JAR Databank Preparation 10.1.1.1 (1) An airline is planning a flight that will require a Technical landing in a neighboring state.

Which freedom of the Air will be exercised ? a) 2nd freedom b) 1st freedom c) 3rd freedom d) 4th freedom 10.1.1.1 (2) The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) establishes, a) standards and recommended international practices for contracting member states. b) aeronautical standards adopted by all states. c) proposals for aeronautical regulations in the form of 18 annexes. d) standards and recommended practices applied without exception by all states, signatory to the Chicago convention. 10.1.1.2 (3) The objectives of ICAO was ratified by the : a) Chicago convention 1944 b) Warzaw convention 1929 c) Geneva convention 1948 d) Geneva convention 1936 10.1.1.2 (4) The International Civil Aviation Organisation (I.C.A.O.) was established by the international convention of : a) Chicago b) The Hague c) Warsaw d) Montreal 10.1.1.3 (5) One of the main objectives of ICAO is to : a) develop principles and techniqe for international aviation b) approve the ticket prices set by international airline companies c) approve new internationel airlines with jet aircraft d) approve new international airlines 10.1.1.4 (6) Which body of ICAO finalises the Standard and Recommended Practices (SARPS) for submission for adoption ? a) the Air Navigation Commission b) the Assembly c) the Council d) the Regional Air Navigation meeting

10.1.1.4 (7) The 'Standards' contained in the Annexes to the Chicago convention are to be considered: a) binding for the member states that have not notified ICAO about a national difference b) advice and guidance for the aviation legislation within the member states c) binding for all member states d) binding for all air line companies with international traffic 10.1.2.0 (8) Which of the following is obligating for members of ICAO ? a) ICAO must be informed about differences from the standards in any of the Annexes to the convention b) ICAO shall approve the pricing of tickets on international airline connections c) ICAO must be informed about changes in the national regulations d) ICAO must be informed about new flight crew licenses and any suspended validity of such licenses 10.1.2.0 (9) The Warsaw convention and later amendments deals with: a) limitation of the operator¹s responsibility vis-á-vis passenger and goods transported b) the regulation of transportation of dangerous goods c) operator¹s licence for international scheduled aviation d) the security system at airports 10.1.2.0 (10) Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of Montreal by written notification to the depositary governments. The denounciation shall take effect : a) 6 months following the date on which notification is received by the Depositary Governments b) 3 months following the date on which notification is received by the Depositary Governments c) 2 months following the date ICAO is informed d) 4 months following the date on which notification is received by the Depositary Governements 10.1.2.0 (11) The aircraft commander, when he has reasonable grounds to believe that a person has commited or is about to commit, on board the aircraft, an offense against penal law a) may deliver such person to the competent authorities b) may request such person to disembark c) may require the assistance of passengers to restrain such person d) may not require or authorise the assistance of other crew members 10.1.2.0 (12) Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of Tokyo by notification addressed a) International Civile Aviation Organisation b) the other Contracting States

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c) United Nations d) to all States Members of United Nations 10.1.2.0 (13) The convention on offences and certain acts committed on board aircraft, is : a) the convention of Tokyo b) the convention of Paris c) the convention of Rome d) the convention of Chicago 10.1.2.1 (14) ""Cabotage"" refers to: a) domestic air services , b) a national air carrier, c) a flight above territorial waters, d) crop spraying 10.1.2.1 (15) The second freedom of the air is the : a) right to land for a technical stop b) right to overfly without landing c) right to ""cabotage"" traffic, (trans-border traffic). d) right to operate a commercial passenger flight with passengers on board between two states. 10.1.2.1 (16) The first freedom of the air is: a) The right to overfly without landing. b) The right to land for a technical stop. c) The opportunity to operate a commercial flight with passengers on board between two states. d) The right to board passengers from the state where the aircraft is registered and to fly to an other state. 10.1.2.2 (17) The convention which deals with offences againts penal law, is a) the convention of Tokyo b) the convention of Warsaw c) the convention of Rome d) the convention of Madrid 10.1.2.2 (18) The convention of Tokyo applies to damage : a) caused in the territory of a contracting state or in a ship or aircraft registered there in , by an aircraft registered in the territory of another contraction state b) only caused in the territory of a contracting state by an aircraft registered in the territory of another contracting state c) caused in the territory of a contrating state by any aircraft regardless the registration d) the above convention does not deal with this item

10.1.2.4 (19) The international convention defining rules relative to the responsibilities of international air carriers for the carriage of passengers, baggage and freight is the : a) Warsaw Convention. b) Tokyo Convention. c) Hague Convention. d) Montreal Convention. 10.1.4.0 (20) The Rome Convention and later amendments deals with : a) Damage caused by foreign aircraft to third parties on the surface b) Regulation of transportation of dangerous goods c) Damage caused by any aircraft to third parties on the surface d) offences and certain other acts committed on board aircraft 10.1.4.0 (21) The convention signed by the states and moved by a desire to endure adequate compensation for persons who suffer damage caused on the surface by foreign aircraft is : a) the Rome Convention b) the Warsaw Convention c) the Paris Convention d) the Tokyo Convention 10.1.4.0 (22) Any person who suffers damage on the surface shall, upon proof only that damage was caused by an aircraft in flight or by any person or thing falling therefore will be entitled to compensation as provided by : a) the Rome Convention b) the Chicago Convention c) the Warsaw Convention d) the Montreal Convention 10.2.0.0 (23) When letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with the a) five letter combinations used in the international code of signals b) four letter combinations beginning with Q c) three letters combinations used in the international code of signals d) letters used for ICAO identification documents 10.2.0.0 (24) The state of design shall ensure that, there exists a continuing structural integrity program to ensure the airworthiness of the aeroplane, which includes specific information concerning corrosion prevention and control, in respect of aeroplanes : a) over 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off mass b) over 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off and landing mass c) up to 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off mass d) up to 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off and landing mass

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10.2.0.0 (25) The loading limitations shall include : a) all limiting mass, centres of gravity position, mass distributions and floor loadings b) all limiting mass and centres of gravity c) all limiting mass, mass distributions and centres of gravity d) all limiting mass, centres of gravity position and floor loadings 10.3.0.0 (26) The assigment of the common mark to a common mark registering authority will be made by : a) the International Civil Aviation Organisation b) the state of registry and accepted by the International Telecommunication Union c) the International Telecommunication Union d) the state of registry 10.3.0.0 (27) The common mark shall be selected from the series of symbols included in the radio call signs allocated : a) to the International Civil Aviation Organisation by the International Telecommunication Union b) to the state of registry by the International Civil Aviation Organisation c) to the State of registry by the International Telecommunication Union d) to state of the operator 10.3.0.0 (28) The registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a combination of letters and numbers and shall be that assigned by : a) the state of registry or common mark registering authority b) the state of registry only c) the International Civil Aviation Organisation d) the Internationnal Telecommunication Union 10.3.0.0 (29) When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent signals for example a) TTT b) FFF c) RCC d) LLL 10.3.0.0 (30) When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent signals for example a) PAN b) RCC c) LLL d) DDD 10.3.0.0 (31) When letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall not be used

which might be confused with urgent or distress signals for example a) XXX b) DDD c) RCC d) LLL 10.3.0.0 (32) The height of the marks under the wings of heavier than air aircraft shall be a) at least 50 centimetres b) at least between 40 centimetres and 50 centimetres c) at least 60 centimetres d) at least 75 centimetres 10.3.0.0 (33) The height of the marks on the fuselage (or equivalent structure) and on the vertical tail surfaces of heavier than air aircraft shall be a) at least 30 centimetres b) at least 40 centimetres c) at least 20 centimetres d) at least between 20 centimetres and 40 centimetres 10.4.0.0 (34) The profeciency check of a pilot took place the 15th of April. The validity of the previous profeciency check was the 30th of June. The period of the new profeciency check can be and can't exceed: a) 31th of December the same year b) 15th of October the same year c) 30th of October the same year d) 30th of April the following year 10.4.0.0 (35) The prescribed re-examination of a licence holder operating in an area distant from designated medical examination facilities may be deferred at the discretion of the licence authority, provided that such deferment shall only be made as an exception and shall not exceed: a) A single period of six month in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non-commercial operations. b) Two consecutive periods each of three month in the case a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non-commercial operations. c) A single period of three month in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in commercial operations. d) Two consecutive periods each of six month in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non-commercial operations. 10.4.0.0 (36) When a contracting state renders valid a licence issued by another contracting state, the validity of the authorization: a) Shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence. b) Depends on the regulations of the contracting sate which renders valid the licence. c) Shall not extend beyond one year for ATPL and PCL. d) Is only considered for PPL.

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10.4.0.0 (37) Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum specifications for a crew licence to have international validity? a) Annex 1 b) Annex 2 c) Annex 3 d) Annex 4 10.4.0.0 (38) You may act as a flight instructor to carry out flight instruction for the issue of a PPL a) With a theorical CPL examination plus flight instructor rating b) With an ATPL c) With a PPL plus flight instructor rating d) With a CPL 10.4.0.0 (39) The validity of the instrument-rating aeroplane - IR(A) is : a) 1 year b) 6 months c) 5 years d) 2 years 10.4.0.0 (40) The minimum age for obtaining a PPL is : a) 17 years b) 16 years c) 18 years d) 21 years 10.4.0.0 (41) To be able to execute a public transport flight, the minimum and maximum age (with ATPL) is : a) 21 and 59 years b) 16 and 60 years c) 17 and 59 years d) 18 and 60 years 10.4.0.0 (42) The holder of a pilot's licence should inform the Authority of any illness which they are suffering which involves incapacity to undertake those functions to which the licence relates throughout a period of a certain number of days or more. The number of days is : a) 21 b) 30 c) 60 d) 90 10.4.0.0 (43) If a licence holder is unable to perform the flight crew functions appropriate to that licence due to illness, the authority must be informed :

a) After 21 days of consecutive ""illness"" b) as soon as possible if the illness is expected to last more than 21days c) after one calendar month of consecutive illness d) if still not fit to fly when his/her current medical certificate expires 10.4.0.0 (44) The holder of a pilot licence, when acting as co-pilot of an aircraft required to be operated with a co-pilot, shall be entitled to be credit with not more than : a) 50 % of the co-pilot flight time towards the total flight time required for a higher grade of pilot licence b) 40 % of the co-pilot flight time towards, the total flight time required for a higher grade of a pilot licence c) 100 hours of flying time required for a higher grade of a pilot licence d) 60 % of the co-pilot flight time towards, the total flight time required for a higher grade of a pilot licence 10.4.0.0 (45) The age of an applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall not be less than : a) 18 years of age b) 21 years of age c) 17 years of age d) 16 years of age 10.4.0.0 (46) An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall hold a) a current class I medical assessment b) a current class II medical assessment c) a current class III medical assessment d) a current class medical assessment as prescribed by the state issuing the licence 10.4.0.0 (47) Multi-engine / inoperative or simulated inoperative. a) Land/inactive. b) Amphibious/inactive or simulated inactive. c) Single-engine/inactive. d) 1999-06-08 0:00 10.4.0.0 (48) The privileges of the holder of a commercial pilot licence-aeroplane shall be : a) to act as pilot-in command in any aeroplane engaged in operations other than commercial air transportation b) to act as pilot in command in any aeroplane engaged in commercial air transportation c) to act as pilot in command in any aeroplane certificate for single pilot operation other than in commercial air transportation d) none of the answers are correct 10.4.0.0 (49) An applicant for a commercial pilot licence-aeroplane shall have completed not less than ........ hours of cross country flight time as pilot in command including a cross country flight totalling not less than ........ km (-NM), in the course of which full stop landings at two different aerodromes shall be made. The hours and distance

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referred are : a) 20 hours and 540 km (300NM) b) 10 hours and 270 km (150 NM) c) 15 hours and 540 km (300NM) d) 20 hours and 270 km (150NM) 10.4.0.0 (50) An applicant for a commercial pilot licence aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than : a) 20 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight not less than 540 km (300NM) b) 10 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight not less than 540 km (300NM) c) 25 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight not less than 540 km (300NM) d) 15 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight not less than 540 km (300NM) 10.4.0.0 (51) An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than ...... hours, either as pilot in command or made up by not less than ...... hours as pilot-in-command and the additional flight time as copilot performing, under the supervision of the pilot-in-command the duties and functions of a pilot in command provided that the method of supervision employed is acceptable to the licensing authority. The stated above hours are respectively : a) 250 hours and 100 hours b) 200 hours and 75 hours c) 200 hours and 100 hours d) 150 hours and 75 hours 10.4.0.0 (52) The applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than ...... hours of cross-country flight time, of which not less than ...... hours shall be as pilot-in command or co-pilot performing, under the supervision of the pilot in command, the duties and functions of a pilot in command, provided that the method of supervision employed is acceptable to the licensing authority. The state above hours are respectively : a) 200 hours and 100 hours b) 250 hours and 10 hours c) 150 hours and 75 hours d) 200 hours and 75 hours 10.4.0.0 (53) An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than : a) 75 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 30 hours may be instrument ground time. b) 100 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 30 hours of instrument ground time c) 150 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 75 hours of instrument ground time. d) 75 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 20 hours of instrument ground time.

10.4.0.0 (54) An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than : a) 100 hours of night flight as pilot in command or as co-pilot b) 100 hours of night flight only as pilot in command c) 75 hours of night flight as pilot in command or as co-pilot d) 75 hours of night time only as pilot in command 10.4.0.0 (55) The licensing authority shall determine whether experience as pilot under instruction in a synthetic flight trainer which it has approved, is acceptable as part of the total flight time of 1 500 hours. Credit for such experience shall be limited to a maximum of : a) 100 hours, of which not more than 25 hours shall have been acquired in a flight procedure trainer or basic instrument flight trainer b) 100 hours of which not more than 20 hours shall have been acquired in a basic instrument flight trainer c) 100 hours of which not more than 15 hours shall have been acquired in a flight procedure trainer or basic instrument flight trainer d) 75 hours of which not more than 20 hours shall have been acquired in a flight procedure trainer or basic instrument flight trainer 10.4.0.0 (56) An applicant holding a private or commercial pilot licence aeroplane for the issue of an instrument rating, shall have completed ..... hours of cross-country flight time as pilot-in-command of aircraft in categories acceptable to the licensing Authority, of which not less than ..... hours shall be in aeroplanes. The said hours, are respectively a) 50 hours and 10 hours b) 40 hours and 10 hours c) 40 hours and 15 hours d) 50 hours and 15 hours 10.4.0.0 (57) In certain circumstances a medical examination may be deferred at the discretion of the licensing authority, provided that such deferment shall only be made as an exception and shall not exceed : a) A single period of six months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non commercial operations. b) Two consecutive periods each of three months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non commercial operations c) A single period of six months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in commercial operations. d) in the case of a private pilot, a single period of 12 months 10.4.0.0 (58) The duration of the period of currency of a medical assessment shall begin on the date : a) the medical assessment is issued b) the licence is issued or validated c) the licence is issued or renewed d) the licence is delivered to the pilot

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10.4.0.0 (59) When a contracting state renders valid a licence issued by another contracting state the validity of the authorization a) shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence b) shall not extend more than 15 days from the date of the licence c) the Contracting state rendering a licence valid may extend the date of the validity at its own discretion d) shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence other than for use in private flights 10.4.0.0 (60) When the holders of aircraft transport pilot licences aeroplane and helicopter have passed their 40th birthday the medical examination shall be reduced from : a) 12 months to 6 months b) 12 months to 3 months c) 24 months to 12 months d) none of the answers are correct 10.4.0.0 (61) Type ratings shall be established a) for any type of aircraft whenever considered necessary by the authority b) only aircraft certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at least two pilots c) only for aircraft certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at least two pilots and each type of helicopter d) all the answers are correct 10.4.0.0 (62) The holder of a pilot licence when acting as co-pilot performing under the supervision of the pilot in command the functions and duties of a pilot in command shall be entitled to be credit : a) in full with his flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence b) in full with his flight but not more than 300 hours towards the total time required for a higher grade of pilot licence c) the flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence in accordance with the requirements of the licensing authority d) 50% of his flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence 10.4.0.0 (63) For commercial pilot licence aeroplane the applicant shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than if the privileges of the licence are to be exercised at night a) 5 hours of night flight time including 5 take offs and 5 landings as pilot in command b) 5 hours of night flight time including 5 take offs and 5 landings either as pilot in command or as co-pilot c) 5 hours of night flight time including 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in command d) 5 hours of night flight time including 3 take offs and 5 landings as pilot in command 10.4.0.0 (64) An applicant for a commercial pilot licence aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than :

a) 200 hours of flight time or 150 hours if completed during a course of approved training as a pilot of aeroplanes b) 200 hours of flight time and 80 hours as pilot in command c) 200 hours of flight time and 70 hours as pilot in command d) 150 hours of flight time and 100 hours as pilot in command 10.4.0.0 (65) An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than : a) 10 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 5 hours may be instrument ground time b) 20 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 5 hours may be instrument ground time. c) 20 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 10 hours may be instrument ground time d) 15 hours of instrument time of which not more than 5 hours as pilot in command 10.4.0.0 (66) The International Civil Aviation Convention Annex containing standards and recommended practices for Personnel Licensing is : a) Annex 1 b) Annex 2 c) Annex 11 d) Annex 12 10.4.0.0 (67) At the discretion of the Authority of that Member State concerned for a period not exceeding one year, provided that the basic licence remains valid. a) At the diiscretion of the Authority of the Member State concerned for a period not exceeding the period validity of basic licence b) At the discretion of the Authority of that Member State concerned for a period not exceeding one year c) At the discretion of the Authority of that Member State concerned for a period not exceeding one year, provided that the basic licence remains valid. d) 1998-11-27 0:00 10.4.0.0 (68) More than 12 hours a) More than 12 days b) More than one week c) Any period d) 1998-11-30 0:00 10.4.0.0 (69) According to JAR-FCL, Class 2 medical certificate for private pilots will be valid for a) 60 months until age of 30, 24 months until age of 50, 12 months until age of 65 and 6 months thereafter b) 60 months until age of 30, 24 months until age of 40, 12 months thereafter c) 24 months until age of 40, 12 months thereafter d) 24 months until age of 40, 12 months until age of 60 and 6 months thereafter

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10.4.0.0 (70) According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for a CPL (A) who has satisfactorily followed an completed an integrated flying training course shall have completed as a pilot of aeroplanes having a certificate of airworthiness issued or accepted by a JAA Member State at least: a) 150 hours of flight time b) 200 hours of flight time c) 150 hours of flight time plus 10 hours of instrument ground time d) 200 hours of flight time plus 10 hours of instrument ground time 10.4.0.0 (71) According to JAR-FCL, an instrument rating is valid for : a) one year b) two years c) The period of validity of the licence. d) Indefinitely 10.4.0.0 (72) According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for an IR(A) shall hold a PPL (A)including a night qualification or CPL(A) and shall have completed at least 50 hours : a) Cross country flight time as pilot-in-command in aeroplanes or helicopters of which at least 10 hours shall be in aeroplanes. b) Cross country flight time as pilot of aeroplanes or helicopters of which at least 10 hours shall be in aeroplanes. c) Instructional flight time as studen-pilot-in-command of aeroplanes. d) Instructional flight time as student-pilot-in-command of aeroplanes or helicopters of which at least 10 hours shall be in aeroplanes. 10.4.0.0 (73) According to JAR-FCL, class rating shall be established for single pilots aeroplanes not requiring a type rating, including : a) All self.-sustaining gliders. b) All types of single-pilot, single-engine aeroplanes fitted with a turbojet engine. c) Microlights having fixed wings and moveable aerodynamic control surfaces acting in all three dimensions. d) Any other type of aeroplane if considered necessary. 10.4.0.0 (74) According to JAR-FCL, establishment of separate type rating for aeroplanes will be assessed on the basis of three criteria. One of these three criteria is that the aeroplane has : a) Handling characteristics that require additional flying or simulator training b) Handling characteristics that require the use of more than one crew member c) A certificate of airworthiness issued by a non-member state. d) A certificate of airworthiness issued by the manufacturer. 10.4.0.0 (75) According to JAR-FCL, the validity of type ratings and multi-engine class ratings will be one year from the date : a) Of issue b) Of the skill test

c) The application is received by the Authority. d) Of the last medical certificate 10.4.0.0 (76) According to JAR-FCL, single pilot single-engine class ratings are valid for : a) Two years b) One year c) Two years up to age 40 years then one year thereafter. d) Five years after licence issuie. 10.5.0.0 (77) Which provisions on a VFR-flight in Class E airspace are CORRECT? a) Service provided : Traffic Information as far as practical, ATC Clearance : not required , b) Service provided : Air Traffic Control Service, ATC Clearance : required , c) Service provided : Traffic Information as far as practical, ATC Clearance : required , d) Service provided : Air Traffic Control Service, ATC Clearance : not required 10.5.1.0 (78) Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome, experiencing radio failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance? a) The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights b) Switching on and off three times the landing lights c) Switching on and off four times the landing lights d) Switching on and off four times the navigation lights 10.5.1.0 (79) If radio communication is established during an interception but communications in a common language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepting aircraft to request the intercepted aircraft to descend for landing ? a) Descend b) Let down c) You land d) Descend for landing 10.5.1.0 (80) If radio contact with the intercepting aircraft is established but communication on a common language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepted aircraft to communicate that he is unable to comply with the instructions received ? a) CAN NOT b) CAN NOT COMPLY c) UNABLE TO COMPLY d) NOT POSSIBLE 10.5.1.0 (81) A flashing red light from control tower during an approach to land means: a) The airport is unsafe, do not land b) The airport is temporarily closed, continue circling

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c) Give way to other aircraft in emergency d) Continue circling and wait for further instructions 10.5.1.0 (82) On aerodromes aircraft taxying on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome shall give way to: a) aircraft taking off or about to take off b) other vehicles and pedestrians c) other converging aircraft d) all vehicles moving on the apron except the ""follow me"" vehicle 10.5.1.0 (83) A double white cross displayed horizontally in the signal area means: a) The aerodrome is being used by gliders and that glider flights are being performed. b) An area unit for the movement of aircraft. c) Special precautions must be observed due to bad state of the taxiways. d) Need special precautions while approaching for landing. 10.5.1.0 (84) Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, a VFR flight can not enter or leave a control zone when ceiling is less than : a) 1 500 feet or visibility is less than 5 km b) 1 000 feet or visibility is less than 5 km c) 2 000 feet or visibility is less than 5 km d) 1 000 feet or visibility is less than 8 km 10.5.1.0 (85) The person who has final authority as to the disposition of an aircraft during flight time is: a) The commander b) The ATC controller if the aircraft is flying in a controlled airspace c) The aircraft owner d) The airliner operator 10.5.1.0 (86) Which of the following flights has the greatest priority to land ? a) Emergency aircraft b) Military aircraft c) VIP (Head of state) aircraft d) Hospital aircraft carrying a very sick person needing immediate medical attention 10.5.1.0 (87) An aircraft flying above the sea between 4 500 feet MSL and 9 000 feet MSL outside controlled airspace under VFR, must remain on principle at least: a) 1 500 m horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds, 5 km visibility. b) 1500 m horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds, 8 km visibility. c) Clear of clouds and in sight of the surface, 8 km visibility. d) 2 000 feet horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds, 5 km visibility.

10.5.1.0 (88) The VMC minima for an airspace classified as ""B"" above 10 000 feet MSL are : a) clear of clouds, 8 km visibility b) 1 mile horizontaly and 1 000 feet verticaly from clouds, 5 km visibility c) 2 000 metres horizontaly, 1 000 feet verticaly from clouds, 8 km visibility d) 1 nautical mile horizontaly and 1 000 feet verticaly from clouds, 8 km visibility 10.5.1.0 (89) The VMC minima for an airspace classified as ""G"" above 10 000 feet MSL are : a) 1500 m horizontally and 1 000 feet vertically from clouds, 8 km visibility. b) 1500 m horizontally and 1 000 feet verticaly from clouds, 5 km visibility c) 1 nautical mile horizontally and 1 000 feet vertically from clouds, 5 km visibility d) 1 nautical mile horizontally and 1000 feet vertically from clouds, 8 km visibility 10.5.1.0 (90) A controlled flight is requested to inform the appropriate ATC unit whenever the average True Air Speed at cruising level varies or is expected to vary from that given in the flight plan by plus or minus: a) 5% b) 3% c) 2% d) 10% 10.5.1.0 (91) An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft, if equipped with SSR transponder shall, unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate ATS unit, select one of the following code on mode ""A"" a) 7 700 b) 7 500 c) 7 600 d) 7 000 10.5.1.0 (92) An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately attempt to establish radio communication with the intercepting aircraft on the following frequencies: a) 121.5 MHz - 243 MHz b) 121.5 MHz - 125.5 MHz c) 121.5 MHz - 282.8 MHz d) 243 MHz - 125.5 MHz 10.5.1.0 (93) Which manoeuvre shall be executed by an intercepting aircraft if the pilot wants to communicate to the intercepted aircraft ""YOU MAY PROCEED"" ? a) Executing a climbing turn of 90 degrees or more without crossing the line of flight of the intercepted aircraft. b) Rocking wings twice and crossing in front of the aircraft. c) Circling the intercepted aircraft in a clock-wise pattern. d) Rocking the wings and flashing the navigational lights. 10.5.1.0 (94) Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding level to be maintained by

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an aircraft flying IFR outside controlled airspace? a) 1 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometres of the estimated position of the aircraft b) 2 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometres of course c) 1 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 nautical miles of course d) 2 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 nautical miles of course 10.5.1.0 (95) Aircraft ""A"" with an ATC clearance is flying in VMC conditions within a control area. Aircraft ""B"" with no ATC clearance is approaching at approximately the same altitude and on a converging course. Which has the right of way? a) Aircraft ""B"" if ""A"" is on its left b) Aircraft ""A"" if ""B"" is on its right c) Aircraft ""A"" regardless of the direction which ""B"" is approaching d) Aircraft ""B"" regardless of the direction ""A"" is approaching 10.5.1.0 (96) Which of the following actions shall be taken in case of a controlled flight deviates from the track? a) Adjust the heading of aircraft to regain track as soon as practicable b) Inform the ATC unit immediately c) If VMC, maintain this condition, waiting for the ATC instructions d) Notify ATC of the new track immediately and comply with instructions 10.5.1.0 (97) While on IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. What action must be taken? a) The appropriate ATC unit shall be notified of the action taken as soon as circumstances permit b) Request an amended clearance or cancel the IFR flight plan c) Submit a detailed report to ATC within 24 hours d) Squawk 7700 10.5.1.0 (98) A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals: a) Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body , then clench fist b) Arms down , palms facing inwards, moving arms from extended position inwards. c) Crossing arms extended above his head d) Horizontally moving his hands, fingers extended, palms toward ground 10.5.1.0 (99) An aircraft is flying under Instrument Flight Rules in an area where the visibility is unlimited and the sky is clear (free of clouds), when it totally loses radiocommunications. The procedure to be followed is: a) land on the closest appropriate aerodrome, then advise Air Traffic Services of landing b) adopt a VFR flight level and continue flight onto destination c) continue flight onto destination, complying with last received clearances then with filed flight plan. d) descend to En-route Minimum Safe Altitude and join closest airfield open to IFR operations

10.5.1.0 (100) A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means : a) Not with standing any previous instructions, do not land for the time being. b) Come back and land. c) Give way to another aircraft and hold the circuit. d) Dangerous airfield. Do not land. 10.5.1.0 (101) Aircraft wishing to conduct IFR flight within advisory airspace, but not electing to use the air traffic advisory service: a) Shall nevertheless submit a flight plan and notify changes made thereto to the ATS unit providing that service. b) Shall nevertheless submit a flight plan but changes made thereto are not necessary to be notified. c) need to file a flight plan d) may file a flight plan under pilot's discretion. 10.5.1.0 (102) When a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its current flightplan, ATC has to be informed in case : a) the TAS varies by plus or minus 5% of the TAS notified in the flightplan. b) of an emergency. c) the estimated time is in error by more than 10 minutes. d) it is a deviation from the track. 10.5.1.0 (103) Where State has not established minimum IFR altitudes, the minimum height of an aircraft above the highest obstacle over high terrain, or in mountainous areas shall be for an IFR flight : a) at least 2000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated position b) at least 1000 feet within 5KM of the estimated position c) at least 1000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated position d) at least 2000 feet within 5KM of the estimated position 10.5.1.0 (104) An aircraft shall display, if so equipped, an anti-collision light: a) on the ground when the engines are running b) outside the daylight-period in flight, but not on the ground when it is being towed, c) while taxiing, but not when it is being towed, d) outside the daylight-period at engine-start. During the daylight-period this is not applicable, 10.5.1.0 (105) The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that : a) taxiing need not be confined to the taxiways , b) gliderflying is performed outside the landing area, c) landing, take-off and taxiing is allowed on runway and/or taxiway only, d) this aerodrome is using parallel runways 10.5.1.0 (106) An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference ('hijacked') and is forced to divert from the cleared track or cruising level without being able to

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communicate with ATS shall try to: a) Continue at an altitude that differs from the semicircular rule with 1000 feet when above FL 290 and 500 feet when lower than FL 290 b) Fly the emergency triangle c) Declare an emergency d) As soon as possible commence emergency descent in order minimize the difference between cabin pressure and outside pressure 10.5.1.0 (107) An aircraft is considered to overtake another if it approaches the other aircraft from the rear on a line forming an angle of less than : a) 70 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter b) 50 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter c) 60 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter d) 80 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter 10.5.1.0 (108) VMC minima for VFR flights in Class B airspace, above 3050m (10000 ft) AMSL, are : a) 8 km visibility, and clear of clouds , b) 5 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical distance from clouds , c) 8 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical distance from clouds , d) No minima, VFR flights are not permitted 10.5.1.0 (109) During an IFR flight in VMC in controlled airspace you experience a two-way radio communication failure. You will : a) Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome maintaining VMC and inform ATC , b) Select A7600 and continue according currenct flight plan to destination , c) Descend to the flight level submitted for that portion of flight , d) Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and inform ATC 10.5.1.0 (110) Your aircraft is intercepted by a military aircraftThe signals given by this aircraft conflict with ATC instructionsYou should : a) follow the instructions of the intercepting aircraft. b) follow ATC instructions. c) request ATC for other instructions. d) select code A7500 on your transponder. 10.5.1.0 (111) Whilst flying in an aerodrome's traffic circuit, an aircraft receives a series of green flashes from the tower. The aircraft : a) must come back to land and the landing clearance will be sent in due time. b) is cleared to land. c) must land immediately and clear the landing area. d) must give way to another aircraft. 10.5.1.0 (112) Given:AGL = above ground levelAMSL = above mean sea levelFL = flight levelwithin uncontrolled airspace, the first usable level in IFR must provide a 500

ft margin above the following two levels: a) 3 000 ft AMSL or 1 000ft AGL. b) 3 000 ft AMSL or 1 500 ft AGL. c) FL 30 or 100 ft AGL. d) FL 30 or 1 500 ft AGL. 10.5.1.0 (113) An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference ('hijacked') and is forced to divert from the cleared track or cruising level without being able to communicate with ATS shall try to: a) Continue at an altitude that differs from the semicircular rule with 1000 feet when above FL 290 and 500 feet when lower than FL 290 b) Fly the emergency triangle c) Declare an emergency d) As soon as possible commence emergency descent in order minimize the difference between cabin pressure and outside pressure 10.5.1.0 (114) While taxying an aircraft receives the following light signal from the control tower : series of red flashes. This signal means that the aircraft : a) must vacate the landing area in use. b) must stop. c) must return to its point of departure. d) may continue to taxi to the take-off area. 10.5.1.0 (115) While taxiing, an aircraft receives from the airport controller the following light signal : a series of green flashes. This signal means that the aircraft : a) may continue to taxy towards the take-off area. b) must stop. c) must return to its point of departure. d) is cleared for take-off. 10.5.1.0 (116) An aircraft manoeuvering in an airport's circuit receives a series of red flashes from the control tower. This signifies that the aircraft must : a) not land because the airport is not available for landing. b) give way to another aircraft. c) return to land and that clearance to land will be communicated in due course. d) not land for the moment regardless of previous instructions. 10.6.2.0 (117) What does the abbreviation OIS mean? a) Obstacle identification surface. b) Obstacle in surface. c) Obstacle identification slope. d) Obstruction in surface. 10.6.2.0 (118) What does the abbreviation DER mean? a) Depature end of runway.

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b) Distance end of route. c) Departure end of route. d) Distance end of runway. 10.6.2.0 (119) The MSA, which must be established around a navigation facility, is in general valid within a sector of : a) 25 NM b) 10 NM c) 15 NM d) 30 NM 10.6.3.0 (120) A four-engine aeroplane is about to take-off from an airport where poor weather conditions are prevailing. The closest accessible aerodrome is three flying hours away.The take-off minima to be observed at departure airfield are: a) ceiling greater or equal to DH/MDH, and VH (horizontal visibility) greater or equal to VH required for landing, with an available instrument approach procedure b) VH (visibility horizontal) greater or equal to VH required for landing on the runway to be used c) ceiling greater or equal to DH or MDH, and VH (horizontal visibility) greater or equal to VH required for landing, with an available instrument approach procedure to be envisaged with one engine out d) VH (visibility horizontal) greater or equal to VH required for landing, and ceiling greater or equal to ceiling required for landing, with an available instrument approach procedure 10.6.3.0 (121) If in an instrument departure procedure the track to be followed by the aeroplane is published, the pilot is expected: a) To correct for known wind to remain within the protected airspace. b) To request from ATC different heading for wind correction. c) To ignore the wind and proceed on an heading equal to the track. d) To request clearance from ATC for applying a wind correction. 10.6.3.0 (122) In general, which is the main factor that dictates the design of an instrument departure procedure? a) The terrain surrounding the airport. b) ATC requirements. c) Navigation aids. d) Airspace restrictions. 10.6.3.0 (123) In an instrument departure procedure the minimum obstacle clearance at the departure end of runway equals: a) 0 ft. b) 3.3 % gradient. c) 35 ft. d) 0.8 % gradient.

10.6.3.0 (124) In a straight departure, the initial departure track is of the aligment of the runway centre line within: a) 15°. b) 30°. c) 45°. d) 12.5°. 10.6.3.0 (125) Turning departures provide track guidance within : a) 10 Km b) 5 Km c) 15 Km d) 20 Km 10.6.3.0 (126) We can distinguish two types of departure routes. During a straight departure the initial departure track is within : a) 15° of the alignment of the runway centre-line b) 5° of the alignment of the runway centre-line c) 10° of the alignment of the runway centre-line d) 25° of the alignment of the runway centre-line 10.6.4.0 (127) Were an operational advantage can be obtained, an ILS procedure may include a dead reckoning segment from a fix to the localizer. The DR track will: a) Intersect the localizer at 45° and will not be more 10 NM in length. b) Intersect the localizer at 30° and will not be more 5 NM in length. c) Intersect the localizer at 45° and will not be more 5 NM in length. d) Intersect the localizer at 30° and will not be more 10 NM in length. 10.6.4.0 (128) Which is the obstacle clearance in the primary area of the intermediate approach segment in an instrument approach procedure? a) 150m (492 ft). b) 300m (984 ft). c) 450m (1476 ft). d) 600m (1968 ft). 10.6.4.0 (129) In an instrument approach procedure, the segment in which alignment and descent for landing are made is called: a) Final approach segment. b) Initial approach segment. c) Intermediate approach segment. d) Arrival segment. 10.6.4.0 (130) In a precision approach (ILS), the final approach segment begins at the: a) FAP. b) FAF.

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c) MAP. d) IF. 10.6.4.0 (131) The protection areas associated with instrument approach procedures are determined with the assumption that turns are performed at a bank angle of: a) 25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure, approach or missed approach instrument procedures, as well as circling-to-land (with or without prescribed flight tracks). b) 25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure and approach instrument procedures, as well as circle-to-land, and 15° for missed approach procedures. c) The bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate for all procedures with airspeed limitation related to aeroplane categories. d) 25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure and approach instrument procedures, 25° for circling-to-land with prescribed flight tracks and 15° for missed approach procedures. 10.6.4.0 (132) Under which conditions may an aircraft on a straight-in-VOR approach continue its descend below the OCA? a) When the aircraft is in visual contact with the ground and with the runway lights in sight b) When the aircraft has the control tower in sight c) When the aircraft is in contact with the ground but not with the runway in sight yet d) When seems possible to land 10.6.4.0 (133) A turn executed by the aircraft during the initial approach between the end of the outbound track and the beginning of the intermediate or final approach track is a: a) Base turn b) Procedure turn c) Reversal procedure d) Race track 10.6.4.0 (134) If a stepdown fix is established on the final approach track, a descend shall be made so as to : a) pass the fix not below the specified crossing altitude. b) follow approximately 50 feet above the nominal glide path. c) pass the fix at the rate of descent of 500 feet/min, which is obligatory. d) leave the intermediate approach altitude, step by step until reaching the MAPt. 10.6.4.0 (135) In the ILS-approach, the OCA is referenced to: a) Mean sea level. b) Aeredrome reference point. c) Relevant runway threshold. d) Aerodrome elevation.

10.6.4.0 (136) A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a turn in the opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the designated track is called a : a) Procedure turn. b) Base turn. c) Race track. d) Reversal track. 10.6.4.0 (137) You are on an IFR flight executing a circling approach. A descend below the MDA should not be made until :1. the pilot has the landing threshold in sight2. visual reference has been established and can be maintained 3. the required obstacle clearance can be maintained and a landing can be madeThe combination regrouping all the correct answers is : a) 1, 2, 3. b) 1, 2. c) 2, 3. d) 1, 3. 10.6.4.0 (138) During circling-to-land ( with or without prescribed flight tracks), the maximum allowed airspeed for a Cat B aeroplane, in order to remain within the protection envelope, is: a) 135 kt b) 120 kt c) 125 kt d) 150 kt 10.6.4.0 (139) In an offset entry into an omnidirectional racetrack procedure, the time on the 30° offset track is limited to: a) 1 minute 30 seconds. b) 1 minute. c) 2 minutes. d) 3 minutes. 10.6.4.0 (140) How many separate segments has an instrument approach procedure. a) Up to 5. b) 3. c) 4. d) Up to 4. 10.6.4.0 (141) Where does the initial approach segment in an instrument approach procedure commence? a) At the IAF. b) At the IF. c) At the FAF. d) At the final en-route fix.

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10.6.4.0 (142) Which is the obstacle clearance in the primary area of the initial approach segment in an instrument approach procedure? a) At least 300m (984 ft). b) 150m (492 ft). c) 300m (984 ft). d) At least 150m (492 ft). 10.6.4.0 (143) In a procedure turn (45°/180°), a 45° turn away from the outbound track is performed from the start of turn for categories A and B aircraft for: a) 1 minute. b) 1 minute 15 seconds. c) 1minute 30 seconds. d) 2 minutes. 10.6.4.0 (144) In a procedure turn (45°/180°), a 45° turn away from the outbound track is performed from the start of the turn for categories C, D, E aircraft for: a) 1 minute 15 seconds. b) 1 minute. c) 1 minute 30 seconds. d) 2 minutes. 10.6.4.0 (145) In an approach procedure, a descent or climb conducted in a holding pattern is called: a) Shuttle. b) Based turn. c) Racetrack pattern. d) Procedure turn. 10.6.4.0 (146) In a precision approach (ILS), generally glide path intersection occurs at heights above runway elevation from: a) 300m (984 ft) to 900m (2955 ft). b) 300m (984 ft) to 600m (1968 ft). c) 150m (492 ft) to 300m (984 ft). d) 150m (492 ft) to 900m (2955 ft). 10.6.4.0 (147) In a precision approach (ILS), obstacle clearance surfaces assume that the pilot does not normally deviate from the centreline, after being established on track, more than: a) Half a scale deflection. b) One scale deflection. c) A quarter of scale deflection. d) One and a half of scale deflection. 10.6.4.0 (148) In a precision approach (ILS), the OCA or OCH values are based among other

standard conditions, on a vertical distance between the flight paths of the wheels and glide path antenna, not greater than: a) 6m. b) 3m. c) 9m. d) 12m. 10.6.4.0 (149) Which are the phases of a missed approach procedure? a) Initial, intermediate and final. b) Arrival, initial, intermediate and final. c) Arrival, intermediate and final. d) Initial and final. 10.6.4.0 (150) Normally missed approach procedures are based on a nominal missed approach climb gradient of: a) 2.5%. b) 0.8%. c) 3.3%. d) 5%. 10.6.4.0 (151) Where does the initial phase of a missed approach procedure end? a) At the point where the climb is established. b) At the missed approach point. c) At the first point where 50m (164 ft) obstacle clearance is obtained and can be maintained. d) At the point where a new approach, holding or return to en-route flight is initiated. 10.6.4.0 (152) The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument approach, to bring an aircraft into position for landing on runway which is not suitably located for straight-in approach, is: a) Visual manoeuvring (circling). b) Visual approach. c) Contact approach. d) Aerodrome traffic pattern. 10.6.4.0 (153) It is permissible to eliminate from consideration a particular sector where a prominent obstacle exists in the visual manoeuvring (circling) area outside the final approach and missed approach area. When this option is exercised, the published procedure: a) Prohibits circling within the total sector in which the obstacle exists. b) Permits circling only in VMC. c) Recommends not to perform circling within the total sector in which the obstacle exists. d) Prohibits the circling approach to the affected runway. 10.6.4.0 (154) When the visual manoeuvring (circling) area has been established the obstacle clearance altitude/height (OCA/H) is determined:

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a) For each category of aircraft, and it may be different for each one of them. b) Only for categories A and B aircraft. c) Only for categories C, D and E aircraft. d) For all categories of aircraft, and it is the same for all of them. 10.6.4.0 (155) A circling approach is: a) A visual flight manoeuvre keeping the runway in sight. b) A visual manoeuvre to be conducted only in IMC. c) A flight manoeuvre to be performed only under radar vectoring. d) A contact flight manoeuvre. 10.6.4.0 (156) If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, it is expected that the pilot will make an initial climbing turn towards the: a) Landing runway. b) MAP. c) FAF. d) Final missed approach track. 10.6.4.0 (157) If contact is lost with the runway on the down-wind leg of a circling manoeuvre, what actions should be taken ? a) Initiate a missed approach b) Turn 90 degrees towards the runway and wait for visual conctact c) If you have other visual cues, continue with ground contact d) Turn towards the inner marker for the runway in use, maintaining circling alitude 10.6.4.0 (158) What action should be taken if contact is los with the aerodrome on the down wind leg ? a) Initiate a missed approach b) Descend to OCL/ACH and in the hope that the visibility is better at a lower altitude c) Maintain your circling altitude and turn towards the aerodrome d) Request an amended clearance 10.6.4.0 (159) Obstacle clearance for an ILS approach is based on the assumption that the pilot does not deviate from the centre line more than : a) half scale deflection of the localizer indicator. b) full scale deflection of the localizer indicator. c) half scale deflection of the glidepath indicator and horizontal 35 ° off the centerline. d) full scale deflection of the localizer indicator and half scale deflection of the glidepath indicator. 10.6.4.0 (160) Who establishes the OCA/H (Obstacle Clearance Altitude/Height) for an approavh procedure? a) the state b) the operator

c) the pilot-in-command , d) the ""flight-operations"" of the company 10.6.4.0 (161) On a non-precision approach a so-called ""straight-in-approach"" is considered acceptable, if the angle between the final approach track and the runway centreline is : a) 30 degrees or less b) 40 degrees or less c) 20 degrees or less d) 10 degrees or less 10.6.4.0 (162) Normally, the maximum descent gradient, applicable in the final approach segment to ensure the required minimum obstacle clearance, is : a) 6,5%. b) 5%. c) 7%. d) 8%. 10.6.4.0 (163) The primary area of an instrument approach segment is : a) A defined are symmetrically disposed about the nominal flight track in which full obstacle clearance is provided. b) the most critical part of the segment where the minimum altitude should be kept very carefully, c) the first part of the segment , d) the outside part of the segment where the obstacle clearance increases from o ft to the appropriate minimum 10.6.4.0 (164) In the primary area, the obstacle clearance for the initial approach segment provides at least : a) 984 ft b) 1476 ft c) 492 ft d) decreasing from 984 to 492 ft 10.6.4.0 (165) During an instrument approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) of the initial approach segment primary area is equal to : a) 150 m (492 ft) b) 300 m (984 ft) c) 210 m (690 ft) d) 120 m (394 ft) 10.6.4.0 (166) During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the intermediate phase of this missed approach is : a) 30 m (98 ft) b) 50 m (164 ft)

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c) 90 m (295 ft) d) 120 m (384 ft) 10.6.4.0 (167) During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the intermediate phase of this missed approach is : a) 30 m (98 ft) b) 50 m (164 ft) c) 90 m (295 ft) d) 120 m (384 ft) 10.6.4.0 (168) During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the final phase of this missed approach is : a) 50 m (164 ft) b) 30 m (98 ft) c) 90 m (295 ft) d) 120 m (384 ft) 10.6.4.0 (169) Minimum sector altitudes are determined by the inbound radial in relation to the IAF. These sectors are established for a distance from the IAF of: a) 25 NM b) 20 NM c) 10 NM d) 5 NM 10.6.4.0 (170) The width of the corridor around a specified arrival route is : a) ± 5 NM b) ± 10 NM c) ± 12.5 NM d) ± 2.5 NM 10.6.4.0 (171) In general, during a straight-in approach, the MDH cannot be below: a) the OCH b) 200 ft c) 350 ft d) 400 ft 10.6.4.0 (172) For a category I precision approach, the decision height cannot be lower than : a) 200 ft b) 250 ft c) 150 ft d) 100 ft 10.6.4.0 (173) A ""precision approach"" is a direct instrument approach...

a) using bearing, elevation and distance information. b) using at least one source of bearing information and one source of elevation or distance information. c) using bearing, elevation and distance information, providing the pilot uses a flight director or an autopilot certified to a height below 200 ft. d) carried out by a crew of at least two pilots trained with a specific working method. 10.6.4.0 (174) Unless otherwise indicated, the missed approach procedures published on the IAC charts are based on a minimum climb gradient of: a) 2.5% b) 2% c) 5% d) 3.3% 10.6.5.0 (175) What will be your action if you can not comply with a standard holding pattern? a) inform the ATC immediately and request a revised clearance. b) a non-standard holding pattern is permitted. c) it is permitted to deviate from the prescribed holding pattern at pilots discretion. d) Follow the radio communication failure procedure. 10.6.5.0 (176) In a holding pattern all turns are to be made at a : a) rate of 3°per second or at a bank angle of 25°, which ever requires the lesser bank. b) rate of 3°per second. c) maximum bank angle of 25°. d) rate of 3°per second or at a bank angle of 20°, which ever requires the lesser bank. 10.6.5.0 (177) Entering a holding pattern at FL 110 with a jet aircraft, which will be the maximum speed ? a) 230 kt IAS. b) 230 kt TAS. c) 240 kt IAS. d) 240 kt TAS. 10.6.5.0 (178) Unless otherwise published or instructed by ATC, all turns after initial entry into the holding pattern shall be made into which direction? a) To the right. b) To the left. c) First right and then to the left. d) Teardrop to the left and then to the right. 10.6.5.0 (179) What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern up to FL 140? a) 1 minute b) 2 minutes

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c) 1,5 minutes d) 30 secondes 10.6.5.0 (180) You have received holding instructions for a radio fix. The published holding procedure is: all turns to the right, 1 minute outbound, inbound MC 052°. You are approaching the fix on an inbound Magnetic Track 232°. Select the available entry procedure. a) Either ""off set"" or ""parallel"". b) Off set. c) Parallel. d) Direct. 10.6.5.0 (181) What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern above FL 140? a) 1 minute 30 seconds. b) 1 minute. c) 2 minutes. d) 2 minutes 30 seconds. 10.6.5.0 (182) In relation to the three entry sectors, the entry into the holding pattern shall be according to: a) Heading. b) Course. c) Bearing. d) Track. 10.6.5.0 (183) Related to the three entry sectors in a holding pattern, there is a zone of flexibility on either side of the sectors boundaries of: a) 5°. b) 10°. c) 15°. d) 20°. 10.6.5.0 (184) How far beyond the boundary of the holding area extends the buffer area? a) 5 NM. b) 3 NM. c) 5 km. d) 3 km. 10.6.5.0 (185) In a standard holding pattern turns are made : a) to the right b) to the left c) in a direction depending on the entry , d) in a direction depending on the wind direction

10.6.5.0 (186) Standard airway holding pattern below 14 000 ft ? a) Right hand turns / 1 minute outbound b) Right hand turns / 1.5 minutes outbound c) Left hand turns / 1 minute outbound d) Left hand turns / 1.5 minutes outbound 10.6.6.0 (187) The pilot of a departing aircraft flying under IFR shall change the altimeter setting from QNH to standard setting 1013.25 hPa when passing: a) Transition altitude. b) Transition layer. c) Transition level. d) The level specified by ATC. 10.6.6.0 (188) The transition altitude of an aerodrome should not be below: a) 3000 ft. b) 2500 ft. c) 1500 ft. d) 1000 ft. 10.6.6.0 (189) The vertical position of an aircraft at or below the transition altitude will be reported: a) as altitude. b) as height. c) as hlight level. d) according pilot's choice. 10.6.6.0 (190) The vertical position of an aircraft at or above the transition level will be reported : a) as flight level. b) as height. c) as altitude. d) According to pilot's choice. 10.6.6.0 (191) During flight through the transition layer the vertical position of the aircraft should be expressed as a) altitude above mean sea level during descent b) altitude above mean sea level during climb c) flight level during descent d) either altitude above mean sea level or flight level during climb 10.6.6.0 (192) Transition from altitude to flight level, and vice-versa is done: a) at transition altitude during climb and transition level during descent. b) at transition level during climb and transition altitude during descent. c) only at transition altitude. d) only at transition level.

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10.6.6.0 (193) In the vicinity of an aerodrome that is going to be used by the aircraft the vertical position of the aircraft shall be expressed in: a) altitude above sea level on or below the transition altitude b) altitude above sea level on or above the transition altitude c) flight level on or below the transition level d) flight level on or below the transition altitude 10.6.6.0 (194) At what moment during the approach should the reported airfield altimeter setting be set? a) When passing the transition level b) When passing the transition altitude c) Within the transition layer d) When passing 3000 FT AMSL or 1000 FT AGL 10.6.6.0 (195) The transition level: a) shall be the lowest available flight level above the transition altitude that has been established b) shall be the highest available flight level below the transition altitude that has been established c) for the aerodrome is published in the AGA section of the AIP d) is calculated and decided by the commander 10.6.6.0 (196) The transition level: a) Is calculated by ATS b) Is published on the approach and landing chart for each aerodrome c) Is calculated by the commander d) Will be distributed via NOTAM 10.6.7.0 (197) What will be the transponder mode and code for radio communication failure? a) Mode A code 7600. b) Mode A code 7500. c) Mode B code 7600. d) Mode A code 7700. 10.6.7.0 (198) When an aircraft carries a serviceable transponder, the pilot shall operate the transponder: a) At all times during flight, regardless of whether the aircraft is within or outside airspace where SSR is used for ATS purposes. b) Only when the aircraft is flying within airspace where SSR is used for ATS purposes. c) Only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace. d) Only when directed by ATC. 10.6.7.0 (199) When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C equipment, the pilot: a) Shall continuously operate this mode unless otherwise directed by ATC.

b) Shall continuously operate this mode only when directed by ATC. c) Shall continuously operate this mode regardless of ATC instructions. d) Shall continuously operate this mode only when the aircraft is within controlled airspace. 10.6.7.0 (200) The pilot of an aircraft losing two-way communications shall set the transponder to Mode A Code: a) 7600. b) 2000. c) 7500. d) 7700. 10.6.7.0 (201) When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot-in-command shall indicate the situation by setting the transponder to: a) 7500. b) 7700. c) 7600. d) 7000. 10.6.7.0 (202) Pilots shall not operate the SSR special position indicator (IDENT) feature unless: a) Requested by ATC. b) They operate within controlled airspace. c) They operate a transponder with Mode C. d) They operate within non controlled airspace. 10.6.7.0 (203) When acknowledging mode/code setting instructions, pilots shall: a) Read back the mode and code to be set. b) Use only the word ROGER. c) Use only the word WILCO. d) Read back only the code to be set. 10.6.7.0 (204) Which of the following correctly lists special purpose codes that are to be used in conjunction with Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)? a) Distress 7700. Hijacking 7500. Communication failure 7600. b) Distress 7700. Hijacking 7600. Communicaton failure 7500. c) Distress 7500. Hijacking 7700. Communication failure 7600. d) Distress 7600. Hijacking 7500. Communication failure 7700. 10.6.7.0 (205) Your transponder code assigned by ATC is 5320.In flight, in case of radio communications failure, you will squawk code : a) A 7600 Mode C b) A 5300 Mode C c) A 7620 Mode C d) A 0020 Mode C

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10.7.0.0 (206) When an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft shall be allowed to resume its flight, if a) the state of registry considers that the damage sustained is of a nature such that the aircraft is still airworthy b) the state of registry, the state of design and the state of manufacture consider that the aircraft is still airworthy c) the state of manufacture informs the state of registry that the damage sustained is of a nature such that the aircraft is still airworthy d) the state of design and the state of manufacture inform the state of registry that the aircraft is still airworthy 10.7.1.0 (207) A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earth is: a) Control area. b) Control zone. c) Advisory airspace. d) Flight Information Region. 10.7.1.0 (208) A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to a specified upper limit is: a) Control zone. b) Control area. c) Air traffic zone. d) Advisory airspace. 10.7.1.0 (209) ATS airspaces where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and are separated from each other is classified as: a) Class B. b) Class A. c) Class D. d) Class E. 10.7.1.0 (210) Aerodrome traffic is: a) All traffic on the manoeuvring area and flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome. b) All traffic on the manoeuvring area. c) All traffic on the movement area and flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome. d) All traffic in the aerodrome circuit. 10.7.1.0 (211) Air Traffic Service unit means: a) Air Traffic Control units, Flight Information Centers or Air Services reporting offices. b) Air Traffic Control units and Flight Information Centers. c) Air Traffic Control units and Air Services reporting offices. d) Flight Information Centers and Air Services reporting offices.

10.7.1.0 (212) Regarding Aerodrome Flight Information Sercice (AFIS) : a) it can only supply limited services to the users and under no circumstances may it supply ATC services. b) its purpose is to supply ATC services but it is not a state organisation. c) it has the same privileges and prerogatives as an ATC organisation but its activity is neither continuous nor regular. d) its only purpose is to relay ATC information to the aircraft in flight or on the ground. 10.7.1.0 (213) An information issued by a meteorological watch office concerning the occurence or expected occurence of specified en-route weather phenomena which may affect the safety of low-level aircraft operations and which was not already included in the forecast issued for low level flights in the flight information region concerned or sub-area thereof is a) An AIRMET information b) A SIGMET information c) A NOTAM d) An En-Route Meteo Report 10.7.1.0 (214) Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains international standards and recommended practices for air traffic services (ATS)? a) Annex 11 b) Annex 14 c) Annex 6 d) Annex 17 10.7.1.1 (215) Which condition is requested so that an aerodrome may be considered controlled? a) The aerodrome shall be provided with a Control Tower. b) The aerodrome shall be located within a Control Zone. c) The aerodrome shall be located within a controlled airspace. d) The aerodrome shall be located within a Control Zone (CTR) and provided with a Control Tower. 10.7.1.1 (216) Flight Information Region (FIR) is an airspace within which the following services are provided: a) Flight Information Service and Alerting Service. b) Flight Information Service, Alerting Service and Advisory Service. c) Flight Information Service only. d) Flight Information Service and Advisory Service. 10.7.1.1 (217) Control Area (CTA) is defined as follows: a) A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earth. b) A controlled airspace extending upwards from a height of 900 feet above the earth. c) A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to a specified limit. d) A controlled airspace extending upwards from a height of 1000 feet above the earth.

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10.7.1.1 (218) A Control Zone shall extend laterally to at least: a) 5 nautical miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from which approaches may be made. b) 10 miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from which approaches may be made. c) 15 miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from which approaches may be made. d) 20 miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from which approaches may be made. 10.7.1.1 (219) A lower limit of a Control Area shall be established at a height above the ground level or water of not less than: a) 200 metres. b) 300 metres. c) 150 metres. d) 500 metres. 10.7.1.1 (220) The units providing Air Traffic Services are: a) Area Control Centre - Flight Information Centre - Approach Control Office Aerodrome Control Tower and Air Traffic Services reporting office. b) Area Control Centre - Approach Control Office and Aerodrome Control Tower. c) Area Control Centre - Advisory Centre - Flight Information Centre - Approach Control Office and Tower. d) Area Control Centre - Flight Information Region - Approach Control Office and Tower. 10.7.1.1 (221) The Approach Control Service is an air traffic control service a) An air traffic control service provided for the arriving and departing controlled flights. b) An air traffic control service for IFR flights arriving and departing. c) An air traffic control service provided for IFR and VFR flights within a Control Zone. d) An air traffic control service provided for IFR traffic within a Control Zone. 10.7.1.1 (222) Air traffic control service is provided for the purpose of: a) Preventing collisions between aircraft, between aircraft and obstacles on the manoeuvring area and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic b) Applying separation between aircraft and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic c) Preventing collisions between controlled air traffic and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic d) Avoiding colisions between all aircraft and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic 10.7.1.1 (223) Which statement is correct? a) The lower limit of a TMA shall be established at a height of at least 700ft AGL, b) The lower limit of a CTA shall be established at a height of at least 1500ft AGL,

c) The upper limit of a CTR shall be established at a height of at least 3000ft AMSL, d) The lower limit of an UIR may coincide with an IFR cruising level 10.7.1.1 (224) To perform a VFR flight in airspace classification E / a) two way radiocommunication is not required. b) a clearance is required. c) a clearance and two-way radiocommunication is required. d) a clearance and/or two-way radiocommunication is required. 10.7.1.1 (225) An air traffic control unit : a) may ask an aircraft to temporarily change its call sign for safety reasons when there is a risk of confusion between two or more similar call signs. b) may require to change the call sign for safety reasons when there is a risk of confusion between two or more similar call signs providing the aircraft is on a repetitive flight plan. c) must not ask an aircraft to change its call sign. d) may not ask an aircraft to change its call sign after accepting the flight plan. 10.7.1.1 (226) The transfer of an aircraft from one ATC unit to another is done : a) by agreement with the receiving unit. b) automatically at the control zone boundary. c) with the pilot's consent. d) through a central control unit. 10.7.1.1 (227) Concerning to RNP (Required Navigation Performance) types, the indication RNP 4, represents a navigation accuracy of a) plus or minus 4 NM on a 95 per cent containment basis b) plus or minus 4 NM on a 90 per cent containment basis c) plus or minus 4 NM on a 98 per cent containment basis d) plus or minus 4 miles on a 90 per cent containment basis 10.7.1.1 (228) Air traffic services unit clocks and other time recording devices shall be checked as necessary to ensure correct time to within plus or minus a) 30 seconds of UTC at all times b) 15 seconds of UTC at all times c) 10 seconds of UTC at all times d) 1 minute of UTC at all times 10.7.1.1 (229) Except in some special cases the establishment of change-over points should be limited to route segments of a) 60 NM or more b) 75 NM or more c) 50 NM or more d) 100 NM or more

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10.7.1.1 (230) Required Navigation Performance (RNP) shall be prescribed a) by states on the basis of regional air navigation agreements b) by states but not on the basis of regional air agreements c) by ICAO on the basis of regional air navigation agreements d) by regional air navigation agreements 10.7.1.1 (231) What is the speed limit (IAS) in airspace class E? a) 250 kt for IFR and VFR UP TO FL 100 b) 250 kt only for VFR up to FL 195 c) 250 kt VFR and IFR, all levels d) 250 kt only for IFR up to FL 100 10.7.1.1 (232) The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is : a) Not applicable b) 250 KT IAS c) 250 KT TAS d) 240 KT IAS 10.7.1.1 (233) The speed limitation for VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is : a) 250 KT IAS b) 250 KT TAS c) Not applicable d) 240 KT IAS 10.7.1.1 (234) The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as E, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is : a) 250 KT IAS b) 250 KT TAS c) Not applicable d) 260 KT IAS 10.7.1.1 (235) The speed limitation for both IFR flights and VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as B, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMLS, is : a) Not applicable b) 250 KT IAS c) 250 KT TAS d) 260 KT IAS 10.7.1.1 (236) Where an upper flight information region (UIR) is established, the procedures applicable there in : a) need not to be identical with those applicable in the underlying flight information region

b) has to be the same as the underlying flight information region c) have to be as indicated by ICAO council d) have to be as agreed at the regional air navigation meetings 10.7.1.1 (237) The VMC minima for a VFR flight inside an ATS airspace classified as B, is : a) 8 km visibility when at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL and clear of clouds b) 8 km visibility when at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, and 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds c) 5 NM visibility below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, clear of clouds d) 5 NM visibility when below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from cloud 10.7.1.1 (238) A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as B has to maintain the following minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds a) 5 km below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL and clear of clouds b) 5 km below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMS 1.500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds c) 8 km below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, 1 500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds d) 5 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds 10.7.1.1 (239) A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as C has to maintain the following minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds a) 8 km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds b) 5km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds c) 5 NM at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds d) 8 km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, and clear of clouds 10.7.1.1 (240) An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and from VFR flights VFR flights are separated from IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of other VFR flights, is classified as : a) Airspace C b) Airspace D c) Airspace E d) Airspace B 10.7.1.1 (241) An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and are separated from each other is classified as a) Airspace B b) Airspace C c) Airspace D d) Airspace E

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10.7.1.1 (242) An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted and all flights are subject to air traffic control service. IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of VFR flights. VFR flights receive traffic information in respect of all other flights, is classified as : a) Airspace D b) Airspace B c) Airspace E d) Airspace A 10.7.1.1 (243) An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted IFR flights are subject to Air Trafic Control Service and are separated from other IFR flights. All flights receive traffic information as far as is practical, is classified as a) Airspace E b) Airspace D c) Airspace B d) Airspace A 10.7.1.1 (244) An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all participating IFR flights receive an air traffic advisory service and all flights receive flight information service if requested, is classified a) Airspace F b) Airspace G c) Airspace E d) Airspace D 10.7.1.1 (245) An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted and receive flight information service if requested, is classified as a) Airspace G b) Airspace F c) Airspace C d) Airspace E 10.7.1.2 (246) Area Control Centres issue clearances for the purpose of: a) Achieving separation between controlled flights b) Achieving separation between IFR flights c) Providing flight Information Service d) Providing advisory service 10.7.1.2 (247) Clearances will be issued by an ATC unit for the purpose of: a) Achieving separation between controlled flights b) Providing flight Information Service c) Providing advisory services d) Providing alerting services

10.7.1.2 (248) You receive an IFR enroute clearance stating: Clearence expires at 0920. What does it mean ? a) If not airborne until 0920, a new clearence has to be issued b) Do not take off before 0920 c) The take off clearence is expected at 0920 d) After 0920 return to the ramp and file a new flight plan 10.7.1.2 (249) The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed, is: a) 10 minutes. b) 5 minutes. c) 15 minutes. d) 3 minutes. 10.7.1.2 (250) The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is: a) 5 minutes. b) 3 minutes. c) 10 minutes. d) 15 minutes. 10.7.1.2 (251) The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is: a) 3 minutes. b) 5 minutes. c) 6 minutes. d) 10 minutes. 10.7.1.2 (252) The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft departed from the same aerodrome and following the same track, and the preceeding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is: a) 5 minutes. b) 3 minutes. c) 10 minutes. d) 2 minutes. 10.7.1.2 (253) The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft departed from the same aerodrome and following the same track, and the preceeding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is: a) 3 minutes.

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b) 5 minutes. c) 10 minutes. d) 8 minutes. 10.7.1.2 (254) When an aircraft will pass through the level of another aircraft on the same track, the following minimum longitudinal separation shall be provided: a) 15 minutes at the time the level is crossed. b) 10 minutes at the time the level is crossed. c) 5 minutes at the time the level is crossed. d) 20 minutes at the time the level is crossed. 10.7.1.2 (255) The longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME, and each aircraft ""on track"" uses DME stations, is: a) 20 NM. b) 10 NM. c) 5 NM. d) 20 NM when the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeding aircraft. 10.7.1.2 (256) An aircraft is maintaining FL 150 within airspace class C. Another aircraft below at FL 140 is receiving a clearance to descend to FL 70. It is severe turbulence in the area. When is the earliest that a clearance to descend to FL 140 or below can be expected ? a) When the other aircraft has reported that it has descended through FL 130 b) When the other aircraft has reported that it has left FL 140 c) When the other aircraft has reported that it has reached FL 70 d) When the other aircraft has reported that it has left FL 120 10.7.1.2 (257) What is the shortest distance in a sequence for landing between a 'Heavy' aircraft preceding a 'Light' aircraft a) 6 NM b) 3 NM c) 2 km d) 10 km 10.7.1.3 (258) When are ATIS broadcasts updated ? a) Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported values b) Every 30 minutes if weather conditions are below those for VFR , otherwise hourly c) Only when weather conditions change enough to require a change in the active runway or instrument approach in use d) Only when the ceiling and/or visibility changes by a reportable value 10.7.1.3 (259) The ATIS broadcast message should, whenever practicable, not exceed a) 30 seconds

b) 1 minute c) 2 minutes d) 3 minutes 10.7.1.3 (260) Whenever ATIS is provided, the broadcast information shall be updated a) immediately a significant change occurs b) at least every half an hour independently of any significant change c) as prescribed by the meteorological office d) as prescribed by the state 10.7.1.3 (261) Whenever ATIS is provided, the preparation and dissemination of the ATIS message shall be the responsability of a) the air traffic services b) the meteorological office serving the aerodrome (s) c) both air traffic services and the meteorological office d) the unit as prescribed the states 10.7.1.3 (262) ATIS broadcast a) shall not be transmitted on the voice channel of an ILS b) Shall be transmitted on the voice channel of an ILS, on a discrete VHF frequency or on the voice channel of a VOR c) Shall not be transmitted on the voice of a VOR d) Shall only be transmitted on a discrete VHF frequency 10.7.1.3 (263) Flight Information Service shall be provided to aircraft in order to avoid collision hazards when operating in airspace classes : a) C, D, E, F, and G b) F and G only c) A, B, C, D, E, F and G d) F only 10.7.1.3 (264) Flight information service provided to flights shall include the provision of information concerning collision hazards to aircraft operating in airspace classes: a) C to G (inclusive) b) A to G (inclusive) c) A to E (inclusive) d) F and G 10.7.1.3 (265) ATIS broadcast messages containing departure and arrival information should include cloud cover, when the clouds are : a) below 1 500 m (5.000 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater b) below 900 m (3.000 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater c) below 2 000 m (600 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the

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greater d) cumulonimbus 10.7.1.4 (266) When it becomes apparent that an aircraft is in difficulty, the decision to initiate the alert phases is the responsibility of the: a) operational air traffic control centres b) flight information or control organisations c) air traffic co-ordination services d) search and rescue co-ordination centres 10.7.1.4 (267) The Alerting Service is provided by: a) The ATS unit responsible for the aircraft at that moment. b) The ATC unit responsible for the aircraft at that moment, when it is provided with 121.5 MHz. c) Only by ATC units. d) The Area Control Centres. 10.7.1.4 (268) The phases related to an aircraft in emergency or believed in emergency are: a) uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase. b) uncertainty phase, urgency phase, distress phase. c) uncertainty phase, distress phase, urgency phase. d) uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase and urgency phase. 10.7.1.4 (269) A radio communications, ""Distress"" differs from ""Urgency"" because in the first case: a) There is a serious and imminent danger requiring immediate assistance. b) The aeroplane has suffered damages which impair its fitness to fly. c) The aeroplane will not be able to reach a suitable aerodrome. d) The aeroplane or a passenger's safety require the flight immediately interrupted. 10.7.1.4 (270) Which of the following statements regarding Alerting service is correct? a) Alerting Service and Flight Information Service are often provided by the same ATS unit b) The Alert phase is established when no communication has been received from an aircraft within a period of thirty minutes after the time a communication should have been received, c) The distress phase is established when an aircraft is known or believed th be the subject of unlawful interference d) Aircraft in the vicinity of an aircraft known or believed to be the subject of unlawful interference, shall be informed about this, 10.7.1.4 (271) When an aircraft is experiencing difficulties, triggering of the alert phase is the responsibility of: a) air traffic control and flight information centers. b) search and rescue coordination centres.

c) air traffic coordination centres. d) control centres only. 10.7.1.5 (272) Alert phase is defined as follows: a) A situation where an apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants. b) An emergency event in which an aircraft and its occupants are considered to be threatened by a danger. c) A situation related to an aircraft and its occupants are considered to be in a state of emergency. d) A situation related to an aircraft which reports that the fuel on board is exhausted. 10.7.1.5 (273) When on a RNP 1 route is indicated A342 Z, means that all turns shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments with a radius of : a) 15 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and below FL 190 b) 15 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL 200 c) 22.5 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL 250 d) 25 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and below FL190 10.7.1.5 (274) When on a RNP 1 route is indicated B235 Y, means that all turns shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments defined with a radius of : a) 22.5 NM between 30° and 90° at and above FL200 b) 25.0 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL 250 c) 22.5 NM between 30° and 90° at and above FL260 d) 20 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL200 10.7.3.0 (275) The rule governing flight over water for a single engined aeroplane engaged in the public transport of passengers: a) limits such flight to a height sufficient to land safely if the engine fails. b) does not permit such flight in any circumstances. c) limits flight to up to 10 minutes flying time from the nearest shore. d) limits flight to up to 8 NM from the nearest shore. 10.7.3.0 (276) The period of validity for take-off slots assigned by CEU (flow control centre): a) is 15 minutes. b) depends on the type of flight (10 minutes for international flights, 5 minutes for domestic flights). c) is 10 minutes. d) is 5 minutes. 10.7.3.0 (277) A flight plan shall be submitted prior to departure for a controlled flight at least: a) 60 minutes prior to departure. b) 10 minutes prior to departure.

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c) 30 minutes prior to leave the blocks. d) 50 minutes prior to leave the blocks. 10.7.3.0 (278) If radio communication failure is experienced on an IFR flight in IMC, generally the pilot shall: a) Try to get contact on other frequencies either ground or aircraft stations Transmit being indicating important details required 2 times. b) Land on the nearest suitable aerodrome and report the termination of the flight to ATC. c) Try to get contact on other frequencies either ground or aircraft stations. d) Transmit blind indicating details required at least 2 times. 10.7.3.0 (279) The pilot in command of an aircraft:1 - must comply immediately to all instructions received from ATC.2 - is responsible only if he is the ""pilot flying"".3 - may deviate from air regulations for safety reasons.4 - may be exempt from air regulations in order to comply to an ATC instruction.5 - may ask for the modification of an unsatisfactory clearance.Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements? a) 05-Mar b) 2003-04-05 c) 1 - 4 d) 2002-03-05 10.7.3.0 (280) A strayed aircraft is : a) An aircraft which has deviated significantly from its intended track or which reports that it is lost b) only that aircraft which has deviated significantly its intended track c) only that aircraft which reports that it is lost d) an aircraft in a given area but whose identity has not been established 10.7.3.1 (281) ""ESSENTIAL TRAFFIC"" is that controlled flight to which the provision of separation by ATC is applicable, but which, in relation to a particular controlled flight is not separated therefore by the appropriate separation minima. Whenever separation minima is not applied. The following flights are considered essential traffic one to each other. a) All IFR flight in controlled airspaces and controlled VFR. b) Controlled VFR flights and VFR flights. c) All IFR flights. d) Only controlled IFR flights. 10.7.3.1 (282) When, in air space where VFR are permitted, the pilot in command of an IFR flight wishes to continue his flight in accordance with visual flight rules, until the destination is reached:1 He must inform the control unit (""cancel IFR"")2 He must request and obtain clearance.3 He may request his IFR flight plan to be changed to a VFR flight plan.4 The flight plan automatically becomes a VFR flight plan.The correct combination of statements is: a) 1 and 4

b) 2 and 4 c) 2 and 3 d) 1 and 3 10.7.3.1 (283) A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals: a) Raising arm and hand horizontally in front of body, fingers extended then clenching fist. b) Arms down, palms facing inwards, moving arms from extended position inwards. c) Crossing arms extended above his head. d) Horizontally moving hands, fingers extended, palms toward ground. 10.7.3.1 (284) In the event of a delay of a controlled flight, the submitted flight plan should be amended or cancelled and a new flight plan submitted when the delay is: a) 30 minutes in excess of the estimated time off blocks. b) 30 minutes in excess of the estimated time of departure. c) 60 minutes in excess of the estimated time off blocks. d) 60 minutes in excess of the estimated time of departure. 10.7.3.1 (285) Which is the content of section 2 of Air-Report (AIREP)? a) Estimated time of arrival (ETA), endurance. b) Estimated elapse time (EET), endurance. c) Present position, estimated time of arrival (ETA). d) Estimated time over FIR boundary, endurance. 10.7.3.1 (286) The position reports shall contain the following elements of information in the order listed: a) Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude, next position and time over and ensuing significant point. b) Aircraft identification, position, flight level or altitude,time, next position and time over and ensuing significant point. c) Aircraft identification, position, time, true air speed, flight level or altitude, next position and time over. d) Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude, next position and time over. 10.7.3.1 (287) Who is responsible for an ATC clearance to be safe in respect to terrain clearance? a) The pilot in command. b) The aircraft operator. c) The ATC. d) The air traffic service reporting office when accepting the flight plan. 10.7.3.1 (288) Which letter is used in a flight plan to indicate that the flight commences in accordance with VFR and subsequently changes to IFR? a) Z b) I

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c) V d) Y 10.7.3.1 (289) Which letter is used in a flight plan to indicate that the flight commences in accordance with IFR and subsequently changes to VFR? a) Y b) I c) V d) Z 10.7.3.1 (290) In the event of a delay for an uncontrolled flight which a flight plan has been submitted, the flight plan should be amended or a new flight plan submitted and the old one cancelled, when: a) The delay is more than 60 minutes of the estimated time off-blocks. b) The delay is more than 30 minutes of the estimated time off-blocks. c) The delay is more than 60 minutes of the estimated time of departure. d) The delay is more than 30 minutes of the estimated time off departure. 10.7.3.1 (291) A pilot receiving an IFR clearance from ATC should: a) Read back the entire clearance as required by regulation. b) Read back those parts containing level assignments, vectors or any part requiring verification. c) Read back the initial route clearance, level assignments and transponder codes. d) Read back should be unsolicited. 10.7.3.1 (292) Change from IFR to VFR will always take place : a) on the initiative of the aircraft commander b) at the clearance limit, irrespective of the weather conditions c) as instructed by an air traffic control unit d) when the aircraft is leaving controlled airspace during VMC 10.7.3.1 (293) A Special Air Report comprises a number of sections.In section I the pilot fills in : a) a position report, including aircraft identification, height, position and time , b) weather noted , c) flight identification and weather noted , d) urgent messages 10.7.3.1 (294) The letter ""L"" is written in the wake turbulence box of a flight plan form when the maximum certified take-off weight of an aircraft is less than or equal to: a) 7 000 kg. b) 14 000 kg. c) 20 000 kg. d) 5 700 kg for airplanes and 2 700 kg for helicopters.

10.7.3.1 (295) If no ICAO identifier has been attributed to an alternate airport (box 16) of a flight plan form... a) write ZZZZ in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) ALTN/followed by the name of theairport. b) write XXXX in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) ALTN/followed by the name of theairport c) write XXXX in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) DEGT/followed by the name of the airport d) write ZZZZ in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) DEGT/followed by the name of theairport. 10.7.3.1 (296) The planned cruising speed for the first leg or all of the cruising portion of the flight must be entered in the speed box of a flight plan form. This speed is the: a) true air speed (TAS). b) estimated ground speed (G/S). c) indicated air speed (IAS). d) true air speed at 65% power. 10.7.3.1 (297) The ""estimated total time"" in block 16 of a VFR flight plan is the estimated time : a) required by the aircraft from take-off to arrive overhead the destination airport. b) required by the aircraft from the moment it moves by its own power until it stops at the end of the flight (block time). c) required by the aircraft from brake release at take-off until landing. d) of endurance at cruising power taking into account pressure and temperature on that day. 10.7.3.2 (298) Which procedure you follow if during an IFR flight in VMC you have two way communication failure? a) Continue the flight maintaining VMC and land as soon as practicable. b) Continue the flight at the assigned level and route, start approach at your ETA. c) Maintain your assigned level and route and land at the nearest aerodrome that has VMC conditions. d) Return to the aerodrome of departure. 10.7.3.2 (299) Track separation between aircraft using the same NDB shall be applied requiring the aircraft to fly: a) At least 30° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the facility. b) At least 15° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the facility. c) At least 45° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the facility. d) At least 30° separated at a distance of 15 miles or more from the facility. 10.7.3.2 (300) Track separation between aircraft using the same FIX shall be applied requiring the aircraft to fly: a) At least 45° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the fix. b) At least 45° separated at a distance of 15 miles or more from the FIX.

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c) At least 30° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the FIX. d) At least 30° separated at a distance of 15 miles or more from the FIX. 10.7.3.2 (301) If an ATC clearance is not suitable to the pilot in command of an aircraft: a) He may request and, if practicable, obtain an amended clearance. b) He may request another clearance and the ATC concerned has to accept the pilot request. c) The pilot has to accept the ATC clearance because it has been based on the flight plan filed with ATC. d) The pilot should propose another clearance to the ATC concerned. 10.7.3.2 (302) The ""VMC and own separation"" ATC clearance is used for a controlled flight to cross the level of another controlled flight when: a) Requested by the pilot, during the day light and authorized by the state overflown. b) Requested by the pilot and during the day light. c) Requested by the pilot and authorized by the state overflown. d) This procedure is not allowed. 10.7.3.2 (303) Normally all turns, which are requested by a radar controller have to be executed as: a) Standard rate turns if not otherwise instructed by ATC. b) Decided on pilot's discretion. c) Prescribed by the aircraft operations. d) the weather permits. 10.7.3.2 (304) What are the controlled IFR separation methods applied by ATC? a) Vertical, horizontal and composite separation. b) Vertical, horizontal and longitudinal separation. c) Time separation and track separation. d) Composite separation. 10.7.3.2 (305) The vertical IFR separation minimum being applied by ATC within a controlled airspace below FL 290 is: a) 1000 feet (300 m). b) 2000 feet (600 m). c) 500 feet (150 m). d) 2500 feet (750 m). 10.7.3.2 (306) The vertical IFR separation minimum being applied by ATC within a controlled airspace above FL 290 is: a) 2000 feet (600 m). b) 1000 feet (300 m). c) 500 feet (150 m). d) 4000 feet (1200 m).

10.7.3.2 (307) Track separation between aircraft using the same VOR shall be applied requiring the aircraft to fly: a) At least 15° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the facility. b) At least 30° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the facility. c) At least 45° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the facility. d) At least 15° separated at a distance of 15 miles or more from the facility. 10.7.3.2 (308) Flying exactly on your current flight plan route, you receive and acknowledge the following instruction from the radar controller:""Turn immediately, continue heading 050° until further advised"".Time now is 18:36 UTC. At 18:37 UTC you find out that radio communication cannot be stablished again and you have to return to your current flight plan route: a) On the nearest way. b) With an intercept of 20° or more. c) With an intercept of at least 45°. d) With an intercept of at least 30°. 10.7.3.2 (309) Above flight level FL 290 the vertical flight separation between aircraft on the same direction is: a) 4 000 feet. b) 2 000 feet. c) 3 000 feet. d) 1 500 feet. 10.7.3.2 (310) The longitudinal separation minima based on DME, and each aircraft ""on track"" uses DME stations, is: a) 10 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeding aircraft. b) 10 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeding aircraft. c) 20 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 10 kt or more faster than the succeding aircraft. d) 10 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 10 kt or more faster than the succeding aircraft. 10.7.3.2 (311) A ""RNAV"" distance based separation minimum may be used at the time the level is crossed, provided that each aircraft reports its distance to or from the same ""on track"" way-point. This minimum is: a) 80 NM. b) 60 NM. c) 50 NM. d) 20 NM. 10.7.3.2 (312) A VFR flight constitutes essential traffic to other VFR flights, when operating in controlled airspaced classified as:

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a) B. b) B and C. c) B, C and D. d) B, C, D and E. 10.7.3.2 (313) One minute separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on tracks diverging by at least: a) 45° immediately after take-off. b) 30° immediately after take-off. c) 15° immediately after take-off. d) 25° immediately after take-off. 10.7.3.2 (314) Two minutes separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on the same track, when: a) The preceeding aircraft is 40 kt or more faster than the following aircraft. b) The preceeding aircraft is 30 kt or more faster than the following aircraft. c) The preceeding aircraft is 20 kt or more faster than the following aircraft. d) The preceeding aircraft is 10 kt or more faster than the following aircraft. 10.7.3.2 (315) The separation method whereby the vertical and horizontal separation may be reduced till a maximum of half the standard criteria is called : a) Composite separation b) Combined separation c) Reduced separation d) Essential separation 10.7.3.2 (316) What is the minimum vertical separation between aircraft flying IFR below flight level 290? a) 1000 feet b) 500 feet c) 1500 feet d) 2000 feet 10.7.3.2 (317) Cruising level IFR during cruise within controlled airspace shall be given as flight level (FL) a) Above the transition altitude when applicable b) When QNH is higher than the standard pressure 1013 hPa c) only in airspace class A d) if the obstacle clearance is more than 2000 feet 10.7.3.2 (318) Changing of flight rules from IFR to VFR is possible a) If the commander so requests b) If instructed by ATC so long as VMC is forecasted during the next 30 minutes c) If instructed by ATCso long as VMC is forecasted during the next 60 minutes d) Only when leaving controlled airspace

10.7.3.2 (319) Aircraft flying along the same track may be separated by DME-distances from the same DME and it is confirmed that the aircraft have passed each other. Specify the shortest difference in DME-distance to make it possible for one aircraft to climb or descend a) 10 NM b) 12 NM c) 15 NM d) 20 NM 10.7.3.2 (320) Whenever unlawful interference with an aircraft is suspected, and where automatic distinct display of SSR Mode A code 7500 and code 7700 is not provided, the radar controller shall attempt to verify this suspicion by : a) Setting the SSR decoder to mode A code 7500 and thereafter to code 7700 b) Setting the SSR decoder to mode A code 7000 and thereafter to code 7500 c) Setting the SSR decoder to mode A 7500 then to standby and thereafter to code 7700 d) Setting the SSR decoder to mode A 7700 then to standby and thereafter to code 7500 10.7.3.2 (321) When the Mach number tecnique (MNT) is being applied, and the preceding aircraft shall maintain a mach number equal to or greater than the following aircraft a RNAV distance based separation minimum may be used on the same direction tracks in lieu of 10 minutes longitudinal separation minimum. The distance is : a) 80 NM b) 100 NM c) 70 NM d) 60 NM 10.7.3.2 (322) Longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME for aircraft at the same cruising level and track, provided that each aircraft utilizes ""on Track"" DME stations and separation is checked by obtaining simultaneous DME readings, is : a) 20 NM b) 10 NM c) 25 NM d) 40 NM 10.7.3.2 (323) Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed provided that the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true air speed of 40 Kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft will be a) 3 minutes b) 5 minutes c) 10 minutes d) 2 minutes 10.7.3.2 (324) Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising

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level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed provided that the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true air speed of 20 Kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft will be a) 5 minutes b) 3 minutes c) 10 minutes d) 2 minutes 10.7.3.2 (325) Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed will be a) 10 minutes b) 15 minutes c) 5 minutes d) 3 minutes 10.7.3.2 (326) Repetitive flight plans (RPL's) shall not be used for flights operated regularly on the same day(s) of consecutive weeks and : a) On at least ten occasions or every day over a period of at least ten consecutive days b) On at least ten occasions or every day over a period of at least 20 consecutive days c) On at least 20 days consecutively d) On at least 20 occasions 10.7.3.3 (327) The minimum sector altitude provides 300 metres obstacle clearance within how many miles radius from the navigation facility upon which the instrument approach procedure is predicated: a) 25 NM (46 km). b) 15 NM (28 km). c) 20 NM (37 km). d) 30 NM (55 km). 10.7.3.3 (328) ""Time Approach Procedure"" is used as necessary to expedite the approach of a number of arriving aircraft. This will be obtained requesting aircraft: a) To pass the specified point inbound at the previously notified time. b) To pass a specified point. c) To apply a step down descent between aircraft in the approach sequence. d) To maintain a specified speed during the approach procedure. 10.7.3.3 (329) During a take-off into IMC conditions with low ceiling the pilot should contact departure control: a) When advised by Tower. b) Before penetrating the clouds. c) When clear of the airport and established on the first heading given in the clearance. d) After take-off.

10.7.3.3 (330) A so called ""Visual Approach"" can be performed : a) during IFR flights, if there is permanent sight on the movement area and the underlying ground, b) during IFR and VFR flights in VMC, c) during IFR flights, if the cloudbase is 1000 ft more than the appropriate DA or MDA for that procedure, d) as in above, but in addition there should be a visibility of 5,5 km or more 10.7.3.3 (331) An approaching aircraft may descent below the MSA if : a) all mentioned answers are correct b) the pilot has the field and the underlying terrain in sight and will keep it in sight, c) the aircraft gets radar vectors , d) the pilot is following the published approach procedure 10.7.3.3 (332) The EAT has to be transmitted to the pilot as soon as possible, in case the expected delay is : a) 5 minutes or more. b) 15 minutes or more c) 10 minutes d) 20 minutes 10.7.3.3 (333) Which statement is correct ?During a ""Visual Approach"" in Controlled Airspace (Classe C): a) ATC will apply separation with other traffic b) the pilot to apply separation with other traffic, c) ATC will apply separation only with other IFR-traffic d) ATC will apply separation with other arriving traffic 10.7.3.3 (334) If an arriving aircraft is making a straight in approach a departing aircraft may take off in any direction a) until five minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument runway b) until three minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument runway c) until two minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument runway d) until ten minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument runway 10.7.3.3 (335) For an IFR flight to an airport equipped with navaids, the estimated time of arrival is the estimated time at which the aircraft: a) will arrive overhead the initial approach fix. b) will land. c) will stop on the parking area. d) will leave the initial approach fix to start the final approach.

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10.7.3.3 (336) For controlled traffic that shall be separated in the vicinity of an airport, separation minima may be reduced: a) When the commander in the following aircraft has the preceding aircraft in sight and is able to maintain own separation b) At the discretion of the air traffic controller c) If the commander of the involved aircraft so requests d) Only if the air traffic controller has the involved aircraft in sight 10.7.3.3 (337) If the crew on an arriving aircraft approaching a controlled aerodrome will report 'field in sight', a clearance for 'visual approach' may be given under certain conditions a) The air traffic controller will provide separation to other controlled traffic b) Continued approach will be according to VFR c) The approach must be passing the FAF d) The meteorological visibility must not be less than 8 km 10.7.3.3 (338) At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean cross-wind component significant change is : a) 5 KT b) 3 KT c) 10 KT d) 8 KT 10.7.3.3 (339) At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean tail-wind component significant change is : a) 2 KT b) 4 KT c) 5 KT d) 3 KT 10.7.3.3 (340) At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean head-wind component significant change is : a) 10 KT b) 5 KT c) 8 KT d) 4 KT 10.7.3.3 (341) During an arrival procedure under an IFR flight plan in VMC conditions, traffic avoidance is the responsibility of:

a) the pilot in command. b) the approach controller. c) the radar controller. d) the airport controller. 10.7.3.3 (342) A minimum vertical separation shall be provided until aircraft are etablished inbound on the ILS localizer course and/or MLS final approach track. This minimum is, when independent parallel approaches are being conducted : a) 300 m (1000 ft) b) 200 m (660 ft) c) 150 m (500 ft) d) 100 m (330 ft) 10.7.3.3 (343) A minimum radar separation shall be provided until aircraft are etablished inbound on the ILS localizer course and/or MLS final approach track. This minimum is, when independent parallel approaches are being conducted : a) 3.0 NM b) 5.0 NM c) 1.0 NM d) 2.0 NM 10.7.3.3 (344) Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that : a) the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 30° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach b) the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 20° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach c) the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 25° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach d) the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 45° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach 10.7.3.3 (345) When independent parallel approaches are being conducted and vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track,the final vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track at an angle not greater than : a) 30 degrees b) 25 degrees c) 20 degrees d) 15 degrees 10.7.3.3 (346) Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that a no transgression zone (NTZ) of at least : a) 610 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar display b) 500 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar

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display c) 710 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar display d) 600 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar display 10.7.3.3 (347) When independent parallel approaches are being conducted to parallel runways and vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to be established on the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track in level flight for : a) at least 2.0 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or specified MLS elevation angle b) at least 3.0 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or specified MLS elevation angle c) at least 1.5 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or specified MLS elevation angle d) at least 2.5 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or specified MLS elevation angle 10.7.3.3 (348) Dependent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that : the missed approach track for one approach diverges by : a) at least 30° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach b) at least 45° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach c) at least 25° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach d) at least 15° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach 10.7.3.4 (349) When a runway is 2 000 metres in length, and taxi holding positions have not been established, aircraft shall not be held closer to the runway in use more than: a) 50 metres. b) 30 metres. c) 45 metres. d) 60 metres. 10.7.3.4 (350) Which of the following statements regarding aerodrome control service is correct? a) An aircraft entering the traffic circuit without permission of ATC, will be cleared to land if this is desirable , b) The aerodrome control service is a service provided for the purpose of preventing collisions between aircraft on the movement area, c) Suspension of VFR operations can not be initiated by the aerodrome controller, d) ATC permission is required for entering the apron with a vehicule 10.7.3.4 (351) Which statement regarding approach control service is correct ? a) If it is anticipated that an aircraft has to hold for 30 minutes or more, an Expected Approach Time will be transmitted by the most expeditious means to the aircraft b) Approach control have to advise the aircraft operators about substantial delays in departure in any event when they are expected to exceed 45 minutes , c) An approach sequence shall be established according to the sequence of initial radio contact

between aircraft and approach control , d) During a visual approach an aircraft is maintaining its own separation , 10.7.3.4 (352) A braking action given by ATS of 0.25 and below is : a) Poor b) Good c) Medium/poor d) Medium 10.7.3.4 (353) Lights on and in the vicinity of aerodromes may be turned off, provided that they can be again brought into operation : a) At least one hour before the expected arrival of an aircraft b) At least 30 minutes before the expected arrival of an aircraft c) At least 15 minutes before the expected arrival of an aircraft d) At least 5 minutes before the expected arrival of an aircraft 10.7.3.4 (354) Special VFR flights may the authorized to operate locally within a control zone when the ground visibility is not less than 1 500 metres, even when the aircraft is not equipped with a functioning radio receiver within class : a) E airspace b) D and E airspaces c) D airspace d) C, D and E airspaces 10.7.3.4 (355) In order to meet wake turbulence criteria, for arriving aircraft and using timed approaches, what minima shall be applied to aircraft landing behind a heavy or a medium aircraft ? a) medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft - 2 minutes b) medium aircraft other medium aircraft - 2 minutes c) light aircraft behind medium aircraft -4 minutes d) medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft - 3 minutes 10.7.3.4 (356) According to international agreements wind direction shall be adjusted to the local variation and given in degrees magnetic : a) Before landing and take-off b) When the local variation exceeds 10° East or 10° West. c) In upper wind forecast for areas north of lat 60° north or 60° south. d) When an aircraft on the request by a meteorological watch office (MWO) or at specified points transmits a PIREP 10.7.3.4 (357) A separation minimum shall be applied between a light or MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY aircraft and between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the heavier aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the lighter aircraft is landing on the same runway in the opposite direction or on a parallel opposite direction runway separated by :

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a) Less than 760 m b) 760 m c) Less than 730 m d) 730 m 10.7.3.4 (358) A separation minimum shall be applied between a light or MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY aircraft and between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the heavier aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the lighter aircraft is utilizing an opposite direction runway for take off, this minimum is : a) 2 minutes b) 5 minutes c) 3 minutes d) 1 minute 10.7.3.4 (359) In order to meet the wake turbulence criteria, what minimum separation should be applied when a medium aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft and both are using the same runway ? a) 2 minutes b) 3 minutes c) 4 minutes d) 1 minute 10.7.3.5 (360) Flight information service shall be provided to all aircraft which are likely to be affected by the information and which are: a) Provided with the air traffic control services and otherwise known to the relevant air traffic service units. b) Provided with air traffic control services, only. c) Known to the relevant air traffic services units. d) Known to the relevant air traffic services units by a filed flight plan. 10.7.3.5 (361) Alerting service shall be provided: a) For all controlled flight, to any aircraft known or believed to be subject of unlawful interference, and in so far as practicable to all aircraft having filed a flight plan or otherwise known to the ATS. b) For all aircraft provided with air traffic control services, only. c) To any aircraft known or believed to be subject of unlawful interference, only. d) In so far as practicable to all aircraft having filed a flight plan or otherwise known by the ATS. 10.7.3.5 (362) What is the minimum wake turbulence separation criteria when a light aircraft is taking off behind a medium aircraft and both are using the same runway ? a) 2 minutes b) 3 minutes c) 1 minute d) 5 minutes

10.7.3.6 (363) Where a ""Secondary Surveillance Radar"" (SSR) is not available, radar identification may be achieved by one of the following procedures: a) To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 30° or more. b) To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 20° or more. c) To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 10°. d) To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 45°. 10.7.3.6 (364) Which code shall be used on Mode ""A"" to provide recognition of an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference? a) Code 7500. b) Code 7700. c) Code 7600. d) Code 2000. 10.7.3.6 (365) Which does ATC Term ""Radar contact"" signify? a) Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight instructions will be provided until radar identification is terminated. b) Your aircraft has been identified and you will receive separation from all aircraft while in contact with this radar facility. c) You will be given traffic advisories until advised that the service has been terminated or that radar contact has been lost. d) ATC is receiving your transponder and will furnish vectors and traffic advisories until you are advised that contact has been lost. 10.7.3.6 (366) What is meant when departure control instruct you to ""resume own navigation"" after you have been vectored to an airway? a) You should maintain that airway by use of your navigation equipment. b) Radar Service is terminated. c) Advisories will no longer be issued by ATC. d) You are still in radar contact, but must make position reports. 10.7.3.6 (367) An aircraft in climb or descent is considered to have crossed a level when the SSR mode C derived level information indicates that it has passed this level in the required direction by: a) More than 300 ft. b) 300 ft. c) +/- 300 ft. d) More than 200 ft. 10.7.3.6 (368) The radar separation minimum may be reduced but not below: a) 3.0 NM. b) 5.0 NM. c) 2.0 NM. d) 1.5 NM.

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10.7.3.6 (369) Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the radar controller should notify the non-radar controller when an aircraft making a radar approach is approximately: a) 8 NM. b) 10 NM. c) 5 NM. d) 6 NM. 10.7.3.6 (370) An aircraft making a radar approach should be advised to consider executing a missed approach, if the position or identification of the aircraft is in doubt during any portion of the final approach or if the aircraft is not visible on the radar display for significant interval during the last: a) 2 NM. b) 3 NM. c) 1 NM. d) 4 NM. 10.7.3.6 (371) When conducting a surveillance radar approach, the radar controller shall terminate the surveillance radar approach, except as determined by the appropriate ATS authority, at a distance of: a) 2 NM from touchdown. b) 3 NM from touchdown. c) 2.5 NM from touchdown. d) 1 NM from touchdown. 10.7.3.6 (372) Subject to conditions specified by the appropriate ATS authority, a radar controller may request radar-controlled aircraft to adjust their speed when established on intermediate and final approach. This speed adjustment should not be more than: a) +/- 20 kt. b) +/- 10 kt. c) +/- 15 kt. d) +/- 8 kt. 10.7.3.6 (373) The radar controller shall not request the pilot to adjust the speed where the aircraft has passed: a) 4 NM from the threshold on final approach. b) 2 NM from the threshold on final approach. c) 3 NM from the threshold on final approach. d) 5 NM from the threshold on final approach. 10.7.3.6 (374) Upon intercepting the assigned radial, the controller advises you that you are on the airway and to ""resume own navigation"". This phrase means that: a) You are to assume responsability for your own navigation. b) You are still in radar contact, but must make position reports.

c) Radar services are terminated and you will be responsable for position reports. d) You are to contact the centre at the next reporting point. 10.7.3.6 (375) The Air Traffic control Services : do not prevent collisions with terrain. a) Correct, expect when an IFR flight is vectored by radar. b) Prevent collisions with terrain c) Do not prevent collisions with terrain d) Except when an aircraft is flying IFR in IMC. 10.7.3.6 (376) Which code shall be used on mode ""A"" to provide recognition of an emergency aircraft? a) Code 7700. b) Code 7500. c) Code 7600. d) Code 7000. 10.7.3.6 (377) One of the functions ensured by a radar control unit for the provision of approach control service is: a) To conduct surveillance radar approaches. b) To apply a reduced vertical separation of 500 feet between IFR flights and VFR flights. c) To apply a horizontal separation less than 5 NM. d) To provide instructions in order to reduce separations minima, if accepted by the pilots. 10.7.3.6 (378) The primary duty provided by a radar unit is: a) To provide radar separation. b) To assist aircraft due to failure of airborne equipment. c) To assist aircraft on the location storms. d) To assist aircraft where navigation appears unsatisfactory. 10.7.3.6 (379) When radar identification of aircraft has been achieved, ATC unit shall: a) Inform the aircraft prior to issue any instructions or advice based on the use of radar. b) Inform the aircraft only if communication's load permits it. c) not advise the aircraft before issuing instructions. d) Inform the aircraft only if radar identification has been achieved without availability of SSR. 10.7.3.6 (380) One of the functions ensured by a radar control unit for the provision of approach control service is: a) To conduct precision radar approach (PAR). b) To apply a horizontal separation less than 5 NM. c) To apply a reduced vertical separation of 500 feet between IFR and VFR flights. d) To provide instructions to reduce the separation minima.

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10.7.3.6 (381) Except otherwise established by the appropriate ATS authority a Surveillance Radar Approach (SRA) shall be terminated at a distance from the touchdown of: a) 2 NM. b) 4 NM. c) 5 NM. d) 3 NM. 10.7.3.6 (382) When ""Secondary Radar"" is used, an aircraft may be identified by one of the following procedures: a) Observation of compliance with an instruction to operate transponder from ""ON"" to ""STBY"" and back to ""ON"". b) To request pilot to set transponder on position ""ON"". c) To request pilot to set transponder on position ""OFF"". d) To request pilot to switch from ""ON"" to ""STDBY"". 10.7.3.6 (383) When vectoring an aircraft to intercept the localizer course, the final vector furnished shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the localizer course at an angle not greater than: a) 30 degrees. b) 25 degrees. c) 15 degrees. d) 20 degrees. 10.7.3.6 (384) The following minimum radar separation shall be provided between aircraft on the same localizer with additional longitudinal separation as required for wake turbulence: a) 3 NM. b) 2 NM. c) 5 NM. d) 2.5 NM. 10.7.3.6 (385) The minimum radar separation to be provided to aircraft established on the localizer course shall be: a) 3.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course. b) 3.0 NM between aircraft on adjacent localizer course. c) 2.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course. d) 5.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course. 10.7.3.6 (386) The tolerance value used to determine that mode C derived level information displayed to the controller is accurate shall be: a) +/- 300 ft. b) +/- 200 ft. c) +/- 250 ft. d) +/- 500 ft.

10.7.3.6 (387) Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the horizontal radar separation minimum shall be: a) 5.0 NM. b) 3.0 NM. c) 10.0 NM. d) 3.5 NM. 10.7.3.6 (388) The criterion which shall be used to determine that a specific level is occupied by an aircraft shall be, (except that appropriate ATS authorities may specify a smaller criterion): a) +/- 300 ft. b) +/- 200 ft. c) +/- 150 ft. d) +/- 250 ft. 10.7.3.6 (389) An aircraft is considered to be maintaining its assigned level as long as the SSR mode C derived level information indicated that it is within: a) +/- 300 ft of the assigned level. b) +/- 200 ft of the assigned level. c) +/- 250 ft of the assigned level. d) +/- 500 ft of the assigned level. 10.7.3.6 (390) When the transponder appears to be unserviceable prior to departure and restorage is impossible, than : a) departure to the nearest suitable airport where repair can be effected is allowed b) you must indicate the failure in the fightplan, after which the ATC will endeavour to provide for continuation of the flight, c) the flight can only continue in the most direct manner, d) you are not allowed to commence the flight 10.7.3.6 (391) The air traffic control unit has reported 'radar contact', what does that mean to the pilot? a) The radar identity of the aircraft has been established b) The pilot does not have to follow up the position of the aircraft c) The aircraft is subject to positive control d) Position reports may be omitted 10.7.3.6 (392) Radar controlled aircraft on intermediate or final approach may be requested to make minor speed adjustments by ATC. These adjustments shall never be more than : a) 20 knots and not within 4 NM of threshold b) 10 knots and not within 5 NM of threshold c) 15 knots at any stage d) 25 knots at any stage

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10.7.3.6 (393) Radar identification of a departing aircraft can be achieved if a radar blip is observed within a certain distance from the end of the runway.Identification has to be achieved within : a) 1NM b) 2NM c) 3NM d) 5NM 10.7.3.6 (394) Except when prescribed in procedures or made possible by agreements, aircraft under radar-control shall not be vectored closer to the boundary of controlled airspace than : a) 2,5 NM b) 1,5 NM c) 3 NM d) 5 NM 10.7.3.6 (395) During radar-control, a ""radar-controller"" shall issue a missed-approach instruction, in case the ""tower-controller"" has not issued a ""landing-clearance"" at the moment the aircraft is : a) 2 NM from touch-down, b) 1NM from touch-down, c) 3 NM from touch-down, d) 4 NM from touch-down, 10.7.3.6 (396) When surveillance radar approaches are to be continued to the threshold of the runway transmission should not be interrupted for intervals of more than five seconds while the aircraft is within a distance of : a) 4 NM from the touchdown b) 2 NM from the touchdown c) 3 NM from the touchdown d) 1.5 NM from the touchdown 10.7.3.6 (397) The surveillance radar approach shall be terminated at a distance of 2 NM from the touchdown except when as determined by the appropriate ATS authority, the accuracy of the radar equipment permits to be continued to a prescribed point less than 2 NM from the touchdown. In this case distance and level information shall be given at each a) half NM b) 1 NM c) 1.5 NM d) half mile 10.7.3.6 (398) Clearence to land or any alternative clearence received from the non-radar controller should normally be passed to the aircraft before it reaches a distance of : a) 2 NM from touchdown

b) 3 NM from touchdown c) 4 NM from touchdown d) 5 NM from touchdown 10.7.3.6 (399) An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed to execute a missed approach if no clearance to land has been received from the non-radar controller by the time the aircraft reaches a distance of : a) 2 NM from the touchdown b) 4 NM from the touchdown c) 5 NM from the touchdown d) 1.5 NM from the touchdown 10.7.3.6 (400) An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed to consider executing a missed approach if the aircraft is not visible on the radar display for any significant interval during the : a) Last 2 NM of the approach b) Last 4 NM of the approach c) Last 3 NM of the approach d) Last 5 NM of the approach 10.7.3.6 (401) What is the maximum speed adjustment that a pilot should be requested to make when under radar control and established on intermediate and final approach ? a) ± 20KT b) ± 15 KT c) ± 10KT d) ± 25 KT 10.7.3.6 (402) When a RADAR operator says the following to an aircraft: ""fly heading 030"", the pilot must fly heading: a) 030° magnetic b) 030° magnetic in still air conditions (thereby flying the magnetic track) c) 030° true d) 030° true, in still air conditions (thereby flying the true track) 10.8.1.0 (403) In which section of AIP are contained information elements relating to areas and/or routes for which meteorological service is provided? a) GEN. b) RAC. c) COM. d) MET. 10.8.1.0 (404) In which section of AIP are contained information elements relating to refuelling facilities and limitations on refuelling services? a) AD. b) FAL.

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c) GEN. d) SAR. 10.8.1.0 (405) In which section of AIP are contained information elements relating to prohibited, restricted and dangerous areas? a) ENR. b) MAP. c) GEN. d) AGA. 10.8.1.0 (406) A notice containing information concerning flight safety, air navigation, technical, administration or legislative matters and originated at the AIS of a state is called: a) Aeronautical Information Circular (AIC). b) Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP). c) NOTAM. d) AIRAC. 10.8.1.0 (407) A notice providing information on Rules of the Air, Air Traffic Services and Air Navigation Procedures and distributed in advance of its effective date is: a) An AIRAC. b) A NOTAM RAC. c) An ATS NOTAM. d) An Advisory NOTAM. 10.8.1.0 (408) Each contracting state shall provide an Aeronautical Information Service (AIS) in its territory and for areas in which the state is responsible for the Air Traffic Services outside its territory, and this shall include the preparation and origination of: a) Integrated Aeronautical Information Package. b) Only AIP and NOTAM's. c) AIP, NOTAM's, Circular and AIRAC. d) Only NOTAM's and Circulars. 10.8.1.0 (409) The closure of a runway for a year, because of maintenance, will be published : a) in NOTAM and AIP, inclusive Supplement. b) only in NOTAM c) only in AIP d) NOTAM, AIP and MAL 10.8.1.0 (410) In which chapter of the AIP can you find a list with ""location indicators""? a) GEN b) AGA c) ENR d) AD

10.8.1.0 (411) An integrated aeronautical information package consists of the following elements a) AIP, including amendment service, supplements to AIP, NOTAM and pre-flight information bulletin (PIB), AIC, checklists and summuries b) AIP, including amendment service, supplements to AIP, NOTAM, AIC and checklist summaries c) AIP, supplements to AIP, NOTAM and PIB, AIC and checklist summaries d) AIP including amendment service, supplements to AIP, NOTAM, AIC, AIRAC 10.8.1.0 (412) The identification of each prohibited, restricted and danger area shall be composed by : a) The nationality letters for location indicators assigned to the state or territory, followed the letters P. R and D and figures b) The letters P (Prohibited), R (Restricted) and D (Dangerous) for the area concerned and figures c) The nationality letters for the location indicators assigned to the state, followed by P, R and D d) The letters P (Prohibited), R (Restricted) and D (Dangerous) followed by figures 10.8.1.0 (413) In order to avoid confusion, the identification numbers given to each prohibited area, restricted area and danger area shall not be re-used for a period of a) At least one year after cancellation of the area to which they refer b) At least 6 months after cancellation of the area to which they refer c) At least 3 months after cancellation of the area to which they refer d) At least 2 months after cancellation of the area to which they refer 10.8.1.0 (414) Temporary changes on specifications for AIP supplements of long duration and information of short duration which contains extensive text and/or graphics shall be published as AIP supplements. It is considered a long duration. a) Three months or longer b) Six months or longer c) One year or longer d) Two months or longer 10.8.1.0 (415) Operationaly significant changes to the AIP shall be published in accordance with : a) AIRAC procedures and identified by the acronym AIRAC b) NOTAM procedures and identified by acronym NOTAM followed by a number c) AIP supplements and shall be clearly identifical d) AIC procedures and identified by the acronym AIC followed by a number 10.8.1.0 (416) A checklist of AIP supplements currently in force shall be issued at intervals of : a) Not more than one month b) Not more than three months c) Not more than 28 days d) Not more than 2 months

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10.8.1.0 (417) A checklist of NOTAM currently in force shall be issued at the AFTN at intervals of : a) Not more than one month b) No more than 15 days c) Not more than 28 days d) Not more than 10 days 10.8.1.0 (418) The ASHTAM provides information on the status of activity of a volcano when a change in its activity is, or is expected to be of operational significance. This information is provided using the volcano level of colour code. When volcanic eruption in progress or volcano dangerous, eruption likely, with ash plume/cloud is reported above FL 250 or is expected to rise above FL 250, the level of alert colour code is a) RED b) YELLOW c) GREEN d) ORANGE 10.8.1.0 (419) Which of the following is information that is not given in AIP approach and landing charts a) Visibility minima b) Obstacles penetrating the obstacle free area in the final approach sector c) OCH or OCA d) DME-frequencies 10.8.1.0 (420) Which information is not included in Instrument Appraoch Charts (IAC) in the AIP a) Any addition to minima when the aerodrome is used as alternate b) Obstacles penetrating the obstacle free area in the final approach sector c) OCA or OCH d) DME-frequencies 10.8.1.0 (421) ASHTAM a) GVATAM b) NAVTAM c) VULTAM d) 1999-06-08 0:00 10.8.1.0 (422) AIRAC a) IFPS b) NOTAM c) EATCHIP d) 1999-06-08 0:00 10.8.1.0 (423) AIP Supplements a) AIP Amendments

b) NOTAM c) Trigger NOTAM d) 1999-06-08 0:00 10.8.1.0 (424) The contents of Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) are : a) GEN, ENR (en-route) and AD (aerodromes) b) GEN, AGA, COM, RAC, FAL, SAR, MET, MAP. c) GEN, ENR, RAC, AD d) GEN, AGA, COM, ENR, FAL 10.8.1.0 (425) The SIGMET service, is in the AIP, in the following part : a) GEN b) ENR c) AGA d) MET 10.8.1.0 (426) The informations concerning charges for aerodromes/heliports and Air Navigation Services are on the following part of the AIP a) GEN b) FAL c) RAC d) AD 10.8.1.0 (427) The informations on holding, approach and departure procedures, are found in the following part of the AIP a) ENR b) GEN c) AD d) MAP 10.8.1.0 (428) An AIRAC is : a) An Acronym for a system aimed at advance notification based on common effective dates, of circumstances necessitating significant changes in operating procedures. b) A publication issued by or with the authority of a state containing aeronautical information of a lasting character essential to air navigation. c) A notice distributed by means of telecommunication containing information concerning the establishment, condition or change in any aeronautical facility service, procedure or hazard, the timely knowledge of which is essential to personnel concerned with flight operations. d) A package which consists of the following elements : AIP, supplements to the AIP, NOTAM, AIC, checklists and summaries. 10.9.1.0 (429) Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum specifications for the design of aerodromes? a) Annex 14

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b) Annex 6 c) Annex 11 d) Annex 10 10.9.1.1 (430) ""Instrument runways"" are the following runways intended for the operation of aircraft using instrument approach procedures. a) Non precision approach runways, precision approach runways category I, II and III. b) Precision approach runways category I, II and III. c) Instrument approach runways, precision approach runways category I, II and III. d) Precision approach runways in general. 10.9.1.1 (431) ""Code letter D"" shall be chosen to identify a taxiway used by aircraft having an outer main gear wheel span of less than 9 m. The taxiway width shall be: a) 18 m. b) 15 m. c) 23 m. d) 25 m. 10.9.1.1 (432) ""TODA"" take-off distance available is: a) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of clearway available (if provided). b) The length of the runway available plus the length of clearway available (if provided). c) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stopway and clearway (if provided). d) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stopway. 10.9.1.1 (433) ""Clearway"" is defined rectangular area established to: a) Permit aircraft to make a portion of its initial climb to a specific height. b) Reduce the risk of damage to aircraft running off a runway. c) Protect aircraft during take-off or landing operations. d) Permit the aircraft to stop if it fails the take-off. 10.9.1.1 (434) Which ""code letter"" shall be chosen to identify a taxiway to be used by an aircraft having a wheel base of 15 m? a) Code letter ""C"". b) Code letter ""B"". c) Code letter ""D"". d) Code letter ""E"". 10.9.1.1 (435) According to the ""Aerodrome Reference Code"", the ""Code Letter E"" shall identify an aircraft wing span of: a) 52 m up to but not including 65 m. b) 36 m up to but not including 52 m.

c) 24 m up to but not including 36 m. d) 15 m up to but not including 24 m. 10.9.1.1 (436) In the ""Aerodrome Reference Code"" the code element 2 shall identify: a) The aircraft wing span and the outer main gear wheel span. b) Only the aircraft wing span. c) The width of the aircraft wing. d) The lenght of the aircraft fuselage. 10.9.1.1 (437) The ""Aerodrome Reference Code"" is a code composed of two elements which are related to the aeroplane performance characteristics and dimensions. These elements are a combination of a number and a letter as in the example under listed: a) 2B. b) 6D. c) 5E. d) 4F. 10.9.1.1 (438) According with the ""Aerodrome Reference Code"" the ""Code number 4"" shall identify an aircraft reference field length of: a) 1 800 m and over. b) 1 600 m. c) 1 500 m. d) 1 200 m. 10.9.1.1 (439) The STOPWAY is a defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off run available prepared as a suitable area where: a) An aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off. b) A landing aircraft can be stopped if overcoming the end of runway. c) A landing aircraft can be stopped only in emergency. d) An aircraft taking-off or landing can be stopped. 10.9.1.1 (440) ""ASDA"" (Acceleration Stop Distance Available) is: a) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of stopway (if stopway provided) . b) The length of the runway plus the length of stopway available (if stopway provided). c) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of stopway and clearway (if provided) . d) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway. 10.9.1.1 (441) Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes are codes for different runways. Which is the minimum width of a runway with runway code 4? a) 45 metres b) 35 metres

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c) 40 metres d) 50 metres 10.9.1.2 (442) Runway edge lights excepted in the case of a displaced threshold shall be: a) Fixed lights showing variable white. b) Fixed lights, white or yellow colour. c) Fixed lights showing variable white or yellow. d) Flashing white. 10.9.1.2 (443) Runway threshold identification lights, when provided, should be: a) Flashing white. b) Fixed green. c) Flashing green. d) Fixed white. 10.9.1.2 (444) The light shown by an ""Aerodrome Identification Beacon"" at a land aerodrome shall be: a) Green colour identification given by Morse Code. b) Blue colour identification given by Morse Code. c) White and green colour identification given by Morse Code. d) White colour identification given by Morse Code. 10.9.1.2 (445) In the ""VASIS"" , how many light units are in each wing bar? a) 3. b) 2. c) 4. d) 5. 10.9.1.2 (446) In a precision approach category I, lighting system, the single, two and three light sources on the centre line have a length of: a) 300 m. b) 150 m. c) 200 m. d) 250 m. 10.9.1.2 (447) How many red lights must a pilot see, whose aircraft, in final approach, is following a normal glide path defined by a PAPI? a) 2. b) 3. c) None. d) 1. 10.9.1.2 (448) Taxiway centre line lights other than an exit taxiway shall be:

a) Fixed lights showing green. b) Fixed lights showing blue. c) Fixed lights showing yellow. d) Fixed lights showing white. 10.9.1.2 (449) In a precision approach category I lighting system, the centre line and crossbar lights shall be: a) Fixed lights showing variable white. b) Flashing lights showing variable white. c) Fixed lights showing variable green. d) Flashing lights showing variable green. 10.9.1.2 (450) The abbreviation PAPI stands for: a) Precision Approach Path Indicator. b) Precision Approach Path Index. c) Precision Approach Power Indicator. d) Precision Approach Power Index. 10.9.1.2 (451) The ""PAPI"" shall consist of: a) A wing bar of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced. b) Two wing bars of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced. c) Two wing bars of 6 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced. d) A wing bar of 2 sharp transition multi-lamp equally spaced. 10.9.1.2 (452) In the ""PAPI"" system the pilot during an approach will see the two units nearest the runway as red and the two units farthest from the runway as white when: a) On or close to the approach slope. b) Above the approach slope. c) Below the approach slope. d) Only on the approach slope. 10.9.1.2 (453) In the case of parallel runways, each runway designation number shall be supplemented: a) By a letter - for example 2 parallel runways ""L"" and ""R"" - for 3 ""L"", ""C"" and ""R"". b) By a number like ""0"" and ""01"" for 2 parallel runways. c) By a letter for 2 parallel runways. d) By a letter - for example 3 parallel runways ""L"" and ""R"" and the central has no letter. 10.9.1.2 (454) Taxiway edge lights shall be: a) Fixed showing blue. b) Fixed showing green. c) Fixed showing yellow. d) Flashing showing blue.

