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UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B.Sc Degree Programme in (Core) Physics Model Question Paper PY1141 –Basic Mechanics and Properties of Matter Time 3 hours Total weightage: 30

SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. Answer ALL questions. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I 1. Within the elastic limit, the ratio of the lateral strain to linear strain is called (a) Young’s modulus (d) Poisson’s ratio 2. The stress acting on a body has the dimensions same as that of (a) Force (b) Pressure (c) Strain (d) Area (b) Bulk modulus (c) Rigidity modulus

3. The elevation at the center of a uniformly bent beam is directly proportional to (a) Young’s modulus (b) breadth of the beam (c) thickness of the beam

(d) load at the ends of the beam 4. With increase in temperature, the surface tension of a liquid (a) increases (b) decreases (c)no change

(d) first increases and then decreases II 5. The S.I unit of coefficient of viscosity is (a) Ns/m2 (b) Ns2/m (c) Ns/m (d) Ns2/m2

6. Bernoulli’s theorem is not applied in (a) Venturimeter (b) Viscometer (c) Aerofoil (d) Spray atomizer

7. The kinetic energy, of a particle executing SHM, at its mean position is

2 (a) Maximum (b) Minimum (c) Zero (d) None of these

8. Moment of inertia of a rigid body is independent of (a) Mass of the body (d) Angular velocity III 9. The moment of inertia of a solid sphere of mass M and radius R about a diameter is _________ 10. The Magnus effect is based on the principle of ________ 11. The viscosity of a fluid is due to its _________ 12. Within the elastic limit, the ratio of the stress to the strain is called ________ IV State whether the following statements are true or false. 13. The viscosity of a liquid increases with increase of temperature. 14. For a particle executing SHM, the total energy is conserved. 15. The surface tension is always tangential to the liquid surface. 16. Pitot tube is a device based on Bernoulli’s Theorem. SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. Each question carries a weightage of ONE.] 17. Derive an expression for the moment of inertia of a disc about a tangent in its plane. 18. Mass of a fly wheel is concentrated at its rim. Why? 19. At what position of a harmonic oscillator is its (i) velocity and (ii) acceleration, a maximum. Give their values. 20. A needle can float in clean water but sinks in soap solution. Why? 21. Define Poisson’s ratio. Obtain its limiting values. 22. Name the factors on which the depression at the free end of a cantilever (b) Axis of rotation (c) Radius of gyration

3 depend. 23. Water spread on a clean glass plate but collects into drops on a greased plate. Why? 24. Distinguish between streamline and turbulent flow. 25. State and explain Work-Energy principle. 26. Write a note on I section girders. 27. Explain the variation of viscosity with temperature. 28. What is the P.E curve of a particle? SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. Each question carries a weightage of TWO.] 29. A coin rolls on a horizontal plane without slipping. What fraction of its total K.E is rotational? 30. A fly wheel of mass 25 kg has a radius of 0.2 m. It is making 240 rpm. What is the torque necessary to bring it to rest in 20 seconds. 31. Two wires made of the same material are subjected to a force in the ratio 1:2. Their lengths are in the ratio 8:1. Find the ratio of their extensions. 32. Find the period of oscillation and maximum acceleration of a S.H.M given by the equation x = 2Sin(pt + p/2). 33. The excess of pressure inside a soap bubble of radius 6 mm is balanced by 2 mm column of oil of density 800 kg/m3. Find the surface tension of soap solution.

4 34. Water is conveyed through a pipe of 0.08 m in diameter and 4 km in length at the rate of 120 litres/minute. Calculate the pressure required to maintain the flow. Coefficient of viscosity of water is 0.001Ns/m 2. Atmospheric pressure is 1.01×105 N/m2. 35. A circular disc of mass 0.5 kg and diameter 12 cm is fixed horizontally to the end of a wire of length 40 cm and radius 0.5 mm. Find the rigidity modulus of the material of the wire if the period of oscillation is 1 second. 36. A uniform thin bar of mass 2 kg and length1.2 m is bent to make an equilateral triangle. Calculate the moment of inertia about an axis passing through the center of mass and perpendicular to the plane of the triangle. SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR] 37. State and prove parallel and perpendicular axes theorems. Derive an expression for the M.I of a solid sphere about a tangent. 38. With necessary theory explain how a compound bar

pendulum is used to find ‘g’ at a place. 39. Derive the Poiseuille’s formula for the rate of flow of a liquid through a capillary tube. What are the limitations of Poiseuille’s formula.

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UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B.Sc Degree Programme in (Core) Physics Model Question Paper PY1221 – Methodology in Physics and Informatics Time: 3 hours. Total weightage: 30

SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. Answer ALL questions. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I. Choose the correct option
1. In science a theory is accepted or rejected based on a) authorities b) agreement with textbooks c) democratic principles d) experiments 2. Space research in India is led by a) BARC b) DST c) CSIR d) ISRO 3. Repeated measurements help in canceling out a) random errors b) systematic errors c) spurious measurements d) relative errors 4. A student finds the mass and volume of a solid body with an expected error of 1% and uses the data to calculate density. Expected error in density would be, a) nil b) 0.5% c) 1% d) 2%

II. Choose the correct option 5. An option that allows users to format pages, merge texts and pictures is a. mail merge b. word wrap c. outline d. page layout. 6. In html content of the page can be provided under which of the tag. a. Head b. Body c. Title. d. none of previous 7. Spell checking can be initiated by pressing the ------ function key a. F5 b. F6 c. F7 d. F8
8. Which measure of dispersion is easiest to calculate? a) median b) mean c) standard deviation d) range

III. Match the following 9. Testing of hypothesis 10. Literature survey 11. Method of data collection 12. Empirical research a) Observation and experiment b) sample survey c) expert opinion d) chi-square test

6 e) Academic journals IV. State whether the following statements are true or false. 13. Aim of science is to find the ultimate truth. 14. Replication is an important criterion in experimental design. 15. In research methodology subjectivity is more important that objectivity. 16. Scientific method relies on empirical evidence. SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. Each question carries a weightage of ONE.] 17. Enlist some characteristic features of scientific method? 18. How does the case study method differ from the survey method? 19. What do you mean by repeatability of an experiment? 20. A clock is used to measure the period of a pendulum. Enlist possible sources of error. 21. Define standard deviation. 22. What is meant by dominant error? 23. What do you mean by primary data and secondary data? Give examples. 24. What is the use of Boarders and Shading options (in word) ? 25. Explain window –split and window –freeze panes in Excel 26. What is meant by a search engine? Name three search engines. 27. Explain Goal seek and solver commands in Tool menu. 28. How can you add sounds in power point slide? SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. Each question carries a weightage of TWO.] 29. Write short note on criteria of good research. 30. Write a short note on motivation in research. 31. What do you mean by literature survey in the context of research? 32. Write a brief note on space research program in India. 33. Explain the necessity for standardized units for measurement. 34. Point out the important limitations of tests of hypotheses. 35. Explain how errors are represented graphically. 36. Explain the concepts of absolute and relative errors. SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR] 37. Briefly describe the different steps involved in a research process. 38. The procedure of testing hypothesis requires a researcher to adopt several steps. Describe in brief all such steps. 39. Discuss how experimental errors are estimated and reported.

The Joule-Kelvin coefficient for a perfect gas is (c) Isochoric process . 1. The T-S diagram of an adiabatic process is (a) A straight line parallel to the X axis (b) A straight line p arallel to the Y axis (c) A straight line inclined to the X axis (d) A curve (b) First law of thermodynamics (d) None of these 4. The efficiency of a Carnot engine working between 300K and 150K is (a) 100% (b) 50% (c) 75% (d) 60% 6. The working of a refrigerator is based on (a) Zeroth law of thermodynamics (c) Second law of thermodynamics 3. When a gas is expanded adiabatically. Which of the following remains unchanged during an adiabatic process (a) Temperature (b) Pressure (c) Entropy (d) Volume II 5.7 UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B. the temperature (a) Increases (b) Decreases (c) No change (d) None of these 2. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I.Sc Degree Programme in (Core) Physics Model Question Paper PY1341 –Thermodynamics and Statistical Physics Time 3 hours Total weightage: 30 SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. A process in which the volume remains unchanged is called (a) Isothermal process (b) Isobaric process (d) Adiabatic process 7. Answer ALL questions.

The indicator diagram of a process is a straight line parallel to the X axis. 10. State whether the following statements are true or false. Throttling process is an isenthalpic process. The S. the temperature of the sink is ___________. State the essential difference between the first and second laws of thermodynamics. Can you use Maxwell’s relations to derive first order phase transition equation. The entropy of a system increases in all irreversible processes. Thermal conductivity of copper can be determined by Lee’s disc method. The first law of thermodynamics inculcates three related ideas. For an ideal heat engine. 13. Each question carries a weightage of ONE.I unit of coefficient of thermal conductivity is ___________. What are they? 18. 16. 17. In an irreversible process the entropy of the system (a) Increases (b) Decreases (c) Unchanged (d) None of these III. 9. 11. IV. It is an ___________ process. . The efficiency of a petrol engine is greater than that of a diesel engine. The sum of the internal energy of a system and the product of its pressure and volume is called __________.8 (a) Zero (b) One (c) Less than zero (d) Greater than one 8. 14. SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. 12. 19. 15.

Air is compressed adiabatically to half its volume. State third law of thermodynamics. . Distinguish between thermal conductivity and thermometric conductivity. 31. A Carnot’s engine is operated between two reservoirs at temperatures 450K and 350K. What do you know about fermions? 25. What is phase space? 23. 27. Calculate the increase in the entropy of the system. 26. 10 grams of steam at 1000C is blown into 90 grams of water at 00C contained in a calorimeter of water equivalent 10 gram.677×103 cm3. calculate the heat rejected to the sink in each cycle. Calculate the change in its temperature. 24. 28. State Wiedmann-Franz law. 22.] 29. SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. The whole steam is condensed. Each question carries a weightage of TWO. Define solar constant.9 20. If the engine receives 100 J of heat from the source in each cycle.4 30. Latent heat of vaporization of steam is 2. Distinguish between adiabatic and isothermal processes. ? = 1.268×106 J/kg and 1 gram of steam occupies 1. the efficiency of the engine and the work done per cycle. State Lioville’s theorem. 32. 21. Find the increase in the boiling point of water at 1000C when the pressure is increased by one atmosphere. Explain the principle of increase of entropy.

Approximately what percentage of the free electrons in copper is in excited state at room temperature? 34. 36. 39. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR] 37. Define thermal conductivity. The opposite faces of a brass plate of 2 mm thick are at a temperature 2 difference of 1000C. Describe. Describe the working of a Diesel engine and derive the equation for its efficiency. The specific latent heat of steam is 2.268×10 6 J/kg.Einstein Statistics with examples . How many years are needed for the Sun to lose 1% of its mass by radiation? 35. 38. SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions. with theory. The area of the plate is 0.02 m . Fermi-Dirac and Bose. The Fermi energy in copper is 7. an experiment to determine the thermal conductivity of a bad conductor using Lee’s disc method.0×1030Kg. Find the quantity of heat that flows through the plate in 1 minute if the thermal conductivity of brass is 110 W/m/K. 10 kg of water at 1000C is converted into steam at the same temperature.0×108m and its surface temperature is 5.10 33.04 eV. The Sun’s mass is 2.8×103K. Calculate the change in entropy. Distinguish between Maxwell-Boltzmann. its radius is 7.

The three electric vectors D . The electric potential inside a uniformly charged sphere is (a) uniform (b) non-uniform (c) zero (d) infinity 3. The force between two electric charges is proportional to (a) 1/r (b) 1/r2 (c) r (d) r2 2. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I. 1. E and P are connected by the relation (a) D= e0E+ P (b) D= e0E -P (c) E= e0D+P (d) P= e0E+D 4. Answer ALL questions. The line integral of the magnetic field around any closed path is equal to (a) zero (b) µ 0I 2 (c) µ 0I (d) infinity . The ratio of the polarization of a linear dielectric to the local electric field is (a) atomic polarisability © molecular polarisability (b) electronic polarisability (d) oriental polarisability II. 5. Which of the following equations is correct where the letters have the usual meaning (a) F= qv×B (b) B= qv×F (c) v= qB×F (d) B= qF×v 6.11 UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B.Sc Degree Programme in (Core) Physics Model Question Paper PY1441 –Electrodynamics Time 3 hours Total weightage: 30 SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. The cyclotron frequency is directly proportional to (a) B (b) B2 (c) 1/B (d) 1/B2 7.

____________ is used to reduce the strength of the current in an a. the expression for the resonance frequency is __________. 16. 15. 14. In a series LCR circuit the current is minimum at resonance. . IV. State and explain Coulomb’s theorem. In a parallel resonant circuit. The electric intensity at a point close to a charged conductor of surface charge density s is ___________. Maximum power is transferred from a source to a load when the reactive components of the impedances of the source and the load are (a) zero (b) unequal (c) equal and opposite (d) equal and have same sign III. 19. a series LCR circuit behaves like a pure resistive circuit.12 8. 10. 13. Maximum power is transferred from a source to a load when the resistive components of the impedances of the source and load are equal. 9. State whether the following statements are true or false. The force acting on a current carrying conductor placed perpendicular to a magnetic field is zero. 11. Each question carries a weightage of ONE. 12. The surface integral of the magnetic flux over a closed surface is _________.] 17. 18. At resonance. State Gauss’s law in electrostatics. Explain the term quality factor of a series LCR circuit.c circuit without loss of power. SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions.

c in the household power supply? 23. Calculate the force on the proton. Give the principle and use of choke in an electric circuit. 22. 24. Calculate the power in an a.5 31. State and explain maximum power transfer theorem. 27. The density of copper is 8. . Why do we prefer a. 25.5×107 m/s at an angle of 300 with the field. 21. A proton enters a magnetic field of flux density 2.13 20.95 gm/cc and atomic mass is 63.c circuit with L and R. Calculate the electric displacement and polarization. Briefly explain a parallel resonant circuit. What are polar and non-polar dielectrics? 26.] 29.5 T with a velocity of 1.02 Weber/m2 perpendicular to its direction of motion.5×10-6 m2. 28. Find the radius of the circular path of the electron. An electron accelerated by a potential difference of 5000V enters a uniform magnetic field of 0. 30.Find the drift velocity of the conduction electrons in a copper wire of cross sectional area 1.c to d. Explain magnetic potential and flux density. Explain the physical significance of Maxwell’s equations. carrying a current of 2 A. Each question carries a weightage of TWO. State and explain Ampere’s circuital law. 32. SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. The dielectric constant of a medium is 4 and the electric field in the dielectric is 106 V/m.

A coil of inductance 0. A parallel LCR circuit is connected across an a. 38.C. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR] 37. Find the power consumed in a circuit having a resistance of 50O in series with an inductive reactance 75O.c source.14 33.m. . both being in series with an A. A resistance of 20O and a coil of inductance 0. Explain magnetic vector potential. 36. on the surface and inside the sphere. What is the peak value of the current in the coil? 35.05H and resistance 200 O is connected to a 230V.f induced if the current is reduced to zero in 0. Calculate the capacitance so that the circuit resonates. The magnetic energy stored in an electromagnet is 480J when a current of 5A is passed through its coil. 50Hz a. 50Hz supply.c supply. peak current of 1A and peak voltage of 220V. Find the average e. SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions.02H are connected in series with a capacitance and put across a 220V. Derive an expression for the magnetic vector potential of a current loop. Obtain an expression for the resonant frequency.5 second. 34. 39. Deduce an expression for the total current in the circuit and explain how it depends on the applied frequency. Derive an expression for the electric intensity due to uniformly charged sphere at a point outside. State and prove Gauss’s law in electrostatics.

For a charged particle in an electromagnetic field the canonical momentum are (a) mv2/2-eA/c (b) mv-eA/c (c) mv2/2-eA/c (d) mv+eA/c II 5.15 UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B. Answer ALL questions. For repulsive inverse square forces.1. If Hamiltonian does not involve a particular coordinate qk. The constraint is (a) Holonomic (d) None of these 3. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I. A central force always conserves (a) Energy (b) Linear momentum (c) Angular momentum (d) None of these 6. the shape of the orbit is (a) Hyperbolic (b) Elliptical (c) Circular (d) All of these . The number of degrees of freedom for a circular disc rolling on a horizontal plane is (a) One (b) Six (c) Four (d) Three 2. such coordinate is called (a) cyclic (b) fictious (c) both cyclic and fictious (d) None of these (b) Rheonomic (c) Non-holonomic 4.Sc Degree Programme in (Core) Physics Model Question Paper PY1541 –Classical Mechanics and theory of Relativity Time 3 hours Total weightage: 30 SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. A particle is forced to move on a sphere centered at the origin of a Cartesian frame of reference.

16.] 17. The generalized coordinates of a system need not necessarily have the same dimension. What is Coriolis force? 18. Tachyons have velocity greater than that of photons. IV. 11. The Lagrangian of a simple pendulum of mass m and length l is ___________. The Coriolis force is zero at (a) Equator (b) north pole (c) south pole (d) none of these III. In the northern hemisphere the direction of the Coriolis force on a body moving eastward is ___________. then ____________ is conserved.16 7. 12. What does homogeneity of time mean? What is its consequence? . A physical system is invariant under rotation about a fixed axis. SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. 10. The number of degrees of freedom for a rigid body with fixed point is ___________. The frame of reference attached to the earth is (a) Inertial (b) non-inertial (c) accelerated (d) fixed 8. 9. Each question carries a weightage of ONE. Motion of a particle under the force –kr obeys Kepler’s third law. 13. 15. 14. State whether the following statements are true or false. Conservation of energy is due to homogeneity of space.

A rod has a length of 1 m.0167. Each question carries a weightage of TWO. SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. Explain the concept of four-vectors. The Hamiltonian of a system is H= 1/2m (P x2+P y2+P z2) +mgz. 31. Obtain the Lagrangian for a simple pendulum. y’’=0 and z’’=-g. Calculate its length as measured by an observer (i) on space ship and (ii) on the earth. What is inverse square law of force? Give two examples. where M and C are constants. What are generalized coordinates? What is its advantage? 22. What are tachyons? 26. Distinguish between laboratory and center of mass systems. Use Hamilton’s equation to show that x’’=1. .4c relative to the earth. State D’Alembert’s principle. The eccentricity of the earth’s orbit is 0. Explain space like and time like intervals. Calculate the ratio of maximum to minimum speeds of the earth in its orbit.] 29. Set up the Lagrangian and hence Lagrange’s equation for the system. 27. 20. 30. How is the negative result of Michelson-Moreley experiment explained? 24.17 19. It is moving in a spaceship with a velocity of 0. 32. 21. Distinguish between conservative and non-conservative forces with examples. 25. 23. The kinetic energy of a system with generalized coordinate q is 1/2Mq’2 and its potential energy is ½(q2/C). 28.

6c relative to the original body. Find the mass of the original body. State and prove Kepler’s laws of planetary motion.18 33. A stationary body explodes into two fragments each of mass 1 kg that move apart at speeds of 0. SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR] 37. 34. A particle describes a circular orbit under the influence of an attractive central force directed towards a point on the circle. Show that the force varies as the inverse fifth power of the distance. 39. Derive the Lorentz transformation equations. 35. 36. 38. Calculate the apparent length as measured by a stationary observer. Find the change in the value of energy when the problem of a two.3c such that its length is oriented at 300 with the direction of motion. A thin meter stick is projected into space with a velocity 0. one-body system interacting through gravitational force is reduced to an equivalent one body case. Obtain the kinetic energy in the lab and the center of mass systems and hence show that the kinetic energies of two colliding particles in center of mass system are inversely proportional to their masses. .

According to Bohr the non radiating orbits are called (a) elliptical orbits (b) circular orbits(c) stationary orbits (d) none of the above II. which explains the non existence of electrons inside the nucleus 7. Photoelectric effect was discovered by (a) Newton (b) Einstein (c) Fermi (d) Max Planck 2.19 UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B. A perfect black body gives (a) continuous spectrum (b) line spectrum (c) band spectrum (d) none of the above 3. Photoelectric work function depends on the nature of __________ . According to Einstein electromagnetic waves consists of tiny packets of energy called ____________ 10.Sc Degree Programme in (Core) Physics Model Question Paper PY1542 –Quantum Mechanics Time 3 hours Total weightage: 30 SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. Write down the Hamiltonian operator 6. Fill in the blanks 9. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I. Choose the correct answer 1. Answer ALL questions. Write down the canonical commutation relation 8. Write down an example for barrier penetration problem III. Name the following 5. The concept of matter waves was first put forward by (a) Heisenberg (b) Schrödinger (c) de Broglie (d) none of the above 4. Name the principle in quantum mechanics.

Briefly explain the delta function well 24 . 18. 22 Write a short note on wave packet 23.] 29. 16.. State whether the following statements are true or false. t) at subsequent times? Find the probability density and describe it’s motion? 30. Expectation value of velocity is equal to the time derivative of the expectation value of ___________ IV. Suppose a particle starts out in a linear combination of just two stationary states: ? (x. Confirmation of particle nature of radiation was provided by Compton effect. 14.20 11. What is the . What do you understand by reflection less potential 26. Briefly outline the mechanism by which photoelectrons are emitted 19. What is Ehrenfest’s theorem? SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. State and explain Bohr ’ s correspondence principle. Find the expectation value of the potential energy in the nth state of the harmonic oscillator.. 13. Each question carries a weightage of TWO. Briefly explain expectation value 21.What do you know about momentum space 25. Wave functions live in Hilbert’s space. Group velocity of the wave packet is same as that of the phase velocity.0)= C 1 ? 1(x)+C 2? 2(x). 15. A particle of mass m is bound in the delta function well V(x) = -ad(x). Eigen functions belonging to distinct eigen values are orthogonal.] 17. Zero point energy of particle in a box is a manifestation of ________ principle 12. SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. Each question carries a weightage of ONE. Write a short note on ladder operator. 31. What is a linear operator? 28. Briefly explain determinate states 27. What is the wave function ? (x. Outline the statistical interpretation of the wave function 20.Assume that the constants Cn(x) and states ? n(x) are real.

Calculate the certainty with which we can locate the position of the electron.004%. If A and B are Hermitian operators.21 probability that a measurement of its momentum would yield a value greater than p0 = ma/? 32 An electron has a speed of 500m/s. Determine the de Broglie wavelength of an electron that has been accelerated through a potential difference of 100 V. 33. 36. with an accuracy of 0. SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions. Normalize the wave function and evaluate the expectation value of its momentum. Explain stationary states. Prove the generalized uncertainty principle and explain the result. 39. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR] 37 Derive time independent Schrödinger equation. . show that (AB + BA ) is Hermitian and (ABBA) is not Hermitian. 35. Using operator method obtain eigen functions and eigen values of the linear harmonic oscillator. A particle constrained to move along x axis in the domain 0=x=L has a wave function ? (x) = sin (npx/L)where n is an integer. 38. If the wave function for a system is an eigen function of the operator associated with the observable show that <A n >= <A>n. 34.

