitance 17. gmrd/(l + gmrd) a. 300 MHz to 3 GHz c. Both free electrons and holes b. The gate controls a. Only free electrons c. RDS equals pinchoff voltage divided by the a. Is impossible to predict c. A small distortion c. Approaches one c. gmrs c. Low input capacitance c. All the above 5. The input signal used with a JFET analog switch should be a. All of these 15. Reverse-biased 6. When the input signal is large. Either one or the other. Similar to the graph of a resistor c. Gate-source cutoff voltage d. Gate current c. a source follower has a. Large voltage gain b. gmrs c.

Greater than VGS(th) 5. An active load 7. JFET b. you must have a a. 200 ohm 21. Transconductance indicates how effectively the input voltage controls the a. Which of the following devices revolutionized the computer industry? a. d. Voltage-divider bias a. Self-bias c. D-MOSFET c. Ground d. An E-MOSFET that operates at cutoff or in the ohmic region is an example of a. Shrinks b. Forward feedback d. Pinchoff voltage c. The voltage that turns on an EMOS device is the 6. An E-MOSFET with its gate connected to its drain is an example of a. d. Output current a. Shrinks 20. An active load c. Negative gate supply voltage b. then RDS equals a. Source resistor 24. The VGS(on) of an n-channel E-MOSFET is 22. c. Mhos 25. CMOS stands for a. Which of these may appear on the data sheet of an enhancement-mode MOSFET? a. 5 kohm a. Source bias a. Output current d. ID(on) c. 1 kohm d. An ordinary resistor is an example of a. Input resistance c. The easiest way to bias a JFET in the ohmic region is with a. A current source b. Ohms b. Equal to the gate-source cutoff voltage c. A switching device d. Voltage divider b. 400 ohm c. Volts d. Greater than VGS(th) d. An active load c. E-MOSFET d. Reverse feedback b. To get a negative gate-source voltage in a self-biased JFET circuit. Transconductance is measured in a. Expand c. Threshold voltage d. Negative feedback c. Supply voltage d. An active load c. Touching 19. Mhos or Siemens d. Stop conducting a. 200 ohm b. b. When the gate voltage becomes more negative in an nchannel JFET. Voltage gain b. Source resistor c. A three-terminal device b. Self-bias produces a. Gate-source cutoff voltage b. A switching device 8. Voltage-divider bias b. A switching device c. the channel between the depletion layers a. Negative feedback 23. All of the above d. A three-terminal device b. Greater than VDS(on) d. Knee voltage c. All of the above 4. A passive load d. A passive load d. Threshold voltage 3. VGS(th) b. VGS(on) d. Positive feedback b. Less than the threshold voltage b. A passive load 1. Amperes c. If a JFET has IDSS = 10 mA and VP = 2 V. A passive load d.c. Conduct d. Gate bias d. E-MOSFET 2. Power FET c. A switching device b. Common MOS Active-load switching p-channel and n-channel devices Complementary MOS Complementary MOS Chapter 14 24 .

When the internal temperature increases in a power FET. b. Current d. Breakover 14. Integrated circuits Small-signal devices Used mostly with analog signals Used to switch large currents Used to switch large currents Chapter 15 1. With active-load switching. b. b. d. Most small-signal E-MOSFETs are found in a. d. Heavy-current applications Discrete circuits Disk drives Integrated circuits Integrated circuits 16. A power source c. the a. b. d. d. Reverse-bias triggering c. VGS(on) is always a. d. Is always large Has a negative temperature coefficient Has a positive temperature coefficient Is an active load Has a positive temperature coefficient 13. you need a. Bipolar transistors Complementary E-MOSFETs Class A operation DMOS devices Complementary E-MOSFETs a. Transistors b. Feedback c. low-current drop out c. c. The RDS(on) of a power FET 12. b. A thyristor can be used as a. Opposes the original change b. b. c. b. With CMOS. d. d. c. Less than VGS(th) Equal to VDS(on) Greater than VGS(th) Negative Greater than VGS(th) a. d.17. A latch always uses a. VGS > VP An n-type inversion layer VDS > 0 Depletion layers An n-type inversion layer 18. High power rating Small-signal operation Switching capability Low power consumption Low power consumption a. the upper MOSFET is 10. Power FETs are a. c. Positive feedback d. d. A switch d. c. b. VDD/2 VGS VDS VDD VDD 20. c. b. d. d. The main advantage of CMOS is its a. An amplifier c. c. CMOS devices use a. d. The high output of a CMOS inverter is 11. b. c. To turn on a four-layer diode. a. c. Positive feedback 4. b. b. Positive feedback means the returning signal a. A positive trigger b. An n-channel E-MOSFET conducts when it has 9. c. A resistor b. c. Most power FETS are a. d. Used in high-current applications Digital computers RF stages Integrated circuits Used in high-current applications 25 . Two-terminal device Three-terminal device Switch Small resistance Two-terminal device a. Is amplified b. b. Threshold voltage increases Gate current decreases Drain current decreases Saturation current increases Drain current decreases 15. A passive load An active load Nonconducting Complementary Complementary 19. d. A switch 2. d. Aids the original change c. d. Is equivalent to negative feedback d. c. c. c. Breakover d. a. b. the upper E-MOSFET is a a. c. d. Aids the original change 3.

