Sub-section I-A: Number of Questions = 30
Note: Questions 1 to 30 carry one mark each. DIRECTIONS for Questions 1 to 4: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. Four students, Aang Lee, Brett Lee, Chang Lee and Ding Lee appeared in 3 exams each. There were 50 questions in each exam. Each question, if rightly attempted, fetched 1 mark but for every wrong attempt,
1 1 1 , , marks were deducted in exams I, II and III respectively. Unattempted questions don’t carry any 4 3 2 marks. Following cumulative graph shows the numbers of correct attempts by each student in the three exams. Number of questions attempted wrongly by Chang Lee in each exam ranges from 8 to 14.

30 Ding Lee 28 Chang Lee 32 Brett Lee 36 Aang Lee 0 20 40 55



89 62 68 94 96





Number of correct Answers

Exam I 1. 2.

Exam II

Exam III

Out of the given four students, at most how many students can have equal marks in all the three exams? 1. 4 2. 1 3. 2 4. 3 If the total marks obtained by Chang Lee considering all the three exams, is an integer, then what can be the maximum number of questions marked wrongly by Chang Lee across all the three exams? 1. 38 2. 39 3. 40 4. 42 If the four given students attempted maximum possible number of questions in all the three exams such that their marks in each exam is an integer, then among the four students who has the maximum difference of marks in any two exams? 1. Aang Lee 2. Brett Lee 3. Ding Lee 4. Both Aang Lee and Ding Lee If the number of wrongly attempted questions by Brett Lee in all three exams are equal and non zero, then what is the ratio of maximum marks obtained by Brett Lee in any exam to the minimum marks obtained by him in any exam such that marks obtained in any of the exams is integer? 1. 29: 26 2. 14:13 3. 29: 25 4. 28: 25





DIRECTIONS for Questions 5 to 9: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. In a fruit shop, only three kinds of fruits namely apple, mango and orange are sold. The weight of every apple, every mango and every orange available in the fruit shop is 1 gm, 2 gms and 3 gms respectively. The price of an apple, a mango and an orange is Rs. 2, Rs. 3 and Rs. 4 respectively. Vardha, Madhvi and Samridhi went to this fruit shop to buy fruits. The total weight of fruits bought by Vardha, Madhvi and Samridhi is 15 gms, 12gms and 17 gms respectively. The amounts spent by Vardha, Madhvi and Samridhi on buying fruits is Rs.24, Rs.17 and Rs.28 respectively. 5. If the aggregate number of mangoes bought by Vardha, Madhvi and Samridhi is 15, then find the aggregate number of apples bought by them. 1.8 2. 7 3. 6 4. None of these. If the aggregate number of oranges bought by Vardha, Madhvi and Samridhi is 9, then find the ratio of number of apples bought by Vardha to the number of apples bought by Samridhi. 1. 2 : 3 2. 1 : 2 3. 3 : 4 4. None of these Find the minimum possible absolute difference between the number of apples and number of mangoes that Samridhi bought. 1. 0 2. 1 3. 2 4. 3 Find the minimum possible number of apples that can be bought by Vardha. 1. 5 2. 4 3. 3 4. 2 If Vardha bought at least 5 apples and aggregate number of apples bought by Vardha, Madhvi and Samridhi is 10, then find the number of mangoes bought by Samridhi. 1. 2 2. 4 3. 6 4. Cannot be determined



8. 9.

DIRECTIONS for Questions 10 to 14: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. In a trade promotion scheme, Cellular phones are distributed among four dealers P, Q, R and S; such that the following conditions always hold true after distributing all the cellular phones. Initially P, Q, R and S did not have any cellular phone with them. Conditions: I. The number of cellular phones with P is at least equal and at most twice the number of cellular phones with Q. II. The number of cellular phones with Q is atleast twice and atmost thrice the number of cellular phones with R. III. The number of cellular phones with R is atleast equal and atmost thrice the number of cellular phones with S. 10. Which of the following could not be a possible ratio of the number of cellular phones that S and Q can have? 1. 1 : 2 2. 1 : 9 3. 1 : 10 4. 2 : 5 Which of the following could be a possible ratio of the number of cellular phones that P and S can have? 1. 19 : 1 2. 18 : 1 3. 20 : 1 4. 21 : 1 If an aggregate of 88 cellular phones are distributed, find the difference between the maximum and minimum possible number of cellular phones that Q can have. 1. 14 2. 17 3. 21 4. 18






If 186 cellular phones are distributed in all and P got 108 cellular phones out of them, then find the number of cellular phones with S. 1. 6 2. 7 3. 8 4. Cannot be determined If R has 37 cellular phones after distribution of all cellular phones, then find the number of cellular phones with Q. 1.75 2. 58 3. 63 4. Cannot be determined


DIRECTIONS for Questions 15 to 18: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. In an office, a telephone-operator handles an EPABX machine which is connected to 6 extensions (i.e. telephone sets) numbered from 21 to 26. All the calls received by the Telephone-operator are supposed to be transferred to the desired extension. However, due to some technical problem with the EPABX machine, some calls were not accurately transferred to the desired extension. Also, all extensions were interconnected such that if a person receives a call, which is not meant for him, on a particular extension, he can transfer that call to any of the other extensions. But due to the persisting problem in the system, even some of these calls were not transferred accurately. A call is called rightly directed call if it reaches the person for whom it was intended, otherwise it is called a misdirected call. A particular phone call, once forwarded to another extension, can never come back to the preceding extension(s). Number of misdirected calls to any extension in any time slot is a multiple of 4 only. Following table provides information about the calls received at different extensions at different time slots on a day. Every call reaches the desired extension within the same time slot in which it was made.
Time slots 9 AM to 11 AM 11 AM to 1 PM 1 PM to 3 PM 3 PM to 5 PM Extension 21 Extension 22 5 8 14 4 4 12 2 6 Extension 23 9 4 12 6 Extension 24 13 6 8 10 Extension 25 4 5 4 10 Extension 26 2 7 6 2


What is the minimum number of calls received that reached the person for whom it was intended between 9AM and 11 AM? 1. 1 2. 13 3. 5 4. 15 Find the minimum number of rightly directed calls from 9 AM to 5 PM to extension 26. 1. 4 2. 7 3. 9 4. 17 What can be the least number of total rightly directed calls during time slot 11 AM to 1 PM to ensure that at least 1 of those calls was rightly directed to extension 22? 1. 30 2. 34 3. 12 4. 14 Which of these cannot be the total number of rightly directed calls to the extension 25 from 9 AM to 5 PM? 1. 9 2. 3 3. 7 4. 11

16. 17.




Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh. each party won the same number of seats as projected earlier.DIRECTIONS for Questions 19 to 22: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. Table-1: Pre-Poll Projection (Number of Seats) States Chhattisgarh Jharkhand Uttaranchal BPP 60 25 60 BMP 65 25 75 IPP 25 40 60 HAL 50 70 25 Table: 2 Actual Poll Results (Number of Seats) States Chhattisgarh Jharkhand Uttaranchal A 65 25 60 B 60 25 75 C 25 70 25 D 50 40 60 19. What can be said regarding the following two statements? Statement 1: Bharat Pita Party won 60 seats in Uttaranchal. 4. Statement (2) is necessarily true irrespective of statement (1). 4. Statement (1) is necessarily false irrespective of statement (2). The actual names of the parties were disguised as A. State assembly elections were held in three states. 1. If statement (1) is true then statement (2) is necessarily true. 4 000 . each party projected the number of seats that it was likely to win in the three states. What can be said regarding the following two statements? Statement 1: Hindustani Awami League won 60 seats in Uttaranchal. Four parties – Bharat Mata Party (BMP). Statement 2: Indian Peoples Party won 25 seats in Chhattisgarh. in no particular order. 2. If statement (2) is true then statement (1) is necessarily false. the state wise actual results of each party was tabulated as in Table-2. 4. B. 2. Statement (1) is necessarily false irrespective of statement (2). C and D. Before the declaration of the actual results of the elections. Statement 2: Bharat Mata Party won 65 seats in Chhattisgarh. If statement (2) is true then statement (1) is necessarily false. 2. Both the statements are necessarily false.After the declaration of the results. When the actual results of each party was compared with its projected one. in two States. Indian Peoples Party (IPP) and Hindustani Awami League (HAL) contested the elections in each of these three states. 3. Exactly one of the statements is true. Bharat Pita Party (BPP). 1. The projections were as shown in Table-1. At most one of the statements is true. 20. Both the statements could be true. 3. If statement (1) is true then statement (2) is necessarily true. No other party contested the elections. 1. in only one State. Statement (2) is necessarily false irrespective of statement (1). 21. Statement 2: The party disguised as “D” won exactly the same number of seats as projected.Uttaranchal. 3. What can be said regarding the following two statements? Statement 1: The party disguised as “A” won exactly the same number of seats as projected. it was observed that in atleast one state.

Rank for the current year 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 Name Shoaib Zaheer Nathan Ntini Agarkar Harmison Anderson Kaneria McGrath Monty Change in the rank over the previous year * +3 +4 +6 -2 +2 -1 A B C NA * If NA is indicated it implies that the player did not figure in the last year’s rankings. Rank 1 is the best rank. A. 9 25. 4. Positive change means that the rank has improved. What is the maximum value of |A| + |B| + |C| ? 1. Bharat Mata Party won the highest number of seats in the Chhattisgarh state assembly. –7 2. –7. 5 3. There were only 60 players who have played 5 or more test matches in the current year and 9 out of the 10 people in the given list were in the rankings from 51 to 60 in the previous year as well. B. then which of the following is correct? 1. None of these. If Indian Peoples Party won a total of 150 seats in these three states and Bharat Mata Party won the highest number of total seats in the three seats. Only players who have played 5 or more test matches in a calendar year would be included in the ranking list for that year. None of these Among the given players. –5. 4 2. 000 5 . The following table shows the rankings of 10 cricket players for the current year and compares this year’s rankings with that of the previous year. None of these The number of people who have definitely improved their rankings vis-à-vis last year’s from the above list is 1. 2. Bharat Mata Party won more than double the seats won by Hindustani Awami League. 7 None of the three players. C respectively ? 1. 24. DIRECTIONS for Questions 23 to 26: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. 6 4. Hindustani Awami League won the lowest number of seats in the Chhattisgarh state assembly. In each of the three state assemblies. –6 3. Which of the following can be the values of B.22. 15 4. 5 3. C are the values not known. 26. Anderson. 8 4. 14 2. 16 3. –1 4. –5. what could have been the maximum difference between the current year rank and the previous year rank of any player? 1. 3. 23. 4 2. Kaneria or McGrath has improved in his rankings in the current year.

38000 4. 20000 3.DIRECTIONS for Questions 27 to 30: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. 8 4. 5:3 4. From 8 PM to 9 PM at most 9 Ads and at least 6 Ads of each of three given time durations are aired on each of the four TV channels. Following graph shows the price (in Rs. Rs. 15:8 28. 6 000 . If 9 Ads of duration 15 sec are aired during 8 PM to 9 PM on one TV channel. Commercial Ads are of duration 5 sec. 7 2. 10 sec and 15 sec only. Rs. Rs. 35000 3. 2:1 3. On a day during 8 PM to 9 PM. Rs. then at most how many Ads of 10 sec duration can be aired during 8 PM to 9 PM on the same TV channel? 1. 36000 2. 6 3. During each Ad break at least 1 Ad of each time duration is shown on each TV channel.) of Ads of different time durations on the four TV channels. 15000 2. 10000 A company X has its Ads of duration 5 sec. four commercial Ad breaks of 60 sec each are aired on each of the four TV channels shown in the graph. What can be the lowest possible price that company X has to pay to any channel for 30 sec airtime? 1. 30. 25000 20000 Rupees 15000 10000 10000 5000 0 Tony TV Lee TV Star Minus TV channels Miscovery 8000 20000 18000 15000 15000 12000 20000 18000 15000 12000 8000 5 sec 10 sec 15 sec 27. 10 sec and 15 sec. But due to some technical problem two Ads of 15 sec duration cannot be aired. Rs. Rs. Rs. 25000 4. 39000 If equal number of Ads of each time duration are aired on all TV channels then what can be the maximum ratio of revenue earned by Ads of duration 15 sec to revenue earned by Ads of 5 sec duration on one TV channel? 1. It wanted its brand to be advertised for 30 sec at a stretch on one channel. 9 What is the difference between the maximum and minimum amount received by Tony TV during any Ad break? 1. Rs. 29. 9:4 2.

46 m 4. The distance between any two adjacent palm trees in east. If 2 marbles are hid then the person has to give 4 marbles. North West East South 34. 18 3. Segment of that forest is shown below. If the canary flew for 9 minutes. DIRECTIONS for Questions 34 to 36: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. north or south direction is 1 m. 14 A starts the game and after few steps number of marbles with A is 5. They start playing taking steps one by one. Whereas if 2 marbles are hid then the person who guessed correctly receives 4 marbles from the other person. A and B have 10 marbles each. A person cannot hide number of marbles that the other person hid in the previous step. 7 2. After some steps the sum of marbles that were hid by A and B taken together is 5. 31. Find the minimum possible sum of marbles that were hid by A and B taken together during these steps? 1.Sub-section II-B: Number of Questions = 10 Note: Questions 31 to 40 carry two marks each. If 1 or 3 marbles are hid in the fist and is guessed correctly then the person who hide marbles has to give all the marbles in his fist to the other person. then which of the following could be the distance between the trees A and B? 1. DIRECTIONS for Questions 31 to 33: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. 3 4. if 1 or 3 marbles are hid in the fist. A canary flew on these trees in a particular fashion. There is a huge forest where identical palm trees are arranged in a proper grid. then what is the minimum number of steps required? 1. 33. 5 3. 4 4. What can be the maximum difference between the total number of marbles with them after those steps? 1. 6 If after few steps number of marbles with B is 0. 3 3. 16 4. 20 2. 42 m 3. 2 2. If one person guesses incorrectly then he has to give the other person the marbles equal to number of marbles in his fist. 5 32. west. 39 m 2. 33 m 000 7 . such that in each step one of them encloses 1 or 2 or 3 marbles in his fist and asks the other person to guess the number of marbles in his fist. It jumped 4 trees north and 3 trees west or east in each minute. It started from palm tree A and reached palm tree B finally.

Yellow. for how much time did the canary possibly fly? 1. 24 m DIRECTIONS for Questions 37 to 40: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. Green.35. 540 minutes 4. Each employee in a particular group belongs to only one sub group. Blue. 585 minutes Which of the following could never be the distance between the trees A and B? 1. The employees in each of the groups are further divided into six sub groups namely Red. Group A Black 14% Group B Black 15% Red 16% Green 8% White 29% Red 13% White 22% Green 15% Yellow 24% Blue 12% Yellow 17% Blue 15% Group C Black 16% White 17% Red 15% Green 13% Group D Black 11% Red 7% White 9% Green 16% Yellow 30% Blue 9% Yellow 36% Blue 21% 8 000 . 16 m 3. Each employee belongs to only one group. 36. If the distance between the trees A and B is 2340 m. The following graphs provide information about the employees in each sub group as a percentage of the aggregate number of employees in that particular group. 12 m 2. All the employees of a company Z are divided into four groups namely A. 512 minutes 3. White and Black. B. 20 m 4. C and D. 480 minutes 2.