5. In amplitude modulation 100% modulation is produced when carrier a) frequency equals signal frequency b) frequency exceeds signal frequency c) amplitude equals signal amplitude d) amplitude exceeds signal amplitude 12.Sc Degree Programme in (Core) Physics Model Question Paper PY1543 –Electronics Total weightage: 30 Time 3 hours SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. 9. Negative fee back in a n amplifier a) lowers its lower 3dB frequency b) raises its upper 3dB frequency c) increases its bandwidth d) all of the above 10.48 d) 0. Zener diode mainly act as a) rectifier b) voltage divider c) regulator d) filter 3. Maximum overall percentage efficiency of a transformer coupled class-A amplifier is a) 78.96 4. In an E-only MOSFET. 13. drain current starts only when VGS(th) is a) positive b) negative c) zero d) greater than V GS(th) 15.5 b) 25 c) 50 d) 85 III. The dc load line of a transistor circuit a) has a negative slope b) is a curved line c) gives graphic relation between IC and IB d) does not contain the Q-point 6. The semiconductor device acts like a diode and two resistors is .42 c) 0. The ripple factor of a bridge rectifier is a) 1. High ripple factor means a) large amount of ac filtering b) small amount of ac filtering c) high voltage regulation d) small voltage regulation 2. 1. The smallest of the four h-parameters of a transistor is a) hi b) hr c) ho d) hf 7. A Colpitts oscillator uses a) tapped coil b) inductive feedback c) tapped capacitance d) no tuned LC circuit 11. The forward amplification factor (ßdc) in CE configuration is a) IC / IE b) IC / IB c) IE / IB d) IB / IE II.22 UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B. FETs have similar properties to a) PNP transistor b) NPN transistor c) thermionic valves d) unijunction transistors 14. A common collector amplifier has the highest a) voltage gain b) current gain c) power gain d) output impedance 8.21 b) 2. Answer ALL questions. The channel width of VHF band in an FM broadcast is a) 75 b) 25 c) 88 d) 200 IV. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I.

Explain the condition of balance of a Wien bridge oscillator 27. Each question carries a weightage of ONE. Explain the following terms (i) frequency response (ii) decibel gain. What is a diode? Draw the equivalent circuit of a crystal diode? 18. . Briefly describe a super heterodyne AM receiver. 22. Each question carries a weightage of TWO.5 mA at V GS = 12. 33.V and VGS(th) = 6 V.985 and VBE = 0.] 17. I1 R1 Rc IB VBE 2 KO I2 R2=20KO 31. Explain the principle of tunnel diode? 24. The data sheet for a certain E-MOSFET gives ID = 4.a) 20. Transformer secondary resistance is 5 O and secondary voltage is 30 V (rms). Draw the input and output characteristics of CB configuration? 19. Determine the dc output voltage for Idc = 200 mA and rms value of the output ripple voltage. When negative feedback is applied. Find the fraction of the output that is feed back to the input. Explain the working a LED. State the Barkhausen condition for sustained sinusoidal oscillation. Give two applications. maximum collector current change is 100mA.23 a) SCR b) triac c) diac d)UJT 16. 30. For the optimally–biased transformer coupled class-A amplifier.] 29. An npn transistor circuit has a = 0. SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. 28. The current in the SCR will a) remains the same b) immediately falls to zero c) rises up d) rises a little and then falls to zero SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. A bridge rectifier uses 4 identical diodes having forward resistance of 5 O each. Find the power transferred to a directly coupled 4O speaker load. 23.3 V. The overall gain of a multistage amplifier is 140. Explain with diagram the pinch off phenomenon in an n-channel FET 26. 32. Determine the value of ID for VGS = 10 V.5. What do you mean by the process of modulation? 25. the gain is reduced to 17. VCE = 6 volts. Define ß. After firing an SCR. show that ß = a /(1. the gating pulse is removed. If Vcc = 16 V calculate R1 and Rc to place Q point at Ic = 2 mA. What do you understand by transistor biasing? 21.

A 10 V regulated dc supply of 10 mA is required from a dc source of 12 – 15 V by using a pair of zener diodes.24 34. The summing amplifier as shown in fig. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR] 37. SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions. Explain the working of a full wave rectifier with a neat diagram. calculate the Q point. R 2 = 2.) = 0. Draw the block diagram of an OP AMP showing the four major steps. has R0 = 10 KO. 39. Calculate the value of RB required to drive the transistor just in to saturation. Assuming Iz (min. design the circuit. V2 = -3 V. R1 V1 R2 V2 R3 R0 + V3 V0 35. V3 = 0. RC = 1 KO VCC = 20 V R B = 47 KO VBB 36. Derive an expression for efficiency and ripple factor of a full wave rectifier. Describe the working of a single stage CE amplifier. If V1 = 6 V. R 1 = 10 KO.2 mA.75 V find V0. Deduce an expression for voltage gain of a CE amplifier.2 KO and R 3 = 3. With a circuit diagram describe an expression for the voltage gain of an inverting OP AMP . Neglect ICO. 38.3 KO. Draw the load line of the Si transistor in CE mode as shown in figure and assuming that ßdc = 80.

136eV (d) 136eV 2. Multiplicity of the state 2D 3/2 is given by (a)1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 7.The selection rule for orbital quantum number for the electric dipole transition in a single electron atom is (a)? l=0.±1 (b) ? l=0 (c) ±1 (d) ?l=+1 II 5. Answer ALL questions. The radius of a hydrogen atom in its ground state is (a)10-4cm (b) 10-6cm (c) 10-8 (d) 10-10cm 3. The de-Broglie wavelength associated with neutrons in thermal . Pure rotational spectrum of a diatomic molecule consists of (b) two equally spaced lines (b) three equally spaced lines © many equally spaced lines (d) no regular pattern 6.6eV (b) 1.Sc Degree Programme in (Core) Physics Model Question Paper PY1544 –Ato mic and Molecular Physics Total weightage: 30 SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. The total energy of an electron in any stationary orbit is (a)negative (b) positive (c) zero (d) uncertain 8.25 Time 3 hours UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B. The doublets observed in alkali spectra are due to (a)screening of the K-electrons (b) spin-orbit interaction of the electron (c)pressure of isotopes (d) none of these 4.36eV (c) 0. The minimum energy required to ionize hydrogen atom from its ground state is about (a) 13. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I 1.

18. SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions.The velocity of an electron in the first Bohr orbit is (a) (1/137 )c (b) 137c (c) (1/1370)c (d) 1370c IV.] 17. Particles with integer and half integer spin cannot exist in the same state (d). 15. Each question carries a weightage of ONE.26 equilibrium with matter at 300K (a)1790A (b) 179A (c) 17. State whether the following statements are true or false 13. None of the above 11. The aim of Stern and Gerlach experiment was to verify the validity of vector atom model 14.9 A (d) 1079A III. X-rays are electromagnetic radiations of longer wavelength. The J value of the state 6H5/2 is (a) ½ (b) 3/2 (c) 5/2 (d) none 12. Vibrational Raman spectra can be used to study the structure of a diatomic molecule 16. 9. Pauli’s exclusion principle states that (a)Two electrons can have all the quantum numbers same (b). No two electrons can have all the quantum numbers same ©. The spin quantum number of an electron can have only half integral values. The Bohr magneton is of the order of (a) 10-23 erg/gauss (b) 10-20 erg/gauss (c) 10-25 erg/gauss (d) none 10. State and explain Pauli’s exclusion principle. What is meant by spatial quantization? .

32. SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. The term symbol of the ground state of sodium is 3 S1/2 and that of its first excited state is 32P1/2. What is Stark effect? 20. 21.21×10-24 J/T and Planck’s constant is 6.022×1023/mole. The average spacing between adjacent rotational lines of CO molecule is 386. 28.016 Kg/mole and Avogadro number is 6. What is isomer shift? 24. j and m j of the outer electrons in each case.27 19. Distinguish between prolate and oblate symmetric top molecules. 26.26 m-1. In an experiment with Benzene. Isotopic mass of C12 = 0. 22.625×10-34 J s. Write a short on spectral term and spectral notation.012 Kg/mole. List the possible quantum numbers n. Calculate the wavelength of the corresponding infrared absorption line. What is Duane Hunt limit? 25. Calculate the length of the CO bond. What is the principle of Mossbauer Spectroscopy? 27. Explain the effect of isotopic substitution on the rotational spectrum of molecules. Distinguish between continuous and characteristic X-ray spectrum. . the wavelength of a pair of Stokes and anti-Stokes lines were measured to be 4554 A0 and 4178 A0 respectively. Each question carries a weightage of TWO. Why are anti-Stokes lines more intense than Stokes lines? 23. isotopic mass of O16 = 0. Calculate the charge to mass ratio of the electron. Briefly explain Frank-Condon Principle. The experimental value of Bohr magneton is 9. 31.] 2 29. l. 30.

Discuss any three applications of NMR. .4 Weber. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR] 37. SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions. The microwave spectrum of HI molecule consists of a series of equidistant lines with a spac ing of 12. Describe. 38. Irradiation of CCl 4 by 4358 A radiation gives Raman lines at 4400 A. The magnetic field used is 0. Explain its significance. What is the principle of NMR? Explain NMR spectrometer. with necessary diagram. 36.28 33. 0 0 0 35.76×1011 C/kg and ?= 600 nm. The specific charge is 1. the Stern-Gerlach experiment. Explain rotation-vibration transition and P and R branches of the spectrum of a diatomic molecule. and 4447 A0.m-2. 39. Calculate the wavelength separation between the two component lines which are observed in the normal Zeeman effect.8 cm-1. Calculate the critical voltage required to stimulate the emission of the characteristic lines of the K-series in tungsten if the K-absorption edge is 0. 34. 4419 A . Calculate the bond length. Calculate the Raman shift for each of these lines.178 A0.

29 Time 3 hours UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B. 2D lattice with highest rotational symmetry is (a) Square lattice (b) Hexagonal (c) Honey comb (d) Triangular (b) White X-ray (c) Monochromatic X-ray 7. Which of the following has hydrogen bonding (a) CH4 (b) C (c) HF (d) CsCl 3. Which of the following solids always opaque to visible radiation . The angle between any two of the lines joining a site of the diamond structure to its nearest neighbour is (a) 600 (b) 900 (c) cos-1(1/3) (d) 1200 (b) bcc structure (c) fcc structure II 5. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I 1. Laue diffraction pattern is obtained using (a) Characteristic X-ray (d) Filtered X-ray 6. Which of the following has least packing fraction (a) simple cubic structure (d) diamond 4.Sc Degree Programme in (Core) Physics Model Question Paper PY1641 –Solid State Physics Total weightage: 30 SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. The volume of primitive unit cell of a fcc structure with lattice constant ‘a’ is (a) a3 (b) a3/2 (c) a3/4 (d) a3/8 2. Answer ALL questions.

13. Simply connected superconductor is solid sphere. SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. The co-ordination number for bcc structure is _________ 12. 16. 19.02 eV undergo diffraction from a (1 0 0) crystal plane. 15. Laue spots are generated when monochromatic X-ray fall randomly on a single crystal. Obtain them for sc. Thermal neutrons of kinetic energy 0. 2 along b and 3 along c. the angle of first order diffraction maximum is ________ IV State whether the following statements are true or false. X-rays can be deflected by electric and magnetic field together.00898 amu. Crystalline. Define the following terms in relation to crystal structure. For a superconductor. A crystallographic plane has the intercept 1 along a. Identify which one is simple cubic structure (a) Sodium (b) Cesium (c) Polonium (d) Copper III 9. bcc and fcc structure. polycrystalline and amorphous states of matter. A parallel plane to this plane will have Miller indices ________ 11. the susceptibility is _________ 10. What are the main sources of electrical resistance in metals? How does it vary with impurities and temperature? . The crystalline solid has long range positional and rotational order. Distinguish between co-ordination number and number of atoms per unit cell. Each question carries a weightage of ONE. 14. 18.] 17.30 (a) Metallic (b) Covalent (c) Ionic (d) Vander Waals 8. If the Bragg spacing is 2 A0 and the mass of neutron is 1.

81 A0 and corresponding A=1. 28. Explain the phenomenon of magneto-resistance. 30. 32. Give two differences between dislocations in sc and fcc lattices. Distinguish between ferromagnetism and anti-ferromagnetism. What is Ferro electricity? Give two examples. Each question carries a weightage of TWO. 25. Highlight the significance of critical current density in superconductivity.5 A0. What is the minimum dislocation density in the material? . 27.7476. 26.31 20. What is Meissner effect? SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. the ratio c/a= (8/3)1/2. Calculate the lengths of intercepts made by crystal planes having Miller indices (2 1 3) and (0 1 0) in a crystal which primitive translation vectors 2. Show that for an ideal hcp structure where atomic spheres touch each other. 21. An aluminium crystal is bent into a radius of curvature 5 cm. What are their inter-planer spacing? 29. The nearest neighbour distance is R=2. Show that Hall coefficient is independent of applied magnetic field and is inversely proportional to current density and electronic charge. 31. 23. Explain Bragg’s law in X-ray diffraction. Find the diameter of the largest atom that would fit into the void in nickel without distortion. 22. What is photoconductivity? How does it arise? 24.] 28. Calculate the compressibility of NaCl assuming a repulsive potential of the form B/R9 acting between the nearest neighbours.

38. Based on Fermi-Dirac statistics. 39. The electrical and thermal conductivities of silver at 200C are 6. Outline classical Langevin’s theory of diamagnetism. 34.81 A ) corresponding to the second order diffraction maximum for X-rays of wavelength 0. Calculate the Lorentz number.32 0 33.2×10 7 ohm 1 m-1 and 420 Wm -1k-1 respectively. Calculate the glancing angle of (1 1 1) plane of a cube rock salt (a= 2.9×10 3 A/m. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR] 37. state the nature of the Fermi distribution function. Calculate the critical current that can flow through a long thin superconducting wire of aluminium of diameter 10-3m. What is normaltunneling? Describe Josephson effect. How does it vary with temperature? . 35.71A 0.The critical field for aluminium is 7. SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions.

Each question carries a weightage of ONE. Answer ALL questions. 15. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I 1. ß-particles are (a) Electromagnetic radiations (b) electrons (c) protons (d) helium nuclei 8. 13. The working of an atom bomb is based on the principle of __________. Leptons have only integral spins. Gamma radiations are electromagnetic radiations of high frequency. 11.] 17. SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. The scintillation counter (a) is not used for counting alpha particles (b) counts only gamma rays (c) it counts only beta particles (d) uses a material which emits light when a charged particle strikes it 4. The sun release energy by (a) nuclear fission (b) nuclear fusion (c) spontaneous combustion (d) hydrothermal process 2.Sc Degree Programme in (Core) Physics Model Question Paper PY1642 –Nuclear and Particle Physics Total weightage: 30 SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. a-particles consist of (a) 1 proton and 1 neutron (b) 2 protons and 2 neutrons © 2 protons and 1 neutron (d) 1 proton and 2 neutrons II 5. Electron and positron combine to form ___________. Which of the following is the strongest? (a) Nuclear force (b) Electrostatic force (c) Gravitational force (d) Magnetic force 7. Which of the following is a fermion? (a) Electron (b) neutron (c) a -particle (d) none of these III 9. IV State whether the following statements are true or false. Sketch a plot of binding energy per nucleon versus mass number and mention its features. 12. 16. 14. 10. Nuclear fusion reactions are also called __________ reactions. The mass of an electron is entirely due to its charge. . The number of ion pairs produced per unit distance in an ionization chamber is known as ___________. The primary cosmic rays are composed of very energetic (a) electrons (b) mesons (c) protons (d) neutrons 3.33 Time 3 hours UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B. The reciprocal of the decay constant of a radioactive substance is called (a) Half life (b) Mean life (c) Total life (d) None of the above 6. The bubble chamber is sensitive only to particles of high ionizing ability.

015125 amu. 28. Write a short note on radio-carbon dating. mass of 0n1=1.008665 amu. 30.008665 amu. 1H2 (d. Define Q value of a nuclear reaction. What is the mass of U 235 required per day assuming 100% efficiency? Given that a . Explain nuclear quadrupole moment.01603 amu. 25.0141 amu. 32. 23. 3Li =6. “Nuclear forces saturate” – Comment. 22. Each question carries a weightage of TWO. SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. On the basis of a liquid drop model. What are quarks? 27. 21. mass of 1H 2 =2. 26. What is transient radioactive equilibrium? 20. Given. Calculate the binding energy of a neutron in the 3Li7 nucleus. A nuclear reactor using U235 as fuel is designed to deliver 100 MW. The half life period of C14 is 5570 years. What is a breeder reactor? 24. Calculate the Q value of the reaction. Explain the principle of GM counter. Explain the thermonuclear reactions taking place inside the sun. mass of 2He3= 3.] 29. Distinguish between mesons and baryons. 0n =1. account for the fission of a nucleus. Given the following isotopic masses. How long does it take for 80% of radioactive C14 to decay? 31. 19. 7 6 1 3Li = 7.34 18. n) 2He3.016004 amu.

Calculate the current produced. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR] 37. SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions.5 Wb m-2. A high energy singly ionized particle leaves a track of 2 m radius in a cloud chamber placed in a magnetic field of flux density 2. What are the roles of moderator and control rods in the reactor? List the main parts and explain the working of the reactor. Give the principle of nuclear reactor. A sample of energy of uranium 4. Distinguish between primary and secondary cosmic rays. Explain the latitude and altitude effects of cosmic rays. . 39.25 m accelerates protons in a 2T magnetic field. Calculate the energy of the particle. Assume that 10 particles enter the chamber per second and 35 eV is required to produce an ion pair. p + p¯ ? 2p + + 2p . 33. Outline the neutrino theory of ß decay.35 single U235 atom releases 200 MeV energy. Describe the important features of ß ray spectrum emitted by radioactive nuclide. A cyclotron of maximum radius 0. 35. Calculate the frequency needed for the applied ac voltage. 36.18 MeV and is placed near an ionization chamber. How does it explain the continuous energy spectrum in ß decay? 38. Also evaluate the kinetic energy of the protons when they leave the cyclotron.+ 2p 0 34. Explain cosmic ray showers. Check whether the following reaction is allowed on the basis of conservation laws.

The defect of a lens that arises due to the dependence of its focal length on its thickness and diameter is (a) Chromatic aberration (b) Coma (c) Astigmatism (d) Distortion 2. Fringes of equal inclination are also called ___________. Answer ALL questions. Polaroids work on the principle of ___________. Two light waves of amplitude ‘a’ and ‘2a’ superimpose each other. The resolving power of a diffraction plane grating having N lines/cm in the nth order is (a) n/N (b) N/n (c) Nn (d) N2n II.36 Time 3 hours UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B. The three dimensional photograph of an object is called ___________. 7.Sc Degree Programme in (Core) Physics Model Question Paper PY1643 –Classical and Modern Optics Total weightage: 30 SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. The wavefront due to a distant object is (a) Spherical (b) Plane (c) Cylindrical (d) None of these 4. 5. 6. The intensity of a bright band is (a) a2 (b) 2a 2 (c) 3a 2 (d)9a2 3. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I 1. .

Distinguish between normal and anomalous dispersion. What are Newton’s rings? 19. 10. 9. _________ is used as the carrier wave. 12. State whether the following statements are true or false. IV. 21.] 17. The pulse dispersion in a step index fiber is less than that in a graded index fiber. Explain the difference between Fresnel and Fraunhofer diffraction. Match the words in column A with a suitable word in column B A 13 14 15 16 Interference Dispersion Diffraction Refraction B Waves of the same wavefront Coherent sources Snell’s law Colour formation SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. In fiber-optic communication. Draw a well labeled diagram of Michelson’s interferometer. 11. 18. . Holography provides a high capacity system for image storage. Each question carries a weightage of ONE. Explain how coherent sources are realized in practice. How will you obtain plane polarized light by reflection? 22. A quarter wave plate can be used to produce circularly polarized light from plane polarized light. III. Laser beam is highly directional. 20.37 5.

Calculate the number of lines per cm of the grating. 26.54.3 nm is incident normally on a thin wedge shaped film of transparent plastic of refractive index 1. What are single mode fibers? Why are they so called? 24. Calculate the Cauchy’s constants A and B for a glass prism o f refractive index 1.5228 for light of wavelength 546. Define resolving power of a grating. 30. 31.42. .26 mm. find the angle of the wedge. Numerical aperture of optical fiber is 0. 33. Give four applications of holography. SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. Calculate the refractive index of cladding. If the distance between adjacent bright fringes is 0.] 29.7 nm. 32. Distinguish between a quarter wave plate and a half wave plate. Each question carries a weightage of TWO. What are coherent bundles? 27.10.38 23. Monochromatic light of wavelength 589.295 and refractive index of core is 1. 28. 25. Interference fringes are observed in reflected light. Calculate the refractive index of water and angle of refraction. Angle of polarization for water is 53. Explain the term line shape function. A plane transmission grating has an angle of diffraction 200 for light of wavelength 600 nm in the first order.1 nm and refractive index 1.5373 for a wavelength 404.

What is the radius of the first zone in a zone plate of focal length 0. 39. Calculate the angles rotated. Boltzmann’s constant is 1. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR] 37. With the help of a neat diagram explain how Newton’s rings are formed in the reflected system. Explain the working of Helium-Neon laser highlighting population inversion mechanism. Find the relative population of the two states in a ruby laser that produces a beam of wavelength 694. .2 m for light of wavelength 500 nm? 36. Describe the construction of Nicol prism. 35. Obtain the relation between D. Two polaroids are first crossed and then one of them is rotated to reduce the intensity half and one fourth.39 34.3 nm at 300 K. Explain how it is used as a polarizer and as an analyzer. 38. SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions.38×10-23 J/K. R and ? where the symbols have usual meaning.