Forward-bias triggering c. Low-power devices b. Humidity d. Three external leads c. Three-layer device d. Current limiting d. Zener diode c. The trigger voltage of an SCR is closest to a. Adequate trigger current b. Breakover b. Low-current drop out c.5. The usual way to protect a load from excessive supply voltage is with a a. The photo-SCR responds to a. Light 15. Holding current c. Light d. Holding current b. A four-layer diode b. Breakover current d. Low-current drop out b. A positive trigger b. A gate trigger 13. Triac d. Low-current drop out 7. The unijunction transistor acts as a a. Four-layer diodes c. Light 16. An RC snubber protects an SCR against a. Crowbar 12. Any thyristor can be turned off with 26 . diac d. Current b. 0 b. Four-layer diode b. Four external leads d. Bidirectional device d. Voltage c. The minimum input current that can turn on a thyristor is called the a. Breakover b. The diac is a a. Three external leads 9. Transistor b. Low-current drop out a. False triggering 18. Low-current dropout d. A silicon controlled rectifier has a. Supply overvoltages b. Trigger current c. When a crowbar is used with a power supply. triac a 20. Holding current b. A thyristor with a gate lead d. Two SCRs in parallel d 17. Four-layer diode d. Reverse-bias triggering b. Bidirectional c. A gate trigger c. Latch d 10. High-current devices d. Two diacs in parallel c. SCRs are a. Reverse-bias triggering a 19. A Shockley diode is the same as a a.7 V c. 0. Breakover current d. Current limiting 14. Any thyristor can be turned on with a. Trigger current c. Trigger current 6. Three doped regions b. Filtering d. False triggering c. Holding current b. 4 V d. Unidirectional device c. Breakover d. Holding current 8. Two external leads b. Diac c. four-layer diode b. High-current devices 11. Thyristor a. Crowbarring b. The only way to stop a four-layer diode that is conducting is by a. the supply needs to have a fuse or a. A SCR is usually turned on by a. SCR c. Crowbar b. Breakdown d. Breakover d. The triac is equivalent to a. Breakover voltage b 21. The minimum anode current that keeps a thyristor turned on is called the a.

the decibel voltage gain is a. the coupling capacitors produce a decrease in a. 66 dB d. Switch c 24. Input resistance a. Exceeding the critical rate of rise produces a. 0. 60 dB c Chapter 16 1. The total ordinary voltage gain is a. A latch is based on a.707Amid d. 0. 10 dB c 7. The four-layer diode d. Forward-bias triggering c. 6 dB b. the decibel power gain increases by a. Generator voltage b 3. the decibel voltage gain is a. Voltage gain c. Input voltage d. 40 dB b. 86 dB c 10. The stray-wiring capacitance has an effect on the a. Two stages have decibel voltage gains of 20 and 40 dB. Low-current drop out d. The total decibel voltage gain is 27 . Reverse-bias triggering b 23. Unijunction transistor b. Midband voltage gain c. If the voltage gain doubles. If the voltage gain is 10. 6 dB b. 3 dB c. A factor of 2 b. 0. 3 dB c. 60 dB b 8. Output voltage a 2. False triggering c. Generator resistance d. 106 dB c 9. Power gain c. 6 dB d. At the lower or upper cutoff frequency. A four-layer diode is sometimes called a a. the voltage gain is a. 100 d. pnpn diode d. the decibel voltage gain increases by a. Diac c. Breakover b. If the power gain doubles. Negative feedback b. 66 dB c. Two stages have voltage gains of 100 and 200. Positive feedback c. A factor of 2 b. 10 c. 40 dB d. 6 dB d. Input resistance b. 20 dB c. Reverse-bias triggering c 22. 20 dB c. Frequency b. 46 dB c. At low frequencies. the decibel voltage gain is a.995Amid c 5. Excessive power dissipation b.35Amid b. If the voltage gain is 100. 1000 d 11. Low-current drop out d. Lower cutoff frequency b. SCR action b 4. 0. Upper cutoff frequency d. Frequency response is a graph of voltage gain versus a. 40 dB d.5Amid c. 10 dB b 6. 46 dB b.1 b. If the voltage gain is 2000. 86 dB d.c a.

One axis is linear. RE a 9. 2re' d. DC signals only c. Collector current divided by current gain d. The tail current equals the a. Collector supply voltage b. Discrete circuits b. How many octaves apart are the two frequencies? a. Equal to the difference in base currents c 5. Zero c. 4 c 13. Tail current times base resistance b 6. 2 b. re'/2 c. AC signals only b. 2000 d. 20 b. Both ac and dc signals d. Monolithic ICs a 4. Sum of two emitter currents c. Two times either collector current d. Shorten leads as much as possible. and f2 = 10 Hz. Neither axis is linear a 15. Collector current divided by current gain d. d. SSI d. 200 c. Neither ac nor dc signals c 3. Both axes are semilogarithmic d. Combinations of thin-film and thick-film circuits d. what is the ordinary voltage gain at 20 MHz? a. Semilogarithmic paper means a. One frequency is 8 times another frequency. b. 5 d 14. Monolithic ICs are a. 1 b. If f = 1 MHz. Collector voltage divided by collector resistance b 8. Half of either collector current b. Difference between two emitter currents b. A dc signal has a frequency of 28 . The input impedance of a diff amp equals re' times Chapter 17 1. 20. The input offset current equals the a. and the other is semilogarithmic c. If you want to improve the high-frequency response of an amplifier. Increase the emitter bypass capacitance. On a single chip c. Components are soldered together in a. One axis is linear. If the midband voltage gain is 86 dB. 2 times Beta d 10. The node voltage at the top of the tail resistor is closest to a. which of these would you try? a. and the other is logarithmic b. Average of two base currents c. c a. Difference between two base-emitter voltages a 16. 3 c. Emitter supply voltage d. Increase the generator resistance. RC c. 2 c. c. Integrated circuits c. Equal to either collector current c. Decrease the coupling capacitances. 0 b. The voltage gain of an amplifier decreases 20 dB per decade above 20 kHz. Also called hybrid ICs b 2. the ratio f/f2 represents how many decades? a. 4 d.The voltage gain of a diff amp with a differential output is equal to RC divided by a.12.000 a 7. The tail current of a diff amp is a. re' b. Forms of discrete circuits b. RE d. The op amp can amplify a. Difference between two base currents b. 3 d.

