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I - INTRODUCTION TO DATABASE 1. The DBMS acts as an interface between what two components of an enterpriseclass database system? A.

Database application and the database B. Data and the database C. The user and the database application D. Database application and SQL Answer: Option A 2. Which of the following products was an early implementation of the relational model developed by E.F. Codd of IBM? A. IDMS B. DB2 C. dBase-II D. R:base Answer: Option B 3. The following are components of a database except ________ . A. user data B. metadata C. reports D. indexes Answer: Option C 4. An application where only one user accesses the database at a given time is an example of a(n) ________ . A. single-user database application B. multiuser database application C. e-commerce database application D. data mining database application Answer: Option A

5. An on-line commercial site such as Amazon.com is an example of a(n) ________ . A. single-user database application B. multiuser database application C. e-commerce database application D. data mining database application Answer: Option C 6. Which of the following products was the first to implement true relational algebra in a PC DBMS? A. IDMS B. Oracle C. dBase-II D. R:base Answer: Option D

B. creating databases C. processing data D. administrating databases Answer: Option A 10. Helping people keep track of things is the purpose of a(n) ________ . A. database B. table C. instance D. relationship Answer: Option A 11. Which of the following products implemented the CODASYL DBTG model? A. IDMS B. DB2 C. dBase-II D. R:base Answer: Option A

7. SQL stands for ________ . A. Structured Query Language B. Sequential Query Language C. Structured Question Language D. Sequential Question Language Answer: Option A 8. Because it contains a description of its own structure, a database is considered to be ________ . A. described B. metadata compatible C. self-describing D. an application program Answer: Option C

12. An Enterprise Resource Planning application is an example of a(n) ________ . A. single-user database application B. multiuser database application C. e-commerce database application D. data mining database application Answer: Option B 13. A DBMS that combines a DBMS and an application generator is ________ . A. Microsoft's SQL Server B. Microsoft's Access C. IBM's DB2 D. Oracle Corporation's Oracle Answer: Option B

9. The following are functions of a DBMS except ________ . A. creating and processing forms

14. You have run an SQL statement that asked the DBMS to display data in a table named USER_TABLES. The results include columns of data labeled

"TableName," "NumberOfColumns" and "PrimaryKey." You are looking at ________ . A. user data. B. metadata C. A report D. indexes Answer: Option B

A. REMOVE FROM CUSTOMER ... B. DROP FROM CUSTOMER ... C. DELETE FROM CUSTOMER WHERE ... D. UPDATE FROM CUSTOMER ... Answer: Option C 3. The SQL WHERE clause:

A. A virtual table that can be accessed via SQL commands B. A virtual table that cannot be accessed via SQL commands C. A base table that can be accessed via SQL commands D. A base table that cannot be accessed via SQL commands Answer: Option A

15. Which of the following is not considered to be a basic element of an enterprise-class database system? A. Users B. Database applications C. DBMS D. COBOL programs Answer: Option D

A. limits the column data that are returned. B. limits the row data are returned. C. Both A and B are correct. D. Neither A nor B are correct. Answer: Option B

7. The command to eliminate a table from a database is: A. REMOVE TABLE CUSTOMER; B. DROP TABLE CUSTOMER; C. DELETE TABLE CUSTOMER; D. UPDATE TABLE CUSTOMER; Answer: Option B 8. ON UPDATE CASCADE ensures which of the following? A. Normalization B. Data Integrity C. Materialized Views D. All of the above. Answer: Option B 9. SQL data definition commands make up a(n) ________ . A. DDL B. DML C. HTML D. XML Answer: Option A 10. Which of the following is valid SQL for an Index? A. CREATE INDEX ID; B. CHANGE INDEX ID; C. ADD INDEX ID; D. REMOVE INDEX ID; Answer: Option A

16. The DBMS that is most difficult to use is ________ . A. Microsoft's SQL Server B. Microsoft's Access C. IBM's DB2 D. Oracle Corporation's Oracle Answer: Option D _____________________________ II - INTRODUCTION TO SQL

4. Which of the following is the original purpose of SQL? A. To specify the syntax and semantics of SQL data definition language B. To specify the syntax and semantics of SQL manipulation language C. To define the data structures D. All of the above. Answer: Option D 5. The wildcard in a WHERE clause is useful when? A. An exact match is necessary in a SELECT statement. B. An exact match is not possible in a SELECT statement. C. An exact match is necessary in a CREATE statement. D. An exact match is not possible in a CREATE statement. Answer: Option B 6. A view is which of the following?

1. You can add a row using SQL in a database with which of the following? A. ADD B. CREATE C. INSERT D. MAKE Answer: Option C 2. The command to remove rows from a table 'CUSTOMER' is:

11. The SQL keyword(s) ________ is used with wildcards. A. LIKE only B. IN only C. NOT IN only D. IN and NOT IN Answer: Option A

C. SUM, AVG, MULT, DIV, MIN D. SUM, AVG, MIN, MAX, NAME Answer: Option A 16. In an SQL SELECT statement querying a single table, according to the SQL-92 standard the asterisk (*) means that: A. all columns of the table are to be returned. B. all records meeting the full criteria are to be returned. C. all records with even partial criteria met are to be returned. D. None of the above is correct. Answer: Option A

19. To remove duplicate rows from the results of an SQL SELECT statement, the ________ qualifier specified must be included. A. ONLY B. UNIQUE C. DISTINCT D. SINGLE Answer: Option C

12. Which of the following is the correct order of keywords for SQL SELECT statements? A. SELECT, FROM, WHERE B. FROM, WHERE, SELECT C. WHERE, FROM,SELECT D. SELECT,WHERE,FROM Answer: Option A 13. A subquery in an SQL SELECT statement is enclosed in: A. braces -- {...}. B. CAPITAL LETTERS. C. parenthesis -- (...) . D. brackets -- [...]. Answer: Option C

20. The benefits of a standard relational language include which of the following? A. Reduced training costs B. Increased dependence on a single vendor C. Applications are not needed. D. All of the above. Answer: Option A 21. Which of the following do you need to consider when you make a table in SQL? A. Data types B. Primary keys C. Default values D. All of the above. Answer: Option D 22. SQL query and modification commands make up a(n) ________ . A. DDL B. DML C. HTML D. XML Answer: Option B 23. When three or more AND and OR conditions are combined, it is easier to use the SQL keyword(s): A. LIKE only. B. IN only. C. NOT IN only. D. Both IN and NOT IN. Answer: Option D

17. The HAVING clause does which of the following? A. Acts like a WHERE clause but is used for groups rather than rows. B. Acts like a WHERE clause but is used for rows rather than columns. C. Acts like a WHERE clause but is used for columns rather than groups. D. Acts EXACTLY like a WHERE clause. Answer: Option A

14. The result of a SQL SELECT statement is a(n) ________ . A. report B. form C. file D. table Answer: Option D

15. Which of the following are the five built-in functions provided by SQL? A. COUNT, SUM, AVG, MAX, MIN B. SUM, AVG, MIN, MAX, MULT

18. The SQL -92 wildcards are ____ and ____ . A. asterisk (*); percent sign (%) B. percent sign (%); underscore (_) C. underscore(_); question mark (?) D. question mark (?); asterisk (*) Answer: Option B

24. The Microsoft Access wildcards are ____ and ____ . A. asterisk (*); percent sign (%) B. percent sign (%); underscore (_) C. underscore(_); question mark (?) D. question mark (?); asterisk (*) Answer: Option D 25. Find the SQL statement below that is equal to the following: SELECT NAME FROM CUSTOMER WHERE STATE = 'VA'; A. SELECT NAME IN CUSTOMER WHERE STATE IN ('VA'); B. SELECT NAME IN CUSTOMER WHERE STATE = 'VA'; C. SELECT NAME IN CUSTOMER WHERE STATE = 'V'; D. SELECT NAME FROM CUSTOMER WHERE STATE IN ('VA'); Answer: Option D 26. Which one of the following sorts rows in SQL? A. SORT BY B. ALIGN BY C. ORDER BY D. GROUP BY Answer: Option C 27. To sort the results of a query use: A. SORT BY. B. GROUP BY. C. ORDER BY. D. None of the above is correct. Answer: Option C 28. To define what columns should be displayed in an SQL SELECT statement:

A. use FROM to name the source table(s) and list the columns to be shown after SELECT. B. use USING to name the source table(s) and list the columns to be shown after SELECT. C. use SELECT to name the source table(s) and list the columns to be shown after USING. D. use USING to name the source table(s) and list the columns to be shown after WHERE. Answer: Option A

A. can only be used with two tables. B. can always be duplicated by a join. C. has a distinct form that cannot be duplicated by a join. D. cannot have its results sorted using ORDER BY. Answer: Option C 33. ________ was adopted as a national standard by ANSI in 1992. A. Oracle B. SQL C. Microsoft Access D. DBase Answer: Option B 34. SQL is: A. a programming language. B. an operating system. C. a data sublanguage. D. a DBMS. Answer: Option C _________ III - THE RELATIONAL MODEL AND NORMALIZATION 1. Every time attribute A appears, it is matched with the same value of attribute B, but not the same value of attribute C. Therefore, it is true that: A. A B. B. A C. C. A (B,C). D. (B,C) A. Answer: Option A 2. The different classes of relations created by the technique for preventing modification anomalies are called: A.normal forms. B.referential integrity constraints.

29. SQL can be used to: A. create database structures only. B. query database data only. C. modify database data only. D. All of the above can be done by SQL. Answer: Option D 30. The SQL statement that queries or reads data from a able is ________ . A. SELECT B. READ C. QUERY D. None of the above is correct. Answer: Option A 31. The SQL keyword BETWEEN is used: A. for ranges. B. to limit the columns displayed. C. as a wildcard. D. None of the above is correct. Answer: Option A 32. A subquery in an SQL SELECT statement:

C.functional dependencies. D.None of the above is correct. Answer: Option A 3. A relation is in this form if it is in BCNF and has no multivalued dependencies: A. second normal form. B. third normal form. C. fourth normal form. D. domain/key normal form. Answer: Option C 4. Row is synonymous with the term: A.recorD. B.relation. C.column. D.field. Answer: Option A 5. The primary key is selected from the: A. composite keys. B. determinants. C. candidate keys. D. foreign keys. Answer: Option C 6. Which of the following is a group of one or more attributes that uniquely identifies a row? A.Key B. Determinant C.Tuple D.Relation Answer: Option A 7. When the values in one or more attributes being used as a foreign key must exist in another set of one or more attributes in another table, we have created a(n): A.transitive dependency. B.insertion anomaly. C.referential integrity constraint. D.normal form. Answer: Option C

8. A relation is considered a: A. Column. B.one-dimensional table. C.two-dimensional table. D.three-dimensional table. Answer: Option C 9. In the relational model, relationships between relations or tables are created by using: A. composite keys. B. determinants. C. candidate keys. D. foreign keys. Answer: Option D

undesirable consequences called: A. referential integrity constraints. B. modification anomalies. C. normal forms. D. transitive dependencies. Answer: Option B

10. A functional dependency is a relationship between or among: A.tables. B.rows. C.relations. D.attributes. Answer: Option D 11. Table is synonymous with the term A.recorD. B.relation. C.column. D.field. Answer: Option B

14. A key: A. must always be composed of two or more columns. B. can only be one column. C. identifies a row. D. identifies a column. Answer: Option C 15. An attribute is a(n): A. column of a table. B. two dimensional table. C. row of a table. D. key of a table. Answer: Option A 16. A relation in this form is free of all modification anomalies. A. First normal form B. Second normal form C. Third normal form D. Domain/key normal form Answer: Option D 17. If attributes A and B determine attribute C, then it is also true that: A. A C. B. B C. C. (A,B) is a composite determinant. D. C is a determinant. Answer: Option C 18. A tuple is a(n): A. column of a table. B. two dimensional table. C. row of a table. D. key of a table. Answer: Option C