Cache II. Primary memory memory b. External memory d. The output of an AND gate with inputs A.The binary number system has a base of a. 16 c. 32k d.C=1 c. Control section c. 128 . MSI 6. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I.B=1. 64 b. SSI b. 4. Semiconductor memories are fabricated using ____ technology a. 64k c. Answer ALL questions. 2316 b. LSI d.Sc Degree Programme in (Core) Physics Model Question Paper PY1644 –Computer Science Total weightage: 30 SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. The maximum memory location that a 16bit computer can address a.B=0.40 Time 3 hours UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B.B=1. B and C is 1 when a. 5. 1.C=1 d. A=0. A=1. VSLI c. 8 2.C=0 b. 8D 16 c. AE 16 d.C=1 A=0.The result after converting number 3510 to hexadecimal a. 10 b. The ALU of a computer responds to the commands coming from a.B= 0. 2 d. 5316 3. A=1.

hardware system b. What is 2’s complement? How to obtain 2’s complement? 18. 1 11. Half adder is a logic circuit that adds two digits at a time. The assignment statement : 72 = amount. an operating 8. 9. Assume x=5. 13. 3 b. How many types of arithmetic operations does the ALU of all computers perform? a. multitasking d. a. What is the purpose of ALU in CPU? 20. 2 c. 16. is valid. Which of the following would cause quickest ac cess a. 2. writing program in multiple languages b. 19.41 7. SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. Multiprogramming refers to ____ a. A semicolon may follow an if statement only if a compound statement is used. Each question carries a weightage of ONE. 2 d. having several programs in RAM c. 14. what value will be stored in result in the statement :– result = x%2. software interface d. None of these IV. none of the previous 10. . 10 b. direct access from a cassette tape III. What is ASCII code? Write any four ASCII codes and corresponding characters. direct access from a hard disk c. language interpreter c. Extrapolation d. State whether the following statements are true or false.5 c. 15. Reading consists in the value which lies between two extreme points means a. A GUI is a. Interpolation c. direct access from a magnetic tape b.] 17. Define associative and distributive laws of Boolean algebra. Exploration b. 4 12. direct access from a floppy disk d. The 1’s complement of a binary number is derived by changing 1s to 0s and 0s to 1s. 5 d.

Define Flip-Flop. 23.11012 X16 = 1100101001010111 X2 = 17510 X2 = 3816 31. a.3 . Add +5 decimal and -2 decimal b. NUMBER ENTERED IS ODD OR NUMBER ENTERED IS EVEN. Write a program to calculate the focal length of a lens of a given refractive index and radii of curvature using lens makers formula. Describe briefly its function and application. without else option b. n = 20 + 5%3-1 28.2 and 3. x = 4+5*(10-2) b. A=1000100 and B=1010100 b. Perform the following operations using signed Arithmetic operations. 33. 25. i++) printf(“%d”. Solve the following X10 = 101. 36. for(i=1. Write a C program to determine whether a number is odd or even and print the message. What do you mean by linear interpolation? SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. What will be the output of the following program? Modify the program to obtain the same result by replacing with a while loop main() { int i. Each question carries a weightage of TWO. Compute the value for the following expressions. with else option.] 29. i<=10. a. Design a NAND gate. A=11011 and B=01101 30. using two inverters and one OR gate.42 21. k = (17-6)%2-1 c. Write C statement for the following. whose output is given by Boolean expression Y = 32. Add -20 decimal and -18 decimal 34. } 27. [b] g = 26. Implement XOR function using 4 two input NAND gate. Describe the Linux operating system. 24. Using 2’s complement method perform A-B with: a. 3. What are the basic rules of binary addition and binary subtraction? 22. 5*i). [a] p = . a.1. Define impact and non impact printers. 35. Using Euler’s method find the approximation value of solution of the differential equation with the initial condition at points where x = 3.

43 SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions. 1. 3.R. 38. J. 12. 6. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR ] 37.Flip Flop and b]. What is a Flip-Flop? Describe a]. Answer ALL questions. . What are the advantages of J. III 9. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I. Choose the most appropriate answer Continuity equation is (a) a1v1=a2v2 (b) a1p1=a2p2 (c) a1k1=a2k2 (d) a1r1=a2r2 Reynolds number is related to (a) Density (b) Viscosity (c) Plasma (d) Temperature For an optical fibre refractive index of core n1 and that of clad is n2 then. S. What is CPU? Draw block diagram to illustrate the basic organization of a computer system and explain the functions of various units in detail.Sc Degree Programme in (Core) Physics Model Question Paper PY1551. 2. UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B.Flip Flop.R Flip Flop? 39. 11. 10.1 –Bio Physics (Open Course) Time 3 hours Total weightage: 30 SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. (a) n2<n1 (b) n2>n1 (c) n2=n1 (d) None of the above Birefringince is (a) Dichrosim (b) Double refraction (c) Refraction (d) Total internal reflection. the different control statements available in C. 7. Name the following What tends to contract muscles? What are the physical parameters which depends characteristics of bone? What is the principle behind optical fibre? State continuity equation Fill up the blanks Muscles are devices which apply necessary ________ The work done by a muscle per unit mass of the muscle is called ___ The physiological effect of impulse is sense of _______ Resistivity of the flow channels is ________ II 5. 8.K Flip Flop and S. What are the remarkable features of C language? Discuss with suitable examples.K. 4.

Give the characteristics of cell membrane 24. Each question carries a weightage of TWO. 30. What is meant by pitch? 20. State the features of Vander waals force 23. Name the four media through which light travels in human eye 21. Explain the functions of amino acids? What is bio potentials? Explain the functions of dosimetry.44 IV 13. State stokes law? 18. 34. What is bioinformatics? 26. Explain the transport of O 2 and CO2 in blood What are proteins? Give the structure of protein. Section D (Answer any 2 questions – Each questions has a weightage of 4) 37.] 29. 36. Name the three types of locomotion on land 19. . What is chromatic aberration? 22. State continuity equation 28. What is bio statics? 27. 39. How muscles are classified? What is mass specific muscle power? Explain the strength of bones Explain the three type of motion for locomotion on land? Discuss the role of gravity in plant life Explain the physiology of respiration Discuss the behaviour of Doppler effect in human ear? Explain plasma skimming effect. 33. State whether the following statement is True or False Muscles are divided into two categories The product force X velocity is known as fundamental equation of Muscle contraction. Mechanical efficiency of berathing is the ratio of work done to total chemical energy Human ear is a transducer Section B (Answer any 8 questions – Each questions has a weigtage of 1) 17. 32. State Fick’s law of diffusion SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. 16. 35. 31. 14 15. State first law of thermo dynamics 25. 38.

Olivine is a green mineral consisting of (a) iron magnesium silicate (b) iron magnesium carbonate (c) silver magnesium carbonate (d) iron carbon silicate 2. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I.2 –Astronomy and Astrophysics (Open Course) Total weightage: 30 SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. Choose the correct answer 1.Sc Degree Programme in (Core) Physics Model Question Paper PY1551. Answer ALL questions. What is the full form of GMT? 6. Name the two small satellites of Mars 7. Name the following 5. Name the largest satellite of Saturn . Meteors are also called (a) variable stars(b) binary stars (c) shooting stars (d) none of the above 4. The first Pulsar was discovered by Jocelyn Bell in (a) 1967 (b) 1958 (c) 1942 (d) 1962 3. The inclination of the axis of the earth from the normal to the orbital plane is (a) 23° 26’ 28” (b) 23° 32’ 28” (c)32° 26’ 28” (d) 23° 26’ 42” II.45 Time 3 hours UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B.

Sunspots are maintained by strong magnetic field. Fill in the blanks 9. 24. What are Zodiac nebulae? 20. State and explain Kepler’s laws of planetary motion 31..What do you know about satellites of Uranus? SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. What are black holes? 25. 16. The earth has ____________times the mass of Venus 10. State whether the following statements are true or false. Astronomers have classified the stars into spectral type identified by the letters OBAFGK&L 15. What is the total pressure of Venus’ atmosphere? III. 12. Briefly explain Chandrasekhar limit 28. Write a short note on scope of Astronomy 18.46 8. Neutrons at the surface of a neutron star decays into protons and electrons.. Name origin of August is __________ 11. Define luminosity of a star. Define Hubble distance 21.Write short note on the latest discoveries about Pluto 32 Briefly discuss meteorites 33. What do you know about Cepheids? 19.] 29 What is H-R diagram? Explain its main features? 30. 13. SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. ___________ was the first to determine distance to the moon from earth IV.What are Constellations? 23. 14. Cepheids are visible with naked eye. What is sidereal period? 27. Each question carries a weightage of ONE. Each question carries a weightage of TWO.] 17. What are Asteroids? 26.. Write a short note on Photosphere of Sun 22. Schwarzschild radius depends on ________ of black holes. What do you know about Supernova explosion? .

... (a) Surface morphological studies..3 –Applied Physics (Open Course) Time 3 hours Total weightage: 30 SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. (c) Chemical composition studies. 3. 2.. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I 1. The radio was invented by …………………………………….. 36..47 34... UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B... Write short note on Comets. energy source and spectrum of Sun 39. Cellular phone started operation in India in ……………………........ each has a weightage of 4 ) 37 Discuss modern Astronomy with necessary diagrams 38..SEM is used for ……………………………………………. (a)Surface morphological studies (b) Internal structure studies (c)Chemical composition studies (d)None of the above .. The chemical coated on the top of an audio cassette is ………… 4.. 6. XRD is used for ………………………………... Answer ALL questions. (d) None of the above. Briefly discuss the features of the Planet Mars Section D (Answer any two questions.Sc Degree Programme in (Core) Physics Model Question Paper PY1551.. In a digital camera the role of the film is substituted with ……… II 5.. What are Galaxies? Explain the different types of galaxies.... Explain the structure. Briefly discuss ring system of Saturn 35.. (b) Internal structure studies.......

4 Stroke engine is more efficient than 2 Stroke engine 14. IV State whether the following statements are true or false. 13. The working principle of MRI scan & the ultrasound scan are the same 15. (a) Electrical energy is converted into Mechanical energy...... Optical communication network needs amplifiers. In an optical communication net work the medium of communication is……………………………………………… (a) 12.. Explain the basic principle of scanning tunneling microscope (STM) 18.... SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions.] 17... (c) No energy conversion... 16.. With the help of a block diagram.. The working principle of TEM…………………………………. Each question carries a weightage of ONE. How a digital camera differs from an ordinary camera? 20. Distinguish between CT scan & MRI scan 21. in a Mobile phone 11.... SIM stands for ………………………………………. Spectrometer is used to study the polarization of light. List out the different type of pumps 19. Quantum Mechanical Tunneling (b) Scattering (c) Diffraction (d) None of the above 8. explain the working of a Public Administration system (PAS). In an electric fan ………………………………………………... The first electron microscope was built in …….... (b) Mechanical energy is converted into Electrical energy.. (d) None of the above III 9... In holography the light source used is ………………………… 10.. .48 7.

What do you mean by a compact Disc (CD)? 25. 31. Which are different types of breaks used in automobiles? 28. 35. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR] 37. How ECG helps in the treatment of heart diseases. 23. Explain the principle of LCD. With the help of block diagram make a comparative study of cable of cellular phone system. Briefly explain the working of RADAR.49 22. Explain the basic principle of working of a refrigerator. (b) List out different type of fan available in the market. Distinguish between Tunneling Electron microscope (TEM) & Scanning Electron microscope (SEM) 24. 30. (a) Explain the theory & working of an electric fan. Write a short note on the revolution made by touch screen. Microscope resolving power problem. 27. 39.] 29. 26. With the help of a schematic Diagram explain microscope (SEM) 38. Write a paragraph on the history of evolution of radio. List of the technical specifications of the Atomic Force Microscope( AFM )available in Indian market. List out 5 applications of x-rays. Briefly explain the working of ATM SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions. What is a spectro photo meter? What is its use? SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. 34. 33. 32. 36. Each question carries a weightage of TWO. . Explain the working of refrigerator.

a) ppm b) joule c) decibel d) watts II. United nations general assembly has declared 2010 as the International Year of .50 UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B. Lowest layer in atmosphere a) troposphere b) stratosphere c) mesosphere d) ionosphere 2.Sc Degree Programme in (Core) Physics Model Question Paper PY1551.4–Environmental Physics (Open Course) Time 3 hours Total weightage: 30 SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. Largest fraction of pure water on Earth is in the form of a) water vapour b) ice d) ground water c) water in lakes . Choose the correct option 5. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I. Choose the correct option 1. a) climate change b) science c) astronomy d) biodiversity 6.. Answer ALL questions. Global warming is caused by a) Oxygen b) Nitrogen c) carbon monoxide d) carbon dioxide 3. Noise in the context of sound pollution is measured in. This is a non-renewable form of energy a)hydro-lectric power b) solar energy c) petroleum d) solar energy 4..

In India.] 17. What is meant heat island effect? 23. 15. Write short note on the thermodynamics of atmosphere. Electricity generated from solar cells is cheaper than that produced by hydroelectric stations. 24. SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. Per capital pollution in India is much less than in U. 26. Match the following 9. What are fuel cells? 20.] 29. Each question carries a weightage of ONE.radioactivity 11. water quality 12. 31.S.51 7. What do you mean by Kyoto protocol? 27.A. 30. 14. What do you mean by bioenergy? 22. Comment on the statement “waste is misplaced wealth” 28. Explain how land and sea breeze occur. What is meant by "Green Revolution"? SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. Write a short note on monsoons. What do you mean particulate matter? Give examples. carbon dioxide a) solar power b) global warming c) ultra-violet d) nuclear power e) pH value IV. What do you mean by sustainable development? 25. Each question carries a weightage of TWO. What is meant by hydrostatic equilibrium? 19. 13. State whether the following statements are true or false. Earth would have been freezingly cold if there was no green house effect. 18. 16. 21. Indian satellite used exclusively for remote sensing is a) INSAT b) ASTROSAT d) Chandrayaan c) IRS 8. Write a short note on the general circulation of the tropics. 'Rem' is a unit related to a) water pollution b) noise pollution d) nuclear radiation c) air pollution III. What do you mean by air and water quality standards? . installed capacity of windmills exceeds capacity of nuclear power stations.Write a short note on the composition of atmospheric air. Ozone 10.

SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions.5 –Energy Physics (Open Course) Time 3 hours Total weightage: 30 SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. Match the following . moon and sun 7. Write an essay on waste manage ment. Explain why we should conserve petroleum resources. 8. Explain how deforestation leads to degradation of soil. A solar cell converts solar energy into __________. 36. Which of the following is not an example of a bio-mass energy source? a) Wood b) Gobar gas c) Nuclear energy d) Coal 3. 39. 6. 35. 33. Explain the concept of "evergreen revolution" in agriculture.52 32. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR] 37. Point out the important limitations of hydropower. Which one of the following is a source of non-conventional energy? a) Coal b) Oil c) Gas d) Sun 2. In a fuel cell electricity is stored in __________ form. 34. Which of the following is not ultimately derived from solar energy? a) Geothermal energy b) Wind energy c) Nuclear energy d) Bio-mass energy 4. Write a brief note on radioactive pollution. Briefly describe the causes and effects of global warming. 38. A single solar cell can produce a voltage of _______ in full sunlight. Answer ALL questions. 5. Discuss various renewable sources of energy. UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B. A solar water heater cannot be used to get hot water on a) Sunny day b) Cloudy day c) Hot day d) Windy day II. The source of energy in tidal power is the __________ between earth. III. 1.Sc Degree Programme in (Core) Physics Model Question Paper PY1551.

Explain ‘green house effect’. What are the important sources of renewable energy? SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions. 18. 27. 13. Sketch the various stages of extraction of tidal energy. What are the different types of coal? 21. Explain how solar energy is used in solar ponds. What are the photovoltaic systems commonly in use? 28. 32. Geothermal energy 11. What are the merits and limitations of waves as a source of energy? 31. 16. 36. What is the principle used in wind mill? 23.] 17. Tidal energy a) Non-conventional b) Gobar gas c) Gravitation d) Earth’s internal heat IV. SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. 15. What are photovoltaic modules and arrays? 19. What is the principle of ocean thermal energy conversion? 20. Biomass fuels can provide a sustainable substitute for fossil fuels with no net carbon dioxide production. Each question carries a weightage of TWO .53 9. Describe the applications of a solar cell. Biomass energy 10. SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. Explain the advantages of biomass as energy source. What are the important methods for energy storage? 26. Air transport is inherently energy intensive while rail and water are more energy efficient. Describe the advantages of alternate energy sources.] 29. 34. Explain the principle of a solar cell. State whether the following statements are true or false. Each question carries a weightage of ONE. Explain why the exciting radiation must incident very near the p-n junction in a solar cell and not far away from it. Explain the effect of global warming. Solar energy 12.] . Geothermal power is ultimately derived from solar power 14. The amount of energy from the sun and other renewable sources is very large compared with the amount of energy used by mankind. 33. What is space cooling? 24. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR. 25. 35. 30. Describe the salient non-conventional resources of energy. 22. Explain the working of solar furnaces.

What is an AVO meter? 7. Name the transducer element used in ordinary clinical thermometer 8. c. UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B. Choose the most appropriate answer 3. The percentage change in magnitude of a Carbon resistor with gold tolerance band is (a) 1% (b) 5% (c) 10% (d) 20% 3. Describe the working of ocean thermal energy conversion (OTEC) plant. Describe the working of a gobar gas plant.1 –Electronic Instrumentation (Elective Course) Time 3 hours Total weightage: 30 SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. Give another name of function generator . 39. A galvanometer can be used to (a) Measure current (b) Measure voltage (c) Detect and measure current (d) None of the above II Name the following 5. An ammeter used to measure the reverse current of a Si diode is (a) Milli (b) Micro (c) Nano (d) Pico 4. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I. can be used to measure using CRO with a time-base of (a) 0. Explain biomass conversion process.1 s 4. Name the circuit element used to design a delay line 6.1ms (b) 10ms (c) 1ms (d) 0.Sc Degree Programme in (Core) Physics Model Question Paper PY1651. Answer ALL questions. What is meant by power of wind? How the wind power is extracted using wind mill? 38.54 37. Frequency of 50Hz a.

What are active and passive probes used for CRO give its merits 36. What is meant by Q value of a given parameter? 19. Define deflection sensitivity of a CRO 23. Give a typical application for spectrum analyzer Section C (Answer any 5 questions – Each question has a weightage of 2) 29. CRO can be used to save a signal 16. Give the relevance of delay line circuit. IV Fill up the blanks A nano ammeter measure current of the order of _____ A Quality factor of a circuit element is a _________ CRO is used to obtain _______ ____________ of an electric signal Harmonics present in a square wave signal can be obtained by the _________ __________ State whether the following statement is True or False 14. Draw the circuit diagram of an astable multi vibrator. 33. A moving coil galvanometer can be used as ammeter or voltmeter 14 Instrumentation is basically measurement science or Metrology 15. Give the block diagram of DVM.55 III 9. Give the use of storage oscilloscope 22. How Q value of a circuit element can be evaluated? Section D (Answer any 2 questions – Each questions has a weightage of 4) 37. 12. LED is an opto electronic device Section B (Answer any 8 questions – Each questions has a Weightage of 1) 17. With necessary block diagram explai n the working of a CRO. 11. Give the relevance of delay line 21. What is a thermister? 24. Explain the function of a spectrum analyzer 34. Give the different types of standards of measurement 35. Explain the function of each unit 30. . Give the uses of radiation detector 25. How strain gauge can be used to measure temperature 32. Draw the block diagram of a CRO 31. Give the uses of sweep generator 27. What is a wave meter 28. give its working. 10. What is meant by precision and accuracy? 18. What is meant by resolution of a D/A converter? 20. Give the principle of instrumentation amplifier 26.

Visible surface of Sun is called (a) Chromosphere (b) Photosphere (c) Corona (d) Sunspot 4. Name the following 5. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I.Sc Degree Programme in (Core) Physics Model Question Paper PY1651. Using a thermister how it can be used to calibrate a given thermocouple for a given range of temperature 39. Mass of Sun is (a) 1. Time 3 hours SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. Name the scientist who has observed CMEs at first UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B. The sound speed in the Interplanetary medium is about (a) 50 km/s (b) 100 km/s (c) 1000 km/s (d) 10000km/s II.99× 1030 Kg (b) 1.92×1020Kg (c) 2. Choose the correct answer 1.2–Space Science (Elective Course) Total weightage: 30 . Answer ALL questions. give its uses. Name a X ray Astronomy satellite 6. What is sample and hold circuit? How sweep circuit can be designed.5×1015 (d) 5.56 38.2×1030Kg 3. Name of our Galaxy is (a) Andromeda (b) Milky way (c) Pisces (d) Ursa Major 2.

] 17. In the equation H = kT /mg . What do you know about Solar flares? 22. Each question has a weightage of 2 ) 29. Each question carries a weightage of ONE. Explain Scale height. 26. 13.57 7. 9. Write down the full form of QUASAR 8. Explain how cosmic rays are originated. The word red shift is used to indicate a shift to ____________end of visual spectrum 10. What do you mean by Cosmology? 18. The energetic particles originating from sources outside solar system are called __________ cosmic rays . What is Chandrasekhar limit? Explain. State whether the following statements are true or false.. Write short note on Chromosphere of Sun. The Plasma sphere extends between __________ to ____________ km. How do you explain expansion of the Universe? 30. What are Van Allen belts? 23. what does H indicate? III. The stratosphere is found above the tropopause. SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. Sun is a red giant. The magnetic field of earth is not steady but shows variation with time. E layer of the Ionosphere disappears at night. Write a brief note on our Galaxy 28. 15. 24. Write short note on Photon diffusion time. 27. 11. 16. 25. . 14. Sun is said to be ___________ when very few sunspots are seen. 12.. What do you know about Harvard classification of Stars? 20. What are White dwarfs? 21. What are Pulsars? 19.Give a brief account on different types of Galaxies Section C (Answer any five questions. IV.

In a semiconductor. Each question has a weightage of 4 ) 37 What do you know about Solar Corona? Explain how Solar wind is originated? 38. Choose the correct option 1. Choose the correct statement a) Responsivity increases with the frequency of incident radiation b) Responsivity decreases with the frequency of incident radiation c) Responsivity is independent of the frequency of incident radiation d) Responsivity is equal to the frequency of incident radiation . Explain different layers of Earth’s ionosphere. Choose the correct option 5. 32. Explain Sunspots and Solar activity 33. Give a brief account on disturbed Solar wind. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I.3 –Photonics (Elective Course) Total weightage : 30 SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. Give a brief account on the magnetic field of Earth.Sc Degree Programme in (Core) Physics Model Question Paper PY1651. What is H-R diagram? Explain its main features? 35. Describe nomenclature of Earth’s atmosphere on the basis of temperature profile Time 3 hours UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B. Discuss Chapman’s theory of layer formation in Earth’s ionosphere 39. When a photon stimulates the emission of another photon the two photons have a) same energy b) same direction c) same phase d) same wavelength 2. Section D (Answer any two questions. The impurity atoms with which pure silicon may be doped to make it a p – type material are a) Phosphorus b) boron c) antimony d) aluminium 3. 34. 36. a) there are free electrons at 0 K b) there are no free electrons at any temperature c) the number of free electrons increases with temperature d) the number of free electrons is less than that in a conductor. Give a brief account on Dungey’s open magnetosphere. 4. The quantum efficiency of detector is a) less than zero b) greater than zero c) between one and zero d) complex quantity II. Answer ALL questions..58 31.