White and Blue? 1. 20:27 4.15:12:30 3. None of these If the difference between the number of employees who are in both group B and sub group Green and the number of employees who are in both group D and sub group Yellow is 11400. 25:24:60 2. 24:25:10 4. 39. 12500 Which sub group has the maximum number of employees? 1. Yellow 15% White 17. then find the difference between the number of employees in groups A and C? 1. Cannot be determined 38. 5:6 2. 25:31 3. 10500 2. What is the ratio of the total number of employees in groups A and C to the total number of employees in groups B and D? 1. White 4. 15000 4.40% 6.80% 24% Blue 18% 22. 18:25 What is the ratio of number of employees in sub groups Yellow. Black 3. 13500 3. 000 9 .50% Group A Group B Group C Group D 37. Yellow 2. 40.The following table provides partial information about the number of employees of a particular sub-group in each group as a percentage of the aggregate number of employees belonging to that particular sub group.

875 4. which was initially empty. 1. –309. Find the minimum possible expenditure incurred by the company ‘XYZ’ to manufacture 100 bats.875 2. 975 cm2 2. A company ‘XYZ’ engages three small companies P. B and C. B and C are in the ratio 3: 2: 4. 0 2. Water is flowing through each of these pipes at a different rate (in cm/min). 825 cm2 Given. 3 45. Companies P. 25 and Rs. 675 cm2 4. –196. 10 3. −11 5 4. −16 7 43. 44. 1. One other line is selected and its midpoint is marked as M. 10 000 . 3: 5 4. by the pipes A. 1. Zero What will be the 12th digit from the left in (6007)3? 1. If c = –a × |b| then find the least value of a × c. None of these Find the difference between the number of persons involved from company Q and R in manufacturing bats for company ‘XYZ’ such that the expenditure incurred by the company XYZ is minimum in manufacturing 100 bats. 46. B and C individually is 20 min. One line is selected randomly and its ends are marked as A and B.Q and R can manufacture 2. 2 4. 11 2. Rs. 20 : 9 2. 5: 3 3. Rs. Q and R charge Rs. DIRECTIONS for Questions 41 and 42: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. 2310 4. 12 min Find the ratio of the rates of flow of water through the pipes A and C? 1. 11. It was found that the time taken to fill the tank.1 min 2. 2. None of these 10 parallel lines of length 5 cm each are drawn such that the distance between any two consecutive lines is 1 cm.Q and R to manufacture 100 cricket bats per day. 1.5. DIRECTIONS for Questions 47 and 48: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. The number of persons involved in manufacturing bats for company ‘XYZ’ from company P is not greater than the total number of persons involved in manufacturing bats from companies Q and R. Find the approximate time taken to fill an empty tank when all the three pipes are opened simultaneously? 1. 47. Q and R is involved in making bats.SECTION – II Sub-section II-A: Number of Questions = 30 Note: Questions 41 to 70 carry one mark each.1 min 3. 2460 2. 20. 50 min and 25 min respectively. 9: 20 48. 1. 15 respectively for every bat manufactured by them. 2380 3. 42. 3 and 8 cricket bats per day respectively.5 ≤ b ≤ 5. 10 min 4. 9 4. At least one person from each of the companies P. 41.5and − 7.375 3.5 ≤ a ≤ 7. –421. 9. 8 Find the sum of all the possible values of K for which the equation 2(K – 1)x2 + Kx + (K + 3) = 0 has only one solution (K ≠ 1). A tank of capacity 1000 cubic centimeter is being filled with water by 3 pipes A. Rs. −3. –2 3. The areas of crosssection of the pipes A. Every person in companies P. 525 cm2 3. Rs. 1 3. Find the sum of the areas of all the possible triangles ABM.

Which of the statement is necessarily true about the threedigit number obtained after addition? 1. 4.5 days 4. The digits at unit’s place and hundred’s place are odd. The digit at ten’s place is even or zero. A Q R B 7 15 2 3 P 3. 1.5 days 3. How many integral pairs (x. 3 3. y. −1 2 3. 2 4. Q and R divide the sides BC. 3. 1 4. At how many different points on the X-Y plane do the graphs of the equations (x4 + 8x3 + 17x2 + 10x – 36) and (x4 + 5x3 – 4x 2 – 20x – 36) intersect? 1. 3:2 and 3:2 respectively. 2 3. 0 In the given triangle ABC. The number cannot be a prime number. z. 6 2. 3 2. 51. it is known that x y z = = = k × | k | . it gives another three-digit number. None of these 000 11 . 50. CA and AB in the ratios 1:2. 4 days 2. 2. 2 5 C 38 75 1. Find the ratio of the area of quadrilateral ARPQ to the area of the triangle ABC. 1. 53. points P. 1 2 4. 4. then in how many days all of them working together can complete the same task? 1. Data insufficient For real numbers x. y) satisfy the following set of equations and inequalities? x − 2y = 0 x +2y≤6 y –3x ≤ 3 x – 3y ≤ 6 54. What is the value of ‘k’? 2y + 2z 2z + 2x 2x + 2y 52. A person working with his wife can complete a task in 10 days and completes the same task in 6 days if he works with his son.49. 2. 3. If his wife alone can complete the task in 18 days. 4. The digit at ten’s place is greater than one. not all of which are simultaneously zero. Either (2) or (3) A three digit number is such that when it is written in the reverse order and added to the original number. 1 4 2.

None of these 12 000 . 20 − 4 π − 3 3 20 4. 2 −1 2.. 20 − 3 π − 4 3 20 3. then find the value of x 1.. 3 − 2 2 3.. four identical circles with centres C1. Find the ratio of the area of the region of the rectangle which is not common to any of the four circles to the area of the rectangle. 1243 4. C3 and C4 are drawn as shown in the figure. 2 +1 What is the sum of all the factors of 540? 1.. PQ and RS are tangents to all the four circles and PS and QR are tangents to the circle with center C1 and C4 respectively. C2. 57. 4 1:23 3. then what is the ratio of the surface area of this sphere to the surface area of the original sphere? 1..∞ . 2.. 1. 1 1 : 43 4. 20 − 3 π − 5 3 20 56.55. where the height as well as the radius of each cone is equal to the radius of the original sphere. If one out of these identical cones is melted and moulded to form a sphere. ( a − b) 1− 1 x ≥ ( a+ b ) x +1 (x ≠ 0) 1. 20 − 4 π − 2 3 20 2. 1 1:23 2. Find the largest value of x that satisfies the inequality given below. 1 4. 1170 4. x = 1 2+ 1 2− 1 2+ 1 2− 1 2 + . Cannot be determined uniquely A solid sphere is melted and moulded to form a few identical cones. If . P C1 S C2 C3 C4 Q R In a rectangle PQRS.. 3 +2 2 59. 1680 2. 3 1 : 42 58. 2 −1 3. 2 +1 3. Given that a and b are real numbers and a = b + 1.

3 + 3 cm 2 2 If α and β are the roots of the equation x2 – 9x + 5 =0.DIRECTIONS for Questions 60 and 61: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. Q. 24 3. A student taking the test have to attempt at least one section. 2 β  2α    2 1. ‘S’ is a two-digit number. P. None of these If the percentage of students who attempted all the three sections is found to be 71%. What could be the minimum percentage of students who attempted all the three-sections? 1. 1. 91% attempted VA and 77% attempted DI section. then find the possible percentage of students who attempted only two sections. 5 2. 22% 3. 9 + 6 3 c m 2 3. 61. None of these 64. 26 4. then find the equation whose roots are  α−β β−α   and  . A REAL test contains 3 sections: QA. 21% 3. 30 000 13 . R Q B 1. 24 + 16 3 cm 2 4. R are the mid points of the sides BC. how many numbers ‘S’ are possible? 1. 60. 58% 2. If the number of factors of ‘S’ is prime. CA and AB respectively. 37% 2. 6 + 4 3 cm 2 P C 2. VA and DI. 20x2 – 122x – 61 = 0 2. 10x − 122x − 61 = 0 3. it shows that the 74% of students attempted QA. A 62. Find the area of the triangle ABC. 42% 4. x 2 − 122x − 61 = 0 4. Cannot be determined In the figure given below. radii of the three circles is 1 cm each. Zero 4. When the data of test takers was assimilated. 63.