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10.9.1.2 (455) Runway end lights shall be: a) Fixed unidirectional lights showing red in the direction of the runway. b) Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of the runway. c) Fixed lights showing variable red. d) Fixed lights showing variable white. 10.9.1.2 (456) Runway threshold lights shall be: a) Fixed unidirectional lights showing green in the direction of approach to the runway. b) Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of approach to the runway. c) Fixed lights green colours. d) Fixed lights showing green or white colours. 10.9.1.2 (457) Aerodromes signs should be in the following configuration : a) information signs, yellow or black background with black or yellow inscriptions. b) mandatory instruction signs , red background with black inscriptions. c) information signs, orange background with black inscriptions. d) mandatory instruction signs, black background with red inscriptions. 10.9.1.2 (458) Which of the following alternatives describes the complete CAT 1 ('Calvert') type of approach light system? a) 5 crossbars, centre line with 3, 2 and 1 lamp per light unit b) 4 crossbars, centre line with 3 or 2 lamps per light unit c) 3 crossbars, centre line with 3, 2 or 1 lamp per light unit d) 3 crossbars, centre line with 3 or 2 lamps per light unit 10.9.1.2 (459) What is the length of an approach lighting system of a precision-approach runway CAT II : a) 900m b) 150m c) 300m d) 600m 10.9.1.2 (460) What is a ""barrette""? a) three or more groundlights closely spaced together to appear as a bar of lights. b) a highted obstacle near the runway and/or taxiway. c) a CAT II or III holding position. d) a frangible structure on which approach lights are fixed. 10.9.1.2 (461) A precision approach runway CAT. II is an instrument runway served by ILS and visual aids intended for operations down to: a) a RVR of 300-450 meters and a DH of not less than 100 ft. b) a RVR of 250 meters and a DH of not less than 200 ft.

c) a RVR of 550 meters and a DH of not less than 200 ft. d) a RVR of 200 meters and a DH of not less than 100 ft. 10.9.1.2 (462) When a fixed-distance marking has to be provided this marking shall commence at : a) 300 m from threshold b) 150 m from threshold c) 450 m from threshold d) 600 m from threshold 10.9.1.2 (463) Runway-lead-in lighting should consist : a) of group of at least three white lights flashing in sequence towards the runway , b) always of a straight row of lights towards the runway c) of flashing lights only, d) of an arbitrary amount of green lights, 10.9.1.2 (464) Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes is a specific dimension given for the approach light system for CAT 1 ILS. What should be the length of this approach light system? a) 900 metres b) 420 metres c) 1000 metres d) 1200 metres 10.9.1.3 (465) High intensity obstacle lights should be: a) Flashing white. b) Flashing red. c) Fixed red. d) Fixed orange. 10.9.1.3 (466) Low intensity obstacle lights on mobile objects shall be: a) Flashing red or preferably yellow. b) Fixed red or preferably orange. c) Fixed red or preferably blue. d) Flashing blue. 10.9.1.3 (467) Low intensity obstacle lights on fixed objects shall be: a) Fixed red. b) Flashing red. c) Flashing yellow. d) Fixed orange. 10.9.1.4 (468) The runway edge lights shall be :

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a) white b) blue c) green d) red 10.9.1.5 (469) The aerodrome category for rescue and fire fighting is based on: a) The over-all length of the longest aeroplane normally using the aerodrome and its maximum fuselage width. b) The over-all length of the longest aeroplane normally using the aerodrome and its maximum fuselage weight. c) The over-all length of the longest aeroplane. d) The longuest aeroplane maximum width only 10.10.1.0 (470) The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of persons and their baggage in international flights is : a) annex 9 b) annex 8 c) annex 6 d) annex 15 10.10.1.0 (471) The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of cargo and other articles on international flights is : a) annex 9 b) annex 8 c) annex 15 d) annex 16 10.10.1.0 (472) A contracting state which continues to require the presentation of a cargo manifest shall, apart from the information indicated in the heading of the format of the cargo manifest, not require more than the following item(s) : a) The air waybill number, the number of packages related to each air waybill number and the nature of the goods b) The air waybill number and the nature of the goods c) The air waybill number and the number of packages related to the air way bill number d) The air waybill number 10.10.1.0 (473) Contracting states shall not require the authorized agent or pilot-in-command to deliver to the public authorities concerned, before departure of the aircraft, more than some copies of General Declaration, Cargo Manifest and stores list. The numbers of the copies are : a) 2 of each b) 3 of each c) 2 copies of General Declarations and Cargo Manifest and one copie of a simple stores list. d) 2 copies of General Declaration and of Cargo Manifest and of a stores list

10.10.1.0 (474) In case of aircraft registered in other Contracting States, which are not engaged in schedule international services, and which are making flights across the territory of a Contracting State or stopping for non traffic purposes, such Contracting State shall accept the information contained in a flight plan as adequate advance notification. This information is to be received : a) at least 2 hours in advance of arrival b) at least 4 hours in advance of arrival c) at least 1 hour in advance of arrival d) at least 12 hours in advance of the expected ETA 10.10.1.0 (475) An aircraft which is not engaged in scheduled international air services and which is making a flight to or through any designated airport of a Contracting State and is admitted temporarily free of duty shall be allowed to remain within that State without security for customs duty. a) For a period to be established by that State b) for a period of 24 hours c) for a period of 48 hours d) for a period of 12 hours 10.10.1.0 (476) Which one of the statements is correct : a) contracting states shall accept an oral declaration of baggage from passengers and crew b) contracting states shall accept an oral declaration of baggage only from crew c) contracting states shall accept an oral declaration of baggage only from passengers d) contracting states may not accept oral declaration of baggages 10.10.2.0 (477) When desinsecting is required by a Contracting State as a public health measure, the desinsecting is made when the aircraft is suitably equipped by means of an automatic dispersal or vapour while the aircraft is flying, but as far in advance as possible and: a) At least 30 minute prior to land. b) At least one hour prior to land. c) At least when the aircraft enter that state airspace. d) At least immediately before landing. 10.10.2.0 (478) The obligation of a carrier to transport any person away from the territory of a Contracting State shall terminate from the moment such person has been definitely admitted in other Contracting State of destination. a) The stated above is correct. b) The operator has no obligation. c) The obligation is for the Contracting State of the operator. d) The obligation of the operator terminates as soon as the person leaves the aeroplane. 10.10.2.0 (479) When cargo, unaccompanied baggage or stores are not unladen at their intended destination but are unladen at another international airport, the contracting state

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where the unlading takes place, if satisfied that there has been no gross negligence or careless by the operator a) shall not impose penalties, fines, customs duties and taxes on the operator b) shall not impose penalties and fines but customs duties and taes on thexes on the operator c) shall not impose penalties, fines and custom duties but taxes on the operator d) shall not impose penalties, fines and taxes but custom duties on the operator 10.10.2.0 (480) Unaccompanied baggage carried by air shall be cleared under the procedure applicable to : a) accompanied baggage or under another simplified customs procedure distinct from that normally applicable to other cargo b) cargo and is covered by a traffic document c) cargo but is free from any kind of declaration forms d) cargo but clearence documents provided by airlines shall be completed by the passenger prior to shipment 10.10.2.0 (481) Contracting states shall carry out the handling, forwarding and clearance of airmail and shall comply with the documentary procedures as prescribed : a) in the Acts in force of the Universal Postal Union b) by IATA and accepted by the contracting states c) by IATA and accepted by ICAO d) by the Regional Postal Office 10.10.2.0 (482) Except in special circumstances determined by the public authorities concerned, when a passenger is passing through the territory of a contracting state and has to stay in that contracting state until the next flight for lack of facilities or any other circumstances, the contracting state where the international airport is located shall permit such a passenger to remain within its territory without requiring visas prior to the arrival when a) the passenger is to leave that state within two (2) days from the day of his (her) arrival b) the passenger is to leave that state within two (2) weeks from the day of his (her) arrival c) the passenger is to leave that state within one (1) day from the day of his (her) arrival d) the passenger is to leave that state within 72 (seventy two) hours from the time of arrival of that passenger 10.10.2.0 (483) The documents for entry and departure of aircraft : a) are accepted in handwritten block lettering in ink b) has to be typewritten c) has to be typewritten or produced by electronic data processing techniques d) are accepted at the contracting state discretion 10.10.2.0 (484) When a person is found inadmissible and is returned to the operator for transport away from the territory of the state, the operator : a) shall not be preclude from recovering from such person any transportation costs arising from his (her) inadmissibility

b) shall not recover from such person any transportation costs arising from his (her) inadmissibility c) is not responsible for the person inadmissible for entry in the receiving state d) and the state of the operator are both responsible for the person inadmissible 10.10.2.0 (485) In cases where a visitor travelling by air holds a valid passport and no visa is required of him, contracting states a) shall not require him to obtain any other identity document from their consultates or operators prior to initiate the flight b) may require him to obtain any other identity document prior to the commencement of his flight c) in certain cases any other identity may be required d) none of the answers are applicable 10.11.1.1 (486) The units responsable for promoting efficient organization of search and rescue service are: a) Rescue coordination centre and rescue sub-centres. b) Alerting centre and rescue coordination centre. c) Flight information centre and rescue coordination centre. d) Area control centre, flight information centre and rescue coordination centre. 10.11.1.3 (487) Three aircraft, (1), (2) and (3), arrive successively at ten minute intervals, overhead the scene of a recent aircraft accident.-aircraft (1) is unable to establish contact with the Search and Rescue Centre-aircraft (2) is able to contact the Search and Rescue Centre-aircraft (3) is a Search and Rescue helicopterThe command of the situation is the responsibility of, a) (1), then by mutual consent (2) and then (3). b) (1), then by mutual consent (2) until the completion of operations. c) (1), and then by mutual consent to (3). d) (1) until the completion of operations. 10.11.1.4 (488) The color identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing survival equipment should take the form of coloured streamers according to the following code: a) Red for medical supplies and first aid equipment. b) Blue for blankets and protective clothing. c) Black for food and water. d) Yellow for miscellaneous equipment. 10.11.1.4 (489) The color identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing survival equipment should take the form of coloured streamers according to the following code: a) Yellow for blankets and protective clothing. b) Red for food and water. c) Blue for medical supplies and first aid equipment. d) Black for food and water.

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10.11.1.4 (490) The color identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing survival equipment should take the form of coloured streamers according to the following code: a) Blue for food and water. b) Yellow for medical supplies and first aid equipment. c) Black for food and water. d) Red for miscellaneous equipment. 10.11.1.4 (491) The color identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing survival equipment should take the form of coloured streamers according to the following code: a) Black for miscellaneous equipment. b) Blue for blankets and protective clothing. c) Red for food and water. d) Yellow for medical supplies and first aid equipment. 10.11.1.4 (492) (For this question use annex 010-9801A)Using the ground - air visual code the letter(s) similar to the symbol meaning ""REQUIRE ASSISTANCE"" is (are) : a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 10.11.1.4 (493) (For this question use annex 010-9802A)Using the ground - air visual code the symbol meaning ""we have found all personnel"" is : a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 10.11.1.4 (494) (For this question use annex 010-9803A)What is the meaning of the showed symbol in the ground air visual signal code for use by survivors ? a) Require medical assistance b) Require assistance c) Landing here impossible d) Drop emergency supplies at this point 10.11.1.4 (495) (For this question use annex 010-9804A)The ground - air visual code illustrated means : a) Require assistance b) Please indicate direction c) Proceding in the direction shown d) Require medical assistance

10.11.1.4 (496) (For this question use annex 010-9805A)Using the ground - air visual signal code, the letter similar to the symbol meanning ""REQUIRE MEDICAL ASSISTANCE"" is : a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 10.11.1.4 (497) (For this question use annex 010-9806A)What is the meanning of the showed symbol in the ground-air visual signal code for use by rescue units ? a) operation completed b) we have found all personnel c) we have found only some personnel d) we are returning to base 10.11.1.4 (498) Which of the following is NOT an international distress frequency ? a) 2430 KHz b) 121.5 MHz c) 243.0 MHz d) 2.182 KHz 10.11.1.4 (499) An aircraft is flying over a mountainous region in which a search is being carried out to find the survivors of an aircraft accident. The pilot sees a ground signal in the form of an ""X"".This indicates : a) ""Need medical assistance"". b) ""Landing impossible"". c) ""All occupants alive"". d) ""Need mechanical assistance"". 10.11.1.4 (500) At night an aircraft observes a luminous signal requesting help. To indicate that he has received these ground signals, the pilot must : a) switch his landing lights on and off twice or, if he is not so equipped, his navigation lights twice. b) make at least one complete turn over the group of people in difficulty. c) transmit, by luminous Morse signal, a series of the letter ""R"" using his navigational lights. d) fly over the group of people in difficulty as low as possible. 10.12.1.0 (501) For the transport of potentially disruptive passengers some supplementary safeguards are to be observed such as : a) boarding prior to all passengers b) boarding after to all other passengers c) the boarding will be at the pilot in command discretion d) the boarding has to be done at the state discretion 10.12.1.0 (502) Aeronautical part

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a) Security program. b) Manoeuvring area. c) Terminal. d) 1999-06-08 0:00 10.12.1.0 (503) The contracting States will make provisions to ensure that an aircraft affected by an unlawful seizure act, which has landed in their territory, world be retained, unless its departure is justified to protect lives. a) The contracting States will make provisions to ensure that an aircraft affected by an unlawful seizure act, which has landed in their territory, would be detained in all cases. b) The contracting States will not assist with navigation aids, air transit services, etc, to an aircraft affected by an unlawful seizure act. c) The Annex 17 does not recognise the importance of consusltations between the State where an aircraft affected by an unlawful interference act has landed and the aircraft operator's State. d) 1999-06-08 0:00 10.12.1.1 (504) The national civil aviation security programme shall be established by : a) Each contracting state b) ICAO c) ECAC d) ICAO and other organisations including the contracting state concerned 10.12.1.1 (505) Each contracting state shall designate an appropriate authority within its administration to be responsible for the development, implementation and maintenance of the national civil aviation security programme. The said appropriate authority : a) Shall be specified to ICAO b) Shall be specified to ICAO and to ECAC c) Shall be specified to ICAO, ECAC and to other contracting states d) Should be specified to ICAO and to ECAC 10.12.1.2 (506) Each contracting state shall establish measures to ensure that the aircraft operator is informed when passengers are obliged to travel because they have been the subject of judicial or administrative proceedings in order that appropriate security measures can be taken a) The state above question in incomplete. The pilot in command and the aircraft operator are to be informed. b) Correct. c) The aircraft operator and the pilot in command are only to be informed when any passenger is the subject of judicial proceedings. d) These measures are of the discretion of the contracting state. 10.12.1.2 (507) When mixing or contact does take place between passengers subjected to security control and other persons not subjected to such control after the security

screening points at airports serving international civil aviation have been passed a) the passengers concerned and their cabin baggage shall be re screened before boarding an aircraft b) only the passengers are to be re screened c) only the passengers cabin baggage are to be re screened d) the persons not subjected to security control shall be identified 10.12.1.2 (508) Each member state should designate an appropriate authority with its administration to be responsible for the development implementation and maintenance of a national aviation security programme. This programme should apply : a) to all international civil air transport including aircraft engaged solely in the carriage of cargo and yet to domestic flights at the discretion of each member state b) only to all international civil transport including aircraft engaged solely in the carriage of cargo c) only to passengers and aircrew in international civil transport flights d) only to passengers and aircrew in international civil transport flights and domestic flights 10.12.1.2 (509) When a member state allows police officers, security staff, bodyguards or other agents of foreign states to carry weapons in their territory for the protection of aircraft in flight, permission for the carriage of weapons should be conditional upon : a) Prior notification by the state of embarcation to the foreign state in which the weapons will be carried on the airport of arrival and notification of the pilot in command of a decision to permit a weapon to be carried on board his aircraft b) Notification of the pilot in command of a decision to permit a weapon to be carried on board his aircraft only c) Agreement between the state of embarcation and the state of destination d) Agreement between the state of embarcation and the airport of arrival 10.12.1.2 (510) Member states should introduce specific security measures for the air transport of the following groups of potentially disruptive passengers defined below : a) Deportees, inadmissible persons and persons in lawful custody b) Deportees and persons in lawful custody only c) Deportees and inadmissible persons only d) None of the answers is correct 10.13.1.0 (511) Just before arriving on the apron, taxiing inadvertently on the grass, a wheel falls into a hole, which seriously damages the aircraft and obliges the crew to delay the departure. a) This is an accident and the crew must follow the procedure relevant to this case. b) Since no physical injury has been noticed and the flight is over, the actions to be taken are related only to insurance, to the repair man, the operator and the persons in charge of the runway and taxiways. c) This is an irregularity in the operation, the crew must inform the operator of the delay caused by necessary repair.

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d) This is an incident and the pilot-in-command must report it to the airport authority within the next 48 hours. 10.13.1.0 (512) Who is responsible, under Annex 13 of the Chicago convention for the initation of an accident investigation? a) The government of the state in which the accident took place b) Operators of the same aircraft type c) The aircraft manufacturer d) The law enforcement authorities of the state in which the aircraft is registered 10.13.1.0 (513) Upon receipt of the modification and a request by the state of occurrence for participation, the state of design and the state of manufacture shall in the case of an accident or serious incident inform the state of occurence of the name of its representative to be present at the investigation when the aircraft : a) Has a maximum mass over 100.000 kg b) Has a maximum mass over 27.000 kg c) Has a maximum mass over 5 700 kg d) Has a maximum mass over 2 250 kg 21.1.0.0 (514) For FAIL-SAFE designed structural parts :1 The mounting principle is parallel mounting.2 No routine check is necessary.3 The member is removed at the end of the calculated life cycle.4 Certain components may not be accessible.5 The principle is the redundancy of components6 The failure of a member causes the loads to be shared between the other system components.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is : a) 1,5,6 b) 2,3,4 c) 1,3,4 d) 2,5,6 21.1.1.0 (515) DURALUMIN alloys :1 have an aluminium-copper base.2 have an aluminiummagnesium base.3 are easy to weld.4 are difficult to weld.5 have a good thermal conductivity.6 have a poor air corrosion resistanceThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is : a) 1,4,5 b) 2,4,5 c) 1,3,6 d) 2,3,6 21.1.1.0 (516) Among the different types of aircraft structures, the shell structures efficiently transmit the:1. normal bending stresses2. tangent bending stresses3. torsional moment4. shear stressesThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is : a) 1, 2, 3 b) 2, 3, 4 c) 1, 2, 4 d) 1, 3, 4

21.1.1.0 (517) 'Fail safe construction' is : a) A type of construction in which the load is carried by other components if a part of the structure fails. b) A simple and cheap type of construction. c) A type of construction for small aircraft only. d) A construction which is suitable for aerobatic flight. 21.1.1.0 (518) The fuselage of an aircraft consists, among others, of stringers whose purpose is to: a) assist the skin in absorbing the longitudinal traction-compression stresses. b) withstand the shear stresses. c) provide sound and thermal isolation. d) integrate the strains due to pressurization to which the skin is subjected and convert them into a tensile stress. 21.1.1.0 (519) The reason for the fact that an aeroplane designed for long distances cannot simply be used for short haul flights at higher frequencies is that a) the lifetime of the fatigue sensitive parts has been based on a determined load spectrum b) the procedures and checklists for this kind of aeroplanes will take too much time c) these aeroplanes often consume too much fuel on short haul flights. d) in that case some fuel tanks remain empty during the whole flight, which stresses the aeroplane's structure in an unacceptable way 21.1.3.0 (520) The wing of an aircraft in flight, powered by engines located under the wing, is subjected to a bending moment which causes its leading edge, from the wing root to the wing tip, to operate in: a) compression, then in tension. b) tension, then in compression. c) tension. d) compression. 21.1.3.0 (521) In flight the wing of an aircraft containing fuel is subjected to vertical loads that produce a bending moment which is: a) highest at the wing root b) equal to the zero -fuel weight multiplied by the span c) equal to half the weight of the aircraft multiplied by the semi span d) lowest at the wing root 21.1.3.0 (522) The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass:1 Is a limitation set by regulation.2 Is designed for a maximum load factor.3 Is due to the maximum bending moment at wing root.4 Requires to empty external tanks first.5 Requires to empty internal tanks first.The correct combination of true statements is : a) 1,2,3 b) 2,5

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c) 2,4 d) 1,3,5 21.1.3.0 (523) On a non-stressed skin type wing, the wing structure elements which take up the vertical bending moments Mx are: a) the spars. b) the ribs. c) the webs. d) the skin. 21.1.4.0 (524) The advantage of mounting the tailplane on top of the vertical stabilizer is : a) to withdraw it from the influence of wing turbulence b) to a have greater effectiveness at high speed c) that it does not require a de-icing system d) to decrease fuel consumption by creating a tail heavy situation 21.1.5.0 (525) A torsion link assembly is installed on the landing gear to : a) avoid rotation of the piston rod relative to the gear oleo strut. b) absorb the spring tension. c) control the wheels. d) lock the landing gear. 21.1.5.0 (526) In a commercial transport aircraft the landing gear operating system is usually: a) Hydraulically driven. b) Mechanically driven. c) Pneumatically driven. d) Electrically driven. 21.1.5.0 (527) Generally, on modern jet transport aircraft, how can the landing gear be extended if there is a complete hydraulic system failure. a) Mechanically b) Electrically. c) Pneumatically. d) By hydraulic accumulators. 21.1.5.0 (528) If the profile grooves or the tread of a new aircraft tyre are worn, the tyre can be: a) Repaired several times. b) repaired once. c) Never repaired. d) Used on the nose wheel only. 21.1.5.0 (529) The operating principle of an anti skid system is as follows : the brake pressure will be :

a) Decreased on the slower turning wheels. b) Increased on the faster turning wheels. c) Decreased on the faster turning wheels. d) Increased on the slower turning wheels. 21.1.5.0 (530) The type of brake unit found on most transport aeroplanes is a: a) Multiple disk brake. b) Drum type brake. c) Single disk brake. d) Belt brake. 21.1.5.0 (531) The reason for fitting thermal plugs to aircraft wheels is that they : a) release air from the tyre in case of overheating. b) prevent the brakes from overheating. c) prevent heat transfer from the brake disks to the tyres. d) release air from the tyre in case of overpressure. 21.1.5.0 (532) Thermal plugs are installed in: a) wheel rims. b) fire warning systems. c) cabin windows. d) cargo compartments. 21.1.5.0 (533) When a landing gear wheel is hydroplaning, its friction factor is equal to: a) 0 b) 1 c) 0.1 d) 0.5 21.1.5.0 (534) Shimmy occurs on the nosewheel landing gear during taxiing when:1. the wheels tend to describe a sinusoidal motion on the ground2. the wheels no longer respond to the pilot's actionsThis effect is overcome by means of:3. the torque link4. an accumulator associated with the steering cylinderThe combination of correct statements is: a) 1, 3. b) 1, 4. c) 2, 4. d) 2, 3. 21.1.5.0 (535) The illumination of the green landing gear light indicates that the landing gear is : a) locked-down. b) in the required position. c) locked-down and its door is locked. d) not in the required position.

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21.1.5.0 (536) A tubeless tyre has :1- a built-in-air tube.2- no built-in-air tube.3- a crossed side casing.4- a radial side casing.The combination of correct statements is: a) 2, 4. b) 1, 4. c) 2, 3. d) 1,3. 21.1.5.0 (537) In a hydraulic braking system, the accumulator is: a) an accumulator designed to restore brake energy in the event of a hydraulic failure. b) a damping type accumulator designed to take up the pressure fluctuations of the automatic braking system. c) designed to take up the hydraulic energy filtered by the anti-skid system in order to prevent wheel blocking. d) a buffer accumulator whose function is to assist the hydraulic system during high intensity braking. 21.1.5.0 (538) Which is (are) the damping element(s) in a landing gear shock absorber used on larger aircraft ? a) Nitrogen and a viscous liquid. b) Nitrogen. c) Oxygen. d) Springs. 21.1.5.0 (539) In some aircraft, there is a protection device to avoid the landing gear being inadvertently retracted on the ground. It consists of : a) A latch located in the landing gear lever. b) An aural warning horn. c) A warning light which is activated by the WOW (Weight On Wheels) sensor system. d) A bolt. 21.1.5.0 (540) A tubeless tyre is a tyre:1. which requires solid or branched wheels2. whose valve can be sheared in sudden accelerations3. whose mounting rim must be flawless4. which requires no rim protection between rim flange and tire removing device5. which does not burst in the event of a tire puncture6. which eliminates internal friction between the tube and the tireThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is : a) 1, 5, 6. b) 3, 4, 5. c) 1, 2, 5. d) 2, 3, 6. 21.1.5.0 (541) Landing gear torque links are used to: a) prevent rotation of the landing gear piston in the oleo strut. b) take up the lateral stresses to which the gear is subjected.

c) prevent the extension of the landing gear oleo strut rod. d) maintain the compass heading throughout taxiing and take-off. 21.1.5.0 (542) A main landing gear is said to be ""locked down"" when: a) the strut is locked by an overcentre mechanism. b) it is in the down position. c) the actuating cylinder is at the end of it's travel. d) the corresponding indicator lamp is amber. 21.1.5.0 (543) The modern anti-skid processes are based on the use of a computer whose input data is:1. idle wheel speed (measured)2. braked wheel speed (measured)3. brake temperature (measured)4. desired idle wheel train slipping rate5. tire pressureThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is : a) 1, 2, 4. b) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5. c) 2, 4. d) 1, 3. 21.1.5.0 (544) On large aeroplanes equipped with power brakes, the main source of power is derived from : a) the aeroplane's hydraulic system. b) the master cylinders. c) pressure to the rudder pedals. d) the brake actuators. 21.1.5.0 (545) ""Nose wheel shimmy"" may be described as : a) a possibly damaging vibration of the nose wheel when moving on the ground. b) the oscillatory movement of the nose wheel when extended prior to landing. c) the amount of free movement of the nose wheel before steering takes effect. d) aircraft vibration caused by the nose wheel upon extension of the gear. 21.1.5.0 (546) The part of the flight that will cause the highest loads on the torsion link in a bogie gear is a) Taxiing with a small turning radius. b) Touch down with crosswind c) Gear down selection d) Braking with an inoperative anti skid system. 21.1.5.0 (547) Tyre ""creep"" may be described as the : a) circumferential movement of the tyre in relation to the wheel flange. b) the increase in inflation pressure due to drease in ambient temperature. c) the decrease in inflation pressure due to increase in ambient temperature. d) gradual circumferential increase of tyre wear.

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21.1.5.0 (548) The ABS (Auto Brake System) is being diconnected after landing .. a) by pilot action b) automatically c) at a certain low speed d) the system is always armed 21.1.5.0 (549) The purposes of the oil and the nitrogen in an oleo-pneumatic strut are : a) the oil supplies the damping function and the nitrogen supplies the spring function b) the oil supplies the spring function and the nitrogen supplies the damping function. c) the oil supplies the sealing and lubrication function, the nitrogen supplies the damping function. d) the oil supplies the damping and lubrication function, the nitrogen supplies the heatdissipation function. 21.1.5.0 (550) The function of a fusible plug is to a) protect the tyre against explosion due to excessive temperature. b) protect the brake against brake disk fusion due to excessive temperature. c) function as a special circuit breaker in the electric system d) protect against excessive pressure in the pneumatic system. 21.1.5.0 (551) (For this question use appendix )Associate the correct legend to each of the numbered diagrams : a) 1- cantilever 2- fork 3- half fork 4- dual wheels b) 1- half fork 2- fork 3- cantilever 4- tandem c) 1- cantilever 2- dual wheels 3- half fork 4- fork d) 1- half-fork 2- single trace 3- cantilever 4- dual wheels 21.1.5.0 (552) A scissor is a component found on landing gears. Its function is to : a) prevent any rotation of the oleo strut in the undercarriage shock absorber. b) create the wheel pitch on bogie gears. c) transform the translational movement of the rudder pedals into the rotational movement of the nosewheel. d) make the body gears pivot when the nosewheel is turned through more than 20°. 21.1.5.0 (553) Compared to a tyre fitted with an inner tube, a tubeless tyre presents the following characteristics :1 - high heating2 - valve fragility3 - lower risk of bursting4 - better adjustment to wheelsThe combination containing all the correct statements is: a) 04-Mar b) 03-Fev c) 04-Fev d) 1 - 2 - 3 - 4 21.1.5.0 (554) On a modern aeroplane, to avoid the risk of tyre burst from overheating, due for

example to prolonged braking during an aborted take-off, there is: a) a hollow bolt screwed into the wheel which melts at a given temperature (thermal fuse) and deflates the tyre. b) a pressure relief valve situated in the filler valve. c) the ""Emergency Burst"" function of the anti-skid system which adapts braking to the tyre temperature. d) water injection triggered at a fixed temperature in order to lower tyre temperature. 21.1.5.0 (555) On an aircraft landing gear, an under-inflated tyre: a) will wear at the shoulders b) it's tread will deteriorate faster c) will have an increased critical hydroplanning speed d) will be more subject to viscosity aquaplaning on dry runway 21.1.6.1 (556) The trim tab : a) reduces hinge moment and control surface efficiency. b) reduces hinge moment and increases control surface efficiency. c) increases hinge moment and control surface efficiency. d) increases hinge moment and reduces control surface efficiency. 21.1.6.1 (557) The purpose of a trim tab (device) is to: a) reduce or to cancel control forces. b) trim the aeroplane during normal flight. c) trim the aeroplane at low airspeed. d) lower manoeuvring control forces. 21.1.6.1 (558) An artificial feel unit is necessary in the pitch channel when: a) the elevators are actuated by irreversible servo-control units. b) the elevators are fitted with servo-tabs or trim tabs. c) there is a trimmable stabilizer. d) the elevators are actuated by reversible servo-control units. 21.1.6.1 (559) An artificial feel unit system: a) must be mounted in parallel on an irreversible servo-control unit. b) must be mounted in series on an irreversible servo-control unit. c) is necessary on a reversible servodyne unit. d) is mounted in parallel on a spring tab. 21.1.6.1 (560) A Yaw Damper is : a) A rudder damper designed to avoid the ""Dutch roll"". b) An elevator augmentor. c) An elevator augmentor to avoid the nose-down effect at speeds greater than M=0.8. d) A roll trim tab.

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21.1.6.1 (561) In a steep turn to the left, when using spoilers ... a) The right aileron will descend, the left one will ascend, the right spoiler will retract and the left one will extend. b) The right aileron will descend, the left one will ascend, the right spoiler will extend and the left one will retract. c) The right aileron will ascend, the left one will descend, the right spoiler will extend and the left one will retract. d) The right aileron will ascend, the left one will descend, the right spoiler will retract and the left one will extend. 21.1.6.2 (562) The advantages of fly-by-wire control are:1. reduction of the electric and hydraulic power required to operate the control surfaces2. lesser sensitivity to lightning strike3. direct and indirect weight saving through simplification of systems4. immunity to different interfering signals5. improvement of piloting quality throughout the flight envelopeThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is : a) 3 and 5 b) 1 and 2 c) 1 and 5 d) 2 and 3 21.1.6.2 (563) Which of these signals are inputs, at least, in the stall warning computers? a) Angle of attack and flaps and slats deflection. b) Angle of attack and flaps and spoilers deflection. c) Angle of attack, flaps deflection and EPR. d) Angle of attack, flaps deflection, EPR and N1. 21.1.6.2 (564) On an aircraft, the Krueger flap is a: a) leading edge flap b) trailing edge flap c) leading edge flap close to the wing root d) leading edge flap close to the wing tip 21.1.6.2 (565) The reason for the trim switch on a control column to consist of two separate switches is a) To reduce the probability of a trim-runaway b) To prevent that both pilots perform opposite trim inputs. c) Because there are two trim motors. d) To be able to use two different trim speeds, slow trim rate at high speed and high trim rate at low speed 21.1.6.2 (566) On an aeroplane, spoilers are : a) upper wing surface devices, their deflection is symmetrical or asymmetrical. b) lower wing surface devices, their deflection is symmetrical or asymmetrical.

c) upper wing surface devices, their deflection is always asymmetrical. d) lower wing surface devices, their deflection is always asymmetrical. 21.1.6.2 (567) On an airplane, the Krueger flaps are: a) leading edge flaps close to the wing root b) trailing edge flaps close to the wing root c) trailing edge flaps close to the wing tip d) leading edge flaps close to the wing tip 21.1.7.1 (568) Hydraulic fluids must have the following characteristics:1. thermal stability2. low emulsifying characteristics3. corrosion resistance4. good resistance to combustion5. high compressibility6. high volatility7. high viscosityThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is : a) 1, 2, 3, 4 b) 1, 2, 5, 7 c) 2, 3, 4, 5 d) 1, 3, 4, 6 21.1.7.1 (569) In a hydraulic braking system, an accumulator is precharged to 1200 psi.An electrically driven hydraulic pump is started and provides a system pressure of 3000 psi. The hydraulic pressure gauge which is connected to the gas section of the accumulator, reads: a) 3000 psi b) 1200 psi c) 4200 psi d) 1800 psi 21.1.7.1 (570) Hydraulic fluids : a) Are irritating to eyes and skin. b) Cause high fire risk. c) Do not require special care. d) Are irritating to eyes and skin and cause high fire risk. 21.1.7.1 (571) Hydraulic fluids used in systems of large modern airliners are: a) Phosphate ester base fluids. b) Water base fluids. c) Vegetable base fluids. d) Mineral base fluids. 21.1.7.1 (572) Hydraulic power is a function of : a) System pressure and volume flow. b) Pump RPM only. c) System pressure and tank capacity. d) Pump size and volume flow.

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21.1.7.1 (573) Large transport aeroplane hydraulic systems usually operate with a system pressure of approximately: a) 3000 psi b) 4000 psi c) 2000 psi d) 1000 psi 21.1.7.1 (574) In hydraulic systems of large modern transport category aircraft the fluids used are: a) Synthetic oil. b) Mineral oil. c) Vegetable oil. d) Water and glycol. 21.1.7.1 (575) The type of hydraulic oil used in modern hydraulic systems is: a) synthetic oil b) vegetable oil c) mixture of mineral oil and alcohol d) mineral oil 21.1.7.1 (576) The type of hydraulic fluid which has the highest resistance against cavitation is : a) Synthetic fluid. b) Mineral oil based fluid. c) Vegetable oil based fluid (caster oil). d) Water and glycol based fluid. 21.1.7.1 (577) The component that transforms the hydraulic pressure into a linear motion is called ... a) An actuator or jack. b) A hydraulic pump. c) An accumulator. d) A Pressure regulator. 21.1.7.1 (578) The aircraft hydraulic system is designed to produce: a) high pressure and large flow. b) high pressure and small flow. c) small pressure and large flow. d) small pressure and small flow. 21.1.7.1 (579) Hydraulic fluids of synthetic origin are: a) purple. b) pink. c) blue. d) red.

21.1.7.1 (580) (For this question use annex 021-6716A)In the hydraulic press schematically shown, what balancing Force would be acting on the right hand side ? (The diagram is not to scale) a) 100 N. b) 1000 N. c) 20 N. d) 1 N. 21.1.7.1 (581) Internal leakage in a hydraulic system will cause : a) an increased fluid temperature. b) fluid loss. c) a decreased fluid temperature. d) an increased fluid pressure. 21.1.7.1 (582) Discounting the possibility of leak, the level in a hydraulic reservoir will : a) fluctuate with jack displacement and accumulator pressure. b) always remain the same. c) initially increase with system pressurisation. d) increase as ambient temperature decreases. 21.1.7.1 (583) Assuming a hydraulic accumulator is pre-charged with air to 1000 psi. If the hydraulic system is then pressurised to its operating pressure of 3000 psi, the indicated pressure on the air side of the accumulator should be : a) 3000 psi. b) 2000 psi. c) 1000 psi. d) 4000 psi. 21.1.7.1 (584) For an aeroplane hydraulic supply circuit, the correct statement is : a) the security components comprise the filters, the pressure relief valves, the bypasses, and the fire shut-off valve. b) the pumps are always electric due to the high pressures which they must deliver (140 to 210 kg/cm²). c) the regulation system deals only with emergency operation and is not applied to all hydraulic services but only those considered as essential. d) the reservoir constitutes a reserve of hydraulic fluid maintained under pressure by a pneumatic back pressure (air or nitrogen) and destined to serve as a fluid or pressure reserve. 21.1.7.2 (585) Where in a hydraulic system might overheat indicators be installed? a) At the pumps. b) In the reservoirs. c) At actuators. d) At the coolers.

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21.1.7.2 (586) In a modern hydraulic system, ""hydraulic fuses"" can be found. Their function is : a) To prevent total system loss in case of a leaking hydraulic line. b) To switch to the secondary system in case of a leak in the primary brake system. c) To isolate a part of the system and protect it against accidental pollution. d) To allow by-passing of a hydraulic pump in case it is subject to excessive pressure, without further damage to the system. 21.1.7.2 (587) In a hydraulic system, the reservoir is pressurized in order to: a) prevent pump cavitation b) seal the system c) keep the hydraulic fluid at optimum temperature d) reduce fluid combustibility 21.1.7.2 (588) The purpose of a shuttle valve is to: a) Supply an operating unit with the most appropriate system pressure. b) Protect a hydraulic system from overpressure. c) Relieve excess pressure in hydraulic systems. d) Prevent overloading of the hydraulic pump. 21.1.7.2 (589) Shuttle valves will automatically: a) Switch hydraulically operated units to the most appropriate pressure supply. b) Shut down systems which are overloaded. c) Guard systems against overpressure. d) Reduce pump loads. 21.1.7.2 (590) In addition to energy storage the accumulator of the hydraulic system is used : a) for damping pressure surges in the system. b) for fluid storage. c) for pressure storage. d) as a pressure relief valve. 21.1.7.2 (591) The hydraulic device similar to an electronic diode is a : a) check valve. b) flow control valve. c) distribution valve. d) shutoff valve. 21.1.7.2 (592) The function of the selector valve is to: a) communicate system pressure to either side of an actuator. b) select the system to which the hydraulic pump should supply pressure. c) automatically activate the hydraulic system. d) discharge some hydraulic fluid if the system pressure is too high.

21.1.7.2 (593) Assuming an accumulator is pre-charged with air to 1000 psi and the hydraulic system is pressurised to 1500 psi, the accumulator gauge will read : a) 1500 psi. b) 2500 psi. c) 1000 psi. d) 500 psi. 21.1.7.2 (594) An accumulator in a hydraulic system will : a) store fluid under pressure. b) increase pressure surges within the system. c) reduce fluid temperature and pressure. d) reduce fluid temperature only. 21.1.7.2 (595) (For this question use annex 021-6736A)The schematic diagram annexed illustates a jack and selector valve in a typical hydraulic system. Assuming hydraulic pressure throughout : a) a condition of hydraulic lock exists and no movement of the jack will take place. b) since pressures are equal, the jack is free to move in response to external forces. c) the jack will move to the left due to pressure acting on differential areas. d) the jack will move to the right due to equal pressure acting on differential areas. 21.1.7.2 (596) In hydraulic system, a shuttle valve : a) allows two possible sources of pressure to operate one unit. b) is a self-lapping non-return valve. c) allows two units to be operated by one pressure source. d) regulates pump delivery pressure. 21.1.7.2 (597) To allow for failure of the normal method of system pressure limiting control, a hydraulic system often incorporates a) a high pressure relief valve. b) a stand-by hydraulic pump. c) an accumulator. d) auxiliary hydraulic motors. 21.1.7.2 (598) The hydraulic oil, entering the hydraulic pump, is slightly pressurised to : a) prevent cavitation in the pump b) ensure sufficient pump output c) prevent overheating of the pump. d) prevent vapour locking. 21.1.7.2 (599) The Ram Air Turbine (RAT) provides emergency hydraulic power for : a) flight controls in the event of loss of engine driven hydraulic power. b) nose wheel steering after the aeroplane has landed.

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c) undercarriage selection and automatic brake system. d) flap extension only. 21.1.7.2 (600) The tanks of a hydraulic system are pressurized: a) by bleed air coming from the turbine-engine. b) in flight only. c) by the air conditioning system. d) by an auxiliary system. 21.1.7.2 (601) The low pressure switch of a hydraulic circuit sets off an alarm if : a) the pump output pressure is insufficient. b) the reservoir level is at the normal operation limit. c) there is a leak in the reservoir return line. d) the pump power accumulator is deflated. 21.1.8.3 (602) If the cabin altitude rises (aircraft in level flight), the differential pressure: a) decreases b) increases c) remains constant d) may exceed the maximum permitted differential unless immediate preventative action is taken. 21.1.8.3 (603) The purpose of the cabin pressure controller, in the automatic mode, is to perform the following functions:1. control of cabin altitude,2. control of cabin altitude rateof-change,3. limitation of differential pressure4. balancing aircraft altitude with cabin altitude5. cabin ventilation6. keeping a constant differential pressure throughout all the flight phases.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is : a) 1, 2, 3 b) 2, 6, 4 c) 5, 6, 1 d) 4, 5, 3 21.1.8.3 (604) During a normal pressurised climb after take-off: a) cabin pressure decreases more slowly than atmospheric pressure b) the pressurisation system is inoperative until an altitude of 10 000 feet is reached c) the cabin differential pressure is maintained constant d) absolute cabin pressure increases to compensate for the fall in pressure outside the aircraft 21.1.8.3 (605) (For this question use annex 021-786A)In a pressurized aircraft whose cabin altitude is 8000 ft, a crack in a cabin window makes it necessary to reduce the differential pressure to 5 psi.The flight level to be maintained in order to keep the same cabin altitude is: a) FL 230 b) FL 340

c) FL 280 d) FL 180 21.1.8.3 (606) The purpose of cabin air flow control valves in a pressurization system is to : a) Maintain a constant and sufficient mass air flow to ventilate the cabin and minimise cabin pressure surges. b) regulate cabin pressure to the selected altitude. c) discharge cabin air to atmosphere if cabin pressure rises above the selected altitude. d) regulate cabin pressure at the maximum cabin pressure differential. 21.1.8.3 (607) Assuming cabin differential pressure has attained the required value in normal flight conditions, if flight altitude is maintained: a) a constant mass air flow is permitted through the cabin. b) the outflow valves will move to the fully open position. c) the pressurisation system ceases to function until leakage reduces the pressure. d) the outflow valves will move to the fully closed position. 21.1.8.3 (608) Cabin pressure is controlled by : a) delivering a substantially constant flow of air into the cabin and controlling the outflow. b) controlling the flow of air into the cabin with a constant outflow. c) the cabin air re-circulation system. d) the cabin air mass flow control inlet valve(s). 21.1.8.3 (609) During level flight at a constant cabin pressure altitude (which could be decreased, even at this flight level), the cabin outflow valves are: a) Partially open. b) fully closed until the cabin climbs to a selected altitude. c) At the pre-set position for take-off. d) Fully closed until the cabin descends to a selected altitude. 21.1.8.3 (610) The purpose of a ditching control is to: a) close the outflow valve(s). b) achieve rapid depressurisation. c) open the outflow valve(s). d) direct pressurisation air to the flotation bags. 21.1.8.3 (611) The cabin pressure is regulated by the: a) Outflow valve. b) Air cycle machine. c) Air conditioning pack. d) Cabin inlet airflow valve.

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21.1.8.3 (612) The pressurization of the cabin is controlled by : a) The cabin outflow valve. b) The cabin inlet airflow. c) The engine's RPM. d) The engine's bleed valves. 21.1.8.3 (613) Cabin differential pressure means the pressure difference between: a) cabin pressure and ambient air pressure. b) cockpit and passenger cabin. c) cabin pressure and ambient air pressure at MSL. d) actual cabin pressure and selected pressure. 21.1.8.3 (614) Under normal conditions (JAR 25) the cabin pressure altitude is not allowed to exceed: a) 8000 ft b) 4000 ft c) 6000 ft d) 10000 ft 21.1.8.3 (615) Cabin altitude means the: a) cabin pressure expressed as altitude. b) difference in height between the cabin floor and ceiling. c) flight level the aircraft is flying at. d) flight level altitude at maximum differential pressure. 21.1.8.3 (616) A warning device alerts the crew in case of an excessive cabin altitude. This warning must be triggered on reaching the following altitude: a) 10000 ft (approx. 3000 m) b) 14000 ft (approx. 4200 m) c) 8000 ft (approx. 2400 m) d) 12000 ft (approx. 3600 m) 21.1.8.3 (617) On a modern large pressurized transport aircraft, the maximum cabin differential pressure is approximately: a) 7 - 9 psi b) 3 - 5 psi c) 13 - 15 psi d) 22 psi 21.1.8.3 (618) On most modern airliners the cabin pressure is controlled by regulating the: a) Airflow leaving the cabin. b) Airflow entering the cabin. c) RPM of the engine. d) Bleed air valve.

21.1.8.3 (619) If the maximum operating altitude of an airplane is limited by the pressurized cabin, this limitation is due to the maximum: a) Positive cabin differential pressure at maximum cabin altitude. b) Negative differential pressure at maximum cabin altitude. c) Positive cabin differential pressure at maximum operating ceiling. d) Negative cabin differential pressure at maximum operating ceiling. 21.1.8.3 (620) The ""cabin differential pressure"" is: a) cabin pressure minus ambient pressure. b) approximately 5 psi at maximum. c) approximately 15 psi at maximum. d) the pressure differential between the air entering and leaving the cabin. 21.1.8.3 (621) The cabin rate of descent is: a) a cabin pressure increase. b) always the same as the airplane's rate of descent. c) a cabin pressure decrease. d) is not possible at constant airplane altitudes. 21.1.8.3 (622) The maximum differential pressure of a transonic transport category airplane is approximately: a) 9.0 psi b) 3.5 psi c) 13.5 psi d) 15.5 psi 21.1.8.3 (623) An aircraft with a pressurized cabin is settled at its cruise level.During the flight, a malfunction of the pressure controller is detected by the crew and the cabin rate of climb indicator reads -200ft/min.Given that :DELTA P: Differential pressureZc: Cabin altitude a) DELTA P will rise up to its maximum value, thus causing the safety relief valves to open. b) A descent must be initiated to prevent the oxygen masks dropping when Zc reaches 14000ft. c) The aircraft has to climb to a higher flight level in order to reduce Zc to its initial value. d) The crew has to intermittently cut off the incoming air flow in order to maintain a zero Zc. 21.1.8.3 (624) An aircraft with a pressurized cabin flies at level 310.Following a malfunction of the pressure controller, the outflow valve runs to the open position. Given :VZc: Cabin rate of climb indicationZc: Cabin pressure altitudeDELTA P: Differential pressureThis will result in a: a) VZc increaseZc increaseDELTA P decrease b) VZc decreaseZc increaseDELTA P decrease c) VZc increaseZc increaseDELTA P increase d) VZc decreaseZc decreaseDELTA P increase

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21.1.8.3 (625) In a manually operated system, the cabin altitude rate of change is normally controlled by : a) a rate of change selector. b) the difference between the altitude selected on the cabin pressure controller and the aeroplane altitude. c) the difference between the barometric pressure selected on the cabin pressure controller and ambient barometric pressure. d) the duct relief valve when operating at the maximum cabin differential pressure. 21.1.8.3 (626) The term ""pressure cabin"" applies when an aeroplane : a) has the means to maintain cabin pressure higher than ambient pressure. b) is only pressurised in the area of the control cabin. c) has the ability to maintain a constant cabin differential pressure at all flight altitudes. d) has the ability to maintain a constant cabin altitude at all flight altitudes. 21.1.8.3 (627) Under normal flight conditions, cabin pressure is controlled by : a) regulating the discharge of air through the outflow valve(s). b) pressurisation duct relief valve(s). c) engine rpm. d) inward relief valve(s). 21.1.8.3 (628) Assuming cabin differential pressure has attained the required value in normal flight conditions, if flight altitude is maintained : a) a constant mass air flow is permitted through the cabin. b) the pressurisation system ceases to function until leakage reduces the pressure. c) the outflow valves will move to the fully open position. d) the pressurisation system must be controlled manually. 21.1.8.3 (629) Assuming cabin pressure decreases, the cabin rate of climb indicator should indicate : a) a rate of climb. b) a rate of descent of approximately 300 feet per minutes. c) zero. d) a rate of descent dependent upon the cabin differential pressure. 21.1.8.3 (630) Assume that during cruise flight with airconditioning packs ON, the outflow valve(s) would close. The result would be that: a) the pressure differential would go to the maximum value b) the cabin pressure would become equal to the ambient outside air pressure c) the air supply would automatically be stopped d) the skin of the cabin would be overstressed 21.1.8.3 (631) A cabin pressure controller maintains a pre-set cabin altitude by regulating the : a) position of the outflow valve(s).

b) mass air flow into the cabin. c) position of the inward relief valve. d) position of the duct relief valve(s). 21.1.8.3 (632) If the pressure in the cabin tends to become lower than the outside ambient air pressure the : a) negative pressure relief valve will open. b) negative pressure relief valve will close c) outflow valve open completely. d) air cycle machine will stop. 21.1.8.4 (633) The pneumatic ice protection system is mainly used for: a) wings. b) pitot tubes. c) propellers. d) engine intakes. 21.1.8.4 (634) With regard to the pneumatic mechanical devices which afford protection against the formation of ice, the only correct statement is: a) The pneumatic mechanical device can only be used as a de-icing device. b) The pneumatic mechanical device is used a lot on modern aircraft as it is inexpensive and easy to maintain. c) The pneumatic mechanical device can only be used as an anti-icing device. d) The inflatable de-ice boots of the pneumatic mechanical device are arranged perpendicular to the leading edges. 21.1.8.4 (635) A pneumatic de-ice system should be operated .. a) When there is approximately 1,5 cm of ice on leading edges. b) When entering areas with icing conditions. c) When there are approximately 5 cm of ice on leading edges d) Only at take-off and during approach. 21.1.8.4 (636) Concerning the sequential pneumatic impulses used in certain leading edge deicing devices, one can affirm that :1 - They prevent ice formation.2 - They are triggered from the flight deck after icing has become visible.3 - A cycle lasts more than ten seconds.4 - There are more than ten cycles per second.The combination which regroups all the correct statements is : a) 03-Fev b) 04-Fev c) 03-Jan d) 04-Jan 21.1.9.1 (637) The pneumatic system accumulator is useful : a) to eliminate the fluid pressure variations. b) to eliminate the fluid flow variations.

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c) to offset for the starting of some devices. d) in emergency cases. 21.1.9.1 (638) In the pneumatic supply system of a modern transport aircraft, the air pressure is regulated. This pressure regulation occurs just before the manifold by the : a) low pressure bleed air valve b) high pressure bleed air valve c) fan bleed air valve d) intermediate pressure check-valve 21.1.9.2 (639) In the air cycle system the air is cooled down by expansion: a) in the turbine. b) in a pressure relief valve. c) of Freon in a heat exchanger. d) of Freon in the turbine. 21.1.9.2 (640) Main cabin temperature is: a) controlled automatically, or by flight crew selection. b) controlled by individual passenger. c) not controllable at the maximum cabin differential pressure. d) Only controllable at maximum cabin differential pressure. 21.1.9.2 (641) Environmental system: in the air refrigeration unit, the water separation unit is placed: a) after the cooling turbine. b) before the heat exchangers. c) before the cooling turbine. d) just after the heat exchangers. 21.1.9.2 (642) The air-conditioning pack of a present-day aircraft consists of several components: these include two heat exchangers, the primary exchanger (P) and the secondary exchanger (S).The functions of these heat exchangers are as follows: a) P: precools the engine bleed airS: reduces the temperature of the air from the primary exchanger or from the pack's compressor. b) P: warms up engine bleed airS: recirculates the cabin air, reducing its temperature. c) P: warms up engine bleed airS: increases the temperature of air originating from the compressor of the pack. d) P: pre-cools the engine bleed airS: increases the temperature of the air used for airconditioning of cargo compartment (animals). 21.1.9.2 (643) ""Conditioned"" air is air that has: a) been controled in respect of temperature and pressure. b) oxygen content regulated to a preset value. c) oxygen content increased. d) oxygen content reduced.

21.1.9.2 (644) The term ""cabin pressure"" applies when an aeroplane: a) has the means to maintain the cabin pressure at a higher level than the ambient pressure. b) is only pressurized in the area of the control cabin. c) has the ability to maintain constant any cabin differential pressure. d) has the ability to maintain a constant cabin altitude at all flight altitudes. 21.1.9.2 (645) When air is compressed for pressurization purposes, the percentage oxygen content is: a) unaffected. b) decreased. c) increased. d) dependent on the degree of pressurisation. 21.1.9.2 (646) The term ""bootstrap"", when used to identify a cabin air conditioning and pressurisation system, refers to the: a) cold air unit (air cycle machine) arrangement. b) source of the charge air. c) means by which pressurisation is controlled. d) charge air across the inter-cooler heat exchanger. 21.1.9.2 (647) In a bootstrap cooling system the supply air is first: a) compressed, then goes through a heat exchanger, and across an expansion turbine. b) passed across an expansion turbine, then compressed and passed through a heat exchanger. c) passed across an expansion turbine, then directly to the heat exchanger. d) compressed, then passed across an expansion turbine through a heat exchanger. 21.1.9.2 (648) In a cabin air conditioning system, equipped with a bootstrap, the mass air flow is routed via the: a) secondary heat exchanger outlet to the turbine inlet of the cold air unit. b) secondary heat exchanger outlet to the compressor inlet of the cold air unit. c) turbine outlet of the cold air unit to the primary heat exchanger inlet. d) compressor outlet of the cold air unit to the primary heat exchanger inlet. 21.1.9.2 (649) Engine bleed air used for air conditioning and pressurization in turbo-jet aeroplanes is usually taken from the: a) compressor section. b) fan section. c) turbine section. d) by-pass ducting. 21.1.9.2 (650) What is the purpose of the pack cooling fans in the air conditioning system?

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a) Supplying the heat exchangers with cooling air during slow flights and ground operation. b) Supplying the heat exchangers with cooling air during cruise flight. c) Supplying the Passenger Service Unit (PSU) with fresh air. d) Cooling of the APU compartment. 21.1.9.2 (651) The cabin air for modern airplanes is usually supplied by: a) main engine compressors. b) piston compressors. c) roots type compressors. d) single radial compressors. 21.1.9.2 (652) Cabin air for modern aircraft is usually taken from: a) the low pressure compressor and from the high pressure compressor if necessary. b) the second fan stage. c) the low pressure compressor. d) the high pressure compressor. 21.1.9.2 (653) In an aircraft air conditioning system the air cannot be treated for: a) humidity. b) purity. c) pressure. d) temperature. 21.1.9.2 (654) In a bootstrap system, the purpose of the heat exchangers is to: a) cool bleed air and compressor air from the turbo refrigerator. b) allow a homogeneous temperature by mixing air flows from various air conditioning groups in operation. c) cool bleed air. d) allow a steady compressor outlet temperature. 21.1.9.2 (655) The turbine in a cold air unit (air cycle machine): a) drives the compressor in the unit, creating a temperature drop in the conditioning air. b) drives the compressor which provides pressurisation. c) increases the pressure of the air supply to the cabin. d) drives the compressor in the unit and causes a pressure increase in the conditioning air. 21.1.9.2 (656) In large modern aircraft, in the air conditioning system, reduction of air temperature and pressure is achieved by: a) an expansion turbine. b) a compressor. c) a condenser. d) an evaporator.

21.1.9.2 (657) In a ""bootstrap"" cooling system, the charge air is first compressed in the cold air unit to: a) ensure an adequate pressure and temperature drop across the cooling turbine. b) increase the cabin air supply pressure when the charge pressure is too low. c) ensure an adequate charge air flow across the inter-cooler heat exchanger. d) maintain a constant cabin mass air flow. 21.1.9.2 (658) A turbo-fan cold air unit will: a) cause a pressure drop as well as an associated temperature drop in the charge air. b) not affect the charge air pressure. c) increase charge air pressure whilst causing hte temperature to drop in the heat exchanger. d) decrease charge air pressure whilst causing hte temperature to rise in the heat exchanger. 21.1.9.2 (659) The cabin heating supply in a heavy jet transport aircraft is obtained from : a) hot air coming from the engine's compressors. b) hot air coming from the engine's turbines. c) a fuel heater system. d) an electrical heater system. 21.1.9.2 (660) The pack cooling fan provides: a) cooling air to the primary and secondary heat exchanger during slow flight and ground operation. b) cooling air to the pre-cooler. c) air to the eyeball outlets at the Passenger Service Unit (PSU). d) cooling air to the primary and secondary heat exchanger during cruise. 21.1.9.2 (661) The water separator of an air-conditioning unit is located at the cooling unit : a) outlet and uses a centrifugal process. b) inlet and uses a centrifugal process. c) outlet and uses an evaporation process. d) inlet and uses an evaporation process. 21.1.9.2 (662) The term ""Bootstrap"", when used to identify a cabin air conditioning and pressurisation system, refers to the : a) cold air unit (air cycle machine) arrangement. b) source of the charge air. c) means by which pressurisation is controlled. d) charge air across the inter-cooler heat exchanger. 21.1.9.2 (663) In a bootstrap cooling system the supply air is first : a) compressed, passed through a secondary heat exchanger, and then across an expansion turbine. b) passed across an expansion turbine, then compressed and passed through a secondary

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heat exchanger. c) passed across an expansion turbine, then directly to the heat exchanger. d) used to increase the cabin air supply pressure when the charge pressure is too low. 21.1.9.2 (664) The function of an air cycle machine is to : a) cool the bleed air. b) decrease the pressure of the bleed air. c) remove the water from the bleed air. d) pump the conditioned air into the cabin. 21.1.9.2 (665) ""Conditioned"" air is air that has : a) been controlled in respect of temperature and pressure. b) had any moisture removed from it. c) had the oxygen content increased. d) had the oxygen content reduced. 21.1.9.3 (666) In flight, the most commonly used anti-icing method for the wings of modern commercial aircraft fitted with turbo-jet units is: a) Thermal (use of hot air). b) Physical/chemical (glycol-based liquid). c) Electrical (electrical resistances). d) Mechanical (pneumatic source which acts by deforming the profiles of the leading edge). 21.1.9.3 (667) Concerning electrically powered ice protection devices, the only true statement is: a) on modern aeroplanes, electrically powered thermal devices are used to prevent icing on small surfaces (pitot-static, windshield...). b) on modern aeroplanes, electrical power supply being available in excess, this system is very often used for large surfaces de-icing. c) on modern aeroplanes, electrically powered thermal devices are very efficient, therefore they only need little energy. d) on modern aeroplanes, electrically powered thermal devices are used as de-icing devices for pitot-tubes, static ports, windshield... 21.1.9.3 (668) The elements specifically protected against icing on transport aircraft are:1) engine air intake and pod.2) front glass shield.3) radome.4) pitot tubes and waste water exhaust masts.5) leading edge of wing.6) cabin windows.7) trailing edge of wings.8) electronic equipment compartment.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is : a) 1, 2, 4, 5 b) 1, 4, 5, 7 c) 1, 2, 5, 6 d) 1, 2, 3, 8 21.1.9.3 (669) The ice protection system currently used for the most modern jet aeroplanes is the a) Hot air system.

b) Pneumatic system with expandable boots. c) Liquid de-icing system. d) Electrical de-icing system. 21.1.9.3 (670) During flight, the wing anti-ice system has to protect a) leading edges, slats and the leading edge flaps. b) the whole upper wing surface and the flaps. c) slats and the leading edge flaps only. d) leading edges only. 21.1.9.3 (671) In jet aeroplanes the 'thermal anti-ice system' is primary supplied by a) bleed air from the engines. b) turbo compressors. c) ram air, heated via a heat exchanger. d) the APU. 21.1.9.3 (672) The anti-ice or de-icing system which is mostly used for the wings of modern turboprop aeroplanes is : a) Pneumatic boots. b) Electrical heating. c) Thermal anti-icing. d) Fluid de-icing. 21.1.9.3 (673) The ice protection for propellers of modern turboprop aeroplanes works a) electrically. b) pneumatically. c) with hot air. d) with anti-icing fluid. 21.1.9.3 (674) The advantages of thermal anti-icing are :1. Simple and reliable system2. Profiles maintained3. Greater efficiency than that of an electrical resistor4. Direct use of the hot air from the jet engine without substantial reduction in engine thrustThe combination of correct statements is: a) 1,2 b) 3,4 c) 1,3 d) 2,4 21.1.10.1 (675) On modern transport aircraft, cockpit windows are protected against icing by : a) Electric heating. b) Vinyl coating. c) Anti-icing fluid. d) Rain repellent system.

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21.1.10.1 (676) Usually, electric heating for ice protection is used on: a) Pitot tubes. b) Elevator leading edges. c) Slat leading edges. d) Fin leading edges. 21.1.10.1 (677) The heating facility for the windshield of an aircraft is: a) Used on a continual basis as it reduces the thermal gradients which adversely affect the useful life of the components. b) Harmful to the integrity of the windows in the event of a bird strike. c) Only used when hot-air demisting is insufficient. d) Used only at low altitudes where there is a risk of ice formation. 21.1.10.1 (678) The correct statement about rain protection for cockpit windshields is that : a) rain repellent should never be sprayed onto the windshield unless the rainfall is very heavy b) wipers are sufficient under heavy rain conditions to provide adequate view through the cockpit windows. c) the electric de-icing system for cockpit windows is also suitable for rain protection d) the alcohol de-icing system for cockpit windows is also suitable for rain protection 21.1.11.1 (679) The purpose of the baffles in an aircraft's integral fuel tank is to: a) Restrict the fuel from flowing to the wing tips during abnormal manoeuvre (side slipping...). b) Prevent overpressure in the tank. c) Prevent the fuel from flowing in the vent lines. d) Prevent mixture of the fuel and hydraulic fluid. 21.1.11.1 (680) On a transport type aircraft the fuel tank system is vented through: a) Ram air scoops on the underside of the wing. b) A pressure regulator in the wing tip. c) Bleed air from the engines. d) The return lines of the fuel pumps. 21.1.11.1 (681) The types of fuel tanks used on most modern transport aircraft are: a) Integral tanks. b) Cell tanks. c) Combined fuel tanks. d) Fixed built-in tanks. 21.1.11.1 (682) The purpose of baffle check valves fitted in aircraft fuel tanks is to : a) prevent fuel movement to the wing tip. b) damp out movement of the fuel in the tank.

c) close the vent lines in case of turbulence. d) prevent positive pressure build up inside the tank. 21.1.11.1 (683) The pressurization of tanks is maintained by the fuel: a) vent system. b) tank drains. c) top off unit. d) dump system. 21.1.11.1 (684) The automatic fuelling shut off valve: a) stops fuelling as soon as a certain fuel level is reached inside the tank. b) cuts off the fuel in case of engine fire. c) stops fuelling as soon as the fuel spills into the ventline. d) stops fuelling as soon as a certain pressure is reached. 21.1.11.1 (685) Fire precautions to be observed before refuelling are : a) All bonding and earthing connections between ground equipment and the aircraft should be made before filler caps are removed. b) Ground Power Units (GPU) are not to be operated. c) Passengers may be boarded (traversing the refuelling zone) providing suitable fire extinguishers are readily available. d) Aircraft must be more than 10 metres from radar or HF radio equipment under test. 21.1.11.1 (686) The function of a feed box in the fuel tank is to a) increase the fuel level at the boost pump location b) trap fuel sediments or sludge in the lower part of the tank c) distribute the fuel to the various tanks during refuelling d) ventilate the tank during refuelling under high pressure 21.1.11.2 (687) On most transport aircraft, the low pressure pumps of the fuel system are: a) centrifugal pumps, driven by an electric motor. b) electro-mechanical wobble pumps, with self-regulated pressure. c) mechanically driven by the engine's accessory gearbox. d) removable only after the associated tank has been emptied. 21.1.11.2 (688) The fuel supply system on a jet engine includes a fuel heating device, upstream of the main fuel filter so as to: a) prevent, at low fuel temperature, the risk of ice formation from water contained in the fuel. b) maintain and improve fuel heating power. c) ease low pressure pumps work by increasing fuel fluidity. d) prevent fuel from freezing in fuel pipes due to low temperatures at high altitude.

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21.1.11.2 (689) On most transport jet aircraft, the low pressure pumps of the fuel system are supplied with electric power of the following type: a) 115 V AC b) 28 V AC c) 28 V DC d) 115 V DC 21.1.11.2 (690) The fuel crossfeed system: a) allows feeding of any engine from any fuel tank. b) is only used to feed an engine from the tank of the opposite wing. c) is only used on the ground for fuel transfer from one tank to another. d) is only used in flight for fuel transfer from one tank to another. 21.1.11.2 (691) On most transport aircraft, the low pressure pumps of the fuel system are: a) Centrifugal pumps. b) Gear type pumps. c) Piston pumps. d) Diaphragm pumps. 21.1.11.2 (692) On a jet aircraft fuel heaters are : a) Located on the engines. b) Installed in each tank. c) Installed only in the center tank. d) not necessary at all. 21.1.11.2 (693) During fuelling the automatic fuelling shut off valves will switch off the fuel supply system when: a) the fuel has reached a predetermined volume or mass. b) fuelling system has reached a certain pressure. c) the surge vent tank is filled. d) there is fire. 21.1.11.2 (694) The cross-feed fuel system is used to : a) feed every engine from any fuel tank. b) allow the fuel to be quickly thrown away in case of emergency c) allow the unusable fuel elimination. d) automatically fill every tank up to the desired level. 21.1.11.2 (695) The fuel system boost pumps are submerged in the fuel .. a) To prime the pumps. b) Because their efficiency is greater. c) To shorten the fuel lines, so minimising the pressure losses. d) To cool the pumps.

21.1.11.2 (696) The refueling in a transport jet aircraft is made ... a) Through a unique point (an underwing refueling center). b) Through the refueling cap of every tank c) By means of the aircraft suction pumps. d) By means of the aircraft suction pumps through a unique point (an underwing refueling center). 21.1.11.2 (697) The vapor lock is : a) A stoppage in a fuel feeding line caused by a fuel vapor bubble. b) The exhaust gases obstructions caused by an engine overheating. c) The effect of the water vapor bubbles in the induction manifold caused by the condensation d) The abnormal mixture enrichment caused by a greater gasoline vaporisation in the carburettor. 21.1.11.2 (698) The fuel system boost pumps are used to : a) avoid the bubbles accumulation and feed the lines with fuel for directing it to the engine at a positive pressure. b) avoid the bubbles accumulation. c) feed the lines with fuel for directing it to the engine at a positive pressure. d) feed the fuel control units, which inject the pressurized fuel into the engine. 21.1.11.2 (699) The cross-feed fuel system enables: a) the supply of any jet engine from any fuel tank. b) the supply of the jet engines mounted on a wing from any fuel tank within that wing. c) the supply of the outboard jet engines from any outboard fuel tank. d) only the transfer of fuel from the centre tank to the wing tanks. 21.1.11.2 (700) Fuel pumps submerged in the fuel tanks of a multi-engine aircraft are: a) centrifugal low pressure type pumps. b) low pressure variable swash plate pumps. c) centrifugal high pressure pumps. d) high pressure variable swash plate pumps. 21.1.11.3 (701) Fuel dump systems are required: a) on all transport category aircraft where the Maximum Take-Off Weight (MTOW) is significant higher than the Maximum Landing Weight (MLW). b) on all transport category aircraft. c) on all transport category aircraft with more than 150 seats. d) on aircraft with a Maximum Take-Off Weight (MTOW) higher than 5.7 tons. 21.1.11.3 (702) The maximum quantity of fuel that can be dumped with the jettisoning system is: a) All up to a defined reserve quantity. b) 15 tons.

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c) All fuel. d) All fuel until the maximum landing weight is reached. 21.1.11.4 (703) (For this question use annex 021-980A)The diagram shown in annex represents a jet fuel system. The fuel-flow measurement is carried out : a) after high pressure valve (item 4). b) in the fuel control unit (item 3). c) after high pressure pump first stage (item 2). d) after low pressure valve (item 1). 21.1.11.4 (704) The capacitance type fuel gauging system indicates the fuel quantity by measuring the: a) dielectric change between fuel and air. b) density variation of the fuel. c) resistivity variation of the fuel. d) electrical resistance change. 21.1.11.4 (705) In a compensated capacitance type quantity indicating system, the contents gauge of a half-full fuel tank indicates a fuel mass of 8000 lb. If a temperature rise increased the volume of fuel by 5 %, the indicated fuel weight would : a) remain the same. b) increase by 5 %. c) decrease by 5 %. d) increase by 10 %. 21.2.1.1 (706) Fuses are rated to a value by : a) the number of amperes they will carry. b) the number of volts they will pass. c) their wattage. d) their resistance measured in ohms. 21.2.1.1 (707) The difference between (1) a fuse and (2) a circuit breaker is: a) (1)not resettable, (2)resettable. b) (1) suitable for high currents, (2) not suitable for high currents.fuse circuit breaker c) (1) not suitable for high currents, (2) suitable for high currents.fuse circuit breaker d) (1)not resettable, (2) not resettable. 21.2.1.1 (708) An aircraft electrical circuit which uses the aircraft structure as a return path to earth, may be defined as a a) single pole circuit. b) complete negative system. c) double pole circuit. d) semi-negative system.

21.2.1.1 (709) When an ""open circuit"" occurs in an electrical supply system, the : a) loss of continuity will prevent its working components from functioning. b) fuse or CB should isolate the circuit due to excess current drawn. c) component will operate normally, but will not switch off. d) load as indicated by the ammeter will increase. 21.2.1.1 (710) If a current is passed through a conductor which is positioned in a magnetic field : a) a force will be exerted on the conductor. b) the current will increase. c) there will be no effect unless the conductor is moved. d) the intensity of the magnetic field will decrease. 21.2.1.1 (711) A current limiter fuse in a DC generation system is used to : a) allow a short term overload before rupturing. b) limit the current in the field circuit. c) instantaneously rupture to limit the current in the load. d) limit the current in the armature. 21.2.1.1 (712) The true statement among the following in relation to the application of Ohm's law is : a) Current in a circuit is directly proportional to the applied electromotive force. b) The current in a circuit is directly proportional to the resistance of the circuit. c) power in the circuit is inversely proportional to the square of the current. d) current in a circuit is inversely proportional to the electromotive force. 21.2.1.1 (713) A condenser in parallel with breaker points will a) intensify current in secondary winding b) permit arcing across points c) assist in negative feedback to secondary coil d) assist in collapse of secondary winding. 21.2.1.1 (714) The connection in parallel of two 12 volt/ 40 amphours batteries, will create a unit with the following characteristics, a) 12 volt / 80 amp hours b) 12 volt / 40 amp hours c) 24 volt / 80 amp hours d) 24 volt / 40 amp hours 21.2.1.1 (715) The resistors R1 and R2 are connected in parallel. The value of the equivalent resistance (Req) so obtained is given by the following formula: a) 1/Req = 1/R1 + 1/R2 b) Req = R1 + R2 c) Req = R1 x R2 d) 1/Req = 1/(R1 + R2)

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21.2.1.2 (716) If one of the 12 cells of a lead-acid battery is dead, the battery: a) is unserviceable. b) has 1/12 less voltage, but can still be used. c) has 1/12 less capacity, but can still be used. d) has 1/12 less voltage and less capacity, but can still be used. 21.2.1.2 (717) In aeronautics, the most commonly used batteries are NiCd because... a) they weigh less than lead-acid batteries. b) their output voltage is more constant than lead-acid batteries. c) their electrolyte is neither corrosive nor dangerous. d) they are cheaper than lead-acid batteries. 21.2.1.2 (718) On board present aircraft, the batteries used are mainly Cadmium-Nickel. Their advantages are:1. low risk of thermal runaway2. high internal resistance, hence higher power3. good charging and discharging capability at high rating4. wider permissible temperature range5. good storage capability6. sturdiness owing to its metal casing7. the electrolyte density remains unchanged during charging.The combination of correct statement is: a) 3, 4, 5, 6 b) 1, 2, 5, 6, 7 c) 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 d) 3, 4, 6, 7 21.2.1.2 (719) The voltage of a fully charged lead-acid battery cell is : a) 2,2 volts. b) 1,4 volts. c) 1,8 volts. d) 1,2 volts. 21.2.1.2 (720) Batteries are rated in : a) Amperes.hours. b) Amperes/volts. c) Watts. d) Ohms. 21.2.1.2 (721) When carrying out battery condition check using the aircraft's voltmeter : a) a load should be applied to the battery in order to give a better indication of condition. b) no load should be applied to the battery because it would depress the voltage. c) the battery should be isolated. d) the load condition is unimportant. 21.2.1.2 (722) Connecting two 12 volt 40 ampere-hour capacity batteries in series will result in a total voltage and capacity respectively of :

a) 24 volts, 40 ampere-hours. b) 12 volts, 40 ampere-hours. c) 24 volts, 80 ampere-hours. d) 12 volts, 80 ampere-hours. 21.2.1.2 (723) The capacity of a battery is expressed in terms of : a) ampere-hours. b) volts. c) watts. d) internal resistance. 21.2.1.2 (724) A test to assess the state of charge of a lead-acid battery would involve : a) comparing the ""on-load"" and ""off-load"" battery voltages. b) checking the level of the electrolyte. c) checking the discharge current of the battery ""on-load"". d) checking the battery voltage ""off-load"". 21.2.1.2 (725) When a battery is almost fully discharged there is a tendency for the : a) voltage to decrease under load. b) voltage to increase due to the current available. c) current produced to increase due to the reduced voltage. d) electrolyte to ""boil"". 21.2.1.2 (726) Immediately after starting engine(s) with no other electrical services switched on, an ammeter showing a high charge rate to the battery : a) would be normal and is only cause for concern if the high charge rate persists. b) indicates a battery failure since there should be no immediate charge. c) indicates a generator failure, thus requiring the engine to be shut down immediately. d) indicates a faulty reverse current relay. 21.2.1.3 (727) A relay is : a) An electromagnetically operated switch. b) An electrical security switch. c) A switch specially designed for AC circuits. d) An electrical energy conversion unit. 21.2.1.3 (728) A relay is : a) a magnetically operated switch. b) another name for a solenoid valve. c) a unit which is used to convert electrical energy to heat energy. d) a device which is used to increase electrical power. 21.2.1.3 (729) When a conductor cuts the flux of a magnetic field :

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a) an electromotive force (EMF) is induced in the conductor. b) there will be no effect on the conductor. c) the field will collapse. d) current will flow in accordance with Flemings left hand rule. 21.2.1.3 (730) A circuit breaker : a) may be reset manually after the fault has been rectified. b) is self resetting after the fault has been rectified. c) can only be reset after major maintenance. d) can be reset on the ground only. 21.2.1.3 (731) Circuit breakers protecting circuits may be : a) used in AC and DC circuits. b) used only in AC circuits. c) used only in DC circuits. d) reset at any time. 21.2.1.3 (732) A ""trip-free"" type circuit breaker is a circuit protection device which : a) will not allow the contacts to be held closed while a current fault exists in the circuit. b) is free from the normal CB tripping characteristic. c) can be reset at any time. d) will allow the contacts to be held closed in order to clear a fault in the circuit. 21.2.1.4 (733) In order to produce an alternating voltage of 400 Hz, the number of poles required in an AC generator running at 6000 rpm is: a) 4 b) 24 c) 12 d) 8 21.2.1.4 (734) In a generator, the Constant Speed Drive (CSD):1- may be disconnected from the engine shaft.2- may be disconnected from the generator.3- is a hydro-mechanical system.4- is an electronic system.5- may not be disconnected in flight.6- may be disconnected in flight.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is : a) 1, 3, 6 b) 1, 2, 5 c) 2, 3, 4 d) 1, 4, 5 21.2.1.4 (735) In an alternator rotor coil you can find : a) AC. b) Three-phase AC. c) Only induced current. d) DC.

21.2.1.4 (736) Assume a constant speed DC generator providing a constant output voltage. If the electrical load increases, the voltage regulator will : a) increase the intensity of the excitation current. b) change the direction of the excitation current. c) maintain the intensity of the excitation current constant. d) decrease the intensity of the excitation current. 21.2.1.4 (737) The essential difference between aircraft AC alternators and DC generators (dynamos) is that the: a) induced (output) windings of the alternators are fixed (stator), and the dynamos have a fixed inductor (field) coil. b) induced windings of the alternators are rotating (rotor), and the dynamos have a rotary inductor coil. c) alternators supply all of the output current through the commutators and brush assemblies. d) The alternators generate much less power than DC generators. 21.2.1.4 (738) A feeder fault on a direct current circuit results from a flux unbalance between the: a) voltage coil and the series winding turn. b) voltage coil and the series winding. c) generator and the series winding turn. d) shunt exciter and the series winding turn. 21.2.1.4 (739) The detection of a feeder fault on a direct current circuit results in:1. automatic disconnection of the generator from the aircraft AC busbar2. opening of generator field current relay3. opening of the main relay of the generator breaker4. opening of balancing circuit connecting two generators5. lighting of an indicator lampThe combination of correct statements is: a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 b) 2, 3, 4, 5 c) 2, 4, 5 d) 1, 3, 5 21.2.1.4 (740) A DC generator fitted to a aircraft is cooled by : a) air via a ram air intake. b) water at 8 degrees centrigade from the air-conditioning system. c) a fan located before the generator. d) air tapped from the low pressure compressor. 21.2.1.4 (741) The voltage regulator of a DC generator is connected in : a) series with the shunt field coil. b) series with the armature. c) parallel with the shunt field coil. d) parallel with the armature.

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21.2.1.4 (742) The output of a generator is controlled by : a) varying the field strength. b) varying the speed of the engine. c) varying the length of wire in the armature windings. d) the reverse current relay circuit breaker. 21.2.1.4 (743) In order that DC generators will achieve equal load sharing when operating in parallel, it is necessary to ensure that : a) their voltages are almost equal. b) the synchronising bus-bar is disconnected from the busbar system. c) equal loads are connected to each generator busbar before paralleling. d) adequate voltage differences exists. 21.2.1.4 (744) On-board electrical systems are protected against faults of the following type:1. AC generator over-voltage2. AC generator under-voltage3. over-current4. overspeed5. under-frequency6. undue vibration of AC generatorsThe combination of correct statements is : a) 1,2,4,5 b) 1,2,4,6 c) 1,3,5,6 d) 2,3,4,5,6 21.2.1.4 (745) The frequency of the current provided by an alternator depends on... a) its rotation speed b) the strength of the excitation current c) its load d) its phase balance 21.2.1.4 (746) The function of the Generator Breaker is to close when the voltage of the : a) generator is greater than battery voltage and to open when the opposite is true b) battery is greater than the generator voltage and to open when the opposite is true c) alternator is greater than the battery voltage and to open when the opposite is true d) battery is greater than the alternator voltage and to open when the opposite is true 21.2.1.5 (747) The so-called ""hot buses"" or ""direct buses"" are: a) directly connected to the battery. b) kept in operating conditions by an electrical resistance in the case of energy failure. c) automatically connected to the battery if generators have failed. d) providing an alternative current. 21.2.1.5 (748) The type of windings commonly used in DC starter motors are : a) series wound. b) shunt wound.

c) series shunt wound. d) compound wound. 21.2.1.5 (749) A bus-bar is : a) a distribution point for electrical power. b) a device permitting operation of two or more switches together. c) the stator of a moving coil instrument. d) a device which may only be used in DC circuits. 21.2.1.5 (750) When two DC generators are operating in parallel, control of load sharing is achieved by : a) an equalising circuit which, in conjunction with the voltage regulators, varies the field excitation current of the generators. b) an equalising circuit which, in turn, controls the speed of the generators. c) carrying out systematic load-shedding procedures. d) the synchronous bus-bar. 21.2.1.5 (751) In a two generator system, a differential relay will ensure that : a) generator voltages are almost equal before the generators are paralleled. b) only one generator can supply the bus-bar at a time. c) generator voltages are not equal, dependent on load. d) one generator comes ""on-line"" before the other. 21.2.1.5 (752) The purpose of a battery protection unit is generally to isolate the battery:1 - from the bus when the battery charge is deemed satisfactory2 - when there is a battery overheat condition3 - in case of an internal short circuit4 - in case of a fault on the ground power unitThe combination which regroups all of the correct statements is : a) 2001-02-03 b) 02-Jan c) 1 - 2 - 3 -4 d) 1 21.2.1.6 (753) A static inverter is a: a) transistorized unit used to convert DC into AC. b) device for reversing the polarity of the static charge. c) static discharger. d) filter against radio interference. 21.2.1.6 (754) The reason for using inverters in an electrical system is .. a) To change DC into AC. b) To change the DC voltage. c) To change AC into DC. d) To avoid a short circuit.

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21.2.1.6 (755) In an aircraft equipped with a DC main power system, AC for instrument operation may be obtained from : a) an inverter. b) a rectifier. c) a contactor. d) a TRU. 21.2.1.6 (756) A unit that converts electrical DC into AC is : a) an inverter. b) an AC generator. c) a transformer rectifier unit. d) a thermistor. 21.2.1.7 (757) Static dischargers :1. are used to set all the parts of the airframe to the same electrical potential2. are placed on wing and tail tips to facilitate electrical discharge3. are used to reset the electrostatic potential of the aircraft to a value approximating 0 volts4. are located on wing and tail tips to reduce intererence with the on-board radiocommunication systems to a minimum5. limit the risks of transfer of electrical charges between the aircraft and the electrified cloudsThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is : a) 2,4,5. b) 1,2,5. c) 1,3,4. d) 3,4,5. 21.2.1.7 (758) The advantages of grounding the negative pole of the aircraft structure are:1. Weight saving2. Easy fault detection3. Increase of short-circuit risk4. Reduction of short-circuit risk5. Circuits are not single-wired linesThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is : a) 1, 2, 4 b) 1, 2, 3 c) 2, 3, 5 d) 1, 3, 5 21.2.1.7 (759) Electrical bonding of an aircraft is used to:1. protect the aircraft against lightning effects.2. reset the electrostatic potential of the aircraft to a value approximating 0 volt3. reduce radio interference on radiocommunication systems4. set the aircraft to a single potentialThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a) 1, 3, 4 b) 1, 2, 3 c) 3, 4 d) 2, 4 21.2.1.7 (760) The purpose of static wick dischargers is to : a) dissipate static charge of the aircraft inflight thus avoiding radio interference as

a result of static electricity. b) dissipate static charge from the aircraft skin after landing. c) provide a path to ground for static charges when refuelling. d) be able to fly higher because of less electrical friction. 21.2.1.7 (761) It may be determined that an aircraft is not properly bonded if : a) static noises can be heard on the radio. b) a circuit breaker pops out. c) there is interference on the VOR receiver. d) there is heavy corrosion on the fuselage skin mountings. 21.2.1.7 (762) The primary purpose of bonding the metallic parts of an aircraft is to : a) provide safe distribution of electrical charges and currents. b) provide a single earth for electrical devices. c) prevent electrolytic corrosion between mating surfaces of similar metals. d) isolate all components electrically and thus make the static potential constant. 21.2.2.1 (763) The most widely used electrical frequency in aircraft is : a) 400 Hz. b) 200 Hz. c) 50 Hz. d) 60 Hz. 21.2.2.1 (764) The advantages of alternating current on board an aircraft are:1. simple connection2. high starting torque3. flexibility in use4. lighter weight of equipment5. easy to convert into direct current6. easy maintenance of machinesThe combination of correct statements is: a) 3, 4, 5, 6 b) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 c) 1, 2, 3, 5, 6 d) 1, 4, 6 21.2.2.1 (765) If the frequency of the supply in a series capacitive circuit is increased, the current flowing in the circuit will : a) increase. b) be zero. c) decrease. d) remain the same. 21.2.2.2 (766) When the AC generators are connected in parallel, the reactive loads are balanced by means of the: a) energizing current. b) frequency. c) voltage. d) torque of the Constant Speed Drive (CSD).

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21.2.2.2 (767) The main purpose of a Constant Speed Drive unit is to: a) maintain a constant frequency. b) take part in the balancing of reactive loads. c) mechanically protect the alternator drive shaft during coupling. d) take part in the voltage regulation. 21.2.2.2 (768) The Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) has its own AC generator which: a) supplies the aircraft with three-phase 115-200 V, 400 Hz AC. b) is driven at constant speed throught a Constant Speed Drive (CSD), in the same way as the main AC generator. c) is excited by its Generator Control Unit (GCU) as soon as the APU starts up. d) must have the same characteristics as the main AC generator so that it can be easily coupled with the latter. 21.2.2.2 (769) In flight, if the constant speed drive (CSD) temperature indicator is in the red arc the: a) pilot must disconnect it, and the generator is not available for the rest of flight. b) pilot can disconnect it to allow it to cool and use it again. c) pilot has to throttle back. d) pilot must disconnect it and manually control the alternator. 21.2.2.2 (770) As regards the Generator Contol Unit (GCU) of an AC generator, it can be said that:1. The GCU controls the AC generator voltage2. Modern GCUs are provided with a permanent indication to record the failure3. All the commands originating from the control panel are applied via the GCU, except dog clutch release4. The Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) provides the excitation of the AC generator as soon as the APU starts upThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is : a) 2, 3 b) 3, 4 c) 2, 4 d) 1, 3 21.2.2.2 (771) On starting, in a brushless AC generator with no commutator rings, the generator is activated by: a) a set of permanent magnets. b) the main field winding. c) the stabilizer winding jointly with the voltage regulator. d) the auxiliary winding. 21.2.2.2 (772) A CSD of an AC generator may be disconnected in flight. The primary reason(s) for disconnection are : a) low oil pressure and/or high oil temperature of the generator drive. b) excessive variation of voltage and kVAR. c) illumination of the CSD disconnect warning light. d) slight variation about the normal operating frequency.

21.2.2.2 (773) A CSD unit which has been disconnected in flight : a) may be reset on the ground only, after engine shut-down. b) may be reset in flight using the reset mechanism. c) automatically resets in flight providing engine rpm is below a given value. d) automatically resets at engine shut-down. 21.2.2.2 (774) The moving part in an AC generator is usually referred to as the : a) rotor. b) stator. c) oscillator. d) slip ring. 21.2.2.2 (775) The frequency of an AC generator is dependent upon the : a) number of pairs of poles and the speed of the rotor. b) number of individual poles and the field strength. c) field strength and the speed of the rotor. d) number of individual poles only. 21.2.2.2 (776) The function of a constant speed drive (CSD) in an AC generating system is to : a) drive the generator at a constant speed. b) vary generator rpm in order to compensate for various AC loads. c) directly maintain a constant proportion between the rpm of an engine and a generator. d) vary the engine rpm (within limits) to compensate for various AC loads. 21.2.2.2 (777) If two constant frequency AC generators are operating independently, then the phase relationship of each generator: a) is unimportant. b) must be synchronised. c) must be 120° out of phase. d) must be 240° out of phase. 21.2.2.2 (778) The purpose of a voltage regulator is to control the output voltage of the : a) generator at varying loads and speeds. b) batteries at varying loads. c) generators at varying speeds and the batteries at varying loads. d) output of the TRU. 21.2.2.2 (779) A 3 phase AC generator has 3 separate stator windings spaced at : a) 120°. b) 60°. c) 45°. d) 90°.

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21.2.2.2 (780) On the flight deck, an oil operated CSD unit is normally provided with means of monitoring the: a) oil over-temperature and low oil pressure. b) oil temperature and synchronous speed. c) output speed and oil pressure. d) low oil temperature and low oil quantity. 21.2.2.2 (781) An AC generator driven by a CSD unit : a) requires a voltage controller to maintain constant voltage under load. b) does not need a voltage controller since the CSD will ensure constant voltage. c) does not need a voltage controller since an AC generator voltage cannot alter under load. d) requires a voltage controller to maintain constant frequency. 21.2.2.2 (782) Assuming a CSD fault is indicated, the CSD should be disconnected : a) during engine operation only. b) at flight idle engine rpm. c) in accordance with the regulated voltage level of the AC generator. d) on the ground only. 21.2.2.2 (783) The measured output power components of a constant frequency AC system are : a) kVA and kVAR. b) volts and amperes. c) volts and kilowatts. d) amperes and kilowatts. 21.2.2.2 (784) ""Frequency wild"" in relation to a AC generation system means the generator : a) output frequency varies with engine speed. b) output frequency is too high. c) voltage regulator is out of adjustment. d) output frequency is too low. 21.2.2.2 (785) The function of a CSD in an AC generating system is to: a) drive the generator at a constant speed. b) vary the engine rpm (within limits) to compensate for various AC loads. c) vary generator rpm in order to compensate for various AC loads. d) directly maintain a constant proportion between the rpm of engine and generator. 21.2.2.2 (786) The frequency of an AC generator is dependent on the : a) number of pairs of poles and the speed of the moving part. b) number of individual poles and the field strength. c) field strength and the speed of the moving part. d) number of individual poles only.

21.2.2.2 (787) A Constant Speed Drive aims at ensuring a) that the electric generator produces a constant frequency. b) that the starter-motor maintains a constant RPM not withstanding the acceleration of the engine. c) that the CSD remains at a constant RPM not withstanding the generator RPM d) equal AC voltage from all generators. 21.2.2.3 (788) A thermal circuit breaker: a) protects the system in the event of overheating, even without exceeding the maximum permissible current. b) is a protection system with a quick break capacity of about one hundredth of a second. c) forbids any overcurrent. d) can be reset without any danger even if the fault remains. 21.2.2.3 (789) In an aircraft electrical system where AC generators are not paralleled mounted, the changover relay allows : a) power supply to the faulty AC generators busbar. b) connection of the AC generator to its distribution busbar. c) connection of the ground power truck to its distribution busbar. d) connection of the Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) to its main busbar. 21.2.2.3 (790) Pulling the fire shutoff handle causes a number of devices to disconnect. In respect of the AC generator it can be said that the: a) exciter control relay and the generator breaker open. b) exciter control relay opens. c) generator breaker opens. d) exciter control relay, the generator breaker and the tie breaker open. 21.2.2.3 (791) As regards three-phase AC generators, the following conditions must be met for paralleling AC generators:1. Equal voltage2. Equal current3. Equal frequencies4. Same phase rotation5. Voltages of same phaseThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is : a) 1, 3, 4, 5 b) 1, 2, 3, 4 c) 1, 3, 5 d) 1, 4, 5 21.2.2.3 (792) A magnetic circuit-breaker is: a) a protection system that has a quick tripping response. b) permits an overcurrent limited in time. c) can be reset without any danger even when fault remains. d) is a system with a slow response time. 21.2.2.3 (793) On detection of a persistent overvoltage fault on an AC generator connected to the

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aircraft AC busbars, the on-board protection device opens: a) the exciter breaker and the generator breaker. b) the exciter breaker, the generator breaker and tie breaker. c) The generator breaker and tie breaker. d) The generator breaker. 21.2.2.3 (794) When a persistent top excitation limit fault on an AC generator connected to the mains with another AC generator, the overexcitation protection device opens: a) the exciter breaker, the generator breaker and the tie breaker. b) the tie breaker. c) the exciter breaker and the generator breaker. d) the generator breaker. 21.2.2.3 (795) When a persistent overexcitation fault is detected on only one AC generator, the protection device opens the : a) exciter breaker and generator breaker. b) exciter breaker, generator breaker and tie breaker. c) tie breaker. d) generator breaker and tie breaker. 21.2.2.3 (796) When an underspeed fault is detected on an AC generator connected to the aircraft AC busbar, the protection device opens the: a) generator breaker. b) exciter breaker. c) exciter breaker and generator breaker. d) exciter breaker, generator breaker and tie breaker. 21.2.2.3 (797) The services connected to a supply bus-bar are normally in: a) parallel, so that isolating individual loads decreases the bus-bar current consumption. b) series, so that isolating one load increases the bus-bar current consumption. c) parallel, so that isolation of loads decreases the bus-bar voltage. d) series, so that isolation of loads increases the bus-bar voltage. 21.2.2.3 (798) To ensure correct load sharing between AC generators operating in parallel : a) both real an reactive loads must be matched. b) the matching of loads is unimportant. c) only reactive loads need to be matched. d) only real loads need to be matched. 21.2.2.3 (799) When operating two AC generators unparalleled, the phase relationship of each generator: a) is unimportant. b) must be synchronous.

c) must be in opposition. d) must be 90° out of synchronisation. 21.2.2.3 (800) When AC generators are operated in paralllel, they must be of the same: a) voltage and frequency. b) amperage and kVAR. c) voltage and amperage. d) frequency and amperage. 21.2.2.3 (801) Real load sharing in a parallel AC system is achieved by : a) automatic adjustment of the torque on each generator rotor via the CSD unit. b) controlling the generator field current. c) carefully selecting the number of loads on the bus-bars at any one time. d) monitoring the kVAR of each generator/alternator. 21.2.2.3 (802) Real load sharing in a parallel AC system is achieved by : a) adjusting the torque on each generator rotor via the CSD unit. b) carefully secting the number of loads on the bus-bars at any one time. c) controlling the generator field current. d) monitoring the kVAR of each generator/alternator. 21.2.2.3 (803) Load shedding means .. a) Temporarily or permanent switching off of certain electric users to avoid overload of electric generators b) To leave behind extra cargo if the centre of gravity moves outside limits c) Reduction of airloads on the flaps by means of the flap load relief value d) A procedure used in control systems to reduce the stick forces 21.2.2.5 (804) The speed of an asynchronous four-pole motor fed at a frequency of 400 Hertz is: a) 12000 revolutions per minute. b) 6000 revolutions per minute. c) 800 revolutions per minute. d) 1600 revolutions per minute. 21.2.2.6 (805) In an aeroplane utilising a constant frequency AC power supply, DC power is obtained from a : a) Transformer Rectifier Unit. b) static inverter. c) 3 phase current transformer unit. d) rotary converter. 21.2.2.6 (806) On an aeroplane utilising AC as primary power supplies, the batteries are charged in flight from :

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a) a Transformer Rectifier Unit. b) a static inverter. c) a DC transformer and rectifier. d) the AC bus via current limiters. 21.2.4.0 (807) In computer technology, an output peripheral is a: a) screen unit b) keyboard c) hard disk drive d) diskette drive 21.2.4.0 (808) In computer technology, an input peripheral is a: a) keyboard b) screen unit c) hard disk drive d) diskette drive 21.2.4.0 (809) In computer technology, a storage peripheral is a: a) hard disk drive b) printer c) key board d) screen unit 21.2.4.0 (810) In computer technology, an EPROM is:1. a read-only memory2. a write memory3. erases its content when power supply is cut off4. keeps its content when power supply is cut offThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a) 1,4 b) 1,3 c) 2,3 d) 2,4 21.2.4.2 (811) (For this question use annex 021- 6660A)The logic symbol shown represents (assuming positive logic) : a) an INVERT or NOT gate. b) a NAND gate. c) a NOR gate. d) an EXCLUSIVE gate. 21.2.4.2 (812) Because of the input/output relationship of an AND gate, it is often referred to as the : a) ""all or nothing"" gate. b) ""any or all"" gate. c) ""state indicator"" gate. d) ""inhibited"" or ""negated"" gate.

21.2.4.2 (813) The function of a NOT logic gate within a circuit is to : a) invert the input signal such that the output is always of the opposite state. b) ensure the input signal is AC only. c) ensure the input signal is DC only. d) ensure the output signal is of the same state as the input signal. 21.2.4.3 (814) Because of the input/output relationship of an OR gate, it is often referred to as the : a) ""any or all"" gate. b) ""inhibited"" or ""negated"" gate. c) ""state indicator"" gate. d) ""all or nothing"" gate. 21.2.5.1 (815) The wavelength of a radio transmitted on frequency 121.95 MHz is: a) 2.46 m b) 24.60 cm c) 2.46 cm d) 24.60 m 21.2.5.1 (816) For weather radar, the frequency 9375 MHz in X Band is preferable to C Band because: a) It better detects clouds contour and range is greater with the same transmission power. b) Its penetration power is higher. c) It is not absorbed by heavy precipitations. d) It allows greater scanning rates. 21.2.5.1 (817) The wavelength of a non-directional beacon (NDB) at a frequency of 300 kHz is: a) 1000 metres. b) 100 metres. c) 10 metres. d) 1 metre. 21.2.5.1 (818) The minimum airborne equipment required for operation of a the VHF direction finder is a: a) VHF transmitter-receiver operating in the 118 MHz to 136 MHz range. b) VHF compass operating in the 200 kHz to 1750 kHz range. c) VHF receiver operating in the 118 MHz to 136 MHz range. d) cathode-ray tube. 21.2.5.1 (819) The secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) uses the following wavelengths: a) decimetric. b) centimetric.

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c) hectometric. d) myriametric. 21.2.5.1 (820) The airborne weather radar uses the following wavelengths: a) centimetric. b) metric. c) hectometric. d) myriametric. 21.2.5.1 (821) The VHF Omnirange (VOR) uses the following wavelengths: a) metric. b) hectometric. c) decimetric. d) centimetric. 21.2.5.1 (822) The Instrument Landing System (ILS) uses the following wavelengths: a) metric. b) hectometric. c) decimetric. d) centimetric. 21.2.5.1 (823) The Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) uses the following wavelengths: a) decimetric. b) hectometric. c) metric. d) centimetric. 21.2.5.1 (824) The Fan Markers uses the following wavelengths: a) metric. b) centimetric. c) hectometric. d) myriametric. 21.2.5.1 (825) The VHF direction finder uses the following wavelengths: a) metric. b) hectometric. c) decimetric. d) centimetric. 21.2.5.1 (826) The Microwave Landing System (MLS) uses the following wavelengths: a) centimetric. b) metric.

c) hectometric. d) myriametric. 21.2.5.1 (827) The high Altitude Radio Altimeter uses the following wavelengths: a) decimetric. b) metric. c) hectometric. d) myriametric. 21.2.5.1 (828) The Low Altitude Radio Altimeter uses the following wavelengths: a) centimetric. b) myriametric. c) decimetric. d) metric. 21.2.5.1 (829) The Automatic Direction Finder uses the following wavelengths: a) hectometric or kilometric. b) metric. c) decimetric. d) centimetric. 21.2.5.1 (830) In the response curve of an amplifier, the bandwidth is: a) The frequency band corresponding to maximum gain less 3 decibels. b) The frequency band corresponding to maximum gain. c) The frequency band corresponding to maximum gain less 20 decibels. d) The frequency band corresponding to maximum gain, increased by 10 kHz at each end. 21.2.5.3 (831) In aviation, the reflection on ionosphere layers phenomenon is used in the following frequencies: a) HF b) VHF c) UHF d) VLF 21.2.5.3 (832) Skip distance is the: a) range from the transmitter to the first sky wave b) highest critical frequency distance c) wavelength distance of a certain frequency d) thickness of the ionosphere 21.2.5.3 (833) A radio signal looses strength as range from the transmitter increases, this is called : a) attenuation

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b) refraction c) propagation d) ducting 21.2.5.3 (834) The skip zone of HF-transmission will increase when the following change in circumstance occurs : a) Higher frequency and higher position of the reflecting ionospheric layer b) Lower frequency ang higher position of the reflecting ionospheric layer c) Higher frequency and lower position of the reflecting ionospheric layer d) Lower frequency and lower position of the reflecting ionospheric layer 21.2.5.3 (835) In the propagation of MF waves, the phenomenon of FADING is particularly found : a) at night, due to the combination of the sky and ground waves. b) by day, due to the combination of sky and ground waves. c) at night and when raining. d) by day and when raining. 21.3.1.1 (836) The positions of the intake and exhaust valve at the end of the power stroke are : a) intake valve closed and exhaust valve open. b) both valves open. c) both valves closed. d) exhaust valve closed and intake valve open. 21.3.1.1 (837) The useful work area in an ideal Otto engine indicator diagram is enclosed by the following gas state change lines a) 2 adiabatic and 2 isochoric lines. b) 2 adiabatic and 1 isothermic lines. c) 2 adiabatic and 2 isobaric lines. d) 2 adiabatic, 1 isochoric and 1 isobaric lines. 21.3.1.1 (838) The correct formula to calculate the multi-cylinder engine displacement is : a) piston area * piston stroke * number of cylinders b) piston area * piston stroke c) cylinder volume * number of cylinders d) cylinder length * cylinder diameter 21.3.1.1 (839) In most cases aeroplane piston engines are short stroke engines. This permits a : a) lighter construction. b) lower fuel consumption. c) better piston cooling. d) cheaper construction 21.3.1.1 (840) The working cycle of a four-stroke engine is :

a) induction, compression, power, exhaust. b) induction, power, compression, exhaust. c) compression induction, power, exhaust. d) induction, compression, expansion, power. 21.3.1.1 (841) The crank assembly consists of a) crankshaft, connecting rods and pistons. b) propeller, crankshaft, pistons and connecting rods. c) Crankcase, crankshaft, connecting rods and pistons. d) crankshaft, camshaft, valves, valve springs and push rods. 21.3.1.1 (842) The ignition occurs in each cylinder of an four-stroke engine (TDC = Top Dead Center) a) before TDC at each second crankshaft revolution. b) before TDC at each crankshaft revolution. c) behind TDC at each crankshaft revolution. d) behind TDC at each second crankshaft revolution. 21.3.1.1 (843) The power output of a piston engine can be calculated by : a) Torque times RPM. b) Work times velocity. c) Force times distance. d) Pressure times arm. 21.3.1.1 (844) The power of a piston engine which will be measured by using a friction brake is : a) Brake horse power. b) Friction horse power. c) Heat loss power. d) Indicated horse power. 21.3.1.1 (845) The torque of an aeroplane engine can be measured at the: a) gear box which is located between the engine and the propeller. b) propeller blades. c) accessory gear box. d) camshaft. 21.3.1.1 (846) On four-stroke piston engines, the theoretical valve and ignition settings are readjusted in order to increase the: a) overall efficiency b) compression ratio c) piston displacement d) engine r.p.m.

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21.3.1.1 (847) In a four-stroke piston engine, the only ""driving"" stroke is : a) firing-expansion b) intake c) compression d) exhaust 21.3.1.1 (848) A piston engine compression ratio is the ratio of the : a) total volume to the clearance volume. b) clearance volume to the swept volume. c) total volume to the swept volume. d) swept volume to the clearance volume. 21.3.1.1 (849) The compression ratio of a piston engine is the ratio of the: a) volume of the cylinder with the piston at bottom dead centre to that with the piston at top dead centre. b) diameter of the bore to the piston stroke. c) area of the piston to the cylinder volume. d) weight of the air induced to its weight after compression. 21.3.1.1 (850) The part of a piston engine that transforms reciprocating movement into rotary motion is termed the : a) crankshaft b) piston c) camshaft d) reduction gear 21.3.1.2 (851) The reading on the oil pressure gauge is the: a) pressure of the oil on the outlet side of the pressure pump. b) difference between the pressure pump pressure and the scavenge pump pressure. c) pressure in the oil tank reservoir. d) pressure of the oil on the inlet side of the pressure pump. 21.3.1.2 (852) For a given type of oil, the oil viscosity depends on the: a) oil temperature. b) outside pressure. c) oil pressure. d) quantity of oil. 21.3.1.2 (853) For internal cooling,reciprocating engines are especially dependent on: a) the circulation of lubricating oil b) a rich fuel/air mixture c) a properly functioning thermostat d) a lean fuel/air mixture

21.3.1.2 (854) In addition to the fire hazard introduced, excessive priming should be avoided because : a) it washes the lubricant of cylinder walls b) it fouls the spark plugs c) it drains the carburettor float chamber d) the gasoline dilutes the oil and necessitates changing oil 21.3.1.2 (855) The oil system for a piston engine incorporates an oil cooler that is fitted : a) in the return line to the oil tank after the oil has passed through the scavenge pump b) between the oil tank and the pressure pump c) after the pressure pump but before the oil passes through the engine d) after the oil has passed through the engine and before it enters the sump 21.3.1.2 (856) Low oil pressure is sometimes the result of a a) worn oil pump b) too large oil pump c) restricted oil passage d) too small scavenger pump. 21.3.1.4 (857) The purpose of a distributor in an ignition system is to distribute: a) secondary current to the sparking plugs. b) primary current to the condenser. c) secondary current to the condenser. d) primary current to the sparking plugs. 21.3.1.4 (858) The very rapid magnetic field changes (flux) around the primary coil in a magneto are accomplished by the: a) contact breaker points opening. b) distributor arm aligning with one of the high tension segments. c) contact breaker points closing. d) rotor turning past the position of maximum flux in the armature. 21.3.1.4 (859) If the ground wire between the magnetos and the ignition switch becomes disconnected the most noticeable result will be that: a) the engine cannot be shut down by turning the ignition switch to the ""OFF"" position b) a still operating engine will run down c) the engine cannot be started with the ignition switch in the ""ON"" position d) the power developed by the engine will be strongly reduced 21.3.1.4 (860) The purpose of an ignition switch is to : a) control the primary circuit of the magneto b) connect the secondary coil to the distributor

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c) connect the battery to the magneto d) connect the contact breaker and condenser in series with the primary coil 21.3.1.4 (861) Under normal running conditions a magneto draws primary current : a) from a self-contained electro-magnetic induction system. b) from the booster coil. c) directly from the aircraft batteries. d) from the aircraft batteries via an inverter. 21.3.1.4 (862) Ignition systems of piston engines are : a) independant from the electrical system of the aircraft. b) dependant on the battery. c) dependant on the DC-Generator. d) dependant on the AC-Generator. 21.3.1.4 (863) Prolonged running at low rpm may have an adverse effect on the efficiency of the: a) sparking plugs. b) carburettor. c) oil pump. d) fuel filter. 21.3.1.4 (864) An aircraft magneto is switched off by a) grounding the primary circuit b) opening the primary circuit c) opening the secondary circuit d) grounding the secondary circuit. 21.3.1.4 (865) An impulse magneto coupling a) gives a retarded spark at starting b) reduces magneto speed during engine warm-up c) advances ignition timing and gives a hotter spark at starting d) gives an automatic spark increase during high speed operation. 21.3.1.4 (866) If an engine fails to stop with the magneto switch in OFF position, the cause may be : a) excessive carbon formation in cylinder head. b) switch wire grounded c) defective condenser d) fouled spark plugs 21.3.1.4 (867) If the ground wire between the magneto and the ignition switch becomes disconnected, the most noticeable result will be that the engine a) cannot be shut down by turning the switch to the OFF position.

b) will not operate at the left magneto c) will not operate at the right magneto d) cannot be started with the switch in the ON position 21.3.1.4 (868) An impulse coupling used on a magneto for a piston engine is for a) providing a retarded spark for engine starting. b) advancing ignition timing c) quick removal and installation d) absorbing starting loads 21.3.1.4 (869) In a piston engine, magnetos are used to produce the spark which ignites the fuel/ air mixture. The operating principle of magnetos consists in : a) breaking the primary current in order to induce a low amp high volt current which is distributed to the spark plugs. b) obtaining a high amp low volt current in order to generate the spark. c) accumulating in a condenser a low volt current from the battery, reconstitute it as high voltage current at the moment the spark is generated. d) creating a brief high intensity magnetic field which will be sent through the distributor at the appropriate time. 21.3.1.4 (870) When the magneto selector switch is set to ""OFF"" position, the piston engine continues to run normally.The most probable cause of this failure is that: a) On a magneto, a grounding wire is broken. b) There is a carbon deposit on the spark plugs electrodes. c) A wire from the magneto is in contact with a metallic part of the engine. d) There are local hot points in the engine (probably due to overheating of the cylinder heads). 21.3.1.5 (871) On modern carburettors, the variations of mixture ratios are obtained by the adjustment of : a) fuel flow. b) air flow. c) fuel flow and air flow. d) fuel flow, air flow and temperature. 21.3.1.5 (872) A fuel strainer when fitted to a carburettor will be positioned : a) upstream of the needle valve. b) between the needle valve and the metering jet. c) between the metering jet and the discharge nozzle. d) downstream of th discharge nozzle. 21.3.1.5 (873) The purpose of the venturi in a carburettor is to: a) create the depression necessary to cause fuel to flow through the carburettor jets. b) prevent enrichment of the mixture due to high air velocity through the carburettor.

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c) ensure complete atomisation of the fuel before entering the induction system. d) create a rise in pressure at the throat before the mixture enters the induction system. 21.3.1.5 (874) In which sections of the carburettor would icing most likely occur? a) venturi and the throttle valve b) float chamber and fuel inlet filter c) accelerator pump and main metering jet d) main air bleed and main discharge nozzle 21.3.1.5 (875) The operating principle of float-type carburettors is based on the: a) difference in air pressure at the venturi throat and the air inlet b) automatic metering of air at the venturi as the aircraft gains altitude c) increase in air velocity in the throat of a venturi causing an increase in air pressure d) measurement of the fuel flow into the induction system 21.3.1.5 (876) In an engine equipped with a float-type carburettor, the low temperature that causes carburettor ice is normally the result of: a) vaporization of fuel and expansion of the air in the carburettor b) freezing temperature of the air entering the carburettor c) compression of air at the carburettor venturi d) low volatility of aviation fuel 21.3.1.5 (877) Which statement is true concerning the effect of the application of carburettor heat? a) it reduces the density of air entering the carburettor, thus enriching the fuel/air mixture b) it reduces the volume of air entering the carburettor,thus leaning the fuel/air mixture c) it reduces the density of air entering the carburettor, thus leaning the fuel/air mixture d) it reduces the volume of air entering the carburettor,thus enriching the fuel/air mixture 21.3.1.5 (878) Vapour lock is : a) vaporizing of fuel prior to reaching the carburettor b) the formation of water vapour in a fuel system c) vaporizing of fuel in the carburettor d) the inability of a fuel to vaporize in the carburettor 21.3.1.5 (879) With respect to a piston engined aircraft, ice in the carburettor : a) may form at OAT's higher than +10°C. b) will only form at OAT's below +10°C. c) will only form at outside air temperatures (OAT's) below the freezing point of water. d) will only form at OAT's below the freezing point of fuel. 21.3.1.5 (880) To ensure that the fuel flow is kept directly proportional to the volume of air

flowing through the choke, thus preventing the main jet supplying excessive fuel as engine speed is increased, a carburettor is fitted with : a) a diffuser b) a power jet c) an accelerator pump d) a mixture control 21.3.1.5 (881) Spark timing is related to engine speed in the way that the: a) faster the engine functions, the more the spark is advanced b) slower the engine functions, the more the spark is advanced c) faster the engine functions, the further past TDC the spark occurs d) faster the engine functions, the more retarded the spark is. 21.3.1.5 (882) ""Vapor lock"" is the phenomenon by which: a) heat produces vapour plugs in the fuel line. b) water vapour plugs are formed in the intake fuel line following the condensation of water in fuel tanks which have not been drained for sometime. c) abrupt and abnormal enrichment of the fuel/air mixture following an inappropriate use of carburettor heat. d) burnt gas plugs forming and remaining in the exhaust manifold following an overheat and thereby disturbing the exhaust. 21.3.1.6 (883) The power of a piston engine decreases during climb with a constant power lever setting, because of the decreasing : a) air density. b) engine temperature. c) humidity. d) temperature. 21.3.1.6 (884) The conditions under which you obtain the highest engine power are : a) cold and dry air at high pressure. b) warm and humid air at low pressure. c) cold and humid air at high pressure. d) warm and dry air at high pressure. 21.3.1.6 (885) The power output of a normally aspirated piston engine increases with increasing altitude at constant Manifold Air Pressure (MAP) and RPM because of the : a) lower back pressure. b) lower losses during the gas change. c) lower friction losses. d) leaner mixture at higher altitudes. 21.3.1.6 (886) During climb with constant Manifold Air Pressure (MAP) and RPM indication and constant mixture setting, the power output of a piston engine : a) increases.

