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JAR Databank Preparation 10.1.1.

4 (7)
The 'Standards' contained in the Annexes to the Chicago convention are to be
considered:
10.1.1.1 (1)
a) binding for the member states that have not notified ICAO about a national
An airline is planning a flight that will require a Technical landing in a neighboring
difference
state. Which freedom of the Air will be exercised ?
b) advice and guidance for the aviation legislation within the member states
a) 2nd freedom
c) binding for all member states
b) 1st freedom
d) binding for all air line companies with international traffic
c) 3rd freedom
d) 4th freedom
10.1.2.0 (8)
Which of the following is obligating for members of ICAO ?
10.1.1.1 (2)
a) ICAO must be informed about differences from the standards in any of the
The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) establishes,
Annexes to the convention
a) standards and recommended international practices for contracting member
b) ICAO shall approve the pricing of tickets on international airline connections
states.
c) ICAO must be informed about changes in the national regulations
b) aeronautical standards adopted by all states.
d) ICAO must be informed about new flight crew licenses and any suspended validity of such
c) proposals for aeronautical regulations in the form of 18 annexes.
licenses
d) standards and recommended practices applied without exception by all states, signatory to
the Chicago convention.
10.1.2.0 (9)
The Warsaw convention and later amendments deals with:
10.1.1.2 (3)
a) limitation of the operator¹s responsibility vis-á-vis passenger and goods
The objectives of ICAO was ratified by the :
transported
a) Chicago convention 1944
b) the regulation of transportation of dangerous goods
b) Warzaw convention 1929
c) operator¹s licence for international scheduled aviation
c) Geneva convention 1948
d) the security system at airports
d) Geneva convention 1936

10.1.2.0 (10)
10.1.1.2 (4)
Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of Montreal by written
The International Civil Aviation Organisation (I.C.A.O.) was established by the
notification to the depositary governments. The denounciation shall take effect :
international convention of :
a) 6 months following the date on which notification is received by the Depositary
a) Chicago
Governments
b) The Hague
b) 3 months following the date on which notification is received by the Depositary
c) Warsaw
Governments
d) Montreal
c) 2 months following the date ICAO is informed
d) 4 months following the date on which notification is received by the Depositary
10.1.1.3 (5) Governements
One of the main objectives of ICAO is to :
a) develop principles and techniqe for international aviation
10.1.2.0 (11)
b) approve the ticket prices set by international airline companies
The aircraft commander, when he has reasonable grounds to believe that a person
c) approve new internationel airlines with jet aircraft
has commited or is about to commit, on board the aircraft, an offense against
d) approve new international airlines
penal law
a) may deliver such person to the competent authorities
10.1.1.4 (6) b) may request such person to disembark
Which body of ICAO finalises the Standard and Recommended Practices (SARPS) c) may require the assistance of passengers to restrain such person
for submission for adoption ? d) may not require or authorise the assistance of other crew members
a) the Air Navigation Commission
b) the Assembly
10.1.2.0 (12)
c) the Council
Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of Tokyo by notification
d) the Regional Air Navigation meeting
addressed
a) International Civile Aviation Organisation
b) the other Contracting States

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c) United Nations 10.1.2.4 (19)
d) to all States Members of United Nations The international convention defining rules relative to the responsibilities of
international air carriers for the carriage of passengers, baggage and freight is
the :
10.1.2.0 (13)
a) Warsaw Convention.
The convention on offences and certain acts committed on board aircraft, is :
b) Tokyo Convention.
a) the convention of Tokyo
c) Hague Convention.
b) the convention of Paris
d) Montreal Convention.
c) the convention of Rome
d) the convention of Chicago
10.1.4.0 (20)
The Rome Convention and later amendments deals with :
10.1.2.1 (14)
a) Damage caused by foreign aircraft to third parties on the surface
""Cabotage"" refers to:
b) Regulation of transportation of dangerous goods
a) domestic air services ,
c) Damage caused by any aircraft to third parties on the surface
b) a national air carrier,
d) offences and certain other acts committed on board aircraft
c) a flight above territorial waters,
d) crop spraying
10.1.4.0 (21)
The convention signed by the states and moved by a desire to endure adequate
10.1.2.1 (15)
compensation for persons who suffer damage caused on the surface by foreign
The second freedom of the air is the :
aircraft is :
a) right to land for a technical stop
a) the Rome Convention
b) right to overfly without landing
b) the Warsaw Convention
c) right to ""cabotage"" traffic, (trans-border traffic).
c) the Paris Convention
d) right to operate a commercial passenger flight with passengers on board between two
d) the Tokyo Convention
states.

10.1.4.0 (22)
10.1.2.1 (16)
Any person who suffers damage on the surface shall, upon proof only that damage
The first freedom of the air is:
was caused by an aircraft in flight or by any person or thing falling therefore will
a) The right to overfly without landing.
be entitled to compensation as provided by :
b) The right to land for a technical stop.
a) the Rome Convention
c) The opportunity to operate a commercial flight with passengers on board between two
b) the Chicago Convention
states.
c) the Warsaw Convention
d) The right to board passengers from the state where the aircraft is registered and to fly to
d) the Montreal Convention
an other state.

10.2.0.0 (23)
10.1.2.2 (17)
When letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall not be used
The convention which deals with offences againts penal law, is
which might be confused with the
a) the convention of Tokyo
a) five letter combinations used in the international code of signals
b) the convention of Warsaw
b) four letter combinations beginning with Q
c) the convention of Rome
c) three letters combinations used in the international code of signals
d) the convention of Madrid
d) letters used for ICAO identification documents

10.1.2.2 (18)
10.2.0.0 (24)
The convention of Tokyo applies to damage :
The state of design shall ensure that, there exists a continuing structural integrity
a) caused in the territory of a contracting state or in a ship or aircraft registered
program to ensure the airworthiness of the aeroplane, which includes specific
there in , by an aircraft registered in the territory of another contraction state
information concerning corrosion prevention and control, in respect of aeroplanes :
b) only caused in the territory of a contracting state by an aircraft registered in the territory of
a) over 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off mass
another contracting state
b) over 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off and landing mass
c) caused in the territory of a contrating state by any aircraft regardless the registration
c) up to 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off mass
d) the above convention does not deal with this item
d) up to 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off and landing mass

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10.2.0.0 (25) which might be confused with urgent or distress signals for example
The loading limitations shall include : a) XXX
a) all limiting mass, centres of gravity position, mass distributions and floor b) DDD
loadings c) RCC
b) all limiting mass and centres of gravity d) LLL
c) all limiting mass, mass distributions and centres of gravity
d) all limiting mass, centres of gravity position and floor loadings
10.3.0.0 (32)
The height of the marks under the wings of heavier than air aircraft shall be
10.3.0.0 (26) a) at least 50 centimetres
The assigment of the common mark to a common mark registering authority will b) at least between 40 centimetres and 50 centimetres
be made by : c) at least 60 centimetres
a) the International Civil Aviation Organisation d) at least 75 centimetres
b) the state of registry and accepted by the International Telecommunication Union
c) the International Telecommunication Union
10.3.0.0 (33)
d) the state of registry
The height of the marks on the fuselage (or equivalent structure) and on the
vertical tail surfaces of heavier than air aircraft shall be
10.3.0.0 (27) a) at least 30 centimetres
The common mark shall be selected from the series of symbols included in the b) at least 40 centimetres
radio call signs allocated : c) at least 20 centimetres
a) to the International Civil Aviation Organisation by the International d) at least between 20 centimetres and 40 centimetres
Telecommunication Union
b) to the state of registry by the International Civil Aviation Organisation
10.4.0.0 (34)
c) to the State of registry by the International Telecommunication Union
The profeciency check of a pilot took place the 15th of April. The validity of the
d) to state of the operator
previous profeciency check was the 30th of June. The period of the new
profeciency check can be and can't exceed:
10.3.0.0 (28) a) 31th of December the same year
The registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a combination of letters and b) 15th of October the same year
numbers and shall be that assigned by : c) 30th of October the same year
a) the state of registry or common mark registering authority d) 30th of April the following year
b) the state of registry only
c) the International Civil Aviation Organisation
10.4.0.0 (35)
d) the Internationnal Telecommunication Union
The prescribed re-examination of a licence holder operating in an area distant from
designated medical examination facilities may be deferred at the discretion of the
10.3.0.0 (29) licence authority, provided that such deferment shall only be made as an exception
When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be used which and shall not exceed:
might be confused with urgent signals for example a) A single period of six month in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft
a) TTT engaged in non-commercial operations.
b) FFF b) Two consecutive periods each of three month in the case a flight crew member of an
c) RCC aircraft engaged in non-commercial operations.
d) LLL c) A single period of three month in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in
commercial operations.
d) Two consecutive periods each of six month in the case of a flight crew member of an
10.3.0.0 (30)
aircraft engaged in non-commercial operations.
When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be used which
might be confused with urgent signals for example
a) PAN 10.4.0.0 (36)
b) RCC When a contracting state renders valid a licence issued by another contracting
c) LLL state, the validity of the authorization:
d) DDD a) Shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence.
b) Depends on the regulations of the contracting sate which renders valid the licence.
c) Shall not extend beyond one year for ATPL and PCL.
10.3.0.0 (31)
d) Is only considered for PPL.
When letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall not be used
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10.4.0.0 (37) a) After 21 days of consecutive ""illness""
Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum b) as soon as possible if the illness is expected to last more than 21days
specifications for a crew licence to have international validity? c) after one calendar month of consecutive illness
a) Annex 1 d) if still not fit to fly when his/her current medical certificate expires
b) Annex 2
c) Annex 3
10.4.0.0 (44)
d) Annex 4
The holder of a pilot licence, when acting as co-pilot of an aircraft required to be
operated with a co-pilot, shall be entitled to be credit with not more than :
10.4.0.0 (38) a) 50 % of the co-pilot flight time towards the total flight time required for a
You may act as a flight instructor to carry out flight instruction for the issue of a higher grade of pilot licence
PPL b) 40 % of the co-pilot flight time towards, the total flight time required for a higher grade of
a) With a theorical CPL examination plus flight instructor rating a pilot licence
b) With an ATPL c) 100 hours of flying time required for a higher grade of a pilot licence
c) With a PPL plus flight instructor rating d) 60 % of the co-pilot flight time towards, the total flight time required for a higher grade of
d) With a CPL a pilot licence

10.4.0.0 (39) 10.4.0.0 (45)


The validity of the instrument-rating aeroplane - IR(A) is : The age of an applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall not be less than :
a) 1 year a) 18 years of age
b) 6 months b) 21 years of age
c) 5 years c) 17 years of age
d) 2 years d) 16 years of age

10.4.0.0 (40) 10.4.0.0 (46)


The minimum age for obtaining a PPL is : An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall hold
a) 17 years a) a current class I medical assessment
b) 16 years b) a current class II medical assessment
c) 18 years c) a current class III medical assessment
d) 21 years d) a current class medical assessment as prescribed by the state issuing the licence

10.4.0.0 (41) 10.4.0.0 (47)


To be able to execute a public transport flight, the minimum and maximum age Multi-engine / inoperative or simulated inoperative.
(with ATPL) is : a) Land/inactive.
a) 21 and 59 years b) Amphibious/inactive or simulated inactive.
b) 16 and 60 years c) Single-engine/inactive.
c) 17 and 59 years d) 1999-06-08 0:00
d) 18 and 60 years
10.4.0.0 (48)
10.4.0.0 (42) The privileges of the holder of a commercial pilot licence-aeroplane shall be :
The holder of a pilot's licence should inform the Authority of any illness which they a) to act as pilot-in command in any aeroplane engaged in operations other than
are suffering which involves incapacity to undertake those functions to which the commercial air transportation
licence relates throughout a period of a certain number of days or more. The b) to act as pilot in command in any aeroplane engaged in commercial air transportation
number of days is : c) to act as pilot in command in any aeroplane certificate for single pilot operation other than
a) 21 in commercial air transportation
b) 30 d) none of the answers are correct
c) 60
d) 90
10.4.0.0 (49)
An applicant for a commercial pilot licence-aeroplane shall have completed not less
10.4.0.0 (43) than ........ hours of cross country flight time as pilot in command including a cross
If a licence holder is unable to perform the flight crew functions appropriate to country flight totalling not less than ........ km (-NM), in the course of which full
that licence due to illness, the authority must be informed : stop landings at two different aerodromes shall be made. The hours and distance
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referred are : 10.4.0.0 (54)
a) 20 hours and 540 km (300NM) An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in
b) 10 hours and 270 km (150 NM) aeroplanes not less than :
c) 15 hours and 540 km (300NM) a) 100 hours of night flight as pilot in command or as co-pilot
d) 20 hours and 270 km (150NM) b) 100 hours of night flight only as pilot in command
c) 75 hours of night flight as pilot in command or as co-pilot
d) 75 hours of night time only as pilot in command
10.4.0.0 (50)
An applicant for a commercial pilot licence aeroplane shall have completed in
aeroplanes not less than : 10.4.0.0 (55)
a) 20 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross The licensing authority shall determine whether experience as pilot under
country flight not less than 540 km (300NM) instruction in a synthetic flight trainer which it has approved, is acceptable as part
b) 10 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight of the total flight time of 1 500 hours. Credit for such experience shall be limited to
not less than 540 km (300NM) a maximum of :
c) 25 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight a) 100 hours, of which not more than 25 hours shall have been acquired in a flight
not less than 540 km (300NM) procedure trainer or basic instrument flight trainer
d) 15 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight b) 100 hours of which not more than 20 hours shall have been acquired in a basic instrument
not less than 540 km (300NM) flight trainer
c) 100 hours of which not more than 15 hours shall have been acquired in a flight procedure
trainer or basic instrument flight trainer
10.4.0.0 (51)
d) 75 hours of which not more than 20 hours shall have been acquired in a flight procedure
An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence aeroplane shall have completed
trainer or basic instrument flight trainer
in aeroplanes not less than ...... hours, either as pilot in command or made up by
not less than ...... hours as pilot-in-command and the additional flight time as co-
pilot performing, under the supervision of the pilot-in-command the duties and 10.4.0.0 (56)
functions of a pilot in command provided that the method of supervision employed An applicant holding a private or commercial pilot licence aeroplane for the issue
is acceptable to the licensing authority. The stated above hours are respectively : of an instrument rating, shall have completed ..... hours of cross-country flight time
a) 250 hours and 100 hours as pilot-in-command of aircraft in categories acceptable to the licensing Authority,
b) 200 hours and 75 hours of which not less than ..... hours shall be in aeroplanes. The said hours, are
c) 200 hours and 100 hours respectively
d) 150 hours and 75 hours a) 50 hours and 10 hours
b) 40 hours and 10 hours
c) 40 hours and 15 hours
10.4.0.0 (52)
d) 50 hours and 15 hours
The applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in
aeroplanes not less than ...... hours of cross-country flight time, of which not less
than ...... hours shall be as pilot-in command or co-pilot performing, under the 10.4.0.0 (57)
supervision of the pilot in command, the duties and functions of a pilot in In certain circumstances a medical examination may be deferred at the discretion
command, provided that the method of supervision employed is acceptable to the of the licensing authority, provided that such deferment shall only be made as an
licensing authority. The state above hours are respectively : exception and shall not exceed :
a) 200 hours and 100 hours a) A single period of six months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft
b) 250 hours and 10 hours engaged in non commercial operations.
c) 150 hours and 75 hours b) Two consecutive periods each of three months in the case of a flight crew member of an
d) 200 hours and 75 hours aircraft engaged in non commercial operations
c) A single period of six months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in
commercial operations.
10.4.0.0 (53)
d) in the case of a private pilot, a single period of 12 months
An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in
aeroplanes not less than :
a) 75 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 30 hours may be 10.4.0.0 (58)
instrument ground time. The duration of the period of currency of a medical assessment shall begin on the
b) 100 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 30 hours of instrument ground time date :
c) 150 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 75 hours of instrument ground time. a) the medical assessment is issued
d) 75 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 20 hours of instrument ground time. b) the licence is issued or validated
c) the licence is issued or renewed
d) the licence is delivered to the pilot
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10.4.0.0 (59) a) 200 hours of flight time or 150 hours if completed during a course of approved
When a contracting state renders valid a licence issued by another contracting training as a pilot of aeroplanes
state the validity of the authorization b) 200 hours of flight time and 80 hours as pilot in command
a) shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence c) 200 hours of flight time and 70 hours as pilot in command
b) shall not extend more than 15 days from the date of the licence d) 150 hours of flight time and 100 hours as pilot in command
c) the Contracting state rendering a licence valid may extend the date of the validity at its own
discretion
10.4.0.0 (65)
d) shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence other than for use in private
An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not
flights
less than :
a) 10 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 5 hours may be
10.4.0.0 (60) instrument ground time
When the holders of aircraft transport pilot licences aeroplane and helicopter have b) 20 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 5 hours may be instrument
passed their 40th birthday the medical examination shall be reduced from : ground time.
a) 12 months to 6 months c) 20 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 10 hours may be instrument
b) 12 months to 3 months ground time
c) 24 months to 12 months d) 15 hours of instrument time of which not more than 5 hours as pilot in command
d) none of the answers are correct
10.4.0.0 (66)
10.4.0.0 (61) The International Civil Aviation Convention Annex containing standards and
Type ratings shall be established recommended practices for Personnel Licensing is :
a) for any type of aircraft whenever considered necessary by the authority a) Annex 1
b) only aircraft certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at least two pilots b) Annex 2
c) only for aircraft certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at least two pilots and c) Annex 11
each type of helicopter d) Annex 12
d) all the answers are correct
10.4.0.0 (67)
10.4.0.0 (62) At the discretion of the Authority of that Member State concerned for a period not
The holder of a pilot licence when acting as co-pilot performing under the exceeding one year, provided that the basic licence remains valid.
supervision of the pilot in command the functions and duties of a pilot in command a) At the diiscretion of the Authority of the Member State concerned for a period
shall be entitled to be credit : not exceeding the period validity of basic licence
a) in full with his flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of b) At the discretion of the Authority of that Member State concerned for a period not
pilot licence exceeding one year
b) in full with his flight but not more than 300 hours towards the total time required for a c) At the discretion of the Authority of that Member State concerned for a period not
higher grade of pilot licence exceeding one year, provided that the basic licence remains valid.
c) the flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence in accordance d) 1998-11-27 0:00
with the requirements of the licensing authority
d) 50% of his flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence
10.4.0.0 (68)
More than 12 hours
10.4.0.0 (63) a) More than 12 days
For commercial pilot licence aeroplane the applicant shall have completed in b) More than one week
aeroplanes not less than if the privileges of the licence are to be exercised at night c) Any period
a) 5 hours of night flight time including 5 take offs and 5 landings as pilot in d) 1998-11-30 0:00
command
b) 5 hours of night flight time including 5 take offs and 5 landings either as pilot in command
10.4.0.0 (69)
or as co-pilot
According to JAR-FCL, Class 2 medical certificate for private pilots will be valid for
c) 5 hours of night flight time including 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in command
a) 60 months until age of 30, 24 months until age of 50, 12 months until age of 65
d) 5 hours of night flight time including 3 take offs and 5 landings as pilot in command
and 6 months thereafter
b) 60 months until age of 30, 24 months until age of 40, 12 months thereafter
10.4.0.0 (64) c) 24 months until age of 40, 12 months thereafter
An applicant for a commercial pilot licence aeroplane shall have completed in d) 24 months until age of 40, 12 months until age of 60 and 6 months thereafter
aeroplanes not less than :