8 a) 2. 14.59 6.] 17. What is the bandgap energy of the semiconductor material emitting radiation at 600 nm? 28. What is noise in photodetectors? 25. What is meant by optical non linearity? 23. Silicon can act as amphoteric dopant in GaAs 16. Silicon can be used for making laser sources. Light intensity variation occurs a) Opto-isolators b) Modulators c) Quantum detectors d) Connectors e) Thermal detector IV. What are the advantages of PIN photodiode? 27. What do you mean by indirect bandgap semiconductors? 20. What is optical computing?. Silicon is a direct band gap material. A Photodiode detector is usually given a) forward bias b) reverse bias c) both d) no bias 8. State whether the following statements are true or false. SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions.25 c) 0. The excitation energy required to excite an electron from donor level to conduction band is ______eV ( Given effective mass= 0. Match the following 9. Bolometer 10.26 times the mass of electron and 1/ ? r =11. Each question carries a weightage of TWO. 24. What is Auger recombination? 19. What is. Silicon photo detectors have low dark current when compared to Germanium photo detectors.5 b) 0. What is optical pumping? SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. What is Kerr effect? 21. 15. How are liquid crystals classified? 26. Light source-detector package 12. What are excitons? 18.0025 III.] . Pockels effect? 22. 13.025 d) 0.Flicker noise is significant at frequencies a) < 1kHz b) > 10kHz c) >100 kHz d) >1000 kHz 7. Each question carries a weightage of ONE. Photodiode 11.

Sc Degree Programme in (Core) Physics Model Question Paper PY1651. 30.4 –Concepts of nanoscien ce (Elective Course) Total weightage: 30 SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions.m. Write short note on quantum well structures. A silicon PIN diode with R=0. Explain the principle of semiconductor lasers. two c. Calculate radiative recombination time in GaAs having equilibrium carrier concentration 1014 cm-3 under low level injections for Br= 7 x 10-10 cm3/s SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions. Quantum dot is an example of _________ dimensional confinement.60 29. Nanostructured materials are characterized by a.5 and 90 nanoseconds respectively. 31. 38. Calculate 1) signal current 2) r. one 2. lower . 34. What do you mean by self focusing? 32. 35. b. none of these 3. Describe LED structure and efficiency 39. three d. Write note on various optical switches. I d= 1nA. a new material made from carbon nanotubes b.m. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] 1. none of these c. Write a short note on spatial light modulators. zero What is grapheme? a. Write short note on optical bistability. low surface to volume ratio band gap c. Write a brief note on Schotky barrier photodiodes . Each question carries a weightage of FOUR] 37. large surface to volume ratio b.65 A/W. 33. RL= 1000 ohm is operating at 850 nm. If the incident optical power is 500 nW and bandwidth is 100MHz. thin film made of fullerenes d. Time 3 hours UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B. 36. one atom thick sheet of carbon c.s short noise current due to signal 3) r. Calculate the internal quantum efficiency and bulk recombination lifetime in the absence of reabsorption of photons and interface recombination (Given that the radiateiveand non radiative lifetimes of minority carriers in the active region of an LED are 2. a. Answer ALL questions.s thermal noise 4) signal to noise ratio.

all the above 10. polarization wave d. novel 5. a battery has many moving parts. none of these Which of the following techniques can be used for composition analysis? a. None of the above 12. non-validity of law of conservation of momentum in the case of nanosized grains b. 8. natural d.61 4. Ball milling is a ______________ method to synthesize nanomaterials. b. elastic wave b. Carbon nanotubes are characterized by a. Phonon confinement in nanomaterials results in a. narrower c. d. a. bottom up c. ICP b. XRD c. high mechanical strength d. high thermal conductivity b. wider b. conductivity c. electromagnetic wave c. mobility of the ion d. shifting of Raman peak b. AFM d. A fuel cell does not “run down” like a standard battery because a. widens as the grain size decreases 9. the reactants in a battery must be stored inside the battery whereas the reactants for a fuel cell flow in as needed. uncertainty principle c. a fuel cell continually recycles the same electrons whereas a battery must continually generate new ones. TEM 6. diameter of the order of nanometers c. 14. 7. ion implantation d. As a result of the grain size transforming to nano regime the band gap becomes a. arc method b. average grain size b. Carbon nanotubes can be synthesized using a. UV-Visible absorption spectroscopy can be used to estimate the . whereas a fuel cell has none. Broadening of Raman peaks found in nanomaterials is due to a. a battery is completely dependent upon oxidation-reduction reactions whereas a fuel cell depends on acid-base reactions. occurrence of surface modes c. Which of the following can be estimated using X-ray diffraction technique? a. Phonon is a quantum of a. Doppler effect d. all the above. sputtering c. 11. none of the above 13. no change d. top down b. c. broadening of Raman peak d. magnetization wave.

421 Å. Why? 19. Give an account of the advantages of this instrument in the field of nanoscience and nanotechnology. crystal structure d. Nanobelts d. . The interconnects of nanoelectromechanical systems are a. 24. named after Charles-Augustin de Coulomb.n) indices for a carbon nanotube is given by (4. 25. How ion implantation technique can be used to synthesize compound semiconductor nanoparticles. The atomic force microscope (AFM) or scanning force microscope (SFM) is a very high-resolution type of scanning probe microscopy. Each question carries a weightage of ONE ] 17. PbS nanocrystals of size 20 nm show quantum confinement effect while CdS nanocrystals of the same size do not show it. none of these 15. 23. Can you substantiate this with the help of density of states plot. low noise b low gain c. nanowires b carbon nanotubes c.3). Find diameter and chiral angle of the tube. is the increased resistance at small bias voltages of an electronic device comprising at least one low-capacitance tunnel junction. none of these SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. 18.62 a. Coulomb blockade. Given rc-c = 1. with demonstrated resolution of fractions of a nanometer. 21. Justify the above statement. high resistance d. 20. Explain how this can be observed. Nanomaterials show different properties compared to that of conventional bulk materials. The (m. more than 1000 times better than the optical diffraction limit. Suggest a method to induce superconductivity in C60. conductivity c. 26. Nanobots 16. Mention the differences between Raman spectra of nanostructured materials and their bulk counterparts 22. Single electron transistors are characterized by a. band gap b. What are the essential processes needed for the transition from micro MOS transistor to nano MOS transistor. The emission energies of a luminescent semiconductor can be tailored in the nano regime.

36. 32. With a neat diagram. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR] 37. explain the arc discharge method to synthesize single wall carbon nanotubes. Each question carries a weightage of TWO. SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. Also give a brief account of the uses of nanostructured films in science and technology. Suppose you have synthesized a nanostructured sample in the form of a film. how will you interpret its phase and size? 31. Differentiate between direct lattice and reciprocal lattice. What are the techniques that can be adopted to characterize it. 34.ray diffraction technique in the characterisation of nanostructured materials? If HRTEM pattern of a nanoparticle is given. Explain in detail the operating principle and possible applications of Resonant Tunneling diode and Quantum Cascade lasers . 35. Design a computer switching device using carbon nanotubes. Explain the significance of reciprocal lattice vector and represent Bragg’s diffraction law in terms of reciprocal lattice vector. single electron 39.] 29. Twenty first century is considered to be the nanotechnology era. Discuss how quantum confinement effect is manifested in the optical properties of semiconductor nanoparticles. 38. Write a note on challenges in fabricating NEMS. Briefly explain a method to synthesize nanostructured materials by top down approach 30. Explain the chief differences between an ordinary laser and quantum cascade laser. Discuss this statement in the wake of your knowledge and possible a scientist’s imagination. What will be the role of carbon nanotubes in nanoelectronics? 28.63 27. 33. List out the advantages and disadvantages of Transmission Electron Microscope over X . What revolution will bring in as a result of the discovery of transistor? SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions.

Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I. a.RAM and expansion cards a. Information retrieval is faster from a.64 UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B. Hard disk d. Actual execution of instructions in a computer takes place in a.V power supply. Control unit c. Storage unit 41. – 5V c. Keyboard d. Answer ALL questions. + 12V d. Floppy disk b. Which of the following holds the CPU. +5V b. ALU b. 1. Hard disk previous b. The 8085 microprocessor use -----. – 12 V 39. Motherboard d. CD-ROM . Pen drive c. Floppy disk c. none of the 40.5 –Computer Hardware and Networking (Elective Course) Time 3 hours Total weightage : 30 SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions.Sc Degree Programme in (Core) Physics Model Question Paper PY1651.

mips . secondary storage access time. is only used to boot up time b. memory access time c. A Pentium processor comprises a.65 II. line c. mesh topology d. CISC machines have a. mbps d. is cheaper than SRAM b. fewer instruction than RISC machines machines c. Execution of two or more program by a single CPU is known as a. more RAM than RISC d. ring topology c. 5. b. bus b. only I million transistors transistors only III. LAN speeds are measured in b. DRAM a. media d. Ethernet uses a. multiprocessing of the previous b. The communication line between the CPU . memory and peripherals is called a a. none 6. is used for cache memory c. 40. time sharing d. bps 43. more than I million transistors c. secondary storage capacity 7. is more expensive than SRAM d. kbps c. multiprogramming c. bus topology these b. more than 3 million transistors d. variable size instructions 8. none of the previous 42. memory capacity b. medium clock speed d. Cache memory enhances b. None of b. 500000 41.

Discuss the diagnosis and troubleshooting methods for the following problems in HDD a. What are Trojan and worms ? 23. Draw the functional block diagram of a Hard disk controller. keyboard interface problem. SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. 32.66 IV. 44. Data are loaded from secondary to primary storage in a nondestructive read process. 20. State whether the following statements are true or false. Define Protocol 27. 45. What is partitioning of disk drive? Discuss 21. offline UPS 33. Explain IP addressing method 28. Specify the types of topologies 26. c. What is a serial mouse and a bus mouse? 22. complete non – operation of the keyboard. LAN is a group of computers connected by a shared medium.] 17. online UPS b. 31. Write note on a. Draw the block diagrams of a. 30. b. 19. system displays ‘ No fixed disk present ‘ error message on the monitor. Define Topology. Each question carries a weightage of TWO. disk performance was slow c. usually a cable 47. OSI model is a four layer model designed by ISO. universal serial bus .] 29.. What is Bluetooth technology ? 24. Each question ca rries a weightage of ONE. non operation of some keys in the keyboard. Discuss about FAT and boot sector. An SMPS is designed to deliver 4 discrete outputs and incorporate a switching regulator 46. Compare the features of a Pentium 4 and an AMD Athlon processors. What is BIOS and what are its functional parts? 18. system is not booting from the hard disk b. Mention the duties of the transport layer SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. Write the diagnosis procedure and troubleshooting for the following keyboard error a. Differentiate between LAN and WAN 25.

Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I. 38.67 b. 67 . 14 . IEEE Firewire 34. 34 . 8 c. 13 . Shearing strain is related to . 111 . Each question carries a weightage of FOUR] 37. 2 . 10101111 11000000 11111000 00011101 c. 205 . 31 b. 129 . 11011111 10110000 00011111 01011101 36. With a neat sketch explain OSI reference model. 11 . 1. 39. 56 .Sc Degree Programme in (Complementary) Physics Model Question Paper PY1131. 0 SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions. Moment of inertia of a circular disc of mass M and radius R about its diameter is (a) MR2 (b) MR2/2 (c) MR2/3 (d) MR2/4 2. Find the class of the following IP address a. 01111111 11110000 01100111 01111101 b. 23. 114 . 128 . Discuss about the configuration of hard disk drive. 9 35. UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B. 4 . Answer ALL questions. 1 c. 28 b. Explain the components of motherboard in detail. a. 6 .1 – Mechanics and Properties of matter (For Mathematics Main only) Time 3 hours Total weightage: 30 SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. 3 . Change the following IP addresses from dotted-decimal notation to binary notation. Explain the various hard disk sub assemblies. Explain the duties of different layers. Change the following IP addresses from binary to dotted-decimal notation a. 238 .

5 (c) 1 and -0. The limiting values of Poisson’s ratio are (a) -1 and 0 (b) -1 and 0. 12. The dimensions of surface tension are (a) ML 0T -2 (b) ML-1T-2 (c) ML-1T-1 (d) ML2T-2 II. The ratio of lateral strain to longitudinal strain is called __________. 10. the viscosity of a gas (a) Increases (b) Decreases (c) Does not change (d) First increases and then decreases 6. 9. The rotation of the earth can be demonstrated using a ____________.68 (a) Young’s modulus (b) Bulk modulus (c) Rigidity modulus 3. Which one of the following is not a SHM (a) Oscillations of a loaded spring (c) Motion of the minute hand of a clock (b) Vibrations of atoms (d) Vibrations of a tuning fork 8. The main cause for the viscous drag in a liquid is (a) Surface tension (b) Friction (c) Inertia (d) None of these 7. 11. As temperature increases. 5.5 (d) 1 and 0 (d) None of these 4. A swimmer jumping into water from a height makes loops in air making use of ___________ law. Oscillatory motion occurs when the system is displaced from the position of (a) Stable equilibrium (c) Neutral equilibrium (b) Unstable equilibrium (d) None of these III. Two pendulum of equal length l and mass m are coupled by a mass less spring .

Explain why there are two propellers in a helicopter. 13. SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. Why? 24. The angle of contact of mercury with glass is obtuse. Write down the differential equation of a damped SHM. With the help of a stress-strain diagram. 19.69 of spring constant k. . An egg standing on one end is an example of unstable equilibrium. 28. The viscosity of water increases with increase in temperature. Gyroscopes are used in ships to find directions. 20. Even though ‘lava’ is highly viscous it flows rapidly. What are beats? How are they produced? 26.] 17. 25. State whether the following statements are true or false. Explain velocity resonance. Explain the physical significance of moment of inertia. 15. Water spreads on a clean glass plate but collects into drops on a greased glass plate. Why? 22. 16. Why are girders I-shaped? 21. 23. Explain the variation of potential energy and kinetic energy with displacement of a particle executing SHM. 18. The normal frequencies are ___________. Define coefficient of viscosity. explain elastic limit and yield point. 14. Each question carries a weightage of ONE. IV. 27. Explain the variation of surface tension of a liquid with temperature.

013×105 N/m 2.] 29. Calculate the load that must be suspended from a steel wire of diameter 1 mm to produce an elongation of 0.6 m radius makes 300 rpm. 34. What is the average power output of the source? . 30. Calculate the pressure inside an air bubble of radius 1 mm formed just below the surface of water. Young’s modulus of steel = 200×109 N/m 2. A metal plate of 0. The maximum velocity of a particle executing SHM is 1.01% of its original length. Calculate the horizontal force required to move the plate with a velocity of 0.70 SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions.05 m2 area rests on a layer of oil 2 mm thick.707 W/m2. 33. 36.2 m/s. 35.5 m/s and period is 0. A fly wheel of mass 250 kg and 0. A sphere of mass m and radius r rolls on a horizontal plane without slipping. Two soap bubbles of radii 6 cm and 8 cm coalesce in vacuum under isothermal conditions. 32. calculate the moment of inertia of the fly wheel. Each question carries a weightage of TWO. Atmospheric pressure = 1.56 Ns/m2. Surface tension of water = 72×10 -3 N/m. The intensity of a point source emitting sound at a distance 3 m from the source is 0. Coefficient of viscosity of the oil= 1.15 sec. Calculate the radius of the new bubble formed. Assuming its mass to be concentrated ay the rim. What fraction of its total energy is rotational? 31. Find the amplitude and maximum acceleration.

39.1 – Heat and Thermodynamics (For Mathematics Main only) Time 3 hours Total weightage: 30 SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions.Sc Degree Programme in (Complementary) Physics Model Question Paper PY1231. Fery’s black body is (a) Spherical (b) Cylindrical (c) Cone shaped (d) None of these . 1. Describe with necessary theory the method of determining the rigidity modulus of the material of a wire using torsion pendulum.71 SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions. Answer ALL questions. Derive an expression for the rate of flow of a liquid through a capillary tube. Arrive at the differential equation of a forced harmonic oscillator and give its solution. 38. UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B. the wavelength of thermal radiations is (a) Larger (b) Smaller (c) Equal (d) None of these 2. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR] 37. Compared to ordinary light waves. Explain the corrections.

The total energy radiated per second from unit area of a black body is proportional to (a) T (b) T2 (c) T3 (d) T4 4.72 3. 10. 5. 12. State whether the following statements are true or false. If P is the pressure and ? is the ratio of specific heats of an ideal gas. The process in which the pressure remains constant is called __________. The efficiency of a practical heat engine is (a) Less than one (b) Greater than one (c) Equal to one (d) None of these 7. 9. the adiabatic elasticity is ___________. The instrument used to measure solar constant is called ___________. the boiling point of a liquid (a) Increases (b) Decreases (d) Does not change (c) First increases and then decreases 8. IV. 11. Wien’s distribution law for thermal radiations is applicable for (a) Longer waves (b) Shorter waves (c) Medium waves (d) All waves II. When pressure is increased. . The absorptive power of a perfectly black body is equal to ____________. During an adiabatic process which of the following remains constant (a) Pressure (b) Volume (c) Temperature (d) Entropy III. The efficiency of a Carnot engine working between temperatures T1 and T 2 (T1>T 2) is (a) 1-(T2/T1) (b) 1-(T1/T 2) (c) (T 1/T 2)-1 (d) (T 2/T1)-1 6.

Explain the effect of melting point of ice with pressure. Draw the labeled indicator diagram for Otto cycle. Explain why heat conduction is a slow process. Why? 20. SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. 15. Show that adiabatic curve is steeper than isothermal curve. 24. State Wien’s displacement law. 26. Each question carries a weightage of TWO. Explain why an adiabatic process is called an isentropic process. The temperature of a perfectly black body is 600 K and area of its radiating .] 17. 23. The efficiency of a diesel engine is greater than that of a petrol engine. What are the advantages of diesel engine? 25. Write down any four properties of radiations from a uniform temperature enclosure. 18. 19. 16. How is entropy and disorder related? 28. An irreversible process is followed by an increase in entropy. When work is done by an isolated system its internal energy decreases. Is it possible to get a negative temperature on Kelvin’s scale? Explain. Explain why a heavy fly wheel is used in heat engines. 14.] 29. SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. Each question carries a weightage of ONE. The metal strip used in Angstrom pyrheliometer is made of platinum or manganin. 27. 22. Thermal radiations are electromagnetic in nature.73 13. 21.

Specific heat of water = 4200 J/kg/K. SECTION D . Calculate the increase in temperature of water falling from a height of 300 m assuming that the whole kinetic energy due to fall is converted into heat. If it bursts suddenly.74 surface is 2×10-3 m2.7×10-8 Wm-2K-4. A tyre has an air pressure of 4 atmospheres at a temperature of 300 K. calculate the final temperature. Calculate the coefficient of performance of an ideal refrigerator working between -150C and 350C. s = 5. 35. 30.4 32.8 m and radius 5 mm are kept between boiling water and ice at 00C.26×106 J/kg.c voltage fluctuations. calculate the thermal conductivity of copper. ? = 1. The temperature of an electric bulb changes from 1500 K to 2000 K due to a. 36. Calculate the change in entropy when 100 gm of water at 400C is converted into steam at 1000C. If 100 gm of ice melts in one hour. Latent heat of steam = 2. Calculate the percentage rise in electric power consumed. Latent heat of fusion of ice = 336 kJ/kg. 31. Calculate the value of T. The two ends of a copper rod of length 0. Find the energy radiated by the surface in 10 minutes. Specific heat capacity of water = 4200 J/Kg/K 33. 34. A Carnot engine has the same efficiency (i) between 100K and 500K and (ii) T K and 900K.

1 – Optics. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I. 1. With necessary theory explain how thermal conductivity of a bad conductor is determined by Lee’s disc method. Formation of colours in thin films is due to (a) Interference (b) Diffraction (c) Polarization (d) Dispersion . 38. Answer ALL questions. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR] 37. Describe an experiment to determine the solar constant using a pyrheliometer. Define solar constant. UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B.75 [Answer any TWO questions. (a) What is an indicator diagram? Explain its significance. (b) Derive an expression for the work done by an adiabatic process. A device based on interference due to division of amplitude is (a) Biprism (b) Newton’s rings (c) Double mirror (d) None of these 2. 39.Sc Degree Programme in (Complementary) Physics Model Question Paper PY1331. Magnetism and Electricity (For Mathematics Main only) Time 3 hours Total weightage: 30 SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions.

5. 10. Which of the following is not applicable to laser? (a) Monochromatic (b) Divergent (c) Intense (d) Coherent II. 12. . Which one of the following is a paramagnetic substance? (a) Antimony (b) Bismuth (c) Gold (d) Aluminium (b) Graded index fibre (c) Single mode fibre 7. the phase difference between current and voltage is (a) 00 (b) 450 (c) 900 (d) 1800 8. The expression for the Q factor of a series LCR circuit is ___________. 9. In a series LCR circuit if the current is wattless. Two waves of same amplitude ‘a’ each interfere each other. Pulse dispersion is maximum in (a) Step index fibre (d) None of these 6. The bending of light around corners of opaque objects is called __________. State whether the following statements are true or false. Which of the following is not correct? (a) Interference maxima have equal thickness equal thickness (b) Diffraction maxima have (c) Interference maxima have equal intensity (d) Diffraction maxima have varying intensity 4. IV. Fringes of equal inclination are also known as ___________. The intensity of maxima are ____________. the power factor will be (a) Zero (b) One (c) Infinity (d) None of these III.76 3. In a pure inductive circuit. 11.

the central band is normally dark. 27. What is meant by permeability and susceptibility? How are they related? 23. An atomic system with a metastable state is required to produce laser. Write down any four applications of laser. 16. In Newton’s rings arrangement. SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. 25. 19. What is a choke coil? Mention its advantage over a resistor. Explain sharpness of resonance in series resonant circuit. Distinguish between prism spectra and grating spectra. 15. Define time constant of an LR circuit. 22. Distinguish between spontaneous emission and stimulated emission. 18. Each question carries a weightage of TWO. Explain why Newton’s rings are circular while fringes of air wedge are straight and parallel. What are Haidinger’s fringes? 21. 26. The refractive index of a material is independent of the wavelength of incident light. 20. 14. SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. Explain absent spectra in double slit diffraction. Explain why very thin films appear black in reflected light. 28. The magnetic permeability of a ferromagnetic substance is less than one. Explain why a series LCR circuit is called an acceptor circuit.77 13.] 17.] . 24. Each question carries a weightage of ONE.