12. Which of the following is not a restriction for a table to be a relation? A. The cells of the table must contain a single value. B. All of the entries in any column must be of the same kind. C. The columns must be ordered. D. No two rows in a table may be identical. Answer: Option C 13. For some relations, changing the data can have

19. If attribute A determines both attributes B and C, then it is also true that: A. A B. B. B A. C. C A. D. (B,C) A. Answer: Option A 20. One solution to the multivalued dependency constraint problem is to: A. split the relation into two relations, each with a single theme. B. change the theme. C. create a new theme. D. add a composite key. Answer: Option A _________ IV - DATABASE DESIGN USING NORMALIZATION 1. Needing to using more complicated SQL in database applications is a(n) ________ of normalization. A. advantage B. disadvantage C. either an advantage or disadvantage D. neither an advantage nor disadvantageAnswer: Option B 2. Eliminating modification anomalies is a(n) ________ of normalization. A. advantage B. disadvantage C. either an advantage or disadvantage D. neither an advantage nor disadvantage Answer: Option A

3. Multivalued dependencies should ________ be eliminated. A. always B. commonly C.seldom D. never Answer: Option A 4. When assessing the table structure of an acquired set of tables with data, accessing the validity of possible referential integrity constraints on foreign keys is (part of) the: A. first step. B. second step. C. third step. D. fourth step. Answer: Option C 5. Using the SQL GROUP BY phrase with a SELECT statement can help detect which of the following problems? A. The multivalue, multicolumn problem B. The inconsistent values problem C. The missing values problem D. The general-purpose remarks column problem Answer: Option B 6. When assessing the table structure of an acquired set of tables with data, determining foreign keys is (part of) the: A. first step. B. second step. C. third step. D. fourth step. Answer: Option B 7. Creating a read-only database is a task that is ________ assigned to beginning database professionals. A.always B.commonly C.seldom D.never Answer: Option B

8. Each answer below shows example data from a table. Which answer is an example of the general-purpose remarks column problem? A. Three columns have the values 534-2435, 534-7867, and 546-2356 in the same row. B. Three rows have the values Brown Small Chair, Small Chair Brown, and Small Brown Chair in the same column. C. Three rows have the values Brown, NULL, and Blue in the same column. D. One row has the value "He is interested in a Silver Porsche from the years 1978-1988" in a column. Answer: Option D 9. For a number of reasons, normalizations is not often an advantage for a(n) ________ database. A. read-only B. updateable C. either a read-only or an updateable D. None of the above is correct. Answer: Option A

10. Most of the time, modification anomalies are serious enough that tables should be normalized into: A. 1NF. B. 2NF. C. 3NF. D. BCNF. Answer: Option D 11. Each answer below shows example data from a table. Which answer is an example of the missing values problem?

A. Three columns have the values 534-2435, 534-7867, and 546-2356 in the same row. B. Three rows have the values Brown Small Chair, Small Chair Brown, and Small Brown Chair in the same column. C. Three rows have the values Brown, NULL, and Blue in the same column. D. One row has the value "He is interested in a Silver Porsche from the years 1978-1988" in a column. Answer: Option C 12. When assessing the table structure of an acquired set of tables with data, determining functional dependencies is (part of) the: A. first step. B. second step. C. third step. D. fourth step. Answer: Option B

Answer: Option B 14. When assessing the table structure of an acquired set of tables with data, counting the number of table rows is (part of) the: A. first step. B. second step. C. third step. D. fourth step. Answer: Option A 15. If a table has been normalized so that all determinants are candidate keys, then that table is in: A. 1NF. B. 2NF. C. 3NF. D. BCNF. Answer: Option D 16. Read-only databases are ________ updated. A.always B.commonly C.seldom D.never Answer: Option D 19. Normalization ________ data duplication. A.eliminates B.reduces C. increases D.maximizes Answer: Option A 20. Each answer below shows example data from a table. Which answer is an example of the inconsistent values problem? A. Three columns have the values 534-2435, 534-7867, and 546-2356 in the same row. B. Three rows have the values Brown Small Chair, Small Chair Brown, and Small Brown Chair in the same column. C. Three rows have the values Brown, NULL, and Blue in the same column. D. One row has the value "He is interested in a Silver Porsche from the years 1978-1988" in a column. Answer: Option B _____ V - DATA MODELING WITH ER MODEL 1. Which of the following indicates the maximum number of entities that can be involved in a relationship? A. Minimum cardinality B. Maximum cardinality C. ERD D. Greater Entity Count (GEC) Answer: Option B

13. Each answer below shows example data from a table. Which answer is an example of the multivalue, multicolumn problem? A. Three columns have the values 534-2435, 534-7867, and 546-2356 in the same row. B. Three rows have the values Brown Small Chair, Small Chair Brown, and Small Brown Chair in the same column. C. Three rows have the values Brown, NULL, and Blue in the same column. D. One row has the value "He is interested in a Silver Porsche from the years 1978-1988" in a column. Answer: Option A

17. Needing to assess the validity of assumed referential integrity constraints on foreign keys is a(n) ________ of normalization. A. advantage B. disadvantage C. either an advantage or disadvantage D. neither an advantage nor disadvantage Answer: Option D 18. When assessing the table structure of an acquired set of tables with data, determining primary keys is (part of) the: A. first step. B. second step. C. third step. D. fourth step.

2. Which type of entity cannot exist in the database unless another type of entity also exists in the database, but

does not require that the identifier of that other entity be included as part of its own identifier? A. Weak entity B. Strong entity C. ID-dependent entity D. ID- independent entity Answer: Option A 3. In a one-to-many relationship, the entity that is on the one side of the relationship is called a(n) ________ entity. A. parent B. child C. instance D. subtype Answer: Option A

7. Which of the following refers to something that can be identified in the users' work environment, something that the users want to track? A. Entity B. Attribute C. Identifier D. Relationship Answer: Option A

11. An attribute that names or identifies entity instances is a(n): A. entity. B. attribute. C. identifier. D. relationship. Answer: Option C 12. Properties that describe the characteristics of entities are called: A. entities. B. attributes. C. identifiers. D. relationships. Answer: Option B

8. In which of the following is a single-entity instance of one type related to many entity instances of another type? A. One-to-One Relationship B. One-to-Many Relationship C. Many-to-Many Relationship D. Composite Relationship Answer: Option B 9. Which of the following refers to an entity in which the identifier of one entity includes the identifier of another entity? A. Weak entity B. Strong entity C. ID-dependent entity D. ID-independent entity Answer: Option C

4. Which type of entity represents an actual occurrence of an associated generalized entity? A. Supertype entity B. Subtype entity C. Archetype entity D. Instance entity Answer: Option D 5. A recursive relationship is a relationship between an entity and ________ . A. itself B. a subtype entity C. an archetype entity D. an instance entity Answer: Option A 6. Which of the following indicates the minimum number of entities that must be involved in a relationship? A. Minimum cardinality B. Maximum cardinality C. ERD D. Greater Entity Count (GEC) Answer: Option A

13. In which of the following can many entity instances of one type be related to many entity instances of another type? A. One-to-One Relationship B. One-to-Many Relationship C. Many-to-Many Relationship D. Composite Relationship Answer: Option C

14. Entities of a given type are grouped into a(n): A. database. B. entity class. C. attribute. D. ERD. Answer: Option B

10. Which type of entity is related to two or more associated entities that each contain specialized attributes that apply to some but not all of the instances of the entity? A. Supertype entity B. Subtype entity C. Archetype entity D. Instance entity Answer: Option A

15. Which of the following is NOT a basic element of all versions of the E-R model? A. Entities B. Attributes C. Relationships D. Primary keys Answer: Option D

16. In which of the following is a single-entity instance of one type of related to a single-entity instance of another type? A. One-to-One Relationship B. One-to-Many Relationship C. Many-to-Many Relationship D. Composite Relationship Answer: Option A

relationship is called a(n) ________ entity. A. parent B. child C. instance D. subtype Answer: Option B VI - DATA MODELS INTO DATABASE DESIGN 1. Which of the following data constraints would be used to specify that the value of cells in a column must be one of a specific set of possible values? A. A domain constraint B. A range constraint C. An intrarelation constraint D. An interrelation constraint Answer: Option A

A. NULL. B. NOT NULL. C. Either of the above can be used. D. None of the above are correct. Answer: Option B

17. Entities can be associated with one another in which of the following? A. Entities B. Attributes C. Identifiers D. Relationships Answer: Option D

5. Which of the following column properties would be used to specify that cells in a column must contain a monetary value? A. Null status B. Data type C. Default value D. Data constraints Answer: Option B 6. Which of the following situation requires the use of IDdependent entities? A. Association relationships only B. Multivalued attributes only C. Archetype/instance relationships only D. All of the above use ID dependent entities Answer: Option D

18. Which type of entity has its relationship to another entity determined by an attribute in that other entity called a discriminator? A. Supertype entity B. Subtype entity C. Archetype entity D. Instance entity Answer: Option B

2. In a 1:N relationship, the foreign key is placed in: A. either table without specifying parent and child tables. B. the parent table. C. the child table. D. either the parent table or the child table. Answer: Option C

19. Which type of entity represents a logical generalization whose actual occurrence is represented by a second, associated entity? A. Supertype entity B. Subtype entity C. Archetype entity D. Instance entity Answer: Option C 20. In a one-to-many relationship, the entity that is on the many side of the

3. Which of the following column properties specifies whether or not cells in a column must contain a data value? A. Null status B. Data type C. Default value D. Data constraints Answer: Option A

7.

A foreign key is:

A. a column containing the primary key of another table. B. used to define data types. C. used to define null status. D. all of the above are above correct. Answer: Option A

4. A primary key should be defined as:

8. Which of the following columns is(are) are required in a table? A. A foreign key B. An alternate key C. A primary key D. A surrogate key. Answer: Option C

12. Which of the following data constraints would be used to specify that the value of a cell in one column must be less than the value of a cell in another column in the same row of the same table? A. A domain constraint B. A range constraint C. An intrarelation constraint D. An interrelation constraint Answer: Option C

indicate all combinations that must appear in the ternary relationship? A. MUST COVER B. MUST NOT C. Both of the above. D. None of the above is correct. Answer: Option A

9. In a 1:1 relationship, the foreign key is placed in: A. either table without specifying parent and child tables. B. the parent table. C. the child table. D. either the parent table or the child table. Answer: Option A

17. Each entity is represented as a(n): A. tuple. B. table. C. attribute. D. file. Answer: Option B

13. A unique, DBMSsupplied identifier used as the primary key of a relation is called a(n): A. primary key. B. foreign key. C. composite key. D. surrogate key. Answer: Option D

18. For every relationship, how many possible sets of minimum cardinalities are there? A. Two B. Three C. Four D. Six Answer: Option C

10. Which of the following column properties would be used to specify that cells in a column must be immediately filled with a monetary value of $10,000? A. Null status B. Data type C. Default value D. Data constraints Answer: Option C 11. The identifier of an entity will become the ________ of the new table. A. foreign key B. main attribute C. primary key D. identity key Answer: Option C

14. Which is not true about surrogate keys? A. They are short. B. They are fixed. C. They have meaning to the user. D. They are numeric. Answer: Option C 19. If a relationship has a cascade updates constraint, then if ________ in the parent table is changed, then the same change will automatically be made to any corresponding foreign key value. A. the primary key B. any alternate key C. a surrogate key D. a foreign key Answer: Option A

15. For every relationship, how many possible types of actions are there when enforcing minimum cardinalities? A. Two B. Three C. Four D. Six Answer: Option D 16. Which constraint requires that the binary relationship

20. Which of the following column properties would be used to specify that cells in a column must contain a monetary value that is less than

another monetary value in the same row? A. Null status B. Data type C. Default value D. Data constraints Answer: Option D VII - SQL FOR DATABASE CONSTRUCTION

4. SQL views can be used to hide: A. columns and rows only. B. complicated SQL syntax only. C. both of the above can be hidden by an SQL view. D. None of the above is correct. Answer: Option C

action on database data and that is stored in the database. A. trigger B. stored procedure C. pseudofile D. None of the above is correct. Answer: Option B