Common-mode voltage gain b 13. Input offset current d. 0 to over 1 MHz d. Equal to voltage gain c. Very low b. 0 b. The base currents are equal b. the only offset that produces an error is the a. Less than the input bias current b. Swamped amplifier a 16. Battery b.a. One source of output error voltage is a. Both inputs d. What usually controls the open-loop cutoff frequency of an op amp? a. Stray-wiring capacitance b. Input bias current b.7 V c. Equal to zero c. Compensating capacitance d 2. When the two input terminals of a diff amp are grounded. Equal to the common-mode voltage gain b 20. Zero 29 . Difference in collector resistors c. 2RE d Chapter 18 1. 0. Amid c. The tail of a diff amp acts like a a. a. A compensating capacitor prevents a. CE amplifier d. Unimportant when a base resistor is used a 22. Beta c 15. Base-emitter capacitance c. 2re' d. None of the above a 18. The noninverting input b. Greater than voltage gain d. An output error voltage usually exists d. Class B push-pull amplifier c. When the two bases are grounded in a diff amp. Zero b. A common-mode signal is applied to a. High c 19. With both bases grounded. 60 Hz c. Collector-base capacitance d. At the unity-gain frequency. The inverting input c. 1 MHz a 11. Transistor d. re'/2 c. Differential input and single-ended output d. The ac output voltage is zero c 12. Current source c. Tail current d. Input offset voltage d. Differential input and differential output c 21. Less than the input offset voltage d. Voltage gain b. The common-mode rejection ratio is a. The common-mode voltage gain of a diff amp is equal to RC divided by a. Equal to the voltage gain d. Single-ended input and single-ended output b. Diff amp b. The same d. Top of the tail resistor c 14. re' b. The typical input stage of an op amp has a a. Single-ended input and differential output c. Power bandwidth b 3. The input stage of an op amp is usually a a. The collector currents are equal c. Oscillations c. Often expressed in decibels c. the voltage across each emitter diode is a. 1 b. The common-mode voltage gain is a. Input offset current b. the open-loop voltage gain is a. Input bias current c. The input offset current is usually a. Smaller than voltage gain b. Diode b 17.

the MPP value of an op amp is closest to a. Source follower c.000. The input impedance of a BIFET op amp is a. The open-loop cutoff frequency of a 741C is controlled by a. The output short circuit current c. Tail current c. -15 V d. 1 MHz c.000. A 741C cannot work without 16.5 MHz d. Discrete resistors b. A coupling capacitor b. The op amp works best a 9.000. Inductors c. The initial slope of a sine wave is directly proportional to a. If the unity frequency is 10 MHz and midband open-loop voltage gain is 1. Bipolar op amp d. Closed-loop voltage gain c. The cutoff frequency of an op amp equals the unity-gain frequency divided by a. An LF157A is a a. Compensating capacitance b. When the initial slope of a sine wave is greater than the slew rate. The power bandwidth increases when a. The 741C has a unity-gain frequency of a. a. the cutoff frequency is a. the cutoff frequency b. 50 Hz d. 20 kHz c. Voltage gain increases b 10. 100 Hz a 30 . Voltage gain d. 10 Hz b. 30 V d 15. High d. 15 MHz a 7. 25 Hz b.d. 1. 15 MHz c 17. Unity d. Dc return paths on the two bases d. A compensating capacitor d 8. A large coupling capacitor c 11. Initial slope decreases d. Medium c. Load resistance c 18. A small coupling capacitor c 12. Passive loading c. Discrete resistors b. Capacitance b a. Voltage gain is maximum d. the unity-gain frequency is a. Closed-loop cutoff frequency d. 15 MHz d 6. Peak value decreases c. 25 Hz b. Slew rate b. If the two supply voltages are plus and minus 15 V.000. Very large a 4. If the cutoff frequency is 15 Hz and the midband open-loop voltage gain is 1. Linear operation occurs c. Common-mode voltage gain b 5. Low b. 1 MHz c. If the unity-gain frequency is 5 MHz and the midband openloop voltage gain is 200. +15V c. 1 MHz d. BIFET op amp d 14.000. Active-load resistors d. 20 Hz c. Distortion occurs b. The unity-gain frequency equals the product of closed-loop voltage gain and the a. A 741C uses a. Frequency decreases b. Extremely high d 13. Diff amp b. then the open-loop cutoff frequency of the op amp is a. The power bandwidth d. 10 Hz b. 0 b. 1.5 MHz d. Frequency c.

