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National Board Dental Examinations
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Compiled, released items from approximately 2000-2008
American Student Dental Association
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These materials are distributed by the American Student Dental Association (ASDA) with permission from the American Dental Association Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations. All of these released items are the copyrighted property of the American Dental Association. You may not copy for any purpose this publication, or any part of it, in print, electronic or other format without prior express written permission from the American Dental Association. This collection of examination materials includes questions compiled from examinations administered by the Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations from approximately 2000 to 2008. The Joint Commission periodically releases items no longer in use to familiarize candidates, educators and others with the general format and content of its examinations. A content outline of the current examination may be found in the Guide. The same information is available online at www.ada.org or on request from the Joint Commission office. The American Student Dental Association and the Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations do not guarantee that the information in released National Board examinations is accurate, current or relevant. Released materials may no longer be consistent with the current content specifications, content emphasis or examination structure. Because ofthe dynamic nature of dental practice and the biomedical sciences, these materials may be outdated. The Joint Commission communicates and emphasizes the following cautions to examination candidates and others. All released items are the copyrighted property of the American Dental Association. These materials are intended for the personal, non-commercial use of the purchaser and may not be reproduced in any format, whether paper or electronic, without the express written permission of the ADA Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations. WARNING: All test material, items or questions currently in use in the National Board examination programs are considered "unreleased" items. Examination regulations prohibit the sharing or use of unreleased items under any circumstances, including efforts to remember and reconstitute exam items. Individuals who breach the confidentiality of an examination may face serious consequences, including voiding of National Board scores and notification to state boards of dentistry.
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Case B Answer Key 5 23 24 26 31 36 TM PDF Editor ..TABLE OF CONTENTS Part II Released Items Case A Questions Case B Questions Case A.
B. D. auriculotemporal syndrome. D. E. D. Subconjunctival hemorrhage is most commonly found in which of the following fractures? A. Kilovoltage Milliamperage Exposure time Focal-film distance Filament temperature Each of the following is known to contribute to orofacial clefting EXCEPT one. Which of the following physical signs indicates severe CNS oxygen deprivation? A. coronoid hyperplasia. D. C. increases the absorption of many drugs. Nasal LeFort I Frontal sinus Zygomatic arch Zygomaticomaxillary complex TM PDF Editor © 2009. D. D. D. C. this patient can open approximately 45 mm and has a "pop-and-click" in the joint area. Radar X rays Alpha rays Gamma rays Visible light Which of the following is NOT a complication of radiation therapy? A. C. decreases cytochrome P-450 metabolism of other drugs. Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations. This is because erythromycin A. C. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Anteriorly and medially Posteriorly and medially Anteriorly and laterally Posteriorly and laterally Anteriorly. E. B. B. A 2-day-old developing plaque consists primarily of A. decreases the absorption of many drugs. C. The most likely diagnosis is A. B. Each of the following is an electromagnetic radiation EXCEPT one. C. B. B. C. filamentous organisms. Milliamperage (mA) Kilovoltage peak (kVp) Object-film distance Source-film distance Exposure time 11. non-mineralized pellicle. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. C. B. internal derangement with reduction.(•<•?] iv-tt VJUI tl-ft A patient has pain over the left pre-auricular area. D. : „ Treponema species Bacteroides species. B. a structureless. Mucositis Xerostomia Osteoradionecrosis Granuloma The penetrating quality of x-ray beams is influenced by which of the following? A. E. 6. All rights reserved. D. B. D. E. gram-positive cocci and rods. E. Valium® Poor diet Acetaminophen Vitamin deficiency or excess Contraction ofthe lateral pterygoid muscle moves the articular disk in which of the following directions? A. D. increases renal reabsorption of many drugs. B. myofascial pain dysfunction syndrome. American Dental Association. and interiorly 10. laterally. E. some of which are fatal. -r Erythromycin is responsible for numerous drug interactions. E. Dilated pupils with increased light reflex Pinpoint pupils with increased light reflex Dilated pupils with an absence of light reflex Pinpoint pupils with an absence of light reflex A decrease in which of the following causes an increase in radiographic density? A. C. C. decreases distribution of many drugs. . B. C.
Periodontal tissue is removed from around a tooth to establish a biologic width. In examining the edentulous mouth of this patient. the practitioner should immediately assess the patient's A. If a patient suddenly becomes unconscious during treatment. B. B. the dentist should do which o f t h e following first? A. E. Which of the following conditions will be the most likely to complicate the management of this patient? A. B. B. C. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. 16. neutropenia. Asthma Epilepsy Chemotherapy Hypertension 14. An elderly patient has worn a maxillary complete denture against 6 mandibular anterior teeth for an extended period of time. B. Soft tissue is repositioned in order to increase the area on which the denture may be supported. American Dental Association. Catecholamines Belladonna alkaloids Anticholinesterases Organophosphates 17. D. C. lymphopenia. 19. pulse and blood pressure. D. leukopenia. Which o f t h e following is indicated to correct a condition of atropine poisoning evidenced by rapid heart rate. Nicotine Homatropine Epinephrine Pilocarpine Physostigmine 21. lymphocytosis. .12. C. Acute pyogenic bacterial infections produce A. C. The chin is augmented to enhance esthetics. Which o f t h e following best describes a vestibuloplasty? A. therefore. C. B. C. On a new patient's initial appointment. D. An analgesic compound #3 contains how many mg of codeine? A. A 35-year-old woman has an acute dentoalveolar abscess. D. leukocytosis. C. E. Establish rapport Inform Gather information Evaluate 20. Bone is added to the mandible to augment its height. E. E. C. Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations. D. All rights reserved. D. B. contraindicated in patients with glaucoma? A. airway and blood pressure. Constructs splints Performs model surgery Determines the postoperative occlusion TM Identifies the type of skeletal deformity Aids in explaining the surgical procedure to the patient \ PDF Editor © 2009. D.5 15 30 60 18. D. 7. dry mouth and gastrointestinal inactivity? 15. B. D. B. color and pupils. C. airway and pulse. B. the dentist would probably see which of the following? A. The use of study casts in orthognathic surgery does each of the following EXCEPT one. Which o f t h e following drug groups increases intraocular pressure and is. C. Osseointegrated dental implants are placed to support prosthesis. Intrusion of the mandibular anterior teeth Flabby ridge tissue in the posterior maxillary arch Loss of osseous structure in the anterior maxillary arch Cystic degeneration of the foramina of the anterior palatine nerve A. 13. D.
