Test Booklet Serial Number
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1. This test has three sections. Each section has 25 questions. You will be given two and half hours
to complete the test. In distributing the time over the three sections, please bear in mind
that you need to demonstrate your competence in all three sections.
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directions carefully and answer the questions by darkening the appropriate circles on the Answer
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Candidates giving assistance or seeking/receiving help from any source in answering questions or
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them. The Institutes reserve the right to exclude any question or questions from this Test Booklet for
1. In how many ways can you write 19 as a sum of five odd numbers?
(5) None of these
2. Let A =
and B =
(1) A > B
(2) A < B
(3) A = B
(4) A = B
(5) B = A
3. How many values of A are there such that the system of equations x
, (x − A)
= 1 has
exactly 3 solutions (x, y)?
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3 (5) 4
4. Two cars, P and Q, simultaneously start traveling towards each other from two points A and B,
respectively. They meet each other at some point between A and B. If Q reverses its direction
when the two cars meet, P reaches B 12 hours before Q. If P reverses its direction when the two
cars meet, P reaches A 30 hours before Q. If neither car reverses its direction when they meet
and keeps traveling towards its destination, how many hours earlier will P reach B than Q reaches
(1) 18 h
(2) 42 h
(3) 45 h
(4) 30 h
(5) None of these
5. Given that x, y and z are positive real numbers and log
z = 3, log
z = 6, and log
value of z is
6. The language CAT has only three letters C, A and T. In this language every combination of letters
is a word except those in which A is followed by a T. How many four-letter words are there in
(1) 80 (2) 78 (3) 72 (4) 55 (5) 71
1 2 3 19 p
2! 3! 4! 20! q
+ + + + = , then the remainder when q is divided by p is
8. A rectangle with rational side lengths can be divided by parallel lines to its sides into 200
congruent squares, and also in 288 congruent squares. Then the rectangle can also be divided
(1) 180 congruent squares.
(2) 392 congruent squares
(3) 484 congruent squares
(4) 300 congruent squares
(5) 280 congruent squares
9. Three circles of unit radius and with centres at A, B, and C are tangent
to each other and a bigger semicircle with centre O, as shown in the
figure above. Circle A and C touch the semicircle at F and E,
respectively, as shown. What is the length of the radius OE of the bigger
(2) 2+ 3
(3) 1+ 5
(4) 2 3
(5) 2 + 2
10. On a number line, the first 20 natural numbers are selected and 10 of them are painted black and
ten of them are painted white. Let a
, …, a
be painted black such that a
and let b
, …, b
be painted white such that b
> … > b
. Then the value of
⏐ + ⏐a
⏐ + ⏐a
⏐ + … + ⏐a
(1) is odd
(2) is even
(3) lies between 20 and 30
(4) lies between 10 and 20
(5) cannot be determined
11. A chain with two links is 13 cm long. A chain made from three such
links is 18 cm long. How long is the chain made from 25 links of the
(1) 120 (2) 128 (3) 136 (4) 144 (5) 150
12. If a is a positive integer such that a
− (a − 1)
a + 1
= 13, then the number of positive divisors of a
(1) 20 (2) 15 (3) 10 (4) 5 (5) 3
13. If y − 1, 2y + 2 and 7y + 1 are the first three terms of a geometric sequence, then the common
ratio of the sequence
(4) Either (2) or (3)
(5) None of these
14. 35 persons per thousand have high blood pressure. 80% of those with high blood pressure drink,
and 60% of those without high blood pressure drink. What percentage of drinkers have high
(1) 4.22% (2) 2.44% (3) 4.47% (4) 2.8% (5) 5.79%
15. A twenty-four hour digital clock is kept on a glass table such that the inverted
reflection of the time can also be seen below the display. For example, at
13:08, the reflected image also shows the same time. How many other times in
the day are the display time and its reflected image the same?
16. A basket of fruit is being arranged out of apples, bananas, and oranges. What is the smallest
number of pieces of fruit that should be put in the basket in order to guarantee that either there
are at least 8 apples or at least 6 bananas or at least 9 oranges?
(5) None of these
17. The series 1,2,4,5,7,9,10,12,14,16,17... has one odd number followed by two evens, then three
odds, followed by four evens, and so on. What number is the 2003
(5) None of these
18. Let f(x) be a polynomial of degree 2000 such that f(1) = f(2002) = 1 and f(2) = f(3) = f(4) = …
= f(2000) = f(2001) = 0. Then the value of f(0) is
19. Mary and Jane start at the same point, and run around a track in the same direction. It takes Mary
2 minutes to complete each lap, and Jane 2 minutes and 15 seconds to complete a lap. After 1
hour, how many times has Mary passed Jane (not including when they had just started running)?
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 1 (4) 2 (5) 5
20. If one root of the equation x
+ 4x + D = 0, is the arithmetic mean of the other two roots,
then the value of D is
(1) −3 (2) 6 (3) 5 (4) 2 (5) 9
21. A pencil, eraser and notebook together cost Rs100. A notebook costs more than two pencils,
three pencils cost more than four erasers, and three erasers cost more than a notebook.
Assuming the cost of each item to be a positive integer, what is the difference between the cost
of notebook and pencil?
(1) 29 (2) 32 (3) 25 (4) 10 (5) 15
22. How many hours will Anjali, Babli and Chintoo take to finish their homework together if Anjali
alone can do it in six hours more, Babli alone can do it in on hour more and Chintoo alone in
twice the time?
(1) 5 hrs. (2) 1/3 hrs. (3) 4/5 hrs. (4) 2/3 hrs. (5) 2 hrs.
23. The figure shows a regular pentagon and a regular hexagon which overlap.
What is the value of x?
24. One of the digits 1 to 9 is put in each unshaded square so
that no digit is repeated and the total of the entries in the
rows and columns are as shown. Which number goes in the
25. We place k boxes in an empty box. In each of these k boxes we either place k new boxes or leave
it empty. We keep this process going. Eventually, there are m boxes containing other boxes. Find
the number of empty boxes.
(1) mk – m + 1
(3) mk + 1
(4) mk − k
(5) Cannot be determined
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
Directions for Questions 26 to 28: The passage given below is followed by a set of three questions.
Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
There are two ways to approach the study of terrorism. One may adopt a literal approach, taking the
topic seriously, or a propagandistic approach, construing the concept of terrorism as a weapon to be
exploited in the service of some system of power. In each case it is clear how to proceed. Pursuing the
literal approach, we begin by determining what constitutes terrorism, the answer to which is invariably
“to achieve any end—political, cultural, social, economic -- by the unrestrained and indiscriminate use of
force, especially against unarmed populace”. We then seek instances of the phenomenon and try to
determine causes and remedies. The propagandistic approach dictates a different course. We begin with
the thesis that terrorism is the responsibility of some officially designated enemy. We then designate
terrorist acts as "terrorist" just in the cases where they can be attributed (whether plausibly or not) to
the required source; otherwise they are to be ignored, suppressed, or termed "retaliation" or "self-
It comes as no surprise that the propagandistic approach is generally adopted by governments, and by
their instruments in totalitarian states. We must recognize that by convention great power use and the
threat of the use of force is normally described as coercive diplomacy and not as a form of terrorism,
though it commonly involves the threat and often the use of violence for what would be described as
terroristic purposes were it not great powers who were pursuing the very same tactic. Only one
qualification must be added: the term "great powers" must be restricted to favored states; in the
Western conventions under discussion, the Soviet Union is granted no such rhetorical license, and
indeed can be charged and convicted on the flimsiest of evidence.
Terrorism became a major public issue in the 1980s. The Reagan administration took office announcing
its dedication to stamping out what the president called "the evil scourge of terrorism," a plague spread
by "depraved opponents of civilization itself" in "a return to barbarism in the modern age". The
campaign focused on a particularly virulent form of the plague: state-directed international terrorism.
The central thesis attributed responsibility to a Soviet-based "worldwide terror network aimed at the
destabilization of Western democratic society," in the words of Claire Sterling, whose highly-praised
book The Terror Network became the Bible of the administration and the founding document of the new
discipline of terrorology. It was taken to have provided "ample evidence" that terrorism occurs "almost
exclusively in democratic or relatively democratic societies" leaving little doubt about the origins of the
By the mid-1980s, concern over international terrorism reached the level of virtual frenzy. Middle-
East/Mediterranean terrorism was selected by editors as the lead story of 1985 in an AP poll, and a year
later the tourism industry in Europe was badly hit as Americans stayed away in fear of Arab terrorists
infesting European cities. The plague then subsided, the monster having been tamed by the cool
courage of the cowboy.