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b) decreases. c) only stays constant if the speed control lever is pushed forward. d) stays constant. 21.3.1.6 (887) The global output of a piston engine is of:(global output = Thermal energy corresponding to the available shaft/power over the total thermal energy produced). a) 0.30 b) 0.50 c) 0.75 d) 0.90 21.3.1.7 (888) A turbocharger system is normally driven by: a) the exhaust system. b) an electric motor. c) an hydraulic motor. d) an electrically activated hydraulically powered clutch. 21.3.1.7 (889) A turbocharger consists of a : a) compressor and turbine mounted on a common shaft. b) compressor and turbine on individual shafts. c) compressor driving a turbine via a reduction gear. d) turbine driving a compressor via a reduction gear. 21.3.1.7 (890) The air in a piston engine turbo-supercharger centrifugal compressor : a) enters the eye of the impeller and leaves at a tangent to the periphery. b) enters via the diffuser and is fed to the impeller at the optimum angle of attack. c) enters at the periphery and leaves via the eye of the impeller. d) enters at a tangent to the rotor and leaves via the stator. 21.3.1.7 (891) In a piston engine, turbocharger boost pressure may be monitored by : a) a manifold pressure gauge only. b) a cylinder head temperature gauge (CHT), a manifold pressure gauge, and engine rpm readings. c) both a CHT gauge and manifold pressure gauge. d) both engine rpm readings and a manifold pressure gauge. 21.3.1.7 (892) The primary purpose of a supercharger is to : a) maintain power at altitude b) increase quantity of fuel at metering jet c) provide leaner mixtures at altitudes below 5000 ft d) provide a richer mixture at high altitudes

21.3.1.7 (893) The kind of compressor normally used as a supercharger is : a) a radial compressor. b) an axial compressor. c) a hybrid compressor. d) a piston compressor. 21.3.1.7 (894) What can be the consequence during a descent with a fully open throttle if the waste gate is seized ? a) The manifold air pressure (MAP) value may exceed the maximum allowed value. b) The power of the motor will decrease. c) The turbine shaft will break. d) The turbine blades will separate. 21.3.1.7 (895) One of the advantages of a turbosupercharger is that : a) it uses the exhaust gas energy which normally is lost. b) it has a better propulsive efficiency. c) there is no torsion at the crankshaft. d) there is no danger of knocking. 21.3.1.8 (896) The octane rating of a fuel characterises the : a) the anti-knock capability b) fuel volatility c) quantity of heat generated by its combustion d) fuel electrical conductivity 21.3.1.8 (897) Fuel stored in aircraft tanks will accumulate moisture. The most practical way to minimize this when an aircraft is used every day or so is to : a) keep tanks topped off when the aircraft is not in use b) drain tanks at end of each day's flight c) use only high octane gasoline d) keep tank vents plugged and filler cap tight 21.3.1.8 (898) The octane rating of a fuel and compression ratio of a piston engine have which of the following relations? a) the higher the octane rating is, the higher the possible compression ratio is b) the lower the octane rating is, the higher the possible compression ratio is c) the higher the octane rating is, the lower the possible compression ratio is. d) compression ratio is independent of the octane rating. 21.3.1.8 (899) A piston engine may use a fuel of a different grade than the recommended: a) provided that the grade is higher b) provided that the grade is lower c) never d) provided that it is an aeronautical petrol

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21.3.1.9 (900) A rich mixture setting has to be used during climb segments. This results in a a) lower cylinder head temperature. b) higher efficiency. c) slight loss of power. d) higher torque. 21.3.1.9 (901) Max. Exhaust Gas Temperature is theoretically associated with : a) Mass ratio of 1/15. b) Cruising mixture setting. c) Full rich setting. d) Mixture ratio very close to idle cut-out. 21.3.1.9 (902) For piston engines, mixture ratio is the ratio between the : a) mass of fuel and mass of air entering the cylinder. b) volume of fuel and volume of air entering the cylinder. c) volume of fuel and volume of air entering the carburettor. d) mass of fuel and volume of air entering the carburettor. 21.3.1.9 (903) Specific fuel consumption is defined as the : a) mass of fuel required to produce unit power for unit time. b) designed fuel consumption for a given rpm. c) quantity of fuel required to run the engine for one minute at maximum operating conditions. d) maximum fuel consumption of the aircraft. 21.3.1.9 (904) In a piston engine, the purpose of an altitude mixture control is to : a) correct for variations in the fuel/air ratio due to decreased air density at altitude. b) prevent a weak cut when the throttle is opened rapidly at altitude. c) weaken the mixture strength because of reduced exhaust back pressure at altitude. d) enrich the mixture strength due to decreased air density at altitude. 21.3.1.9 (905) The mixture control for a carburettor achieves its control by: a) varying the fuel supply to the main discharge tube. b) moving the butterfly valve through a separate linkage to the main throttle control. c) altering the depression on the main discharge tube. d) varying the air supply to the main discharge tube. 21.3.1.9 (906) An excessively rich mixture can be detected by : a) black smoke from exhaust. b) high cylinder head temperatures c) white smoke from exhaust. d) a long purple flame from exhaust.

21.3.1.9 (907) When leaning the mixture for the most economic cruise fuel flow, excessive leaning will cause : a) high cylinder head and exhaust gas temperature b) high engine rpm c) low cylinder head and exhaust gas temperature d) high manifold pressure 21.3.1.9 (908) The main purpose of the mixture control is to: a) adjust the fuel flow to obtain the proper fuel/air ratio b) decrease the air supplied to the engine c) increase the oxygen supplied to the engine d) decrease oxygen supplied to the engine 21.3.1.9 (909) Fuel/air ratio is the ratio between the: a) mass of fuel and mass of air entering the cylinder. b) volume of fuel and volume of air entering the carburettor. c) volume of fuel and volume of air entering the cylinder. d) mass of fuel and mass of air entering the carburettor 21.3.1.9 (910) Overheating of a piston engine is likely to result from an excessively : a) weak mixture. b) rich mixture. c) low barometric pressure. d) high barometric pressure. 21.3.1.9 (911) In a piston engine if the ratio of air to fuel, by weight, is approximately 9:1, the mixture is said to be : a) rich b) weak c) too weak to support combustion d) normal 21.3.1.9 (912) For a piston engine, the ideal fuel/air mixture corresponding to a richness of 1 is obtained for a weight ratio of: a) 1/15 th b) 1/9 th c) 1/10th d) 1/12th 21.3.1.9 (913) (For this question use appendix )On the attached diagram showing the power output of a piston engine as a function of mixture richness, best economy is at the point marked: a) 1 b) 2

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c) 3 d) 4 21.3.1.9 (914) The richness of a fuel/air mixture ratio is the : a) real mixture ratio relative to the theoretical ratio. b) mass of fuel relative to the volume of air. c) volume of fuel relative to the volume of air. d) volume of fuel relative to the mass of the volume of air. 21.3.1.10 (915) The feathering pump of a hydraulic variable-pitch propeller: a) is an electrically driven oil pump, which supplies the propeller with pressure oil, when the engine is inoperative. b) is intended to control the pitch setting of the propeller during flight in order to obtain a constant speed. c) controls the propeller, if the speed governor fails. d) is driven by the engine and supplies pressure oil to the propeller in case of engine problems. 21.3.1.10 (916) Consider the variable-pitch propeller of a turbo-prop.During deceleration : a) when braking, the propeller supplies negative thrust and absorbs engine power. b) at zero power, the propeller thrust is zero and the engine power absorbed is nil. c) when feathered, the propeller produces thrust and absorbs no engine power. d) with propeller windmilling, the thrust is zero and the propeller supplies engine power. 21.3.1.10 (917) The pitch angle of a constant-speed propeller a) increases with increasing true air speed. b) only varies with engine RPM. c) decreases with increasing true air speed. d) is independent of the true air speed. 21.3.1.10 (918) A propeller blade is twisted, so as to a) keep the local Angle of Attack constant along the blade. b) avoid the appearance of sonic phenomena. c) decrease the blade tangential velocity from the blade root to the tip. d) allow a higher mechanical stress. 21.3.1.10 (919) A pilot normally uses the propeller autofeather system during : a) Take-off and landing. b) Cruise. c) Take-off. d) Landing. 21.3.1.10 (920) When increasing true airspeed with a constant engine RPM, the angle of attack of

a fixed pitch propeller : a) reduces. b) increases. c) stays constant. d) stays constant because it only varies with engine RPM. 21.3.1.10 (921) When TAS increases, the pitch angle of a constant speed propeller (RPM and MAP levers are not moved) : a) increases. b) reduces. c) first reduces and after a short time increases to its previous value. d) stays constant. 21.3.1.10 (922) The main advantage of a constant speed propeller as compared to a fixed pitch propeller is a : a) higher efficiency in all operating ranges. b) constant efficiency in all operating ranges. c) lower propeller blade stress. d) higher efficiency in cruising range. 21.3.1.10 (923) To unfeather a propeller during flight you have to : a) use the electric unfeathering pump. b) manually release the blade latch. c) gain speed for aerodynamic unfeathering. d) gain speed so as to use the engine unfeathering pump. 21.3.1.10 (924) In case of engine failure during flight the blades of the constant speed propeller in a single engine aeroplane, not fitted with feathering system a) move in the lowest pitch position by the centrifugal force. b) move in low pitch position by oil pressure created by the windmilling propeller. c) move in a certain pitch position depending on windmilling RPM. d) move in the highest pitch position by the aerodynamical force. 21.3.1.10 (925) For take-off, the correct combination of propeller pitch (1), and propeller lever position (2) at brake release is : a) (1) low (2) forward. b) (1) low (2) aft. c) (1) high (2) aft. d) (1) high (2) forward. 21.3.1.10 (926) On a normally aspirated aero-engine fitted with a fixed pitch propeller : a) manifold pressure decreases as the aircraft climbs at a fixed throttle setting. b) the propeller setting is constant at all indicated airspeeds. c) in level flight, manifold pressure will remain constant when the rpm is increased by opening

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the throttle. d) in a descent at a fixed throttle setting manifold pressure will always remain constant. 21.3.1.10 (927) An asymmetric loading (p-factor) on the propeller exists .. a) If the aeroplane has a large angle of attack. b) If there is an unbalanced propeller. c) Only for counterrotating propeller d) Only if the 'constant speed propeller' mechanism is broken. 21.3.1.10 (928) In twin-engine aeroplanes with right turning propellers a) the left engine is the critical motor. b) the left engine produces a higher yaw moment if the right engine fails than vice versa. c) the 'minimum control speed' is determined by the failure of the right engine. d) the right engine is the critical motor. 21.3.1.10 (929) In general, in twin-engine aeroplanes with 'constant speed propeller' a) the oil pressure turns the propeller blades towards smaller pitch angle. b) the aerodynamic force turns the propeller blades towards higher pitch angle. c) the spring force turns the propeller blades towards smaller pitch angle. d) the oil pressure turns the propeller blades towards higher pitch angle. 21.3.1.10 (930) In modern aircraft, a pilot can actuate the feather system by : a) pulling the RPM lever backwards. b) pushing the RPM lever forward. c) pushing the power lever forward. d) pulling the power levers backwards. 21.3.1.10 (931) Fixed-pitch propellers are usually designed for maximum efficiency at : a) cruising speed b) idling c) full throttle d) take-off 21.3.1.10 (932) Which of the following qualitative statements about a fixed propeller optimized for cruise condition, is true for the take-off case? The angle of attack of the propeller : a) blade is relatively high. b) blade is relatively small. c) airfoil section is negative. d) blades reduces to zero. 21.3.1.10 (933) The 'constant speed propeller' has a) only above and below the design point a better efficiency than the fixed propeller with the same design speed.

b) in general a worse efficiency than the fixed propeller. c) only at the design speed a better efficiency than the fixed propeller. d) its best efficiency during climb. 21.3.1.10 (934) What will happen to the geometrical pitch angle of a ""constant speed propeller"" if the manifold pressure is increased ? a) It will increase b) It will increase and after a short time it will be the same again c) It will decrease so that the engine can increase d) It will remain the same 21.3.1.10 (935) The 'slipstream effect' of a propeller is most prominent at: a) low airspeeds with high power setting. b) high airspeeds with low power setting. c) high airspeeds with high power setting. d) low airspeeds with low power setting. 21.3.1.10 (936) The pitch angle of a propeller is the angle between the : a) reference chord line and the propeller plane of rotation. b) propeller reference chord line and the relative airflow. c) propeller reference chord line and the extremity of the propeller. d) propeller plane of rotation and the relative airflow. 21.3.1.10 (937) When in flight, a piston engine is stopped and the propeller blade pitch angle is near 90°, the propeller is said to be... a) feathered. b) windmilling. c) transparent. d) at zero drag. 21.3.1.10 (938) During a power change on an engine equipped with a constant speed propeller, a wrong combination of manifold pressure and RPM values results in excessive pressures in the cylinders. This is the case when one simultaneously selects a ... a) high manifold pressure and low RPM. b) low manifold pressure and high RPM. c) high manifold pressure and high RPM. d) low manifold pressure and low RPM. 21.3.1.10 (939) From the cruise, with all the parameters correctly set, if the altitude is reduced, to maintain the same mixture the fuel flow should: a) increase b) decrease c) remain the same d) increase or decrease, depending on the engine type

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21.3.1.11 (940) When applying carburettor heating : a) the mixture becomes richer. b) a decrease in RPM results from the lean mixture. c) the mixture becomes leaner. d) no change occurs in the mixture ratio. 21.3.1.11 (941) When the pilot moves the mixture lever of a piston engine towards a lean position the : a) amount of fuel entering the combustion chamber is reduced. b) volume of air entering the carburettor is reduced. c) amount of fuel entering the combustion chamber is increased. d) volume of air entering the carburettor is increased. 21.3.1.11 (942) When altitude increases without adjustment of the mixture ratio, the piston engine performance is affected because of a : a) decrease of air density for a constant quantity of fuel. b) constant air density for a bigger quantity of fuel. c) increase of air density for smaller quantity of fuel. d) decrease of air density for a smaller quantity of fuel. 21.3.1.11 (943) When changing power on engines equipped with constant-speed propeller, engine overload is avoided by : a) increasing the RPM before increasing the manifold pressure. b) adjusting Fuel Flow before the manifold pressure. c) reducing the RPM before reducing the manifold pressure. d) increasing the manifold pressure before increasing the RPM. 21.3.1.11 (944) To adjust the mixture ratio of a piston engine when altitude increases, means to: a) decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for the decreasing air density. b) decrease the amount of fuel in the mixture in order to compensate for the increasing air density. c) increase the amount of fuel in the mixture to compensate for the decreasing air pressure and density. d) increase the mixture ratio. 21.3.1.11 (945) The maximum horsepower output which can be obtained from an engine when it is operated at specified rpm and manifold pressure conditons established as safe for continuous operation is termed : a) rated power. b) maximum power. c) take-off power. d) critical power. 21.3.1.11 (946) With which instrument(s) do you monitor the power output of an aeroplane fitted

with a fixed pitch propeller? a) RPM indicator. b) RPM and Fuel Flow indicator. c) RPM and MAP indicator. d) RPM and EGT indicator. 21.3.1.11 (947) An EGT (Exhaust Gas Temperature) indicator for a piston engine is used to : a) assist the pilot to settle correct mixture. b) control the cylinder head temperature. c) control the carburator inlet air flow. d) control the fuel temperature. 21.3.1.11 (948) During climb with constant throttle and RPM lever setting (mixture being constant) the : a) Manifold Air Pressure (MAP) decreases. b) RPM decreases. c) Manifold Air Pressure (MAP) increases. d) RPM increases. 21.3.1.11 (949) The conditions which can cause knocking are : a) High manifold pressure and low revolutions per minute. b) High manifold pressure and high revolutions per minute. c) Low manifold pressure and high revolutions per minute. d) Low manifold pressure and high fuel flow. 21.3.1.11 (950) Which of the following factors would be likely to increase the possibility of detonation occurring within a piston engine ? a) using too lean a fuel/air mixture ratio b) the use of a fuel with a high octane rating as compared to the use of one with a low octane rating c) using an engine with a low compression ratio d) slightly retarding the ignition timing 21.3.1.11 (951) On a a normally aspirated engine (non turbo-charged), the manifold pressure gauge always indicates... a) a lower value than atmospheric pressure when the engine is running. b) a greater value than atmospheric pressure when the engine is running. c) zero on the ground when the engine is stopped. d) a value equal to the QFE when the engine is at full power on the ground. 21.3.1.11 (952) Spark plug fouling is more likely to happen if : a) the aircraft climbs without mixture adjustment. b) the aircraft descends without a mixture adjustment. c) power is increased too abruptly. d) the engine runs at the authorized maximum continuous power for too long.

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21.3.1.12 (953) Pre-ignition refers to the condition that may arise when : a) the mixture is ignited by abnormal conditions within the cylinder before the spark occurs at the plug b) the mixture is ignited before the piston has reached top dead centre. c) a rich mixture is ignited by the sparking plugs. d) the sparking plug ignites the mixture too early. 21.3.1.12 (954) With a piston engine, when detonation is recognised, you: a) Reduce manifold pressure and enrich the mixture b) Reduce manifold pressure and lean the mixture c) Increase manifold pressure and enrich the mixture d) Increase manifold pressure and lean the mixture 21.3.2.1 (955) In a turbo-jet, the purpose of the turbine is to ... a) drive the compressor by using part of the energy from the exhaust gases b) clear the burnt gases, the expansion of which provide the thrust c) compress the air in order to provide a better charge of the combustion chamber d) drive devices like pumps, regulator, generator. 21.3.2.2 (956) (Use the appendix to answer this question)The gas turbine illustrated is of the following type: a) free turbine and centrifugal compressor b) free turbine and axial compressor c) single shaft turbine and centrifugal compressor d) single shaft turbine and axial compressor 21.3.3.1 (957) The purpose of the blow-in-doors at the air inlets is to: a) provide the engine with additional air at high power settings and low air speeds. b) provide the engine with additional air at high power settings at cruising speed. c) feed cooling air to the engine cowling. d) serve to increase the relative velocity at the first compressor stage. 21.3.3.2 (958) In a compressor stage of a jet engine, the sequence is: a) rotor - stator b) stator - rotor c) rotor - rotor - stator d) stator - stator - rotor 21.3.3.2 (959) In a single spool gas turbine engine, the compressor rpm is : a) the same as turbine rpm. b) independent of turbine rpm. c) greater than turbine rpm. d) less than turbine rpm.

21.3.3.2 (960) In the axial flow compressor of a turbo-jet engine, the flow duct is tapered. Its shape is calculated so as to: a) maintain a constant axial speed in cruising flight. b) maintain a constant axial speed whatever the engine rating. c) reduce the axial speed in cruising flight. d) reduce the axial speed, whatever the engine rating. 21.3.3.2 (961) The compressor surge effect during acceleration is prevented by the : a) Fuel Control Unit (F.C.U.). b) inlet guide vanes. c) surge bleed valves. d) variable setting type nozzle guide vanes. 21.3.3.2 (962) Concerning the centrifugal compressor, the compressor diffuser is a device in which the: a) pressure rises and velocity falls. b) pressure rises at a constant velocity. c) velocity, pressure and temperature rise. d) velocity rises and pressure falls. 21.3.3.2 (963) The fan in a high by-pass ratio turbo-jet engine produces: a) the greater part of the thrust. b) half the thrust. c) the lesser part of the thrust. d) none of the thrust. 21.3.3.2 (964) In a gas turbine engine, compressor blades, which are not rigidly fixed in position when the engine is stationary, take up a rigid position when the engine is running due to : a) the resultant of aerodynamic and centrifugal forces. b) oil pressure. c) thermal expansion. d) blade creep. 21.3.3.2 (965) The primary purpose of the bleed valves fitted to axial flow compressors is to : a) reduce the likelihood of compressor stall. b) control the acceleration time of the engine. c) spill compressor air should the engine overspeed thus controlling the speed. d) enable an external air supply to spin up the compressor for engine starting. 21.3.3.2 (966) The disadvantages of axial flow compressors compared to centrifugal flow compressors are :1 - expensive to manufacture2 - limited airflow3 - greater vulnerability to foreign object damage4 - limited compression ratioThe combination of correct answers is :

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a) 03-Jan b) 02-Jan c) 03-Fev d) 04-Fev 21.3.3.2 (967) A stage in an axial compressor: a) is made of a rotor disc followed by a row of stator blades b) has a compression ratio in the order of 2.1 c) is made of row of stator blades followed by a rotor disc d) has a compression ration in the order of 0.8 21.3.3.4 (968) In a gas turbine engine, the maximum gas temperature is attained: a) within the combustion chamber. b) across the turbine. c) in the cooling airflow around the flame tube. d) at the entry to the exhaust unit. 21.3.3.5 (969) When the combustion gases pass through a turbine the : a) pressure drops. b) pressure rises. c) velocity decreases. d) temperature increases. 21.3.3.5 (970) In the stator of a turbine, the speed V and static pressure Ps vary as follows: a) V increases, Ps decreases. b) V decreases, Ps increases. c) V increases, Ps increases. d) V decreases, Ps decreases. 21.3.3.5 (971) An impulse turbine is a turbine in which the expansion takes place: a) fully in the stator. b) fully in the rotor. c) in the stator and in the rotor. d) in order to produce a degree of jet propulsion < 1/2. 21.3.3.5 (972) A ""fan"" stage of a ducted-fan turbine engine is driven by: a) the low pressure turbine. b) the high pressure compressor through reduction gearing. c) the high pressure turbine. d) airflow drawn across it by the high pressure compressor. 21.3.3.5 (973) In a free turbine engine: a) there is no mechanical connection between the compressor and the power

output shaft. b) its shaft may be connected to either a compressor or another turbine. c) the air enters the compressor via the input turbine. d) the compressor and power output shaft are mechanically connected. 21.3.3.5 (974) The primary reason for a limitation being imposed on the temperature of gas flow is to : a) ensure that the maximum acceptable temperature at the turbine blades is not exceeded. b) prevent damage to the jet pipe from overheating. c) prevent overheating and subsequent creep of the nozzle guide vanes. d) ensure that the maximum acceptable temperature within the combustion chamber is not exceeded. 21.3.3.5 (975) Turbine blade stages may be classed as either ""impulse"" or ""reaction"". In an impulse blade section : a) the pressure drops across the nozzle guide vanes and remains constant across the rotor blades . b) the pressure rises across the nozzle guide vanes and remains constant across the rotor blades . c) the pressure remains constant across the nozzle guide vanes and drops across the rotor blades . d) the pressure remains constant across the nozzle guide vanes and rises constant across the rotor blades . 21.3.3.7 (976) For a fan jet engine, the by-pass ratio is the: a) external airflow mass divided by the internal airflow mass b) internal airflow mass divided by the external airflow mass c) internal airflow mass divided by the fuelflow mass d) fuelflow mass divided by the internal airflow mass 21.3.3.8 (977) A reverse thrust door warning light on the flight deck instrument panel illuminates when: a) the reverser doors are unlocked. b) the reverser doors are locked. c) reverse has been selected but the doors have remained locked. d) the reverser doors have moved to the reverse thrust position. 21.3.3.10 (978) At constant fuel flow, if engine compressor air is bled off for engine anti-icing or a similar system, the turbine temperature: a) will rise. b) will be unchanged. c) may rise or fall depending on which stage of the compressor is used for the bleed and the rpm of the engine at the moment of selection. d) will fall.

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21.3.3.10 (979) If air is tapped from a gas turbine HP compressor, the effect on the engine pressure ratio (EPR) and the exhaust gas temperature (EGT) is that : a) EPR decreases and EGT increases. b) both EPR and EGT decrease. c) EPR decreases and EGT remains constant. d) EPR remains constant and EGT increases. 21.3.3.10 (980) Using compressor bleed air to power systems: a) decreases aircraft performance b) has no influence on aircraft performance c) increases aircraft performance d) is limited to the phases of take-off and landing 21.3.3.11 (981) The accessory units driven by the accessory gearbox of a turbo-jet engine are the :1. tacho-generator N12. tacho-generator N23. thrust reverser pneumatic motors4. AC generator and its Constant Speed Unit (CSD)5. oil pumps6. hydraulic pumps7. high pressure fuel pumpsThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is : a) 1, 4, 5, 6, 7. b) 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7. c) 2, 4, 5, 6. d) 4, 5, 6, 7. 21.3.4.1 (982) The use of igniters is necessary on a turbo-jet:1 - throughout the operating range of the engine2 - for accelerations3 - for ground starts4 - for in-flight relights5 during turbulence in flight6 - under heavy precipitation or in icing conditionsThe combination which regroups all of the correct statements is : a) 3 - 4 - 5 - 6 b) 3 c) 2002-03-04 d) 1 21.3.4.2 (983) For a turbine engine, the term self-sustaining speed relates to the speed at which the engine : a) will run without any external assistance. b) is designed to idle after starting. c) operates most efficiently in the cruise.. d) will enable the generators to supply bus-bar voltage. 21.3.4.2 (984) An impulse coupling does not function at such speeds above those encountered in starting. Its engaging pawls are prevented from operating at higher speeds by a) centrifugal force b) engine oil pressure c) a coil spring d) electro-magnetic action of operating magneto.

21.3.4.3 (985) A ""hung start"" is the failure of an engine to accelerate to its normal idle speed. It may be caused by: a) an attempt to ignite the fuel before the engine has been accelerated sufficiently by the starter. b) compressor surging. c) the starter cutting out early in the starting sequence before the engine has accelerated to the required rpm for ignition. d) failure of the fuel to ignite in the starting sequence after the engine has been accelerated to the required rpm by the starter. 21.3.4.4 (986) The pressure usually produced by the Boost Pumps (BP) of the fuel supply system is within the following range: a) 20 to 50 psi b) 5 to 10 psi c) 3000 to 5000 psi d) 300 to 500 psi 21.3.4.4 (987) The purpose of the barometric correction in a fuel controller is to: a) maintain the correct weight fuel to air ratio when the altitude increases. b) reduce the fuel-to-air ratio when altitude increases. c) increase the fuel-to-air ratio when altitude increases. d) maintain a constant fuel metering whatever the altitude. 21.3.4.4 (988) (For this question use annex 021-4008A)Reference should be made to the fuel sypply system shown in annex.In flight, with center tank empty and APU operating, a fuel unbalance is detected (quantity in tank 1 < quantity in tank 2).Rebalancing of the two tanks is: a) possible with ""CROSSFEED"" open and tank 1 pumps ""OFF"" and tank 2 pumps ""ON"". b) impossible without causing the APU stop. c) possible with ""CROSSFEED"" open and tank 2 pumps ""OFF"". d) impossible because there is no fuel in center tank. 21.3.4.4 (989) In a gas turbine engine, the power changes are normally made by controlling the amount of: a) fuel supplied. b) air entering the compressor. c) air leaving the compressor by the opening or closing of bleed valves. d) air entering the compressor and fuel entering the combustion chambers. 21.3.4.5 (990) In a fuel system, the oil to fuel heat exchanger allows: a) jet engine oil cooling through thermal exchange with fuel flowing from tanks. b) fuel cooling so as to prevent vapour creation likely to unprime nozzles. c) fuel heating as required whenever fuel filter clogging is detected. d) automatic fuel heating by the engine oil so as to prevent icing in fuel filter.

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21.3.4.5 (991) The reason for having a low pressure fuel-cooled oil cooler in a recirculatory type oil system is to: a) cool the oil and heat the fuel. b) cool the oil only. c) cool both the oil and the fuel. d) heat the fuel only. 21.3.4.5 (992) In very cold weather, the pilot notices during startup, a slightly higher than normal oil pressure.This higher pressure : a) is normal, if it decreases after startup. b) is abnormal and requires the engine to be shut down. c) is abnormal but does not require the engine to be shut down. d) requires an oil change. 21.3.4.6 (993) The fuel temperature, at which, under standard conditions, the vapour ignites in contact with a flame and extinguishs immediately, is the: a) flash point b) combustion point c) fire point d) self ignition point 21.3.4.7 (994) An engine pressure ratio (EPR) gauge reading normally shows the ratio of: a) jet pipe pressure to compressor inlet pressure. b) jet pipe pressure to combustion chamber pressure. c) combustion chamber pressure to compressor inlet pressure. d) compressor outlet pressure to compressor inlet pressure. 21.3.4.7 (995) The thrust of a turbo-jet, at the selection of full power :1 - equals the product of the exhaust gas mass flow and the exhaust gas velocity2 - is obtained by pressure of the exhaust gas on the ambient air3 - is equivalent to zero mechanical power since the aeroplane is not moving4 - is independant of the outside air temperatureThe combination which regroups all of the correct statements is : a) 03-Jan b) 02-Jan c) 03-Fev d) 4 21.3.4.8 (996) Consider a jet engine whose control is based on the Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR):1. with a constant EPR, the thrust decreases when the altitude increases2. with a constant EPR, the thrust is independent of the Mach number3. At same environmental conditions, a given EPR setting maintains the thrust irrespective of engine wear due to ageing.4. the EPR is determined by the impact pressure difference between the turbine outlet and the compressor inlet5. on take-off, in the event of icing not detected by the crew, the indicated EPR is lower than the real EPRThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

a) 1, 3. b) 2, 3, 4. c) 3, 4, 5. d) 1, 5. 21.3.4.8 (997) The Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR) is the ratio of: a) the total turbine outlet pressure to the total compressor inlet pressure. b) the total turbine outlet pressure to the total compressor outlet pressure. c) the total turbine inlet pressure to the total compressor inlet pressure. d) the total turbine inlet pressure to the total compressor outlet pressure. 21.3.4.8 (998) The control of free turbine engines on turboprops, is accomplished by:- a propeller control lever used to select: 1 - propeller RPM 2 - turbine temperature 3 - turbine RPM- a fuel control lever used to select: 4 - propeller RPM 5 - torque 6 - turbine temperature The combination which regroups all of the correct statements is : a) 2001-05-06 b) 2001-03-05 c) 2003-04-06 d) 2002-04-05 21.3.5.1 (999) On the ground, the Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) can be substituted for the: a) ground power unit, the starting system, the air conditioning unit. b) ground power unit, the air conditioning unit. c) ground power unit, the starting system. d) ground power unit. 21.3.5.1 (1000) A modern Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) is designed to provide power for ground starting of an engine. It also supplies both in the air (subject to certification limitations) and on the ground : a) air conditioning and electrical services. b) air conditioning and thrust in the event of engine failure. c) either air conditioning or electrical services, but never both at the same time. d) air conditioning and electrical services (on the ground) electrical and hydraulic back-up services (in the air). 21.3.5.1 (1001) In addition to fire detention/protection, most auxiliary power units (APUs) have automatic controls for stating, stopping and maintaining operation within safe limits. These controls provide correct sequencing of the starting cycle as well as protection against : a) high turbine gas temperature (TGT), overspeed, loss of oil pressure and high oil temperature. b) high TGT and loss of oil pressure only. c) overspeed and high oil temperature only. d) high TGT only.

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21.4.1.0 (1002) Some emergency exits must be equipped with devices so as to help the occupants to get out and reach the ground if their threshold is at a height above the ground greater than: a) 6 ft, aeroplane on the ground, landing gear extended. b) 6 ft, aeroplane on the ground, one main gear or nose gear collapse. c) 8 ft, aeroplane on the ground, one main gear or nose gear collapse. d) 8 ft, aeroplane on the ground, landing gear extended. 21.4.1.0 (1003) The number of emergency exits in transport aeroplanes a) must be arranged to allow all passengers and all crew members to leave the aeroplane within 90 sec. through 50 % of the available emergency exits. b) must be arranged to allow at least 50 % of all passengers to leave the aeroplane within 2 minutes. c) depends on the decision of the manufacturer in agreement with the operator. d) must be in accordance with the number of passengers on board. 21.4.1.0 (1004) A manual inflation handle: a) serves to actuate inflation of a slide when automatic inflation fails b) serves to inflate a life jacket when the normal inflation function fails c) operates a hand pump for manual inflation of a slide d) is generally not applied on slides. 21.4.1.0 (1005) The purpose of the proximity of the emergency evacuation path marking system is to : a) replace the overhead emergency lighting during an emergency evacuation with a thick smoke. b) replace the overhead emergency lighting in case of failure. c) mark only the exits at the floor level. d) to be used only at night. 21.4.1.0 (1006) An exit is considered to be out of service when the following elements are inoperative the:1. external door opening mechanism2. internal door opening mechanism3. door opening aid device4. open door locking system5. auxiliary means of evacuation6. emergency lightingThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 b) 1, 2, 5, 6 c) 2, 3, 4, 6 d) 1, 3, 4, 5 21.4.1.0 (1007) Evacuation slide inflation is ensured by : a) a pressurized gas canister combined with the slide itself. b) the aircraft's general pneumatic circuit. c) a manual pump, used when needed by the cabin crew. d) pressurized air from the air conditioning system.

21.4.2.0 (1008) Smoke detector systems are installed in the a) upper cargo compartments (class E). b) wheel wells. c) engine nacelles. d) fuel tanks. 21.4.2.0 (1009) Ion detectors are devices used in aircraft for systems protection. They detect : a) smoke. b) overtemperature. c) fire. d) overtemperature and fire. 21.4.2.0 (1010) Smoke detectors fitted on transport aircraft are of the following type : a) optical or ionization b) chemical c) electrical d) magnetic 21.4.2.0 (1011) (For this question use annex 021-10164A)The smoke detection in the aircraft cargo compartments is carried out by four sensors: C1, C2, C3 and C4.They are associated with the logic circuit as described in the annex.The repeating bell is activated when: a) the C1 and C2 sensors detect smoke. b) the C1 and C3 sensors detect smoke. c) only one sensor detects smoke. d) the C2 and C4 sensors detect smoke. 21.4.3.0 (1012) When a continuous element of a fire detection system is heated:1. its resistance decreases.2. its resistance increases.3. the leakage current increases.4. the leakage current decreases.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is : a) 1, 3 b) 2, 3 c) 1, 4 d) 2, 4 21.4.3.0 (1013) A fault protection circuit in a fire detection system will: a) inhibit the fire detector when the detection line is connected to ground. b) activate the fire detection system when the detection line is connected to ground. c) automatically initiate APU shutdown and fire extinguisher striker activation in the event of fire. d) activate an alarm in the cockpit and in the landing gear bay for ground crew. 21.4.3.0 (1014) In a fire detection system with single-loop continuous components (with no fault

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protection), if the line is accidently grounded: a) the fire alarm is triggered. b) the power supply is cut off automatically. c) there will be no effect on the system d) the engine fire extinguisher striker is automatically activated. 21.4.3.0 (1015) When a wire type fire system is tested: a) the wiring and the warning are tested. b) Only the warning function is tested. c) a part of the wire is totally heated. d) the wire is totally heated. 21.4.3.0 (1016) A gaseous sensor/responder tube fire sensor is tested by a) heating up the sensor with test power connection. b) checking the continuity of the system with a test switch. c) checking the wiring harness for faults but not the sensor. d) checking the sensor with pressurized gas. 21.4.3.0 (1017) In transport aeroplanes overheat detection systems are installed in the: a) landing gear bays / wheel wells. b) cabin. c) fuel tanks. d) tyres. 21.4.3.0 (1018) The indication of the fire detection systems is performed by a: a) warning light and a warning bell (or aural alert). b) warning bell. c) warning light. d) gear warning. 21.4.3.0 (1019) On a multi-engined aircraft a fire detection system includes : a) a warning light for each engine and a single alarm bell common to all engines b) a single warning light but a separate alarm bell for each engine c) a single warning light and a single alarm bell d) both a warning light and an alarm bell unique to each engine 21.4.3.0 (1020) In order to enable a fire to be controlled as quickly as possible, the fire detectors are located in the highest risk compartments. Theses compartments are :1. the main landing gear wheel wells2. the fuel tanks3. the oil tanks4. the auxiliary power unit5. around the enginesThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a) 1,4,5 b) 2,3 c) 2,5 d) 1,2,3,4,5

21.4.3.0 (1021) Continuous loop fire detector systems operate on the principle that an increase in temperature produces : a) a decrease in resistance b) an increase in resistance c) a decrease in the reference current d) a decrease in pressure 21.4.3.0 (1022) A Continuous-Loop-Detector-System is a: a) Fire detection system b) Smoke detection system c) Carbon dioxide warning system d) Fire fighting system 21.4.3.0 (1023) On an aircraft provided with resistance and capacitance variation type fire detection loops, a fire alarm is initiated by a temperature increase detected: a) at any isolated point of the loops or else generally on all the loops b) only at an isolated point of the loops c) only in a uniform way along the loops d) on at least one loop 21.4.3.0 (1024) When a bimetallic strip is used as a switch in a fire detection loop, a fire alarm is triggered after a delay. The purpose of this delay is to: a) avoid false alarms in case of vibrations b) allow temperatures to equalise c) delay the triggering of the fire extinguinshers and increase their efficiency d) wait for the triggering of the second fire detection loop in order to confirm the fire 21.4.4.0 (1025) The most common extinguishing agent used in gas turbine engine fire protection system is: a) Freon. b) Water. c) CO2. d) Powder. 21.4.4.0 (1026) If inflammable gaseous materials, like propane for example, are set on fire, the following extinguisher types should be used for fire fighting: a) BCF and CO2 type extinguishers b) Water type extinguishers c) Dry and water type extinguishers d) CO2 and water type extinguishers 21.4.4.0 (1027) The most suitable means for extinguishing a magnesium fire on the ground is : a) sand. b) water.

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c) carbon dioxide. d) freon. 21.4.4.0 (1028) In the cockpit of a transport airplane, at least one manual fire-extinguisher must be conveniently located containing : a) halon. b) powder. c) water. d) special fluids. 21.4.4.0 (1029) (For this question use annex 021-9377A)When fire is detected on engine n°2, the fire shutoff handle n°2 is pulled and the extinguishing agent n°1 is discharged. This results in : a) the discharge of fire extinguisher bottle n°1 and illumination of the DISCH (discharge) indicator lamp b) the discharge of fire extinguisher bottle n°1 and illumination of the DISCH indicator lamp of agent n°1 on both engines c) the discharge of fire extinguisher bottle n°1 and illumination of the DISCH indicator lamp of agent n°1 on engine no. and DISCH indicator lamp of agent n°2 on engine n°1 d) the discharge of fire extinguisher bottle n°2 and illumination of the DISCH indicator lamp of agent n°1 on engine n°1 and agent n°2 on engine n°2 21.4.4.0 (1030) Generally, when the fire handle of the fire-extinguishing system on an aircraft is pulled, the effects are :1. closing of the LP valve of the fuel system2. opening of the air bleed valves and HP valves on the engine concerned3. setting of extinguishing systems4. closing of the isolation and de-icing valves5. isolation of the associated electric current generators6. immediate discharge of extinguishing agentThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a) 1,3,4,5 b) 1,2,5,6 c) 2,3,4,5 d) 1,3,4 21.4.4.0 (1031) With engine fire alarm activated, the extinguisher discharge: a) is the pilot's task b) is automatic and immediate c) is automatic after a delay to allow the pilot to stop the engine d) does not need the engine to be stopped 21.4.4.0 (1032) The main feature of BCF fire extinguishers is that they : a) act as flame inhibitors by absorbing the air's oxygen. b) use the cooling effect created by the venturi during discharge. c) are electrical conductors. d) are highly corrosive particularly for aluminium alloys.

21.4.4.0 (1033) An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 7 to 30 seats must be equipped with at least: a) 1 hand fire-extinguisher conveniently located in the passenger compartment. b) 2 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. c) 3 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. d) 4 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. 21.4.4.0 (1034) An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 31 to 60 seats must be equipped with at least: a) 2 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. b) 3 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. c) 4 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. d) 5 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. 21.4.4.0 (1035) An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 61 to 200 seats must be equipped with at least: a) 3 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. b) 2 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. c) 4 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. d) 5 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. 21.4.4.0 (1036) An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 201 to 300 seats must be equipped with at least: a) 4 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. b) 3 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. c) 5 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. d) 6 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. 21.4.4.0 (1037) An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 301 to 400 seats must be equipped with at least: a) 5 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. b) 4 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. c) 6 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. d) 3 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. 21.4.4.0 (1038) An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 401 to 500 seats must be equipped with at least: a) 6 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. b) 5 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. c) 7 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. d) 8 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. 21.4.4.0 (1039) An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 501 to 600 seats must be equipped with at least:

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a) 7 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. b) 8 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. c) 6 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. d) 5 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. 21.4.4.0 (1040) An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than 600 seats must be equipped with at least: a) 8 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. b) 9 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. c) 7 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. d) 6 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. 21.4.4.0 (1041) An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than 60 seats must be equipped with at least: a) 3 HALON 1211 fire-extinguishers. b) 2 HALON 1211 fire-extinguishers. c) 4 HALON 1211 fire-extinguishers. d) 1 HALON 1211 fire-extinguisher. 21.4.4.0 (1042) In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an airplane whose maximum take-off mass exceeds 5 700 kg or whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than 9 seats and smaller than 200 seats must be equipped with a: a) crash axe or a crow-bar in the pilot compartment. b) crash axe and a crow-bar in the passenger compartment. c) crash axe in the cockpit and a crow-bar in the passenger compartment. d) crow-bar in the cockpit and a crash axe in the passenger compartment. 21.4.4.0 (1043) In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an airplane must be equipped with equipment or systems at each emergency exit that allow to reach the ground safely in the case of an emergency when the sill height of the passenger emergency exit is higher than: a) 1,83 m. b) 1,80 m. c) 1,86 m. d) 1,89 m. 21.4.4.0 (1044) In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, during and following an emergency descent, each occupant of the cockpit seats on duty must have access to a minimum amount of oxygen in:1. order to maintain a supply throughout the entire flight time where the cabin altitude pressure is greater than 13000 ft.2. order to maintain a supply throughout the entire flight time where the cabin altitude pressure is greater than 10000 ft and smaller than 13000 ft minus 30 minutes.3. no case less than 30 minutes for airplanes certified to fly up to 25000 ft.4. no case less than 2 hours for airplanes certified to fly at over 25000 ft.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a) 1, 2, 3 et 4.

b) 1, 2. c) 1, 2, 4. d) 1,4. 21.4.4.0 (1045) In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, the minimum requirement for the survival oxygen needed to supply 100 % of the passengers during and following an emergency descend is: a) 10 minutes or the entire flight time where the cabin pressure altitude is above 15000 ft, whichever is the greater. b) 30 minutes. c) the entire flight time where the cabin pressure altitude is above 13000 ft. d) the entire flight time where the cabin pressure altitude is above 10000 ft minus 30 minutes. 21.4.5.0 (1046) The oxygen masks have dropped down from the passengers service units. The oxygen flow starts : a) after pulling the oxygen mask downwards b) immediately c) only above FL200 d) After the system has been switched on by a crew member 21.4.5.0 (1047) A public transport jet aeroplane may be operated up to FL 450. The cabin includes 180 passenger seats, made up of 30 rows (3 seats from each side of central aisle). The minimum number of cabin oxygen masks for this aeroplane must be: a) 198 (110% of the seating capacity). b) 270 (150% of the seating capacity). c) 240 (one additional mask per seat block). d) 210 (one additional mask per seat row). 21.4.5.0 (1048) When quick donning masks are in use, the pilot is: a) able to radiotelephone. b) only able to receive. c) only able to transmit. d) not able to do any radio communication. 21.4.5.0 (1049) In a pressurized aircraft, the first-aid (therapeutic) oxygen is designed to: a) give medical assistance to passengers with pathological respiratory disorders. b) protect the flight crew and cabin attendants against fumes and noxious gases. c) protect all the occupants against the effects of accidental depressurisation. d) protect certain passengers, and is only carried on board for these people. 21.4.5.0 (1050) An aircraft is scheduled to fly from PARIS to MARSEILLE at FL 390 and has the following characteristics:Maximum permissible number of passenger specified by the certificate of airworthiness= 230Number of seats on board= 200Scheduled number of passengers on board= 180The minimum number of inhaler systems provided in the aircraft cabin should be:

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a) 220. b) 230. c) 200. d) 180. 21.4.5.0 (1051) From which flight level do the regulations require a quick donning type oxygen mask for the flight crew in a pressurized aircraft ? a) FL 250. b) FL 300. c) FL 390. d) FL 100. 21.4.5.0 (1052) What is breathed in when using a passenger oxygen mask? a) Cabin air and oxygen. b) 100% oxygen. c) Cabin air and oxygen or 100% oxygen. d) A mixture of oxygen and freon gas. 21.4.5.0 (1053) The safety precautions to be taken whenever using oxygen are:1. refrain from smoking, avoid sparkes.2. Avoid operation of radio communication equipment.3. Slowly operate oxygen system valves.4. Avoid greasy matter.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is : a) 1, 3, 4. b) 1, 2, 3. c) 2, 3, 4. d) 1, 2, 4. 21.4.5.0 (1054) The opening of the doors giving access to the oxygen masks for the passengers is :1. pneumatic for the gaseous oxygen system,2. electrical for the chemical oxygen system,3. pneumatic for the chemical oxygen system,4. electrical for the gaseous oxygen system.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a) 1, 2 b) 1, 3 c) 2, 3 d) 2, 4 21.4.5.0 (1055) The state in which the breathing oxygen for the cockpit of jet transport aeroplanes is stored is : a) Gaseous. b) Chemical compound. c) Liquid. d) Gaseous or chemical compound.. 21.4.5.0 (1056) If the maximum operating pressure of the oxygen system is exceeded the: a) oxygen is discharged overboard via a safety plug.

b) oxygen becomes unusable for the passengers. c) passenger oxygen masks will drop down. d) oxygen bottles will explode. 21.4.5.0 (1057) The purpose of a diluter demand regulator in an oxygen system is to : a) deliver oxygen flow when inhaling. b) deliver oxygen flow only above FL 100. c) is only recommended with smoke in the cockpit. d) mix air and oxygen in a passenger oxygen mask. 21.4.5.0 (1058) The built-in passenger oxygen system be activated by : a) switching the passenger oxygen ON. b) switching the diluter demand regulator ON. c) opening the oxygen-bottle valves. d) switching the diluter demand regulator and the passenger oxygen ON. 21.4.5.0 (1059) The passenger oxygen mask will supply : a) a mixture of cabin air and oxygen. b) 100 % oxygen. c) a mixture of compressed air and oxygen or 100 % oxygen. d) a mixture of oxygen and freon gas. 21.4.5.0 (1060) The chemical oxygen generator is a system:1. which is inexpensive2. requiring no external input3. which is lightweight4. requiring no maintenance5. with adjustable flow rate6. which is unsafeThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a) 1, 3, 4 b) 2, 3, 6 c) 1, 4, 6 d) 2, 4, 5 21.4.5.0 (1061) Consider the flight deck oxygen supply system. The purpose of the oxygen regulator (as a function of demand and altitude) is to:1. decrease oxygen pressure from 1800 PSI (in the bottles) down to about 50-75 PSI (low pressure system)2. supply pure oxygen3. supply diluted oxygen4. supply oxygen at normal pressure5. supply oxygen at emergency/positive pressure6. trigger the continuous cabin altitude warning at 10000 ft cabin altitudeThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a) 2, 3, 4, 5 b) 3, 4, 5, 6 c) 1, 2, 3, 4 d) 1, 3, 4, 6 21.4.5.0 (1062) A public transport aircraft is operated at FL 390. The total number of oxygen dispensing units and outlets in the cabin must be at least the same as the total

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number of : a) seats exceeded by 10%. b) seats. c) passengers. d) passengers exceeded by 10%. 21.4.5.0 (1063) A public transport aircraft has a cruising altitude of FL 390. It is fitted with individual oxygen masks for the passengers. In the event of depressurisation, the masks must be automatically released before the cabin pressure altitude exceeds: a) 15000 ft. b) 13000 ft. c) 12000 ft. d) 14000 ft. 21.4.5.0 (1064) Above what flight level must one pilot wear an oxygen mask at all times during commercial flight. a) 410. b) 300. c) 250. d) 490. 21.4.5.0 (1065) A diluter demand oxygen regulator : a) delivers oxygen flow when inhaling. b) delivers oxygen flow only above FL 100. c) is only recommended for use with smoke in the cockpit. d) mixes air and oxygen in a passenger oxygen mask. 21.4.5.0 (1066) A jet aircraft is certified for the carriage of 120 passengers. 42 passenger are on board and the expected Flight Level on route Paris-Alger is FL 330. The first aid oxygen to be on board at departure shall provide breathing supply for at least: a) 1 passenger for the entire flight after cabin depressurization at cabin altitude of more than 8000 ft. b) no first aid required. c) 1 passenger for the entire flight after cabin depressurization at cabin altitude between 10000 and 14000 ft. d) 3 passengers for the entire flight after cabin depressurization at cabin altitude between 10000 and 14000 ft. 21.4.5.0 (1067) As regards passengers oxygen in public transport aircraft, information must be given to passengers through a demonstration. If a flight is to be carried out at Flight Level FL 290, this demonstration must be completed before : a) take-off. b) the aircraft reaches FL 100. c) the aircraft reaches FL 140. d) the aircraft reaches FL 250.

21.4.5.0 (1068) In jet transport aircraft, breathing oxygen for the cockpit is stored in the following state: a) gaseous. b) liquid. c) chemical. d) chemical or gaseous. 21.4.5.0 (1069) Oxygen systems are systems used on pressurized airplanes in :1. an emergency in the case of depressurization.2. an emergency in the case of the indisposition of a passenger.3. normal use in order to supply oxygen to the cabin.5. an emergency in the case of smoke or toxic gases.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a) 1,4 b) 1, 2, 4 c) 3 d) 2, 3 21.4.5.0 (1070) Modern pressurized transport airplanes are equipped with : a) two independent oxygen systems, one supplying the cockpit, the other the cabin. b) only one oxygen system supplying the whole aircraft. c) two oxygen systems both supplying the cockpit and the cabin. d) only portable oxygen bottles. 21.4.5.0 (1071) Generally speaking when the oxygen flows to the masks in the passenger cabin, the system is activated by a) firmly pulling the mask towards the face, after the cover has opened. b) activating the relevant switch in the cockpit. c) firmly pulling the cover behind which the oxygen mask is stowed. d) pushing the mask against the face and breath normally. 21.4.5.0 (1072) A pressurized aeroplane is operated at FL 300. It undergoes a rapid decompression so that the pressure in the cabin goes quickly down to the outside pressure value. What happens concerning the oxygen system ? a) the oxygen masks are automatically presented to cabin crew members and passengers b) the oxygen masks are automatically presented to flight crew members c) if the automatic mask presentation has been activated, the oxygen will flow within the first 3 minutes d) manual override of the automatic presentation of passenger oxygen masks is, generally speaking, not possible 21.4.5.0 (1073) A substance which may never be used in the vicinity or on parts of an oxygen installation is : a) Grease

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b) Water c) Halon d) Nitrogen 21.4.5.0 (1074) The type of a aircraft oxygen system intended for use by passengers, is mostly : a) a continuous flow system b) a pressure demand system c) portable equipment only d) an air recycle system 21.4.5.0 (1075) The demand valve of a diluter-demand type oxygen regulator in normal mode, operates when the : a) user breathes in b) diluter control is in normal position c) user requires 100 percent oxygen d) pressure in the oxygen reservoir is more than 500 psi 21.4.5.0 (1076) The purpose of the ""Pressure Relief Valve"" in a high pressure oxygen system is to : a) relieve overpressure if the pressure reducing valve malfunctions b) reduce pressure in the oxygen reservoir to a suitable manifold pressure for the regulator c) act as a manual shut-off valve d) maximize the charging pressure of the system 21.4.5.0 (1077) The purpose of the first aid oxygen is to: a) provide some passengers with additional respiratory assistance after an emergency descent following a depressurization. b) provide the cabin attendants with respiratory protection. c) supply all the passengers in case of depressurization. d) provide the flight crew with respiratory assistance after depressurization. 21.4.5.0 (1078) The survival oxygen is: a) the oxygen supplied to the airplane occupants in case of accidental depressurization. b) the oxygen supplied to a passenger who needs oxygen for pathological reasons. c) the oxygen used for protection against smoke and carbon dioxide. d) a therapeutical oxygen specifically carried for certain passengers. 21.4.5.0 (1079) Airliners are equipped with oxygen systems. It can be said that : a) with setting on ""NORMAL"", the crew breathes a mixture of oxygen / cabin air. b) the same circuit is used by the crew and the passengers. c) the seals must be carefully greased to avoid sparks. d) the passenger circuit never uses chemically generated oxygen.

21.4.5.0 (1080) An oxygen regulator has 3 controls :- a power lever : ON/OFF- an ""O2"" lever : NORMAL/100%- an emergency lever : ON/OFFAmong the following statements, the correct proposition is : a) the power lever on ON, and, the ""O2"" lever on NORMAL allows the oxygen to enter the regulator and enables breathing of a mixture of air/oxygen according to altitude. b) the EMERGENCY lever on ON enables breathing of pure oxygen at ambient pressure. c) the ""O2"" lever on ON enables breathing of the over-pressure oxygen at a constant flow rate. d) with the EMERGENCY lever on OFF, in an emergency situation, one cannot use the oxygen mask to breathe. 21.4.5.0 (1081) The operations of an airline plan the operation of a pressurized aircraft at a 240 flight level on its whole route with 150 passengers on board.As concerns the regulatory requirements about oxygen:1. each crew member will have available a quick fitting inhaler device.2. the aircraft will be equipped with a warning system indicating that the cabin altitude is higher than 3 000 m.3 . the quantity of oxygen on board will be sufficient for the supply of 100 % of the occupants during the whole flight time above the flight level 150 after an eventual depressurization.4. the first aid quantity of oxygen will be sufficient for the supply of two passengers during the whole flight time when the cabin altitude is greater than 8 000 feet.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a) 2,3 b) 1,2,3,4 c) 2 d) 3,4 21.4.5.0 (1082) When selected to normal, the oxygen proportion of the air/oxygen mixture supplied by the cockpit oxygen system regulator: a) increases when the altitude increases. b) decreases when the altitude increases. c) is constant whatever the altitude. d) is 100 %. 21.4.5.0 (1083) In the cabin, when the oxygen mask is pulled downwards, the passenger breathes : a) a mixture of oxygen and cabin air. b) pure oxygen under pressure. c) pure oxygen at the ambient pressure. d) cabin air under pressure. 21.4.5.0 (1084) Chemical oxygen generators are used to furnish oxygen to the : a) cabin only. b) cockpit and the cabin. c) cockpit only. d) toilets only.

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21.4.5.0 (1085) The chemical oxygen generator supplies oxygen for about : a) 15 minutes. b) 30 minutes. c) 2 hours. d) 5 minutes. 21.4.5.0 (1086) The advantages of a chemical oxygen source for the passenger cabin are :1. reduced weight and volume,2. easy storage and maintenance,3. greater autonomy,4. no risk of explosion,5. reversible functioning,6. no maintenance.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a) 1, 2, 4, 6 b) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 c) 2, 3, 5 d) 1, 3, 4, 5 21.4.5.0 (1087) The disadvantages of a chemical oxygen source for the passenger cabin are :1. a flow which cannot be modulated,2. a heavy and bulky system,3. non reversible functioning,4. risks of explosion,5. poor autonomy.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a) 1, 3, 5 b) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 c) 2, 4 d) 1, 2, 3, 5 21.4.5.0 (1088) The advantages of a gaseous oxygen source for the passenger cabin are :1. a greater autonomy,2. no risk of explosion,3. reversible functioning,4. easy storage and maintenance,5. possibility to regulate flow.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is : a) 1, 3, 5 b) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 c) 2, 4, 5 d) 2, 3, 4 21.4.5.0 (1089) When the door operation of a transport airplane equipped with evacuation slides is controlled from the outside, the slide: a) is disarmed automatically. b) unfolds and becomes inflated. c) unfolds but does not become inflated. d) becomes inflated in its packboard thus preventing its unfolding. 21.4.5.0 (1090) The equipment of an oxygen supply installation must be kept absolutely free of oil or grease traces as: a) these substances catch fire spontaneously in the presence of oxygen under pressure. b) the oxygen system would be contaminated.

c) these substances mixed with oxygen could catch fire in the presence of a spark. d) these substances could plug the oxygen masks filters. 21.4.5.0 (1091) A passenger emergency mask is a : a) continuous flow mask and cannot be used if there is smoke in the cabin. b) mask with flow on request and cannot be used if there is smoke in the cabin. c) continuous flow mask and can be used if there is smoke in the cabin. d) mask with flow on request and can be used if there is smoke. 21.4.5.0 (1092) A smoke mask is a : a) mask with flow on request and covers the whole face. b) continuous flow mask and covers the whole face. c) mask with flow on request and covers only the nose and the mouth. d) continuous flow mask and covers only the nose and the mouth. 21.4.5.0 (1093) In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, each occupant of the cockpit seats on duty in a non-pressurized airplane must have an oxygen supply reserve for the entire flight time at pressure altitudes greater than: a) 10000 ft. b) 12500 ft. c) 13000 ft. d) 14000 ft. 21.4.5.0 (1094) In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, 100 % of the passengers in a non-pressurized airplane must have an oxygen supply reserve for the entire flight time at pressure altitudes greater than: a) 13000 ft. b) 10000 ft. c) 14000 ft. d) 15000 ft. 21.4.5.0 (1095) In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, 10 % of the passengers in a non-pressurized airplane must have an oxygen supply reserve for the entire flight time when the cabin altitude pressure is greater than: a) 10000 ft but not exceeding 13000 ft minus 30 minutes. b) 13000 ft. c) 10000 ft. d) 10000 ft but not exceeding 13000 ft. 21.4.5.0 (1096) In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, when an airplane flies at over 25000 ft, the total number of oxygen dispensing units and supply terminals must be at least greater than the number of: a) seats by 10 %. b) passengers by 10 %.

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c) seats by 30 %. d) passengers by 30%. 21.4.5.0 (1097) In case of smoke in the cockpit, the crew oxygen regulator must be set to: a) 100% b) normal. c) emergency. d) on demand. 21.4.5.0 (1098) The installation and use of on-board oxygen generators is such that:1 - the smoking ban is imperative when used2 - in case of accidental drop of the ""continuous flow"" passenger masks, no crew action is required3 - no trace of grease must be found in the system assembly4 - the system's filling adaptors must be greased with non freezable or graphite greaseThe combination which regroups all of the correct statements is : a) 03-Jan b) 04-Jan c) 03-Fev d) 04-Fev 21.4.6.0 (1099) In a pressurized transport aircraft, the protective breathing equipment: a) protects the members of the crew against fumes and noxious gases. b) gives medical assistance to certain passengers with respiratory disorders. c) protects all the occupants against the effects of accidental depressurization. d) protects the members of the crew against the effects of accidental depressurization. 21.4.6.0 (1100) An operator shall not operate an aeroplane certicated to JAR25, across an area in which search and rescue would be especially difficult, without survival equipment if it flies away from an area suitable for making an emergency landing at a distance greater than : a) 90 minutes at cruising speed. b) 60 minutes at cruising speed. c) 30 minutes at cruising speed. d) 120 minutes at cruising speed. 21.4.6.0 (1101) A turboprop aeroplane is performing an overwater flight, which takes it further than 340 NM away from an aerodrome where an emergency landing could be performed. Normal cruising speed is 180 kt. One engine out airspeed is 155 kt. a) Life jackets must be available for all occupants. b) The regulation does not require life jackets or rafts to be taken on board in this particular case. c) Life jackets and rafts must be available for all occupants. d) Life rafts must be available for all occupants. 21.4.6.0 (1102) The number of hand fire extinguishers which have to be installed in the passenger

cabin according to JAR-OPS depends on the number of : a) seats in the cabin. b) seat rows in the cabin. c) passengers in the cabin. d) emergency exits in the cabin. 21.4.6.0 (1103) The crash/fire axe is part of the safety equipment fitted to passenger aircraft. Its function is to : a) obtain forced access to a fire behind a panel and a general purpose tool during evacuation. b) free exits in case of evacuation via the sides. c) activate a radio survival beacon by cutting off the red coloured top d) settle an escalating conflict with unreasonable passengers, who threaten flight safety. 21.4.6.0 (1104) In accordance with the JAR-OPS, an airplane constituted of only one passenger deck, equipped with 61 seats and effectively carrying passengers, must be equipped with : a) 1 megaphone. b) 2 megaphones. c) 2 megaphones if there are more than 31 passengers on board. d) no megaphone. 21.4.6.0 (1105) In accordance with the JAR-OPS and with the exception of amphibians and hydroplanes, the carriage of a life jacket per person on board is compulsory when the airplane is :1. cruising at such a distance from the shore that it would not be able to return in the case of an engine failure.2. is flying over a water surface at more than 50 NM off shore.3. is using departure and arrival paths above the water and when a ditching probability exists in the case of a problem.4. is flying over a stretch of water at more than 100 NM off shore.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a) 2, 3 b) 1, 2, 3, 4 c) 1, 2 d) 3, 4 21.4.6.0 (1106) The number of manual fire-extinguishers, on board the passenger cabin of an airplane, whose maximum approved configuration for passenger seats is 31, is: a) 2 b) 1 c) 3 d) 0 21.4.6.0 (1107) The number of crash axes on board an airplane, whose maximum approved configuration of passenger seats is 201, is : a) 2 b) 1

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c) 3 d) 4 21.4.6.0 (1108) A public transport passengers aircraft, with a seating configuration of more than 61 seats, must have in its passenger compartment(s), at least 3 portable fireextinguishers including: a) 2 halon fire-extinguishers. b) 1 halon fire-extinguisher. c) 3 halon fire-extinguishers. d) no halon fire-extinguisher. 21.4.6.0 (1109) In a ditching situation, the passenger life jackets will be inflated : a) when leaving the airplane. b) immediately on the opening of the exits. c) immediately on ditching. d) once the passengers are in the water. 21.4.6.0 (1110) An aircraft whose maximum approved configuration for passenger seats is 10 seats must be equipped with: a) one fire-extinguisher in the cockpit and three fire-extinguishers in the passenger cabin. b) one fire-extinguisher in the cockpit and two fire- extinguishers in the passenger cabin. c) three fire-extinguishers in the passenger cabin only. d) two fire-extinguishers in the cockpit and two fire-extinguishers in the passenger cabin. 21.4.6.0 (1111) There are 60 passengers and crew members on board a turbo-prop aircraft. Its speed is 240 kt. At a point along the course steered, above the sea, the aircraft is at 1h45 min from an airdrome suitable for emergency landing. The minimum equipment complying with regulations is : a) 60 life jackets and three 30-seat life boats b) 60 life jackets c) One 30-seat life boat and two 20-seat life boats d) 60 life jackets, two 30-seat life boats 21.4.6.0 (1112) The emergency lighting system must be able to function and supply a certain level of lighting after the main electric power system has been cut off for at least: a) 10 minutes b) 90 seconds c) 5 minutes d) 30 minutes 21.4.6.0 (1113) An aircraft whose maximum approved configuration for passenger seats is 200 seats must be equipped with: a) 3 manual fire-extinguishers in the passenger cabin. b) 5 manual-fire extinguishers in the passenger cabin.

c) 7 manual-fire extinguishers in the passenger cabin. d) 4 manual fire-extinguishers in the passenger cabin. 21.4.6.0 (1114) The pyrotechnic means used in case of an emergency to indicate your position to the emergency teams are a flare: a) which is used at night and a smoke device which is used in the daytime. b) and a smoke device which are only used at night. c) which is used at daytime and a smoke device which is used at night. d) and a smoke device which are only used in the daytime. 21.4.6.0 (1115) The portable emergency beacons which are used after an emergency landing or ditching have a duration of : a) 48 h b) 24 h c) 12 h d) 72 h 21.4.6.0 (1116) In accordance with JAR-OPS 1 and if necessary, the number of liferafts to be found on board an aircraft must allow the transportation of the entire aircraft occupants: a) in the case of a loss of one raft of the largest rated capacity. b) plus 10 %. c) plus 30 %. d) in the case of a loss of two rafts. 22.1.1.0 (1117) In a standard atmosphere and at the sea level, the calibrated airspeed (CAS) is : a) equal to the true airspeed (TAS). b) independent of the true airspeed (TAS). c) higher than the true airspeed (TAS). d) lower than the true airspeed (TAS). 22.1.1.1 (1118) The pressure measured at the forward facing orifice of a pitot tube is the : a) total pressure. b) static pressure. c) total pressure plus static pressure. d) dynamic pressure. 22.1.1.1 (1119) A pitot blockage of both the ram air input and the drain hole with the static port open causes the airspeed indicator to : a) react like an altimeter. b) read a little high. c) read a little low. d) freeze at zero.

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22.1.1.1 (1120) A pitot tube covered by ice which blocks the ram air inlet will affect the following instrument (s) : a) airspeed indicator only. b) altimeter only. c) vertical speed indicator only. d) airspeed indicator, altimeter and vertical speed indicator. 22.1.1.1 (1121) (For this question use annex 022-9771A)The atmospheric pressure at FL 70 in a ""standard + 10"" atmosphere is: a) 781.85 hPa. b) 942.13 hPa. c) 1 013.25 hPa. d) 644.41 hPa. 22.1.1.1 (1122) In a non-pressurized aircraft, if one or several static pressure ports are damaged, there is an ultimate emergency means for restoring a practically correct static pressure intake : a) breaking the rate-of-climb indicator glass window b) slightly opening a window to restore the ambient pressure in the cabin c) descending as much as possible in order to fly at a pressure as close to 1013.25 hPa as possible d) calculating the ambient static pressure, allowing for the altitude and QNH and adjusting the instruments 22.1.1.2 (1123) The error in altimeter readings caused by the variation of the static pressure near the source is known as: a) position pressure error. b) barometric error. c) instrument error. d) hysteresis effect. 22.1.1.2 (1124) If the static source of an altimeter becomes blocked during a descent the instrument will: a) continue to display the reading at which the blockage occured b) gradually indicate zero c) under-read d) indicate a height equivalent to the setting on the millibar subscale 22.1.1.2 (1125) The primary factor which makes the servo-assisted altimeter more accurate than the simple pressure altimeter is the use of: a) an induction pick-off device b) more effective temperature compensating leaf springs c) combination of counters/pointers d) a sub-scale logarithmic function

22.1.1.2 (1126) If the static source to an altimeter becomes blocked during a climb, the instrument will: a) continue to indicate the reading at which the blockage occured b) under-read by an amount equivalent to the reading at the time that the instrument became blocked c) over-read d) gradually return to zero 22.1.1.2 (1127) The hysteresis error of an altimeter varies substantially with the: a) time passed at a given altitude. b) mach number of the aircraft. c) aircraft altitude. d) static temperature. 22.1.1.2 (1128) The purpose of the vibrating device of an altimeter is to: a) reduce the effect of friction in the linkages b) inform the crew of a failure of the instrument c) allow damping of the measurement in the unit d) reduce the hysteresis effect 22.1.1.2 (1129) The static pressure error of the static vent on which the altimeter is connected varies substantially with the: a) Mach number of the aircraft b) deformation of the aneroid capsule c) aircraft altitude d) static temperature 22.1.1.2 (1130) The altitude indicated on board an aircraft flying in an atmosphere where all the atmosphere layers below the aircraft are cold is : a) lower than the real altitude. b) the same as the real altitude. c) higher than the real altitude. d) equal to the standard altitude. 22.1.1.2 (1131) The altitude indicated on board an aircraft flying in an atmosphere where all atmosphere layers below the aircraft are warm is: a) higher than the real altitude. b) the same as the real altitude. c) lower than the real altitude. d) equal to the standard altitude. 22.1.1.2 (1132) On board an aircraft the altitude is measured from the: a) pressure altitude b) density altitude

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c) temperature altitude d) standard altitude 22.1.1.2 (1133) The density altitude is : a) the altitude of the standard atmosphere on which the density is equal to the actual density of the atmosphere b) the temperature altitude corrected for the difference between the real temperature and the standard temperature c) the pressure altitude corrected for the relative density prevailing at this point d) the pressure altitude corrected for the density of air at this point 22.1.1.2 (1134) The pressure altitude is the altitude corresponding : a) in standard atmosphere, to the pressure Ps prevailing at this point b) in ambiant atmosphere, to the reference pressure Ps c) in standard atmosphere, to the reference pressure Ps d) in ambiant atmosphere, to the pressure Ps prevailing at this point 22.1.1.2 (1135) When flying from a sector of warm air into one of colder air, the altimeter will : a) overread. b) underread. c) be just as correct as before. d) show the actual height above ground. 22.1.1.2 (1136) At sea level, on a typical servo altimeter, the tolerance in feet from indicated must not exceed : a) +/-60 feet b) +/-75 feet c) +/-30 feet d) +/-70 feet 22.1.1.2 (1137) The QNH is by definition the value of the: a) altimeter setting so that the needles of the altimeter indicate the altitude of the location for which it is given. b) atmospheric pressure at the sea level of the location for which it is given. c) altimeter setting so that the needles indicate zero when the aircraft is on ground at the location for which it is provided. d) atmospheric pressure at the level of the ground overflown by the aircraft. 22.1.1.2 (1138) The use of the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) for avoiding an aircraft in flight is now general. TCAS uses for its operation : a) the replies from the transponders of other aircraft b) the echos from the ground air traffic control radar system c) the echos of collision avoidance radar system especially installed on board d) both the replies from the transponders of other aircraft and the ground-based radar echoes

22.1.1.2 (1139) If an aircraft is equipped with one altimeter which is compensated for position error and another altimeter which is not , and all other factors being equal... a) At high speed, the non-compensated altimeter will indicate a higher altitude b) At high speed the non-compensated altimeter will indicate a lower altitude c) There will be no difference between them if the air data computer (ADC) is functioning normally d) ATC will get an erroneous altitude report SSR 22.1.1.2 (1140) The altimeter consists of one or several aneroid capsules located in a sealed casing.The pressures in the aneroid capsule (i) and casing (ii) are respectively : a) (i) vacuum (or a very low pressure) (ii) static pressure b) (i) static pressure at time t (ii) static pressure at time t - t c) (i) total pressure (ii) static pressure d) (i) static pressure (ii) total pressure 22.1.1.2 (1141) The altimeter is fed by : a) static pressure b) dynamic pressure c) total pressure d) differential pressure 22.1.1.2 (1142) In case of accidental closing of an aircraft's left static pressure port (rain, birds), the altimeter: a) overreads the altitude in case of a sideslip to the left and displays the correct information during symmetric flight. b) overreads the altitude in case of a side-slip to the right and displays the correct information during symmetric flight. c) keeps on providing reliable reading in all situations d) underreads the altitude. 22.1.1.3 (1143) When climbing at a constant Mach number below the tropopause, in ISA conditions, the Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) will: a) decrease b) increase at a linear rate c) remain constant d) increase at an exponential rate 22.1.1.3 (1144) For a constant Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) and a level flight, a fall in ambient temperature will result in a: a) lower True Airspeed (TAS) due to an increase in air density b) higher True Airspeed (TAS) due to a decrease in air density c) higher True Airspeed (TAS) due to an increase in air density d) lower True Airspeed (TAS) due to a decrease in air density

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22.1.1.3 (1145) When descending through an isothermal layer at a constant Calibrated Airspeed (CAS), the True Airspeed (TAS) will: a) decrease b) increase at a linear rate c) remain constant d) increase at an exponential rate 22.1.1.3 (1146) A leak in the pitot total pressure line of a non-pressurized aircraft to an airspeed indicator would cause it to: a) under-read. b) over-read. c) over-read in a climb and under-read in a descent. d) under-read in a climb and over-read in a descent. 22.1.1.3 (1147) The airspeed indicator circuit consists of pressure sensors. The pitot tube directly supplies: a) the total pressure b) the static pressure c) the total pressure and the static pressure d) the dynamic pressure 22.1.1.3 (1148) If the static source to an airspeed indicator (ASI) becomes blocked during a descent the instrument will: a) over-read b) read zero c) continue to indicate the speed applicable to that at the time of the blockage d) under-read 22.1.1.3 (1149) The calibrated airspeed (CAS) is obtained by applying to the indicated airspeed (IAS) : a) an instrument and position/pressure error correction. b) an antenna and compressibility correction. c) and instrument and density correction. d) a compressibility and density correction. 22.1.1.3 (1150) VNO is the maximum speed : a) not to be exceeded except in still air and with caution. b) which must never be exceeded. c) at which the flight controls can be fully deflected. d) with flaps extended in landing position. 22.1.1.3 (1151) VNE is the maximum speed : a) which must never be exceeded b) not to be exceeded except in still air and with caution

c) at which the flight controls can be fully deflected d) with flaps extended in landing position 22.1.1.3 (1152) VLO is the maximum : a) speed at which the landing gear can be operated with full safety. b) flight speed with landing gear down. c) speed with flaps extended in a given position. d) cruising speed not to be exceeded except in still air with caution. 22.1.1.3 (1153) VLE is the maximum : a) flight speed with landing gear down b) speed at which the landing gear can be operated with full safety c) speed with flaps extended in a given position d) speed authorized in flight 22.1.1.3 (1154) With a pitot probe blocked due to ice build up, the aircraft airspeed indicator will indicate in descent a : a) decreasing speed. b) constant speed. c) increasing speed. d) fluctuating speed. 22.1.1.3 (1155) The limits of the yellow scale of an airspeed indicator are : a) VNO for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit b) VLO for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit c) VLE for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit d) VFE for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit 22.1.1.3 (1156) The limits of the green scale of an airspeed indicator are : a) VS1 for the lower limit and VNO for the upper limit b) VS0 for the lower limit and VNO for the upper limit c) VS1 for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit d) VS1 for the lower limit and VLO for the upper limit 22.1.1.3 (1157) The limits of the white scale of an airspeed indicator are : a) VSO for the lower limit and VFE for the upper limit b) VSI for the lower limit and VFE for the upper limit c) VSO for the lower limit and VLE for the upper limit d) VSI for the lower limit and VLE for the upper limit 22.1.1.3 (1158) The velocity maximum operating (V.M.O.) is a speed expressed in : a) calibrated airspeed (CAS). b) equivalent airspeed (EAS).

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c) true airspeed (TAS). d) computed airspeed (COAS). 22.1.1.3 (1159) After an aircraft has passed through a volcanic cloud which has blocked the total pressure probe inlet of the airspeed indicator, the pilot begins a stabilized descent and finds that the indicated airspeed : a) decreases steadily b) increases abruptly towards VNE c) increases steadily d) decreases abruptly towards zero 22.1.1.3 (1160) During a climb after take-off from a contaminated runway, if the total pressure probe of the airspeed indicator is blocked, the pilot finds that indicated airspeed : a) increases steadily b) increases abruptly towards VNE c) decreases stadily d) decreases abruptly towards zero 22.1.1.3 (1161) With a constant weight, irrespective of the airfield altitude, an aircraft always takes off at the same : a) calibrated airspeed. b) ground speed. c) true airspeed. d) equivalent airspeed. 22.1.1.3 (1162) All the anemometers are calibrated according to: a) St-Venant' formula which takes into account the air compressibility. b) Bernouilli's limited formula which takes into account the air compressibility. c) St-Venant's formula which considers the air as an uncompressible fluid. d) Bernouilli's limited formula which considers the air as an uncompressible fluid. 22.1.1.3 (1163) VFE is the maximum speed : a) with the flaps extended in a given position. b) with the flaps extended in landing position. c) at which the flaps can be operated. d) with the flaps extended in take-off position. 22.1.1.3 (1164) The airspeed indicator of an aircraft is provided with a moving red and white hatched pointer. This pointer indicates the: a) maximum speed in VMO operation versus altitude b) maximum speed in VMO operation, versus temperature c) speed indicated on the autothrottle control box, versus temperature d) speed indicated on the autothrottle control box versus altitude

22.1.1.3 (1165) The airspeed indicator of a twin-engined aircraft comprises different sectors and color marks. The blue line corresponds to the : a) optimum climbing speed with one engine inoperative, or Vy b) speed not to be exceeded, or VNE c) minimum control speed, or VMC d) maximum speed in operations, or VMO 22.1.1.3 (1166) Today's airspeed indicators (calibrated to the Saint-Venant formula), indicate, in the absence of static (and instrumental) error : a) The conventional airspeed (CAS) in all cases b) The true airspeed c) The airspeed, whatever the altitude d) The equivalent airspeed, in all cases 22.1.1.3 (1167) Considering the maximum operational Mach number (MMO) and the maximum operational speed (VMO), the captain of a pressurized aircraft begins his descent from a high flight level. In order to meet his scheduled time of arrival, he decides to use the maximum ground speed at any time of the descent. He will be limited : a) initially by the MMO, then by the VMO below a certain flight level b) initially by theVMO, then by the MMO below a certain flight level c) by the MMO d) by the VMO in still air 22.1.1.4 (1168) Machmeter readings are subject to: a) position pressure error b) density error. c) temperature error. d) setting error. 22.1.1.4 (1169) If the outside temperature at 35 000 feet is -40°C, the local speed of sound is : a) 596 kt. b) 247 kt. c) 307 kt. d) 686 kt. 22.1.1.4 (1170) During a straight and uniform climb, the pilot maintains a constant calibrated airspeed (CAS) : a) The Mach number increases and the true airspeed (TAS) increases. b) The Mach number increases and the true airspeed (TAS) is constant. c) The Mach number is constant and the true airspeed (TAS) is constant. d) The Mach number is constant and the true airspeed (TAS) decreases. 22.1.1.4 (1171) A VMO-MMO warning device consists of an alarm connected to : a) a barometric aneroid capsule subjected to a static pressure and an airspeed

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sensor subjected to a dynamic pressure. b) a barometic aneroid capsule subjected to a dynamic pressure and an airspeed sensor subjected to a static pressure. c) a barometric aneroid capsule and an airspeed sensor subjected to dynamic pressure. d) a barometric aneroid capsule and an airspeed sensor subjected to a static pressure. 22.1.1.4 (1172) The reading of a Mach indicator is independent of : a) the outside temperature b) the static pressure c) the total pressure d) the differential pressure measurement 22.1.1.4 (1173) The principle of the Mach indicator is based on the computation of the ratio : a) (Pt - Ps) to Ps b) Pt to Ps c) (Pt - Ps) to Pt d) (Pt + Ps) to Ps 22.1.1.4 (1174) The mach number is the: a) true airspeed (TAS) divided by the local speed of sound b) corrected airspeed (CAS) divided by the local speed of sound c) indicated airspeed (IAS) divided by the local speed of sound d) equivalent airspeed (EAS) divided by the local speed of sound 22.1.1.4 (1175) Sound propagates through the air at a speed which only depends on : a) temperature. b) temperature and the pressure. c) pressure. d) density. 22.1.1.4 (1176) The velocity of sound at the sea level in a standard atmosphere is: a) 661 kt. b) 1059 kt. c) 644 kt. d) 332 kt. 22.1.1.4 (1177) At a constant calibrated airspeed (CAS), the Mach number : a) increases when the altitude increases b) decreases when the altitude increases c) remains unchanged when the outside temperature increases d) remains unchanged when the outside temperature decreases 22.1.1.4 (1178) At a constant Mach number, the calibrated air speed (CAS) :

a) decreases when the altitude increases b) increases when the altitude increases c) remains unchanged when the outside temperature increases d) remains unchanged when the outside temperature decreases 22.1.1.4 (1179) The Mach number is : a) the ratio of the aircraft true airspeed to the sonic velocity at the altitude considered b) a direct function of temperature , it varies in proportion to the square root of the absolute temperature c) the ratio of the indicated airspeed to the sonic velocity at the altitude considered d) the ratio of the aircraft conventionnal airspeed to the sonic velocity at the altitude considered 22.1.1.4 (1180) Indication of Mach number is obtained from: a) Indicated speed and altitude using a speed indicator equipped with an altimeter type aneroid b) An ordinary airspeed indicator scaled for Mach numbers instead of knots c) A kind of echo sound comparing velocity of sound with indicated speed d) Indicated speed (IAS) compared with true air speed (TAS) from the air data computer 22.1.1.5 (1181) The vertical speed indicator of an aircraft flying at a true airspeed of 100 kt, in a descent with a slope of 3 degrees, indicates : a) - 500 ft/min. b) - 300 ft/min c) - 150 ft/min d) - 250 ft/min 22.1.1.5 (1182) The response time of a vertical speed detector may be increased by adding a: a) correction based on an accelerometer sensor. b) bimettalic strip c) return spring d) second calibrated port 22.1.1.5 (1183) The vertical speed indicator (VSI) is fed by : a) static pressure b) dynamic pressure c) total pressure d) differential pressure 22.1.1.5 (1184) The operating principle of the vertical speed indicator (VSI) is based on the measurement of the rate of change of: a) Static pressure b) Dynamic pressure

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c) Total pressure d) Kinetic pressure 22.1.1.6 (1185) The advantages provided by an air data computer to indicate the altitude are :1. Position/pressure error correction2. Hysteresis error correction3. Remote data transmission capability4. Capability of operating as a conventional altimeter in the event of a failureThe combination of correct statements is : a) 1,3,4 b) 1,2,3,4 c) 2,3,4 d) 1,2,3 22.1.1.6 (1186) Given :- Ts the static temperature (SAT)- Tt the total temperature (TAT)- Kr the recovery coefficient- M the Mach numberThe total temperature can be expressed approximately by the formula : a) Tt = Ts(1+0.2 M²) b) Tt = Ts(1-0.2 M²) c) Tt = Ts(1+0.2 Kr.M²) d) Tt = Ts/(1+0.2 Kr.M²) 22.1.1.6 (1187) In An Air Data Computer (ADC), aeroplane altitude is calculated from: a) Measurement of absolute barometric pressure from a static source on the fuselage b) The difference between absolute and dynamic pressure at the fuselage c) Measurement of outside air temperature (OAT) d) Measurement of elapsed time for a radio signal transmitted to the ground surface and back 22.1.1.6 (1188) An Air Data Computer (ADC) : a) Transforms air data measurements into electric impulses driving servo motors in instruments b) Is an auxiliary system that provides altitude information in the event that the static source is blocked c) Converts air data measurements given by ATC from the ground in order to provide correct altitude and speed information d) Measures position error in the static system and transmits this information to ATC to provide correct altitude reporting 22.1.2.1 (1189) The diagram on annex 022-648A shows three gyro assemblies: A, B and C. Among these gyros,-one is a roll gyro (noted 1)-one is a pitch gyro (noted 2)-one is a yaw gyro (noted 3)The correct matching of gyros and assemblies is: a) 1B, 2C, 3A b) 1C, 2B, 3A c) 1B, 2A, 3C d) 1A, 2B, 3C

22.1.2.1 (1190) The basis properties of a gyroscope are :1. The gyro's weight.2. The rigidity in space.3. The inertia.4. The high RPM.5. The precessionThe combination of correct statements is : a) 2,5 b) 2,3,5 c) 1,3,5 d) 3,4 22.1.2.1 (1191) A rate integrating gyro is a detecting element used in1. An inertial attitude unit2. An automatic pilot3. A stabilizing servo system4. An inertial navigation system5. A rate-of-turn indicatorThe combination of correct statements is : a) 1,4. b) 1,2,3,4,5. c) 2,3,5. d) 2,3,4. 22.1.2.1 (1192) Compared with a conventional gyro, a laser gyro : a) has a longer life cycle b) is influenced by temperature c) has a fairly long starting cycle d) consumes a lot of power 22.1.2.1 (1193) A laser gyro consists of : a) a laser generating two light waves b) 2 electrodes (anodes+cathodes) c) a gyro with 2 degrees of freedom d) two moving cavities provided with mirrors 22.1.2.1 (1194) Among the systematic errors of the ""directional gyro"", the error due to the earth rotation make the north reference turn in the horizontal plane. At a mean latitude of 45°N, this reference turns by... a) 10.5°/hour to the right. b) 15°/hour to the right. c) 7.5°/hour to the right. d) 7.5°/hour to the left. 22.1.2.1 (1195) In the building principle of a gyroscope, the best efficiency is obtained through the concentration of the mass : a) on the periphery and with a high rotation speed. b) close to the axis and with a high rotation speed. c) on the periphery and with a low rotation speed. d) close to the axis and with a low rotation speed. 22.1.2.2 (1196) The indications on a directional gyroscope or gyrocompass are subject to errors,

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due to:1- rotation of Earth.2- aeroplane motion on Earth.3- lateral and transversal aeroplane bank angles.4- north change.5- mechanical defects.Chose the combination with true statements only: a) 1,2,3,5. b) 3,4,5. c) 1,2,4,5. d) 2,3,5. 22.1.2.2 (1197) The characteristics of the directional gyro (DG) used in a gyro stabilised compass system are : a) two degrees of freedom, whose horizontal axis corresponding to the reference direction is maintained in the horizontal plane by an automatic erecting system. b) two degrees of freedom, whose axis aligned with the vertical to the location is maintained in this direction by an erecting system. c) one degree of freedom, whose horizontal axis is maintained in the horizontal plane by an automatic erecting system. d) one degree of freedom, whose vertical axis, aligned with the real vertical to the location is maintained in this direction by an automatic erecting system. 22.1.2.2 (1198) The directional gyro axis no longer spins about the local vertical when it is located : a) on the equator b) in the latitude 30° c) in the latitude 45° d) on the North pole 22.1.2.2 (1199) The directional gyro axis spins about the local vertical by 15°/hour : a) on the North pole b) in the latitude 30° c) in the latitude 45° d) on the equator 22.1.2.2 (1200) The pendulum type detector system of the directional gyro feeds : a) a levelling erection torque motor b) a nozzle integral with the outer gimbal ring c) a torque motor on the sensitive axis d) 2 torque motors arranged horizontally 22.1.2.2 (1201) The gimbal error of the directional gyro is due to the effect of : a) a bank or pitch attitude of the aircraft b) an apparent weight and an apparent vertical c) too slow precession on the horizontal gimbal ring d) the aircraft's track over the earth 22.1.2.2 (1202) The indication of the directional gyro as an on-board instrument are valid only for a

short period of time. The causes of this inaccuracy are :1. The earth's rotation2. The longitudinal acceleration3. The aircraft's motion over the surface of the earth.4. The mechanical defects of the gyro5. The gyro's weight6. The gimbal mount of the gyro ringsThe combination of correct statements is : a) 1,3,4,6 b) 1,3,4 c) 1,2,3,4,5,6 d) 2,5,6 22.1.2.2 (1203) An airborne instrument, equipped with a gyro with 2 degrees of freedom and a horizontal spin axis is: a) a directional gyro b) an artificial horizon c) a turn indicator d) a fluxgate compass 22.1.2.2 (1204) An airborne instrument, equipped with a gyro with 2 degrees of freedom and a horizontal spin axis is : a) a directional gyro b) an artificial horizon c) a turn indicator d) a flux gate compass 22.1.2.2 (1205) For an aircraft flying a true track of 360° between the 005°S and 005°N parallels, the precession error of the directional gyro due to apparent drift is equal to: a) 0°/hour b) +5°/hour c) -5°/hour d) depends only on the aircraft's ground speed 22.1.2.2 (1206) A directional gyro is: 1- a gyroscope free around two axis 2- a gyroscope free around one axis 3- capable of self- orientation around an earth-tied direction 4incapable of self-orientation around an earth-tied directionThe combination which regroups all of the correct statements is: a) 04-Jan b) 04-Fev c) 03-Fev d) 03-Jan 22.1.2.2 (1207) The maximum directional gyro error due to the earth rotation is: a) 15°/hour b) 90°/hour c) 180°/hour d) 5°/hour

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22.1.2.2 (1208) The heading read on the dial of a directional gyro is subject to errors, one of which is due to the movement of the aircraft.This error... a) is dependent on the ground speed of the aircraft, its true track and the average latitude of the flight b) is, in spite of this, insignificant and may be neglected c) is at its greatest value when the aircraft follows a meridional track d) shows itself by an apparent rotation of the horizontal axis of the gyroscope which seems to turn at 15° per hour to the right in the northern hemisphere 22.1.2.3 (1209) A failed RMI rose is locked on 090° and the ADF pointer indicates 225°. The relative bearing to the station is : a) 135°. b) Impossible to read, due to failure RMI. c) 315°. d) 225°. 22.1.2.3 (1210) A slaved directional gyro derives it's directional signal from : a) the flux valve. b) the air-data-computer. c) a direct reading magnetic compass. d) the flight director. 22.1.2.3 (1211) The input signal of the amplifier of the gyromagnetic compass resetting device originates from the: a) error detector. b) flux valve. c) directional gyro unit. d) directional gyro erection device. 22.1.2.3 (1212) The heading information originating from the gyromagnetic compass flux valve is sent to the: a) error detector. b) erector system. c) heading indicator. d) amplifier. 22.1.2.3 (1213) The gyromagnetic compass torque motor : a) causes the directional gyro unit to precess b) causes the heading indicator to precess c) feeds the error detector system d) is fed by the flux valve 22.1.2.3 (1214) A gyromagnetic compass or heading reference unit is an assembly which always consists of :1- a directional gyro2- a vertical axis gyro3- an earth's magnetic field

detector4- an azimuth control5- a synchronising controlThe combination of correct statements is : a) 1,3,5 b) 2,3,5 c) 1,4 d) 2,5 22.1.2.3 (1215) Heading information from the gyromagnetic compass flux gate is transmitted to the : a) error detector. b) erecting system. c) heading indicator. d) amplifier. 22.1.2.3 (1216) Heading information given by a gyro platform, is given by a gyro at : a) 2 degrees-of-freedom in the horizontal axis b) 2 degrees-of-freedom in the vertical axis c) 1 degree-of-freedom in the horizontal axis d) l degree-of-freedom in the vertical axis 22.1.2.4 (1217) Among the flight control instruments, the artificial horizon plays an essential part. It uses a gyroscope with :Note : in this question, the degrees of freedom of a gyro are determined by the number of gimbal rings it comprises. a) two degrees of freedom, whose axis is oriented and continously maintained to local vertical by an automatic erecting system. b) two degrees of freedom, whose horizontal axis corresponding to a reference direction is maintained in a horizontal plane by an automatic erecting system c) one degree of freedom, whose horizontal axis is maintained in a horizontal plane by an automatic erecting system d) one degree of freedom, whose vertical axis oriented in the direction of the real vertical to the location is maintained in this direction by an automatic erecting system 22.1.2.4 (1218) When an aircraft has turned 270 degrees with a constant attitude and bank, the pilot observes the following on a classic artificial horizon : a) too much nose-up and bank too high. b) too much nose-up and bank too low. c) attitude and bank correct. d) too much nose-up and bank correct. 22.1.2.4 (1219) When an aircraft has turned 360 degrees with a constant attitude and bank, the pilot observes the following on a classic artificial horizon : a) attitude and bank correct b) too much nose-up and bank too low c) too much nose-up and bank correct d) too much nose-up and bank too high

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22.1.2.4 (1220) When an aircraft has turned 90 degrees with a constant attitude and bank, the pilot observes the following on a classic artificial horizon : a) too much nose-up and bank too low b) attitude and bank correct c) too much nose-up and bank correct d) too much nose-up and bank too high 22.1.2.4 (1221) A gravity type erector is used in a vertical gyro device to correct errors on : a) an artificial horizon b) a directional gyro unit c) a turn indicator d) a gyromagnetic indicator 22.1.2.4 (1222) Following 180° stabilized turn with a constant attitude and bank, the artificial horizon indicates : a) too high pitch-up and too low banking b) too high pitch-up and correct banking c) attitude and banking correct d) too high pitch up and too high banking 22.1.2.4 (1223) During an acceleration phase at constant attitude, the resetting principle of the artificial horizon results in the horizon bar indicating a : a) nose-up attitude b) nose-down attitude c) constant attitude d) nose-down followed by a nose-up attitude 22.1.2.4 (1224) A Stand-by-horizon or emergency attitude indicator: a) Contains its own separate gyro b) Is automatically connected to the primary vertical gyro if the alternator fails c) Is fully independent of external energy resources in an emergency situation d) Only works of there is a complete electrical failure 22.1.2.4 (1225) (Use the appendix to answer this question)The diagram which shows a 40° left bank and 15° nose down attitude is n° a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 22.1.2.4 (1226) A gravity erector system is used to correct the errors on : a) an artificial horizon. b) a directional gyro.

c) a turn indicator. d) a gyromagnetic compass. 22.1.2.5 (1227) Under normal operating conditions, when an aircraft is in a banked turn, the rateof-turn indicator is a valuable gyroscopic flight control instrument , when it is associated with an attitude indicator it indicates :1. the angular velocity of the aircraft about the yaw axis2. The bank of the aircraft3. The direction of the aircraft turn4. The angular velocity of the aircraft about the real verticalThe combination of correct statements is : a) 1,3. b) 1,2. c) 3,4. d) 2,4. 22.1.2.5 (1228) A turn indicator is built around a gyroscope with: a) 2 degrees of freedom. b) 0 degree of freedom. c) 1 degree of freedom. d) 3 degrees of freedom. 22.1.2.5 (1229) When, in flight, the needle and ball of a needle-and-ball indicator are on the right, the aircraft is : a) turning right with too much bank b) turning right with not enough bank c) turning left with too much bank d) turning left with not enough bank 22.1.2.5 (1230) When, in flight, the needle of a needle-and-ball indicator is on the right and the ball on the left, the aircraft is : a) turning right with not enough bank b) turning right with too much bank c) turning left with not enough bank d) turning left with too much bank 22.1.2.5 (1231) When, in flight, the needle of a needle-and-ball indicator is on the left and the ball on the right, the aircraft is: a) turning left with not enough bank b) turning left with too much bank c) turning right with not enough bank d) turning right with too much bank 22.1.2.5 (1232) An airborne instrument, equipped with a gyro with 1 degree of freedom and a horizontal spin axis is a : a) turn indicator b) gyromagnetic compass

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c) fluxgate compass d) directional gyro 22.1.2.5 (1233) In a turn at constant rate, the turn indicator reading is: a) inversely proportional to the aircraft true airspeed b) proportional to the aircraft true airspeed c) independent to the aircraft true airspeed d) proportional to the aircraft weight 22.1.2.5 (1234) In a Turn-indicator, the measurement of rate-of-turn consists for : a) low bank angles, in measuring the yaw rate b) low bank angles , in measuring the roll rate c) high bank angles,in measuring the yaw rate d) high bank angles, in measuring the roll rate 22.1.2.5 (1235) At a low bank angle, the measurement of rate-of-turn actually consists in measuring the : a) yaw rate of the aircraft b) pitch rate of the aircraft c) roll rate of the aircraft d) angular velocity of the aircraft 22.1.2.5 (1236) The rate-of-turn is the: a) change-of-heading rate of the aircraft b) yaw rate in a turn c) aircraft speed in a turn d) pitch rate in a turn 22.1.2.5 (1237) On the ground, during a right turn, the turn indicator indicates : a) needle to the right, ball to left b) needle to the right, ball to right c) needle in the middle, ball to right d) needle in the middle, ball to left 22.1.2.5 (1238) On the ground, during a left turn, the turn indicator indicates : a) needle to the left, ball to the right b) needle to the left, ball to the left c) needle in the middle, ball to the right d) needle in the middle, ball to the left 22.1.2.5 (1239) When, in flight, the needle and ball of a needle-and-ball indicator are on the left, the aircraft is: a) turning left with too much bank

b) turning left with not enough bank c) turning right with too much bank d) turning right with not enough bank 22.1.2.5 (1240) A turn indicator is an instrument which indicates rate of turn.Rate of turn depends upon :1 : bank angle2 : aeroplane speed3 : aeroplane weightThe combination regrouping the correct statements is : a) 1 and 2. b) 1 and 3. c) 2 and 3. d) 1, 2, and 3. 22.1.2.5 (1241) (For this question use appendix )The diagram representing a left turn with insufficient rudder is: a) 4 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3 22.1.2.5 (1242) The turn rate indicator uses a gyroscope:1 - with one degree of freedom.2 - with two degrees of freedom3 - the frame of which is supported by two return springs.4 - the spinning wheel axis of which is parallel to the pitch axis.5 - the spinning wheel axis of which is parallel to the yawing axis.6 - the spinning wheel axis of which is horizontal.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a) 03-Jan b) 2001-03-04 c) 05-Fev d) 06-Jan 22.1.2.5 (1243) An aircraft is flying at a 120 kt true airspeed (VV), in order to achieve a rate 1 turn, the pilot will have to bank the aircraft at an angle of: a) 18°. b) 12°. c) 36°. d) 30°. 22.1.2.6 (1244) While inertial platform system is operating on board an aircraft, it is necessary to use a device with the following characteristics, in order to keep the vertical line with a pendulous system: a) with damping and a period of about 84 minutes. b) without damping and a period of about 84 minutes c) without damping and a period of about 84 seconds d) with damping and a period of 84 seconds 22.1.2.6 (1245) The heading reference unit of a three-axis data generator is equipped with a gyro

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with: a) 2 degrees of freedom and horizontal spin axis b) 2 degrees of freedom and vertical spin axis c) 1 degree of freedom and horizontal spin axis d) 1 degree of freedom and vertical spin axis 22.1.2.6 (1246) The vertical reference unit of a three-axis data generator is equipped with a gyro with : a) 2 degrees of freedom and vertical spin axis b) 2 degrees of freedom and horizontal spin axis c) 1 degree of freedom and horizontal spin axis d) 1 degree of freedom and vertical spin axis 22.1.2.7 (1247) In order to align a strapdown inertial unit, it is required to insert the local geographical coordinates. This is necessary to: a) Position the computing trihedron with reference to earth. b) Check operation of laser gyros. c) Determine magnetic or true heading. d) Re-erect laser gyros. 22.1.3.0 (1248) The quadrantal deviation of the magnetic compass is due to the action of : a) the soft iron pieces influenced by the geomagnetic field b) the hard iron ices and the soft iron pieces influenced by the hard iron pieces c) the hard iron pieces influenced by the geomagnetic field d) the hard iron pieces influenced by the mild iron pieces 22.1.3.0 (1249) A pilot wishes to turn right on to a southerly heading with 20° bank at a latitude of 20° North. Using a direct reading compass, in order to achieve this he must stop the turn on an approximate heading of : a) 210° b) 150° c) 170° d) 190° 22.1.3.0 (1250) A pilot wishes to turn left on to a southerly heading with 20° bank at a latitude of 20° North. Using a direct reading compass, in order to achieve this he must stop the turn on an approximate heading of : a) 160° b) 200° c) 170° d) 190° 22.1.3.0 (1251) A pilot wishes to turn left on to a northerly heading with 10° bank at a latitude of 50° North. Using a direct reading compass, in order to achieve this he must stop the turn on an approximate heading of :

a) 030° b) 355° c) 330° d) 015° 22.1.3.0 (1252) A pilot wishes to turn right on to a northerly heading with 20° bank at a latitude of 40° North. Using a direct reading compass, in order to achieve this he must stop the turn on to an approximate heading of : a) 330° b) 350° c) 030° d) 010° 22.1.3.0 (1253) The purpose of compass swinging is to determine the deviation of a magnetic compass : a) on any heading b) on a given heading c) at any latitude d) at a given latitude 22.1.3.0 (1254) The compass heading can be derived from the magnetic heading by reference to a: a) compass swinging curve b) map showing the isoclinic lines c) deviation correction curve d) map showing the isogonic lines 22.1.3.0 (1255) The magnetic heading can be derived from the true heading by means of a : a) map showing the isogonal lines b) map showing the isoclinic lines c) deviation correction curve d) compass swinging curve 22.1.3.0 (1256) The fields affecting a magnetic compass originate from:1. magnetic masses2. ferrous metal masses3. non ferrous metal masses4. electrical currentsThe combination of correct statements is: a) 1, 2, 4 b) 1, 2, 3 c) 1, 2, 3, 4 d) 1, 3, 4 22.1.3.0 (1257) In the northern hemisphere, during deceleration following a landing in an Easterly direction, the magnetic compass will indicate : a) an apparent turn to the South. b) an apparent turn to the North.

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c) a constant heading. d) a heading fluctuating about 090°. 22.1.3.0 (1258) During deceleration following a landing in Northerly direction, the magnetic compass will indicate : a) no apparent turn. b) an apparent turn to the East. c) an apparent turn to the West. d) a heading fluctuating about 360°. 22.1.3.0 (1259) During deceleration following a landing in a Southerly direction, the magnetic compass will indicate : a) no apparent turn. b) an apparent turn to the East. c) an apparent turn to the West. d) a heading fluctuating about 180°. 22.1.3.0 (1260) In the Southern hemisphere, during deceleration following a landing in a Westerly direction, the magnetic compass will indicate : a) an apparent turn to the North. b) an apparent turn to the South. c) no apparent turn. d) a heading fluctuating about 270°. 22.1.3.0 (1261) In the Northern hemisphere, during deceleration following a landing in a Westerly direction, the magnetic compass will indicate : a) an apparent turn to the South. b) an apparent turn to the North. c) no apparent turn. d) a heading fluctuating about 270°. 22.1.3.0 (1262) In the Southern hemisphere, during deceleration following a landing in an Easterly direction, the magnetic compass will indicate : a) an apparent turn to the North. b) an apparent turn to the South. c) no apparent turn. d) a heading fluctuating about 090°. 22.1.3.0 (1263) The quadrantal deviation of a magnetic compass is corrected by using : a) soft iron pieces b) hard iron pieces c) pairs of permanent magnets d) magnetized needles

22.1.3.0 (1264) An aircraft takes-off on a runway with an alignment of 045°. The isogonic line on the area chart indicates 0°. The compass deviation is O°.On a take-off with zero wind, the northerly turning error: a) is such that the compass will indicate a value noticeably below 045°. b) is such that the compass will indicate a value noticeably above 045°. c) will be nul if the wings are kept level. d) will be nul 22.1.3.0 (1265) When turning onto a northerly heading the rose of a magnetic compass tends to ""undershoot,"" when turning onto a southerly heading it tends to ""overshoot"":1)these compass indications are less reliable in the northern hemisphere than in the southern hemisphere.2)these compass oscillations following a lateral gust are not identical if the aircraft is heading north or south.3) this behaviour is due to the mechanical construction of the compass. 4) this behaviour is a symptom of a badly swung compass.The correct statements are : a) 2 and 3. b) 1, 2, and 4. c) 2, 3, and 4. d) 1 and 3. 22.1.3.0 (1266) Among the errors of a magnetic compass, are errors: a) in North seeking, due to bank angle and magnetic heading b) due to cross-wind gusts particularly on westerly or easterly headings c) due to Schüler type oscillations d) of parallax, due to oscillations of the compass rose 22.1.3.0 (1267) The purpose of a compass swing is to attempt to coincide the indications of: a) compass north and magnetic north. b) compass north and true north. c) true north and magnetic north. d) compass north and the lubber line. 22.1.3.0 (1268) In a steep turn, the northerly turning error on a magnetic compass on the northern hemisphere is: a) equal to 180° on a 090° heading in a right turn. b) none on a 270° heading in a left turn. c) none on a 090° heading in a right turn. d) equal to 180° on a 270° heading in a right turn. 22.1.3.0 (1269) Magnetic compass swinging is carried out to reduce as much as possible : a) deviation. b) variation. c) regulation. d) acceleration.

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22.1.3.0 (1270) A flux valve senses the changes in orientation of the horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field.1- the flux valve is made of a pair of soft iron bars2- the primary coils are fed A.C. voltage (usually 487.5 Hz)3- the information can be used by a ""flux gate"" compass or a directional gyro4- the flux gate valve casing is dependent on the aircraft three inertial axis5- the accuracy on the value of the magnetic field indication is less than 0,5%Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements? a) 2002-03-05 b) 1 - 3 - 4 - 5 c) 05-Mar d) 2001-04-05 22.1.4.0 (1271) In low altitude radio altimeters, the reading is zero when main landing gear wheels are on the ground. For this, it is necessary to: a) account for signal processing time in the unit and apply a correction factor to the reading. b) place the antennas on the bottom of the aeroplane. c) change the display scale in short final, in order to have a precise readout. d) compensate residual altitude due to antennas height above the ground and coaxial cables length. 22.1.4.0 (1272) The aircraft radio equipment which emits on a frequency of 4400 MHz is the : a) radio altimeter. b) high altitude radio altimeter. c) weather radar. d) primary radar. 22.1.4.0 (1273) The low-altitude radio altimeters used in precision approaches:1 operate in the 1540-1660 MHz range.2 are of the pulsed type.3 are of the frequency modulation type.4 have an operating range of 0 to 5000 ft.5 have a precision of +/- 2 feet between 0 and 500 ft.The combination of the correct statements is : a) 3, 5 b) 3, 4 c) 2, 3, 4 d) 1, 2, 5 22.1.4.0 (1274) The data supplied by a radio altimeter: a) indicates the distance between the ground and the aircraft. b) concerns only the decision height. c) is used only by the radio altimeter indicator. d) is used by the automatic pilot in the altitude hold mode. 22.1.4.0 (1275) In low altitude radio altimeters, the height measurement (above the ground) is based upon: a) a frequency modulation wave, for which the frequency variation between the

transmitted wave and the received wave after ground reflection is measured. b) a pulse transmission, for which time between transmission and reception is measured on a circular scanning screen. c) a wave transmission, for which the frequency shift by DOPPLER effect after ground reflection is measured. d) a triangular amplitude modulation wave, for which modulation phase shift between transmitted and received waves after ground reflection is measured. 22.1.4.0 (1276) Modern low altitude radioaltimeters emit waves in the following frequency band: a) SHF (Super High Frequency). b) VLF (Very Low Frequency). c) HF (High Frequency). d) UHF (Ultra High Frequency). 22.1.4.0 (1277) The operating frequency range of a low altitude radio altimeter is: a) 4200 MHz to 4400 MHz. b) 5400 MHz or 9400 MHz. c) 2700 MHz to 2900 MHz. d) 5 GHz. 22.1.4.0 (1278) The Decision Height (DH) warning light comes on when an aircraft: a) descends below a pre-set radio altitude. b) passes over the outer marker. c) descends below a pre-set barometric altitude. d) passes over the ILS inner marker. 22.1.4.0 (1279) The operation of the radio altimeter of a modern aircraft is based on: a) frequency modulation of the carrier wave. b) amplitude modulation of the carrier wave. c) pulse modulation of the carrier wave. d) a combination of frequency modulation and pulse modulation. 22.1.4.0 (1280) A radio altimeter can be defined as a : a) self-contained on-board aid used to measure the true height of the aircraft b) self-contained on-board aid used to measure the true altitude of the aircraft c) ground radio aid used to measure the true height of the aircraft d) ground radio aid used to measure the true altitude of the aircraft 22.1.4.0 (1281) For most radio altimeters, when a system error occurs during approach the .. a) Height indication is removed b) DH lamp flashes red and the audio signal sounds c) DH lamp flashes red d) Audio warning signal sounds

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22.1.4.0 (1282) During the approach, a crew reads on the radio altimeter the value of 650 ft. This is an indication of the true: a) height of the lowest wheels with regard to the ground at any time. b) height of the aircraft with regard to the ground at any time. c) height of the aircraft with regard to the runway. d) altitude of the aircraft. 22.1.5.0 (1283) Regarding Electronic Instrument System (EFIS) :1- the Navigation Display (ND) displays Flight Director Bars.2- the altimeter setting is displayed on the PFD (Primary Flight Display).3- the PFD is the main flying instrument.4- the FMA (Flight Mode Annunciator) is part of the ND.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is : a) 2, 3. b) 3, 4. c) 1, 4. d) 1, 2. 22.1.5.0 (1284) The Primary Flight Display (PFD) displays information dedicated to: a) piloting. b) weather situation. c) engines and alarms. d) systems. 22.1.6.0 (1285) All the last generation aircraft use flight control systems. The Flight Management System (FMS) is the most advanced system , it can be defined as a: a) global 3-D Flight Management System b) management system optimized in the vertical plane c) management system optimized in the horizontal plane d) global 2-D Flight Management System 22.2.0.0 (1286) When the altitude acquisition mode is engaged on a jet transport airplane equipped with autopilot (AP) and auto-throttle (ATS) systems the: a) indicated airspeed (IAS) is maintained constant by the autopilot by means of elevator. b) true airspeed (TAS) is maintained constant by the autopilot by means of elevator. c) true airspeed (TAS) is maintained constant by the auto-throttle system. d) indicated airspeed (IAS) is maintained constant by the auto-throttle system. 22.2.1.0 (1287) Flight Director Information supplied by an FD computer is presented in the form of command bars on the following instrument: a) ADI Attitude Display Indicator. b) BDHI Bearing Distance Heading Indicator. c) RMI Radio Magnetic Indicator. d) HSI Horizontal Situation Indicator.

22.2.1.0 (1288) The Head Up Display (HUD) is a device allowing the pilot, while still looking outside, to have: a) a synthetic view of the instrument procedure. b) a flying and flight path control aid. c) a monitoring of engine data. d) a monitoring only during Cat III precision approaches. 22.2.1.0 (1289) For capturing and keeping a preselected magnetic heading, the flight director computer takes into account:1- track deviation2- rate of track closure3- rate of change of track closure4- wind velocity given by the inertial reference unitThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is : a) 1,2,3 b) 1,2,4 c) 2,3,4 d) 1,3,4 22.2.1.0 (1290) The essential components of a flight director are :1- a computer2- an automatic pilot3- an autothrottle4- command barsThe combination of correct statements is : a) 1,4 b) 1,2 c) 2,4 d) 2,3 22.2.1.0 (1291) The ""heading hold"" mode is selected on the flight director (FD) with a course to steer of 180°. Your aircraft holds a heading of 160°. The vertical bar of the FD: a) is centered if the aircraft is on optimum path to join heading 180° b) is centered if the aircraft has a starboard drift of 20° c) is centered if the aircraft has a port drift of 20° d) cannot be centered 22.2.1.0 (1292) Mode ""Localizer ARM"" active on Flight Director means: a) System is armed for localizer approach and coupling will occur upon capturing center line b) Localizer ALARM, making localizer approach not authorized c) Coupling has occurred and system provides control data to capture the centerline d) Localizer is armed and coupling will occur when flag warning disappears 22.2.1.0 (1293) An aeroplane is equipped with a Flight Director (with crosshair trend bars), heading 270°, in HDG mode (heading hold). A new heading, of 360°, is selected the vertical trend bar : a) deviates to the right and will be centred as soon as you roll the aircraft to the bank angle calculated by the flight director. b) deviates to the right and remains in that position until the aircraft has reached heading 360°. c) disappears, the new heading selection has deactivated the HDG mode.

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d) deviates to its right stop as long as the aeroplane is more than 10° off the new selected heading. 22.2.1.0 (1294) The position of a Flight Director command bars: a) indicates the manoeuvers to execute, to achieve or maintain a flight situation. b) repeats the ADI and HSI information c) enables the measurement of deviation from a given position. d) only displays information relating to radio-electric deviation. 22.2.1.0 (1295) On a modern aircraft, the flight director modes are displayed on the: a) upper strip of the PFD (Primary Flight Display). b) upper strip of the ND (Navigation Display). c) upper strip of the ECAM (Electronic Centralized A/C Management). d) control panel of the flight director only. 22.2.1.0 (1296) The aim of the flight director is to provide information to the pilot: a) allowing him to return to a desired path in an optimal way. b) about his position with regard to a radioelectric axis. c) allowing him to return to a desired path according to a 45° intercept angle. d) allowing him to return to a desired path according to a 30° intercept angle. 22.2.1.0 (1297) (For this question use annex 022-9768A)An aircraft is under guidance mode following a VOR radial. From the ADI and HSI information represented in the enclosed annex, it is possible to deduce that the aircraft is : a) experiencing a leftside wind. b) located to the leftside of the selected radial. c) located to the rightside of the selected radial. d) experiencing rightside wind. 22.2.1.0 (1298) The flight director indicates the : a) optimum instantaneous path to reach selected radial. b) optimum path at the moment it is entered to reach a selected radial. c) path permitting reaching a selected radial in minimum time. d) path permitting reaching a selected radial over a minimum distance. 22.2.1.0 (1299) For this question use annex (022-10179A)Four scenarios of VOR axis interception are represented in the appended annex. The one corresponding to the optimal interception path calculated by a flight director is number : a) 2 b) 1 c) 4 d) 3

22.2.1.0 (1300) The command bars of a flight director are generally represented on an: a) ADI (Attitude Director Indicator) b) HSI (Horizontal Situation Indicator) c) RMI (Radio Magnetic Indicator) d) ILS (Instrument Landing System) 22.2.1.0 (1301) (For this question use annex 022-10217A)After having programmed your flight director, you see that the indications of your ADI (Attitude Director Indicator) are as represented in diagram N°1 of the appended annex. On this instrument, the command bars indicate that you must bank your airplane to the left and : a) increase the flight attitude until the command bars recentre on the symbolic airplane. b) decrease the flight attitude until the command bars recentre on the symbolic airplane. c) increase the flight attitude until the command bars recentre on the horizon. d) decrease the flight attitude until the command bars recentre on the horizon. 22.2.1.0 (1302) (For this question use annex 022-11232A)After having programmed your flight director, you see that the indications of your ADI (Attitude Director indicator) are as represented in diagram N°1 of the appended annex. On this instrument, the command bars indicate that you must : a) increase the flight attitude and bank your airplane to the left until the command bars recentre on the symbolic aeroplane. b) increase the flight attitude and bank your aeroplane to the right until the command bars recentre on the symbolic aeroplane. c) decrease the flight attitude and bank your airplane to the left until the command bars recentre on the symbolic aeroplane. d) decrease the flight attitude and bank your airplane to the right until the command bars recentre on the symbolic aeroplane. 22.2.2.0 (1303) The synchronization of the autopilot control channel system :1- enables the prevention of jerks during disengagement 2- enables the cancellation of rudder control signals3- enables the prevention of jerks during engagement4- functions in the heading, navigation, approach modesThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a) 3, 4 b) 2, 4 c) 1, 4 d) 2, 3 22.2.2.0 (1304) (For this question use annex 022-3880A)The block diagram of an auto-pilot is shown in the annex.For each control channel (pitch, roll and yaw) the piloting law is the relationship between the deflection of the control surface commanded by the computer (BETA c) and the: a) offset EPSILON at the computer input. b) pilot command E. c) aircraft response S. d) real deflection of the control surface (BETA control surface feedback).