and clear the pharynx Clear the pharynx. E. clear the pharynx. Phenobarbital GX Carbamazepine (Tegretol1 ^) Valproate (Depakene®) Phenytoin (Dilantin®) Ethosuximide (Zarontin®) 27. D. Lingual arch Distal shoe(s) Nance holding arch Band-and-loop space maintainer(s) Observation. Arthrography Arthroscopy Panoramic films Computerized tomography Magnetic resonance imaging 26. B. B. protrude the tongue. D. B. 24. C. B. B. and protrude the mandible Extend the neck. coarsening of facial features. and protrude the tongue 30. D. and protrude the mandible Extend the neck. Excision is done as conservatively as possible. lipoma. Length to width ratio of the excision is at least 3 to 1. C. . C. B. C. A tender swelling in the soft tissue of the submandibular triangle is most likely caused by A. a practitioner takes into account each of the following EXCEPT one.22. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. The wound is undermined prior to closure. D. D. extend the neck. Which of the following is the least helpful in determining the anatomical integrity of the temporomandibular joint? A. A patient presents with facial lacerations that have irregular or devitalized wound edges. Open the airway Establish unresponsiveness Establish pulselessness Examine the victim for bleeding and fractures 29. 25. C. Which of the following should be performed first for a collapsed or unconscious victim of illness or accident? A. How should this patient be managed? A. B. In excising the wound elliptically. lymphadenopathy. Each of the following characterizes an impending insulin shock EXCEPT one. C. an obstruction of Stensen's duct. B. no space maintainer necessary. 28. and fetal abnormalities are side effects associated with which of the following antiepileptic drugs? A. American Dental Association. Weakness Convulsions Mental confusion Cold perspiration An unconscious patient is suspected of having an obstructed airway. C. E. What space management treatment should be planned for a child age 4. Excision is perpendicular to the natural skin tension lines. D. cognitive deficits. impairs healing. Protrude the tongue. protrude the mandible. B. lymph gland hypertrophy. missing both primary mandibular first molars with no primate space present? A. protrude the mandible. Vitamin C deficiency Diabetes mellitus Polycythemia vera Systemic lupus erythematosus TM PDF Editor ) 2009. C. All rights reserved. Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations. B. extend the neck. D. clear the pharynx. D. Secretion in the bile and into the feces Excretion in the urine as inactive metabolites Total metabolism by the liver and excretion in the feces Secretion not metabolized in the urine 31. Which is the EXCEPTION? A. an infected thyroglossal duct cyst. Which of the following systemic conditions lowers resistance. hirsutism. Which of the following represents the major route of excretion of penicillin V? A. C. D. D. C. 23. E. Gingival overgrowth. and indicates early use of antibiotics for infections? A. protrude the tongue.
C. D. D. D. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. D. D. E. The most common cause of fracture at the isthmus of a Class II restoration is A. Ethyl alcohol is a good antidote for methanol poisoning because A. Use of controlled force when using forceps and elevators Removal of buccal bone and/or sectioning of teeth A thorough presurgical analysis and planning alterations in the surgical approach Use of the maxillary pinch grasp to detect expansion of the alveolar bone Use of forceps with beaks that grasp the roots more firmly Which of the following properties increases when the intermediate chain of a local anesthetic drug is lengthened? A. it competes successfully with methanol for alcohol dehydrogenase. a sharp axio-pulpal line angle. It will not cause corrosion. delayed amalgam expansion. E. Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations. isthmus width too narrow. C. B. C. B. Each o f t h e following measures can minimize fractures of the maxillary alveolar process EXCEPT one. Which of the following is a local contraindication for the surgical removal of an impacted tooth? A. C. B. The periosteal elevator is used to do each of the following EXCEPT one. Potency Allergenicity Solubility in water Rate of biotransformation 38. C. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A.32. All of the above. fingers. All rights reserved. Each of the following nonsedating antihistamines would be contraindicated in an individual taking cimetidine for heartburn EXCEPT one. A freshly condensed Class II amalgam restoration has a deficient margin at the proximogingival cavosurface angle. C. C. C. It will not char fabrics. 39. C. B. a bur. Cycle time is short. 35. E. B. D. B. American Dental Association. 33. There is no need for special ventilation. Astemizole (Hismanal®) Diphenhydramine (Benadryl®) Fexofenadine (Allegra®) Hydroxyzine (Vistaril®) Terfenadine (Seldane®) 40. it prevents formation of formaldehyde. a bone file 41. B. E. . 34. it prevents damage to the optic nerve. Instruments are dry at the end of the cycle. B. B. Luxate the teeth Retract the soft tissue flap Elevate the interdental papillae Provide protection to the soft tissue flap TM PDF Editor 8 i 2009. D. E. D. Alveoplasty following closed extraction is usually performed with A. lack of interproximal contact. A nonvital tooth Fever of unknown origin A history of bleeding disorder An undiagnosed ulcer in the oral cavity Pale gingiva with a confirmed history of anemia 37. E. D. D. it inhibits methanol metabolism. This might have been caused by which of the following? A. Overtightening the matrix band Neglecting to wedge the matrix band Neglecting to contour the matrix band Using too large an initial increment of amalgam 36. a rongeur. Which o f t h e following is NOT an advantage of chemical vapor sterilization? A. C. moisture contamination o f t h e amalgam during placement. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. B.
Envelope Semilunar Vertical release Rotation pedicle 52. 45. 46. D. C. 48. With most oral drugs. B. The administrator has little control over the ultimate clinical actions ofthe drug(s). efficacy. B. TM lack of drainage from the infected area. C-osteotomy Le Fort I osteotomy Inverted L-osteotomy Anterior maxillary osteotomy 50. Hyperthyroidism Regular corticosteroid use Diabetes mellitus Pancreatic insufficiency Each of the following is a disadvantage of oral sedation EXCEPT one. D. Follows Precedes Unrelated Accompanies Initially follows. D. Oral anxiolytic drugs are effective in relieving anxiety in the hours immediately preceding the dental appointment. B. C. D. All rights reserved. D. The therapeutic index of a given drug indicates the relative A. PDF Editor I 2009. B. Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations. low resistance of the patient. There can be significant differences in the bioavailability of oral drugs. E. C. D. D. Streptomycin Tetracycline Chloramphenicol Chlortetracycline 44. B. B. safety. B. 47. D. In the preauricular approach to the TMJ. C. Which of the following represents a constitutional symptom? A. potency. there is a relatively slow onset of clinical activity and a prolonged duration of action. Tinnitus Chills Xerostomia Dysphagia Aplastic anemia is a serious toxic effect associated most frequently with which of the following antibiotics? A. B. be maintained in its lowered position by the new denture. C. if damaged. a resistant strain of bacteria. . D. D. Which of the following is most clearly associated with the appearance of "moon fades"? A. B. B. not cross the skin graft. American Dental Association. E. Osteomyelitis of the mandible is most likely to develop because of A. C. duration. not cross a fibrous scar band. Which of the following flap designs allows the best surgical access to the apical aspect of a tooth root with the least reflection of soft tissue? A. C. then accompanies 49. C. C.42. How does the growth of the cranial base generally relate in time to the growth of the jaws? A. which of the following anatomic structures. E. Which of the following is the most commonly used surgical procedure to correct maxillary retrognathia? A. not cross the mucosal graft. solubility. failure of pus to localize. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Facial nerve Parotid gland Auriculotemporal nerve Superficial temporal vein Facial artery 51. D. 43. B. presents the potential for greatest morbidity? A. C. The fenestration technique for mandibular vestibuloplasty is based on the premise that the mucosal attachment will A. C.