There are many terrorist states in the world, but the United States is unusual in that it is officially
committed to international terrorism, and on a scale that puts its rivals to shame. Thus Iran is surely a
terrorist state, as Western governments and media rightly proclaim. Its major known contribution to
international terrorism was revealed during the Iran-Contra inquiries: namely, Iran's perhaps
inadvertent involvement in the US proxy war against Nicaragua. This fact is unacceptable, therefore
unnoticed, though the Iranian connection in US-directed international terrorism was exposed at a time of
impassioned denunciation of Iranian terrorism. The same inquiries revealed that under the Reagan
Doctrine, the US had forged new paths in international terrorism. In the Reagan years, the US not only
constructed a semi-private international terrorist network but also an array of client and mercenary
states -- Taiwan, South Korea, Israel, Saudi Arabia, and others -- to finance and implement its terrorist
operations. This advance in international terrorism was revealed during the period of maximal anguish
over the plague, but did not enter into the discussion and debate.
The US commitment to international terrorism reaches to fine detail. Thus the proxy forces attacking
Nicaragua were directed by their CIA and Pentagon commanders to attack "soft targets," that is, barely
defended civilian targets. The State Department specifically authorized attacks on agricultural
cooperatives -- exactly what we denounce with horror when the agent is Abu Nidal. Media doves
expressed thoughtful approval of this stand. New Republic editor Michael Kinsley, at the liberal extreme
of mainstream commentary, argued that we should not be too quick to dismiss State Department
justifications for terrorist attacks on farming cooperatives: a "sensible policy" must "meet the test of
cost-benefit analysis," an analysis of "the amount of blood and misery that will be poured in, and the
likelihood that democracy will emerge at the other end." It is understood that US elites have the right to
conduct the analysis and pursue the project if it passes their tests. The message is clear: no one has the
right of self-defense against US terrorist attack. The US is a terrorist state by right. That is
26. The purpose of the passage is to
(1) understand a phenomenon by employing various methods.
(2) expose the hidden side of a phenomenon and its main perpetrator.
(3) explain the implications of a phenomenon on international peace.
(4) report events related to a phenomenon and attack a commonly held belief.
(5) report two theories related to a phenomenon and examine one of them.
27. Which of the following statements can be inferred from the above passage?
(1) Favoured states are involved in coercive diplomacy.
(2) The United States administration provided evidence for Claire Sterling’s book.
(3) The US media vehemently criticized US government for proxy war against Nicaragua.
(4) From the ‘literal approach’ point of view, there is more terrorism than is generally perceived.
(5) In the 1980s, the Soviet Union was engaged in state-directed international terrorism.
28. By "The plague then subsided, the monster having been tamed by the cool courage of the
cowboy", the author
(1) implies that had it not been for the intervention of the US, terrorism could never have been
(2) makes a mocking remark on the US's affected role vis-à-vis terrorism.
(3) moralises that where negotiations fail, one has to use muscle.
(4) intends to say that the timely intervention of the US led to the taming down of the 'terrorism
(5) eulogises the US's exceptional cool headedness in the face of rising terrorism.
Directions for Questions 29 to 31: Each of the following questions has a paragraph from which the
last sentence has been deleted. From the given options, choose the sentence that completes the
paragraph in the most appropriate way.
29. Consider an agent acting in any given situation. From his standpoint, before action there are
alternative possibilities of action, in and upon the situation. But he can act only in one of these
ways. Whichever of the possible actions he does will rule out all the others. They become
impossible once he has acted. The action is irreversible, because it produced a new situation.
(1) Thus the action is a choice.
(2) His act, just because it is an act, makes impossible a number of actions which were possible
(3) Suppose now that the action is not a random action but has a purpose in it.
(4) Notice that it is his action which defines it.
(5) By acting in the way he does, he chooses that action as the best action in the circumstances.
30. What those who speak of silent discourse have in mind is the fact that interlaced with our
thinking of or about things is a great deal of imaging of linguistic entities. But imaging a word is
not using a word, any more than imaging a horse is using a horse. Moreover, imaging a word,
phrase, or sentence is not producing or perceiving a word, phrase, or sentence any more than
imaging a horse is producing or perceiving--or otherwise 'having'--a horse. _____
(1) To image is to exemplify a certain sort of thinking or intentional state.
(2) There is no reason at all to suppose that all kinds of thinking necessarily involve or are
accompanied by this kind of imaging.
(3) To image a linguistic sequence is not to have it in a special sort of place--the mind.
(4) Since this kind of thinking about language segments is not itself language at all.
(5) In fact, the difficulty is not in seeing how one can think without language, but in seeing how
one would think with it.
31. What is logically impossible cannot even be described, i.e., it cannot be expressed by words or
other means of communication. We see that no real question is in principle - i.e. logically -
unanswerable. For the logical impossibility of solving a problem is equivalent to the impossibility
of describing a method of finding its solution and this, as we have stated, is equivalent to the
impossibility of indicating the meaning of the problem. _____
(1) The impossibility of answering a given question may be an impossibility in principle.
(2) Thus a question which is unanswerable in principle can have no meaning.
(3) It may be due to accidental circumstances which do not affect the general laws.
(4) Every explanation or indication of the meaning of a question consists of prescriptions for
finding its answer.
(5) By giving a meaning to the question we make it logically answerable.
Directions for Questions 32 to 34: The passage given below is followed by a set of three questions.
Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
As the wear and tear of use and abuse strains at the seams, Lahore’s institutions and indeed for that
matter, countrywide, academia appears to be reinventing itself. To state things with Aristotelian
dryness, the core purpose of a university is to assimilate and transmit knowledge. A daily erosion of any
commitment to scholarship, research, the creation of an intellectual community is overtly visible and
being overtaken by a hunger for a ‘market-driven’ culture which reinforces the desire for immediate
gratification in terms of the salary waiting at the other end of the rainbow. My reality check forces me to
the conclusion that as opposed to the Enlightenment, this is the Age of Money.
Everything and everyone is caught up in a fierce wind which hurtles us towards the final objective, which
is to make money. With that as our prime motivator the function of learning has become limited to
staying on course towards a Mammon city. The student has become the ‘consumer’ and a new
vocabulary with its corresponding semantics has transformed what universities considered their historic
mission into a banality of consumerism. The tyranny of professional essentials and shifting consumer
priorities now dictate subject offerings, curriculum design and specialisations. The immediate and covert
effect of which is visible in the expansion of the ideal university’s size. This ‘massification’ is responsible
for what is recognised as one of the prime factors responsible for what may be described as ‘the
demoralization of intellectual life.’ Damaging as the statement is, it is a sad fact that universities have
changed beyond recognition. Partly because the culture of inquiry-based, independent learning is no
longer the norm and partly because governments are playing subterranean games on campus. The
recent furore over a bill passed unanimously by the US House of Representatives which, and which has
become a law requiring international studies departments at universities to show more support for
American policy or else risk their federal funding, is a classic example of the growing intrusion of
governmental constraints. A right-wing think tank member at the Hoover Institution testified that the
Title VI (as they are known) funded programmes in Middle Eastern Studies tended to pursue an extreme
and one-sided view of American foreign policy. Rashid Khalidi, recently appointed to the Edward Said
Chair of Arab Studies at Columbia University, ascribes this potentially dangerous move to the zealotry of
the neoconservative lobby dominating the corridors of power in Washington. With the House having
approved the bill and already put in force the legislation, the academic wars appear to be in full swing.
History repeats itself and the rumblings are more than thinly reminiscent of the McCarthyism that the US
witnessed during an earlier period which most thinking Americans would like to forget ever happened. At
present, there are 17 Middle Eastern study-centres in the US; most of them are sited at the nation’s top
schools. The late Edward Said’s legacy of intellectual brilliance, a plea for international amity and a
humanitarian ideology has begun to be read as a selective, post-colonial apology for the Arab world
which deliberately overlooks crucial issues of terrorism and the rise of fundamentalism. The world in
general and academia in particular must protest this reinterpretation of the work of one of the foremost
intellectuals of our times.
As a student in the US, I was amused by the insularity and oblivious lack of awareness about the rest of
the world that was exhibited by peer group. They could be forgiven their surprise at the fact that I wore
a wristwatch, spoke the Queen’s English and played tennis as well as they did. But the conservatism
marking their attitude towards one of their own who appeared to have ‘strayed’ was appalling. The
teacher for Contemporary Problems suspected of being ‘red’ and outspokenly critical of US overseas
policy was the object of hate-mail, jeers and social ostracism. It mattered little that he was one of the
finest teachers the institution had, that his classes were immensely popular and that he brought an
intensity and insightful maturity to issues of adolescent psychology. He lived alone, was never invited
anywhere and stood splendidly isolated at school functions.