Q and R divides the sides BC. 22 A units 5 3. then what is the value of (b!)a! − (a!)b! ? 2 1. 1. A square Q1Q2Q3 O is drawn and similarly a quadrant Q 1Q3 with center O is formed. 2r sq. How many distinct circle(s) can be drawn such that they pass through at least 3 of these points? 1. units 3. 2 2.   2 . 2r2 sq. (0. 4 2. CD and DA of the rhombus in the ratio 1:1.65. 7 3. −3 7 4. P1 Q1 Q4 O Q5 Q6 Q3 P2 Q2 Arc P1P2 is the quadrant of the circle with center O. Given that ax + by = 4. 34 A units 7 2. units 4. 14 000 . 3 5 67. (–2. 6 4. Find the sum of areas of all the squares so formed if the radius of the circle having quadrant P1P2O is ‘r’ units. 14 Aunits 3 4. Find the value of (2x – 1) (2y – 1). 1 70.0). A. 1. −2 5 2. ax2 + by2 = 2 and ax3 + by3 = – 3. 5 4.0). Zero 4. 24 A units 5 69. ABCD is a rhombus. Find the area of the rhombus ABCD. Cannot be determined 68. 2     and (2. r2 sq. if the area of the triangle ∆PQR is A units. D and E whose coordinates are (2. Cannot be determined  −3 7  There are 5 points in a plane viz. 10 2. C. 1. B. 1 If a! = b!. 66. 1. 1 2 3. units For which of the following values of ‘k’ does the given pair of equations yield a real solution? x 2 + y2 = 3 y = kx + 2. Points P. Q 4Q5Q6O is another square drawn and this process is continued infinitely. r2 2 sq. 1 3. 3 3. –4).–2). 1:2 and 1:3 respectively.units 2 2.

Two students left the class and were replaced by 4 new students. How much more distance A has travelled at 20 km/hr as compared to the distance travelled at 15 km/hr? 1. Which of the following could be the value of g(–4)? 1. Find the radius of the circle inscribed in the region common to the identical semi-circles. The average age of a student of this class is ‘A’ years. 7r 32 72. Find the value of A. –2 The height of a right pyramid with a regular hexagonal base is 12 cm and the inradius of the base is 16 3 c m . The ratio of C1P1 to PQ is 1 : 7. 71. Data Insufficient. 10 km 3. 74. 1. 2. find the distance between P and R. B travels at 20 km/hr from P to Q and at 15 km/hr from Q to R. 55 km 4. 75. 50 km 3.Sub-section II-B: Number of Questions = 10 Note: Questions 71 to 80 carry two marks each. 1. 1. 15 km 4. 6144 3 cm 3 4. A travels at 15 km/hr from P to Q and at 20 km/hr from Q to R. None of these There are ‘n’ students in a class. Data Inadequate DIRECTIONS for Questions 73 and 74: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. 1. A and B start simultaneously from P and reach R via Q along the same road. –1 3. given that the circle touches the two semi-circles and the line segment P1P2. 24 years 3. 73. A reaches R 10 min before B. 3r 16 3. as shown in the figure. r 4 4. 31. Find the volume of the pyramid. 5 km 2. Incidentally. 1 2. 12288 3 c m 3 3. 76. 3072 3 c m 3 2. 12 years 4. 2 4. the average age of the students in the class did not change. 18432 3 c m 3 000 15 . 36 years 2. The sum of the ages of these 6 students (who left or joined the class) was 72 years.66 km 2. P C1 P1 P2 C2 Q C1 and C2 and centres of two identical semicircles with radius ‘r’ units. Data Insufficient If the time taken to cover PQ to the time taken to cover QR by B is in the ratio 1:2. Given that g(h(x)) = 2x2 + 3x and h(g(x)) = x2 + 4x – 4 for all real values x.

a. 78. c) is a multiple of 23. where the straight lines indicate the plastic coated insulated wires. The spider can move only in the forward direction or downward direction along the wires. c 4.DIRECTIONS for Questions 77 to 79: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. 80. d are such that • The sum of (b. 3 2. d. Find the value of (a × b). b 3. 79. 9 4. Along how many distinct routes it can reach point Q from point P? P Downward Forward Q 1. 32 2. 35 Find the value of (c – d). b. b) is a multiple of 5. c. Four digits a. a 2. 8 3. 24 2. • The sum of (a. b. c. 150 3. 174 16 000 . 26 4. 1. 77. 48 4. d) is a multiple of 9. a) is a multiple of 8. 1 The largest number is 1. and thus a spider cannot touch that wavy portion of the grid. d The figure given below is the metallic grid of interconnected wires. • The sum of (c. • The sum of (d. A particular section of the grid lost the insulation due to high-voltage electrical current (shown as the wavy lines). 1. 40 3.

the rage for “age management” is a ghastly business. Why do we. however. __________ 1. But millions more have surrendered to the knife. for instance. of course. At its core. 4. anything about the English language. 4. a number of attempts have been made to determine the position of aesthetics. I catch a stranger fixing me with a gimlet eye. reflections about aesthetics seem to be less important than epistemology or ethics. 1. You know particular subjects will stir great passion in the chests of a certain section of Radio 4 listeners: ‘elf ‘n’ safety rules. 3. From the given options. __________ 1. All of us. I wrote a first-person story for Washingtonian magazine back in 1989 about getting a facelift — with before-and-after mug shots on the cover. It is one thing we have in common. We all care about language. etc. not be denied. Does she recognize me? Perhaps. Mind-boggling new technologies have blossomed: lasers. my own visage has slid back into its pre-lift contours. of course. it is in Kant’s system that aesthetics was for the first time assigned an autonomous place as a discipline within philosophy. anything about the Union Jack and. 000 17 .__________. You know that a story about cruelty to animals will always get a bigger reaction than one about cruelty to children.SECTION – III Sub-section III-A: Number of Questions = 40 Note: Questions 81 to 120 carry one mark each. 83. claim that a sunset is beautiful? 82. 2. Thinkers such as Schelling and Nietzsche in their own ways sought to rehabilitate aesthetics to the degree that they even claimed this neglected field to be the highest form of philosophy. To most philosophers. it seems at first sight as if aesthetics came as an afterthought. 3. In recent times. I imagine her fishing it out after one of those blood-freezing flashes when she spots her own reflection in a shop window and thinks her mother’s come to town. Even in the philosophy of Immanuel Kant. choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way. microsurgeries. Sometimes. political correctness gone mad. 2. Over the intervening 17 years. Maybe that stranger stashed it in a bedside drawer. and a charming new vocabulary has been born. However. 81. There are one or two certainties on Today. 2. The importance of aesthetics to philosophy can. DIRECTIONS for Questions 81 to 84: Each of the following questions has a paragraph from which the last sentence has been deleted. on reflection. Your concern may be different from the young hoodie’s. 3. wrinkle fillers. out and about. 4. You and I and the slightly menacing young hoodie hanging around on the street corner.