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10.4.0.0 (70) c) The application is received by the Authority.
According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for a CPL (A) who has satisfactorily followed an d) Of the last medical certificate
completed an integrated flying training course shall have completed as a pilot of
aeroplanes having a certificate of airworthiness issued or accepted by a JAA
10.4.0.0 (76)
Member State at least:
According to JAR-FCL, single pilot single-engine class ratings are valid for :
a) 150 hours of flight time
a) Two years
b) 200 hours of flight time
b) One year
c) 150 hours of flight time plus 10 hours of instrument ground time
c) Two years up to age 40 years then one year thereafter.
d) 200 hours of flight time plus 10 hours of instrument ground time
d) Five years after licence issuie.

10.4.0.0 (71)
10.5.0.0 (77)
According to JAR-FCL, an instrument rating is valid for :
Which provisions on a VFR-flight in Class E airspace are CORRECT?
a) one year
a) Service provided : Traffic Information as far as practical, ATC Clearance : not
b) two years
required ,
c) The period of validity of the licence.
b) Service provided : Air Traffic Control Service, ATC Clearance : required ,
d) Indefinitely
c) Service provided : Traffic Information as far as practical, ATC Clearance : required ,
d) Service provided : Air Traffic Control Service, ATC Clearance : not required
10.4.0.0 (72)
According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for an IR(A) shall hold a PPL (A)including a
10.5.1.0 (78)
night qualification or CPL(A) and shall have completed at least 50 hours :
Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome,
a) Cross country flight time as pilot-in-command in aeroplanes or helicopters of
experiencing radio failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without
which at least 10 hours shall be in aeroplanes.
requiring immediate assistance?
b) Cross country flight time as pilot of aeroplanes or helicopters of which at least 10 hours
a) The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights
shall be in aeroplanes.
b) Switching on and off three times the landing lights
c) Instructional flight time as studen-pilot-in-command of aeroplanes.
c) Switching on and off four times the landing lights
d) Instructional flight time as student-pilot-in-command of aeroplanes or helicopters of which
d) Switching on and off four times the navigation lights
at least 10 hours shall be in aeroplanes.

10.5.1.0 (79)
10.4.0.0 (73)
If radio communication is established during an interception but communications
According to JAR-FCL, class rating shall be established for single pilots aeroplanes
in a common language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the
not requiring a type rating, including :
intercepting aircraft to request the intercepted aircraft to descend for landing ?
a) All self.-sustaining gliders.
a) Descend
b) All types of single-pilot, single-engine aeroplanes fitted with a turbojet engine.
b) Let down
c) Microlights having fixed wings and moveable aerodynamic control surfaces acting in all
c) You land
three dimensions.
d) Descend for landing
d) Any other type of aeroplane if considered necessary.

10.5.1.0 (80)
10.4.0.0 (74)
If radio contact with the intercepting aircraft is established but communication on
According to JAR-FCL, establishment of separate type rating for aeroplanes will be
a common language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the
assessed on the basis of three criteria. One of these three criteria is that the
intercepted aircraft to communicate that he is unable to comply with the
aeroplane has :
instructions received ?
a) Handling characteristics that require additional flying or simulator training
a) CAN NOT
b) Handling characteristics that require the use of more than one crew member
b) CAN NOT COMPLY
c) A certificate of airworthiness issued by a non-member state.
c) UNABLE TO COMPLY
d) A certificate of airworthiness issued by the manufacturer.
d) NOT POSSIBLE

10.4.0.0 (75)
10.5.1.0 (81)
According to JAR-FCL, the validity of type ratings and multi-engine class ratings
A flashing red light from control tower during an approach to land means:
will be one year from the date :
a) The airport is unsafe, do not land
a) Of issue
b) The airport is temporarily closed, continue circling
b) Of the skill test

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c) Give way to other aircraft in emergency 10.5.1.0 (88)
d) Continue circling and wait for further instructions The VMC minima for an airspace classified as ""B"" above 10 000 feet MSL are :
a) clear of clouds, 8 km visibility
b) 1 mile horizontaly and 1 000 feet verticaly from clouds, 5 km visibility
10.5.1.0 (82)
c) 2 000 metres horizontaly, 1 000 feet verticaly from clouds, 8 km visibility
On aerodromes aircraft taxying on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome shall
d) 1 nautical mile horizontaly and 1 000 feet verticaly from clouds, 8 km visibility
give way to:
a) aircraft taking off or about to take off
b) other vehicles and pedestrians 10.5.1.0 (89)
c) other converging aircraft The VMC minima for an airspace classified as ""G"" above 10 000 feet MSL are :
d) all vehicles moving on the apron except the ""follow me"" vehicle a) 1500 m horizontally and 1 000 feet vertically from clouds, 8 km visibility.
b) 1500 m horizontally and 1 000 feet verticaly from clouds, 5 km visibility
c) 1 nautical mile horizontally and 1 000 feet vertically from clouds, 5 km visibility
10.5.1.0 (83)
d) 1 nautical mile horizontally and 1000 feet vertically from clouds, 8 km visibility
A double white cross displayed horizontally in the signal area means:
a) The aerodrome is being used by gliders and that glider flights are being
performed. 10.5.1.0 (90)
b) An area unit for the movement of aircraft. A controlled flight is requested to inform the appropriate ATC unit whenever the
c) Special precautions must be observed due to bad state of the taxiways. average True Air Speed at cruising level varies or is expected to vary from that
d) Need special precautions while approaching for landing. given in the flight plan by plus or minus:
a) 5%
b) 3%
10.5.1.0 (84)
c) 2%
Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, a VFR flight can not enter or
d) 10%
leave a control zone when ceiling is less than :
a) 1 500 feet or visibility is less than 5 km
b) 1 000 feet or visibility is less than 5 km 10.5.1.0 (91)
c) 2 000 feet or visibility is less than 5 km An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft, if equipped with SSR transponder shall,
d) 1 000 feet or visibility is less than 8 km unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate ATS unit, select one of the
following code on mode ""A""
a) 7 700
10.5.1.0 (85)
b) 7 500
The person who has final authority as to the disposition of an aircraft during flight
c) 7 600
time is:
d) 7 000
a) The commander
b) The ATC controller if the aircraft is flying in a controlled airspace
c) The aircraft owner 10.5.1.0 (92)
d) The airliner operator An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately attempt to establish
radio communication with the intercepting aircraft on the following frequencies:
a) 121.5 MHz - 243 MHz
10.5.1.0 (86)
b) 121.5 MHz - 125.5 MHz
Which of the following flights has the greatest priority to land ?
c) 121.5 MHz - 282.8 MHz
a) Emergency aircraft
d) 243 MHz - 125.5 MHz
b) Military aircraft
c) VIP (Head of state) aircraft
d) Hospital aircraft carrying a very sick person needing immediate medical attention 10.5.1.0 (93)
Which manoeuvre shall be executed by an intercepting aircraft if the pilot wants to
communicate to the intercepted aircraft ""YOU MAY PROCEED"" ?
10.5.1.0 (87)
a) Executing a climbing turn of 90 degrees or more without crossing the line of
An aircraft flying above the sea between 4 500 feet MSL and 9 000 feet MSL
flight of the intercepted aircraft.
outside controlled airspace under VFR, must remain on principle at least:
b) Rocking wings twice and crossing in front of the aircraft.
a) 1 500 m horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds, 5 km visibility.
c) Circling the intercepted aircraft in a clock-wise pattern.
b) 1500 m horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds, 8 km visibility.
d) Rocking the wings and flashing the navigational lights.
c) Clear of clouds and in sight of the surface, 8 km visibility.
d) 2 000 feet horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds, 5 km visibility.
10.5.1.0 (94)
Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding level to be maintained by
8
an aircraft flying IFR outside controlled airspace? 10.5.1.0 (100)
a) 1 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometres of the estimated A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means :
position of the aircraft a) Not with standing any previous instructions, do not land for the time being.
b) 2 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometres of course b) Come back and land.
c) 1 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 nautical miles of course c) Give way to another aircraft and hold the circuit.
d) 2 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 nautical miles of course d) Dangerous airfield. Do not land.

10.5.1.0 (95) 10.5.1.0 (101)


Aircraft ""A"" with an ATC clearance is flying in VMC conditions within a control Aircraft wishing to conduct IFR flight within advisory airspace, but not electing to
area. Aircraft ""B"" with no ATC clearance is approaching at approximately the use the air traffic advisory service:
same altitude and on a converging course. Which has the right of way? a) Shall nevertheless submit a flight plan and notify changes made thereto to the
a) Aircraft ""B"" if ""A"" is on its left ATS unit providing that service.
b) Aircraft ""A"" if ""B"" is on its right b) Shall nevertheless submit a flight plan but changes made thereto are not necessary to be
c) Aircraft ""A"" regardless of the direction which ""B"" is approaching notified.
d) Aircraft ""B"" regardless of the direction ""A"" is approaching c) need to file a flight plan
d) may file a flight plan under pilot's discretion.
10.5.1.0 (96)
Which of the following actions shall be taken in case of a controlled flight deviates 10.5.1.0 (102)
from the track? When a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its current flightplan, ATC has
a) Adjust the heading of aircraft to regain track as soon as practicable to be informed in case :
b) Inform the ATC unit immediately a) the TAS varies by plus or minus 5% of the TAS notified in the flightplan.
c) If VMC, maintain this condition, waiting for the ATC instructions b) of an emergency.
d) Notify ATC of the new track immediately and comply with instructions c) the estimated time is in error by more than 10 minutes.
d) it is a deviation from the track.
10.5.1.0 (97)
While on IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an 10.5.1.0 (103)
ATC clearance. What action must be taken? Where State has not established minimum IFR altitudes, the minimum height of an
a) The appropriate ATC unit shall be notified of the action taken as soon as aircraft above the highest obstacle over high terrain, or in mountainous areas shall
circumstances permit be for an IFR flight :
b) Request an amended clearance or cancel the IFR flight plan a) at least 2000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated position
c) Submit a detailed report to ATC within 24 hours b) at least 1000 feet within 5KM of the estimated position
d) Squawk 7700 c) at least 1000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated position
d) at least 2000 feet within 5KM of the estimated position
10.5.1.0 (98)
A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals: 10.5.1.0 (104)
a) Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body , then An aircraft shall display, if so equipped, an anti-collision light:
clench fist a) on the ground when the engines are running
b) Arms down , palms facing inwards, moving arms from extended position inwards. b) outside the daylight-period in flight, but not on the ground when it is being towed,
c) Crossing arms extended above his head c) while taxiing, but not when it is being towed,
d) Horizontally moving his hands, fingers extended, palms toward ground d) outside the daylight-period at engine-start. During the daylight-period this is not applicable,

10.5.1.0 (99) 10.5.1.0 (105)


An aircraft is flying under Instrument Flight Rules in an area where the visibility is The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that :
unlimited and the sky is clear (free of clouds), when it totally loses a) taxiing need not be confined to the taxiways ,
radiocommunications. The procedure to be followed is: b) gliderflying is performed outside the landing area,
a) land on the closest appropriate aerodrome, then advise Air Traffic Services of c) landing, take-off and taxiing is allowed on runway and/or taxiway only,
landing d) this aerodrome is using parallel runways
b) adopt a VFR flight level and continue flight onto destination
c) continue flight onto destination, complying with last received clearances then with filed
10.5.1.0 (106)
flight plan.
An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference ('hijacked') and is
d) descend to En-route Minimum Safe Altitude and join closest airfield open to IFR operations
forced to divert from the cleared track or cruising level without being able to
9
communicate with ATS shall try to: ft margin above the following two levels:
a) Continue at an altitude that differs from the semicircular rule with 1000 feet a) 3 000 ft AMSL or 1 000ft AGL.
when above FL 290 and 500 feet when lower than FL 290 b) 3 000 ft AMSL or 1 500 ft AGL.
b) Fly the emergency triangle c) FL 30 or 100 ft AGL.
c) Declare an emergency d) FL 30 or 1 500 ft AGL.
d) As soon as possible commence emergency descent in order minimize the difference
between cabin pressure and outside pressure
10.5.1.0 (113)
An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference ('hijacked') and is
10.5.1.0 (107) forced to divert from the cleared track or cruising level without being able to
An aircraft is considered to overtake another if it approaches the other aircraft communicate with ATS shall try to:
from the rear on a line forming an angle of less than : a) Continue at an altitude that differs from the semicircular rule with 1000 feet
a) 70 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter when above FL 290 and 500 feet when lower than FL 290
b) 50 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter b) Fly the emergency triangle
c) 60 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter c) Declare an emergency
d) 80 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter d) As soon as possible commence emergency descent in order minimize the difference
between cabin pressure and outside pressure
10.5.1.0 (108)
VMC minima for VFR flights in Class B airspace, above 3050m (10000 ft) AMSL, 10.5.1.0 (114)
are : While taxying an aircraft receives the following light signal from the control
a) 8 km visibility, and clear of clouds , tower : series of red flashes. This signal means that the aircraft :
b) 5 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical distance from clouds , a) must vacate the landing area in use.
c) 8 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical distance from clouds , b) must stop.
d) No minima, VFR flights are not permitted c) must return to its point of departure.
d) may continue to taxi to the take-off area.
10.5.1.0 (109)
During an IFR flight in VMC in controlled airspace you experience a two-way radio 10.5.1.0 (115)
communication failure. You will : While taxiing, an aircraft receives from the airport controller the following light
a) Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome maintaining VMC and inform ATC , signal : a series of green flashes. This signal means that the aircraft :
b) Select A7600 and continue according currenct flight plan to destination , a) may continue to taxy towards the take-off area.
c) Descend to the flight level submitted for that portion of flight , b) must stop.
d) Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and inform ATC c) must return to its point of departure.
d) is cleared for take-off.
10.5.1.0 (110)
Your aircraft is intercepted by a military aircraftThe signals given by this aircraft 10.5.1.0 (116)
conflict with ATC instructionsYou should : An aircraft manoeuvering in an airport's circuit receives a series of red flashes from
a) follow the instructions of the intercepting aircraft. the control tower. This signifies that the aircraft must :
b) follow ATC instructions. a) not land because the airport is not available for landing.
c) request ATC for other instructions. b) give way to another aircraft.
d) select code A7500 on your transponder. c) return to land and that clearance to land will be communicated in due course.
d) not land for the moment regardless of previous instructions.
10.5.1.0 (111)
Whilst flying in an aerodrome's traffic circuit, an aircraft receives a series of green 10.6.2.0 (117)
flashes from the tower. The aircraft : What does the abbreviation OIS mean?
a) must come back to land and the landing clearance will be sent in due time. a) Obstacle identification surface.
b) is cleared to land. b) Obstacle in surface.
c) must land immediately and clear the landing area. c) Obstacle identification slope.
d) must give way to another aircraft. d) Obstruction in surface.