During the first visit. C. C.53. D. C. D. resulting in disk displacement on one or both sides C. 54. Flushing out debris with normal saline solution Curetting the boney wall to promote bleeding Placing a sedative dressing in the socket to protect exposed bone Administering mild analgesic drugs as an adjunct to local treatment 56. D. The most optimal flap is a reflection of the entire hard palate mucoperiosteum back to a line between the 2 first molar teeth. The tori should be removed by grooving the superior surface of the torus with a bur. You are doing some preprosthetic surgery on a patient in preparation for a new denture. An example of isogeneic bone grafting is transplanting bone marrow in the treatment of such diseases as leukemia. B. B. Xenografts are frequently used in mandibular reconstruction. D. B. . Principles for managing a localized alveolar osteitis after extraction of a mandibular first molar include each of the following EXCEPT one. A clinical condition related to dysfunction of the temporomandibular joint and disk A collective term for a heterogenous group of musculoskeletal disorders of varying etiologies. then shear the torus off with a bibeveled chisel. The most optimal flap uses a midline incision which courses from the papilla between teeth #8 and 9 posteriorly to the junction of the hard and soft palates. The tori should be removed using a large pear-shaped acrylic bur. D. supplemented with an autogenous graft. B. Which of the following best defines the term "Temporomandibular Disorders"? A. B. 55. while the patient has the acute symptoms Prior to initiating splint therapy. 58. that present with similar signs and symptoms A clinical condition caused by disharmony between the occlusal proprioceptors and masticatory muscles A group of clinical conditions that arise from excessive loads being placed on the TM joints by muscle spasms. Which of the following statements about removal of her moderate-sized mandibular lingual tori is correct? A. B. Which of the following statements about maxillofacial bone grafts is INCORRECT? A. Allogeneic banked bone is often used as a carrier. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. D. one week after the first visit Only after the patient is sympton-free and has shown improvement during splint therapy Never. until definitive orthodontic treatment has been started 57. C. All rights reserved. TM PDF Editor 10 © 2009 American Dental Association. The tori should be removed by grooving the superior surface then shearing the torus off with a mono-beveled chisel. The tori should be removed by inserting a rongeurs vertically under a lingual flap and "snipping off' the tori. The most optimal flap uses a midpalatal incision that courses from the palatal aspect of tooth #3 across to the palatal aspect of tooth #14. When is the most appropriate time to permanently modify/alter the occlusion of an acute TMD patient? A. Joint Commission on Nalional Dental Examinations. C. Which of the following statements about the flap for the removal of a palatal torus is correct? A. The most common source of autologous bone is the iliac crest. The most optimal flap is shaped like a "double-Y". with a midline incision and anterior and posterior side arms extending bilaterally from the ends of the midline incision. The area is then smoothed with a bone file.
Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. 1 mm. The initial flow rate of oxygen should be at least 6 L/min via the nasal hood. B. D. E. so the correct percentage of each is delivered at a constant flow rate. decreased. 15 mm. D. Each of the following statements is correct regarding phenytoin EXCEPT one. the interarticular pressure of the right temporomandibular joint is A. The graft will use an artificial. Using a large acrylic bur. As the flow of nitrous oxide through a mixing dial style unit is increased. C. 63. Cavity liners should have a minimal thickness of E.59. 64. The patient should be seated in an upright (85-90 degree) position in the dental chair. 62. D increased. taken from another site. EXCEPT one. A complete denture patient returns for a 24-hour post-op appointment after insertion of new dentures. Causes gingival hyperplasia Corrects certain cardiac dysrhythmias C. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Each of the following is a common cause of postsurgical atelectasis (decreased expansion of the alveoli) EXCEPT one. Each of the following statements concerning the administration technique of inhalation sedation is correct. Shallow inspirations Pain-limiting movement Inactivity after surgery Preoperative respiratory infection Narcotic analgesic that depress the respiratory drive B. E. 125 mm 61. Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations. A. . Is ineffective when administered orally Causes toxic effects related to the cerebellum and vestibular system Exerts antiseizure activity at doses which do not cause general CNS depression TM PDF Editor 11 © 2009. All rights reserved. The graft uses bone from another human being. 60. Tell the patient this is normal for the first day of wearing new dentures and to return in one week for another post-op check. What is the definition of that graft? A. B.5 mm. Reduce all eccentric contacts on the right side of the maxillary and mandibular dentures. D. the flow rate of oxygen is reduced. When a patient bites on a hard object on the left mandibular molar. they should be removed prior to administration of the sedation. Your patient was referred to an oral and maxillofacial surgeon for an implant. Apply pressure indicator paste to the internal surface of the mandibular denture and check for pressure spots. grossly reduce the internal surface of the denture. B. bone-like material. or bone from another animal species. 1. Which of the following is the first procedure the dentist should perform? A. C. B. American Dental Association. The patient points to a sore area on top of the mandibular ridge crest on the posterior right side but no sore spot is visually evident. B. The graft uses the patient's own bone. The graft uses bovine bone. C. C. D. D. C. C. Reduce the centric contacts on all posterior teeth on the right side of the mandibular denture. D. 65. If the patient is wearing contact lenses. B. and you were advised that she was going to need a sinus lift procedure with placement of an autogenous bone graft. varied but it is unpredictable. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. remains unchanged.
A patient that is having general anesthesia using an IV barbiturate rapidly passes through A. Adrenal insufficiency during major stress results in A. E. Incisal Occlusal Cervical Facial 75. B. D. B. C. Which of the following is the most serious result of digoxin intoxication? A. D. . A properly executed posterior superior alveolar nerve block will anesthetize each of the following structures EXCEPT one. D. B. Bradycardia Renal failure Atrial tachycardia Atrial fibrillation Ventricular fibrillation 72. metamerism. translucency. Which of the following antibiotics has been implicated in the vast majority of cases of oral The character and individuality of teeth are largely determined by contraceptive failure during antibiotic use? A. American Dental Association. C. C. D. soft tissue and periodontium in the posterior maxilla Soft palate mucosa on the side of the injection 71. C. 68. shape. value. B. Maxillary sinus membrane in the molar region Second and third molar teeth and a portion of the first molar tooth Buccal alveolar bone. 74. gingival hyperplasia. Which areas should be avoided for an IM injection before a child can walk? A. hypotension. color. 70. TM PDF Editor 12 © 2009. C. E. Stage Stage Stage Stage I. Rifampin Keflex Erythromycin Tetracycline D. B. The depth of light penetration into the tooth or restoration before it is reflected outward is the A. D. B. All rights reserved. B. IV In young patients. B. B. C. cardiovascular collapse. color perception. 69. D. surface texture. degree of translucency. Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A.66. Each of the following represents an advantage of oral sedation EXCEPT one. Gluteal muscles Ventrogluteal Vastus lateralis Deltoid area 73. C. C. D. Need for specialized training and equipment High incidence and severity of adverse reactions Erratic and incomplete absorption of drugs from the Gl tract Short duration of action 67. B. Penicillin A. D. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. D. stains are usually more prominent in which areas of the teeth? A. C. ketoacidosis. II. C. III.