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22.2.2.0 (1305) Landing shall be considered as having been carried out automatically when the autopilot and the auto-throttle of an aircraft are disengaged by flight crew : a) during ground roll. b) during the flare. c) at the decision height. d) at the outer marker. 22.2.2.0 (1306) A pilot has to carry out a single-pilot IFR flight on a light twin-engined aircraft for cargo transport. The purpose of the automatic pilot is at least to hold the: a) heading and to hold the altitude b) heading c) altitude d) heading, to hold the altitude and to have a radio axis tracking function 22.2.2.0 (1307) An automatic landing is carried out when the automatic pilot : a) and the autothrottle ensure a correct final approach, at least up to ground roll b) ensures a correct final approach, at least up to ground roll while the human pilot controls the power c) and the autothrottle ensure a correct final approach, at least up to flare-out d) and the autothrottle ensure a correct final approach, at least up to flare-out while the human pilot controls the power 22.2.2.0 (1308) A closed loop control system in which a small power input controls a much larger power output in a strictly proportionate manner is known as : a) a servomechanism. b) an amplifier. c) a feedback control circuit. d) an autopilot. 22.2.2.0 (1309) The interception of a localizer beam by the autopilot takes place : a) at a constant heading b) at a constant magnetic course c) according to an interception versus radio deviation law d) according to an interception versus range and angular 22.2.2.0 (1310) The Altitude Select System: a) Is annunciated by light and/or sound when airplane is approaching selected altitude b) Illuminates a light when selected altitude is attained c) Engages autopilot Auto Trim at selected altitude d) Disengages autopilot Auto Trim at selected altitude 22.2.2.0 (1311) On an autopilot coupled approach, GO AROUND mode is engaged: a) by the pilot pushing a button located on the throttles.

b) by the pilot selecting G.A. mode on the thrust computer control panel. c) automatically in case of an autopilot or flight director alarm. d) if the aircraft reaches the decision height selected on the radio altimeter at a higher speed than the one selected. 22.2.2.0 (1312) When being engaged, and without selecting a particular mode, an automatic pilot enables : a) aeroplane stabilisation with attitude hold or maintaining vertical speed and possibly automatic trim. b) aeroplane piloting and guidance functions. c) a constant speed on track, wings horizontal. d) all aeroplane piloting and guidance functions except maintaining radio-navigation course lines. 22.2.2.0 (1313) An automatic pilot is a system which can ensure the functions of: a) piloting and guidance of an aircraft in both the horizontal and vertical planes. b) piloting only. c) navigation. d) piloting from take-off to landing without any action from the human pilot. 22.2.2.0 (1314) When the auto-pilot is engaged, the role of the automatic trim is to: a) relieve the A.P. servo motor and return the aircraft in-trim at A.P. disconnect b) relieve the pressure on the control column and return, the aircraft in-trim at A.P. disconnect c) react to altitude changes in Altitude Hold mode d) synchronize the longitudinal loop 22.2.2.0 (1315) The command functions of an autopilot include, among others, the holding of :1vertical speed2- altitude3- attitude4- bank5- headingThe combination which regroups all of the correct statements is : a) 2001-02-05 b) 1 - 2 - 3 - 5 c) 05-Mar d) 2002-03-04 22.2.2.0 (1316) In an auto-pilot slaved powered control circuit, the system which ensures synchronisation : a) can itself, when it fails, prevent the automatic pilot from being engaged. b) intervenes only when the automatic pilot has been engaged. c) prevents uncommanded surface deflection when the automatic pilot is disengaged. d) is inhibited when the automatic pilot is engaged. 22.2.2.0 (1317) The control law of a transport airplane autopilot control channel may be defined as the relationship between the : a) computer input deviation data and the output control deflection signals. b) computer input deviation data and the signals received by the servoactuators.

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c) input and output signals at the amplifier level respectively control deviation data and control deflection signals. d) crew inputs to the computer and the detector responses (returned to the airplane). 22.2.2.0 (1318) In a transport airplane, an autopilot comprises, in addition to the mode display devices, the following fundamental elements :1- Airflow valve2- Sensors3Comparators4- Computers5- Amplifiers6- Servo-actuatorsThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a) 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 b) 2, 3, 4, 5 c) 1, 3, 4, 6 d) 1, 2, 6 22.2.2.0 (1319) The correction of the control surface deflection made by the automatic pilot calculator in order to stabilize the longitudinal attitude will be all the more significant as the :1- difference between the reference attitude and the instantaneous attitude is high.2- rate of change of the difference between the reference attitude and the instantaneous attitude is high.3- temperature is low.4pressure altitude is high.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a) 1,2. b) 1, 2, 3, 4. c) 1, 2, 3. d) 2, 3, 4. 22.2.2.0 (1320) The correction of the control surface deflection made by the auto-pilot calculator in order to keep a given altitude will be all the more significant when the :1difference between the attitude necessary to keep the given or reference altitude and the instantaneous attitude is high.2 - variation speed of the difference between the attitude necessary to maintain the altitude and the instantaneous attitude is high.3 - difference between the altitude of reference and the instantaneous altitude is high.4 - variation speed of the difference between the reference altitude and the instantaneous altitude is high.The combination regrouping the correct statements is: a) 1, 2, 3 and 4. b) 1 and 2. c) 3 and 4. d) 1, 2 and 3. 22.2.2.0 (1321) When only one autopilot is used for climbing, cruising and approach, the system is considered: a) ""fail soft"" or with minimized failure effect. b) ""fail passive"" or without failure effect but with disconnection. c) ""fail survival"" or without failure effect with function always ensured. d) ""fail safe"" with failure effect without disconnection. 22.2.2.0 (1322) In automatic landing mode, when the 2 autopilots are used, the system is

considered: a) ""fail survival"" or without failure effect with function always ensured. b) ""fail soft"" or with minimized failure effect. c) ""fail passive"" or without failure effect but with disconnection. d) ""fail hard"" or with failure effect and disconnection. 22.2.2.0 (1323) In automatic landing mode, in case of failure of one of the two autopilots, the system is considered: a) ""fail passive"" or without failure effect but with disconnection. b) ""fail survival"" or without failure effect with function always ensured. c) ""fail hard"" or without failure effect and disconnection. d) ""fail soft"" with minimized failure effect. 22.2.2.0 (1324) During an automatic landing, from a height of about 50 ft the: a) autopilot maintains a vertical speed depending on the radio altimeter height. b) glideslope mode is disconnected and the airplane continues its descent until landing. c) autopilot maintains an angle of attack depending on the radio altimeter height. d) Loc and Glideslope modes are disconnected and the airplane carries on its descent until landing. 22.2.2.0 (1325) In a selected axis capture mode, the autopilot gives a bank attitude input : a) proportional to the deviation between the selected heading and the current heading but not exceeding a given value. b) of a fixed value equal to 27°. c) of a fixed value equal to 20°. d) proportional to the aircraft true airspeed but not exceeding a given value. 22.2.2.0 (1326) An automatic landing system which can keep on operating without deterioration of its performances following the failure of one of the autopilots is called ""FAIL...: a) ""OPERATIONAL"" b) ""PASSIVE"" c) ""SAFE"" d) ""REDUNDANT"" 22.2.2.0 (1327) An automatic landing system necessitating that the landing be continued manually in the case of a system failure during an automatic approach is called ""FAIL...."" a) ""PASSIVE"" b) ""OPERATIONAL"" c) ""SAFE"" d) ""REDUNDANT"" 22.2.2.0 (1328) A semi-automatic landing system disconnects itself automatically: a) at approximately 100 ft. b) at the decision height.

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c) on ground. d) when going around. 22.2.2.0 (1329) A landing is performed automatically when the autopilot and auto-throttle ensure good performance from the final approach : a) during the landing roll and sometimes until the aircraft comes to a complete stop. b) until reaching 100 ft, height at which point the autopilot is automatically disconnected. c) until the flare. d) until reaching decision height. 22.2.2.0 (1330) When an aircraft, operating in the VOR coupled mode, approaches the ""cone of confusion"" over a VOR station, the roll channel of the autopilot : a) temporarily switches over to the heading mode. b) is damped by a trim input signal from the lateral trim system. c) remains always coupled to the selected VOR radial. d) is temporarily disconnected. 22.2.2.0 (1331) The autopilot basic modes include, among other things, the following functions :1pitch attitude hold 2- pressure altitude hold3- horizontal wing hold4- heading hold The combination regrouping all the correct statements is : a) 1, 3 b) 1, 2, 3, 4 c) 1, 2, 3 d) 1, 4 22.2.2.0 (1332) During a Category II automatic approach, the height information is supplied by the : a) radio altimeter. b) GPS (Global Positioning System). c) encoding altimeter. d) altimeter. 22.2.2.0 (1333) A pilot engages the control wheel steering (CWS) of a conventional autopilot and carries out a manoeuvre in roll. When the control wheel is released, the autopilot will : a) maintain the flight attitude obtained at that moment. b) roll wings level and maintain the heading obtained at that moment. c) maintain the track and the flight attitude obtained at that moment. d) restore the flight attitude and the rate of turn selected on the autopilot control display unit. 22.2.2.0 (1334) The functions of an autopilot (basic modes) consist of : a) stabilizing and monitoring the movement around the airplane centre of gravity. b) monitoring the movement of the airplane centre of gravity.

c) guiding the airplane path. d) stabilizing and monitoring the movement around the airplane aerodynamic centre. 22.2.2.0 (1335) From a flight mechanics point of view, the ""guidance"" functions of a transport airplane autopilot consist in: a) monitoring the movements of the centre of gravity in the three dimensions of space (path). b) stabilizing and monitoring the movements around the centre of gravity. c) monitoring the movements of the aerodynamic centre in the three dimensions of space (path). d) stabilizing and monitoring the movements around the aerodynamic centre. 22.2.2.0 (1336) An autopilot capable of holding at least altitude and heading mode is compulsory: a) for IFR or night flights with only one pilot. b) on multipilot airplanes. c) for VFR and IFR flights with only one pilot. d) on airplanes over 5.7 t. 22.2.2.0 (1337) Among the following functions of an autopilot, those related to the airplane stabilization are:1- pitch attitude holding2- horizontal wing holding3- displayed heading or inertial track holding4- indicated airspeed or Mach number holding5yaw damping6- VOR axis holdingThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a) 1, 2 and 5. b) 1, 2, 3 and 6. c) 3, 4, 5 and 6. d) 2, 4, and 5. 22.2.2.0 (1338) Among the following functions of an autopilot, those related to the airplane guidance are:1- pitch attitude holding2- horizontal wing holding3- indicated airspeed or Mach number holding4- altitude holding5- VOR axis holding6- yaw dampingThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a) 3, 4 and 5. b) 1, 2, and 6. c) 1, 2, 3 and 6. d) 1, 3, 4 and 5. 22.2.2.0 (1339) When using the autopilot, the function of the pitch channel automatic trim is to:1cancel the hinge moment of the elevator2- ease as much as possible the load of the servo-actuator 3- restore to the pilot a correctly trimmed airplane during the autopilot disengagement The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a) 1, 2 and 3. b) 3. c) 1 and 3. d) 1 and 2.

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22.2.2.0 (1340) A landing will be considered to be performed in the SEMI-AUTOMATIC mode when:1- the autopilot maintains the airplane on the ILS beam until the decision height is reached then is disengaged automatically.2- the autothrottle maintains a constant speed until the decision height is reached then is disengaged automatically.3- the autopilot maintains the airplane on the ILS beam until the flare.4- the autothrottle decreases the thrust when the height is approximately 30 ft.5- the flare and the ground roll are performed automatically.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a) 1 and 2. b) 3, 4 and 5. c) 1 and 4. d) 2, 3 and 5. 22.2.2.0 (1341) A landing will be considered to be performed in the AUTOMATIC mode when:1- the autopilot maintains the airplane on the ILS beam until the decision height is reached then is disengaged automatically.2- the autothrottle maintains a constant speed until the decision height is reached then is disengaged automatically.3- the autopilot maintains the airplane on the ILS beam until the flare.4- the autothrottle decreases the thrust when the height is approximately 30 ft.5- the flare and the ground roll are performed automatically.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a) 3, 4 and 5. b) 1 and 2. c) 2, 3 and 5. d) 1 and 4. 22.2.2.0 (1342) When an automatic landing is interrupted by a go-around :1- the autothrottle reacts immediately upon the pilot action on the TO/GA (Take-off/Go-around) switch in order to recover the maximum thrust2- the autopilot monitors the climb and the rotation of the airplane3- the autopilot retracts the landing gear and reduces the flap deflection in order to reduce the drag4- the pilot performs the climb and the rotation of the airplane5- the pilot retracts the landing gear and reduces the flap deflection in order to reduce the dragThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a) 1, 2 and 5. b) 1, 4 and 5. c) 1, 3 and 4. d) 1, 2 and 3. 22.2.2.0 (1343) The calibrated airspeed (CAS) or Mach holding mode is carried out by:1- the autopilot pitch channel in the climb mode at a constant calibrated airspeed (CAS) or Mach number2- the autothrottles in the climb mode at a constant calibrated airspeed (CAS) or Mach number3- the autopilot pitch channel in the altitude or glide path holding mode4- the autothrottles in the altitude or glide path holding modeThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a) 1 and 4. b) 2 and 4.

c) 1 and 3. d) 2 and 3. 22.2.2.0 (1344) The engagement of an autopilot is not possible when:1- there is a fault in the electrical power supply2- the controlled-turn knob is not set to centre-off3- there is a synchronization fault in the pitch channel4- there is a fault in the attitude reference unitThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a) 1, 2, 3, 4. b) 1, 2, 4. c) 2, 3, 4. d) 1, 3, 4. 22.2.2.0 (1345) An autopilot is selected ""ON"" in mode ""altitude hold,"" the pilot alters the barometric pressure set on the sub-scale of his altimeter the: a) aircraft will remain at the same altitude, the autopilot takes its pressure information from the static source b) aircraft will remain at the same altitude, the autopilot takes its pressure information from the altimeter corrected to standard pressure, 1013.25 hPa c) aircraft will climb or descend in the sense of the change, the autopilot takes its pressure information from the altimeter d) mode altitude hold will disengage 22.2.3.0 (1346) The computers of the electrical flight controls system comply with programs defined by attitude control laws such as :1- on the longitudinal axis, the law may combine the load factor and the changes in the pitch rate as control data sources2the trimming is automatic and ensures neutral stability3- the protections apply to pitch and bank attitudes depending on the speed4- these laws do not apply to the whole flight envelope The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a) 1, 2, 3 b) 2, 3 c) 1, 2, 3, 4 d) 1, 3, 4 22.2.4.0 (1347) The yaw damper, which suppresses Dutch roll: a) controls the rudder, with the angular rate about the vertical axis as the input signal. b) controls the ailerons, with Mach Number as the input signal. c) controls the rudder, with Mach Number as the input signal. d) controls the ailerons, with the angular rate about the vertical axis as the input signal. 22.2.4.0 (1348) The yaw damper indicator supplies the pilot with information regarding the: a) yaw damper action on the rudder b) rudder displacement by the rudder pedals c) yaw damper action only on the ground d) rudder position

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22.2.5.0 (1349) The automatic trim is a component of the autopilot pitch channel. Its function is to: a) transfer a stabilized aeroplane to the pilot during autopilot disengagement. b) reset the attitude, after engaging (the autopilot). c) set the attitude to an instantaneous value before engaging the autopilot. d) automatically disengage the autopilot in the case of an excessive pitch up. 22.2.5.0 (1350) Which one of the following statements is true with regard to the operation of a Mach trim system : a) It only operates above a pre-determined Mach number. b) It operates to counteract the larger than normal forward movements of the wing centre of pressure at high subsonic airspeeds. c) It only operates when the autopilot is engaged. d) It operates over the full aircraft speed range. 22.2.5.0 (1351) In the automatic trim control system of an autopilot, automatic trimming is normally effected about the : a) pitch axis only. b) roll and yaw axes only. c) pitch roll and yaw axes. d) pitch and roll axes only. 22.2.5.0 (1352) Mach Trim is a device to compensate for : a) backing of the aerodynamic center at high Mach numbers by moving the elevator to nose-up b) the effects of fuel transfer between the main tanks and the tank located in the horizontal tail c) the effects of temperature variation during a climb or descent at constant Mach d) weight reduction resulting from fuel consumption during the cruise 22.2.5.0 (1353) The purpose of Auto Trim function in autopilot is to : a) control elevator trim tab in order to relieve elevator load b) help Auto Pilot compensate for crosswind influence c) tell the pilot when elevator trimming is required d) trim throttles to obtain smooth engine power variation 22.2.5.0 (1354) The purpose of an airplane automatic trim system is to trim out the hinge moment of the : a) elevator(s) b) rudder(s) c) elevator(s) and rudder(s) d) elevator(s), rudder(s) and ailerons. 22.2.5.0 (1355) The purpose of the automatic trim is to:1- reduce to zero the hinge moment of the entire control surface in order to relieve the load on the servo-actuator2- ensure

the aeroplane is properly trimmed when the autopilot is disengaged3- maintain the same stability/manoeuverablity trade-off within the whole flight envelopeThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a) 1, 2, 3. b) 1, 2. c) 1, 3. d) 2, 3. 22.2.6.0 (1356) A Full Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC) has the following functions :1- flow regulation (fuel, decelerations and accelerations monitoring)2- automatic starting sequence 3- transmissions of engine data to the pilot's instruments4- thrust management and protection of operation limits 5- monitoring of the thrust reversersThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 b) 2, 4, 5 c) 1, 3, 5 d) 1, 3, 4, 5 22.2.6.0 (1357) The Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR) is computed by : a) dividing turbine discharge pressure by compressor inlet pressure. b) dividing compressor discharge pressure by turbine discharge pressure. c) multiplying compressor inlet pressure by turbine discharge pressure. d) multiplying compressor discharge pressure by turbine inlet pressure. 22.2.6.0 (1358) An aeroplane is in steady climb. The autothrottle maintains a constant calibrated airspeed. If the total temperature remains constant, the Mach number : a) increases. b) decreases. c) remains constant. d) decreases if the static temperature is lower than the standard temperature. 22.2.6.0 (1359) The two main sources of information used to calculate turbojet thrust are the: a) fan rotation speed (or N1) or the EPR (Engine Pressure Ratio). b) high pressure turbine rotation speed or the EPR (Engine Pressure Ratio). c) fan rotation speed (or N1) or the total pressure at the high pressure compressor outlet. d) fan rotation speed (or N1) or the total pressure at the low pressure turbine outlet. 22.2.6.0 (1360) An airplane is in steady cruise at flight level 290. The autothrottle maintains a constant Mach number. If the total temperature increases, the calibrated airspeed: a) remains constant. b) increases. c) decreases. d) increases if the static temperature is higher than the standard temperature, decreases if lower.

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22.2.6.0 (1361) An airplane is in steady cruise at flight level 290. The autothrottle maintains a constant Mach number. If the total temperature decreases, the calibrated airspeed: a) remains constant. b) increases. c) decreases. d) decreases if the outside temperature is lower than the standard temperature, increases if higher. 22.2.6.0 (1362) An airplane is in steady descent. The autothrottle maintains a constant Mach number. If the total temperature remains constant, the calibrated airspeed: a) increases. b) decreases. c) remains constant. d) decreases if the static temperature is lower than the standard temperature, increases if above. 22.2.6.0 (1363) An aeroplane is in steady cruise at flight level 270. The autothrottle maintains a constant calibrated airspeed. If the total temperature increases, the Mach number : a) remains constant. b) increases. c) decreases. d) decreases if the outside temperature is higher than the standard temperature, increases if lower. 22.2.6.0 (1364) An aeroplane is in steady cruise at flight level 270. The autothrottle maintains a constant calibrated airspeed. If the total temperature decreases, the Mach number : a) remains constant. b) increases. c) decreases. d) increases if the outside temperature is higher than the standard temperature, decreases if lower. 22.2.6.0 (1365) An aeroplane is in a steady climb. The autothrottle maintains a constant Mach number. If the total temperature remains constant, the calibrated airspeed : a) decreases. b) increases. c) remains constant. d) decreases if the static temperature is lower than the standard temperature, increases if higher. 22.2.6.0 (1366) An aeroplane is in steady descent. The autothrottle maintains a constant calibrated airspeed. If the total temperature remains constant, the Mach number :

a) decreases. b) increases. c) remains constant. d) increases if the static temperature is lower than the standard temperature, decreases if higher. 22.2.7.0 (1367) The autothrottle :1- enable to catch and to maintain the N1 RPM2- enable to catch and to maintain the N2 RPM3- enable to catch and to maintain an airplane indicated airspeed (IAS)4- is always engaged automatically at the same time as the autopilotThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a) 1 and 3 b) 2 and 3 c) 1 and 4 d) 1, 3 and 4 22.2.7.0 (1368) The purpose of Auto Throttle is: a) to maintain constant engine power or airplane speed b) automatic shut down of one engine at too high temperature c) to deactivate manual throttles and transfer engine control to Auto Pilot d) to synchronize engines to avoid ""yawing"" 22.2.7.0 (1369) In order to know in which mode the autothrottles are engaged, the crew will check the : a) PFD (Primary Flight Display) b) ND (Navigation Display). c) TCC (Thrust Control Computer). d) throttles position. 22.2.7.0 (1370) The automatic power control system (autothrottle) of a transport airplane has the following mode(s) :1- capture and holding of speeds2- capture and holding of Mach number3- capture and holding of flight angle of attack4- capture and holding of N1 or EPR (Engine Power Ratio)5- capture and holding of flight pathsThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is : a) 1, 2, 4 b) 1, 2, 3, 5 c) 2, 4 d) 1, 4, 5 22.3.1.0 (1371) Alarms are standardised and follow a code of colours. Those requiring action but not immediately, are signalled by the colour: a) amber b) red c) green d) flashing red

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22.3.2.0 (1372) A transport airplane has to be equipped with an altitude warning device. This system will warn the crew about :1 - getting close to the preselected altitude, during both climb and descent.2 - getting close to the preselected altitude, during climb only.3 - the loss of altitude during take-off or missed approach.4 - a wrong landing configuration.5 - a variation higher or lower than a preselected altitude.The combination regrouping the correct statements is: a) 1,5 b) 3,4 c) 2 d) 1,3,4 22.3.2.0 (1373) An ""altitude warning system"" must at least warn the crew :1- when approaching the pre-selected altitude2- when the airplane is approaching the ground too fast3in case of a given deviation above or below the pre-selected altitude (at least by an aural warning)4- in case of excessive vertical speed5- when approaching the ground with the gear retractedThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is : a) 1, 3 b) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 c) 2, 4, 5 d) 1, 3, 4 22.3.2.0 (1374) The purpose of the altitude alert system is to generate a visual and aural warning to the pilot when the: a) airplane altitude differs from a selected altitude. b) airplane altitude is equal to the decision altitude. c) proximity to the ground becomes dangerous. d) altimeter setting differs from the standard setting above the transition altitude. 22.3.3.0 (1375) The GPWS calculator receives the following signals :1 - vertical speed2 - radio altimeter height3 - pressure altitude4 - glidepath deviation 5 - gear and flaps position6 - angle of attackThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is : a) 1,2,4,5 b) 1,3,4,5,6 c) 1,2,5,6 d) 2,3,4,6 22.3.3.0 (1376) The GPWS calculator is able to operate in the following modes :1- excessive descent rate 2- excessive rate of terrain closure3- excessive angle of attack4- too high descent attitude 5- loss of altitude after take-off6- abnormal gear/flaps configuration7- excessive glidepath deviationThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a) 1,2,5,6,7 b) 1,2,4,6,7 c) 3,4,5,6 d) 2,3,5,7

22.3.3.0 (1377) The GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) is active for a height range from: a) 50 ft to 2 500 ft measured by the radio altimeter. b) 0 ft to 2 500 ft measured by the radio altimeter. c) 0 ft to 5 000 ft measured by the radio altimeter. d) 50 ft to 5 000 ft measured by the radio altimeter. 22.3.3.0 (1378) The Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) generates the following sound signal or signals when the aircraft is sinking after a take-off or a go-around : a) DON'T SINK repetitive only b) WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP repetitive only c) DON'T SINK always followed by WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP d) DON'T SINK followed by WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP if the sink rate overshoots a second level 22.3.3.0 (1379) A ground proximity warning system (GPWS), when mandatorily installed on board an aircraft, must in all cases generate : a) at least one sound alarm to which a visual alarm can be added b) a sound alarm or a visual alarm c) a sound and visual alarm d) a visual alarm to which a sound alarm can be 22.3.3.0 (1380) The operation of the GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) is governed by laws taking the aircraft height into account as well as :1- the descent rate2- the climb rate3- the aircraft configuration4- the selected engine rpmThe combination of correct statements is : a) 1,3 b) 1,2,4 c) 2,4 d) 2,3 22.3.3.0 (1381) If an aircraft is flying (with flaps and landing gear retracted) in proximity to terrain and its GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) get activated, because it is detecting that the aeroplane has an excessive rate of descent, the system provides the following aural warning signals : a) ""SINK RATE, SINK RATE"" followed by ""WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP"" (twice) b) ""DON'T SINK, DON'T SINK"" c) ""TERRAIN, TERRAIN"" followed by ""WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP"" (twice) d) ""TOO LOW, TERRAIN"" (twice) followed by ""TOO LOW GEAR"" (twice) 22.3.3.0 (1382) If the GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) activates, and alerts the pilot with an aural warning ""DON'T SINK"" (twice times), it is because : a) during take-off or missed approach manoeuvre, the aircraft has started to loose altitude. b) the aircraft experiences an unexpected proximity to the terrain, with landing gear retracted.

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c) at too low altitude, the aircraft has an excessive rate of descent. d) the aircraft experiences an unexpected proximity to terrain, without landing-flap selected. 22.3.3.0 (1383) A transport airplane is compelled to carry on board a Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS). This system will warn the crew in case of :1 - keeping the altitude at a lower level than the one shown in the flight plan entered in the FMS.2 dangerous ground proximity.3 - loss of altitude during take-off or missed approach.4 - wrong landing configuration.5 - descent below glidepath, within limits.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is : a) 2,3,4,5 b) 2 c) 1,3,4 d) 2,5 22.3.3.0 (1384) The Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) is a system working according to a height span ranging from : a) 50 ft to 2 500 ft b) the ground to 1 000 ft c) 30 ft to 5 000 ft d) the ground to 500 ft 22.3.3.0 (1385) The GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) releases a warning in the following cases :1- excessive rate of descent2- excessive ground proximity rate3- loss of altitude after take-off or go-around4- abnormal gear/flaps configuration5excessive deviation under the glidepath6- abnormal airbrakes configurationThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 b) 2, 4, 5, 6 c) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 d) 3, 4, 5, 6 22.3.3.0 (1386) The requirement to carry a GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) concerns aeroplanes which are, depending on their age, weight and passenger capacity :1turboprop-powered2- piston-powered3- jet-poweredThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is : a) 1, 3 b) 1 c) 1, 2, 3 d) 3 22.3.3.0 (1387) A Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) generates automatically a distinct warning to the flight crew with aural and/or light warning signals in the case of:1an excessive rate of descent with respect to terrain2- a dangerous proximity to the ground3- a loss of altitude following take-off or go-around4- an abnormal flight attitude5- an abnormal landing configuration6- an abnormal deviation below ILS glide slopeThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a) 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6. b) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. c) 1,2 and 4. d) 3, 4, 5 and 6. 22.3.3.0 (1388) The inputs to the GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System), are:1- Air Data Computer - (Mach number and Vertical Speed) 2- Radio Altimeter3- NAV/ILS (Glide Slope)4- NAV/VOR5- Flap (position)6- Angle of Attack7- Landing Gear (position)The combination of correct statement is: a) 1,2,3,5,7 b) 2,3,4,5,7 c) 1,2,5,6,7 d) 1,2,5,6,7 22.3.4.0 (1389) The TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) is a proximity alarm system which detects a ""traffic"" when the conflicting traffic is equipped with a : a) serviceable SSR transponder b) serviceable weather radar c) SELCAL system d) DME system 22.3.4.0 (1390) A ""TCAS II"" (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) provides: a) the intruder relative position and possibly an indication of a collision avoidance manoeuvre within the vertical plane only. b) a simple intruding airplane proximity warning. c) the intruder relative position and possibly an indication of a collision avoidance manoeuvre within both the vertical and horizontal planes. d) the intruder relative position and possibly an indication of a collision avoidance manoeuvre within the horizontal plane only. 22.3.4.0 (1391) Concerning the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) : a) No protection is available against aircraft not equipped with a serviceable SSR transponder b) In one of the system modes, the warning : ""TOO LOW TERRAIN"" is generated c) In one of the system modes, the warning : ""PULL UP"" is generated d) Resolution Advisory (RA) must not be followed without obtaining clearance from ATC 22.3.4.0 (1392) The TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) gives avoidance resolutions : a) only in the vertical plane b) only in the horizontal plane c) in horizontal and vertical planes d) based on speed control 22.3.4.0 (1393) In the event of a conflict, the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) will give information such as :

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a) climb/descent b) turn left/turn right c) too low terrain d) glide slope 22.3.4.0 (1394) The principle of the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems) is based on the use of : a) transponders fitted in the aircraft b) airborne weather radar system c) F.M.S. (Flight Management System) d) air traffic control radar systems 22.3.4.0 (1395) The TCAS 1 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) provides :1- traffic information2horizontal resolution (RA: Resolution Advisory)3- vertical resolution (RA: Resolution Advisory)4- ground proximity warningThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a) 1 b) 1, 2 c) 1, 2, 3 d) 1, 2, 3, 4 22.3.4.0 (1396) The TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) provides :1- traffic information (TA: Traffic Advisory)2- horizontal resolution (RA: Resolution Advisory)3- vertical resolution (RA: Resolution Advisory)4- ground proximity warningThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a) 1, 3 b) 1, 2 c) 1, 2, 3 d) 1, 2, 3, 4 22.3.4.0 (1397) The TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) computer receives information :1about the pressure altitude through the mode S transponder2- from the radioaltimeter3- specific to the airplane configuration4- from the inertial unitsThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 2, 3, 4 c) 1, 2, 4 d) 1, 2 22.3.4.0 (1398) When the intruding aircraft is equipped with a transponder without altitude reporting capability, the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) issues a : a) ""traffic advisory"" only. b) ""traffic advisory"" and vertical ""resolution advisory"". c) ""traffic advisory"" and horizontal ""resolution advisory"". d) ""traffic advisory"", vertical and horizontal ""resolution advisory"".

22.3.4.0 (1399) When the intruding aircraft is equipped with a serviceable mode C transponder, the TCAS II (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) generates a : a) ""traffic advisory"" and vertical ""resolution advisory"". b) ""traffic advisory"" and horizontal ""resolution advisory"". c) ""traffic advisory"" only. d) ""traffic advisory"", vertical and horizontal ""resolution advisory"". 22.3.4.0 (1400) On a TCAS2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System), a corrective ""resolution advisory"" (RA) is a ""resolution advisory"": a) asking the pilot to modify effectively the vertical speed of his aircraft. b) which does not require any action from the pilot but on the contrary asks him not to modify his current vertical speed rate. c) asking the pilot to modify the heading of his aircraft. d) asking the pilot to modify the speed of his aircraft. 22.3.4.0 (1401) On a TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) the preventive ""resolution advisory"" (RA) is a ""resolution advisory"": a) that advises the pilot to avoid certain deviations from the current vertical rate but does not require any change to be made to that rate. b) asking the pilot to modify effectively the vertical speed of his aircraft. c) asking the pilot to modify the heading of his aircraft. d) asking the pilot to modify the speed of his aircraft. 22.3.4.0 (1402) An ""intruding traffic advisory"" is represented on the display system of the TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) by displaying : a) a yellow full circle. b) a blue or white empty lozenge. c) a blue or white full lozenge. d) a red full square. 22.3.4.0 (1403) A ""resolution advisory"" (RA) is represented on the display system of the TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) by a : a) red full square. b) blue or white full lozenge. c) blue or white empty lozenge. d) red full circle. 22.3.4.0 (1404) A ""close traffic advisory"" is displayed on the display device of the TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) by : a) a blue or white empty lozenge. b) an orange full circle. c) a blue or white full lozenge. d) a red full square.

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22.3.4.0 (1405) The TCAS II data display devices can be in the form of:1- a specific dedicated screen 2- a screen combined with the weather radar3- a variometer represented on a liquid crystal screen which allows the display of Traffic Advisory (TA) and Resolution Advisory (RA)4- an EFIS (Electronic Flight Instrument System) screenThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a) 1, 2, 3 and 4. b) 1, 2 and 3. c) 3 and 4. d) 1 and 3. 22.3.6.0 (1406) The stick shaker calculator receives the following informations :1- mass of the airplane2- angle of attack3- wing flap deflection4- position of the landing gear5total air temperature6- pressure altitudeThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a) 2, 3 b) 2, 3, 5 c) 1, 2, 3, 4 d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 22.3.6.0 (1407) In some configurations, modern aircraft do not respect the regulatory margins between stall and natural buffet.The warning system supplies the corresponding alarm. The required margin related to the stall speed is: a) 7% b) 5% c) 10% d) 3% 22.3.6.0 (1408) The stall warning system receives information about the :1- airplane angle of attack2- airplane speed3- airplane bank angle4- airplane configuration5- load factor on the airplaneThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a) 1, 4 b) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 c) 2, 3, 4, 5 d) 1, 3, 5 22.3.6.0 (1409) A stall warning system is based on a measure of : a) aerodynamic incidence. b) airspeed. c) attitude. d) groundspeed. 22.3.6.0 (1410) The main input data to the Stall Warning Annunciator System are :1- Mach Meter indication2- Angle of Attack3- Indicate Airspeed (IAS)4- Aircraft configuration (Flaps/Slats)The combination regrouping all the correct statements is : a) 2,4

b) 2,3 c) 1,4 d) 1,2 22.3.6.0 (1411) The calculator combined with the stick shaker system of a modern transport airplane receives information about the: 1- angle of attack2- engine R.P.M.3configuration4- pitch and bank attitude5- sideslipThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a) 1 and 3. b) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. c) 1 and 5. d) 1, 2, 3 and 4. 22.3.6.0 (1412) The angle of attack transmitter provides an electric signal varying with:1- the angular position of a wind vane2- the deviation between the airplane flight attitude and the path calculated by the inertial unit3- a probe differential pressure depending on the variation of the angle of attackThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a) 1 and 3. b) 1, 2 and 3. c) 1. d) 2 and 3. 22.3.6.0 (1413) The angle of attack transmitters placed laterally on the forward part of the fuselage supply an electrical signal indicating:1- the angular position of a wind vane2- a differential pressure in a probe, depending on the variation of the angle of attack3- a differential pressure in a probe, depending on the variation of the speedThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a) 1, 2. b) 1, 2, 3. c) 2, 3. d) 1, 3. 22.3.6.0 (1414) The oncoming stall of a large transport airplane appears in the form of: a) control stick vibrations simulating natural buffeting. b) an orange light on the warning display. c) a natural buffeting which occurs prior to the simulated buffeting. d) a bell type warning. 22.3.6.0 (1415) The stall warning system of a large transport airplane includes:1- an angle of attack sensor 2- a computer3- a transmitter originating from the anemometer4- an independent pitot probe5- a transmitter of the flap/slat position indicating systemThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a) 1, 2, 5. b) 1, 2, 4.

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c) 1, 4. d) 1, 2, 4, 5. 22.3.7.0 (1416) Flight recorder duration must be such that flight data, cockpit voice and sound warnings may respectively be recorded during at least: a) 25 hours for flight data, 30 minutes for cockpit voices and warnings horns. b) 24 hours for flight data, 60 minutes for cockpit voices and warnings horns. c) 20 hours for flight data, 15 minutes for cockpit voices and warnings horns. d) 48 hours for flight data, 60 minutes for cockpit voices and warnings horns 22.3.7.0 (1417) The flight data recorder must start data recording automatically: a) before the airplane is able to move by under its own power. b) when taking-off. c) when the landing gear is retracted. d) when lining up. 22.3.7.0 (1418) The flight data recorder must automatically stop data recording when the: a) airplane cannot any longer move by its own power. b) main gear shock strut compresses when touching the runway. c) landing gear is extended and locked. d) airplane clears the runway. 22.3.7.0 (1419) In accordance with (ICAO) Annex 6 part I, the flight data recorder is to be located in the aircraft : a) as far to the rear as practicable b) as far forward as practicable c) as near to the landing gear as practicable d) at the right or left wing tip 22.3.7.0 (1420) Except for airplanes under 5,7 t airworthiness certificate of which is subsequent to 31 march 1998, a flight data recording system must be able to store the recorded data for a minimum of the last : a) 25 hours. b) 10 hours. c) 30 minutes. d) 60 minutes. 22.3.8.0 (1421) The CVR (Cockpit Voice Recorder) includes:1. a microphone2. a recorder in compliance with the shock and fire resistance standards3. an independent battery4. a flight data recorderThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a) 1, 2 b) 1, 4 c) 1, 2, 3, 4 d) 2, 4

22.3.8.0 (1422) The flight data recorders must preserve the conversation and aural warnings of the last : a) 30 minutes of operation b) 25 hours of operation c) flight d) 48 hours of operation 22.3.8.0 (1423) According to the JAR-OPS regulations, the Cockpit Voice Recorder of a 50 seat multi-engined aircraft having been granted the airworthiness certificate after 1st April 1998 will record:1- the radiotelephonic communications transmitted or received by the cockpit crew2- the audio environment of the cockpit3- the cabin attendants communications in the cabin via the interphone4- the flight crew members communications in the cockpit via the interphone5- the flight crew members communications in the cockpit via the public address system6- the audio signals identifiying the navigation or approach aidsThe combination regrouping the correct statements is: a) 1,2,4,5,6 b) 1,2,3,4,5,6 c) 1 d) 1,3,4,5 22.3.8.0 (1424) According to the JAR-OPS regulations, the Cockpit Voice Recorder of a 50 seat multi-engined aircraft, having been granted an airworthiness certificate after 1st April 1998, shall start recording : a) Automatically prior to the aircraft moving under its own power until flight completion when the aircraft is no longer able to move under its own power. b) Automatically when the wheels leave the ground until the moment when the wheels touch the ground again. c) From the first radio contact with Air Traffic Control until radio shutdown after the flight. d) When the pilot selects the ""CVR: ON"" during engine start until the pilot selects the ""CVR: OFF"" during the engine shut down. 22.3.8.0 (1425) A cockpit voice recorder (CVR) will record :1. the information exchanged by the cabin crew2. the conversations between the crew members and voice communications transmitted from or received on the flight deck by radio3. the announcements made via the public address even if it has not been selected4. the conversations and alarms audible in the cockpit5. the captain conversations onlyThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is : a) 2, 4 b) 3, 4 c) 1, 2 d) 1, 5 22.3.8.0 (1426) The voice recorder records on four different channels the following information:1aural warnings2- radio communications3- conversations between the crew members through the cockpit interphone4- announcements to the passengersThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

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a) 1, 2, 3, 4. b) 1, 3. c) 1, 4. d) 1, 2, 3. 22.4.1.0 (1427) The ""Bourdon tube"" is used to measure : a) pressure. b) temperature. c) quantity. d) a flow rate. 22.4.1.0 (1428) If a manifold pressure gauge consistently registers atmospheric pressure, the cause is probably, a) leak in pressure gauge line. b) too high float level. c) fuel of too low volatility. d) ice in induction system. 22.4.1.0 (1429) A manifold pressure gauge of a piston engine measures : a) absolute pressure in intake system near the inlet valve. b) absolute airpressure entering the carburettor. c) fuel pressure leaving the carburettor. d) vacuum in the carburettor. 22.4.1.0 (1430) Different pressure sensors are used according to the intensity of the pressure measured (low, medium or high)Classify the following sensors by order of increasing pressure for which they are suitable :1- bellows type2- Bourdon tube type3- aneroid capsule type a) 3,1,2 b) 1,2,3 c) 3,2,1 d) 2,1,3 22.4.1.0 (1431) Among the following engine instruments, the one operating with an aneroid pressure diaphragm is the : a) manifold pressure gauge. b) oil pressure gauge. c) fuel pressure gauge. d) oil thermometer. 22.4.1.0 (1432) The pressure probe used to measure the pressure of a low pressure fuel pump is: a) an aneroid capsule. b) a bellows sensor. c) a Bourdon tube. d) a differential capsule.

22.4.1.0 (1433) The probe used to measure the air intake pressure of a gas turbine engined powerplant is: a) an aneroid capsule. b) a differential capsule. c) a Bourdon tube. d) a bellows sensor. 22.4.1.0 (1434) A ""Bourdon Tube"" is used in: a) pressure sensors b) vibration detectors c) smoke detectors d) turbine temperature probes 22.4.2.0 (1435) The yellow sector of the temperature gauge corresponds to: a) an exceptional operating range. b) a normal operating range. c) a frequent operating range. d) a forbidden operating range. 22.4.2.0 (1436) The white sector of the arc of a temperature gauge corresponds to: a) a special operating range. b) a normal operating range. c) an exceptional operating range. d) a forbidden operating range. 22.4.2.0 (1437) The sensors used to measure the exhaust gas temperature on an aircraft equipped with turbojets are: a) thermocouples. b) based on metallic parts whose expansion/contraction is measured. c) based on metallic conductors whose resistance increases linearly with temperature. d) capacitors whose capacity varies proportionnally with temperature. 22.4.2.0 (1438) The measurement of the turbine temperature or of the EGT (Exhaust Gas Temperature) is carried out at the : a) high pressure turbine outlet. b) combustion chamber outlet. c) combustion chamber intake. d) high pressure chamber intake. 22.4.2.0 (1439) Given :M is the Mach numberTs is the static temperatureTt is the total temperature a) Ts = Tt /(1+0.2. M²) b) Ts = Tt.(1+0.2. M²) c) Ts = Tt.(0.2. M²) d) Ts = Tt/( 0.2 M²)

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22.4.2.0 (1440) A thermocouple type thermometer consists of: a) two metal conductors of different type connected at one point. b) two metal conductors of the same type connected at two points. c) a Wheatstone bridge connected to a voltage indicator. d) a single-wire metal winding. 22.4.2.0 (1441) The total air temperature (TAT) is always : a) higher than Static Air Temperature (SAT) depending on the Calibrated Air Speed (CAS). b) higher lower than Static Air Temperature (SAT) depending on the Calibrated Air Speed (CAS). c) higher than Static Air Temperature (SAT) depending on the altitude. d) lower than Static Air Temperature (SAT) depending on the altitude. 22.4.2.0 (1442) The static air temperature (SAT) is : a) an absolute temperature expressed in degrees Celsius b) a differential temperature expressed in degrees Kelvin c) a relative temperature expressed in degrees Celsius d) a relative temperature expressed in degrees Kelvin 22.4.2.0 (1443) In order to measure temperature the cylinder head temperature (CHT) gauge utilises a : a) thermocouple consisting of two dissimilar metals. b) wheatstone bridge circuit. c) ratiometer circuit. d) bourdon tube. 22.4.2.0 (1444) To permit turbine exit temperatures to be measured, gas turbines are equipped with thermometers which work on the following principle: a) thermocouple b) bi-metallic strip c) liquid expansion d) gas pressure 22.4.2.0 (1445) The temperature measured by the CHT (Cylinder Head temperature) probe is the : a) temperature within the hottest cylinder, depending on its position in the engine block. b) average temperature within the whole set of cylinders. c) temperature of the exhaust gases. d) temperature of the carburator to be monitored when the outside air temperature is between -5°C and 10°C. 22.4.2.0 (1446) A thermocouple can be made of: a) two metal conductors of different nature fixed together at two points.

b) two metal conductors of the same nature fixed together at two points. c) a three wire coil. d) a single wire coil. 22.4.2.0 (1447) The airplane outside air temperature ""probe"" measures the : a) ""total"" air temperature minus kinetic heating effects in order to obtain the static temperature. b) ""static"" air temperature minus kinetic heating effects in order to obtain the total temperature. c) ""total"" air temperature minus compressibility effects in order to obtain the static temperature. d) ""static"" air temperature minus compressibility effects in order to obtain the total temperature. 22.4.2.0 (1448) In transport airplanes, the temperatures are generally measured with :1resistance thermometers2- thermocouple thermometers3- reactance thermometers4- capacitance thermometers5- mercury thermometersThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is : a) 1, 2 b) 1, 3, 4, 5 c) 1, 2, 5 d) 2, 3 22.4.2.0 (1449) The main advantage of a ratiometer-type temperature indicator is that it: a) carries out an independent measurement of the supply voltage. b) is simple. c) can operate without an electrical power supply. d) is very accurate. 22.4.2.0 (1450) A millivoltmeter measuring the electromotive force between the ""hot junction"" and the ""cold junction"" of a thermocouple can be directly graduated in temperature values provided that the temperature of the: a) cold junction is maintained constant. b) hot junction is maintained constant. c) cold junction is maintained at 15 °C. d) hot junction is maintained at 15 °C. 22.4.2.0 (1451) The electromotive force of a thermocouple is not modified if one or several intermediate metals are inserted in the circuit provided that: a) contact points are maintained at equal temperature between these different metals. b) these metals are not the same as those constituting the thermocouple. c) these metals are maintained at a temperature higher than that of the cold source. d) these metals are maintained at a temperature lower than that of the cold source.

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22.4.3.0 (1452) A synchroscope is used on aircraft to: a) set several engines to the same speed. b) reduce the vibration of each engine. c) reduce the rpm of each engine. d) achieve optimum control of on-board voltages. 22.4.3.0 (1453) The red pointer which is normally on the red line on the EGT (Exhaust Gas Temperature) indicators: a) moves when the corresponding value is exceeded and remains positioned at the maximum value that has been reached. b) shows the limit value not to be exceeded. c) allows the display of the parameter value to be adopted during take-off. d) shows the vibration level of the engine under consideration. 22.4.3.0 (1454) In a 3-phase synchronous motor type tachometer indicator :1- the transmitter is a direct current generator2- the voltage is proportional to the transmitter drive speed 3- the frequency is proportional to the transmitter drive speed4- the speed indicating element is a galvanometer5. the speed indicating element is an asynchronous motor driving a magnetic tachometerThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a) 3, 5 b) 1, 2 c) 2, 5 d) 1, 4 22.4.3.0 (1455) The disadvantage of an electronic rpm indicator is the : a) necessity of providing a power supply source. b) generation of spurious signals at the commutator. c) influence of temperature on the indication. d) high influence of line resistance on the indication. 22.4.3.0 (1456) The signal supplied by a transmitter fitted with a 3-phase AC generator, connected to RPM indicator, is : a) a three-phase voltage, the frequency of which varies with the RPM, the indicator is provided with a motor which drives a magnetic tachometer b) a DC voltage varying with the RPM, the indicator is a plain voltmeter with a rev/min. scale c) an AC voltage, the frequency of which varies with the RPM, the indicator converts the signal into square pulses which are then counted d) an AC voltage varying with the RPM, the indicator rectifies the signal via a diode bridge and is provided with a voltmeter 22.4.3.0 (1457) The signal supplied by a transmitter fitted with a magnetic sensor, connected to an RPM indicator is : a) an AC voltage, the frequency of which varies with the RPM, the indicator converts the signal into square pulses which are then counted

b) a three-phase voltage frequency varies with the RPM, the indicator is provided with a motor which drives a magnetic tachometer c) a DC voltage varying with the RPM , the indicator is a simple voltmeter with a rev/min. scale d) an AC voltage varying with the RPM , the indicator rectifies the signal via a diode bridge and is provided with a voltmeter 22.4.3.0 (1458) The RPM indicator (or tachometer) of a piston engine can include a small red arc within the arc normally used (green arc)In the RPM range corresponding to this small red arc the : a) propoller generates vibration, continuous rating is forbidden b) rating is the maximum possible in continuous mode c) rating is the minimum usable in cruise d) propeller efficency is minimum at this rating 22.4.3.0 (1459) The transmitter of RPM indicator may consist of :1- a magnetic sensor supplying an induced AC voltage2- a DC generator supplying a DC voltage3- a single-phase AC generator supplying an AC voltage4- a three-phase AC generator supplying a three-phase voltageThe combination of correct statements is : a) 1,2,3,4 b) 2,3,4 c) 1,4 d) 1,2,3 22.4.3.0 (1460) On an aeroplane equipped with a constant speed propeller, the RPM indicator enables : a) control of the propeller regulator and the display of propeller RPM. b) control of power. c) selection of engine RPM. d) on a twin-engine aeroplane, automatic engine synchronisation. 22.4.3.0 (1461) The operating principle of an ""electronic"" tachometer is to measure the: a) frequency of the electric impulse created by a notched wheel rotating in a magnetic field. b) electromotive force (EMF) produced by a dynamo or an alternator. c) rotation speed of an asynchronous motor energized by an alternator. d) magnetic field produced by a dynamo or an alternator. 22.4.3.0 (1462) The operating principle of the ""induction"" type of tachometer is to measure the: a) rotation speed of an asynchronous motor energized by an alternator. b) electromotive force (EMF) produced by a dynamo or an alternator. c) frequency of the electric impulse created by a notched wheel rotating in a magnetic field. d) magnetic field produced by a dynamo or an alternator. 22.4.3.0 (1463) The advantages of an electrical induction tachometer are:1- the display is not sensitive to line resistance2- the measurement is independent of aircraft power

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supply3- the measurement is independent of temperature variations4- the option to use without restriction several indicators connected in parallel to a single transmitterThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a) 1, 2, 4. b) 1, 3, 4. c) 1, 2, 3, 4. d) 2, 3, 4. 22.4.3.0 (1464) The electronic tachometer sensor is composed of: a) a notched wheel rotating in front of an electro-magnet. b) a circular magnet with four poles. c) the rotor of a single phase A.C. generator. d) the rotor of a three-phase A.C. generator. 22.4.3.0 (1465) The advantages of a D.C. generator tachometer are:1- easy transmission of the information.2- independence of the information relative to the airborne electrical power supply.3- freedom from any spurious current due to the commutator.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a) 1, 2. b) 1, 2, 3. c) 2, 3. d) 1, 3. 22.4.3.0 (1466) The advantages of single-phase A.C. generator tachometer are:1- the suppression of spurious signals due to a D.C. generator commutator2- the importance of line resistance on the information value3- the independence of the information in relation to the airborne electrical power supply4- the ease of transmission of the informationThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a) 1, 3. b) 1, 2, 3, 4. c) 2, 3, 4. d) 2, 4. 22.4.3.0 (1467) The disadvantages of a single-phase A.C. generator tachometer are:1- the presence of spurious signals due to a D.C. generator commutator2- the importance of line resistance on the information value3- the influence of temperature on the tachometer informationThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a) 2. b) 1, 2, 3. c) 1, 2. d) 1, 3. 22.4.4.0 (1468) The operating principle of Flowmeters, or ""unit flow meters,"" the most commonly used at the present time, is to measure across their system the : a) quantity of fuel movement b) pressure and temperature of the fuel

c) volumetric mass and di-electric resistance of the fuel d) volume and viscosity of the fuel 22.4.4.0 (1469) A paddle-wheel placed in a the fuel circuit of a gas turbine engine initially measures: a) volumetric flow by a tally of the impulses b) mass flow by a tally of the impulses c) volumetric flow by measure of a voltage proportional to the rotational speed d) mass flow by measure of a voltage proportional to the rotational speed 22.4.4.0 (1470) When compared with the volumetric fuel flowmeter, the mass fuel flowmeter takes into account the fuel : a) density. b) temperature. c) pressure. d) dielectrical constant. 22.4.5.0 (1471) The float type fuel gauges provide information on: a) volume whose indication varies with the temperature of the fuel. b) volume whose indication is independent of the temperature of the fuel. c) mass whose indication varies with the temperature of the fuel. d) mass whose indication is independent of the temperature of the fuel. 22.4.5.0 (1472) The capacity fuel gauges provide information: a) on mass whose indication is independent of the temperature of the fuel. b) on mass whose indication varies with the temperature of the fuel. c) which is independent of the temperature of the fuel. d) which varies with the temperature of the fuel. 22.4.5.0 (1473) The principle of capacity gauges is based on the: a) capacitance variation of a given capacitor with the type of dielectric. b) current variation in the Wheatstone bridge. c) capacitance variation by the volume measurement carried out on the sensor. d) flow rate and torque variation occurring in a supply line. 22.4.5.0 (1474) The quantity of fuel in the tanks is measured by capacitor type contents gauges. The working principle of these sensors is to measure the : a) charge of condensors b) di-electric resistivity of the fuel c) height of the fuel d) volume of the fuel 22.4.5.0 (1475) The indication of a fuel float gauge varies with :1- aircraft attitude2-

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accelerations3- atmospheric pressure4- temperatureThe combination of correct statements is : a) 1,2,4 b) 1,2,3,4 c) 4 d) 1,2 22.4.5.0 (1476) The principle of capacitor gauges is based on: a) the variation in capacity of a condensor with the nature of the dielectric b) the current variation in a Wheastone bridge c) the variation of capacity by volumetric measurement exercised on the sensor d) the variation of flow and torque exercised in a supply line 22.4.5.0 (1477) The advantages of an ""electric"" fuel (float) gauge are :1- easy construction2independence of indications with regard to airplane attitude3- independence of indications with regard to the accelerations 4- independence of indications with regard to temperature variations5- independence of indications with regard to vibrationsThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a) 1 b) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 c) 2, 3, 4, 5 d) 2, 3, 4 22.4.5.0 (1478) The disavantages of an ""electric"" fuel (float) gauge are :1- the design is complex2- the indications are influenced by the airplane attitude variations3- the indications are influenced by the accelerations 4- the indications are influenced by temperature variations5- that an alternative current supply is necessaryThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is : a) 2, 3, 4 b) 1, 2, 3, 4 c) 2, 3, 4, 5 d) 1 22.4.5.0 (1479) In an average or heavy weight transport airplane, generally, the fuel quantity is measured by ""capacitor"" gauges because these give :1- indications partly independent of fuel temperature variations2- indications almost independent of the airplane's attitude and accelerations3- indications expressed in densityThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a) 1, 2 b) 1, 2, 3 c) 2 d) 1, 3 22.4.5.0 (1480) The basic principle used for measuring a quantity of fuel in a transport airplane equipped with ""capacitor"" gauges is that the: a) capacity of a capacitor depends on the nature of the dielectric in which it is

immersed. b) internal resistance of a capacity depends on the nature of the dielectric in which it is immersed. c) capacity of a capacitor depends on the distance between its plates. d) electromotive force of a capacity depends on the nature of the dielectric in which it is immersed. 22.4.5.0 (1481) If the tanks of your airplane only contain water, the capacitor gauges indicate: a) a mass of water different from zero, but inaccurate. b) the exact mass of water contained in the tanks. c) a mass equal to zero. d) a mass equal to the mass of a same volume of fuel. 22.4.5.0 (1482) The advantages of an electric float gauge are:1- ease of manufacture2independence of the indication relative to the variations of the aircraft power system if the measurement is made by a ratiometer3- independence of the indication relative to the variations of the aircraft power system if the measurement is made by a galvanometer4- independence of the indication relative to temperature variationsThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a) 1, 2, 4 b) 1, 2, 3, 4 c) 1, 3, 4 d) 2, 3, 4 22.4.5.0 (1483) The gauge indicating the quantity of fuel measured by a capacity gauging system can be graduated directly in weight units because the dielectric constant of fuel is: a) twice that of air and varies directly with density. b) the same as that of air and varies directly with density. c) twice that of air and varies inversely with density. d) the same as that of air and varies inversely with density. 22.4.6.0 (1484) Torque can be determined by measuring the : a) oil pressure at the fixed crown of an epicycloidal reducer of the main engine gearbox. b) phase difference between 2 impulse tachometers attached to a transmission shaft. c) frequency of an impulse tachometer attached to a transmission shaft. d) quantity of light passing through a rack-wheel attached to a transmission shaft. 22.4.8.0 (1485) The principle of detection of a vibration monitoring system is based on the use of: a) 2 accelerometers. b) 2 high and low frequency amplifiers. c) 2 high and low frequency filters. d) a frequency converter. 22.4.8.0 (1486) In an engine vibration monitoring system for a turbojet any vibration produced by

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the engine is : a) amplified and filtered before being fed to the cockpit indicator. b) inversely proportional to engine speed. c) directly proportional to engine speed. d) fed directly to the cockpit indicator without amplification or filtering. 22.4.8.0 (1487) A vibration indicator receives a signal from different sensors (accelerometers). It indicates the : a) vibration amplitude at a given frequency b) acceleration measured by the sensors, expressed in g c) vibration frequency expressed in Hz d) vibration period expressed in seconds 22.4.10.0 (1488) In a modern airplane equipped with an ECAM (Electronic centralized aircraft monitor), when a failure occurs in a circuit, the centralized flight management system:1- releases an aural warning2- lights up the appropriate push-buttons on the overhead panel3- displays the relevant circuit on the system display4processes the failure automaticallyThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a) 1, 2, 3. b) 1, 3, 4. c) 3, 4. d) 1, 2. 31.1.1.1 (1489) The centre of gravity of a body is that point a) through which the sum of the forces of all masses of the body is considered to act. b) where the sum of the moments from the external forces acting on the body is equal to zero. c) where the sum of the external forces is equal to zero. d) which is always used as datum when computing moments. 31.1.1.1 (1490) The centre of gravity of an aeroplane is that point through which the total mass of the aeroplane is said to act. The weight acts in a direction a) parallel to the gravity vector. b) always parallel to the aeroplane's vertical axis. c) at right angles to the flight path. d) governed by the distribution of the mass within the aeroplane. 31.1.1.1 (1491) When an aeroplane is stationary on the ground, its total weight will act vertically a) through its centre of gravity. b) through its centre of pressure. c) through the main wheels of its undercarriage assembly. d) through a point defined as the datum point.

31.1.1.1 (1492) The weight of an aeroplane, which is in level non accelerated flight, is said to act a) vertically through the centre of gravity. b) vertically through the centre of pressure. c) vertically through the datum point. d) always along the vertical axis of the aeroplane. 31.1.1.1 (1493) The centre of gravity of an aeroplane a) can be allowed to move between defined limits. b) may only be moved if permitted by the regulating authority and endorsed in the aeroplane's certificate of airworthiness. c) is in a fixed position and is unaffected by aeroplane loading. d) must be maintained in a fixed position by careful distribution of the load. 31.1.1.1 (1494) The centre of gravity is the a) point where all the aircraft mass is considered to be concentrated b) centre of thrust along the longitudinal axis, in relation to a datum line c) focus along the longitudinal axis, in relation to a datum line d) neutral point along the longitudinal axis, in relation to a datum line 31.1.1.2 (1495) What determines the longitudinal stability of an aeroplane ? a) The location of the centre of gravity with respect to the neutral point. b) The effectiveness of the horizontal stabilizer, rudder and rudder trim tab. c) The relationship of thrust and lift to weight and drag. d) The dihedral, angle of sweepback and the keel effect. 31.1.1.2 (1496) When the centre of gravity is at the forward limit, an aeroplane will be : a) extremely stable and will require excessive elevator control to change pitch. b) extremely stable and require small elevator control to change pitch. c) extremely unstable and require excessive elevator control to change pitch. d) extremely unstable and require small elevator control to change pitch. 31.1.1.2 (1497) If the centre of gravity of an aeroplane moves forward during flight the elevator control will : a) become heavier making the aeroplane more difficult to manouevre in pitch b) become lighter making the aeroplane more difficult to manouevre in pitch. c) become heavier making the aeroplane more easy to manouevre in pitch. d) become lighter making the aeroplane more easy to manouevre in pitch. 31.1.1.2 (1498) An aeroplane is loaded with its centre of gravity towards the rear limit. This will result in : a) an increased risk of stalling due to a decrease in tailplane moment b) a reduced fuel consumption as a result of reduced drag. c) an increase in longitudinal stability. d) a reduction in power required for a given speed.

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31.1.1.2 (1499) During take-off you notice that, for a given elevator input, the aeroplane rotates much more rapidly than expected. This is an indication that : a) the centre of gravity may be towards the aft limit. b) the aeroplane is overloaded. c) the centre of gravity is too far forward. d) the centre of pressure is aft of the centre of gravity. 31.1.1.2 (1500) If the centre of gravity is near the forward limit the aeroplane will: a) require elevator trim which will result in an increase in fuel consumption. b) benefit from reduced drag due to the decrease in angle of attack. c) require less power for a given airspeed. d) tend to over rotate during take-off. 31.1.1.2 (1501) An aeroplane is said to be 'neutrally stable'. This is likely to: a) be caused by a centre of gravity which is towards the rearward limit. b) be caused by a centre of gravity which is towards the forward limit. c) be totally unrelated to the position of the centre of gravity. d) cause the centre of gravity to move forwards. 31.1.2.0 (1502) The stalling speed of an aeroplane will be highest when it is loaded with a: a) high gross mass and forward centre of gravity. b) low gross mass and forward centre of gravity. c) low gross mass and aft centre of gravity. d) high gross mass and aft centre of gravity. 31.1.2.0 (1503) With the centre of gravity on the forward limit which of the following is to be expected? a) A decrease in range. b) A decrease in the landing speed. c) A decrease of the stalling speed. d) A tendency to yaw to the right on take-off. 31.1.2.1 (1504) (For this question use annex 031-9596 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.11)At the maximum landing mass the range of safe CG positions, as determined from the appropriate graph in the loading manual, is: a) Forward limit 7.4% MAC aft limit 27.0% MAC b) Forward limit 8.0% MAC aft limit 27.2% MAC c) Forward limit 8.6% MAC aft limit 27.0% MAC d) Forward limit 8.0% MAC aft limit 26.8% MAC 31.1.2.1 (1505) At a given mass the CG position is at 15% MAC. If the leading edge of MAC is at a position 625.6 inches aft of the datum and the MAC is given as 134.5 inches determine the position of the CG in relation to to the datum. a) 645.78 inches aft of datum

b) 20.18 inches aft of datum c) 605.43 inches aft of datum d) 228.34 inches aft of datum 31.1.2.1 (1506) (For this question use annex 031-9598 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.11)The aeroplane has a Take Off Mass of 58 000 kg. At this mass the range of safe CG positions, as determined from the appropriate graph in the loading manual, is: a) Forward limit 8.0% MAC aft limit 26.5% MAC b) Forward limit 8.2% MAC aft limit 26.2% MAC c) Forward limit 9.5% MAC aft limit 26.1% MAC d) Forward limit 8.5% MAC aft limit 26.1% MAC 31.1.2.1 (1507) (For this question use annex 031-9603 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.11)A aeroplane has a landing mass of 53 000kg. The range of safe CG positions, as determined from the appropriate graph in the loading manual, is : a) Forward limit 7.8% MAC aft limit 27.0% MAC b) Forward limit 8.2% MAC aft limit 27.0% MAC c) Forward limit 7.3% MAC aft limit 26.8% MAC d) Forward limit 8.7% MAC aft limit 26.8% MAC 31.1.2.1 (1508) (For this question use annex 031-9604 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.11)The aeroplane has a mass of 61 000 kg in the cruise. The range of safe CG positions, as determined from the appropriate graph in the loading manual, is: a) forward limit 8.3% aft limit 26.3% MAC b) forward limit 8.0% aft limit 27.2% MAC. c) forward limit 7.6% aft limit 26.9% MAC. d) forward limit 7.7% aft limit 25.2% MAC 31.1.2.2 (1509) The maximum load per running metre of an aeroplane is 350 kg/m. The width of the floor area is 2 metres. The floor strength limitation is 300 kg per square metre. Which one of the following crates (length x width x height) can be loaded directly on the floor? a) A load of 400 kg in a crate with dimensions 1.2 m x 1.2 m x 1.2 m. b) A load of 500 kg in a crate with dimensions 1.5 m x 1 m x 1 m. c) A load of 400 kg in a crate with dimensions 1.4 m x 0.8 m x 0.8 m. d) A load of 700 kg in a crate with dimensions 1.8 m x 1.4 m x 0.8 m. 31.1.2.2 (1510) (For this question use annex 031-9629 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.9)From the loading manual for the jet transport aeroplane, the maximum floor loading intensity for the aft cargo compartment is : a) 68 kg per square foot. b) 150 kg per square foot. c) 68 Lbs per square foot. d) 68 kg per square metre.

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31.1.2.2 (1511) (For this question use annex 031-9630 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.9)From the loading manual for the transport aeroplane, the aft cargo compartment has a maximum total load of : a) 4187 kg b) 9232 kg c) 1568 kg d) 3062 kg 31.1.2.2 (1512) (For this question use annexes 031-9631A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.9)From the Loading Manual for the transport aeroplane, the maximum load that can be carried in that section of the aft cargo compartment which has a balance arm centroid at : a) 835.5 inches is 3062 kg. b) 835.5 inches is 6752 kg. c) 421.5 inches is 4541 kg. d) 421.5 inches is 2059 Lbs. 31.1.2.2 (1513) (For this question use annex 031-9608 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.9)Referring to the loading manual for the transport aeroplane, the maximum running load for the aft section of the forward lower deck cargo compartment is: a) 13.12 kg per inch. b) 13.15 kg per inch. c) 14.65 kg per inch. d) 7.18 kg per inch. 31.1.2.2 (1514) (For this question use annex 031-9609 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.9)Referring to the loading manual for the transport aeroplane, the maximum load intensity for the lower forward cargo compartment is: a) 68 kg per square foot. b) 3305 kg in forward compartment and 4187 kg in aft compartment. c) 150 kg per square foot. d) 7288 kg in forward compartment and 9232 kg in aft compartment. 31.1.2.2 (1515) The maximum floor loading for a cargo compartment in an aeroplane is given as 750 kg per square metre. A package with a mass of 600 kg. is to be loaded. Assuming the pallet base is entirely in contact with the floor, which of the following is the minimum size pallet that can be used ? a) 40 cm by 200 cm b) 30 cm by 300 cm c) 30 cm by 200 cm d) 40 cm by 300 cm 31.1.2.2 (1516) The maximum intensity floor loading for an aeroplane is given in the Flight Manual as 650 kg per square metre. What is the maximum mass of a package which can be safely supported on a pallet with dimensions of 80 cm by 80 cm?

a) 416.0 kg b) 1015.6 kg c) 41.6 kg d) 101.6 kg 31.1.2.2 (1517) (For this question use annex 031-9613 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.9)A pallet having a freight platform which measures 200 cm x 250 cm has a total mass of 300 kg. The pallet is carried on two ground supports each measuring 20 cm x 200 cm. Using the loading manual for the transport aeroplane, calculate how much mass may be added to, or must be off loaded from, the pallet in order for the load intensity to match the maximum permitted distribution load intensity for lower deck forward cargo compartement. a) 285.5 kg may be added. b) 28.5 kg must be off loaded. c) 28.5 kg may be added. d) 158.3 kg must be off loaded. 31.1.2.2 (1518) The floor limit of an aircraft cargo hold is 5 000 N/m2.It is planned to load-up a cubic container measuring 0,4 m of side.It's maximum gross mass must not exceed:(assume g=10m/s2) a) 80 kg b) 800 kg c) 32 kg d) 320 kg 31.1.2.2 (1519) The floor of the main cargo hold is limited to 4 000 N/m2.It is planned to load a cubic container each side of which measures 0.5m.Its maximum gross mass must not exceed:(assume g=10m/s2) a) 100 kg b) 1 000 kg c) 500 kg d) 5 000 kg 31.1.2.3 (1520) The maximum certificated taxi (or ramp) mass is that mass to which an aeroplane may be loaded prior to engine start. It is : a) a fixed value which is listed in the Flight Manual. b) a value which varies with airfield temperature and altitude. Corrections are listed in the Flight Manual. c) a value which varies only with airfield altitude. Standard corrections are listed in the Flight Manual. d) a value which is only affected by the outside air temperature. Corrections are calculated from data given in the Flight Manual. 31.1.2.3 (1521) The maximum mass to which an aeroplane may be loaded, prior to engine start, is : a) maximum certificated taxi (ramp) mass. b) maximum regulated taxi (ramp) mass.

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c) maximum certificated take - off mass. d) maximum regulated take - off mass. 31.1.2.3 (1522) The maximum taxi (ramp) mass is governed by : a) structural considerations. b) tyre speed and temperature limitations. c) bearing strength of the taxiway pavement. d) taxi distance to take - off point. 31.1.2.4 (1523) Considering only structural limitations, on very short legs with minimum take-off fuel, the traffic load is normally limited by: a) Maximum zero fuel mass. b) Maximum landing mass. c) Maximum take-off mass. d) Actual landing mass. 31.1.2.4 (1524) Considering only structural limitations, on long distance flights (at the aeroplane's maximum range), the traffic load is normally limited by: a) The maximum take-off mass. b) The maximum zero fuel mass. c) The maximum zero fuel mass plus the take-off mass. d) The maximum landing mass. 31.1.2.4 (1525) The maximum zero fuel mass is a mass limitation for the: a) strength of the wing root b) strength of the fuselage c) allowable load exerted upon the wing considering a margin for fuel tanking d) total load of the fuel imposed upon the wing 31.1.2.4 (1526) Which of the following statements is correct? a) The Maximum Landing Mass of an aeroplane is restricted by structural limitations, performance limitations and the strength of the runway. b) The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass ensures that the centre of gravity remains within limits after the uplift of fuel. c) The Maximum Take-off Mass is equal to the maximum mass when leaving the ramp. d) The Basic Empty Mass is equal to the mass of the aeroplane excluding traffic load and useable fuel but including the crew. 31.1.2.4 (1527) The maximum certificated take - off mass is : a) a structural limit which may not be exceeded for any take - off. b) a take - off limiting mass which is affected by the aerodrome altitude and temperature. c) a take - off limiting mass which is governed by the gradient of climb after reaching V2 . d) limited by the runway take off distance available. It is tabulated in the Flight Manual.

31.1.2.4 (1528) For a particular aeroplane, the structural maximum mass without any fuel on board, other than unusable quantities, is : a) a fixed value which is stated in the Aeroplane Operating Manual. b) a variable value which is governed by the payload carried. c) a variable value which may limit the payload carried. d) a fixed value which will limit the amount of fuel carried. 31.1.2.4 (1529) An aeroplane, which is scheduled to fly an oceanic sector, is due to depart from a high altitude airport in the tropics at 1400 local time. The airport has an exceptionally long runway. Which of the following is most likely to be the limiting factor(s) in determining the take - off mass ? a) altitude and temperature of the departure airfield. b) maximum zero fuel mass. c) maximum certificated take - off mass. d) en route obstacle clearance requirements. 31.1.2.4 (1530) Based on actual conditions, an aeroplane has the following performance take-off mass limitations:Flaps : 0° 10° 15°Runway: 4100 4400 4600Climb: 4700 4500 4200Masses are in kgStructural limits: take-off/landing/zero fuel: 4 300 kgThe maximum take-off mass is : a) 4 300 kg b) 4 100 kg c) 4 200 kg d) 4 700 kg 31.1.2.5 (1531) Assuming gross mass, altitude and airspeed remain unchanged, movement of the centre of gravity from the forward to the aft limit will cause a) increased cruise range. b) higher stall speed. c) lower optimum cruising speed. d) reduced maximum cruise range. 31.1.2.5 (1532) If nose wheel moves aft during gear retraction, how will this movement affect the location of the centre of gravity (cg) on the aeroplane? a) It will cause the cg to move aft. b) It will not affect the cg location. c) It will cause the cg to move forward. d) The cg location will change, but the direction cannot be told the information given. 31.1.2.5 (1533) Which of the following statements is correct? a) A tail heavy aeroplane is less stable and stalls at a lower speed than a nose heavy aeroplane b) If the actual centre of gravity is located behind the aft limit of centre of gravity it is possible that the aeroplane will be unstable, making it necessary to increase elevator forces c) If the actual centre of gravity is close to the forward limit of the centre of gravity the

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aeroplane may be unstable, making it necessary to increase elevator forces d) The lowest stalling speed is obtained if the actual centre of gravity is located in the middle between the aft and forward limit of centre of gravity 31.1.2.5 (1534) Which of the following statements is correct? a) A tail heavy aeroplane is less stable and stalls at a lower speed than a nose heavy aeroplane b) The station (STA) is always the location of the centre of gravity in relation to a reference point, normally the leading edge of the wing at MAC c) The centre of gravity is given in percent of MAC calculated from the leading edge of the wing, where MAC always = the wing chord halfway between the centre line of the fuselage and the wing tip d) If the actual centre of gravity is located behind the aft limit the aeroplane longitudinal stability increases. 31.1.2.5 (1535) Which of the following is most likely to affect the range of centre of gravity positions on an aeroplane? a) Elevator and tailplane (horizontal stabiliser) effectiveness in all flight conditions. b) Location of the undercarriage. c) The need to maintain a low value of stalling speed. d) The need to minimise drag forces and so improve efficiency. 31.1.2.5 (1536) In cruise, an extreme aft longitudinal center of gravity: a) brings the cyclic stick closer to its forward stop and increases the stress in the rotor head b) moves away the cyclic stick from its forward stop and increases the stress in the rotor head c) brings the cyclic stick closer to its forward stop and decreases the stress in the rotor head d) moves away the cyclic stick from its forward stop and decreases the stresses in the head rotors 31.1.2.5 (1537) In cruise flight, an aft centre of gravity location will: a) decrease longitudinal static stability b) increase longitudinal static stability c) does not influence longitudinal static stability d) not change the static curve of stability into longitudinal 31.1.2.5 (1538) The mass displacement caused by landing gear extension: a) creates a longitudinal moment in the direction (pitch-up or pitch-down) determined by the type of landing gear b) creates a pitch-up longitudinal moment c) does not create a longitudinal moment d) creates a pitch-down longitudinal moment 31.2.1.0 (1539) At the flight preparation stage, the following parameters in particular are available

for determining the mass of the aircraft:1- Dry operating mass2- Operating massWhich statement is correct: a) The dry operating mass includes fixed equipment needed to carry out a specific flight. b) The operating mass is the mass of the aeroplane without take-off fuel. c) The dry operating mass includes take-off fuel. d) The operating mass includes the traffic load. 31.2.1.0 (1540) The Dry Operating Mass of an aeroplane includes : a) Crew and crew baggage, catering, removable passenger service equipment, potable water and lavatory chemicals. b) Unusable fuel and reserve fuel. c) Fuel and passengers baggage and cargo. d) Passengers baggage and cargo. 31.2.1.1 (1541) While making mass and balance calculation for a particular aeroplane, the term 'Empty Mass' applies to the sum of airframe, engine(s), fixed ballast plus a) unusable fuel and full operating fluids. b) all the oil, fuel, and hydraulic fluid but not including crew and traffic load. c) all the consumable fuel and oil, but not including any radio or navigation equipment installed by manufacturer. d) all the oil and fuel. 31.2.1.1 (1542) Which is true of the aeroplane empty mass? a) It is a component of dry operating mass. b) It is dry operating mass minus fuel load. c) It is dry operating mass minus traffic load. d) It is the actual take-off mass, less traffic load. 31.2.1.1 (1543) In relation to an aeroplane, the term ' Basic Empty Mass' includes the mass of the aeroplane structure complete with its powerplants, systems, furnishings and other items of equipment considered to be an integral part of the particular aeroplane configuration. Its value is a) found in the latest version of the weighing schedule as corrected to allow for modifications. b) inclusive of an allowance for crew, crew baggage and other operating items. It is entered in the loading manifest. c) found in the flight manual and is inclusive of unusable fuel plus fluids contained in closed systems. d) printed in the loading manual and includes unusable fuel. 31.2.1.1 (1544) An aeroplane is weighed and the following recordings are made:nose wheel assembly scale 5330 kg left main wheel assembly scale 12370 kg right main wheel assembly scale 12480 kg If the 'operational items' amount to a mass of 1780 kg with a crew mass of 545 kg, the empty mass, as entered in the weight schedule, is a) 30180 kg

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b) 28400 kg c) 31960 kg d) 32505 kg 31.2.1.1 (1545) The empty mass of an aeroplane is recorded in a) the weighing schedule and is amended to take account of changes due to modifications of the aeroplane. b) the weighing schedule. If changes occur, due to modifications, the aeroplane must be reweighed always. c) the loading manifest. It differs from Dry Operating Mass by the value of the 'useful load'. d) the loading manifest. It differs from the zero fuel mass by the value of the 'traffic load'. 31.2.1.1 (1546) When establishing the mass breakdown of an aeroplane, the empty mass is defined as the sum of the: a) standard empty mass plus specific equipment mass plus trapped fluids plus unusable fuel mass b) empty mass dry plus variable equipment mass c) basic mass plus variable equipment mass d) basic mass plus special equipment mass 31.2.1.1 (1547) The Basic Mass of a helicopter is the mass of the helicopter without crew, : a) without specific equipment for the mission, without payload, with the unusable fuel and standard equipment. b) without payload, with specific equipment for the mission, without the unusable fuel. c) without specific equipment for the mission, without payload, wthout unusable fuel. d) without specific equipments for the mission, without payload, with fuel on board. 31.2.1.2 (1548) In relation to an aeroplane the Dry Operating Mass is the total mass of the aeroplane ready for a specific type of operation but excluding a) usable fuel and traffic load. b) usable fuel and crew. c) potable water and lavatory chemicals. d) usable fuel, potable water and lavatory chemicals. 31.2.1.2 (1549) The Take-off Mass of an aeroplane is 66700 kg which includes a traffic load of 14200 kg and a usable fuel load of 10500 kg. If the standard mass for the crew is 545 kg the Dry Operating Mass is a) 42000 kg b) 56200 kg c) 41455 kg d) 42545 kg 31.2.1.2 (1550) For the purpose of completing the Mass and Balance documentation, the Dry Operating Mass is defined as: a) The total mass of the aeroplane ready for a specific type of operation excluding

all usable fuel and traffic load. b) The total mass of the aeroplane ready for a specific type of operation excluding all usable fuel. c) The total mass of the aeroplane ready for a specific type of operation excluding all traffic load. d) The total mass of the aeroplane ready for a specific type of operation excluding crew and crew baggage. 31.2.1.2 (1551) Dry Operating Mass is the mass of the aeroplane less a) usable fuel and traffic load. b) usable fuel. c) traffic load, potable water and lavatory chemicals. d) usable fuel, potable water and lavatory chemicals. 31.2.1.2 (1552) The total mass of the aeroplane including crew, crew baggage, plus catering and removable passenger equipment, plus potable water and lavatory chemicals but excluding usable fuel and traffic load, is referred to as: a) Dry Operating Mass. b) Zero Fuel Mass. c) Aeroplane Prepared for Service ( APS) Mass. d) Maximum Zero Fuel Mass 31.2.1.2 (1553) The basic empty mass of an aircraft is 30 000 kg. The masses of the following items are :- catering: 300 kg- safety and rescue material: nil- fly away kit: nil- crew (inclusive crew baggage): 365kg- fuel at take-off: 3 000 kg- unusable fuel: 120 kgpassengers, baggage, cargo: 8 000 kgThe Dry Operating Mass is : a) 30 785 kg b) 30 300 kg c) 38 300 kg d) 30 665 kg 31.2.1.2 (1554) The Dry Operating Mass of a helicopter is the total mass of a helicopter : a) ready for a specific operation including the crew and traffic load, not including the usable fuel b) excluding the crew but including specific equipments for the mission and not including the usable fuel c) including the crew,the fuel and the specific equipments for the mission but excluding payload d) including the crew, the usable fuel and the specific equipments for the mission and payload 31.2.1.2 (1555) By adding to the basic empty mass the following fixed necessary equipment for a specific flight (catering, safety and rescue equipment, fly away kit, crew), we get: a) Dry operating mass b) take-off mass c) zero fuel mass d) landing mass

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31.2.1.3 (1556) The zero fuel mass of an aeroplane is always: a) The take-off mass minus the take-off fuel mass. b) The take-off mass minus the wing fuel mass. c) The take-off mass minus the fuselage fuel mass. d) The maximum take-off mass minus the take-off fuel mass. 31.2.1.3 (1557) The term 'Maximum Zero Fuel Mass' consist of : a) The maximum permissible mass of an aeroplane with no usable fuel. b) The maximum mass authorized for a certain aeroplane not including traffic load and fuel load. c) The maximum mass authorized for a certain aeroplane not including the fuel load and operational items d) The maximum mass for some aeroplanes including the fuel load and the traffic load 31.2.1.3 (1558) The actual 'Zero Fuel Mass' is equal to the: a) Dry Operating Mass plus the traffic load. b) Operating Mass plus all the traffic load. c) Basic Empty Mass plus the fuel loaded. d) Actual Landing Mass plus trip fuel. 31.2.1.3 (1559) The maximum zero-fuel mass:1- is a regulatory limitation2- is calculated for a maximum load factor of +3.5 g3- is due to the maximum permissible bending moment at the wing root4- imposes fuel dumping from the outer wings tank first5imposes fuel dumping from the inner wings tank first6- can be increased by stiffening the wingThe combination of correct statements is: a) 1, 3, 5 b) 2, 5, 6 c) 4, 2, 6 d) 1, 2, 3 31.2.1.3 (1560) Which of the following alternatives corresponds to zero fuel mass? a) The mass of an aeroplane with no usable fuel. b) Operating mass plus load of passengers and cargo. c) Operating mass plus passengers and cargo. d) Take-off mass minus fuel to destination and alternate. 31.2.1.3 (1561) On an aeroplane without central fuel tank, the maximum Zero Fuel Mass is related to: a) The bending moment at the wing root. b) Maximum Structural Take-Off Mass. c) Wing loaded trip fuel. d) Variable equipment for the flight. 31.2.1.3 (1562) The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass is the mass of the aeroplane with no usable fuel on

board. It is a limitation which is: a) listed in the Flight Manual as a fixed value. It is a structural limit. b) governed by the requirements of the centre of gravity limits and the structural limits of the aeroplane. c) tabulated in the Flight Manual against arguments of airfield elevation and temperature. d) governed by the traffic load to be carried. It also provides protection from excessive 'wing bending'. 31.2.1.3 (1563) The Zero Fuel Mass and the Dry Operating Mass a) differ by the value of the traffic load mass. b) are the same value. c) differ by the sum of the mass of usable fuel plus traffic load mass. d) differ by the mass of usable fuel. 31.2.1.3 (1564) The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass is a structural limiting mass. It is made up of the aeroplane Dry Operational mass plus a) traffic load and unuseable fuel. b) traffic load, unuseable fuel and crew standard mass. c) unuseable and crew standard mass. d) traffic load and crew standard mass. 31.2.1.3 (1565) The take-off mass of an aeroplane is 141000 kg. Total fuel on board is 63000 kg including 14000 kg reserve fuel and 1000 kg of unusable fuel. The traffic load is 12800 kg. The zero fuel mass is: a) 79000 kg b) 78000 kg c) 93000 kg d) 65200 kg. 31.2.1.4 (1566) Mass for individual passengers (to be carried on an aeroplane) may be determined from a verbal statement by or on behalf of the passengers if the number of a) passenger seats available is less than 6. b) passengers carried is less than 6. c) passenger seats available is less than 20. d) passengers carried is less than 20. 31.2.1.4 (1567) 'Standard Mass' as used in the computation of passenger load establish the mass of a child as a) 35 kg irrespective of age provided they occupy a seat. b) 35 kg only if they are over 2 years old and occupy a seat. c) 35 kg for children over 2 years occupying a seat and 10 kg for infants (less than 2 years) not occupying a seat. d) 35 kg for children over 2 years occupying a seat and 10 kg for infants (less than 2 years) occupying a seat.

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31.2.1.4 (1568) On an aeroplane with a seating capacity of more than 30, it is decided to use standard mass values for computing the total mass of passengers. If the flight is not a holiday charter, the mass value which may be used for an adult is a) 84 kg b) 76 kg c) 84 kg (male) 76 kg (female). d) 88 kg (male) 74 kg (female). 31.2.1.4 (1569) The standard mass for a child is a) 35 kg for all flights. b) 35 kg for holiday charters and 38 kg for all other flights. c) 38 kg for all flights. d) 30 kg for holiday charters and 35 kg for all other flights. 31.2.1.4 (1570) On an aeroplane with 20 or more seats engaged on an inter-continental flight, the 'standard mass' which may be used for passenger baggage is a) 15 kg per passenger. b) 13 kg per passenger. c) 14 kg per passenger. d) 11 kg per passenger. 31.2.1.4 (1571) In determining the Dry Operating Mass of an aeroplane it is common practice to use 'standard mass' values for crew. These values are a) flight crew 85 kg., cabin crew 75 kg. each. These are inclusive of a hand baggage allowance. b) flight crew 85 kg., cabin crew 75 kg. each. These do not include a hand baggage allowance. c) flight crew (male) 88 kg. (female) 75 kg., cabin crew 75 kg. each. These include an allowance for hand baggage. d) flight crew (male) 88 kg. (female) 75 kg., cabin crew 75 kg. each. These do not include an allowance for hand baggage. 31.2.1.4 (1572) The maximum quantity of fuel that can be loaded into an aeroplane's tanks is given as 3800 US Gallons. If the fuel density (specific gravity) is given as 0.79 the mass of fuel which may be loaded is a) 11364 kg. b) 14383 kg. c) 18206 kg. d) 13647 kg. 31.2.1.4 (1573) Conversion of fuel volume to mass a) may be done by using standard fuel density values as specified in the Operations Manual, if the actual fuel density is not known. b) may be done by using standard fuel density values as specified in JAR - OPS 1. c) must be done by using actual measured fuel density values.

d) must be done using fuel density values of 0.79 for JP 1 and 0.76 for JP 4 as specified in JAR - OPS, IEM - OPS 1.605E. 31.2.1.4 (1574) Standard masses may be used for the computation of mass values for baggage if the aeroplane a) has 20 or more seats. b) has 6 or more seats. c) has 30 or more seats. d) is carrying 30 or more passengers. 31.2.1.4 (1575) The operator of an aircraft equipped with 50 seats uses standard masses for passengers and baggage. During the preparation of a scheduled flight a group of passengers present themselves at the check-in desk, it is apparent that even the lightest of these exceeds the value of the declared standard mass. a) the operator should use the individual masses of the passengers or alter the standard masss b) the operator may use the standard masses for the load and balance calculation without correction c) the operator may use the standard masses for the balance but must correct these for the load calculation d) the operator is obliged to use the actual masses of each passenger 31.2.1.4 (1576) (For this question use annex 031-12272A)For the purpose of calculating traffic loads, an operator's loading manual gives the following standard mass values for passengers. (These values include an allowance for hand baggage)Male 88 kgFemale 70 kgChild 35 kgInfant 6 kgThe standard mass value to be used for hold baggage is 14 kg per pieceThe loading manifest shows the following details :Passengers loaded Males 40Females 65Children 8 Infants 5Baggage in hold number 4: 120 piecesUsing the standard mass values given and the data in the appendix, select from the following the correct value for the mass of freight (all loaded in hold No1) which constitutes the remainder of the traffic load a) 260 kg b) 210 kg c) 280 kg d) no cargo can be loaded in hold number 1 31.2.1.5 (1577) The actual 'Take-off Mass' is equivalent to: a) Dry Operating Mass plus take-off fuel and the traffic load b) Actual Zero Fuel Mass plus the traffic load c) Dry Operating Mass plus the take-off fuel d) Actual Landing Mass plus the take-off fuel 31.2.1.5 (1578) Traffic load is the: a) Zero Fuel Mass minus Dry Operating Mass. b) Dry Operating Mass minus the disposable load.

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c) Dry Operating Mass minus the variable load. d) Take-off Mass minus Zero Fuel Mass. 31.2.1.5 (1579) The term 'useful load' as applied to an aeroplane includes a) traffic load plus useable fuel. b) traffic load only. c) the revenue-earning portion of traffic load only. d) the revenue-earning portion of traffic load plus useable fuel. 31.2.1.5 (1580) An aeroplane is performance limited to a landing mass of 54230 kg. The Dry Operating Mass is 35000 kg and the zero fuel mass is 52080 kg. If the take-off mass is 64280 kg the useful load is a) 29280 kg. b) 17080 kg c) 12200 kg. d) 10080 kg. 31.2.1.5 (1581) (For this question use annex 031-9676 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Paragraph 4)For the medium range transport aeroplane, from the loading manual, determine the maximum total volume of fuel which can be loaded into the main wing tanks. (Fuel density value 0.78) a) 11349 litres b) 8850 litres c) 11646 litres d) 5674 litres 31.2.1.5 (1582) An aeroplane's weighing schedule indicates that the empty mass is 57320 kg. The nominal Dry Operating Mass is 60120 kg and the Maximum Zero Fuel Mass is given as 72100 kg. Which of the following is a correct statement in relation to this aeroplane? a) operational items have a mass of 2800 kg and the maximum traffic load for this aeroplane is 11980 kg. b) operational items have a mass of 2800 kg and the maximum traffic load for this aeroplane is 14780 kg. c) operational items have a mass of 2800 kg and the maximum useful load is 11980 kg. d) operational items have a mass of 2800 kg and the maximum useful load is 14780 kg. 31.2.1.5 (1583) The empty mass of an aeroplane, as given in the weighing schedule, is 61300 kg. The operational items (including crew) is given as a mass of 2300 kg. If the takeoff mass is 132000 kg (including a useable fuel quantity of 43800 kg) the useful load is a) 68400 kg b) 70700 kg c) 29600 kg d) 26900 kg.

31.2.1.5 (1584) The following data applies to an aeroplane which is about to take off: Certified maximum take-off mass 141500 kg Performance limited take-off mass 137300 kg Dry Operating Mass 58400 kg Crew and crew hand baggage mass 640 kg Crew baggage in hold 110 kgFuel on board 60700 kgFrom this data calculate the mass of the useful load. a) 78900 kg b) 78150 kg c) 18200 kg d) 17450 kg 31.2.1.5 (1585) The Dry Operating Mass of an aircraft is 2 000 kg.The maximum take-off mass, landing and zero fuel mass are identical at 3500 kg. The block fuel mass is 550kg, and the taxi fuel mass is 50 kg. The available mass of payload is: a) 1 000 kg b) 950 kg c) 1 500 kg d) 1 450 kg 31.2.1.5 (1586) Allowed traffic load is the difference between : a) allowed take off mass and operating mass b) allowed take off mass and basic mass plus trip fuel c) allowed take off mass and basic mass d) operating mass and basic mass 31.2.1.5 (1587) (For this question use annex 031 11634A)Maximum allowed take-off mass limit: 37 200kgDry operating mass: 21 600 kgTake-off fuel: 8 500 kgPassengers on board: male 33, female 32, children 5Baggages: 880 kgThe company uses the standard passenger mass systems (see annex) allowed by regulations. The flight is not a holiday charter.In these conditions, the maximum cargo that may be loaded is a) 585 kg b) 901 kg c) 1 098 kg d) 1 105 kg 31.2.1.5 (1588) The crew of a transport aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data:Block fuel: 40 000 kg- Trip fuel: 29 000 kg- Taxi fuel: 800 kg- Maximum take-off mass: 170 000 kg- Maximum landing mass: 148 500 kg- Maximum zero fuel mass: 112 500 kg- Dry operating mass: 80 400 kgThe maximum traffic load for this flight is: a) 32 100 kg b) 32 900 kg c) 18 900 kg d) 40 400 kg

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31.2.1.5 (1589) The crew of a transport aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data:- Dry operating mass: 90 000 kg- Block fuel: 30 000 kg- Taxi fuel: 800 kg- Maximum take-off mass: 145 000 kgThe traffic load available for this flight is: a) 25 800 kg b) 25 000 kg c) 55 000 kg d) 55 800 kg 31.2.1.5 (1590) An aircraft basic empty mass is 3000 kg.The maximum take-off, landing, and zerofuel mass are identical, at 5200 kg. Ramp fuel is 650 kg, the taxi fuel is 50 kg.The payload available is : a) 1 600 kg b) 1 550 kg c) 2 200 kg d) 2 150 kg 31.2.2.0 (1591) The take-off mass of an aeroplane is 117 000 kg, comprising a traffic load of 18 000 kg and fuel of 46 000 kg. What is the dry operating mass? a) 53 000 kg b) 64 000 kg c) 71 000 kg d) 99 000 kg 31.2.2.1 (1592) When preparing to carry out the weighing procedure on an aeroplane, which of the following is not required? a) drain all engine tank oil. b) drain all useable fuel. c) drain all chemical toilet fluid tanks. d) removable passenger services equipment to be off-loaded. 31.2.2.1 (1593) An aeroplane may be weighed a) in an enclosed, non-air conditioned, hangar. b) in a quiet parking area clear of the normal manoeuvring area. c) in an area of the airfield set aside for maintenance. d) at a specified 'weighing location' on the airfield. 31.2.2.2 (1594) An aeroplane must be re-weighed at certain intervals. Where an operator uses 'fleet masses' and provided that changes have been correctly documented, this interval is a) 9 years for each aeroplane. b) 4 years for each aeroplane. c) whenever the Certificate of Airworthiness is renewed. d) whenever a major modification is carried out.

31.2.2.2 (1595) If individual masses are used, the mass of an aeroplane must be determined prior to initial entry into service and thereafter a) at intervals of 4 years if no modifications have taken place. b) at regular annual intervals. c) only if major modifications have taken place. d) at intervals of 9 years. 31.2.3.1 (1596) An aeroplane is weighed prior to entry into service. Who is responsible for deriving the Dry Operational Mass from the weighed mass by the addition of the 'operational items' ? a) The Operator. b) The appropriate Aviation Authority. c) The aeroplane manufacturer or supplier. d) The commander of the aeroplane. 31.2.3.1 (1597) The responsibility for determination of the mass of 'operating items' and 'crew members' included within the Dry Operating Mass lies with a) the operator. b) the commander. c) the authority of the state of registration. d) the person compiling the weighing schedule. 31.2.3.3 (1598) (For this question use annex 031-9640 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.14)A revenue flight is planned for the transport aeroplane. Take-off mass is not airfield limited. The following data applies:Dry Operating Mass 34930 kgPerformance limited landing mass 55000 kgFuel on board at ramp-Taxi fuel 350 kgTrip fuel 9730 kgContingency and final reserve fuel 1200 kgAlternate fuel 1600 kgPassengers on board 130Standard mass for each passenger 84 kgBaggage per passenger 14 kgTraffic load Maximum possibleUse the loading manual provided and the above data. Determine the maximum cargo load that may be carried without exceeding the limiting aeroplane landing mass. a) 4530 kg. b) 5400 kg c) 6350 kg. d) 3185 kg. 31.2.3.3 (1599) The empty mass of an aeroplane is given as 44800 kg. Operational items (including crew standard mass of 1060 kg) are 2300 kg. If the maximum zero fuel mass is given as 65500 kg, the maximum traffic load which could be carried is: a) 18400 kg b) 20700 kg c) 23000 kg d) 19460 kg. 31.2.3.3 (1600) (For this question use annex 031-9643 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure

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4.14)The following data relates to a planned flight of an aeroplane -Dry Operational mass 60520 kgPerformance limited take-off mass 92750 kgPerformance limited landing mass 72250 kgMaximum Zero Fuel mass 67530 kgFuel on board at take-off -Trip fuel 12500 kgContingency and final reserve fuel 2300 kgAlternate fuel 1700 kgUsing this data, as appropriate, calculate the maximum traffic load that can be carried. a) 7010 kg b) 7730 kg c) 11730 kg d) 15730 kg 31.2.3.3 (1601) (For this question use annex 031-9644 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.14)Aeroplane Dry Operating mass 85000 kgPerformance limited take-off mass 127000 kgPerformance limited landing mass 98500 kgMaximum zero fuel mass 89800 kgFuel requirements for flight -Trip fuel 29300 kgContingency and final reserve fuel 3600 kgAlternate fuel 2800 kg.The maximum traffic load that can be carried on this flight is: a) 4800 kg b) 7100 kg c) 6300 kg d) 12700 kg 31.2.3.4 (1602) For the purpose of completing the Mass and Balance documentation, the Operating Mass is considered to be Dry Operating Mass plus a) Take-off Fuel Mass. b) Ramp Fuel Mass. c) Trip Fuel Mass. d) Ramp Fuel Mass less the fuel for APU and run-up. 31.2.3.4 (1603) The following data applies to a planned flight.Dry Operating Mass 34900 kgPerformance limited Take-Off Mass 66300 kgPerformance limited Landing Mass 55200 kgMaximum Zero Fuel Mass 53070 kgFuel required at ramp:-Taxy fuel 400 kgtrip fuel 8600 kgcontingency fuel 430 kgalternate fuel 970 kgholding fuel 900 kgTraffic load 16600 kgFuel costs at the departure airfield are such that it is decided to load the maximum fuel quantity possible. The total fuel which may be safely loaded prior to departure is : a) 12700 kg b) 13230 kg c) 15200 kg d) 10730 kg 31.2.3.4 (1604) Prior to departure the medium range twin jet aeroplane is loaded with maximum fuel of 20100 litres at a fuel density (specific gravity) of 0.78. Using the following data - Performance limited take-off mass 67200 kgPerformance limited landing mass 54200 kgDry Operating Mass 34930 kgTaxi fuel 250 kgTrip fuel 9250 kgContingency and holding fuel 850 kgAlternate fuel 700 kgThe maximum permissible traffic load is a) 13090 kg.

b) 16470 kg c) 18040 kg d) 12840 kg 31.2.3.4 (1605) (For this question use annex 031-9660 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Paragraph 3.1)The medium range jet transport aeroplane is to operate a flight carrying the maximum possible fuel load. Using the following data as appropriate, determine the mass of fuel on board at start of take off.Departure airfield performance limited take-off mass: 60 400 kgLanding airfield -not performance limited.Dry Operating Mass: 34930 kgFuel required for flight - Taxi fuel: 715 kg Trip fuel: 8600 kg Contingency and final reserve fuel: 1700 kg Alternate fuel 1500 kg Additional reserve 400 kgTraffic load for flight 11000 kg a) 14 470 kg b) 15 815 kg c) 13 655 kg d) 16 080 kg 31.2.3.4 (1606) An aeroplane is to depart from an airfield at a take-off mass of 302550 kg. Fuel on board at take-off (including contingency and alternate of 19450 kg) is 121450 kg. The Dry Operating Mass is 161450 kg. The useful load will be a) 141100 kg b) 19650 kg c) 121450 kg d) 39105 kg 31.2.3.5 (1607) Given:Maximum structural take-off mass= 146 900 kgMaximum structural landing mass= 93 800 kgMaximum zero fuel mass= 86 400 kgTrip fuel= 27 500 kgBlock fuel= 35 500 kgEngine starting and taxi fuel = 1 000 kgThe maximum take-off mass is equal to: a) 120 900 kg b) 121 300 kg c) 113 900 kg d) 120 300 kg 31.2.3.5 (1608) Given:Dry Operating Mass= 29 800 kgMaximum Take-Off Mass= 52 400 kgMaximum Zero-Fuel Mass= 43 100 kgMaximum Landing Mass= 46 700 kgTrip fuel= 4 000 kgFuel quantity at brakes release= 8 000 kgThe maximum traffic load is: a) 12 900 kg b) 13 300 kg c) 9 300 kg d) 14 600 kg 31.2.3.5 (1609) Given the following :- Maximum structural take-off mass 48 000 kg- Maximum structural landing mass: 44 000 kg- Maximum zero fuel mass: 36 000 kg-Taxi fuel: 600 kg-Contingency fuel: 900 kg-Alternate fuel: 800 kg-Final reserve fuel: 1 100

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kg-Trip fuel: 9 000 kgDetermine the actual take-off mass: a) 47 800 kg b) 48 000 kg c) 48 400 kg d) 53 000 kg 31.2.3.5 (1610) Given that:- Maximum structural take-off mass: 146 000 kg- Maximum structural landing mass: 93 900 kg- Maximum zero fuel mass: 86 300 kg- Trip fuel: 27 000 kg- Taxi fuel: 1 000 kg- Contingency fuel: 1350 kg- Alternate fuel: 2650 kg- Final reserve fuel: 3000 kgDetermine the actual take-off mass: a) 120 300 kg. b) 146 000 kg. c) 120 900 kg. d) 121 300 kg. 31.2.3.5 (1611) Given are:- Maximum structural take-off mass: 72 000 kg- Maximum structural landing mass: 56 000 kg- Maximum zero fuel mass: 48 000 kg- Taxi fuel: 800 kgTrip fuel: 18 000 kg- Contingency fuel: 900 kg- Alternate fuel: 700 kg- Final reserve fuel: 2 000 kgDetermine the actual take-off mass: a) 69 600 kg b) 74 000 kg c) 72 000 kg d) 70 400 kg 31.2.3.5 (1612) (For this question use annex 031-4741A or Loading Manual MEP1 Figure 3.4)With respect to a multi-engine piston powered aeroplane, determine the total moment (lbs.In) at landing in the following conditions:Basic empty mass: 3 210 lbs.One pilot: 160 lbs.Front seat passenger : 200 lbs.Centre seat passengers: 290 lbs. (total)One passenger rear seat: 110 lbs.Baggage in zone 1: 100 lbs.Baggage in zone 4: 50 lbs.Block fuel: 100 US Gal.Trip fuel: 55 US Gal.Fuel for start up and taxi (included in block fuel): 3 US Gal.Fuel density: 6 lbs./US Gal.Total moment at takeoff: 432226 lbs.In a) 401 338 b) 432 221 c) 433 906 d) 377 746 31.2.3.5 (1613) With respect to aeroplane loading in the planning phase, which of the following statements is always correct ?LM = Landing MassTOM = Take-off MassMTOM = Maximum Take-off MassZFM = Zero Fuel MassMZFM = Maximum Zero Fuel MassDOM = Dry Operating Mass a) LM = TOM - Trip Fuel b) MTOM = ZFM + maximum possible fuel mass c) MZFM = Traffic load + DOM d) Reserve Fuel = TOM - Trip Fuel

31.2.3.5 (1614) Given an aeroplane with:Maximum Structural Landing Mass: 68000 kgMaximum Zero Fuel Mass: 70200 kgMaximum Structural Take-off Mass: 78200 kgDry Operating Mass : 48000 kgScheduled trip fuel is 7000 kg and the reserve fuel is 2800 kg,Assuming performance limitations are not restricting, the maximum permitted take-off mass and maximum traffic load are respectively: a) 75000 kg and 17200 kg b) 75000 kg and 20000 kg c) 77200 kg and 19400 kg d) 77200 kg and 22200 kg 31.2.3.5 (1615) Given an aeroplane with: Maximum Structural Landing Mass: 125000 kgMaximum Zero Fuel Mass: 108500 kg Maximum Structural Take-off Mass: 155000 kgDry Operating Mass: 82000 kgScheduled trip fuel is 17000 kg and the reserve fuel is 5000 kg.Assuming performance limitations are not restricting, the maximum permitted take-off mass and maximum traffic load are respectively: a) 130500 kg and 26500 kg b) 130500 kg and 31500 kg c) 125500 kg and 21500 kg d) 125500 kg and 26500 kg 31.2.3.5 (1616) For the purpose of completing the Mass and Balance documentation, the Traffic Load is considered to be equal to the Take-off Mass a) less the Operating Mass. b) plus the Operating Mass. c) plus the Trip Fuel Mass. d) less the Trip Fuel Mass. 31.2.3.5 (1617) A jet transport has the following structural limits:-Maximum Ramp Mass: 63 060 kg-Maximum Take Off Mass: 62 800 kg-Maximum Landing Mass: 54 900 kgMaximum Zero Fuel Mass: 51 300 kgThe aeroplane's fuel is loaded accordance with the following requirements:-Taxi fuel: 400 kg-Trip fuel: 8400 kg-Contingency & final reserve fuel: 1800 kg-Alternate fuel: 1100 kgIf the Dry Operating Mass is 34930 kg, determine the maximum traffic load that can be carried on the flight if departure and landing airfields are not performance limited. a) 16 370 kg b) 16 430 kg c) 17 070 kg d) 16 570 kg 31.2.3.5 (1618) A flight has been made from London to Valencia carrying minimum fuel and maximum traffic load. On the return flight the fuel tanks in the aeroplane are to be filled to capacity with a total fuel load of 20100 litres at a fuel density of 0.79 kg/l.The following are the aeroplane's structural limits:-Maximum Ramp Mass: 69 900 kg-Maximum Take Off Mass: 69 300 kg-Maximum Landing Mass: 58 900 kgMaximum Zero Fuel Mass: 52 740 kgThe performance limited take off mass at Valencia is 67 330 kg.The landing mass at London is not performance limited.Dry Operating Mass: 34 930 kgTrip Fuel (Valencia to London): 5 990 kgTaxi fuel: 250

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kgThe maximum traffic load that can be carried from Valencia will be: a) 14 331 kg b) 13 240 kg c) 16 770 kg d) 9 830 kg 31.2.3.5 (1619) An aeroplane is to depart from an airfield where the performance limited take-off mass is 89200 kg. Certificated maximum masses are as follows:Ramp (taxi) mass 89930 kgMaximum Take-off mass 89430 kgMaximumLanding mass 71520 kgActual Zero fuel mass 62050 kgFuel on board at ramp:Taxi fuel 600 kgTrip fuel 17830 kgContingency, final reserve and alternate 9030 kgIf the Dry Operating Mass is 40970 kg the traffic load that can be carried on this flight is a) 21080 kg b) 21500 kg c) 21220 kg d) 20870 kg 31.2.3.5 (1620) A revenue flight is to be made by a jet transport. The following are the aeroplane's structural limits:-Maximum Ramp Mass: 69 900 kg-Maximum Take Off Mass: 69 300 kg-Maximum Landing Mass: 58 900 kg-Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 52 740 kgThe performance limited take off mass is 67 450kg and the performance limited landing mass is 55 470 kg.Dry Operating Mass: 34 900 kgTrip Fuel: 6 200 kgTaxi Fuel: 250 kgContingency & final reserve fuel: 1 300 kgAlternate Fuel: 1 100 kg The maximum traffic load that can be carried is: a) 17 840 kg b) 18 170 kg c) 13 950 kg d) 25 800 kg 31.2.3.5 (1621) A revenue flight is to be made by a jet transport. The following are the aeroplane's structural limits:-Maximum Ramp Mass: 69 900 kg-Maximum Take Off Mass: 69 300 kg-Maximum Landing Mass: 58 900 kg-Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 52 740 kgTake Off and Landing mass are not performance limited.Dry Operating Mass: 34 930 kgTrip Fuel: 11 500 kgTaxi Fuel: 250 kgContingency & final reserve fuel: 1 450 kgAlternate Fuel: 1 350 kg The maximum traffic load that can be carried is: a) 17 810 kg b) 21 170 kg c) 21 070 kg d) 20 420 kg 31.2.3.5 (1622) A revenue flight is to be made by a jet transport. The following are the aeroplane's structural limits:-Maximum Ramp Mass: 69 900 kg-Maximum Take Off Mass: 69 300 kg-Maximum Landing Mass: 58 900 kg-Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 52 740 kgTake Off and Landing mass are not performance limited.Dry Operating Mass: 34 900 kgTrip Fuel: 11 800 kgTaxi Fuel: 500 kgContingency & final reserve fuel: 1 600 kgAlternate Fuel: 1 900 kg The maximum traffic load that can be carried is: a) 17 840 kg b) 19 100 kg

c) 19 200 kg d) 19 500 kg 31.2.3.5 (1623) (For this question use annex 031-9685 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.14)The medium range twin jet transport is scheduled to operate from a departure airfield where conditions limit the take-off mass to 65050 kg. The destination airfield has a performance limited landing mass of 54500 kg. The Dry Operating Mass is 34900 kg. Loading data is as follows - Taxi fuel 350 kgTrip fuel 9250 kgContingency and final reserve fuel 1100 kgAlternate fuel 1000 kgTraffic load 18600 kgCheck the load and ensure that the flight may be operated without exceeding any of the aeroplane limits. Choose, from those given below, the most appropriate answer. a) The flight is 'landing mass' limited and the traffic load must be reduced to 17500 kg. b) The flight is 'zero fuel mass' limited and the traffic load must be reduced to 14170 kg. c) The flight may be safely operated with the stated traffic and fuel load. d) The flight may be safely operated with an additional 200 kg of traffic load. 31.2.3.5 (1624) The flight preparation of a turbojet aeroplane provides the following data: Take-off runway limitation: 185 000 kg Landing runway limitation: 180 000 kg Planned fuel consumption: 11 500 kg Fuel already loaded on board the aircraft: 20 000 kgKnowing that: Maximum take-off mass (MTOM): 212 000 kg Maximum landing mass (MLM): 174 000 kg Maximum zero fuel mass (MZFM): 164 000 kg Dry operating mass (DOM): 110 000 kgThe maximum cargo load that the captain may decide to load on board is: a) 54 000 kg b) 55 000 kg c) 55 500 kg d) 61 500 kg 31.2.3.5 (1625) To calculate a usable take-off mass, the factors to be taken into account include: a) Maximum landing mass augmented by the fuel burn. b) Maximum landing mass augmented by fuel on board at take-off. c) Maximum zero fuel mass augmented by the fuel burn. d) Maximum take-off mass decreased by the fuel burn. 31.2.3.5 (1626) Given:Dry operating mass = 38 000 kgmaximum structural take-off mass = 72 000 kgmaximum landing mass = 65 000 kgmaximum zero fuel mass = 61 000 kgFuel burn = 8 000 kgTake-off Fuel = 10 300 kgThe maximum allowed take-off mass and payload are respectively : a) 71 300 kg and 23 000 kg b) 71 300 kg and 25 300 kg c) 73 000 kg and 24 700 kg d) 73 000 kg and 27 000 kg 31.2.3.5 (1627) (For this question use annex 031-12273A)From the data contained in the attached

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appendix, the maximum allowable take - off mass and traffic load is respectively : a) 61600 kg and 12150 kg b) 68038 kg and 18588 kg c) 66770 kg and 17320 kg d) 60425 kg and 10975 kg 31.2.3.5 (1628) (For this question use annex 031-12274A)An aeroplane is carrying a traffic load of 10320 kgComplete the necessary sections of the attached appendix and determine which of the answers given below represents the maximum increase in the traffic load a) 1830 kg b) 7000 kg c) 8268 kg d) 655 kg 31.2.4.1 (1629) Prior to departure an aeroplane is loaded with 16500 litres of fuel at a fuel density of 780 kg/m³. This is entered into the load sheet as 16500 kg and calculations are carried out accordingly. As a result of this error, the aeroplane is a) lighter than anticipated and the calculated safety speeds will be too high b) lighter than anticipated and the calculated safety speeds will be too low c) heavier than anticipated and the calculated safety speeds will be too high d) heavier than anticipated and the calculated safety speeds will be too low. 31.2.4.1 (1630) An additional baggage container is loaded into the aft cargo compartment but is not entered into the load and trim sheet. The aeroplane will be heavier than expected and calculated take-off safety speeds a) will give reduced safety margins. b) will not be achieved. c) will be greater than required. d) are unaffected but V1 will be increased. 31.2.4.1 (1631) Fuel loaded onto an aeroplane is 15400 kg but is erroneously entered into the load and trim sheet as 14500 kg. This error is not detected by the flight crew but they will notice that a) speed at un-stick will be higher than expected b) V1 will be reached sooner than expected c) V1 will be increased. d) the aeroplane will rotate much earlier than expected. 31.2.4.1 (1632) When considering the effects of increased mass on an aeroplane, which of the following is true? a) Stalling speeds will be higher. b) Stalling speeds will be lower. c) Gradient of climb for a given power setting will be higher. d) Flight endurance will be increased.

31.2.4.2 (1633) A flight benefits from a strong tail wind which was not forecast. On arrival at destination a straight in approach and immediate landing clearance is given. The landing mass will be higher than planned and a) the landing distance required will be longer. b) the landing distance will be unaffected. c) the approach path will be steeper. d) the approach path will be steeper and threshold speed higher. 31.2.4.4 (1634) If an aeroplane is at a higher mass than anticipated, for a given airspeed the angle of attack will a) be greater, drag will increase and endurance will decrease. b) be decreased, drag will decrease and endurance will increase. c) remain constant, drag will decrease and endurance will decrease. d) remain constant, drag will increase and endurance will increase. 31.2.4.4 (1635) In order to provide an adequate ""buffet boundary"" at the commencement of the cruise a speed of 1.3Vs is used. At a mass of 120000 kg this is a CAS of 180 knots. If the mass of the aeroplane is increased to 135000 kg the value of 1.3Vs will be a) increased to 191 knots, drag will increase and air distance per kg of fuel will decrease. b) unaffected as Vs always occurs at the same angle of attack. c) increased to 191 knots, drag will decrease and air distance per kg of fuel will increase. d) increased to 202 knots but, since the same angle of attack is used, drag and range will remain the same. 31.2.4.6 (1636) The following data is extracted from an aeroplane's loading manifest:Performance limited take-off mass 93500 kgExpected landing mass at destination 81700 kgMaximum certificated landing mass 86300 kgFuel on board 16500 kgDuring the flight a diversion is made to an en-route alternate which is not 'performance limited' for landing. Fuel remaining at landing is 10300 kg. The landing mass a) is 87300 kg and excess structural stress could result b) is 83200 kg which is in excess of the regulated landing mass and could result in overrunning the runway c) must be reduced to 81700 kg in order to avoid a high speed approach. d) is 87300 kg which is acceptable in this case because this is a diversion and not a normal scheduled landing. 31.2.4.6 (1637) At maximum certificated take-off mass an aeroplane departs from an airfield which is not limiting for either take-off or landing masses. During initial climb the number one engine suffers a contained disintegration. An emergency is declared and the aeroplane returns to departure airfield for an immediate landing. The most likely result of this action will be a) a high threshold speed and possible undercarriage or other structural failure. b) a high threshold speed and a shorter stop distance. c) a landing further along the runway than normal. d) a landing short resultant from the increased angle of approach due to the very high aeroplane mass.