10.5.1.0 (112) 10.6.2.0 (118)


Given:AGL = above ground levelAMSL = above mean sea levelFL = flight What does the abbreviation DER mean?
levelwithin uncontrolled airspace, the first usable level in IFR must provide a 500 a) Depature end of runway.
10
b) Distance end of route. 10.6.3.0 (124)
c) Departure end of route. In a straight departure, the initial departure track is of the aligment of the runway
d) Distance end of runway. centre line within:
a) 15°.
b) 30°.
10.6.2.0 (119)
c) 45°.
The MSA, which must be established around a navigation facility, is in general valid
d) 12.5°.
within a sector of :
a) 25 NM
b) 10 NM 10.6.3.0 (125)
c) 15 NM Turning departures provide track guidance within :
d) 30 NM a) 10 Km
b) 5 Km
c) 15 Km
10.6.3.0 (120)
d) 20 Km
A four-engine aeroplane is about to take-off from an airport where poor weather
conditions are prevailing. The closest accessible aerodrome is three flying hours
away.The take-off minima to be observed at departure airfield are: 10.6.3.0 (126)
a) ceiling greater or equal to DH/MDH, and VH (horizontal visibility) greater or We can distinguish two types of departure routes. During a straight departure the
equal to VH required for landing, with an available instrument approach procedure initial departure track is within :
b) VH (visibility horizontal) greater or equal to VH required for landing on the runway to be a) 15° of the alignment of the runway centre-line
used b) 5° of the alignment of the runway centre-line
c) ceiling greater or equal to DH or MDH, and VH (horizontal visibility) greater or equal to VH c) 10° of the alignment of the runway centre-line
required for landing, with an available instrument approach procedure to be envisaged with d) 25° of the alignment of the runway centre-line
one engine out
d) VH (visibility horizontal) greater or equal to VH required for landing, and ceiling greater or
10.6.4.0 (127)
equal to ceiling required for landing, with an available instrument approach procedure
Were an operational advantage can be obtained, an ILS procedure may include a
dead reckoning segment from a fix to the localizer. The DR track will:
10.6.3.0 (121) a) Intersect the localizer at 45° and will not be more 10 NM in length.
If in an instrument departure procedure the track to be followed by the aeroplane b) Intersect the localizer at 30° and will not be more 5 NM in length.
is published, the pilot is expected: c) Intersect the localizer at 45° and will not be more 5 NM in length.
a) To correct for known wind to remain within the protected airspace. d) Intersect the localizer at 30° and will not be more 10 NM in length.
b) To request from ATC different heading for wind correction.
c) To ignore the wind and proceed on an heading equal to the track.
10.6.4.0 (128)
d) To request clearance from ATC for applying a wind correction.
Which is the obstacle clearance in the primary area of the intermediate approach
segment in an instrument approach procedure?
10.6.3.0 (122) a) 150m (492 ft).
In general, which is the main factor that dictates the design of an instrument b) 300m (984 ft).
departure procedure? c) 450m (1476 ft).
a) The terrain surrounding the airport. d) 600m (1968 ft).
b) ATC requirements.
c) Navigation aids.
10.6.4.0 (129)
d) Airspace restrictions.
In an instrument approach procedure, the segment in which alignment and
descent for landing are made is called:
10.6.3.0 (123) a) Final approach segment.
In an instrument departure procedure the minimum obstacle clearance at the b) Initial approach segment.
departure end of runway equals: c) Intermediate approach segment.
a) 0 ft. d) Arrival segment.
b) 3.3 % gradient.
c) 35 ft.
10.6.4.0 (130)
d) 0.8 % gradient.
In a precision approach (ILS), the final approach segment begins at the:
a) FAP.
b) FAF.
11
c) MAP. 10.6.4.0 (136)
d) IF. A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a
turn in the opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along
the reciprocal of the designated track is called a :
10.6.4.0 (131)
a) Procedure turn.
The protection areas associated with instrument approach procedures are
b) Base turn.
determined with the assumption that turns are performed at a bank angle of:
c) Race track.
a) 25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure,
d) Reversal track.
approach or missed approach instrument procedures, as well as circling-to-land
(with or without prescribed flight tracks).
b) 25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure and 10.6.4.0 (137)
approach instrument procedures, as well as circle-to-land, and 15° for missed approach You are on an IFR flight executing a circling approach. A descend below the MDA
procedures. should not be made until :1. the pilot has the landing threshold in sight2. visual
c) The bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate for all procedures with airspeed limitation related to reference has been established and can be maintained 3. the required obstacle
aeroplane categories. clearance can be maintained and a landing can be madeThe combination
d) 25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure and regrouping all the correct answers is :
approach instrument procedures, 25° for circling-to-land with prescribed flight tracks and 15° a) 1, 2, 3.
for missed approach procedures. b) 1, 2.
c) 2, 3.
d) 1, 3.
10.6.4.0 (132)
Under which conditions may an aircraft on a straight-in-VOR approach continue its
descend below the OCA? 10.6.4.0 (138)
a) When the aircraft is in visual contact with the ground and with the runway During circling-to-land ( with or without prescribed flight tracks), the maximum
lights in sight allowed airspeed for a Cat B aeroplane, in order to remain within the protection
b) When the aircraft has the control tower in sight envelope, is:
c) When the aircraft is in contact with the ground but not with the runway in sight yet a) 135 kt
d) When seems possible to land b) 120 kt
c) 125 kt
d) 150 kt
10.6.4.0 (133)
A turn executed by the aircraft during the initial approach between the end of the
outbound track and the beginning of the intermediate or final approach track is a: 10.6.4.0 (139)
a) Base turn In an offset entry into an omnidirectional racetrack procedure, the time on the 30°
b) Procedure turn offset track is limited to:
c) Reversal procedure a) 1 minute 30 seconds.
d) Race track b) 1 minute.
c) 2 minutes.
d) 3 minutes.
10.6.4.0 (134)
If a stepdown fix is established on the final approach track, a descend shall be
made so as to : 10.6.4.0 (140)
a) pass the fix not below the specified crossing altitude. How many separate segments has an instrument approach procedure.
b) follow approximately 50 feet above the nominal glide path. a) Up to 5.
c) pass the fix at the rate of descent of 500 feet/min, which is obligatory. b) 3.
d) leave the intermediate approach altitude, step by step until reaching the MAPt. c) 4.
d) Up to 4.
10.6.4.0 (135)
In the ILS-approach, the OCA is referenced to: 10.6.4.0 (141)
a) Mean sea level. Where does the initial approach segment in an instrument approach procedure
b) Aeredrome reference point. commence?
c) Relevant runway threshold. a) At the IAF.
d) Aerodrome elevation. b) At the IF.
c) At the FAF.
d) At the final en-route fix.

12
10.6.4.0 (142) standard conditions, on a vertical distance between the flight paths of the wheels
Which is the obstacle clearance in the primary area of the initial approach segment and glide path antenna, not greater than:
in an instrument approach procedure? a) 6m.
a) At least 300m (984 ft). b) 3m.
b) 150m (492 ft). c) 9m.
c) 300m (984 ft). d) 12m.
d) At least 150m (492 ft).
10.6.4.0 (149)
10.6.4.0 (143) Which are the phases of a missed approach procedure?
In a procedure turn (45°/180°), a 45° turn away from the outbound track is a) Initial, intermediate and final.
performed from the start of turn for categories A and B aircraft for: b) Arrival, initial, intermediate and final.
a) 1 minute. c) Arrival, intermediate and final.
b) 1 minute 15 seconds. d) Initial and final.
c) 1minute 30 seconds.
d) 2 minutes.
10.6.4.0 (150)
Normally missed approach procedures are based on a nominal missed approach
10.6.4.0 (144) climb gradient of:
In a procedure turn (45°/180°), a 45° turn away from the outbound track is a) 2.5%.
performed from the start of the turn for categories C, D, E aircraft for: b) 0.8%.
a) 1 minute 15 seconds. c) 3.3%.
b) 1 minute. d) 5%.
c) 1 minute 30 seconds.
d) 2 minutes.
10.6.4.0 (151)
Where does the initial phase of a missed approach procedure end?
10.6.4.0 (145) a) At the point where the climb is established.
In an approach procedure, a descent or climb conducted in a holding pattern is b) At the missed approach point.
called: c) At the first point where 50m (164 ft) obstacle clearance is obtained and can be maintained.
a) Shuttle. d) At the point where a new approach, holding or return to en-route flight is initiated.
b) Based turn.
c) Racetrack pattern.
10.6.4.0 (152)
d) Procedure turn.
The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument
approach, to bring an aircraft into position for landing on runway which is not
10.6.4.0 (146) suitably located for straight-in approach, is:
In a precision approach (ILS), generally glide path intersection occurs at heights a) Visual manoeuvring (circling).
above runway elevation from: b) Visual approach.
a) 300m (984 ft) to 900m (2955 ft). c) Contact approach.
b) 300m (984 ft) to 600m (1968 ft). d) Aerodrome traffic pattern.
c) 150m (492 ft) to 300m (984 ft).
d) 150m (492 ft) to 900m (2955 ft).
10.6.4.0 (153)
It is permissible to eliminate from consideration a particular sector where a
10.6.4.0 (147) prominent obstacle exists in the visual manoeuvring (circling) area outside the
In a precision approach (ILS), obstacle clearance surfaces assume that the pilot final approach and missed approach area. When this option is exercised, the
does not normally deviate from the centreline, after being established on track, published procedure:
more than: a) Prohibits circling within the total sector in which the obstacle exists.
a) Half a scale deflection. b) Permits circling only in VMC.
b) One scale deflection. c) Recommends not to perform circling within the total sector in which the obstacle exists.
c) A quarter of scale deflection. d) Prohibits the circling approach to the affected runway.
d) One and a half of scale deflection.
10.6.4.0 (154)
10.6.4.0 (148) When the visual manoeuvring (circling) area has been established the obstacle
In a precision approach (ILS), the OCA or OCH values are based among other clearance altitude/height (OCA/H) is determined:
13
a) For each category of aircraft, and it may be different for each one of them. c) the pilot-in-command ,
b) Only for categories A and B aircraft. d) the ""flight-operations"" of the company
c) Only for categories C, D and E aircraft.
d) For all categories of aircraft, and it is the same for all of them.
10.6.4.0 (161)
On a non-precision approach a so-called ""straight-in-approach"" is considered
10.6.4.0 (155) acceptable, if the angle between the final approach track and the runway
A circling approach is: centreline is :
a) A visual flight manoeuvre keeping the runway in sight. a) 30 degrees or less
b) A visual manoeuvre to be conducted only in IMC. b) 40 degrees or less
c) A flight manoeuvre to be performed only under radar vectoring. c) 20 degrees or less
d) A contact flight manoeuvre. d) 10 degrees or less

10.6.4.0 (156) 10.6.4.0 (162)


If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, it is Normally, the maximum descent gradient, applicable in the final approach segment
expected that the pilot will make an initial climbing turn towards the: to ensure the required minimum obstacle clearance, is :
a) Landing runway. a) 6,5%.
b) MAP. b) 5%.
c) FAF. c) 7%.
d) Final missed approach track. d) 8%.

10.6.4.0 (157) 10.6.4.0 (163)


If contact is lost with the runway on the down-wind leg of a circling manoeuvre, The primary area of an instrument approach segment is :
what actions should be taken ? a) A defined are symmetrically disposed about the nominal flight track in which full
a) Initiate a missed approach obstacle clearance is provided.
b) Turn 90 degrees towards the runway and wait for visual conctact b) the most critical part of the segment where the minimum altitude should be kept very
c) If you have other visual cues, continue with ground contact carefully,
d) Turn towards the inner marker for the runway in use, maintaining circling alitude c) the first part of the segment ,
d) the outside part of the segment where the obstacle clearance increases from o ft to the
appropriate minimum
10.6.4.0 (158)
What action should be taken if contact is los with the aerodrome on the down wind
leg ? 10.6.4.0 (164)
a) Initiate a missed approach In the primary area, the obstacle clearance for the initial approach segment
b) Descend to OCL/ACH and in the hope that the visibility is better at a lower altitude provides at least :
c) Maintain your circling altitude and turn towards the aerodrome a) 984 ft
d) Request an amended clearance b) 1476 ft
c) 492 ft
d) decreasing from 984 to 492 ft
10.6.4.0 (159)
Obstacle clearance for an ILS approach is based on the assumption that the pilot
does not deviate from the centre line more than : 10.6.4.0 (165)
a) half scale deflection of the localizer indicator. During an instrument approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) of the
b) full scale deflection of the localizer indicator. initial approach segment primary area is equal to :
c) half scale deflection of the glidepath indicator and horizontal 35 ° off the centerline. a) 150 m (492 ft)
d) full scale deflection of the localizer indicator and half scale deflection of the glidepath b) 300 m (984 ft)
indicator. c) 210 m (690 ft)
d) 120 m (394 ft)
10.6.4.0 (160)
Who establishes the OCA/H (Obstacle Clearance Altitude/Height) for an approavh 10.6.4.0 (166)
procedure? During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum
a) the state obstacle clearance (MOC) in the intermediate phase of this missed approach is :
b) the operator a) 30 m (98 ft)
b) 50 m (164 ft)
14
c) 90 m (295 ft) a) using bearing, elevation and distance information.
d) 120 m (384 ft) b) using at least one source of bearing information and one source of elevation or distance
information.
c) using bearing, elevation and distance information, providing the pilot uses a flight director
10.6.4.0 (167)
or an autopilot certified to a height below 200 ft.
During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum
d) carried out by a crew of at least two pilots trained with a specific working method.
obstacle clearance (MOC) in the intermediate phase of this missed approach is :
a) 30 m (98 ft)
b) 50 m (164 ft) 10.6.4.0 (174)
c) 90 m (295 ft) Unless otherwise indicated, the missed approach procedures published on the IAC
d) 120 m (384 ft) charts are based on a minimum climb gradient of:
a) 2.5%
b) 2%
10.6.4.0 (168)
c) 5%
During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum
d) 3.3%
obstacle clearance (MOC) in the final phase of this missed approach is :
a) 50 m (164 ft)
b) 30 m (98 ft) 10.6.5.0 (175)
c) 90 m (295 ft) What will be your action if you can not comply with a standard holding pattern?
d) 120 m (384 ft) a) inform the ATC immediately and request a revised clearance.
b) a non-standard holding pattern is permitted.
c) it is permitted to deviate from the prescribed holding pattern at pilots discretion.
10.6.4.0 (169)
d) Follow the radio communication failure procedure.
Minimum sector altitudes are determined by the inbound radial in relation to the
IAF. These sectors are established for a distance from the IAF of:
a) 25 NM 10.6.5.0 (176)
b) 20 NM In a holding pattern all turns are to be made at a :
c) 10 NM a) rate of 3°per second or at a bank angle of 25°, which ever requires the lesser
d) 5 NM bank.
b) rate of 3°per second.
c) maximum bank angle of 25°.
10.6.4.0 (170)
d) rate of 3°per second or at a bank angle of 20°, which ever requires the lesser bank.
The width of the corridor around a specified arrival route is :
a) ± 5 NM
b) ± 10 NM 10.6.5.0 (177)
c) ± 12.5 NM Entering a holding pattern at FL 110 with a jet aircraft, which will be the maximum
d) ± 2.5 NM speed ?
a) 230 kt IAS.
b) 230 kt TAS.
10.6.4.0 (171)
c) 240 kt IAS.
In general, during a straight-in approach, the MDH cannot be below:
d) 240 kt TAS.
a) the OCH
b) 200 ft
c) 350 ft 10.6.5.0 (178)
d) 400 ft Unless otherwise published or instructed by ATC, all turns after initial entry into
the holding pattern shall be made into which direction?
a) To the right.
10.6.4.0 (172)
b) To the left.
For a category I precision approach, the decision height cannot be lower than :
c) First right and then to the left.
a) 200 ft
d) Teardrop to the left and then to the right.
b) 250 ft
c) 150 ft
d) 100 ft 10.6.5.0 (179)
What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern up to FL 140?
a) 1 minute
10.6.4.0 (173)
b) 2 minutes
A ""precision approach"" is a direct instrument approach...