Historically speaking, the university has played a large part in American policy making. This is amply
illustrated by the quality of research pioneered at Johns Hopkins post-contact between American
scholars and Germany in the decades following the Civil War, to be closely emulated by Stanford and the
University of Southern California in the following decades. For a long time in academia, the measure of
the academic was the quality of his discourse rather than the intensity of his patriotism. That things
have changed dramatically is illustrated by the readiness to condemn scholars for their dissenting views.
A right-wing vigilante, David Horowitz has spent much of his career fighting what he claims is left-wing
fascism masquerading as Middle Eastern area studies. Lumping countries together, he scathingly refers
to them as ‘Islamofascist’. Martin Kramer’s ‘Ivory Towers on Sand’ is the latest in a series of studies
which place the veracity of scholarship many notches below the paramount idea that the United States
plays an essentially beneficent role in the world. Neoconservative paranoia stresses that if American
Middle East policy is perceived as flawed, the onus rests squarely on the shoulders of the expert rather
than with the policy itself. It is a tragedy of immense proportions that a country built on the strength of
individual enterprise should view the maverick spirit with unease and suspicion.
32. Which of the following, according to the author, would be responsible for the changes taking
place in universities?
(1) Universities have expanded to be larger than their ideal sizes owing to influx of overseas
students (mostly Middle East students who are eligible for various scholarships).
(2) Unprecedented changes in the global political scenario(rise of extremism etc.) have caused the
powers that be to rethink on their hitherto liberal views.
(3) The scholastic spirit has been increasingly replaced by a more consumerist outlook and undue
political interferences from corresponding governments.
(4) Policy-making is no longer affected by academic trends, which are invariably set by university
trends, as it used to be in the past.
(5) Universities have never been influenced so much by socio-political problems from which they
had managed to remain insulated so far, as they have been now.
33. Which of the following would the author agree with as the most probable explanation behind the
passing of the Bill (regarding article VI) in the US House of Representatives?
I. The Bill has become a necessity in light of the fact that many students (mostly from the Middle
East) who are funded through this program tend to pursue one-sided criticism of US policies.
II. The Bill is simply a reflection of the zealous ideology of the Neoconservative group which is at
the power-centre in US politics.
III. The bill is meant to counter disruptive elements within the academia which are probably
sponsored by the forces that work against the government.
IV. The government simply wants to redirect funds towards promotion of its own ideology rather
than waste it.
(1) I only (2) II only (3) III only (4) both I & II (5) both II & III
34. What could be the reason behind the author’s citing the example of Edward Said?
(1) To point out how political powers have partly managed to twist academic ideology slightly in
their favour, if not totally snub them out.
(2) To point out a result of the general lack of awareness about other countries and cultures on
the part of the average American.
(3) To point out how even the most well-meaning of efforts can go awry if not backed with proper
(4) To point out how a difficult-to-understand writer like Edward Said always runs the risk of
(5) To point out the results of the falling standards of academicians the world over, leave alone
Directions for Questions 35 to 37: In each question there are sentences having pairs of words that
are highlighted. From the highlighted words, select the most appropriate word to form correct
sentences. Then, from the options given, choose the best one.
35. The horses became restless [A] / restive [B] on the mountain trail.
The immoral [A] / amoral [B] behaviour of the lunatic forced the doctors to chain him to the
The source [A] / cause [B] of his injuries was a car accident.
The brothers, although with opposite temperaments, supplemented [A] / complemented [B]
each other in business.
We have to be a little less social [A] / sociable [B] now in order to pay attention to our kids.
(1) BABAB (2) AAAAA (3) BBBBA (4) BBBBB (5) BABBA
36. The old man is a very skilled [A] / skillful [B] juggler.
The court ordered the young couple to provide necessities [A] / necessaries [B] of life to their
The masterful [A] / masterly [B] manner of the critic kept her from raising objections to his
The gathering turned acrimonious when the scholars started the classical [A] / classic [B]
debate between free trade and protectionism.
There were so many witnesses in these two miracles that it was impossible to deny [A] / refute
[B] such multitudes.
(1) BABAB (2) ABABA (3) BBABB (4) BBAAB (5) BABBA
37. Gandhi chose the word Satyagraha to connote [A] / denote [B] the revolution against the
A judicial [A] / judicious [B] decision by the king ended the long-standing feud between the
The informant [A] / informer [B], lured by the hefty reward, sabotaged his own gang.
Braving the tortuous [A] / torturous [B] road through the mountains, Atilla moved along
(1) BABA (2) ABBA (3) BAAB (4) BAAA (5) BBBB
Directions for Questions 38 to 40: The passage given below is followed by a set of three questions.
Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
"Right Livelihood" is one of the requirements of the Buddha’s Noble Eightfold Path. It is clear, therefore,
that there must be such a thing as Buddhist economics. Buddhist countries have often stated that they
wish to remain faithful to their heritage and grow at the same time. So Burma sees no conflict between
religious values and economic progress. Spiritual health and material well-being are not enemies: they
are natural allies. All the same, this country invariably assumes that she can model her economic
development plans in accordance with modern economics, and she calls upon modern economists from
so-called advanced countries to advise her, to formulate the policies to be pursued, and to construct the
grand design for development, the Five-Year Plan or whatever it may be called. Modern Economists
themselves, like most specialists, normally suffer from a kind of metaphysical blindness, assuming that
theirs is a science of absolute and invariable truths, without any presuppositions. Some go as far as to
claim that economic laws are as free from "metaphysics" or "values" as the law of gravitation. We need
not, however, get involved in arguments of methodology. Instead, let us take some fundamentals and
see what they look like when viewed by a modern economist and a Buddhist economist.
There is universal agreement that a fundamental source of wealth is human labour. Now, the modern
economist has been brought up to consider "labour" or work as little more than a necessary evil. From
the point of view of the employer, it is in any case simply an item of cost, to be reduced to a minimum if
it can not be eliminated altogether, say, by automation. From the point of view of the workman, it is a
"disutility"; to work is to make a sacrifice of one’s leisure and comfort, and wages are a kind of
compensation for the sacrifice. Hence the ideal from the point of view of the employer is to have output
without employees, and the ideal from the point of view of the employee is to have income without
The consequences of these attitudes both in theory and in practice are, of course, extremely far-
reaching. If the ideal with regard to work is to get rid of it, every method that "reduces the work load" is
a good thing. The most potent method, short of automation, is the so-called "division of labour" and the
classical example is the pin factory eulogised in Adam Smith’s Wealth of Nations. Here it is not a matter
of ordinary specialisation, which mankind has practised from time immemorial, but of dividing up every
complete process of production into minute parts, so that the final product can be produced at great
speed without anyone’s having had to contribute more than a totally insignificant and, in most cases,
unskilled movement of his limbs.
The Buddhist point of view takes the function of work to be at least threefold: to give man a chance to
utilise and develop his faculties; to enable him to overcome his ego-centredness by joining with other
people in a common task; and to bring forth the goods and services needed for a becoming existence.
Again, the consequences that flow from this view are endless. To organise work in such a manner that it
becomes meaningless, boring, stultifying, or nerve-racking for the worker would be little short of
criminal; it would indicate a greater concern with goods than with people, an evil lack of compassion and
a soul-destroying degree of attachment to the most primitive side of this worldly existence. Equally, to
strive for leisure as an alternative to work would be considered a complete misunderstanding of one of
the basic truths of human existence, namely that work and leisure are complementary parts of the same
living process and cannot be separated without destroying the joy of work and the bliss of leisure.
From the Buddhist point of view, there are therefore two types of mechanisation which must be clearly
distinguished: one that enhances a man’s skill and power and one that turns the work of man over to a
mechanical slave, leaving man in a position of having to serve the slave. How to tell the one from the
other? “The craftsman himself,” says Ananda Coomaraswamy, a man equally competent to talk about
the modern West as the ancient East, “can always, if allowed to, draw the delicate distinction between
the machine and the tool. The carpet loom is a tool, a contrivance for holding warp threads at a stretch
for the pile to be woven round them by the craftsmen’s fingers; but the power loom is a machine, and
its significance as a destroyer of culture lies in the fact that it does the essentially human part of the
work.” It is clear, therefore, that Buddhist economics must be very different from the economics of
modern materialism, since the Buddhist sees the essence of civilisation not in a multiplication of wants
but in the purification of human character.