Power bandwidth b 26. Has no offset b a. An input impedance of 2 Mohm c. Slew-rate distortion occurs b. Output offset voltage increases d. The output voltage will be a. The ratio of the input resistance to the feedback resistance b. 0 b. the output a. Current-to-voltage converter c. Small open-loop voltage gain c. a. The initial slope of a sine wave increases when a. Is larger b. Three d. The closed-loop voltage gain of an inverting amplifier equals Chapter 19 1. Peak value increases c. Zero b. Is proportional to differential voltage gain b 2. 20 dB per decade d 25. 5 mV c. How many types of negative feedback are there? a. The open-loop voltage gain c. Large closed-loop input impedance d. Generator frequency d. If the load resistance is large. A voltage gain of 100. Small open-loop voltage gain c. Frequency decreases b. Distortion may occur a 21. If the output voltage is 1 V. Slew rate decreases b 20. The feedback resistance divided by the input resistance d. Unity-gain frequency c. Appears triangular c. 1 V a 23. +15 V c. A 741C has 19. the MPP value is a. the returning signal a. 10 dB per octave d.000 b. Maximum positive or negative d. Aids the input signal b. Large closed-loop output impedance a 31. If the frequency is greater than the power bandwidth. When slew-rate distortion of a sine wave occurs. Current amplifier 31 . An op amp has a voltage gain of 500. the input voltage is a. The input resistance c 29. Two or more input signals c. Two c. 10 dB per decade b.27. Large closed-loop voltage gain b. the voltage gain of a 741C decreases approximately a. An amplified sine wave c 22. Voltage amplifier b. One b. Voltage-to-current converter d. Above the cutoff frequency. With negative feedback. Closed-loop bandwidth of zero d. A closed-loop input impedance of infinity d. A 741C has supply voltages of plus and minus 15 V. Is proportional to output current d. No more than two input signals b. Large closed-loop output impedance c 30. Closed-loop voltage gain of unity b. Opposes the input signal c.000. 27 V d. Four d 3. A normal output signal occurs c. An output impedance of 75 ohm d. An op amp has an open base resistor. The voltage gain of an op amp is unity at the a. 20 dB per octave c. 2 microvolts b. A small open-loop voltage gain b a. 10 mV d. Slightly different from zero c. A summing amplifier can have a. 30 V c 24. Cutoff frequency b. Cc increases d. All of the above d 28. The voltage follower has a a. The noninverting amplifier has a a. A VCVS amplifier approximates an ideal a. Is normal d.

Equal to the input voltage b 16. the circuit approximates an ideal a. Through the load resistor b 19. Very small c. Voltage amplifier b. any decrease in open-loop voltage gain produces an increase in a. Equal to the output voltage d. The voltage between the input terminals of a real op amp is a. Feedback fraction b.a 4. Small b. The input impedance of a current-to-voltage converter is a. Output current to input voltage b. Voltage-to-current converter d. the input current flows a. Error voltage c. A virtual ground d. Current-to-voltage converter c. A b 15. Gain when B is 1 d. Ideally infinite c 20. Distortion c. Current amplifier b 13. Gain with negative feedback b. Much less than 1 b. Is between 0 and 1 b 11. Very small c. Through the input impedance of the op amp b. Loop gain b 14. Is usually greater than 1 c. The feedback fraction B a. Almost equal b. Is always less than 1 b. A voltage follower has a voltage gain of a. When an op amp is not saturated. The loop gain AOLB a. Ideally zero d 12. Output voltage to input current d 17. Equal to +15 V a 6. Very large d. Gain at funity b 10. To ground d. Input offset voltage d. 1 c. Sometimes less than the open-loop impedance d. The voltage between the input terminals of an ideal op amp is a. Open load resistor b 8. Feedback voltage d. A mechanical ground b. Usually larger than the open-loop input impedance b. More than 1 d. Through the feedback resistor c. the voltages at the noninverting and inverting inputs are a. Equal to the open-loop input impedance c. In a VCVS amplifier. May not equal 1 d. May equal 1 d. No negative supply voltage b. The closed-loop input impedance with an ICVS amplifier is a. No feedback voltage d. Much different c. The transresistance of an amplifier is the ratio of its a. Zero b. An ICVS amplifier has no output voltage. Ideally zero d. May not equal 1 c 7. An ordinary ground c 18. Is usually much smaller than 1 b. Negative feedback reduces the a. The open-loop voltage gain equals the a. Differential voltage gain of the op amp c. Is usually much greater than 1 c. With an ICVS amplifier. Zero b. Large c. Output voltage to input voltage d. An ac ground c. Current cannot flow to ground through 32 . Input voltage to output current c. Input voltage b 9. Shorted feedback resistor c. The open-loop bandwidth equals a. Equal to the input voltage a 5. Very large d. A possible trouble is a. In a current-to-voltage converter. Output voltage b.