5. The SQL statement to create a view is: 1. The SQL command to create a table is: A. MAKE TABLE. B. ALTER TABLE. C. DEFINE TABLE. D. CREATE TABLE. Answer: Option D A. CREATE VIEW. B. MAKE VIEW. C. SELECT VIEW. D. INSERT VIEW. Answer: Option A

9. For what purposes are views used? A. To hide columns only B. To hide rows only C. To hide complicated SQL statements only D. All of the above are uses for SQL views. Answer: Option D

2. A ________ is a stored program that is attached to a table or a view. A. pseudofile B. embedded SELECT statement C. trigger D. None of the above is correct. Answer: Option C

6. To update an SQL view, the DBMS must be able to associate the column(s) to be updated with: A. a particular column in a particular underlying table. B. a particular column in a particular row. C. a particular row in a particular underlying table. D. None of the above is correct. Answer: Option C

10. What is an SQL virtual table that is constructed from other tables? A. Just another table B. A view C. A relation D. Query results Answer: Option B

3. The DROP TABLE statement: A. deletes the table structure only. B. deletes the table structure along with the table data. C. works whether or not referential integrity constraints would be violated. D. is not an SQL statement. Answer: Option B

11. When using the SQL INSERT statement: A. rows can be modified according to criteria only. B. rows cannot be copied in mass from one table to another only. C. rows can be inserted into a table only one at a time only. D. rows can either be inserted into a table one at a time or in groups. Answer: Option D

7. Which of the following is NOT a type of SQL constraint? A. PRIMARY KEY B. FOREIGN KEY C. ALTERNATE KEY D. UNIQUE Answer: Option C

8. A ________ is a program that performs some common

12. What is not an advantage of stored procedures? A. Greater security B. SQL can be optimized C. Code sharing D. Increased network traffic Answer: Option D

B. The CHECK constraint C. The VALUE constraint D. None of the above is correct. Answer: Option B

1. Which of the following SQL statements are helpful in database redesign? A. Correlated subqueries only B. EXISTS/NOT EXISTS expressions only C. Both of the above are helpful D. None of the above are helpful. Answer: Option C

17. Which is NOT one of the most common types of SQL CHECK constraints? A. System date B. Range checks C. Lists of values D. Comparing one column value to another within the same table Answer: Option A

13. A reason for using an SQL view to hide columns is: A. to simplify a result only. B. to prevent the display of sensitive data only. C. to accomplish both of the above. D. None of the above are reasons for using an SQL view. Answer: Option C

2. What SQL command can be used to delete columns from a table? A. MODIFY TABLE TableName DROP COLUMN ColumnName B. MODIFY TABLE TableName DROP Colu mnName C. ALTER TABLE TableName DROP COLUMN ColumnName D. ALTER TABLE TableName DROP Colu mnName Answer: Option C

18. What is an advantage of placing computations in SQL views? A. To save users from having to write an expression. B. To ensure that the results are consistent. C. To accomplish both of the above. D. None of the above is correct computations cannot be placed in a view. Answer: Option C

14. Which of the following is an SQL trigger supported by Oracle? A. BEFORE B. INSTEAD OF C. AFTER D. All of the above. Answer: Option D

3. Database redesign is not terribly difficult if the: 15. The SQL ALTER statement can be used to: A. change the table structure. B. change the table data. C. add rows to the table. D. delete rows from the table. Answer: Option A 19. Views constructed from SQL SELECT statements that conform to the SQL-92 standard may not contain: A. GROUP BY. B. WHERE. C. ORDER BY. D. FROM. Answer: Option C A. database is structured. B. database is well-designed. C. database has no data. D. database is relatively small. Answer: Option C

16. What SQL structure is used to limit column values of a table? A. The LIMIT constraint

4. Which SQL-92 standard SQL command can be used to change a table name? A. RENAME TABLE B. CHANGE TABLE C. ALTER TABLE

VIII - DATABASE REDESIGN

D. None of the above is correct. Answer: Option D

5. The process of reading a database schema and producing a data model from that schema is known as: A. data modeling. B. database design. C. reverse engineering. D. None of the above is correct. Answer: Option C 6. Before any changes to database structure are attempted one should first: A. clearly understand the current structure and contents of the database only. B. test any changes on a test database only. C. create a complete backup of the operational database only. D. All of the above should be done. Answer: Option D

A. EXISTS B. Double use of NOT EXISTS C. NOT EXISTS D. None of the above is correct. Answer: Option B

12. Changing cardinalities in a database is: A. a common database design task. B. a rare database design task, but does occur. C. a database design task that never occurs. D. is impossible to do, so a new database must be constructed and the data moved into it. Answer: Option A

9. A regular subquery can be processed: A. from the top down. B. from the bottom up. C. by nesting. D. None of the above is correct. Answer: Option B

10. What SQL command can be used to add columns to a table? A. MODIFY TABLE TableName ADD COLUMN ColumnName B. MODIFY TABLE TableName ADD Colum nName C. ALTER TABLE TableName ADD COLUMN ColumnName D. ALTER TABLE TableName ADD Colum nName Answer: Option D

13. The NOT EXISTS keyword will be true if: A. any row in the subquery meets the condition. B. all rows in the subquery fail the condition. C. both of these two conditions are met. D. neither of these two conditions is met. Answer: Option B

7. Which of the following modifications may not succeed? A. Changing a column data type from char to date B. Changing a column data type from numeric to char C. Both of the above actions should succeed. D. Neither of the above actions will succeed. Answer: Option A

14. The data model that is produced from reverse engineering is: A. a conceptual model. B. an internal model. C. a logical model. D. None of the above is correct. Answer: Option D

11. The EXISTS keyword will be true if: A. any row in the subquery meets the condition only. B. all rows in the subquery fail the condition only. C. both of these two conditions are met. D. neither of these two conditions is met. Answer: Option A

15. To drop a column that is used as a foreign key, first: A. drop the primary key. B. drop the table containing the foreign key.. C. drop the foreign key constraint.

8. How can you find rows that do not match some specified condition?

D. All of the above must be done. Answer: Option C

Answer: Option A

16. What SQL command will allow you to change the table STUDENT to add the constraint named GradeCheck that states that the values of the Grade column must be greater than 0? A. ALTER TABLE STUDENT ALTER CONSTRAINT GradeCheck (Grade > 0); B. ALTER TABLE STUDENT ADD CONSTRAINT GradeCheck (Grade > 0); C. ALTER TABLE STUDENT ADD CONSTRAINT GradeCheck CHECK (Grade > 0); D. None of the above is correct. Answer: Option C

19. How many copies of the database schema are typically used in the redesign process? A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four Answer: Option C

3. Which of the following occurs when a transaction rereads data and finds new rows that were inserted by a command transaction since the prior read? A. Nonrepeatable read B. Phantom read C. Dirty read D. Consistent read Answer: Option B

20. Because of the importance of making data model changes correctly, many professionals are ________ about using an automated process for database redesign. A. optimistic B. skeptical C. ambivalent D. None of the above is correct. Answer: Option B IX - MANAGING MULTIUSER DATABASES 1. Locks placed by command are called ________ . A. implicit locks B. explicit locks C. exclusive locks D. shared locks Answer: Option B

4. A transaction for which all committed changes are permanent is called: A. atomiC. B. consistent. C. isolateD. D. durable. Answer: Option D

17. Which is not true of a correlated subquery? A. EXISTS/NOT EXISTS is a form of a correlated subquery. B. The processing of the SELECT statements is nested. C. They can be used to verify functional dependencies. D. They are very similar to a regular subquery. Answer: Option D

5. In this instance, dirty reads are disallowed, while nonrepeatable reads and phantom reads are allowed. A. Read committed B. Read uncommitted C. Repeatable read D. Serializable Answer: Option A

18. A tool that can help designers understand the dependencies of database structures is a: A. dependency graph. B. data model. C. graphical display. D. None of the above is correct.

2. Which of the following locks the item from change but not from read? A. Implicit lock B. Explicit lock C. Exclusive lock D. Shared lock Answer: Option D

6. Which of the following occurs when a transaction rereads data it has previously read and finds modification or deletions caused by a committed transaction? A. Nonrepeatable read B. Phantom read C. Dirty read D. Consistent read Answer: Option A

7. The advantage of optimistic locking is that: A. the lock is obtained only after the transaction has processed. B. the lock is obtained before the transaction has processed. C. the lock never needs to be obtained. D. transactions that are best suited are those with a lot of activity. Answer: Option A

B. Read uncommitted C. Repeatable read D. Serializable Answer: Option C

D. Consistent read Answer: Option C

11. Dirty read, nonrepeatable, and phantom reads are not possible in this instance. A. Read committed B. Read uncommitted C. Repeatable read D. Serializable Answer: Option D

15. Which of the following allows dirty reads, nonrepeatable reads and phantom reads to occur? A. Read committed B. Read uncommitted C. Repeatable read D. Serializable Answer: Option B 16. Which of the following locks the item from access of any type? A. Implicit lock B. Explicit lock C. Exclusive lock D. Shared lock Answer: Option C

8. Which of the following refers to a cursor type that when the cursor is opened, a primary key value is saved for each row in the recordset; when the application accesses a row, the key is used to fetch the current values of the row? A. Forward only B. Static C. Keyset D. Dynamic Answer: Option C

12. A transaction in which either all of the database actions occur or none of them do is called: A. atomiC. B. consistent. C. isolateD. D. durable. Answer: Option A

17. The size of a lock is called: 13. A cursor type in which the application can only move forward through the recordset is called: A. forward only. B. static. C. keyset. D. dynamic. Answer: Option A A. implicit lock. B. lock granularity. C. exclusive lock. D. shared lock. Answer: Option B

9. Which of the following refers to a cursor type where changes of any type and from any source are visible? A. Forward only B. Static C. Keyset D. Dynamic Answer: Option D

18. A cursor type in which the application sees the data as they were at the time the cursor was opened is called: A. forward only. B. static. C. keyset. D. dynamic. Answer: Option B

10. Which of the following disallows both dirty reads and nonrepeatable reads, but allows phantom reads? A. Read committed

14. Which of the following occurs when one transaction reads a changed record that has not been committed to the database? A. Nonrepeatable read B. Phantom read C. Dirty read

19. What is the overall responsibility of the DBA? A. Facilitate the development and use of the database B. Create and populate tables C. Development, operation, and maintenance of the database and its applications D. Both the first and third answers above are correct. Answer: Option D

D. Sequences guarantee valid surrogate key values. Answer: Option D

6. Which of the following is not true of SQL views? A. Oracle views cannot use the ORDER BY clause in view definitions. B. Oracle views are created using the standard SQL-92 CREATE VIEW command. C. Oracle views can by queried. D. The SQL-92 standard does not allow the use of the ORDER BY clause in view definitions. Answer: Option A

3. Which prefixes are available to Oracle triggers? A. :new only B. :old only C. Both :new and :old D. Neither :new nor :old Answer: Option C

20. Locks placed by the DBMS are called ________ . A. implicit locks B. explicit locks C. exclusive locks D. shared locks Answer: Option A X - MANAGING DATABASES WITH ORACLE 1. What type of failure occurs when Oracle fails due to an operating system or computer hardware failure? A. Application failure B. Instance Failure C. Media Failure D. Rollback failure Answer: Option B

4. In creating a procedure, you may get a message if you have compile errors. Which of the following is true? A. The line numbers reported match the line numbers you see in your text editor. B. SQL*Plus will automatically show the errors to you. C. To see the errors, enter SHOW ERRORS in SQL*Plus. D. If there are no syntax errors, you will receive the message "NO ERRORS." Answer: Option C

7. SQL*Plus will finish the statement and execute it when the user types in this: A. A left slash ( \ ) followed by [Enter]. B. A colon ( : ) followed by [Enter]. C. A semicolon ( ; ) followed by [Enter]. D. A period ( . ) followed by [Enter]. Answer: Option C

5. Which of the following is not true about indexes? A. Indexes are created to enforce uniqueness on columns. B. Indexes are created to enable fast retrieval by column values. C. Columns that are frequently used with equal conditions in WHERE clauses are good candidates for indexes. D. Indexes are created with the ALTER TABLE command. Answer: Option D

8. Which of the following is NOT an Oracle-supported trigger? A. BEFORE B. DURING C. AFTER D. INSTEAD OF Answer: Option B

2. Which statement about sequences is not true? A. A sequence is an object that generates a sequential series of unique numbers. B. Sequences are most often used to provide values for surrogate keys. C. NextVal and CurrVal are both sequence methods.