D. D. Which of the following represents the treatment of choice? A. and is looking at the floor. provide additional water to the investment mix. B. E. does not bring about dependence. Needs to be given much less frequently Does not cause gastric distress Has a longer duration of action TM PDF Editor 13 I 2009. E. All rights reserved. C. American Dental Association. has his arms folded. allow uniform and uninhibited setting expansion o f t h e investment. What are you angry about? Didn't my assistant get you seated? You seem uncomfortable. fluorescence. who is new to the office. I'm Doctor Wilson. what brings you here today? 81. Exerts less sedation for a given degree of motor cortex depression Is effective in a greater percentage of cases C. The first statement is false. has a longer duration of action. 78. the second is false. Disposal of medical waste Exposure Control Plan Hepatitis B vaccination Instrument sterilization and storage Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS) 80. D. D. The use of a rubber dam is considered an essential component of endodontic armamentarium. D. C. D. B. Which o f t h e following is an outstanding advantage of phenytoin over phenobarbital in the treatment of grand mal epilepsy? A. translucency. This molar has a necrotic pulp. I've got a lot to do. B. E. B. metamerism. Cephalexin Erythromycin Tetracycline Clindamycin 83. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. B. B. the second is true. 82. The main function o f t h e liner used in a casting ring is to A. Let's get going. Which o f t h e following antibiotics is the substitute of choice for penicillin in the penicillin-sensitive patient? A. The outstanding advantage of phenytoin over phenobarbital in the treatment of epilepsy is that phenytoin A. Both statements are true. E. Both statements are false. D. help prevent shrinkage porosity. . B. is effective against both grand and petit mal. 77. Exception to its use in a given situation is acceptable if the patient is informed and consents. C. 79 A 4-year-old child has a history of frequent spontaneous pain in a primary mandibular second molar. D. stands close to the wall. The dentist should initiate communication by saying which of the following? A. C. opalescence. When the dentist enters the operatory.76. produces less sedation for a given degree of motor cortex depression. The phenomenon whereby various light sources produce different perceptions of color is called A. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration's (OSHA) "Bloodborne Pathogens Standard" deals with each of the following EXCEPT one. Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations. The first statement is true. B. Pulpectomy Pulpotomy Extraction Pulp cap 84. the patient. B. incandescence. D. A. provide venting of the mold. C. did you have a bad dental experience? Hi. C. provide easy divesting of the casting. C. E. C.
the lingual surface is better. C. D. sprue diameter. Soldering index Copalite preparations Temporary cementation Mix zinc phosphate cement PDF Editor 14 ) 2009. C. contour. isoniazid. D. urea. vancomycin. Back pressure porosity is A. Phenytoin Ethosuximide Carbamazepine Phenobarbital Valproic acid 93. methanol. Orthodontically extrude remaining tooth structure Extract remaining tooth structure Fabricate FPD over the remaining root Fabricate RPD over the remaining root 90. the same as suck-back porosity. C. 86. acetone. C. The main metabolite of ingested isopropyl alcohol A. C. and surface finish have been determined to b8 acceptable. 87. B. The visibility of. the use of no flux. indicates withdrawal of which ofthe following anticonvulsant drugs? A. 88. fit. the result of using an oxidizing flame. 89. B. D. D. D. most likely when the wax pattern is positioned very close to the open end of the ring. B. E. The enamel is thicker on the lingual surface. 91. trimethoprim. Which ofthe following represents what step is accomplished next with this FPD? A. excessive burnout time. . SUCCESS RECRUIT OPTIMEM EIEIO 92. Which of the following explains why a properly designed rest on the lingual surface of a canine is preferred to a properly designed rest on the incisal surface? A. D. B. the same as occluded gas porosity. often evidenced by rounded margins on the casting. observed in a pediatric patient under treatment for absence seizures. The most potent antitubercular drug is A. B. acetaldehyde. The cingulum of the canine provides a natural surface for the recess.85. sulfamethoxazole. D. E. B. the use of excessive flux. E. Pentobarbital (Nembutal®) Diazepam (Valium®) Hydroxyzine (Vistaril®) Chloral hydrate (Noctec®) Chlorzoxazone (Parafon Forte®) TM At the try-in appointment for a 3-unit posterior gold FPD. alloy oxidation. D. as well as access to. formaldehyde 94. C. C. B. the proximal contacts. Less leverage is exerted against the tooth by the lingual rest. American Dental Association. C. D. E. Which of the following is an acronym for a marketing strategy to use for reluctant patients? A. occlusion. B. Shrinkage porosity in a gold casting is associated with A. B. Which of the following drugs is most likely to cause convulsions when a physically dependent person is withdrawn? A. Which of the following represents the first necessary step to restore and maintain the tooth's esthetics? A. All rights reserved. C. Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations. B. C. Spontaneous gingival hemorrhage or acute stomatitis. A 20-year-old patient presents with an upper maxillary centra) incisor previously treated for endodontic fractures at the level of the alveolar crest. D.
B. 104. C. overheating the parts to be joined. 97. B. B. C. 103. E. . C. B. Which of the following statements concerning ethyl alcohol is true? A. C. B. using phosphate as the soldering TM investment. prevent breakdown of the initiator. E. PDF Editor 15 ©2009. D. increased activity of thalamic areas. C. Admixed Spherical Lathe-cut High-copper Conventional 100. incomplete filling of the mold details. C. D. B. E.95. Blockade of glucagon release from pancreas Blockade of catecholamine release from adrenal medulla Stimulation of insulin release from pancreatic beta cells Action as direct receptor agonists for the insulin receptor Increase affinity of tissues for utilization of available plasma glucose 102. Larger condensers and laterally applied condensation forces are recommended to ensure complete condensation of which of the following amalgam types? A.2%. The portion of an artificial tooth that is found only in porcelain anterior teeth is A. E. the pin. Which of the following is a disadvantage of glass ionomer cement? 98. It possesses anticholinergic properties. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. A. D. It protects individuals against exposure to cold by preventing heat loss. The casting shrinkage of cobalt-chromium alloys is approximately A. The most likely cause of failure in the pre-ceramic soldering technique is A. D. B. None of the above.25% 1. D. attain development of color. B. large amounts of excess that is difficult to trim. 96. prevent boiling of the monomer. E. volatilize the hydroquinone inhibitor. Compressing the acrylic resin in a rubbery stage will probably result in A. All rights reserved. B. E. E. With respect to temperature. preheating the soldering assembly. an open bite or open pin.75% 2. using an incompatible solder.2%. removal of the inhibitory effect of the cortex. D. D. Alcoholic euphoria results from A. Which of the following will result when using a thinner mix of a gypsum-bonded casting investment? A. B. porosity of the finished acrylic. American Dental Association. Produce a smoother casting Increase setting expansion Decrease setting expansion Increase thermal expansion Decrease required burn-out temperature 99. Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations. 3. D. It is metabolized primarily by the lungs. decreased activity of medullary centers. Difficulty in mixing Irritation of the pulp Low bond strength to dentin Moisture sensitivity during initial set 105. the diatoric. 101 . the processing cycle of a denture is designed to A. C. It is partially absorbed in the stomach. C. B. the collar. Proposed modes of action for the oral antidiabetic agents include each of the following EXCEPT one. 1. the finish line. D. It produces a true stimulation of the central nervous system. increased activity of limbic synapses. D. increased activity of the cerebrum. C. C. underheating the parts to be joined. C. D.