nor even the beginnings of one. if it does conflict. but lost on the names. How many people seek or find the preparation required to deal profitably with issues such as resurrection and the laws of physics? To be genuinely open to truth and able to seek it effectively is surely one of the greatest human attainments. Pluto. The student in question. It implies faith in a cosmic context where one no longer feels the need to hide. This student was walking across campus with a professor whose field is religious studies. Just look at the physics texts and see. The professor’s response: The resurrection is inconsistent with the laws of physics. was too gracious (and perhaps stunned) to force the issue. just as in other contexts. I am convinced that it can come only as a gift of grace. Kepler introduced the word “satellites.84. would have little if any idea where to begin showing that resurrection conflicts with physics—or why it matters. “Science” was vaguely invoked to end the discussion. in fact. William Herschel tried to name his new planet “Georgium Sidus” for King George III. It was a dwarf. I would imagine. “religion” is used for the same purpose.” and Medicean never stuck. it had turned out. When Galileo discovered four “planets” accompanying Jupiter.” after his hoped-for patron. He got the job. and certainly he would have found it difficult to show that the resurrection and physics are not inconsistent or why it doesn’t matter if they are. calling it Uranus instead. who would? Very few. smaller than our moon. 3. This particular professor in any case. Lowell Observatory in Flagstaff. Yet controversy finally caught up with Pluto in 2006. 2. was not a massive object influencing Uranus and Neptune in their courses. A most obvious case is the existence of the physical universe itself. Now. Indeed. Both systems impose edicts on thought and behavior that are never. Choose the best answer to each question. to invoke explanations that really explain nothing at all but simply enable one to hold a position with an appearance of reasonableness. An illustration comes from a recent experience reported by one of my students. DIRECTIONS for Questions 85 to 98: Each of the three passages given below is followed by a set of questions. or proof.__________ 1.. the laws of physics lie at a considerable conceptual distance from phenomena such as human death and decay and their possible reversal. The professor who invoked physics is surrounded constantly with things and events for which no physical explanation yet exists. which incorporated the initials of Boston Brahmin Percival Lowell. as well as of life and human consciousness. Naming has always been a tricky business in astronomy. was luckier with Pluto. he intended to name them “Medicean stars. 18 000 . the academically sanctified dodge is to invoke chance. the student happened to mention the resurrection of Christ. but the international astronomy community would have none of that. and 400 times less massive than the earth. 4. Ariz. for the vast majority of people. an extremely bright as well as devout young man. In their conversation. reduced to anything close to understanding. Passage 1 Students in our colleges and universities live constantly in a tension between two authority systems: one more or less vaguely associated with science and the other with religion. But then the professor probably will never be confronted with the task of actually demonstrating how the resurrection is inconsistent with the laws of physics. When confronted with the de facto inability of physics in this respect. verification. It is painful to observe that our culture provides no friendly meeting place for the authorities of science and religion to engage in good-faith efforts to understand the truth about our life and our world.

85. Blind Faith. It is difficult to imagine anything more necessary and Godlike than this. that it does not fall within the domain of science to explain away such religious phenomena as Resurrection 3. Usually these involve the idea that God’s power is so great that we can say with reference to anything simply that He did it and thus have an explanation that protects us. As long as we recognize that knowledge does not reduce to physics. every reason it should not. Religion or science. indeed. The author wants to prove by giving the example of the student walking with his professor 1. But chance is not something that can produce or explain anything. 000 19 .” rather than thought and knowledge.a subjective choice 86.along with huge spans of time. 87. that professors nowadays are not competent enough to handle intelligent queries posed by students 2. it will not help to have more time to get it done. religion frequently invokes its own non-explanations as a means of holding its ground. Now God’s act as an explanatory principle has an advantage over chance in that we all know something of what it is like for an act or choice to bring something about. Science. it is invoked precisely at the point where there is no known explanation or cause. Personality is a source of energy and causation with an intelligible structure. There’s no need to look further or think further. Religious bigotry. For if it were. is reducible to a series of chimeral assumptions 3. And if something is. the fundamental feature of human life and consciousness would be destroyed or reduced to illusion. we have every right to speak of the possibility of a science that encompasses consciousness in divine and human forms along with the physical and whatever else there may be. that religion and science are largely incompatible 4. which never come into contact.breaking the deadlock 2. for everything to “work. and as long as we understand that science is just knowledge.a blow to science 4. It simply is not a physical structure. The impasse of authorities confronting authorities (or intimidating others) begins to dissolve when prepared and thoughtful people devote themselves to the humble examination of facts and evidence rather than to defending their positions. Rather.” and further. is an essentially corporeal entity 2. physics) supposedly will be able to explain in the future as it continues to make progress. of life’s emerging from the inorganic. derives from the knowledge one gains An appropriate title for the passage will be 1. and producing a Christian personality split into a religious side and a professional. Religion vs. and then we can talk about time. according to the author 1. for example. But the assumptions of this “scientific” evasion are so complicated and culturally protected that most people confronting it do not realize they have been handed intellectual sawdust instead of bread. impossible. to invoke the promise of what science (really. and once you think about it. We need a demonstration of the possibility. But there is no good reason it should be.which side will win? 3. Unfortunately. has a metaphysical aspect to it 4. that proponents of both science an religion dogmatically espouse their own explanations as the final say Personality. Blind Science vs. intellectual side. Nothing comparable can be said of chance. We must escape the cultural deadlock that is turning universities—and churches—into places of “right views.

Carr. put it somewhat differently when he noted that history is little more than the collective “memory of things said and done. Quantitative history. one could say the same of the present. (Of course.10 Nor can they isolate the variables in a past event for closer study in the same way scientists— 20 000 . Put differently. History. “history from below. is the historian’s interpretation of what happened. Hence. or altogether wrong about the past.” Carl Becker. is not the past. is what happened. Academic status quo has ensured that chance is acceptably invoked where no scientific explanation is possible 4. the renowned American historian of the early 20th century. led her to a correct interpretation. Davis remains convinced that her historical imagination. intellectual history.” The rub for historians is that the available evidence concerning the past is rarely sufficient. contrary to popular assumption. The terms are commonly. However. for example.) Indeed. The past. or is too abundant. developing a question or a hypothesis. They cannot duplicate Pickett’s charge at the battle of Gettysburg with all the variables exactly as they were. those views are not necessarily universal and would not necessarily hold up under cross-examination. then conducting further experiments to confirm the revised hypothesis. it is also highly idiosyncratic. for instance. conducting experiments to test it. they have no objective references for determining (beyond a reasonable doubt) to what extent the histories they write either capture or deviate from the past. Natalie Zemon Davis. perhaps. used her “historical imagination” to compensate for a lack of evidence about the feelings and motives of her central character. or further to the left. Davis essentially invented what Guerre’s wife said and did based on her assessment of the attitudes of other women of that period. or more to the right. history is just like human memory—fallible and prone to selective recall.” Thus. one must “study the historian before studying the facts. while historians may be certain of the correctness of their interpretations. The fundamental problem for historians is that.88. Although historians may begin their research with a question or hypothesis. historians sometimes resort to educated guesses to fill the gaps left by insufficient evidence. Yet none of those procedures can lay claim to the reliability of the scientific method—that is. they cannot conduct the various experiments necessary to determine whether the main conclusions they have drawn about what happened are in fact valid.” and oral history. and inevitably imperfect. the lack of hard evidence to support her view means that other interpretations are certainly possible. cultivated by extensive immersion in the available sources. Churches have now become institutes that now perpetrate debauchery and vice in the name of religious beliefs Passage 2 History. warned. they have nothing resembling the scientific method to aid them in determining whether what they have written is somewhat right. a respected historian at Princeton University and author of the widely acclaimed historical work Return of Martin Guerre. and then change a few of them to determine whether the Confederate assault might have succeeded under different circumstances: earlier or later in the day. a British historian of considerable note. mostly right. and finally reaching a conclusion. As such. simply put. As Michael Howard stressed. as E. but incorrectly. The promise that science holds for the future is not something that can be banked upon now 2. in contrast. revising the original hypothesis. to permit of only one interpretation. Religion has been reduced to nothing more than a punching bag by supporters of science 3. H. aside from being able to refer to such demonstrable facts as do exist. Thus. history is merely what “historians write. each employ different methods. Martin Guerre’s wife. used interchangeably. It can be inferred that 1.