Open feedback resistor c. the circuit acts like a a. Maximum d. An ICVS amplifier has no output voltage. One bypass capacitor a 4. In an ac amplifier using an op amp with coupling and bypass capacitors. A possible trouble is a. Current-to-voltage converter c. fmax b 21. Nonlinear distortion in later stages c. funity b. The closed-loop bandwidth equals a. funity b. No supply voltages b. An instrumentation amplifier has a high a. funity/ACL d. One supply voltage b.a. In a linear op-amp circuit. Voltage-to-current converter d. No feedback voltage d. ACL d. Power bandwidth d 24. funity d. Input impedance is ideally infinite d. Av b 25. Power gain c. To use an op amp. Gain-bandwidth product is constant b 2. In a controlled current source with op amps. ACLf2(CL) d 23. An ICIS amplifier is saturated. Excessive input voltage d. Stability of voltage gain b. One coupling capacitor d. A VCVS amplifier has no output voltage. Minimum c. Two supply voltages c. Supply voltage c 6. you need at least a. Ideally zero a Chapter 20 1. A possible trouble is a. Signals are always sine waves b. Usually larger than the open-loop input impedance b. No positive supply voltage b. f2(OL) c. R2 is open c. Open load resistor a 26. Shorted load resistor b. Output impedance b. No input voltage d. For a given op amp. Sometimes less than the open-loop input impedance d. funity/ACL d. An ICVS amplifier is saturated. Output offset voltage d. Open load resistor b 27. Equal to the open-loop input impedance c. Open load resistor b 28. A possible trouble is a. Negative feedback does not improve a. the a. CMRR d. f2(OL) c. A possible trouble is a. The closed-loop input impedance in a VCVS amplifier is a. Shorted load resistor d 33 . Current amplifier c 5. Shorted load resistor b. Beta dc c. Feedback voltage c. Unchanged b 3. Open feedback resistor c. Op amp does not go into saturation c. No input voltage d. ACL b. A current booster on the output of an op amp will increase the short-circuit current by a. which of these is constant? a. f2(CL) b. Voltage amplifier b. Zero b. Open feedback resistor c. fmax c 22. the output offset voltage is a.

Common-mode input voltage b 12. Differential amplifier d. The load is always floated c. An input transducer converts a. Output op amp a 11. Inverting amplifier b.0001% d 18.5 V. Greater than the feedback resistance d. 0. Two outputs b. The Howland current source produces a a. Eight outputs d. b 23. Guard driving reduces the a. Reducing its value b. Temperature to resistance c. Summing amplifier d 14. Bidirectional single-ended load current c. The input signal for an instrumentation amplifier usually comes from a. the input resistances are a. Four outputs c. it acts like a 34 . 0. Voltage-to-current converter d. Convert voltage to current c.7. Given a voltage reference of +2. Leakage current in the shielded cable c. Supply voltages d. Current to voltage b 20. Has a high output impedance d. Current to voltage c. 1 ppm is equivalent to a.1% b. An inverting amplifier b. In a differential amplifier.01% c. A thermistor converts a. In an averaging circuit. Adjustable bandwidth circuit b. Instrumentation amplifier b 8. Noninverting amplifier c. Keep the output voltage almost constant d. Light to resistance b. 0. An op amp with a rail-to-rail output a. Has a current-boosted output b. A Wheatstone bridge d 10. the differential voltage gain is usually produced by the a. Voltage to sound d. Second stage c. A stiff current source drives the load d. Making a fine adjustment a. Voltage to current b. Bidirectional floating load current b 16. we are a. Sixteen outputs d 22. Cannot be less than 0 V. a. A current booster is never used b. Voltage gain of the first stage d. CMRR of the op amp b. Unidirectional floating load current b. the CMRR is limited mostly by a. Mismatched resistors d. Increasing its value d. A transducer c. Unidirectional single-ended load current d. In a voltage-controlled current source. The purpose of AGC is to a. A differential amplifier d. Tolerance of resistors d 9. A nonelectrical quantity to an electrical quantity d 19. When we trim a resistor. Reduce the CMRR of the circuit c 17. Can swing all the way to either supply voltage c. CMRR of an instrumentation amplifier b. Making a coarse adjustment a 21.001% d. we can get a voltage reference of +15 V by using a a. Noninverting amplifier c. A D/A converter is an application of the a. When a JFET is used in an AGC circuit. First stage b. A D/A converter with four inputs has a. Increase the voltage gain when the input signal increases b. The load current equals ISC c 15. In the classic three op-amp instrumentation amplifier. Unequal to each other c 13. Gain-bandwidth product c. 0. Less than the feedback resistance c. An electrical quantity to a nonelectrical quantity d. Equal to the feedback resistance b.

One stopband c. The region between the passband and the stopband is called the a. Butterworth b. Chebyshev 35 . Maximally-flat passband d. The bandwidth b. 180 dB per decade d. Transition d. 7 d. Chebyshev c. Butterworth Chapter 21 1. 20 dB per decade b. less than 1 d. its output cannot a. Maximally-flat stopband c. 6 c. Center c. The center frequency of a bandpass filter is always equal to a. No passband b. Bessel c 8. Geometric average of the cutoff frequencies c. equal to BW divided by f0 c. Inverse Chebyshev d. the approximation with the fastest rolloff in the transition region is a. Elliptic d. Be zero c. Inverse Chebyshev c. Butterworth b. The all-pass filter has a. its rolloff rate is a. Be ac coupled a b. Phase shifter c. The elliptic approximation has a a. Time-delay circuit c 5. Butterworth b. Be negative b.707 b. Bessel d 9. greater than 1 d 4. Ripple c 2. Elliptic d 12. Rippled stopband c. Rippled passband c 14. The approximation that distorts digital signals the least is the a. The filter with the slowest rolloff rate is the a. Equal the supply voltage d. 360 dB per decade d 11. The approximation with a maximally-flat passband is a. a fast rolloff above cutoff c 6. the order is a. Linear phase shift is equivalent to a. Q = 0. Chebyshev c. 40 dB per decade c. Capacitance c 24. If a Butterworth filter has 9 second-order stages. Elliptic d. Constant time delay d. small b. 13 d 10. The approximation with a rippled passband is a. Bandwidth divided by Q d. If a filter has six second-order stages and one first-order stage. The Q of a narrowband filter is always a. Voltage-controlled resistance d. A bandstop filter is sometimes called a a. If an op amp has only a positive supply voltage. 2 b. Notch filter d. Inverse Chebyshev c. Voltage-controlled current source c. Switch b. the same gain at all frequencies d. Attenuation b. If n = 10. Bessel b 7. Elliptic d. Snubber b. 3-dB frequency b 3. Monotonic stopband b 13. Slow rolloff rate compared to the Cauer b.a.