38. Which of the following would a typical Buddhist Economist agree with?
I. If a man has no chance of obtaining work he is in a desperate position simply because he has no
means to financially support himself or his dependants.
II. If the nature of work is properly appreciated and applied, it will stand in the same relation to the
higher faculties as food is to the physical body.
III. Work directs man’s free will along the proper course and disciplines the animal in him into
IV. Work is a sacrifice that one makes of one’s leisure to be able to meet the basic requirements of
a comfortable life.
(1) II only (2) II & III (3) II & IV (4) I, II & III (5) II, III & IV
39. What disagreement is a Buddhist Economist likely to have with the idea of ‘division of labour’?
(1) It speeds up the production process so much that man acquires a lot of powers and becomes
self- centred and egoistic.
(2) The effort required to produce something is substantially reduced and hence man ends up with
more energy left for evil pursuits.
(3) The increased ease and speed at which things are produced means man would have less regard
for work itself.
(4) The process of production is reduced to a mere mechanical process, where goods are prioritised
over humans themselves.
(5) This process would lead to a situation where man is pitted against an invincible opponent viz.
machines in the process of production.
40. Why would the author object to the idea of Burma inviting economists from advanced countries
to help formulate development plans?
(1) It is impossible to achieve progress and development and at the same time stick to traditional
(2) Material economics is based on a fundamentally different way of life than is the Buddhist
(3) Religion, on which Burmese society is based, does not allow any scope for materialistic
(4) Burma should instead focus on utilizing local talent which they are not short of.
(5) Countries like Burma tend to blindly ape developed countries and accept even their follies as
Directions for Questions 41 to 43: In each question there are sentences or parts of sentences that
form a paragraph. Identify the sentence(s) or part(s) of sentence(s) that is/are correct in terms of
grammar and usage. Then, choose the most appropriate option.
A. He advises to anyone keen on academic eminence
B. not to follow this route.
C. He means he hasn't been summoned upon to the
D. Collège de France like Foucault, a contemporary of his as a prodigy of Althusser.
E. Nor is he likely going to be!
(1) A only (2) B & D (3) E only (4) A & B (5) C & D
A. It may not take the great scientist to answer that for adolescents
B. but it will help them whether they can be given
C. some idea of approach to
D. and analysis and assessment for
E. the various answers they may conceive or discover.
(1) C only (2) A and C (3) C & E (4) E only (5) B & C
A. Ganz believes that the estimated annual societal cost of $35 billion per year
B. for caring for and treating people with autism likely underestimates the true costs
C. because there are a number of other services that are used to support individuals with autism,
D. alternate therapies and other family out-of-pocket expenses,
E. that are difficult to measure.
(1) B & E (2) A & B (3) D & E (4) B & D (5) E only
Directions for Questions 44 to 46: The passage given below is followed by a set of three questions.
Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
LIKE most purveyors of media, music labels are flailing about for a new business model even as their old
one is quickly becoming outmoded. One proposed solution — giving music away online, supported by
advertising — was the subject of a panel discussion this week at the South by Southwest music
conference in Austin, Tex. “Of course a panel on online music-business models was going to degenerate
into a food fight,” wrote Joseph Weisenthal of paidContent.org.
The stew boiled over when Ted Mico, the head of digital strategy at Interscope/Geffen/A&M records,
declared, “I need more marketing and promotion on the Internet like I need a root canal without
anesthetic.” He was responding to his fellow panelist, Peter Rojas, the founder of a new music blog,
RCRD LBL (pronounced record label.) Mr. Rojas is one of many advocates of the idea that music
shouldn’t really be “sold,” but rather used to promote other things, like advertised goods, with a portion
of revenue going to artists. On RCRD LBL, artists offer their music free, without restrictive digital rights
management software. In return, the artists get a portion of the site’s ad revenue. Such blogs, he said,
are “a huge force in music right now and in some ways more important than the labels because that is
where bands are being broken.”
Mr. Mico disagreed. “Different people want different forms of access,” he allowed, but giving away music
on blogs isn’t the answer. Several people in the audience sided, loudly, with Mr. Mico, with some going
so far as to accuse Mr. Rojas of ripping off the artists on his site. They had to be reminded that the
artists are there by choice.
Mr. Mico said he believed that subscription services like Rhapsody may yet catch on. “It is clear that
somebody at some point will crack the subscription nut,” he said. A subscription service, he said, “allows
people to discover music without having to pay extra for it.” It also tends to keep labels in control of the
music-distribution chain. But even Mr. Mico had to admit that when it comes to subscription services,
“the trouble is, nobody that hasn’t experienced it wants to experience it.”
Record labels were making terrible missteps long before the advent of the digital age. Blender.com
offers a list of what it considers the 20 worst. They include MCA Records’ decision in 1989 to pass on a
Seattle upstart band called Nirvana while also betting big on “Leather Boyz With Electric Toyz,” the
debut album of a hair-metal band called Pretty Boy Floyd. The worst record-label mistake ever,
according to Blender, was the labels’ decision to sue Napster out of existence. “Napster’s users didn’t
just disappear,” the site reminds us. “They scattered to hundreds of alternative systems — and new
technology has stayed three steps ahead of the music business ever since.”
44. Mico implies, when he says “I need more ……….. without anesthetic”, that
(1) one must always try looking at the broader problem rather than take care of the narrower one.
(2) use of music as a promotion-tool would hamper an already suffering industry.
(3) use of music as a promotion-tool would be similar to a situation where a patient is being
treated for root canal without being administered an anesthetic.
(4) the current problem would be aggravated by implementing suggestions such as those given by
(5) the pain of treatment would be greater than the intended relief.
45. It can be properly inferred from the passage that
(1) Peter Rojas does not allot a “fair” share of revenues to artists working with RCRD LBL.
(2) Peter Rojas founded a music blog where artists offer free music.
(3) Ted Mico does not believe in the plausibility of subscription services.
(4) Destroying a firm is easier than destroying a concept, as proven by the case of Napster.
(5) Music labels can find new businesses on net at a surprisingly fast pace.
46. The passage tries to highlight the
(1) problems faced by the music industry.
(2) importance of “subscription services” as a possible yet troublesome alternative.
(3) mistakes committed by the record labels.
(4) proceedings of the panel discussion that took place in a conference.
(5) points of view of different people on the topic of ‘giving away music online supported by
Directions for questions 47 to 50: In each question, there are five sentences/paragraphs. The
sentence/paragraph labeled A is in its correct place. The four that follow are labeled B, C, D and E, and
need to be arranged in the logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options,
choose the most appropriate option.
A. In Mr. Depp’s portrayal, words come first in the shaping of a phrase.
B. But too many opera singers are overly focused on making beautiful sounds and sending notes
soaring at the expense of crisp diction and textual clarity.
C. These principles of vocal artistry matter just as much onstage, as the best operatic artists
D. They could learn something from Mr. Depp’s verbally dynamic singing.
E. Expression, nuance, intention and controlled intensity matter more than vocal richness and
(1) BCDE (2) BDCE (3) BDEC (4) ECBD (5) DCEB
A. Although the “cyber coolie” metaphor may be overdrawn, many voice and non-voice agents do
report that they experience their work as contributing to exit and burnout.
B. Yet, the existing distinctive characteristics of the Indian BPO industry embody significant
pressures: nocturnal call-handling for overseas customers, long commuting times, extended
shifts and unpaid overtime, all of which have health and work-life balance implications.
C. The outcome of these imply increasing pressure on workers: longer shifts, shorter and fewer
breaks and tighter targets.
D. In recent times, many employees have experienced an intensification of work, stemming from
sharpened competition in the outsourcing market, affecting both captives and third parties, rising
costs in India and reducing margins.
E. While companies have sought to realise cost savings through economies of scale, concomitant
with this has been this focus on leveraging efficiencies through “managing productivity and
(1) BCDE (2) BCED (3) CDEB (4) CBDE (5) DECB
A. The very meaning and mission of deconstruction is to show that things do not have definable
meanings and determinable missions, that they are always more than any mission would impose,
that they exceed the boundaries they currently occupy.
B. A “meaning” or a “mission” is a way to contain and compact things, like a nutshell, gathering
them into a unity, whereas deconstruction bends all its efforts to stretch beyond these
boundaries, to transgress these confines, to interrupt and disjoin all such gathering.
C. What is really going on in things, what is really happening, is always to come.
D. Whenever it runs up against a limit, deconstruction presses against it. Whenever deconstruction
finds a nutshell the very idea is to crack it open and disturb this tranquility.