15
c) 1,5 minutes 10.6.5.0 (186)
d) 30 secondes Standard airway holding pattern below 14 000 ft ?
a) Right hand turns / 1 minute outbound
b) Right hand turns / 1.5 minutes outbound
10.6.5.0 (180)
c) Left hand turns / 1 minute outbound
You have received holding instructions for a radio fix. The published holding
d) Left hand turns / 1.5 minutes outbound
procedure is: all turns to the right, 1 minute outbound, inbound MC 052°. You are
approaching the fix on an inbound Magnetic Track 232°. Select the available entry
procedure. 10.6.6.0 (187)
a) Either ""off set"" or ""parallel"". The pilot of a departing aircraft flying under IFR shall change the altimeter setting
b) Off set. from QNH to standard setting 1013.25 hPa when passing:
c) Parallel. a) Transition altitude.
d) Direct. b) Transition layer.
c) Transition level.
d) The level specified by ATC.
10.6.5.0 (181)
What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern above FL 140?
a) 1 minute 30 seconds. 10.6.6.0 (188)
b) 1 minute. The transition altitude of an aerodrome should not be below:
c) 2 minutes. a) 3000 ft.
d) 2 minutes 30 seconds. b) 2500 ft.
c) 1500 ft.
d) 1000 ft.
10.6.5.0 (182)
In relation to the three entry sectors, the entry into the holding pattern shall be
according to: 10.6.6.0 (189)
a) Heading. The vertical position of an aircraft at or below the transition altitude will be
b) Course. reported:
c) Bearing. a) as altitude.
d) Track. b) as height.
c) as hlight level.
d) according pilot's choice.
10.6.5.0 (183)
Related to the three entry sectors in a holding pattern, there is a zone of flexibility
on either side of the sectors boundaries of: 10.6.6.0 (190)
a) 5°. The vertical position of an aircraft at or above the transition level will be reported :
b) 10°. a) as flight level.
c) 15°. b) as height.
d) 20°. c) as altitude.
d) According to pilot's choice.
10.6.5.0 (184)
How far beyond the boundary of the holding area extends the buffer area? 10.6.6.0 (191)
a) 5 NM. During flight through the transition layer the vertical position of the aircraft should
b) 3 NM. be expressed as
c) 5 km. a) altitude above mean sea level during descent
d) 3 km. b) altitude above mean sea level during climb
c) flight level during descent
d) either altitude above mean sea level or flight level during climb
10.6.5.0 (185)
In a standard holding pattern turns are made :
a) to the right 10.6.6.0 (192)
b) to the left Transition from altitude to flight level, and vice-versa is done:
c) in a direction depending on the entry , a) at transition altitude during climb and transition level during descent.
d) in a direction depending on the wind direction b) at transition level during climb and transition altitude during descent.
c) only at transition altitude.
d) only at transition level.
16
10.6.6.0 (193) b) Shall continuously operate this mode only when directed by ATC.
In the vicinity of an aerodrome that is going to be used by the aircraft the vertical c) Shall continuously operate this mode regardless of ATC instructions.
position of the aircraft shall be expressed in: d) Shall continuously operate this mode only when the aircraft is within controlled airspace.
a) altitude above sea level on or below the transition altitude
b) altitude above sea level on or above the transition altitude
10.6.7.0 (200)
c) flight level on or below the transition level
The pilot of an aircraft losing two-way communications shall set the transponder
d) flight level on or below the transition altitude
to Mode A Code:
a) 7600.
10.6.6.0 (194) b) 2000.
At what moment during the approach should the reported airfield altimeter setting c) 7500.
be set? d) 7700.
a) When passing the transition level
b) When passing the transition altitude
10.6.7.0 (201)
c) Within the transition layer
When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot-in-command shall
d) When passing 3000 FT AMSL or 1000 FT AGL
indicate the situation by setting the transponder to:
a) 7500.
10.6.6.0 (195) b) 7700.
The transition level: c) 7600.
a) shall be the lowest available flight level above the transition altitude that has d) 7000.
been established
b) shall be the highest available flight level below the transition altitude that has been
10.6.7.0 (202)
established
Pilots shall not operate the SSR special position indicator (IDENT) feature unless:
c) for the aerodrome is published in the AGA section of the AIP
a) Requested by ATC.
d) is calculated and decided by the commander
b) They operate within controlled airspace.
c) They operate a transponder with Mode C.
10.6.6.0 (196) d) They operate within non controlled airspace.
The transition level:
a) Is calculated by ATS
10.6.7.0 (203)
b) Is published on the approach and landing chart for each aerodrome
When acknowledging mode/code setting instructions, pilots shall:
c) Is calculated by the commander
a) Read back the mode and code to be set.
d) Will be distributed via NOTAM
b) Use only the word ROGER.
c) Use only the word WILCO.
10.6.7.0 (197) d) Read back only the code to be set.
What will be the transponder mode and code for radio communication failure?
a) Mode A code 7600.
10.6.7.0 (204)
b) Mode A code 7500.
Which of the following correctly lists special purpose codes that are to be used in
c) Mode B code 7600.
conjunction with Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)?
d) Mode A code 7700.
a) Distress 7700. Hijacking 7500. Communication failure 7600.
b) Distress 7700. Hijacking 7600. Communicaton failure 7500.
10.6.7.0 (198) c) Distress 7500. Hijacking 7700. Communication failure 7600.
When an aircraft carries a serviceable transponder, the pilot shall operate the d) Distress 7600. Hijacking 7500. Communication failure 7700.
transponder:
a) At all times during flight, regardless of whether the aircraft is within or outside
10.6.7.0 (205)
airspace where SSR is used for ATS purposes.
Your transponder code assigned by ATC is 5320.In flight, in case of radio
b) Only when the aircraft is flying within airspace where SSR is used for ATS purposes.
communications failure, you will squawk code :
c) Only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace.
a) A 7600 Mode C
d) Only when directed by ATC.
b) A 5300 Mode C
c) A 7620 Mode C
10.6.7.0 (199) d) A 0020 Mode C
When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C equipment, the pilot:
a) Shall continuously operate this mode unless otherwise directed by ATC.
17
10.7.0.0 (206) 10.7.1.0 (212)
When an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft shall be allowed to resume its Regarding Aerodrome Flight Information Sercice (AFIS) :
flight, if a) it can only supply limited services to the users and under no circumstances may
a) the state of registry considers that the damage sustained is of a nature such it supply ATC services.
that the aircraft is still airworthy b) its purpose is to supply ATC services but it is not a state organisation.
b) the state of registry, the state of design and the state of manufacture consider that the c) it has the same privileges and prerogatives as an ATC organisation but its activity is neither
aircraft is still airworthy continuous nor regular.
c) the state of manufacture informs the state of registry that the damage sustained is of a d) its only purpose is to relay ATC information to the aircraft in flight or on the ground.
nature such that the aircraft is still airworthy
d) the state of design and the state of manufacture inform the state of registry that the
10.7.1.0 (213)
aircraft is still airworthy
An information issued by a meteorological watch office concerning the occurence
or expected occurence of specified en-route weather phenomena which may affect
10.7.1.0 (207) the safety of low-level aircraft operations and which was not already included in
A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earth is: the forecast issued for low level flights in the flight information region concerned
a) Control area. or sub-area thereof is
b) Control zone. a) An AIRMET information
c) Advisory airspace. b) A SIGMET information
d) Flight Information Region. c) A NOTAM
d) An En-Route Meteo Report
10.7.1.0 (208)
A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to a 10.7.1.0 (214)
specified upper limit is: Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains international
a) Control zone. standards and recommended practices for air traffic services (ATS)?
b) Control area. a) Annex 11
c) Air traffic zone. b) Annex 14
d) Advisory airspace. c) Annex 6
d) Annex 17
10.7.1.0 (209)
ATS airspaces where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air 10.7.1.1 (215)
traffic control service and are separated from each other is classified as: Which condition is requested so that an aerodrome may be considered controlled?
a) Class B. a) The aerodrome shall be provided with a Control Tower.
b) Class A. b) The aerodrome shall be located within a Control Zone.
c) Class D. c) The aerodrome shall be located within a controlled airspace.
d) Class E. d) The aerodrome shall be located within a Control Zone (CTR) and provided with a Control
Tower.
10.7.1.0 (210)
Aerodrome traffic is: 10.7.1.1 (216)
a) All traffic on the manoeuvring area and flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome. Flight Information Region (FIR) is an airspace within which the following services
b) All traffic on the manoeuvring area. are provided:
c) All traffic on the movement area and flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome. a) Flight Information Service and Alerting Service.
d) All traffic in the aerodrome circuit. b) Flight Information Service, Alerting Service and Advisory Service.
c) Flight Information Service only.
d) Flight Information Service and Advisory Service.
10.7.1.0 (211)
Air Traffic Service unit means:
a) Air Traffic Control units, Flight Information Centers or Air Services reporting 10.7.1.1 (217)
offices. Control Area (CTA) is defined as follows:
b) Air Traffic Control units and Flight Information Centers. a) A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earth.
c) Air Traffic Control units and Air Services reporting offices. b) A controlled airspace extending upwards from a height of 900 feet above the earth.
d) Flight Information Centers and Air Services reporting offices. c) A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to a specified limit.
d) A controlled airspace extending upwards from a height of 1000 feet above the earth.

18
10.7.1.1 (218) c) The upper limit of a CTR shall be established at a height of at least 3000ft AMSL,
A Control Zone shall extend laterally to at least: d) The lower limit of an UIR may coincide with an IFR cruising level
a) 5 nautical miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in
the direction from which approaches may be made.
10.7.1.1 (224)
b) 10 miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from
To perform a VFR flight in airspace classification E /
which approaches may be made.
a) two way radiocommunication is not required.
c) 15 miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from
b) a clearance is required.
which approaches may be made.
c) a clearance and two-way radiocommunication is required.
d) 20 miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from
d) a clearance and/or two-way radiocommunication is required.
which approaches may be made.

10.7.1.1 (225)
10.7.1.1 (219)
An air traffic control unit :
A lower limit of a Control Area shall be established at a height above the ground
a) may ask an aircraft to temporarily change its call sign for safety reasons when
level or water of not less than:
there is a risk of confusion between two or more similar call signs.
a) 200 metres.
b) may require to change the call sign for safety reasons when there is a risk of confusion
b) 300 metres.
between two or more similar call signs providing the aircraft is on a repetitive flight plan.
c) 150 metres.
c) must not ask an aircraft to change its call sign.
d) 500 metres.
d) may not ask an aircraft to change its call sign after accepting the flight plan.

10.7.1.1 (220)
10.7.1.1 (226)
The units providing Air Traffic Services are:
The transfer of an aircraft from one ATC unit to another is done :
a) Area Control Centre - Flight Information Centre - Approach Control Office -
a) by agreement with the receiving unit.
Aerodrome Control Tower and Air Traffic Services reporting office.
b) automatically at the control zone boundary.
b) Area Control Centre - Approach Control Office and Aerodrome Control Tower.
c) with the pilot's consent.
c) Area Control Centre - Advisory Centre - Flight Information Centre - Approach Control Office
d) through a central control unit.
and Tower.
d) Area Control Centre - Flight Information Region - Approach Control Office and Tower.
10.7.1.1 (227)
Concerning to RNP (Required Navigation Performance) types, the indication RNP 4,
10.7.1.1 (221)
represents a navigation accuracy of
The Approach Control Service is an air traffic control service
a) plus or minus 4 NM on a 95 per cent containment basis
a) An air traffic control service provided for the arriving and departing controlled
b) plus or minus 4 NM on a 90 per cent containment basis
flights.
c) plus or minus 4 NM on a 98 per cent containment basis
b) An air traffic control service for IFR flights arriving and departing.
d) plus or minus 4 miles on a 90 per cent containment basis
c) An air traffic control service provided for IFR and VFR flights within a Control Zone.
d) An air traffic control service provided for IFR traffic within a Control Zone.
10.7.1.1 (228)
Air traffic services unit clocks and other time recording devices shall be checked as
10.7.1.1 (222)
necessary to ensure correct time to within plus or minus
Air traffic control service is provided for the purpose of:
a) 30 seconds of UTC at all times
a) Preventing collisions between aircraft, between aircraft and obstacles on the
b) 15 seconds of UTC at all times
manoeuvring area and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic
c) 10 seconds of UTC at all times
b) Applying separation between aircraft and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air
d) 1 minute of UTC at all times
traffic
c) Preventing collisions between controlled air traffic and expediting and maintaining an
orderly flow of air traffic 10.7.1.1 (229)
d) Avoiding colisions between all aircraft and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic Except in some special cases the establishment of change-over points should be
limited to route segments of
a) 60 NM or more
10.7.1.1 (223)
b) 75 NM or more
Which statement is correct?
c) 50 NM or more
a) The lower limit of a TMA shall be established at a height of at least 700ft AGL,
d) 100 NM or more
b) The lower limit of a CTA shall be established at a height of at least 1500ft AGL,

19
10.7.1.1 (230) b) has to be the same as the underlying flight information region
Required Navigation Performance (RNP) shall be prescribed c) have to be as indicated by ICAO council
a) by states on the basis of regional air navigation agreements d) have to be as agreed at the regional air navigation meetings
b) by states but not on the basis of regional air agreements
c) by ICAO on the basis of regional air navigation agreements
10.7.1.1 (237)
d) by regional air navigation agreements
The VMC minima for a VFR flight inside an ATS airspace classified as B, is :
a) 8 km visibility when at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL and clear of clouds
10.7.1.1 (231) b) 8 km visibility when at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, and 1500 m horizontal and 300
What is the speed limit (IAS) in airspace class E? m vertical from clouds
a) 250 kt for IFR and VFR UP TO FL 100 c) 5 NM visibility below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, clear of clouds
b) 250 kt only for VFR up to FL 195 d) 5 NM visibility when below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical
c) 250 kt VFR and IFR, all levels from cloud
d) 250 kt only for IFR up to FL 100
10.7.1.1 (238)
10.7.1.1 (232) A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as B has to maintain the
The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C, when flying following minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds
below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is : a) 5 km below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL and clear of clouds
a) Not applicable b) 5 km below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMS 1.500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds
b) 250 KT IAS c) 8 km below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, 1 500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds
c) 250 KT TAS d) 5 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds
d) 240 KT IAS
10.7.1.1 (239)
10.7.1.1 (233) A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as C has to maintain the
The speed limitation for VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C, when flying following minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds
below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is : a) 8 km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical
a) 250 KT IAS from clouds
b) 250 KT TAS b) 5km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from
c) Not applicable clouds
d) 240 KT IAS c) 5 NM at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from
clouds
d) 8 km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, and clear of clouds
10.7.1.1 (234)
The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as E, when flying
below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is : 10.7.1.1 (240)
a) 250 KT IAS An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to
b) 250 KT TAS air traffic control service and IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and
c) Not applicable from VFR flights VFR flights are separated from IFR flights and receive traffic
d) 260 KT IAS information in respect of other VFR flights, is classified as :
a) Airspace C
b) Airspace D
10.7.1.1 (235)
c) Airspace E
The speed limitation for both IFR flights and VFR flights inside ATS airspace
d) Airspace B
classified as B, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMLS, is :
a) Not applicable
b) 250 KT IAS 10.7.1.1 (241)
c) 250 KT TAS An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to
d) 260 KT IAS air traffic control service and are separated from each other is classified as
a) Airspace B
b) Airspace C
10.7.1.1 (236)
c) Airspace D
Where an upper flight information region (UIR) is established, the procedures
d) Airspace E
applicable there in :
a) need not to be identical with those applicable in the underlying flight
information region
20
10.7.1.1 (242) 10.7.1.2 (248)
An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted and all flights are subject You receive an IFR enroute clearance stating: Clearence expires at 0920. What
to air traffic control service. IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and does it mean ?
receive traffic information in respect of VFR flights. VFR flights receive traffic a) If not airborne until 0920, a new clearence has to be issued
information in respect of all other flights, is classified as : b) Do not take off before 0920
a) Airspace D c) The take off clearence is expected at 0920
b) Airspace B d) After 0920 return to the ramp and file a new flight plan
c) Airspace E
d) Airspace A
10.7.1.2 (249)
The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same
10.7.1.1 (243) cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and
An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted IFR flights are subject to Air speed, is:
Trafic Control Service and are separated from other IFR flights. All flights receive a) 10 minutes.
traffic information as far as is practical, is classified as b) 5 minutes.
a) Airspace E c) 15 minutes.
b) Airspace D d) 3 minutes.
c) Airspace B
d) Airspace A
10.7.1.2 (250)
The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same
10.7.1.1 (244) cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and
An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all participating IFR speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more
flights receive an air traffic advisory service and all flights receive flight faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
information service if requested, is classified a) 5 minutes.
a) Airspace F b) 3 minutes.
b) Airspace G c) 10 minutes.
c) Airspace E d) 15 minutes.
d) Airspace D
10.7.1.2 (251)
10.7.1.1 (245) The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same
An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted and receive flight information cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and
service if requested, is classified as speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more
a) Airspace G faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
b) Airspace F a) 3 minutes.
c) Airspace C b) 5 minutes.
d) Airspace E c) 6 minutes.
d) 10 minutes.
10.7.1.2 (246)
Area Control Centres issue clearances for the purpose of: 10.7.1.2 (252)
a) Achieving separation between controlled flights The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft departed from the same
b) Achieving separation between IFR flights aerodrome and following the same track, and the preceeding aircraft is
c) Providing flight Information Service maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
d) Providing advisory service a) 5 minutes.
b) 3 minutes.
c) 10 minutes.
10.7.1.2 (247)
d) 2 minutes.
Clearances will be issued by an ATC unit for the purpose of:
a) Achieving separation between controlled flights
b) Providing flight Information Service 10.7.1.2 (253)
c) Providing advisory services The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft departed from the same
d) Providing alerting services aerodrome and following the same track, and the preceeding aircraft is
maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
a) 3 minutes.