in the alveolar mucosa. Resilient Brittle Ductile Malleable 116. and Campylobacter recta Streptococcus gordonii. B. B. Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations. Dental phobias are very hard to eliminate because they A. Each o f t h e following osseous defects would be classified as infrabony EXCEPT one. the s e c o n d i s D. B. All rights reserved. D. prothrombin to thrombin. The most important anticoagulant effect of heparin is to interfere with the conversion of A. C. PTA to PTC. Streptococcus gordonii and Bacteroides gracilis 112. B. C. C. C. C. Heat Depth to which dentinal tubules are cut Desiccation Invasion of bacteria 115. Both statements are false. D. PTC to Factor VIII. 110. petrolatum. dull the tip of the instrument. American Dental Association. B. at the mucogingival junction. Eubacterium sp. 107. T h e first s t a t e m e n t i s l i u e . The first statement is false. glycerin. C. 111. are self-reinforcing. D. The base of the incision in the gingivectomy technique is located A. and Gemella sp. A trough A dehiscence A hemiseptum An interdental crater TM false. 117. plaster of paris. above the mucogingival junction. C. burnish the calculus onto the tooth surface. Lactobacillus casei and Veillonella sp. D. PDF Editor 16 ) 2009. B. at the level of the cementoenamel junction. proaccelerin to accelerin. cannot be seen. Allowing the ultrasonic-sealer tip to remain on the tooth surface too long will A. water. B. Streptococcus mutans. D. E. B. 1 -5 years 6-10 years 11-15 years 16-20 years 21-25 years A. Microfilled resin Amalgam Hybrid resin Glass ionomer Both statements are true. C. Which of the following describes a material with high compressive strength but low tensile strength? 109 Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis is most likely to occur in which o f t h e following age groups? A. Which of the following oral bacteria have been implicated as periodontal pathogens? A. coronal to the periodontal pocket. Porphyromonas gingivalis. One can accelerate the setting time of zinc oxideeugenol impression pastes by adding a small amount of A. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. become habitual. damage the tooth surface. are ego-syntonic. the second is true. D.1 0 6 . 113. C. D. OSHA regulates the transportation of waste from the office. D.. B. Streptococcus mitior. E. C. E. cause irreversible pulpal damage. D. D. B. Which of the following filling materials is least desirable for use as Preventive Resin Restoration? A. D. 114. C. fibrinogen to fibrin. B. 108 Which of the following is the most important factor affecting pulpal response? A. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is concerned with regulated waste within the office. C. A. B. .
124. D. C. Chlortetracycline acts by interfering with A. cell wall synthesis. Drug interaction resulting in serious adverse cardiovascular events. He is frequently exposed to a small amount of radiation. It is unlikely that the current dose will rise above his occupational limit. nucleic acid synthesis. D. C. His film badge must be used only to measure occupational doses. B. B. nitric oxide. C. When determining the appropriate dose of systemic fluoride supplement for a child. E. D. C. 123. D. B. helium. The toxic impurity that can theoretically be found in nitrous oxide gas is A. might occur between erythromycin and which of the following antihistamine drugs? A. C. most important for the dentist to consider which of the following? A. phenytoin. protein synthesis on bacterial but not mammalian ribosomes. What percentage ofthe U. The drug of choice to treat overdosage with tricyclic antidepressants is A. population does not have dental insurance? A. methane. When should this crossbite be corrected? A. D. Immediately. ozone.S. 119. American Dental Association. His badge records only gamma-radiation. D. B. The fluoride content of the drinking water The child's diet and caries activity The child's age and the fluoride content of the drinking water The child's weight and the fluoride content of the drinking water 126. protein synthesis on mammalian but not bacterial ribosomes. C. B. C. without waiting for the eruption of permanent first molars When all the primary teeth have exfoliated After the permanent first molars have fully erupted When the child is approximately 9 years of age 125. E. D. B. B. C. although the dose he receives is below the occupational limits. B. Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations. including death. pentobarbital.118. 35-40% 45-50% 55-60% 65-70% 122. D. How many hours per day should a cervical pull headgear be worn to achieve the most effective results? A. 6 8 10 12 14 1 2 1 . E. Terfenadine (Seldane®) Promethazine (Phenergan®) Hydroxyzine (Atarax®) Diphenhydramine (Benadryl®) Chlorpheniramine (Chlor-Trimeton®) TM PDF Editor 17 © 2009. . Which of the following best explains why this patient need not wear his employee film badge while he is having dental radiographs made? A. cyclopropane 120. A 5-year-old child has a posterior unilateral crossbite that is accompanied by a functional shift of the mandible. atropine. an amphetamine. D. A patient works at a nuclear power plant. The dose from the dental radiographs is too low to be measured accurately by the badge. C. E. B. physostigmine. it is. not x rays. All rights reserved.
All rights reserved. C. Which of the following cannot be used to calculate the dosage of a drug for a child? A. Sodium Calcium Chloride Potassium Phosphate 134. E. rapid respiration Widely dilated. What percent of the blood alcohol level is the most likely to produce a lethal effect in 50 per cent of the population? A. American Dental Association. Allow the parent to answer questions asked by the child at chairside Allow both the parent and the dentist to communicate simultaneously with the child Transmit word substitutes for dental procedures and equipment during the appointment Attain voice control to build the groundwork for future instructions 135. which o f t h e following should the dental team do? A. C. B. 132. D. then spraying the area with BAL. D. 1 3 1 . narcolepsy.20% 0. C. D. B.05% 0. B. A. D. C. C. D.10% 0. E. scrubbing the spill area with hot water and detergent. sweeping up the mercury and disposing of it in a plastic bag. In addition to the treatment of epilepsy. decamethonium. Which is the EXCEPTION? A. C. B. B. D. . removing the mercury. Superscription Inscription Subscription Transcription Conscription 1 3 6 . In communicating with children. 129. The concentration of which of the following ions determines the binding affinity of agonists and antagonists to the opioid receptor? A. Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations. B. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. E. E. Which of the following symptoms is the most distinct characteristic of morphine poisoning? A. C. A mercury spill in the laboratory or office is appropriately cleaned up by A. B. E. schizophrenia. aspirating the mercury into a wash bottle trap. D.127. Which o f t h e following drugs is commonly used in the treatment of congestive heart failure? D. d-tubocurarine. Comatose sleep Pin-point pupils Depressed respiration Deep. panic attacks. A prescription includes each o f t h e following parts EXCEPT one. E. B. Inhalation of amyl nitrite can result in each of the following EXCEPT one. phenytoin may be indicated for the treatment of A. D. succinylcholine. C. then dusting the spill area with sulfur powder. arrhythmia. gallamine. D. Tachycardia Coronary artery dilation Peripheral arteriolar dilation A decrease in arterial blood pressure Increased motility o f t h e small bowel 137. Phenytoin Digitalis Quinidine Procainamide Nitroglycerin 1 3 0 . C. E. non-responsive pupils 128. Clark's rule Vital signs Body surface area Body weight (mg/kg) 133. C. E. The mechanism of action of the muscle relaxation induced by diazepam most clearly resembles that produced by A.50% TM PDF Editor 18 © 2009. D. B.30% 0. B. meprobamate. hypertension. C. 0. B.