E. Every time you try to stabilise the meaning of a thing, to fix in its missionary position, the thing
itself, if there is anything at all to it, slips away.
(1) CDBE (2) BECD (3) BDCE (4) BCDE (5) CEBD
A. Notably, same-sex relationships, whether between men or women, were far more egalitarian
than heterosexual ones.
B. While the gay and lesbian couples had about the same rate of conflict as the heterosexual ones,
they appeared to have more relationship satisfaction, suggesting that the inequality of opposite-
sex relationships can take a toll.
C. Heterosexual married women live with a lot of anger about having to do the tasks not only in the
house but in the relationship. That’s very different from what same-sex couples and heterosexual
men live with.
D. With same-sex couples, of course, none of these dichotomies were possible, and the partners
tended to share the burdens far more equally.
E. In heterosexual couples, women did far more of the housework; men were more likely to have
the financial responsibility; and men were more likely to initiate sex, while women were more
likely to refuse it or to start a conversation about problems in the relationship.
(1) EDBC (2) DBCE (3) CDEB (4) BCDE (5) CDEB
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
Answer question 51 to 54 on the basis of the information given below,
In a society, there are five buildings, A, B, C, D and E, in a straight line in the same order. Each one of
them is having different number of floors. The numbers of floors in two consecutive buildings are not
consecutive numbers. One day Mr. Sharma planned to assign a number to each of these floors. He
picked up one of the five buildings randomly and gave an arbitrary number to its ground floor. He then
proceeded from the ground floor to the top floor, giving consecutive numbers to the floors. For example,
he could give the number 41 to the ground floor, 42 to the first floor, 43, to the second floor and so on.
After reaching the top floor of the building, he chose the next building randomly and numbered its
ground floor as the next number after that of the top floor of the previous building and proceeded again
in the previous manner. After numbering all the floors of all the buildings, he observed the following:
1.Sum of the numbers of all the top floors is 119.
2.Sum of the numbers of all the ground floors is 109.
3.The sum of all the floors of building B is 81.
4.The number of Mr. Sharma’s flat, which is at the top floor of building A, is 21.
51. Find out the sum of all the floors of building E.
(1) 61 (2) 60 (3) 55 (4) 49 (5) 31
52. Find out the number of floors in building C
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (5) 5
53. What is the highest number assigned to a floor by Mr. Sharma?
(1) 28 (2) 29 (3) 30 (4) 31 (5) 32
54. If sums of all the top floors and ground floors are 134 and 114, respectively, what is the sum of
all the floors of all the building?
(1) 20 (2) 24 (3) 25 (4) 30 (5) 35
Answer question 55 to 58 on the basis of the information given below,
10 players, A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I and J are competing against each other in a tournament. The table
below partially shows the relative standing of the players with respect to each other after the
tournament is over. If a player’s ranking is lower than another player, it is denoted by 0 and if a player’s
ranking is higher than a given player, it is denoted by 1. The table is to be read vertically, i.e., from top
to bottom. For example, D’s ranking is lower than G but higher than H.
55. For how many players, their exact ranking in the tournament can be determined?
(1) 3 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 8 (5) all of them
56. Who stands third in the ranking?
(4) Either A or D
(5) Either D or E
57. Who stands last in the ranking?
(1) F (2) G (3) H (4) I (5) J
58. If it is given that players whose names begin with a vowel stood at odd numbered positions, then
the difference in rankings of A and I was
(5) cannot be determined
Answer question 59 to 62 on the basis of the information given below,
The elections for the President of a society were conducted in five different rounds namely Round 1,
Round 2, Round 3, Round 4 and Round 5. The contestants for the post of the President were A, B, C, D
and E. The number of votes cast in Round 1, Round 2, Round 3, Round 4 and Round 5 were 100, 120,
105, 140 and 150 respectively. The following table provides information about the maximum and the
minimum number of votes received by the contestants in each of the rounds. The table also provides
information about the contestants who got the maximum and the minimum number of votes in each of
the given rounds.
59. Find at least how many votes were got by A in all the five rounds.
(1) 90 (2) 91 (3) 92 (4) 93 (5) 94
60. If C got 144 votes in all the five rounds, then find the number of votes got by B in all the five
(1) 109 (2) 110 (3) 111 (4) 112 (5) 113
61. Find the average of the minimum and the maximum possible number of votes that E could have
got in all the five rounds.
(1) 117.5 (2) 119 (3) 125.5 (4) 133.5 (5) 138
62. Which of the following can be the number of votes got by B in all the five rounds?
(1) 99 (2) 143 (3) 157 (4) 169 (5) 174
Answer question 63 to 66 on the basis of the information given below,
Five banks namely HFCD, HBCS, IICIC, ANB and IBS are offering home loans at an interest rate of 8%.
To facilitate the process each of the banks gave telephonic calls to the residents of a city. No resident
received more than one telephonic call from a particular bank. The following bar – graph provides
information about the number of telephonic calls received by the residents.
The value mentioned in the bold in the above table is 20%. It means that 20% of the residents who
have got telephonic calls from the bank ANB have got telephonic calls from exactly four banks.
63. How many residents have got telephonic calls from all the five banks?
(1) 360 (2) 380 (3) 400 (4) 420 (5) 440
64. Out of the residents who have got telephonic calls from the HBCS bank, how many residents
have got calls from exactly three banks?
(1) 200 (2) 240 (3) 280 (4) 300 (5) 320
65. Out of the residents who have got telephonic calls from the IBS bank, how many residents have
got calls from exactly four banks?
(1) 1015 (2) 1010 (3) 990 (4) 930 (5) 910
66. At most how many residents have got telephonic calls from exactly two banks HFCD and HBCS?
(1) 160 (2) 180 (3) 175 (4) 200 (5) 20
Answer question 67 to 70 on the basis of the information given below,
410 students of 5 different colleges have registered in TathaGat for a classroom program. These colleges
are NSIT, IIT, Jamia, JSS and North Campus (DU). TathaGat team has divided the city in a grid network
as shown in the figure below. The grid network follows the co–ordinate rule to identify the points on it.
One can travel along this grid only. The five colleges are shown by dots ( ) and the number written in
bracket below a college’s name represent the number of students from the respective college.
67. If TathaGat team decides to open only one center, find out the co-ordinate of this only center
such that the sum of the total distance travelled by all the students is minimum.
(1) (0, 4)
(2) (8, 7)
(3) (6, 15)
(4) (6, 4)
(5) none of these
68. After six months the team proposed to start another center without shifting the first center of the
above problem. Find out the co-ordinate of the second center assuming that this proposal is put
forward just to further minimize the sum of the distance travelled by all the students.
(1) (0, 4)
(2) (8, 7)
(3) (6, 15)
(4) (6, 4)
(a) none of these
69. The ratio of the number of student in two centers of the first two problems is given by
(1) 23: 18
(2) 17: 24
(3) 29: 12
(4) 30: 11
(5) none of these
70. If the team decided to open two centers in a way such that the sum of the total distances
travelled by all the students is minimum. Find out the coordinates of these two centers along the
grid line. (do not use data from the previous question)
(1) (0, 4) & (8, 7)
(2) (0, 4) & (6, 15)
(3) (8, 7) & (6, 15)
(4) (6, 15) & (6, 4)
(5) none of these
Directions for questions 71 to 75: each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Answer
each question using the following instructions:
Choose 1 if the question can be answered by using one of the statements alone but not by using the
other statement alone.
Choose 2 if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Choose 3 if the question can be answered by using both the statements together but not by either
Choose 4 if the question cannot be answered on the basis of the two statements.
71. Eight teams participated in IPL. Every team played exactly two matches against every other
team. No match ended in a draw. A team got 1 point for a win and no point for a loss. If no two
teams had the same points, what was the ranking of Rajasthan Royals (RR)?
A: RR won more than 60% and less than 70% of the matches it played.
B: No two of the bottom three teams had points as consecutive numbers.
72. An institution has 900 students for the year 2008- 09. Each class has 30 students and is taken by
a single teacher at a time. In a day, each teacher teaches 3 classes. What is the least number of
teachers the institution can have?
A: During the day, each student attends 4 classes
B: During a day each student attends 6 classes
73. There are 9 members in a family. A, B, C, D, E, F, G, M, K. B and C are siblings. D is the son of A.
F is daughter in law of B. E has a niece M. M also has an uncle as G. In the family there are 4
males and 5 females. What is the gender of K?