21
b) 5 minutes. b) 1 minute
c) 10 minutes. c) 2 minutes
d) 8 minutes. d) 3 minutes

10.7.1.2 (254) 10.7.1.3 (260)


When an aircraft will pass through the level of another aircraft on the same track, Whenever ATIS is provided, the broadcast information shall be updated
the following minimum longitudinal separation shall be provided: a) immediately a significant change occurs
a) 15 minutes at the time the level is crossed. b) at least every half an hour independently of any significant change
b) 10 minutes at the time the level is crossed. c) as prescribed by the meteorological office
c) 5 minutes at the time the level is crossed. d) as prescribed by the state
d) 20 minutes at the time the level is crossed.
10.7.1.3 (261)
10.7.1.2 (255) Whenever ATIS is provided, the preparation and dissemination of the ATIS
The longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME, and each aircraft message shall be the responsability of
""on track"" uses DME stations, is: a) the air traffic services
a) 20 NM. b) the meteorological office serving the aerodrome (s)
b) 10 NM. c) both air traffic services and the meteorological office
c) 5 NM. d) the unit as prescribed the states
d) 20 NM when the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the
succeding aircraft.
10.7.1.3 (262)
ATIS broadcast
10.7.1.2 (256) a) shall not be transmitted on the voice channel of an ILS
An aircraft is maintaining FL 150 within airspace class C. Another aircraft below at b) Shall be transmitted on the voice channel of an ILS, on a discrete VHF frequency or on the
FL 140 is receiving a clearance to descend to FL 70. It is severe turbulence in the voice channel of a VOR
area. When is the earliest that a clearance to descend to FL 140 or below can be c) Shall not be transmitted on the voice of a VOR
expected ? d) Shall only be transmitted on a discrete VHF frequency
a) When the other aircraft has reported that it has descended through FL 130
b) When the other aircraft has reported that it has left FL 140
10.7.1.3 (263)
c) When the other aircraft has reported that it has reached FL 70
Flight Information Service shall be provided to aircraft in order to avoid collision
d) When the other aircraft has reported that it has left FL 120
hazards when operating in airspace classes :
a) C, D, E, F, and G
10.7.1.2 (257) b) F and G only
What is the shortest distance in a sequence for landing between a 'Heavy' aircraft c) A, B, C, D, E, F and G
preceding a 'Light' aircraft d) F only
a) 6 NM
b) 3 NM
10.7.1.3 (264)
c) 2 km
Flight information service provided to flights shall include the provision of
d) 10 km
information concerning collision hazards to aircraft operating in airspace classes:
a) C to G (inclusive)
10.7.1.3 (258) b) A to G (inclusive)
When are ATIS broadcasts updated ? c) A to E (inclusive)
a) Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported d) F and G
values
b) Every 30 minutes if weather conditions are below those for VFR , otherwise hourly
10.7.1.3 (265)
c) Only when weather conditions change enough to require a change in the active runway or
ATIS broadcast messages containing departure and arrival information should
instrument approach in use
include cloud cover, when the clouds are :
d) Only when the ceiling and/or visibility changes by a reportable value
a) below 1 500 m (5.000 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude,
whichever is the greater
10.7.1.3 (259) b) below 900 m (3.000 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the
The ATIS broadcast message should, whenever practicable, not exceed greater
a) 30 seconds c) below 2 000 m (600 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the
22
greater c) air traffic coordination centres.
d) cumulonimbus d) control centres only.

10.7.1.4 (266) 10.7.1.5 (272)


When it becomes apparent that an aircraft is in difficulty, the decision to initiate Alert phase is defined as follows:
the alert phases is the responsibility of the: a) A situation where an apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its
a) operational air traffic control centres occupants.
b) flight information or control organisations b) An emergency event in which an aircraft and its occupants are considered to be threatened
c) air traffic co-ordination services by a danger.
d) search and rescue co-ordination centres c) A situation related to an aircraft and its occupants are considered to be in a state of
emergency.
d) A situation related to an aircraft which reports that the fuel on board is exhausted.
10.7.1.4 (267)
The Alerting Service is provided by:
a) The ATS unit responsible for the aircraft at that moment. 10.7.1.5 (273)
b) The ATC unit responsible for the aircraft at that moment, when it is provided with 121.5 When on a RNP 1 route is indicated A342 Z, means that all turns shall be made
MHz. within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg
c) Only by ATC units. segments with a radius of :
d) The Area Control Centres. a) 15 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and below FL 190
b) 15 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL 200
c) 22.5 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL 250
10.7.1.4 (268)
d) 25 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and below FL190
The phases related to an aircraft in emergency or believed in emergency are:
a) uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase.
b) uncertainty phase, urgency phase, distress phase. 10.7.1.5 (274)
c) uncertainty phase, distress phase, urgency phase. When on a RNP 1 route is indicated B235 Y, means that all turns shall be made
d) uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase and urgency phase. within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg
segments defined with a radius of :
a) 22.5 NM between 30° and 90° at and above FL200
10.7.1.4 (269)
b) 25.0 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL 250
A radio communications, ""Distress"" differs from ""Urgency"" because in the first
c) 22.5 NM between 30° and 90° at and above FL260
case:
d) 20 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL200
a) There is a serious and imminent danger requiring immediate assistance.
b) The aeroplane has suffered damages which impair its fitness to fly.
c) The aeroplane will not be able to reach a suitable aerodrome. 10.7.3.0 (275)
d) The aeroplane or a passenger's safety require the flight immediately interrupted. The rule governing flight over water for a single engined aeroplane engaged in the
public transport of passengers:
a) limits such flight to a height sufficient to land safely if the engine fails.
10.7.1.4 (270)
b) does not permit such flight in any circumstances.
Which of the following statements regarding Alerting service is correct?
c) limits flight to up to 10 minutes flying time from the nearest shore.
a) Alerting Service and Flight Information Service are often provided by the same
d) limits flight to up to 8 NM from the nearest shore.
ATS unit
b) The Alert phase is established when no communication has been received from an aircraft
within a period of thirty minutes after the time a communication should have been received, 10.7.3.0 (276)
c) The distress phase is established when an aircraft is known or believed th be the subject of The period of validity for take-off slots assigned by CEU (flow control centre):
unlawful interference a) is 15 minutes.
d) Aircraft in the vicinity of an aircraft known or believed to be the subject of unlawful b) depends on the type of flight (10 minutes for international flights, 5 minutes for domestic
interference, shall be informed about this, flights).
c) is 10 minutes.
d) is 5 minutes.
10.7.1.4 (271)
When an aircraft is experiencing difficulties, triggering of the alert phase is the
responsibility of: 10.7.3.0 (277)
a) air traffic control and flight information centers. A flight plan shall be submitted prior to departure for a controlled flight at least:
b) search and rescue coordination centres. a) 60 minutes prior to departure.
b) 10 minutes prior to departure.
23
c) 30 minutes prior to leave the blocks. b) 2 and 4
d) 50 minutes prior to leave the blocks. c) 2 and 3
d) 1 and 3
10.7.3.0 (278)
If radio communication failure is experienced on an IFR flight in IMC, generally the 10.7.3.1 (283)
pilot shall: A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals:
a) Try to get contact on other frequencies either ground or aircraft stations - a) Raising arm and hand horizontally in front of body, fingers extended then
Transmit being indicating important details required 2 times. clenching fist.
b) Land on the nearest suitable aerodrome and report the termination of the flight to ATC. b) Arms down, palms facing inwards, moving arms from extended position inwards.
c) Try to get contact on other frequencies either ground or aircraft stations. c) Crossing arms extended above his head.
d) Transmit blind indicating details required at least 2 times. d) Horizontally moving hands, fingers extended, palms toward ground.

10.7.3.0 (279) 10.7.3.1 (284)


The pilot in command of an aircraft:1 - must comply immediately to all instructions In the event of a delay of a controlled flight, the submitted flight plan should be
received from ATC.2 - is responsible only if he is the ""pilot flying"".3 - may deviate amended or cancelled and a new flight plan submitted when the delay is:
from air regulations for safety reasons.4 - may be exempt from air regulations in a) 30 minutes in excess of the estimated time off blocks.
order to comply to an ATC instruction.5 - may ask for the modification of an b) 30 minutes in excess of the estimated time of departure.
unsatisfactory clearance.Which of the following combinations contains all of the c) 60 minutes in excess of the estimated time off blocks.
correct statements? d) 60 minutes in excess of the estimated time of departure.
a) 05-Mar
b) 2003-04-05
10.7.3.1 (285)
c) 1 - 4
Which is the content of section 2 of Air-Report (AIREP)?
d) 2002-03-05
a) Estimated time of arrival (ETA), endurance.
b) Estimated elapse time (EET), endurance.
10.7.3.0 (280) c) Present position, estimated time of arrival (ETA).
A strayed aircraft is : d) Estimated time over FIR boundary, endurance.
a) An aircraft which has deviated significantly from its intended track or which
reports that it is lost
10.7.3.1 (286)
b) only that aircraft which has deviated significantly its intended track
The position reports shall contain the following elements of information in the
c) only that aircraft which reports that it is lost
order listed:
d) an aircraft in a given area but whose identity has not been established
a) Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude, next position and
time over and ensuing significant point.
10.7.3.1 (281) b) Aircraft identification, position, flight level or altitude,time, next position and time over and
""ESSENTIAL TRAFFIC"" is that controlled flight to which the provision of ensuing significant point.
separation by ATC is applicable, but which, in relation to a particular controlled c) Aircraft identification, position, time, true air speed, flight level or altitude, next position and
flight is not separated therefore by the appropriate separation minima. Whenever time over.
separation minima is not applied. The following flights are considered essential d) Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude, next position and time over.
traffic one to each other.
a) All IFR flight in controlled airspaces and controlled VFR.
10.7.3.1 (287)
b) Controlled VFR flights and VFR flights.
Who is responsible for an ATC clearance to be safe in respect to terrain clearance?
c) All IFR flights.
a) The pilot in command.
d) Only controlled IFR flights.
b) The aircraft operator.
c) The ATC.
10.7.3.1 (282) d) The air traffic service reporting office when accepting the flight plan.
When, in air space where VFR are permitted, the pilot in command of an IFR flight
wishes to continue his flight in accordance with visual flight rules, until the
10.7.3.1 (288)
destination is reached:1 He must inform the control unit (""cancel IFR"")2 He must
Which letter is used in a flight plan to indicate that the flight commences in
request and obtain clearance.3 He may request his IFR flight plan to be changed to
accordance with VFR and subsequently changes to IFR?
a VFR flight plan.4 The flight plan automatically becomes a VFR flight plan.The
a) Z
correct combination of statements is:
b) I
a) 1 and 4

24
c) V 10.7.3.1 (295)
d) Y If no ICAO identifier has been attributed to an alternate airport (box 16) of a flight
plan form...
a) write ZZZZ in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information)
10.7.3.1 (289)
ALTN/followed by the name of theairport.
Which letter is used in a flight plan to indicate that the flight commences in
b) write XXXX in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) ALTN/followed by the
accordance with IFR and subsequently changes to VFR?
name of theairport
a) Y
c) write XXXX in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) DEGT/followed by the
b) I
name of the airport
c) V
d) write ZZZZ in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) DEGT/followed by the
d) Z
name of theairport.

10.7.3.1 (290)
10.7.3.1 (296)
In the event of a delay for an uncontrolled flight which a flight plan has been
The planned cruising speed for the first leg or all of the cruising portion of the
submitted, the flight plan should be amended or a new flight plan submitted and
flight must be entered in the speed box of a flight plan form. This speed is the:
the old one cancelled, when:
a) true air speed (TAS).
a) The delay is more than 60 minutes of the estimated time off-blocks.
b) estimated ground speed (G/S).
b) The delay is more than 30 minutes of the estimated time off-blocks.
c) indicated air speed (IAS).
c) The delay is more than 60 minutes of the estimated time of departure.
d) true air speed at 65% power.
d) The delay is more than 30 minutes of the estimated time off departure.

10.7.3.1 (297)
10.7.3.1 (291)
The ""estimated total time"" in block 16 of a VFR flight plan is the estimated time :
A pilot receiving an IFR clearance from ATC should:
a) required by the aircraft from take-off to arrive overhead the destination airport.
a) Read back the entire clearance as required by regulation.
b) required by the aircraft from the moment it moves by its own power until it stops at the
b) Read back those parts containing level assignments, vectors or any part requiring
end of the flight (block time).
verification.
c) required by the aircraft from brake release at take-off until landing.
c) Read back the initial route clearance, level assignments and transponder codes.
d) of endurance at cruising power taking into account pressure and temperature on that day.
d) Read back should be unsolicited.

10.7.3.2 (298)
10.7.3.1 (292)
Which procedure you follow if during an IFR flight in VMC you have two way
Change from IFR to VFR will always take place :
communication failure?
a) on the initiative of the aircraft commander
a) Continue the flight maintaining VMC and land as soon as practicable.
b) at the clearance limit, irrespective of the weather conditions
b) Continue the flight at the assigned level and route, start approach at your ETA.
c) as instructed by an air traffic control unit
c) Maintain your assigned level and route and land at the nearest aerodrome that has VMC
d) when the aircraft is leaving controlled airspace during VMC
conditions.
d) Return to the aerodrome of departure.
10.7.3.1 (293)
A Special Air Report comprises a number of sections.In section I the pilot fills in :
10.7.3.2 (299)
a) a position report, including aircraft identification, height, position and time ,
Track separation between aircraft using the same NDB shall be applied requiring
b) weather noted ,
the aircraft to fly:
c) flight identification and weather noted ,
a) At least 30° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the facility.
d) urgent messages
b) At least 15° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the facility.
c) At least 45° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the facility.
10.7.3.1 (294) d) At least 30° separated at a distance of 15 miles or more from the facility.
The letter ""L"" is written in the wake turbulence box of a flight plan form when
the maximum certified take-off weight of an aircraft is less than or equal to:
10.7.3.2 (300)
a) 7 000 kg.
Track separation between aircraft using the same FIX shall be applied requiring
b) 14 000 kg.
the aircraft to fly:
c) 20 000 kg.
a) At least 45° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the fix.
d) 5 700 kg for airplanes and 2 700 kg for helicopters.
b) At least 45° separated at a distance of 15 miles or more from the FIX.

25
c) At least 30° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the FIX. 10.7.3.2 (307)
d) At least 30° separated at a distance of 15 miles or more from the FIX. Track separation between aircraft using the same VOR shall be applied requiring
the aircraft to fly:
a) At least 15° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the facility.
10.7.3.2 (301)
b) At least 30° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the facility.
If an ATC clearance is not suitable to the pilot in command of an aircraft:
c) At least 45° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the facility.
a) He may request and, if practicable, obtain an amended clearance.
d) At least 15° separated at a distance of 15 miles or more from the facility.
b) He may request another clearance and the ATC concerned has to accept the pilot request.
c) The pilot has to accept the ATC clearance because it has been based on the flight plan filed
with ATC. 10.7.3.2 (308)
d) The pilot should propose another clearance to the ATC concerned. Flying exactly on your current flight plan route, you receive and acknowledge the
following instruction from the radar controller:""Turn immediately, continue
heading 050° until further advised"".Time now is 18:36 UTC. At 18:37 UTC you find
10.7.3.2 (302)
out that radio communication cannot be stablished again and you have to return to
The ""VMC and own separation"" ATC clearance is used for a controlled flight to
your current flight plan route:
cross the level of another controlled flight when:
a) On the nearest way.
a) Requested by the pilot, during the day light and authorized by the state
b) With an intercept of 20° or more.
overflown.
c) With an intercept of at least 45°.
b) Requested by the pilot and during the day light.
d) With an intercept of at least 30°.
c) Requested by the pilot and authorized by the state overflown.
d) This procedure is not allowed.
10.7.3.2 (309)
Above flight level FL 290 the vertical flight separation between aircraft on the
10.7.3.2 (303)
same direction is:
Normally all turns, which are requested by a radar controller have to be executed
a) 4 000 feet.
as:
b) 2 000 feet.
a) Standard rate turns if not otherwise instructed by ATC.
c) 3 000 feet.
b) Decided on pilot's discretion.
d) 1 500 feet.
c) Prescribed by the aircraft operations.
d) the weather permits.
10.7.3.2 (310)
The longitudinal separation minima based on DME, and each aircraft ""on track""
10.7.3.2 (304)
uses DME stations, is:
What are the controlled IFR separation methods applied by ATC?
a) 10 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 20 kt or
a) Vertical, horizontal and composite separation.
more faster than the succeding aircraft.
b) Vertical, horizontal and longitudinal separation.
b) 10 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster
c) Time separation and track separation.
than the succeding aircraft.
d) Composite separation.
c) 20 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 10 kt or more faster
than the succeding aircraft.
10.7.3.2 (305) d) 10 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 10 kt or more faster
The vertical IFR separation minimum being applied by ATC within a controlled than the succeding aircraft.
airspace below FL 290 is:
a) 1000 feet (300 m).
10.7.3.2 (311)
b) 2000 feet (600 m).
A ""RNAV"" distance based separation minimum may be used at the time the level
c) 500 feet (150 m).
is crossed, provided that each aircraft reports its distance to or from the same ""on
d) 2500 feet (750 m).
track"" way-point. This minimum is:
a) 80 NM.
10.7.3.2 (306) b) 60 NM.
The vertical IFR separation minimum being applied by ATC within a controlled c) 50 NM.
airspace above FL 290 is: d) 20 NM.
a) 2000 feet (600 m).
b) 1000 feet (300 m).
10.7.3.2 (312)
c) 500 feet (150 m).
A VFR flight constitutes essential traffic to other VFR flights, when operating in
d) 4000 feet (1200 m).
controlled airspaced classified as:

26
a) B. 10.7.3.2 (319)
b) B and C. Aircraft flying along the same track may be separated by DME-distances from the
c) B, C and D. same DME and it is confirmed that the aircraft have passed each other. Specify the
d) B, C, D and E. shortest difference in DME-distance to make it possible for one aircraft to climb or
descend
a) 10 NM
10.7.3.2 (313)
b) 12 NM
One minute separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on
c) 15 NM
tracks diverging by at least:
d) 20 NM
a) 45° immediately after take-off.
b) 30° immediately after take-off.
c) 15° immediately after take-off. 10.7.3.2 (320)
d) 25° immediately after take-off. Whenever unlawful interference with an aircraft is suspected, and where
automatic distinct display of SSR Mode A code 7500 and code 7700 is not provided,
the radar controller shall attempt to verify this suspicion by :
10.7.3.2 (314)
a) Setting the SSR decoder to mode A code 7500 and thereafter to code 7700
Two minutes separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly
b) Setting the SSR decoder to mode A code 7000 and thereafter to code 7500
on the same track, when:
c) Setting the SSR decoder to mode A 7500 then to standby and thereafter to code 7700
a) The preceeding aircraft is 40 kt or more faster than the following aircraft.
d) Setting the SSR decoder to mode A 7700 then to standby and thereafter to code 7500
b) The preceeding aircraft is 30 kt or more faster than the following aircraft.
c) The preceeding aircraft is 20 kt or more faster than the following aircraft.
d) The preceeding aircraft is 10 kt or more faster than the following aircraft. 10.7.3.2 (321)
When the Mach number tecnique (MNT) is being applied, and the preceding
aircraft shall maintain a mach number equal to or greater than the following
10.7.3.2 (315)
aircraft a RNAV distance based separation minimum may be used on the same
The separation method whereby the vertical and horizontal separation may be
direction tracks in lieu of 10 minutes longitudinal separation minimum. The
reduced till a maximum of half the standard criteria is called :
distance is :
a) Composite separation
a) 80 NM
b) Combined separation
b) 100 NM
c) Reduced separation
c) 70 NM
d) Essential separation
d) 60 NM

10.7.3.2 (316)
10.7.3.2 (322)
What is the minimum vertical separation between aircraft flying IFR below flight
Longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME for aircraft at the
level 290?
same cruising level and track, provided that each aircraft utilizes ""on Track"" DME
a) 1000 feet
stations and separation is checked by obtaining simultaneous DME readings, is :
b) 500 feet
a) 20 NM
c) 1500 feet
b) 10 NM
d) 2000 feet
c) 25 NM
d) 40 NM
10.7.3.2 (317)
Cruising level IFR during cruise within controlled airspace shall be given as flight
10.7.3.2 (323)
level (FL)
Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising
a) Above the transition altitude when applicable
level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed
b) When QNH is higher than the standard pressure 1013 hPa
provided that the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true air speed of 40 Kt or
c) only in airspace class A
more faster than the succeeding aircraft will be
d) if the obstacle clearance is more than 2000 feet
a) 3 minutes
b) 5 minutes
10.7.3.2 (318) c) 10 minutes
Changing of flight rules from IFR to VFR is possible d) 2 minutes
a) If the commander so requests
b) If instructed by ATC so long as VMC is forecasted during the next 30 minutes
10.7.3.2 (324)
c) If instructed by ATCso long as VMC is forecasted during the next 60 minutes
Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising
d) Only when leaving controlled airspace
27
level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed 10.7.3.3 (330)
provided that the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true air speed of 20 Kt or A so called ""Visual Approach"" can be performed :
more faster than the succeeding aircraft will be a) during IFR flights, if there is permanent sight on the movement area and the
a) 5 minutes underlying ground,
b) 3 minutes b) during IFR and VFR flights in VMC,
c) 10 minutes c) during IFR flights, if the cloudbase is 1000 ft more than the appropriate DA or MDA for that
d) 2 minutes procedure,
d) as in above, but in addition there should be a visibility of 5,5 km or more
10.7.3.2 (325)
Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising 10.7.3.3 (331)
level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed An approaching aircraft may descent below the MSA if :
will be a) all mentioned answers are correct
a) 10 minutes b) the pilot has the field and the underlying terrain in sight and will keep it in sight,
b) 15 minutes c) the aircraft gets radar vectors ,
c) 5 minutes d) the pilot is following the published approach procedure
d) 3 minutes
10.7.3.3 (332)
10.7.3.2 (326) The EAT has to be transmitted to the pilot as soon as possible, in case the expected
Repetitive flight plans (RPL's) shall not be used for flights operated regularly on delay is :
the same day(s) of consecutive weeks and : a) 5 minutes or more.
a) On at least ten occasions or every day over a period of at least ten consecutive b) 15 minutes or more
days c) 10 minutes
b) On at least ten occasions or every day over a period of at least 20 consecutive days d) 20 minutes
c) On at least 20 days consecutively
d) On at least 20 occasions
10.7.3.3 (333)
Which statement is correct ?During a ""Visual Approach"" in Controlled Airspace
10.7.3.3 (327) (Classe C):
The minimum sector altitude provides 300 metres obstacle clearance within how a) ATC will apply separation with other traffic
many miles radius from the navigation facility upon which the instrument b) the pilot to apply separation with other traffic,
approach procedure is predicated: c) ATC will apply separation only with other IFR-traffic
a) 25 NM (46 km). d) ATC will apply separation with other arriving traffic
b) 15 NM (28 km).
c) 20 NM (37 km).
10.7.3.3 (334)
d) 30 NM (55 km).
If an arriving aircraft is making a straight in approach a departing aircraft may
take off in any direction
10.7.3.3 (328) a) until five minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the
""Time Approach Procedure"" is used as necessary to expedite the approach of a instrument runway
number of arriving aircraft. This will be obtained requesting aircraft: b) until three minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument
a) To pass the specified point inbound at the previously notified time. runway
b) To pass a specified point. c) until two minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument runway
c) To apply a step down descent between aircraft in the approach sequence. d) until ten minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument runway
d) To maintain a specified speed during the approach procedure.
10.7.3.3 (335)
10.7.3.3 (329) For an IFR flight to an airport equipped with navaids, the estimated time of arrival
During a take-off into IMC conditions with low ceiling the pilot should contact is the estimated time at which the aircraft:
departure control: a) will arrive overhead the initial approach fix.
a) When advised by Tower. b) will land.
b) Before penetrating the clouds. c) will stop on the parking area.
c) When clear of the airport and established on the first heading given in the clearance. d) will leave the initial approach fix to start the final approach.
d) After take-off.

28
10.7.3.3 (336) a) the pilot in command.
For controlled traffic that shall be separated in the vicinity of an airport, separation b) the approach controller.
minima may be reduced: c) the radar controller.
a) When the commander in the following aircraft has the preceding aircraft in sight d) the airport controller.
and is able to maintain own separation
b) At the discretion of the air traffic controller
10.7.3.3 (342)
c) If the commander of the involved aircraft so requests
A minimum vertical separation shall be provided until aircraft are etablished
d) Only if the air traffic controller has the involved aircraft in sight
inbound on the ILS localizer course and/or MLS final approach track. This
minimum is, when independent parallel approaches are being conducted :
10.7.3.3 (337) a) 300 m (1000 ft)
If the crew on an arriving aircraft approaching a controlled aerodrome will report b) 200 m (660 ft)
'field in sight', a clearance for 'visual approach' may be given under certain c) 150 m (500 ft)
conditions d) 100 m (330 ft)
a) The air traffic controller will provide separation to other controlled traffic
b) Continued approach will be according to VFR
10.7.3.3 (343)
c) The approach must be passing the FAF
A minimum radar separation shall be provided until aircraft are etablished inbound
d) The meteorological visibility must not be less than 8 km
on the ILS localizer course and/or MLS final approach track. This minimum is,
when independent parallel approaches are being conducted :
10.7.3.3 (338) a) 3.0 NM
At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind b) 5.0 NM
information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface c) 1.0 NM
wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean cross-wind d) 2.0 NM
component significant change is :
a) 5 KT
10.7.3.3 (344)
b) 3 KT
Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided
c) 10 KT
that :
d) 8 KT
a) the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 30° (degrees)
from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach
10.7.3.3 (339) b) the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 20° (degrees) from the
At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind missed approach track of the adjacent approach
information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface c) the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 25° (degrees) from the
wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean tail-wind missed approach track of the adjacent approach
component significant change is : d) the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 45° (degrees) from the
a) 2 KT missed approach track of the adjacent approach
b) 4 KT
c) 5 KT
10.7.3.3 (345)
d) 3 KT
When independent parallel approaches are being conducted and vectoring to
intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track,the final vector shall
10.7.3.3 (340) be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final
At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind approach track at an angle not greater than :
information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface a) 30 degrees
wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean head-wind b) 25 degrees
component significant change is : c) 20 degrees
a) 10 KT d) 15 degrees
b) 5 KT
c) 8 KT
10.7.3.3 (346)
d) 4 KT
Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided
that a no transgression zone (NTZ) of at least :
10.7.3.3 (341) a) 610 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted
During an arrival procedure under an IFR flight plan in VMC conditions, traffic on the radar display
avoidance is the responsibility of: b) 500 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar

29
display between aircraft and approach control ,
c) 710 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar d) During a visual approach an aircraft is maintaining its own separation ,
display
d) 600 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar
10.7.3.4 (352)
display
A braking action given by ATS of 0.25 and below is :
a) Poor
10.7.3.3 (347) b) Good
When independent parallel approaches are being conducted to parallel runways c) Medium/poor
and vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the d) Medium
vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to be established on the ILS localizer
course or MLS final approach track in level flight for :
10.7.3.4 (353)
a) at least 2.0 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or specified MLS
Lights on and in the vicinity of aerodromes may be turned off, provided that they
elevation angle
can be again brought into operation :
b) at least 3.0 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or specified MLS elevation angle
a) At least one hour before the expected arrival of an aircraft
c) at least 1.5 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or specified MLS elevation angle
b) At least 30 minutes before the expected arrival of an aircraft
d) at least 2.5 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or specified MLS elevation angle
c) At least 15 minutes before the expected arrival of an aircraft
d) At least 5 minutes before the expected arrival of an aircraft
10.7.3.3 (348)
Dependent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided
10.7.3.4 (354)
that : the missed approach track for one approach diverges by :
Special VFR flights may the authorized to operate locally within a control zone
a) at least 30° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach
when the ground visibility is not less than 1 500 metres, even when the aircraft is
b) at least 45° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach
not equipped with a functioning radio receiver within class :
c) at least 25° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach
a) E airspace
d) at least 15° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach
b) D and E airspaces
c) D airspace
10.7.3.4 (349) d) C, D and E airspaces
When a runway is 2 000 metres in length, and taxi holding positions have not been
established, aircraft shall not be held closer to the runway in use more than:
10.7.3.4 (355)
a) 50 metres.
In order to meet wake turbulence criteria, for arriving aircraft and using timed
b) 30 metres.
approaches, what minima shall be applied to aircraft landing behind a heavy or a
c) 45 metres.
medium aircraft ?
d) 60 metres.
a) medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft - 2 minutes
b) medium aircraft other medium aircraft - 2 minutes
10.7.3.4 (350) c) light aircraft behind medium aircraft -4 minutes
Which of the following statements regarding aerodrome control service is correct? d) medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft - 3 minutes
a) An aircraft entering the traffic circuit without permission of ATC, will be cleared
to land if this is desirable ,
10.7.3.4 (356)
b) The aerodrome control service is a service provided for the purpose of preventing collisions
According to international agreements wind direction shall be adjusted to the local
between aircraft on the movement area,
variation and given in degrees magnetic :
c) Suspension of VFR operations can not be initiated by the aerodrome controller,
a) Before landing and take-off
d) ATC permission is required for entering the apron with a vehicule
b) When the local variation exceeds 10° East or 10° West.
c) In upper wind forecast for areas north of lat 60° north or 60° south.
10.7.3.4 (351) d) When an aircraft on the request by a meteorological watch office (MWO) or at specified
Which statement regarding approach control service is correct ? points transmits a PIREP
a) If it is anticipated that an aircraft has to hold for 30 minutes or more, an
Expected Approach Time will be transmitted by the most expeditious means to the
10.7.3.4 (357)
aircraft
A separation minimum shall be applied between a light or MEDIUM aircraft and a
b) Approach control have to advise the aircraft operators about substantial delays in departure
HEAVY aircraft and between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the
in any event when they are expected to exceed 45 minutes ,
heavier aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the lighter aircraft is
c) An approach sequence shall be established according to the sequence of initial radio contact
landing on the same runway in the opposite direction or on a parallel opposite
direction runway separated by :
30
a) Less than 760 m 10.7.3.6 (363)
b) 760 m Where a ""Secondary Surveillance Radar"" (SSR) is not available, radar
c) Less than 730 m identification may be achieved by one of the following procedures:
d) 730 m a) To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 30° or more.
b) To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 20° or more.
c) To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 10°.
10.7.3.4 (358)
d) To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 45°.
A separation minimum shall be applied between a light or MEDIUM aircraft and a
HEAVY aircraft and between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the
heavier aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the lighter aircraft is 10.7.3.6 (364)
utilizing an opposite direction runway for take off, this minimum is : Which code shall be used on Mode ""A"" to provide recognition of an aircraft
a) 2 minutes subjected to unlawful interference?
b) 5 minutes a) Code 7500.
c) 3 minutes b) Code 7700.
d) 1 minute c) Code 7600.
d) Code 2000.
10.7.3.4 (359)
In order to meet the wake turbulence criteria, what minimum separation should be 10.7.3.6 (365)
applied when a medium aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft and both are Which does ATC Term ""Radar contact"" signify?
using the same runway ? a) Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight
a) 2 minutes instructions will be provided until radar identification is terminated.
b) 3 minutes b) Your aircraft has been identified and you will receive separation from all aircraft while in
c) 4 minutes contact with this radar facility.
d) 1 minute c) You will be given traffic advisories until advised that the service has been terminated or that
radar contact has been lost.
d) ATC is receiving your transponder and will furnish vectors and traffic advisories until you
10.7.3.5 (360)
are advised that contact has been lost.
Flight information service shall be provided to all aircraft which are likely to be
affected by the information and which are:
a) Provided with the air traffic control services and otherwise known to the 10.7.3.6 (366)
relevant air traffic service units. What is meant when departure control instruct you to ""resume own navigation""
b) Provided with air traffic control services, only. after you have been vectored to an airway?
c) Known to the relevant air traffic services units. a) You should maintain that airway by use of your navigation equipment.
d) Known to the relevant air traffic services units by a filed flight plan. b) Radar Service is terminated.
c) Advisories will no longer be issued by ATC.
d) You are still in radar contact, but must make position reports.
10.7.3.5 (361)
Alerting service shall be provided:
a) For all controlled flight, to any aircraft known or believed to be subject of 10.7.3.6 (367)
unlawful interference, and in so far as practicable to all aircraft having filed a flight An aircraft in climb or descent is considered to have crossed a level when the SSR
plan or otherwise known to the ATS. mode C derived level information indicates that it has passed this level in the
b) For all aircraft provided with air traffic control services, only. required direction by:
c) To any aircraft known or believed to be subject of unlawful interference, only. a) More than 300 ft.
d) In so far as practicable to all aircraft having filed a flight plan or otherwise known by the b) 300 ft.
ATS. c) +/- 300 ft.
d) More than 200 ft.
10.7.3.5 (362)
What is the minimum wake turbulence separation criteria when a light aircraft is 10.7.3.6 (368)
taking off behind a medium aircraft and both are using the same runway ? The radar separation minimum may be reduced but not below:
a) 2 minutes a) 3.0 NM.
b) 3 minutes b) 5.0 NM.
c) 1 minute c) 2.0 NM.
d) 5 minutes d) 1.5 NM.

31
10.7.3.6 (369) c) Radar services are terminated and you will be responsable for position reports.
Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the radar controller d) You are to contact the centre at the next reporting point.
should notify the non-radar controller when an aircraft making a radar approach is
approximately:
10.7.3.6 (375)
a) 8 NM.
The Air Traffic control Services : do not prevent collisions with terrain.
b) 10 NM.
a) Correct, expect when an IFR flight is vectored by radar.
c) 5 NM.
b) Prevent collisions with terrain
d) 6 NM.
c) Do not prevent collisions with terrain
d) Except when an aircraft is flying IFR in IMC.
10.7.3.6 (370)
An aircraft making a radar approach should be advised to consider executing a
10.7.3.6 (376)
missed approach, if the position or identification of the aircraft is in doubt during
Which code shall be used on mode ""A"" to provide recognition of an emergency
any portion of the final approach or if the aircraft is not visible on the radar display
aircraft?
for significant interval during the last:
a) Code 7700.
a) 2 NM.
b) Code 7500.
b) 3 NM.
c) Code 7600.
c) 1 NM.
d) Code 7000.
d) 4 NM.