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31.2.4.6 (1638) During a violent avoidance manoeuvre, a light twin aircraft, certified to FAR 23 requirements was subjected to an instantaneous load factor of 4.2. The Flight Manual specifies that the aircraft is certified in the normal category for a load factor of -1.9 to +3.8.Considering the certification requirements and taking into account that the manufacturer of the twin did not include, during its conception, a supplementary margin in the flight envelope, it might be possible to observe, a) a permanent deformation of the structure b) a elastic deformation whilst the load was applied, but no permanent distortion c) no distortion, permanent or temporary of the structure d) rupture of one or more structural components 31.3.1.0 (1639) The centre of gravity location of the aeroplane is normally computed along the: a) longitudinal axis. b) lateral axis. c) vertical axis. d) horizontal axis. 31.3.1.1 (1640) In mass and balance calculations which of the following describes the datum? a) It is the point on the aeroplane designated by the manufacturers from which all centre of gravity measurements and calculations are made. b) It is the most forward position of the centre of gravity. c) It is the most aft position of the centre of gravity. d) It is the distance from the centre of gravity to the point through which the weight of the component acts. 31.3.1.1 (1641) A location in the aeroplane which is identified by a number designating its distance from the datum is known as: a) Station. b) Moment. c) MAC. d) Index. 31.3.1.1 (1642) In calculations with respect to the position of the centre of gravity a reference is made to a datum. The datum is a) a reference plane which is chosen by the aeroplane manufacturer. Its position is given in the aeroplane Flight or Loading Manual. b) calculated from the loading manifest. c) an arbitrary reference chosen by the pilot which can be located anywhere on the aeroplane. d) calculated from the data derived from the weighing procedure carried out on the aeroplane after any major modification. 31.3.1.1 (1643) The datum is a reference from which all moment (balance) arms are measured. Its precise position is given in the control and loading manual and it is located a) at a convenient point which may not physically be on the aeroplane. b) at or near the forward limit of the centre of gravity.

c) at or near the focal point of the aeroplane axis system. d) at or near the natural balance point of the empty aeroplane. 31.3.1.1 (1644) Moment (balance) arms are measured from a specific point to the body station at which the mass is located. That point is known as a) the datum. b) the focal point. c) the axis. d) the centre of gravity of the aeroplane. 31.3.1.1 (1645) (For this question use annex 033-9583A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 page 20)For the medium range twin jet the datum point is located a) 540 inches forward of the front spar. b) 540 cm forward of the front spar. c) on the nose of the aeroplane. d) at the leading edge of the Mean Aerodynamic Chord (MAC). 31.3.1.1 (1646) The datum used for balance calculations is: a) chosen on the longitudinal axis of the aeroplane, but not necessarily between the nose and the tail of the aircraft b) chosen on the longitudinal axis of the aeroplane, and necessarily situated between the nose and the tail of the aircraft c) chosen on the longitudinal axis of the aircraft and necessarily situated between the leading edge and trailing edge of the wing d) chosen on the longitudinal axis of the aircraft, and always at the fire-wall level 31.3.1.1 (1647) With reference to mass and balance calculations (on an aeroplane) a datum point is used. This datum point is : a) a fixed point from which all balance arms are measured. It may be located anywhere on the aeroplane's longitudinal axis or on the extensions to that axis. b) the point through which the sum of the mass values (of the aeroplane and its contents) is assumed to act vertically. c) a point near the centre of the aeroplane. It moves longitudinally as masses are added forward and aft of its location. d) a point from which all balance arms are measured. The location of this point varies with the distribution of loads on the aeroplane. 31.3.1.2 (1648) (For this question use annex 031-9605 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.9)For the transport aeroplane the moment (balance) arm (B.A.) for the forward hold centroid is: a) 367.9 inches. b) 257 inches. c) 314.5 inches. d) 421.5 inches.

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31.3.1.2 (1649) The distance from the datum to the Centre of Gravity of a mass is known as a) the moment arm or balance arm. b) the lever. c) the moment. d) the index. 31.3.1.3 (1650) An aeroplane has its centre of gravity located 7 metres from the datum line and it has a mass of 49000 N. The moment about the datum is: a) 343 000 Nm. b) 1.43 Nm. c) 7000 Nm. d) 34 300 Nm. 31.3.1.3 (1651) Which one of the following is correct? a) Arm = Moment / Force b) Arm = Force / Moment c) Moment = Force / Arm d) Arm = Force X Moment 31.3.1.3 (1652) In mass and balance calculations the ""index"" is: a) the moment divided by a constant. b) a location in the aeroplane identified by a number. c) an imaginary vertical plane or line from which all measurements are taken. d) the range of moments the centre of gravity (cg) can have without making the aeroplane unsafe to fly. 31.3.1.3 (1653) A mass of 500 kg is loaded at a station which is located 10 metres behind the present Centre of Gravity and 16 metres behind the datum. (Assume: g=10 m/s^2)The moment for that mass used in the loading manifest is : a) 80000 Nm b) 50000 Nm c) 30000 Nm d) 130000 Nm 31.3.1.4 (1654) Calculate the centre of gravity in % MAC (mean aerodynamic chord) with following data:Distance datum - centre of gravity: 12.53 mDistance datum - leading edge: 9.63 mLength of MAC: 8 m a) 36.3 % MAC b) 63.4 % MAC c) 47.0 % MAC d) 23.1 % MAC 31.3.1.4 (1655) The loaded centre of gravity (cg) of an aeroplane is 713 mm aft of datum. The mean aerodynamic chord lies between station 524 mm aft and 1706 mm aft. The

cg expressed as % MAC (mean aerodynamic chord) is: a) 16% b) 41% c) 60% d) 10% 31.3.1.4 (1656) The centre of gravity of an aeroplane is at 25% of the Mean Aerodynamic Chord.This means that the centre of gravity of the aeroplane is situated at 25% of the length of: a) the mean aerodynamic chord in relation to the leading edge b) the mean aerodynamic chord in relation to the trailing edge c) the mean aerodynamic chord in relation to the datum d) the aeroplane in relation to the leading edge 31.3.1.4 (1657) An aeroplane has a mean aerodynamic chord (MAC) of 134.5 inches. The leading edge of this chord is at a distance of 625.6 inches aft of the datum. Give the location of the centre of gravity of the aeroplane in terms of percentage MAC if the mass of the aeroplane is acting vertically through a balance arm located 650 inches aft of the datum. a) 18,14% b) 75,60% c) 85,50% d) 10,50% 31.3.1.4 (1658) The determination of the centre of gravity in relation to the mean aerodynamic chord: a) consists of defining the centre of gravity longitudinally in relation to the length of the mean aerodynamic chord and the leading edge b) consists of defining the centre of gravity longitudinally in relation to the length of the mean aerodynamic chord and the trailing edge c) consists of defining the centre of gravity longitudinally in relation to the position of the aerodynamic convergence point d) consists of defining the centre of gravity longitudinally in relation to the position of the aerodynamic centre of pressure 31.3.2.0 (1659) If 390 Ibs of cargo are moved from compartment B (aft) to compartment A (forward), what is the station number of the new centre of gravity (cg).Given : Gross mass 116.500 IbsPresent cg station 435.0Compartment A station 285.5Compartment B station 792.5 a) 433.3 b) 463.7 c) 506.3 d) 436.7 31.3.2.0 (1660) Given the following information, calculate the loaded centre of gravity (cg).______________________________________________________________

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_____STATION MASS (kg) ARM (cm) MOMENT (kgcm)____________________________________________________________ _______Basic Empty Condition 12045 +30 +361350Crew 145 -160 -23200Freight 1 5455 +200 +1091000Freight 2 410 -40 -16400Fuel 6045 -8 -48360Oil 124 +40 +4960 a) 56.53 cm aft datum. b) 56.35 cm aft datum. c) 60.16 cm aft datum. d) 53.35 cm aft datum. 31.3.2.1 (1661) (For this question use annex 031-1569A) Where is the centre of gravity of the aeroplane in the diagram? a) 26.57 cm forward of datum. b) 32.29 cm forward of datum. c) 26.57 cm aft of datum. d) 32.29 cm aft of datum. 31.3.2.1 (1662) An aeroplane with a two wheel nose gear and four main wheels rests on the ground with a single nose wheel load of 500 kg and a single main wheel load of 6000 kg. The distance between the nose wheels and the main wheels is 10 meter.How far is the centre of gravity in front of the main wheels? a) 40 cm. b) 25 cm. c) 4 meter. d) 41.6 cm. 31.3.2.1 (1663) To measure the mass and CG-position of an aircraft, it should be weighed with a minimum of: a) 3 points of support b) 2 points of support c) 1 point of support d) 4 point of support 31.3.2.1 (1664) The following results were obtained after weighing a helicopter :- mass at front point: 300 kg- mass at right rear point : 1 100 kg- mass at left rear point : 950 kgIt is given that the front point is located 0.30 m left of the longitudinal axis and the rear points are symmetricaly located 1.20 m from this axis.The helicopter's lateral CG-position relative to the longitudinal axis is: a) 4 cm right b) 4 cm left c) 11 cm right d) 11 cm left 31.3.2.1 (1665) After weighing a helicopter the following values are noted:forward point: 350 kgaft right point: 995 kgaft left point: 1 205 kgWhat is the longitudinal CG-position in relation to the datum situated 4 m in front of the rotor axis, knowing that the

forward point is at 2.5 m forward of the rotor axis and the aft points are 1 m aft of the rotor axis? a) 4.52 m b) 4.09 m c) 4.21 m d) 4.15 m 31.3.2.1 (1666) (For this question use annex 031-12266A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.14) Using the load and trim sheet for the JAR FCL twin jet, which of the following is the correct value for the index at a Dry Operating Mass (DOM) of 35000 kg with a CG at 14% MAC ? a) 40.0 b) 35.5 c) 41.5 d) 33..0 31.3.2.1 (1667) The following results were obtained after weighing a helicopter :- front point : 220 kg- right rear point : 500 kg- left rear point : 480 kgThe helicopter's datum is 3.40 m forward of the rotor axis. The front point is located 2.00 m forward of the rotor axis and the rear points are located 0.50 m aft of the rotor axis.The longitudinal CG-position in relation to the datum is: a) 3,44 m b) 1,18 m c) 3,36 m d) 0,04 m 31.3.2.2 (1668) Given:Total mass 2900 kgCentre of gravity (cg) location station: 115.0Aft cg limit station: 116.0The maximum mass that can be added at station 130.0 is: a) 207 kg. b) 317 kg. c) 140 kg. d) 14 kg. 31.3.2.2 (1669) Given:Total mass: 7500 kgCentre of gravity (cg) location station: 80.5 Aft cg limit station: 79.5How much cargo must be shifted from the aft cargo compartment at station 150 to the forward cargo compartment at station 30 in order to move the cg location to the aft limit? a) 62.5 kg. b) 65.8 kg. c) 68.9 kg. d) 73.5 kg. 31.3.2.2 (1670) The total mass of an aeroplane is 9000 kg. The centre of gravity (cg) position is at 2.0 m from the datum line. The aft limit for cg is at 2.1 m from the datum line.What mass of cargo must be shifted from the front cargo hold (at 0.8 m from the datum) to the aft hold (at 3.8 m), to move the cg to the aft limit?

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a) 300 kg b) 900 kg c) 30.0 kg d) 196 kg 31.3.2.2 (1671) Given:Aeroplane mass = 36 000 kgCentre of gravity (cg) is located at station 17 mWhat is the effect on cg location if you move 20 passengers (total mass = 1 600 kg) from station 16 to station 23? a) It moves aft by 0.31 m. b) It moves forward by 0.157 m. c) It moves aft by 3.22 m. d) It moves aft by 0.157 m. 31.3.2.2 (1672) The mass of an aeroplane is 1950 kg. If 450 kg is added to a cargo hold 1.75 metres from the loaded centre of gravity (cg). The loaded cg will move: a) 33 cm. b) 40 cm. c) 30 cm. d) 34 cm. 31.3.2.2 (1673) Given are the following information at takeoff_______________________________________________________________ ____STATION MASS (kg) ARM (cm) MOMENT (kgcm)____________________________________________________________ _______Basic Empty Condition 12045 +30 +361350Crew 145 -160 -23200Freight 1 5455 +200 +1091000 Freight 2 410 -40 -16400Fuel 6045 -8 - 48360Oil 124 +40 +4960Given that the flight time is 2 hours and the estimated fuel flow will be 1050 litres per hour and the average oil consumption will be 2.25 litres per hour. The specific density of fuel is 0.79 and the specific density of oil is 0.96.Calculate the landing centre of gravity a) 61.28 cm aft of datum. b) 61.26 cm aft of datum. c) 61.27 cm aft of datum. d) 61.29 cm aft of datum. 31.3.2.2 (1674) Given that the total mass of an aeroplane is 112 000 kg with a centre of gravity position at 22.62m aft of the datum. The centre of gravity limits are between 18m and 22m. How much mass must be removed from the rear hold (30 m aft of the datum) to move the centre of gravity to the middle of the limits: a) 29 344 kg b) 16 529 kg c) 8 680 kg d) 43 120 kg 31.3.2.2 (1675) (For this question use annex 031-2946A) The total mass of an aeroplane is 145000 kg and the centre of gravity limits are between 4.7 m and 6.9 m aft of the datum.

The loaded centre of gravity position is 4.4 m aft. How much mass must be transferred from the front to the rear hold in order to bring the out of limit centre of gravity position to the foremost limit: a) 7 500 kg b) 3 500 kg c) 35 000 kg d) 62 500 kg 31.3.2.2 (1676) (For this question use annex 031-11246A and 031-11246B)The planned take-off mass of an aeroplane is 180 000 kg, with its centre of gravity located at 31 % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord). Shortly prior to engine start, the local staff informs the crew that an additional load of 4 000 kg must be loaded in cargo 1. After loading this cargo, the new centre of gravity location will be: a) 25% b) 28% c) 37% d) 34% 31.3.2.2 (1677) (For this question use annex 031-11247A and 031-11247B)A turbojet aeroplane is parked with the following data:Corrected Dry Operating Mass: 110 100 kgBasic corrected index: 118.6Initial cargo distribution: cargo 1 = 4 000 kg, cargo 2 = 2 000 kg, cargo 3 = 2 000 kg,The other cargo compartments are empty.Take-off mass: 200 000 kgCentre of gravity location: 32 % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord)To maximize performance, the captain decides to redistribute part of the cargo load between cargo 1 and cargo 4, in order to take off with a new centre of gravity location at 35 % MAC. After loading, the new load distribution between cargo 1 and cargo 4 is: a) 2 500 kg in cargo 1, 1 500 kg in cargo 4 b) 3 000 kg in cargo 1, 1 000 kg in cargo 4 c) 2 000 kg in cargo 1, 2 000 kg in cargo 4 d) 1 000 kg in cargo 1, 3 000 kg in cargo 4 31.3.2.2 (1678) Which of the following is unlikely to have any effect on the position of the centre of gravity on an aeroplane in flight ? a) Changing the tailplane (horizontal stabiliser) incidence angle. b) Lowering the landing gear. c) Movement of cabin attendants going about their normal duties. d) Normal consumption of fuel for a swept wing aeroplane. 31.3.2.2 (1679) (For this question use annexes 031- 11205A and 031-11205B)A turbojet aeroplane is parked with the following data:Corrected dry operating mass: 110 100 kgBasic corrected index: 118.6Initial cargo distribution: cargo 1: 4 000 kg , cargo 2: 2 000 kg , cargo 3: 2 000 kg, other cargo compartments are emptyTake-off mass: 200 000 kg, centre of gravity (C.G.) location: 32 %For perfomance reasons, the captain decides to redistribute part of the cargo loading between cargo compartments, in order to take off with a new C.G. location of 34 %. He asks for a transfer of: a) 1 000 kg from cargo 1 to cargo 4 b) 500 kg from cargo 1 to cargo 3

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c) 1 000 kg from cargo 3 to cargo 1 d) 1 500 kg from cargo 3 to cargo 1 31.3.2.2 (1680) (For this question use appendix 031-11589A)Without the man on the winch, the mass and the lateral CG position of the helicopter are 6 000 kg and 0.055 m to the right. - the mass of the wet man on the winch is 180 kgWith the man on the winch, the mass and lateral CG-position of the helicopter are : a) beyond the limit b) 6 180 kg and 0.059m to the right c) 6 180 kg and 0.075m to the right d) 6 180 kg and 0.041m to the right 31.3.2.2 (1681) (For this question use annex 031-11606A)Without the man on the winch, the mass and the lateral CG-position of the aircraft are 6 000 kg and 0,04 m to the right. the mass of the man on the winch is 100 kgWith the man on the winch , the lateral CG-position of the aircraft will be: a) 0,062m to the right b) 0,016m to the left c) beyond the limits d) 0,0633m to the right 31.3.2.2 (1682) At a mass of 1 800 kg, a helicopter equipped with a winch has a lateral CG-position of 5 cm to the left. The CG of the load suspended from the winch is at a distance of 60 cm to the right. With a winch load of 200 kg the lateral CG-position of the helicopter will be: a) 1.5 cm to the right b) 1.5 cm to the left c) 10.5 cm to the right d) 10,5 cm to the right 31.3.2.2 (1683) (For this question use annexes 031-11071A and 031-11071B)Just prior to departure, you accept 10 passengers additional on board who will be seated in ""compartment OC"" and you have 750 kg unloaded from cargo compartment 5. The take-off centre of gravity in MAC % (Mean Aerodynamic Chord) will be located at: a) 27.8 % b) 30.5 % c) 28.5 % d) 27.2 % 31.3.2.2 (1684) (For this question use annex 031-11632A )The empty mass of your helicopter is 1 100 kg with a CG-position at 3.05m. The load is as follows:-total mass of pilot and co-pilot: 150 kg-total mass of passengers at rear: 200 kgIn order not to exeed the limitations the minimum remaining fuel on board should be: a) 125 kg b) 450 kg

c) 350 kg d) 250 kg 31.3.2.2 (1685) (For this question use annex 031-11219A)An aeroplane, whose specific data is shown in the annex, has a planned take-off mass of 200 000 kg, with its centre of gravity (C.G.) is located at 15.38 m rearward of the reference point, representing a C.G. location at 30 % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord). For performance purposes, the captain decides to reset the value of the centre of gravity location to 35 % MAC. The front and rear cargo compartments are located at a distance of 15 m and 25 m from the reference point respectively, the cargo load mass which needs to be transferred from the front to the rear cargo compartment is: a) 4 600 kg b) 5 600 kg c) 3 600 kg d) It is not possible to establish the required centre of gravity location. 31.3.2.2 (1686) (For this question use annex 031-11222A and 031-11222B )The planned take-off mass of an aeroplane is 190 000 kg, with its centre of gravity located at 29 % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord). Shortly prior to engine start, the local staff informs the flight crew that an additional load of 4 000 kg must be loaded in cargo 4. After loading this cargo, the new centre of gravity location will be: a) 33% b) 25% c) 27% d) 31% 31.3.2.2 (1687) (For this question use annex 031-11227A)An aeroplane, whose specific data is shown in the annex, has a planned take-off mass of 200 000 kg, with its centre of gravity (C.G.) located at 15.38 m rearward of the reference point, representing a C.G. location at 30 % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord). The current cargo load distribution is: front cargo: 6 500 kg, rear cargo: 4 000 kg. For performance purposes, the captain decides to reset the value of the centre of gravity location to 33 % MAC. The front and rear cargo compartments are located at a distance of 15 m and 25 m from the reference point respectively. After the transfer operation, the new cargo load distribution is: a) front cargo: 3 740 kg, rear cargo: 6 760 kg b) front cargo: 6 760 kg, rear cargo: 3 740 kg c) front cargo: 4 550 kg, rear cargo: 5 950 kg d) front cargo: 9 260 kg, rear cargo: 1 240 kg 31.3.2.2 (1688) (For this question use annex 031-11257A and 031-11257B )The planned take-off mass of a turbojet aeroplane is 190 000 kg, with its centre of gravity located at 29 % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord) . Shortly prior to engine start, the local staff informs the flight crew that 4 000 kg must be unloaded from cargo 4. After the handling operation, the new centre of gravity location in % MAC will be: a) 25% b) 33%

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c) 27% d) 31% 31.3.2.2 (1689) (For this question use annex 031-11258A and 031-11258B)The planned take-off mass of a turbojet aeroplane is 180 000 kg, with its centre of gravity located at 26 % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord). Shortly prior to engine start, the local staff informs the flight crew that 4 000 kg must be unloaded from cargo 4. After the handling operation, the new centre of gravity location in % MAC will be: a) 21.8 % b) 20.0 % c) 30.2 % d) 23.0 % 31.3.2.2 (1690) (For this question use annex 031-11273A and 031-11273B)A turbojet aeroplane has a planned take-off mass of 190 000 kg. Following cargo loading, the crew is informed that the centre of gravity at take-off is located at 38 % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord) which is beyond limits. The captain decides then to redistribute part of the cargo load between cargo 1 and cargo 4 in order to obtain a new centre of gravity location at 31 % MAC. He asks for a transfer of: a) 3 000 kg from cargo 4 to cargo 1. b) 2 000 kg from cargo 4 to cargo 1. c) 1 000 kg from cargo 4 to cargo 1. d) It is not possible to obtain the required centre of gravity. 31.3.2.2 (1691) (For this question use annex 031-11275A and 031-11275B)A turbojet aeroplane has a planned take-off mass of 190 000 kg, the cargo load is distributed as follows: cargo 1: 3 000 kg, cargo 4: 7 000 kg. Once the cargo loading is completed, the crew is informed that the centre of gravity at take-off is located at 38 % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord) which is beyond the limits. The captain decides then to redistribute part of the cargo load between cargo 1 and cargo 4 in order to obtain a new centre of gravity location at 31 % MAC. Following the transfer operation, the new load distribution is: a) cargo 1: 6 000 kg, cargo 4: 4 000 kg b) cargo 1: 4 000 kg, cargo 4: 6 000 kg c) cargo 1: 5 000 kg, cargo 4: 4 000 kg d) cargo 1: 4 000 kg, cargo 4: 5 000 kg 31.3.2.2 (1692) The mass and balance information gives :Basic mass : 1 200 kg , Basic balance arm : 3.00 mUnder these conditions the Basic centre of gravity is at 25% of the mean aerodynamic chord (MAC). The length of MAC is 2m.In the mass and balance section of the flight manual the following information is given : Position Arm front seats : 2.5 m rear seats : 3.5 m rear hold : 4.5 m fuel tanks : 3.0 mThe pilot and one passenger embark, each weighs 80 kg. Fuel tanks contain 140 litres of petrol with a density of 0.714. The rear seats are not occupied.Taxi fuel is negligable.The position of the centre of gravity at take-off (as % MAC) is : a) 22% b) 29%

c) 34% d) 17% 31.3.2.3 (1693) (For this question use annex 031-1580A)A jet aeroplane, with the geometrical characteristics shown in the appendix, has a take-off weight (W) of 460 000 N and a centre of gravity (point G on annex) located at 15.40 m from the zero reference point.At the last moment the station manager has 12 000 N of freight added in the forward compartment at 10 m from the zero reference point.The final location of the centre of gravity, calculated in percentage of mean aerodynamic chord AB (from point A), is equal to: a) 27.5 %. b) 16.9 %. c) 30.4 %. d) 35.5 %. 31.3.2.3 (1694) (For this question use annex 031-1581A)The loading for a flight is shown in the attached loadsheet, with the following data applying to the aeroplane:Maximum take-off mass: 150 000 kgMaximum landing mass: 140 000 kgCentre of gravity (cg) limit forward: 10.5 m aft of datum aft: 13.0 m aft of datumEstimated trip fuel: 55 000 kg a) Landing cg is out of limits at 10.17 m aft of datum. b) Take-off cg is out of limits at 10.17 m aft of datum. c) Take-off cg is out of limits at 12.34 m aft of datum. d) Landing cg is out of limits at 11.97 m aft of datum. 31.3.2.3 (1695) (For this question use annex 031-4739A or Loading Manual MEP1 Figure 3.4)With respect to multi-engine piston powered aeroplane, determine the ramp mass (lbs) in the following conditions:Basic empty mass: 3 210 lbsBasic arm: 88.5 InchesOne pilot: 160 lbsFront seat passenger : 200 lbsCentre seat passengers: 290 lbsOne passenger rear seat: 110 lbsBaggage in zone 1: 100 lbsBaggage in zone 4: 50 lbsBlock fuel: 100 US Gal.Trip fuel: 55 US Gal.Fuel for start up and taxi (included in block fuel): 3 US Gal. Fuel density: 6 lbs/US Gal. a) 4 720 b) 4 120 c) 4 390 d) 4 372 31.3.2.3 (1696) (For this question use annex 031-4740A or Loading Manual MEP1 Figure 3.4)With respect to multi-engine piston powered aeroplane, determine the block fuel moment (lbs.In.) in the following conditions:Basic empty mass: 3 210 lbs.One pilot: 160 lbs.Front seat passenger : 200 lbs.Centre seat passengers: 290 lbs. (total)One passenger rear seat: 110 lbs.Baggage in zone 1: 100 lbs.Baggage in zone 4: 50 lbs.Block fuel: 100 US Gal.Trip fuel: 55 US Gal.Fuel for start up and taxi (included in block fuel): 3 US Gal.Fuel density: 6 lbs./US Gal. a) 56 160 b) 433 906 c) 30 888 d) 9 360

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31.3.2.3 (1697) (For this question use annex 031-4742A or Loading Manual MEP1 Figure 3.4)With respect to a multi-engine piston powered aeroplane, determine the CG location at take off in the following conditions:Basic empty mass: 3 210 lbs.One pilot: 160 lbs.Front seat passenger : 200 lbs.Centre seat passengers: 290 lbs. (total)One passenger rear seat: 110 lbs.Baggage in zone 1: 100 lbs.Baggage in zone 4: 50 lbs.Zero Fuel Mass: 4210 lbs.Moment at Zero Fuel Mass: 377751 lbs.InBlock fuel: 100 US Gal.Trip fuel: 55 US Gal.Fuel for start up and taxi (included in block fuel): 3 US Gal.Fuel density: 6 lbs./US Gal. a) 91.92 inches aft of datum b) 91.69 inches aft of datum c) 93.60 inches aft of datum d) 91.84 inches aft of datum 31.3.2.3 (1698) (For this question use annexes 031-6564A and 031-6564B or Loading Manual SEP1 Figure 2.4)With respect to a single-engine piston powered aeroplane, determine the zero fuel moment (lbs.In./100) in the following conditions:Basic Empty Mass: 2415 lbs.Arm at Basic Empty Mass: 77,9 In.Cargo Zone A: 350 lbs.Baggage Zone B: 35 lbs.Pilot and front seat passenger : 300 lbs (total) a) 2548,8 b) 6675 c) 2496,3 d) 2311,8 31.3.2.3 (1699) Determine the Zero Fuel Mass for the following single engine aeroplane.Given :Standard Empty Mass : 1764 lbs Optional Equipment : 35 lbs Pilot + Front seat passenger : 300 lbsCargo Mass : 350 lbsRamp Fuel = Block Fuel : 60 Gal.Trip Fuel : 35 Gal.Fuel density : 6 lbs/Gal. a) 2449 lbs b) 2589 lbs c) 2659 lbs d) 2414 lbs 31.3.2.3 (1700) Determine the Landing Mass for the following single engine aeroplane.Given:Standard Empty Mass :1764 lbs Optional Equipment : 35 lbsPilot + Front seat passenger : 300 lbsCargo Mass : 350 lbsRamp Fuel = Block Fuel : 60 Gal.Trip Fuel : 35 Gal.Fuel density: 6 lbs/Gal. a) 2589 lbs b) 2799 lbs c) 2659 lbs d) 2449 lbs 31.3.2.3 (1701) Determine the Take-off Mass for the following single engine aeroplane.Given :Standard Empty Mass : 1764 lbsOptional Equipment : 35 lbsPilot + Front seat passenger : 300 lbsCargo Mass : 350 lbsRamp Fuel = Block Fuel : 60 Gal.Trip Fuel : 35 Gal.Fuel density : 6 lbs/Gal. a) 2799 lbs b) 2764 lbs

c) 2809 lbs d) 2659 lbs 31.3.2.3 (1702) (For this question use appendix 031-11590A )Without the crew, the mass and longitudinal CG position of the aircraft are 6 000 kg and 4,70m. - the mass of the pilot is 90 kg - the mass of the copilot is 100 kg - the mass of the flight engineer is 80 kgWith the crew, the mass and longitudinal CG position of the aircraft are : a) 6 270 kg and 4.594 m b) 6 270 kg and 4.796 m c) 6 270 kg and 5.012 m d) 6 270 kg and 4.61 m 31.3.2.3 (1703) (For this question use appendix 031-11605A)Without the crew, the weight and the CG-position of the aircraft are 7 000 kg and 4,70m. - the mass of the pilot is 90 kg the mass of the copilot is 75 kg - the mass of the flight engineer is 90 kgWith this crew on board, the CG-position of the aircraft will be: a) 4,615 m b) 0,217 m c) 4,783 m d) 4,455 m 31.3.2.3 (1704) (For this question use annexes 031-11069A and 031-11069B)Contrary to the forecast given in the LOAD and TRIM sheet, cargo compartment 1 is empty. The take-off centre of gravity in MAC % (Mean Aerodynamic Chord) will be located at: a) 31% b) 32.5 % c) 36% d) 25% 31.3.2.3 (1705) (For this question use annexes 031-11070A and 031-11070B)Contrary to the loading sheet forecasts you have :Cargo compartment 1: empty passengers in compartment OA: 20Cargo compartment 2: 1 000 kg passengers in compartment OB: 20Cargo compartment 3: 3 000 kg passengers in compartment OC: 30Cargo compartment 4: 2 000 kgCargo compartment 5: 1 000 kgThe take-off centre of gravity in MAC % (Mean Aerodynamic Chord), will be located at: a) 31.5 % b) 24.5 % c) 32.5 % d) 35.5 % 31.3.2.3 (1706) (For this question use annexes 031-11072A and 031-11072B)The weight and balance sheet is available and contrary to the forecast, cargo compartment 1 is empty.The zero fuel weight centre of gravity in MAC % (Mean Aerodynamic Chord) is located at: a) 35.5 % b) 32%

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c) 31.5 % d) 26% 31.3.2.3 (1707) (For this question use annex 031-11248A , 031-11248B and 031-11248C)Knowing that:. Dry operating mass: 110 000 kg. Basic index: 119.1. Number of passengers: 185 distributed as shown in the annex (75 kg per PAX). Cargo load + luggage: 14 000 kg distributed as shown in the annex.. Fuel: 42 000 kgStages (1) to (7) and (11) having already been calculated, the centre of gravity in % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord) at take-off is located at: a) 31.5 % b) 30.5 % c) 32.5 % d) 28.0 % 31.3.2.3 (1708) (For this question use annex 031-11249A , 031-11249B and 031-11249C)Knowing that:. Dry operating mass: 110 000 kg. Basic index: 119.1. Number of passengers: 335 distributed as shown in the annex (75 kg per PAX). Cargo load + luggage: 9 500 kg distributed as shown in the annex.. Fuel: 40 000 kgStages (1) to (7) and (11) having already been calculated, the centre of gravity in % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord) at take-off is located at: a) 29.3 % b) 27.4 % c) 30.5 % d) 28.0 % 31.3.2.3 (1709) (For this question use annex 031-11250A, 031-11250B and 031-11250C)Knowing that:. Dry operating mass: 110 000 kg. Basic index: 119.1. Number of passengers: 335 distributed as shown in the annex (75 kg per PAX). Cargo load + luggage: 9 500 kg distributed as shown in the annex.. Fuel: 40 000 kgStages (1) to (7) and (11) having already been calculated, the centre of gravity in % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord) for zero fuel mass is located at: a) 28.0 % b) 30.5 % c) 27.4 % d) 29.3 % 31.3.2.3 (1710) (For this question use annex 031-11251A , 031-11251B and 031-11251C)Knowing that:. Dry operating mass: 110 000 kg. Basic index: 119.1. Number of passengers: 185 distributed as shown in the annex (75 kg per PAX). Cargo load + luggage: 14 000 kg distributed as shown in the annex.. Fuel: 42 000 kgStages (1) to (7) and (11) having already been calculated, the centre of gravity in % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord) for zero fuel mass is located at: a) 30.5 % b) 32.3 % c) 29.3 % d) 28.3 %

31.3.2.3 (1711) (For this question use annex 031-12267A )Using the data given in the Load & Trim sheet, determine which of the following gives the correct values for the Zero Fuel Mass and position of the centre of gravity (% MAC) at that mass. a) 46130 Kg and 17,8% b) 41300 Kg and 17,8% c) 51300 Kg and 20,8% d) 46130 Kg and 20,8% 31.3.2.3 (1712) (For this question use annex 031-12268A)Using the data given in the Load & Trim sheet, determine from the following the correct values for the take off mass and the position of the centre of gravity at that mass if the fuel index correction to be applied is given as - 0.9 a) 17.5 % b) 20.1 % c) 20.3 % d) 22.6 % 31.3.2.3 (1713) (For this question use annex 031-12269A)Using the data given at the appendix to this question, if the fuel index corrections (from ZFM index) are as follows9500 kg - 0.96500 kg - 6.13500 kg - 4.73000 kg - 4.3Which of the following represent the correct values for landing mass of the aeroplane and the position of the centre of gravity for this condition ? a) 49130 kg and 19 % b) 52900kg and 19 % c) 52900 kg and 21.6 % d) 49130 kg and 21.8 % 31.3.2.3 (1714) (For this question use annex 031-12270A)Using the data given at the appendix, determine which of the following correctly gives the values of the Zero Fuel Mass (ZFM) of the aeroplane and the load index at ZFM a) 48600 kg and 57.0 b) 51300 kg and 57.0 c) 46300 kg and 20.5 d) 35100 kg and 20.5 31.3.2.3 (1715) (For this question use annex 031-12271A)From the data given at the appendix and assuming a fuel index shift of - 5.7 from the ZFM loaded index, determine which of the following is the correct value (percentage MAC) for the position of the centre of gravity at Take Off Mass. a) 18% b) 19% c) 15% d) 14% 31.3.2.3 (1716) (For this question use annex 031-11619A )A helicopter's basic mass is 1 100 kg

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and the longitudinal CG-position is at 3.10 m.Determine the longitudinal CG position in the following conditions :- pilot and front passenger : 150 kg- rear passengers : 150 kg- fuel : 500 kg a) 2.91 m b) 2.85 m c) 2.97 m d) 2.82 m 31.3.2.4 (1717) Length of the mean aerodynamic chord = 1 mMoment arm of the forward cargo: -0,50 mMoment arm of the aft cargo: + 2,50 mThe aircraft mass is 2 200 kg and its centre of gravity is at 25% MACTo move the centre of gravity to 40%, which mass has to be transferred from the forward to the aft cargo hold? a) 110 kg b) 183 kg c) 165 kg d) 104 kg 31.3.3.1 (1718) Loads must be adequately secured in order to: a) avoid unplanned centre of gravity (cg) movement and aircraft damage. b) avoid any centre of gravity (cg) movement during flight. c) prevent excessive 'g'-loading during the landing flare. d) allow steep turns. 31.3.3.2 (1719) Assume:Aeroplane gross mass: 4750 kgCentre of gravity at station: 115.8What will be the new position of the centre of gravity if 100 kg is moved from the station 30 to station 120? a) Station 117.69 b) Station 118.33 c) Station 120.22 d) Station 118.25 32.1.1.0 (1720) Density altitude is the a) pressure altitude corrected for 'non standard' temperature b) altitude reference to the standard datum plane c) altitude read directly from the altimeter d) height above the surface 32.1.1.0 (1721) The Density Altitude a) is used to determine the aeroplane performance. b) is equal to the pressure altitude. c) is used to establish minimum clearance of 2.000 feet over mountains. d) is used to calculate the FL above the Transition Altitude. 32.1.1.0 (1722) Given that:VEF= Critical engine failure speed VMCG= Ground minimum control speedVMCA= Air minimum control speed VMU= Minimum unstick speedV1= Take-

off decision speedVR= Rotation speedV2 min.= Minimum take-off safety speedThe correct formula is: a) VMCG<=VEF < V1 b) 1.05 VMCA<= VEF<= V1 c) 1.05 VMCG< VEF<= VR d) V2min<= VEF<= VMU 32.1.1.0 (1723) Given:VS= Stalling speedVMCA= Air minimum control speed VMU= Minimum unstick speed (disregarding engine failure)V1= take-off decision speedVR= Rotation speedV2 min.= Minimum take-off safety speedVLOF: Lift-off speed The correct formula is: a) VS< VMCA< V2 min b) VR< VMCA< VLOF c) VMU<= VMCA< V1 d) V2min< VMCA> VMU 32.1.1.0 (1724) Regarding take-off, the take-off decision speed V1: a) is the airspeed on the ground at which the pilot is assumed to have made a decision to continue or discontinue the take-off. b) is always equal to VEF (Engine Failure speed). c) is an airspeed at which the aeroplane is airborne but below 35 ft and the pilot is assumed to have made a decision to continue or discontinue the take-off . d) is the airspeed of the aeroplane upon reaching 35 feet above the take-off surface. 32.1.1.0 (1725) The point where Drag coefficient/Lift coefficient is a minimum is a) the point where a tangent from the origin touches the drag curve. b) the lowest point of the drag curve. c) at stalling speed (VS). d) on the ""back side"" of the drag curve. 32.1.1.0 (1726) Which of the following statements is correct? a) Induced drag decreases with increasing speed. b) Induced drag increases with increasing speed. c) Induced drag is independant of the speed. d) Induced drag decreases with increasing angle of attack. 32.1.1.0 (1727) The point at which a tangent out of the origin touches the power required curve a) is the point where the Lift to Drag ratio is a maximum. b) is the point where Drag coefficient is a minimum. c) is the point where the Lift to Drag ratio is a minimum. d) is the maximum drag speed. 32.1.1.0 (1728) On a reciprocating engined aeroplane, to maintain a given angle of attack, configuration and altitude at higher gross mass a) the airspeed and the drag will be increased.

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b) the airspeed will be decreased and the drag increased. c) the lift/drag ratio must be increased. d) the airspeed will be increased but the drag does not change. 32.1.1.0 (1729) On a reciprocating engined aeroplane, to maintain a given angle of attack, configuration and altitude at higher gross mass a) an increase in airspeed and power is required. b) a higher coefficient of drag is required. c) an increase in airspeed is required but power setting does not change. d) requires an increase in power and decrease in the airspeed. 32.1.1.0 (1730) On a reciprocating engined aeroplane, with increasing altitude at constant gross mass, angle of attack and configuraton the drag a) remains unchanged but the TAS increases. b) remains unchanged but the the CAS increases. c) increases at constant TAS. d) decreases and the CAS decreases too because of the lower air density. 32.1.1.0 (1731) On a reciprocating engined aeroplane, with increasing altitude at constant gross mass, angle of attack and configuraton the power required a) increases and the TAS increases by the same percentage. b) increases but TAS remains constant. c) decreases slightly because of the lower air density. d) remains unchanged but the TAS increases. 32.1.1.0 (1732) A lower airspeed at constant mass and altitude requires a) a higher coefficient of lift. b) less thrust and a lower coefficient of lift. c) more thrust and a lower coefficient of lift. d) more thrust and a lower coefficient of drag. 32.1.1.0 (1733) The coefficient of lift can be increased either by flap extension or by a) increasing the angle of attack. b) increasing the TAS. c) decreasing the 'nose-up' elevator trim setting. d) increasing the CAS. 32.1.1.0 (1734) The speed VS is defined as a) stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed at which the aeroplane is controllable. b) safety speed for take-off in case of a contaminated runway. c) design stress speed. d) speed for best specific range.

32.1.1.0 (1735) The stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the aeroplane is controllable in landing configuration is abbreviated as a) VSO. b) VS1. c) VS. d) VMC. 32.1.1.0 (1736) In unaccelerated climb a) thrust equals drag plus the downhill component of the gross weight in the flight path direction. b) lift is greater than the gross weight. c) lift equals weight plus the vertical component of the drag. d) thrust equals drag plus the uphill component of the gross weight in the flight path direction. 32.1.1.0 (1737) Which of the equations below expresses approximately the unaccelerated percentage climb gradient for small climb angles? a) Climb Gradient = ((Thrust - Drag)/Weight) x 100 b) Climb Gradient = ((Thrust + Drag)/Lift) x 100 c) Climb Gradient = ((Thrust - Mass)/Lift) x 100 d) Cimb Gradient = (Lift/Weight) x 100 32.1.1.0 (1738) The rate of climb a) is approximately climb gradient times true airspeed divided by 100. b) is the downhill component of the true airspeed. c) is angle of climb times true airspeed. d) is the horizontal component of the true airspeed. 32.1.1.0 (1739) Any acceleration in climb, with a constant power setting, a) decreases the rate of climb and the angle of climb. b) improves the climb gradient if the airspeed is below VX. c) improves the rate of climb if the airspeed is below VY. d) decreases rate of climb and increses angle of climb. 32.1.1.0 (1740) Which force compensates the weight in unaccelerated straight and level flight ? a) the lift b) the thrust c) the drag d) the resultant from lift and drag 32.1.1.0 (1741) In which of the flight conditions listed below is the thrust required (Tr) equal to the drag (D)? a) In level flight with constant IAS b) In accelerated level flight

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c) In a climb with constant IAS d) In a descent with constant TAS 32.1.1.0 (1742) The load factor in a turn in level flight with constant TAS depends on a) the bank angle only. b) the radius of the turn and the bank angle. c) the true airspeed and the bank angle. d) the radius of the turn and the weight of the aeroplane. 32.1.1.0 (1743) The induced drag of an aeroplane a) decreases with increasing airspeed. b) decreases with increasing gross weight. c) is independent of the airspeed. d) increases with increasing airspeed. 32.1.1.0 (1744) The induced drag of an aeroplane at constant gross weight and altitude is highest at a) VSO (stalling speed in landing configuration) b) VS1 (stalling speed in clean configuration) c) VMO (maximum operating limit speed) d) VA (design manoeuvring speed) 32.1.1.0 (1745) What is the most important aspect of the 'backside of the power curve'? a) The speed is unstable. b) The aeroplane will not stall. c) The altitude cannot be maintained. d) The elevator must be pulled to lower the nose. 32.1.2.0 (1746) Take-off performance data, for the ambient conditions, show the following limitations with flap 10° selected:- runway limit: 5 270 kg- obstacle limit: 4 630 kgEstimated take-off mass is 5 000kg.Considering a take-off with flaps at: a) 5°, the obstacle limit is increased but the runway limit decreases b) 5°, both limitations are increased c) 20°, the obstacle limit is increased but the runway limit decreases d) 20°, both limitations are increased 32.1.2.1 (1747) An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on landing performance: a) a reduced landing distance and improved go-around performance b) an increased landing distance and degraded go-around performance c) an increased landing distance and improved go-around performance d) a reduced landing distance and degraded go around performance

32.1.2.1 (1748) How does the thrust of fixed propeller vary during take-off run ? The thrust a) decreases slightly while the aeroplane speed builds up. b) increases slightly while the aeroplane speed builds up. c) varies with mass changes only. d) has no change during take-off and climb. 32.1.2.1 (1749) A decrease in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on take-off performance: a) an increased take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance b) a reduced take-off distance and improved initial climb performance c) an increased take-off distance and improved initial climb performance d) a reduced take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance 32.1.2.1 (1750) An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on take-off performance: a) a reduced take-off distance and improved initial climb performance b) an increases take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance c) an increased take-off distance and improved initial climb performance d) a reduced take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance 32.1.2.2 (1751) (For this question use annex 032-2219A or Performance Manual SEP1 1 Figure 2.4 )With regard to the graph for landing performance, what is the minimum headwind component required in order to land at Helgoland airport?Given:Runway length: 1300 ftRunway elevation: MSLWeather: assume ISA conditionsMass: 3200 lbsObstacle height: 50 ft a) 10 kt. b) No wind. c) 5 kt. d) 15 kt. 32.1.2.2 (1752) (For this question use annex 032-6590A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4)Using the Landing Diagramm, for single engine aeroplane, determine the landing distance (from a screen height of 50 ft) required, in the following conditions: Given : Pressure altitude: 4000 ftO.A.T.: 5°CAeroplane mass: 3530 lbsHeadwind component: 15 ktFlaps: Approach settingRunway: tarred and dryLanding gear: down a) 1400 ft b) 880 ft c) 1550 ft d) 1020 ft 32.1.2.2 (1753) (For this question use annex 032-6569A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4)With regard to the landing chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the landing distance from a height of 50 ft .Given :O.A.T : 27 °CPressure Altitude: 3000 ftAeroplane Mass: 2900 lbsTailwind component: 5 ktFlaps: Landing position

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(down) Runway: Tarred and Dry a) approximately : 1850 feet b) approximately : 1120 feet c) approximately : 1700 feet d) approximately : 1370 feet 32.1.2.2 (1754) (For this question use annex 032-6570A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4)With regard to the landing chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the landing distance from a height of 50 ft .Given :O.A.T : ISA +15°CPressure Altitude: 0 ftAeroplane Mass: 2940 lbsTailwind component: 10 ktFlaps: Landing position (down) Runway: Tarred and Dry a) approximately : 1300 feet b) approximately : 950 feet c) approximately : 1400 feet d) approximately : 750 feet 32.1.2.2 (1755) (For this question use annex 032-6571A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4)With regard to the landing chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the landing distance from a height of 50 ft .Given :O.A.T : ISAPressure Altitude: 1000 ftAeroplane Mass: 3500 lbsTailwind component: 5 ktFlaps: Landing position (down) Runway: Tarred and Dry a) approximately : 1700 feet b) approximately :1150 feet c) approximately : 1500 feet d) approximately : 920 feet 32.1.2.2 (1756) (For this question use annex 032-6572A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4)With regard to the landing chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the landing distance from a height of 50 ft .Given :O.A.T : 0°CPressure Altitude: 1000 ftAeroplane Mass: 3500 lbsTailwind component: 5 ktFlaps: Landing position (down) Runway: Tarred and Dry a) approximately : 1650 feet b) approximately : 1150 feet c) approximately : 1480 feet d) approximately : 940 feet 32.1.2.2 (1757) (For this question use annex 032-6573A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4)With regard to the landing chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the landing distance from a height of 50 ft .Given :O.A.T : ISA +15°CPressure Altitude: 0 ftAeroplane Mass: 2940 lbsHeadwind component: 10 ktFlaps: Landing position (down) Runway: short and wet grass- firm soilCorrection factor (wet grass): 1.38 a) approximately :1794 feet b) approximately : 1300 feet c) approximately : 2000 feet d) approximately : 1450 feet

32.1.2.2 (1758) (For this question use annex 032-6574A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1)With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the take off distance to a height of 50 ft .Given :O.A.T : 30°CPressure Altitude: 1000 ftAeroplane Mass: 3450 lbsTailwind component: 2.5 ktFlaps: up Runway: Tarred and Dry a) approximately : 2470 feet b) approximately : 1440 feet c) approximately : 2800 feet d) approximately : 2200 feet 32.1.2.2 (1759) (For this question use annex 032-6575A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1)With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the maximum allowable take off mass .Given :O.A.T : ISAPressure Altitude: 4000 ftHeadwind component: 5 ktFlaps: up Runway: Tarred and DryFactored runway length: 2000 ftObstacle height: 50 ft a) 3240 lbs b) 3000 lbs c) 2900 lbs d) > 3650 lbs 32.1.2.2 (1760) (For this question use annex 032-6576A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.2)With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the take off distance to a height of 50 ft.Given :O.A.T : -7°CPressure Altitude: 7000 ftAeroplane Mass: 2950 lbsHeadwind component: 5 ktFlaps: Approach settingRunway: Tarred and Dry a) approximately : 2050 ft b) approximately : 1150 ft c) approximately : 2450 ft d) approximately : 1260 ft 32.1.2.2 (1761) (For this question use annex 032-6577A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1)With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the take off speed for (1) rotation and (2) at a height of 50 ft.Given :O.A.T : ISA+10°CPressure Altitude: 5000 ftAeroplane mass: 3400 lbsHeadwind component: 5 ktFlaps: up Runway: Tarred and Dry a) 71 and 82 KIAS b) 73 and 84 KIAS c) 68 and 78 KIAS d) 65 and 75 KIAS 32.1.2.2 (1762) (For this question use annex 032-6578A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.2)With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the take off distance to a height of 50 ft.Given :O.A.T : 38°CPressure Altitude: 4000 ftAeroplane Mass: 3400 lbsTailwind component: 5 ktFlaps: Approach settingRunway: Dry GrassCorrection factor: 1.2 a) approximately : 3960 ft b) approximately : 3680 ft

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c) approximately : 4200 ft d) approximately : 5040 ft 32.1.2.2 (1763) (For this question use annex 032-6580A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.2)With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the take off distance over a 50 ft obstacle height.Given :O.A.T : 30°CPressure Altitude: 1000 ftAeroplane Mass: 2950 lbsTailwind component: 5 ktFlaps: Approach settingRunway: Short, wet grass, firm subsoilCorrection factor: 1.25 (for runway conditions) a) 2375 ft b) 1900 ft c) 1600 ft d) 2000 ft 32.1.3.0 (1764) Assuming that the required lift exists, which forces determine an aeroplane's angle of climb? a) Weight, drag and thrust. b) Weight and drag only. c) Thrust and drag only. d) Weight and thrust only. 32.1.3.0 (1765) How does the best angle of climb and best rate of climb vary with increasing altitude? a) Both decrease. b) Both increase. c) Best angle of climb increases while best rate of climb decreases. d) Best angle of climb decreases while best rate of climb increases. 32.1.3.0 (1766) The 'climb gradient' is defined as the ratio of a) the increase of altitude to horizontal air distance expressed as a percentage. b) the increase of altitude to distance over ground expressed as a percentage. c) true airspeed to rate of climb. d) rate of climb to true airspeed. 32.1.3.0 (1767) A higher outside air temperature a) reduces the angle and the rate of climb. b) increases the angle of climb but decreases the rate of climb. c) does not have any noticeable effect on climb performance. d) reduces the angle of climb but increases the rate of climb. 32.1.3.0 (1768) A headwind component increasing with altitude, as compared to zero wind condition, (assuming IAS is constant) a) has no effect on rate of climb. b) does not have any effect on the angle of flight path during climb.

c) improves angle and rate of climb. d) decreases angle and rate of climb. 32.1.3.0 (1769) A constant headwind a) increases the angle of the descent flight path. b) increases the angle of descent. c) increases the rate of descent. d) increases the descent distance over ground. 32.1.3.0 (1770) A constant headwind component a) increases the angle of flight path during climb. b) increases the best rate of climb. c) decreases the angle of climb. d) increases the maximum endurance. 32.1.3.1 (1771) (For this question use annex 032-11661A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1)An extract of the flight manual of a single engine propeller aircraft is reproduced in annex.Airport characteristics: hard, dry and zero slope runwayActual conditions are:pressure altitude: 1 500 ftoutside tempereature: +18°Cwind component: 4 knots tailwindFor a take-off mass of 1 270 kg, the take-off distance will be: a) 525 m b) 415 m c) 440 m d) 615 m 32.1.3.1 (1772) (For this question use annex 032-6587A or Flight planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4) Using the Range Profile Diagramm, for the single engine aeroplane, determine the range, with 45 minutes reserve, in the following conditions: Given :O.A.T.: ISA +16°CPressure altitude: 4000 ftPower: Full throttle / 25,0 in/Hg./ 2100 RPM a) 865 NM b) 739 NM c) 851 NM d) 911 NM 32.1.3.1 (1773) (For this question use annex 032-6588A or Flight planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4) Using the Range Profile Diagramm, for the single engine aeroplane, determine the range, with 45 minutes reserve, in the following conditions:Given :O.A.T.: ISA -15°C Pressure altitude: 12000 ftPower: Full throttle / 23,0 in/Hg./ 2300 RPM a) 902 NM b) 875 NM c) 860 NM d) 908 NM 32.1.3.1 (1774) (For this question use annex 032-6579A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure

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2.3)With regard to the climb performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the climb speed (ft/min).Given :O.A.T : ISA + 15°CPressure Altitude: 0 ftAeroplane Mass: 3400 lbsFlaps: upSpeed: 100 KIAS a) 1290 ft/min b) 1370 ft/min c) 1210 ft/min d) 1150 ft/min 32.1.3.1 (1775) (For this question use annex 032-6581A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.3)Using the climb performance chart, for the single engine aeroplane, determine the ground distance to reach a height of 2000 ft above the reference zero inthe following conditions:Given :O.A.T. at take-off: 25°CAirport pressure altitude: 1000 ftAeroplane mass: 3600 lbsSpeed: 100 KIASWind component: 15 kts Headwind a) 18 347 ft b) 21 505 ft c) 24 637 ft d) 18 832 ft 32.1.3.1 (1776) (For this question use annex 032-6582A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.3)Using the climb performance chart, for the single engine aeroplane, determine the ground distance to reach a height of 1500 ft above the reference zero inthe following conditions:Given : O.A.T at Take-off: ISAAirport pressure altitude: 5000 ftAeroplane mass: 3300 lbsSpeed: 100 KIASWind component: 5 kts Tailwind a) 16 665 ft b) 18 909 ft c) 18 073 ft d) 20 109 ft 32.1.3.1 (1777) (For this question use annex 032-6583A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.3)Using the climb performance chart, for the single engine aeroplane, determine the rate of climb and the gradient of climb in the following conditions:Given : O.A.T at Take-off: ISAAirport pressure altitude: 3000 ftAeroplane mass: 3450 lbsSpeed: 100 KIAS a) 1120 ft/min and 9,3% b) 1030 ft/min and 8,4% c) 1170 ft/min and 9,9% d) 1310 ft/min and 11,3% 32.1.3.1 (1778) (For this question use annex 032-6584A or Flight Planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.2 Table 2.2.3)Using the Power Setting Table, for the single engine aeroplane, determine the manifold pressure and fuel flow (lbs/hr) with full throttle and cruise lean mixture in the following conditions:Given:OAT: 13°CPressure altitude: 8000 ftRPM: 2300 a) 22,4 in.Hg and 69,3 lbs/hr b) 23,0 in.Hg and 69,0 lbs/hr c) 22,4 in.Hg and 71,1 lbs/hr d) 22,4 in.Hg and 73,8 lbs/hr

32.1.3.1 (1779) (For this question use annex 032-6585A or Flight planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.2 Table 2.2.3)Using the Power Setting Table, for the single engine aeroplane, determine the cruise TAS and fuel flow (lbs/hr) with full throttle and cruise lean mixture in the following conditions:Given:OAT: 13°CPressure altitude: 8000 ftRPM: 2300 a) 160 kt and 69,3 lbs/hr b) 158 kt and 74,4 lbs/hr c) 160 kt and 71,1 lbs/hr d) 159 kt and 71,7 lbs/hr 32.1.3.1 (1780) (For this question use annex 032-6586A or Flight planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.3 Table 2.3.1)Using the Power Setting Table, for the single engine aeroplane, determine the cruise TAS and fuel flow (lbs/hr) with full throttle and cruise lean mixture in the following conditions:Given :OAT: 3°CPressure altitude: 6000 ftPower: Full throttle / 21,0 in/Hg./ 2100 RPM a) 134 kt and 55,7 lbs/hr b) 136 kt and 56,9 lbs/hr c) 131 kt and 56,9 lbs/hr d) 125 kt and 55,7 lbs/hr 32.1.3.2 (1781) With regard to a unaccelerated horizontal flight, which of the following statement is correct? a) The minimum drag is proportional to the aircraft mass. b) The minimum drag is a function of the pressure altitude. c) The minimum drag is is a function of the density altitude. d) The minimum drag is independant of the aircraft mass. 32.1.3.2 (1782) Which of the following statements is correct?If the aircraft mass, in a horizontal unaccelerated flight, decreases a) the minimum drag decreases and the IAS for minimum drag decreases. b) the minimum drag increases and the IAS for minimum drag decreases. c) the minimum drag increases and the IAS for minimum drag increases. d) the minimum drag decreases and the IAS for minimum drag increases. 32.1.3.2 (1783) (For this question use annex 032-2211A)Which of the following diagrams correctly shows the movement of the power required curve with increasing altitude .(H1 < H2) a) Figure d b) Figure b c) Figure c d) Figure a 32.1.3.2 (1784) The maximum indicated air speed of a piston engined aeroplane, in level flight, is reached: a) at the lowest possible altitude.

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b) at the optimum cruise altitude. c) at the service ceiling. d) at the practical ceiling. 32.1.3.2 (1785) The pilot of a single engine aircraft has established the climb performance. The carriage of an additional passenger will cause the climb performance to be: a) Degraded b) Improved c) Unchanged d) Unchanged, if a short field take-off is adopted 32.1.3.3 (1786) What affect has a tailwind on the maximum endurance speed? a) No affect b) Tailwind only effects holding speed. c) The IAS will be increased. d) The IAS will be decreased. 32.2.1.0 (1787) At a given mass, the stalling speed of a twin engine aircraft is 100 kt in the landing configuration. The minimum speed a pilot must maintain in short final is: a) 130 kt b) 115 kt c) 125 kt d) 120 kt 32.2.1.1 (1788) The critical engine inoperative a) increases the power required because of the greater drag caused by the windmilling engine and the compensation for the yaw effect. b) does not affect the aeroplane performance since it is independent of the power plant. c) decreases the power required because of the lower drag caused by the windmilling engine. d) increases the power required and decreases the total drag due to the windmilling engine. 32.2.1.1 (1789) A multi engine aeroplane is flying at the minimum control speed (VMCA). Which parameter(s) must be maintainable after engine failure? a) Straight flight b) Straight flight and altitude c) Heading, altitude and a positive rate of climb of 100 ft/min d) Altitude 32.2.1.1 (1790) The speed V1 is defined as a) take-off decision speed. b) take-off climb speed. c) speed for best angle of climb. d) engine failure speed.

32.2.1.1 (1791) The speed VLO is defined as a) landing gear operating speed. b) design low operating speed. c) long distance operating speed. d) lift off speed. 32.2.1.1 (1792) VX is a) the speed for best angle of climb. b) the speed for best rate of climb. c) the speed for best specific range. d) the speed for best angle of flight path. 32.2.1.1 (1793) The speed for best rate of climb is called a) VY. b) VX. c) V2. d) VO. 32.2.2.1 (1794) Which of the following speeds can be limited by the 'maximum tyre speed'? a) Lift-off groundspeed. b) Lift-off IAS. c) Lift-off TAS. d) Lift-off EAS. 32.2.2.1 (1795) Changing the take-off flap setting from flap 15° to flap 5° will normally result in : a) a longer take-off distance and a better climb. b) a shorter take-off distance and an equal climb. c) a better climb and an equal take-off distance. d) a shorter take-off distance and a better climb. 32.2.2.1 (1796) If other factors are unchanged, the fuel mileage (nautical miles per kg) is a) lower with a forward centre of gravity position. b) independent from the centre of gravity position. c) lower with an aft centre of gravity position. d) higher with a forward centre of gravity position. 32.2.2.1 (1797) The result of a higher flap setting up to the optimum at take-off is a) a shorter ground roll. b) an increased acceleration. c) a higher V1. d) a longer take-off run.

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32.2.2.2 (1798) Which of the following combinations adversely affects take-off and initial climb performance ? a) High temperature and high relative humidity b) Low temperature and high relative humidity c) High temperature and low relative humidity d) Low temperature and low relative humidity 32.2.2.2 (1799) What effect has a downhill slope on the take-off speeds? The slope a) decreases the take-off speed V1. b) decreases the TAS for take-off. c) increases the IAS for take-off. d) has no effect on the take-off speed V1. 32.2.2.2 (1800) The effect of a higher take-off flap setting up to the optimum is: a) an increase of the field length limited take-off mass but a decrease of the climb limited take-off mass. b) a decrease of the field length limited take-off mass but an increase of the climb limited take-off mass. c) a decrease of both the field length limited take-off mass and the climb limited take-off mass. d) an increase of both the field length limited take-off mass and the climb limited take-off mass. 32.2.2.2 (1801) When the outside air temperature increases, then a) the field length limited take-off mass and the climb limited take-off mass decreases. b) the field length limited take-off mass and the climb limited take-off mass increases. c) the field length limited take-off mass decreases but the climb limited take-off mass increases. d) the field length limited take-off mass increases but the climb limited take-off mass decreases. 32.2.2.2 (1802) Due to standing water on the runway the field length limited take-off mass will be a) lower. b) higher. c) unaffected. d) only higher for three and four engine aeroplanes. 32.2.2.2 (1803) On a dry runway the accelerate stop distance is increased a) by uphill slope. b) by headwind. c) by low outside air temperature. d) by a lower take-off mass because the aeroplane accelerates faster to V1.

32.2.2.2 (1804) Which of the following are to be taken into account for the runway in use for takeoff ? a) Airport elevation, runway slope, outside air temperature, pressure altitude and wind components. b) Airport elevation, runway slope, standard temperature, standard pressure and wind components. c) Airport elevation, runway slope, standard temperature, pressure altitude and wind components. d) Airport elevation, runway slope, outside air temperature, standard pressure and wind components. 32.2.2.2 (1805) What is the effect of increased mass on the performance of a gliding aeroplane? a) The speed for best angle of descent increases. b) There is no effect. c) The gliding angle decreases. d) The lift/drag ratio decreases. 32.2.2.2 (1806) A higher pressure altitude at ISA temperature a) decreases the field length limited take-off mass. b) decreases the take-off distance. c) increases the climb limited take-off mass. d) has no influence on the allowed take-off mass. 32.2.2.2 (1807) The take-off distance required increases a) due to slush on the runway. b) due to downhill slope because of the smaller angle of attack. c) due to head wind because of the drag augmentation. d) due to lower gross mass at take-off. 32.2.2.2 (1808) A runway is contaminated by a 0,5 cm layer of wet snow. The take-off is nevertheless authorized by a light-twin's flight manual. The take-off distance in relation to a dry runway will be: a) increased b) unchanged c) decreased d) very significantly decreased 32.2.2.2 (1809) A runway is contaminated with 0.5 cm of wet snow.The flight manual of a light twin nevertheless authorises a landing in these conditions. The landing distance will be, in relation to that for a dry runway: a) increased b) unchanged c) reduced d) substantially decreased

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32.2.3.0 (1810) What is the effect of a head wind component, compared to still air, on the maximum range speed (IAS) and the speed for maximum climb angle respectively? a) Maximum range speed increases and maximum climb angle speed stays constant. b) Maximum range speed decreases and maximum climb angle speed increases. c) Maximum range speed decreases and maximum climb angle speed decreases. d) Maximum range speed increases and maximum climb angle speed increases. 32.2.3.1 (1811) The stopway is an area which allows an increase only in : a) the accelerate-stop distance available. b) the take-off run available. c) the take-off distance available. d) the landing distance available. 32.2.3.1 (1812) For a turboprop powered aeroplane, a 2200 m long runway at the destination aerodrome is expected to be ""wet"". The ""dry runway"" landing distance, should not exceed: a) 1339 m. b) 1771 m. c) 1540 m. d) 1147 m. 32.2.3.1 (1813) Which of the following factors favours the selection of a low flap setting for the take-off? a) High field elevation, distant obstacles in the climb-out path, long runway and a high ambient temperature. b) Low field elevation, close-in obstacles in the climb-out path, long runway and a high ambient temperature. c) High field elevation, no obstacles in the climb-out path, low ambient temperature and short runway. d) Low field elevation, no obstacles in the climb-out path, short runway and a low ambient temperature. 32.2.3.1 (1814) Field length is balanced when a) take-off distance equals accelerate-stop distance. b) calculated V2 is less than 110% VMCA and V1, VR, VMCG. c) all engine acceleration to V1 and braking distance for rejected take-off are equal. d) one engine acceleration from V1 to VLOF plus flare distance between VLOF and 35 feet are equal. 32.2.3.1 (1815) What is the advantage of a balanced field length condition ? a) A balanced field length gives the minimum required field length in the event of an engine failure. b) A balanced take-off provides the lowest elevator input force requirement for rotation. c) For a balanced field length the required take-off runway length always equals the available

runway length. d) A balanced field length provides the greatest margin between ""net"" and ""gross"" take-off flight paths. 32.2.3.1 (1816) The take-off distance of an aircraft is 600m in standard atmosphere, no wind at 0 ft pressure-altitude.Using the following corrections: ""± 20 m / 1 000 ft field elevation"" ""- 5 m / kt headwind"" ""+ 10 m / kt tail wind"" ""± 15 m / % runway slope"" ""± 5 m / °C deviation from standard temperature""The take-off distance from an airport at 1 000 ft elevation, temperature 17°C, QNH 1013,25 hPa, 1% up-slope, 10 kt tail wind is: a) 755 m b) 715 m c) 555 m d) 685 m 32.2.3.1 (1817) An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25° and 35°.If a pilot chooses 35° instead of 25°, the aircraft will have: a) a reduced landing distance and degraded go-around performance b) a reduced landing distance and better go-around performance c) an increased landing distance and degraded go-around performance d) an increased landing distance and better go-around performance 32.2.3.1 (1818) Following a take-off, limited by the 50 ft screen height, a light twin climbs on a gradient of 5%.It will clear a 160 m obstacle in relation to the runway (horizontally), situated at 5 000 m from the 50 ft point with an obstacle clearance margin of: a) 105 m b) 90 m c) 75 m d) it will not clear the obstacle 32.2.3.1 (1819) If the airworthiness documents do not specify a correction for landing on a wet runway, the landing distance must be increased by: a) 15% b) 5% c) 10% d) 20% 32.2.3.1 (1820) Following a take-off determined by the 50ft (15m) screen height, a light twin climbs on a 10% over-the-ground climb gradient.It will clear a 900 m high obstacle in relation to the runway (horizontally), situated at 10 000 m from the 50 ft clearing point with an obstacle clearance of: a) 115 m b) 100 m c) 85 m d) It will not clear the obstacle

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32.2.3.1 (1821) An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25° and 35°.If a pilot chooses 25° instead of 35°, the aircraft will have: a) an increased landing distance and better go-around performance b) a reduced landing distance and better go-around performance c) an increased landing distance and degraded go-around performance d) a reduced landing distance and degraded go-around performance 32.2.3.1 (1822) The take-off distance of an aircraft is 800m in standard atmosphere, no wind at 0 ft pressure-altitude.Using the following corrections : ""± 20 m / 1 000 ft field elevation "" ""- 5 m / kt headwind "" ""+ 10 m / kt tail wind "" ""± 15 m / % runway slope "" ""± 5 m / °C deviation from standard temperature ""The take-off distance from an airport at 2 000 ft elevation, temperature 21°C, QNH 1013.25 hPa, 2% up-slope, 5 kt tail wind is : a) 970 m b) 890 m c) 870 m d) 810 m 32.2.3.2 (1823) During climb to the cruising level, a headwind component a) decreases the ground distance flown during that climb. b) increases the amount of fuel for the climb. c) increases the climb time. d) decreases the climb time. 32.2.3.2 (1824) The angle of climb with flaps extended, compared to that with flaps retracted, will normally be: a) Smaller. b) Larger. c) Not change. d) Increase at moderate flap setting, decrease at large flap setting. 32.2.3.2 (1825) Which of the following combinations basically has an effect on the angle of descent in a glide?(Ignore compressibility effects.) a) Configuration and angle of attack. b) Mass and altitude. c) Altitude and configuration. d) Configuration and mass. 32.2.3.2 (1826) Two identical aeroplanes at different masses are descending at idle thrust. Which of the following statements correctly describes their descent characteristics ? a) At a given angle of attack, both the vertical and the forward speed are greater for the heavier aeroplane. b) There is no difference between the descent characteristics of the two aeroplanes. c) At a given angle of attack the heavier aeroplane will always glide further than the lighter aeroplane.

d) At a given angle of attack the lighter aeroplane will always glide further than the heavier aeroplane. 32.2.3.2 (1827) When flying the ""Backside of Thrustcurve"" means a) a lower airspeed requires more thrust. b) the thrust required is independent of the airspeed. c) a thrust reduction results in an acceleration of the aeroplane. d) a lower airspeed requires less thrust because drag is decreased. 32.2.3.2 (1828) In a steady descending flight (descent angle GAMMA) equilibrium of forces acting on the aeroplane is given by:(T = Thrust, D = Drag, W = Weight) a) T + W sin GAMMA = D b) T - W sin GAMMA = D c) T - D = W sin GAMMA d) T + D = - W sin GAMMA 32.2.3.2 (1829) An aeroplane executes a steady glide at the speed for minimum glide angle. If the forward speed is kept constant, what is the effect of a lower mass? Rate of descent / Glide angle / CL/CD ratio a) increases / increases / decreases b) decreases / constant / decreases c) increases / increases / constant d) increases / constant / increases 32.2.3.2 (1830) An aeroplane is in a power off glide at best gliding speed. If the pilot increases pitch attitude the glide distance: a) decreases. b) increases. c) remains the same. d) may increase or decrease depending on the aeroplane. 32.2.3.2 (1831) Which of the following provides maximum obstacle clearance during climb? a) The speed for maximum climb angle Vx. b) 1.2Vs. c) The speed for maximum rate of climb. d) The speed, at which the flaps may be selected one position further UP. 32.2.3.2 (1832) Which of the following factors will lead to an increase of ground distance during a glide, while maintaining the appropriate minimum glide angle speed? a) Tailwind. b) Increase of aircraft mass. c) Decrease of aircraft mass. d) Headwind.

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32.2.3.2 (1833) Which of the following factors leads to the maximum flight time of a glide? a) Low mass. b) High mass. c) Headwind. d) Tailwind. 32.2.3.2 (1834) What is the influence of the mass on maximum rate of climb (ROC) speed if all other parameters remain constant ? a) The ROC speed increases with increasing mass. b) The ROC speed decreases with increasing mass. c) The ROC is affected by the mass, but not the ROC speed. d) The ROC and the ROC speed are independant of the mass. 32.2.3.2 (1835) (For this question use annex 032-4744A)Considering a rate of climb diagram (ROC versus TAS) for an aeroplane. Which of the diagrams shows the correct curves for ""flaps down"" compared to ""clean"" configuration? a) a b) b c) c d) d 32.2.3.2 (1836) With an true airspeed of 194 kt and a vertical speed of 1 000 ft/min, the climb gradient is about : a) 3° b) 3% c) 5° d) 8% 32.2.3.2 (1837) On a twin engined piston aircraft with variable pitch propellers, for a given mass and altitude, the minimum drag speed is 125 kt and the holding speed (minimum fuel burn per hour) is 95 kt.The best rate of climb speed will be obtained for a speed: a) equal to 95 kt b) inferior to 95 kts c) is between 95 and 125 kt d) equal to 125 kt 32.2.3.2 (1838) A climb gradient required is 3,3%. For an aircraft maintaining 100 kt true airspeed , no wind, this climb gradient corresponds to a rate of climb of approximately: a) 330 ft/min b) 3 300 ft/min c) 3,30 m/s d) 33,0 m/s

32.2.3.2 (1839) The climb gradient of an aircraft after take-off is 6% in standard atmosphere, no wind, at 0 ft pressure altitude.Using the following corrections: ""± 0,2 % / 1 000 ft field elevation"" ""± 0,1 % / °C from standard temperature"" "" - 1 % with wing anti-ice"" "" - 0,5% with engine anti-ice""The climb gradient after take-off from an airport situated at 1 000 ft, 17° C, QNH 1013,25 hPa, with wing and engine anti-ice operating for a functional check is : a) 3,90% b) 4,30% c) 4,70% d) 4,90% 32.2.3.3 (1840) During climb with all engines, the altitude where the rate of climb reduces to 100 ft/min is called: a) Service ceiling b) Absolute ceiling c) Thrust ceiling d) Maximum transfer ceiling 32.2.3.3 (1841) The maximum rate of climb that can be maintained at the absolute ceiling is: a) 0 ft/min b) 125 ft/min c) 500 ft/min d) 100 ft/min 32.2.3.3 (1842) Considering TAS for maximum range and maximum endurance, other factors remaining constant, a) both will increase with increasing altitude. b) both will decrease with increasing altitude. c) both will stay constant regardless of altitude. d) TAS for maximum range will increase with increased altitude while TAS for maximum endurance will decrease with increased altitude. 32.2.3.3 (1843) A twin engined aeroplane in cruise flight with one engine inoperative has to fly over high ground. In order to maintain the highest possible altitude the pilot should choose: a) the speed corresponding to the maximum value of the lift / drag ratio. b) the long range speed. c) the speed corresponding to the minimum value of (lift / drag)^3/2. d) the speed at the maximum lift. 32.2.3.3 (1844) The maximum horizontal speed occurs when: a) The maximum thrust is equal to the total drag. b) The thrust is equal to the maximum drag. c) The thrust is equal to minimum drag. d) The thrust does not increase further with increasing speed.

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32.2.3.3 (1845) With respect to the optimum altitude, which of the following statements is correct ? a) An aeroplane sometimes flies above or below the optimum altitude because optimum altitude increases continuously during flight. b) An aeroplane always flies below the optimum altitude, because Mach buffet might occur. c) An aeroplane always flies at the optimum altitude because this is economically seen as the most attractive altitude. d) An aeroplane flies most of the time above the optimum altitude because this yields the most economic result. 32.2.3.3 (1846) How does the lift coefficient for maximum range vary with altitude?(No compressibility effects.) a) The lift coefficient is independant of altitude. b) The lift coefficient decreases with increasing altitude. c) The lift coefficient increases with increasing altitude. d) Only at low speeds the lift coefficient decreases with increasing altitude. 32.2.3.3 (1847) The optimum altitude a) increases as mass decreases and is the altitude at which the specific range reaches its maximum. b) decreases as mass decreases. c) is the altitude at which the specific range reaches its minimum. d) is the altitude up to which cabin pressure of 8 000 ft can be maintained. 32.2.3.3 (1848) To achieve the maximum range over ground with headwind the airspeed should be a) higher compared to the speed for maximum range cruise with no wind. b) equal to the speed for maximum range cruise with no wind. c) lower compared to the speed for maximum range cruise with no wind. d) reduced to the gust penetration speed. 32.2.3.3 (1849) The absolute ceiling a) is the altitude at which the rate of climb theoretically is zero. b) can be reached only with minimim steady flight speed c) is the altitude at which the best climb gradient attainable is 5% d) is the altitude at which the aeroplane reaches a maximum rate of climb of 100 ft/min. 32.2.3.3 (1850) The pilot of a light twin engine aircraft has calculated a 4 000 m service ceiling, based on the forecast general conditions for the flight and a take-off mass of 3 250 kg.If the take-off mass is 3 000 kg, the service ceiling will be: a) higher than 4 000 m. b) less than 4 000 m. c) unchanged, equal to 4 000 m. d) only a new performance analysis will determine if the service ceiling is higher or lower than 4 000 m.

32.2.3.4 (1851) Which statement regarding the relationship between traffic load and range is correct? a) The traffic load can be limited by the desired range. b) The maximum zero fuel mass limits the maximum quantity of fuel. c) The maximum landing mass is basically equal to the maximum zero fuel mass. d) The maximum traffic load is not limited by the reserve fuel quantity. 32.2.3.5 (1852) The speed for maximum lift/drag ratio will result in : a) The maximum range for a propeller driven aeroplane. b) The maximum range for a jet aeroplane. c) The maximum endurance for a propeller driven aeroplane. d) The maximum angle of climb for a propeller driven aeroplane. 32.2.3.5 (1853) Maximum endurance for a piston engined aeroplane is achieved at: a) The speed that approximately corresponds to the maximum rate of climb speed. b) The speed for maximum lift coefficient. c) The speed for minimum drag. d) The speed that corresponds to the speed for maximum climb angle. 32.2.3.5 (1854) (For this question use annex 032-2929A)Consider the graphic representation of the power required versus true air speed (TAS), for a piston engined aeroplane with a given mass. When drawing the tangent from the origin, the point of contact (A) determines the speed of: a) maximum specific range. b) maximum endurance. c) maximum thrust. d) critical angle of attack. 32.2.3.5 (1855) For a piston engined aeroplane, the speed for maximum range is : a) that which gives the maximum lift to drag ratio. b) that which givesthe minimum value of drag. c) that which givesthe maximun value of lift d) 1.4 times the stall speed in clean configuration. 32.2.3.5 (1856) The flight manual of a light twin engine recommends two cruise power settings, 65 and 75 %. The 75% power setting in relation to the 65 % results in: a) an increase in speed, fuel consumption and fuel-burn/distance. b) same speed and an increase of the fuel-burn per hour and fuel-burn/distance. c) an increase in speed and fuel-burn/distance, but an unchanged fuel-burn per hour. d) same speed and fuel-burn/distance, but an increase in the fuel-burn per hour. 32.2.4.1 (1857) (For this question use annex 032-4743A or Performance Manual MEP1 Figure 3.2)With regard to the graph for the light twin aeroplane, will the accelerate and stop distance be achieved in a take-off where the brakes are released before take-

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off power is set? a) No, the performance will be worse than in the chart. b) Performance will be better than in the chart. c) Yes, the chart has been made for this situation. d) It does not matter which take-off technique is being used. 32.3.1.0 (1858) Provided all other parameters stay constant. Which of the following alternatives will decrease the take-off ground run? a) Decreased take-off mass, increased density, increased flap setting. b) Increased pressure altitude, increased outside air temperature, increased take-off mass. c) Increased outside air temperature, decreased pressure altitude, decreased flap setting. d) Decreased take-off mass, increased pressure altitude, increased temperature. 32.3.1.1 (1859) An airport has a 3000 metres long runway, and a 2000 metres clearway at each end of that runway. For the calculation of the maximum allowed take-off mass, the take-off distance available cannot be greater than: a) 4500 metres. b) 6000 metres. c) 4000 metres. d) 5000 metres. 32.3.1.1 (1860) During the certification flight testing of a twin engine turbojet aeroplane, the real take-off distances are equal to:- 1547 m with all engines running- 1720 m with failure of critical engine at V1, with all other things remaining unchanged.The take-off distance adopted for the certification file is: a) 1779 m. b) 1978 m. c) 1547 m. d) 1720 m. 32.3.1.1 (1861) The take-off decision speed V1 is: a) a chosen limit. If an engine failure is recognized before reaching V1 the take-off must be aborted. b) not less than V2min, the minimum take-off safety speed. c) a chosen limit. If an engine failure is recognized after reaching V1 the take-off must be aborted. d) sometimes greater than the rotation speed VR. 32.3.1.1 (1862) Minimum control speed on ground, VMCG, is based on directional control being maintained by: a) primary aerodynamic control only. b) primary aerodynamic control and nosewheel. c) primary aerodynamic control, nosewheel steering and differential braking. d) nosewheel steering only.

32.3.1.1 (1863) The take-off performance requirements for transport category aeroplanes are based upon: a) failure of critical engine or all engines operating which ever gives the largest take off distance. b) all engines operating. c) only one engine operating. d) failure of critical engine. 32.3.1.1 (1864) Which of the following distances will increase if you increase V1? a) Accelerate Stop Distance b) Take-off distance c) All Engine Take-off distance d) Take-off run 32.3.1.1 (1865) The length of a clearway may be included in: a) the take-off distance available. b) the accelerate-stop distance available. c) the take-off run available. d) the distance to reach V1. 32.3.1.1 (1866) The one engine out take-off run is the distance between the brake release point and: a) the middle of the segment between VLOF point and 35 ft point. b) the lift-off point. c) the point where V2 is reached. d) the point half way between V1 and V2. 32.3.1.1 (1867) What is the advantage of balancing V1, even in the event of a climb limited takeoff? a) The safety margin with respect to the runway length is greatest. b) The take-off distance required with one engine out at V1 is the shortest. c) The accelerate stop distance required is the shortest. d) The climb limited take-off mass is the highest. 32.3.1.1 (1868) Which statement is correct? a) The climb limited take-off mass depends on pressure altitude and outer air temperature b) The performance limited take-off mass is the highest of:field length limited take-off massclimb limited take-off massobstacle limited take-off mass. c) The climb limited take-off mass will increase if the headwind component increases. d) The climb limited take-off mass increases when a larger take-off flap setting is used. 32.3.1.1 (1869) Maximum and minimum values of V1 are limited by : a) VR and VMCG

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b) V2 and VMCA c) VR and VMCA d) V2 and VMCG 32.3.1.1 (1870) Take-off run is defined as the a) horizontal distance along the take-off path from the start of the take-off to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane is 35 ft above the take-off surface. b) distance to V1 and stop, assuming an engine failure at V1. c) distance to 35 feet with an engine failure at V1 or 115% all engine distance to 35 feet. d) Distance from brake release to V2. 32.3.1.1 (1871) The minimum value of V2 must exceed ""air minimum control speed"" by: a) 10% b) 15% c) 20% d) 30% 32.3.1.1 (1872) Which of the following statements is correct ? a) A stopway means an area beyond the take-off runway, able to support the aeroplane during an aborted take-off. b) An underrun is an area beyond the runway end which can be used for an aborted take-off. c) A clearway is an area beyond the runway which can be used for an aborted take-off. d) If a clearway or a stopway is used, the liftoff point must be attainable at least at the end of the permanent runway surface. 32.3.1.1 (1873) The decision speed at take-off (V1) is the calibrated airspeed: a) below which take-off must be rejected if an engine failure is recognized, above which take-off must be continued. b) at which the take-off must be rejected. c) below which the take-off must be continued. d) at which the failure of the critical engine is expected to occur. 32.3.1.1 (1874) Which of the following set of factors could lead to a V2 value which is limited by VMCA? a) Low take-off mass, high flap setting and low field elevation. b) Low take-off mass, low flap setting and low field elevation. c) High take-off mass, high flap setting and low field elevation. d) High take-off mass, low flap setting and high field elevation. 32.3.1.1 (1875) During the flight preparation a pilot makes a mistake by selecting a V1 greater than that required. Which problem will occur when the engine fails at a speed immediatly above the correct value of V1? a) The stop distance required will exceed the stop distance available. b) The one engine out take-off distance required may exceed the take-off distance available.

c) V2 may be too high so that climb performance decreases. d) It may lead to over-rotation. 32.3.1.1 (1876) Which of the following statements is correct? a) The climb limited take-off mass is independant of the wind component. b) The performance limited take-off mass is independant of the wind component. c) The accelerate stop distance required is independant of the runway condition. d) The take-off distance with one engine out is independant of the wind component. 32.3.1.1 (1877) Which of the following statements is correct? a) VR is the speed at which the pilot should start to rotate the aeroplane. b) VR should not be higher than V1. c) VR should not be higher than 1.05 VMCG. d) VR is the speed at which, during rotation, the nose wheel comes off the runway. 32.3.1.1 (1878) Complete the following statement regarding the take-off performance of an aeroplane in performance class A. Following an engine failure at (i) ........... and allowing for a reaction time of (ii) ........... a correctly loaded aircraft must be capable of decelerating to a halt within the (iii) ......... a) (i) V1 (ii) 2 seconds (iii) Accelerate - stop distance available. b) (i) V2 (ii) 3 seconds (iii) Take-off distance available. c) (i) V1 (ii) 1 second (iii) Accelerate - stop distance available. d) (i) V1 (ii) 2 seconds (iii) Take-off distance available. 32.3.1.1 (1879) With regard to a take-off from a wet runway, which of the following statements is correct? a) The screen height can be lowered to reduce the mass penalties. b) When the runway is wet, the V1 reduction is sufficient to maintain the same margins on the runway length. c) In case of a reverser inoperative the wet runway performance information can still be used. d) Screen height cannot be reduced. 32.3.1.1 (1880) The take-off run is a) the horizontal distance along the take-off path from the start of the take-off to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane is 35 ft above the take-off surface. b) 1.5 times the distance from the point of brake release to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane attains a height of 35 ft above the runway with all engines operative. c) 1.15 times the distance from the point of brake release to the point at which VLOF is reached assuming a failure of the critical engine at V1. d) the distance of the point of brake release to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane attains a height of 50 ft above the runway assuming a failure of the critical engine at V1.

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32.3.1.1 (1881) Can the length of a stopway be added to the runway length to determine the takeoff distance available ? a) No. b) No, unless its centerline is on the extended centerline of the runway. c) Yes, but the stopway must be able to carry the weight of the aeroplane. d) Yes, but the stopway must have the same width as the runway. 32.3.1.1 (1882) Which is the correct sequence of speeds during take-off? a) VMCG, V1, VR, V2. b) V1, VMCG, VR, V2. c) V1, VR, VMCG, V2. d) V1, VR, V2, VMCA. 32.3.1.1 (1883) Which statement regarding V1 is correct? a) V1 is not allowed to be greater than VR. b) V1 is not allowed to be greater than VMCG. c) When determining the V1, reverse thrust is only allowed to be taken into account on the remaining symmetric engines. d) The V1 correction for up-slope is negative. 32.3.1.1 (1884) When an aircraft takes off with the mass limited by the TODA: a) the actual take-off mass equals the field length limited take-off mass. b) the distance from brake release to V1 will be equal to the distance from V1 to the 35 feet point. c) the ""balanced take-off distance"" equals 115% of the ""all engine take-off distance"". d) the end of the runway will be cleared by 35 feet following an engine failure at V1. 32.3.1.1 (1885) VR cannot be lower than: a) V1 and 105% of VMCA. b) 105% of V1 and VMCA. c) 1.2 Vs for twin and three engine jet aeroplane. d) 1.15 Vs for turbo-prop with three or more engines. 32.3.1.1 (1886) V2 has to be equal to or higher than a) 1.1 VMCA. b) 1.15 VMCG. c) 1.1 VSO. d) 1.15 VR. 32.3.1.1 (1887) V1 has to be a) equal to or higher than VMCG. b) equal to or higher than VMCA. c) higher than than VR. d) equal to or higher than V2.

32.3.1.1 (1888) The speed VR a) is the speed at which rotation to the lift-off angle of attack is initiated. b) must be higher than V2. c) must be higher than VLOF. d) must be equal to or lower than V1. 32.3.1.1 (1889) The speed V2 is a) the take-off safety speed. b) that speed at which the PIC should decide to continue or not the take-off in the case of an engine failure. c) the lowest airspeed required to retract flaps without stall problems. d) the lowest safety airspeed at which the aeroplane is under control with aerodynamic surfaces in the case of an engine failure. 32.3.1.1 (1890) Which take-off speed is affected by the presence or absence of stopway and/or clearway ? a) V1 b) V2 c) VMCG d) VMCA 32.3.1.1 (1891) The speed V2 is defined for jet aeroplane as a) take-off climb speed or speed at 35 ft. b) lift off speed. c) take-off decision speed. d) critical engine failure speed. 32.3.1.1 (1892) The take-off mass could be limited by a) the take-off distance available (TODA), the maximum brake energy and the climb gradient with one engine inoperative. b) the maximum brake energy only. c) the climb gradient with one engine inoperative only. d) the take-off distance available (TODA) only. 32.3.1.1 (1893) Which of the following is true with regard to VMCA (air minimum control speed)? a) Straight flight can not be maintained below VMCA, when the critical engine has failed. b) The aeroplane is uncontrollable below VMCA c) The aeroplane will not gather the minimum required climb gradient d) VMCA only applies to four-engine aeroplanes 32.3.1.1 (1894) Which of the following will decrease V1? a) Inoperative anti-skid. b) Increased take-off mass.

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c) Inoperative flight management system. d) Increased outside air temperature. 32.3.1.1 (1895) In case of an engine failure recognized below V1 a) the take-off must be rejected. b) the take-off may be continued if a clearway is available. c) the take-off should only be rejected if a stopway is available. d) the take-off is to be continued unless V1 is less than the balanced V1. 32.3.1.1 (1896) In case of an engine failure which is recognized at or above V1 a) the take-off must be continued. b) the take-off must be rejected if the speed is still below VLOF. c) a height of 50 ft must be reached within the take-off distance. d) the take-off should be rejected if the speed is still below VR. 32.3.1.1 (1897) The take-off distance available is a) the length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway available. b) the runway length minus stopway. c) the runway length plus half of the clearway. d) the total runway length, without clearway even if this one exists. 32.3.1.1 (1898) The take-off safety speed V2min for turbo-propeller powered aeroplanes with more than three engines may not be less than: a) 1.15 Vs b) 1.3 Vs c) 1.2 Vs d) 1.2 Vs1 32.3.1.1 (1899) The take-off safety speed V2 for two-engined or three-engined turbo propeller powered aeroplanes may not be less than: a) 1.2 Vs b) 1.3 Vs c) 1.15 Vs d) 1.15 Vs1 32.3.1.1 (1900) Which statement regarding V1 is correct ? a) VR may not be lower than V1 b) V1 may not be higher than Vmcg c) When determining V1, reverse thrust may only be used on the remaining symmetric engines d) The correction for up-slope on the balanced V1 is negative 32.3.1.2 (1901) How does runway slope affect allowable take-off mass, assuming other factors

remain constant and not limiting? a) A downhill slope increases allowable take-off mass. b) An uphill slope increases take-off mass. c) Allowable take-off mass is not affected by runway slope. d) A downhill slope decreases allowable take-off mass. 32.3.1.2 (1902) Uphill slope a) increases the take-off distance more than the accelerate stop distance. b) decreases the accelerate stop distance only. c) decreases the take-off distance only. d) increases the allowed take-off mass. 32.3.1.2 (1903) If the take-off mass of an aeroplane is brake energy limited a higher uphill slope would a) increase the maximum mass for take-off. b) decrease the maximum mass for take-off. c) have no effect on the maximum mass for take-off. d) decrease the required take-off distance. 32.3.1.2 (1904) Which statement related to a take-off from a wet runway is correct? a) A reduction of screen height is allowed in order to reduce weight penalties b) The use of a reduced Vr is sufficient to maitain the same safety margins as for a dry runway c) In case of a reverser inoperative the wet runway performance information can still be used d) Screenheight reduction can not be applied because of reduction in obstacle clearance. 32.3.1.2 (1905) Which statement regarding the influence of a runway down-slope is correct for a balanced take-off? Down-slope... a) reduces V1 and reduces take-off distance required (TODR). b) increases V1 and reduces the accelerate stop distance required (ASDR). c) reduces V1 and increases the accelerate stop distance required (ASDR). d) increases V1 and increases the take-off distance required (TODR). 32.3.1.3 (1906) The required Take-off Distance (TOD) and the field length limited Take-off Mass (TOM) are different for the zero flap case and take-off position flap case. What is the result of flap setting in take-off position compared to zero flap position? a) Decreased TOD required and increased field length limited TOM. b) Increased TOD required and decreased field length limited TOM. c) Increased TOD required and increased field length limited TOM. d) Decreased TOD required and decreased field length limited TOM. 32.3.1.3 (1907) The determination of the maximum mass on brake release, of a certified turbojet aeroplane with 5°, 15° and 25° flaps angles on take-off, leads to the following values, with wind:Flap angle: 5° 15° 25°Runway limitation (kg): 66 000 69 500 71 5002nd segment slope limitation: 72 200 69 000 61 800Wind correction: Head

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wind:+120kg / kt Tail wind: -360kg / ktGiven that the tail wind component is equal to 5 kt, the maximum mass on brake release and corresponding flap angle will be: a) 67 700 kg / 15 deg b) 69 000 kg / 15 deg c) 72 200 kg / 5 deg d) 69 700 kg / 25 deg 32.3.1.3 (1908) Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used when: a) windshear is reported on the take-off path. b) it is dark. c) the runway is dry. d) the runway is wet. 32.3.1.3 (1909) Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used when: a) anti skid is not usable. b) it is dark. c) the runway is wet. d) the OAT is ISA +10°C 32.3.1.3 (1910) Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used when: a) the runway is contaminated. b) it is dark. c) the runway is wet. d) obstacles are present close to the end of the runway. 32.3.1.3 (1911) The use of reduced take-off thrust is permitted, only if: a) The actual take-off mass (TOM) is lower than the field length limited TOM. b) The take-off distance available is lower than the take-off distance required one engine out at V1. c) The actual take-off mass (TOM) including a margin is greater than the performance limited TOM. d) The actual take-off mass (TOM) is greater than the climb limited TOM. 32.3.1.3 (1912) Which statement about reduced thrust is correct? a) Reduced thrust can be used when the actual take-off mass is less than the field length limited take-off mass. b) Reduced thrust is primarily a noise abatement procedure. c) Reduced thrust is used in order to save fuel. d) In case of reduced thrust V1 should be decreased. 32.3.1.3 (1913) If the take-off mass of an aeroplane is tyre speed limited, downhill slope would a) have no effect on the maximum mass for take-off. b) decrease the maximum mass for take-off.

c) increase the maximum mass for take-off. d) increase the required take-off distance. 32.3.1.3 (1914) Reduced take-off thrust a) has the benefit of improving engine life. b) can be used if the actual take-off mass is higher than the performance limited take-off mass. c) is not recommended at very low temperatures (OAT). d) can be used if the headwind component during take-off is at least 10 kt. 32.3.1.4 (1915) What will be the effect on an aeroplane's performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is decreased? a) It will decrease the take-off distance required. b) It will increase the take-off distance required. c) It will increase the take-off ground run. d) It will increase the accelerate stop distance. 32.3.1.4 (1916) What will be the influence on the aeroplane performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is increased? a) It will increase the take-off distance. b) It will decrease the take-off distance. c) It will increase the take-off distance available. d) It will increase the accelerate stop distance available. 32.3.1.4 (1917) How is VMCA influenced by increasing pressure altitude? a) VMCA increases with increasing pressure altitude. b) VMCA is not affected by pressure altitude. c) VMCA decreases with increasing pressure altitude. d) VMCA increases with pressure altitude higher than 4000 ft. 32.3.1.4 (1918) Which one of the following is not affected by a tail wind? a) the climb limited take-off mass. b) the field limited take-off mass. c) the obstacle limited take-off mass. d) the take-off run. 32.3.1.4 (1919) Other factors remaining constant and not limiting, how does increasing pressure altitude affect allowable take-off mass? a) Allowable take-off mass decreases. b) Allowable take-off mass increases. c) There is no effect on allowable take-off mass. d) Allowable take-off mass remains uninfluenced up to 5000 ft PA.

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32.3.1.4 (1920) For a take-off from a contaminated runway, which of the following statements is correct? a) The performance data for take-off must be determined in general by means of calculation, only a few values are verified by flight tests. b) The greater the depth of contamination at constant take-off mass, the more V1 has to be decreased to compensate for decreasing friction. c) Dry snow is not considered to affect the take-off performance. d) A slush covered runway must be cleared before take-off, even if the performance data for contaminated runway is available. 32.3.1.4 (1921) How is wind considered in the take-off performance data of the Aeroplane Operations Manuals ? a) Not more than 50% of a headwind and not less than 150% of the tailwind. b) Unfactored headwind and tailwind components are used. c) Not more than 80% headwind and not less than 125% tailwind. d) Since take-offs with tailwind are not permitted, only headwinds are considered. 32.3.1.5 (1922) The lowest take-off safety speed (V2 min) is: a) 1.15 Vs for four-engine turboprop aeroplanes and 1.20 Vs for two or threeengine turboprop aeroplanes. b) 1.20 Vs for all turbojet aeroplanes. c) 1.15 Vs for all turbojet aeroplanes. d) 1.20 Vs for all turboprop powered aeroplanes. 32.3.1.5 (1923) Which of the following answers is true? a) V1 <= VR b) V1 > Vlof c) V1 > VR d) V1 < VMCG 32.3.1.5 (1924) Which statement is correct? a) VR is the speed at which rotation should be initiated. b) VR is the lowest climb speed after engine failure. c) In case of engine failure below VR the take-off should be aborted. d) VR is the lowest speed for directional control in case of engine failure. 32.3.1.5 (1925) Which statement is correct? a) VR must not be less than 1.05 VMCA and not less than V1. b) VR must not be less than VMCA and not less than 1.05 V1. c) VR must not be less than 1.1 VMCA and not less than V1. d) VR must not be less than 1.05 VMCA and not less than 1.1 V1. 32.3.1.5 (1926) Which of the following represents the minimum for V1? a) VMCG

b) VLOF c) VMU d) VR 32.3.1.5 (1927) Which of the following represents the maximum value for V1 assuming max tyre speed and max brake energy speed are not limiting? a) VR b) VMCA c) V2 d) VREF 32.3.1.5 (1928) How is V2 affected if T/O flaps 20° is chosen instead of T/O flaps 10°? a) V2 decreases if not restricted by VMCA. b) V2 has the same value in both cases. c) V2 increases in proportion to the angle at which the flaps are set. d) V2 has no connection with T/O flap setting, as it is a function of runway length only. 32.3.1.5 (1929) The speed V2 of a jet aeroplane must be greater than: a) 1.2Vs. b) 1.2VMCG. c) 1.05VLOF. d) 1.3V1. 32.3.1.5 (1930) If the value of the balanced V1 is found to be lower than VMCG, which of the following is correct ? a) The take-off is not permitted. b) The one engine out take-off distance will become greater than the ASDR. c) The VMCG will be lowered to V1. d) The ASDR will become greater than the one engine out take-off distance. 32.3.1.6 (1931) During certification test flights for a turbojet aeroplane, the actual measured takeoff runs from brake release to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane is 35 feet above the take-off surface are:- 1747 m, all engines operating- 1950 m, with the critical engine failure recognized at V1, the other factors remaining unchanged.Considering both possibilities to determine the take-off run (TOR). What is the correct distance? a) 2009 m. b) 2243 m. c) 2096 m. d) 1950 m. 32.3.1.6 (1932) During certification flight testing on a four engine turbojet aeroplane the actual take-off distances measured are:- 3050 m with failure of the critical engine recognised at V1- 2555 m with all engines operating and all other things being equalThe take-off distance adopted for the certification file is:

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a) 3050 m b) 3513 m c) 2555 m d) 2938 m 32.3.1.6 (1933) During the flight preparation the climb limited take-off mass (TOM) is found to be much greater than the field length limited TOM using 5° flap. In what way can the performance limited TOM be increased? There are no limiting obstacles. a) By selecting a higher flap setting. b) By selecting a higher V2. c) By selecting a lower V2. d) By selecting a lower flap setting. 32.3.2.0 (1934) In the event of engine failure below V1, the first action to be taken by the pilot in order to decelerate the aeroplane is to: a) reduce the engine thrust. b) reverse engine thrust. c) apply wheel brakes. d) deploy airbrakes or spoilers. 32.3.2.0 (1935) If the antiskid system is inoperative, which of the following statements is true? a) The accelerate stop distance increases. b) The accelerate stop distance decreases. c) It has no effect on the accelerate stop distance. d) Take-off with antiskid inoperative is not permitted. 32.3.2.0 (1936) In which of the following distances can the length of a stopway be included? a) In the accelerate stop distance available. b) In the one-engine failure case, take-off distance. c) In the all-engine take-off distance. d) In the take-off run available. 32.3.2.1 (1937) Which statement concerning the inclusion of a clearway in take-off calculation is correct? a) The field length limited take-off mass will increase. b) The usable length of the clearway is not limited. c) V1 is increased. d) V1 remains constant. 32.3.2.1 (1938) Balanced V1 is selected a) if the accelerate stop distance is equal to the one engine out take-off distance. b) for a runway length limited take-off with a stopway to give the highest mass. c) for a runway length limited take-off with a clearway to give the highest mass. d) if it is equal to V2.

32.3.2.1 (1939) A 'Balanced Field Length' is said to exist where: a) The accelerate stop distance is equal to the take-off distance available. b) The clearway does not equal the stopway. c) The accelerate stop distance is equal to the all engine take-off distance. d) The one engine out take-off distance is equal to the all engine take-off distance. 32.3.2.1 (1940) If the field length limited take off mass has been calculated using a Balanced Field Length technique, the use of any additional clearway in take off performance calculations may allow a) a greater field length limited take off mass but with a lower V1 b) a greater field length limited take off mass but with a higher V1 c) the obstacle clearance limit to be increased with no effect on V1 d) the obstacle clearance limit to be increased with an higher V1 32.3.2.2 (1941) Before take-off the temperature of the wheel brakes should be checked. For what reason? a) Because overheated brakes will not perform adequately in the event of a rejected take-off. b) To ensure that the brake wear is not excessive. c) To ensure that the wheels have warmed up evenly. d) To ensure that the thermal blow-out plugs are not melted. 32.3.2.2 (1942) Concerning the landing gear, which of the following factors would limit the takeoff mass? a) Rate of rotation of the wheel at lift off and brake energy. b) Tyre pressure and brake temperature. c) Rate of rotation of the wheel and tyre pressure. d) Nitrogen pressure in the strut and brake temperature. 32.3.2.2 (1943) Which combination of circumstances or conditions would most likely lead to a tyre speed limited take-off? a) A high runway elevation and tail wind. b) A low runway elevation and a cross wind. c) A high runway elevation and a head wind. d) A low runway elevation and a head wind. 32.3.2.2 (1944) The 'maximum tyre speed' limits: a) VLOF in terms of ground speed. b) V1 in kt TAS. c) VR, or VMU if this is lower than VR. d) V1 in kt ground speed. 32.3.2.2 (1945) May anti-skid be considered to determine the take-off and landing data ? a) Yes.

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b) No. c) Only for take-off. d) Only for landing. 32.3.2.2 (1946) A higher outside air temperature (OAT) a) decreases the brake energy limited take-off mass. b) increases the field length limited take-off mass. c) increases the climb limited take-off mass. d) decreases the take-off distance. 32.3.3.0 (1947) If there is a tail wind, the climb limited TOM will: a) not be affected. b) increase. c) decrease. d) increase in the flaps extended case. 32.3.3.0 (1948) Which of the following sets of factors will increase the climb-limited TOM? a) Low flap setting, low PA, low OAT. b) High flap setting, low PA, low OAT. c) Low flap setting, high PA, high OAT. d) Low flap setting, high PA, low OAT. 32.3.3.1 (1949) (For this question use annex 032-1562A or Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.4 )For a twin engine turbojet aeroplane two take-off flap settings (5° and 15°) are certified.Given:Field length avalaible= 2400 mOutside air temperature= -10°CAirport pressure altitude= 7000 ftThe maximum allowed take-off mass is: a) 56 000 kg b) 55 000 kg c) 70 000 kg d) 52 000 kg 32.3.3.1 (1950) In relation to the net take-off flight path, the required 35 ft vertical distance to clear all obstacles is a) the minimum vertical distance between the lowest part of the aeroplane and all obstacles within the obstacle corridor. b) based on pressure altitudes. c) the height by which acceleration and flap retraction should be completed. d) the height at which power is reduced to maximum climb thrust. 32.3.3.1 (1951) The minimum climb gradient required on the 2nd flight path segment after the take-off of a jet aeroplane is defined by the following parameters:1 Gear up2 Gear down3 Wing flaps retracted4 Wing flaps in take-off position5 N engines at the take-off thrust6 (N-1) engines at the take-off thrust7 Speed over the path equal to V2 + 10 kt8 Speed over the path equal to 1.3 VS9 Speed over the path equal to V210 At a height of 35 ft above the runwayThe correct statements are:

a) 1, 4, 6, 9 b) 2, 3, 6, 9 c) 1, 4, 5, 10 d) 1, 5, 8, 10 32.3.3.1 (1952) The requirements with regard to take-off flight path and the climb segments are only specified for: a) the failure of the critical engine on a multi-engines aeroplane. b) the failure of any engine on a multi-engined aeroplane. c) 2 engined aeroplane. d) the failure of two engines on a multi-engined aeroplane. 32.3.3.1 (1953) At which minimum height will the second climb segment end? a) 400 ft above field elevation. b) 35 ft above ground. c) When gear retraction is completed. d) 1500 ft above field elevation. 32.3.3.1 (1954) A head wind will: a) increase the climb flight path angle. b) increase the angle of climb. c) increase the rate of climb. d) shorten the time of climb. 32.3.3.1 (1955) The second segment begins a) when landing gear is fully retracted. b) when flap retraction begins. c) when flaps are selected up. d) when acceleration starts from V2 to the speed for flap retraction. 32.3.3.1 (1956) For take-off obstacle clearance calculations, obstacles in the first segment may be avoided a) by banking not more than 15° between 50 ft and 400 ft above the runway elevation. b) by banking as much as needed if aeroplane is more than 50 ft above runway elevation. c) only by using standard turns. d) by standard turns - but only after passing 1500 ft. 32.3.3.1 (1957) Which statement, in relation to the climb limited take-off mass of a jet aeroplane, is correct? a) The climb limited take-off mass decreases with increasing OAT. b) The climb limited take-off mass is determined at the speed for best rate of climb. c) 50% of a head wind is taken into account when determining the climb limited take-off mass.

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d) On high elevation airports equipped with long runways the aeroplane will always be climb limited. 32.3.3.1 (1958) The first segment of the take-off flight path ends a) at completion of gear retraction. b) at completion of flap retraction. c) at reaching V2. d) at 35 ft above the runway. 32.3.3.1 (1959) The climb limited take-off mass can be increased by a) a lower flap setting for take-off and selecting a higher V2. b) selecting a lower V1. c) selecting a lower V2. d) selecting a lower VR. 32.3.3.1 (1960) During take-off the third segment begins: a) when acceleration to flap retraction speed is started. b) when landing gear is fully retracted. c) when acceleration starts from VLOF to V2. d) when flap retraction is completed. 32.3.3.1 (1961) The take-off mass of an aeroplane is restricted by the climb limit. What would be the effect on this limit of an increase in the headwind component? a) None. b) The effect would vary depending upon the height of any obstacle within the net take-off flight path. c) The climb limited take-off mass would increase. d) The climb limited take-off mass would decrease. 32.3.3.1 (1962) Which of the following statements with regard to the actual acceleration height at the beginning of the 3rd climb segment is correct? a) The minimum value according to regulations is 400 ft. b) A lower height than 400 ft is allowed in special circumstances e.g. noise abatement. c) The minimum value according to regulations is 1000 ft. d) There is no legal minimum value, because this will be determined from case to case during the calculation of the net flight path. 32.3.3.1 (1963) On a segment of the take-off flight path an obstacle requires a minimum gradient of climb of 2.6% in order to provide an adequate margin of safe clearance. At a mass of 110000 kg the gradient of climb is 2.8%. For the same power and assuming that the sine of the angle of climb varies inversely with mass, at what maximum mass will the aeroplane be able to achieve the minimum gradient? a) 118455 kg b) 102150 kg

c) 121310 kg d) 106425 kg 32.3.3.2 (1964) A four jet-engined aeroplane (mass = 150 000 kg) is established on climb with all engines operating. The lift-to-drag ratio is 14.Each engine has a thrust of 75 000 Newtons. The gradient of climb is:(given: g= 10 m/s²) a) 12.86%. b) 1.286%. c) 27%. d) 7.86%. 32.3.3.2 (1965) Which of the following statements is applicable to the acceleration height at the beginning of the 3rd climb segment ? a) The maximum acceleration height depends on the maximum time take-off thrust may be applied. b) The minimum legally allowed acceleration height is at 1500 ft. c) There is no requirement for minimum climb performance when flying at the acceleration height. d) The minimum one engine out acceleration height must be maintained in case of all engines operating. 32.3.3.3 (1966) Given that the characteristics of a three engine turbojet aeroplane are as follows:Thrust = 50 000 Newton / Engineg = 10 m/s²Drag = 72 569 NMinimum gross gradient (2nd segment) = 2.7%SIN(Angle of climb) = (Thrust- Drag) / WeightThe maximum take-off mass under 2nd segment conditions is: a) 101 596 kg b) 286 781 kg c) 74 064 kg d) 209 064 kg 32.3.3.4 (1967) The net flight path climb gradient after take-off compared to the gross climb gradient is: a) smaller. b) larger. c) equal. d) depends on type of aircraft. 32.3.3.4 (1968) An operator shall ensure that the net take-off flight path clears all obstacles. The half-width of the obstacle-corridor at the distance D from the end of the TODA is at least: a) 90m + 0.125D b) 0.125D c) -90m + 1.125D d) 90m + D/0.125

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32.3.3.4 (1969) When V1 has to be reduced because of a wet runway the one engine out obstacle clearance / climb performance: a) decreases / remains constant. b) increases / increases. c) remains constant / remains constant. d) decreases / decreases. 32.3.3.4 (1970) Which of the following statements, concerning the obstacle limited take-off mass for performance class A aeroplane, is correct? a) It should be determined on the basis of a 35 ft obstacle clearance with the respect to the ""net take-off flight path"". b) It should not be corrected for 30° bank turns in the take-off path. c) It should be calculated in such a way that there is a margin of 50 ft with respect to the ""net take off flight path"". d) It cannot be lower than the corresponding climb limited take-off mass. 32.3.3.4 (1971) Regarding the obstacle limited take-off mass, which of the following statements is correct? a) A take-off in the direction of an obstacle is also permitted in tail wind condition. b) Wind speed plays no role when calculating this particular mass. c) The obstacle limited mass can never be lower than the climb limited take-off mass. d) The maximum bank angle which can be used is 10°. 32.3.3.4 (1972) In the event that the take-off mass is obstacle limited and the take-off flight path includes a turn, the bank angle should not exceed a) 15 degrees up to height of 400 ft. b) 10 degrees up to a height of 400 ft. c) 20 degrees up to a height of 400 ft. d) 25 degrees up to a height of 400 ft. 32.3.3.4 (1973) Which speed provides maximum obstacle clearance during climb? a) The speed for which the ratio between rate of climb and forward speed is maximum. b) V2 + 10 kt. c) The speed for maximum rate of climb. d) V2. 32.3.4.0 (1974) (For this question use annex 032-915A)What is the maximum vertical speed of a three engine turbojet aeroplane with one engine inoperative (N-1) and a mass of 75 000 kg?Using the following: g = 10 m/s² 1 kt = 100 ft/min SIN( Angle of climb) = (Thrust- Drag)/ Weight a) +1267 ft / min. b) -1267 ft / min. c) 0 ft / min. d) +3293 ft / min.

32.3.4.1 (1975) What is the effect of tail wind on the time to climb to a given altitude? a) The time to climb does not change. b) The time to climb increases. c) The time to climb decreases. d) The effect on time to climb will depend on the aeroplane type. 32.3.4.1 (1976) You climb with a climb speed schedule 300/.78. What do you expect in the crossover altitude 29 200 ft (OAT = ISA) ? a) The rate of climb increases since the constant IAS-climb is replaced by the constant Mach-climb. b) The rate of climb decreases since climb performance at a constant Mach number is grossly reduced as compared to constant IAS. c) During the acceleration to the Mach number .78 the rate of climb is approximately zero. d) No noticeable effect since the true airspeed at 300 kt IAS and .78 Mach are the same (at ISA temperature TAS=460 kt) 32.3.4.1 (1977) If the climb speed schedule is changed from 280/.74 to 290/.74 the new crossover altitude is a) lower. b) higher. c) unchanged. d) only affected by the aeroplane gross mass. 32.3.4.1 (1978) (For this question use annex 032-3590A or Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5)With regard to the take-off performance of a twin jet aeroplane, why does the take-off performance climb limit graph show a kink at 30°C, pressure altitude 0? a) At higher temperatures the flat rated engines determines the climb limit mass. b) At higher temperatures the VMBE determines the climb limit mass. c) At lower temperatures one has to take the danger of icing into account. d) The engines are pressure limited at lower temperature, at higher temperatures they are temperature limited. 32.3.4.1 (1979) (For this question use annex 032-3591A or Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5)Consider the take-off performance for the twin jet aeroplane climb limit chart. Why has the wind been omitted from the chart? a) The climb limit performances are taken relative to the air. b) The effect of the wind must be taken from another chart. c) There is no effect of the wind on the climb angle relative to the ground. d) There is a built-in safety measure. 32.3.4.2 (1980) Vx and Vy with take-off flaps will be: a) lower than that for clean configuration. b) higher than that for clean configuration. c) same as that for clean configuration. d) changed so that Vx increases and Vy decreases compared to clean configuration.