9. After a table has been created, its structure can be modified using the SQL command: A. UPDATE TABLE [TableName].

B. MODIFY TABLE [TableName]. C. ALTER TABLE [TableName]. D. CHANGE TABLE [TableName]. Answer: Option C

Answer: Option B

D. Edit [FileName] Answer: Option D

13. When using SQL*Plus, Oracle commands, column names, table names and all other database elements: A. are case insensitive. B. are case sensitive. C. must always be in lower case. D. must always be in upper case. Answer: Option A

17. The default extension for an Oracle SQL*Plus file is: A. .txt. B. .pls. C. .orA. D. .sql. Answer: Option D

10. Which of the following is not true about modifying table columns? A. You can drop a column at any time. B. You can add a column at any time as long as it is a NULL column. C. You can increase the number of characters in character columns or the number of digits in numeric columns D. You cannot increase or decrease the number of decimal places. Answer: Option D 11. Of the three ways to create an Oracle database, which one is the easiest and most recommended? A. Using the Oracle Database Configuration Assistant. B. Using the Oracle-supplied database creation procedures. C. Using the SQL CREATE DATABASE command. D. None of the above is correct. Answer: Option A

18. An Oracle System Change Number (SCN): A. is a value that is incremented whenever a dirty read occurs. B. is incremented whenever a deadlock occurs. C. is a value that keeps track of explicit locks. D. is a value that is incremented whenever database changes are made. Answer: Option D

14. Which SQL phrase is not supported by Oracle? A. ON DELETE CASCADE B. ON UPDATE CASCADE C. CREATE SEQUENCE [SequenceName] D. DROP SEQUENCE [SequenceName] Answer: Option B

15. What is the type of Oracle backup in which all uncommitted changes have been removed from the datafiles? A. Full backup B. Consistent backup C. Inconsistent backup D. Differential backup Answer: Option B 16. You have linked SQL*Plus to an external text editor. To invoke the text editor for use within SQL*Plus, which command do you use? A. Open [FileName] B. Show [FileName] C. Alter [FileName]

19. To obtain the structure of an Oracle table, the command to use is: A. STRUCTURE [TableName]. B. DESCRIBE [TableName]. C. DESCRIBE STRUCTURE [TableName]. D. DESC TABLE [TableName]. Answer: Option B

20. To see the contents of the SQL*Plus buffer, type: A. CONTENTS. B. BUFFER. C. CURRENT. D. LIST. Answer: Option D XI - SQL SERVER 2000

12. What Oracle backup and recover file contains user and system data? A. Control file B. Datafile C. OnLine ReDo file D. Offline ReDo file

1. With which type of SQL Server recovery model are all database changes logged except those that cause large log entries? A. Differential recovery B. Full recovery C. Simple recovery D. Bulk-logged recovery Answer: Option D

SQL command that needs to be processed is called a(n): A. INSTEAD OF trigger. B. BEFORE trigger. C. AFTER trigger. D. BEGIN trigger. Answer: Option A 6. Which type of SQL Server cursor concurrency places an update lock on a row when the row is read? A. READ_ONLY B. SCROLL_LOCK C. OPTIMISTIC D. READCOMMITTED Answer: Option D

9. With which type of SQL Server recovery model, is no logging done? A. Differential recovery B. Full recovery C. Bulk-logged recovery D. Simple recovery Answer: Option D

2. Using SQL Server 2000, which of the following symbols is used to indicate parameters in stored procedures? A. # B. % C. & D. @ Answer: Option D

10. SQL Server 2000 stored procedures can: A. never be kept within the database. B. be kept within the database and invoked by application programs. C. be stored on the users' computer. D. support BEFORE, INSTEAD OF and AFTER types. Answer: Option B

3. What mode of authentication does SQL Server NOT provide? A. Windows-only security B. Both SQL Server and Windows-only security C. Mixed security D. SQL Server only security Answer: Option D

7. Which of the three possible types of triggers does SQL Server support? A. INSTEAD OF only B. AFTER only C. BEFORE only D. INSTEAD OF and AFTER only Answer: Option D

11. With this type of SQL Server cursor concurrency no lock is obtained until the user updates the data. A. READ_ONLY B. SCROLL_LOCK C. OPTIMISTIC D. PESSIMISTIC Answer: Option C

4. The strictest transaction isolation level provided by SQL Server is called: A. REPEATABLE READ. B. SERIALIZABLE. C. READ COMMITTED. D. READ UNCOMMITTED. Answer: Option B

8. Which of the following is a way to create and modify tables using SQL Server? A. Write SQL code using either CREATE or ALTER SQL statements only. B. Use the graphical facilities of SQL Server Enterprise Manager only. C. Both of the two methods above will work. D. Neither of the two methods above will work. Answer: Option C

12. An SQL Server 2000 language that adds programming elements like parameters, variables, IF, WHILE loops, and so forth, to the basic capabilities of SQL is called: A. COBOL. B. VB.NET.

5. SQL Server program code that is executed instead of an

C. TRANSACT SQL. D. Visual Basic. Answer: Option C

17. SQL Server automatically creates an index on: A. primary keys only. B. foreign key only. C. both primary and foreign keys. D. SQL Server never automatically creates an index. Answer: Option C

XII - ODBC, OLE DB, ADO, AND ASP 1. ODBC minimum SQL grammar contains which of the following? A. INSERT, UPDATE, DELETE only B. Stored Procedures only C. Literals for date, time and timestamp only D. CREATE VIEW, DROP VIEW only Answer: Option A

13. With this type of index, the data are stored in the bottom level of the index and in the same order as that index. A. Nonclustered B. Clustered C. Primary D. Secondary Answer: Option B

14. In SQL Server 2000, which of the following makes a copy of the changes that have been made to the database since the last complete backup? A. Complete backup B. Transaction Log C. Differential backup D. None of the above is correct. Answer: Option C

18. Which of the following is not a factor in determining the concurrency control behavior of SQL Server? A. Lock level B. Transaction isolation level C. Cursor concurrency setting D. Locking hints Answer: Option A

2. When using ODBC, which of the following processes ODBC requests and submits specific SQL statements to a given type of data source? A. Data source B. Driver C. Driver manager D. DBMS Answer: Option B

15. With this type of index, the bottom level of an index does not contain data, but rather it contains pointers to data. A. Nonclustered B. Clustered C. Primary D. Secondary Answer: Option A

19. SQL Server program code that is executed after an SQL command has been processed is called a(n): A. INSTEAD OF trigger. B. BEFORE trigger. C. AFTER trigger. D. BEGIN trigger. Answer: Option C

3. The ODBC core API consists of which of the following functions? A. Commit or rollback transactions only B. Connect to data sources with driver-specific information only C. Connect to data sources only D. Both 1 and 3 above are in the OBDC core API. Answer: Option D

16. With which type of SQL Server recovery model are all database changes logged? A. Differential recovery B. Full recovery C. Simple recovery D. Bulk-logged recovery Answer: Option B

20. Which of the following refers to the SQL Server transaction isolation level which places and holds locks on all rows that are read? A. REPEATABLE READ B. SERIALIZABLE C. READ COMMITTED D. READ UNCOMMITTED Answer: Option A

4. ________ is a simple object model that is easier to understand and use than OLE

DB, and is frequently used for database applications. A. ASP B. XML C. ODBC D. ADO Answer: Option D

Answer: Option B A. Create object interfaces for DBMS functionality pieces only. B. Increase flexibility only. C. Object interface over any type of data only. D. All of the above as goals of OLE DB. Answer: Option D

13. ________ is an objectoriented interface that encapsulates data-server functionality. A. ODBC B. OLE DB C. JPCD D. ADO Answer: Option B

5. ODBC core SQL grammar contains which of the following?: A. INSERT, UPDATE, DELETE only B. Stored procedures only C. Full SELECT (includes subqueries) only D. Both 1 and 3 above are contained in the ODBC core SQL. Answer: Option D 6. ________ is considered to be one of the foundations of data access in the Microsoft world. A. ODBC B. OLE DB C. JPCD D. ADO Answer: Option B

9. An ODBC data structure that identifies a database and the DBMS that processes it is called a(n): A. data source. B. driver manager. C. driver. D. API. Answer: Option A

14. When using ODBC, which of the following serves as an intermediary between the application and the DBMS drivers? A. Data source B. Driver C. Driver manager D. OLE DB Answer: Option C

10. In OLE DB, actions that an object can perform are called: A. properties. B. collections. C. methods. D. abstractions. Answer: Option C 11. In OLE DB, which of the following represents characteristics of the recordset abstraction? A. Properties B. Collections C. Methods D. Abstractions Answer: Option A

15. The ODBC Level 1 API contains which of the following functions? A. Browse possible connections and data sources only B. Connect to data sources with driver-specific information only C. Process a scrollable cursor only D. Both 1 and 3 above are in the OBDC Level 1 API. Answer: Option B 16. In OLE DB, a service provider: A. does not own data only. B. transforms data through OLE DB interfaces only.

7. ________ is an interface by which application programs can access and process SQL databases in a DBMSindependent manner. A. ODBC B. OLE DB C. JPCD D. ADO Answer: Option A

12. In ODBC, a file that can be shared among database users is called a: A. system data source. B. file data source. C. user data source. D. SQL text file.

8. Which of the following are goals of OLE DB?

C. is both a consumer and a provider of data only. D. All of the above are true of an OLE DB service provider. Answer: Option D

A. ODBC B. ASP C. JPCD D. ADO Answer: Option D XIII - XML AND ADO.NET

A. DTD. B. XSLT. C. HTML. D. SOAP. Answer: Option B

5. 17. In OLE DB, a tabular data provider: A. does not own data. B. transforms data through ODE DB interfaces. C. is both a consumer and a provider of data. D. exposes data via rowsets. Answer: Option D 1. The XSLT processor copies the elements of the stylesheet until it finds a command in the format: A. SELECT ... FROM ... WHERE. B. {item, action}. C. {for-each select}. D. <HTML>...<\HTML>. Answer: Option B

With XML:

A. views are not limited to one multi-valued path only. B. documents can automatically be generated from database data only. C. database data can automatically be extracted from XML documents only. D. With XML, all of the above are true. Answer: Option D 6. To eliminate definition duplication, XML Schemas define: A. an intersection table. B. global elements. C. a normalized definition table. D. None of the above is correct. Answer: Option B

18. The ODBC Level 2 API contains which the following functions? A. Commit or rollback transactions only B. Connect to data sources with driver-specific information only C. Connect to data sources only D. All of the above are contained in the OBDC Level 2 API Answer: Option D

2. What standard, protocol or language was generalized to become a standard protocol for sending messages of any type, using any protocol? A. SOAP B. SGML C. SQL D. ADO Answer: Option A

3. Which of the following statements is not true about XML Schemas: A. They are used to define the content and structure of data. B. They define a set of symbols and the relationships of those symbols. C. They are themselves XML documents. D. They have their own syntax. Answer: Option D

7. What is not true about SOAP? A. SOAP originally meant Simple Object Access Protocol. B. SOAP was defined as an XML-based standard for providing remote procedure calls over the Internet. C. SOAP now is just a name, not an acronym D. SOAP was an early form of XML. Answer: Option D

19. In ODBC, a data source that is local to a single computer is called a: A. system data source. B. file data source. C. user data source. D. SQL text file. Answer: Option A

20. ________ is a cover for utilizing OLE DB that is designed for use by almost any language.