A truth remains hidden to humanity until someone uncovers it 3. 92. its failure to adopt an interdisciplinary approach 4. for example—can separate the key elements in a compound. Yet neither is necessarily right. In fact. 89.chemists. The ambiguity of Historical Truth makes historical training a thing of little use 4.H. Carr 4. None of the above According to the author. Search for Historical Truth has now given way to the search for Plausibility To whom does the passage attribute the statement ‘Study the historian before studying the facts’? 1.” . including the works of other historians who may indeed only be offering their best guesses as to what those fragments mean. the facts do not speak. Natalie Zemon Davis 3. or—for those inclined to buck convention (which requires a certain training of its own)—what they want to see. However. E. historians tended to view that era’s military theory and doctrine through a “lens colored red by the seemingly prolonged and futile slaughter of 1914-18. We might not be able to recognize Pickett’s charge itself as a charge. 91. serves as “prologue” to the past. Thus. without the historical context. “Left to themselves. as historian Christopher Bassford once noted. Hence. either. the facts do not speak’ implies 1. This proved to be the case with historical interpretations of military thinking before the First World War. . Removing all the elements surrounding Pickett’s charge does not make the charge any easier to understand. Historical Truth remains in the eye of the beholder 2. unable to tell us much about itself. the impact of recent events or experiences sometimes causes historians to focus on factors and values that are quite different from what the historical actors had in mind—perhaps giving those factors and values an artificial existence. the past is likely to remain essentially mute. its inability to confirm its hypotheses through experimentation 3. Statements made by historians can be seldom relied upon 3. . historians tend to see in the past what they have been trained to see. history lags behind science in 1. A fact needs to be publicized before it gains public acceptance 4. There is no fact until someone’s interpretation is affirmed as one 2. 000 21 . . Neither tendency is necessarily wrong. subjective measures tend merely to reinforce a veritable Cartesian circle of interpretation: historians write what they do based in part on the fragments of the past.11 In addition. historians—to aid them in capturing the past.1 As Carl Becker said. not having the same level of training imparted to its practitioners 2.” and thus reinforced one another in a series of misunderstandings. To be sure. perhaps more accomplished. It can be inferred from the passage that 1. but how they see those fragments is largely influenced by knowledge they have gained in the present. the inability of historians to be as open-minded as scientists are 90. historians do have recourse to certain subjective measures—such as their abundant reviews of each other’s books and access to the advice of other. the present. Michael Howard 2. Christopher Bassford The statement ‘Left to themselves.

and energy. but years later A. In the course of the century. It was also. the relativity of simultaneity formed the basis for all subsequent discussion. The piece was unsigned. When the particles reach the top of the atmosphere. of course. jumped on Einstein: Wasn’t it ridiculous to make the claim on the basis of no direct evidence whatsoever—that time itself could slow down? And wouldn’t various paradoxes and absurdities result from this kind of elasticity of time? Would an astronaut who traveled in a rocket ship at high velocity age less than his twin who stayed at home? If time could slow down as a result of motion at high speed. This first occurred in 1941. Difference between History and the Past 2. In the early years. The relativistic effects also became the basis for new technologies. experimental support for relativity theory was meager: full vindication of Albert Einstein’s ideas was still to come. An appropriate title for the passage will be 1. Both in Einstein’s technical paper of 1905 and in Relativity Clear and Simple .Reliable no more 4. Einstein showed that moving clocks as compared with stationary clocks would run slow as a result of their motion. would time reverse if one went fast enough? Discussion of time dilation left the realm of the fanciful when it became possible to verify this effect in a direct manner. History. for a period of more than thirty years. In particular. This was the most revolutionary conclusion of relativity theory.H. these results would receive direct and very striking experimental confirmation. The disruption of time was the most fundamental conclusion. He was a fellow of the Royal Society of Canada and came from a different field of science: he was editor of the sevenvolume Researches in Fungi. he necessarily concluded that time itself passed more slowly in a moving frame of reference and the faster the motion of the reference frame. Looking beyond the Past Passage 3 In December of 1923 a piece of doggerel appeared in Punch. The Subjective nature of History 3.93. The earth is continually bombarded by atomic particles from outer space. stretches out. the slower the passage of time. in a moving reference frame. Subatomic debris is produced. time. These swiftly moving particles are the “primary” cosmic rays. Reginald Buller stepped forward to claim authorship. Critics of relativity theory. This was called time dilation: time slows down. which then travel downward toward the surface 22 000 . whose continued functioning would verify these effects every day and every passing hour. such as Global Positioning Systems (GPS). Relativity theory had drawn startling conclusions concerning the four most basic physical quantities-length. constituting the “secondary” cosmic rays. they collide with atomic nuclei. when time dilation was detected in experiments on cosmic rays. mass. poking fun at Albert Einstein’s newly famous theory of relativity. As Einstein was philosophically committed to the idea that time was nothing more nor less than what you could measure with standardized clocks. completely unsupported by any direct experimental evidence.

They travel at velocities comparable to that of light 4. Given the short lifetimes of the muons and the long distances they have to travel to get down to the surface of the earth. given the velocities at which they travel.S. following which they were compared again with their counterpart. which should be measurable by an atomic clock. 94. the clocks were synchronized with a master clock at the U. Consider flying in an airplane at five hundred miles per hour. The muons are traveling at velocities comparable to the velocity of light. After correcting for the rotation of the earth and the variation of the force of gravity with altitude. it sat. We are told that the researchers purchased three around-the-world tickets on regularly scheduled commercial airliners-two tickets for the accompanying scientists and one for an array of four atomic clocks. verification of time dilation has become possible with the development of a device known as an atomic clock. Calculations on the basis of Einstein’s equation for the time dilation. the functioning of GPS has unarguably proved that the veracity of the Relativity Theory is under doubt. belted in for safety. In 1971. relativity Theory. For those who are not particle physicists. and their internal “clocks” should slow down as a result—in accordance with Einstein’s prediction—so that many more are able to reach the surface of the earth than would be otherwise expected. and by exactly the amount predicted by the theory of relativity. In particular. The clock array had its own seat. between its two caretakers. Which of the following statements about muons is validated by the passage? 1. one can calculate that. and air travelers have not noticed their watches running slow as a result of this effect. has been of little practical use in advanced technologies. which received some support from the Office of Naval Research. so that they can travel longer distances than expected. large numbers can be detected. 2. Very few muons actually travel down to the surface of the earth 3. verifying the effect quite convincingly. the moving muons have longer lifetimes than expected. The four clocks then went around the world. having an average lifetime of about a millionth of a second. 3. It can be inferred that 1.many more than expected. which can measure time intervals to a precision of one part in a trillion. show that the expected effort is a slowing down by about one part in a trillion. It appears that. 000 23 . The research team was able to devise a cheap and effective plan. though proven to be right. Muons are highly unstable particles. however. The result was further confirmed in a second around-the-world flight in the opposite direction. They are the only known stable elementary particle 95. Before leaving on the trip. 4. However. a team of scientists who were experts in the use of atomic clocks set out to detect and measure time dilation and other relativistic effects. Naval Observatory. This is exactly what would be expected on the basis of time dilation. which had stayed behind at the Naval Observatory. very few of them should actually make it down to sea level. experiments in recent years have to major extent verified the conclusions of the Relativity theory. Precise experiments on muons gave results exactly in accord with Einstein’s equation for time dilation. the Relativity Theory still continues to be ridiculed by many scientists worldwide. Experimental technologies used in particle physics have come to rely on time dilation for their successful day-to-day operation.of the earth. particles called muons are produced in the upper atmosphere and move downward toward the surface. somehow. This produces minimal time dilation. They have an average life span of about a second 2. it was found that the clocks that had been in motion in their journey around the earth had in fact slowed as compared with the clock at the Naval Observatory.