Delay equalizer c. Rolloff rate of 20 dB per decade b 17. Sallen-Key filters are also called b. Phase shift is important c. MFB filters c. Bessel d 15. VCVS filters b. KHN filter d. Equal Q's b. Remain the same b. To get a Chebyshev response with a 12th-order filter. 0 degrees to -720 degrees c 27. the Q of the stage will a. Unequal center frequencies c. The all-pass filter is sometimes called a a. Tow-Thomas filter b. With Sallen-Key high-pass filters. A first-order stage cannot have a a. Maximally-flat passband d. Staggered bandwidths d. Staggered center frequencies and Q's d 21. Multiplied by the K values d. Center frequency c. The state-variable filter a. When Q is greater than 1. Center frequency decreases b. GBW of the op amp a 22. To get a Butterworth response with an 8th-order filter. 0 degrees to -180 degrees c. the stages need to have a. Equal center frequencies c. 0 degrees to -360 degrees d. Equal Q's b. One capacitor b. 2 fourth-order stages b 19. Increase 36 . Q decreases c. 3 third-order stages d. A first-order active-filter stage has a. Biquadratic filters d. Two op amps c. Chebyshev c. A maximally-flat passband is needed d. Chebyshev response c. High rolloff rates are needed b. we should cascade a. Notch stages d. the a. Bandwidth d. Decrease d. Has high component sensitivity d. Elliptic d. A second-order all-pass filter can vary the output phase from a. Is difficult to tune c. Divided by the K values d 23. The Q of a Sallen-Key second-order stage depends on the a. high-pass. Has a low-pass. The biquadratic filter a. 90 degrees to -90 degrees b. Low-pass and high-pass stages b. State-variable filter b 28. the stages need to have a. The all-pass filter is used when a. the pole frequency must be a. Added to the K values a. All of the above d 29. If GBW is limited. MFB stages c. Voltage gain b. Is also called Tow-Thomas filter d. All-pass stages b 25. and bandpass output b. Rolloff rate increases d. Uses three or more op amps c. Subtracted from the K values c. a bandpass filter should be built with a. Uses less than three op amps a 30. If BW increases. A rippled stopband is important b 26. Inductors d. Has low component sensitivity b. Butterworth response b. To build a 10th-order filter. State-variable filters a 18.b. a high Q a 16. 5 second-order stages c. Ripples appear in the stopband b 24. Three resistors d. Double c. Staggered Q's d 20. 10 first-stage stages b.

10 kHz c 13. a designer may use a. Linear phase shift d. A rippled passband b c. Hysteresis prevents false triggering associated with a. Compensating capacitor b. Limiter d. If AOL = 200. Op amp never saturates b.5 uV c. The output of a relaxation oscillator is a a. Half-wave detector b 14. A sine wave c 4. Noise voltages c. A high voltage c. the output of an integrator is a a. The voltage out of a Schmitt trigger is a.000. Stray capacitances d. 2 Vpp c. Output shape is the same as the input shape d. Pullup resistor c. many IC comparators need an external a. The lowest frequency you should use is a. 0 b. the output is a a. Spike b 9. Rectified sine wave d. Is zero a 8. Sine wave b. A constant time delay b. 7 uV d.10 Hz b. Comparator b. Relaxation oscillator a 3. 0 b. Trip points b 5. Zero-crossing detector c. To correct for limited GBW. 16 V b 11. Positive limit detector d. 4 V c. the output is a. Bypass circuit 37 . A comparator with a trip point of zero is sometimes called a a. Sine wave b. Series of ramps a 7. 8 Vpp c 12. the duty cycle a.d 31. 3. 14 uV b 10. Rectangular wave b. Threshold detector b. The input voltage to a positive limiter is a triangular wave of 8 V pp and an average value of 0. Decreases b. 1 kHz d. Increases d. If the input is a rectangular pulse. 6 Vpp d. Square wave c. When a large sine wave drives a Schmitt trigger. The output is a. In a nonlinear op-amp circuit. Rectangular pulse c 6. Square wave c. If the reference level is 2 V. the a. Predistortion c. 8 V d. Ramp d. Stays the same a. the closed-loop knee voltage of a silicon diode is Chapter 22 1. Clamper c. The discharging time constant of a peak detector is 10 ms. The input to a peak detector is a triangular wave with a peakto-peak value of 8 V and an average value of 0. use a a. Triangular wave c. A low voltage b. A sinusoidal input b. Op amp may saturate d 2. Either a low or a high voltage d.100 Hz c.If pulse width decreases and the period stays the same. To work properly. 1 uV b. Feedback loop is never opened c. To detect when the input is greater than a particular value. Ramp d.