4. The most popular way to materialize XML documents is to use:

8.

XML Schemas consist of:

A. properties and methods. B. elements and attributes. C. structure and data. D. tables and relationships. Answer: Option

D. None of the above is correct. Answer: Option C

9. The expression FOR XML RAW tells SQL Server to: A. place the values of the columns as attributes in the resulting XML document. B. place the values of the columns into elements rather than attributes. C. place some columns into elements and others into attributes. D. None of the above is correct. Answer: Option A

13. XSLT processors evaluate each statement in the context of the match that has been made. That is, XSLT processors are: A. context oriented. B. procedural oriented. C. object oriented. D. relational oriented. Answer: Option A

C. XSLT uses a set of procedures that specify how a document is to be programmed. D. XSLT is used to transform the input document into another document. Answer: Option C

17. If the XML data instance conforms to the DTD, the document is said to be: A. type-invalid. B. type-valid. C. not-type-valid. D. an HTML document. Answer: Option B

14. The DTD begins with the word: A. #PCDATA. B. XML. C. DOCTYPE. D. HTTPS. Answer: Option C

18.

XML is:

10. ADO.NET provides the ability to create and process inmemory databases called: A. views. B. relations. C. tables. D. datasets. Answer: Option D 11. An XML component that defines the structure of a document is known as a(n): A. DOCTYPE. B. DTD. C. #PCDATA. D. HTML Stylesheet. Answer: Option B

15. What is not true about XML? A. Web page display is the most important application of XML. B. With XML, there is a clear separation between document structure, content and materialization. C. XML is more powerful than HTML. D. XML documents have two sections. Answer: Option A 16. What is not true about XSLT? A. XSLT is a declarative transformation language. B. XSLT uses a set of rules that govern how a document is to be materialized is created.

A. a subset of SGML only. B. a hybrid of document processing and database processing only. C. a standardized yet customizable way to describe the content of documents only. D. XML is all of the above. Answer: Option D

19. The document that is used by XSLT to indicate how to transform the elements of the XML document to another format is a(n): A. HTML page. B. DOCTYPE procedure. C. stylesheet. D. stored procedure. Answer: Option C

12. HTML is an application of a more robust document markup language called: A. XHTML. B. XML. C. SGML.

20. If an XML document does not have a DTD, then by definition it is:

A. not-type-valid. B. type-valid. C. an HTML document. D. None of the above is correct. Answer: Option A

D. A Web browser Answer: Option A 9. What is not true of a Java bean? 5. Which JDBC driver Type(s) can be used in either applet or servlet code? A. Both Type 1 and Type 2 B. Both Type 1 and Type 3 C. Both Type 3 and Type 4 D. Type 4 only Answer: Option C 6. ________ is an open source DBMS product that runs on UNIX, Linux and Windows. A. MySQL B. JSP/SQL C. JDBC/SQL D. Sun ACCESS Answer: Option A A. There are no public instance variables. B. All persistent values are accessed using getxxx and setxxx methods. C. It may have many constructors as necessary. D. All of the above are true of a Java bean. Answer: Option C

XIV - JDBC, JAVA SERVER PAGES, AND MYSQL

1. How many JDBC driver types does Sun define? A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four Answer: Option D

10. a(n):

A JSP is transformed into

2. Where is metadata stored in MySQL? A. In the MySQL database metadata B. In the MySQL database metasql C. In the MySQL database mysql D. None of the above is correct. Answer: Option C

A. Java applet. B. Java servlet. C. Either 1 or 2 above. D. Neither 1 nor 2 above. Answer: Option B 11. Which JDBC driver Type(s) can you use in a threetier architecture and if the Web server and the DBMS are running on the same machine? A. Type 1 only B. Type 2 only C. Both Type 3 and Type 4 D. All of Type 1, Type 2, Type 3 and Type 4 Answer: Option D

7. What is sent to the user via HTTP, invoked using the HTTP protocol on the user's computer, and run on the user's computer as an application? A. A Java application B. A Java applet C. A Java servlet D. None of the above is correct. Answer: Option B

3.

Who invented Java?

A. Netscape B. Microsoft C. Sun D. None of the above is correct. Answer: Option C

8. What MySQL property is used to create a surrogate key in MySQL? A. UNIQUE B. SEQUENCE C. AUTO_INCREMENT D. None of the above -Surrogate keys are not implemented in MySQL. Answer: Option C

4. To run a compiled Java program, the machine must have what loaded and running? A. Java virtual machine B. Java compiler C. Java bytecode

12. What programming language(s) or scripting language(s) does Java Server Pages (JSP) support? A. VBScript only B. Jscript only C. Java only

D. All of the above are supported Answer: Option C

17. How many copies of a JSP page can be in memory at a time? A. One B. Two C. Three D. Unlimited Answer: Option A

C. use statistical procedures to predict future events D. use disparate data sources Answer: Option C

13. What servlet processor was developed by Apache Foundation and Sun? A. Apache Tomcat B. Apache Web server C. Sun servlet processor D. None of the above is correct. Answer: Option A

2. Which of the following are not done by Business Intelligence (BI) systems? A. Analyze past and current activities only B. Process and record transactions only C. Both of the above are correct. D. Neither of the above is correct. Answer: Option B

18. Which JDBC driver Types are for use over communications networks? A. Type 3 only B. Type 4 only C. Both Type 3 and Type 4 D. Neither Type 3 nor Type 4 Answer: Option C

14.

What is bytecode?

A. Machine-specific code B. Java code C. Machine-independent code D. None of the above is correct. Answer: Option C

19.

JDBC stands for:

15. What is invoked via HTTP on the Web server computer when it responds to requests from a user's Web browser? A. A Java application B. A Java applet C. A Java servlet D. None of the above is correct. Answer: Option C 16. Which JDBC driver Type(s) is(are) the JDBC-ODBC bridge? A. Type 1 B. Type 2 C. Type 3 D. Type 4 Answer: Option A

A. Java Database Connectivity B. Java Database Components C. Java Database Control D. None of the above is correct. Answer: Option A

3. Business Intelligence (BI) systems do not obtain their data by which of the following means? A. Read and process data from an operational database B. Process transactions C. Process extracts from operational databases D. Process data purchased from data vendors Answer: Option B

20. How does Tomcat execute a JSP? A. As a CGI script B. As an independent process C. By one of Tomcat's threads D. None of the above is correct. Answer: Option C XV - DATABASE PROCESSING FOR BIS 1. A BI reporting system does not ________ . A. create meaningful information B. deliver information to users on a timely basis

4. The "curse of dimensionality" relates to which problem of using operational data for BI reporting? A. Dirty data B. Inconsistent data C. Too much data D. Non-integrated data Answer: Option C

5. A report generated by a reporting system is delivered to

the appropriate users via a useraccessed Web site. This system uses which of the following report modes? A. Push B. Pull C. RFM D. OLAP Answer: Option B 6. RFM analysis uses customers' purchasing patterns to ________ . A. record transactions B. analyze and rank customers C. predict future sales using regression techniques D. perform OLAP Answer: Option B

9. Business Intelligence (BI) reporting systems cannot do which of the following operations? A. Filter data B. Group data C. Modify data D. Both filter and group data Answer: Option C

B. inconsistent data C. non-integrated data D. a "wrong format" problem Answer: Option C

13. The reports generated by a reporting system are usually not delivered in which of the following media? A. Web portal B. Commercial courier service C. Digital dashboard D. E-Mail Answer: Option B

10. Which of the following is not a component of a data warehouse? A. Data extraction/cleaning/preparatio n programs B. Data warehouse data C. Data metadata D. None of the above are data warehouse components. Answer: Option C 11. Business Intelligence (BI) reporting analyses can be performed using ________ . A. standard SQL only B. extensions to SQL only C. OLAP only D. both standard SQL and extensions to SQL Answer: Option A

14. Data mining applications are used accomplish which of the following tasks? A. Process transactions only B. Do RFM analysis only C. Do what-if analysis only D. Do both RFM and what-if analysis Answer: Option C

7. The "F" in RFM analysis stands for ________ . A. frequently B. freshness C. fast food D. fantasy Answer: Option A

8. We have Market Basket data for 1,000 rental transactions at a Video Store. There are for videos for rent -- Video A, Video B, Video C and Video D. The probability that both Video C and Video D are rented at the same time is known as ________ . A. the basic probability B. support C. lift D. confidence Answer: Option B

15. Which of the following is an unsupervised data mining technique? A. Cluster analysis only B. Regression Analysis only C. RFM Analysis only D. Both Regression Analysis and RFM Analysis Answer: Option A 16. In OLAP, we are interested in ________ . A. levels only B. dimensions only C. measures only D. measures and dimensions Answer: Option D

12. We have been given access to the company's operational data, and have been asked to produce a report. We discover that some of the data we need are in an SQL server database while other needed data are in a separate Oracle database. This is an example of ________ . A. dirty data

17. Which of the following is not a reason that operational data are difficult to read? A. Non-duplicated data B. Dirty data C. Missing values D. Non-integrated data Answer: Option A

18. We have Market Basket data for 1,000 rental transactions at a Video Store. There are four videos for rent -- Video A, Video B, Video C and Video D. The probability that Video D will be rented given that Video C has been rented is known as ________ . A. the basic probability B. support C. lift D. confidence Answer: Option D

A. Has ordered recently, orders frequently, and places a large order when she orders. B. Hasn't ordered recently, orders infrequently, but places a large order when she orders. C. Has ordered recently, orders frequently, but doesn't place a large order when she orders D. Hasn't ordered recently, orders infrequently, and doesn't place a large order when she orders. Answer: Option C XVI - THE DATABASE ENVIRONMENT 1. A data warehouse uses:

4. Legacy data is which of the following? A. Data contained in a newlyinstalled system B. Data rejected during the installation of a new system C. Data contained in a file system D. Data contained by a system used prior to the installation of a new system Answer: Option D

5. A database management system (DBMS) is a: A. hardware system used to create, maintain, and provide controlled access to a database. B. hardware system used to create, maintain, and provide uncontrolled access to a database. C. software system used to create, maintain, and provide controlled access to a database. D. software system used to create, maintain, and provide uncontrolled access to a database. Answer: Option C 6. A database application can perform which of the following activities? A. Add records B. Read records C. Update records D. All of the above. Answer: Option D

A. partial operational data. B. historical operational data. C. future operational data. D. health care data. Answer: Option B

2. Metadata enables database designers and users to do all of the following except: A. sample data. B. understand what data exist. C. what the fine distinctions are between similar data items. D. what the data mean. Answer: Option A

19. One popular classification technique in Business Intelligence (BI) reporting is ________ . A. cluster analysis only B. regression analysis only C. RFM analysis only D. both cluster analysis and regression analysis Answer: Option C

3. Duplicate data often results in loss of data integrity because: A. the data formats may be inconsistent. B. data values may not agree. C. Both A & B. D. Neither A & B. Answer: Option C

20. We have done an RFM analysis on our customer data. Mary Jones has a score of "1 1 5". This series means that Mary ________ .