hidden luck 4. 98. enemy in or disaster from unexpected quarters 3. showing no emotion 2. 99. encouragement. The experiment was conducted by scientists from the Office of Naval Research According to the passage. a face strewn with marks 3. Choose the option which most appropriately defines the phrase. water down 1. Einstein’s theory 1.96. a lift 3. drew startling conclusions about all the basic physical quantities except mass It became possible to verify the conclusions that Relativity Theory had reached in the year 1. the experiment turned out to be a very costly affair 2. energy. a face full of deceit 100. deceit or lure from the least expected front 24 000 . reducing flood waters 2. concludes that faster the motion of the reference frame. The experiment proved that time dilation happens only under laboratory-induced conditions 3. The results of the experiment were verified by another similar one 4. 1941 2. a direct insult 2. a face with no expression. a lot of excitement about a small problem 2. a shot in the arm 1. faster is the passage of time 4. Although successful. 1971 3. a tempest in a teapot 1. a poker face 1. Which of the following statements about the experiment conducted by scientists in 1971 is supported by the passage? 1. add water to dilute 4. considers relativity of simultaneity as the basis for any discussion on time 3. DIRECTIONS for Questions 99 to 102: In each of the following questions four possible meanings are given for the phrase on top of the table. 1905 97. to soothe or calm someone 101. sees time as an entity that transcends what can be measured with standardized clocks 2. to extend a helping hand 102. a face exhibiting shame and utter embarrassment 4. 1923 4. exposing weaknesses 3. a minor injury 4.

which are still accessible to visitors and in many ways more attractive to mountain walkers since they comprise a complete range of mountains. Ry. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph. rising to 3932m. ADBC 105. 1. But Eva had other ideas. 1. Buffett has pledged to gradually give 85% of his Berkshire stock to five foundations. when the area was being promoted as a tourist destination. C. DBAC 3. Eva was given a small part in a school play. In the fast receding glimmer of the night. On that spring day his plan was uncertain in some of its details. not only because it is the highest summit in Turkey but also for its historical significance. DACB 000 25 .” he said. The elevation of Ghoom is 7. B. “I know what I want to do. today it is essentially complete. Juana’s plans for her went no further than finishing primary school. breaking the mold of how extremely rich people donate money. BADC 3. BDAC 106. flag waving melodrama. ABCD 3. B. thought by some to be the remains of Noah’s Ark. A. D. We acclimatised in the Kackar mountains. B. C.” C. We were lucky to visit it in 1988. the highest railway station on the D.H. while the altitude of the top of this hill exceeds that of Ghoom by 1. form a coherent paragraph. DABC 2. 1. plunged in hush and silence and steeped in frigid cold.DIRECTIONS for Questions 103 to 106: The sentences given in each question. CADB 4. D. rather than the isolated volcanic cone of Ararat. an emotional. Each sentence is labelled with a letter. C. although actually most probably a natural rock phenomenon with the shape of an enormous ship. “and it makes sense to get going. BCAD 2. B. 103. D. A. DCAB 104. Our ascent was preceded by a visit to a recent discovery. 1. then helping out in her new boarding house. the Taj Mahal by moonlight and sunrise from Tiger Hill. BDCA 3. In October of 1933. A. Ararat is the great prize however for mountain collectors.100 feet. D. A. DBAC 4.407 feet from sea level. A traveller whose vision has not been entertained with the two sights. ACDB 4. She was a quiet girl who kept to herself and liked to day dream. the spectator finds himself standing on the mound bedewed with sparkling frost. Eva’s three sisters had secured good marriages and as for Eva. CABD 4. The trip to the summit of the hill is through Ghoom. a period of relative calm. when properly sequenced. And it is typical Buffett: rational. ABCD 2. ADBC 2. has missed a pleasure that does not lend itself to be substituted. original.

112. 4. Select the option that indicates the grammatically incorrect and inappropriate sentence(s). His performance was above description. Above 1. Compare the cinema with theatre. 2. Ancient alchemists believes that. Both are dramatic arts. The dam was positioned ten miles above the city. 2. He frowned on the slightest show of emotion. 110. 3. 1 & 2 2. Pseudoscience focused on the attempt to change base metals into gold. the word at the top of the table is used in four different ways. 2. 3. Apart for a few scratches. Some sentences are grammatically incorrect or inappropriate. 4. Show 1. The building was falling apart from decay. 111. Deep in the nature of theatre is a sense of ritual. Apart 1. He is above all trickery. 1 & 2 3. 1 2. Our birthdays are three days apart. 4 DIRECTIONS for Questions 110 to 112: In each question. 3 3. Choose the option in which the usage of the word is INCORRECT or INAPPROPRIATE. 4. Some of the literary devices that Swift uses in Gulliver’s Travels are lampoonery and irony. 1. 3. 107. 2 & 3 4. Swift wrote the novel as a parody of travel books and an indictment of mankind. Theatre brings actors before public and every night during the season they re-enact the same drama. 4 4. 4 109. 1 & 3 4. 1. Does my slip show? In spite of his promise he didn't show down. from China and India to Greece. 2. The actor's tears had the show of grief. under the correct astrological conditions. 3 108. 3. 1. You must keep some money apart for your education. 2 & 3 3. 3. 4. lead could be “perfected” into gold. 1 2. 1. Jonathan Swift wrote Gulliver’s Travels with intent of entertaining many people. 4. 3. They tried to hasten this transformation by heating and refining the metal in variety of chemical processes. 1.DIRECTIONS for Questions 107 to 109: Each question consists of four sentences on a topic. Entertainments through satire is what Swift had in mind. numbered 1 to 4. 2. 26 000 . the bike was unharmed. The above will certainly stand trial. most of which were kept secret. Alchemy was practiced in much of the ancient world. 2. 4. 1.

blithe 4. gale 114. deprecate: If someone deprecates something. froward: A froward child is likely to be wilfully insubordinate. knell 2. dénouement 4. sodden 3. marginalize 4. 1. impetrate 2. fitful 4. inveigle: Those who attempt to inveigle you will lead you astray. manifesto 2. 1. Beneath each sentence. Pick the word from the alternatives given that is most appropriate in the given context. prerogative 116. The universe constantly expanding renders each ________ element of that universe smaller. The artist’s ________ is to create art — an object for the viewer’s contemplation. unguent 2. ferret DIRECTIONS for Questions 117 to 120: For each of the words below. wile 2. clamorous 118. recreancy: A person exhibiting recreancy will be extremely coward. laud 4. lachrymose 2. he would disapprove strongly of it. a contextual usage is provided. part of the sentence is left blank. recalcitrant 4. 1. tempestuous 4. 113. discrete 115. recusant 4. 117. inordinate 3. four different ways of completing the sentence are indicated. contemn 120. 1. Films and other media ________ all those who are no longer young. squelch 3. A ________ of rain is all it takes to set off some earthquakes. tergiversation 2. extirpate 3. 1. Choose the best alternative from among the four. 1. 1. disavowing 3. 1.DIRECTIONS for Questions 113 to 116: In each of the following sentences. spate 3. pusillanimity 119. acquiescent 3. excoriate 2. benediction 3. reprehend 000 27 .