A: F is the mother of M and sister-in-law of E. Moreover E and G are not siblings.
B: C is the sister–in-law of A. B is the brother-in-law of K.
74. There are 101 teams participating in a tournament. Each team plays with any other team at most
once. The number of matches played by the n
, is n (n ≤ 99). How many matches
were played by T
played 100 matches.
played a game with T
75. HPCl petrol pumps are offering 1 litre of petrol free for every purchase of 3 litres of petrol
whereas IBP is giving 2 litre of petrol free for every 5 litres of petrol. If Sanjeev can buy petrol in
a multiple of 3 litres and 5 litres from HPCL and IBP, respectively, how many litres of petrol he
got for free?
A: He bought 12 litres of petrol from HPCL.
B: In all, he got 23 litres of petrol
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
TG COPYCAT 1: ANSWER KEY
Quantitative Verbal Data Interpretation
1 C 26 B 51 E
2 A 27 D 52 A
3 C 28 B 53 B
4 B 29 A 54 C
5 B 30 C 55 B
6 D 31 B 56 D
7 C 32 C 57 E
8 B 33 B 58 D
9 C 34 A 59 D
10 B 35 C 60 A
11 B 36 D 61 E
12 E 37 B 62 B
13 E 38 A 63 A
14 C 39 D 64 D
15 A 40 B 65 A
16 C 41 B 66 B
17 A 42 C 67 D
18 E 43 A 68 C
19 A 44 D 69 A
20 D 45 D 70 B
21 A 46 D 71 C
22 D 47 D 72 B
23 E 48 E 73 D
24 A 49 E 74 A
25 A 50 A 75 A
1. Let the five odd numbers be
1 2 3 4 5
2 1,2 1,2 1,2 1,2 1 k k k k k + + + + + . According to the question,
( ) ( )
1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5
2 5 19 7 + + + + + = ⇒ + + + + = k k k k k k k k k k
But here the numbers are not distinguishable, i.e. 0 + 0 + 0 + 0 + 7 = 7 & 7 + 0 + 0 + 0 + 0 =
7 are only one solution. So total no of cases are (0, 0, 0, 0, 7), (0, 0, 0, 1, 6), (0, 0, 0, 2, 5), (0,
0, 0, 3, 4), (0, 0, 1, 1, 5), (0, 0, 1, 2, 4), (0, 0, 1, 3, 3), (0, 0, 2, 2, 3), (0, 1, 1, 1, 4), (0, 1, 1,
(0, 1, 2, 2, 2), ((1, 1, 1, 1, 3), (1, 1, 1, 2, 2). Hence there are 13 solutions in all.
2. As both A & B are symmetric, we can check the relations between them taking some smaller
1 1 1 1
1 1.5, 1 1.4285, 1 1.4333, 1 1.4331
1 1 1 2
2 2 2
1 1 3
+ = + = + = + =
+ + +
Therefore, we can see that when the last term is odd, the value is less than the previous term.
When the last term is even, the value is more than the previous term.
x y =
Either x = y or x = −y
And ( )
1 x A y − + = is a circle or radius 1 & centre (A, o)
There would be exactly 3 solutions only if the circle passes through the origin on any side of the
X-axis as shown in the figure
So A is either 1 or -1. Hence Answer (c)
Suppose P takes t hours to cover CB ⇒ Q take (t + 12) hrs to cover the same.
Suppose P takes
t hours to cover AC ⇒ Q takes (t + 30) hours to cover the same.
⇒ Tins takes by P to cover AB = ( )
t t +
Tins takes by Q = ( )
12 30 t t + + +
= ( )
42 t t + + hrs.
So P will reach B 42 hrs before Q reaches A. Hence Answer.
z = ⇒ z = ( )
z = ⇒ z = ( )
z = ⇒ z = ( )
z = 2x ⇒ y =
z = 5y ⇒ y =
Putting these values in (3) we get z =
Solving for z we get z =
6. Total four letter words in CAT =
3 81. =
Words with two pairs of AT = 1 (i.e. ATAT)
Words with exactly one pair of AT =
i. A T 3 3 × = 9 – 1 (ATAT) = 8
ii. 3 3 9 AT × × = = 9
iii. 3 3 × AT = 9 – 1 (ATAT) = 8
So total no of required words = 81 -1 -25 = 55. Answer
1 2 3 4 19 2 1 3 1 4 1 5 1 20 1
2! 3! 4! 5! 20! 2! 3! 4! 5! 20!
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
1! 2! 2! 3! 3! 4! 4! 5! 19! 20!
p 1 1 20! 1
1! 20! 20! q!
− − − − −
+ + + + + = + + + + +
= − + − + − + − + −
= − = =
Therefore, p and q are two consecutive numbers with q being greater. Therefore, the remainder
when q is divided by p = 1.
8. Let the area of the squares in the two cases be a
. The area of the rectangle is constant.
⇒ 200 × a
= 288 × b
. The smallest values of a
the equation are 2
. Both are perfect squares and hence a and b are rational. Also,
the area of the rectangle in this case = 2
. If we divide this rectangle into square, the
area of a single square should be a perfect square if the sides are rational.
5 2 2 5 2 2 2 2 2
2 3 5 2 3 5 2 3 5
3 2 2 392
2 7 7
× × × × × ×
gives the area of the square as a perfect square.
9. AD = 1, DB = 2
⇒ AB =
2 1 5 + =
So AC = 5 +1. Answer
10. First 20 natural numbers contain 10 even & 10 odd numbers. So, the difference or sum of these
20 numbers will always be an even number.
Hence Answer (b).
11. Let ‘y’ be the thickness of each ring & ‘x’ be the inner diameter of each ring.
⇒ 2y + 2x = 13
2y + 3x = 18 solving x = 5, y = 1.5
Hence length with 25 links = 2 1.5 25 5 128. × + × = (b)
− − =
By visualization, a = 4 satisfies the above equation
⇒ number of positive divisors of 4 is 3. Answer (c)
13. If y-1, 2y+2, 7y+1 are in G.P.
⇒ ( )
2 2 y + = (y - 1) (7y + 1)
4 4 8 7 6 1 y y y y + + = − −
3 14 5 0 y y − − =
Solving we get y =5 or
Hence so the common ration is 3 or -1.
14. % age of people with high B.P. = 3.5%
% age of people without high B.P. = 96.5%
Drinkers with high B.P. = 0.8 3.5% 2.8% × =
Drinkers without high B.P. = 0.6 96.5% 57.9% × =
Total drinkers = (2.8 + 57.9) = 62.7%
Required answer =
× = Answer
15. Digits the remain the same below the display too are 0, 1, 3, 8 only.
On the how side possible cares are = 2 4 × =8 (first digit can not be 3 or 8)
On the minute side possible cars are = 3 4 12 × = (first digit can not be 8)
Total cares = 12 8 96 × =
Hence Answer = 96-1 = 95.
16. In the worst scenario even if we put 20 fruits in the basket it may certain 7 apples, 5 bananas &
8 oranges. But one more fruit will complete one of the requited lots. Hence Answer 21.
17. To get 2003
term we need 1(0) + 2(E) + 3(0) + ---- n = 2003 (approx)
(0 → odd, E → even).
He know that 1+2+3+---63 = 2016
So that means when 63 covers odd numbers. Will be written the 50
of them would be 2003
term of the series.
Now looking at odd terms only.
1----5, 7, 9---- 17, 19, 21, 23, 25-----
the last term is always
n if n cosec numbers are written so last term of 63 consec odd number is
63 3969. =
term in that series was 3943 Answer.
∵ f(2). f(3) = f(a)----- f(2001) = 0
⇒ 2, 3 4--- 2001 are the factors of given polynomial.
⇒ Equation is f(x) = a (x - 2) (x - 3) ---- (x - 2001)
f (1) = a. -1. -2. -3 ------ -2000 = 2000! 1 = a
So f(0) =
×− ×− =
= 2000. Hence Answer (b).
19. Ratio of the speeds of Mary & Jane is 2.15:2 = 9:8. So they will wet each other only at the
starting point of the track. So first time they will meet after 18 minutes (when Mary moved
have completed 9 rounds). So in one hour they will meet only thrice i.e. after 18 min, 36 min &
54 min. Hence Answer 3.
20. Let the roots of
3 4 0 x x x D + + + = are
a, b &
a b +
So, a+b +
a b +
= -3 ⇒ a+b = -2
Also, ab + 4
a b a b
+ + ⎛ ⎞ ⎛ ⎞
⎜ ⎟ ⎜ ⎟
⎝ ⎠ ⎝ ⎠
⇒ ab +
( )( )
4 2 4
a b a b
= ⇒ + =
⇒ ab = 2.
and –D = a.b.
a b + ⎛ ⎞
⇒ D = -2.