A ramp b 25.7 V 1 . The output of an active positive clamper is a. More than 0. Bypass capacitor d. Peak detection of the input signal c. Negative feedback c. Ripple from the power supply b. A positive dc voltage to the input b. An LC tank circuit a 2. Sinusoidal inputs d. If the reference voltage is zero.7 V c. Positive feedback b. Capacitor d. Clamping to occur c 21.7 V d. Much less than 0. A negative dc voltage to the input c. Increases or decreases at a linear rate d. A Schmitt trigger a. The circuit to oscillate b. Output stage b 15. the output of an active positive limiter is a. Positive feedback b 3. Noninverting input a 18. An oscillator always needs an amplifier with a. An ac signal to the output d. The op-amp integrator uses a. A Schmitt trigger uses a. The Wien-bridge oscillator is useful a. the current through the input resistor flows into the a. Feedback capacitor d 22. Both types of feedback d. Noise voltage in resistors c. Detects an input voltage between two limits d Chapter 23 a. A window comparator a. A trip point to the input a 27. Compensating capacitors d. Pullup resistors a 16. Inductors b. The positive clamper adds a. Is produced by hysteresis c 19. Either positive or negative d. The trip point of a comparator is the input voltage that causes d 23. Uses hysteresis to speed up response c. A ramp of voltage a. An active half-wave rectifier has a knee voltage of a. At low frequencies b. Negative feedback c.d. Equal to the period d. Positive b. A relaxation oscillator depends on the charging of a capacitor through a a. VK b. The output to switch states d. 0. Inverting input b. The voltage that starts an oscillator is caused by a. The input signal from a generator d. Always increases b. The same as the charging time constant a 24. Clamps the input positively d. Has only one usable threshold b. Positive feedback b. Much shorter than the period c. the discharging time constant is a. Negative c. Produces triangular output waves d. Positive b. At high frequencies c. Has two trip points c. A ramp a 26. Negative c. Either positive or negative d. At small input signals 38 . Inductor c. Is a zero-crossing detector b. The Miller effect c. In an active peak detector. Is a rectangular pulse c. With LC tank circuits d. Hysteresis b 20. In an op-amp integrator. Much longer than the period b. Is designed to trigger on noise voltage b 17. Resistor b. Noninverting input c.

Colpitts d. Becomes erratic a 16. Two resistors c. The phase-shift oscillator usually has a. Capacitive coupling b. Hartley b a. A Wien-bridge oscillator uses a. the loop gain of a Wien-bridge oscillator is 12. 270 degrees d. Negative feedback c. Notch filter b. 1 c. The same as the input voltage c 5. the frequency of oscillation a. Clapp c. Between 0 and -90 degrees d. Colpitts d. When Q decreases in a Colpitts oscillator. you can vary a. Causes saturation and cutoff c. Prevents the circuit from starting b. you can vary 18. Resistive coupling d. A lead circuit has a phase angle that is a. An LC tank circuit c 8. High d 9. A lead-lag circuit d. 90 degrees b. Initially. Decreases b. the loop gain must be greater than 1 when the phase shift around the loop is a. Two lead or lag circuits b. Positive feedback b. Three resistors d. The same as the input voltage a 7. Hartley c 14. Between 0 and -90 degrees d. Low d. Twin-T oscillator c. Lead-lag circuit d. Resonant circuit b 6. 0 b. Two resistors c. Three resistors d. One resistor b. Clapp C. Phase shifter d. Wheatstone bridge a 10. To vary the frequency of a Wien bridge. Three lead or fag circuits c. The most widely used LC oscillator is the a. Power coupling b 39 . The Hartley oscillator uses a. To vary the frequency of an LC oscillator. A tungsten lamp d. Greater than 90 degrees c. 180 degrees c. Between 0 and +90 degrees b. Between 0 and +90 degrees b. Negative feedback b. For oscillations to start in a circuit. A tickler coil b a. Transformer coupling c. Increases d. Lag circuit b. One capacitor d a. Means B is small b 15. A coupling circuit is a a. Of the following.a 4. Lead circuit c. Both types of feedback d. Greater than 90 degrees c. Armstrong b. One capacitor b 11. Produces maximum output voltage d. the one with the most stable frequency is the a. A Wien bridge is sometimes called a 17. Heavy feedback in an LC oscillator a. 360 degrees d 13. Remains the same c. Armstrong b. Link coupling refers to a. A lag circuit has a phase angle that is a. One resistor b. A twin-T filter b 19. Two inductors c.

Space d 30. Small inductance d. Lock range c. Low frequencies a 23. Low Q b. Small c. Period c. A monostable 555 timer has the following number of stable states: a. The quantity that remains constant in a pulse-width modulator is a. 0 b. Have too little load current b 4. Produce zero load current b. Timing capacitance increases d 27. 1 c. The material with the piezoelectric effect is a. Is less than f0 b. Very close together b. Have a load voltage equal to the zener voltage d. When a PLL is locked on the input frequency. Phase difference a Chapter 24 1. Destroy diodes and transistors c. Clapp c. the power dissipation of the pass transistor equals the collector-emitter voltage times the a. 2 d. Phase limiting a 2. Equal d. 3 a 26. High Q c. rectangular d. Zero b. Free-running frequency d. 3 b 25. triangular c. Quartz crystal d 24. Is greater than f0 c. Pulse width b. All the above d 21. UTP decreases d. Capture range b. Equals f0 d.20. Positive feedback c. An astable 555 timer has the following number of stable states: a. Voltage regulators normally use a. Tourmaline d. Colpitts d. During regulation. Open b 40 . Armstrong b. 0 b. Space b 29. The pulse width out of a one-shot multivibrator increases when the a. Duty cycle d. Load current c. Duty cycle d. The bandwidth of the low-pass filter in a PLL determines the a. Period c. Zener current d. Rochelle salts c. The series and parallel resonant frequencies of a crystal are a. Base current b. Very far apart c. Crystals have a very a. the VCO frequency a. 1 c. No feedback d. The output waveform of a 555 timer is a. Without current limiting. Pulse width b. sinusoidal b. Timing resistor decreases c. Negative feedback b. The quantity that remains constant in a pulse-position modulator is a. A current-sensing resistor is usually a. Foldback current b 3. Large resistance b 22. Equals fin d 31. Supply voltage increases b. a shorted load will probably a. The kind of oscillator found in an electronic wristwatch is the a. Quartz b. 2 d. Large d. elliptical c 28.