Find the value of the inductance that should be connected in series with a capacitor of 5 µF. A magnetic field of 0. A lens of focal length 40 cm forms a Fraunhofer diffraction pattern of a slit of 0. 33. SECTION D . A capacitor of capacity 0.2×10-23J/T. 36. Light of wavelength 593 nm falls normally on a thin wedge shaped film of refractive index 1. 32. A plane transmission grating has 6000 lines/cm over a length10 cm. 34. 35. th 31. Find the resolving power of the grating and the smallest wavelength that can be resolved in the 600 nm wavelength region.1 µF is connected with an inductance of 1 mH. Calculate the distance of the first dark band from the axis for light of wavelength 589 nm.4 forming fringes that are 1 mm apart. In a Newton’s rings arrangement the diameter of the 4 and 12th dark rings are 4 mm and 7 mm respectively. At what temperature will the mean kinetic energy of translation of the gas atoms be equal to the energy required to reverse a dipole end for end in this magnetic field. a resistance 100 O and an ac source of frequency 50 Hz so that the power factor is unity.5 T is applied to a paramagnetic gas whose atoms h ave an intrinsic magnetic dipole moment of 1. Find the diameter of the 20th dark ring. In a biprism experiment 100 fringes were observed with 600 nm light.2 mm width. How many fringes will be observed if the wavelength is changed to 500 nm and the set up remains unchanged? 30. Calculate the natural frequency of the circuit.78 29. Find the angle of the wedge.

Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I. Which of the following radioactive series has Pu239 as the parent atom? (a) Uranium series (c) Actinium series (b) Thorium series (d) Neptunium series . Describe with necessary theory. Which of the following is not a radioactive radiation? (a) a rays (b) ß rays (c) ? rays (d) X rays 2. Give an example for the same. 38. 39. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR] 37. Derive an expression for the current in a series LCR circuit when an alternating voltage is applied on it. Obtain the condition for resonance. 1. UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B. Answer ALL questions.1– Modern Physics and Electronics (For Mathematics Main only) Time 3 hours Total weightage: 30 SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions.79 [Answer any TWO questions.Sc Degree Programme in (Complementary) Physics Model Question Paper PY1431. an experiment to determine the wavelength monochromatic light using Newton’s rings arrangement. Describe the phenomenon of Fresnel diffraction at a straight edge.

A radioactive radiation which is electromagnetic in nature is ____________. The stability of a nucleus depends on the number of protons and neutrons in it. The energy per fission of U235 is about (a) 1 MeV (b) 50 MeV (c) 200 MeV (d) None of these II 5. Lightly doped region of the transistor is (a) Emitter (b) Base (c) Collector (d) Emitter and collector (b) Common emitter (c) Common collector 7. The transistor configuration which has current gain less than one is (a) Common base (d) None of these 6. State whether the following statements are true or false. 10. The common collector configuration of a transistor can be used as impedance . a rays are electromagnetic in nature. IV. The commonly used biasing circuit in amplifiers is (a) Fixed bias (b) Collector to base bias (c) Voltage divider bias (d) None of these III. 12. The binary equivalent of the decimal number 16 is ___________. The logic gate which has only one input is __________.I units is of the order of (a) 1017 (b) 1010 (c) 10-10 (d) 10-2 4. The relation between transistor a and transistor ß is (a) ß= a/(1-a ) (b) a= ß/(1-ß) (c) ß= a/(1+a) (d) a= 2ß/(1+ß) 8. 13.80 3. Nuclear density in S. The magnitude of the spin quantum number of an electron is ___________. 11. 9. 14. 15.

Each question carries a weightage of TWO. Explain the significance of the wave function. The binding energy per nucleon for C12 is 7.] 17. 26. Define mass defect of a nucleus. What is Berkhausen criterion for oscillations? 28. Explain the terms eigen value and eigen function.68 MeV and that of C13 is 7. State and explain DeMorgan’s theorems. State and explain Pauli’s exclusion principle. 19. 23. . 20. Explain the phase reversal of a transistor amplifier 27. Each question carries a weightage of ONE. What are the features of vector atom model? 18. A radioactive substance has a half life of 30 days. SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. Negative feedback is used in transistor oscillators. What are the limitations of Bohr atom model? 21. Calculate the time taken to decay 25% of the given sample of the substance.81 matching circuit.] 29. Calculate the energy required to remove one neutron from C13. Explain various coupling schemes. 24.47 MeV. Show that the energy levels of a particle in a box is quantized. 16. Which of the three transistor configurations is preferred? Why? SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. 25. 30. 22.

In a canter tapped full wave rectifier maximum voltage across half of the secondary winding is 50 V. If the collector load R C = 5 kO and R L = 10 kO. Solve it to obtain eigen functions and show that eigen values are discrete. 38. SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions. calculate the dc output voltage and the peak inverse voltage. The wavelength of a line in hydrogen spectrum is 500 nm.67×10 -27 kg can have if it is confined to move along the edge of an impenetrable box of length 10-14 m. Explain secular and transient radioactive equilibrium. 36. Obtain Schrödinger wave equation for a particle in a one dimensional rigid box. A 10 Volt Zener diode along with a series resistor is connected across a 40 V supply. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR] 37. 32. 33. 39. With the help of a neat circuit diagram. What is the lowest energy that a neutron of mass 1. Explain the rectifying action of a p-n junction diode. Calculate the minimum resistance required if the maximum Zener current is 50 mA. 34. 35. the base current changes by 10 µA and the collector current changes by 18 mA. In a transistor amplifier.82 31. Find out the related energy change of the in electron volt. Derive the general equation of growth and decay of radioactive series. Calculate the energy difference between the ground state and the first excited state for an electron in a one dimensional rigid box of length 1 A0. explain the working of a full wave rectifier using two diodes. find the current gain and voltage gain. when signal changes by 0. .02 V. If the load resistance is 200O.

The limiting values of Poisson’s ratio are (a) -1 and 0 (b) -1 and 0. the ratio of the lateral strain to linear strain is called (a) Young’s modulus (d) Poisson’s ratio 3. Within the elastic limit.5 (d) 1 and 0 (b) Bulk modulus (c) Rigidity modulus . 1.2 – Rotational Dynamics and Properties of matter (For Chemistry & Polymer Chemistry Main) Time 3 hours Total weightage: 30 SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. Answer ALL questions. Moment of inertia of a solid sphere of mass M and radius R about its diameter is (a) 1/3MR 2 (b) MR2/2 (c) 2MR2/3 (d) 2MR2/5 2.5 (c) 1 and -0. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I.83 UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B.Sc Degree Programme in (Complementary) Physics Model Question Paper PY1131.

13.84 4. The main cause for the viscous drag in a liquid is _________ 10. The normal frequencies are ___________. As temperature increases. State whether the following statements are true or false. Two pendulum of equal length l and mass m are coupled by a mass less spring of spring constant k. the viscosity of a gas (a) Increases (b) Decreases (c) Does not change (d) First increases and then decreases 6. Which one of the following is not a SHM? (a) Oscillations of a loaded spring (c) Motion of the minute hand of a clock 8. IV. 5. Gyroscopes are used in ships to find directions. The ratio of lateral strain to longitudinal strain is called __________. Moment of inertia of a rigid body is independent of (a) Mass of the body (d) Angular velocity III. 9. (b) Axis of rotation (c) Radius of gyration (b) Vibrations of atoms (d) Vibrations of a tuning fork .I unit of coefficient of viscosity is (a) Ns/m2 (b) Ns2/m (c) Ns/m (d) Ns2/m2 II. A swimmer jumping into water from a height makes loops in air making use of ___________ law. 11. The S. 12. The main cause for the viscous drag in a liquid is (a) Surface tension (b) Friction (c) Inertia (d) None of these 7.

20. Why are girders I-shaped? 21. Explain why the mass of fly wheel is concentrated at its rim. 28. 25. The angle of contact of mercury with glass is obtuse. What is Q-factor of a harmonic oscillator? SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. How does the surface tension of a liquid vary with temperature? 23. 16.1 m is making 120 rpm about an axis passing through its centre and perpendicular to its plane. 18. Why? 22. State the theorem of parallel axes. 15. A circular disc of mass 0. Calculate its kinetic energy. SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions.] 17.5kg and radius 0. What are beats? How are they produced? 26. Explain why steel is more elastic than rubber.] 29. 27. An egg standing on one end is an example of unstable equilibrium. Each question carries a weightage of TWO. Explain the variation of potential energy and kinetic energy with displacement of a particle executing SHM. 19. The viscosity of water increases with increase in temperature. . Define coefficient of viscosity. What are the conditions under which Poiseuille’s formula is valid? 24. Each question carries a weightage of ONE. Write down the differential equation of a damped SHM. A needle can float in clean water but sinks in soap solution.85 14.

Young’s modulus of steel = 200×109 N/m2.15 sec.01% of its original length.5 m/s and period is 0. Atmospheric pressure = 1. 33. . Calculate the radius of the new bubble formed.86 30. The maximum velocity of a particle executing SHM is 1. Describe with necessary theory the method of determining the rigidity modulus of the material of a wire using torsion pendulum. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR] 37. 34.56 Ns/m2.E of a sphere rolling without slipping on a horizontal surface. A metal plate of 0. 35.E of translation to the total K.013×105 N/m 2. Calculate the horizontal force required to move the plate with a velocity of 0. 36. Calculate the load that must be suspended from a steel wire of diameter 1 mm to produce an elongation of 0.05 m2 area rests on a layer of oil 2 mm thick. Find the amplitude and maximum acceleration. The intensity of a point source emitting sound at a distance 3 m from the source is 0. Surface tension of water = 72×10 -3 N/m. Calculate the ratio of K.2 m/s. Coefficient of viscosity of the oil= 1. Two soap bubbles of radii 6 cm and 8 cm coalesce in vacuum under isothermal conditions.707 W/m2. Calculate the pressure inside an air bubble of radius 1 mm formed just below the surface of water. What is the average power output of the source? SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions. 32. 31.

1. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I. The amount of energy radiated per second per unit area of a body is called its (a) Emissivity (b) Emissive power (c) Absorptive power (d) Reflecting power 3. Derive an expression for the rate of flow of a liquid through a capillary tube. Explain the corrections. Answer ALL questions.Sc Degree Programme in (Complementary) Physics Model Question Paper PY1231. Which of the following is not applicable to thermal radiations (a) Electromagnetic waves (b) Show interference and diffraction (d) Obey laws of refraction (c) Do not obey inverse square law 2. Pyrheliometer is an instrument used for measuring . UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B.87 38. Arrive at the differential equation of a forced harmonic oscillator and give its solution.2 – Heat and Thermodynamics (For Chemistry & Polymer Chemistry Main) Time 3 hours Total weightage: 30 SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. 39.

the adiabatic elasticity is ___________. 11. 14. 9. The process in which the volume remains constant is called __________. 12. The efficiency of a diesel engine is greater than that of a petrol engine. IV. The absorptive power of a perfectly black body is equal to ____________.88 (a) Solar constant (d) Emissive power 4. An irreversible process is followed by an increase in entropy. 10. the boiling point of a liquid (a) Increases (b) Decreases (d) Does not change (c) First increases and then decreases 8. The efficiency of a practical heat engine is (a) Less than one (b) Greater than one (c) Equal to one (d) None of these 7. The instrument used to measure solar constant is called ___________. Which of the following is not a thermodynamic coordinate (a) Pressure (b) Entropy (c) Viscosity (d) Temperature 6. Wien’s distribution law for thermal radiations is applicable for (a) Longer waves (b) Shorter waves (c) Medium waves (d) All waves (b) Temperature of the Sun (c) Emissivity II. State whether the following statements are true or false. . 13. If P is the pressure and ? is the ratio of specific heats of an ideal gas. 5. The area under the indicator diagram of a thermodynamic system represents (a) Enthalpy (b) Work done (c) Pressure (d) Entropy III. When pressure is increased.

Find the energy radiated by the surface in 10 minutes. Is it possible to get a negative temperature on Kelvin’s scale? Explain. 27. 23. The temperature of a perfectly black body is 600 K and area of its radiating surface is 2×10-3 m2. The metal strip used in Angstrom pyrheliometer is made of platinum or manganin. . 19. Explain the effect of melting point of ice with pressure. 26. 18. Explain why an adiabatic process is called an isentropic process. State Wien’s displacement law. 16. SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. What are the advantages of diesel engine? 25.] 17. Each question carries a weightage of ONE. Draw the labeled indicator diagram for Otto cycle. Explain why a heavy fly wheel is used in heat engines. 24. Thermal radiations are electromagnetic in nature. 21. Explain why heat conduction is a slow process. Each question carries a weightage of TWO. 22. s = 5. Why? 20. Show that adiabatic curve is steeper than isothermal curve.89 15.] 29. Write down any four properties of radiations from a uniform temperature enclosure. SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions.7×10-8 Wm-2K-4. How is entropy and disorder related? 28. When work is done by an isolated system its internal energy decreases.

calculate the final temperature. ? = 1. If it bursts suddenly. The temperature of an electric bulb changes from 1500 K to 2000 K due to a. If 100 gm of ice melts in one hour. Calculate the change in entropy when 100 gm of water at 400C is converted into steam at 1000C. Specific heat of water = 4200 J/kg/K. Specific heat capacity of water = 4200 J/Kg/K 33. A Carnot engine has the same efficiency (i) between 100K and 500K and (ii) T K and 900K. The two ends of a copper rod of length 0.c voltage fluctuations. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR] 37.8 m and radius 5 mm are kept between boiling water and ice at 00C. Latent heat of fusion of ice = 336 kJ/kg. 31. SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions. A tyre has an air pressure of 4 atmospheres at a temperature of 300 K. 34. Calculate the increase in temperature of water falling from a height of 300 m assuming that the whole kinetic energy due to fall is converted into heat. Calculate the percentage rise in electric power consumed. With necessary theory explain how thermal conductivity of a bad conductor is determined by Lee’s disc method. Calculate the value of T. 35.26×106 J/kg. calculate the thermal conductivity of copper. . 36. Latent heat of steam = 2.4 32. Calculate the coefficient of performance of an ideal refrigerator working between -150C and 350C.90 30.

(a) What is an indicator diagram? Explain its significance. (b) Derive an expression for the work done by an adiabatic process. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] 1) 1. Formation of colours in thin films is due to (a) Interference (b) Diffraction (c) Polarization (d) Dispersion 3. Which of the following is not correct? (a) Interference maxima have equal thickness (b) Diffraction maxima have . Magnetism and Electricity (For Chemistry & Polymer Chemistry Main) Time 3 hours Total weightage: 30 SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. 39. Answer ALL questions. Describe an experiment to determine the solar constant using a pyrheliometer. Define solar constant.2 – Optics. UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B.Sc Degree Programme in (Complementary) Physics Model Question Paper PY1331.91 38. The interference phenomenon can take place (a) in all waves (b) in transverse waves only (c) in longitudinal waves only (d) in standing waves only 2.

The bending of light around corners of opaque objects is called __________. Which of the following is not applicable to laser? (a) Monochromatic (b) Divergent (c) Intense (d) Coherent II. 9.92 equal thickness (c) Interference maxima have equal intensity (d) Diffraction maxima have varying intensity 4. Pulse dispersion is maximum in (a) Step index fibre (d) None of these 6. the power factor will be (a) Zero (b) One (c) Infinity (d) None of these III. 5. The intensity of maxima are ____________. The expression for the Q factor of a series LCR circuit is ___________. In a series LCR circuit if the current is wattless. The refractive index of a material is independent of the wavelength of incident light. IV. Fringes of equal inclination are also known as ___________. In a pure inductive circuit. the phase difference between current and voltage is (a) 00 (b) 450 (c) 900 (d) 1800 8. Two waves of same amplitude ‘a’ each interfere each other. 11. State whether the following statements are true or false. Which one of the following is a paramagnetic substance? (a) Antimony (b) Bismuth (c) Gold (d) Aluminium (b) Graded index fibre (c) Single mode fibre 7. 13. . 10. 12.

SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. 19. 20. 15. Write down any four applications of laser. SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions.93 14. Each question carries a weightage of ONE. What is a choke coil? Mention its advantage over a resistor. the central band is normally dark. The magnetic permeability of a ferromagnetic substance is less than one. 28. An atomic system with a metastable state is required to produce laser. Each question carries a weightage of TWO. Explain why Newton’s rings are circular while fringes of air wedge are straight and parallel. 22. 25. Explain sharpness of resonance in series resonant circuit. 26. 24. Explain why very thin films appear black in reflected light. Distinguish between spontaneous emission and stimulated emission. Define time constant of an LR circuit. How many fringes will be observed if the wavelength is changed to 500 nm and the set up remains unchanged? . In Newton’s rings arrangement. What is meant by permeability and susceptibility? How are they related? 23. In a biprism experiment 100 fringes were observed with 600 nm light. Explain absent spectra in double slit diffraction. 16.] 29. Explain why a series LCR circuit is called an acceptor circuit.] 17. 18. What are Haidinger’s fringes? 21. Distinguish between prism spectra and grating spectra. 27.

At what temperature will the mean kinetic energy of translation of the gas atoms be equal to the energy required to reverse a dipole end for end in this magnetic field. Calculate the natural frequency of the circuit. th 31.2 mm width. Find the angle of the wedge. Light of wavelength 593 nm falls normally on a thin wedge shaped film of refractive index 1. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR] 37. an experiment to determine the wavelength monochromatic light using Newton’s rings arrangement. A capacitor of capacity 0. 33. Find the resolving power of the grating and the smallest wavelength that can be resolved in the 600 nm wavelength region. Calculate the distance of the first dark band from the axis for light of wavelength 589 nm. 32. A magnetic field of 0. a resistance 100 O and an ac source of frequency 50 Hz so that the power factor is unity.2×10-23J/T. . 35. SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions. 34. Find the diameter of the 20th dark ring.4 forming fringes that are 1 mm apart.1 µF is connected with an inductance of 1 mH.94 30. Find the value of the inductance that should be connected in series with a capacitor of 5 µF.5 T is applied to a paramagnetic gas whose atoms h ave an intrinsic magnetic dipole moment of 1. Describe with necessary theory. 36. A plane transmission grating has 6000 lines/cm over a length10 cm. In a Newton’s rings arrangement the diameter of the 4 and 12th dark rings are 4 mm and 7 mm respectively. A lens of focal length 40 cm forms a Fraunhofer diffraction pattern of a slit of 0.

Answer ALL questions. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I. Which of the following radioactive series has Pu239 as the parent atom? (a) Uranium series (c) Actinium series (b) Thorium series (d) Neptunium series 3.I units is of the order of (a) 1017 (b) 1010 (c) 10-10 (d) 10-2 . Give an example for the same.95 38. 1.Sc Degree Programme in (Complementary) Physics Model Question Paper PY1431. Obtain the condition for resonance.2 – Modern Physics and Electronics (For Chemistry & Polymer Chemistry Main) Time 3 hours Total weightage: 30 SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. Derive an expression for the current in a series LCR circuit when an alternating voltage is applied on it. Nuclear density in S. UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B. Which of the following is not a radioactive radiation? (a) a rays (b) ß rays (c) ? rays (d) X rays 2. Describe the phenomenon of Fresnel diffraction at a straight edge. 39.

a rays are electromagnetic in nature. 14. The relation between transistor a and transistor ß is (a) ß= a/(1-a ) (b) a= ß/(1-ß) (c) ß= a/(1+a) (d) a= 2ß/(1+ß) 8.96 4. . 16. State whether the following statements are true or false. Lightly doped region of the transistor is (a) Emitter (b) Base (c) Collector (d) Emitter and collector (b) Common emitter (c) Common collector 7. 13. Negative feedback is used in transistor oscillators. The logic gate which has only one input is __________. The common collector configuration of a transistor can be used as impedance matching circuit. IV. 12. 11. 10. A radioactive radiation which is electromagnetic in nature is ____________. The binary equivalent of the decimal number 16 is ___________. 9. The energy per fission of U235 is about (a) 1 MeV (b) 50 MeV (c) 200 MeV (d) None of these II 5. The transistor configuration which has current gain less than one is (a) Common base (d) None of these 6. The magnitude of the spin quantum number of an electron is ___________. The stability of a nucleus depends on the number of protons and neutrons in it. The commonly used biasing circuit in amplifiers is (a) Fixed bias (b) Collector to base bias (c) Voltage divider bias (d) None of these III. 15.

23. What are the features of vector atom model? 18.] 29. Which of the three transistor configurations is preferred? Why? SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. 20.47 MeV. The binding energy per nucleon for C is 7. 19. Each question carries a weightage of TWO. A radioactive substance has a half life of 30 days. Explain the significance of the wave function. 12 13 30. 25.] 17. State and explain DeMorgan’s theorems. Calculate the energy required to remove one neutron from C13. State and explain Pauli’s exclusion principle. Calculate the time taken to decay 25% of the given sample of the substance. Explain various coupling schemes. What are the limitations of Bohr atom model? 21.97 SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. Define mass defect of a nucleus. What is Berkhausen criterion for oscillations? 28. Find out the related energy change of the in electron volt. The wavelength of a line in hydrogen spectrum is 500 nm. Explain the phase reversal of a transistor amplifier 27. Each question carries a weightage of ONE. 26. 31.68 MeV and that of C is 7. Explain the terms eigen value and eigen function. Show that the energy levels of a particle in a box is quantized. 22. . 24.

In a canter tapped full wave rectifier maximum voltage across half of the secondary winding is 50 V. 38. Explain secular and transient radioactive equilibrium.98 32. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR] 37. In a transistor amplifier. If the load resistance is 200O. 36. Calculate the minimum resistance required if the maximum Zener current is 50 mA.02 V.67×10-27 kg can have if it is confined to move along the edge of an impenetrable box of length 10-14 m. 34. Calculate the energy difference between the ground state and the first excited state for an electron in a one dimensional rigid box of length 1 A0. Derive the general equation of growth and decay of radioactive series. 33. 35. Obtain Schrödinger wave equation for a particle in a one dimensional rigid box. If the collector load R C = 5 kO and R L = 10 kO. calculate the dc output voltage and the peak inverse voltage. the base current changes by 10 µA and the collector current changes by 18 mA. when signal changes by 0. A 10 Volt Zener diode along with a series resistor is connected across a 40 V supply. SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions. What is the lowest energy that a neutron of mass 1. Solve it to obtain eigen functions and show that eigen values are discrete. find the current gain and voltage gain. .

99 39. Explain the rectifying action of a p-n junction diode. With the help of a neat circuit diagram, explain the working of a full wave rectifier using two diodes.

UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B.Sc Degree Programme in (Complementary) Physics Model Question Paper PY1131.3 – Mechanics and Properties of matter (For Statistics Main) Time 3 hours Total weightage: 30

SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. Answer ALL questions. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE]

I (1) Moment of Inertia of a sphere of mass m and radius R about an axis through the diameter is A.2/5 MR2 B. 5/2 MR2 C. 7/5 MR2 D. 5/7 MR2 (2) If l is the distance between centre of suspension ad C.G of a compound pendulum, then the length of equivalent simple pendulum is A.v(k2+l2) B. (k2/l) +l C. l +(l2/k) D.v((k2+l2)/l2) (3) In a simple harmonic oscillator the P.E and K.E Becomes equal at the position. A. x=a B. x=a/2 C. x=a/v2 D. x==0 (4) The total K.E of a simple harmonic oscillator is proportional to A. amplitude B. square of amplitude C. Velocity D.