10.7.3.6 (377)
10.7.3.6 (371)
One of the functions ensured by a radar control unit for the provision of approach
When conducting a surveillance radar approach, the radar controller shall
control service is:
terminate the surveillance radar approach, except as determined by the
a) To conduct surveillance radar approaches.
appropriate ATS authority, at a distance of:
b) To apply a reduced vertical separation of 500 feet between IFR flights and VFR flights.
a) 2 NM from touchdown.
c) To apply a horizontal separation less than 5 NM.
b) 3 NM from touchdown.
d) To provide instructions in order to reduce separations minima, if accepted by the pilots.
c) 2.5 NM from touchdown.
d) 1 NM from touchdown.
10.7.3.6 (378)
The primary duty provided by a radar unit is:
10.7.3.6 (372)
a) To provide radar separation.
Subject to conditions specified by the appropriate ATS authority, a radar controller
b) To assist aircraft due to failure of airborne equipment.
may request radar-controlled aircraft to adjust their speed when established on
c) To assist aircraft on the location storms.
intermediate and final approach. This speed adjustment should not be more than:
d) To assist aircraft where navigation appears unsatisfactory.
a) +/- 20 kt.
b) +/- 10 kt.
c) +/- 15 kt. 10.7.3.6 (379)
d) +/- 8 kt. When radar identification of aircraft has been achieved, ATC unit shall:
a) Inform the aircraft prior to issue any instructions or advice based on the use of
radar.
10.7.3.6 (373)
b) Inform the aircraft only if communication's load permits it.
The radar controller shall not request the pilot to adjust the speed where the
c) not advise the aircraft before issuing instructions.
aircraft has passed:
d) Inform the aircraft only if radar identification has been achieved without availability of SSR.
a) 4 NM from the threshold on final approach.
b) 2 NM from the threshold on final approach.
c) 3 NM from the threshold on final approach. 10.7.3.6 (380)
d) 5 NM from the threshold on final approach. One of the functions ensured by a radar control unit for the provision of approach
control service is:
a) To conduct precision radar approach (PAR).
10.7.3.6 (374)
b) To apply a horizontal separation less than 5 NM.
Upon intercepting the assigned radial, the controller advises you that you are on
c) To apply a reduced vertical separation of 500 feet between IFR and VFR flights.
the airway and to ""resume own navigation"". This phrase means that:
d) To provide instructions to reduce the separation minima.
a) You are to assume responsability for your own navigation.
b) You are still in radar contact, but must make position reports.

32
10.7.3.6 (381) 10.7.3.6 (387)
Except otherwise established by the appropriate ATS authority a Surveillance Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the horizontal radar
Radar Approach (SRA) shall be terminated at a distance from the touchdown of: separation minimum shall be:
a) 2 NM. a) 5.0 NM.
b) 4 NM. b) 3.0 NM.
c) 5 NM. c) 10.0 NM.
d) 3 NM. d) 3.5 NM.

10.7.3.6 (382) 10.7.3.6 (388)


When ""Secondary Radar"" is used, an aircraft may be identified by one of the The criterion which shall be used to determine that a specific level is occupied by
following procedures: an aircraft shall be, (except that appropriate ATS authorities may specify a smaller
a) Observation of compliance with an instruction to operate transponder from criterion):
""ON"" to ""STBY"" and back to ""ON"". a) +/- 300 ft.
b) To request pilot to set transponder on position ""ON"". b) +/- 200 ft.
c) To request pilot to set transponder on position ""OFF"". c) +/- 150 ft.
d) To request pilot to switch from ""ON"" to ""STDBY"". d) +/- 250 ft.

10.7.3.6 (383) 10.7.3.6 (389)


When vectoring an aircraft to intercept the localizer course, the final vector An aircraft is considered to be maintaining its assigned level as long as the SSR
furnished shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the localizer course at mode C derived level information indicated that it is within:
an angle not greater than: a) +/- 300 ft of the assigned level.
a) 30 degrees. b) +/- 200 ft of the assigned level.
b) 25 degrees. c) +/- 250 ft of the assigned level.
c) 15 degrees. d) +/- 500 ft of the assigned level.
d) 20 degrees.
10.7.3.6 (390)
10.7.3.6 (384) When the transponder appears to be unserviceable prior to departure and
The following minimum radar separation shall be provided between aircraft on the restorage is impossible, than :
same localizer with additional longitudinal separation as required for wake a) departure to the nearest suitable airport where repair can be effected is allowed
turbulence: b) you must indicate the failure in the fightplan, after which the ATC will endeavour to provide
a) 3 NM. for continuation of the flight,
b) 2 NM. c) the flight can only continue in the most direct manner,
c) 5 NM. d) you are not allowed to commence the flight
d) 2.5 NM.
10.7.3.6 (391)
10.7.3.6 (385) The air traffic control unit has reported 'radar contact', what does that mean to the
The minimum radar separation to be provided to aircraft established on the pilot?
localizer course shall be: a) The radar identity of the aircraft has been established
a) 3.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course. b) The pilot does not have to follow up the position of the aircraft
b) 3.0 NM between aircraft on adjacent localizer course. c) The aircraft is subject to positive control
c) 2.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course. d) Position reports may be omitted
d) 5.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course.
10.7.3.6 (392)
10.7.3.6 (386) Radar controlled aircraft on intermediate or final approach may be requested to
The tolerance value used to determine that mode C derived level information make minor speed adjustments by ATC. These adjustments shall never be more
displayed to the controller is accurate shall be: than :
a) +/- 300 ft. a) 20 knots and not within 4 NM of threshold
b) +/- 200 ft. b) 10 knots and not within 5 NM of threshold
c) +/- 250 ft. c) 15 knots at any stage
d) +/- 500 ft. d) 25 knots at any stage

33
10.7.3.6 (393) b) 3 NM from touchdown
Radar identification of a departing aircraft can be achieved if a radar blip is c) 4 NM from touchdown
observed within a certain distance from the end of the runway.Identification has to d) 5 NM from touchdown
be achieved within :
a) 1NM
10.7.3.6 (399)
b) 2NM
An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed to execute a missed
c) 3NM
approach if no clearance to land has been received from the non-radar controller
d) 5NM
by the time the aircraft reaches a distance of :
a) 2 NM from the touchdown
10.7.3.6 (394) b) 4 NM from the touchdown
Except when prescribed in procedures or made possible by agreements, aircraft c) 5 NM from the touchdown
under radar-control shall not be vectored closer to the boundary of controlled d) 1.5 NM from the touchdown
airspace than :
a) 2,5 NM
10.7.3.6 (400)
b) 1,5 NM
An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed to consider executing a
c) 3 NM
missed approach if the aircraft is not visible on the radar display for any significant
d) 5 NM
interval during the :
a) Last 2 NM of the approach
10.7.3.6 (395) b) Last 4 NM of the approach
During radar-control, a ""radar-controller"" shall issue a missed-approach c) Last 3 NM of the approach
instruction, in case the ""tower-controller"" has not issued a ""landing-clearance"" d) Last 5 NM of the approach
at the moment the aircraft is :
a) 2 NM from touch-down,
10.7.3.6 (401)
b) 1NM from touch-down,
What is the maximum speed adjustment that a pilot should be requested to make
c) 3 NM from touch-down,
when under radar control and established on intermediate and final approach ?
d) 4 NM from touch-down,
a) ± 20KT
b) ± 15 KT
10.7.3.6 (396) c) ± 10KT
When surveillance radar approaches are to be continued to the threshold of the d) ± 25 KT
runway transmission should not be interrupted for intervals of more than five
seconds while the aircraft is within a distance of :
10.7.3.6 (402)
a) 4 NM from the touchdown
When a RADAR operator says the following to an aircraft: ""fly heading 030"", the
b) 2 NM from the touchdown
pilot must fly heading:
c) 3 NM from the touchdown
a) 030° magnetic
d) 1.5 NM from the touchdown
b) 030° magnetic in still air conditions (thereby flying the magnetic track)
c) 030° true
10.7.3.6 (397) d) 030° true, in still air conditions (thereby flying the true track)
The surveillance radar approach shall be terminated at a distance of 2 NM from the
touchdown except when as determined by the appropriate ATS authority, the
10.8.1.0 (403)
accuracy of the radar equipment permits to be continued to a prescribed point less
In which section of AIP are contained information elements relating to areas
than 2 NM from the touchdown. In this case distance and level information shall be
and/or routes for which meteorological service is provided?
given at each
a) GEN.
a) half NM
b) RAC.
b) 1 NM
c) COM.
c) 1.5 NM
d) MET.
d) half mile

10.8.1.0 (404)
10.7.3.6 (398)
In which section of AIP are contained information elements relating to refuelling
Clearence to land or any alternative clearence received from the non-radar
facilities and limitations on refuelling services?
controller should normally be passed to the aircraft before it reaches a distance of :
a) AD.
a) 2 NM from touchdown
b) FAL.
34
c) GEN. 10.8.1.0 (411)
d) SAR. An integrated aeronautical information package consists of the following elements
a) AIP, including amendment service, supplements to AIP, NOTAM and pre-flight
information bulletin (PIB), AIC, checklists and summuries
10.8.1.0 (405)
b) AIP, including amendment service, supplements to AIP, NOTAM, AIC and checklist
In which section of AIP are contained information elements relating to prohibited,
summaries
restricted and dangerous areas?
c) AIP, supplements to AIP, NOTAM and PIB, AIC and checklist summaries
a) ENR.
d) AIP including amendment service, supplements to AIP, NOTAM, AIC, AIRAC
b) MAP.
c) GEN.
d) AGA. 10.8.1.0 (412)
The identification of each prohibited, restricted and danger area shall be composed
by :
10.8.1.0 (406)
a) The nationality letters for location indicators assigned to the state or territory,
A notice containing information concerning flight safety, air navigation, technical,
followed the letters P. R and D and figures
administration or legislative matters and originated at the AIS of a state is called:
b) The letters P (Prohibited), R (Restricted) and D (Dangerous) for the area concerned and
a) Aeronautical Information Circular (AIC).
figures
b) Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP).
c) The nationality letters for the location indicators assigned to the state, followed by P, R and
c) NOTAM.
D
d) AIRAC.
d) The letters P (Prohibited), R (Restricted) and D (Dangerous) followed by figures

10.8.1.0 (407)
10.8.1.0 (413)
A notice providing information on Rules of the Air, Air Traffic Services and Air
In order to avoid confusion, the identification numbers given to each prohibited
Navigation Procedures and distributed in advance of its effective date is:
area, restricted area and danger area shall not be re-used for a period of
a) An AIRAC.
a) At least one year after cancellation of the area to which they refer
b) A NOTAM RAC.
b) At least 6 months after cancellation of the area to which they refer
c) An ATS NOTAM.
c) At least 3 months after cancellation of the area to which they refer
d) An Advisory NOTAM.
d) At least 2 months after cancellation of the area to which they refer

10.8.1.0 (408)
10.8.1.0 (414)
Each contracting state shall provide an Aeronautical Information Service (AIS) in
Temporary changes on specifications for AIP supplements of long duration and
its territory and for areas in which the state is responsible for the Air Traffic
information of short duration which contains extensive text and/or graphics shall
Services outside its territory, and this shall include the preparation and origination
be published as AIP supplements. It is considered a long duration.
of:
a) Three months or longer
a) Integrated Aeronautical Information Package.
b) Six months or longer
b) Only AIP and NOTAM's.
c) One year or longer
c) AIP, NOTAM's, Circular and AIRAC.
d) Two months or longer
d) Only NOTAM's and Circulars.

10.8.1.0 (415)
10.8.1.0 (409)
Operationaly significant changes to the AIP shall be published in accordance with :
The closure of a runway for a year, because of maintenance, will be published :
a) AIRAC procedures and identified by the acronym AIRAC
a) in NOTAM and AIP, inclusive Supplement.
b) NOTAM procedures and identified by acronym NOTAM followed by a number
b) only in NOTAM
c) AIP supplements and shall be clearly identifical
c) only in AIP
d) AIC procedures and identified by the acronym AIC followed by a number
d) NOTAM, AIP and MAL

10.8.1.0 (416)
10.8.1.0 (410)
A checklist of AIP supplements currently in force shall be issued at intervals of :
In which chapter of the AIP can you find a list with ""location indicators""?
a) Not more than one month
a) GEN
b) Not more than three months
b) AGA
c) Not more than 28 days
c) ENR
d) Not more than 2 months
d) AD

35
10.8.1.0 (417) b) NOTAM
A checklist of NOTAM currently in force shall be issued at the AFTN at intervals of : c) Trigger NOTAM
a) Not more than one month d) 1999-06-08 0:00
b) No more than 15 days
c) Not more than 28 days
10.8.1.0 (424)
d) Not more than 10 days
The contents of Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) are :
a) GEN, ENR (en-route) and AD (aerodromes)
10.8.1.0 (418) b) GEN, AGA, COM, RAC, FAL, SAR, MET, MAP.
The ASHTAM provides information on the status of activity of a volcano when a c) GEN, ENR, RAC, AD
change in its activity is, or is expected to be of operational significance. This d) GEN, AGA, COM, ENR, FAL
information is provided using the volcano level of colour code. When volcanic
eruption in progress or volcano dangerous, eruption likely, with ash plume/cloud is
10.8.1.0 (425)
reported above FL 250 or is expected to rise above FL 250, the level of alert colour
The SIGMET service, is in the AIP, in the following part :
code is
a) GEN
a) RED
b) ENR
b) YELLOW
c) AGA
c) GREEN
d) MET
d) ORANGE

10.8.1.0 (426)
10.8.1.0 (419)
The informations concerning charges for aerodromes/heliports and Air Navigation
Which of the following is information that is not given in AIP approach and landing
Services are on the following part of the AIP
charts
a) GEN
a) Visibility minima
b) FAL
b) Obstacles penetrating the obstacle free area in the final approach sector
c) RAC
c) OCH or OCA
d) AD
d) DME-frequencies

10.8.1.0 (427)
10.8.1.0 (420)
The informations on holding, approach and departure procedures, are found in the
Which information is not included in Instrument Appraoch Charts (IAC) in the AIP
following part of the AIP
a) Any addition to minima when the aerodrome is used as alternate
a) ENR
b) Obstacles penetrating the obstacle free area in the final approach sector
b) GEN
c) OCA or OCH
c) AD
d) DME-frequencies
d) MAP

10.8.1.0 (421)
10.8.1.0 (428)
ASHTAM
An AIRAC is :
a) GVATAM
a) An Acronym for a system aimed at advance notification based on common
b) NAVTAM
effective dates, of circumstances necessitating significant changes in operating
c) VULTAM
procedures.
d) 1999-06-08 0:00
b) A publication issued by or with the authority of a state containing aeronautical information
of a lasting character essential to air navigation.
10.8.1.0 (422) c) A notice distributed by means of telecommunication containing information concerning the
AIRAC establishment, condition or change in any aeronautical facility service, procedure or hazard,
a) IFPS the timely knowledge of which is essential to personnel concerned with flight operations.
b) NOTAM d) A package which consists of the following elements : AIP, supplements to the AIP, NOTAM,
c) EATCHIP AIC, checklists and summaries.
d) 1999-06-08 0:00
10.9.1.0 (429)
10.8.1.0 (423) Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum
AIP Supplements specifications for the design of aerodromes?
a) AIP Amendments a) Annex 14
36
b) Annex 6 c) 24 m up to but not including 36 m.
c) Annex 11 d) 15 m up to but not including 24 m.
d) Annex 10
10.9.1.1 (436)
10.9.1.1 (430) In the ""Aerodrome Reference Code"" the code element 2 shall identify:
""Instrument runways"" are the following runways intended for the operation of a) The aircraft wing span and the outer main gear wheel span.
aircraft using instrument approach procedures. b) Only the aircraft wing span.
a) Non precision approach runways, precision approach runways category I, II and c) The width of the aircraft wing.
III. d) The lenght of the aircraft fuselage.
b) Precision approach runways category I, II and III.
c) Instrument approach runways, precision approach runways category I, II and III.
10.9.1.1 (437)
d) Precision approach runways in general.
The ""Aerodrome Reference Code"" is a code composed of two elements which are
related to the aeroplane performance characteristics and dimensions. These
10.9.1.1 (431) elements are a combination of a number and a letter as in the example under
""Code letter D"" shall be chosen to identify a taxiway used by aircraft having an listed:
outer main gear wheel span of less than 9 m. The taxiway width shall be: a) 2B.
a) 18 m. b) 6D.
b) 15 m. c) 5E.
c) 23 m. d) 4F.
d) 25 m.
10.9.1.1 (438)
10.9.1.1 (432) According with the ""Aerodrome Reference Code"" the ""Code number 4"" shall
""TODA"" take-off distance available is: identify an aircraft reference field length of:
a) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of clearway available (if a) 1 800 m and over.
provided). b) 1 600 m.
b) The length of the runway available plus the length of clearway available (if provided). c) 1 500 m.
c) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stopway and clearway (if d) 1 200 m.
provided).
d) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stopway.
10.9.1.1 (439)
The STOPWAY is a defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off
10.9.1.1 (433) run available prepared as a suitable area where:
""Clearway"" is defined rectangular area established to: a) An aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off.
a) Permit aircraft to make a portion of its initial climb to a specific height. b) A landing aircraft can be stopped if overcoming the end of runway.
b) Reduce the risk of damage to aircraft running off a runway. c) A landing aircraft can be stopped only in emergency.
c) Protect aircraft during take-off or landing operations. d) An aircraft taking-off or landing can be stopped.
d) Permit the aircraft to stop if it fails the take-off.
10.9.1.1 (440)
10.9.1.1 (434) ""ASDA"" (Acceleration Stop Distance Available) is:
Which ""code letter"" shall be chosen to identify a taxiway to be used by an a) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of stopway (if stopway
aircraft having a wheel base of 15 m? provided) .
a) Code letter ""C"". b) The length of the runway plus the length of stopway available (if stopway provided).
b) Code letter ""B"". c) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of stopway and clearway (if
c) Code letter ""D"". provided) .
d) Code letter ""E"". d) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway.