− ⎛ ⎞
= 2 Answer.
21. Let N, P, E be the prices of notebook, pencil and eraser.
N + P + E = 100
N > 2P --- (i) 3P > 4E ---- (ii)
3E > N --- (iii)
From (i) & (iii)
P > >
E + + <
E < 20
⇒ E = 19 ⇒ N + P = 81
also N > 2p ⇒ 2P + P < 81 ⇒ P < 27
but ∵ 3P > 4E ⇒ P > 25.66
So E = 19, P = 26, N = 55. Hence Answer.
22. Let together they take ‘x’ hours to finish the job.
⇒ Anjali alone can do it in (x + 6) hours
⇒ Babli alone can do it in (x + 1) hours
⇒ Chintoo alone can do it in 2x hours
1 1 1 1
6 1 2 x x x x
+ + =
x solving for x we get
x = hours. Hence Answer.
23. Each angle of a regular pentagon = 108
Of a regular hexagon = 120
So, in pentagon ABCDE
120 , 180
A E B C ∠ = ∠ = ∠ = ∠ =
Hence x = 540
- (120 + 120 + 108 + 108)
, Hence Answer (b)
24. As sum of the numbers in second row is 7 ⇒ they can be 1, 2 & 4 only.
Also as a+f=4
⇒ a & f can be 1 & 3 only
⇒ a =1, f = 3, ⇒ g = 9
If b= 4, d has to be 3 (∵g + b = 9 + 3 = 12)
⇒ b = 2 & hence d = 16 – (9 + 2) = 5. Hence Answer.
25. Initially when m =1, empty boxes are k. Now for every increase in m the empty boxes increases
by k-1 (k empty are added by the containing box is not empty now). So for , boxes
containing other boxes the number of boxes are m(k-1)+1 = mk-m+1 Hence Answer.
26. Option 1 uses the word “understand”, making it appear that the author is trying to comprehend a
phenomenon, whereas, she has, from the very outset tried to “explain” the phenomenon. Also,
she does not use “various methods”, but tries to adopt two specific approaches. Option 3 has
“international peace”, which is incorrect. 5 is outrightly rejected, for the author examines both
the theories. And 4 is specious as the passage does not merely “report” events, but analyses a
phenomenon with some specific instances. 2 correctly encapsulates what the author has tried to
explain, viz. what actually constitutes terrorism, and how there’s a side to it which may not be
apparent, but needs to be uncovered by examining it carefully. Hence 2.
27. Options 5, 3 and 2 are factually incorrect. The author, herself states that what is “described” as
coercive diplomacy, may actually involve “the threat and often the use of violence”, so 1 cannot
be inferred. The last line of the first paragraph suggests that from the propagandistic approach,
there occur instances where terrorism is “to be ignored, suppressed….”. Hence 4.
28. Options 5, 4, 1 and 3 state the opposite of what the author intends to convey as a meaning.
Repeatedly, the author uses statements that put US in a less glorified position, for e.g. “cool
courage of the cowboy”, the US itself being a “terrorist state” state etc. Hence 2.
29. Options 2 and 5 merely restate what has already been said. Option 3 begins a new argument.
Option 4 leaves the reader ambiguous about the “it” (whether it refers to the irreversibility or the
creation of a new situation). Option 1 brings the argument to a logical closure, since the author
explicitly states “Whichever of the possible actions he does” in the paragraph, leading to the
conclusion that any such deed will become a act of conscious choice. Hence 1.
30. This is a fairly straightforward “structure” based question. Notice the way the author has
presented her idea. “Imaging a word is not”……(sentence 2), “Moreover, imaging a word is
not”…(sentence 3). Hence 3.
31. Option is ruled out, as it states the opposite of what has been stated in the paragraph. Options 3
and 4 are out of scope. Option 5 is different from what the paragraph tries to state, i.e. the
paragraph never intends to say that a “meaning” need be “given” to a question (no real question
is…unanswerable). Option 2 concludes safely what the author had begun with, since the author,
having begun the discussion with “What is logically impossible… communication”, examines it
from the point of view of “no real question” being “unanswerable”. Hence 2.
32. Refer to paragraph 2.
33. Statements I, III and IV can be verified as factually incorrect.
34. Option 2 talks about lack of awareness of average American, option 3 takes the discussion
towards “proper research”, option 4 mentions “difficult to understand writer”, while option 5
takes the argument towards the “falling standard of academicians the world over”. All of these
options have little to do with the context in which Said has been spoken of. Hence 1.
35. Restive is properly applied to a feeling of impatience or uneasiness induced by external coercion
or restriction, and is not a general synonym for restless. Amoral means “without moral quality /
neither moral nor immoral” whereas I mmoral means “violating moral principles”. Source means
“any thing or place from which something comes, arises, or is obtained” whereas cause means
“the producer of an effect”. Supplement means “something added to complete a thing, supply a
deficiency, or reinforce or extend a whole” whereas complement means “something that
completes”. Social means “pertaining to, devoted to, or characterized by friendly companionship
or relations” whereas sociable means “friendly and pleasant”.
36. Skillful means “having or exercising skill” whereas skilled means “having skill”. Necessities
means “something necessary or indispensable” whereas necessaries means “food, clothing,
etc., required by a dependent or incompetent and varying with his or her social or economic
position or that of the person upon whom he or she is dependent.(Law)”. Masterful means
“dominating” whereas masterly means “very skillful”. Classical means “Standard and
authoritative rather than new or experimental” whereas classic means “of the first or highest
quality, class, or rank”. Deny means “to state that (something declared or believed to be true) is
not true” whereas refute means “to prove to be false or erroneous, as an opinion or charge”.
37. Connote means “to signify or suggest” whereas denote means “to be a mark or sign of”.
J udicial means “pertaining to judgment in courts of justice or to the administration of justice”
whereas j udicious means “wise, sensible, or well-advised”. I nformer is different from
informant in that informer means “a person who informs against another, esp. for money or
other reward”. Tortuous means “full of twists, turns, or bends; twisting, winding, or crooked”
whereas torturous means “causing torture”.
38. This is an application based question. Option 2 states that, from a Buddhist point of view, the
“nature of work …… to the physical body”, alluding that just as food is an essential and
inseparable element for the body, work is essential to and inseparable from the higher faculties.
The rest of the options are either opposite to what the author intends to say, or are beyond the
scope of the author’s argument.
39. Read the last line of the third paragraph- “Here it is not a matter of ordinary… unskilled
movement of his limbs.”
40. Option 1 is extremely generalised because of the phrase “impossible to achieve”. 3 talks about
something that the author has never alluded to (does not allow any scope”. 4 is a
recommendation. 5 takes the argument towards “follie” of other countries, which is completely
out of scope. The last line of passage says, “It is clear, therefore, … of modern materialism.”
41. A uses advised “to” which is redundant. C uses summoned “upon”, which, again, is redundant.
Similarly, in E, after “likely”, “going” is redundant.
42. A has the article “the” used unnecessarily. In B “whether” should be replaced with “if”. And in D,
instead of “assessment for” it should be “assessment for”.
43. A uses both “annual cost” and “per year”, hence redundancy error. In C “like” should be replaced
with “such as”, since “like” is considered colloquial in such contexts. In D, “alternative” not
“alternate” should be the word (idiomatic error).
44. 1 is an extremely “generalised” option. 2 uses “already suffering industry”, which has not been
implied anywhere. 3 is directly stated, hence cannot be an “implication”. 5 takes the argument
towards the root canal treatment, whereas the analogy is meant to keep the focus towards the
music industry. Option 4 correctly identifies Mico’s analogy which is meant to draw the parallel
between a painful problem and a more painful solution. Hence 4.
45. 1 is an allegation by some in the passage, which may or may not be true. 2 has been explicitly
stated, hence not an inference. 3 is incorrect (refer to paragraph 4, 1st line). 5 is factually
incorrect (according to the passage). Refer to the last paragraph where the author refers to the
mistakes committed by the record labels. Hence 4.
46. The purpose of the passage has been almost explicitly stated in the opening paragraph. The
options 1, 2, 3, and 5 are either too narrow or too broad.
47. EC is the mandatory pair (“these skills”). That leaves us with options 3 and 4. But, E does not
make much sense after D. Hence 4.
48. D opens the discussion with what A started with, as D gives instances to provide examples for
“exit and burnout”. Hence 5.