100 Square root of displacement. II(5) the depression in the middle of girder for a given load depends on A. Length and breadth. B. breadth and depth C. depth D. length breadth and depth (6) The excess of pressure inside a cylindrical drop of liquid with surface tension s and radius r is A.2s/r B. s/r C.4s/r D.s/2r (7) Hot syrup flows faster because A. surface tension decreases B. Viscosity decreases C. surface tension increases D. Viscosity increases (8) The dimensions of viscosity is A. M-1 L1 T0 B. M0 L-1 T-1. C.M2 L-1 T-2 D. M L2 T-1. III Fill in the blanks (9) The mass of the flywheel is concentrated at it’s ........................ (10)In gases the modulus of elasticity involved is............................. (11)External bending moment required to produce a unit radius of curvature is called................................. (12) The instrument used to compare the viscosity of a liquid at two different temperatures is.......................... IV.State whether the following statements are true or false. (13) When a ring and disc of same mass rotates about their diameter Ring has greater moment of inertia. (14) In a harmonic oscillator K.E. is maximum at its mean position (15) Compressibility is the reciprocal of Bulk modulus. (16) Sound waves travel faster in humid air. SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. Each question carries a weightage of ONE]

(17). Write two factors that affect the M.I of a body. (18) What is radius of gyration? What is its value for a solid cylinder about an axis passing through one end and perpendicular to its axis? (19).Obtain an expression for the K.E.of a rotating body. (20). Draw a graph showing the variation of K.E.of a body executing S.H.M. (21) .Define centre of oscillation and centre of suspension of a compound pendulum. (22). What do you understand by the energy density of a plane progressive wave. (23) Show that a hollow shaft of the same length, mass and material is comparatively stronger than a solid one.

101 (24). What is torsional rigidity of a wire? On what factors do the torsional rigidity depends. (26). Derive an expression for the bending moment. (27). A drop of mercury is formed on a glass plate. Show in a figure the angle of contact and surface tension. (28). What are the conditions under which Poiseuille’s formula is derived. SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. Each question carries a weightage of TWO ]

(29).A solid sphere of mass o.5kg. and 1m diameter rolls without slipping with a constant velocity 5m/s along a smooth horizontal plane. Calculate the total energy (30).A thin uniform of length 2m and mass 4kg is bend in the form of a square oscillating about the centre of mass and about a vertical plane. Calculate its M.I. (31).A cantile ver of length 60cm is depressed by 20mm at loaded end. What is the depression at a distance 40cm from the fixed end. (32).Calculate the work done in twisting a steel wire of radius 103m and length 0.25m through an angle of 45 .The modulus of rigidity of the material is 8 Nm. (33).The mass of a wire of length 5m is 2 kg. What should be the tension in the wire so that the speed of transverse wave on the wire is340m/s. (34).Calculate the pressure inside an air bubble of diameter 0.2mm. situated just below the surface of water. (35).The velocity of sound in hydrogen 1320m/s.What will be the velocity of sound in a mixture of 2 parts by volume of hydrogen one part by volume of oxygen. (36).Water flows through a horizontal tube of length 0.2m and internal radius 8*10 m under constant pressure head of the liquid 0.2m high. In 12 minutes 8.64 of liquid is coming out of the tube. Calculate the coefficient of viscosity. Density of liquid is 1000kg/m3 SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR] (37).State and prove parallel axis theorem. Derive an expression for the M,I. of a uniform bar of rectangular cross section about an axis passing through its corner and perpendicular to its length (38). Derive an expression for the longitudinal waves along a solid rod. (39). Describe Jaegers experiment to determine surface tension of a liquid.

102 UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I.Sc Degree Programme in (Complementary) Physics Model Question Paper PY1231. 1. Answer ALL questions. The change in entropy during a Carnot’s cycle is .3 – Thermal Physics and Statistical Mechanics (For Statistics Main) Time 3 hours Total weightage: 30 SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. Which of the following is not applicable to thermal radiations (a) Electromagnetic waves (b) Show interference and diffraction (d) Obey laws of refraction (c) Do not obey inverse square law 2. If a gas is allowed to expand adiabatically. the temperature of the gas will (a) Rise (b) Fall (c) Remain unchanged (d) Depends on the nature of gas 3.

The process in which the volume remains constant is called __________. If P is the pressure and ? is the ratio of specific heats of an ideal gas. When pressure is increased. . The area under the indicator diagram of a thermodynamic system represents (a) Enthalpy (b) Work done (c) Pressure (d) Entropy III. 10. Which of the following is not a thermodynamic coordinate (a) Pressure (b) Entropy (c) Viscosity (d) Temperature 6. IV.103 (a) Maximum (b) Minimum (c) Exactly one (d) Zero 4. the adiabatic elasticity is ___________. 5. 9. To increase the efficiency of a Carnot’s engine most effectively. 12. 11. The instrument used to measure solar constant is called ___________. the temperature of the (a) Sink must be lowered (b) Sink must be increased increased (d) Source must be lowered (c) Source must be 7. 13. the boiling point of a liquid (a) Increases (b) Decreases (d) Does not change (c) First increases and then decreases 8. An irreversible process is followed by an increase in entropy. Wien’s distribution law for thermal radiations is applicable for (a) Longer waves (b) Shorter waves (c) Medium waves (d) All waves II. The absorptive power of a perfectly black body is equal to ____________. State whether the following statements are true or false.

Each question carries a weightage of TWO. Why? 18.5m2 and 5mm thick. The efficiency of a diesel engine is greater than that of a petrol engine. What factors reduce the efficiency of a heat engine from its ideal value? 23.] 17. Explain the term ensemble. Lees disc method is not suitable for good conductors. 16. What are Bosons and Fermions? 25. SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. if the inside temperature is 200C and the outside temperature is 400C. Calculate the quantity of heat conducted per minute through a glass window pane 0. 24. Thermal radiations are electromagnetic in nature. SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. When work is done by an isolated system its internal energy decreases. How is entropy and disorder related? 28. Show that adiabatic curve is steeper than isothermal curve.] 29. Each question carries a weightage of ONE. State Wiedemann-Franz law. If the wavelength of maximum energy in the solar spectrum is 475nm.05 W/m/K. Explain Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution law. What are the limitations of Wein’s explanation of black body spectrum? 20. . Explain why an adiabatic process is called an isentropic process. Thermal conductivity of glass = 10. 30. 22. Calculate the work done when a gas expands adiabatically. Show that there is always an increase in entropy in an irreversible cycle.104 14. 27. 19. 15. 21. 26.

Specific heat of water = 4200 J/kg/K. 33. calculate the thermal conductivity of copper. 38. the efficiency increases to 40%. Latent heat of steam = 2. Calculate the coefficient of performance of an ideal refrigerator working between -150C and 350C.26×106 J/kg. Wein’s constant = 2.898×10-3mK 31. If it bursts suddenly. Calculate the change in entropy when 100 gm of water at 400C is converted into steam at 1000C. With necessary theory explain how thermal conductivity of a bad conductor is determined by Lee’s disc method. A Carnot engine has the same efficiency (i) between 100K and 500K and (ii) T K and 900K. If 100 gm of ice melts in one hour.105 calculate the effective temperature of the Sun. 35. On reducing the temperature of the sink by 650C. Derive an expression for the efficiency of a Carnot’s . calculate the final temperature. 36. Find the temperatures of the source and sink. The efficiency of a Carnot cycle is 20%. Explain Carnot’s cycle. Calculate the value of T.8 m and radius 5 mm are kept between boiling water and ice at 00C. A tyre has an air pressure of 4 atmospheres at a temperature of 300 K. 34. The two ends of a copper rod of length 0. SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions.4 32. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR] 37. Latent heat of fusion of ice = 336 kJ/kg. ? = 1.

UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B. The first minimum will be obtained at an angle of diffraction 60 0 provided 5) Laser light is (a) Highly monochromatic (b) Highly coherent (c) Highly directional (d) All the three (a) in all waves (b) in transverse waves only (c) in longitudinal waves only (d) in standing waves only (a) e= ?/v3 (b) e = 2?/v3 (c) e = v3 ? (d) e = v3 ? /2 II 6) In a grating spectra which spectral line in the fourth order will overlap with the third order of 5461 ? .The ratio of the maximum to minimum intensity is 3) The interference phenomenon can take place (a) 10:8 (b) 9:1 (c) 4:1 (d) 2:1 4) A slit of width e is illuminated by light of wavelength ?. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I 2) Two waves having intensities in the ratio 9:1 produce interference . 39.3-Physical and Modern Optics and Electricity (For Statistics Main only) Time: 3 Hours Total weightage: 30 SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions.Sc Degree Programme in (Complementary) Physics Model Question Paper PY 1331 . (a) What is an indicator diagram? Explain its significance.106 engine. (b) Derive an expression for the work done by an adiabatic process. Answer ALL questions.

332 A (d) 3. What is laser? Give an example of three level laser.256 A (c) 3.s value is III (a) 3. if µ is the refractive index of the thin film and “t” its thickness. Each question carries a weightage of ONE. Explain the term population inversion.536 A (b) 4. What are the fringes of equal thickness? Give examples. then the condition for bright fringes to occur is 2 µt cos r = n?. 1V 13)The width and central maximum of the Fraunhofer diffraction will decrease when the State whether the following statements are true or false slit is made narrower.86 A 10) Soap bubbles viewed in white light show colours. 13) The opposition offered by an inductance to the flow of alternating current through it is ______________.107 (a) 4039 ? (b) 4069 ? (c) 4096 ? (d) 4079 ? 7) The basic ingredient of optical glass fibres is (a) Calcium carbonate (b) Silica (c) Calcium sulphate Germanium (d) 8) Susceptibility is positive for (a) Paramagnetic substances (b) Ferro magnetic substances (c) Dia magnetic substances (d) non magnetic substances 9) The peak value of an alternating current is 5 A and its frequency is 60 Hz. 12) The grating element of a diffraction grating have 5000 lines/cm is ________. Explain the electron theory of ferromagnetism. 14) Inside a magnet.m. 16) The unit is is second. What is a choke coil? What is its advantage over a resistor? . What is power factor? Give its significance. Define susceptibility and permeability.] 17) 18) 19) 20) 21) 22) 23) 24) 25) 26) 27) 28) Explain the colour of thin films. Explain the difference between diffraction and interference. Define resolving power of a grating. The phenomenon responsible for it is__________. the magnetic field lines move from the north pole to the south pole. SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. Distinguish between Fresnel diffraction and Fraunhofer diffraction. Using a diagram explain the distribution of light in the diffraction pattern due to a straight edge. 15) In transmitted light. Its r. 11) The phase difference corresponding to a path difference of ? is___________.

5) 30) In a Newton’s ring experiment. 36) A 15 µF capacitor is connected to a 220 volt.s and peak) in the circuit. 34) What is the instantaneous voltage of an ac supply of 220 volt and 50 Hz? 35) Find the inductive reactance and impedance of a circuit having an inductance 1/p henry and a resistance 50 ohm in series .m. 50 Hz source . given slit separation is 0.] 29) A parallel beam of sodium light (?=5890 ? ) strikes a thin film of oil floating on water.m.2 mm. If the frequency is doubled what will happen to the capacitive reactance and the current? SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions. Obtain the condition for resonance. Determine the thickness of the film.34 cm using a light of wavelength 589.108 SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. under normal incidence? 33) A laser beam has a wavelength 800 nm and aperture 5 x 10 -3 m.4 mm and the slit width is 0.Find the capacitive reactance and the current (r. When viewed at an angle of 300 from the normal. (Refractive index of oil is 1.f. the diameter of the fourth dark ring is 0. 32) What is the longest wavelength of light for which a spectrum can be obtained using a grating of 6000 lines/cm. Calculate the angular spread of the beam and the areal spread when it reaches the moon.when an alternating e. Each question carries a weightage of TWO.Calculate the radius of curvature of the convex lens. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR] 37) Describe an experiment to determine the wavelength of light by Newton’s rings method. . 31) Calculate the missing orders in a double slit diffraction pattern. 39) Derive an expression for the current in a series LCR circuit when an alternating current is impressed on it. of frequency 50 Hz is applied. 38) With a neat sketch explain the working of a ruby laser. The laser beam is sent to the moon. eighth dark band is seen.3nm. The distance of the moon is 4 x 10 5 km from the earth.

The amount of original radioactive atom left behind after five half lives is 2.Modern Physics and Electronics (For Statistics Main only) Time: 3 Hours Total weightage: 30 SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions.3.0 V II 5.Sc Degree Programme in (Complementary) Physics Model Question Paper PY 1431 . Radioactive substances do not emit 3. The resistance of a forward biased pn junction is (a) zero (b) a few ohms (c) a few kilo ohms (d) infinite 6. the semi conductor is called (a) 3% (b) 5% (c) 10% (d) 20% (a) electrons (b) protons (c) e.m radiations (d) Helium nucleus (a) donor (b) accepter (c) intrinsic (d) extrinsic 4. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I Choose the correct answer 1. Answer ALL questions.05 V (c) 0.1 V (d) 1. In Boolean algebra which of the following is not equal to zero (b) (b) (c) (d) (d) 505 7. When the conductivity of a semiconductor is only due the breaking of the co valent bonds.109 UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B. A binary number 11001101 means (b) 205 (b) 305 (c) 405 . The order of magnitude of the barrier potential in a pn junction diode (b) 0.01 V (b) 0.

One curie = _______________________ decays / sec 10.68 MeV and that of C13 is 7.110 8. In the case of wave function (b) v/ r 2 . The spin angular momentum of an electron is always ______________. SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. 31) Find the least energy of an electron moving in one dimension in an infinitely high potential box of width 1 A 0. 18) Show that the binding energy varies with mass numbers of different nuclei. the probability current density is (d) v (b) v/r (c) v/ r 3 III 9.11 x 10-31 kg. Gamma rays are high energy neutrons State whether the following statements are true or false 14) The resistance of a pure semiconductor at zero Kelvin is infinite. wave function is a measure of probability. 20) State Pauli’s exclusion principle. SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. 23 Draw the I-V characteristics of a diode in (a) forward bias (b) reverse bias.] 17) State the postulates of Bohr atom model. 11. The logic gate shown below is a ___________gate. Calculate the energy required to remove one neutron from C 13. In the equation of the system 12. 22) State and explain Planck’s hypothesis. Each question carries a weightage of ONE. 27) What is binary number system? How does it differ from decimal number system? 28 What is Boolean algebra? Discuss the fundamental laws of Boolean algebra. (m e = 9.63 x 10-34J. 21) Explain probability density. 26) Draw the circuit diagram of a single stage common emitter amplifier.47 MeV. 30) Calculate the radio active decay constant for an element whose half life is 20 years. 24) What are the special features of zener diode? 25) Distinguish between dc and ac load lines.S) 32) A transistor is connected in the CE configuration. Each question carries a weightage of TWO. 15) Emitter – base junction of a transistor is reverse biased. h = 6. 16) In quantum mechanics. 1V 13. 19) Show the relation between decay constant and half life.] 29) The binding energy per nucleon for C12 is 7. The collector supply voltage is 10 V and the voltage drop across the 500 O connected in the collector circuit is .

Rotational motion can be produced by (a) a force (b) a couple (c) two forces acting along a line (d) none of these 2. Calculate the half life of the substance.Sc Degree Programme in (Complementary) Physics Model Question Paper PY1131. A zener diode with Vz = 9 V and P max = 0. Determine the Q point if (a) Vcc = 10 V (b) Rc = 5 kO A 9 V voltage regulated supply is required to run a car stereo system from 12 V battery.111 0. Answer ALL questions.310 to octal.96.6 V.25 W is used as a voltage regulator. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I. and (c) the emitter current. 1. the collector load is 4kO and the zero signal collector current is 1 mA. Convert 359. Find the value of the series resistor. Draw the circuit diagram of a full wave bridge rectifier and explain its working UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B.4 – Mechanics and Properties of matter (For Geology Main) Time 3 hours Total weightage: 30 SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. In a transistor circuit. find (a) collector emitter voltage (b) base current. 39) Explain the terms ‘rectifier efficiency’ and ‘ripple factor’. It has a (a) Translational KE translational KE (b) Rotational KE (c) Both rotational and (d) None of the above . Give the physical interpretation of the wave function ? . 38) Derive Schrödinger time independent equation. The activity of a radioactive substance decreases to 1/64 of the original value in 21 years. If a = 0. A sphere rolls on a smooth surface. 33) 34) 35) 36) SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR] 37) State and explain the quantum numbers associated with the vector atom model.

5. As temperature increases. The ratio of lateral strain to longitudinal strain is called __________. Young’s modulus has the dimensions of (a) stress (b) strain (c) force (d) bending moment 4. The main cause for the viscous drag in a liquid is _________ 10. Two pendulum of equal length l and mass m are coupled by a mass less spring (b) Axis of rotation (c) Radius of gyration (b) Vibrations of atoms (d) Vibrations of a tuning fork (c) same everywhere . Moment of inertia of a rigid body is independent of (a) Mass of the body (d) Angular velocity III. the viscosity of a gas (a) Increases (b) Decreases (c) Does not change (d) First increases and then decreases 6. 9. In a wide river the velocity of water at the middle (a) Decreases with depth (b) Increases with depth (d) Zero 7. 11. Which one of the following is not a SHM? (a) Oscillations of a loaded spring (c) Motion of the minute hand of a clock 8.112 3. 12. A swimmer jumping into water from a height makes loops in air making use of ___________ law. For a system to be stable. the potential energy should be (a) maximum (b) minimum (c) infinity (d) none of these II.

Explain the variation of potential energy and kinetic energy with displacement of a particle executing SHM. 22. 27. is maximum at its mean position 14. What will happen to its tension? 20. An egg standing on one end is an example of unstable equilibrium. 15. . Which one will reach the bottom first? 18. 16. In a harmonic oscillator K. Why? 23. SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. 19. What are beats? How are they produced? 26. The angle of contact of mercury with glass is obtuse. 13.113 of spring constant k. IV. Two spheres. Explai n why the mass of fly wheel is concentrated at its rim. What are the conditions under which Poiseuille’s formula is valid? 24. A metal wire is stretched between two wires and heated.] 17. Why are girders I-shaped? 21. Explain why small drops of liquid assume spherical shape. Write down the differential equation of a damped SHM. State whether the following statements are true or false. The normal frequencies are ___________. Each question carries a weightage of ONE.E. What is the effect of temperature on viscosity of fluids? 25. It is easier to blow small bubbles instead of large ones from soap solution. one slides and the other rolls down an inclined plane. The viscosity of water increases with increase in temperature.

What is Q-factor of a harmonic oscillator? SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions.] 29. What is the average power output of the source? . Coefficient of viscosity of the oil= 1.1 m is making 10 rps about an axis. 35. Calculate the load that must be suspended from a steel wire of diameter 1 mm to produce an elongation of 0.05 m2 area rests on a layer of oil 2 mm thick. Atmospheric pressure = 1. Calculate the horizontal force required to move the plate with a velocity of 0. A metal plate of 0.E of a sphere rolling without slipping on a horizontal surface.114 28. Two soap bubbles of radii 6 cm and 8 cm coalesce in vacuum under isothermal conditions.707 W/m2. Surface tension of water = 72×10 -3 N/m. Young’s modulus of steel = 200×109 N/m2. Each question carries a weightage of TWO. A circular disc of mass 0. Find the amplitude and maximum acceleration. Calculate the pressure inside an air bubble of radius 1 mm formed just below the surface of water.2 m/s.5kg and radius 0. 33. 30. 32. The maximum velocity of a particle executing SHM is 1. Calculate the ratio of K.56 Ns/m2.01% of its original length.E of translation to the total K. 31. Calculate the radius of the new bubble formed.5 m/s and period is 0.013×105 N/m 2. Find the work that must be done to increase the rate of revolution to 20 rps. 34. 36. The intensity of a point source emitting sound at a distance 3 m from the source is 0.15 sec.

UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B.4 – Thermal Physics and Physics of the Earth (For Geology Main) Time 3 hours Total weightage: 30 SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. The vaporization of a liquid at its boiling point is an example of (a) Isothermal process (c) Isochoric process (b) Adiabatic process (d) Conduction 2. Pyrheliometer is an instrument used for measuring . 1.Sc Degree Programme in (Complementary) Physics Model Question Paper PY1231. Describe with necessary theory the method of determining the rigidity modulus of the material of a wire using torsion pendulum. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I. Derive an expression for the rate of flow of a liquid through a capillary tube.115 SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions. 39. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR] 37. The amount of energy radiated per second per unit area of a body is called its (a) Emissivity (b) Emissive power (c) Absorptive power (d) Reflecting power 3. 38. Answer ALL questions. Explain the corrections. Arrive at the differential equation of a forced harmonic oscillator and give its solution.

The sun heats the earth because of (a) Radiation (b) Conduction (c) Convection (d) Scattering (b) Temperature of the Sun (c) Emissivity II. 10. 11. IV. The process in which the volume remains constant is called __________. State whether the following statements are true or false. The efficiency of a diesel engine is greater than that of a petrol engine. the boiling point of a liquid (a) Increases (b) Decreases (d) Does not change (c) First increases and then decreases 8. . The absorptive power of a perfectly black body is equal to ____________. 14. The area under the indicator diagram of a thermodynamic system represents (a) Enthalpy (b) Work done (c) Pressure (d) Entropy III. When pressure is increased. The efficiency of a practical heat engine is (a) Less than one (b) Greater than one (c) Equal to one (d) None of these 7. If P is the pressure and ? is the ratio of specific heats of an ideal gas.116 (a) Solar constant (d) Emissive power 4. 5. Which of the following is not a thermodynamic coordinate (a) Pressure (b) Entropy (c) Viscosity (d) Temperature 6. An irreversible process is followed by an increase in entropy. the adiabatic elasticity is ___________. The instrument used to measure solar constant is called ___________. 12. 13. 9.