7. is:

An enterprise data model

A. a graphical model that shows the high-level entities for an organization. B. a graphical model that shows all entities for an organization. C. a non-graphical model that shows the high-level entities for an organization. D. a non-graphical model that shows the all entities for an organization. Answer: Option A

11. Which of the following is true for a relational database? A. Data is represented by tables. B. It is difficult to access data. C. Complex programs have to be written for simple queries. D. All of the above. Answer: Option A

12. Some advantages of the database approach include all, but: A. minimal data redundancy. B. improved data consistency. C. improved data sharing. D. program-data dependency. Answer: Option D

8. A shared database should: A. be accurate and available. B. provide for backup and recovery. C. be secure. D. All of the above. Answer: Option D

A. The use of Internet protocols with limited access to company data by the company's customers and suppliers. B. The use of Internet protocols with unlimited access to company data by the company's customers and suppliers. C. The use of Internet protocols with limited access to company data by people within an organization. D. The use of Internet protocols with unlimited access to company data by people within an organization. Answer: Option A XVII - THE DATABASE DEVELOPMENT PROCESS 1. Which of the following database activities allow for the actual retrieval and use of a database? A. Enterprise modeling B. Logical database design C. Physical database design and definition D. Database implementation Answer: Option D

13. An enterprise database is which of the following? A. A database designed to support only users external to an organization B. A database designed to support an entire organization C. A database designed to support a relatively small group D. A database designed to support a single PC Answer: Option B

9. Data administrators are responsible for: A. physical database design. B. managing technical issues in the database environment. C. overall management of data resources in an organization. D. writing application programs. Answer: Option C

2. The three-schema components include all, but: 14. Structured data may include which of the following? A. internal schema. B. conceptual schema. C. programming schema. D. external schema. Answer: Option C

10. Which of the following types of databases are the most common? A. Personal B. Workgroup C. Department D. Enterprise Answer: Option C

A. Photo image B. Video clip C. Dates D. None of the above. Answer: Option C

3. Which is not a type of data management technology? 15. An extranet is which of the following? A. Relational B. Rational

C. Object-oriented D. Dimensional Answer: Option B

C. Both A and B. D. Neither A nor B. Answer: Option C

D. Create an information repository Answer: Option C

4. Which is not a relevant feature of CASE tools? A. The ability to help draw data models using entity-relationship notations B. The ability to generate code C. An information repository D. Access to a DB via the Internet Answer: Option D

8. The Enterprise tier of the three-tiered database architecture includes: A. managing the data. B. managing the User-system interface. C. processing HTTP protocol. D. processing scripting tasks. Answer: Option A

12. In enterprise data modeling, which is incorrect? A. You review current systems. B. You implement the new database. C. You describe the data needed at a very high level of abstraction. D. You plan one or more database development projects. Answer: Option B

5. The first step in database development is which of the following? A. Enterprise data modeling B. Logical database design C. Physical database design and definition D. Database Implementation Answer: Option A

9. An entity type is which of the following? A. A major category of data about people, place, and things B. The various departments of an organization C. The application software D. The business processes the support the mission of an organization Answer: Option A 13. Which of the following database activities require a specific knowledge of a DBMS? A. Enterprise modeling B. Conceptual data modeling C. Logical database design D. Physical database design and definition Answer: Option D

6. Which of the following database activities determines the entities, attributes, and relationships of data? A. Conceptual data modeling B. Logical database design C. Physical database design and definition d Database implementation Answer: Option A 7. The use of packaged data models can offer which of the following benefits? A. Reduce implementation time and costs B. Higher quality models

10. Strategic Planning factors do not include which of the following? A. Organizational goals B. Critical success factors C. Information engineering D. Problem areas Answer: Option C 11. CASE tools do not include which of the following features? A. Help to draw data models B. Help to generate code C. Help to manage people

14. User views are included as part of which schema? A. Internal B. Conceptual C. External D. None of the above. Answer: Option C

15. Whose role is it to determine the requirements and design for a database? A. Database analysts B. Database administrators C. Both A and B. D. Neither A or B.

Answer: Option A XVIII - MODELING DATA IN THE ORGANIZATION 1. A binary relationship is which of the following? A. A relationship between two attributes B. A relationship between two entities C. An attribute with two different relationships D. An entity with two different relationships Answer: Option B

A. Some of the relationships for the participating entities are "many". B. The resulting associative entity has an independent meaning. C. The resulting associative entity has no attributes. D. All of the above Answer: Option B

C. Optional One D. Relationship Answer: Option A

9. When the minimum and maximum number of instances of an entity is one, you know which of the following? A. Mandatory one B. Optional one C. Mandatory many D. Cannot tell Answer: Option A

5. A good identifier is which of the following? A. One that can change over time B. Can be null C. One that is unique D. Be intelligent Answer: Option C

10. An attribute name should be which of the following? A. Singular verb or verb phrase B. Follow a standard format C. Use a alias D. All of the above. Answer: Option B 11. A composite attribute is which of the following? A. An attribute that can be broken into components B. An attribute that cannot be broken into components C. Multiple attributes D. An identifier Answer: Option A

2. If there are two entities with a relationship between them, and one of the entities is completely dependent on the other, then which of the following must exist? A. Derived attribute B. Optional one cardinality C. Multi-valued attribute D. Weak entity Answer: Option D

6. A rectangle represents which of the following in an ERD? A. Attribute B. Entity C. Optional One D. Relationship Answer: Option B

3. A relationship is which of the following? A. A person, place, or thing B. Property or characteristic of an entity C. Link between entities D. Weak entity Answer: Option C

7. An entity name should be which of the following? A. A singular noun B. Specific to the organization C. Concise D. All of the above. Answer: Option D

12. A binary relationship cannot be which of the following? A. One-to-One B. One-toMany C. Many-to-Many D. Zero-toZero Answer: Option D

4. Which of the following conditions should exist if you want to convert a relationship to an associative entity?

8. An oval represents which of the following in an ERD? A. Attribute B. Entity

13. A ternary relationship involves how many entities? A. 3 or less B. 3 C. More than 3 D. 3 or more Answer: Option B

D. Relationship Answer: Option A

D. Each supertype has only one subtype. Answer: Option C 6. A rectangle represents which of the following in an EER? A. Attribute B. Entity C. Optional One D. Relationship Answer: Option B

3. Inheritance is which of the following? A. When a supertype entity inherits values of the subtype attribute B. When a subtype entity inherits values of the supertype attribute C. When a supertype entity inherits values of another supertype attribute D. When a subtype entity inherits values of another subtype attribute Answer: Option B

14. When the minimum number of instances of an entity is one, you know which of the following? A. Mandatory one B. Optional one C. Mandatory many D. Cannot tell Answer: Option D

7. Which one of the following symbols is not used in an ERD? A. Rectangle B. Oval C. Diamond D. Circle Answer: Option D

15. A good business rule is which of the following? A. Declarative B. Imprecise C. Redundant D. Compound Answer: Option A XIX - ER MODEL AND BUSINESS RULES 1. An action assertion must include which of the following? A. Anchor object B. Action C. Corresponding object D. All of the above. Answer: Option D

4. When an entity instance must be a member of only one subtype, it is which of the following? A. Disjoint with total specialization B. Disjoint with partial specialization C. Overlap with total specialization D. Overlap with partial specialization Answer: Option A

8. Specialization is which of the following processes? A. Defining one or more subtypes of the supertype and forming supertype/subtype relationships. B. Defining one or more supertypes of the subtype and forming supertype/subtype relationships. C. Defining one or more subtypes of the supertype and not forming supertype/subtype relationships. D. Defining one or more supertypes of the subtype and not forming supertype/subtype relationships. Answer: Option A

5. A supertype/subtype hierarchy is which of the following? A. Each subtype has only one attribute. B. Each supertype has only one attribute. C. Each subtype has only one supertype.

2. An oval represents which of the following in an EER? A. Attribute B. Entity C. Optional One

9. Which of the following statements concerning business rules is true?

A. It should be complex. B. It should not be convertible to computer code. C. It may include restrictions. D. All of the above. Answer: Option C

be a member of a subtype, it is which of the following? A. Disjoint with total specialization B. Disjoint with partial specialization C. Overlap with total specialization D. Overlap with partial specialization Answer: Option C

B. Integrity Control C. Authorization D. Enabler Answer: Option D XX - LOGICAL DATABASE DESIGN 1. The entity integrity rule states that: A. no primary key attribute may be null. B. no primary key can be composite. C. no primary key may be unique. D. no primary key may be equal to a value in a foreign key. Answer: Option A

10. A supertype/subtype hierarchy has which of the following features? A. Subtypes at the lower lever in the hierarchy inherit attributes only from their immediate supertype. B. Attributes are assigned at the highest logical level. C. Subtypes at the higher lever in the hierarchy inherit attributes only from their immediate subtype. D. Attributes are assigned at the lowest logical level. Answer: Option B 11. A subtype discriminator is which of the following? A. An attribute of the supertype whose values determine the subtype B. An attribute of the subtype whose values determine the supertype C. An attribute of the supertype whose values determine the supertype D. An attribute of the subtype whose values determine the subtype Answer: Option A

13. A subtype entity name should be which of the following? A. A singular noun B. Specific to the organization C. Concise D. All of the above Answer: Option D

14. Use of a supertype/subtype relationship is necessary when which of the following exists? A. An instance of a subtype participates in a relationship that is unique to that subtype. B. An instance of a subtype participates in a relationship that is the same as the other subtypes. C. Attributes apply to all of the instances of an entity type. D. No attributes apply to any of the instances of an entity type. Answer: Option A

2. When mapping a manyto-many unary relationship into a relation which of the following is true? A. One relation is created. B. Two relations are created. C. Three relations are created. D. Four relations are created. Answer: Option B

3. If no multivalued attributes exist and no partial dependencies exist in a relation, then the relation is in what normal form? A. First normal form B. Second normal form C. Third normal form D. Fourth normal form Answer: Option B

12. When an entity instance may be a member of multiple subtypes or it does not have to

15. Which of the following is not one of the three ways to classify an action assertion? A. Condition

4. A foreign key is which of the following?

A. Any attribute B. The same thing as a primary key C. An attribute that serves as the primary key of another relation D. An attribute that serves no purpose Answer: Option C

8. A primary key is which of the following? A. Any attribute B. An attribute that uniquely identifies each row C. An attribute that uniquely identifies each column D. A derived attribute Answer: Option B

12. When mapping a ternary relationship with an associative entity into a relation which of the following is true? A. One relation is created. B. Two relations are created. C. Three relations are created. D. Four relations are created. Answer: Option D

5. A transitive dependency is which of the following? A. A functional dependency between two or more key attributes. B. A functional dependency between two or more nonkey attributes. C. A relation that is in first normal form. D. A relation that is in second normal form. Answer: Option B 6. When mapping a multivalued attribute into a relation which of the following is true? A. One relation is created. B. Two relations are created. C. Three relations are created. D. Four relations are created. Answer: Option B 9. The relational model consists of: A. data in the form of tables. B. data redundancy. C. operations using non-SQL languages. D. unorganized data. Answer: Option A

13. When mapping a regular entity into a relation which of the following is true? A. One relation is created. B. Two relations are created. C. Three relations are created. D. Four relations are created. Answer: Option A

10. When mapping a binary many-to-many relationship into a relation which of the following is true? A. One relation is created. B. Two relations are created. C. Three relations are created. D. Four relations are created. Answer: Option C 11. A relation has which of the following properties? A. Each row is not unique. B. Attributes can have the same name within a given table. C. Each relation has a unique name. D. The order of the columns is significant. Answer: Option C

14. When mapping a supertype/subtype relationship which of the following is true? A. The supertype primary key is assigned to each subtype. B. The subtype primary key is assigned to each supertype. C. There is no link between the supertype/subtype entities. D. There is no primary key/foreign key relationship between a supertype/subtype. Answer: Option A

7. If no multivalued attributes exist in a relation, then the relation is in what normal form? A. First normal form B. Second normal form C. Third normal form D. Fourth normal form Answer: Option A

15.