and Kanbay International. namely. it strengthens Capgemini’s presence in North America and confirms the Group’s ambition in this market. Passage Capgemini.9% of Kanbay’s outstanding shares from certain core shareholders.3% to the average price during the month prior to announcement. The anticipated EPS accretion is in excess of 5% in 2007 and 10% in 2008. This acquisition is fully in line with Capgemini’s expansion strategy.” Capgemini Chief Executive Officer. it positions Capgemini as a leader in the Financial Services sector . This transaction is expected to have a positive impact on Capgemini’s earnings per share. customers and employees. Thus. Capgemini also shares our existing vision and stated strategy. Spencer. It is expected that the transaction will close by early 2007. Life Sciences and the Travel & Leisure verticals.” 28 000 . the two organizations will benefit from complementary business philosophies and cultures. a global IT services firm focused on the financial services industry. Capgemini is in a position to fully finance this transaction with its significant end of year net cash position. it significantly increases Capgemini’s presence in India (+89% based on Q3 figures).which accounts for 22% of the global IT market – and enhances its domain expertise. The transaction values Kanbay’s share capital including vested stock options. Capgemini has entered into share purchase agreements to acquire 14. Financial Services and Insurance (BFSI) practice. It doesn’t exclude to raise up to 500 million euros in equity to rebuild room for manoeuvre and participate to a possible further movement of consolidation. Under the terms of the merger agreement. announced today that they have entered into a definitive merger agreement. In addition. The combined company would have headcount reaching 12. a world-class IT services provider. will join the top management of Capgemini. including Kanbay’s shareholders approval and anti-trust clearance. The transaction is subject to customary closing conditions. Mr. supports our growth strategy and significantly enhances our global Banking. warrants and restricted shares at $1.000 employees by the end of 2006 in India which would therefore become the second largest country (with 16% of total headcount). Technology and Outsourcing services. This represents a premium of 15. Telecommunications.Sub-section III-B: Number of Questions = 5 Note: Questions 121 to 125 carry two marks each. The Boards of Directors of Capgemini and Kanbay have approved the transaction.25 billion. Spencer stated: “The combination of Kanbay with Capgemini is very exciting news for our shareholders. Raymond J. this deal represents a continuation of our existing approach.000 associates. particularly in North America and India. Chairman and Chief Executive Officer of Kanbay. The acquisition also gives us valuable capabilities in Consumer and Industrial Products. one of the world’s foremost providers of Consulting. DIRECTIONS for Questions 121 to 123: The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. In addition. Capgemini will acquire all of the outstanding common shares of Kanbay for $29 per share in cash.9% to Kanbay’s closing share price on Wednesday October 25 and 28. Choose the best answer to each question. While this transaction creates excellent value for shareholders. Both decision and timing will be subject to the then prevailing market conditions. where Kanbay has over 5. Paul Hermelin noted: “The acquisition of Kanbay. Media.

3. Hermelin. Skadden. and Latham & Watkins (as special anti-trust counsel) acted as legal advisers to Capgemini in connection with the transaction. An anti-trust clearance is mandatory for a merger agreement. 123. This event can fundamentally transform the professional services industry by enabling efficient global services delivery via an integrated single point solution delivered in a seamless fashion resulting in a lower total cost of ownership for the client. intimacy with our clients and innovation” underlines Mr. our clients and our people. One of the prime reason behind Capgemini’s acquisition of Kanbay is 1. the lower total cost of ownership for the client post-merger. the expected rise in EPS of Capgemini post-merger. the strong presence Kanbay commands in India. The merger is a landmark event in the IT services industry 4. seamless consulting and technology expertise. Arps. Kanbay International will probably cease to exist as an entity 2. Capgemini will undergo a change in branding 3. 2. Slate. It fits in perfectly with the Group’s expansion program called I cubed which focuses on three levers: industrialization. 4.” The combination of Kanbay and Capgemini creates a top-tier global IT services firm with unparalleled domain knowledge in the financial services vertical. and market leading offshore resources. According to the passage after the transaction is concluded: 1. 000 29 .5% revenue growth at constant rates and perimeter in the 2006 third quarter. 3. 122. none of the above will take place. UBS Securities LLC acted as financial adviser to Kanbay and provided a fairness opinion in connection with the transaction. the strong presence Capgemini commands in North America. Winston & Strawn LLP acted as legal adviser to Kanbay in connection with the transaction. Paul Hermelin and Raymond Spencer concluded: “We believe this is a landmark transaction in the global IT services industry. 121.“The acquisition of Kanbay is excellent news for our shareholders. the Group posts a 13. Meagher & Flom LLP. The fundamental values of Kanbay and Capgemini overlap each other. 2. the new entity will realize its expansion programmes 4. “This acquisition occurs in a context of strong momentum for Capgemini: after releasing good H1 results.” Lazard Freres and Morgan Stanley acted as financial advisors to Capgemini in connection with the transaction. Which of the following statements cannot be inferred from the above paragraph? 1. Kanbay and Capgemini individually are in complementary lines of businesses.

in the December 2005 edition of the famous magazine “Economist” in America there is an article “Western district under Chinese pressure” and in this article it is written: “in Uygurs’ territory because of rise of dissatisfaction of Muslim people who are not of Chinese origin. and seven communities in Westchester. Of course. 3. 2. 125. 1. 124.S. the Chinese government may apply a policy which was applied before in 1997 in Guldja”. several New Jersey towns. its use is being increasingly banned because of its environmental implications. who has been manipulating its policies to benefit from it. saying they were nuisances. three Chicago suburbs. Eastern Turkistan is under immense pressure from the Chinese government because it wants to destabilize the district. including Scarsdale. leaf blowers are used for every aspect of yard clean-up. In addition. Eastern Turkistan is under immense pressure from the Chinese government because of its miniscule population of Muslims who are not of Chinese origin. if we look at real situation in Eastern Turkistan. have restrictions or seasonal bans. peace and stability are also the dearest wish of the Uygurs. 1. Though the leaf blower saves water and was immensely popular during the initial phase of its introduction. 2. and it will become obvious that the policy of the Central government of China against the Uygurs was in comparison even worse than in previous years.and this is well known to the world. a drought in California led to water conservation. since there is no people who likes to live in an environment not peaceful and stabile. there are more than 8 million gas-powered leaf blowers in the country today. California is the most environmentally proactive state followed by Illinois as at least 40 communities in California currently have bans or restrictions on leaf blowers. estimates by the U. At least 40 communities in California currently have bans or restrictions on leaf blowers. we realize that it was the Chinese government who was destabilizing and breaking peace in this territory and has been greatly benefiting from that . Let’s have a look on the political situation of Eastern Turkistan for one year. Eastern Turkistan is under immense pressure from the Chinese government owing to the difference in methods of planting seeds 4. According to industry estimates.5 million expected to be sold next year. Throughout the 1980s. Eastern Turkistan is under immense pressure from the Chinese government.DIRECTIONS for Questions 124 and 125: Four alternative summaries are given below each text. However. It has foreseen that the Chinese way of planting seeds. Today. However. By 1976. 4. The leaf blower is a great way to conserve water and at the same time keeps yards effectively clean. and leaf blowers replaced hoses to clean driveways and sidewalks. 30 000 . other communities in California enacted restrictions on the blowers. Despite bans on the use of the leaf blower. with another 1. it replaced hoses to clean driveways and sidewalks. In the mid-1970s. 3. restricting leaf blowers has become popular elsewhere too. and as environmental awareness has heightened and more people have started to work at home. Environmental Protection Agency put the country’s gas-powered leaf blower population at closer to 3 million. will give its results in the future. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the text. Leaf blowers were first used by gardeners in the early 1970s in California. Beverly Hills had banned blowers. which will destabilise and break peace in this area. its popularity is on the rise as reflected by its burgeoning sales figure. For example.

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