A load resistor b. 10 mV d. Equal in value b. Series with the IC regulator b. 2% d. and the load current approaches a. Zener diode b. Negative feedback b. Infinity c. 5% b 10. 5% c 9.8 V when the line voltage varies over its specified range. A zener impedance c. Current through the device is too high d. Simple current limiting produces too much heat in the a. 1% c. 0 b. Current sensing c d. Another transistor d. The zener current d. A current booster is a transistor in a. A bypass capacitor on the input pin c. Oscillations d. 4 V c. 3 V b. Very large c. Positive b. If the output of a voltage regulator varies from 15 to 14. To turn on a current booster. we can drive its base-emitter terminals with the voltage across a. Power dissipation is too high b. Compared to the ripple into a voltage regulator. Parallel with the IC regulator c. The 78XX series of voltage regulators produces an output voltage that is a. Equal to the input voltage divided by the output current a 11. -60 mV b. A capacitor may be needed in a discrete voltage regulator to prevent a. The 78XX-12 produces a regulated output voltage of a. All the above occur b 14.7 V between the minimum and maximum load current. Internal temperature is too high c. With foldback current limiting. Much larger c. Impossible to determine c 12.5. the output ripple is a. you may get oscillations inside the IC unless you use a. Ambient air c 6. Excessive load current c. 2% d. Equal to the load voltage divided by the load current d. A phase splitter produces two output voltages that are 41 . Thermal shutdown occurs in an IC regulator if a. Very small b. Current limiting b. Unregulated a 16. Load resistor c. A small value b. 40 V c 17. A coupling capacitor on the output pin d. Either positive or negative d. If the input ripple is 1 V. Pass transistor d. Negative c. the source regulation is a. Either series or parallel d. 12 V d. Much smaller 15. the ripple out of a voltage regulator is a. 1000 V b 13. the load voltage approaches zero. 0 b. If the output of a voltage regulator varies from 20 to 19. A destructive level a 7. A voltage regulator has a ripple rejection of -60 dB. If a linear three-terminal IC regulator is more than a few inches from the filter capacitor. A regulated input voltage b 8. 1% c. Shunt with the load b 18. A current-sensing resistor d 19. The output impedance of a voltage regulator is a. 1 mV c. the load regulation is a.

Constant c. All of the above d 29. Very small c 20. Shunt regulator c. the output voltage is filtered with a 42 . the pass transistor has the least power dissipation when the regulator has a. Buck topology d. Zener voltage is low d. A high zener voltage a 34. An increase of line voltage into a power supply usually produces a. Opposite in phase d. Input power is low b. The efficiency of a voltage regulator is high when a. Linear b 30. Line regulation d. Headroom voltage is low b. Switching regulator d. Inefficient d. It has a series resistor b. Low efficiency c. Foldback limiting b. Current limiting c. Pass transistor has a high power dissipation c. Input power is high c 28. Dc-to-dc converter a 21. Used to store energy in a magnetic field b 26. A shunt regulator is inefficient because a. In a buck regulator. The pass transistor replaces the series resistor d.1 V c 35. A decrease in efficiency d. Variable b. 0. An advantage of shunt regulation is a. A series regulator is more efficient than a shunt regulator because a. A switching regulator is considered a. Zener follower a 25. Switching regulator c. It can boost the voltage c. High efficiency d. Equal in phase b.7 V c. A decrease in load resistance b. It switches the pass transistor on and off c 32. Shunt regulator d. Increase the duty cycle d. Little power is wasted d. The input current to a shunt regulator is a.3 V b. Less power dissipation in the rectifier diodes b 23. A power supply with low output impedance has low a. The efficiency of a linear regulator is high when the a. Series regulator c. If the load is shorted. Little wasted power a 27. Buck regulator d. Load regulation b. Output power is high c. The zener follower is an example of a a. The ratio of output to input power is low d. A zener-diode regulator is a a. Efficiency a 24. It uses a series resistor and a shunt transistor c.a. To get more output voltage from a buck switching regulator. Linear regulator b. Decrease the duty cycle b. Output voltage is low a 33. Built-in short-circuit protection b. 3. Unequal in amplitude c. Shunt regulator b. A series regulator is an example of a a. Decrease the input voltage c. Increase the switching frequency c 22. 2 V d. you have to a. An increase in load voltage c. The dropout voltage of standard monolithic linear regulators is closest to a. Boost regulator b. Quiet b. 0. Equal to load current d. Series regulator d 31. Noisy c. It wastes power b. Low power dissipation in the pass transistor c.

Choke-input filter b. An inverting regulator d. The buck-boost regulator is also a. Diode d. Voltage divider b 38. The regulator with the highest efficiency is the a. Voltage divider a 36. Switching regulator d. the output voltage is filtered with a a. Capacitor-input filter c. A step-down regulator b.a. All of the above d 43 . Shunt regulator b. Diode d. Capacitor-input filter c. Dc-to-dc converter c 37. A step-up regulator c. Choke-input filter b. In a boost regulator. Series regulator c.

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