117 15. When work is done by an isolated system its internal energy decreases. 16. Thermal radiations are electromagnetic in nature. SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. Each question carries a weightage of ONE.] 17. Explain why a body at 1000K is red hot while at 2000K is white hot. 18. State Wien’s displacement law. 19. The metal strip used in Angstrom pyrheliometer is made of platinum or manganin. Why? 20. Freezer chest in a refrigerator is fitted at the top. Why? 21. Why does the temperature of a gas decrease, when it is expanded adiabatically? 22. Explain how a heat engine is different from a refrigerator. 23. Explain why the efficiency of a reversible engine is maximum. 24. Which are the different modes of heat transfer between sea and atmosphere? 25. Explain the mode of occurrence of ground water with respect to geological area. 26. Define seismology. 27. Which factors are affecting the gravity of earth? 28. What are the sources of earth’s heat? SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. Each question carries a weightage of TWO.] 29. If the air temperature remains constant at -100C, find the time required for the thickness of ice on a pond to increase from 2cm to 5cm. Assume water to be at

118 00C. Density of ice = 0.92×103 kg/m3. Thermal conductivity of ice = 2.2 W/m/K. Latent heat of fusion of ice = 336×103 J/kg. 30. The temperature of an electric bulb changes from 1500 K to 2000 K due to a.c voltage fluctuations. Calculate the percentage rise in electric power consumed. 31. A tyre has an air pressure of 4 atmospheres at a temperature of 300 K. If it bursts suddenly, calculate the final temperature. ? = 1.4 32. A Carnot engine is operated between two reservoirs at temperatures 500K and 400K. If the engine receives 5000J of heat from the source in each cycle, calculate the amount of heat rejected to the sink in each cycle and the efficiency of the engine. 33. Calculate the coefficient of performance of an ideal refrigerator working between -150C and 350C. 34. The two ends of a copper rod of length 0.8 m and radius 5 mm are kept between boiling water and ice at 00C. If 100 gm of ice melts in one hour, calculate the thermal conductivity of copper. Latent heat of fusion of ice = 336 kJ/kg. 35. A quantity of dry air at 270C is compressed suddenly to (1/3) of its volume. Calculate the change in temperature. ? = 1.4 36. A Carnot engine has the same efficiency (i) between 100K and 500K and (ii) T K and 900K. Calculate the value of T. SECTION D

119 [Answer any TWO questions. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR] 37. With necessary theory explain how thermal conductivity of a bad conductor is determined by Lee’s disc method. 38. Define gravitational field and potential. Derive expressions for the gravitational field and potential due to a solid sphere at a point outside the sphere and on the sphere. 39. Describe the construction and working of a diesel engine. What are the differences between a petrol engine and a diesel engine.

UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B.Sc Degree Programme in (Complementary) Physics Model Question Paper PY 1331.4-Optics and Electrodynamics (For Geology Main Students) Time: 3 Hours Total weightage: 30 SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. Answer ALL questions. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I .1. Two waves having intensities in the ratio 9:1 produce interference .The ratio of the maximum to minimum intensity is (a) 10:8 (b) 9:1 (c) 4:1 (d) 2:1
2.The interference phenomenon can take place

(a) in all waves (b) in transverse waves only (c) in longitudinal waves only (d) in standing waves only
3. A slit of width e is illuminated by light of wavelength ?. The first minimum will be obtained at an angle of diffraction 60 0 provided

(a) e= ?/v3 II

(b)e= 2?/v3 (c) e=v3 ? (d)e=v3 ? /2

4.Which of the following phenomena cannot take place in sound waves? (c) Reflection (b) Interference (c) Diffraction (d) Polarization

5. In a grating spectra which spectral line in the fourth order will overlap with the third order of 5461 ? (a) 4039 ? (b) 4069 ? (c) 4096 ? (d) 4079 ?
6.In the propagation of light waves ,the angle between the direction of propagation and the plane of polarization is (c) 00 (b) 450 (c) 90 0 (d)180 0

The phase difference corresponding to a path difference of ? is___________.4 mm and the slit width is 0. the diameter of the fourth dark ring is 0. given slit separation is 0. the magnetic field lines move from the North Pole to the South Pole.] 17) Explain the colour of thin films. 31) Calculate the missing order in a double slit diffraction pattern. Each question carries a weightage of TWO. 20) Define resolving power of a grating.2 mm.34 cm using a light of wavelength 589.] 29) A parallel beam of sodium light (?=5890 ? ) strikes a thin film of oil floating on water.3nm. SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. Each question carries a weightage of ONE. 28) What is a choke coil? What is its advantage over a resistor? SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. 27) What is power factor? Give its significance. 25) Explain the electron theory of ferromagnetism. 14) Inside a magnet. (Refractive index of oil is 1. 15) To distinguish between an elliptically polarized light and a partially polarized light we make use of a quarter wave plate. . The horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field is at a place is v3 times the vertical component . 10. The Brewster’s law in polarization of light is (c) n Sin ip=1 (b) n Cos ip=1 (c) n tan (c) 450 (b) 300 (c) 600 (d) 90 0 ip=1 (d) n Cot ip=1 8. The phenomenon responsible for it is __________. Soap bubbles viewed in white light show colours. 16) The earth’s magnetic field always has a horizontal component except at the Equator. 12. The width and central maximum of the Fraunhofer diffraction will decrease when the slit is made narrower.120 7. 21) Distinguish between Fresnel diffraction and Fraunhofer diffraction. 11. When viewed at an angle of 300 from the normal.Calculate the radius of curvature of the convex lens. The opposition offered by an inductance to the flow of alternating current through it is ______________. Determine the thickness of the film.5) 30) In a Newton’s ring experiment. The magnetic axis is inclined to the geographic axis at ________degrees. eighth dark band is seen. 26) What are the magnetic elements of the earth? Explain. 22) State Brewster’s Law. 23) What is a half wave plate? Why is it called so? 24) Distinguish between dextro and laevo rotatory substances.The value of the dip angle is III 9. 1V State whether the following statements are true or false 13. 18) What are the fringes of equal thickness? Give examples. 19) Explain the difference between diffraction and interference.

Answer ALL questions. In Boolean algebra which of the following is not equal to zero (d) (b) (c) (d) 19.05 V (c) 0.1 V (d) 1. 38) What is double refraction? Explain the working of a Nicol Prism and how is it used as a polarizer and an analyser? 39) Derive an expression for the current in a series LCR circuit when an alternating current is impressed on it.54) 34) What is the instantaneous voltage of an ac supply of 220 volt and 50 Hz.0 V 17. of frequency 50 Hz is applied.Sc Degree Programme in (Complementary) Physics Model Question Paper PY 1431. 50 Hz source .4. Radioactive substances do not emit (a) electrons (b) protons (c) e. Electronics and Crystallography (For Geology Main only) Time: 3 Hours Total weightage: 30 SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. When the conductivity of a semiconductor is only due the breaking of the co valent bonds.Modern Physics.01 V (b) 0.m. The resistance of a forward biased pn junction is (a) zero (b) a few ohms (c) a few kilo ohms (d) infinite 18.121 32) What is the longest wavelength of light for which a spectrum can be obtained using a grating of 6000 lines/cm. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR] 37) Describe an experiment to determine the wavelength of light by Newton’s rings method. A binary number 11001101 means (d) 205 (b) 305 (c) 405 (d) 505 20. Obtain the condition for resonance UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B. µ E=1.55. If the frequency is doubled what will happen to the capacitive reactance and the current? SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions. the semi conductor is called (a) donor II (b) accepter (c) intrinsic (d) extrinsic 16.(µ O =1. The order of magnitude of the barrier potential in a pn junction diode (d) 0. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I 1. under normal incidence? 33) Find the thickness of (a) quarter wave plate (b) half wave plate when light of wavelength 589 nm is used. 36) A 15 µF capacitor is connected to a 220 volt.? 35) Find the inductive reactance and impedance of a circuit having an inductance 1/p Henry and a resistance 50 ohm in series .s and peak) in the circuit.m radiations (d)Helium nucleus 15.m.when an alternating e. The total number of crystallographic symmetry elements of a cubical crystal is .Find the capacitive reactance and the current(r.f.The amount of original radioactive atom left behind after five half lives is (a) 3% (b) 5% (c) 10% (d) 20% 14.

21) What do you meant point groups and space groups? 22) With suitable diagram describe the diamond structure. 16) There is five fold rotation axis in a lattice. 18) Show that the binding energy varies with mass numbers of different nuclei. 30) Calculate the radio active decay constant for an element whose half life is 20 years. The inter planar distance for a cubical structure in (h k l) plane is 24. 1V State whether the following statements are true or false 25. 24) What are the special features of zener diode? 25) Distinguish between dc and ac load lines.68 MeV and that of C13 is 7.47 MeV. Calculate the energy required to remove one neutron from C 13. SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. 27) What is binary number system? How does it differ from decimal number system? 28 What is Boolean algebra? Discuss the fundamental laws of Boolean algebra. Each question carries a weightage of ONE. 26) Draw the circuit diagram of a single stage common emitter amplifier. 15) A lattice is said to posses rotation symmetry if it is left unchanged after rotating through an angle ? about an axis. then the la ttice parameter is______________. 19) Show the relation between decay constant and half life. If the distance between the consecutive planes in a cubic crystal is 2A 0.] 29) The binding energy per nucleon for C12 is 7. SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. One curie = _______________________ decays / sec 22.] 17) State the postulates of Bohr atom model.2 x 10-10 m .122 (d) 23 (b) 24 (c) 22 (d) 21 III 21. Each question carries a weightage of TWO. 23. Gamma rays are high energy neutrons 14) The resistance of a pure semiconductor at zero Kelvin is infinite. 31) Calculate the interplanar spacing for a (321) plane in a simple cubic lattice whose lattice constant is 4. 20) State Pauli’s exclusion principle. The logic gate shown below is a ___________gate. 23 Derive Bragg’s law.

H.6 V. UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B. find (a) collector emitter voltage (b) base current. SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions. the collector load is 4kO and the zero signal collector current is 1 mA. Find the value of the series resistor. 34) In a transistor circuit. A zener diode with Vz = 9 V and P max = 0. The collector supply voltage is 10 V and the voltage drop across the 500 O connected in the collector circuit is 0. 33) The activity of a radioactive substance decreases to 1/64 of the original value in 21 years.5 – Mechanics and Properties of matter (For Home Science Main) Time 3 hours Total weightage: 30 SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions.310 to octal. 39) Explain the terms ‘rectifier efficiency’ and ‘ripple factor’.E. 38) Describe briefly the various methods for crystal structure determination by X-ray diffraction. Draw the circuit diagram of a full wave bridge rectifier and explain its working.25 W is used as a voltage regulator. Calculate the half life of the substance. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR] 37) State and explain the quantum numbers associated with the vector atom model. If a = 0. and (c) the emitter current.M? a) Oscillations of a loaded spring b) Vibrations of atoms c) Motion of the minute hand of a clock d) Vibrations of a tuning fork .Sc Degree Programme in (Complementary) Physics Model Question Paper PY1131. Determine the Q point if (a) Vcc = 10 V (b) Rc = 5 kO 35) A 9 V voltage regulated supply is required to run a car stereo system from 12 V battery. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I1) Moment of inertia of a solid sphere of mass M and radius R about an axis passing through its tangent is a) 5/7 MR2 b) 7/5 MR2 c) 2/5 MR2 d) 5/2 MR2 2) The angular velocity of a rotating body is doubled.96. Answer ALL questions.? c) becomes 4 times a) Doubled d) no change b) halved 3) Which one of the following is not a S.123 32) A transistor is connected in the CE configuration. 36) Convert 359. What happens to its K.

Represent them graphically. 14) The total energy of a harmonic oscillator varies with displacement when it executes simple harmonic motion 15) When a spherical body falls through a highly viscous liquid the terminal velocity of the body is inversely proportional to square of its radius. position.. 18) A person can distinguish between a raw egg and a hard boiled egg by spinning each one the table. and K. 22) What is an I section girder? Why are I section girders preferred? 23) Explain the terms neutral axis. plane of bending and bending moment? 24) Distinguish between flexural rigidity.E. Explain how? 19) Give expressions for kinetic. potential and total energy of particle executing simple harmonic motion. becomes equal at a) x=2a b) x =a/2 c) x = a/v2 d) x = 0 8) The angle of contact of mercury with glass is a) 90 b) obtuse c) acute d) zero III 9) When a body with circular symmetry roll on a plane surface the total kinetic energy of the body is the sum of …………………………. Each question carries a weightage of ONE ] . 16) The surface tension of a liquid increases with temperature. 17) State and prove theorem of parallel axis. SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. 11) The acceleration of a harmonic oscillator is maximum at its ………. and torsional rigidity..124 4) The bending moment for a beam of circular cross section of radius ‘r’ is a) (Ypr2)/R b) (Ypr4)/4R c) (Ypr2)/R2 d) (YpR4)/r II 5) The expression for energy density for a plane progressive wave of amplitude ‘a’ and frequency ‘n’ through a medium of density ‘d’ is a) 2p 2a2n2d2 b) 2pa2n2d c) 2p 2a2n2d d)2p 2a2n2d2 6) The excess of pressure inside a cylindrical drop is a) 2s/r b) s/r c) 4s/r d) s/2r 7) In a simple harmonic oscillation P. 20) Draw a typical potential energy curve for a diatomic molecule. with temperature. IV (state whether the following statements are true or false) 13) The moment of inertia of a body is independent of its angular velocity. 10) The apparatus used to find the rigidity modulus of the material of a body in the form of a rod is ………………………….E. 25) Name the factors on which the period of oscillation of a torsion pendulum . . Explain the different modes of transverse vibrations in string. 21) Write down the expression for velocity of transverse waves in a stretched string. 12) The viscosity of a gas ………….

Find the surface tension of soap solution. is rotating at the rate of 10 rps about its axis. Find the amplitude and period of oscillation.125 depends? 26) What is a Neumann’s triangle? Explain its significance.] . Derive expressions for velocity and acceleration for a S.M. how will it affect the rate of flow of liquid? .96 mm by a load of 100 grams. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR] 37) Derive an expression for the moment of inertia of a solid sphere about a tangent. 36) A liquid flows through two capillaries under the same pressure head. Compare the rates of flow of the liquid in the two tubes. 38) Derive the differential equation of a particle executing simple harmonic motion.1 m and mass 1 kg. . 31) A particle executing simple harmonic motion has a maximum velocity 0.3 m/s. Density of oil 0. SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. Calculate Young’s modulus for the material of the bar.2sin (5p t-(5/16)px) where x and y are in cm and t in seconds. and acceleration 0. Each question carries a weightage of TWO. 27) Calculate the force required to separate two plates enclosing a thin layer of water. The lengths of the tubes are in the ratio 2: 3 and their diameters in the ratio 2 : 3. 28) If the length of the capillary tube in Poiseuille’s experiment is doubled and radius halved. Find the work that must be done t increase the rate of revolution to 20 rps. 33) A bar 1 m long and 5 mm square in section supported horizontally at its ends and loaded at the middle is depressed 1.4 m/s2.8 x 103 kgm-3. 34) What couple must be applied to a wire 1 m long and 3 mm diameter to twist one of its ends through 45 degree while the other end is fixed? n = 5 x 1010 Nm-2 35) The pressure of air inside a soap bubble of radius 10-2 m is balanced by that due to a column of oil 2 x 10-3 m high. . 32) A plane progressive wave in a medium is represented by the equation y=0. 30) Show that the kinetic energy of a uniform ring of mass ‘m’ rolling along a smooth horizontal surface so that its centre of mass has a velocity ‘v’ is mv2. 39) What is a cantilever? Derive an expression at the free end of a cantilever clamped at one end and loaded at the other end.H. 29) A circular disc of radius 0. SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions.

Answer ALL questions.5 – Thermal Physics (For Home Science Main only) Time 3 hours Total weightage: 30 SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I. 1. Compared to ordinary light waves.126 UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B.Sc Degree Programme in (Complementary) Physics Model Question Paper PY1231. An ideal material for making cooking vessels must have (a) Small conductivity and large heat capacity (b) Large heat capacity and large conductivity (c) Small heat capacity and large conductivity . the wavelength of thermal radiations is (a) Larger (b) Smaller (c) Equal (d) None of these 2.

9. 11. If P is the pressure and ? is the ratio of specific heats of an ideal gas. The total energy radiated per second from unit area of a black body is proportional to (a) T (b) T2 (c) T3 (d) T4 4. During an adiabatic process which of the following remains constant (a) Pressure (b) Volume (c) Temperature (d) Entropy III. The absorptive power of a perfectly black body is equal to ____________. If dW+dV=0. the adiabatic elasticity is ___________. The instrument used to measure solar constant is called ___________. 12. 10. . the process is (a) Isothermal (b) Adiabatic (c) Isochoric (d) Cyclic 6. When pressure is increased. 5. the boiling point of a liquid (a) Increases (b) Decreases (d) Does not change (c) First increases and then decreases 8. Wien’s distribution law for thermal radiations is applicable for (a) Longer waves (b) Shorter waves (c) Medium waves (d) All waves II.127 (d) Small heat capacity and small conductivity 3. The process in which the pressure remains constant is called __________. Let dW be the work done by a gas and dV be its change in internal energy. The efficiency of a practical heat engine is (a) Less than one (b) Greater than one (c) Equal to one (d) None of these 7.

14. 20. Show that there is always an increase of entropy in an irreversible cycle. State and explain Fick’s law of diffusion. How will you estimate the temperature of the sun by knowing solar constant? 24. An irreversible process is followed by an increase in entropy. State whether the following statements are true or false. 19. Derive the differential equation for diffusion. Explain why a heavy fly wheel is used in heat engines. 26. Draw the labeled indicator diagram for Otto cycle. Explain why heat conduction is a slow process. SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. 23. 13. What are the advantages of diesel engine? 25. If the . Thermal radiations are electromagnetic in nature.] 17. Show that adiabatic curve is steeper than isothermal curve. The efficiency of a diesel engine is greater than that of a petrol engine. 21. Explain why Lee’s disc method is not suitable for conductors. A slab consists of parallel layers of iron and copper 5cm and 7cm thick and thermal conductivities 500 W/m/K and 385 W/m/K respectively. 18. SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions.] 29. 15. Entropy of the universe tends to a maximum. Each question carries a weightage of ONE. 16.128 IV. 27. Is it possible to get a negative temperature on Kelvin’s scale? Explain. Explain 28. Each question carries a weightage of TWO. When work is done by an isolated system its internal energy decreases. 22.

Specific heat of water = 4200 J/kg/K. 35.5 times the initial volume. 30.8 m and radius 5 mm are kept between boiling water and ice at 00C. A Carnot engine whose sink is at 200K has an efficiency 40%. The temperature of an electric bulb changes from 1500 K to 2000 K due to a. Calculate the percentage rise in electric power consumed. find the temperatures of the interface.4 32. By how much should the temperature of the source be increased? 34. If 100 gm of ice melts in one hour. ? = 1. Two litres of hydrogen at a pressure of 105 Pa expands adiabatically to 1. Calculate the increase in temperature of water falling from a height of 300 m assuming that the whole kinetic energy due to fall is converted into heat. Latent heat of steam = 2. The two ends of a copper rod of length 0.129 opposite faces of the slab are at temperatures 373K and 273K. Specific heat capacity of water = 4200 J/Kg/K 33. It is desired to increase the efficiency to 50%. Calculate the change in entropy when 100 grams of water at 150C is mixed with 160 grams of water at 400C. Find the work done. calculate the thermal conductivity of copper.26×106 J/kg. Latent heat of fusion of ice = 336 kJ/kg. 36. . 31. Calculate the change in entropy when 100 gm of water at 400C is converted into steam at 1000C.c voltage fluctuations.

Answer ALL questions.130 SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions. (a) What is an indicator diagram? Explain its significance.Sc Degree Programme in (Complementary) Physics Model Question Paper PY1331. 39.5 – Optics and Electricity (For Home Science Main only) Time 3 hours Total weightage: 30 SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. Formation of colours in thin films is due to (a) Interference (b) Diffraction (c) Polarisation (d) Dispersion 3. Which of the following is not correct? . 1. 38. (b) Derive an expression for the work done by an adiabatic process. With necessary theory explain how thermal conductivity of a bad conductor is determined by Lee’s disc method. Define solar constant. UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B. A device based on interference due to division of amplitude is (a) Biprism (b) Newton’s rings (c) Double mirror (d) None of these 2. Each q uestion carries a weightage of FOUR] 37. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I. Describe an experiment to determine the solar constant using a pyrheliometer.

(a) Electrical energy is converted into Mechanical energy. The intensity of maxima are ____________. In a series LCR circuit if the current is wattless. Fringes of equal inclination are also known as ___________. (b) Mechanical energy is converted into Electrical energy. Which of the following is not applicable to laser? (a) Monochromatic (b) Divergent (c) Intense (d) Coherent II. State whether the following statements are true or false. 5. IV. In an electric fan ………………………………………………. (d) None of the above 7. 10. Two waves of same amplitude ‘a’ each interfere each other. The expression for the Q factor of a series LCR circuit is ___________. (c) No energy conversion. 9. 12. the phase difference between current and voltage is (a) 00 (b) 450 (c) 900 (d) 1800 (b) Graded index fibre (c) Single mode fibre 8.131 (a) Interference maxima have equal thickness equal thickness (b) Diffraction maxima have (c) Interference maxima have equal intensity (d) Diffraction maxima have varying intensity 4. In a pure inductive circuit. the power factor will be (a) Zero (b) One (c) Infinity (d) None of these III. The bending of light around corners of opaque objects is called __________. Pulse dispersion is maximum in (a) Step index fibre (d) None of these 6. 11. .

SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. Write down any four applications of laser. 26. 18. 16. Define time constant of an LR circuit. The magnetic permeability of a ferromagnetic substance is less than one. Explain why Newton’s rings are circular while fringes of air wedge are straight and parallel. 19. between spontaneous emission and stimulated . The refractive index of a material is independent of the wavelength of incident light. Distinguish emission. What is a choke coil? Mention its advantage over a resistor. An atomic system with a metastable state is required to produce laser. 27. Explain why a series LCR circuit is called an acceptor circuit. Explain sharpness of resonance in series resonant circuit. Explain why very thin films appear black in reflected light. Explain the principle of working of a microwave oven. 28. 15. 20. 14. Explain absent spectra in double slit diffraction. Each question carries a weightage of ONE. 25. 24. 22. Distinguish between prism spectra and grating spectra. 23. the central band is normally dark. In Newton’s rings arrangement. What are Haidinger’s fringes? 21.132 13.] 17.