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32.3.4.2 (1981) Other factors remaining constant, how does increasing altitude affect Vx and Vy: a) Both will increase. b) Both will remain the same. c) Both will decrease. d) Vx will decrease and Vy will increase. 32.3.4.2 (1982) How does TAS vary in a constant Mach climb in the troposphere? a) TAS decreases. b) TAS increases. c) TAS is constant. d) TAS is not related to Mach Number. 32.3.4.2 (1983) A jet aeroplane is climbing at a constant IAS and maximum climb thrust, how will the climb angle / the pitch angle change? a) Reduce / decrease. b) Reduce / remain constant. c) Remain constant / decrease. d) Remain constant / become larger. 32.3.4.2 (1984) With a jet aeroplane the maximum climb angle can be flown at approximately: a) The highest CL/CD ratio. b) The highest CL/CD² ratio. c) 1.2 Vs d) 1.1 Vs 32.3.4.2 (1985) What happens to the drag of a jet aeroplane if, during the initial climb after take off, constant IAS is maintained?(Assume a constant mass.) a) The drag remains almost constant. b) The drag increases considerably. c) The drag decreases. d) The drag increases initially and decreases thereafter. 32.3.4.2 (1986) Which of the following sequences of speed for a jet aeroplane is correct ? (from low to high speeds) a) Vs, maximum angle climb speed, maximum range speed. b) Vs, maximum range speed, maximum angle climb speed. c) Maximum endurance speed, maximum range speed, maximum angle of climb speed. d) Maximum endurance speed, long range speed, maximum range speed. 32.3.4.2 (1987) A jet aeroplane is climbing at constant Mach number below the tropopause. Which of the following statements is correct? a) IAS decreases and TAS decreases. b) IAS increases and TAS increases.

c) IAS decreases and TAS increases. d) IAS increases and TAS decreases. 32.3.4.2 (1988) Which of the following three speeds of a jet aeroplane are basically identical?The speeds for: a) holding, maximum climb angle and minimum glide angle. b) maximum drag, maximum endurance and maximum climb angle. c) maximum range, minimum drag and minimum glide angle. d) maximum climb angle, minimum glide angle and maximum range. 32.3.4.2 (1989) What happens when an aeroplane climbs at a constant Mach number? a) The lift coefficient increases. b) The TAS continues to increase, which may lead to structural problems. c) IAS stays constant so there will be no problems. d) The ""1.3G"" altitude is exceeded, so Mach buffet will start immediately. 32.3.4.2 (1990) A jet aeroplane is climbing with constant IAS. Which operational speed limit is most likely to be reached? a) The Maximum operating Mach number. b) The Stalling speed. c) The Minimum control speed air. d) The Mach limit for the Mach trim system. 32.3.4.2 (1991) Higher gross mass at the same altitude decreases the gradient and the rate of climb whereas a) VY and VX are increased. b) VX is increased and VY is decreased. c) VY and VX are not affected by a higher gross mass. d) VY and VX are decreased. 32.3.4.2 (1992) As long as an aeroplane is in a positive climb a) VX is always below VY. b) VX is sometimes below and sometimes above VY depending on altitude. c) VX is always above VY. d) VY is always above VMO. 32.3.4.2 (1993) The best rate of climb at a constant gross mass a) decreases with increasing altitude since the thrust available decreases due to the lower air density. b) increases with increasing altitude since the drag decreases due to the lower air density. c) increases with increasing altitude due to the higher true airspeed. d) is independent of altitude.

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32.3.4.2 (1994) Given a jet aircraft. Which order of increasing speeds in the performance diagram is correct? a) Vs, Vx, Maximum range speed b) Maximum endurance speed, Long range speed, Maximum range speed c) Vs, Maximum range speed, Vx d) Maximum endurance speed, Maximum range speed, Vx 32.3.5.0 (1995) The optimum long-range cruise altitude for a turbojet aeroplane: a) increases when the aeroplane mass decreases. b) is always equal to the powerplant ceiling. c) is independent of the aeroplane mass. d) is only dependent on the outside air temperature. 32.3.5.1 (1996) Which statement with respect to the step climb is correct? a) Executing a desired step climb at high altitude can be limited by buffet onset at g-loads larger than 1. b) A step climb must be executed immediately after the aeroplane has exceeded the optimum altitude. c) A step climb is executed because ATC desires a higher altitude. d) A step climb is executed in principle when, just after leveling off, the 1.3g altitude is reached. 32.3.5.1 (1997) Which of the following factors determines the maximum flight altitude in the ""Buffet Onset Boundary"" graph? a) Aerodynamics. b) Theoretical ceiling. c) Service ceiling. d) Economy. 32.3.5.1 (1998) Which data can be extracted from the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart? a) The values of the Mach number at which low speed and Mach buffet occur at various masses and altitudes. b) The value of maximum operating Mach number (MMO) at various masses and power settings. c) The value of the critical Mach number at various masses and altitudes. d) The value of the Mach number at which low speed and shockstall occur at various weights and altitudes. 32.3.5.1 (1999) The aerodynamic ceiling a) is the altitude at which the speeds for low speed buffet and for high speed buffet are the same. b) depends upon thrust setting and increase with increasing thrust. c) is the altitude at which the best rate of climb theoretically is zero. d) is the altitude at which the aeroplane reaches 50 ft/min.

32.3.5.1 (2000) The maximum operating altitude for a certain aeroplane with a pressurised cabin a) is the highest pressure altitude certified for normal operation. b) is dependent on aerodynamic ceiling. c) is dependent on the OAT. d) is only certified for four-engine aeroplanes. 32.3.5.1 (2001) Why are 'step climbs' used on long distance flights ? a) To fly as close as possible to the optimum altitude as aeroplane mass reduces. b) Step climbs are only justified if at the higher altitude less headwind or more tailwind can be expected. c) Step climbs do not have any special purpose for jet aeroplanes, they are used for piston engine aeroplanes only. d) To respect ATC flight level constraints. 32.3.5.1 (2002) Which statement with respect to the step climb is correct ? a) Performing a step climb based on economy can be limited by the 1.3-g altitude. b) In principle a step climb is performed immediately after the aircraft has exceeded the optimum altitude. c) A step climb may not be performed unless it is indicated in the filed flight plan. d) A step climb provides better economy than a cruise climb. 32.3.5.2 (2003) With all other things remaining unchanged and with T the outside static air temperature expressed in degrees K, the hourly fuel consumption of a turbojet powered aeroplane in a cruise flight with a constant Mach Number and zero headwind,is as follows: a) proportional to T b) proportional to 1/T² c) proportional to 1/T d) independent from T 32.3.5.2 (2004) Two identical turbojet aeroplanes (whose specific fuel consumption is assumed to be constant) are in a holding pattern at the same altitude. The mass of the first one is 95 000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is equal to 3100 kg/h. Since the mass of the second one is 105 000 kg, its hourly fuel consumption is: a) 3259 kg/h b) 3602 kg/h c) 3787 kg/h d) 3426 kg/h 32.3.5.2 (2005) A jet aeroplane equipped with old engines has a specific fuel consumption of 0.06 kg per Newton of thrust and per hour and, in a given flying condition, a fuel mileage of 14 kg per Nautical Mile. In the same flying conditions, the same aeroplane equipped with modern engines with a specific fuel consumption of 0.035 kg per Newton of thrust and per hour, has a fuel mileage of: a) 8.17 kg/NM.

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b) 14 kg/NM. c) 11.7 kg/NM. d) 10.7 kg/NM. 32.3.5.2 (2006) At a given altitude, when a turbojet aeroplane mass is increased by 5% - assuming the engines specific consumption remains unchanged -, its hourly consumption is approximately increased by: a) 5% b) 7.5% c) 10% d) 2.5% 32.3.5.2 (2007) For jet-engined aeroplanes, what is the effect of increased altitude on specific range? a) Increases. b) Decreases. c) Does not change. d) Increases only if there is no wind. 32.3.5.2 (2008) (For this question use annex 032-1014A)Assuming constant L/D ratio, which of the diagrams provided correctly shows the movement of the ""Thrust Required Curve . (M1>M2). a) c b) a c) b d) d 32.3.5.2 (2009) Long range cruise is a flight procedure which gives: a) a specific range which is about 99% of maximum specific range and higher cruise speed. b) a 1% higher TAS for maximum specific range. c) an IAS which is 1% higher than the IAS for maximum specific range. d) a specific range which is 99% of maximum specific range and a lower cruise speed. 32.3.5.2 (2010) With zero wind, the angle of attack for maximum range for an aeroplane with turbojet engines is: a) equal to that of maximum lift to drag ratio. b) equal to that maximum endurance. c) equal to that corresponding to zero induced drag. d) lower than that of maximum lift to drag ratio. 32.3.5.2 (2011) Two identical turbojet aeroplane (whose specific fuel consumptions are considered to be equal) are at holding speed at the same altitude.The mass of the first aircraft is 130 000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is 4300 kg/h. The mass of the second aircraft is 115 000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is:

a) 3804 kg/h. b) 4044 kg/h. c) 3365 kg/h. d) 3578 kg/h. 32.3.5.2 (2012) A jet aeroplane is flying long range cruise. How does the specific range / fuel flow change? a) Increase / decrease. b) Increase / increase. c) Decrease / increase. d) Decrease / decrease. 32.3.5.2 (2013) During a cruise flight of a jet aeroplane at constant flight level and at the maximum range speed, the IAS / the drag will: a) decrease / decrease. b) increase / decrease. c) increase / increase. d) decrease / increase. 32.3.5.2 (2014) The lowest point of the drag or thrust required curve of a jet aeroplane, respectively, is the point for a) minimum drag. b) maximum specific range. c) maximum endurance. d) minimum specific range. 32.3.5.2 (2015) For a jet transport aeroplane, which of the following is the reason for the use of 'maximum range speed' ? a) Minimum specific fuel consumption. b) Minimum fuel flow. c) Longest flight duration. d) Minimum drag. 32.3.5.2 (2016) Consider the graphic representation of the power required versus true air speed (TAS), for a jet aeroplane with a given mass. When drawing the tangent out of the origin, the point of contact determines the speed of: a) maximum endurance. b) minimum power. c) maximum specific range. d) critical angle of attack. 32.3.5.2 (2017) A jet aeroplane is performing a maximum range flight.The speed corresponds to: a) the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the Drag versus TAS curve. b) the minimum drag. c) the minimum required power.

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d) the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the power required (Pr) versus TAS curve. 32.3.5.2 (2018) In the drag versus TAS curve for a jet aeroplane, the speed for maximum range corresponds with: a) the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the drag curve. b) the point of intersection of the parasite drag curve and the induced drag curve. c) the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the parasite drag curve. d) the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the induced drag curve. 32.3.5.2 (2019) The pilot of a jet aeroplane wants to use a minimum amount of fuel between two airfields. Which flight procedure should the pilot fly? a) Maximum range. b) Maximum endurance. c) Holding. d) Long range. 32.3.5.2 (2020) Which of the following is a reason to operate an aeroplane at 'long range speed'? a) It is efficient to fly slightly faster than with maximum range speed. b) In order to achieve speed stability. c) The aircraft can be operated close to the buffet onset speed. d) In order to prevent loss of speed stability and tuck-under. 32.3.5.2 (2021) ""Maximum endurance"" a) is achieved in unaccelerated level flight with minimum fuel consumption. b) is the same as maximum specific range with wind correction. c) can be flown in a steady climb only. d) can be reached with the 'best rate of climb' speed in level flight. 32.3.5.2 (2022) The speed for maximum endurance a) is always lower than the speed for maximum specific range. b) is the lower speed to achieve 99% of maximum specific range. c) can either be higher or lower than the speed for maximum specific range. d) is always higher than the speed for maximum specific range. 32.3.5.2 (2023) Which of the equations below defines specific range (SR)? a) SR = True Airspeed/Total Fuel Flow b) SR = Indicated Airspeed/Total Fuel Flow c) SR = Mach Number/Total Fuel Flow d) SR = Groundspeed/Total Fuel Flow 32.3.5.2 (2024) Long range cruise is selected as a) the higher speed to achieve 99% of maximum specific range in zero wind.

b) the speed for best economy. c) the climbing cruise with one or two engines inoperative. d) specific range with tailwind. 32.3.5.2 (2025) The airspeed for jet aeroplanes at which power required is a minimum a) is always lower than the minimum drag speed. b) is always higher than the minimum drag speed. c) is lower than the minimum drag speed in the climb and higher than the minimum drag speed in the descent. d) is the same as the minimum drag speed. 32.3.5.2 (2026) Moving the center of gravity from the forward to the aft limit (gross mass, altitude and airspeed remain unchanged) a) decreases the induced drag and reduces the power required. b) increases the power required. c) affects neither drag nor power required. d) increases the induced drag. 32.3.5.2 (2027) The centre of gravity near, but still within, the aft limit a) improves the maximum range. b) increases the stalling speed. c) improves the longitudinal stabiity. d) decreases the maximum range. 32.3.5.2 (2028) The speed range between low speed buffet and high speed buffet a) narrows with increasing mass and increasing altitude. b) decreases with increasing mass and is independent of altitude. c) is only limiting at low altitudes. d) increases with increasing mass. 32.3.5.2 (2029) The danger associated with low speed and/or high speed buffet a) limits the maneuvering load factor at high altitudes. b) can be reduced by increasing the load factor. c) exists only above MMO. d) has to be considered at take-off and landing. 32.3.5.2 (2030) Which of the jet engine ratings below is not a certified rating? a) Maximum Cruise Thrust b) Maximum Continuous Thrust c) Go-Around Thrust d) Maximum Take-off Thrust 32.3.5.2 (2031) At constant thrust and constant altitude the fuel flow of a jet engine

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a) increases slightly with increasing airspeed. b) is independent of the airspeed. c) decreases slightly with increasing airspeed. d) increases with decreasing OAT. 32.3.5.2 (2032) At a constant Mach number the thrust and the fuel flow of a jet engine a) decrease in proportion to the ambient pressure at constant temperature. b) increase with increasing altitude. c) are independent of outside air temperature (OAT). d) increase in proportion to the ambient pressure at constant temperature. 32.3.5.2 (2033) The thrust of a jet engine at constant RPM a) increases in proportion to the airspeed. b) does not change with changing altitude. c) is independent of the airspeed. d) is inversely proportional to the airspeed. 32.3.5.2 (2034) The intersections of the thrust available and the drag curve are the operating points of the aeroplane a) in unaccelerated level flight. b) in descent with constant IAS. c) in accelerated level flight. d) in unaccelerated climb. 32.3.5.2 (2035) At speeds below minimum drag a) a lower speed requires a higher thrust. b) a higher speed requires a higher thrust. c) the aeroplane can not be controlled manually. d) the aeroplane can be controlled only in level flight. 32.3.5.2 (2036) A higher altitude at constant mass and Mach number requires a) a higher angle of attack. b) a lower coefficient of lift. c) a lower coefficient of drag. d) a lower angle of attack. 32.3.5.2 (2037) The long range cruise speed is in relation to the speed for maximum range cruise. a) Higher b) Lower c) Depending on the OAT and net mass. d) Depending on density altitude and mass. 32.3.5.2 (2038) The optimum cruise altitude is

a) the pressure altitude at which the best specific range can be achieved. b) the pressure altitude at which the fuel flow is a maximum. c) the pressure altitude up to which a cabin altitude of 8000 ft can be maintained. d) the pressure altitude at which the speed for high speed buffet as TAS is a maximum. 32.3.5.2 (2039) The optimum cruise altitude increases a) if the aeroplane mass is decreased. b) if the temperature (OAT) is increased. c) if the tailwind component is decreased. d) if the aeroplane mass is increased. 32.3.5.2 (2040) Below the optimum cruise altitude a) the Mach number for long range cruise decreases continuously with decreasing altitude. b) the IAS for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing altitude. c) the TAS for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing altitude. d) the Mach number for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing altitude. 32.3.5.2 (2041) Under which condition should you fly considerably lower (4 000 ft or more) than the optimum altitude ? a) If at the lower altitude either considerably less headwind or considerably more tailwind can be expected. b) If the maximum altitude is below the optimum altitude. c) If the temperature is lower at the low altitude (high altitude inversion). d) If at the lower altitude either more headwind or less tailwind can be expected. 32.3.5.2 (2042) On a long distance flight the gross mass decreases continuously as a consequence of the fuel consumption. The result is: a) The specific range and the optimum altitude increases. b) The speed must be increased to compensate the lower mass. c) The specific range increases and the optimum altitude decreases. d) The specific range decreases and the optimum altitude increases. 32.3.5.2 (2043) If the thrust available exceeds the thrust required for level flight a) the aeroplane accelerates if the altitude is maintained. b) the aeroplane descends if the airspeed is maintained. c) the aeroplane decelerates if it is in the region of reversed command. d) the aeroplane decelerates if the altitude is maintained. 32.3.5.2 (2044) In a given configuration the endurance of a piston engined aeroplane only depends on: a) altitude, speed, mass and fuel on board. b) altitude, speed and mass. c) speed and mass. d) speed, mass and fuel on board.

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32.3.5.2 (2045) Which of the following statements with regard to the optimum cruise altitude (best fuel mileage) is correct? a) An aeroplane sometimes flies above the optimum cruise altitude, because ATC normally does not allow to fly continuously at the optimum cruise altitude. b) An aeroplane always flies below the optimum cruise altitude, as otherwise Mach buffet can occur. c) An aeroplane always flies on the optimum cruise altitude, because this is most attractive from an economy point of view. d) An aeroplane usually flies above the optimum cruise altitude, as this provides the largest specific range. 32.3.5.3 (2046) An aeroplane operating under the 180 minutes ETOPS rule may be up to : a) 180 minutes flying time to a suitable airport in still air with one engine inoperative. b) 180 minutes flying time to a suitable airport under the prevailing weather condition with one engine inoperative. c) 180 minutes flying time from suitable airport in still air at a normal cruising speed d) 90 minutes flying time from the first enroute airport and another 90 minutes from the second enroute airport in still air with one engine inoperative. 32.3.5.3 (2047) ETOPS flight is a twin engine jet aeroplane flight conducted over a route, where no suitable airport is within an area of a) 60 minutes flying time in still air at the approved one engine out cruise speed. b) 60 minutes flying time in still air at the normal cruising speed. c) 30 minutes flying time at the normal cruising speed. d) 75 minutes flying time at the approved one engine out cruise speed. 32.3.5.3 (2048) (For this question use annex 032-3589A or Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.24)With regard to the drift down performance of the twin jet aeroplane, why does the curve representing 35 000 kg gross mass in the chart for drift down net profiles start at approximately 3 minutes at FL370? a) Because at this mass it takes about 3 minutes to decelerate to the optimum speed for drift down at the original cruising level. b) Because at this mass the engines slow down at a slower rate after failure, there is still some thrust left during four minutes. c) Due to higher TAS at this mass it takes more time to develop the optimal rate of descent, because of the inertia involved. d) All the curves start at the same point, which is situated outside the chart. 32.3.5.3 (2049) A twin jet aeroplane is in cruise, with one engine inoperative, and has to overfly a high terrain area. In order to allow the greatest clearance height, the appropriate airspeed must be the airspeed a) of greatest lift-to-drag ratio. b) giving the lowest Cl/Cd ratio. c) giving the highest Cd/Cl ratio. d) for long-range cruise.

32.3.5.3 (2050) The drift down requirements are based on: a) the obstacle clearance during a descent to the new cruising altitude if an engine has failed. b) the actual engine thrust output at the altitude of engine failure. c) the maximum flight path gradient during the descent. d) the landing mass limit at the alternate. 32.3.5.3 (2051) Which of the following statements is correct? a) When determining the obstacle clearance during drift down, fuel dumping may be taken into account. b) The drift down regulations require a minimum descent angle after an engine failure at cruising altitude. c) The drift down procedure requires a minimum obstacle clearance of 35 ft. d) An engine failure at high cruising altitude will always result in a drift down, because it is not permitted to fly the same altitude as with all engines operating. 32.3.5.3 (2052) With all engines out, a pilot wants to fly for maximum time. Therefore he has to fly the speed corresponding to: a) the minimum drag. b) the critical Mach number. c) the minimum angle of descent. d) the maximum lift. 32.3.5.3 (2053) After engine failure the aeroplane is unable to maintain its cruising altitude. What is the procedure which should be applied? a) Drift Down Procedure. b) Emergency Descent Procedure. c) ETOPS. d) Long Range Cruise Descent. 32.3.5.3 (2054) 'Drift down' is the procedure to be applied a) after engine failure if the aeroplane is above the one engine out maximum altitude. b) after cabin depressurization. c) to conduct an instrument approach at the alternate. d) to conduct a visual approach if VASI is available. 32.3.5.3 (2055) If the level-off altitude is below the obstacle clearance altitude during a drift down procedure a) fuel jettisoning should be started at the beginning of drift down. b) the recommended drift down speed should be disregarded and it should be flown at the stall speed plus 10 kt. c) fuel jettisoning should be started when the obstacle clearance altitude is reached. d) the drift down should be flown with flaps in the approach configuration.

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32.3.5.3 (2056) With one or two engines inoperative the best specific range at high altitudes is a) reduced. b) improved. c) not affected. d) first improved and later reduced. 32.3.5.3 (2057) (For this question use annex 032-4732A or Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.24)With regard to the drift down performance of the twin jet aeroplane, what is meant by ""equivalent gross weight at engine failure"" ? a) The equivalent gross weight at engine failure is the actual gross weight corrected for OAT higher than ISA +10°C. b) The increment represents fuel used before engine failure. c) This gross weight accounts for the lower Mach number at higher temperatures. d) The increment accounts for the higher fuel flow at higher temperatures. 32.3.5.4 (2058) The drift down procedure specifies requirements concerning the: a) obstacle clearance during descent to the net level-off altitude b) engine power at the altitude at which engine failure occurs c) climb gradient during the descent to the net level-off altitude d) weight during landing at the alternate 32.3.5.4 (2059) Which one of the following statements concerning drift-down is correct? a) When determining the obstacle clearance during drift-down, fuel dumping may be taken into account. b) The drift-down procedure requires a minimum descent angle after an engine failure at cruising altitude. c) The drift-down procedure requires a minimum obstacle clearance of 35 ft. d) An engine failure at high cruising altitude will always result in a drift-down, because it is not permitted to fly the same altitude with one engine inoperative as with all engines operating. 32.3.6.1 (2060) During a descent at constant Mach Number, the margin to low speed buffet will: a) increase, because the lift coefficient decreases. b) remain constant, because the Mach number remains constant. c) increase, because the lift coefficient increases. d) decrease, because the lift coefficient decreases. 32.3.6.1 (2061) During a glide at constant Mach number, the pitch angle of the aeroplane will: a) decrease. b) increase. c) increase at first and decrease later on. d) remain constant. 32.3.6.1 (2062) An aeroplane carries out a descent from FL 410 to FL 270 at cruise Mach number, and from FL 270 to FL 100 at the IAS reached at FL 270.How does the angle of

descent change in the first and in the second part of the descent?Assume idle thrust and clean configuration and ignore compressibility effects. a) Increases in the first part, is constant in the second. b) Increases in the first part, decreases in the second. c) Is constant in the first part, decreases in the second. d) Decreases in the first part, increases in the second. 32.3.6.1 (2063) The lift coefficient decreases during a glide with constant Mach number, mainly because the : a) IAS increases. b) aircraft mass decreases. c) TAS decreases. d) glide angle increases. 32.3.6.1 (2064) A jet aeroplane descends with constant Mach number. Which of the following speed limits is most likely to be exceeded first? a) Maximum Operating Speed b) Never Exceed Speed c) High Speed Buffet Limit d) Maximum Operational Mach Number 32.3.6.1 (2065) Which statement is correct for a descent without engine thrust at maximum lift to drag ratio speed? a) The higher the gross mass the greater is the speed for descent. b) The higher the gross mass the lower is the speed for descent. c) The higher the average temperature (OAT) the lower is the speed for descent. d) The mass of an aeroplane does not have any effect on the speed for descent. 32.3.6.1 (2066) Which statement is correct for a descent without engine thrust at maximum lift to drag ratio speed? a) A tailwind component increases the ground distance. b) A headwind component increases the ground distance. c) A tailwind component increases fuel and time to descent. d) A tailwind component decreases the ground distance. 32.3.6.1 (2067) Is there any difference between the vertical speed versus forward speed curves for two identical aeroplanes having different masses ? (assume zero thrust and wind) a) Yes, the difference is that for a given angle of attack both the vertical and forward speeds of the heavier aeroplane will be larger. b) No difference. c) Yes, the difference is that the heavier aeroplane will always glide a greater distance. d) Yes, the difference is that the lighter aeroplane will always glide a greater distance. 32.3.6.3 (2068) A flight is planned with a turbojet aeroplane to an aerodrome with a landing distance available of 2400 m. Which of the following is the maximum landing

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distance for a dry runway? a) 1 440 m. b) 1 250 m. c) 1 090 m. d) 1 655 m. 32.3.6.3 (2069) For a turbojet aeroplane, what is the maximum landing distance for wet runways when the landing distance available at an aerodrome is 3000 m? a) 1565 m. b) 1800 m. c) 2609 m. d) 2 070 m. 32.3.6.3 (2070) The approach climb requirement has been established so that the aeroplane will achieve: a) minimum climb gradient in the event of a go-around with one engine inoperative. b) obstacle clearance in the approach area. c) manoeuverability in the event of landing with one engine inoperative. d) manoeuverability during approach with full flaps and gear down, all engines operating. 32.3.6.3 (2071) For jet aeroplanes which of the following statements is correct? a) When determining the maximum allowable landing mass at destination, 60% of the available distance is taken into account, if the runway is expected to be dry. b) In any case runway slope is one of the factors taken into account when determining the required landing field length. c) An anti-skid system malfunction has no effect on the required landing field length. d) The required landing field length is the distance from 35 ft to the full stop point. 32.3.6.3 (2072) Which of the following is true according to JAA regulations for turbopropeller powered aeroplanes not performing a steep approach? a) Maximum Landing Distance at the destination aerodrome and at any alternate aerodrome is 0,7 x LDA (Landing Distance Available). b) Maximum Landing Distance at destination is 0,95 x LDA (Landing Distance Available). c) Maximum Take-off Run is 0,5 x runway. d) Maximum use of clearway is 1,5 x runway. 32.3.6.3 (2073) To minimize the risk of hydroplaning during landing the pilot should: a) make a ""positive"" landing and apply maximum reverse thrust and brakes as quickly as possible. b) use maximum reverse thrust, and should start braking below the hydroplaning speed. c) use normal landing-, braking- and reverse technique. d) postpone the landing until the risk of hydroplaning no longer exists. 32.3.6.3 (2074) Approaching in turbulent wind conditions requires a change in the landing

reference speed (VREF): a) Increasing VREF b) Lowering VREF c) Keeping same VREF because wind has no influence on IAS. d) Increasing VREF and making a steeper glide path to avoid the use of spoilers. 32.3.6.3 (2075) What margin above the stall speed is provided by the landing reference speed VREF? a) 1,30 VSO b) 1,05 VSO c) 1,10 VSO d) VMCA x 1,2 32.3.6.3 (2076) Required runway length at destination airport for turboprop aeroplanes a) is the same as at an alternate airport. b) is less then at an alternate airport. c) is more than at an alternate airport. d) is 60% longer than at an alternate airport. 32.3.6.3 (2077) The landing reference speed VREF has, in accordance with international requirements, the following margins above stall speed in landing configuration: a) 30% b) 15% c) 20% d) 10% 32.3.6.3 (2078) The maximum mass for landing could be limited by a) the climb requirements with one engine inoperative in the approach configuration. b) the climb requirements with one engine inoperative in the landing configuration. c) the climb requirements with all engines in the approach configuration. d) the climb requirements with all engines in the landing configuration but with gear up. 32.3.6.3 (2079) The landing field length required for turbojet aeroplanes at the destination (wet condition) is the demonstrated landing distance plus a) 92% b) 67% c) 70% d) 43% 32.3.6.3 (2080) The landing field length required for jet aeroplanes at the alternate (wet condition) is the demonstrated landing distance plus a) 92% b) 43%

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c) 70% d) 67% 32.3.6.3 (2081) (For this question use annex 032-4733A or Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.28)What is the minimum field length required for the worst wind situation, landing a twin jet aeroplane with the anti-skid inoperative?Elevation: 2000 ftQNH: 1013 hPaLanding mass: 50 000 kgFlaps: as required for minimum landing distanceRunway condition: dryWind: Maximum allowable tailwind: 15 ktMaximum allowable headwind: 50 kt a) 3100 m. b) 2600 m. c) 2700 m. d) 2900 m. 32.3.6.3 (2082) The approach climb requirement has been established to ensure: a) minimum climb gradient in case of a go-around with one engine inoperative. b) obstacle clearance in the approach area. c) manoeuvrability in case of landing with one engine inoperative. d) manoeuvrability during approach with full flaps and gear down, all engines operating. 32.3.6.3 (2083) By what factor must the landing distance available (dry runway) for a turbojet powered aeroplane be multiplied to find the landing distance required? (planning phase for destination). a) 0.60 b) 115/100 c) 1.67 d) 60/115 32.3.6.3 (2084) According to JAR-OPS 1, which one of the following statements concerning the landing distance for a turbojet aeroplane is correct? a) When determining the maximum allowable landing mass at destination, 60% of the available landing runway length should be taken into account. b) Reverse thrust is one of the factors always taken into account when determining the landing distance required. c) Malfunctioning of an anti-skid system has no effect on the required runway length. d) The landing distance is the distance from 35 ft above the surface of the runway to the full stop. 32.3.7.2 (2085) If a flight is performed with a higher ""Cost Index"" at a given mass which of the following will occur? a) A higher cruise mach number. b) A lower cruise mach number. c) A better maximum range. d) A better long range.

33.1.1.1 (2086) An aircraft is flying at MACH 0.84 at FL 330. The static air temperature is -48°C and the headwind component 52 Kt. At 1338 UTC the controller requests the pilot to cross the meridian of 030W at 1500 UTC. Given the distance to go is 570 NM, the reduced MACH No. should be: a) 0.80 b) 0.78 c) 0.76 d) 0.72 33.1.1.1 (2087) According to the chart the minimum obstruction clearance altitude (MOCA) is 8500 ft. The meteorological data gives an outside air temperature of -20°C at FL 85. The QNH, given by a met. station at an elevation of 4000ft, is 1003 hPa.What is the minimum pressure altitude which should be flown according to the given MOCA? a) 8800 ft. b) 8500 ft. c) 12800 ft. d) 8200 ft. 33.1.1.1 (2088) VFR flights shall not be flown over the congested areas of cities at a height less than a) 1000 ft above the heighest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft. b) 2000 ft above the heighest obstacle within a radius of 600 ft from the aircraft. c) 500 ft above the heighest obstacle. d) the heighest obstacle. 33.1.1.1 (2089) How many feet you have to climb to reach FL 75?Given: FL 75, departure aerodrome elevation 1500 ft, QNH = 1023 hPa, temperature = ISA, 1 hPa = 30 ft a) 6300 ft. b) 6000 ft. c) 6600 ft. d) 7800 ft. 33.1.1.1 (2090) (For this question use annex 033-9719A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6)An aeroplane is flying VFR and approaching position TANGO VORTAC (48°37'N, 009°16'E) at FL 055 and magnetic course 090°, distance from VORTAC TANGO 20 NM.Name the frequency of the TANGO VORTAC. a) 112.50 MHz b) 118.60 MHz c) 422 kHz d) 118.80 MHz 33.1.1.1 (2091) (For this question use annex 033-9736A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6)Flying VFR from VILLINGEN (48°03.5'N, 008°27.0'E) to FREUDENSTADT (48°28.0'N,

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008°24.0'E).Determine the minimum altitude within a corridor 5NM left and 5 NM right of the courseline in order to stay 1000 ft clear of obstacles. a) 3900 ft b) 2900 ft c) 4200 ft d) 1500 ft 33.1.1.1 (2092) (For this question use annex 033-9739A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6)Flying VFR from PEITING (47°48.0'N, 010°55.5'E) to IMMENSTADT (47°33.5'N, 010°13.0'E).Determine the minimum altitude within a corridor 5NM left and 5 NM right of the courseline in order to stay 1000 ft clear of obstacles. a) 6900 ft b) 5500 ft c) 6600 ft d) 5300 ft 33.1.1.1 (2093) (For this question use annex 033-11717A)The planned flight is over a distance of 440 NMBased on the wind charts at altitude the following components are found,FL50: -30kt, FL100: -50kt, FL180: -70ktThe Operations Manual in appendix details the aircraft's performancesWhich of the following flight levels (FL) gives the best range performance: a) FL 180 b) FL 100 c) FL 050 d) Either FL 050 or FL 100 33.1.1.2 (2094) (For this question use annex 033-9734A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6)Flying VFR from VILLINGEN (48°03.5'N, 008°27.0'E) to FREUDENSTADT (48°28.0'N, 008°24.0'E) determine the magnetic course. a) 356° b) 176° c) 004° d) 185° 33.1.1.2 (2095) (For this question use annex 033-9735A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6)Flying VFR from VILLINGEN (48°03.5'N, 008°27.0'E) to FREUDENSTADT (48°28.0'N, 008°24.0'E) determine the distance. a) 24 NM b) 46 NM c) 28 NM d) 24 km 33.1.1.2 (2096) (For this question use annex 033-9737A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000

STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6)Flying VFR from PEITING (47°48.0'N, 010°55.5'E) to IMMENSTADT (47°33.5'N, 010°13.0'E) determine the magnetic course. a) 243° b) 063° c) 257° d) 077° 33.1.1.2 (2097) (For this question use annex 033-9738A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6)Flying VFR from PEITING (47°48.0'N, 010°55.5'E) to IMMENSTADT (47°33.5'N, 010°13.0'E) determine the distance. a) 32 NM b) 46 NM c) 58 NM d) 36 NM 33.1.1.2 (2098) (For this question use annex 033-12368A or Route Manual chart NAP)The average magnetic course from C (62°N020°W) to B (58°N004°E) is a) 119° b) 109° c) 099° d) 118° 33.1.1.2 (2099) (For this question use annex 033-12369A or Route Manual chart NAP)The average true course from C (62°N020°W) to B (58°N004°E) is a) 109° b) 119° c) 099° d) 120° 33.1.1.2 (2100) (For this question use annex 033-12370A or Route Manual chart NAP)The initial magnetic course from C (62°N020°W) to B (58°N004°E) is a) 116° b) 080° c) 098° d) 113° 33.1.1.2 (2101) (For this question use annex 033-12371A or Route Manual chart NAP)The initial true course from C (62°N020°W) to B (58°N004°E) is a) 098° b) 116° c) 080° d) 278°

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33.1.1.2 (2102) (For this question use annex 033-12372A or Route Manual chart NAP)The distance (NM) from A (64°N006°E) to C (62°N020°W) is a) 720 b) 690 c) 1590 d) 1440 33.1.1.2 (2103) (For this question use annex 033-12373A or Route Manual chart NAP)The average magnetic course from A (64°N006°E) to C (62°N020°W) is a) 271° b) 259° c) 247° d) 279° 33.1.1.2 (2104) (For this question use annex 033-12374A or Route Manual chart NAP)The average true course from A (64°N006°E) to C (62°N020°W) is a) 259° b) 247° c) 271° d) 079° 33.1.1.2 (2105) (For this question use annex 033-12375A or Route Manual chart NAP)The initial magnetic course from A (64°N006°E) to C (62°N020°W) is a) 275° b) 267° c) 271° d) 262° 33.1.1.2 (2106) (For this question use annex 033-12376A or Route Manual chart NAP)The initial true course from A (64°N006°E) to C (62°N020°W) is a) 271° b) 275° c) 267° d) 246° 33.1.1.2 (2107) (For this question use annex 033-12377A or Route Manual chart NAP)The distance (NM) from C (62°N020°W) to B (58°N004°E) is a) 760 b) 725 c) 700 d) 775 33.1.1.4 (2108) On a given path, it is possible to chose between four flight levels (FL), each associated with a mandatory flight Mach Number (M). The flight conditions, static

air temperature (SAT) and headwind component (HWC) are given below: FL 370 M = 0.80 Ts = -60°C HWC = -15 kt FL 330 - M = 0.78 Ts = -60°C HWC= - 5 kt FL 290 - M = 0.80 Ts = -55°C HWC = -15 kt FL 270 - M = 0.76 Ts = -43°C HWC = 0The flight level allowing the highest ground speed is: a) FL270 b) FL290 c) FL330 d) FL370 33.1.1.4 (2109) A twin-jet aeroplane carries out the WASHINGTON-PARIS flight. When it reaches point K (35°N - 048°W) a non-mechanical event makes the Captain consider rerouting to one of the three following fields. The flight conditions are: - from K to BERMUDAS (distance 847NM, headwind component=18 kt) - from K to SANTA MARIA (distance 1112 NM, tailwind component=120 kt)- from K to GANDER (distance 883 NM, wind component=0).With an aeroplane true airspeed of 460 kt, the field selected will be that more rapidly reached: a) BERMUDAS or GANDER, or SANTA MARIA b) SANTA MARIA c) BERMUDAS d) Either GANDER or BERMUDAS 33.1.1.4 (2110) An aeroplane flies at an airspeed of 380 kt. lt flies from A to B and back to A. Distance AB = 480 NM. When going from A to B, it experiences a headwind component = 60 kt. The wind remains constant.The duration of the flight will be: a) 2h 35min b) 3h 00min c) 2h 10min d) 2h 32min 33.1.1.4 (2111) You are flying a constant compass heading of 252°. Variation is 22°E, deviation is 3°W and your INS is showing a drift of 9° right. True track is ? a) 280° b) 224° c) 242° d) 262° 33.1.1.4 (2112) Given : true track 017, W/V 340/30, TAS 420 ktFind : wind correction angle (WCA) and ground speed (GS) a) WCA -2° , GS 396 kt b) WCA +2° , GS 396 kt c) WCA -2° , GS 426 kt d) WCA +2° , GS 416 kt 33.1.1.4 (2113) Flight planning chart for an aeroplane states, that the time to reach the cruising level at a given gross mass is 36 minutes and the distance travelled is 157 NM (zero-wind). What will be the distance travelled with an average tailwind

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component of 60kt ? a) 193 NM b) 128 NM c) 157 NM d) 228 NM 33.1.1.4 (2114) (For this question use annex 033 11702 A)The measured course 042° T.The variation in the area is 6° W and the wind is calm.The deviation card is reproduced in the annex.In order to follow this course, the pilot must fly a compass heading of: a) 052° b) 058° c) 040° d) 044° 33.1.1.4 (2115) Given: True course (TC) 017°, W/V 340°/30 kt, True air speed (TAS) 420 ktFind: Wind correction angle (WCA) and ground speed (GS) a) WCA -2°, GS 396 kt b) WCA +2°, GS 396 kt c) WCA -2°, GS 426 kt d) WCA +2°, GS 416 kt 33.1.2.0 (2116) You are to determine the maximum fuel load which can be carried in the following conditions :- dry operating mass : 2800 kg- trip fuel : 300 kg- payload : 400 kgmaximum take-off mass : 4200 kg- maximum landing mass : 3700 kg a) 800 kg b) 1000 kg c) 700 kg d) 500 kg 33.1.2.0 (2117) The fuel burn off is 200 kg/h with a relative fuel density of 0,8. If the relative density is 0,75, the fuel burn will be: a) 200 kg/h b) 213 kg/h c) 188 kg/h d) 267 kg/h 33.1.2.1 (2118) (For this question use annex 033-3301A or Flight Planning Manual MEP1 Figure 3.1)A flight is to be made from one airport (elevation 3000 ft) to another in a multi engine piston aireroplane (MEP1). The cruising level will be FL 110. The temperature at FL 110 is ISA - 10° C. The temperature at the departure aerodrome is -1° C. Calculate the fuel to climb with mixture rich. a) 6 US gallon b) 9 US gallon c) 12 US gallon d) 3 US gallon

33.1.2.1 (2119) (For this question use annex 033-3302A or Flight Planning Manual MEP1 Figure 3.6)A flight is to be made to an airport, pressure altitude 3000 ft, in a multi engine piston aireroplane (MEP1). The forecast OAT for the airport is -1° C. The cruising level will be FL 110, where OAT is -10° C.Calculate the still air descent distance for:145 KIASRate of descent 1000 ft/minGears and flaps up a) 20 NM b) 29 NM c) 36 NM d) 25 NM 33.1.2.1 (2120) (For this question use annex 033-4736A or Flight Planning Manual SEP 1 Table 2.2.3)Given:FL 75OAT +10°CLean mixture2300 RPMFind:Fuel flow in gallons per hour (GPH) and TAS. a) 11.6 GPHTAS: 160 kt b) 11.6 GPHTAS: 143 kt c) 71.1 GPHTAS: 143 kt d) 68.5 GPHTAS: 160 kt 33.1.2.1 (2121) (For this question use annex 033-4737A or Flight Planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1)Given:FL 75OAT: +5°CDuring climb: average head wind component 20 ktTakeoff from MSL with the initial mass of 3 650 lbs.Find:Time and fuel to climb. a) 9 min.3,3 USG b) 10 min.3,6 USG c) 7 min.2,6 USG d) 9 min.2,7 USG 33.1.2.1 (2122) (For this question use annex 033-4738A or Flight Planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1)Given:FL 75OAT: +5°CDuring climb: average head wind component 20 ktTakeoff from MSL with the initial mass of 3 650 lbs.Find:Still air distance (NAM) and ground distance (NM) using the graph ""time, fuel, distance to climb"". a) 18 NAM.15 NM. b) 16 NAM.18 NM. c) 18 NAM.13 NM. d) 14 NAM.18 NM. 33.1.2.1 (2123) (For this question use annex 033-11704A)True Air speed: 170 ktWind in the area: 270°/40 ktAccording to the attached the navigation log, an aircraft performs a turn overhead BULEN to re-route to ARD via TGJ.The given wind conditions remaining constant.The fuel consumption during the turn is 20 litres.The total fuel consumption at position overhead ARD will be: a) 1 545 litres b) 1 182 litres c) 1 326 litres d) 1 600 litres

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33.1.2.1 (2124) In the cruise at FL 155 at 260 kt TAS, the pilot plans for a 500 feet/min descent in order to fly overhead MAN VOR at 2 000 feet (QNH 1030). TAS will remain constant during descent, wind is negligible, temperature is standard.The pilot must start the descent at a distance from MAN of: a) 120 NM b) 140 NM c) 110 NM d) 130 NM 33.1.2.1 (2125) An aircraft is in cruising flight at FL 095, IAS 155kt. The pilot intends to descend at 500 ft/min to arrive overhead the MAN VOR at 2 000 FT (QNH 1 030hPa). The TAS remains constant in the descent, wind is negligeable, temperature standard. At which distance from MAN should the pilot commence the descent? a) 48 NM b) 42 NM c) 40 NM d) 45 NM 33.1.2.1 (2126) (For this question use annex 033-9715A or Flight Planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1)Given: Take-off mass 3500 lbs, departure aerodrome pressure altitude 2500 ft, OAT +10°C, First cruising level: FL 140, OAT -5°CFind the time, fuel and still air distance to climb. a) 22 min, 6.7 GAL, 45 NAM b) 24 min, 7.7 GAL, 47 NAM c) 16.5 min, 4.9 GAL, 34.5 NAM d) 23 min, 7.7 GAL, 50 NAM 33.1.2.1 (2127) (For this question use annex 033-9716A or Flight Planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4)Given: Aeroplane mass at start-up 3663 lbs, Aviation gasoline (density 6 lbs/gal)-fuel load 74 gal, Take-off altitude sea level, Headwind 40 kt, Cruising altitude 8000 ft, Power setting full throttle 2300 RPM 20°C lean of peak EGTCalculate the range. a) 633 NM b) 844 NM c) 730 NM d) 547.5 NM 33.1.2.1 (2128) (For this question use annexes 033-12302A and 033-12302B or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.2 and 4.5.3.1)Given : Distance C - D : 3200 NM Long Range Cruise at FL 340 Temperature Deviation from ISA : +12°C Tailwind component : 50 kt Gross mass at C : 55 000 kgThe fuel required from C - D is : a) 14 500 kg b) 14 200 kg c) 17 800 kg d) 17 500 kg

33.1.2.1 (2129) (For this question use annexes 033-12303A and 033-12303B or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.2 and 4.5.3.1))Given : Distance C - D : 680NM Long Range Cruise at FL340 Temperature Deviation from ISA : 0° C Headwind component : 60 kt Gross mass at C : 44 700 kgThe fuel required from C - D is : a) 3700 kg b) 3400 kg c) 3100 kg d) 4000 kg 33.1.2.1 (2130) (For this question use annex 033-12304A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1)Given : Brake release mass : 58 000 kg Temperature : ISA + 15The fuel required to climb from an aerodrome at elevation 4000 ft to FL300 is : a) 1250 kg b) 1400 kg c) 1450 kg d) 1350 kg 33.1.2.1 (2131) (For this question use annex 033-12339A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.1C) For a flight of 2800 ground nautical miles the following apply :Head wind component 15 ktTemperature ISA + 15°CCruise altitude 35000 ftLanding mass 50000 kgThe (a) trip fuel and (b) trip time respectively are : a) (a) 17600 kg (b) 6 hr 50 min b) (a) 16200 kg (b) 6 hr 20 min c) (a) 17000 kg (b) 6 hr 10 min d) (a) 20000 kg (b) 7hr 00 min 33.1.2.1 (2132) (For this question use annex 033-12340A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.5)For a flight of 2800 ground nautical miles the following apply :Head wind component 20 ktTemperature ISA + 15°CBrake release mass 64700 kgThe (a) trip fuel, and (b) trip time respectively are : a) (a) 17000 kg(b) 6hr 45 min b) (a) 15800 kg(b) 6hr 15 min c) (a) 16200 kg(b) 6hr 20 min d) (a) 18400 kg(b) 7hr 00 min 33.1.2.1 (2133) (For this question use annex 033-12341A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.1C)For a flight of 1900 ground nautical miles the following apply :Head wind component 10 ktTemperature ISA -5°CTrip fuel available 15000 kgLanding mass 50000kgWhat is the minimum cruise level (pressure altitude) which may be planned ? a) 17000 ft b) 22000 ft c) 14000 ft d) 10000 ft

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33.1.2.1 (2134) (For this question use annex.033-12342A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.5) Given the following :Head wind component 50 ktTemperature ISA + 10°CBrake release mass 65000kgTrip fuel available 18000kgWhat is the maximum possible trip distance ? a) 2740 NM b) 3100 NM c) 3480 NM d) 2540 NM 33.1.2.1 (2135) (For this question use annex 033-12343A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.1C)Within the limits of the data given, a mean temperature increase of 30°C will affect the trip time by approximately : a) -5% b) 5% c) 8% d) -7% 33.1.2.1 (2136) (For this question use annex 033-12305A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1)Given : Brake release mass : 62 000 kg Temperature : ISA + 15°CThe fuel required for a climb from Sea Level to FL330 is : a) 1700 kg b) 1650 kg c) 1750 kg d) 1800 kg 33.1.2.1 (2137) (For this question use annexes 033-12306A and 033-12306B or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.2 and 4.5.3.3)Given : Distance B - C : Cruise Mach 0.78 at FL300 Temperature : - 52°C Headwind component : 50 kt Gross mass at B : 64 500 kgThe fuel required from B - C is : a) 20 500 kg b) 20 800 kg c) 17 100 kg d) 16 800 kg 33.1.2.1 (2138) (For this question use annexes 033-12307A and 033-12307B or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.2 and 4.5.3.3)Given : Distance B - C : 1200 NM Cruise Mach 0.78 at FL300 Temperature Deviation from ISA : -14°C Tailwind component : 40 kt Gross mass at B : 50 200 kgThe fuel required from B - C is : a) 6150 kg b) 5850 kg c) 7300 kg d) 7050 kg 33.1.2.1 (2139) (For this question use annexes 033-12308A and 033-12308B or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.2 and 4.5.3.4)Given : Distance C - D : 540 NM Cruise 300

KIAS at FL 210 Temperature Deviation from ISA : +20°C Headwind component : 50 kt Gross mass at C : 60 000 kgThe fuel required from C to D is : a) 4620 kg b) 4200 kg c) 3350 kg d) 3680 kg 33.1.2.1 (2140) (For this question use annexes 033-12309A and 033-12309B or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.2 and 4.5.3.4)Given : Distance B - C : 350 NM Cruise 300 KIAS at FL 210 Temperature : - 40°C Tailwind component : 70 kt Gross mass at B : 53 200 kgThe fuel required from B - C is : a) 1810 kg b) 1940 kg c) 2800 kg d) 2670 kg 33.1.2.1 (2141) (For this question use annex 033-12344A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.1C) For a flight of 2000 ground nautical miles, cruising at 30000 ft, within the limits of the data given, a headwind component of 25 kt will affect the trip time by approximately : a) +7.6% b) +5.3% c) +2.3% d) -3.6% 33.1.2.1 (2142) (For this question use annex 033-12345A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.5)Given a trip time of about 9 hours, within the limits of the data given, a temperature decrease of 30°C will affect the trip time by approximately : a) 7% b) 3% c) -4% d) -10% 33.1.2.1 (2143) (For the question use annex 033-12346A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.1C)For a flight of 2800 ground nautical miles the following apply :Tail wind component 45ktTemperature ISA - 10°CCruise altitude 29000ftLanding mass 55000kgThe (a) trip fuel (b) trip time respectively are : a) (a) 17100kg(b) 6hr 07 min b) (a) 18000kg(b)5hr 50 min c) (a) 20000kg(b) 6hr 40 min d) (a) 16000kg(b) 6hr 25 min 33.1.2.1 (2144) (For this question use annex 033-12347A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.5)For a flight of 3500 ground nautical miles, the following apply :Tail wind component 50 ktTemperature ISA +10°CBrake release mass 65000kgThe (a) trip fuel and (b) trip time respectively are :

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a) (a) 18100 kg(b) 7hr 20 min b) (a) 15800 kg(b) 6hr 00 min c) (a) 21800 kg(b) 9hr 25 min d) (a) 19000 kg(b) 7hr 45min 33.1.2.1 (2145) (For this question use annex 033-12348A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.5) The following apply:Temperature ISA +15°CBrake release mass 62000kgTrip time 5hr 20 minWhat is the trip fuel ? a) 13500kg b) 13000kg c) 13200kg d) 13800kg 33.1.2.1 (2146) (For this question use annex 033-12349A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.1C) For a flight of 2400 ground nautical miles the following apply :Temperature ISA -10°CCruise altitude 29000ftLanding mass 45000kgTrip fuel available 16000kgWhat is the maximum headwind component which may be accepted ? a) 35 kt b) 15kt c) 70kt d) 0 33.1.2.1 (2147) (For this question use annex 033-12350A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.5) The following apply :Tail wind component 10ktTemperature ISA +10°CBrake release mass 63000kgTrip fuel available 20000kgWhat is the maximum possible trip distance ? a) 3740 NM b) 3640 NM c) 3500 NM d) 3250 NM 33.1.2.1 (2148) (For this question use annex 033-12351A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.5) For a flight of 2400 ground nautical miles the following apply :Tail wind 25ktTemperature ISA - 10°CBrake release mass 66000kgThe (a) trip fuel and (b) trip time respectively are : a) (a) 14000kg(b) 5hr 35 min b) (a) 15800kg(b)6hr 20 min c) (a) 14600kg(b) 5hr 45 min d) (a) 15000kg(b) 6hr 00 min 33.1.2.1 (2149) (For this question use annex 033-12352A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.1C) For a flight of 2400 ground nautical miles the following apply :Tail wind component 25 ktTemperature ISA -10°CCruise altitude 31000ftLanding mass 52000kgThe (a) trip fuel and (b) trip time respectively are : a) (a) 14200kg(b) 5 hr 30 min b) (a) 16200kg(b) 5 hr 45 min

c) (a) 13600kg(b) 6 hr 30 min d) (a) 12000kg(b) 5 hr 15 min 33.1.2.2 (2150) Given:Dry operating mass (DOM)= 33510 kgLoad= 7600 kgFinal reserve fuel= 983 kgAlternate fuel= 1100 kgContingency fuel 102 kgThe estimated landing mass at alternate should be : a) 42195 kg. b) 42093 kg. c) 42210 kg. d) 42312 kg. 33.1.2.2 (2151) Given:Dry operating mass (DOM)= 33000 kgLoad= 8110 kgFinal reserve fuel= 983 kgAlternate fuel= 1100 kgContingency fuel 102 kgThe estimated landing mass at alternate should be : a) 42195 kg. b) 41110 kg. c) 42210 kg. d) 42312 kg. 33.1.2.2 (2152) Given:Dry operating mass (DOM)= 33510 kgLoad= 7600 kgTrip fuel (TF)= 2040 kgFinal reserve fuel= 983 kgAlternate fuel= 1100 kgContingency fuel= 5% of trip fuelWhich of the listed estimated masses is correct? a) Estimated landing mass at destination= 43295 kg. b) Estimated take-off mass= 45233 kg. c) Estimated landing mass at destination= 43193 kg. d) Estimated take-off mass= 43295 kg. 33.1.2.2 (2153) (For this question use annex 033-12310A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.4)- HOLDING PLANNING The fuel required for 30 minutes holding, in a racetrack pattern, at PA 1500 ft, mean gross mass 45 000 kg, is : a) 1090 kg b) 1010 kg c) 1310 kg d) 2180 kg 33.1.2.2 (2154) (For this question use annex 033-12311A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.4)- HOLDING PLANNING)The fuel required for 45 minutes holding, in a racetrack pattern,at PA 5000 ft, mean gross mass 47 000 kg, is : a) 1635 kg b) 1090 kg c) 1690 kg d) 1125 kg 33.1.2.2 (2155) (For this question use annex 033-12312A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.6)Given: Distance to Alternate 450 NM Landing mass at Alternate : 45 000 kg

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Tailwind component : 50 ktThe Alternate fuel required is : a) 2500 kg b) 2750 kg c) 3050 kg d) 2900 kg 33.1.2.2 (2156) (For this question use annex 033-12313A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.6)Given : Distance to Alternate : 400 NM Landing mass at Alternate : 50 000kg Headwind component : 25 ktThe alternate fuel required is : a) 2800 kg b) 2550 kg c) 2900 kg d) 2650 kg 33.1.2.3 (2157) A public transport aeroplane with reciprocating engines,is flying from PARlS to LYON. The final reserve corresponds to: a) 45 minutes at holding speed b) 2 hours at cruise consumption c) 1 hour at holding speed d) 30 minutes at holding speed 33.1.2.3 (2158) In a flight plan when the destination aerodrome is A and the alternate aerodrome is B, the final reserve fuel for a turbojet engine aeroplane corresponds to: a) 30 minutes holding 1,500 feet above aerodrome B b) 30 minutes holding 2,000 feet above aerodrome B c) 15 minutes holding 2,000 feet above aerodrome A d) 30 minutes holding 1,500 feeI above aerodrome A 33.1.2.3 (2159) Following in-flight depressurisation, a turbine powered aeroplane is forced to divert to an en-route alternate airfield. If actual flight conditions are as forecast, the minimum quantity of fuel remaining on arrival at the airfield will be: a) at least equivalent to 30 minutes flying time b) at least equivalent to the quantity required to fly to another aerodrome in the event that weather conditions so require c) laid down by the operator, with the quantity being specified in the operating manual d) at least equivalent to 45 minutes flying time 33.1.2.4 (2160) The Trip Fuel for a jet aeroplane to fly from the departure aerodrome to the destination aerodrome is 5 350 kg. Fuel consumption in holding mode is 6 000 kg/ h. The quantity of fuel which is needed to carry out one go-around and land on the alternate airfield is 4 380 kg. The destination aerodrome has a single runway.What is the minimum quantity of fuel which should be on board at take-off? a) 13 000 kg b) 13 050 kg c) 12 700 kg d) 10 000 kg

33.1.2.4 (2161) For turbojet engine driven aeroplane, given:Taxi fuel 600 kgFuel flow for cruise 10 000 kg/hFuel flow for holding 8 000 kg/hAlternate fuel 10 200 kgPlanned flight time to destination 6 hForecast visibility at destination 2000 mThe minimum ramp fuel required is: a) 77 800 kg b) 76 100 kg c) 80 500 kg d) 79 200 kg 33.1.2.4 (2162) (For this question use annex 033-4622A or Flight Planning Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.3)A flight has to be made with a multi engine piston aeroplane (MEP 1). For the fuel calculations take 5 US gallons for the taxi, and an additional 13 minutes at cruise condition to account for climb and descent. Calculated time from overhead to overhead is 1h47min. Powersetting is 45%, 2600 RPM. Calculated reserve fuel is 30% of the trip fuel. FL 100. Temperature -5°C. Find the minimum block fuel. a) 47 US gallons. b) 37 US gallons. c) 60 US gallons. d) 470 US gallons. 33.1.2.4 (2163) (For this question use annex 033-4623A or Flight Planning Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.3)A flight has to be made with a multi engine piston aeroplane (MEP 1). For the fuel calculations take 5 US gallons for the taxi, and an additional 13 minutes at cruise condition to account for climb and descent. Calculated time overhead to overhead is 2h37min. Powersetting is 65%, 2500 RPM. Calculated reserve fuel is 30% of the trip fuel. FL 120. Temperature 1°C. Find the minimum block fuel. a) 91 US gallons. b) 86 US gallons. c) 76 US gallons. d) 118 US gallons. 33.1.2.4 (2164) (For this question use annex 033-11272A)The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data:. Take-off mass: 168 500 kg. Flight leg ground distance: 2 000 NM. Flight level FL 370, ""Long Range"" flight regime . Tailwind component at this level: 30 kt. Total anti-ice set on ""ON"". Fixed taxi fuel: 500 kg, final reserve: 2 000 kg. Ignore alternate fuel.The effects of climb and descent are not corrected for consumption.The prescribed quantity of trip fuel for the flight leg is: a) 20 500 kg b) 23 000 kg c) 22 500 kg d) 23 300 kg 33.1.2.5 (2165) Given:maximum allowable take-off mass 64 400 kg maximum landing mass 56 200 kg maximum zero fuel mass 53 000 kg dry operating mass 35 500 kg estimated load 14 500 kg estimated trip fuel 4 900kg minimum take-off fuel 7 400 kgFind the maximum allowable take-off fuel:

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a) 11 100 kg b) 11 400 kg c) 14 400 kg d) 8 600 kg 33.1.3.0 (2166) The fuel burn of an aircraft turbine engine is 220 l/h with a fuel density of 0,80. If the density is 0,75, the fuel burn will be: a) 235 l/h b) 206 l/h c) 220 l/h d) 176 l/h 33.1.3.1 (2167) During an IFR flight in a Beech Bonanza the fuel indicators show that the remaining amount of fuel is 100 lbs after 38 minutes. The total amount of fuel at departure was 160 lbs. For the alternate fuel, 30 lbs is necessary. The planned fuel for taxi is 13 lbs. Final reserve fuel is estimated at 50 lbs. If the fuel flow remains the same, how many minutes can be flown to the destination with the remaining fuel? a) 12 minutes. b) 63 minutes. c) 44 minutes. d) 4 minutes. 33.1.3.1 (2168) For a planned flight the calculated fuel is as follows:Flight time: 3h06minThe reserve fuel, at any time, should not be less than 30% of the remaining trip fuel.Taxi fuel: 8 kgBlock fuel: 118 kgHow much fuel should remain after 2 hours flight time? a) 30 kg trip fuel and 9 kg reserve fuel. b) 39 kg trip fuel and 12 kg reserve fuel. c) 27 kg trip fuel and 12 kg reserve fuel. d) 39 kg trip fuel and no reserve fuel. 33.1.3.1 (2169) For a planned flight the calculated fuel is as follows:Flight time: 2h42minThe reserve fuel, at any time, should not be less than 30% of the remaining trip fuel.Taxi fuel: 9 kgBlock fuel: 136 kgHow much fuel should remain after 2 hours flight time? a) 25 kg trip fuel and 8 kg reserve fuel. b) 33 kg trip fuel and 10 kg reserve fuel. c) 23 kg trip fuel and 10 kg reserve fuel. d) 33 kg trip fuel and no reserve fuel. 33.1.3.2 (2170) A VFR flight planned for a Piper Seneca III. At a navigational checkpoint the remaining usable fuel in tanks is 60 US gallons. The alternate fuel is 12 US gallons. According to the flight plan the remaining flight time is 1h35min. Calculate the highest rate of consumption possible for the rest of the trip. a) 30.3 US gallons/hour

b) 33.0 US gallons/hour c) 37.9 US gallons/hour d) 21.3 US gallons/hour 33.1.3.2 (2171) A multi engine piston aeroplane is on an IFR flight. The fuel plan gives a trip fuel of 65 US gallons. The alternate fuel, final reserve included, is 17 US gallons. Contingency fuel is 5% of the trip fuel. The usable fuel at departure is 93 US gallons. At a certain moment the fuel consumed according to the fuel gauges is 40 US gallons and the distance flown is half of the total distance. Assume that fuel consumption doesn't change. Which statement is right ? a) The remaining fuel is not sufficient to reach the destination with reserves intact b) At the destination there will still be 30 US gallons in the tanks c) At departure the reserve fuel was 28 US gallons d) At destination the required reserves remain intact. 33.1.3.4 (2172) Minimum planned take-off fuel is 160 kg (30% total reserve fuel is included). Assume the groundspeed on this trip is constant. When the aeroplane has done half the distance the remaining fuel is 70 kg. Is diversion to a nearby alternate necessary? a) Diversion to a nearby alternate is necessary, because the remaining fuel is not sufficient. b) Diversion to a nearby alternate is not necessary, because the reserve fuel has not been used completely. c) Diversion to a nearby alternate is not necessary, because it is allowed to calculate without reserve fuel. d) Diversion to a nearby alternate is necessary, unless the captain decides to continue on his own responsability. 33.1.3.4 (2173) After flying for 16 min at 100 kt TAS with a 20 kt tail wind component, you have to return to the airfield of departure. You will arrive after: a) 24 min b) 20 min c) 10 min 40 sec d) 16 min 33.1.4.1 (2174) During a flight at night a position has to be reported to ATC. The aeroplane is at a distance of 750 NM from the groundstation and at flight level 350. The frequency to be used is: a) 5649 kHz. b) 11336 kHz. c) 17286 kHz. d) 123.9 MHz. 33.1.4.1 (2175) (For this question use annex 033-9721A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6)Give the name and frequency of the Flight Information Service for an aeroplane in position (47°59'N,

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010°14'E). a) MÜNCHEN INFORMATION 126.95 MHz b) MÜNCHEN INFORMATION 120.65 MHz c) FRANKFURT INFORMATION 128.95 MHz d) MEMMINGEN INFORMATION 122.1 MHz 33.1.4.1 (2176) (For this question use annex 033-9726A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6)Give the frequency of STUTTGART ATIS. a) 126.125 MHz b) 135.775 MHz c) 112.250 MHZ d) 126.125 kHz 33.1.4.1 (2177) ((For this question use annex 033-9727A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6)Give the frequency of ZÜRICH VOLMET. a) 127.20 MHz b) 127.20 kHz c) 128.525 MHz d) 118.10 MHz 33.1.4.2 (2178) (For this question use annex 033-9728A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6)Which navigation aid is located in position 48°55'N, 009°20'E ? a) VOR/DME b) NDB c) TACAN d) VOR 33.1.4.2 (2179) (For this question use annex 033-9729A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6)Which navigation aid is located in position 48°23'N, 008°39'E? a) VOR b) NDB c) VOR/DME d) VORTAC 33.1.4.2 (2180) (For this question use annex 033-9730A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6)Which navigation aid is located in position 48°30'N, 007°34'E? a) VOR/DME b) NDB c) VOR d) TACAN

33.2.1.1 (2181) A repetitive flight plan (RPL) is filed for a scheduled flight: Paris-Orly to Angouleme, Paris Orly as alternate. Following heavy snow falls, Angouleme airport will be closed at the expected time of arrival. The airline decides before departure to plan a re-routing of thatflight to Limoges. a) The RPL must be cancelled for that day and a specific flight plan has to be filed. b) The airline's ""Operations "" Department has to tansmit a change in the RPL at the ATC office, at least half an hour before the planned time of departure. c) It is not possible to plan another destination and the fIight has to be simply cancelled that day (scheduled flight and not chartered). d) The pilot-in-command must advise ATC of his intention to divert to Limoges at least 15 minutes before the planned time of arrival. 33.2.1.1 (2182) A ""current flight plan"" is a : a) filed flight plan with amendments and clearance included. b) filed flight plan. c) flight plan with the correct time of departure. d) flight plan in the course of which radio communication should be practised between aeroplane and ATC. 33.2.1.1 (2183) Which of the following statements regarding filing a flight plan is correct? a) In case of flow control the flight plan should be filed at least three hours in advance of the time of departure. b) Any flight plan should be filed at least 10 minutes before departure. c) A flight plan should be filed when a national FIR boundary will be crossed. d) A flying college can file repetitive flight plan for VFR flights. 33.2.1.1 (2184) In an ATS flight plan, Item 15 (route), a cruising pressure altitude of 32000 feet would be entered as : a) F320 b) FL320 c) S3200 d) 32000 33.2.1.1 (2185) When an ATS flight plan is submitted for a flight outside designated ATS routes, points included in Item 15 (route) should not normally be at intervals of more than : a) 30 minutes flying time or 370 km b) 20 minutes flying time or 150 km c) 15 minutes flying time or 100 km d) 1 hour flying time or 500 km 33.2.1.1 (2186) In the ATS flight plan Item 15, a cruising speed of 470 knots will be entered as : a) N0470 b) KN470

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c) 0470K d) N470 33.2.1.1 (2187) In the ATS flight plan Item 13, in a flight plan submitted before departure, the departure time entered is the : a) estimated off-block time b) estimated time over the first point en route c) estimated take-off time d) allocated slot time 33.2.1.1 (2188) In the ATS flight plan Item 15 (Cruising speed), when not expressed as a Mach number, cruising speed is expressed as : a) TAS b) IAS c) CAS d) Groundspeed 33.2.1.1 (2189) For a repetitive flight plan (RPL) to be used, flights must take place on a regular basis on at least : a) 10 occasions b) 20 occasions c) 30 occasions d) 50 occasions 33.2.1.1 (2190) In the ATS flight plan Item 10 (equipment), the letter to indicate the carriage of a serviceable transponder - mode A (4 digits-4096 codes) and mode C, is : a) C b) B c) A d) P 33.2.1.1 (2191) (For this question use annex 033-11261A)Prior to an IFR flight, when filling in the ICAO flight plan, the time information which should be entered in box 13: ""Time"" is: a) estimated off-block time. b) planned take-off time. c) planned engine start time. d) the time of flight plan filing. 33.2.1.1 (2192) (For this question use annex 033-11262A)Prior to an IFR flight, when filling in the ICAO flight plan, the time information which should be entered in box 16: ""Total estimated time"" is the time elapsed from: a) take-off until reaching the IAF (Initial Approach Fix) of the destination aerodrome. b) taxi-out prior to take-off until taxiing completion after landing.

c) take-off until landing. d) taxiing until the IAF (Initial Approach Fix) of the destination aerodrome. 33.2.1.1 (2193) (For this question use annex 033-12275A)In the ATS flight plan Item 10, ""standard equipment"" is considered to be : a) VHF RTF, ADF, VOR and ILS b) VHF RTF, ADF, VOR and transponder c) VHF RTF, VOR, ILS and transponder d) VHF RTF, VOR, ILS and transponder 33.2.1.1 (2194) (For this question use annex 033-12276A)In the ATS flight plan Item 15, for a flight along a designated route, where the departure aerodrome is not on or connected to that route : a) the letters ""DCT"" should be entered, followed by the point of joining the ATS route b) it is necessary only to give the first reporting point on that route c) the words ""as cleared"" should be entered d) it is not necessary to indicate the point of joining that route as it will be obvious to the ATS unit. 33.2.1.1 (2195) (For this question use annex 033-12277A)In the event that SELCAL, is prescribed by an appropriate authority, in which section of the ATS flight plan will the SELCAL code be entered ? a) OTHER INFORMATION b) EQUIPMENT c) ROUTE d) AIRCRAFT IDENTIFICATION 33.2.1.1 (2196) An aircraft has a maximum certificated take-off mass of 137000 kg but is operating at take-off mass 135000 kg. In Item 9 of the ATS flight plan its wake turbulence category is : a) heavy ""H"" b) heavy/medium ""H/M"" c) medium ""M"" d) medium plus ""M+"" 33.2.1.1 (2197) For the purposes of Item 9 (Wake turbulence category) of the ATS flight plan, an aircraft with a maximum certificated take-off mass of 62000 kg is : a) medium ""M"" b) heavy ""H"" c) light ""L"" d) unclassified ""U"" 33.2.1.1 (2198) (For this question use annex 033-12280A)When completing Item 9 of the ATS flight plan, if there is no appropriate aircraft designator, the following should be

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entered : a) ""ZZZZ"" followed by an entry in Item 18 b) ""XXXX"" followed by an entry in Item 18 c) the most descriptive abbreviation d) ""NONE"" 33.2.1.1 (2199) (For this question use annex 033-12281A)Item 9 of the ATS flight plan includes ""NUMBER AND TYPE OF AIRCRAFT"". In this case ""NUMBER"" means : a) the number of aircraft flying in a group b) the registration number of the aircraft c) the number of aircraft which will separately be using a repetitive flight plan (RPL) d) the ICAO type designator number as set out in ICAO Doc 8643 33.2.1.1 (2200) When completing an ATS flight plan, an elapsed time (Item 16) of 1 hour 55 minutes should be entered as : a) 155 b) 1H55 c) 115M d) 115 33.2.1.1 (2201) When completing an ATS flight plan for a European destination, clock times are to be expressed in : a) UTC b) Local mean time c) local standard time d) Central European Time 33.2.1.1 (2202) In the ATS flight plan, for a non-scheduled flight which of the following letters schould be entered in Item 8 (Type of Flight) : a) N b) N/S c) G d) X 33.2.1.1 (2203) (For this question use annex 033-12285A)In the ATS flight plan item 7, for a radio equipped aircraft, the identifier must always : a) be the RTF callsign to be used b) include the aircraft registration marking c) include the operating agency designator d) include an indication of the aircraft type 33.2.1.1 (2204) In the ATS flight plan item 15, it is necessary to enter any point at which a change of cruising speed takes place. For this purpose a ""change of speed"" is defined as : a) 5% TAS or 0.01 Mach or more b) 10 % TAS or 0.05 Mach or more

c) 20 km per hour or 0.1 Mach or more d) 20 knots or 0.05 Mach or more 33.2.1.1 (2205) In the ATS flight plan item 15, when entering a route for which standard departure (SID) and standard arrival (STAR) procedures exist : a) both should be entered in the ATS plan where appropriate b) SIDs should be entered but not STARs c) STARS should be entered but not SIDs d) neither SID nor STAR should be entered 33.2.1.1 (2206) (For this question use annex 033-12289A)In the ATS flight plan Item 19, emergency and survival equipment carried on the flight should be indicated by : a) crossing out the box relevant to any equipment not carried b) circling the relevant box c) placing a tick in the relevant box d) listing the items carried on the ""REMARKS"" line 33.2.1.1 (2207) When completing an ATS flight plan for a flight commencing under IFR but possibly changing to VFR, the letters entered in Item 8 (FLIGHT RULES) would be : a) Y b) N/S c) G d) X 33.2.1.1 (2208) In the ATS flight plan Item 19, if the number of passengers to be carried is not known when the plan is ready for filing : a) ""TBN"" (to be notified) may be entered in the relevant box b) the plan should be filed with the relevant box blank c) an estimate may be entered but that number may not subsequently be exceeded d) the plan may not be filed until the information is available 33.2.1.1 (2209) In an ATS flight plan Item 15, in order to define a position as a bearing and distance from a VOR, the group of figures should consist of : a) VOR ident, magnetic bearing and distance in nautical miles b) VOR ident, true bearing and distance in kilometres c) VOR ident, magnetic bearing and distance in kilometres d) full name of VOR, true bearing and distance in kilometres 33.2.1.1 (2210) An aircraft plans to depart London at 1000 UTC and arrive at Munich (EDDM) at 1215 UTC. In the ATS flight plan Item 16 (destination/EET) should be entered with : a) EDDM 0215 b) EDDM 1415 c) EDDM 1215 d) EDDM 2H15

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33.2.1.1 (2211) In an ATS flight plan Item 15 (route), in terms of latitude and longitude, a significant point at 41°35' north 4°15' east should be entered as : a) 4135N00415E b) 41°35' N 04° 15'E c) N04135E0415 d) N4135 E00415 33.2.2.0 (2212) An aeroplane is flying from an airport to another.In cruise, the calibrated airspeed is I50 kt, true airspeed 180 kt, average groundspeed 210 kt, the speed box on the filed flight plan shall be filled as follows: a) N0180 b) K0210 c) K0180 d) K0150 33.2.2.0 (2213) On a flight plan you are required to indicate in the box marked ""speed"" the planned speed for the first part of the cruise or for the entire cruise.This speed is: a) The true airspeed b) The equivalent airspeed c) The indicated airspeed d) The estimated ground speed 33.2.2.0 (2214) In the appropriate box of a flight plan form, concerning equipment, the letter to be used to indicate that the aircraft is equipped with a mode A 4096 codes transponder with altitude reporting capability is : a) C b) P c) S d) A 33.2.2.0 (2215) In the appropriate box of a flight plan form, corresponding to the estimated time of departure, the time indicated is that at which the aircraft intends to : a) go off blocks b) take-off c) start-up d) pass the departure beacon 33.2.2.0 (2216) When a pilot fills in a flight plan, he must indicate the wake turbulence category. This category is a function of which mass? a) maximum certified take-off mass b) estimated take-off mass c) maximum certified landing mass d) actual take-off mass

33.2.2.0 (2217) If your destination airport has no ICAO indicator, in the appropriate box of your flight plan, you write: a) ZZZZ b) AAAA c) XXXX d) //// 33.2.2.0 (2218) The cruising speed to write in the appropriate box of a flight plan is: a) true air speed b) indicated air speed c) ground speed d) calibrated air speed 33.2.2.0 (2219) In the appropriate box of a flight plan, for endurance, one must indicate the time corresponding to: a) the total usable fuel on board b) the required fuel for the flight c) the required fuel for the flight plus the alternate and 45 minutes d) the total usable fuel on board minus reserve fuel 33.2.2.0 (2220) The maximum permissible take-off mass of an aircraft for the L wake turbulence category on a flight plan is: a) 7 000 kg b) 2 700 kg c) 5 700 kg d) 10 000 kg 33.2.2.1 (2221) Given: Maximum allowable take-off mass 64 400 kg, maximum landing mass 56200 kg, maximum zero fuel mass 53 000 kg, dry operating mass 35 500 kg, estimated load 14 500 kg, estimated trip fuel 4 900 kg, minimum take-off fuel 7 400 kg.Find: maximum additional load a) 3 000 kg b) 4 000 kg c) 7 000 kg d) 5 600 kg 33.2.2.1 (2222) The navigation plan reads:Trip fuel: 100 kgFlight time: 1h35minTaxi fuel: 3 kgBlock fuel: 181 kgThe endurance on the ICAO flight plan should read: a) 2h 49min b) 1h 35min c) 2h 04min d) 2h 52min 33.2.2.1 (2223) The navigation plan reads:Trip fuel: 136 kgFlight time: 2h45minCalculated reserve

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fuel: 30% of trip fuelFuel in tank is minimum (no extra fuel on board)Taxi fuel: 3 kgThe endurance on the ICAO flight plan should read: a) 3h34min b) 2h45min c) 2h49min d) 3h38min 33.2.3.1 (2224) How many hours in advance of departure time should a flight plan be filed in the case of flights into areas subject to air traffic flow management (ATFM)? a) 3:00 hours. b) 1:00 hour. c) 0:30 hours. d) 0:10 hours. 33.2.3.1 (2225) You have a flight plan IFR from Amsterdam to London. In the flight plan it is noted that you will deviate from the ATS route passing the FIR boundary Amsterdam/London. The airway clearance reads: Cleared to London via flight planned route.Which of the following statements is correct? a) The route according to the flight plan is accepted. b) The filed deviation is not accepted. c) You will get a separate clearance for the deviation. d) It is not allowed to file such a flight plan. 33.2.3.1 (2226) The planned departure time from the parking area is 1815 UTCThe estimated takeoff time is 1825 UTCThe IFR flight plan must be filed with ATC at the latest at: a) 1715 UTC b) 1725 UTC c) 1745 UTC d) 1755 UTC 33.2.3.1 (2227) It is possible, in flight, to:1 - file an IFR flight plan2 - modify an active IFR or VFR flight plan3 - cancel an active VFR flight plan4 - close an active VFR flight planWhich of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements? a) 1 - 2 - 3 - 4 b) 2001-02-04 c) 1 - 2 - 3 d) 2 - 3 - 4 33.2.3.1 (2228) For a flight plan filed before the flight, the indicated time of departure is: a) the estimated off-block time b) the time at which the flight plan is filed. c) the time of take-off. d) the time overhead the first reporting point after take-off. 33.2.3.3 (2229) From the options given below select those flights which require flight plan

notification:I - Any Public Transport flight.2 - Any IFR flight3 - Any flight which is to be carried out in regions which are designated to ease the provision of the Alerting Service or the operations of Search and Rescue.4 - Any cross-border flights5 - Any flight which involves overflying water a) 2+4 b) 1+5 c) 1+2+3 d) 3+4+5 33.2.4.0 (2230) If a pilot lands at an aerodrome other than the destination aerodrome specified in the flight plan, he must ensure that the ATS unit at the destination aerodrome is informed within a certain number of minutes of his planned ETA at destination. This number of minutes is: a) 30 b) 15 c) 10 d) 45 33.2.5.1 (2231) When an ATS flight plan has been submitted for a controlled flight, the flight plan should be amended or cancelled in the event of the off-block time being delayed by : a) 30 minutes or more b) 45 minutes or more c) 60 minutes or more d) 90 minutes or more 33.2.5.2 (2232) During an IFR flight TAS and time appear to deviate from the data in the flight plan. The minimum deviations, that should be reported to ATC in order to conform to PANS-RAC, are: a) TAS 5% and time 3 minutes. b) TAS 3% and time 3 minutes. c) TAS 5 kt and time 5 minutes. d) TAS 10 kt and time 2 minutes. 33.2.5.2 (2233) An aeroplane is on an IFR flight. The flight is to be changed from IFR to VFR. Is it possible? a) Yes, the pilot in command must inform ATC using the phrase ""cancelling my IFR flight"". b) No, you have to remain IFR in accordance to the filed flight plan. c) No, only ATC can order you to do this. d) Yes, but only with permission from ATC. 33.3.0.0 (2234) An executive pilot is to carry out a flight to a French aerodrome, spend the night there and return the next day. Where will he find the information concerning parking and landing fees ? a) in the FAL section of the French Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP)

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b) in the AGA chapter of the French Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) c) in the GEN chapter of the French Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) d) by telephoning the aerodrome's local chamber of commerce, this type of information not being published 33.3.1.1 (2235) (For this question use annex 033-9722A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6)Flying from SAULGAU airport (48°02'N, 009°31'E) to ALTENSTADT airport (47°50'N, 010°53'E). Find magnetic course and the distance. a) Magnetic course 102°, distance 56 NM b) Magnetic course 282°, distance 56 NM c) Magnetic course 102°, distance 82 NM d) Magnetic course 078°, distance 82 NM 33.3.1.1 (2236) (For this question use annex 033-9723A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6)Flying from ERBACH airport (48°21'N, 009°55'E) to POLTRINGEN airport (48°33'N, 008°57'E). Find magnetic course and the distance. a) Magnetic course 287°, distance 41 NM b) Magnetic course 252°, distance 41 NM c) Magnetic course 108°, distance 60 NM d) Magnetic course 287°, distance 60 NM 33.3.1.1 (2237) (For this question use annex 033-9724A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6)Flying from Position SIGMARINGEN (48°05'N, 009°13'E) to BIBERACH airport (48°07'N, 009°46'E). Find magnetic course and the distance. a) Magnetic course 086°, distance 22 NM b) Magnetic course 093°, distance 41 NM c) Magnetic course 267°, distance 22 NM d) Magnetic course 086°, distance 32 NM 33.3.1.1 (2238) (For this question use annex 033-12353A or Route Manual chart 5 AT(HI))On airway PTS P from Vigra (62°334N 006°02'E), the initial great circle grid course is : a) 344 b) 353 c) 347 d) 350 33.3.1.1 (2239) (For this question use annex 033-12354A or Route Manual chart NAP)On a direct great circle course from Shannon (52°43' N 008°53'W) to Gander (48°54'N054°32'W), the (a) average true course, and(b) distance, are : a) (a) 262°(b) 1720 NM b) a) 281°(b) 2730 NM c) a) 244°(b) 1520 NM d) a) 281°(b) 1877 NM

33.3.1.1 (2240) (For this question use annex 033-12355A or Route Manual chart 5 AT(HI))The initial great circle true course from Keflavik (64°00'N 022°36' W) to Vigra (62°33'N 006°02'E) measures 084°. On a polar enroute chart where the grid is aligned with the 000° meridian the initial grid course will be : a) 106° b) 080° c) 096° d) 066° 33.3.1.1 (2241) (For this question use annex 033-12356A or Route Manual chart 5 AT(HI))The initial great circle course from position A (80°00'N 170°00'E) to position B (75°00'N 011°E) is 177° (G). The final grid course at position B will be : a) 177° (G) b) 194° (G) c) 172° (G) d) 353° (G) 33.3.2.1 (2242) A descent is planned from 7500 ft MSL so as to arrive at 1000 ft MSL 6 NM from a VORTAC.With a GS of 156 kts and a rate of descent of 800 ft/min. The distance from the VORTAC when descent is started is : a) 27,1 NM b) 15,0 NM c) 11,7 NM d) 30,2 NM 33.3.2.1 (2243) A sector distance is 450 NM long. The TAS is 460 kt. The wind component is 50 kt tailwind. What is the still air distance? a) 406 Nautical Air Miles (NAM) b) 499 Nautical Air Miles (NAM) c) 414 Nautical Air Miles (NAM) d) 511 Nautical Air Miles (NAM) 33.3.2.1 (2244) The still air distance in the climb is 189 Nautical Air Miles (NAM) and time 30 minutes. What ground distance would be covered in a 30 kt head wind? a) 174 NM b) 203 NM c) 188 NM d) 193 NM 33.3.3.1 (2245) (For this question use annex 033-3327A or Flight Planning Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.2)A flight is to be made in a multi engine piston aeroplane (MEP1). The cruising level will be 11000ft. The outside air temperature at FL is -15 ° C. The usable fuel is 123 US gallons. The power is set to economic cruise. Find the range in NM with 45 min reserve fuel at 45 % power. a) 752 NM

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b) 852 NM c) 610 NM d) 602 NM 33.3.3.1 (2246) (For this question use annex 033-4735A or Flight Planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.5)Given:FL 75Lean mixtureFull throttle2300 RPMTake-off fuel: 444 lbsTake-off from MSLFind:Endurance in hours. a) 5:12 b) 5:20 c) 4:42 d) 5:23 33.3.3.1 (2247) (For this question use annex 033-9732A or Flight Planning Manual SEP1 Figure 2.2 Table 2.2.2)A flight has to be made with the single engine sample aeroplane. For the fuel calculation allow 10 lbs fuel for start up and taxi, 3 minutes and 1 gallon of additional fuel to allow for the climb, 10 minutes and no fuel correction for the descent.Planned flight time (overhead to overhead) is 03 hours and 12 minutes.Reserve fuel 30% of the trip fuel.Power setting is 25 in.HG (or full throttle), 2100 RPM, 20°C lean.Flight level is 70 and the OAT 11°C.The minimum block fuel is: a) 283 lbs b) 268 lbs c) 252 lbs d) 215 lbs 33.3.3.1 (2248) (For this question use annex 033-9733A or Flight Planning Manual SEP1 Figure 2.2 Table 2.2.3)A flight has to be made with the single engine sample aeroplane. For the fuel calculation allow 10 lbs fuel for start up and taxi, 3 minutes and 1 gallon of additional fuel to allow for the climb, 10 minutes and no fuel correction for the descent.Planned flight time (overhead to overhead) is 02 hours and 37 minutes.Reserve fuel 30% of the trip fuel.Power setting is 23 in.HG (or full throttle), 2300 RPM, 20°C lean.Flight level is 50 and the OAT -5°C.The minimum block fuel is: a) 265 lbs b) 208 lbs c) 270 lbs d) 250 lbs 33.3.6.1 (2249) (For this question use annex 033-9704A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.4 )Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London for the twin jet aeroplane. Given: Estimated Landing Mass 49700 kg, FL 280, W/V 280°/40 kt, Average True Course 320°, Procedure for descent .74 M/250 KIAS Determine the distance from the top of descent to London (elevation 80 ft). a) 76 NM b) 87 NM c) 97 NM d) 65 NM

33.3.6.1 (2250) (For this question use annex 033-9705A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.4 )Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London for the twin jet aeroplane. Given: Estimated Landing Mass 49700 kg, FL 280, W/V 280°/40 kt, Average True Course 320°, Procedure for descent .74 M/250 KIAS Determine the time from the top of descent to London (elevation 80 ft). a) 19 min b) 10 min c) 17 min d) 8 min 33.3.6.1 (2251) (For this question use annex 033-9706A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.4 )Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London for the twin jet aeroplane. Given: Estimated Landing Mass 49700 kg, FL 280, W/V 280°/40 kt, Average True Course 320°, Procedure for descent .74 M/250 KIAS Determine the fuel consumption from the top of descent to London (elevation 80 ft). a) 273 kg b) 263 kg c) 210 kg d) 320 kg 33.4.1.1 (2252) (For this question use annex 033-12320A )Which best describes the significant cloud forecast for the area east of Tunis (36°N010°E) ? a) 5 to 7 oktas CU and AC base below FL100 tops FL180 b) 3 to 4 oktas CU and AC base below FL100 tops FL180 c) 5 to 7 oktas CU and AC base FL100 tops FL180 d) 3 to 4 oktas CU and AC base FL100 tops FL160 33.4.1.1 (2253) (For this question use annex.033-12321A )Which best describes the maximum intensity of icing, if any, at FL160 in the vicinity of BERLIN (53° N013°E) ? a) moderate b) severe c) light d) nil 33.4.1.1 (2254) (For this question use annex 033-12322A )Which describes the intensity of icing, if any, at FL 150 in the vicinity of TOULOUSE (44° N 01°E) ? a) moderate or severe b) moderate c) light d) nil 33.4.1.1 (2255) (For this question use annex 033-12323A )The surface system over VIENNA (48°N016°E) is a a) cold front moving east b) warm front moving north

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c) stationary occlued front d) cold front moving west 33.4.1.1 (2256) (For this question use annex 033-12324A )In the vicinity of SHANNON (52° N009°W) the tropopause is at about FL a) 360 b) 350 c) 300 d) 270 33.4.1.1 (2257) (For this question use annex 033-12325A )Which best describes the significant cloud forecast over TOULOUSE (44°N001°E) ? a) broken AC/CU base below FL100 tops FL150, embedded isolated CB base below FL100 tops FL270 b) well separated CB base FL100 tops to FL 270 c) isolated CB embedded in layer cloud, surface to FL270 d) 5 to 7 oktas CU and AC base below FL100 tops to FL270 33.4.1.1 (2258) (For this question use annex 033-12326A )Which describes the maximum intensity of turbulence, if any, forecast for FL260 over TOULOUSE (44°N001°E) ? a) severe b) moderate c) light d) nil 33.4.1.1 (2259) (For this question use annex 033-12327A )The maximum wind velocity (°/kt) immediately north of TUNIS (36°N010°E) is a) 190/95 b) 280/110 c) 250/85 d) 180/105 33.4.1.1 (2260) (For this question use annex 033-12328A )Over LONDON (51°N000°E/W), the lowest FL listed which is unaffected by CAT is: a) 230 b) 270 c) 310 d) 360 33.4.1.1 (2261) (For this question use annex 033-11193A)What is the mean temperature deviation (°C) from the ISA over 50°N 010°W ? a) -2 b) 2 c) 9 d) 13

33.4.1.1 (2262) (For this question use annex 033-11202A)Which of the following flight levels, if any, is forecast to be clear of significant cloud, icing and CAT along the marked route from SHANNON (53°N 10°W) to BERLIN (53°N 13°E) ? a) FL250 b) FL 210 c) FL290 d) None 33.4.1.1 (2263) (For this question use annex 033-11181A)Which describes the worst hazard, if any, that could be associated with the type of feature at 38°N 015°E ? a) Engine flame out and windscreen damage b) Severe attenuation in the HF R/T band c) Reduced visibility d) There is no hazard 33.4.1.1 (2264) (For this question use annex 033-11182A)The surface weather system over England (53°N 002°W) is a) an occluded front moving east b) a depression moving north c) a warm front moving southeast d) a cold front moving east 33.4.1.1 (2265) (For this question use annex 033-11183A)In the vicinity of PARIS (49°N 003°E) the tropopause is at about a) FL400 b) FL340 c) FL350 d) FL380 33.4.1.1 (2266) (For this question use annex 033-11184A)Which describes the maximum intensity of icing, if any, at FL180 in the vicinity of CASABLANCA (33°N 008°W) ? a) Severe b) Moderate c) Light d) Nil 33.4.1.1 (2267) (For this question use annex 033-11185A)Which best describes the significant cloud, if any, forecast for the area southwest of BODO (67°N 014°E) a) 5 to 7 oktas CU and CB base below FL100, tops FL180 b) 5 to 7 oktas CU and CB base FL100, tops FL180 c) 3 to 7 oktas CU and CB base below FL100, tops FL180 d) Nil 33.4.1.1 (2268) (For this question use annex 033-11186A)Which best describes be maximum

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intensity of icing, if any, at FL150 in the vicinity of BUCHAREST (45°N 026°E) ? a) Moderate b) Light c) Severe d) Nil 33.4.1.1 (2269) (For this question use annex 033-11187A)Which best describes the maximum intensity of CAT, if any, forecast for FL330 over BENGHAZI (32°N 020°E) ? a) Nil b) Light c) Moderate d) Severe 33.4.1.2 (2270) (For this question use annex 033-12314A )The W/V (°/kt) at 50°N015°W is: a) 290/75 b) 310/85 c) 310/75 d) 100/75 33.4.1.2 (2271) (For this question use annex 033-12315A)What mean temperature (°C) is likely on a true course of 270° from 025° E to 010°E at 45°N ? a) -50 b) -48 c) -52 d) -54 33.4.1.2 (2272) (For this question use annex 033-12316A )The W/V (°/kt) at 40°N 020°W is a) 310/40 b) 334/40 c) 135/40 d) 155/40 33.4.1.2 (2273) (For this question use annex 033-12317A )What is the temperature deviation (°C) from ISA over 50° N 010°E ? a) -10 b) -55 c) 2 d) 10 33.4.1.2 (2274) (For this question use annex 033-12318A)The W/V (°/kt) at 60° N015° W is a) 300/60 b) 300/70 c) 320/60 d) 115/60

33.4.1.2 (2275) (For this question use annex 033-12319A)The approximate mean wind component (kt) along true course 180° from 50°N to 40°N at 005° W is a) tail wind 55 kt b) tail wind 40 kt c) tail wind 70 kt d) headwind 55 kt 33.4.1.2 (2276) (For this question use annex 033-11191A)The wind direction and velocity (°/kt) at 60°N 015°W is a) 290/155 b) 320/155 c) 110/155 d) 290/185 33.4.1.2 (2277) (For this question use annex 033-11192A)The approximate mean wind component (kt) at Mach 0.78 along true course 270° at 50°N from 000° to 010°W is a) 40 kt headwind component b) 55 kt headwind component c) 35 kt tailwind component d) 25 kt tailwind component 33.4.1.2 (2278) (For this question use annex 033-11194A)The wind direction and velocity (°/kt) at 40°N 040°E is a) 330/75 b) 330/85 c) 150/75 d) 300/75 33.4.1.2 (2279) (For this question use annex 033-11201A)What mean temperature (°C) is likely on a course of 360° (T) from 40°N to 50°N at 040°E ? a) -47 b) -46 c) -49 d) -50 33.4.1.2 (2280) (For this question use annex 033-11188A)The maximum wind velocity (°/kt) shown in the vicinity of MUNICH (48°N 012°E) is : a) 300/140 b) 300/100 c) 300/160 d) 290/110 33.4.1.2 (2281) (For this question use annex 033-11189A)The wind velocity over ITALY is a) a maximum of 110 kt at FL380

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b) 130 kt at FL380 maximum velocity not shown on chart c) a maximum of 160 kt at FL 380 d) 110 kt at FL380 maximum velocity not shown on chart 33.4.1.2 (2282) (For this question use annex 033-11190A)The wind direction and velocity (°/kt) at 50°N 040°E is: a) 020/70 b) 350/70 c) 200/70 d) 020/80 33.4.1.3 (2283) (For this question use annex 033-12329A )What lowest cloud conditions (oktas/ft) are forecast for JOHANNESBURG/JAN SMUTS at 0300 UTC? a) 5 to 7 at 400 b) 3 to 4 at 800 c) 5 to 7 at 800 d) 3 to 4 at 400 33.4.1.3 (2284) (For this question use annex 033-12330A )The forecast period covered by the PARIS/CHARLES-DE-GAULLE TAFs totals (hours) a) 27 b) 9 c) 18 d) 20 33.4.1.3 (2285) (For this question use annex 033-12331A )The lowest cloud conditions (oktas/ft) at BORDEAUX/MERIGNAC at 1330 UTC were a) 1 to 2 at 3000 b) 1 to 4 at 3000 c) 3 to 4 at 2000 d) 3 to 4 at 800 33.4.1.3 (2286) (For this question use annex 033-12332A)The surface wind velocity (°/kt) at PARIS/CHARLES-DE-GAULLE at 1330 UTC was a) 270/04 b) 300/05 c) 270/08 d) 180/12 33.4.1.3 (2287) (For this question use annex 033-12333A )Which best describes the weather, if any, at LYON/SATOLAS at 1330 UTC ? a) light rain associated with thunderstorms b) frequent rain showers c) fog d) nil

33.4.1.3 (2288) (For this question use annex 033-11195A)What lowest cloud conditions (oktas/ft) are forecast for 1900 UTC at HAMBURG (EDDH) ? a) 5 to 7 at 500 b) 3 to 4 at 500 c) 5 to 7 at 1200 d) 5 to 7 at 2000 33.4.1.3 (2289) (For this question use annex 033-11196A)What minimum visibility (m) is forecast for 0600 UTC at LONDON LHR (EGLL) ? a) 1500 b) 2200 c) 5000 d) 10 33.4.1.3 (2290) (For this question use annex 033-11197A)Which affects the visibility forecast for 0000 UTC at LAHORE (OPLA) ? a) Smoke b) Dust c) Haze d) Mist 33.4.1.3 (2291) (For this question use annex 033-11198A)What is the earliest time (UTC), if any, that thunderstorms are forecast for DOHA (OTBD) ? a) 1000 b) 800 c) 600 d) Nil forecast 33.4.1.3 (2292) A METAR reads : SA1430 35002KY 7000 SKC 21/03 QI024 =Which of the following information is contained in this METAR ? a) temperature/dewpoint b) runway in use c) day/month d) period of validity 33.4.1.3 (2293) (For this question use annex 033-12334A )What is the earliest time (UTC), if any, that thunderstorms are forecast for TUNIS/CARTHAGE ? a) 1800 b) 1300 c) 800 d) nil 33.4.1.3 (2294) (For this question use annex 033-12335A )Which is the heaviest type of precipitation, if any, forecast for BORDEAUX/MERIGNAC at 1000 UTC ?

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a) light rain b) rain showers c) heavy rain associated with thunderstorms d) nil 33.4.1.3 (2295) (For this question use annex 033-12336A )What maximum surface windspeed (kt) is forecast for BORDEAUX/MERIGNAC at 1600 UTC ? a) 30 b) 25 c) 10 d) 5 33.4.1.3 (2296) (For this question use annex 033-12337A )What minimum visibility is forecast for PARIS/CHARLES-DE-GAULLE at 2100 UTC ? a) 6000m b) 10km c) 8000m d) 2000m 33.4.1.3 (2297) (For this question use annex 033-12338A )Which best describes the weather, if any, forecast for JOHANNESBURG/JAN SMUTS at 0400 UTC? a) patches of fog b) rain associated with thunderstorms c) CAVOK d) mist and/or fog 33.4.2.1 (2298) (For this question use annex 033-3315A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAAEdition)An aeroplane has to fly from Salzburg (48°00.2'N 012°53.6'E) to Klagenfurt (46°37.5'N 014°33.8'E). Which statement is correct ? a) The airway UB5 can be used for flights to/from Klagenfurt and Salzburg. b) The airway UB5 cannot be used, there is one way traffic to the north. c) The airway UB5 is closed for southbound traffic above FL 200. d) The airway UB5 is closed in this direction except during the weekends. 33.4.2.1 (2299) (For this question use annex 033-10989A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAAEdition)Of the following, the preferred airways routing from FRANKFURT FFM 114.2 (50°03' N008°38'E) to KOKSY (51°06'N 002°39'E) above FL245, on a Wednesday is : a) UR10 NTM UB6 BUB ATS b) UG1 c) UB69 DINKI UB6 BUB ATS d) UG108 SPI UG1 33.4.2.1 (2300) (For this question use annex 033- 10990A or Route Manual chart E(HI)5 CAAEdition)Of the following, the preferred airways routing from MARTIGUES MTG

117.3 (43°23'N 005°05'E) to ST PREX SPR 113.9 (46°28'N 006°27'E) above FL245 is : a) UB282 DGN UB46 b) UB284 VILAR UB28 c) UB28 d) UA6 LSA UG52 33.4.2.1 (2301) (For this question use annex 033-10991A or Route Manual chart E(HI)5 CAAEdition)Of the following, the preferred airways routing from AMBOISE AMB 113.7 (47°26'N 001°04'E) to AGEN AGN (43°53°'N 000°52'E) above FL200 is: a) UA34 b) UB19 POI UB195 c) UH40 FOUCO UH20 PERIC UA34 d) UB19 CGC UA25 33.4.2.1 (2302) (For this question use annex 033- 10992A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAAEdition)Of the following, the preferred airways routing from CLACTON CLN 114.55 (51°51'N 001°09'E) to DINARD DIN 114.3 (48°35'N 002°05'W) above FL245 is: a) UB29 LAM UR1 ORTAC UR14 b) UR12 MID UA47 DPE UA475 SOKMU UH111 c) UR12 MID UR8 SAM UB11 BARLU UW115 d) UB29 LAM UR1 MID UA34 LILAN UR9 33.4.2.2 (2303) (For this question use annex 033-3313A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAAEdition)An aeroplane has to fly from Abbeville (50°08.1'N 001°51.3'E) to Biggin (51°19.8'N 000°00.2'E). What is the distance of this leg ? a) 100 NM b) 38 NM c) 64NM d) 62NM 33.4.2.2 (2304) (For this question use annex 033-3314A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAAEdition)An aeroplane has to fly from Abbeville (50°08.1'N 001°51.3'E) to Biggin (51°19.8'N 00°00.2'E). At Biggin you can find : 141°. This is : a) The magnetic great circle course from Biggin to Abbeville. b) The magnetic course to fly inbound to Biggin. c) The average true course of the great circle from Biggin to Abbeville. d) The radial, referenced to true north, of Biggin to fly inbound. 33.4.2.2 (2305) (For this question use annex 033-9702A or Route Manual SID chart 20-3 for PARIS Carles-de-Gaulle)Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London. Determine the distance of the departure route ABB 8A. a) 74.5 NM b) 72.5 NM c) 56 NM d) 83 NM

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33.4.2.2 (2306) (For this question use annex 033-9703A or Route Manual SID chart 20-3 for PARIS Charles-de-Gaulle) Planning an IFR-flight from Paris (Charles de Gaulle) RWY 27 to London. Given: Distance from PARIS Charles-de-Gaulle to top of climb 50 NMDetermine the distance from the top of climb (TOC) to ABB 116.6. a) 24.5 NM b) 33 NM c) 36.5 NM d) 31 NM 33.4.2.2 (2307) (For this question use annex 033-3908A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAAEdition)Planning a IFR flight from Paris Charles de Gaulle (N49 00.9 E002 36.9) to London Heathrow(N51 29.2 W000 27.9).Find the average true course from Paris to London. a) 322°. b) 142°. c) 330°. d) 343°. 33.4.2.2 (2308) (For this question use annex 033-3909A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAAEdition)Planning a IFR flight from Paris Charles de Gaulle (N49 00.9 E002 36.9) to London Heathrow (N51 29.2 W000 27.9).Determine the preplanning distance by calculating the direct distance plus 10%.The preplanning distance is: a) 207 NM. b) 188 NM. c) 308 NM. d) 218 NM. 33.4.2.2 (2309) (For this question use annexes 033-9707A, 033-9707B or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition, Instrument approach chart ILS DME Rwy 27R)Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London (Heathrow) via initial approach fix (IAF) Biggin VOR . Given: distance from top of descent (TOD) to Rwy 27R is 76 NMDetermine the distance from ABB 116.6 to TOD. a) 49 NM b) 60 NM c) 100 NM d) 55 NM 33.4.2.2 (2310) (For this question use annex 033-9709A or SID chart Paris Charles de Gaulle 20-3 )Planning an IFR-flight from Paris Charles de Gaulle to London. SID is ABB 8A. Assume Variation 3° W, TAS 430kts, W/V 280/40 and distance to top of climb 50NMDetermine the magnetic course, ground speed and wind correction angle from top of climb to ABB 116.6. a) MC 349°, GS 414 kt, WCA -5° b) MC 169°, GS 414 kt, WCA +5° c) MC 349°, GS 414 kt, WCA +5° d) MC 169°, GS 450 kt, WCA +4°

33.4.2.2 (2311) (For this question use annexes 033-9710A, 033-9710B and 033-9710C or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition, STAR 10-2 and Instrument approach chart 11-4 ILS DME Rwy 27R for London Heathrow ) Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London (Heathrow).Assume: STAR is BIG 2A, Variation 5° W, en-route TAS 430 kts, W/V 280/40, descent distance 76NM. Determine the magnetic course, ground speed and wind correction angle from ABB 116.6(N50 08.1 E001 51.3) to top of descent. a) MC 321°, GS 396 kt, WCA -3° b) MC 141°, GS 396 kt, WCA +3° c) MC 319°, GS 396 kt, WCA -3° d) MC 141°, GS 396 kt, WCA -3° 33.4.2.2 (2312) (For this question use annex 033- 10993A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAAEdition)The magnetic course/distance from DINKELSBUHL DKB 117.8 (49°09'N010°14'E) to ERLANGEN ERL 114.9 (49°39'N011°09'E) on airway UR11 is, a) 050°/47 NM b) 230°/97NM c) 133°/85 NM d) 052°/97 NM 33.4.2.2 (2313) (For this question use annex 033- 10994A or Route Manual chart E(LO)6 )The magnetic course/distance from GROSTENQUIN GTQ 111.25 (49°00'N 006°43'E) to LINNA (49°41'N 006°15'E) on airway R7 is: a) 337°/46 NM b) 157°/58 NM c) 337°/31 NM d) 337°/58 NM 33.4.2.2 (2314) (For this question use annex 033- 10995A or Route Manual chart E(LO)5)The magnetic course/distance from ELBE LBE 115.1 (53°39'N 009°36'E) to LUNUD (54°50'N 009°19'E) on airway H12 is: a) 352°/72 NM b) 352°/96 NM c) 339°/80 NM d) 339°/125 NM 33.4.2.2 (2315) (For this question use annex 033- 10996A or Route Manual chart E(LO)5)The initial magnetic course/distance from EELDE EEL 112.4 (53°10'N 006°40'E) to WELGO (54°18'N 007°25'E) on airway A7 is: a) 024°/ 73 NM b) 023°/ 73 NM c) 024°/ 20 NM d) 024°/ 47 NM 33.4.2.2 (2316) (For this question use annex 033- 10997A or Route Manual chart E(LO)2)The

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magnetic course/distance from CAMBRAI CMB 112.6 (50°14'N 003°09'E) to TALUN (49°33'N 003°25'E) on airway B3 is: a) 169°/42 NM b) 349°/26 NM c) 169°/68 NM d) 349°/42 NM 33.4.2.2 (2317) (For this question use annex 033- 10998A or Route Manual chart E(LO)1)The magnetic course/distance from WALLASEY WAL 114.1 (53°23N 003°28'W° to LIFFY (53°29'N 005°30'W) on airway B1 is: a) 279°/85 NM b) 279°/114 NM c) 311°/114 NM d) 311°/85 NM 33.4.2.2 (2318) (For this question use annex 033- 10999A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAAEdition)The magnetic course/distance from TRENT TNT 115.7 (53°03'N 001°40'W) to WALLASEY WAL 114.1 (53°23'N 003°08W) on airway VR3 is: a) 297°/57 NM b) 117°/57 NM c) 297°/70 NM d) 117°/71 NM 33.4.2.2 (2319) (For this question use annex 033- 11000A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAAEdition)The magnetic course/distance from TANGO TGO 112.5 (48°37'N 009°16'E) to DINKELSBUHL DKB 117.8 (49°09'N 010°14E) on airway UR11 is: a) 052°/50 NM b) 007°/60 NM c) 105°/105 NM d) 132°/43 NM 33.4.2.2 (2320) (For this question use annex 033- 11001A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAAEdition)The magnetic course/distance from ST PREX SPR 113.9 (46°28'N 006°27'E) to FRIBOURG FRI 115.1 (46°47'N 007°14'E) on airway UG60 is: a) 061°/37 NM b) 048°/46 NM c) 061°/28 NM d) 041°/78 NM 33.4.2.2 (2321) (For this question use annex 033- 11002A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAAEdition)The magnetic course/distance from SALZBURG SBG 113.8 (48°00'N 012°54'E) to STAUB (48°44'N 012°38'E) on airway UB5 is: a) 346°/45 NM b) 346°/64 NM c) 166°/64 NM d) 346°/43 NM

33.4.2.2 (2322) (For this question use annex 033- 11003A or Route Manual chart E(HI)5 CAAEdition)The magnetic course/distance from ELBA ELB 114.7 (42°44'N 010°24'E) to SPEZI (43°49'N 009°34'E) on airway UA35 is: a) 332°/76 NM b) 152°/42 NM c) 322°/60 NM d) 332°/118 NM 33.4.2.2 (2323) (For this question use annex 033- 11004A or Route Manual chart E(HI)5 CAAEdition)The magnetic course/distance from LIMOGES LMG 114.5 (45°49'N 001°02'E) to CLERMONT FERRAND CMF 117.5 (45°47'N 003°11'E) on airway UG22 is: a) 094°/ 90 NM b) 067°/ 122 NM c) 113°/ 142 NM d) 046°/ 70 NM 33.4.2.3 (2324) (For this question use annex 033-3317A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAAEdition)An aeroplane has to fly from Salzburg (48°00.2'N 012°53.6'E) to Klagenfurt (46°37.5'N 014°33.8'E). At Salzburg there is stated on the chart D 113.8 SBG. That means : a) VOR/DME with identification SBG frequency 113.8 MHz can be used. b) Only the DME with identification SBG can be used, for which frequency 113.8 MHz should be tuned, VOR is not available. c) VOR/DME SBG will be deleted in the future and cannot be used for navigation. d) ILS/DME 113.8 MHz of Salzburg airport can be used for navigation. 33.4.2.3 (2325) (For this question use annex 033- 11005A or Route Manual chart E(LO)1 )The radio navigation aid at TOPCLIFFE (54°12'N 001°22'W) is a: a) TACAN only, channel 84, (frequency 113.7 MHz) b) TACAN, channel 84, and a VOR frequency 113.7 MHz only c) TACAN, channel 84, and an NDB frequency 92 kHz only d) VORTAC, frequency 113.7 MHz, and an NDB frequency 92 kHz 33.4.2.3 (2326) (For this question use annex 033- 11014A or Route Manual chart E(LO)5)The VOR and TACAN on airway G9 at OSNABRUCK (52°12'N 008°17'E) are: a) NOT frequency paired, and have different identifiers b) frequency paired, and have different identifiers c) NOT frequency paired, and have the same identifier d) frequency paired, and have the same identifier 33.4.2.3 (2327) (For this question use annex 033- 11015A or Route Manual chart E(LO)5)The NDB at DENKO (52°49'N 015°50'E) can be identified on: a) Frequency 440 kHz, BFO on b) Channel 440, BFO on

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c) Channel 440, BFO off d) Frequency 440 kHz, BFO off 33.4.2.3 (2328) (For this question use annex 033- 11016A or Route Manual chart E(LO)5)The airway intersection at RONNEBY (56°18'N 015°16'E) is marked by: a) an NDB callisign N b) a TACAN callsign RON c) a fan marker callsign LP d) an NDB callsign LF 33.4.2.3 (2329) (For this question use annex 033- 11006A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAAEdition)The radio navigation aid serving STRASBOURG (48°30'N 007°34'E) is a: a) VOR/TACAN, frequency 115.6 MHz b) VOR only, frequency 115.6 MHz c) DME only, channel 115.6 d) TACAN only, frequency 115.6 MHz 33.4.2.3 (2330) (For this question use annex 033- 11007A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAAEdition)The radio navigation aid at ST DIZIER (48°38N 004°53'E) is a: a) TACAN, channel 87, frequency 114.0 MHz b) VOR, frequency 114.0 MHz, and TACAN channel 87 c) TACAN, channel 114.0 d) TACAN, channel 87, and NDB frequency 114.0 kHz 33.4.2.3 (2331) (For this question use annex 033- 11008A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAAEdition)The radio navigation aid at ZURICH (47°36'N 008°49'E) is : a) a VOR only, frequency 115.0 MHz b) a VOR/DME, frequency 115.0MHz c) an NDB only, frequency 115.0 kHz d) a TACAN, frequency 115.0 MHz 33.4.2.3 (2332) (For this question use annex 033- 11009A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAAEdition)The radio navigation aid STAD (51°45'N 004°15'E) is: a) an NDB, frequency 386 kHz b) a VOR, frequency 386 MHz c) a VOR/DME, on channel 386 d) a TACAN, on channel 386 33.4.2.3 (2333) (For this question use annex 033- 11010A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAAEdition)The radio navigation aid at CHIOGGIA (45°04'N 012°17'E) is a: a) VOR/DME, frequency 114.1 MHz, and NDB frequency 408 kHz b) VOR, frequency 114.1 MHz, and TACAN channel 408 c) VOR, frequency 114.1 MHz, and TACAN frequency 408 MHz d) VOR/DME only, frequency 114.1 MHz

33.4.2.3 (2334) (For this question use annex 033- 11011A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAAEdition)The radio navigation aid on airway UG4 at LUXEUIL (47°41'N 006°18'E) is a: a) VOR only, identifier LUL b) VOR, identifier LUL, frequency paired with TACAN identifier LXI c) VOR/DME and NDB, identifier LXI d) VOR/DME only, identifier LUL 33.4.2.3 (2335) (For this question use annex 033- 11012A or Route Manual chart E(LO)1)The radio navigation aid at BELFAST CITY (54°37'N 005°53'W) is : a) an NDB, frequency 420 kHz, NOT continuous operation b) a TACAN, channel 420 c) a fan marker, frequency 420 kHz d) an NDB, frequency 420 kHz, continuous operation 33.4.2.3 (2336) (For this question use annex 033- 11013A or Route Manual chart E(LO)1)The radio navigation aid at SHANNON (52°43'N 008°53'W) is : a) a VOR/DME, frequency 113.3 MHz b) an NDB, frequency 352 kHz c) a TACAN, frequency 113.3 kHz d) a VOR only, frequency 113.3 MHz 33.4.2.4 (2337) (For this question use annex 033-3316A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAAEdition)An aeroplane has to fly from Salzburg (48°00.2'N 012°53.6'E) to Klagenfurt (46°37.5'N 014°33.8'E). Which statement is correct ? a) The minimum grid safe altitude on this route is 13400 ft above MSL. b) The minimum enroute altitude (MEA) is 13400 ft. c) The minimum sector altitude (MSA) is 13400 ft. d) The minimum obstacle clearance altitude (MOCA) on this route is 10800 ft above MSL. 33.4.2.4 (2338) (For this question use annex 033- 11021A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAAEdition)Aeroplanes intending to use airway UR14 should cross GIBSO intersection (50°45'N 002°30'W) at or above: a) FL250 b) FL140 c) FL160 d) FL200 33.4.2.4 (2339) An airway is marked 3500T 2100 a. This indicates that: a) the minimum obstruction clearance altitude (MOCA) is 3500 ft b) the minimum enroute altitude (MEA) is 3500 ft c) the airway base is 3500 ft MSL d) the airway is a low level link route 2100 ft - 3500 ft MSL

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33.4.2.4 (2340) (For this question use annex 033- 11023A or Route Manual chart E(HI)5 CAAEdition)The minimum enroute altitude available on airway UR160 from NICE NIZ 112.4 (43°46'N 007°15'E) to BASTIA BTA 116.2 (42°32'N 009°29'E) is: a) FL250 b) FL200 c) FL210 d) FL260 33.4.2.4 (2341) ((For this question use annex 033- 11024A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAAEdition)The minimum enroute altitude that can be maintained continuously on airway UA34 from WALLASEY WAL 114.1 (53°23'N 003°08'W) to MIDHURST MID 114.0 (51°03'N 000°37'W) is : a) FL290 b) FL245 c) FL250 d) FL330 33.4.2.4 (2342) (For this question use annex 033- 11025A or Route Manual chart E(LO)1)The minimum enroute altitude that can be maintained continuously on airway G1 from STRUMBLE STU 113.1 (52°00'N 005°02'W) to BRECON BCN 117.45 (51°43'N 003°16'W) is : a) FL110 b) FL80 c) 4100ft MSL d) 2900 ft MSL 33.4.2.4 (2343) An airway is marked FL 80 1500 a. This indicates that: a) the minimum enroute altitude (MEA) is FL 80. b) the airway base is 1500 ft MSL. c) the airways extends from 1500 ft MSL to FL 80. d) 1500 ft MSL is the minimum radio reception altitude (MRA). 33.4.2.4 (2344) (For this question use annex 033- 11027A or Route Manual chart E(LO)2)The minimum enroute altitude (MEA) that can be maintained continuously on airway G4 from JERSEY JSY 112.2 (49°13'N 002°03'W) to LIZAD (49°35'N 004°20'W) is : a) FL140 b) FL60 c) 2800 ft MSL d) 1000 ft MSL 33.4.2.4 (2345) An airway is marked 5000 2900a. The notation 5000 is the : a) minimum enroute altitude (MEA) b) maximum authorised altitude (MAA) c) minimum holding altitude (MHA) d) base of the airway (AGL)

33.4.2.4 (2346) (For this question use annex 033- 11029A or Route Manual chart E(LO)5)The minimum enroute altitude that can be maintained continuously on airway B65/H65 from DOXON (55°27'N 018°10'E) to RONNE ROE 112.0 (55°04'N 014°46'E) is : a) FL100 b) FL60 c) 1000ft d) 2500 ft 33.4.2.5 (2347) Unless otherwise shown on charts for standard instrument departure the routes are given with: a) magnetic course b) magnetic headings c) true course d) true headings 33.4.2.5 (2348) (For this question use annex 033-3906A or Route Manual chart SID PARIS CharlesDe-Gaulle (20-3))Planning a IFR flight from Paris (Charles de Gaulle) to London (Heathrow).Find the elevation of the departure aerodrome. a) 387 ft. b) 268 ft. c) 217 ft. d) 2 ft. 33.4.2.5 (2349) (For this question use annex 033-3907A or Route Manual chart STAR LONDON Heathrow (10-2))Planning a IFR flight from Paris (Charles de Gaulle) to London (Heathrow).Find the elevation of the destination aerodrome. a) 80 ft. b) 77 ft. c) 177 ft. d) 100 ft. 33.4.2.5 (2350) (For this question use annex 033-9712A and 033-9712 B or Route Manual STAR 10-2 and Instrument approach chart 11-4 ILS/DME Rwy 27R for London (Heathrow))Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London (Heathrow).Name the identifier and frequency of the initial approach fix (IAF) of the BIG 2A arrival route. a) BIG 115.1 MHz b) EPM 316 kHz c) OCK 115.3 MHz d) BIG 115.1 kHz 33.4.2.5 (2351) (For this question use annex 033- 11040A or Route Manual STAR charts for ZURICH (10-2,10-2A,10-2B))Aeroplane arriving via route BLM 2Z only, should follow the following route to EKRON int: a) BLM R111 to GOLKE int then TRA R-247 inbound to EKRON int b) TRA R247 outbound to EKRON int

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c) WIL R018 outbound to EKRON int d) HOC R067 via GOLKE to EKRON int 33.4.2.5 (2352) (For this question use annex 033- 11041A or Route Manual SID chart for MUNICH(10-3C,10-3D))Which is the correct departure via KEMPTEN from runway 26L ? a) KEMPTEN FIVE SIERRA b) KEMPTEN THREE ECHO c) KEMPTEN THREE QUEBEC d) KEMPTEN THREE NOVEMBER 33.4.2.5 (2353) (For this question use annex 033- 11042A or Route Manual STAR chart for LONDON HEATHROW (10-2D))The minimum holding altitude (MHA) and maximum holding speed (IAS) at MHA at OCKHAM OCK 115.3 are: a) 7000 ft and 220kt b) 9000ft and 220kt c) 7000ft and 250kt d) 9000ft and 250kt 33.4.2.5 (2354) (For this question use annex 033- 11043A or Route Manual STAR charts for PARIS CHARLES DE GAULLE (20-2))The route distance from CHIEVRES (CIV) to BOURSONNE (BSN) is : a) 96 NM b) 83 NM c) 88 NM d) 73 NM 33.4.2.5 (2355) (For this question use annex 033- 11044A or Route Manual SID chart for LONDON HEATHROW (10-3))Which of the following is a correct Minimum Safe Altitude (MSA) for the Airport? a) West sector 2100 ft within 25 NM b) West sector 2300 ft within 25 NM c) East sector 2100 ft within 50 NM d) East sector 2300 ft within 50 NM 33.4.2.5 (2356) (For this question use annex 033- 11045A or Route Manual STAR chart for MADRID BARAJAS (10-2A,B))For runway 33 arrivals from the east and south, the Initial Approach Fix (IAF) inbound from airway UR10 is : a) VTB b) CJN c) CENTA d) MOTIL 33.4.2.5 (2357) (For this question use annex 033- 11046A or Route Manual SID charts for ZURICH (10-3))Which is the correct ALBIX departure via AARAU for runway 16?

a) ALBIX 7S b) ALBIX 7A c) ALBIX 6H d) ALBIX 6E 33.4.2.5 (2358) (For this question use annex 033- 11047A or Route Manual SID chart for AMSTERDAM SCHIPHOL (10-3B))The route distance from runway 27 to ARNEM is: a) 67 NM b) 35 NM c) 59 NM d) 52 NM 33.4.2.5 (2359) (For this question use annex 033- 11048A or Route Manual SID chart for AMSTERDAM SCHIPHOL (10-3))Which of the following statements is correct for ANDIK departures from runway 19L? a) Contact SCHIPOL DEPARTURE 119.05 passing 2000 ft and report altitude b) Cross ANDIK below FL60 c) The distance to ANDIK is 25 NM d) Maximum IAS 250kt turning left at SPL 3.1 DME 33.4.2.5 (2360) (For this question use annex 033- 11049A or Route Manual STAR charts for MUNICH (10-2A,B))The correct arrival route and Initial Approach Fix (IAF) for an arrival from the west via TANGO for runway 08 L/R is: a) AALEN 1T, IAF ROKIL b) AALEN 1T, IAF MBG c) NDG 1T, IAF ROKIL d) DKB 1T, IAF ROKIL 33.4.3.1 (2361) From which of the following would you expect to find information regarding known short unserviceability of VOR, TACAN, and NDB ? a) NOTAM b) AIP (Air Information Publication) c) SIGMET d) ATCC broadcasts 33.4.3.1 (2362) From which of the following would you expect to find the dates and times when temporary danger areas are active a) NOTAM and AIP (Air Information Publication) b) Only AIP (Air Information Publication) c) SIGMET d) RAD/NAV charts 33.4.3.1 (2363) From which of the following would you expect to find details of the Search and Rescue organisation and procedures (SAR) ? a) AIP (Air Information Publication)

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b) ATCC broadcasts c) NOTAM d) SIGMET 33.4.3.1 (2364) From which of the following would you expect to find facilitation information (FAL) regarding customs and health formalities ? a) AIP (Air Information Publication) b) NAV/RAD charts c) ATCC d) NOTAM 33.4.3.2 (2365) (For this question use annex 033-3312A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAAEdition)An aeroplane has to fly from Abbeville (50°08.1'N 001°51.3'E) to Biggin (51°19.8'N 00°00.2'E). What is the first FL above FL295 that can be flown on an IFR flightplan ? a) FL 310 b) FL 330 c) FL 320 d) FL 300 33.4.3.2 (2366) You must fly IFR on an airway orientated 135° magnetic with a MSA at 7 800 ft. Knowing the QNH is 1 025 hPa and the temperature is ISA + 10°, the minimum flight level you must fly at is: a) 90 b) 80 c) 75 d) 70 33.4.3.2 (2367) An aircraft, following a 215° true track, must fly over a 10 600 ft obstacle with a minimum obstacle clearance of 1 500 ft. Knowing the QNH received from an airport close by, which is almost at sea-level, is 1035 and the temperature is ISA -15°C, the minimum flight level will be: a) 140 b) 120 c) 130 d) 150 33.4.3.2 (2368) (For this question use annex 033-9553A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.2.1)Find the OPTIMUM ALTITUDE for the twin jet aeroplane. Given: Cruise mass=50000 kg, .78 MACH a) 35500 ft b) 36200 ft c) 36700 ft d) maximum operating altitude

33.4.3.2 (2369) (For this question use annexes 033-9554A and 033-9554B or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Paragraph 2.1 and Figure 4.2.1)Find the FUEL MILEAGE PENALTY for the twin jet aeroplane with regard to the given FLIGHT LEVEL . Given: Long range cruise, Cruise mass=53000 kg, FL 310 a) 4% b) 1% c) 10% d) 0% 33.4.3.2 (2370) (For this question use annex 033-9552A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.2.1)Find the OPTIMUM ALTITUDE for the twin jet aeroplane. Given: Cruise mass=54000 kg, Long range cruise or .74 MACH a) 34500 ft b) 33800 ft c) 35300 ft d) maximum operating altitude 33.4.3.2 (2371) On an IFR navigation chart, in a 1° quadrant of longitude and latitude, appears the following information ""80"". This means that within this quadrant: a) the minimum safe altitude is 8 000 ft b) the minimum flight level is FL 80 c) the altitude of the highest obstacle is 8 000 ft d) the floor of the airway is at 8 000 ft 33.4.3.2 (2372) (For this question use annex 033- 11030A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAAEdition)An appropriate flight level for flight on airway UR1 from ORTAC (50°00'N 002°00'W) to MIDHURST MID 114.0 (51°03'N 000°37'W) is: a) FL250 b) FL260 c) FL240 d) FL230 33.4.3.2 (2373) (For this question use annex 033- 11031A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAAEdition)An appropriate flight level for flight on airway UG1 from ERLANGEN ERL 114.9 (49°39°'N 011°09'E) to FRANKFURT FFM 114.2 (50°03'N 008°38'E) is : a) FL310 b) FL290 c) FL300 d) FL320 33.4.3.2 (2374) (For this question use annex 033- 11032A or Route Manual chart E(LO)5)An appropriate flight level for flight on airway G9 from SUBI SUI 116.7 (52°23'N 014°35'E) to CZEMPIN CZE 114.5 (52°08'N 016°44'E) is: a) FL70 b) FL50

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c) FL60 d) FL80 33.4.3.2 (2375) (For this question use annex 033- 11033A or Route Manual chart E(HI)5 CAAEdition)An appropriate flight level for flight on airway UG5 from MENDENASBINALS MEN 115.3 (44°36'N 003°10'E) to GAILLAC GAI 115.8 (43°57'N 001°50'E) is : a) FL290 b) FL280 c) FL300 d) FL310 33.4.3.2 (2376) (For this question use annex 033- 11034A or Route Manual chart E(HI)5 CAAEdition)An appropriate flight level for flight on airway UR24 from NANTES NTS 117.2 (47°09'N 001°37'W) to CAEN CAN 115.4 (49°10'N 000°27'W) is: a) FL310 b) FL290 c) FL300 d) FL270 33.4.3.2 (2377) (For this question use annex 033- 11035A or Route Manual chart E(LO)2)An appropriate flight level for flight on airway B3 from CHATILLON CTL 117.6 (49°08'N 003°35'E) to CAMBRAI CMB 112.6 (50°14'N 003°09'E) is : a) FL170 b) FL80 c) FL60 d) FL50 33.4.3.2 (2378) (For this question use annex 033- 11036A or Route Manual chart E(LO)6)An appropriate flight level for flight on airway W37 from CHEB OKG 115.7 (50°04'N 012°24'E) to RODING RDG 114.7 (49°02'N 012°32'E) is : a) FL80 b) FL40 c) FL50 d) FL70 33.4.3.2 (2379) (For this question use annex 033- 11037A or Route Manual chart E(LO)6)An appropriate flight level for flight on airway R10 from MONTMEDY MMD 109.4 (49°24'N 005°08'E) to CHATILLON CTL 117.6 (49°08'N 003°35'E) is : a) FL60 b) FL70 c) FL50 d) FL40 33.4.3.2 (2380) An appropriate flight level for IFR flight in accordance with semi-circular height

rules on a course of 180° (M) is: a) FL100 b) FL90 c) FL95 d) FL105 33.4.3.2 (2381) An appropriate flight level for IFR flight in accordance with semi-circular height rules on a magnetic course of 200° is: a) FL310 b) FL320 c) FL290 d) FL300 33.4.3.2 (2382) On an instrument approach chart, a minimum sector altitude (MSA) is defined in relation to a radio navigation facility. Without any particular specification on distance, this altitude is valid to: a) 25 NM b) 20 NM c) 15 NM d) 10 NM 33.4.3.2 (2383) An IFR flight is planned outside airways on a course of 235° magnetic. The minimum safe altitude is 7800 ft. Knowing the QNH is 995 hPa, the minimum flight level you must fly is: a) 100 b) 90 c) 85 d) 80 33.4.3.5 (2384) An aeroplane has the following masses:ESTLWT= 50 000 kgTrip fuel= 4 300 kgContingency fuel= 215 kgAlternate fuel (final reserve included)= 2 100kgTaxi= 500 kgBlock fuel= 7 115 kgBefore departure the captain orders to make the block fuel 9 000 kg.The trip fuel in the operational flight plan should read: a) 4 300 kg. b) 6 185 kg. c) 9 000 kg. d) 6 400 kg. 33.4.3.6 (2385) (For this question use annex 033- 11058A or Route Manual chart LONDON HEATHROW ILS DME Rwy 09L (11-2))The Decision Altitude (DA) for a ILS straightin landing is : a) 280 ft b) 200 ft c) 400 ft d) 480 ft

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33.4.3.6 (2386) (For this question use annex 033- 11059A or Route Manual chart AMSTERDAM SCHIPHOL ILS DME Rwy 22 (11-6))The Missed Approach procedure is to climb to an alitude of (i)------------ on a track of (ii) ---------a) (i) 2000 ft (ii) 160° b) (i) 200 ft (ii) 223° c) (i) 3000 ft (ii) 160° d) (i) 3000 ft (ii) 223° 33.4.3.6 (2387) (For this question use annex 033- 11060A or Route Manual chart MADRID BARAJAS ILS DME Rwy 33 (11-1))The minimum glide slope interception altitude for a full ILS is: a) 4000 ft b) 3500 ft c) 2067 ft d) 1567 ft 33.4.3.6 (2388) (For this question use annex 033- 11061A or Route Manual chart AMSTERDAM JAA MINIMUMS (10-9X)The Radio Altimeter minimum altitude for a CAT 2 ILS DME approach to Rwy 01L is : a) 100 ft b) 88 ft c) 300 ft d) 188 ft 33.4.3.6 (2389) (For this question use annex 033- 11062A or Route Manual chart LONDON HEATHROW ILS DME Rwy 09R (11-1))The Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA) for an ILS glide slope out, is: a) 480 ft b) 405 ft c) 275 ft d) 200 ft 33.4.3.6 (2390) (For this question use annex 033- 11063A or Route Manual chart PARIS CHARLES DE GAULLE ILS Rwy 27 (21-2))The crossing altitude and descent instruction for a propeller aircraft at COULOMMIERS (CLM) are : a) Cross at FL60 descend to 4000 ft b) Cross at FL70 descend to 4000 ft c) Cross at FL80 descend to FL70 d) Cross at FL60 and maintain 33.4.3.6 (2391) (For this question use annex 033- 11064A or Route Manual chart MUNICH ILS Rwy 26R (11-4))The ILS frequency and identifier are: a) 108.7 IMNW b) 108.7 IMSW

c) 108.3 IMNW d) 108.3 IMSW 33.4.3.6 (2392) (For this question use annex 033- 11065A or Route Manual chart PARIS CHARLES DE GAULLE ILS Rwy 10 (21-8))The ILS localizer course is : a) 088° b) 100° c) 118° d) 268° 33.4.3.6 (2393) (For this question use annex 033- 11066A or Route Manual chart ZURICH ILS Rwy 16 (11-2))The lowest published authorised RVR for an ILS approach glide slope out, all other aids serviceable, aeroplane category A is: a) 720m b) 600m c) 800m d) 1500m 33.4.3.6 (2394) (For this question use annex 033- 11067A or Route Manual chart MUNICH NDB DME Rwy 26L approach (16-3))The frequency and identifier of the NDB for the published approachs are: a) 400 MSW b) 338 MNW c) 108.6 DMS d) 112.3 MUN 33.5.1.1 (2395) The required time for final reserve fuel for turbojet aeroplane is: a) 30 min. b) 45 min. c) 60 min. d) Variable with wind velocity. 33.5.1.1 (2396) The purpose of the decision point procedure is ? a) To reduce the minimum required fuel and therefore be able to increase the traffic load. b) To reduce the landing weight and thus reduce the structural stress on the aircraft. c) To increase the safety of the flight. d) To increase the amount of extra fuel. 33.5.1.1 (2397) When using decision point procedure, you reduce the a) contingency fuel by adding contingency only from the burnoff between decision point and destination. b) contingency fuel by adding contingency only from the burnoff between the decision airport and destination.