C. B. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related. . 145. B. Agents may cause paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia. dry skin Excessive salivation Increased lacrimation Skeletal muscle fasciculation 141. The presence of Ag in metal-ceramic alloys contributes to which of the following? A. D. the posterior cusp height should be kept shallow because the buccal cusps of the posterior teeth will have to assist in protrusive disclusion. D. All rights reserved. American Dental Association. E. Reactivators such as 2-PAM reactivate ACHE which has undergone "aging". in the deepest part of the ring. Diarrhea Hot. methemoglobinemia. hypokalemia. 146. E. Increases melting temperature Increases alloy strength Increases alloy corrosion resistance May cause green discoloration of the porcelain TM PDF Editor 19 © 2009. D. E. thrombocytopenia. B. against the ring for support. 144. C. in the same direction as the rotation of the casting arm. Amphetamines Phenothiazines Benzodiazepines Monoamine oxidase inhibitors Tricyclic (imipramine-like) antidepressants 140. Prolonged use of amyl nitrite may result in A. B. Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations. 142. thromboembolism. Orthodontic therapy performed only with removable appliances Limited orthodontic treatment to align the front teeth for maximum esthetics Orthodontic treatment to enhance restorative and periodontal rehabilitation Early treatment of orthodontic problems to prevent more serious malocclusion 139. A. Which of the following statements is true concerning anticholinesterase? A. hypoprothrombinemia. aplastic anemia. In developing a canine-protected articulation where the anterior vertical overlap is determined to be less than 2 mm. Digitalis should be given to patients with atrial fibrillation who require quinidine to avoid A. Which of the following best describes adjunctive orthodontic treatment? A. sino-atrial bradycardia. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. C. B. C. opposite the direction of rotation of the casting arm. C. D. E.138. Each of the following is a symptom of poisoning by an organophosphate insecticide EXCEPT one. D. C. E. B. B. but the reason is correct. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct. prolongation of P-R interval of the ECG. Alkaloid physostigmine has the greatest number of side effects unrelated to ACHE inhibition. Organophosphates are readily absorbed through the skin. Which of the following drug groups is currently the mainstay of treatment in depressive psychoneurotic disease? A. D. granulocytopenia. 143. D. C. E. The thinnest portion of the wax pattern should be placed A. ventricular tachyarrhythmias. Agents such as DEP inhibit only plasma cholinesterase. Both the statement and the reason are correct but NOT related. B. C. C. B. D. D. The statement is correct but the reason is NOT The statement is NOT correct.
E. D. D. E. a higher melting point. 154. a higher melting point. C. L-dopa absorption slows with aging. B. The cardiac glycosides will reduce the concentration of which ion in an active heart muscle cell? A. Neuronal cell loss in the substantia nigra is progressive and continuous over the course TM o f t h e disease. increased specific gravity. Which ofthe following drugs is excreted primarily by renal tubular secretion? A. D. Dopa decarboxylase activity increases with C. decreased specific gravity. The United States Food and Drug Administration would recommend which of the following for this adult? A. an asymptomatic adult patient presents for a recall appointment. E. E. Each of the following pharmacologic effects is produced by ethanol EXCEPT one. The "S" in DMFS signifies which of the following? A. B. B. increased specific gravity. B. D. Score Standard Surfaces Simplified Significant 152. C. Patients gradually develop tolerance because L-dopa induces liver enzyme activity. Which of the following statements best describes why L dopa eventually becomes ineffective in the treatment of Parkinson's disease? A. decreased specific gravity. D. meprobamate (Equanil®). Diuresis CNS depression Enzyme induction Cutaneous vasoconstriction Increased gastric acid secretion 148. When high gold content alloys are compared to base metal alloys. diazepam (Valium®). C. B. D. 155. B. generally higher yield strength and hardness. E. D. Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations. and more consistent bonding to porcelain. Having had a complete radiographic survey made 12 months ago. the base metal alloys exhibit A. C. The combination of a Schedule II narcotic with an antipsychotic drug produces which ofthe following? A. PDF Editor 20 © 2009. E. D.147. d-tubocurarine (Tubarine®). C. B. and generally higher yield strength and hardness. American Dental Association. a higher melting point. Dietary intake of pyridoxine speeds L-dopa metabolism. generally lower yield strength. B. Benzylpenicillin Streptomycin Tetracycline Bacitracin Polymyxin c. generally higher yield strength and hardness. lorazepam (Ativan®). Methyldopa (Aldomet®) Clonidine (Catapres®) Guanethidine (Ismelin®) Metoprolol (Lopressor®) Hydralazine (Apresoline®) 149. No radiographs Bite-wing radiographs only Panoramic radiograph only Panoramic and bite-wing radiographs Full-mouth survey including bite-wing radiographs 151. B. E. . 153. E. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. D. There is no clinical evidence of caries or periodontal disease. and generally higher yield strength and hardness. C. The central skeletal muscle relaxation produced by depressing the polysynaptic reflex arcs is brought about by all of the following drugs EXCEPT A. C. age. and more consistent bonding to porcelain. B. and more consistent bonding to porcelain. Sodium Calcium Chloride Potassium Magnesium C. Neuroleptic analgesia Conscious sedation Dissociative anesthesia Psychotomimetic analgesia 150. All rights reserved. D. 156. Which of the following antihypertensive agents acts directly on arterial smooth muscle to cause vasodilation? A.
band and loop. Which ofthe following represents an amphetamine-like drug that is widely used in the treatment of hyperkinetic children? A. C. resulting from hypermotility of the gastrointestinal tract Asphyxia. Anticholinergic action Decrease in heart rate Alpha-adrenergic blockade Negative inotropic action Stimulation of autonomic ganglia 164. E. D. 161 . D. C. competence. This is known as A. American Dental Association. on standing the patient might experience a fall in blood pressure due to which of the following? A. resulting from increased airway resistance Respiratory failure. D. 165. In pursuit of what the dentist believes is best for the patient. Treatment with sulfonamides is less likely to be accompanied by crystalluria if A. following prolonged excitation 163. B. resulting from excessive vagal stimulation Dehydration. B. paternalism. Loss of a primary right molar in a 3-year-old child requires placement of a A. Poor denture retention Increased interocclusal distance Drooping of the corners of the mouth Creases and wrinkles around the lips Trauma to underlying supporting tissues 162.157. E. C. para-aminosalicylic acid is administered concurrently. it distinguishes between bacteriostatic and bactericidal drugs. Which of the following is the most common reason for a cast crown not to seat on a patient's tooth? A. 158. E. B. it indicates whether or not an antibiotic has good oral absorption. D. None of the above. C. Cardiac failure. autonomy. B. Overextended margins Excessive proximal contact Undercut areas on the preparation Casting too wide bucco-lingually Porosity within the inner surface of the crown 1 66. D. Metabolism of a drug will usually result in conversion to each of the following EXCEPT one. Excessive vertical dimension of occlusion may result in which of the following? A. The disk sensitivity assay for antibiotic activity is used because A. B. C. the dentist attempts to control patient behavior. probenecid is administered concurrently. resulting from paralysis ofthe intercostals and the diaphragm Central nervous system depression. Doxapram (Dopram®) Hydroxyzine (Atarax®) Theophylline (Theobid®) Methylphenidate (Ritalin®) 159. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Inactive form More active compound Less active compound More water-soluble compound Less ionized compound 160. When 50 mg. E. C. E. the urine is acidified with ammonium chloride. . C. maleficence. such as diisopropylfluorophosphate? A. C D. the results are obtainable in a few minutes. it allows for routine testing of sensitivity to a range of antibiotics. B. C. Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations. B. distal shoe. of chlorpromazine (Thorazine®) is administered to a patient. D. a mixture of sulfonamides is used. D. cortisone is administered concurrently. C. removable acrylic appliance. B. All rights reserved. Which of the following represents the cause of death in poisoning from an irreversible anticholinesterase. TM PDF Editor 21 © 2009. B. B. D. E. D.