Each question carries a weightage of TWO. Light of wavelength 593 nm falls normally on a thin wedge shaped film of refractive index 1. SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions.2×10-23J/T. In a Newton’s rings arrangement the diameter of the 4 and 12th dark rings are 4 mm and 7 mm respectively. A capacitor of capacity 0.1 µF is connected with an inductance of 1 mH. 32. 36. A lens of focal length 40 cm forms a Fraunhofer diffraction pattern of a slit of 0.5 T is applied to a paramagnetic gas whose atoms have an intrinsic magnetic dipole moment of 1.] 29. A magnetic field of 0. 34. How many fringes will be observed if the wavelength is changed to 500 nm and the set up remains unchanged? 30. Calculate the natural frequency of the circuit. In a biprism experiment 100 fringes were observed with 600 nm light. Find the value of the inductance that should be connected in series with a capacitor of 5 µF.4 forming fringes that are 1 mm apart. Find the resolving power of the grating and the smallest wavelength that can be resolved in the 600 nm wavelength region. 33. At what temperature will the mean kinetic energy of translation of the gas atoms be equal to the energy required to reverse a dipole end for end in this magnetic field. Calculate the distance of the first dark band from the axis for light of wavelength 589 nm.2 mm width. Find the diameter of the 20th dark ring. a resistance 100 O and an ac source of frequency 50 Hz so that the power factor is unity. th 31. Find the angle of the wedge.133 SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR] . A plane transmission grating has 6000 lines/cm over a length10 cm. 35.

Which of the following radioactive series has Pu239 as the parent atom? (a) Uranium series (c) Actinium series (b) Thorium series (d) Neptunium series (c) Light consists of photons (b) Electron emits energy 3. Describe the phenomenon of Fresnel diffraction at a straight edge. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I. Describe with necessary theory. 38. monochromatic light using Newton’s rings UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B.134 37. Answer ALL questions. The presence of sharp lines in the spectrum of a gas indicates (a) Discrete energies associated with stationary orbits in discrete packets (d) Electrons collide each other 2.5 – Atomic Physics and Electronics (For Home Science Main only) Time 3 hours Total weightage: 30 SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions.Sc Degree Programme in (Complementary) Physics Model Question Paper PY1431 . Obtain the condition for resonance. 39. Give an example for the same. 1. an experiment to determine the wavelength arrangement. Balmer series in hydrogen spectrum is emitted when electrons jump from higher orbits to . Derive an expression for the current in a series LCR circuit when an alternating voltage is applied on it.

Negative feedback is used in transistor oscillators. 10. One of the features of vector atom model is ___________ quantization. The logic gate which has only one input is __________. What is critical magnetic field? .135 (a) First orbit (b) second orbit (c) third orbit (d) fourth orbit 4. 12. 19. Each question carries a weightage of ONE. 15. 16. The stability of a nucleus depends on the number of protons and neutrons in it. The transistor configuration which has current gain less than one is (a) Common base (d) None of these 6. State whether the following statements are true or false. 14. The commonly used biasing circuit in amplifiers is (a) Fixed bias (b) Collector to base bias (c) Voltage divider bias (d) None of these III.] 17. Lightly doped region of the transistor is (a) Emitter (b) Base (a) ß= a/(1-a ) (c) Collector (d) Emitter and collector (d) a= 2ß/(1+ß) (b) Common emitter (c) Common collector 7. The mass of an electron is entirely due to its charge. What is Bohr’s correspondence principle? 18. SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. 13. ? radiations are electromagnetic radiations of high frequency. 11. Explain various coupling schemes. A radioactive radiation which is electromagnetic in nature is ____________. 9. Spin quantum numbers of an electron can have (a) Only half integral values (c) Only one constant value (b) only integral values (d) integral and half integral values II 5. The binary equivalent of the decimal number 16 is ___________. The relation between transistor a and transistor ß is (b) a= ß/(1-ß) (c) ß= a/(1+a) 8. IV.

Define mass defect of a nucleus. State and explain DeMorgan’s theorems. Explain the phase reversal of a transistor amplifier 27. Calculate the energy required to remove one neutron from C 13. State and explain Pauli’s exclusion principle. Explain Meissner effect. What is the lowest energy that a neutron of mass 1. 30. 25. Each question carries a weightage of TWO. 33. Distinguish between type I and type II super conductors. 22. 26. 23. What are the limitations of Bohr atom model? 21. Find out the related energy change of the in electron volt. 32. Calculate the energy difference between the ground state and the first excited state for an electron in a one dimensional rigid box of length 1 A 0. The binding energy per nucleon for C12 is 7.67×10-27 kg can have if it is confined to move along the edge of an impenetrable box of length 10-14 m.136 20. 24.47 MeV. What is Berkhausen criterion for oscillations? 28. . A radioactive substance has a half life of 30 days. The wavelength of a line in hydrogen spectrum is 500 nm.] 29. Which of the three transistor configurations is preferred? Why? SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. 31.68 MeV and that of C13 is 7. Calculate the time taken to decay 25% of the given sample of the substance.

. calculate the dc output voltage and the peak inverse voltage. Solve it to obtain eigen functions and show that eigen values are discrete. If the collector load RC = 5 kO and RL = 10 kO. 35.02 V. Explain secular and transient radioactive equilibrium. Obtain Schrödinger wave equation for a particle in a one dimensional rigid box. 39. the base current changes by 10 µA and the collector current changes by 18 mA. In a canter tapped full wave rectifier maximum voltage across half of the secondary winding is 50 V. Explain the rectifying action of a p-n junction diode. If the load resistance is 200O. A 10 Volt Zener diode along with a series resistor is connected across a 40 V supply. explain the working of a full wave rectifier using two diodes. With the help of a neat circuit diagram. 38. In a transistor amplifier.137 34. when signal changes by 0. Derive the general equation of growth and decay of radioactive series. Calculate the minimum resistance required if the maximum Zener current is 50 mA. find the current gain and voltage gain. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR] 37. SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions. 36.

Ferrite cores commonly used at high frequencies (a) increase core losses (c) decrease inductance (b) decrease core losses (d) increase resistance 3. The leakage current of semiconductor diode is caused by (b) reluctance (c) eddy current loss .138 UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I. Its power rating should be (a) 50 W (b) 25 W (c) 200 W (d) 500 W 2.Electronics I (For Physics Main only) Time 3 hours Total weightage: 30 SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions.Sc Degree Programme in (Complementary) Electronics Model Question Paper EL1131. A 100 ? resistor is to be used in a circuit carrying a current of 0.5 A. Choose the most appropriate one. Answer ALL questions. The main purpose of laminating a transformer core is to decrease its (a) electrical resistance (d) hysteresis loss 4. 1.

139 (a) chemical energy impurity II. Choose the most appropriate one. 5. The superposition theorem is essentially based on the concept of (a) duality (b) linearity (c) reciprocity (d) non-linearity (b) barrier voltage (c) heat energy (d) doping

6. Rating of a battery is usually expressed in (a) watt-hour (b) joule (c) ampere-hour (d) ampere

7. The power in an ac circuit is given by (a) VI Cos f (b) VI Sin f (c) I 2R (d) I 2Z

8. The turn-on voltage of Germanium junction diode is nearly (a) 0.7 V (b) 0.3 V (c) 0.1 V (d) 1 V

III. Fill in the blanks with most appropriate word or numerical value. 9. The total resistance of a parallel circuit is always --------------- than the lowest resistance connected in any of its branches. 10. A ----------------- cell is one that cannot be recharged. 11. The time period of a sine wave of 1 kHz is ------------- millisecond. 12. An ideal diode conducts in forward direction with ------------ resistance. IV. State whether the following statements are true or false. If voltage across a resistor is doubled, its power dissipation is quadrupled. 14. When connected in series, all capacitors have the same charge but different voltages. 15. The time constant of a series R-L circuit can be doubled by doubling the value of R. 16. Holes are as mobile as electrons. SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. Each question carries a weightage of ONE ] 17. What is a non-linear resistor? Give one example. 18. State Kirchhoff’s current law and voltage law. 13.

140 19. What is meant by capacitance of a capacitor? What are the factors controlling capacitance? 20. State maximum power transfer theorem. 21. What is magnetic shielding? 22. What is reluctance in a magnetic circuit? from Ohm’s law. 23. Explain the terms ‘peak value’ and ‘peak to peak value’ in relation to a sinusoidal current. 24. Explain skin effect. 25. Distinguish between intrinsic and extrinsic semiconductors. 26. Explain the formation of depletion layer in a PN junction. 27. Distinguish between zener breakdown and avalanche breakdown. 28. Draw the circuit of a +ve clipper and explain the working. Write the expression for reluctance

SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. Each question carries a weightage of TWO.] 29. In the series voltage divider circuit given, the rated load current is 2 mA and maximum current the battery can supply is 10 mA. Calculate the values of resistances R 1 and R 2 and their power ratings.

30. Using Kirchhoff’s laws find the magnitude and direction of current flow through the 10 ?

141 resistor in the figure.

31. A capacitor is charged by a 100 V battery. If its capacitance is 900 pF, calculate the energy stored in it. Also calculate the loss of energy when this capacitor is disconnected from the battery and connected to another identical capacitor. 32. A magnetic circuit consists of an iron ring of mean circumference 80 cm with crosssectional area 12 cm2 throughout. A current of 2 A in the magnetizing coil of 200 turns produces a total flux of 1.2 mWb in the iron. Calculate (i) flux density in iron (ii) absolute and relative permeability of iron and (iii) reluctance of the circuit. 33. A low-voltage soldering rod taking 40 A at 12 V is to be operated from the secondary of a 240 V transformer. current. Calculate (i) turn ratio of the transformer and (ii) primary

34. In tone control circuit of a receiver, a 1 k ? resistor is joined in series with a 0.1 µF capacitor. Calculate the impedance of the combination at 2 kHz and 10 kHz. 35. Explain the three major types of atomic bonds involving valance electrons. 36. At room temperature, copper has free electron density of 8.4 × 10 28 per m3. Find the drift velocity of free electrons at room temperature in a copper conductor having cross-sectional area 10-6 m2 and carrying a current of 5.4 A.

SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR]

482 (b) 0.Sc Degree Programme in (Complementary) Electronics Model Q uestion Paper EL1231. What is a transformer? Explain its working. The value of zener current is (a) is limited by external circuit resistance (c) totally independent of temperature (b) determined by zener voltage (d) always in µA range 3. 39. State and explain Thevenin’s theorem.Electronics II (For Physics Main only) Time 3 hours Total weightage: 30 SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. transformers used in electronic circuits. 1. Answer ALL questions.812 (d) 1. Choose the most appropriate one. collector current (a) is reversed (b) increases (c) decreases (d) stops 4.142 37. amplitude and phase of an ac signal.21 . The ripple factor of a bridge rectifier is (a) 0. The process of selecting the desired frequency from a composite wave is called (a) tuning (b) filtering (c) rectification (d) modulation 2. UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B. When the E/B junction of a transistor is reverse biased. Explain with an example how you Describe the different types of 38.406 (c) 0. would Thevenize a circuit. Derive an expression for the RMS value of an ac signal. Define frequency. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I.

.carriers. If Q-point is located near the cut-off point. The voltage regulation of a p filter is inferior to that of an L-C filter. The leakage currents in a transistor are due to ---------------. 16. 11.. The capacitance of a varactor diode can be changed by (a) increasing its doping level changing the barrier potential (d) changing the reverse voltage (b) changing its forward bias (c) 6. IV. A photodiode is essentially a --------.143 II. . 12. In a single stage CB amplifier. 15. A sine wave can be converted into a square wave with the help of zener diodes. 9.…………. 5. a smaller load resistance R L will produce (a) high current gain response (d) higher power gain III. State whether the following statements are true or false. Of all the h parameters. diode is often referred to as hot carrier diode. the negative signal swing gets clipped first. Choose the most appropriate one. h o has the smallest magnitude. The colour of light emitted by a LED depends on (a) its forward bias current (d) the type of semiconductor material used 7. (b) low voltage gain (c) better frequency . Improper biasing of a transistor circuit leads to (a) excessive heat production at collector terminal signal (c) faulty location of load line (d) heavy loading of emitter terminal (b) distortion in output (b) its reverse bias (c) the amount of forward 8. Fill in the blanks with most appropriate word or numerical value. Voltage gain of an emitter follower is nearly ---------------. 14. 10.biased P-N junction which is illuminated with radiation. 13.

Each question carries a weightage of TWO.6 % 21. Explain the effect of source resistance on voltage gain. Obtain the relationship between a and ß of a transistor. L = 40µH and C = 0. 27.0783 pF. Write down the procedures for drawing AC equivalent circuit of a transistor amplifier. Each question carries a weightage of ONE ] 17. 20. 31. 32. What do you understand by thermal runaway in a power transistor? 24.Show that the maximum rectification efficiency of a half wave rectifier is 40.] 29. . An RLC circuit consists of R = 80 ? .144 SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. ß and IE. What are h parameters? Why are they called so? SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. Define stability factor.202 mA. What are thermistors? Mention their applications. What is a load line? Distinguish between DC load line and AC load line. 28. Compute the values of a. Draw the circuit of a transistor shunt voltage regulator and explain its working. 26. Which biasing circuit has maximum stability factor? 23. What is a tunnel diode? Draw its I-V characteristic. A single phase half wave diode rectifier supplies power to a 2 k? resistive load. What is a low-pass filter? Draw the simple circuit of a low-pass filter. 25. calculate Neglecting forward drop of the (a) V dc (b) Idc (c) power delivered to the load (d) ripple voltage (rms value). ICO = 2µA. 18. IB = 50 µA. diode. State the ß rule of a transistor circuit. The input ac supply voltage has a peak value of 300 V. Find its (i) resonant frequency (ii) Q-factor and (iii) band width. 30. The following measurements are made in a transistor: IC = 5. 22. 19.

SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions. In a CE amplifier circuit with voltage divider bias arrangement. power gains and the input resistance. It is used in common base circuit with a load resistance of 10 K. VCE and draw the DC load line. calculate (i) IC(sat). peak supply voltage is 200 V and the value of the load resistance is 1 k ? . A junction transistor has re = 50 ? . 34. efficiency. For the circuit shown in figure. R2 = 5 k? . rc = 1 M and a = 0.7 V. Calculate the power delivered to the load for firing angles of (a) 0 . the various parameters are RL = 1 k? . Find the operating point. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR] Calculate the current. ? (b) 45?. R1 = 10 k ? . 36. Explain a full wave bridge rectifier. (c) 90? and (d) 135?. rb = 1 K. In a controlled half wave rectifier. 35. Derive equations for ripple factor and .145 33. (ii) actual IC. voltage and 37. V CC = 12 V and VBE = 0.98. RE = 2 k? .

Define h -parameters for a linear circuit. 1.Sc Degree Programme in (Complementary) Electronics Model Question Paper EL1331 . The common mode-rejection ratio of an ideal differential amplifier is (a) zero (b) infinity (c) less than unity (d) greater than unity 3. 39. Explain how they are calculated for an ideal common emitter amplifier. Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I. Answer ALL questions.146 38. CE amplifier is characterized by (a) low voltage gain (b) moderate power gain (c) signal phase reversal (d) very high output impedance 2. Choose the most appropriate one. Rin and Rout of the transistor from these.Electronics III (For Physics Main only) Time 3 hours Total weightage: 30 SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. One of the serious disadvantages of FM is its . Explain the input and output characteristics of a transistor in common emitter configuration and the determination of ß. Which semiconductor device acts like a diode and two resistors? (a) SCR (b) triac (c) diac (d) UJT 4. UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B.

147 (a) limited line-of-sight distance (b) expensive equipment (c) adjacent channel interference (d) high static noise II. Choose the most appropriate one. For sustaining oscillations in an oscillator (a) feedback factor should be unity (c) both (a) and (b) (b) phase shift should be 0° or np (d) feedback should be negative III. In a JFET. A relaxation oscillator is one which (a) produces non-sinusoidal output (b) relaxes indefinitely (c) has two stable states (d) oscillates continuously 8. Fill in the blanks with most appropriate word or numerical value. .circuit IV. 10. A class B amplifier has highest output impedance and lowest input impedance. 11. 13. 12. State whether the following statements are true or false. 5. The Schmitt trigger is often called a ---------------.not provided by any single transistor. 9. drain current is --------------. A Darlington pair provides a very high value of -----------. A JFET has the disadvantage of (a) being noisy (b) having small gain-bandwidth product (d) having low input (d) ability to amplify direct current and low frequency (b) avoidance of temperature-sensitive (c) possessing positive temperature coefficient impedance 7. Positive feedback is often used in ------------. The outstanding characteristic of a direct coupled amplifier is its (a) temperature stability components (c) utmost economy signals 6.when VGS = 0.circuits.

What are the characteristics of the decibel system? 21. Each question carries a weightage of TWO. Draw the characteristics of a UJT and explain the negative resistance region. Diode detectors are extensively used in AM broadcast receivers. Coupling and bypass capacitors of an amplifier determine its lower cut-off frequency. Define gain bandwidth product. 30. Sketch the circuit diagram of a current series feedback amplifier. Explain Miller effect. 26. What are the advantages of frequency modulation over amplitude modulation? 28. A class A power amplifier has a transformer load. SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. calculate the maximum a. 24. Mention the advantages of RC coupling? . What is cross-over distortion in class B push-pull operation? 18. Each question carries a weightage of ONE ] 17. output power. If the transformer has a primary to secondary turns ratio of 10 and a secondary load of 16 ? . c. bandwidth is determined by carrier frequency. In AM transmission. 23. A crystal oscillator needs no tuned circuit. 15. What is piezo-electric effect? 27. 20. What is RC coupling? Draw the circuit of a two stage RC-coupled amplifier.] 29. Explain noise and noise factor. 25.148 14. Why? SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. Write any two advantages of transformer coupling. 16. Define transconductance and AC drain resistance of a JFET. 22. Given that ICQ = 100 mA. 19.

V P = – 3 V. 36. What is a Darlington pair? Obtain expressions for current gain. In a Colpitt’s oscillator. 34. Derive an equation for amplitude modulated wave. the intrinsic stand-off ratio. frequency of the Calculate the Find the feedback factor carrier wave. Evaluate ID.2 W? (ii) What power output would be required to produce a power gain of 10 dB? 32. upper side band frequency and bandwidth. IDSS = 8. the following component values are given. 38. 39. SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions. .01 µF. C1 = 0. Find the value of capacitor C 2. What are multivibrators? Explain the working of an astable multivibrator with a neat diagram. What is the need of modulation? Explain the principle of amplitude modulation. The oscillating frequency is 7500 Hz. 33. required to reduce the gain to 400. (i) What would be the decibel gain if power output is increased to 7. A certain radio receiver delivers an output power of 3. voltage gain input impedance. It has RB1 = 6 K with IE = 0. For an N -channel JFET. Deduce the expression for frequency. if the lower side band frequency is 497 kHz. A silicon UJT has an interbase resistance of 10 K. V GS = – 1 V. 35. Find also ?.7 mA. L = 15 µH. An audio signal of 3 kHz is used to modulate a carrier wave. g mo and g m. Find UJT current if V BB = 20 V and VE is less than VP. Also enlist its advantages.6 W.149 31. An amplifier has a gain of 1000 without feedback. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR] 37.

Each bunch carries a weightage of ONE] I. The binary addition 1 + 1 +1 gives (a) 111 (b) 10 (c) 110 (d) 11 2. Noise margin is expressed in (a) decibel (b) watt (c) volt (d) phon . Which of the following is not an octal number? (a) 19 (b) 77 (c) 15 (d) 101 3.Sc Degree Programme in (Complementary) Electronics Model Question Paper EL1431 . 1.Electronics IV (For Physics Main only) Time 3 hours Total weightage: 30 SECTION A [This section contains four bunches each of FOUR questions. Answer ALL questions.150 UNIVERSITY OF KERALA B. Choose the most appropriate one.

Current sensitivity of a meter depends on the current passing through it. (b) loss due to light scattering (c) bend loss (d) all of . 10. Choose the most appropriate one. 13. The decimal fraction of 0. 11. its output signal is (a) 01011 (b) 10101 (c) 10100 (d) 00101 6. Amongst different types of fibres. In binary numbers. State whether the following statements are true or false. The ---------------. When an input electrical signal A = 10100 is applied to a NOT gate.75 corresponds to the binary fraction of ------------. A microphone is an example of --------------. The open-loop gain of an ideal Op-amp is ---------------. 12. 16.transducer. 5. The main energy losses in an optical fibre consist of (a) material loss the above III. IV. The operation of a Q-meter is based on (a) Self-induction (c) Mutual induction (b) series resonance (d) eddy currents 8. Fill in the blanks with most appropriate word or numerical value. 9. 15. A bubbled OR gate is equivalent to a NAND gate. As in ordinary algebra Boolean variables can also take on any value including zero.gate is also called any-or-all gate. 14. single-mode step-index fibre has (a) highest data rate (c) highest thickness (b) lowest attenuation (d) both (a) and (b) II. shifting the binary point by one place multiplies or divides it by 2.151 4. An XOR gate produces an output only when its two inputs are (a) high (b) low (c) different (d) same 7.

Draw the circuit of a half adder and give its truth table. Find the 1’s and 2’s complement of binary number 11101100.1510 to binary using the double-dabble method. What is a linear variable differential transformer (LVDT)? 27. 24. 30. State and explain De Morgan’s theorems. 20. What are the merits and demerits of integrated circuits? 18. What are the applications of optic fibres? SECTION C [Answer any FIVE questions. Explain why it is often referred to as a universal gate. Convert the hexadecimal number AF9. Explain fan-in and fan-out of a of a logic family. Find the output voltage of the inverting Op -amp adder with the values indicated as input. What are the advantages of VTVM over multimeter? 26. What is a NOR gate? Give its symbol and truth table.BOD into octal form. Prove the following identities (i) AB + A = A (ii) A + =A+B . 22. Each question carries a weightage of ONE ] 17. What is meant by dispersion in optical fibres? 28. 32.152 SECTION B [Answer any EIGHT questions. What is common mode rejection ratio of an Op-amp? 19. Convert 105. 21. Each question carries a weightage of TWO. What is a strain gauge? What is its working principle? 25. 23.] 29. 31.

Write down the expression for deflection sensitivity of CRT. calculate the fractional change in the resistance of the gauge due to the applied stress. 35. Discuss light propagation through an optical fibre. The system uses a 100 km length fibre. critical angle and angle of acceptance. If the refractive index of the core of an optical fibre is 1. Each question carries a weightage of FOUR] 37.5 × 109 N/m 2. Calculate the multiplying factor of the shunt and the value of the shunt. An optical communication system uses a fibre having a loss of 5. The meter is to be converted into a 5 A ammeter. SECTION D [Answer any TWO questions. calculate the numerical aperture. 38. in terms of tube parameters. A meter has 20 ? internal resistance and gives full scale deflection for 5 mA. 36. Draw the circuit diagrams of a differentiator and integrator using Op -amp and explain their working. Also mention their uses. Calculate output power. 39. Also distinguish between step-index and graded-index fibres. . if the input power is 750 µW. 34.48. A metallic strain gauge with a gauge factor K = 2 is bonded to a steel member which is subjected to a stress of 10.153 33. Draw the block diagram of a CRO and explain the major subsystems.6 dB/km. If the modulus of elasticity for steel is 21 × 1012 N/m2.56 and that of cladding is 1.