Relations are:

A. two-dimensional tables. B. three-dimensional tables. C. four-dimensional tables. D. five-dimensional tables. Answer: Option A XXI - PHYSICAL DATABASE DESIGN

1. If a denormalization situation exists with a one-toone binary relationship, which of the following is true? A. All fields are stored in one relation. B. All fields are stored in two relations. C. All fields are stored in three relations. D. All fields are stored in four relations. Answer: Option A

C. All fields are stored in three relations. D. All fields are stored in four relations. Answer: Option B

B. Limit the set of permissible values that a field may assume. C. Limit the use of null values in some fields. D. All of the above. Answer: Option D

5. Which of the following is an advantage of partitioning? A. Complexity B. Inconsistent access speed C. Extra space D. Security Answer: Option D

9. Which of the following is not a factor to consider when switching from small to large block size? A. The length of all of the fields in a table row. B. The number of columns C. Block contention D. Random row access speed Answer: Option B

6. 2. Selecting a data type involves which of the following? A. Maximize storage space B. Represent most values C. Improve data integrity D. All of the above. Answer: Option C

The blocking factor is:

A. a group of fields stored in adjacent memory. B. the number of physical records per page. C. attributes grouped together by the same primary key. D. attributes grouped together by the same secondary key. Answer: Option B

10. What is the best data type definition for Oracle when a field is alphanumeric and has a fixed length? A. VARCHAR2 B. CHAR C. LONG D. NUMBER Answer: Option B 11. A secondary key is which of the following? A. Nonunique key B. Primary key C. Useful for denormalization decisions D. Determines the tablespace required Answer: Option A

3. What is the best data type definition for Oracle when a field is alphanumeric and has a length that can vary? A. VARCHAR2 B. CHAR C. LONG D. NUMBER Answer: Option A

7. Which of the following improves a query's processing time? A. Write complex queries. B. Combine a table with itself. C. Query one query within another. D. Use compatible data types. Answer: Option D

4. If a denormalization situation exists with a many-tomany or associative binary relationship, which of the following is true? A. All fields are stored in one relation. B. All fields are stored in two relations.

8. Which of the following are integrity controls that a DBMS may support? A. Assume a default value in a field unless a user enters a value for that field.

12. The fastest read/write time and most efficient data storage of any disk array type is: A. RAID-0. B. RAID-1. C. RAID-2. D. RAID-3. Answer: Option A

include rows that do not have matching values? 13. A rule of thumb for choosing indexes for a relational database includes which of the following? A. Indexes are more useful on smaller tables. B. Indexes are more useful for columns that do not appear frequently in the WHERE clause in queries. C. Do not specify a unique index for the primary key of each table. D. Be careful indexing attributes that have null values. Answer: Option D A. Equi-join B. Natural join C. Outer join D. All of the above. Answer: Option C

5. Which of the following statements is true concerning routines and triggers? A. Both consist of procedural code. B. Both have to be called to operate. C. Both run automatically. D. Both are stored in the database. Answer: Option A

2. What type of join is needed when you wish to return rows that do have matching values? A. Equi-join B. Natural join C. Outer join D. All of the above. Answer: Option D

6. Which of the following is one of the basic approaches for joining tables? A. Subqueries B. Union Join C. Natural join D. All of the above Answer: Option D

14. Sequential retrieval on a primary key for sequential file storage has which of the following features? A. Very fast B. Moderately fast C. Slow D. Impractical Answer: Option A

3. Which of the following is true concerning a procedure? A. You do not create them with SQL. B. They do not need to have a unique name. C. They include procedural and SQL statements. D. They are the same thing as a function. Answer: Option C

7. Which of the following is true concerning systems information in an RDBMS? A. RDBMS store database definition information in system-created tables. B. This information can be accessed using SQL. C. This information often cannot be updated by a user. D. All of the above. Answer: Option D

15. A multidimensional database model is used most often in which of the following models? A. Data warehouse B. Relational C. Hierarchical D. Network Answer: Option A XXII - ADVANCED SQL

4. A CASE SQL statement is which of the following? A. A way to establish an IFTHEN-ELSE in SQL. B. A way to establish a loop in SQL. C. A way to establish a data definition in SQL. D. All of the above. Answer: Option A

1. What type of join is needed when you wish to

8. The following SQL is which type of join: SELECT CUSTOMER_T. CUSTOMER_ID, ORDER_T. CUSTOMER_ID, NAME, ORDER_ID FROM CUSTOMER_T,ORDER_T WHERE CUSTOMER_T.

CUSTOMER_ID = ORDER_T. CUSTOMER_ID A. Equi-join B. Natural join C. Outer join D. Cartesian join Answer: Option A

11. Which of the following statements is true concerning subqueries? A. Involves the use of an inner and outer query. B. Cannot return the same result as a query that is not a subquery. C. Does not start with the word SELECT. D. All of the above. Answer: Option A

ORDER_ID FROM CUSTOMER_T,ORDER_T ; A. Equi-join B. Natural join C. Outer join D. Cartesian join Answer: Option D

9. Embedded SQL is which of the following? A. Hard-coded SQL statements in a program language such as Java. B. The process of making an application capable of generating specific SQL code on the fly. C. Hard-coded SQL statements in a procedure. D. Hard-coded SQL statements in a trigger. Answer: Option A

15. Which of the following is true concerning triggers? A. You do not create them with SQL. B. They execute against only some applications that access a database. C. They have an event, condition, and action. D. They cannot cascade (cause another trigger to fire). Answer: Option C XXIII - THE CLIENT-SERVER DATABASE 1. Which of the following statements is true about symmetric multiprocessing? A. A single copy of the operating system resides in each processor. B. Useful for situations where data must remain in memory to process. C. Bottlenecks increase with uniprocessor systems because tasks are not shared. D. The problems of memory contention are unlikely. Answer: Option B

12. Which of the following is a correlated subquery? A. Uses the result of an inner query to determine the processing of an outer query. B. Uses the result of an outer query to determine the processing of an inner query. C. Uses the result of an inner query to determine the processing of an inner query. D. Uses the result of an outer query to determine the processing of an outer query. Answer: Option A

10. A UNION query is which of the following? A. Combines the output from no more than two queries and must include the same number of columns. B. Combines the output from no more than two queries and does not include the same number of columns. C. Combines the output from multiple queries and must include the same number of columns. D. Combines the output from multiple queries and does not include the same number of columns. Answer: Option C

13. How many tables may be included with a join? A. One B. Two C. Three D. All of the above. Answer: Option D

14. The following SQL is which type of join: SELECT CUSTOMER_T. CUSTOMER_ID, ORDER_T. CUSTOMER_ID, NAME,

2. Which of the following items are not necessary for client/server?

A. Assure that tools will connect with middleware. B. Understand the requirements. C. Determine network bandwidth capabilities. D. Include the use of a file server. Answer: Option D

Answer: Option A

6. Stored procedures have which of the following advantages? A. It takes a longer time to write them as compared to writing Visual Basic. B. Network traffic increases C. Data integrity improves as multiple applications access the same stored procedure. D. Result in thicker client and thinner database server. Answer: Option C

C. QBE does not give the programmer a visual programming environment. D. Complete applications can be written using QBE. Answer: Option D

9. Client/server security includes which of the following? A. Physical security B. Change control security C. Measures taken to secure all systems D. All of the above. Answer: Option D

3. A benefit of the three-tier architecture is which of the following? A. New modules can be built to support specific business needs B. Performance improves for compiled SQL statements C. Results in a thinner client and database server D. All of the above. Answer: Option A

7. Which of the following statements is a true statement concerning the open database connectivity standard (ODBC)? A. Each vendor desiring to be ODBC-complaint provides an ODBC driver. B. Requires certain criteria to be met in order to establish an ODBC connection. C. Provides a programming interface that provides a common language for application programs to access and process SQL databases independent of the RDBMS accessed. D. All of the above. Answer: Option D

10. An application program interface (API) is which of the following? A. The same thing as ODBC. B. Middleware that does not provide access to a database. C. Middleware that provides access to a database. D. The same thing as JDBC. Answer: Option C

4. Which of the following statements is true concerning JDBC? A. It is language independent. B. It is similar in concept to ODBC. C. It is useful for all objectoriented languages. D. It consists of three main layers. Answer: Option B

11. Three-tier architecture includes which of the following? A. Three server layers B. A client layer and two server layers C. Two client layers and one server layer D. Three client layers Answer: Option B

5. A characteristic of a file server is which of the following? A. Manages file operations and is shared on a network. B. Manages file operations and is limited to one PC. C. Acts as a fat client and is shared on a network. D. Acts as a fat client and is limited to one PC.

8. Which of the following is true concerning QBE? A. An official standard has been defined for QBE. B. QBE cannot be used for client/server systems.

12. Which of the following is true concerning the mainframe? A. It is the same thing as client/server.

B. Requires someone to decide which code should be on the workstation or the server. C. Mission-critical systems have tended to remain there. D. All of the above. Answer: Option C

1. An intrusion detection system does not perform which of the following? A. Tries to identify attempts to hack into a computer system. B. May monitor packets passing over the network. C. May transmit message packets to the correct destination. D. Set up deception systems that attempt to trap hackers. Answer: Option C

A. Led by only one group. B. Helped by cooperation between companies. C. Not necessary at this time. D. Important so that the web can flourish. Answer: Option D

13. A server cannot serve on which of the following levels? A. Client Layer B. Business Layer C. Database Layer D. All of the above. Answer: Option A

5. Common Gateway Interface (CGI) is which of the following? A. An interface that accepts and returns data that may be written in SQL. B. An interface that accepts and returns data that may be written in any language that produces an executable file. C. A small program that executes within another application and is stored on the server. D. A small program that executes within another application and is stored on the client. Answer: Option B 6. A server-side extension is needed to do what? A. Allow a request from a client to access the database. B. Allow a request from a client to access a HTML-formatted page. C. Allow a request from a client to access Web pages. D. All of the above. Answer: Option A

2. Features of XML include which of the following? A. The tags are used to describe the appearance of the content. B. Addresses the structuring and manipulation of the data involved. C. Governs the display of information in a Web browser. D. All of the above. Answer: Option B

14. The three different application logic components are which of the following? A. Presentation, Client, and Storage B. Presentation, Client, and Processing C. Presentation, Processing, and Storage D. Presentation, Processing, and Network Answer: Option C

3. What is Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)? A. The protocol to copy files between computers B. The transfer protocol to transfer Web pages to a browser C. The database access protocol for SQL statements D. The hardware/software protocol that limits access to company data Answer: Option B

15. A database server is responsible for which of the following? A. Database storage B. Data processing logic C. Data presentation logic D. All of the above. Answer: Option A XXIV - THE INTERNET DATABASE ENVIRONMENT

4. Which of the following is true concerning Web services standards?

7. Which of the following is true about ColdFusion Markup Language (CFML)? A. It is stored in .asp files.

B. It is executed on the client. C. It does not use tags. D. It allows for coding of custom tags in an HTML file. Answer: Option D

12. Websites without a database attached to them have which of the following characteristics? A. The ability to generate data via SQL. B. The inability to use a browser to display Web pages. C. Static information using HTML or JavaScript. D. The need to use TCP/IP as the network protocol. Answer: Option C

a client to a Web or database server via the Internet? A. Both TCP and IP are needed. B. TCP is needed but IP is not needed. C. TCP is not needed but IP is needed. D. Neither TCP and IP are needed. Answer: Option A

8. XML is which of the following? A. A scripting language that states the rules for tagging elements. B. A programming language that states the rules for tagging elements. C. A programming language that allows the creation of customized tags. D. A scripting language that allows the creation of customized tags. Answer: Option D

XXV - DATA WAREHOUSING 1. Data scrubbing is which of the following?

13. Web servers should be configured in which of the following ways? A. unauthorized access is restricted. B. unauthorized access is unrestricted. C. unauthorized access is impossible. D. unauthorized access is possible. Answer: Option A

9. An intranet provides which of the following? A. Connectivity to all customers B. Connectivity to selected customers C. Connectivity to no customers D. Connectivity to all of the above Answer: Option C

A. A process to reject data from the data warehouse and to create the necessary indexes B. A process to load the data in the data warehouse and to create the necessary indexes C. A process to upgrade the quality of data after it is moved into a data warehouse D. A process to upgrade the quality of data before it is moved into a data warehouse Answer: Option D

14. A proxy server is used for which of the following? A. To provide security against unauthorized users B. To process client requests for Web pages C. To process client requests for database access D. To provide TCP/IP Answer: Option A

2. The @active data warehouse architecture includes which of the following? A. At least one data mart B. Data that can extracted from numerous internal and external sources C. Near real-time updates D. All of the above. Answer: Option D

10.