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c) reserve fuel from 10% down to 5%. d) holding fuel by 30%. 33.5.1.1 (2398) The quantity of fuel which is calculated to be necessary for a jet aeroplane to fly IFR from departure aerodrome to the destination aerodrome is 5352 kg. Fuel consumption in holding mode is 6 000 kg/h. Alternate fuel is 4380 kg. Contingency should be 5% of trip fuel.What is the minimum required quantity of fuel which should be on board at take-off? a) 13000 kg. b) 14500 kg. c) 13370 kg. d) 13220 kg. 33.5.1.1 (2399) Mark the correct statement:If a decision point procedure is applied for flight planning, a) the trip fuel to the destination aerodrome is to be calculated via the decision point. b) the trip fuel to the destination aerodrome is to be calculated via the suitable enroute alternate. c) a destination alternate is not required. d) the fuel calculation is based on a contingency fuel from departure aerodrome to the decision point. 33.5.1.1 (2400) An operator (turbojet engine) shall ensure that calculation up of usable fuel for a flight for which no destination alternate is required includes, taxi fuel, trip fuel, contingency fuel and fuel to fly for: a) 30 minutes at holding speed at 450 m above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions b) 2 hours at normal cruise consumption c) 45 minutes plus 15% of the flight time planned to be spent at cruising level or two hours whichever is less d) 30 minutes at holding speed at 450 m above MSL in standard conditions 33.5.1.1 (2401) The following fuel consumption figures are given for a jet aeroplane:-standard taxi fuel: 600 kg.-average cruise consumption: 10 000 kg/h.-holding fuel consumption at 1500 ft above alternate airfield elevation: 8000 kg/h.-flight time from departure to destination: 6 hours -fuel for diversion to alternate: 10 200 kg.The minimum ramp fuel load is: a) 77 800 kg b) 74 800 kg c) 79 800 kg d) 77 200 kg 33.5.1.1 (2402) A jet aeroplane has a cruising fuel consumption of 4060 kg/h, and 3690 kg/h during holding. If the destination is an isolated airfield, the aeroplane must carry, in addition to contingency reserves, additionnal fuel of :

a) 8120 kg. b) 7380 kg. c) 1845 kg. d) 3500 kg. 33.5.1.1 (2403) A jet aeroplane is to fly from A to B. The minimum final reserve fuel must allow for : a) 30 minutes hold at 1500 ft above destination aerodrome elevation, when no alternate is required. b) 20 minutes hold over alternate airfield. c) 30 minutes hold at 1500 ft above mean sea level. d) 15 minutes hold at 1500 ft above destination aerodrome elevation. 33.5.1.1 (2404) (For this question use annex 033-3321A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.1.B)Given : estimated zero fuel mass 50 t, estimated landing mass at alternate 52 t, final reserve fuel 2 t, alternate fuel 1 t, flight to destination, distance 720 NM, true course (TC) 030, W/V 340/30, cruise: long range FL 330, outside air temperature -30 ° C.Find : estimated trip fuel and time a) 4 800 kg, 01 : 45 b) 4 400 kg, 02 : 05 c) 4 750 kg, 02 : 00 d) 4 600 kg, 02 : 05 33.5.1.1 (2405) (For this question use annex 033-3322A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.6)Given: estimated dry operation mass 35 500 kg, estimated load 14 500 kg, final reserve fuel 1200 kg, distance to alternate 95 NM, average true track 219°, head wind component 10 ktFind : fuel and time to alternate. a) 1 100 kg, 25 min b) 1 100 kg, 44 min c) 800 kg, 24 min d) 800 kg, 40 min 33.5.1.1 (2406) (For this question use annex 033-3323A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.3C)Given: ground distance to destination aerodrome 1 600 NM, headwind component 50 kt, FL 330, cruise 0.78 Mach, ISA + 20 ° C, estimated landing weight 55000 kg .Find: simplified flight planning to determine estimated trip fuel and trip time. a) 12 400 kg. 03h 55 min b) 11 400 kg. 04h 12 min c) 12 400 kg. 04h 12 min d) 11 400 kg. 03h 55 min 33.5.1.1 (2407) (For this question use annex 033-3324A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.4)Given: dry operating mass 35 500 kg, estimated load 12 000 kg, contingency approach and landing fuel 2 500 kg, elevation at departure aerodrome 500 ft, elevation at alternate aerodrome 30 ft.Find: final reserve fuel for a jet aeroplane

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(holding) and give the elevation which is relevant. a) 1 180 kg, alternate elevation b) 2 360 kg, alternate elevation c) 1 180 kg,destination elevation d) 2 360 kg,destination elevation 33.5.1.1 (2408) Planning a flight from Paris (Charles de Gaulle) to London (Heathrow) for a twin jet aeroplane.Preplanning:Maximum Take-off Mass: 62 800 kgMaximum Zero Fuel Mass: 51 250 kgMaximum Landing Mass: 54 900 kgMaximum Taxi Mass: 63 050 kgAssume the following preplanning results:Trip fuel: 1 800 kgAlternate fuel: 1 400 kgHolding fuel (final reserve): 1 225 kgDry Operating Mass: 34 000 kgTraffic Load: 13 000 kgCatering: 750 kgBaggage: 3 500 kgFind the Take-off Mass (TOM): a) 51 515 kg. b) 55 765 kg. c) 51 425 kg. d) 52 265 kg. 33.5.1.1 (2409) (For this question use annexes 033-11073A, 033-11073B, 033-11073C and 033-11073D)Planning a MACH 0,82 cruise at FL 390, the estimated landing mass is 160 000 kg, the ground distance is 2 800 NM and the mean tailwind is 100 kt, ISA conditions.Fuel consumption will be: a) 26 950 kg b) 22 860 kg c) 24 900 kg d) 30 117 kg 33.5.1.1 (2410) (For this question use annexes 033-11074A, 033-11074B, 033-11074C and 033-11074D)Planning a MACH 0,82 cruise at FL 390, the estimated landing mass is 160 000 kg.The ground distance is 2 800 NM and the mean wind is equal to zero. ISA conditions.Fuel consumption will be: a) 32 657 kg b) 30 117 kg c) 27 577 kg d) 30 371 kg 33.5.1.1 (2411) (For this question use annex 033-9556A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.14)Find the SPECIFIC RANGE for the twin jet aeroplane flying below the optimum altitude (range loss = 6%) and using the following data. Given: MACH .74 CRUISE, Flight level = 310, Gross mass = 50000 kg, ISA conditions a) 176 NAM/1000 kg b) 187 NAM/1000 kg c) 2994 NAM/1000 kg d) 2807 NAM/1000 kg 33.5.1.1 (2412) (For this question use annex 033-9557A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.2)Find the FUEL FLOW for the twin jet aeroplane with regard to the following

data. Given: MACH .74 cruise, Flight level 310, Gross mass 50000 kg, ISA conditions a) 2300 kg/h b) 1150 kg/h c) 2994 kg/h d) 1497 kg/h 33.5.1.1 (2413) (For this question use annex 033-9571A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1)Find: Final fuel consumption for this legGiven: Long range cruise, Temperature -63°C, FL 330, Initial gross mass enroute 54100 kg, Leg flight time 29 min a) 1093 kg b) 1107 kg c) 1100 kg d) 1000 kg 33.5.1.1 (2414) (For this question use annex 033-9572A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1)Find: Air distance in Nautical Air Miles (NAM) for this leg and fuel consumptionGiven: Flight time from top of climb at FL 280 to the enroute point is 48 minutes. Cruise procedure is long range cruise. Temperature is ISA -5°C. The take-off mass is 56000 kg and climb fuel 1100 kg. a) 345 NAM, 1994 kg b) 349 NAM, 2000 kg c) 345 NAM, 2000 kg d) 345 NAM, 2006 kg 33.5.1.1 (2415) (For this question use annex 033-9573A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1)Given: Brake release mass 57500 kg, Initial FL 280, average temperature during climb ISA -10°C, average head wind component 18 ktFind: Climb time for enroute climb 280/.74 a) 13 min b) 11 min c) 15 min d) 14 min 33.5.1.1 (2416) (For this question use annex 033-9574A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1)Given: Brake release mass 57500 kg, Temperature ISA -10°C, Headwind component 16 kt, Initial FL 280Find: Still air distance (NAM) and ground distance (NM) for the enroute climb 280/.74 a) 62 NAM, 59 NM b) 59 NAM, 62 NM c) 62 NAM, 71 NM d) 71 NAM, 67 NM 33.5.1.1 (2417) (For this question use annex 033-9575A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1)Given: Brake release mass 57500 kg, Temperature ISA -10°C, Average

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headwind component 16 kt, Initial FL 280Find: Climb fuel for enroute climb 280/.74 a) 1138 kg b) 1238 kg c) 1387 kg d) 1040 kg 33.5.1.1 (2418) (For this question use annex 033-9578A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1)Given: Long range cruise, OAT -45°C at FL 350, Gross mass at the beginning of the leg 40000 kg, Gross mass at the end of the leg 39000 kgFind: True air speed (TAS) and cruise distance (NAM) for a twin jet aeroplane a) TAS 433 kt, 227 NAM b) TAS 423 kt, 227 NAM c) TAS 433 kt, 1163 NAM d) TAS 423 kt, 936 NAM 33.5.1.1 (2419) (For this question use annex 033-11238A)The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data:- Flight level FL 370 at ""Long Range"" (LR) cruise regime- (Prescribed) mass at brake release: 204 500 kg- Flight leg ground distance: 2 000 NM- Temperatures: ISA- Headwind component: 70 kt""Total anti-ice"" set on ""ON"" for the entire flight- no requested climb and descent correction of the fuel consumptionThe fuel required from take-off to landing is: a) 29 440 kg b) 27 770 kg c) 20 900 kg d) 22 160 kg 33.5.1.1 (2420) (For this question use annex 033-11241A)The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data:- Flight level FL 370 at ""Long Range"" (LR) cruise regime- Mass at brake release: 212 800 kg- Flight leg ground distance: 2 500 NM- Temperatures: ISA- CG: 37%- Headwind component: 30 kt- ""Total anti-ice"" set on ""ON"" for the entire flight- No requested climb and descent correction of the fuel consumptionThe fuel consumption (from take-off to landing) is: a) 34 430 kg b) 32 480 kg c) 28 720 kg d) 30 440 kg 33.5.1.1 (2421) (For this question use annex 033-9579A, B,C,D or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.2.2 and Figure 4.5.3.2)Given: Estimated take-off mass 57000 kg, Ground distance 150 NM, Temperature ISA -10°C, Cruise at .74 MachFind: Cruise altitude and expected true air speed a) 25000 ft, 435 kt b) 24000 ft, 445 kt c) 33500 ft, 430 kt d) 33900 ft, 420 kt

33.5.1.1 (2422) (For this question use annex 033-9543A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.4)The final reserve fuel taken from the HOLDING PLANNING table for the twin jet aeroplane is based on the following parameters: a) pressure altitude, aeroplane mass and flaps up with minimum drag airspeed b) pressure altitude, aeroplane mass and flaps down with maximum range speed c) pressure altitude, aeroplane mass and flaps up with maximum range speed d) pressure altitude, aeroplane mass and flaps down with minimum drag airspeed 33.5.1.1 (2423) (For this question use annex 033-9546A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.6)In order to find ALTERNATE FUEL and TIME TO ALTERNATE, the AEROPLANE OPERATING MANUAL shall be entered with: a) distance in nautical miles (NM), wind component, landing mass at alternate b) distance in nautical air miles (NAM), wind component, landing mass at alternate c) distance in nautical miles (NM), wind component, zero fuel mass d) distance in nautical miles (NM), wind component, dry operating mass plus holding fuel 33.5.1.1 (2424) The final reserve fuel for aeroplanes with turbine engines is a) fuel to fly for 30 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft (450 m) above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions. b) fuel to fly for 45 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft (450 m) above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions. c) fuel to fly for 45 minutes at holding speed at 1000 ft (300 m) above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions. d) fuel to fly for 60 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft (450 m) above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions. 33.5.1.1 (2425) Which of the following statements is relevant for forming route portions in integrated range flight planning? a) The distance from take-off up to the top of climb has to be known. b) No segment shall be more than 30 minutes of flight time. c) Each reporting point requires a new segment. d) A small change of temperature (2 °C) can divide a segment. 33.5.1.1 (2426) (For this question use annex 033-9691A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1)Given: twin jet aeroplane, FL 330, Long range cruise, Outside air temperature -63°C, Gross mass 50500 kgFind: True air speed (TAS) a) 420 kt b) 433 kt c) 431 kt d) 418 kt 33.5.1.1 (2427) (For this question use annex 033-11208A)A turbojet aeroplane, weighing 200 000 kg, initiates its cruise at the optimum level at M 0.84 (ISA, CG=37%, Total Anti Ice ON). A head wind of 30 kt is experienced and, after a distance of 500 NM, severe icing is encountered and this requires an immediate descent. The aeroplane mass

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at start of descent is: a) 192 500 kg b) 193 000 kg c) 193 400 kg d) 193 800 kg 33.5.1.1 (2428) (For this question use annex 033-11209A and 033-11209B)Assuming a departure/ destination fuel price ratio of 0.91, the commander decides to optimize fuel tankering by using the following data:. Cruise flight level: FL 350. Air distance to be covered: 2 500 NM. Planned take-off mass: 200 000 kg (with the minimum prescribed fuel quantity of 38 000 kg that includes a trip fuel of 29 000 kg). Maximum landing mass: 180 000 kg. Maximum take-off mass: 205 000 kg. Maximum tank capacity: 40 000 kgThe additional fuel quantity will be: a) 0 kg b) 3 000 kg c) 2 000 kg d) 4 000 kg 33.5.1.1 (2429) (For this question use annex 033-11210A and 033-11210B)Assuming a departure/ destination fuel price ratio of 0.92, the commander decides to optimize fuel tankering by using the following data:. Cruise flight level: FL 350. Air distance to be covered: 1 830 NM. Planned take-off mass: 190 000 kg (with a minimum prescribed fuel quantity of 30 000 kg that includes a trip fuel of 22 000 kg). Maximum landing mass: 180 000 kg. Maximum take-off mass: 205 000 kg. Maximum tank capacity: 40 000 kgThe additional fuel quantity will be: a) 10 000 kg b) 20 000 kg c) 12 000 kg d) 15 000 kg 33.5.1.1 (2430) (For this question use annex 033-11211A and 033-11211B )Assuming the following data:. Ground distance to be covered: 2 000 NM. Cruise flight level: FL 330. Cruising speed: Mach 0.82 (true airspeed: 470 kt). Head wind component: 30 kt. Planned destination landing mass: 160 000 kg. Temperature: ISA. CG: 37%. Total anti-ice: ON. Pack flow: HITime needed to carry out such a flight is: a) 4 h 43 min b) 4 h 26 min c) 5 h 02 min d) 4 h 10 min 33.5.1.1 (2431) (For this question use annex 033-11212A and 033-11212B)Assuming the following data:. Ground distance to be covered: 1 500 NM. Cruise flight level: FL 310. Cruising speed: Mach 0.82 (true airspeed: 470 kt). Head wind component: 40 kt. Planned destination landing mass: 140 000 kg. Temperature: ISA + 15° C. CG: 37 %. Total anti-ice: ON. Pack flow: HIFuel consumption for such a flight is: a) 23 500 kg b) 21 500 kg

c) 21 700 kg d) 19 900 kg 33.5.1.1 (2432) (For this question use annex 033-11213A and 033-11213B)Assuming the following data:. Ground distance to be covered: 2 500 NM. Cruise flight level: FL 350. Cruising speed: Mach 0.82 (true airspeed: 470 kt). Tailwind component: 40 kt. Planned destination landing mass: 150 000 kg. Temperature: ISA . CG: 37%. Total anti-ice: OFF. Air conditioning: normalFuel consumption for such a flight is: a) 27 800 kg b) 27 000 kg c) 28 300 kg d) 29 200 kg 33.5.1.1 (2433) (For this question use annex 033-11214A)Assuming the following data:. Ground distance to be covered: 2 600 NM. Cruise flight level: FL 370. Cruising speed: Mach 0.82 (true airspeed: 470 kt). Wind: zero wind during flight. Planned destination landing mass: 140 000 kg. Temperature: ISA + 15° C. CG: 37 %. Total anti-ice: ON. Air conditioning: normalFuel consumption for such a flight is: a) 31 500 kg b) 29 100 kg c) 29 400kg d) 27 400 kg 33.5.1.1 (2434) (For this question use annex 033-11215A)A turbojet aeroplane is flying using the following data: . optimum flight level, Mach 0.80, mass of 190 000 kg . temperature: ISA . tailwind component: 100 ktThe fuel mileage and the fuel consumption per hour are: a) 105 NM/1000 kg, 5330 kg/h b) 105 NM/1000 kg, 6515 kg/h c) 86 NM/1000 kg, 6515 kg/h d) 71 NM/1000 kg, 5330 kg/h 33.5.1.1 (2435) (For this question use annex 033-11216A)A turbojet aeroplane is flying using the following data: . flight level FL 250, Long Range (LR) cruise, mass of 150 000 kg . temperature: ISA . head wind component: 100 kt . remaining flight time: 1 h 40 minThe ground distance that can be covered during the cruise flight is: a) 445 NM b) 612 NM c) 841 NM d) 2031 NM 33.5.1.1 (2436) (For this question use annexes 033-11223A, 033-11223B and 033-11223C)Given:. Take-off mass: 150 000 kg. Planned cruise at FL 350. Long range MACH. Standard Atmosphere (ISA). CG: 37 %Covering an air distance of 2 000 NM, your trip fuel from take-off to landing will be: a) 22 360 kg

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b) 19 660 kg c) 21 760 kg d) 20 260 kg 33.5.1.1 (2437) (For this question use annex 033-11228A)For a long distance flight at FL 390, ""Long Range"" regime, divided into four flight legs with the following characteristics:- segment AB - Ground distance: 2 000 NM. head wind component: 50 kt - segment BC - Ground distance: 1 000 NM. head wind component: 30 kt segment CD - Ground distance: 500 NM. tail wind component: 100 kt - segment DE - Ground distance: 1 000 NM. head wind component: 70 kt The air distance of the entire flight is approximately: a) 4 900 NM b) 5 120 NM c) 4 630 NM d) 5 040 NM 33.5.1.1 (2438) (For this question use annex 031-11231A)For a long distance flight at FL 370, ""Long Range"" regime, divided into four flight legs with the following specifications:- segment AB - Ground distance: 2 000 NM. headwind component: 50 kt- segment BC - Ground distance: 1 000 NM. headwind component: 30 ktsegment CD - Ground distance: 500 NM. tailwind component: 70 kt- segment DE Ground distance: 1 000 NM. headwind component: 20 ktThe total air distance is approximately: a) 4 800 NM b) 4 940 NM c) 4 580 NM d) 4 820 NM 33.5.1.1 (2439) (For this question use annex 033-12358A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.7.3)Given:Diversion fuel available 8500kgDiversion cruise altitude 10000ftMass at point of diversion 62500kgHead wind component 50ktTemperature ISA -5°CThe (a) maximum diversion distance, and (b) elapsed time alternate, are approximately : a) (a) 860 NM (b) 3h 20 min b) (a) 1000 NM (b) 3h 40 min c) (a) 760 NM (b) 4h 30 min d) (a) 1130 NM (b) 3h 30 min 33.5.1.1 (2440) (For this question use annex 033-12359A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.7.3)Given:Diversion distance 720NMTail wind component 25ktMass at point of diversion 55000kgTemperature ISADiversion fuel available 4250kgWhat is the minimum pressure altitude at which the above conditions may be met ? a) 20000ft b) 26000ft c) 16000ft d) 14500ft

33.5.1.1 (2441) (For this question use annex 033-12360A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.7.3)Given:Diversion distance 650 NMDiversion pressure altitude 16 000 ftMass at point of diversion 57 000 kgHead wind component 20 ktTemperature ISA + 15°CThe diversion (a) fuel required and (b) time, are approximately : a) (a) 4800kg(b) 2h 03min b) (a) 3900kg(b) 1h 45min c) (a) 6200kg(b) 2h 10min d) (a) 4400kg(b) 1h 35min 33.5.1.1 (2442) (For this question use annex 033-12361A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.7.3) Given:Distance to alternate 950 NMHead wind component 20 ktMass at point of diversion 50000kgDiversion fuel available 5800kgThe minimum pressure altitude at which the above conditions may be met is : a) 22000ft b) 20000ft c) 26000ft d) 18000ft 33.5.1.1 (2443) (For this question use annex 033-12364A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.7.2)For the purpose of planning an extended range flight it is required that with a start of diversion mass of 55000kg a diversion of 600 nautical miles should be achieved in 90 minutes. Using the above table, the only listed cruise technique to meet that requirement is : a) M/KIAS .74/330 b) M/KIAS .74/290 c) M/KIAS .70/280 d) LRC 33.5.1.1 (2444) (For this question use annex 033-12365A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.7.2)Using the above table, in ISA conditions and at a speed of M.70/280KIAS, in an elapsed time of 90 minutes an aircraft with mass at point of diversion 48000 kg could divert a distance of : a) 584 NM b) 563 NM c) 603 NM d) 608 NM 33.5.1.1 (2445) (For this question use annex 033-12366A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.7.2)An aircraft on an extended range operation is required never to be more than 120 minutes from an alternate, based on 1 engine inoperative LRC conditions in ISA. Using the above table and a given mass of 40000 kg at the most critical point, the maximum air distance to the relevant alternate is : a) 735 NM b) 794 NM c) 810 NM d) 875 NM

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33.5.1.1 (2446) (For this question use annex 033-12367A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.4)A descent is planned at .74/250KIAS from 35000ft to 5000ft. How much fuel will be consumed during this descent? a) 150kg b) 290kg c) 278kg d) 140kg 33.5.1.2 (2447) If CAS is 190 kts, Altitude 9000 ft. Temp. ISA - 10°C, True Course (TC) 350°, W/V 320/40, distance from departure to destination is 350 NM, endurance 3 hours, and actual time of departure is 1105 UTC. The Point of Equal Time (PET) is reached at : a) 1213 UTC b) 1221 UTC c) 1233 UTC d) 1203 UTC 33.5.1.2 (2448) If CAS is 190 kts, Altitude 9000 ft. Temp. ISA - 10°C, True Course (TC) 350°, W/V 320/40, distance from departure to destination is 350 NM, endurance 3 hours and actual time of departure is 1105 UTC. The distance from departure to Point of Equal Time (PET) is : a) 203 NM b) 147 NM c) 183 NM d) 167 NM 33.5.1.2 (2449) Find the distance from waypoint 3 (WP 3) to the critical point. Given: distance from WP 3 to WP 4 = 750 NM, TAS out 430 kt, TAS return 425 kt, Tailwind component out 30 kt, head wind component return 40 kt a) 342 NM b) 375 NM c) 408 NM d) 403 NM 33.5.1.2 (2450) Find the time to the Point of Safe Return (PSR). Given: Maximum useable fuel 15000 kg, Minimum reserve fuel 3500 kg, TAS out 425 kt, Head wind component out 30 kt, TAS return 430 kt, Tailwind component return 20 kt, Average fuel flow 2150 kg/h a) 2 h 51 min b) 3 h 43 min c) 2 h 59 min d) 2 h 43 min 33.5.1.2 (2451) Given :X = Distance A to point of equal time (PET) between A and BE = EnduranceD = Distance A to BO = Groundspeed 'on'H = Groundspeed 'back'The formula for calculating the distance X to point of equal time (PET) is:

a) D x HX = _____ O + H b) D x OX = _____ O + H c) E x O x HX = ________ O + H d) D x O x HX = ________ O + H 33.5.1.2 (2452) Given :Course A to B 088° (T)distance 1250 NMMean TAS 330 ktMean W/V 340°/60 ktThe time from A to the PET between A and B is : a) 1 hour 42 minutes b) 1 hour 54 minutes c) 1 hour 39 minutes d) 2 hours 02 minutes 33.5.1.2 (2453) Given :Distance X to Y 2700 NMMach Number 0.75Temperature -45°CMean wind component 'on' 10 kt tailwindMean wind compontent 'back' 35 kt tailwindThe distance from X to the point of equal time (PET) between X and Y is : a) 1386 NM b) 1350 NM c) 1313 NM d) 1425 NM 33.5.1.2 (2454) Given :Distance A to B 2050 NMMean groundspeed 'on' 440 ktMean groundspeed 'back' 540 ktThe distance to the point of equal time (PET) between A and B is : a) 1130 NM b) 1025 NM c) 920 NM d) 1153 NM 33.5.1.2 (2455) Given :Distance A to B 3060 NMMean groundspeed 'out' 440 ktMean groundspeed 'back' 540 ktSafe Endurance 10 hoursThe time to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) is: a) 5 hours 30 minutes b) 5 hours 45 minutes c) 3 hours 55 minutes d) 5 hours 20 minutes 33.5.1.2 (2456) Given the following:D = flight distance X = distance to Point of Equal TimeGSo = groundspeed outGSr = groundspeed return The correct formula to find distance to Point of Equal Time is : a) X = D x GSr / (GSo + GSr) b) X = D x GSo / (GSo + GSr) c) X = (D/2) x GSo / (GSo + GSr) d) X = (D/2) + GSr / (GSo + GSr) 33.5.2.1 (2457) Which of the following statements is (are) correct with regard to the advantages of computer flight plans ?1. The computer can file the ATC flight plan.2. Wind data used by the computer is always more up-to-date than that available to the pilot.

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a) Statement 1 only b) Statement 2 only c) Both statements d) Neither statement 33.5.2.1 (2458) Which of the following statements is (are) correct with regard to the operation of flight planning computers ?1. The computer can file the ATC flight plan.2. In the event of inflight re-routing the computer produces a new plan. a) Statement 1 only b) Statement 2 only c) Both statements d) Neither statement 33.5.2.1 (2459) Which of the following statements is (are) correct with regard to computer flight plans 1. The computer takes account of bad weather on the route and adds extra fuel.2. The computer calculates alternate fuel sufficient for a missed approach, climb, cruise, descent and approach and landing at the destination alternate. a) Statement 2 only b) Both statements c) Statement 1 only d) Neither statement 33.6.1.0 (2460) When calculating the fuel required to carry out a given flight, one must take into account :1 - the wind2 - foreseeable airborne delays3 - other weather forecasts4 any foreseeable conditions which may delay landingThe combination which provides the correct statement is : a) 1 - 2 - 3 - 4 b) 03-Jan c) 2 - 4 d) 1 - 2 - 3 33.6.1.1 (2461) (For this question use annex 033-9576A or Route Manual chart E(HI)5 CAAEdition)Given: Leg Moulins(N46 24.4 E003 38.0)/Dijon(N47 16.3 E005 05.9).Find: Route designator and total distance a) Direct route, 69 NM b) D, 44 NM c) UG 21, 69 NM d) UG 21, 26 NM 33.6.1.3 (2462) ""Integrated range"" curves or tables are presented in the Aeroplane Operations Manuals. Their purpose is a) to determine the fuel consumption for a certain still air distance considering the decreasing fuel flow with decreasing mass. b) to determine the flight time for a certain leg under consideration of temperature deviations. c) to determine the still air distance for a wind components varying with altitude.

d) to determine the optimum speed considering the fuel cost as well as the time related cost of the aeroplane. 33.6.1.3 (2463) (For this question use annex 033-4616A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.6)In order to get alternate fuel and time, the twin -jet aeroplane operations manual graph shall be entered with: a) Distance (NM), wind component, landing mass at alternate. b) Still air distance, wind component, zero fuel mass. c) Flight time, wind component, landing mass at alternate. d) Distance (NM), wind component, zero fuel mass. 33.6.1.3 (2464) (For this question use annex 033-9697A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.4)Given: twin jet aeroplane, Estimated mass on arrival at the alternate 50000 kg, Estimated mass on arrival at the destination 52525 kg, Alternate elevation MSL, Destination elevation 1500 ftFind: Final reserve fuel and corresponding time a) 1180 kg, 30 min b) 2360 kg, 30 min c) 2360 kg, 01 h 00 min d) 1180 kg, 45 min 33.6.1.3 (2465) (For this question use annex 033-9698A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.4)Given: twin jet aeroplane, Estimated mass on arrival at the alternate 50000 kg, Elevation at destination aerodrome 3500 ft, Elevation at alternate aerodrome 30 ftFind: Final reserve fuel a) 1180 kg b) 2360 kg c) 1150 kg d) 2300 kg 33.6.1.3 (2466) (For this question use annex 033-9550A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.2.2)Find the SHORT DISTANCE CRUISE ALTITUDE for the twin jet aeroplane.Given: Brake release mass=45000 kg, Temperature=ISA + 20°C, Trip distance=50 Nautical Air Miles (NAM) a) 10000 ft b) 7500 ft c) 12500 ft d) 11000 ft 33.6.1.3 (2467) (For this question use annex 033-9551A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.2.2)Find the SHORT DISTANCE CRUISE ALTITUDE for the twin jet aeroplane.Given: Brake release mass=40000 kg, Temperature=ISA + 20°C, Trip distance=150 Nautical Air Miles (NAM) a) 30000 ft b) 25000 ft c) 21000 ft d) 27500 ft

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33.6.1.3 (2468) (For this question use annexes 033-9494A and 033-9694B or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1 and Figure 4.3.1B)Given: twin jet aeroplane, Zero fuel mass 50000 kg, Landing mass at alternate 52000 kg, Final reserve fuel 2000 kg, Alternate fuel 1000 kg, Flight to destination: Distance 720 NM, True course 030°, W/V 340°/30 kt, Long range cruise, FL 330, Outside air temperature -30°CFind: Estimated trip fuel and time with simplified flight planning a) 4800 kg, 01 h 51 min b) 4400 kg, 02 h 05 min c) 4750 kg, 02 h 00 min d) 4600 kg, 02 h 05 min 33.6.1.3 (2469) (For this question use annex 033-9695A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.3C)Given: Twin jet aeroplane, Ground distance to destination aerodrome is 1600 NM, Headwind component 50 kt, FL 330, Cruise .78 Mach, ISA Deviation +20°C and Landing mass 55000 kgFind: Fuel required and trip time with simplified flight planning a) 12400 kg, 04 h 00 min b) 11400 kg, 04 h 12 min c) 11600 kg, 04 h 15 min d) 12000 kg, 03 h 51 min 33.6.1.3 (2470) (For this question use annex 033-9696A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.6)Given: twin jet aeroplane, Dry operating mass 35500 kg, Traffic load 14500 kg, Final reserve fuel 1200 kg, Distance to alternate 95 NM, Tailwind component 10 ktFind: Fuel required and trip time to alternate with simplified flight planning (ALTERNATE PLANNING) a) 1000 kg, 24 min b) 1000 kg, 40 min c) 800 kg, 24 min d) 800 kg, 0.4 hr 33.6.1.3 (2471) (For this question use annexes 033-11226A and 033-11226B)In standard atmosphere, assuming a mass of 197 000 kg, in order to fly at FL 370 and to be at the optimum altitude, your Mach number should be: a) 0.82 b) 0.84 c) 0.80 d) the same as for LRC (Long Range Cruise) 33.6.1.3 (2472) (For this question use annex 031-11229A )For a turbojet aeroplane flying with a mass of 190 000 kg, at Mach 0.82, and knowing that the temperature at flight level FL 370 is - 35° C, the optimum flight altitude calculated using the annex is: a) 37400 ft b) 37800 ft c) 34600 ft d) 38600 ft

33.6.1.5 (2473) Given:Dry operating mass (DOM)= 33500 kgLoad= 7600 kgMaximum allowable take-off mass= 66200 kgStandard taxi fuel= 200 kgTank capacity= 16 100 kgThe maximum possible take-off fuel is: a) 15 900 kg b) 17 100 kg c) 16 300 kg d) 17 300 kg 33.6.1.5 (2474) (For this question use annex 033-3305A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1)Given: long range cruise: temp. -63° C at FL 330 initial gross mass enroute 54 100 kg, leg flight time 29 minFind: fuel consumption for this leg a) 1 020 kg b) 1 200 kg c) 1 100 kg d) 1 680 kg 33.6.1.5 (2475) (For this question use annex 033-3306A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1)Given: flight time from top of climb to the enroute point in FL280 is 48 min. Cruise procedure is long range cruise (LRC). Temp. ISA -5° C Take-off mass 56 000 kg Climb fuel 1 100 kgFind: distance in nautical air miles (NAM) for this leg and fuel consumption: a) 345 NAM, 2000 kg b) 350 NAM, 2000 kg c) 345 NAM, 2100 kg d) 437 NAM, 2100 kg 33.6.1.5 (2476) (For this question use annex 033-3307A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1)Given: estimated take-off mass 57 500 kg,initial cruise FL 280,average temperature during climb ISA -10°C,average head wind component 18 ktFind: climb time a) 13 min b) 11 min c) 15 min d) 14 min 33.6.1.5 (2477) (For this question use annexes 033-3308A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1)Given : brake release mass 57 500 kgtemperature ISA -10°C, head wind component 16 ktinitial FL 280Find: still air distance (NAM) and ground distance (NM) for the climb a) 62 NAM, 59 NM b) 59 NAM,62 NM c) 67 NAM, 71 NM d) 71 NAM,67 NM 33.6.1.5 (2478) (For this question use annex 033-3309A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure

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4.5.1)Given : mass at brake release 57 500 kg,temperature ISA -10°C, average head wind component 16 ktinitial cruise FL 280Find: climb fuel a) 1138 kg b) 1238 kg c) 1387 kg d) 1040 kg 33.6.1.5 (2479) (For this question use annex 033-3311A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1)Given :FL 330, long range cruise, OAT -63°C, gross mass 50 500 kg.Find: true airspeed (TAS) a) 420 kt b) 433 kt c) 431 kt d) 418 kt 33.6.1.5 (2480) (For this question use annex 033-3318A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1)Given: long range cruise, outside air temperature (OAT) -45 ° C in FL 350, mass at the beginning of the leg 40 000 kg, mass at the end of the leg 39 000 kg.Find: true airspeed (TAS) at the end of the leg and the distance (NAM). a) TAS 431 kt, 227 NAM b) TAS 423 kt, 227 NAM c) TAS 431 kt, 1163 NAM d) TAS 423 kt, 936 NAM 33.6.1.5 (2481) (For this question use annexes 033-3320A, 033-3320B and 033-3320C or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figures 4.2.1, 4.2.2 and 4.5.3.2)Given: estimated take-off mass 57 000 kg, still air distance 150 NAM, outside air temperature (OAT) ISA -10K, cruise at 0.74 Mach.Find : cruise altitude and expected true airspeed a) 25 000 ft, 435 kt b) 25 000 ft, 445 kt c) 22 000 ft, 441 kt d) 22 000 ft, 451 kt 33.6.1.5 (2482) (For this question use annex 033-9701A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1)Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London for the twin jet aeroplane. Given: Estimated Take-off Mass (TOM) 52000 kg, Airport elevation 387 ft, FL 280, W/V 280°/40 kt, ISA Deviation -10°C, Average True Course 340° Find: Fuel to the top of climb (TOC) a) 1000 kg b) 1000 lbs c) 1100 kg d) 1500 lbs 33.6.1.5 (2483) (For this question use annex 033-3910A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.4)Planning a flight from Paris Charles de Gaulle to London Heathrow for a twin jet aeroplane.Preplanning:Dry Operating Mass (DOM): 34 000 kgTraffic Load: 13

000 kgThe holding is planned at 1 500 ft above alternate elevation. The alternate elevation is 256 ft. The holding is planned for 30 minutes with no reductions.Determine the Estimated Landing Mass at alternate Manchester. a) 48 125 kg. b) 49 250 kg. c) 2 250 kg. d) 48 675 kg. 33.6.1.5 (2484) (For this question use annexes 033-3911A and 033-3911B) or (Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition and Flight planning manual Figure 4.3.6)Planning a flight from Paris Charles de Gaulle (N49 00.9 E002 36.9) to London Heathrow (N51 29.2 W000 27.9) for a twin - jet aeroplane. The alternate airport is Manchester (N53 21.4 W002 15.7) Preplanning:The wind from London to Manchester is 250°/30 ktThe distance from London to Manchester is 160 NM.Assume the Estimated Landing Mass at alternate is about 50 000 kg.Find the alternate fuel and the according time. a) 1 450 kg and 32 minutes. b) 1 300 kg and 28 minutes. c) 1 600 kg and 36 minutes. d) 1 200 kg and 26 minutes. 33.6.1.5 (2485) (For this question use annexes 033-3912A and 033-3912B or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition and Flight planning manual Figure 4.3.2A)Planning a flight from Paris Charles de Gaulle (N49 00.9 E002 36.9) to London Heathrow (N51 29.2 W000 27.9) for a twin - jet aeroplane.Preplanning:Powersetting: Mach= 0.74Planned flight level FL 280The Landing Mass in the fuel graph is 50 000 kgThe trip distance used for calculation is 200 NMThe wind from Paris to London is 280°/ 40 ktFind the estimated trip fuel. a) 1 740 kg. b) 1 550 kg. c) 1 900 kg. d) 1 450 kg. 33.6.1.5 (2486) (For this question use annex 033-9558A)Finish the ENDURANCE/FUEL CALCULATION and determine ATC ENDURANCE for a twin jet aeroplane, with the help of the table provided. Contingency is 5% of the planned trip fuel and fuel flow for extra fuel is 2400 kg/h. a) ATC ENDURANCE: 04:07 b) ATC ENDURANCE: 03:52 c) ATC ENDURANCE: 03:37 d) ATC ENDURANCE: 04:12 33.6.1.5 (2487) (For this question use annex 033-9562A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1) The aeroplane gross mass at top of climb is 61500 kg. The distance to be flown is 385 NM at FL 350 and OAT -54.3 °C. The wind component is 40 kt tailwind.Using long range cruise procedure what fuel is required? a) 2150 kg b) 2250 kg

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c) 2350 kg d) 2050 kg 33.6.1.5 (2488) (For this question use annex 033-9564A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1)Find: Time, Fuel, Still Air Distance and TAS for an enroute climb 280/.74 to FL 350. Given: Brake release mass 64000 kg, ISA +10°C, airport elevation 3000 ft a) 26 min, 1975 kg, 157 Nautical Air Miles (NAM), 399 kt b) 26 min, 2050 kg, 157 Nautical Air Miles (NAM), 399 kt c) 20 min, 1750 kg, 117 Nautical Air Miles (NAM), 288 kt d) 25 min, 1875 kg, 148 Nautical Air Miles (NAM), 391 kt 33.6.1.5 (2489) (For this question use annex 033-9699A and 033-9699B or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Paragraph 5.1 and Figure 4.5.1)Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London for a twin jet aeroplane. Given: Estimated Take-off Mass (TOM) 52000 kg, Airport elevation 387 ft, FL 280, W/V 280°/40 kt, ISA-Deviation -10°C, Average True Course 340° Find: Ground distance to the top of climb (TOC) a) 50 NM b) 56 NM c) 53 NM d) 47 NM 33.6.1.5 (2490) (For this question use annex 033-9700A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1)Planning an IFR-flight from Paris (Charles de Gaulle) to London (Heathrow) for the twin jet aeroplane. Given: Estimated Take-off Mass (TOM) 52000 kg, Airport elevation 387 ft, FL 280, W/V 280°/40 kt, ISA Deviation -10°C, Average True Course 340° Find: Time to the top of climb (TOC) a) 11 min b) 3 min c) 12 min d) 15 min 33.6.1.5 (2491) (For this question use annex 033-11239A and 031-11239B)The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data:- Flight leg distance: 3 500 NM- Flight level FL 310, true airspeed: 450 kt- Headwind component at this level: 55 kt- Initially planned take-off mass (without extra fuel on board): 180 000 kg- Fuel price: 0.30 $/l at departureThe commander may carry a fuel quantity of 8 000 kg in addition to that which is necessary.For this fuel transport operation to be cost effective, the maximum fuel price at arrival must be: a) 0.27 $/l b) 0.26 $/l c) 0.28 $/l d) 0.33 $/l 33.6.1.5 (2492) (For this question use annex 033-11240A and 033-11240B)The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data:- Flight leg distance: 3 500 NM- Flight level FL 310, true airspeed: 450 kt- Headwind component at this

level: 55 kt- Initially planned take-off mass (without extra fuel on board): 180 000 kg- Fuel price: 0.27 $/l at destinationThe commander may carry on board 8 000 kg more fuel than that which is necessary.For this fuel transport operation to be cost effective, the maximum fuel price at departure must be: a) 0.30 $/l b) 0.24 $/l c) 0.28 $/l d) 0.29 $/l 33.6.1.5 (2493) (For this question use annex 033-11243A and 033-11243B)The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data:- Flight leg distance: 3 500 NM- Flight level FL 310, true airspeed: 450 kt- Headwind component at this level: - 55 kt- Initially planned take-off mass (without extra fuel on board): 180 000 kg- Fuel price: 0.30 Euro/l at departure, 0.27 Euro/l at destinationTo maximize savings, the commander decides to carry extra fuel in addition to that which is necessary.Using the appended annex, the optimum quantity of fuel which should be carried in addition to the prescribed quantity is: a) The fuel transport operation is not recommended in this case. b) 22 000 kg c) 15 000 kg d) 8 000 kg 33.6.1.5 (2494) (For this question use annex 033-11244A and 033-11244B)The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data:- Flight leg distance: 4 000 NM- Flight level FL 310, true airspeed: 450 kt- Headwind component at this level: 50 kt- Initially planned take-off mass (without extra fuel on board): 170 000 kg- Fuel price: 0.27 Euro/l at departure, 0.30 Euro/l at destinationTo maximize savings, the commander chooses to carry extra fuel in addition to that which is necessary.Using the appended annex, the optimum quantity of fuel which should be carried in addition to the prescribed quantity is: a) 8 000 kg b) The fuel transport operation is not recommended in this case. c) 18 000 kg d) 32 000 kg 33.6.1.5 (2495) (For this question use annex 033-11245A and 033-11245B)The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data:- Flight leg distance: 3 500 NM- Flight level FL 310, true airspeed: 450 kt- Headwind component at this level: 5 kt- Initially planned take-off mass (without extra fuel on board): 180 000 kg- Fuel price: 0.35 $/l at departure, 0.315 $/l at destinationTo maximize savings, the commander chooses to carry extra fuel in addition to that which is necessary.Using the appended annex, the optimum quantity of fuel which should be carried in addition to the prescribed quantity is: a) The fuel transport operation is not recommended in this case. b) 22 000 kg c) 15 000 kg d) 8 000 kg

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33.6.1.5 (2496) For flight planning purposes the landing mass at alternate is taken as: a) Zero Fuel Mass plus Final Reserve Fuel. b) Landing Mass at destination plus Alternate Fuel. c) Zero Fuel Mass plus Final Reserve Fuel and Alternate Fuel. d) Zero Fuel Mass plus Final Reserve Fuel and Contingency Fuel. 33.6.1.5 (2497) Given: Maximum allowable take-off mass 64400 kg, Maximum landing mass 56200 kg, Maximum zero fuel mass 53000 kg, Dry operating mass 35500 kg, Traffic load 14500 kg, Trip fuel 4900 kg, Minimum Take-off Fuel 7400 kgFind: Maximum allowable take-off fuel a) 11100 kg b) 11400 kg c) 14400 kg d) 8600 kg 33.6.1.5 (2498) Given: Maximum allowable take-off mass 64400 kg, Maximum landing mass 56200 kg, Maximum zero fuel mass 53000 kg, Dry operating mass 35500 kg, Traffic load 14500 kg, Trip fuel 4900 kg, Take-off fuel 7400 kgFind: Maximum additional load a) 3000 kg b) 4000 kg c) 7000 kg d) 5600 kg 33.6.1.5 (2499) (For this question use annex 033-9708A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.2)Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London for the twin jet aeroplane. Given: Gross mass 50000 kg, FL 280, ISA Deviation -10°C, Cruise procedure Mach 0.74Determine the TAS a) 430 kt b) 440 kt c) 427 kt d) 417 kt 33.6.1.5 (2500) (For this question use annexes 033-11204A, 033-11204B and 033-11204C)The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data:Flight leg ground distance: 4 000 NMFlight level FL 370, ""Long range"" flight regimeEffective wind at this level: head wind of 50 ktTemperature: ISACentre of gravity (CG): 37 %Pack flow : LOW (LO)Anti ice: OFFReference landing mass: 140 000 kgTaxi fuel: 500 kgFinal reserve fuel: 2 400 kgThe fuel quantity which must be loaded on board the aircraft is: a) 51 860 kg b) 52 060 kg c) 46 340 kg d) 41 950 kg 33.6.1.5 (2501) (For this question use annex 033-11207A and 033-11207B)A turbojet aeroplane is

prepared for a 1300 NM flight at FL 350, with a true airspeed of 460 kt and a head wind of 160 kt. The take-off runway limitation is 174 000 kg, the planned departure mass is 160 000 kg. The departure fuel price is equal to 0.92 times the arrival fuel price (fuel price ratio = 0.92). In order for the airline to optimize its savings, the additional fuel quantity that must be loaded on board is: a) 14 000 kg b) 30 000 kg c) 42 000 kg d) 12 000 kg 33.6.1.5 (2502) (For this question use annexes 033-11224A, 033-11224B and 033-11224C)Given:. Take-off mass: 150 000 kg. Planned cruise at FL 350. Long range MACH. Standard Atmosphere (ISA). CG: 37 %You have to cover an air distance of 2 000 NM.Your flight time will be: a) 304 minutes b) 288 minutes c) 298 minutes d) 359 minutes 33.6.1.5 (2503) (For this question use annex 033-11252A,033-11252B and 033-11252C)Knowing that:. Mass at brake release: 210 000 kg. Selected cruise speed: 0.82 Mach. Air distance: 3 000 NM. Cruise level: optimum. Air conditioning: standard. Anti-icing: OFF. Temperature: ISA. CG: 37%Assuming zero wind, the planned flight time from take-off to landing needed to complete this flight will be: a) 400 minutes b) 383 minutes c) 394 minutes d) 389 minutes 33.6.1.5 (2504) (For this question use annex 033-11253A, 033-11253B, 033-11253C and 033-11253D)Knowing that:. Mass at brake release: 190 000 kg. Selected cruise speed: 0.82 Mach. Flight leg distance: 1 500 NM. Cruise level: optimum. Air conditioning: standard. Anti-icing: OFF. Temperature: ISA. CG: 37%Assuming zero wind, the planned flight time from take-off to landing needed to complete this flight will be: a) 209 minutes b) 192 minutes c) 198 minutes d) 203 minutes 33.6.1.5 (2505) (For this question use annex 033-11254A, 033-11254B, 033-11254C and 033-11254D)Knowing that:. Mass at brake release: 190 000 kg. Selected cruise speed: 0.82 Mach. Flight leg distance: 1 500 NM. Cruise level: optimum. Air conditioning: standard. Anti-icing: OFF. Temperature: ISA. CG: 37%Assuming zero wind, the planned landing mass at destination will be: a) 171 200 kg b) 169 200 kg

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c) 170 200 kg d) 174 800 kg 33.6.1.5 (2506) (For this question use annex 033-11253A, 033-11253B, and 033-11253C)Knowing that:. Mass at brake release: 210 000 kg. Selected cruise speed: 0.82 Mach. Flight leg distance: 3 000 NM. Cruise level: optimum. Air conditioning: standard. Antiicing: OFF. Temperature: ISA. CG: 37Assuming zero wind, the planned landing mass at destination will be: a) 172 300 kg b) 170 400 kg c) 171 300 kg d) 176 100 kg 33.6.1.5 (2507) (For this question use annex 033-11259A and 033-11259B)The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data:- Flight leg air distance: 2 700 NM- Flight level FL 310, true airspeed: 470 kt- Tailwind component at this level: 35 kt- Initially planned take-off mass (without extra fuel on board): 180 000 kg- Fuel price: 0.28 Euro/l at departure, 0.26 Euro/l at destinationTo maximize savings, the commander chooses to carry extra fuel in addition to that which is necessary.The optimum quantity of fuel which should be carried in addition to the prescribed quantity is: a) The fuel transport operation is not recommended in this case b) 4 000 kg c) 6 000 kg d) 10 000 kg 33.6.1.5 (2508) (For this question use annex 033-11260A and 033-11260B)The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data:- Flight leg air distance: 2 700 NM- Flight level FL 310, true airspeed: 470 kt- Tailwind component at this level: 35 kt- Initially planned take-off mass (without extra fuel on board): 195 000 kg- Fuel price: 0.28 Euro/l at departure, 0.26 Euro/l at destinationTo maximize savings, the commander chooses to carry extra fuel in addition to that which is necessary.The optimum quantity of fuel which should be carried in addition to the prescribed quantity is: a) The fuel transport operation is not recommended in this case b) 5 000 kg c) 8 000 kg d) 10 000 kg 33.6.1.5 (2509) (For this question use annex 033-11270A)A turbojet aeroplane flies using the following data:. flight level: FL 330, flight regime: ""Long Range"" (LR), mass: 156 500 kg. tailwind component at this level: 40 ktWith a remaining flight time of 1 h 10 min the ground distance that can be covered by the aeroplane at cruising speed is: a) 539 NM b) 493 NM c) 471 NM d) 518 NM

33.6.1.5 (2510) (For this question use annex 033-11271A)The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data:. Take-off mass: 210 500 kg. Flight leg ground distance: 2 500 NM. Flight level FL 330, ""Long Range"" flight regime . Tailwind component at this level: 70 kt. Total anti-ice set on ""ON"". Fixed taxi fuel: 500 kg, final reserve: 2 400 kg. Ignore alternate fuel.The effects of climb and descent are not corrected for consumption.The quantity of fuel that must be loaded at the parking area is: a) 31 840 kg b) 31 340 kg c) 30 200 kg d) 39 750 kg 33.6.1.6 (2511) Find the distance to the POINT OF SAFE RETURN (PSR). Given: maximum useable fuel 15000 kg, minimum reserve fuel 3500 kg, Outbound: TAS 425 kt, head wind component 30 kt, fuel flow 2150 kg/h, Return: TAS 430 kt, tailwind component 20 kt, fuel flow 2150 kg/h a) 1125 NM b) 1143 NM c) 1463 NM d) 1491 NM 33.6.1.7 (2512) On an ATC flight plan, an aircraft indicated as ""H"" for ""Heavy"" a) is of the highest wake turbulence category b) has a certified landing mass greater than or equal to 136 000 kg c) has a certified take-off mass greater than or equal to 140 000 kg d) requires a runway length of at least 2 000m at maximum certified take-off mass 33.6.1.7 (2513) On a VFR flight plan, the total estimated time is: a) the estimated time from take-off to overhead the destination airport b) the estimated time from take-off to overhead the destination airport, plus 15 minutes c) the estimated time from take-off to landing at the alternate airport d) the estimated time from engine start to landing at the destination airport 33.6.1.7 (2514) On an ATC flight plan, the letter ""Y"" is used to indicate that the flight is carried out under the following flight rules. a) IFR followed by VFR b) VFR followed by IFR c) IFR d) VFR 33.6.1.7 (2515) On an ATC flight plan, to indicate that you will overfly the way-point TANGO at 350 kts at flight level 280, you write: a) TANGO / N0350 F280 b) TANGO / K0350 FL280

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c) TANGO / FL280 N0350 d) TANGO / KT350 F280 33.6.1.7 (2516) On a ATC flight plan, to indicate that you will overfly the way-point ROMEO at 120 kt at flight level 085, you will write : a) ROMEO / N0120 F085 b) ROMEO / K0120 FL085 c) ROMEO / FL085 N0120 d) ROMEO / F085 N0120 33.7.1.1 (2517) To carry out a VFR flight to an off-shore platform, the minimum fuel quantity on board is: a) identical to that defined for VFR flights over land b) at least equal to that defined for IFR flights c) that defined for VFR flights over land increased by 5 % d) that defined for VFR flights over land increased by 10 % 33.7.1.1 (2518) For a flight to an off-shore platform, an alternate aerodrome is compulsory, except if :1 - flight duration does not exceed two hours2 - during the period from two hours before to two hours after the estimated landing time, the forecast conditions of ceiling and visibility are not less than one and a half times the applicable minima3 - the platform is available and no other flight either from or to the platform is expected between the estimated time of departure and one half hour after the estimated landing timeThe combination which regroups all of the correct statements is : a) 2001-02-03 b) 02-Jan c) 1 - 3 d) 2 - 3 33.7.1.2 (2519) A helicopter is on a 150 NM leg to an off-shore oil rig. Its TAS is 130 kt with a 20 kt tailwind, its endurance is 3h30min without reserve. Upon reaching destination, it is asked to proceed outbound to locate a ship in distress, on a track which gives a 15 kt tailwind. Maintaining zero reserve on return to the oil rig, the helicopter can fly outbound for distance of: a) 160.3 NM b) 224.5 NM c) 158.6 NM d) 222.1 NM 40.1.1.1 (2520) Concerning the relation between performance and stress, which of the following statement(s) is (are) correct? a) A moderate level of stress may improve performance. b) A student will learn faster and better under severe stress. c) Domestic stress will not affect the pilot's performance because he is able to leave this type of stress on the ground.

d) A well trained pilot is able to eleminate any kind of stress completely when he is scheduled to fly. 40.1.1.1 (2521) Stress is a frequent aspect of the pilot's job. Under which of the following circumstances does it occur?1. Stress occurs whenever the pilot must revise his plan of action and does not immediately have a solution2. Stress occurs with unexperienced pilots when the situational demands exceed their individual capabilities3. Stress occurs if a pilot is convinced that he will not be able to find a solution for the problem he just is confronted with a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct b) Only 1 is false c) 1 and 2 are correct, 3 is false d) 1 is correct, 2 and 3 are false 40.1.1.1 (2522) Divided attention is the ability :1. to execute several mental activities at almost the same time (i.e. when switching attention from outside the aircraft to the airspeed indicator on the instrument panel)2. to monitor the progress of a motor programme (i.e. flying or taxiing the airplane) on a relatively subconscious level, while making a radio call at the same time (requiring a rather conscious level)3 .to select information and check if it is relevant to the task in hand. At the same time no other operation can be performed.4. to delegate tasks to the copilot while concentrating on the procedures a) 1 and 2 are correct, 3 and 4 are false b) 1,2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false c) 1 and 3 are correct, 2 and 4 are false d) Only 3 is false 40.1.1.1 (2523) The physiology of stress is now well known: a) stress promotes an increase in physical strength rather than promoting mental oerformance b) the only stress hormone is adrenaline c) stress develops in 2 stages: sublimation of performance and then acceleration of heart rate and increase in vision d) stress slows down the production of sugar by the organism and thereby slows down the heart rate 40.1.1.1 (2524) An overstressed pilot may show the following symptoms:1. mental blocks, confusion and channelized attention2. resignation, frustration, rage3. deterioration in motor coordination4. high pitch voice and fast speaking a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false c) 1 and 2 are correct, 3 and 4 are false d) 1and 3 are correct, 2 and 4 are false 40.1.1.2 (2525) In the initial phase of flight training the relationship between confidence and expertise can be described as:

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a) the pilot is competent enough to fly the aircraft at this stage, but does neither have a great deal of confidence in his/her abilities nor in the whole system b) the pilot is sufficiently competent to fly and knows at this stage what he can and cannot do c) during this learning stage, the pilot is very near to achieving full potential knowledge of the machine d) the pilot has a sphere of expertise wich is reduced to daily use of his skills 40.1.1.2 (2526) A pilot is skilled when he :-1 : trains or practises regularly-2 : knows how to manage himself/herself-3 : possesses all the knowledge associated with his aircraft-4 : knows how to keep resources in reserve for coping with the unexpected a) 1,2,4 b) 1,2,3,4 c) 1,2 d) 2, 3,4 40.1.2.0 (2527) The rate of accidents in commercial aviation (excluding sabotage and acts of terrorism) : a) is approximatively 1 accident per million airport movements b) has improved considerably over the last fifteen years c) is a long way short of the safety level of road transport d) represents about fifty accidents around the world every year 40.1.2.0 (2528) As a cause of accidents, the human factor a) is cited in approximately 70 - 80 % of aviation accidents b) has increased considerably since 1980 - the percentage of accident in which this factor has been involved has more than tripled since this date c) which is cited in current statistics, applies to the flight crew and ATC only d) plays a negligible role in commercial aviation accidents. It is much more important in general aviation 40.1.2.0 (2529) What airplane equipment marked a subtantial decrease in hull loss rates in the eighties? a) GPWS b) DME c) SSR d) TCAS 40.1.2.0 (2530) In civil air transport, linear accelerations (Gx):- 1 : do not exist- 2 : have slight physiological consequences- 3 : may, in the case of pull-out, lead to loss of consciousness- 4 : cause sensory illusions on the pitch axis a) 2,4 b) 1 c) 3,4 d) 3

40.1.3.0 (2531) Thinking on human reliability is changing. a) Human errors are now considered as being inherent to the cognitive function of human and are generally inescapable b) Human errors can be avoided. All it takes is to be vigilant and to extend one's knowledge c) The individual view of safety has gradually replaced the systemic view of safety d) It is thought that it will be possible to eliminate errors in the near future 40.1.3.0 (2532) Between which components is an interface mismatch causing an error of interpretation by using an old three-point altimeter? a) Liveware - Hardware b) Liveware - Software c) Liveware - Environment d) Liveware - Liveware 40.1.3.0 (2533) Between which components is an interface mismatch responsible for deficiencies in conceptual aspects of warning systems? a) Liveware - Software b) Liveware - Hardware c) Liveware - Environment d) Liveware - Liveware 40.1.3.0 (2534) Between which components is an interface mismatch causing disturbance of the biological rhythm, thus leading to reduced human peformance? a) Liveware - Environment b) Liveware - Hardware c) Liveware - Software d) Liveware - Liveware 40.1.3.0 (2535) The errors resulting from an irrational indexing system in an operations manual are related to an interface mismatch between a) Liveware - Software b) Liveware - Hardware c) Liveware - Environment d) Liveware - Liveware 40.2.1.0 (2536) Man possesses a system for maintaining his internal equilibrium in the face of variations brought about by external stimulations.This internal equilibrium is called : a) Homeostasis b) Heterostasis c) Isothermy d) Metastasis 40.2.1.1 (2537) The earth's atmosphere consists of different gases in various concentration. Match

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the following:1 nitrogen A 0,03%2 oxygen B 0,92%3 carbon dioxide C 20.95%4 rare gas D 78,10% a) 1D, 2C, 3A, 4B b) 1B, 2A, 3D, 4C c) 1C, 2B, 3A, 4D d) 1D, 2C, 3B, 4A 40.2.1.1 (2538) Gases of physiological importance to man are: a) oxygen and carbon dioxide b) nitrogen and carbon dioxide c) oxygen and carbon monoxide d) oxygen, nitrogen and water vapor 40.2.1.1 (2539) The volume percentage of oxygen in the atmosphere is 21% which a) is constant for all altitudes conventional airplanes can reach b) decreases with increasing altitude c) increases with increasing altitude d) is dependent on the present air pressure 40.2.1.1 (2540) The following applies for the physical properties of gases: a) at sea-level a gas has 1/3 of the volume it would have at 27000 ft b) at an altitude of 18 000 ft a gas volume is three times as large as it would be at sea-level c) a water vapor saturated gas at 34 000 ft has 6 times its volume as it would have at sealevel d) at an altitute of 63 000 ft water will boil at temperature of 65°C 40.2.1.1 (2541) The percentage of oxygen in the air at an altitude of approximately 34 000 ft is : a) 21% b) 5% c) 10,50% d) 42% 40.2.1.1 (2542) The atmospheric gas pressure a) drops faster at lower altitudes in comparison to the same altitude changes at higher altitudes b) rises with altitude c) decreases linear with altitude d) decreases slower at lower altitudes compared with higher levels and equivalent altitude changes 40.2.1.1 (2543) A certain amount of water vapor saturated air (i.e. intestinal gases) is transported from sea-level up to 34 000 ft. In the same amount of dry air, the volume of this gas is : a) larger b) smaller

c) constant d) first larger, then smaller 40.2.1.1 (2544) You can survive at any altitude, provided that a) enough oxygen, pressure and heat is available b) 21% oxygen is available in the air you breath in c) pressure respiration is guaranteed for that altitude d) the temperature in the cabin does not drop below 10"" C 40.2.1.1 (2545) Fatigue and permanent concentration a) lower the tolerance to hypoxia b) increase the tolerance to hypoxia c) do not affect hypoxia at all d) will increase the tolerance to hypoxia when flying below 15 000 feet 40.2.1.1 (2546) The atmosphere contains the following gases: a) 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, 0,03% carbon dioxide, rest: rare gases b) 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, 1% carbon monoxide, rest: rare gases c) 78% helium, 21% oxygen, 1% carbon monoxide, rest: rare gases d) 78% helium, 21% oxygen, 0,03% carbon dioxide, rest: rare gases 40.2.1.1 (2547) An increase in the amount of carbon dioxide in the blood leads to: a) shortness of breath b) a decrease of acidity in the blood c) a reduction of red blood cells d) an improving resistance to hypoxia 40.2.1.1 (2548) The total pressure of a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of the gases which compose the mixture corresponds to: a) Dalton´s law b) Graham´s law c) Henry`s law d) Boyle Mariotte´s law 40.2.1.1 (2549) The chemical composition of the earth´s atmosphere (I C A O standard atmosphere) is a) 78 % nitrogen, 21 % oxygen, 0,9 % argon, 0,03 % carbon dioxide b) 78 % nitrogen, 21 % oxygen, 0,9 % carbon dioxide, 0,03 % argon c) 78 % nitrogen, 28 % oxygen, 0,9 % carbon dioxide, 0,03 % argon d) 71 % nitrogen, 28 % oxygen, 0,9 % argon, 0,03 % carbon dioxide 40.2.1.1 (2550) According to the I.C.A.O. standard atmosphere, the temperature lapse rate of the troposphere is approximately

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a) - 2 °C every 1000 feet b) 10 °C every 100 feet c) 2 °C every 1000 metres d) constant in the troposphere 40.2.1.1 (2551) The barometric pressure has dropped to 1/2 of the pressure at sea level at a) 18 000 feet b) 10 000 feet c) 25 000 feet d) 30 000 feet 40.2.1.1 (2552) The atmospheric pressure at 18,000 feet altitude is half the atmospheric pressure at sea level.In accordance with this statement, a) the partial oxygen pressure at that altitude will also drop to 1/2 of the pressure of oxygen at sea level b) the oxygen saturation of the blood at that altitude will drop by 50 % too c) the oxygen percentage of the air at that altitude will drop by one half also d) the partial oxygen pressure at that altitude will be doubled 40.2.1.1 (2553) The volume percentage of oxygen in the atmosphere at 30.000 feet remains at 21 %, but the partial pressure of oxygen : a) decreases with decreasing barometric pressure b) remains constant, independent from altitude c) increases by expansion d) decreases significantly with lower temperatures 40.2.1.1 (2554) Which data compose the ICAO standard atmosphere ?1. Density2. Pressure3. Temperature4. Humidity a) 1,2 ,3 b) 1, 2 ,4 c) 2,3 ,4 d) 3 , 4 40.2.1.1 (2555) Boyle's law is directly applicable in case of: a) the expansion of trapped gasses in the human body with increasing altitude b) the occurance of decompression sickness at high altitude c) the occurance of hypoxia with increasing altitude d) hyperventilation with increasing altitude 40.2.1.1 (2556) Dalton's law explains the occurance of : a) altitude hypoxia b) bends c) decompression sickness d) creeps

40.2.1.1 (2557) Henry's Law explains the occurence of: a) decompression sickness b) diffusion c) hyperventilation d) hypoxia 40.2.1.1 (2558) Oxygen, combined with hemoglobin in blood is transported by a) red blood cells b) platelets c) blood plasma d) white blood cells 40.2.1.2 (2559) The respiratory process consists mainly of a) the diffusion of oxygen through the respiratory membranes into the blood, transportation to the cells, diffusion into the cells and elimination of carbon dioxide from the body b) the transportation of oxygen to the cell and the elimination of carbon monoxide c) the transportation of oxygen to the cell and the elimination of nitrogen d) the transportation of carbon dioxide to the cell and elimination of oxygen 40.2.1.2 (2560) Inhaling carbon monoxide can be extremely dangerous during flying. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? a) Carbon monoxide is odourless and cannot be smelled. b) Carbon monoxide increases the oxygen saturation in the blood. c) With increasing altitude the negative effects of carbon monoxide poisoning will be compensated. d) Small amounts of carbon monoxide are harmless. 40.2.1.2 (2561) Carbon monoxide poisoning a) is more likely to occur in aeroplanes where the cabin heat is technically supplied by coating the exhaust b) is more likely to occur in aeroplanes with twin-engines because of high engine efficiency c) only occurs in jet-driven aeroplanes d) occurs only above 15 degrees OAT 40.2.1.2 (2562) In the following list you will find several symptoms listed for hypoxia and carbon monoxide poisoning. Please mark those referring to carbon monoxide poisoning. a) Headache, increasing nausea, dizziness. b) High levels of arousal, increased error proneness, lack of accuracy. c) Euphoria, accomodation problems, blurred vision. d) Muscular spasms, mental confusion, impairment of hearing. 40.2.1.2 (2563) A pilot, climbing in a non-pressurised aircraft and without using supplemental oxygen will pass the ""critical threshold"" at approximately:

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a) 22 000 ft b) 16 000 ft c) 18 000 ft d) 38 000 ft 40.2.1.2 (2564) Breathing 100% will lift the pilot's physiological safe altitude to approximately: a) 38 000 ft b) 10 000 c) 22 000 ft d) 45 000 ft 40.2.1.2 (2565) The most dangerous symptoms of hypoxia at altitude are a) euphoria and impairment of judgement b) hyperventilation c) sensation of heat and blurred vision d) breathlessness and reduced night vision 40.2.1.2 (2566) When consciously breathing fast or hyperventilating due to high arousal or overstress, the carbon dioxide level in the blood is lowered, resulting in: a) less oxygen to be diffused into the cells b) a poor saturation of oxygen in the blood c) a delay in the onset of hypoxia when flying at high altitudes d) the activation of the respiratory centre, which in turn causes hypoxia 40.2.1.2 (2567) With hyperventilation, caused by high levels of arousal or overstress: a) an increased amount of carbon dioxide is exhaled causing muscular spasms and even unconsciousness b) finger nails and lips will turn blue (""cyanosis"") c) more oxygen will reach the brain d) peripherical and scotopic vision will be improved 40.2.1.2 (2568) Breathing 100% oxygen at 38000 ft is equivalent to breathe ambient air at : a) 10 000 ft b) 8 000 ft c) 14 000 ft d) 18 000 ft 40.2.1.2 (2569) At what altitude (breathing 100% oxygen without pressure) could symptoms of hypoxia be expected? a) Approximately 38 - 40 000 ft. b) Approximately 10 - 12 000 ft. c) 22 000 ft d) Approximately 35 000 ft.

40.2.1.2 (2570) To safely supply the crew with oxygen, at which altitude is it necessary to breathe 100% oxygen plus pressure after a rapid decompression ? a) Approximately 38 000 ft. b) Approximately 14 000 ft. c) Approximately 20 000 ft. d) Approximately 45 000 ft. 40.2.1.2 (2571) When the pilot suffers from hypothermia (loss of cabin heating): a) his need for oxygen will be increased as long as he stays conscious b) his oxygen need will not be affected c) his oxygen need will be reduced giving him a better tolerance to hypoxia at higher altitudes d) his oxygen need will be raised and his tolerance to hypoxia will be increased 40.2.1.2 (2572) ""Tunnel vision"" (loss of peripherical vision) can be observed if a pilot is subjected to more than: a) + 3.5 Gz b) - 3.5 Gz c) + 3.5 Gx d) - 3.5 Gy 40.2.1.2 (2573) ""Grey out"" can be observed if a pilot is subjected to more than: a) + 3 Gz b) - 3 Gz c) + 3 Gx d) + 3 Gy 40.2.1.2 (2574) The negative (radial) acceleration of an airplane affects the sitting pilot with inertia along : a) the vertical body axis upwards b) the vertical body axis downwards c) the transverse body axis to the right d) the transverse body axis to the left 40.2.1.2 (2575) How can a pilot increase his tolerance to +Gz ? a) Tightening of muscles, ducking the head and perform a kind of pressure breathing. b) Tighten shoulder harness. c) Take an upright seat position. d) Relax the muscles, ducking the head and lean upper body forward. 40.2.1.2 (2576) Oxygen in the blood is primarily transported by a) the hemoglobin in the red blood cells b) the blood plasma

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c) attaching itself to the hemoglobin in the red blood plasma d) attaching itself to the hemoglobin in the white blood cells 40.2.1.2 (2577) Large amounts of carbon dioxide are eliminated from the body when hyperventilating. This causes the blood a) to become more alkaline increasing the amount of oxygen to be attached to the hemoglobin at lung area b) to turn more acid thus eliminating more oxygen from the hemoglobin c) to accelerate the oxygen supply to the brain d) not to change at all 40.2.1.2 (2578) Hypoxia is caused by a) reduced partial oxygen pressure in the lung b) reduced partial pressure of nitrogen in the lung c) an increased number of red blood cells d) a higher affinity of the red blood cells (hemoglobin) to oxygen 40.2.1.2 (2579) Hypoxia can be caused by:1. low partial pressure of oxygen in the atmosphere when flying at high altitudes without pressurisation and supplemental oxygen2. a decreased saturation of oxygen in the blood due to carbon monoxide attached to the hemoglobin3. blood pooling in the lower extremities due to inertia (+ Gz)4. malfunction of the body cells to metabolize oxygen (i.e. after a hangover) a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct b) 1 and 2 are correct, 3 and 4 are false c) 1 is false, 2, 3 and 4 are correct d) 1, 2, 3 are correct, 4 is false 40.2.1.2 (2580) A pilot will get hypoxia a) after decompression at high altitude and not taking additional oxygen in time b) after decompression to 30 000 feet and taking 100 % oxygen via an oxygen mask c) if his rate of climb exceeds 5 000 ft/min d) if he is flying an unpressurized airplane at an altitude of 15 000 feet and breathing 100 % oxygen 40.2.1.2 (2581) Why is hypoxia especially dangerous for pilots flying solo? a) Since the first signs of hypoxia are generally hard to detect (hypoxia of the brain), the solo pilot may not be able to react in time (i.e. activate his emergency oxygen system) b) Hypoxia does not cause a loss of control in steering the plane. c) Hypoxia improves vision at night, so the pilot will have no indication of danger. d) The pilot may loose control when he is using the oxygen mask. 40.2.1.2 (2582) In the following list you find some symptoms for hypoxia and carbon monoxide poisoning. Please mark those indicating hypoxia: a) Visual disturbances, lack of concentration, euphoria.

b) Nausea and barotitis. c) Dull headache and bends. d) Dizziness, hypothermia. 40.2.1.2 (2583) Which of the following is a/are symptom(s) of hypoxia ? a) Lack of concentration, fatigue, euphoria b) Pain in the joints c) Low blood pressure d) Excessive rate and depth of breathing combined with pains in the chest area 40.2.1.2 (2584) A symptom comparison for hypoxia and hyperventilation is: a) cyanosis (blue color of finger-nail and lips) exists only in hypoxia b) there are great differences between the two c) altitude hypoxia is very unlikely at cabin pressure altitudes above 10 000 ft d) symptoms caused by hyperventilation will immediately vanish when 100% oxygen is given 40.2.1.2 (2585) Which statement applies to hypoxia? a) sensitivity and reaction to hypoxia varies from person to person b) carbon monoxide increases the tolerance of the brain to oxygen deficiency c) you may become immune to hypoxia when exposed repeatedly to hypoxia d) it is possible to prognose when, how and where hypoxia reaction starts to set in 40.2.1.2 (2586) Hypoxia can also be caused by a) a lack of red blood cells in the blood or decreased ability of the hemoglobin to transport oxygen b) a lack of nitrogen in ambient air c) too much carbon dioxide in the blood d) increasing oxygen partial pressure used for the exchange of gases 40.2.1.2 (2587) Which symptom of hypoxia is the most dangerous for conducting safe flight ? a) The interference of reasoning and perceptive functions. b) Dizziness. c) Lack of adaptation. d) Lack of accomodation. 40.2.1.2 (2588) Which of the following applies to carbon monoxide poisoning? a) Several days are needed to recuperate from a carbon monoxide poisoning. b) A very early symptom for realising carbon monoxide poisoning is euphoria. c) The human body shows no sign of carbon monoxide poisoning. d) Inhaling carbon monoxide leads to hyperventilation. 40.2.1.2 (2589) The momentum of gas exchange in respiration is a) dependent on the pressure gradient between the participating gases during

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respiration b) the excess pressure caused by inhaling c) independent from the partial pressures of the participating gases d) depending on the active transportation of nitrogen into the alveoli 40.2.1.2 (2590) Which component(s) is/are transporting the oxygen in the blood? a) Hemoglobin in the red blood cells. b) White blood cells. c) Plasma. d) Blood fat. 40.2.1.2 (2591) Affinity to hemoglobin is best with: a) carbon monoxide b) nitrogen c) oxygen d) carbon dioxide 40.2.1.2 (2592) Which of the following is true concerning carbon monoxide? a) It is to be found in the smoke of cigarettes lifting up a smoker's ""physiological altitude"". b) It combines 5 times faster to the hemoglobin than oxygen. c) It has no physiological effect when mixed with oxygen. d) It is always present in the lungs. 40.2.1.2 (2593) The rate and depth of breathing is primarily controlled by: a) the amount of carbon dioxide in the blood b) the amount of carbon monoxide in the blood c) the amount of nitrogen in the blood d) the total atmospheric pressure 40.2.1.2 (2594) In the alveoli gas exchange takes place (external respiration). Which gas will diffuse from the blood into the lungs? a) Carbon dioxide. b) Ambient air. c) Oxygen. d) Carbon monoxide. 40.2.1.2 (2595) Which statement is correct ? a) Oxygen diffusion from the blood into the cells depends on their partial oxygen pressure gradient. b) The blood plasma is transporting the oxygen. c) The gradient of diffusion is higher at altitude than it is at sea-level. d) Oxygen diffusion from the lungs into the blood does not depend on partial oxygen pressure.

40.2.1.2 (2596) A good method to treat hyperventilation is to: a) talk oneself through the relevant procedure aloud to emotionally calm down and reduce the rate of breathing simultaneously b) don an oxygen mask c) excecute the valsalva manoeuvre d) close the eyes and relax 40.2.1.2 (2597) What could cause hyperventilation ? a) Fear, anxiety and distress b) Abuse of alcohol c) Extreme low rate of breathing d) Fatigue 40.2.1.2 (2598) A pilot who is hyperventilating for a prolonged period of time may even get unconscious. Hyperventilation is likely to occur, when: a) the pilot is emotionally aroused b) there is a low CO-pressure in the blood c) he is flying a tight turn d) there is an increased blood flow to the brain 40.2.1.2 (2599) Hyperventilation can cause unconsciousness, because: a) blood circulation to the brain is slowed down b) oxygen saturation of the blood is decreased c) not enough time is left to exchange oxygen in the lungs d) oxygen saturation of the blood is increased and the brain will be supplied with more blood than normal 40.2.1.2 (2600) At what altitude (""threshold for compensatory reactions"") does the human organism start with remarkable measures to compensate for the drop in pO2 when climbing?At about: a) 6000-7000 FT b) 8000-9000 FT c) 9000-10000 FT d) 10000-12000 FT 40.2.1.2 (2601) Where is the ""critical threshold"" at which a pilot not using oxygen reaches the critical or lethal zone?It starts at: a) 22000 FT. b) 18000 FT c) It25000 FT d) It38000 FT 40.2.1.2 (2602) Short term memory can already be affected when flying as low as: a) 8000 FT

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b) 12000 FT c) 15000 FT d) 20000 FT 40.2.1.2 (2603) Breathing pure oxygen (without pressure) will be sufficient up to an altitude of: a) 38000 FT b) 45000 FT c) 60000 FT d) 80000 FT 40.2.1.2 (2604) After a decompression at high altitude a) nitrogen gas bubbles can be released in the body fluids causing gas embolism, bends and chokes b) automatically oxygen is deployed into the cabin c) temperature in the cockpit will increase d) pressure differentials will suck air into the cabin 40.2.1.2 (2605) In airline operations decompression sickness symptoms a) may develop after a decompression from 7000 FT cabin pressure altitude to 30000 FT flight altitude b) may develop when being decompressed from MSL to 15 000 FT c) appear only in air crew, previously engaged in diving activities d) may affect people with defect tympanic membrane 40.2.1.2 (2606) Symptoms of decompression sickness a) are bends, chokes, skin manifestations, neurological symptoms and circulatory shock b) are only relevant when diving c) can only develop at altitudes of more than 40000 FT d) are flatulence and pain in the middle ear 40.2.1.2 (2607) Decompression sickness symptoms may develop due to a) cabin pressure loss when flying at higher altitudes (above 18000 FT) b) sudden pressure surges in the cabin at altitudes below 18000 FT c) emergency descents after a cabin pressure loss d) fast flights from a high-pressure zone into a low pressure area when flying an unpressurized aeroplane 40.2.1.2 (2608) The eustachian tube serves for the pressure equalization between a) middle ear and external atmosphere b) sinuses of the nose and external atmosphere c) nose and pharyngeal cavity and external atmosphere d) frontal, nose and maxillary sinuses

40.2.1.2 (2609) Disturbances of pressure equalization in air-filled cavities of the head (nose, ear etc.) are called: a) barotrauma b) ebulism c) hypoxia d) hyperventilation 40.2.1.2 (2610) Barotrauma caused by gas accumulation in the stomach and intestinals can lead to: a) pressure pain or flatulence b) barotitis c) decompresion sickness d) barosinusitis 40.2.1.2 (2611) What counter-measure can be used against a barotrauma of the middle ear (aerotitis)? a) Close the mouth, pinch the nose tight and blow out thereby increasing the pressure in the mouth and throat. At the same time try to swallow or move lower jaw (Valsalva) b) Increase rate of descent c) Stop climbing, start descent d) Pilots should apply anti-cold remedies prior every flight to prevent barotrauma in the middle ear 40.2.1.2 (2612) How can you determine if a person is suffering from a barotrauma of the sinuses of the nose (aerosinusitis) or the middle ear (aerotitis) ? a) Hearing difficulties will normally accompany aerotitis b) Aerosinusitis will never develop during descent c) Barotrauma of the middle ear will not effect hearing d) There is no difference 40.2.1.2 (2613) Please mark the counter-measure a pilot can use against a barotrauma of the middle ear (aerotitis). a) Stop descending, climb again and then descend with reduced sink rate b) Increase the rate of descent c) Stop chewing and swallowing movements (""Valsalva"") d) Use drugs against a cold 40.2.1.2 (2614) Barotrauma of the middle ear most likely will occur a) when descending rapidly b) during a long high altitude flight c) when climbing d) in sudden steep turns

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40.2.1.2 (2615) Barotrauma of the middle ear is usually accompanied by a) a reduction in hearing ability and the feeling of increasing pressure b) dizziness c) noises in the ear d) pain in the joints 40.2.1.2 (2616) The effect of hypoxia to vision a) is stronger with the rods b) is usual stronger with the cones c) can only be detected when smoking tobacco d) does not depend on the level of illumination 40.2.1.2 (2617) When oxygen is beeing transferred from the blood into the tissues and carbon dioxide from the body cells into the blood, it is called: a) internal respiration b) external respiration c) ventilation d) hyperventilation 40.2.1.2 (2618) Through which part of the ear does the equalization of pressure take place, when altitude is changed? a) Eustachian tube b) Cochlea c) Tympanic membrane d) External auditory canal 40.2.1.2 (2619) Which of the following symptoms can mark a beginning hyperventilation? a) Dizzy feeling b) Slow heart beat c) Slow rate of breathing d) Cyanosis (blueing of lips and finger nails) 40.2.1.2 (2620) Out of the list of possible measures to counteract hyperventilation, the most effective measure against hyperventilation tetany is: a) breathe into a plastic or paper bag b) hold breath c) avoid strenuous flight manoeuvres d) speak soothingly and get the person to breathe slowly 40.2.1.2 (2621) What event can cause a hyperventilation (not required by physical need)?1. Pressure breathing.2. Anxiety or fear.3. Overstress.4. Strong pain.5. Jogging. a) 1,2,3 and 4 are correct, 5 is false b) Only 2 and 3 are correct

c) 1,2,3,4 and 5 are correct d) 1and 5 are both false 40.2.1.2 (2622) Which of the following could a pilot experience when he is hyperventilating?1. Dizziness2. Muscular spasms3. Visual disturbances4. Cyanosis a) 1,2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false b) 1,2 and 4 are correct, 3 is false c) 1 is false, all others are correct d) 2 and 4 are false 40.2.1.2 (2623) TUC (Time of Useful Consciousness) is: a) the length of time during which an individual can act with both mental and physical efficiency and alertness, measured from the moment at which he is exposed to hypoxia b) the time before becoming unconscious at a sudden pressure loss c) the time after pressure loss until decompression sickness sets in d) the time between the start of hypoxia and death 40.2.1.2 (2624) The ""Effective Performance Time"" or ""Time of Useful Consciousness"" after a decompression at 35 000 ft is: a) between 30 and 60 seconds b) approximately 3 minutes c) approximately 5 minutes d) less than 20 seconds 40.2.1.2 (2625) The time between inadequate oxygen supply and incapacitation is called TUC (Time of Useful Consciousness). It a) varies individually and depends on cabin pressure altitude b) is the same amount of time for every person c) is not dependent on physical or psychological pressure d) varies individually and does not depend on altitude 40.2.1.2 (2626) After a decompression to 43 000 FT the TUC (Time of Useful Consciousness) will be approximately: a) 5-15 seconds b) 30-45 seconds c) 45-60 seconds d) 60-90 seconds 40.2.1.2 (2627) Flights immediately after SCUBA-diving (compressed gas mixtures, bottles) (>10 m depth) a) are forbidden b) can be performed without any danger c) are allowed, if 38000 FT are not exceeded d) should be avoided because hypoxia may develop

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40.2.1.2 (2628) Pain in the Joints (""bends""), which suddenly appear during a flight , are symptoms of a) decompression sickness b) barotrauma c) air-sickness d) hypoxia 40.2.1.2 (2629) After a cabin pressure loss in approximately 35 000 FT the TUC (Time of Useful Consciousness) will be approximately: a) 30 -90 seconds b) 10-15 seconds c) 3-4 minutes d) 5 minutes or more 40.2.1.2 (2630) You suffered a rapid decompression without the appearance of any decompression sickness symptoms.How long should you wait until your next flight? a) 12 hours b) 24 hours c) 36 hours d) 48 hours 40.2.1.2 (2631) Flying immediately following a dive with SCUBA diving equipment (> 10 m depth) a) can cause decompression sicknesss even when flying at pressure altitudes below 18 000 FT b) prevents any dangers caused by aeroembolism (decompression sickness) when climbing to altitudes not exceeding 30 000 FT c) has no influence on altitude flights d) is forbidden for the flight crew, because it leads to hypoxia 40.2.1.2 (2632) Barotrauma of the sinuses of the nose (aerosinusitis) a) is caused by a difference in pressure existing between the sinus cavity and the ambient air b) is only caused by the flying sport, not by the diving sport c) is an irritation of sinuses by abuse of nose sprays d) is only caused by colds and their effects 40.2.1.2 (2633) Barodontalgia a) arises especially with irritations of the sensitive tissues close to the root of a tooth b) arises only at higher altitudes and after decompression c) even arises with healthy teeth d) arises in combination with a cold and very high rates of descent 40.2.1.2 (2634) At a high altitude flight (no cabin pressure system available), a pilot gets severe

flatulence due to trapped gases. The correct counter-measure is: a) descend to lower altitude b) climb to a higher altitude c) perform ""valsalva maneouvre"" d) use supplemental oxygen 40.2.1.2 (2635) A barotrauma of the middle ear (aerotitis) a) is more likely, when the pilot is flying with a respiratory infection and during descent b) is only caused by large pressure changes during climb c) causes severe pain in the sinuses d) is to be expected during rapid decompressions, but an emergency descent immediately following the decompression will eliminate the problem 40.2.1.2 (2636) Trapped intestinal gases can cause severe pain. When is this the case? a) More frequent when flying above 18 000 FT in a non-pressurized aircraft. b) At lower altitudes. c) Only in pressurized aircraft when flying at higher flight levels. d) During descent as well as during climb, when the cabin pressure altitude is exceeding 2 000 FT 40.2.1.2 (2637) The risk of a barotrauma of the middle ear is more likely to occur a) with colds and rapid descents b) with colds and fast climbs c) with colds and slow ascents d) after a decompression 40.2.1.2 (2638) Equalization of pressure is limited between the middle ear and the ambient, when: a) the eustachian tube is blocked b) the nose is pinched c) you breath through the mouth d) barotrauma exists in the sinuses 40.2.1.2 (2639) A barotrauma of the middle ear is a) an acute or chronic trauma of the middle ear caused by a difference of pressure on either side of the eardrum b) a bacterial infection of the middle ear c) a dilatation of the eustachian tube d) an infection of the middle ear caused by rapid decompression 40.2.1.2 (2640) The eustachian tube is the passage way between the a) nasopharynx and the middle ear b) nose, pharynx and inner ear c) nose, pharynx and the external auditory canal d) sinuses and the pharynx

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40.2.1.2 (2641) Which part of the ear could be affected due to air pressure changes during climb and/or descent? a) The eustachian tube and the tympanic membrane (ear drum) b) The semicircular canals c) The cochlea d) The sacculus and utriculus 40.2.1.2 (2642) Hypoxia effects visual performance.A pilot may: a) get blurred and/or tunnel vision b) have a reduction of 25% in visual acuity at 8000 FT AGL c) be unable to maintain piercing vision below 5000 FT AGL d) get colour blindness accompanied by severe headache 40.2.1.2 (2643) Which of the following symptoms could a pilot get, when he is subjected to hypoxia?1. Fatigue.2. Euphoria.3. Lack of concentration.4. Pain in the joints.5. Sensation of suffocation. a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct b) 4 and 5 are correct c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct d) Only 5 is false 40.2.1.2 (2644) In relation to hypoxia, which of the following paraphrase(s) is (are) correct? a) This is a physical condition caused by a lack of oxygen to meet the needs of the body tissues, leading to mental and muscular disturbances, causing impaired thinking, poor judgement and slow reactions b) This is a condition of lacking oxygen in the brain causing the circulatory system to compensate by decreasing the heart rate. c) Hypoxia is often produced during steep turns when pilots turn their heads in a direction opposite to the direction in which the aircraft is turning d) This is a physical condition caused by a lack of oxygen saturation in the blood while hyperventilating. 40.2.1.2 (2645) Hyperventilation is due to an excessive rate of breathing and can produce the following symptoms: a) dizziness, tingling sensation in the fingers and toes, nausea and blurred vision b) reduced heart rate and increase in visual acuity c) a state of overconfidence and reduced heart rate d) blue finger-nails and lips 40.2.1.2 (2646) In order to get rid of excess nitrogen following scuba diving, subsequent flights should be delayed a) 24 hours b) 3 hours after non decompression diving c) 36 hours after any scuba diving d) 48 hours after a continuous ascent in the water has been made

40.2.1.2 (2647) The cabin pressure in airline operation is a) normally not exceeding 6 000 to 8 000 feet b) normally not exceeding 2 000 to 3 000 feet c) normally not exceeding 4 000 to 5 000 feet d) always equivalent to sea level 40.2.1.2 (2648) The type of hypoxia, which occurs at altitude is a explained by: a) Dalton´s law b) Boyle Mariotte´s law c) Henry´s law d) Graham´s law 40.2.1.2 (2649) Gaseous exchange in the human body depends on:1. diffusion gradients between the participating gases2. permeable membranes3. partial pressure of oxygen in the alveolus air4. acid-base balance in the blood a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false c) 2 and 3 are false d) only 1 is correct 40.2.1.2 (2650) Hyperventilation causes a) a lack of carbon dioxide in the blood b) an excess of carbon dioxide in the blood c) acidosis d) hypochondria 40.2.1.2 (2651) Anxiety and fear can cause a) hyperventilation b) hypoxia c) spatial disorientation d) hypoglycemia 40.2.1.2 (2652) Symptoms of decompression sickness a) sometimes can appear with a delay after the airplane is on the ground b) always begin immediately after the decompression during the flight c) normally take 2 or 3 days to appear after exposure to a hypobaric atmosphere d) disappear on landing and never appear again 40.2.1.2 (2653) The first effect to be noticed on gradual exposure to high positive radial accelerations is a) grey-out b) loss of consciousness c) black-out d) red-vision

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40.2.1.2 (2654) Decompression sickness occurs in association with exposure to reduced atmospheric pressure.The evolution of bubbles of nitrogen coming out of solution in body tissues can be derived from: a) Henry´s law b) Boyle Mariotte´s law c) Dalton´s law d) Gay Lussac´s law 40.2.1.2 (2655) The normal rate of breathing is a) 20 to 30 cycles a minute b) 12 to 16 cycles a minute c) 32 to 40 cycles a minute d) 60 to 100 cycles a minute 40.2.1.2 (2656) The main function of the red blood cells is a) to transport oxygen b) to participate in the process of coagulation of the blood c) the cellular defense of the organism d) to contribute to the immune response of the organism 40.2.1.2 (2657) Altitude-hypoxia, when breathing ambient air, should not occur (indifferent phase) a) below 3 000 m b) up to 5 000 m c) between 3 000 m and 5 000 m d) between 5 000 m and 7 000 m 40.2.1.2 (2658) ""The Bends"" as a symptom of decompression sickness consists of: a) pain in the joints b) pain in the thorax and a backing cough c) CNS-disturbances d) loss of peripheral vision 40.2.1.2 (2659) One of the most frequent symptom(s) of decompression sickness emerging after a decompression in airline operation a) are the bends b) are the chokes c) is a shock d) are neurological damages to the CNS 40.2.1.2 (2660) Which phenomenon is common to hypoxia and hyperventilation? a) Tingling sensations in arms or legs. b) Cyanosis (blueing of lips and finger-nails). c) Severe headache. d) Euphoria.