less removal of tooth structure.S. D. Which of the following agents is the least effective in producing topical anesthesia? A. Centrally acting analgesic Structurally similar to morphine Binds to the mu-opioid receptor Biotransformed into a more active metabolite Inhibits uptake of norepinephrine and serotonin TM 178. Aspirin Acetaminophen (Tylenol®) Ibuprofen (Motrin®. Peptostreptococci spp. Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Streptococcus mutans. less trauma to the pulp. C.E. B. B. Following compression of acrylic into the denture flasks. 170. flux serves to A. evaporation of the monomer. Advil®) Ketorolac (Toradol®) Naproxen (Naprosyn®. C. more ideal contours. establish an equalized and uniform pressure in the molds. D. B. provide an oxidizing environment in the area to be soldered. E. C. D. B. Buspirone (BuSpar®) Hydroxyzine (Vistaril®) Chloral hydrate (Noctec®) Phenobarbital (Luminal®) 175. remove any debris that may remain in the area to be soldered. Barbiturates taken in combination with very high doses of ethanol exhibit an interaction best described as which of the following? A. B. . American Dental Association. B. D. B. C. Tetracaine (Pontocaine®) Butacaine (Butyn®) Procaine (Novocaine®) Lidocaine (Xylocaine®) Benzocaine 173. excessive acrylic resin expansion. Aleve®) 169. D. B. C. Which ofthe following analgesics can be given either orally or by intramuscular injection? A. allow the flasks and the acrylic to reach a stable temperature. Each of the following is a characteristic of tramadol (Ultram®) EXCEPT one. A cast gold restoration might be indicated for the replacement of a faulty amalgam to obtain A. B. allow the monomer to permeate all polymer crystals. E. B. C. exothermic heat buildup. D. E. D. C. Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations. C. B. better margins. ERYC E. D. During a soldering procedure. C. D. Nystatin (Mycostatin®) is used in the treatment of infections caused by A. Erythrocin llosone 177. D. PDF Editor 22 ) 2009. Which ofthe following sedatives is most likely to cause a dry mouth? A. 171. E. C. D. Candida albicans. Which of the following routes of administration exhibits the slowest rate of absorption? A. placing the flasks into the processing tanks at curing temperature is delayed to A. 172. Bacteroides spp. E. assure complete flow of acrylic into the mold. C. acrylic resin shrinkage. E. hold the solder in place during heating. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. D. B. 168. Which of the following erythromycins is both enteric coated and long acting? A. discoloration ofthe acrylic resin. displace gases and dissolve corrosion products. Potentiation Protein bumping Negative synergism Competitive inhibition Enterohepatic circulation 176. C. Oral Sublingual Subcutaneous Intramuscular 174.167. Excessive heating of the acrylic resin during processing should be avoided to prevent A. All rights reserved.
Horizontally impacted teeth are considered the most difficult mandibular impactions. C. 1 hour prior to procedure No antibiotic treatment is necessary. D. the second is true. B. D. The first statement is true. the second is false. The position of tooth #26 will complicate the design of a maxillary prosthesis. Both statements are false. 182. E. the second is false. C. Asymptomatic bony impactions are not recommended for extraction in patients over 35 years-of-age. The first statement is true. D. 1 hour prior to procedure Clarithromycin (Biaxin®). Amoxicillin (Amoxil®). the second is true. D. 2 gm. 1 8 5 . the second is false. 2 gm. The first statement is false. D. B. . TM 183. The first statement is false. A. C. Which of the following risk factors is most likely to contribute to future attachment loss in this patient? A. the patient should be instructed to reduce the usual dose of insulin and not eat. Both statements are false. There is a crater defect between tooth #2 and tooth #3. The alveolar nerve is not likely to be injured during this extraction. A. B. 1 hour prior to procedure Clindamycin (Cleocin®). the second is true. B. American Dental Association. The first statement is true. The plaques on this patient's lower labial mucosa most likely represent which of the following? A. D. E. Place porcelain fused to metal crown Restore with conservative MO amalgam Treat mesial caries with composite resin Place mesial glass ionomer restoration to restore root caries lesion No treatment is necessary. E. Both statements are true. Both statements are false. PDF Editor I 23 © 2009. D. 3 gm. Maxillary tuberosity reduction on the patient's left side would facilitate prosthesis fabrication. C. Innominate line Lateral border of the orbit Pterygoid plate of the sphenoid Zygomatic process of the maxilla Posterior border of the maxillary sinus 181. Probing depths greater than 3 mm Insulin administration Occlusion Nutrition Smoking 1 8 7 . 600 mg. Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations. There is a vertical defect on the mesial of tooth #2. 1 hour prior to procedure Cephalexin (Keflex®). Prior to dental treatment using local anesthesia without sedation the patient should be instructed to take his usual dose of insulin and eat a normal diet. If the patient is to have local anesthesia with sedation. Which of the following represents the best initial restorative treatment for tooth #4? A. E. E. B.Case A #'s 179-187 (see page 26) 179. D. Both statements are true. C. B. Each of the following statements is true concerning impacted teeth #17 and #32 EXCEPT one. B. Leukoplakia Nicotinic stomatitis Chronic lip chewing Psoriasis Smokeless tobacco hyperkeratosis 184. Alveolar osteitis in the removal of bony impactions might occur (5-20%). Both statements are true. 180. A. All rights reserved. D. Prior to undergoing scaling and root planing. C. B. The first statement is false. C. 1 8 6 . C. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. C. Which o f t h e following represents the structure indicated by the arrows on the radiograph? A. how should this patient be treated? A. B.