Client-side extensions:

A. add functionality to the server. B. add functionality to the browser. C. add functionality to the firewall. D. add functionality to the network. Answer: Option B

15. Which of the following is true concerning the standard network protocol for connecting

3. A goal of data mining includes which of the following?

A. To explain some observed event or condition B. To confirm that data exists C. To analyze data for expected relationships D. To create a new data warehouse Answer: Option A

7. The generic two-level data warehouse architecture includes which of the following? A. At least one data mart B. Data that can extracted from numerous internal and external sources C. Near real-time updates D. All of the above. Answer: Option B

B. Current data intended to be the single source for all decision support systems. C. Data stored in one operational system in the organization. D. Data that has been selected and formatted for end-user support applications. Answer: Option B 11. The load and index is which of the following? A. A process to reject data from the data warehouse and to create the necessary indexes B. A process to load the data in the data warehouse and to create the necessary indexes C. A process to upgrade the quality of data after it is moved into a data warehouse D. A process to upgrade the quality of data before it is moved into a data warehouse Answer: Option B

4. An operational system is which of the following? A. A system that is used to run the business in real time and is based on historical data. B. A system that is used to run the business in real time and is based on current data. C. A system that is used to support decision making and is based on current data. D. A system that is used to support decision making and is based on historical data. Answer: Option B

8. Fact tables are which of the following? A. Completely denoralized B. Partially denoralized C. Completely normalized D. Partially normalized Answer: Option C

9. Data transformation includes which of the following? A. A process to change data from a detailed level to a summary level B. A process to change data from a summary level to a detailed level C. Joining data from one source into various sources of data D. Separating data from one source into various sources of data Answer: Option A

5. A data warehouse is which of the following? A. Can be updated by end users. B. Contains numerous naming conventions and formats. C. Organized around important subject areas. D. Contains only current data. Answer: Option C 6. A snowflake schema is which of the following types of tables? A. Fact B. Dimension C. Helper D. All of the above Answer: Option D

12. The extract process is which of the following? A. Capturing all of the data contained in various operational systems B. Capturing a subset of the data contained in various operational systems C. Capturing all of the data contained in various decision support systems D. Capturing a subset of the data contained in various decision support systems Answer: Option B

10. Reconciled data is which of the following? A. Data stored in the various operational systems throughout the organization.

13. A star schema has what type of relationship between a dimension and fact table? A. Many-to-many B. One-to-one C. One-to-many D. All of the above. Answer: Option C

advantages over a centralized database? A. Software cost B. Software complexity C. Slow Response D. Modular growth Answer: Option D

B. Programmers to treat the data as if it is at one location C. Managers to treat the data as if it is at one location D. All of the above. Answer: Option D

14. Transient data is which of the following? A. Data in which changes to existing records cause the previous version of the records to be eliminated B. Data in which changes to existing records do not cause the previous version of the records to be eliminated C. Data that are never altered or deleted once they have been added D. Data that are never deleted once they have been added Answer: Option A

2. An autonomous homogenous environment is which of the following? A. The same DBMS is at each node and each DBMS works independently. B. The same DBMS is at each node and a central DBMS coordinates database access. C. A different DBMS is at each node and each DBMS works independently. D. A different DBMS is at each node and a central DBMS coordinates database access. Answer: Option A

5. A heterogeneous distributed database is which of the following? A. The same DBMS is used at each location and data are not distributed across all nodes. B. The same DBMS is used at each location and data are distributed across all nodes. C. A different DBMS is used at each location and data are not distributed across all nodes. D. A different DBMS is used at each location and data are distributed across all nodes. Answer: Option D 6. Some of the columns of a relation are at different sites is which of the following? A. Data Replication B. Horizontal Partitioning C. Vertical Partitioning D. Horizontal and Vertical Partitioning Answer: Option C

15. A multifield transformation does which of the following? A. Converts data from one field into multiple fields B. Converts data from multiple fields into one field C. Converts data from multiple fields into multiple fields D. All of the above Answer: Option D XXVI - DISTRIBUTED DATABASES 1. A distributed database has which of the following

3. A transaction manager is which of the following? A. Maintains a log of transactions B. Maintains before and after database images C. Maintains appropriate concurrency control D. All of the above. Answer: Option D

7. Which of the following is true concerning a global transaction? A. The required data are at one local site and the distributed DBMS routes requests as necessary. B. The required data are located in at least one nonlocal site and

4. Location transparency allows for which of the following? A. Users to treat the data as if it is at one location

the distributed DBMS routes requests as necessary. C. The required data are at one local site and the distributed DBMS passes the request to only the local DBMS. D. The required data are located in at least one nonlocal site and the distributed DBMS passes the request to only the local DBMS. Answer: Option B

10. Storing a separate copy of the database at multiple locations is which of the following? A. Data Replication B. Horizontal Partitioning C. Vertical Partitioning D. Horizontal and Vertical Partitioning Answer: Option A 11. A distributed database is which of the following? A. A single logical database that is spread to multiple locations and is interconnected by a network B. A loose collection of file that is spread to multiple locations and is interconnected by a network C. A single logical database that is limited to one location. D. A loose collection of file that is limited to one location. Answer: Option A

Answer: Option C

13. Which of the following is a disadvantage of replication? A. Reduced network traffic B. If the database fails at one site, a copy can be located at another site. C. Each site must have the same storage capacity. D. Each transaction may proceed without coordination across the network. Answer: Option C

8. A homogenous distributed database is which of the following? A. The same DBMS is used at each location and data are not distributed across all nodes. B. The same DBMS is used at each location and data are distributed across all nodes. C. A different DBMS is used at each location and data are not distributed across all nodes. D. A different DBMS is used at each location and data are distributed across all nodes. Answer: Option B

14. A distributed database can use which of the following strategies? A. Totally centralized at one location and accessed by many sites B. Partially or totally replicated across sites C. Partitioned into segments at different sites D. All of the above Answer: Option D

12. A semijoin is which of the following? 9. Replication should be used when which of the following exist? A. When transmission speeds and capacity in a network prohibit frequent refreshing of large tables. B. When using many nodes with different operating systems and DBMSs and database designs. C. The application's data can be somewhat out-of-date. D. All of the above. Answer: Option C A. Only the joining attributes are sent from one site to another and then all of the rows are returned. B. All of the attributes are sent from one site to another and then only the required rows are returned. C. Only the joining attributes are sent from one site to another and then only the required rows are returned. D. All of the attributes are sent from one site to another and then only the required rows are returned.

15. Which of the following is not one of the stages in the evolution of distributed DBMS? A. Unit of work B. Remote unit of work C. Distributed unit of Work D. Distributed request Answer: Option A XXVII - OBJECT-ORIENTED DATA MODELING 1. The fact that the same operation may apply to two or more classes is called what?

A. Inheritance B. Polymorphism C. Encapsulation D. Multiple classification Answer: Option B

D. All of the above. Answer: Option A

5. An abstract class is which of the following? A. A class that has direct instances, but whose descendants may have direct instances. B. A class that has no direct instances, but whose descendants may have direct instances. C. A class that has direct instances, but whose descendants may not have direct instances. D. A class that has no direct instances, but whose descendants may not have direct instances Answer: Option B 6. The term Complete for a UML has the same meaning as which of the following for an EER diagram? A. Overlapping rule B. Disjoint rule C. Total specialization rule D. Partial specialization rule Answer: Option C

A. Zero B. One C. More than one D. All of the above. Answer: Option D

2. The object-oriented development life cycle is which of the following? A. Analysis, design, and implementation steps in the given order and using multiple iterations. B. Analysis, design, and implementation steps in the given order and going through the steps no more than one time. C. Analysis, design, and implementation steps in any order and using multiple iterations. D. Analysis, design, and implementation steps in any order and going through the steps no more than one time. Answer: Option A

9. Which of the following statement is true concerning objects and/or classes? A. An object is an instance of a class. B. A class is an instance of an object. C. An object includes encapsulates only data. D. A class includes encapsulates only data. Answer: Option A

10. Which of the following applies to a class rather than an object? A. Query B. Update C. Scope D. Constructor Answer: Option C 11. The benefits of objectoriented modeling are which of the following? A. The ability to tackle more challenging problems B. Reusability of analysis, design, and programming results C. Improved communication between users, analysts, etc. D. All of the above. Answer: Option D

3. Multiplicity is the same as what concept for an ERD? A. Relationship B. Attribute C. Entity D. Cardinality Answer: Option D

7. A UML diagram includes which of the following? A. Class name B. List of attributes C. List of operations D. All of the above. Answer: Option D

4. Composition is a stronger form of which of the following? A. Aggregation B. Encapsulation C. Inheritance

8. An object can have which of the following multiplicities?

12. The term Incomplete for a UML has the same meaning as

which of the following for an EER diagram? A. Overlapping rule B. Disjoint rule C. Total specialization rule D. Partial specialization rule Answer: Option D

D. Expresses an is-a relationship and is a weaker form of an association relationship. Answer: Option A XXVIII - OBJECT-ORIENTED DATABASE 1. ODL supports which of the following types of association relationships? A. Unary B. Unary and Binary C. Unary and Binary and Ternary D. Unary and Binary and Ternary and higher Answer: Option B

4. Using ODL, you can define which of the following? A. Attribute B. Structure C. Operation D. All of the above. Answer: Option D

13. A constructor operation does which of the following? A. Creates a new instance of a class B. Updates an existing instance of a class C. Deletes and existing instance of a class D. All of the above. Answer: Option A

5. The keyword "inverse" is used in which of the following? A. Class B. Attribute C. Relationship D. All of the above. Answer: Option C

2. An extent is which of the following? 14. Which of the following is a technique for hiding the internal implementation details of an object? A. Encapsulation B. Polymorphism C. Inheritance D. All of the above. Answer: Option A A. A keyword that indicates that the subclass inherits from a superclass B. A keyword that indicates that the superclass inherits from a subclass C. The set of all instances of a class within a database D. Only one instance of a class within a database Answer: Option C

6. The object definition language (ODL) is which of the following? A. Used to develop logical schemas B. A data definition language for OODB C. A method to implement a logical schema D. All of the above. Answer: Option D 7. An atomic literal is which of the following? A. Strings B. Boolean C. Long D. All of the above. Answer: Option D 8. Which of the following is true concerning an ODBMS? A. They have the ability to store complex data types on the Web. B. They are overtaking RDBMS for all applications.

15. Aggregation is which of the following? A. Expresses a part-of relationship and is a stronger form of an association relationship. B. Expresses a part-of relationship and is a weaker form of an association relationship. C. Expresses an is-a relationship and is a stronger form of an association relationship. 3. Identify the class name for the following code: ABC123 course(); A. ABC123 B. course C. course() D. All of the above. Answer: Option A

C. They are most useful for traditional, two-dimensional database table applications. D. All of the above. Answer: Option A

A. Set B. Bag C. List D. Dictionary Answer: Option C

9. The reserved word enum is used for which of the following? A. To define a range for an attribute. B. To define a range for a class. C. To define a range for a relationship. D. All of the above. Answer: Option A

13. A relationship should be specified how in the ODL? A. One direction starting with the first class B. One direction starting with the second class C. Neither direction. D. Both directions. Answer: Option D

14. Using OQL, you may do which of the following? 10. Which of the following is an unordered collection of elements that may contain duplicates? A. Set B. Bag C. List D. Dictionary Answer: Option B A. Return an entire collection of elements including duplicates. B. Return a collection of elements without duplicates. C. Return a specific subset of elements using a given criteria. D. All of the above. Answer: Option D

11. Which of the following is true concerning the following statement: class Manager extends Employee A. Manager is a concrete class and a superclass. B. Manager is a concrete class and a subclass. C. Manager is an abstract class and a superclass. D. Manager is an abstract class and a subclass. Answer: Option B

15. The Object Query Language is which of the following"? A. Similar to SQL and uses a select-from-where structure B. Similar to SQL and uses a select-where structure C. Similar to SQL and uses a from-where structure D. Not similar to SQL Answer: Option A

12. Which of the following is an ordered collection of elements of the same type?