40.2.1.2 (2661) 1. Euphoria can be a symptom of hypoxia. 2. Someone in an euphoric condition is more prone to error. a) 1 and 2 are both correct b) 1 is correct, 2 is not correct c) 1 is not correct, 2 is correct d) 1 and 2 are both not correct 40.2.1.2 (2662) Incapacitation caused by barotrauma from gaseous expansion after decompression at high altitude may be associated with the following part(s) of the body:1 the digestive tract2 the ears3 the eyes4 the sinuses a) 1 b) 1,2,3 c) 2,3,4 d) 2,4 40.2.1.2 (2663) Of the following alternatives, which objective effects are due to positive acceleration (+ Gz)?- 1: Decrease in heart rate- 2: Pooling of blood into lower parts of the body- 3: Drop in blood pressure above heart-level- 4: Downward displacement or deformation of soft or mobile organs a) 2,3,4 b) 1,2,3 c) 1 d) 1,3,4 40.2.1.2 (2664) What is hypoxia ? a) Any condition where the oxygen concentration of the body is below normal limits or where the oxygen available to the body cannot be used due to some pathological condition b) The total absence of oxygen in the air c) The respiratory symptom associated with altitude decompression sickness d) A state charcterised by an excessive supply of oxygen which may be due to maladjustment of the mask 40.2.1.2 (2665) What could be symptoms of hypoxia (when flying without oxygen) above 12,000 ft? a) Headache, fatigue, dizziness, lack of coordination b) Headache, thirst, somnolence, collapse c) Euphoria, headache, improvement in judgement, loss of consciousness d) Trembling, increase in body temperature, convulsions,slowing of the rate of breathing 40.2.1.2 (2666) You climb from 0 to 50.000 ft and measure the decrease of the pressure per 5.000 ft. The absolute difference in barometric pressure is greatest between : a) 0 and 5.000 feet b) 5.000 and 10.000 feet

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c) 10.000 and 15.000 feet d) 45.000 and 50.000 feet 40.2.1.2 (2667) Physiological problems due to increasing altitude are caused by : a) decreased atmospherical pressure b) disorientation c) accelerations d) increased atmospherical pressure 40.2.1.2 (2668) Air at an altitude of 18.000 feet contains, approximately : a) 21% oxygen b) 5% oxygen c) 15% oxygen d) 10% oxygen 40.2.1.2 (2669) Dry air is a mixture of gases. Their volume percentage is about: a) 21% oxygen,78% nitrogen, 1% other gases b) 18% oxygen, 80% nitrogen, 2% other gases c) 19% oxygen, 80% nitrogen, 1% other gases d) 25% oxygen, 74% nitrogen, 1% other gases 40.2.1.2 (2670) The occurrence of pain in the joints (bends) during decompression can be explained by the principle that: a) the quantity of a gas dissolved in a fluid is proportional to the pressure of that gas above the fluid (Henry's Law) b) a volume of gas is inversely proportional to the pressure of this gas at constant temperature (Boyle's law) c) the total pressure of a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of the separate gases (Dalton's Law) d) the molecules of a gas will move from an area of higher concentration or partial pressure to an area of lower concentration or partial pressure (law of diffusion) 40.2.1.2 (2671) Pain in the joints caused by gas bubbles following a decompression is called: a) bends b) chokes c) creeps d) leans 40.2.1.2 (2672) What are the main clinical signs of hypoxia during explosive decompression ? a) Increase in heart and respiratory rates, euphoria, impairment of judgement, memory disorders b) Headaches, fatigue, somnolence, palpitations c) Increase in heart rate, decrease in body temperature impairment of judgement d) Headaches, articular pain, speeding-up of the respiratory rate, memory disorders

40.2.1.2 (2673) Which is the procedure to be followed when symptoms of decompression sickness occur? a) Descend to the lowest possible level and land as soon as possible b) Descend to the lowest possible level and wait for the symptoms to disappear before climbing again c) Only medical treatment is of use d) Only the prompt supply of oxygen is necessary 40.2.1.2 (2674) What is decompression sickness ? a) An sickness resulting from the formation of nitrogen bubbles in bodily tissues and fluids after a cabin pressure loss at high altitude b) A frequent disorder in commercial aviation due to the pressurisation curve of modern aircraft c) A disorder which is solely encountered below 18,000 ft d) The formation of air bubbles in bodily tissues, with no consequences for people's capabilities 40.2.1.2 (2675) Which of the following statements are correct:-1: Scuba diving may be practiced without restriction-2: Many medicines have effects which are incompatible with flight safety-3: An adequate amount of fluid should be drunk when flying-4: Diet has no repercussion on health a) 2 and 3 are correct b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct c) 2, 3 and 4 are correct d) 1, 3 and 4 are correct 40.2.1.2 (2676) A pressurized cabin helps to prevent:1. decompression sickness2 .the problem of expansion of gases in the intestines3. hypoxia4. coronary desease a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct. b) 1, 2 and 4 are correct. c) 2, 3 and 4 are correct. d) 1, 3 and 4 are correct. 40.2.1.2 (2677) Healthy people are usually capable to compensate for a lack of oxygen up to a) 10.000 - 12.000feet b) 15.000 feet c) 20.000 feet d) 25.000 feet 40.2.1.2 (2678) When flying above 10.000 feet hypoxia arises because: a) the partial oxygen pressure is lower than at sea level. b) the composition of the blood changes c) the composition of the air is different from sea level d) the percentage of oxygen is lower than at sea level

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40.2.1.2 (2679) Saturation of oxygen in the blood at sea level is 98%. This saturation decreases with:1. decreasing air pressure2. carbon monoxide poisoning3. increasing altitude4. increasing air pressure a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false b) 1, 2 and 4 are correct, 3 is false c) 2, 3 and 4 are correct, 1 is false d) 1, 3 and 4 are correct, 2 is false 40.2.1.2 (2680) Hypoxia is a situation in which the cells a) have a shortage of oxygen b) are saturated with nitrogen c) are saturated with oxygen d) have a shortage of carbon dioxide 40.2.1.2 (2681) The severity of hypoxia depends on the:1. rate of decompression2. physical fitness3. flight level4. individual tolerance a) 1,2,3 and 4 are correct b) 1,2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false c) 2,3 and 4 are correct, 1 is false d) 1 and 3 are correct, 2 and 4 are false 40.2.1.2 (2682) Which of the following statements concerning hypoxia is correct? a) It is a potential threat to safety. b) It is never a problem at altitudes below 25.000 ft. c) It activates the senses and makes them function better. d) It has little effect on the body, because the body can always compensate for it. 40.2.1.2 (2683) Early symptoms of hypoxia could be: 1. euphoria 2. decreased rate and depth of breathing 3. lack of concentration 4. visual disturbances a) 1,3 and 4 are correct b) 1,2,3 and 4 are correct c) 1,2 and 3 are correct d) 1,2 and 4 are correct 40.2.1.2 (2684) One of the most dangerous symptoms of hypoxia concerning flight safety is: a) impaired judgement, disabling the pilot to recognize the symptoms b) reduced coordination of limb movements, causing the pilot to spin c) cyanosis, reducing then pilots ability to hear d) hyperventilation, causing emotional stress 40.2.1.2 (2685) Which of the following symptoms can indicate the beginning of hypoxia?1. Blue lips and finger nails.2. Euphoria.3. Flatulence.4 .Unconsciousness.. a) 1, 2 and 4 are correct. b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct.

c) 2, 3 and 4 are correct. d) 1, 3 and 4 are correct. 40.2.1.2 (2686) Among the functions below, which is the most sensitive to hypoxia? a) Night vision. b) Motor coordination. c) Hearing. d) Speech. 40.2.1.2 (2687) You are crossing the Alps in a non-pressurised aircraft at an altitude of 15.000 feet. You do not use the oxygen mask because you feel fine. This is unsafe, because: a) your judgement could be impaired b) the blood-pressure can get too high c) the blood-pressure can get too low d) you will get the bends 40.2.1.2 (2688) During a night flight at 10,000 feet you notice that your acuity of vision has decreased. In this case you can increase your acuity by: a) breathing extra oxygen through the oxygen mask. b) closing one eye c) scanning sectors of the field of vision d) dim the instrument lights 40.2.1.2 (2689) During flight all crewmembers have one or more of the following symptoms: 1. blue lips 2. mental disturbances 3. tingling sensations in arms and/or legs 4. reduction of peripheral visionWhich is the possible cause? a) Hypoxia. b) Glaucoma. c) Hypothermia. d) Hypoglycaemia. 40.2.1.2 (2690) Which measure(s) will help to compensate hypoxia?1. Descend below 10 000 FT.2. Breathe 100 % oxygen.3. Climb to or above 10 000 FT.4. Reduce physical activities. a) 1, 2 and 4 are correct b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct c) only 1 is correct d) 1 and 2 are correct, 3 and 4 are false 40.2.1.2 (2691) Hypoxia can be prevented when the pilot a) is using additional oxygen when flying above 10.000 feet b) is relying on the body's built in warning system recognizing any stage of hypoxia c) is swallowing, yawing and applying the Valsalva method d) will not exceed 20 000 FT cabin pressure altitude

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40.2.1.2 (2692) Hypoxia can occur because: a) you are hyperventilating b) you are getting toomuch solar radiation c) you inhale too much nitrogen d) the percentage of oxygen is lower at altitude 40.2.1.2 (2693) You should not despense blood without prior information from your flight surgeon. The most important reason for this advise is: a) you are more susceptible to hypoxia after a blood-donation. b) the chance you get the bends is higher after blood-donation c) your blood-pressure is too low after blood-donation d) your heart frequency is too low after blood-donation 40.2.1.2 (2694) Hyperventilation is: a) an increased lung ventilation b) a too high percentage of nitrogen in the blood c) a decreased lung ventilation d) a too high percentage of oxygen in the blood. 40.2.1.2 (2695) Hyperventilation is: a) a normal compensatory physiological reaction to a drop in partial oxygen pressure (i.e. when climbing a high mountain) b) an accellerated heart frequency caused by an increasing blood pressure c) an accellerated heart frequency caused by a decreasing blood-pressure d) a reduction of partial oxygen pressure in the brain 40.2.1.2 (2696) What is the procedure above 10.000 ft altitude when faced with explosive decompression? a) Don an oxygen mask and descend to below 10,000 ft b) First inform ATC c) Descend to below 10,000 ft and signal an emergency d) Check the cabin altitude, don an oxygen mask and maintain level flight 40.2.1.2 (2697) What is the average Time of Useful Consciousness after a rapid decompression at 40,000 ft ? a) About 12 seconds b) Between 20 seconds and 1 minute c) About 40 secods d) More than 1 minute 40.2.1.2 (2698) What is the Time of Useful Consciouness ? a) The length of time during which an individualcan act with both mental and physical efficiency and alertness, measured from the moment at which he loses his available oxygen supply

b) The time taken to become aware of hypoxia due to gradual decompression c) The pilot's reaction time when faced with hypoxia d) The period of time between the start of hypoxia and the moment that the pilot becomes aware of it 40.2.1.2 (2699) Which of the folllowing statements concerning barotrauma are correct? They are: a) due to pressure differentials between gases in hollow cavities of the body and the ambient pressure b) caused by an increase in the partial pressure of oxygen associated with a decrease in altitude c) more likely to occur during ascent then during a rapid descent d) mainly associated with a sink rate which exceeds the ability of the body to balance its internal pressures 40.2.1.2 (2700) Decompression sickness may occur as from :- 1: an altitude of more than 18,000 ft2 : an altitude of more than 5,500 ft- 3 : a rate of climb of more than 500 ft/min exceeding 18,000 ft- 4 : a temperature of more than 24°C a) 1,3 b) 2,3 c) 1,3,4 d) 2,4 40.2.1.2 (2701) With regard to decompression sickness associated with flight, we know that : a) age, obesity and scuba diving are risk factors b) scuba diving does not pose any problem for a subsequent flight c) sex is the prime risk factor, with two out of every three women being sensitive to it d) physical activity after decompression reduces the risks of decompression sickness symptoms to appear 40.2.1.2 (2702) The procedure to be followed in the event of decompression when flying above 10,000 ft must : a) allow for the rapid supply of oxygen in order to prevent the pilot becoming hypoxic b) allow for a rapid descent independent from sufficient supply of oxygen in order to prevent disorders due to hypoxia c) make it possible to prevent hyperventilation owing to the inhalation of 100 % oxygen d) make it possible to eliminate the risk of fogging due to the sudden pressure changes 40.2.1.2 (2703) What is the ""Time of Useful Consciousness"" for a rapid decompression at 25,000 ft ? a) Between 3 and 5 minutes depending on the physical activities of the subjected pilot b) About 18 seconds c) Between 25 seconds and 1 minute 30 seconds d) About 30 seconds

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40.2.1.2 (2704) A passenger complains about a painful inflated belly at 8.000 feet. You advise him to:1. unbuckle and massage the belly2. stand up and let go the gases out of the intestines3. eat less gas forming food and avoid carbonhydrated beverages before flight in the future4. drink a lot of water throughout the flight a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct b) 2, 3 and 4 are correct c) 1 and 3 not advisable d) only 4 is correct 40.2.1.2 (2705) On ascent the gases in the digestive tract will a) expand b) stay the same c) shrink d) be absorbed by tissues and blood 40.2.1.2 (2706) Pain in the middle ear during descent may be eased by: a) leveling off and possibly climbing b) blocking the effected ear with the palm of your hand c) increasing the rate of descent d) using an oxygen mask 40.2.1.2 (2707) The Time of Useful Consciousness may vary according to :1 : physical activity of the subjected crew2 : the experience of the pilot on the type of aircraft in question3 : the strength and time of decompression4 : the cabin temperature a) 1,3 b) 1,2 c) 3,4 d) 4 40.2.1.2 (2708) During a climb, we can observe the following with regard to the partial oxygen pressure : a) an identical decrease to that for atmospheric pressure b) a decrease which is three times faster than the decrease in atmospheric pressure c) an increase up to 10,000 ft followed by a sudden pressure drop above that altitude d) an increase which is inversely proportional to the decrease in atmospheric pressure 40.2.1.2 (2709) The following may occur during gradual depressurisation between 12,000 and 18,000 ft : a) a loss of coordination associated with fatigue and headache b) a rapid decrease in blood pressure which will lead to headache and also to a loss of coordination c) sudden visual hyperacuity associated with headache d) a rapid decrease in blood pressure leading to considerable somnolence

40.2.1.2 (2710) What is the main problem caused by positive (+Gz) accelerations? a) A pooling of blood in the lower portions of the body, and hence less blood available b) An improvement of peripheral vision c) An increase in blood pressure in the upper part of the body (above heart-level) d) Hyperoxygenation of the blood which may lead to sensory disorders 40.2.1.2 (2711) What type of acceleration has the most significant physiological effect upon the pilot? a) Radial acceleration (+ Gz) b) Linear acceleration (+ Gx) c) Transverse acceleration (+ Gy) d) Combined linear and transverse acceleration 40.2.1.2 (2712) Under normal circumstances, which gas will diffuse from the blood to the alveoli: a) carbon dioxide b) carbon monoxide c) nitrogen d) oxygen 40.2.1.2 (2713) In the pulmonary artery there is : a) oxygen poor and carbon dioxide rich blood b) oxygen poor and carbon dioxide poor blood c) oxygen rich and carbon dioxide poor blond d) oxygen rich and carbon dioxide rich blood 40.2.1.2 (2714) The thin walls of capillaries are permeable for : a) gases b) platelets c) protein d) red blood cells 40.2.1.2 (2715) The circulatory system, among other things, allows for :1. transportation of oxygen and carbon dioxide2. transportation of information by chemical substances a) 1 and 2 are correct b) 1 is correct and 2 is false c) 1 is false and 2 is correct d) both are false 40.2.1.2 (2716) The part of blood without cell is called : a) plasm b) lymph c) serum d) water

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40.2.1.2 (2717) Haemoglobin is: a) in the red blood cells b) in the platelets c) dissolved in the plasma d) in the white blood cells 40.2.1.2 (2718) Someone who has anaemia has: a) not enough functional hemoglobin b) not enough platelets c) not enough plasma d) not enough white blood cells 40.2.1.2 (2719) The average pulse of a healthy adult in rest is about: a) 60 to 80 beats/min b) 30 to 50 beats/min c) 90 to 100 beats/min d) 110 to 150 beats/min 40.2.1.2 (2720) Pulse rate is influenced by the following factors:1. Adrenalin2. Cortisol3. Physical exercise.4. Glucose concentration in the blood a) 1,3 and 4 are correct, 2 is false b) 1,2,3 and 4 are correct c) 2,3 and 4 are correct, 1 is false d) 1,2 and 4 are correct, 3 is false 40.2.1.2 (2721) With a heart rate of 72 beats per minute and a stroke volume of 70 ml the cardial output is about: a) 5 liters/min b) 6 liters/min c) 7 liters/min d) 8 liters/min 40.2.1.2 (2722) At rest the cardial output (the quantity of blood the heart pumps in one minute) of an adult is approximately: a) 5 liters/min b) 450 ml/min c) 45 liters/min d) 75 liters/min 40.2.1.2 (2723) The heart muscle is supplied with blood from: a) the coronary arteries b) the auricles c) ventricles d) the pulmonary veins

40.2.1.2 (2724) The normal arterial blood-pressure of a healthy adult is (systolic/diastolic): a) 120/80 mm Hg b) 80/20 mm Hg c) 180/120 mm Hg d) 220/180 mm Hg 40.2.1.2 (2725) Which of the following statements is correct?The blood-pressure which is measured during flight medical checks is the pressure a) in the artery of the upper arm (representing the pressure at heart level) b) in all the blood-vessels of the body (representing the pressure in the whole body) c) in the mussles of the upper arm d) in the veins of the upper arm 40.2.1.2 (2726) Blood-pressure depends on: 1. the cardiac output 2. the resistance of the capillaries (peripheral resistance) a) 1 and 2 are correct b) 1 is correct 2 is false c) 1 is false 2 is correct d) 1 and 2 are both false 40.2.1.2 (2727) The blood-pressure depends on: 1. the work of the heart 2. the peripheral resistance 3. the elasticity of the arterial walls 4. the bloode volume and viscosity a) 1,2,3 and 4 are correct b) 1,2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false c) 1,3 and 4 are correct, 2 is false d) 2,3 and 4 are correct, 1 is false 40.2.1.2 (2728) Changes in blood-pressure are measured by: a) pressoreceptors b) arteriols c) adrenal glands d) pacemakers 40.2.1.2 (2729) The pressoreceptors are located in a) the carotid and aortic arterial vessels b) the intestines c) the heart d) the lungs 40.2.1.2 (2730) When the pressoreceptors signal a lowering of the blood-pressure there are adaptation mechanisms which result in:1. an increase of respiratory activity2. the arteriols to constrict3. an increase of cardiac output4. the heart rate to rise a) 2,3 and 4 are correct, 1 is false b) 1,3 and 4 are correct, 2 is false

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c) 1,2 and 4 are correct, 3 is false d) 1,2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false 40.2.1.2 (2731) The physiological effects of accelerations to the human body depend on:1. the duration of the G-forces 2. the onset rate of the G-forces3. the magnitude of the Gforces 4. the direction of the G-forces. a) 1,2,3 and 4 are correct b) 1,2,3 are correct, 4 is false c) 2,3 and 4 are correct, 1 is false d) 1and 4 are correct, 3 is false 40.2.1.2 (2732) Inertia in the direction head => feet will cause the blood-pressure in the brain to: a) decrease b) remain constant c) increase d) first increase, then decrease 40.2.1.2 (2733) During sustained positive G-forces the order of symptoms you can expect is: a) grey-out, tunnel vision, black-out and unconsciousness. b) unconsciousness, black-out, tunnel vision and grey out. c) black-out, grey-out, tunnel vision and unconsciousness. d) grey-out, unconsciousness, black-out and tunnel vision 40.2.1.2 (2734) Which of the following measures can reduce the chance of a black-out during positive G-manoeuvres? a) A tilt back seat. b) Breathing oxygen. c) Sit in upright position and keep relaxed. d) Hyperventilation. 40.2.1.2 (2735) The normal rate of breathing of an adult at rest is about: a) 16 cycles per minute b) 4 cycles per minute c) 32 cycles per minute d) 72 cycles per minute 40.2.1.2 (2736) The volume of air beeing exchanged during a normal breathing cycle (tidal volume) is about: a) 500 ml of air b) 350 ml of air c) 150 ml of air d) 75 ml of air

40.2.1.2 (2737) When exhaling, the expired air contains: a) more carbon dioxide than the inspired air b) more nitrogen than the inhaled air c) less water vapour than the inhaled air d) more oxygen than the inhaled air 40.2.1.2 (2738) The primary factor to control the rate and depth of breathing is the: a) pressure of carbon dioxide in the blood b) partial pressure of nitrogen c) partial pressure of oxygen in the blood d) total air pressure in the blood 40.2.1.2 (2739) The transfer of oxygen from the alveoli to the blood can be discribed by: a) the law of diffusion b) Boyle's Law c) Dalton's Law d) Henry's Law 40.2.1.2 (2740) The transfer of carbon dioxide from the blood to the alveoli can be described by: a) the law of diffusion b) Boyles Law c) Dalton's Law d) Henry's Law 40.2.1.2 (2741) The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli is: a) lower than in the blood b) almost the same as in the atmospheric air c) higher than the pressure of carbon dioxide in the blood d) lower than the pressure of carbon dioxide in the atmospheric air. 40.2.1.2 (2742) The symptoms of hyperventilation are caused by a: a) surplus of CO2 in the blood b) surplus of O2 in the blood c) shortage of CO in the blood d) shortage of CO2 in the blood 40.2.1.2 (2743) If somebody starts breathing faster and deeper without physiological need a) the blood turns less more alkaline b) the blood turns more acid c) the acid-base balance of the blood will not change d) the blood pressure in the brain will rise significantly

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40.2.1.2 (2744) During running your muscles are producing more CO2, raising the CO2 level in the blood. The consequence is: a) hyperventilation (the rate and depth of breathing will increase) b) cyanosis c) hypoxia d) vertigo 40.2.1.2 (2745) During a final approach under bad weather conditions, you feel dizzy, get tingling sensations in your hands and a rapid heart rate. These symptoms could indicate: a) hyperventilation b) disorientation c) hypoxia d) carbon monoxide poisoning 40.2.1.2 (2746) During final approach under bad weather conditions you are getting uneasy, feel dizzy and get tingling sensations in your hands. When hyperventilating you should a) control your rate and depth of breathing b) descend c) apply the Valsalva method d) use the oxygen mask 40.2.1.2 (2747) A pilot can overcome hyperventilation by: a) controlling the rate and depth of breathing, breathing into a bag or speaking with a loud voice b) depending on instruments c) increasing the rate and depth of breathing to eliminate harmful carbon dioxide d) the use of drugs stabilizing blood pressure 40.2.1.2 (2748) You can overcome hyperventilation by breathing into a plastic or paper bag. The intention is: a) to raise the level of CO2 in the blood as fast as possible b) to prevent you from exhaling too much oxygen c) to increase the amount of nitrogen in the lung d) to reduce blood pressure 40.2.1.2 (2749) Which symptom does not belong to the following list: a) leans b) bends c) chokes d) creeps 40.2.1.2 (2750) The symptoms caused by gas bubbles under the skin following a decompression are called: a) creeps

b) bends c) chokes d) leans 40.2.1.2 (2751) Symptoms caused by gas bubbles in the lungs, following a decompression are called: a) chokes b) bends c) creeps d) leans 40.2.1.2 (2752) Some hours after a rapid decompression at FL 300 you experience pain in the joints. Which of following answers is correct? a) You should ask for medical advice (flight surgeon) since this is a symptom of decompression sickness. b) This symptom indicates decompression sickness and will disappear when you take some exercise. c) This phenomenon is treated by physiotherapy. d) This phenomenon is treated by breathing 100% nitrogen. 40.2.1.2 (2753) Tolerance to decompression sickness is decreased by:1. SCUBA-Diving2. Obesity3. Age4. Body height a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct b) 2 and 4 are correct c) 1, 3 and 4 are correct d) only 4 is correct 40.2.1.2 (2754) Decompression symptoms are caused by: a) dissolved gases from tissues and fluids of the body b) low carbon dioxide pressure of inhaled air c) low oxygen pressure of inhaled air d) release of locked gases from joints 40.2.1.2 (2755) In the event of rapid decompression the first action for the flight deck crew is: a) don oxygen masks and ensure oxygen flow b) descent to the higher of 10000 ft or MSA c) transmit mayday call d) carry out check for structural damage 40.2.1.2 (2756) After a rapid decompression at an altitude of 30.000 FT the first action of the pilot shall be: a) maintaining aircraft control and preventing hypoxia (use of oxygen mask) b) informing ATC c) informing the cabin crew d) preventing panic of the passengers

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40.2.1.2 (2757) The following actions are appropriate when faced with symptoms of decompression sickness:1. climb to higher level2. descent to the higher of 10000 ft or MSA and land as soon as possible3. breathe 100 % oxygen4. get medical advice about recompression after landing a) 2, 3 and 4 are correct b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct c) 1 and 4 are correct d) 1 and 3 are correct 40.2.1.2 (2758) Decompression sickness can be prevented by:1. avoiding cabin altitudes above 18 000 FT2. maintaining cabin pressure below 8 000FT when flying at high altitudes3. performing physical exercises before and during the flight4. breathing 100 % oxygen for 30 min prior and during the flight a) 1, 2 and 4 are correct b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct c) 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false d) only 3 is correct 40.2.1.2 (2759) What is the TUC at 20 000 FT? a) about 30 minutes b) 1 to 2 minutes c) 1to 2 hours d) 5 to 10 minutes 40.2.1.2 (2760) Following a rapid decompression at 30.000 feet, the time of useful consciousness would be about: a) 1 to 2 minutes b) 3 to 5 minutes c) 5 to 10 minutes d) 10 to 12 minutes 40.2.1.2 (2761) After a rapid decompression at 35 000 feet, the time of useful consciousness is about: a) 30 to 60 seconds b) 15 seconds or less c) 5 minutes. d) 10 minutes. 40.2.1.2 (2762) After SCUBA diving (more than 30 feet of depth) you have to wait a period of time before flying again. This period is at least: a) 24 hours b) 6 hours c) 12 hours d) 48 hours

40.2.1.2 (2763) Flying immediately after SCUBA diving involves the risk of getting: a) decompression sickness without having a decompression b) hyperventilation c) hypoxia d) stress 40.2.1.2 (2764) If someone hyperventilates due to stress his blood will get: a) more alkaline b) less satured with oxygen c) more satured with carbon dioxide d) more acid 40.2.1.3 (2765) The ozone-layer is situated in the a) stratosphere b) troposphere c) thermosphere d) ionosphere 40.2.1.3 (2766) Which of the following statements are correct ?-1: Modern aircraft allow for 50 60% relative humidity in the cabin air under any conditions of flight, which is satisfactory for the body-2: Thirst is a belated symptom of dehydration-3: Dehydration may lead to clinical manifestations such as dizziness and fatigue-4: Drinking excessive quantities of water must be avoided since resistance to periods of low hydration will otherwise be lost a) 2,3 b) 2,3,4 c) 1,2,4 d) 1,4 40.2.1.3 (2767) With regard to the humidity of air in current in a pressurized cabin, we know that it :-1 : varies between 40 and 60%-2 : varies between 5 and 15%-3 : may cause dehydration effecting the performance of the crew-4 : has no special effects on crew members a) 2,3 b) 1,3 c) 2,3,4 d) 1,4 40.2.2.0 (2768) Which of the following statements is correct ? a) 70% of information processed by man enters via the visual channel b) Hearing is the sense which collects most information in man c) 40% of information processed by man enters via the visual channel d) The kinesthetic channel provides the most important information for flying

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40.2.2.1 (2769) Once we have constructed a mental model we tend a) to give undue weight to information that confirms the model b) to give undue weight to information that contradicts the model c) to give equal weight to contradicting and confirming information d) to alter that model unnecessarily frequently 40.2.2.1 (2770) The rate and depth of breathing is primary regulated by the concentration of: a) carbon dioxide in the blood b) nitrogen in the air c) water vapour in the alveoli d) oxygen in the cells 40.2.2.1 (2771) Rising the perceptual threshold of a sensory organ means: a) a lesser sensitivity b) a greater sensitivity c) a greater selectivity d) a lesser selectivity 40.2.2.1 (2772) Subcutaneous pressure receptors are stimulated by: a) the pressure created on the corresponding body parts when sitting, standing or lying down b) a touch on the skin indicating the true vertical c) environmental stressors d) the condition of the body itself 40.2.2.1 (2773) The kinesthetic sense does not orient an individual to his surroundings, but informs him of a) the relative motion and relative position of his body parts b) a touch on the skin c) our surroundings d) the condition in the body itself 40.2.2.1 (2774) A stereotype and involuntary reaction of the organism on stimulation of receptors is called: a) reflex b) data processing c) control system d) change of stimulation level 40.2.2.2 (2775) Vibrations can cause blurred vision. This is due to tuned resonance oscillations of the: a) eyeballs b) optic nerve

c) cristalline lens d) photosensitive cells 40.2.2.2 (2776) Depth perception when objects are close (< 1 m) is achieved through a) seeing with two eyes (binocular vision) b) good visibility only c) visual memory only d) the ""blind spot"" at the retina 40.2.2.2 (2777) Adaptation is a) the adjustment of the eyes to high or low levels of illumination b) the change of the diameter of the pupil c) the reflection of the light at the cornea d) the adjustment of the crystalline lens to focus light on the retina 40.2.2.2 (2778) The time required for complete adaptation is a) for high levels of illumination 10 sec and for full dark adaptation 30 min b) for high levels of illumination 10 minutes and for low levels of illumination 30 minutes c) for day and night: 30 min d) for night 10 sec and for day 30 min 40.2.2.2 (2779) The requirement of good sunglasses is to a) absorb enough visible light to eliminate glare without decreasing visual acuity, absorb UV and IR radiation and absorb all colors equally b) fit to the pilots individual taste c) eliminate distortion in aircraft windshields d) increase the time for dark adaptation 40.2.2.2 (2780) Why does a deficiency in vitamin A cause night-blindness? a) Vitamin A is essential to the regeneration of visual purple b) Accomodation is destroyed c) Vitamin A deficiency interrupts the oxygen supply to the photosensitive cells d) The transfer of light stimulus from the rods to a nerve impulse depends on vitamin A 40.2.2.2 (2781) Scanning at night should be performed by: a) slight eye movements to the side of the object b) scanning with one eye open c) concentrated fixation on an object (image must fall on the fovea centralis) d) avoiding food containing Vitamin A 40.2.2.2 (2782) Flickering light when reflected from spinning rotor blades a) can cause spatial disorientation and/or nausea, when looked at for a longer period of time

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b) can be neglected c) can be avoided when the strobe-lights are switched on d) should be avoided, because it may destroy the optical nerve 40.2.2.2 (2783) What impression do you have when outside references are fading away (e.g. fog, darkness, snow and vapor)? a) It is difficult to determine the size and speed of objects b) Objects seem to be closer than in reality c) Objects seem to be much bigger than in reality d) There is no difference compared with flying on a clear and sunny day 40.2.2.2 (2784) Hypoxia will effect night vision a) at 5000 FT b) less than day vision c) and causes the autokinetic phenomena d) and causes hyperventilation 40.2.2.2 (2785) What does not impair the function of the photosensitive cells? a) Fast speed b) Oxygen deficiency c) Acceleration d) Toxic influence (alcohol, nicotine, medication) 40.2.2.2 (2786) The fovea centralis is a) the area of best day vision and no night vision at all b) the area of the blind spot (optic disc) c) where the optic nerves come together with the pupil d) the area of best day vision and best night vision 40.2.2.2 (2787) The retina of the eye a) is the light-sensitive inner lining of the eye containing the photoreceptors essential for vision b) filters the UV-light c) is the muscle, changing the size of the crystalline lens d) only regulates the light that falls into the eye 40.2.2.2 (2788) Vitamin A and possibly vitamins B and C are chemical factors and essential to good night vision:1. Vitamin deficiencies may decrease night vision performance2. An excess intake of vitamin A will improve night vision performance significantly3. Pilots should be carefully concerned to take a balaced diet containing sufficient vitamin A4. Vitamin deficiencies may decrease visual acuity in photopic vision but not in scotopic vision a) 1 and 3 are correct, 2 and 4 are false b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

c) Only 4 is false d) 1 and 3 are false, 2 and 4 are correct 40.2.2.2 (2789) What should a pilot do to keep his night vision (scotopic vision)? a) Not smoke before start and during flight and avoid flash-blindness b) Avoid food containing high amounts of vitamin A c) Wait at least 60 minutes to night-adapt before he takes off d) Select meals with high contents of vitamin B and C 40.2.2.2 (2790) Why should a pilot turn his attention to the instruments when approaching on a snowed up, foggy or cloudy winterday? Because a) perception of distance and speed is difficult in an environment of low contrast b) his attention will be distracted automatically under these conditions c) the danger of a ""greying out"" will make it impossible to determine the height above the terrain d) pressure differences can cause the altimeter to give wrong information 40.2.2.2 (2791) Illuminated anti-collision lights in IMC a) can cause disorientation b) can cause colour-illusions c) will improve the pilots depth perception d) will effect the pilots binocular vision 40.2.2.2 (2792) A shining light is fading out (i. e. when flying into fog, dust or haze). What kind of sensation could the pilot get? a) The source of light moves away from him b) The source of light stands still c) The source of light is approaching him with increasing speed d) The light source will make the pilot believe, that he is climbing 40.2.2.2 (2793) To prevent the ""autokinetic phenomena"", the following can be done: a) look out for additional references inside and/or outside the cockpit using peripheral vision also b) fixate the source of light, first with one eye, then with the other c) look sideways to the source of light for better fixation d) turn down cabin light and shake head simultaneously 40.2.2.2 (2794) Autokinesis is a) the apparent movement of a static single light when stared at for a relatively long period of time in the dark b) the phenomenon of spinning lights after the abuse of alcohol c) the change in diameter of the pupil, when looking in the dark d) the automatical adjustment of the crystalline lens to objects situated at different distances

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40.2.2.2 (2795) The time for dark adaptation is a) 30 min b) 10 sec c) 1/10 sec d) 10 min 40.2.2.2 (2796) Sunglasses with variable filtration (phototrope glasses) a) can have disadvantages when used in the cockpit due to their dependence on ultraviolet light which is screened by the cockpit glass b) are generally forbidden for pilots c) are ideal, as long as there are no polarisation effects d) are advantageous for pilots 40.2.2.2 (2797) What misjudgement may occur if an airplane is flying into fog, snow or haze? a) Objects seem to be farther away than in reality b) Objects will appear closer than they really are c) Objects will appear bigger in size than in reality d) Objects seem to move slower than in reality 40.2.2.2 (2798) The peripheral vision is important for: a) detecting moving objects b) visual acuity c) binocular vision d) colour vision 40.2.2.2 (2799) Although we have a field of vision of more than 180° it is important during flight to use the scan ning technique, because a) only in the foveal area resolution is good enough to see an object clearly b) it is tiring to look continually in the same direction c) only in the peripheral area of the retina resolution is good enough to see an object clearly d) the reduction in the field of vision with decreasing altitude is due to a lack of vitamin A 40.2.2.2 (2800) When flying at night the first sense to be affected by a slight degree of hypoxia is the a) vision b) cochlea c) sense of balance d) proprioceptive sensitivity 40.2.2.2 (2801) The part(s) of the eye responsible for night vision a) are the rods b) are the cones c) are rods and cones d) is the cornea

40.2.2.2 (2802) The fovea a) is an area in which cones predominate b) is sensitive to very low intensities of light c) is an area in which rods predominate d) is the area responsible for night vision 40.2.2.2 (2803) When the optical image forms in front of the retina, we are talking about a) myopia b) hypermetropia c) presbyopia d) astigmatism 40.2.2.2 (2804) The time an eye needs to adapt fully to the dark is about: a) 25 - 30 minutes b) 5 minutes c) 10 minutes d) 10 seconds 40.2.2.2 (2805) The photosensitive cells beeing responsible for night vision are called: a) the rods b) the fovea c) the cones d) the cones and the rods 40.2.2.2 (2806) When flying through a thunderstorm with lightning you can protect yourself from flashblindness by:a) turning up the intensity of cockpit lightsb) looking inside the cockpitc) wearing sunglassesd) using face blinds or face curtains when installed a) a), b), c) and d) are correct b) a), b) and c) are correct, d) is false c) a) and b) are correct, c) and d) are false d) c) and d) are correct, a) and b) are false 40.2.2.2 (2807) Which scanning technique should be used when flying at night? a) Look to the side (15 - 20 deg) of the object. b) Look directly at the object. c) Blink your eyes. d) Look with one eye. 40.2.2.2 (2808) Rods (scotopic visual cells) allow for : a) good night-vision after adaptation to darkness (30 min) b) good, virtually instantaneous night-vision (scotopic vision) c) precise vision of contours and colours d) red vision, both during the day and at night

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40.2.2.2 (2809) To optimise one's night-vision performance, it is necessary :- 1 : to spend some time getting adapted to low levels of illumination- 2 : to increase the instrument panel lighting by reducing the cockpit lighting- 3 : not to focus on the point to be observed- 4 : to avoid blinding a) 1,3,4 b) 1,2,4 c) 2,3,4 d) 2 40.2.2.2 (2810) Visual perception of depth at close to medium distance is primarily due to a) binocular vision b) interactions between cones and rods c) peripheral vision d) the high sensitivity of the retina 40.2.2.2 (2811) With regard to central vision, which of the following statements are correct ?-1: It is due to the functioning of rods-2: It enables details, colours and movement to be seen-3: Its very active both during the day and at night-4: It represents a zone where about 150.000 cones per mm are located to give high resolution capacity a) 2,4 b) 1,2,4 c) 2,3,4 d) 1,3 40.2.2.2 (2812) The ability of the human eye to read alphanumeric information (piercing vision): a) is limited to the foveal area of the retina b) is limited to daytime using the rod cells c) is almost equally shared by the entire retina d) is governed by peripheral vision over an area of approximately 20 degrees of angle 40.2.2.2 (2813) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct ?- 1: The retina has rods on its peripheral zone and cones on its central zone- 2: The retina has cones and the crystalline lens has rods- 3: The rods allow for night-vision- 4: The cones are located on the peripheral zone of the retina a) 1,3 b) 1 c) 2,3 d) 4 40.2.2.2 (2814) In order to get colour vision, it is necessary :-1 : for there to be considerable amount of light (ambient luminosity)-2 : at night to look at the point to be observed at an angle of 15°-3 : to allow the eye a period of time to get used to the light-4 : to avoid white light a) 1 b) 1,2,3

c) 2,4 d) 3 40.2.2.2 (2815) The retina allows for the acquisition of colours as a result of the: a) cones located in its central part b) rods located in its central part c) crystalline lens d) rods located in its peripheral zone 40.2.2.2 (2816) The phenomenon of accommodation, which enables a clear image to be obtained, is accomplished by which of the following ? a) The crystalline lens b) The rods c) The cones d) The retina 40.2.2.2 (2817) We know that, in the mechanism of sight, the retina allows for : a) the acquisition of the visual signal and its coding into physiological data b) the acquisition of the visual signal and the accommodation process c) binocular vision d) the analysis of visual signals 40.2.2.2 (2818) We know that transverse accelerations (Gy)- 1 : are above all active in turns and pull-outs- 2 : are present during take-off and landing- 3 : are rare during routine flights- 4 : often lead to loss of consciousness a) 3 b) 1,4 c) 2,3 d) 1,2,3 40.2.2.2 (2819) Empty field myopia is caused by: a) lack of distant focal points b) atmospheric perspective c) ozone at altitude d) flying over mountainous terrain 40.2.2.2 (2820) The amount of light which strikes the retina is controlled by: a) the pupil b) the ciliary body c) the cornea d) the lens 40.2.2.2 (2821) When focussing on near objects:

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a) the shape of lens gets more spherical b) the shape of lens gets flatter c) the cornea gets smaller d) the pupil gets larger 40.2.2.2 (2822) The ability of the lens to change its shape is called: a) accomodation b) binocular vision c) depth perception d) adaptation 40.2.2.2 (2823) The mechanism of accomodation is caused by: a) the functioning of the ciliary muscle aroud the lens b) the elasticity of the optic nerves c) the functioning of the muscles of the eye d) the diameter of the pupil 40.2.2.2 (2824) Presbyopia is: a) far sightedness linked with age b) short sightedness c) myopia d) high intraocular pressure 40.2.2.2 (2825) Glaucoma1. can lead to total blindness2. can lead to undetected reduction of the visual field3. reduces visual acuity in its final stage a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct b) 1 and 3 are correct, 2 is false c) 2 and 3 are correct, 1 is false d) 1 is correct, 2 and 3 are false 40.2.2.2 (2826) Glaucoma is: a) high intra-ocular pressure b) disturbed colour vision c) disturbed adaptation d) disturbed night vision 40.2.2.2 (2827) Glaucoma is characterised by: 1. disturbed light adaptation 2. progressive narrowing of the visual field 3. insidious onset and concealed progression 4. an increase in intra-ocular pressure a) 2, 3 and 4 are correct ,1 is false b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct c) 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false d) 1, 3 and 4 are correct, 2 is false

40.2.2.3 (2828) Which is the audible range to human hearing? a) Between 16 Hz and 20 KHz b) Between 16 MHz and 20 000MHz c) Between 16 KHz and 20 KHz d) Between 16 Hz and 20 MHz 40.2.2.3 (2829) Which of the following components belong to the middle ear? a) Ossicles b) Otoliths c) Endolymph d) Semicircular canals 40.2.2.3 (2830) Which part of the inner ear is responsible for the perception of noise? a) The cochlea b) The semicircular canals c) The sacculus and utriculus d) The eustachian tube 40.2.2.3 (2831) The group of tiny bones (the hammer, anvil and stirrup) are situated in a) the middle ear b) the inner ear c) the outer ear d) the maxillary sinus 40.2.2.3 (2832) Any prolonged exposure to noise in excess of 90 db can end up in a) noise induced hearing loss b) conductive hearing loss c) presbycusis (eefects of aging) d) a ruptured ear drum 40.2.2.3 (2833) All pilots are going to suffer some hearing deterioration as part of the process of growing old.The effects of aging a) are to cut out the high tones first b) are to cut out the low tones first c) are to cut out all tones equally d) will not affect a pilot's hearing if he is wearing ear-plugs all the time 40.2.2.3 (2834) The human ear is capable of perceiving vibrations between the frequencies a) 16 - 20,000 Hz b) 0 - 16 Hz c) 20,000 - 40,000 Hz d) 30 - 15000 dB

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40.2.2.3 (2835) The intensity of a sound is measured in a) decibels b) hertz c) cycles per second d) curies 40.2.2.3 (2836) The Eustachian tube connects: a) the middle ear and the pharynx b) the auditory duct and the inner ear c) the semi circular canals d) the middle ear and the inner ear 40.2.2.3 (2837) Excessive exposure to noise damages: a) the sensitive membrane in the cochlea b) the semi circular canals c) the ossicles d) the eardrum 40.2.2.4 (2838) Vibrations within the frequency band of 1/10 to 2 Hertz are a factor contributing to air-sickness, because they a) upset the vestibular apparatus b) interfere with those of the own blood thus causing circulation problems c) interfere with the frequencies of the central nervous system d) make the stomach and its contents vibrating at the same frequency 40.2.2.4 (2839) What is understood by air-sickness? a) A sensory conflict within the vestibular system accompanied by nausea, vomiting and fear b) An illness caused by evaporation of gases in the blood c) An illness caused by reduced air pressure d) An illness caused by an infection of the middle ear 40.2.2.4 (2840) When spinning an aircraft, the predominating type of acceleration will be a) angular acceleration b) radial acceleration c) linear acceleration d) vertical acceleration 40.2.2.4 (2841) Tuned resonance of body parts, distressing the individual, can be caused by a) vibrations from 1 to 100 Hz b) vibrations from 16 Hz to 18 kHz c) acceleration along the longitudonal body axis d) angular velocity

40.2.2.4 (2842) What could the crew do in order to avoid air-sickness with passengers?1. Avoid turbulences.2. Avoid flying through rough weather.3. Seat passenger close to the center of gravity.4. Give pertinent information. a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false c) 3 and 4 are correct, 1 and 2 are false d) Only 4 is correct 40.2.2.4 (2843) The probability to suffer from air-sickness is higher, when a) the passenger or student is afraid and/or demotivated to fly b) the passenger has taken anti-motion sickness remedies prior flight c) the student ist motivated and adapted to the specific stimuli of flying d) the student has good outside visual reference 40.2.2.4 (2844) Which force(s) affect(s) the otoliths in the utriculus and sacculus? a) Gravity and linear acceleration b) Gravity alone c) Linear acceleration and angular acceleration d) Angular acceleration 40.2.2.4 (2845) The semicircular canals of the inner ear monitor a) angular accelerations b) movements with constant speeds c) relative speed and linear accelerations d) gravity 40.2.2.4 (2846) Which part of the vestibular apparatus is affected by changes in gravity and linear acceleration? a) The sacculus and utriculus b) The semicircular canals c) The cochlea d) The eustachian tube 40.2.2.4 (2847) Which part of the vestibular apparatus is responsible for the impression of angular acceleration? a) The semicircular canals b) The cochlea c) The sacculus and utriculus d) The eustachian tube 40.2.2.4 (2848) The vestibular organ a) reacts to linear/angular acceleration and gravity b) gives the impression of hearing

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c) reacts to pressure changes in the middle ear d) reacts to vibrations of the cochlea 40.2.2.4 (2849) The cupula in the semicircular canal will be bent, when a rotation begins. This is because a) the fluid (endolymph) within the semicircular canal lags behind the accelerated canal walls b) the cupula will stay in place and give the correct impression c) the fluid (endolymph) will preceed the accelerated canal walls d) the cupula will bend on constant angular speeds 40.2.2.4 (2850) The semicircular canals monitor a) angular accelerations b) relative speed c) horizontal and vertical accelerations d) gravity 40.2.2.4 (2851) Changes in ambient pressure and accelerations during flight are important physiological factors limiting the pilots performance if not taken into consideration. Linear accelerations along the long axis of the body a) change blood presssure and blood volume distribution in the body b) will have an effect on blood pressure and blood flow if the accelerative force acts across the body at right angles to the body axis c) will not stimulate any of the vestibular organs d) are of no interest when performing aerobatics 40.2.2.4 (2852) The semicircular canals form part of the a) inner ear b) middle ear c) ear drum d) external ear 40.2.2.4 (2853) Angular accelerations are picked up in the inner ear by a) the semicircular canals b) the tympanum c) the saccule and the utricle d) the cochlea 40.2.2.4 (2854) The semicircular canals detect a) angular accelerations b) sound waves c) linear accelerations d) changes in arterial pressure

40.2.2.4 (2855) Angular accelerations are perceived by: a) the semi circular canals b) the cochlea c) the otholits d) the receptors in the skin and the joints 40.2.2.4 (2856) The otoliths in the inner ear are sensitive to: a) linear acceleration and gravity b) angular acceleration c) angular speed d) constant speed only 40.2.2.4 (2857) Which of the following systems are involved in the appearance of motion sickness ?-1 : Hearing-2 : The vestibular system-3 : Vision-4 The proprioceptive senses ""Seat-of-the-Pants-Sense"")-5 : The gastrointestinal system a) 2,3,4 b) 1,2,3 c) 2,3,4,5 d) 1,2,5 40.2.2.4 (2858) Perceptual conflicts between the vestibular and visual systems are :1 - classic and resistant when flying in IMC2 - sensed via impressions of rotation3 - sensed via distorted impressions of the attitude of the aircraft4 - considerable during prolonged shallow turns under IMC a) 1,2,3,4 b) 2,3,4 c) 1,3 d) 3,4 40.2.2.4 (2859) The vestibular system is composed of-1: two ventricles-2 : a saccule-3 : an utricle-4 : three semicircular channels a) 2,3,4 b) 1,4 c) 2,3 d) 1,3,4 40.2.2.4 (2860) The inner ear is able to perceive: 1. angular acceleration 2. linear acceleration 3. noise a) 1 and 2 and 3 are correct b) 2 and 3 are correct, 1 is false c) 1 and 2 are correct, 3 is false d) 2 is correct, 1 and 3 are both false 40.2.2.5 (2861) Flying a coordinated level turn will

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a) make the body`s pressure receptors feel an increased pressure along the body`s vertical axis b) first give the impression of climb , then the impression of descent c) make the blood being pooled in the head d) make the seat-of-the-pants sense feel a decreased pressure along the body`s vertical axis 40.2.2.5 (2862) Being pressed into the seat can cause illusions and/or false reactions in a pilot lacking visual contact to the ground, because this sensation a) corresponds with the sensation a pilot gets when starting a climb or performing a level turn b) corresponds with the sensation a pilots gets, when flying straight and level or starting a descent c) makes the pilot to pull up the nose to compensate for level flight d) will not stimulate the ""seat-of-the-pants"" sense 40.2.2.5 (2863) Which sensations does a pilot get, when he is rolling out of a coordinated level turn? a) Descending and turning into the opposite direction b) Flying straight and level c) Climbing d) Turning into the original direction 40.2.2.5 (2864) How can a pilot prevent ""pilots-vertigo""? a) Avoid steep turns and abrupt flight maneouvers and maintain an effective instrument cross check. b) Practise an extremely fast scanning technique using off-center vision. c) Use the autopilot and disregard monitoring the instruments. d) Maintain orientation on outside visual references as long as possible and rely upon the senses of balance.. 40.2.2.5 (2865) How can a pilot overcome a vertigo, encountered during a real or simulated instrument flight?1. Establish and maintain an effective instrument cross-check.2. Always believe the instruments, never trust your sense of feeling.3. Ignore arising illusions.4. Move the head sidewards and back and forth to ""shake-off"" illusions. a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct b) 1and 2 are correct, 3 and 4 are false c) Only 4 is correct d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct 40.2.2.5 (2866) The proprioceptive senses (seat-of-the-pants sense) are important for motor coordination. They a) are completely unreliable for orientation when flying in IMC b) indicate the difference between gravity and G-forces c) allow the pilot to determine the absolute vertical at flight condition d) are important senses for flight training in IMC

40.2.2.5 (2867) The so-called ""Seat-of-the-Pants"" sense is a) not suitable for spatial orientation when outside visual references are lost b) only to be used by experienced pilots with the permission to fly in IMC c) useful for instrument and contact flight d) the only sense a pilot can rely on, when flying in IMC 40.2.2.5 (2868) Sensory input to the ""Seat-of-the-Pants"" sense is given by a) subcutaneous pressure receptors and kinesthetic muscle activity sensors b) blood rushing into legs c) acceleration of the stomach (nausea) d) pressure of the heart on the diaphragm 40.2.2.5 (2869) Approaches at night without visual references on the ground and no landing aids (e.g. VASIS) can make the pilot believe of beeing a) higher than actual altitude with the risk of landing short (""ducking under"") b) higher than actual altitude with the risk of overshooting c) lower than actual altitude with the risk of overshooting d) lower than actual altitude with the risk of ducking under 40.2.2.5 (2870) A pilot is used to land on wide runways only. When approaching a smaller and/or narrower runway, the pilot may feel he is at a a) greater height than he actually is with the tendency to land short b) lower than actual height with the tendency to overshoot c) greater height and the impression of landing short d) lower height and the impression of landing slow 40.2.2.5 (2871) A pilot approaching a runway which is narrower than normal may feel he is at a greater height than he actually is. To compensate he may fly a a) flatter than normal approach with the tendency to undershoot b) compensatory glide path and land long c) compensatory glide path and stall out d) higher than normal approach with the tendency to overshoot 40.2.2.5 (2872) The proprioceptive senses (""Seat of-the-Pants-Sense"") a) give wrong information, when outside visual reference is lost b) is a natural human instinct, always indicating the correct attitude c) can be used, if trained, to avoid spatial disorientation in IMC d) can neither be used for motor coordination in IMC and VMC 40.2.2.5 (2873) The most probable reason for spatial disorientation is a) a poor instrument cross-check and permanently transitioning back and forth between instruments and visual references b) the lack of attention to the vertical speed indicator

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c) to rely on instruments when flying in and out of clouds d) to believe the attitude indicator 40.2.2.5 (2874) What should a pilot do if he has no information about the dimensions of the runway and the condition of the terrain underneath the approach? He should a) make an instrument approach and be aware of the illusory effects that can be induced b) be aware that approaches over downsloping terrain will make him believe that he is higher than actual c) make a visual approach and call the tower for assistance d) be aware that approaches over water always make the pilot feel that he is lower than actual height 40.2.2.5 (2875) Orientation in flight is accomplished by1. eyes2. utriculus and sacculus3. semicircular canals4. Seat-of-the-pants-Sense a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct b) only 1 and 4 are correct c) 2, 3 and 4 are correct , 1 is false d) 2, 3 and 4 are false, only 1 is correct 40.2.2.5 (2876) The ""Seat-of-the-Pants-Sense"" a) can give false inputs to body orientation when visual reference is lost b) is a natural human instinct which will always indicate the correct body position in space c) can be used, if trained, to avoid disorientation in space d) can be used as a reference for determining attitude when operating in visual and instrument meteorological conditions 40.2.2.5 (2877) The Seat-of-the-Pants Sense is including receptors in the a) muscles, tendons and joints sensitive to the position and movement of body parts b) semicircular canals c) utriculus and sacculus d) skin of the breech only 40.2.2.5 (2878) A pilot is used to land on small and narrow runways only. Approaching a larger and wider runway can lead to : a) an early or high ""round out"" b) a steeper than normal approach dropping low c) a flatter than normal approach with the risk of ""ducking under"" d) the risk to land short of the overrun 40.2.2.5 (2879) The impression of an apparent movement of light when stared at for a relatively long period of time in the dark is called a) ""autokinesis"" b) ""white out""

c) ""oculogyral illusion"" d) ""oculografic illusion"" 40.2.2.5 (2880) Which problem may occur, when flying in an environment of low contrast (fog, snow, darkness, haze)?Under these conditions it is: a) difficult to estimate the correct speed and size of approaching objects b) impossible to detect objects c) no problem to estimate the correct speed and size of approaching objects d) improbable to get visual illusions 40.2.2.5 (2881) A pilot approaching an upslope runway a) may feel that he is higher than actual. This illusion may cause him to land short. b) is performing a steeper than normal approach, landing long c) establishes a higher than normal approach speed d) establishes a slower than normal approach speed with the risk of stalling out 40.2.2.5 (2882) The area in front of a threshold descends towards the threshold.Possible danger is: a) approach is higher than normal and may result in a long landing b) to drop far below the glide path c) approach is lower than normal and may result in a short landing d) to misjudge the length of the runway 40.2.2.5 (2883) Dizziness and tumbling sensations, when making head movements in a tight turn, are symptoms of a) ""Pilot`s vertigo"" b) ""Nystagmus"" c) ""Flicker-vertigo"" d) ""Oculogravic illusion"" 40.2.2.5 (2884) ""Pilot's vertigo"" a) is the condition of dizziness and/or tumbling sensation caused by contradictory impulses to the central nervous system (CNS) b) is the sensation to keep a rotation after completing a turn c) is the sensation of climbing caused by a strong linear acceleration d) announces the beginning of airsickness 40.2.2.5 (2885) What can a pilot do to avoid ""Flicker vertigo"" when flying in the clouds? a) Switch strobe-lights off b) Dim the cockpit lights to avoid reflections c) Engage the autopilot until breaking the clouds d) Fly straight and level and avoid head movements 40.2.2.5 (2886) What do you do, when you are affected by ""pilot`s vertigo""?1. Establish and

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maintain an effective instrument cross-check.2. Believe the instruments.3. Ignore illusions.4. Minimize head movements. a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false c) 1 and 2 are correct, 3 and 4 are false d) Only 4 is false 40.2.2.5 (2887) A pilot is prone to get vertigo, as visibility is impaired (dust, smoke, snow). What is the correct action to prevent vertigo? a) Depend on the instruments b) Reduce rate of breathing until all symptoms disappear, then breathe normal again c) Concentrate on the vertical speedometer d) Depend on information from the semicircular canals of the inner ear, because those are the only ones giving correct information 40.2.2.5 (2888) The risk of getting a spatial disorientation is growing, when a) there is contradictory information between the instruments and the vestibular organs b) the pilot is buckled too tight to his seat and cannot sense the attitude changes of the aircraft by his Seat-of-the-Pants-Sense c) the pilot is performing an effective instrument cross-check and is ignoring illusions d) informations from the vestibular organ in the inner ear are ignored 40.2.2.5 (2889) Vertigo is the result of a) ""Coriolis-effect"" b) ""Oculogyral illusion"" c) ""Autokinetic-illusion"" d) ""Elevator illusion"" 40.2.2.5 (2890) Which flight-maneouvre will most likely induce vertigo? Turning the head while a) banking b) climbing c) descending d) flying straight and level 40.2.2.5 (2891) With ""vertigo"" the instrument-panel seems to tumble . This is due to a) the coriolis effect in the semicircular canals b) tuned resonance caused by vibration c) conflicting information between the semicircular canals and the tympanic membrane d) oxygen deficiency 40.2.2.5 (2892) ""Pilot's vertigo"": a) is a sensation of rotation during flight due to multiple irritation of several semicircular canals at the same time b) the impression of flying straight and level while the aircraft is spinning

c) a sudden loss of visual perception during flight due to multiple irritation of the utriculus and sacculus at the same time d) the impression of climbing when banking 40.2.2.5 (2893) What is the name for the sensation of rotation occuring during flight and which is caused by multiple irritation of several semicircular canals at the same time? a) ""Pilot's"" Vertigo. b) Sudden incapacitation. c) ""Seat-of-the-Pants"" illusions. d) Graveyard spin. 40.2.2.5 (2894) Without visual reference, what illusion could the pilot get, when he is stopping the rotation to recover from a spin? He will get the illusion of a) spinning into the opposite direction b) spinning into the same direction c) straight and level flight d) climbing and turning into the original direction of the spin 40.2.2.5 (2895) Starting a coordinated level turn can make the pilot believe to a) climb b) descent c) turn into the opposite direction d) increase the rate of turn into the same direction 40.2.2.5 (2896) When accelerating forward the otoliths in the utriculus/sacculus will a) give the illusion of climbing (body tilting backwards, nose of the a/c going up) b) give the illusion of banking c) give the illusion of straight and level flight d) give the illusion of descending (body tilting downwards, or forwards, nose of the airplane going down) 40.2.2.5 (2897) A pilot, accelerating or decelerating in level flight may get: a) the illusion of climbing or descending b) the feeling of rotation c) the illusion to turn d) the impression of stationary objects moving to the right or left 40.2.2.5 (2898) To prevent vertigo in flight we should a) not move the head suddenly while we are turning b) look towards the sides when we make a turn c) breath deeply but control the respiratory frequency d) keep breathing normally

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40.2.2.5 (2899) When stopping the rotation of a spin we have the sensation a) that we are starting a spin into the opposite direction b) of turning in the same direction c) of the sharp dipping of the nose of the aircraft d) of the immediate stabilization of the aircraft 40.2.2.5 (2900) When accelerating in level flight we could experience the sensation of a a) climb b) descent c) turn d) spin 40.2.2.5 (2901) During flight in IMC, the most reliable sense which should be used to overcome illusions is the: a) visual sense, interpreting the attitude indicator b) ""Seat-of-the-pants-Sense"" c) vestibular sense d) visual sense by looking outside 40.2.2.5 (2902) Spatial disorientation will be most likely to occur during flight: a) if the brain receives conflicting informations and the pilot does not believe the instruments b) when flying in and out of clouds and the pilot maintains good instrument cross check c) when flying in light rain below the ceiling d) when flying in bright sunlight above a cloud layer 40.2.2.5 (2903) Autokinetic illusion is: a) an illusion in which a stationary point of light, if stared at for several seconds in the dark, may - without a frame of reference - appear to move b) the sensation during a radial acceleration of seeing a fixed reference point moving into the opposite direction of the acceleration c) a conflict between the visual system and bodily sensations d) poor interpretation of the surrounding world 40.2.2.5 (2904) With regard to illusions due to perceptive conflicts, it may be said that they: a) are mainly due to a sensory conflict concerning perception of the vertical and the horizontal between the vestibular and the visual system b) originate from a conflict between instrument readings and external visual perceptions c) are caused by the absence of internal visual cues exclusively d) are caused by a conflictual disagreement concerning attitudinal perception between the various members of a crew 40.2.2.5 (2905) Visual disturbances can be caused by:1. hyperventilation2. hypoxia3. hypertension4. fatigue

a) 1, 2 and 4 are correct b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct c) 1, 2 and 3 are correct d) 2, 3 and 4 are correct 40.2.2.5 (2906) Desorientation is more likely to occur when the pilot is:1. flying in IMC2. frequently changing between inside and outside references3. flying from IMC into VMC4. having a cold a) 1, 2 and 4 are correct b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct c) 2, 3 and 4 are correct d) 1, 3 and 4 are correct 40.2.2.5 (2907) Positive linear accelleration when flying in IMC may cause a false sensation of: a) pitching up b) pitching down c) apparent sideward movement of objects in the field of vision d) vertigo 40.2.2.5 (2908) Linear accelleration when flying straight and level in IMC may give the illusion of: a) climbing b) descending c) yawing d) spinning 40.2.2.5 (2909) Coriolis illusion, causing spatial disorientation is the result of: a) simultaneous head movements during aircraft manoeuvres b) undergoing positive G c) gazing in the direction of a flashing light d) normal deterioration of the semicircular canals with age 40.2.2.5 (2910) When turning in IMC , head movements should be avoided as much as possible. This is a prevention against: a) coriolis illusion b) autokinesis c) oculogyral illusion d) pressure vertigo 40.2.2.5 (2911) Which of the following illusions are brought about by conflicts between the visual system and the vestibular system ?-1: Illusions concerning the attitude of the aircraft-2: Autokinetic illusion (fixed point viewed as moving)-3: Illusions when estimating the size and distance of objects-4 : Illusions of rotation a) 1,4 b) 2,3,4

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c) 2 d) 3,4 40.2.2.5 (2912) A pilot, trying to pick up a fallen object from the cockpit floor during a tight turn, experiences: a) coriolis illusion b) autokinetic illusion c) barotrauma d) pressure vertigo 40.2.2.5 (2913) When a pilot is starring at an isolated stationary light for several seconds in the dark he might get the illusion that: a) the light is moving b) the size of the lightis varying c) the intensity of the light is varying d) the colour of the light is varying 40.2.2.5 (2914) When you stare at a single light against the dark (f.e. an isolated star) you will find the light appears to move after some time. This phenomenon is called: a) autokinetic phenomenon b) black hole illusion c) coriolis illusion d) leans 40.2.2.5 (2915) How is haze effecting your perception? a) Objects seem to be further away than in reality. b) Objects will give better contrast. c) Haze makes the eyes to focus at infinity d) Objects seem to be closer than in reality. 40.2.2.5 (2916) The 'Black hole' phenomenon occurs during approaches at night and over water, jungle or desert. When the pilot is lacking of visual cues other than those of the aerodrome there is an illusion of a) being too high and too far away, dropping low and landing short b) being too close, landing long c) climbing d) being too low, flying a steeper approach than normal 40.2.2.5 (2917) You fly VFR from your home base (runway width 27 m), to an international airport (runway width 45 m). On reaching your destination there is a risk of performing a: a) high approach with overshoot b) high approach with undershoot c) low approach with overshoot d) low approach with undershoot

40.2.2.5 (2918) You fly VFR from your home base (runway width 45 m) to a small airfield (runway width 27 m). On reaching your destination there is a risk of performing a: a) low approach with undershoot b) high approach with overshoot c) high approach with undershoot d) low approach with overshoot 40.2.2.5 (2919) 1. In case of conflicting information you can always trust your Seat- of-the-PantsSense.2. In case of conflicting information between the sensory organs and the instruments you must believe the instruments. a) 1 is false, 2 is correct b) 1 and 2 are correct c) 1 is correct, 2 is false d) 1 and 2 are false 40.2.2.5 (2920) How can spatial disorientation in IMC be avoided? By a) maintaining a good instrument cross check. b) believing your body senses only. c) moving the head into the direction of the resultant vertical. d) looking outside whenever possible ignoring the attitude indicator. 40.2.2.5 (2921) Which procedure is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation? a) Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments. b) Tilt your head to the side to get better informations from the semicircular canals. c) Rely on the Seat-of-the-Pants-Sense. d) Get adapted to low levels of illumination before flying and use off-center vision all the time. 40.2.2.5 (2922) How can a pilot prevent spatial disorientation in flight? a) Establish and maintain a good instrument cross check. b) Always try to catch outside visual cues. c) Rely on good situational awareness believing your natural senses. d) Rely on the kinaesthetic sense. 40.2.2.5 (2923) If you are subjected to an illusion during night flying you should: a) continue on instruments b) dim the cockpit lighting c) scan the surroundings d) use your oxygen mask 40.2.2.5 (2924) If you are disorientated during night flying you must: a) relay on instruments b) look outside c) descend d) check your rate of breathing - do not breathe too fast

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40.2.3.0 (2925) Which of the following statements are correct ?1 Hypothermia affects physical and mental abilities.2 Man has effective natural protection against intense cold.3 Shivering makes it possible to combat the cold to a certain extent, but uses up a lot of energy4 Disorders associated with hypothermia appear at a body temperature of less than 35°C a) 1,3,4 b) 1,2,3 c) 2,4 d) 2,3,4 40.2.3.0 (2926) Our body takes its energy from :1: minerals2: protein3: carbonhydrates4: vitamines a) 2,3 b) 1,2,3,4 c) 1,4 d) 1,3 40.2.3.0 (2927) Which of the following mechanisms regulate body temperature when expored to extreme high environmental temperatures?-1 : Shivering-2 : Vasoconstriction of peripheral blood vessels-3 : Sweating-4 : Vasodilation of peripheral blood vessels a) 3,4 b) 1,3,4 c) 2,3 d) 1 40.2.3.0 (2928) The following can be observed when the internal body temperature falls below 35°C : a) shivering, will tend to cease, and be followed by the onset of apathy b) the appearance of intense shivering c) mental disorders, and even coma d) profuse sweating 40.2.3.0 (2929) We can observe the following in relation to a state of hypothermia : a) reasoning problems as soon as body temperature falls below 37°C b) a substantial increase in internal body temperature whereas peripheral temperature at the skin is stable c) a rapid fall in ambient temperature d) greater capacity for adaptation than in a hot atmosphere 40.2.3.0 (2930) What is meant by metabolism ? a) The transformation by which energy is made available for the uses of the organism b) Information exchange c) Transfer of chemical messages d) Exchange of substances between the lung and the blood

40.2.3.0 (2931) One of the waste products of the metabolic process in the cell is : a) water b) protein c) sugar d) fat 40.2.3.0 (2932) The body loses water via:1. the skin and the lungs2. the kidneys a) 1 and 2 are correct b) 1 is correct and 2 is not correct c) 1 is not correct and 2 is correct d) both are false 40.2.3.2 (2933) It is inadvisable to fly when suffering from a cold. The reason for this is: a) pain and damage to the eardrum can result, particularly during fast descents b) gentle descents at high altitude can result in damage to the ear drum c) swollen tissue in the inner ear will prevent the air from ventilating through the tympanic membrane d) swollen tissue in the Eustachian tube will cause permanent hearing loss 40.2.3.2 (2934) It is inadvisable to fly when suffering from a cold. The reason for this is: a) the tissue around the nasal end of the Eustachian tube is likely to be swollen thus causing difficulty in equalising the pressure within the middle ear and the nasal/throat area. Pain and damage to the eardrum can result, particularly during fast descents b) although the change in air pressure during a climb at lower altitudes is very small, it increases rapidly at high altitudes. If the tissue in the Eustachian tube of the ear is swollen, gentle descents at high alltitude would result in damage to the ear drum c) swollen tissue in the inner ear will increase the rate of metabolic production resulting in hyperventilation d) because it will seriously affect peripheral vision 40.2.3.2 (2935) Exchange of gasses between the body and the environment takes place at the: a) lungs b) heart c) muscles d) central nervous system 40.2.3.2 (2936) The following occurs in man if the internal body temperature increases to 38°C : a) impairment of physical and mental performance b) apathy c) considerable dehydration d) nothing signifiant happens at this temperature. The first clinical signs only start to appear at 39°C

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40.2.3.2 (2937) Having a serious cold it is better not to fly, due to the extra risk of:1. flatulence2. pain in the ear during descent3. pressure vertigo4. pain in the nasal sinuses a) 2,3 and 4 are correct b) 1 and 2 are correct c) 1,3 and 4 are correct d) 1,2 and 4 are correct 40.2.3.2 (2938) Having a serious cold, you are going to fly. What can you expect: a) pain in the sinuses b) bends c) chokes d) hypoxia 40.2.3.3 (2939) Which of the following factors may have an influence on medical disqualification? a) High and low blood pressure as well as a poor condition of the circulatory system. b) High blood pressure only. c) Blood pressure problems cannot occur in aircrew because they always can be treated by inflight medication. d) Low blood pressure only. 40.2.3.3 (2940) When assessing an individuals risk in developing coronary artery disease, the following factors may contribute:1.obesity2.distress3.smoking4.family history a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct b) 2 and 3 are correct, 1 and 4 are false c) Only 3 is correct, 1, 2 and 4 are false d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false 40.2.3.3 (2941) Noise induced hearing loss is influenced by a) the duration and intensity of a noise b) the duration of a noise but not its intensity c) the suddenness of onset of a noise d) the intensity of the noise but not its duration 40.2.3.3 (2942) To reduce the risk of coronary artery disease, exercise should be a) double the resting heart rate for at least 20 minutes, three times a week b) avoided since raising the heart rate shortens the life of the heart c) double the resting heart rate for at least an hour, five times a week d) triple the resting heart rate for 20 minutes, once a week 40.2.3.3 (2943) Which of the following is most true? a) Regular exercise is beneficial to general health, but the most efficient way to lose weight is by reducing caloric consumption b) Regular exercise is an impediment to losing weight since it increases the metabolic rate

c) Regular exercise is beneficial to general health, and is the only effective way to lose weight d) Regular exercise and reduction in caloric consumption are both essential in order to lose weight 40.2.3.3 (2944) Conductive hearing loss can be caused by: 1. damage to the ossicles in the middle ear caused by infection or trauma 2. a damage of the auditory nerve 3. an obstruction in the auditory duct 4. a ruptured tympanic membrane a) 1,2,3 and 4 are correct b) 2,3 and 4 are correct, 1 is false c) 1,2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false d) 1,3 and 4 are correct, 2 is false 40.2.3.3 (2945) Noise induced hearing loss (NIHL) is caused by: a) damage of the sensitive membrane in the cochlea due to overexposure to noise b) a blocked Eustachian tube c) pressure differences on both sides of the eardrum d) reduced mobility of the ossicles 40.2.3.3 (2946) Which of the following statements about hyperthermia is correct ? a) Complete adaption to the heat in a hot country takes about a fortnight. b) Vasodilation is the only regulant which is capable of reducing body temperature. c) Evaporation is more effective when ambient humidity is high. d) Performance is not impaired by an increase in body temperature to 40°C or more. 40.2.3.3 (2947) Visual acuity during flight at high altitudes can be affected by: 1. anaemia 2. smoking in the cockpit 3. carbon monoxide poisoning 4. hypoxia a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct b) 1,2 and 3 are correct c) 2,3 and 4 are correct d) 1,3 and 4 are correct 40.2.3.4 (2948) Alcohol, even when taken in minor quantities a) can make the brain cells to be more susceptible to hypoxia b) will stimulate the brain, making the pilot resistant to hypoxia c) will have no effect at all d) may improve the mental functions, so that the symptoms of hypoxia are much better to be identified 40.2.3.4 (2949) Concerning flying and blood alcohol content the following statement is correct: a) no flying under the influence of alcohol b) flying with up to 0.05 % blood alcohol c) flying with up to 0.15 % blood alcohol d) flying with up to 0.08 % blood alcohol is safe, since driving is safe up to this limit

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40.2.3.4 (2950) The metabolisation of alcohol a) is a question of time b) is quicker when used to it c) can be accelerated even more by coffee d) can be influenced by easy to get medication 40.2.3.4 (2951) Concerning the effects of drugs and pilot´s performance a) the primary and the side effects have to be considered b) the side effects only have to be considered c) medication has no influence on pilot´s performance d) only the primary effect has to be considered, side effects are negligable 40.2.3.4 (2952) Drugs against allergies (antihistamines), when taken by an aviator can cause the following undesirable effects:1. Drowsiness, dizziness2. Dry mouth3. Headaches4. Impaired depth perception5. Nausea a) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 are correct b) only 3, 4 and 5 are correct c) 2, 3 and 4 are correct d) only 1 is correct 40.2.3.4 (2953) The consumption of medicines or other substances may have consequences on qualification to fly for the following reasons:1. The desease requiring a treatment may be cause for disqualification.2. Flight conditions may modify the reactions of the body to a treatment.3. Drugs may cause adverse side effects impairing flight safety.4. The effects of medicine do not necessarily immediately disappear when the treatment is stopped. a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false c) 3 and 4 are false, 1 and 2 are correct. d) Only 2 is false. 40.2.3.4 (2954) Cigarette smoking has particular significance to the flyer, because there are longterm and short-term harmful effects. From cigarette smoking the pilot can get: a) a mild carbon monoxide poisoning decreasing the pilot´s tolerance to hypoxia b) a mild carbon dioxide poisoning increasing the pilot's tolerance to hypoxia c) a mild carbon monoxide poisoning increasing the pilot´s tolerance to hypoxia d) a suppressed desire to eat and drink 40.2.3.4 (2955) A pilot who smokes will loose some of his capacity to transport oxygen combined with hemoglobin. Which percentage of his total oxygen transportation capacity would he give away when he smokes one pack of cigarettes a day? a) 5 - 8% b) 0.5 - 2% c) 12 - 18% d) 20 - 25%

40.2.3.4 (2956) Flying at pressure altitude of 10 000 ft, a pilot, being a moderate to heavy smoker, has an oxygen content in the blood equal to an altitude a) above 10 000 FT b) of 10 000 FT c) lower than 10 000 FT d) of 15000 FT when breathing 100% oxygen 40.2.3.4 (2957) Which of the following applies when alcohol has been consumed? a) Even after the consumption of small amounts of alcohol, normal cautionary attitudes may be lost b) Drinking coffee at the same time will increase the elimination rate of alcohol c) Small amounts of alcohol increase visual performance d) Acute effects of alcohol cease immediately when 100% oxygen is taken 40.2.3.4 (2958) Alcohol, when taken simultaneously with drugs, may a) intensify the effects of the drugs b) compensate for side effects of drugs c) show undesired effects only during night flights d) increase the rate of alcohol elimination from the blood 40.2.3.4 (2959) Alcohol metabolism (elimination rate) a) is approx. 0.015% per hour and cannot be expedited b) is approx. 0.3% per hour c) depends on wether you get some sleep in between drinks d) definitely depends on the amount and composition of food which has been eaten 40.2.3.4 (2960) When drugs against sleep disorders and/or nervosity have been taken and the pilot intends to fly, attention has to be payed to a) the effect they have on reaction time and perceptional awareness b) the effect they have on hearing c) the fact that there is no difference in the quality of sleep produced under the influence of those drugs compared to normal drug-free sleep d) schedule only those pilots, who show no reactions to these medications 40.2.3.4 (2961) The rate of absorption of alcohol depends on many factors. However, the rate of metabolism or digestion of alcohol in the body is relatively constant. It is about a) 0,01 - 0,015 mg % per hour b) 0,02 - 0,05 mg % per hour c) 0,2 - 0,25 mg % per hour d) 0,3 - 0,35 mg % per hour 40.2.3.4 (2962) A slight lack of coordination which can make it difficult to carry out delicate and precise movements occurs when the level of alcohol in the blood is exceeding a) 0.05 % blood alcohol

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b) 0.1 % blood alcohol c) 0.15 % blood alcohol d) 0.2 % blood alcohol 40.2.3.4 (2963) The carcinogen (a substance with the ability to produce modifications in cells which develop a cancer) in the bronchi of the lungs is a) tar b) nicotine c) carbon monoxide d) lead 40.2.3.4 (2964) One of the substances present in the smoke of cigarettes can make it significantly more difficult for the red blood cells to transport oxygen and as a consequence contributes to hypoxia. Which substance are we referring to? a) Carbon monoxide b) Carbonic anhydride c) Tar d) Carbon dioxide 40.2.3.4 (2965) The so-called Coriolis effect (a conflict in information processing in the brain) in spatial disorientation occurs: a) on stimulating several semicircular canals simultaneously b) on stimulating the saccule and the utricle of the inner ear c) on stimulating the cochlea intensely d) when no semicircular canal is stimulated 40.2.3.4 (2966) The chemical substance responsible for addiction to tobacco is a) nicotine b) carbon monoxide c) tar d) the combination of nicotine, tar and carbon monoxide 40.2.3.4 (2967) A large number of medical preparations can be bought without a doctor´s prescription. In relation to using these preparations, which of the following is correct: a) A pilot using any of these preparations should get professional advice from a flight surgeon if he intends to fly and self-medicate at the same time b) They have no side effects which would give problems to a pilot during flight c) The side effects of these types of preparations are sufficiently negligible as to be ignored by pilots d) They will cause a condition of over-arousal 40.2.3.4 (2968) Carbon monoxide, a product of incomplete combustion, is toxic because a) it competes with oxygen in its union with haemoglobin b) it prevents the absorption of food from the digestive tract

c) it prevents the excretion of catabolites in the kidneys d) it disturbs gaseous diffusion at the alveoli capillary membrane 40.2.3.4 (2969) Carbon monoxide is always present in the exhaust gases of engines. If a pilot is exposed to carbon monoxide, which of the following responses is correct? a) A short exposure to relatively high concentrations of carbon monoxide can seriously affect a pilot´s ability to operate an aircraft. b) Carbon monoxide is easily recognised by odour and taste. c) Carbon monoxide can only affect pilots if they are exposed to them for a long period of time. d) When exposed to carbon monoxide for a long period of time, the body will adapt to it and no adverse physical effects are experienced 40.2.3.4 (2970) Adverse effects of carbon monoxide increase as: a) altitude increases b) altitude decreases c) air pressure increases d) relative humidity decreases 40.2.3.4 (2971) Which statement is correct regarding alcohol in the human body? a) Judgement and decision making can be affected even by a small amount of alcohol. b) A small amount of alcohol increases visual acuity. c) An increase of altitude decreases the adverse effect of alcohol. d) When drinking coffee, the human body metabolizes alcohol at a faster rate than normal. 40.2.3.4 (2972) Which statement is correct? 1. Smokers have a greater chance of suffering from coronary heart disease 2. Smoking tobacco will raise the individuals pysiological altitude during flight3. Smokers have a greater chance of decreasing ung cancer a) 1,2 and 3 are correct b) 1 and 2 are correct, 3 is false c) 1 and 3 are correct, 2 is false d) 2 and 3 are correct, 1 is false 40.2.3.4 (2973) Smoking cigarettes reduces the capability of the blood to carry oxygen. This is because: a) hemoglobin has a greater affinity for carbon monoxide than it has for oxygen b) carbon monoxide in the smoke of cigarettes assists diffusion of oxygen in the alveoli c) carbon monoxide increases the partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli d) the smoke of one cigarette can cause an obstruction in the respiratory tract 40.2.3.4 (2974) CO (carbon monoxide) present in the smoke of cigarettes can lead to: 1. reduction of time of usefull consciousness 2. hypoxia at a much lower altitude than normal a) 1 and 2 are both correct b) 1 is correct, 2 is false

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c) 1 is false, 2 is correct d) 1 and 2 are both false 40.2.3.4 (2975) Carbon monoxide in the human body can lead to: 1. loss of muscular power2. headache 3. impaired judgement 4. pain in the joints 5. loss of consciousness a) 1, 2 , 3 and 5 are correct b) 1, 2 and 4 are correct c) 2 and 3 are correct, 1 is false d) 1, 2, 3, 4 are correct 40.2.3.6 (2976) Incapacitation is most dangerous when it is : a) insinuating b) obvious c) sudden d) intense 40.3.1.0 (2977) The human information processing system is highly efficient compared to computers because of its a) flexibility b) speed c) working memory capacity d) independancy from attention 40.3.1.0 (2978) In an abnormal situation the pilot has an apparently correct explanation for the problem. The chance that he/she now ignores or devalues other relevant information, not fitting into his/her mental picture is: a) increasing b) the same, no matter if he/she has already made up his/her mind c) not applicable with old and experienced pilots d) decreasing 40.3.1.0 (2979) Many pilots think up systems to deal with affairs so they don't have to think up every time what they have to do. a) this has to be posetively appreciated for it increases consistency in action b) this is dangerous for every situation is different c) this has to be rejected for the company draws the rules and the procedures they have to comply with d) this has to be advised against for it reduces flexibility at a moment a problem has to be solved by improvisation. 40.3.1.1 (2980) Mental schemes correspond to: a) memorised representations of the various procedures and situations which can be reactivated by the pilot at will b) the memorisation of regulatory procedures associated with a particular situation c) memorised procedures which develop and change rapidly during change-over to a new

machine d) daily planning of probable dangerous situations 40.3.1.1 (2981) The acquisition of expertise comprises three stages ( Anderson model): a) cognitive, associative and autonomous b) cognitive, associative and knowledge c) associative, autonomous and expert d) automatic, cognitive and knowledge 40.3.1.1 (2982) A pilot can be described as being proficient, when he/she: a) has automated a large part of the necessary flight deck routine operations in order to free his/her cognitive resources b) is able to reduce his/her arousal to a low level during the entire flight c) knows how to invest the maximum resources in the automation of tasks in real time d) is capable of maintaining a high level of arousal during a great bulk of the flight 40.3.1.1 (2983) The ability of detecting relevant information which is not presented in an actively monitored input channel is known as a) attention b) perception c) sensation d) appreciation 40.3.1.1 (2984) According to Wicken's theory, the human brain has: a) different reservoirs of resources depending on whether one is in the information-gathering, information-processing or action phase b) unlimited information-processing resources c) cognitive resources which are centered on action d) processing capabilities which function at peak level when different tasks call for the same resources 40.3.1.1 (2985) The available cognitive resources of the human brain: a) are limited and make it impossible to perform two attentional tasks at the same time b) are limited but make it possible to easily perform several tasks at the same time c) are virtually unlimited d) allow for twin-tasks operation without any loss of effectiveness 40.3.1.1 (2986) Concentration is essential for pilots. a) However, capacity of concentration is limited b) It only takes a little willpower to increase one's capacity of concentration without limits c) Vigilance is all that is required to be attentive d) All intellectual processes, including very routined ones, make demands on resources and therefore on one's concentration

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40.3.1.1 (2987) The 'cocktail party effect' is a) the ability to pick up relevant information unintentionally b) the ability to drink too much at social gathering c) the tendency to believe information that reinforces our mental model of the world d) the tendency not to perceive relevant information 40.3.1.1 (2988) Which of the following tasks are possible to do simultaneously without mutual interference? a) Maintain manual straight and level flight and solve a problem. b) Listen attentively and solve a problem. c) Talk and rehearse a frequency in working memory. d) Read and listen attentively. 40.3.1.1 (2989) A selective attentional mechanism is required a) because of the limited capacity of the central decision maker and working memory b) because the capacity of the long term memory is limited c) because of the limitations of the sense organs d) because of limitations in our store of motor programmes 40.3.1.1 (2990) If a pilot has to perform two tasks requiring the allocation of cognitive resources : a) the sharing of resources causes performance on each task to be reduced b) a person reaches his limits as from simultaneous tasks, and performance will then tail off c) the only way of not seeing performance tail off is to switch to knowledge-based mode for the two tasks d) the only way of not seeing performance tail off is to switch to rules-based mode for the two tasks 40.3.1.1 (2991) Which of the following are the most favourable solutions to manage phases of reduced or low vigilance (hypovigilance)?1. Healthy living2. Use of amphetamines3. Reducing the intensity of the light4. Organising periods of rest during the flight a) 1,4 b) 1,2 c) 1,3 d) 3,4 40.3.1.1 (2992) What are main signs indicating the loss of vigilance ?1. Decrease in sensory perception2. Increase in selective attention3. Sensation of muscular heaviness4. Decrease in complacency a) 1,3 b) 1,4 c) 2,3 d) 2,4

40.3.1.1 (2993) What is ""divided attention""? a) Alternative management of several matters of interest b) Ease of concentrating on a particular objective c) Difficulty of concentrating on a particular objective d) The adverse effect of motivation which leads to one's attention being dispersed 40.3.1.1 (2994) Which of the following statements concerning hypovigilance is correct ? Hypovigilance : a) may occur at any moment of the flight b) essentially occurs several minutes after the intense take-off phase c) tends to occur at the end of the mission as a result of a relaxation in the operators' attention d) only affects certain personality types 40.3.1.1 (2995) What are the main factors which bring about reduced or low vigilance (hypovigilance) ?1. The monotony of the task2. Tiredness,the need for sleep3. A lack of stimulation4. Excessive stress a) 1,2,3 b) 2,4 c) 1,3 d) 3,4 40.3.1.1 (2996) With regard to the level of automation of behaviours in the attention mechanism, we know that : a) the more behaviour is automated, the less it requires conscious attention and thus the more it frees mental resources b) the more behaviour is automated, the more it requires attention and the more it frees resources c) the more behaviour is automated, the more it requires attention and the less it frees resources d) the less behaviour is automated, the less it requires attention and the more it frees resources 40.3.1.1 (2997) What are the various factors which guide attention ?1. The level of automation of behaviour2. Response time3. The salience of the information4. Expectations a) 1,3,4 b) 1,4 c) 1,2 d) 2,3,4 40.3.1.1 (2998) Check the following statements:1. The first information received determines how subsequent information will be evaluated.2. If one has made up one's mind, contradictory information may not get the attention it really needs.3. With increasing stress, channelizing attention is limiting the flow of information to the central decision maker (CNS).

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a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct b) 1and 3 are correct c) 1 and 2 are correct d) 2 and 3 are correct 40.3.1.2 (2999) Conscious perception a) is a mental process involving experience and expectations b) relies upon the development of intuition c) involves the transfer of information from the receptor to the brain only d) relates to the correct recognition of colours 40.3.1.2 (3000) The first stage in the information process is a) sensory stimulation b) perception c) selective attention d) the recognition of information 40.3.1.2 (3001) Our mental model of the world is based a) on both our past experiences and the sensory information we receive b) entirely on the sensory information we receive c) entirely on past experiences d) on both our past experiences and our motor programmes 40.3.1.2 (3002) What is the main adverse effect of expectations in the perception mechanism ? a) Expectations often guide the focus of attention towards a particular aspect, while possible alternates are neglected b) They always lead to routine errors c) The unconscious mechanism of attention leads to focus on all relevant information d) The attention area is enlarged, thus it will lead to an uncertainty in regard to necessary decisions 40.3.1.2 (3003) Which of the following provides the basis of all perceptions? a) The intensity of the stimuli. b) The aural or visual significance attributed in short term memory. c) The aural or visual significance attributed in long term memory. d) The seperation of figure and background. 40.3.1.2 (3004) The ""gestalt laws ""formulates : a) basic principles governing how objects are mentally organized and perceived b) basic principles governing the relationship between stress and performance c) basic principles governing the effects of habit and experience d) basic principles regarding to the relationship between motivation and performance

40.3.1.2 (3005) Illusions of interpretation (cognitive illusions) are : a) associated with the task of mental construction of the environment b) due mainly to a conflict between the various sensory systems c) due mainly to a poor interpretation of instrumental data d) solely induced in the absence of external reference points 40.3.1.2 (3006) In the absence of external reference points, the sensation that the vehicle in which you sitting is moving when it is in fact the vehicle directly alongside which is moving is called : a) illusion of relative movement b) autokinetic illusion c) cognitive illusion d) somato-gravic illusion 40.3.1.3 (3007) The maximum number of unrelated items that can be stored in working memory is: a) about 7 items b) very limited - only 3 items c) about 30 items d) unlimited 40.3.1.3 (3008) The capacity of the short-term memory is a) about 7 items b) very limited - only one item c) about 30 items d) unlimited 40.3.1.3 (3009) Information stays in the short-term memory a) about 20 seconds b) less than 1 second c) from 5 to 10 minutes d) around 24 hours 40.3.1.3 (3010) Working memory : a) is sensitive to interruptions which may erase all or some of its content b) is unlimited in size c) is unlimited in duration d) varies considerably in size between an expert pilot and a novice pilot 40.3.1.3 (3011) Long-term memory is an essential component of the pilot's knowledge and expertise. a) It is desirable to pre-activate knowledge stored in long-term memory to have it available when required b) The capacity of long-term memory is limited

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c) Long-term memory stores knowledge on a temporary basis d) The recovery of information from long-term memory is immediate and easy 40.3.1.3 (3012) Motor programmes are: a) stored routines that enable patterns of behaviour to be executed without continuous conscious control b) rules that enable us to deal with novel situations c) rules that enable us to deal with preconceived situations d) stored routines that enable patterns of behaviour to be executed only under continuous conscious control 40.3.1.3 (3013) Working memory enables us, for example, a) to remember a clearance long enough to write it down b) to store a large amount of visual information for about 0.5 seconds c) to ignore messages for other aircraft d) to remember our own name 40.3.1.3 (3014) In the short-term-memory, information is stored for approximately a) 20 seconds b) 5 minutes c) 1 hour d) a couple of days 40.3.1.3 (3015) The main limit(s) of long-term memory is (are): a) Data retrieval as a result from a loss of access to the stored information b) the quantity of data which may be stored c) the instantaneous inputting in memory of all information collected during the day, which comes to saturate it d) the data storage time 40.3.1.3 (3016) What are the main limits of short-term memory ?It is :-1 : very sensitive to interruptions and interference-2 : difficult to access-3 : limited in size-4 : subject to a biochemical burn-in of information a) 1,3 ,4 b) 1,2 ,3 c) 2 ,3 d) 2,4 40.3.1.3 (3017) Which of the following characteristics apply to short-term memory ?- 1 : It is limited in time and size- 2 : It is unlimited in time and limited in size- 3 : It is stable and insensitive to disturbances- 4 : It is limited in time and unlimited in size a) 1 b) 1,3 c) 3,4 d) 2,3

40.3.1.3 (3018) With regard to short-term memory, we can say that : a) it is made up of everyday information for immediate use, and is limited in its capacity for storing and retaining data b) it is made up of everyday information for immediate use, and is limited in terms of the time for which it retains data but not in its storage capacity c) it is a stable form of working memory, and thus not very sensitive to any disturbance d) it mainly contains procedural knowledge 40.3.1.3 (3019) Which of the following statements about long-term memory are correct?-1: Information is stored there in the form of descriptive, rule-based and schematic knowledge.-2: The period of time for which information is retained is limited by the frequency with which this same information is used.-3: It processes information quickly and has an effective mode of access in real time.-4: Pre-activation of necessary knowledge will allow for a reduction in access time. a) 1 and 4 are correct b) 1 and 2 are correct c) 2, 3 and 4 are correct d) 2 and 4 are correct 40.3.1.3 (3020) To facilitate and reduce the time taken to access information in long-term memory, it is helpful to: a) mentally rehearse information before it is needed b) learn and store data in a logical and structured way c) structure irrelevant information as much as possible before committing it to memory d) avoid to rehearse information which we know we will need soon 40.3.1.3 (3021) Concerning the capacity of the human long-term memory a) its storage capacity is unlimited b) it is structurally limited in terms of storage capacity, but unlimted in terms of storage time c) it is structurally limited in terms of storage time but not in terms of capacity d) its mode of storing information is passive, making memory searches effective 40.3.1.4 (3022) Young pilots or pilots with little experience of airplanes differ from experienced pilots in the following way : a) unexperienced pilots refer to information more than experts when carrying out the same task b) experienced pilots are less routine-minded than young pilots because they know that routine causes mistakes c) task for task, an expert's workload is greater than a novice's one d) flight planning performance decreases with age, and experience is unable to mask this deficiency 40.3.1.4 (3023) In order to provide optimum human performance it is advisable to a) establish strategies for planning, automating and managing resources (in real time)

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b) plan a maximum of objectives and non-automated actions c) avoid powerful behaviour expedient of automating tasks d) plan future actions and decisions at least a couple of days in advance 40.3.1.4 (3024) The planning and anticipation of future actions and situations makes it possible to:-1 : create a precise reference framework.-2 : avoid saturation of the cognitive system.-3 : automate planned actions.-4 : activate knowledge which is considered necessary for the period to come.The correct statement(s) is (are): a) 1, 2 and 4 are correct b) 1 and 2 are correct c) 2 and 4 are correct d) 3 and 4 are correct 40.3.1.4 (3025) Pre-thought action plans may be said to:-1 : ease access to information which may be necessary.-2 : sensitize and prepare for a possible situation to come.-3 : be readily interchangeable and can therefore be reformulated at any time during the flight.-4 : define a framework and a probable strategy for the encountered situation.The combination of correct statements is: a) 1, 2 and 4 are correct b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct c) 2 and 4 are correct d) 2, 3 and 4 are correct 40.3.1.4 (3026) The workload may be said to:-1 : be acceptable if it requires more than 90 % of the crew resources.-2 : be acceptable if it requires about 60 % of the crew resources.-3 : depend on the pilot's expertise.-4 : correspond to the amount of resources availableThe combination of correct statements is: a) 2, 3 and 4 are correct b) 1, 3 and 4 are correct c) 1 and 3 are correct d) 2 and 4 are correct 40.3.1.4 (3027) Motivation is a quality wich is often considered vital in the pilot's work to maintain safety. a) However, excessive motivation leads to stress wich adversly affects performance b) Motivation reduces the intensity of sensory illusions c) A high degree of motivation makes it possible to make up for insufficient knowledge in complete safety d) A high degree of motivation lowers the level of vigilance 40.3.1.4 (3028) The quality of learning : a) is promoted by feedback on the value of one's own performance b) depends on long-term memory capacity c) is independent of the level of motivation d) is independent of age

40.3.1.4 (3029) Mental training, mental rehearsal of cognitive pretraining is called the inner, ideomotor simulation of actions. a) It is most important for the acquisition of complex perceptual motor skills b) It is most important for selfcontrol c) It is most effective, if it is practiced on an abstract level if imagination d) It is more effective than training by doing 40.3.1.4 (3030) How can the process of learning be facilitated? a) By reinforcing successful trials b) By increasing the psychological pressure on the student c) By punishing the learner for unsuccessful trials d) By reinforcing errors 40.3.1.4 (3031) Learning is called each lasting change of behaviour due to a) practice and experience b) innate mechanisms c) maturation d) drug influence 40.3.1.4 (3032) Mental training is helpful to improve flying skills a) at all levels of flying proficiency b) only for student pilots c) only for instructor pilots d) only at a certain level of flying experience 40.3.1.4 (3033) Which of the following are primary sources of motivation in day-to-day professional life ?1. Beeing in control of one's own situation2. Fear of punishment3. Success (achievement of goals)4. Social promotion, money a) 1,2,3,4 b) 1,2,3 c) 3,4 d) 2,4 40.3.1.4 (3034) Which of the following statements summarises the impact that motivation may have on attention ? a) It increases the mobilisation of energy and thus facilitates the quality of alertness and attention b) It only facilitates attention in extreme cases (risk of death) c) Motivation has only a small effect on attention, but it facilitates alertness d) It stimulates attention but may lead to phases of low arousal 40.3.1.4 (3035) The effect of experience and habit on performance a) can both be beneficial and negative b) is always negative

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c) is never negative d) is always beneficial 40.3.1.4 (3036) Murphy's law states : a) If equipment is designed in such a way that it can be operated wrongly, then sooner or later, it will be b) Response to a particular stressful influence varies from one person to another c) Expectation has an influence on perception d) Performance is dependent on motivation 40.3.1.4 (3037) The needs of an individual lead to : a) a change in the individuals motivation and consequently to an adaptation of the behaviour b) preservation from dangers only if social needs are beeing satisfied c) no change in his motivation and conrequently to the persistence of the individuals behaviour in regard to the desired outcome d) prolonged suppression of all basic needs in favour of high self-actualization 40.3.1.4 (3038) Whilst flying a coordinated turn, most of your activity is a) skill based behaviour b) coping behaviour c) knowledge based behaviour d) rule based behaviour 40.3.1.4 (3039) If you approach an airfield VFR at a prescribed altitude, exactly following the approach procedure, and you encounter no inexpected or new problems you show: a) skill based behaviour b) knowledge based behaviour c) rule based behaviour d) rule and skill based behaviour 40.3.1.4 (3040) The choice of the moment you select flaps depending on situation and conditions of the landing is: a) skill based behaviour b) knowledge based behaviour c) pressure based behaviour d) rule based behaviour 40.3.1.4 (3041) The readiness for tracing information which could indicate the development of a critical situation a) is necessary to maintain good situational awareness b) is dangerous, because it distracts attention from flying the aircraft c) makes no sense because the human information processing system is limited anyway d) is responsible for the development of inadequate mental models of the real world

40.3.1.4 (3042) 1. Lively information is easier to take into consideration for creating a mental picture than boring information.2.The sequence in which information is offered is also important for the use the pilot makes of it. a) 1 and 2 are both correct b) 1 is correct, 2 is not correct c) 1 is not correct, 2 is correct d) 1 and 2 are both not correct 40.3.1.4 (3043) The development of procedures makes pilots more effective and more reliable in their actions. This is called: a) procedural consistency b) mental model c) knowledge-based behaviour d) procedural confusion 40.3.2.0 (3044) What means can be used to combat human error?-1 : Reducing error-prone mechanisms.-2 : Improving the way in which error is taken into account in training.-3 : Sanctions against the initiators of error.-4 : Improving recovery from errors and its consequences.The combination of correct statements is: a) 1, 2 and 4 b) 3 and 4 c) 1 and 2 d) 2, 3 and 4 40.3.2.0 (3045) It is desirable to standardize as many patterns of behaviour (operating procedures) as possible in commercial aviation mainly because a) such behaviour reduces errors even under adverse circumstances b) this lowers the ability requirement in pilot selection c) this reduces the amount of training required d) it makes the flight deck easier to design 40.3.2.0 (3046) Human errors are frequent and may take several forms : a) an error can be described as the mismatch between the pilots intention and the result of his/her actions b) an error of intention is an error of routine c) an violation is an error which is always involuntary d) representational errors in which the pilot has properly identified the situation and is familiar with the procedure 40.3.2.0 (3047) What is meant by the term 'complacency'? a) Careless negligence or unjustified self-confidence b) To question possible solutions c) An agreement between captain and co-pilot due to Crew Resources Management d) Physiological consequences on pilots because of fear of flying

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40.3.2.0 (3048) What would be the priority aim in the design of man-machine interfaces and in the creation of their application procedures for combatting problems associated with human error ? a) To reduce the risks of the appearance or non-detection of errors entailing serious consequences b) To eliminate the risk of latent errors occuring c) To cater systematically for the consequences of errors in order to analyse their nature and modify ergonomic parameters d) To put in place redundant alarm systems 40.3.2.1 (3049) How can man cope with low error tolerant situations? a) By constantly complying with cross-over verification procedures (cross monitoring) b) By increasing error detection in all circumstances c) By randomly applying a combination of optimum detection, warning and monitoring systems d) By generally avoiding situations in which tolerance to error is low 40.3.2.1 (3050) What are the various means which allow for better error detection?-1 : Improvement of the man-machine interface.-2 : Development of systems for checking the consistency of situations.-3 : Compliance with cross-over redundant procedures by the crew.-4 : Adaptation of visual alarms to all systems.The correct statement(s) is (are): a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 1and 3 c) 2, 3 and 4 d) 3 and 4 40.3.2.1 (3051) Why must flight safety considerations consider the human error mechanism? -1 : It is analysis of an incident or accident which will make it possible to identify what error has been committed and by whom. It is the process whereby the perpetrator is made responsible which may lead to elimination of the error.-2 : If we have a better understanding of the cognitive error mechanism, it will be possible to adapt procedures, aircraft interfaces, etc. -3 : It is error management procedure which enables us to continuously adjust our actions. The better we understand the underlying mechanism of an error, the better will be our means for detecting and adapting future errors.-4 : Since error is essentially human, once it has been identified by the use of procedures, a person will be able to anticipate and deal with it automatically in the future.The correct statement(s) is (are): a) 2 and 3 b) 3 and 4 c) 2 and 4 d) 1 and 4 40.3.2.1 (3052) Improvement of human reliability should entail: a) an effort to understand the causes and find means of recovery for errors committed

b) in aviation, the elimination of errors on the part of front-line operators c) the elimination of latent errors before they can effect performance d) the analysis of modes of human failures 40.3.2.1 (3053) An excessive need for safety a) hampers severly the way of pilot decision making b) is absolute necessary for a safe flight operation c) is the most important attribute of a line pilot d) guarantees the right decision making in critical situations 40.3.2.1 (3054) Studies of human error rates during the performance of simple repetitive task have shown, that errors can normally be expected to occur about a) 1 in 10 times b) 1 in 50 times c) 1 in 100 times d) 1 in 250 times 40.3.2.1 (3055) Which of the following human error rates can be described as both realistic and pretty good, after methodical training a) 1 in 100 times b) 1 in 1000 times c) 1 in 10000 times d) 1 in 100000 times 40.3.2.1 (3056) Situations particularly vulnerable to ""reversion to an earlier behaviour pattern"" are :1. when concentration on a particular task is relaxed2. when situations are characterised by medium workload3. when situations are characterised by stress a) 1. and 3. b) 1. and 2. c) 3. d) 2. and 3. 40.3.2.2 (3057) The most dangerous characteristic of the false mental model is, that it a) is frequently extremely resistant to correction b) will mainly occur under conditions of relaxation c) will only occur under conditions of stress d) can easily be changed 40.3.2.3 (3058) Which of the following statements best fits the definition of an active error?Active error is: a) produced by the operator and can be rapidly detected via the effects and consequences which it induces on the overall action b) produced either by a front-line operator or by a remote operator and results in a hidden or latent consequence at a specific moment of the action c) essentially results from the application of a bad rule or the poor application of a good rule

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by airplane designers d) rare in front-line actions and difficult to detect owing to the fact that it usually occurs in a complex system of uncontrolled and involuntary deviations 40.3.2.3 (3059) What are the main consequences of latent errors? They:-1 : remain undetected in the system for a certain lenght of time.-2 : may only manifest themselves under certainl conditions.-3 : are quickly detectable by the front-line operator whose mental schemas on the instantaneous situation filter out formal errors.-4 : lull the pilots into security.The correct statement(s) is (are): a) 1,2 and 4 b) 1 and 2 c) 1 and 3 d) 2, 3 and 4 40.3.2.3 (3060) Which of the following statements fits best the concept of latent error?Latent errors: a) have been present in the system for a certain lenght of time and are difficult to understand as a result of the time lag between the generation and the occurence of the error b) are rarely made by front-line operators, and are consequently readily identified and detected by the monitoring, detection and warning links c) are mainly associated with the behaviour of front-line operators and are only detected after advanced problem-solving d) rapidly may be detected via their immediate consequences on the action in progress 40.3.2.3 (3061) A system is all the more reliable if it offers good detectability. The latter is the result of:-1 : tolerance of the various systems to errors.-2 : the sum of the automatic monitoring, detection and warning facilities.-3 : the reliability of the Man-Man and Man-Machine links.-4 : the alerting capability of the Man-Machine interface.The combination of correct statements is: a) 2 and 4 b) 1, 2 and 4 c) 1 and 3 d) 3 and 4 40.3.2.3 (3062) According to Rasmussen's model, errors in rule-based control mode are of the following type(s) : a) errors of technical knowledge b) routine errors c) handling errors d) creative errors 40.3.2.3 (3063) According to Rasmussen's model, errors are of the following type(s) in skill-based control mode: a) routine errors b) knowledge errors

c) handling errors d) creative errors 40.3.2.3 (3064) When can a system be said to be tolerant to error?When: a) the consequences of an error will not seriously jeopardise safety b) its safety system is too permeable to error c) its safety system has taken account of all statistically probable errors d) latent errors do not entail serious consequences for safety 40.3.2.3 (3065) Once detected, an error will result in cognitive consequences which: a) make it possible to modify behaviour with a view to adaptation b) destabilize cognitive progress and maintain the error c) are prompted by inductive factors d) have virtually no interaction with behaviour 40.3.2.3 (3066) Human behaviour is determined by: a) biological characteristics, social environment and cultural influences b) biological characteristics c) the social environment d) cultural influences 40.3.2.3 (3067) The level of automation of behaviour-patterns facilitates the saving of resources and therefore of attention. On the other hand, it may result in : a) routine errors (slips) b) mistakes c) decision-making errors d) errors in selecting an appropriate plan of action 40.3.2.3 (3068) In problem-solving, what determines the transition from rules-based activities to a knowledge-based activity ? a) The unsuitability of the known rules for the problem posed b) Attentional capture c) Knowledge of rules which apply to the problem posed d) The unsuitability of the automated actions 40.3.2.3 (3069) Which of the following errors occur at rules-based level ?1.Omission2.The application of a poor rule3. Attentional capture4. The poor application of a good rule a) 2,4 b) 1,2 c) 3,4 d) 1,3

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40.3.2.3 (3070) The descriptive aspect of errors according to Hollnagel's model describes various directly observable types of erroneous actions which are :1. Repetition and omission2. The forward leap and the backward leap3. Intrusion and anticipation4. Intrusion a) 1,2,4 b) 1,3 c) 2,4 d) 1,2,3 40.3.2.3 (3071) What happens in problem-solving when the application of a rule allows for the situation to be resolved ? a) Actions return to an automatic mode b) A switch is made to knowledge mode in order to refine the results c) A switch is made to knowledge- based mode in order to continue monitoring of the problem d) A second monitoring rule must be applied 40.3.2.4 (3072) To avoid wrong decisions by the pilot, an aircraft system should at least be able to a) report its malfunction b) report the deviation c) correct the deviation d) tolerate the deviation 40.3.2.4 (3073) Analysis of accidents involving the human factor in aviation shows that : a) there is hardly ever a single cause responsible b) only front-line operators are involved c) only pilot training will make it possible to improve the situation d) failure of the human factor is always connected with technical breakdowns 40.3.2.4 (3074) What does the 'End Deterioration Effect'('Home-itis') mean? a) The tendency to sudden, imperceptible errors shortly before the end of a flight b) The result of a poor preflight planning c) The potential risk of loosing orientation after flying in clouds d) The breakdown of crew coordination due to interpersonal tensions between captain and copilot 40.3.2.4 (3075) 'Environmental capture' is a term used to describe which of the following statements?1.The tendency for a skill to be executed in an environment in which it is frequently exercised, even if it is inappropriate to do so2.The tendency for a skill acquired in one aircraft type to be executed in a new aircraft type, even if it is inappropriate to do so3. The tendency for people bo behave in different ways in different social situations4. The gaining of environmental skills a) 1 and 2 are correct b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct c) 2 and 3 are correct d) 4 is correct

40.3.2.4 (3076) Under what circumstances will a pilot change from automated level to rule-based level ? a) When detecting, that an automated behaviour will no longer lead to the intended outcome b) Failure of all the known rules c) The appearance of a situation or problem which is unknown and completely new d) An automated cognitive check procedure 40.3.2.4 (3077) Errors which occur during highly automated actions may result from :1. the capture of a poor action subprogram2. a mistake in the decision making process3. the application of a poor rule4. an action mode error a) 1,4 b) 1,2 c) 3,4 d) 2,3,4 40.3.2.4 (3078) What are the main characteristics of active errors ?They :1. are detectable only with difficulty by first-line operators2. have rapid and direct consequences on the action in progress3. are down to first-line operators4. have an impact on the overall action whose timing may be affected significantly a) 2,3 b) 1,2 c) 3,4 d) 1,4 40.3.2.4 (3079) The relationship which exists between crew error and flight safety : a) is dependent on the social and technical system and also on the operational context created by the system b) is a linear relationship which introduces crew training as the main factor c) is independent of the operational context, with the latter being identical for any flight operation d) has been evolving for 40 years and has now become independent of the social and technical system 40.3.2.4 (3080) The effects of sleep deprivation on performance:1. increase with altitude2. decrease with altitude3. increase with higher workload4. decrease with higher workload a) 1 and 3 are correct b) 1,2 and 3 are correct c) 1, 3 and 4 are correct d) 2, 3 and 4 are correct 40.3.2.4 (3081) What may be the origins of representation errors ?1. Perception errors2. The catering for all available information 3. Incorrect information from the observed world4. The receipt of a bad piece of information

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a) 1,3,4 b) 1,2 c) 3,4 d) 2,3 40.3.3.0 (3082) When a pilot is facing a problem during flight he should a) take as much time as he needs and is available to make up his mind b) always make up his mind quickly to give himself as much spare time as possible c) avoid making up his mind until the very last minute d) make up his mind before consulting other crew members 40.3.3.0 (3083) The decision making in emergency situations requires firstly: a) distribution of tasks and crew coordination b) speed of reaction c) informing ATC thoroughly about the situation d) the whole crew to focus on the problem 40.3.3.0 (3084) Which of the following abilities will not improve efficient decision making on the cockpit? a) Ability to persuade others to follow the own point of view. b) Communicational skills and social competence. c) Ability to search for and examine all available information regarding a situation. d) Ability to think ahead and specify alternative courses of action. 40.3.3.0 (3085) The assessment of risk in a particular situation will be based on a) subjective perception and evalutation of situational factors b) external factors only c) the emergency checklist only d) situational factors only 40.3.3.0 (3086) Once a pilot has developed a certain way of thinking about a problem he will probably a) find it difficult to get out of that way of thinking and difficult to try a different interpretation of the data b) find it difficult to stick to his/her interpretation of the data c) find it easy to interpret the data in different ways d) find it impossible to get out of that way of thinking, whatever happens 40.3.3.0 (3087) To maintain good situational awareness you should:(1) believe only in your own interpretation of the data(2) gather as much datas as possible from every possible source before making inferences(3) question whether your hypothesis still fits the situation as events progress and try to make time to review the situation(4) consider ways of testing your situational hypothesis to see whether it is correct a) 2, 3 and 4 are correct b) all answers are correct

c) 1 and 4 are correct d) 1 and 3 are correct 40.3.3.1 (3088) Most accidents are mainly caused by lack of: a) good judgement b) physical skills c) interpersonal relations d) good maintenance of aircraft 40.3.3.1 (3089) Judgement is based upon: a) a process involving a pilot´s attitude to take and to evaluate risks by assessing the situation and making decisions based upon knowledge, skill and experience b) a decision making process involving physical sensations and their transfer to manually operate the aircraft controls c) the development of skills from constant practice of flight manoeuvres d) the ability to interpret the flight instruments 40.3.3.1 (3090) Which of the following statements is correct regarding decision making? a) Deciding means choosing between alternatives. b) Deciding means being able to come up with original solutions. c) Deciding means imposing one's point of view. d) Deciding means applying an automatic procedure. 40.3.3.1 (3091) Which problem may be overlooked in the process of making a decision? a) Owing to great haste, bypassing analysis of the current actual situation in order to apply the decision prepared beforehand b) Preparing decisions often leads to strategies of minimum commitment c) Preparing decisions promotes the appearance of inflexibilities d) The captain's superior knowledge, justified by his/her status 40.3.3.1 (3092) In terms of decision-making, the intention to become integrated into the team, to be recognised as the leader or to avoid conflicts may lead to : a) the attempt to agree on decisions made by other crew members b) an authoritarian approach thus demonstrating ones own ability to lead c) the improvement of internal risk assessment capabilities d) the suggestion of a sequential solution in which everyone can contribute what he/she knows 40.3.3.1 (3093) What strategy should be put in place when faced with an anticipated period of time pressure ? a) A strategy of preparing decisions b) A non-sequential strategy c) A Laissez-faire strategy d) A strategy of no commitment

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40.3.3.1 (3094) Which biases relate to human decision making?1. Personal experience tends to alter the perception of the risk of an event occurring2. There is a natural tendency to want to confirm our decision even in the face of facts which contradict it3. The group to which an individual belongs tends to influence the particular decision4. There is natural tending to select only objective facts for decision-making purposes a) 1,2,3 b) 1,2 c) 3,4 d) 1,2,4 40.3.3.1 (3095) Habits and routine can influence decision-making in a way that: a) a tendency to select the most familiar solution first and foremost, sometimes to the detriment of achieving the best possible result b) one always wants to see previous experience confirmed by new decisions c) professional pilots will never question established procedures d) one always selects a choice in accordance with the company's usual practices 40.3.3.1 (3096) Decision-making can be influenced by the following factors:1. people tend to conform to opinions expressed by a majority within the group they belong to2. people always tend to keep the future decisions in line with those their superiors have made in the past3. people more easily tend to select data which meet the expectations4. people hardly base decisions on their personal preferences but rather on rational information a) 1,3 b) 2,3 c) 1,4 d) 2,4 40.3.3.1 (3097) The DECIDE model is based on : a) a prescriptive generic model, taking into account the method which seems most likely to come up with the solution b) a prescriptive generic model which is subject to mathematical logic c) a normative generic model based on mathematical logic d) a statistical model based on observation of human decision-making 40.3.3.1 (3098) Decision-making is a concept which represents : a) a voluntary and conscious process of selection, from among possible solutions, for a given problem b) an automated or automation-like act of applying defined procedures c) an automatic process of selection from among the various solutions to a given problem d) a spontaneous act of seeking the most effective solution in a given situation when faced with a defined problem 40.3.3.1 (3099) Which of the following characteristics form part of decision-making on the flight deck ?

a) A good decision depends on analysis of the situation b) A decision is only valid in a defined and delimited time c) A good decision can always be reversed if its result does not come up to expectations d) A group decision must always be established prior to action 40.3.3.1 (3100) In decision-making, the selection of a solution depends :1. on objective and subjective criteria2. on the objective to be achieved3. on the risks associated with each solution4. above all on the personality of the decision-maker a) 1,2,3,4 b) 1,2,4 c) 1,3 d) 4 40.3.3.1 (3101) Decision-making results in: a) a choice between different solutions for achieving a goal b) a choice always based on the experience of the PIC c) an objective choice concerning applicable solutions for a given end d) a subjective choice concerning applicable solutions 40.3.3.1 (3102) The confirmation bias of decision making is a) a tendency to ignore that information which indicates that a decision is poor, b) a tendency not to seek for information which confirms a judgement c) a tendency not to look for information which would reassure oneself about a decision d) a tendency to look for facts that confirm expectations before implementing one's decision 40.3.4.1 (3103) The relevance of check procedures during flight becomes even more important when: a) flying an unfamiliar type of aircraft and experiencing mental pressure b) flying an aircraft which you have flown recently c) conducting a longer flight than you would normally perform d) flying an aircraft which you have flown many times before 40.3.4.1 (3104) Which of the following responses is an example of ""habit reversion"" (negative habit transfer): a) A pilot who has flown many hours in an aircraft in which the fuel lever points forward for the ON position, may unintentionally turn the fuel lever into the false position, when flying a different aircraft, where the fuel lever has to point aft to be in the ON position b) Turning and aircraft to the left when intending to turn it to the right c) Incorrect anticipation of an air traffic controller´s instructions d) habitually missing an item on the checklist or missing the second item when two items are on the same line 40.3.4.1 (3105) Although the anticipation of possible events is a good attitude for pilots to acquire, it can sometimes lead to hazardous situations. With this statement in mind, select

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the response below which could lead to such a hazard: a) mishearing the contents of a reply from an air traffic controller when a nonstandard procedure was given but a standard procedure was anticipated b) anticipating that the weather may deteriorate c) anticipating that the flight will take longer time than planned d) anticipating the sequence of items on a check list. 40.3.4.1 (3106) The following course of action must be taken if gastrointestinal or cardiopulmonary complaints or pain arise before take-off :-1 : take the standard medicines and advise the doctor on returning from the flight-2 : assess your own ability to fly, if necessary with the help of a doctor-3 : if in doubt about fitness to fly - do not fly!-4 : reduce the cabin temperature, and drink before you are thirsty so as to avoid dehydration a) 2,3 b) 1,3 c) 1,4 d) 1,2,4 40.3.4.1 (3107) You are transporting a passenger who has to be at a certain destination for a meeting. The weather forcast at destination tends to be much worse than expected, so you consider to divert. The businessman offers you money if you manage to land there at any case.What is your appropriate way of action? You will a) decide to divert if you think it is necessary. b) continue and think about the nice things you can buy from the money c) divert in any case to demonstrate who' s the man in charge aboard d) see what you can do and ask the copilot to tolerate any decision 40.3.4.2 (3108) Doing a general briefing in the preflight phase the captain should emphasize a) particular requirements in the field of crew coordination due to specific circumstances b) complete delegation of all duties c) to depart on schedule d) to avoid inadequate handling of flight controls 40.3.4.2 (3109) Which of the following statements are correct with regard to the design of a check list?-1 : The longer a check list, the more it must be subdivided into logical parts.-2 : The trickiest points must be placed in the middle of the check list.-3 : Check lists must be designed in such a way that they can be lumped together with other tasks.-4 : Whenever possible, a panel scan sequence should be applied-5 : Critical points should have redundancies.The combination of correct statements is: a) 1, 4 and 5 are correct b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct c) 1, 2 and 5 are correct d) 1, 3 and 5 are correct 40.3.4.2 (3110) The use of check lists must be carried out in such a way that:

a) their execution must not be done simultaneously with other actions b) their execution may be done simultaneously with other actions c) their execution is not lumped together with important tasks d) it may be rejected since redundancy in the following check list will serve as verification 40.3.4.2 (3111) The purpose of action plans which are implemented during briefings is to: a) initiate procedures and reactions for situations that are most likely, risky or difficult during the flight b) define general planning of the flight plan c) allow everyone to prepare their own reactions in a difficult situation d) activate a collective mental schema with respect to non-procedural actions to be carried out 40.3.4.2 (3112) In order to overcome an overload of work during the flight, it is necessary to:-1 : know how to use one's own reserve of resources in order to ease the burden on the crew.-2 : divide up tasks among the crew.-3 : abandon automatic mode and instead process as much information as possible consciously.-4 : drop certain tasks and stick to high-level priorities.The correct statement(s) is (are): a) 1, 2 and 4 are correct b) 1 and 3 are correct c) 1, 2 and 3 are correct d) 3 and 4 are correct 40.3.4.2 (3113) Which of the following statements concerning check list is correct? a) The most important items should be placed at the beginning of a check list since attention is usually focused here b) The most important items must be placed at the end of check list, allowing them to be kept near at hand so that they are quickly available for any supplementary check c) The most important items must be placed in the middle of check list so that they come to be examined once attention is focused but before concentration starts to wane d) All the items of a check list are equally important, their sequence is of no importance 40.3.4.2 (3114) Of the following statements, which apply to coordinated cooperation?-1 : It allows for synergy in the actions between the captain and the pilot.-2 : It represents the simultaneous execution of a single action by the various members of the crew.-3 : Communication in this mode has the function of synchronizing actions and distributing responsibilities.-4 : Communication must be essentially focussed on temporal and cognitive synchronisation.The correct statement(s) is (are): a) 1 and 3 b) 1,2 and 4 c) 2 and 3 d) 1 and 4 40.3.4.2 (3115) What are the advantages of coordination? a) Redundancy, synergy, clarification of responsibility. b) Cooperation, cognition, redundancy.

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c) Interaction, cognition, redundancy. d) Redundancy, exploration, risky shift. 40.3.4.2 (3116) Coaction is a mode of coordination which recommends: a) working parallel to achieve one common objective b) working parallel to achieve individual objectives c) sustained cooperation on actions and the formulation of commitments concerning flight situations d) the application of procedural knowledge in the conduct of specific actions 40.3.4.2 (3117) The person with overall responsibility for the flight is the-1 Pilot in Command-2 Copilot-3 Navigator-4 Air traffic controllerThe correct statement(s) is (are): a) 1 b) 1 and 2 c) 2 and 3 d) 4 40.3.4.2 (3118) Action plans (SOP's) in a cockpit must : a) be shared by the members of the crew and updated at each modification in order to maintain maximum synergy b) be tailored to the individual pilot's needs in order to facilitate the normal operation of the aircraft c) only be tailored to the type of aircraft, regardless of current MCC procedures d) only follow the manufacturers proposals and not reflect individual operators cockpit philosophies 40.3.4.2 (3119) The trend in airplane hull-loss rate over the last three decades seems to be related to : a) the crew b) the manufacturer c) the number of engines d) the year of manufacture 40.3.4.3 (3120) Mark the two most important attributes for a positive leadership style:(1) dominant behaviour(2) examplary role-behaviour(3) mastery of communication skills(4) ""Laissez-faire"" behaviour a) 2 and 3 b) 1 and 4 c) 1 and 3 d) 2 and 4 40.3.4.3 (3121) During the preparational work in the cockpit the captain notices that his copilot on the one hand is rather unexperienced and insecure but on the other hand highly motivated. Which kind of leadership behaviour most likely is inappropriate? a) The captain lets the copilot fly and observes his behaviour without any

comments b) The captain flies the first leg by himself and explains each action to the copilot in order to keep him informed about his decisions c) The captain lets the copilot fly and gives him detailled instructions what to do d) The captain lets the copilot fly and encourages him frankly to ask for any support that needed 40.3.4.3 (3122) Which one of the following statements characterizes a democratic and cooperative leadership style?If conflicts evolve, the leader a) tries to clarify the reasons and causes of the conflict with all persons involved b) mainly tries to reconcile all persons involved in the conflict and tries to reestablish a nice and friendly atmosphere within the team c) keeps a neutral position and does not participate in argu