49. C and E expand on A’s “exceed the boundaries they currently occupy”, by explaining the same.
Hence C and E will be the openers. Hence 5.
50. ED (“these dichotomies”) is the mandatory pair. Hence 1.
Solutions for question 51 to 54
Sum of the top floors (119) is 10 more than the some of ground floors (109); it means that the
total number of the floors between the ground and top floors in all the buildings is 119 – 109 =
10. As each building has different number of floors so this sum 10 should be a sum of five
different natural numbers i.e. 0+1+2+3+4 = 10. So, the number of floors between the ground
and the top floors for the 5 buildings should be 0,1 , 2, 3 & 4. Hence there are 1, 2, 3, 4 & 5
floors in the buildings A, B, C, D, and E.
Sum of the floors of building B is 81 which is a sum of 1 or 2 or 3 or 4 or 5 consequent natural
numbers. If B is having 1 or 2 floors than it would be impossible to make a sum of 109 from all
ground floors. So they can be 26, 27 & 28 only i.e. B has only 3 floors.
Now as no two consecutive buildings have consecutive number of floors, so A and C cannot have
2 or 4 floors. Let us assume that A has only one floor so its number would be 21. Also one of the
buildings will have a ground floor numbered 29 (as B’s top floor is numbered 28 and counting
cannot stop there as in that case sum of the ground floors will not be 109) and one will have 22
as the ground floor number. So, the ground floor number of the 5th building should be 109 - (21
+ 22 + 26 + 29) = 11 which is impossible because in that case the sum of top floors will not be
119, so building A has 5 floors and hence C, D, E have 1, 4 and 2 floors respect.
As the top Floor number of A is 21 and ground floor number of B is 26 that can be reached only if
the counting from a goes to the building with 4 floors. So, the 3 ground Floor numbers obtained
are 17, 22 and 26. Hence the other two ground floor numbers are 29 and 15.
So, the table is like:-
Building No. of floors Floors numbered
A 5 17, 18, 19 ,20,21
B 3 26, 27, 28
C 1 29
D 4 22, 23, 24, 25
E 2 15, 16
Answer 51: 31
Answer 52: 1
Answer 53: 29
Answer 54: 25
Solution for Question 55 to 58:
From the table we get:-
A > B….(1) A < G…..(2) D < G……(3) D > H…..(4) E > B….(5)
E < C…..(6) E < D……(7) E > H…..(8) E > J…..(9)
F < B…..(10) G > B……(11) G < C….(12) G > I….(13) H >
F…..(14) I < C……(15) I < F……(16) J < I…..(17)
Using eq. 1, 2, 10, 12, 16, 17 we get- C > G > A > B > F > I > J
Also from eq. 3, 5 & 7 we get - G > D > E > B
And from eq. 8 & 14 we get- E > H > F.
Using all the conclusions above, we get five different ranking orders
Rank 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C G A D E B H F I J
C G D E H A B F I J
C G D E A H B F I J
C G D A E H B F I J
C G A D E H B F I J
Ans 55: C, G, F, I, J.
Ans 56: Either A or D
Ans 57: J
Ans 58: In the first and the last case above the given condition satisfies. The difference between
the ranks of A and I is 9 – 3 = 6.
Solution for Question 59 to 62:
A B C D E
Round I 43 11 - 25 11 - 25 11 - 25 10
Round II 15 - 31 11 32 15 - 31 15 - 31
Round III 9 - 23 56 9 – 23 8 9 - 23
Round IV 12 13 - 33 13 - 33 69 13 - 33
Round V 17 18 - 31 18 - 31 18 - 31 66
Total Number of votes96 - 126109 - 15683 - 144118 - 164113 - 163
59. Minimum possible number of votes got by A in all the five rounds is 96.
60. If C got 144 votes in all the five rounds, then B got minimum number of votes in each of the
five rounds, therefore B got 109 votes.
61. Average of the minimum and the maximum possible number of votes got by E in all
the five rounds is
62. 2 The number of votes got by B in all the five rounds have to lie within the range 109 and
156 (both inclusive). Hence, option (2) is the correct choice.
Solution for Question 63 to 66:
63. Number of telephonic calls given by the HFCD bank = 1800
Out of the residents who have got telephonic calls from the HFCD bank, the number of
residents who have got telephonic calls from 5 banks = 20% of 1800 = 360.
Therefore, the number of students that have got telephonic calls from all the banks = 360
64. The number of students that have got telephonic calls from all the banks = 360.
Corresponding percentage for the HBCS bank = (360/1200) x 100 = 30%
Therefore, Out of the residents who have got telephonic calls from the HBCS bank, how many
residents have got calls from exactly three banks is (100 – 30 – 25 – 15 – 5)% of 1200 = 25
% of 1200 = 300.
× ) = 14.4%. Out of the residents who have got telephonic calls from the IBS bank,
the number of residents who have got exactly two telephonic calls is (100 – 14.4 – 20 – 10
– 15)% of 2500 = 40.6% of 2500 = 1015
66. The cell empty in the first column is 10 %, which is equal to 10% of 1800 = 180. Similarly, out
of the residents who have got telephonic calls from HBCS, the residents who have got telephonic
calls from exactly two banks is 15% of 1200 = 180. Therefore at most 180 residents have got
telephonic calls from exactly two banks HFCD and HBCS.
Solution for Question 67 to 70:
67. Let (x,y) be the co-ordinates of the center which is to be opened in the city. Then the horizontal
distance to be traveled by all the students of all the colleges from the center is:
120|X - 0| + 50|X - 6| + 60|X - 19| + 60|X - 19| + 120|X - 6| 120|X| + 170|X - 6| + 120|X -
Minimum of this distance occurs at X = 6.
Similarly the vertical distance to be traveled by all the students of all the colleges is:
120|Y - 15| + 50|Y - 0| + 120|Y - 4| + 60|Y - 0| + 60|Y - 12| 120|Y - 15| + 110|Y - 0| +
120|Y - 4| + 60|Y - 12|. Minimum of this distance occurs at Y=4.
Hence, the point at which the center should be opened is (6, 4).
68. To minimize the distance the school should be closer to the center with maximum number of
students. As the first center is already closer to NSIT so the other center should be closer to
Now, as we move closer to the North Campus college, the distance get decreased for the
students of North campus i.e. 120 students but increases for the students of JSS and JAMIA i.e.
120 students again, which means, total effect is zero.
But if the center opened is at North campus only, JAMIA students will go the the initial center(
because in that case that center would be closer to them) and JSS students will go to the new
center and the total distance will get minimized. Hence the new center should be opened at
(6,15). Ans – (c)
69. The required ratio is (120 + 50 + 60) : (120 + 60) = 23:18.
70. As North Campus and JSS are in one corner of the city and NSIT and IIT are in the other corner
so the two centers should be opened in these two corners only.
Also because the number of students are maximum in NSIT and North Campus, the centers
should be opened in these two colleges itself i.e. at (0, 4) & (6, 15).
71. The total number of matches =
C × 2 = 56
⇒ The total number of points of all the teams taken together = 56. From statement A, the total
points of RR is 9 but nothing can be said about their rank. For statement B, the total point of RR
is unknown. Combining both A & b, we get
RR cannot have rank 1 or rank below 4 because in that case the total point of the team would not
be 56 or it wont be possible. If there are 6 teams below RR, their points can only be 1,3,5,6,7,8
i.e. the highest team’s points would be 56-(1+3+5+6+7+8+9) = 17,which is impossible. If there
are 5 teams below RR, the points can be 12,10,9,8,7,6,3,1.
If there are four teams below RR,the minimum points above RR would be 10,11,12 but the teams
below RR cannot have points satisfying B statement. Hence Ans. C.
72. In all there are 30 classes of 30 students each. From (A), there will be a total of (30×4)=120
classes in a day. So
= teachers are required.
From (b), there will be a total of (30×6)=180 classes in a day. Hence
73. Statements A and B alone are not sufficient. Using both A and B, we get the following family
As the sex of E is not known, sex of K cannot be determined.
74. From statement A,if
1 2 3 100
, , .......... T T T T plays 1,2,3…..100 matches respectively, then
have played there matches with
1 2 3 99
, , .......... T T T T and
. T T must have played matches with
2 3 98
, ...... T T T &
T . And so on till
T which played their matches with
50 52 101
, ...... T T T .Hence
the remaining first 50 teams didn’t play any match with
T .Hence 101
team played 50
Statement B is irrelevant, hence Ans is (1).
76. The second statement gives the answer.