prior to crown preparation. Which of the following approaches would be best 190. American Dental Association. polish composite resin restorations on teeth #8 and #9. #9. C. is most appropriate? A. C. B.Case B#'s 188-200 (see page 31) 188. remove facial caries on tooth #10 and restore with composite Restore caries on the facial surface of tooth #7. Splint together with composite resin Remove failing margins and rough surfaces. B. 196. . Pulp chamber calcification Periodontal bone loss coronally Extent of coronal restoration Widened apical periodontal ligament space C. Following root canal therapy on tooth #10. Place all-ceramic crowns on all four teeth Place ceramic crown on tooth #7. which of the following foundation options. 189. C. #9 and #10? A. and restore the mesial surface of tooth #8 with composite D. D. What could possibly have kept you away?" "Could you tell me more about your past dental experiences and present dental concerns?" B. C. Which ofthe following is the best means to evaluate the pulpal vitality of tooth #13? A. Which of the following treatments will achieve the best esthetic results for teeth #7. D. If you had seen the dentist regularly as you should have you wouldn't have had as many. C. #8. D. and place crown on tooth #10 Place porcelain fused to metal crowns on teeth #7. Which of the following is the best." "Can you tell me why someone with a medical history as bad as yours has stayed away from the dentist for so long?" "You have had many dental problems in the past. D. replace MI composite resin restoration on tooth #8. C. Which of the following is the most likely periodontal diagnosis for this patient? A. D. B. E. B. D. most conservative restorative treatment for teeth #6 and #11? A. "Why haven't you gone to the dentist more often? The more you avoid the dentist the worse your dental fear will become. Application of cold to teeth #12 and #13 Percussion testing on teeth #5 and #13 Electric pulp testing of teeth #12 and #13 Palpation in the buccal vestibule from teeth #12-#14 TM PDF Editor 1 24 2009. C. Bonded composite resin Pin retained composite resin Prefabricated post and composite resin core Composite resin into canal continuous with core E. Which ofthe following is the strongest radiographic evidence that tooth #10 requires endodontic treatment? A. Metastatic carcinoma Lateral periodontal cyst Chronic periradicular periodontitis Extension of the maxillary sinus 194. B. D. 192. D. 1 91 . 195." "It is costly to have two daughters in college. you should go to the dentist more often or you will need expensive dental treatment. Which of the following is the most appropriate restorative therapy for the patient's lower incisors? A. B. Plaque-induced gingivitis Chronic periodontitis Aggressive periodontitis Necrotizing ulcerative periodontitis 193. and place composite resin restorations on teeth #8 #10 Place all-ceramic crowns on teeth #7 and #9. C. Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations. and place new composite restorations where indicated Place porcelain fused to metal crowns No treatment is indicated. B. and #10. All-ceramic crowns Porcelain fused to metal crowns Restore proximal surfaces as needed with composite resin Apply fluoride in determining why the patient has had infrequent dental care in the past? A. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis for the radiolucency distal to the apical third of the root of tooth #13? A. All rights reserved. B.
In addition to oral hygiene instructions and scaling and root planing. periodontal maintenance therapy only. B. Which of the following is the best diagnosis for the radiolucency apical to teeth #23-#26? A. B. C. 200. E. Periodontal treatment ofthe mandibular anterior teeth would include A. soft tissue grafting. oral hygiene is good and there is a 1 mm reduction in probing depths. C. E.197. Mental fossa Coalesced periapical granulomas Periapical cemental dysplasia Central giant cell granuloma Traumatic bone cyst 199. another round of scaling and root planning. Systemic tetracycline administration for 10 days Subgingival irrigation with 0. C. D. C. All rights reserved. flap surgery. D. B. D. Mandibular removable partial denture Fixed partial denture teeth #20 to #22 and removable partial denture Fixed partial denture teeth #28 to #31 and removable partial denture Fixed partial denture teeth #18 to #22 and fixed partial denture #28 to #31 198. Following initial therapy. Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations. regenerative therapy.12% chlorhexidine Consultation with physician concerning diabetes mellitus Tooth grinding for occlusal adjustment and equilibration ofthe dentition TM PDF Editor 25 12009. which ofthe following course of actions is most appropriate during initial periodontal therapy? A. B. Which of the following options is the best to replace the missing mandibular teeth? A. D. American Dental Association. .
He smokes 1 pack of cigarettes per day and uses chew ng tobacco." 7) CD </) o CD 0) C D Q. Current Medications Social History CD O O CD Bartender o (A CD CO insulin (Hur Tiulm R ) a c Q. © N3 O O CD > 3 CD 38 YRS EH MaleD Female 5' 10" 154 LBS 125/78 "I don't like the spaces in my upper teeth. TM PDF Editor .CASE A Age Sex Height Weight B/P Chief Complaint Dental History Sporadic visits for emergency extractions. o o 3 en Medical History D 5' D (I Diabetes Patient had a hang-gliding accident 3 years ago with r esultant knee replacement.
o' 655 544 434 333 433 333 323 334 Probe 534 433 333 434 I 535 I 545 I 543 I 554 I 444 323 I 334 o CD m x o' Q CO Clinically visible carious lesion ^en Clinically missing tooth Probe 32 31 545 I 4 3 3 7 333 30 29 28 facial 434 I 545 I 545 \ 5451 554 I 434 TM 323T335 21 20 19 18 17 A • Probe 1: Probe 2: Furcation "Through and through" furcation initial probing depth probing depth 1 month after scaling and root planing 27 26 25 24 23 22 PDF Editor . Diffuse irregular white patches on lower labial mucosa.CASE A ® o o CD ADULT CLINICAL EXAMINATION 5 Probe 555 444 434 > 3 CD 6 333 7 8 9 facial 10 1 1 12 13 14 15 16 Current Oral Hygiene Status Fair 333 323 223 333 O CD Cfl o o R o 3" O o 3 3 Supplemental Oral Examination Findings 1. Probe.1 £2.
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All rights reserved. Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations. . American Dental Association.Q t Q TM hI PDF Editor 30 ) 2009.
50 YRS KIMaleD Female 6'0" 210 LBS 130/80 "I'm not happy with my front teeth.CASEB Age Sex Height Weight B/P Chief Complaint Dental History Patient has had infrequent dental care." Medical History Patient says he had a "mild stroke" 3 years ago. arrythmias diabetes mellitus Type II hypertension Social History Patient is a building contractor with two daughters in college. They feel rough. Current Medications metformin (Glucophage*) metoprolol (Lopressor*) aspirin TM PDF Editor .
CASE B © O ADULT CLINICAL EXAMINATION 1 Probe 2 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 667 16 5 P 3 CD > Current Oral Hygiene Status Fair 755 576 646 545 444 434 [555 I 545 I666 I 544 445 566 facial O CD fig O o o o O o 3 3 m' =1 Supplemental Oral Examination Findings ro 1 666 656 Probe. Probe 555 454 454 434 555 545 666 544 545 556 667 555 555 555 666 I 565 I 667 I 756 I 555 I 655 666 545 C D Clinically visible carious lesion Clinically missing too:h Probe 1 555 555 555 30 29 28 facial 656 I 566 I 567 I 755 I 655 I 755 27 26 25 24 23 TM 22 21 565 20 19 545 18 17 A • Probe 1: Probe 2: Furcation "Through and through' furcation initial probing depth probing depth 1 montn after scaling and root planing 32 31 PDF Editor .
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howevnr. . American Dental Association.PART 2 KEY The key below may be used to determine correct and incorrect answers. All rights reserved. Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations. it is not possible to convert a raw score numher correct to a standard score or associated pass/foil status 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 B D R C B B D A C D B B D C C D A B B B E C B C B E B E A A D E C E A C C E A D B A B C B D C D B B 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 E A C D C A C B A B B A C D B C A D B A C C C D E A D A C E E B B A B B E D B B C C E B D D A B D E 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200 C D D E A A E D A B D D C D E D C A B A A B C D B B C D E D A E D C C A A B D C A A C B E C B A B C 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 B c A A D D c D C C E B C A C D C D C E A D B A D B D B D B C D E E C D A D B B A C B B A B C B C A TM PDF Editor 36 © 2009. for this item set.
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