10.9.1.1 (435) 10.9.1.1 (441)


According to the ""Aerodrome Reference Code"", the ""Code Letter E"" shall Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes
identify an aircraft wing span of: are codes for different runways. Which is the minimum width of a runway with
a) 52 m up to but not including 65 m. runway code 4?
b) 36 m up to but not including 52 m. a) 45 metres
b) 35 metres
37
c) 40 metres a) Fixed lights showing green.
d) 50 metres b) Fixed lights showing blue.
c) Fixed lights showing yellow.
d) Fixed lights showing white.
10.9.1.2 (442)
Runway edge lights excepted in the case of a displaced threshold shall be:
a) Fixed lights showing variable white. 10.9.1.2 (449)
b) Fixed lights, white or yellow colour. In a precision approach category I lighting system, the centre line and crossbar
c) Fixed lights showing variable white or yellow. lights shall be:
d) Flashing white. a) Fixed lights showing variable white.
b) Flashing lights showing variable white.
c) Fixed lights showing variable green.
10.9.1.2 (443)
d) Flashing lights showing variable green.
Runway threshold identification lights, when provided, should be:
a) Flashing white.
b) Fixed green. 10.9.1.2 (450)
c) Flashing green. The abbreviation PAPI stands for:
d) Fixed white. a) Precision Approach Path Indicator.
b) Precision Approach Path Index.
c) Precision Approach Power Indicator.
10.9.1.2 (444)
d) Precision Approach Power Index.
The light shown by an ""Aerodrome Identification Beacon"" at a land aerodrome
shall be:
a) Green colour identification given by Morse Code. 10.9.1.2 (451)
b) Blue colour identification given by Morse Code. The ""PAPI"" shall consist of:
c) White and green colour identification given by Morse Code. a) A wing bar of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced.
d) White colour identification given by Morse Code. b) Two wing bars of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced.
c) Two wing bars of 6 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced.
d) A wing bar of 2 sharp transition multi-lamp equally spaced.
10.9.1.2 (445)
In the ""VASIS"" , how many light units are in each wing bar?
a) 3. 10.9.1.2 (452)
b) 2. In the ""PAPI"" system the pilot during an approach will see the two units nearest
c) 4. the runway as red and the two units farthest from the runway as white when:
d) 5. a) On or close to the approach slope.
b) Above the approach slope.
c) Below the approach slope.
10.9.1.2 (446)
d) Only on the approach slope.
In a precision approach category I, lighting system, the single, two and three light
sources on the centre line have a length of:
a) 300 m. 10.9.1.2 (453)
b) 150 m. In the case of parallel runways, each runway designation number shall be
c) 200 m. supplemented:
d) 250 m. a) By a letter - for example 2 parallel runways ""L"" and ""R"" - for 3 ""L"", ""C""
and ""R"".
b) By a number like ""0"" and ""01"" for 2 parallel runways.
10.9.1.2 (447)
c) By a letter for 2 parallel runways.
How many red lights must a pilot see, whose aircraft, in final approach, is following
d) By a letter - for example 3 parallel runways ""L"" and ""R"" and the central has no letter.
a normal glide path defined by a PAPI?
a) 2.
b) 3. 10.9.1.2 (454)
c) None. Taxiway edge lights shall be:
d) 1. a) Fixed showing blue.
b) Fixed showing green.
c) Fixed showing yellow.
10.9.1.2 (448)
d) Flashing showing blue.
Taxiway centre line lights other than an exit taxiway shall be:

38
10.9.1.2 (455) c) a RVR of 550 meters and a DH of not less than 200 ft.
Runway end lights shall be: d) a RVR of 200 meters and a DH of not less than 100 ft.
a) Fixed unidirectional lights showing red in the direction of the runway.
b) Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of the runway.
10.9.1.2 (462)
c) Fixed lights showing variable red.
When a fixed-distance marking has to be provided this marking shall commence
d) Fixed lights showing variable white.
at :
a) 300 m from threshold
10.9.1.2 (456) b) 150 m from threshold
Runway threshold lights shall be: c) 450 m from threshold
a) Fixed unidirectional lights showing green in the direction of approach to the d) 600 m from threshold
runway.
b) Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of approach to the runway.
10.9.1.2 (463)
c) Fixed lights green colours.
Runway-lead-in lighting should consist :
d) Fixed lights showing green or white colours.
a) of group of at least three white lights flashing in sequence towards the runway ,
b) always of a straight row of lights towards the runway
10.9.1.2 (457) c) of flashing lights only,
Aerodromes signs should be in the following configuration : d) of an arbitrary amount of green lights,
a) information signs, yellow or black background with black or yellow inscriptions.
b) mandatory instruction signs , red background with black inscriptions.
10.9.1.2 (464)
c) information signs, orange background with black inscriptions.
Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes
d) mandatory instruction signs, black background with red inscriptions.
is a specific dimension given for the approach light system for CAT 1 ILS. What
should be the length of this approach light system?
10.9.1.2 (458) a) 900 metres
Which of the following alternatives describes the complete CAT 1 ('Calvert') type of b) 420 metres
approach light system? c) 1000 metres
a) 5 crossbars, centre line with 3, 2 and 1 lamp per light unit d) 1200 metres
b) 4 crossbars, centre line with 3 or 2 lamps per light unit
c) 3 crossbars, centre line with 3, 2 or 1 lamp per light unit
10.9.1.3 (465)
d) 3 crossbars, centre line with 3 or 2 lamps per light unit
High intensity obstacle lights should be:
a) Flashing white.
10.9.1.2 (459) b) Flashing red.
What is the length of an approach lighting system of a precision-approach runway c) Fixed red.
CAT II : d) Fixed orange.
a) 900m
b) 150m
10.9.1.3 (466)
c) 300m
Low intensity obstacle lights on mobile objects shall be:
d) 600m
a) Flashing red or preferably yellow.
b) Fixed red or preferably orange.
10.9.1.2 (460) c) Fixed red or preferably blue.
What is a ""barrette""? d) Flashing blue.
a) three or more groundlights closely spaced together to appear as a bar of lights.
b) a highted obstacle near the runway and/or taxiway.
10.9.1.3 (467)
c) a CAT II or III holding position.
Low intensity obstacle lights on fixed objects shall be:
d) a frangible structure on which approach lights are fixed.
a) Fixed red.
b) Flashing red.
10.9.1.2 (461) c) Flashing yellow.
A precision approach runway CAT. II is an instrument runway served by ILS and d) Fixed orange.
visual aids intended for operations down to:
a) a RVR of 300-450 meters and a DH of not less than 100 ft.
10.9.1.4 (468)
b) a RVR of 250 meters and a DH of not less than 200 ft.
The runway edge lights shall be :

39
a) white 10.10.1.0 (474)
b) blue In case of aircraft registered in other Contracting States, which are not engaged in
c) green schedule international services, and which are making flights across the territory
d) red of a Contracting State or stopping for non traffic purposes, such Contracting State
shall accept the information contained in a flight plan as adequate advance
notification. This information is to be received :
10.9.1.5 (469)
a) at least 2 hours in advance of arrival
The aerodrome category for rescue and fire fighting is based on:
b) at least 4 hours in advance of arrival
a) The over-all length of the longest aeroplane normally using the aerodrome and
c) at least 1 hour in advance of arrival
its maximum fuselage width.
d) at least 12 hours in advance of the expected ETA
b) The over-all length of the longest aeroplane normally using the aerodrome and its
maximum fuselage weight.
c) The over-all length of the longest aeroplane. 10.10.1.0 (475)
d) The longuest aeroplane maximum width only An aircraft which is not engaged in scheduled international air services and which
is making a flight to or through any designated airport of a Contracting State and is
admitted temporarily free of duty shall be allowed to remain within that State
10.10.1.0 (470)
without security for customs duty.
The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of persons and their
a) For a period to be established by that State
baggage in international flights is :
b) for a period of 24 hours
a) annex 9
c) for a period of 48 hours
b) annex 8
d) for a period of 12 hours
c) annex 6
d) annex 15
10.10.1.0 (476)
Which one of the statements is correct :
10.10.1.0 (471)
a) contracting states shall accept an oral declaration of baggage from passengers
The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of cargo and other articles
and crew
on international flights is :
b) contracting states shall accept an oral declaration of baggage only from crew
a) annex 9
c) contracting states shall accept an oral declaration of baggage only from passengers
b) annex 8
d) contracting states may not accept oral declaration of baggages
c) annex 15
d) annex 16
10.10.2.0 (477)
When desinsecting is required by a Contracting State as a public health measure,
10.10.1.0 (472)
the desinsecting is made when the aircraft is suitably equipped by means of an
A contracting state which continues to require the presentation of a cargo manifest
automatic dispersal or vapour while the aircraft is flying, but as far in advance as
shall, apart from the information indicated in the heading of the format of the
possible and:
cargo manifest, not require more than the following item(s) :
a) At least 30 minute prior to land.
a) The air waybill number, the number of packages related to each air waybill
b) At least one hour prior to land.
number and the nature of the goods
c) At least when the aircraft enter that state airspace.
b) The air waybill number and the nature of the goods
d) At least immediately before landing.
c) The air waybill number and the number of packages related to the air way bill number
d) The air waybill number
10.10.2.0 (478)
The obligation of a carrier to transport any person away from the territory of a
10.10.1.0 (473)
Contracting State shall terminate from the moment such person has been
Contracting states shall not require the authorized agent or pilot-in-command to
definitely admitted in other Contracting State of destination.
deliver to the public authorities concerned, before departure of the aircraft, more
a) The stated above is correct.
than some copies of General Declaration, Cargo Manifest and stores list. The
b) The operator has no obligation.
numbers of the copies are :
c) The obligation is for the Contracting State of the operator.
a) 2 of each
d) The obligation of the operator terminates as soon as the person leaves the aeroplane.
b) 3 of each
c) 2 copies of General Declarations and Cargo Manifest and one copie of a simple stores list.
d) 2 copies of General Declaration and of Cargo Manifest and of a stores list 10.10.2.0 (479)
When cargo, unaccompanied baggage or stores are not unladen at their intended
destination but are unladen at another international airport, the contracting state

40
where the unlading takes place, if satisfied that there has been no gross b) shall not recover from such person any transportation costs arising from his (her)
negligence or careless by the operator inadmissibility
a) shall not impose penalties, fines, customs duties and taxes on the operator c) is not responsible for the person inadmissible for entry in the receiving state
b) shall not impose penalties and fines but customs duties and taes on thexes on the operator d) and the state of the operator are both responsible for the person inadmissible
c) shall not impose penalties, fines and custom duties but taxes on the operator
d) shall not impose penalties, fines and taxes but custom duties on the operator
10.10.2.0 (485)
In cases where a visitor travelling by air holds a valid passport and no visa is
10.10.2.0 (480) required of him, contracting states
Unaccompanied baggage carried by air shall be cleared under the procedure a) shall not require him to obtain any other identity document from their
applicable to : consultates or operators prior to initiate the flight
a) accompanied baggage or under another simplified customs procedure distinct b) may require him to obtain any other identity document prior to the commencement of his
from that normally applicable to other cargo flight
b) cargo and is covered by a traffic document c) in certain cases any other identity may be required
c) cargo but is free from any kind of declaration forms d) none of the answers are applicable
d) cargo but clearence documents provided by airlines shall be completed by the passenger
prior to shipment
10.11.1.1 (486)
The units responsable for promoting efficient organization of search and rescue
10.10.2.0 (481) service are:
Contracting states shall carry out the handling, forwarding and clearance of airmail a) Rescue coordination centre and rescue sub-centres.
and shall comply with the documentary procedures as prescribed : b) Alerting centre and rescue coordination centre.
a) in the Acts in force of the Universal Postal Union c) Flight information centre and rescue coordination centre.
b) by IATA and accepted by the contracting states d) Area control centre, flight information centre and rescue coordination centre.
c) by IATA and accepted by ICAO
d) by the Regional Postal Office
10.11.1.3 (487)
Three aircraft, (1), (2) and (3), arrive successively at ten minute intervals,
10.10.2.0 (482) overhead the scene of a recent aircraft accident.-aircraft (1) is unable to establish
Except in special circumstances determined by the public authorities concerned, contact with the Search and Rescue Centre-aircraft (2) is able to contact the
when a passenger is passing through the territory of a contracting state and has to Search and Rescue Centre-aircraft (3) is a Search and Rescue helicopterThe
stay in that contracting state until the next flight for lack of facilities or any other command of the situation is the responsibility of,
circumstances, the contracting state where the international airport is located a) (1), then by mutual consent (2) and then (3).
shall permit such a passenger to remain within its territory without requiring visas b) (1), then by mutual consent (2) until the completion of operations.
prior to the arrival when c) (1), and then by mutual consent to (3).
a) the passenger is to leave that state within two (2) days from the day of his (her) d) (1) until the completion of operations.
arrival
b) the passenger is to leave that state within two (2) weeks from the day of his (her) arrival
10.11.1.4 (488)
c) the passenger is to leave that state within one (1) day from the day of his (her) arrival
The color identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages
d) the passenger is to leave that state within 72 (seventy two) hours from the time of arrival
containing survival equipment should take the form of coloured streamers
of that passenger
according to the following code:
a) Red for medical supplies and first aid equipment.
10.10.2.0 (483) b) Blue for blankets and protective clothing.
The documents for entry and departure of aircraft : c) Black for food and water.
a) are accepted in handwritten block lettering in ink d) Yellow for miscellaneous equipment.
b) has to be typewritten
c) has to be typewritten or produced by electronic data processing techniques
10.11.1.4 (489)
d) are accepted at the contracting state discretion
The color identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages
containing survival equipment should take the form of coloured streamers
10.10.2.0 (484) according to the following code:
When a person is found inadmissible and is returned to the operator for transport a) Yellow for blankets and protective clothing.
away from the territory of the state, the operator : b) Red for food and water.
a) shall not be preclude from recovering from such person any transportation costs c) Blue for medical supplies and first aid equipment.
arising from his (her) inadmissibility d) Black for food and water.

41
10.11.1.4 (490) 10.11.1.4 (496)
The color identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages (For this question use annex 010-9805A)Using the ground - air visual signal code,
containing survival equipment should take the form of coloured streamers the letter similar to the symbol meanning ""REQUIRE MEDICAL ASSISTANCE"" is :
according to the following code: a) 1
a) Blue for food and water. b) 2
b) Yellow for medical supplies and first aid equipment. c) 3
c) Black for food and water. d) 4
d) Red for miscellaneous equipment.
10.11.1.4 (497)
10.11.1.4 (491) (For this question use annex 010-9806A)What is the meanning of the showed
The color identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages symbol in the ground-air visual signal code for use by rescue units ?
containing survival equipment should take the form of coloured streamers a) operation completed
according to the following code: b) we have found all personnel
a) Black for miscellaneous equipment. c) we have found only some personnel
b) Blue for blankets and protective clothing. d) we are returning to base
c) Red for food and water.
d) Yellow for medical supplies and first aid equipment.
10.11.1.4 (498)
Which of the following is NOT an international distress frequency ?
10.11.1.4 (492) a) 2430 KHz
(For this question use annex 010-9801A)Using the ground - air visual code the b) 121.5 MHz
letter(s) similar to the symbol meaning ""REQUIRE ASSISTANCE"" is (are) : c) 243.0 MHz
a) 1 d) 2.182 KHz
b) 2
c) 3
10.11.1.4 (499)
d) 4
An aircraft is flying over a mountainous region in which a search is being carried
out to find the survivors of an aircraft accident. The pilot sees a ground signal in
10.11.1.4 (493) the form of an ""X"".This indicates :
(For this question use annex 010-9802A)Using the ground - air visual code the a) ""Need medical assistance"".
symbol meaning ""we have found all personnel"" is : b) ""Landing impossible"".
a) 1 c) ""All occupants alive"".
b) 2 d) ""Need mechanical assistance"".
c) 3
d) 4
10.11.1.4 (500)
At night an aircraft observes a luminous signal requesting help. To indicate that he
10.11.1.4 (494) has received these ground signals, the pilot must :
(For this question use annex 010-9803A)What is the meaning of the showed a) switch his landing lights on and off twice or, if he is not so equipped, his
symbol in the ground air visual signal code for use by survivors ? navigation lights twice.
a) Require medical assistance b) make at least one complete turn over the group of people in difficulty.
b) Require assistance c) transmit, by luminous Morse signal, a series of the letter ""R"" using his navigational lights.
c) Landing here impossible d) fly over the group of people in difficulty as low as possible.
d) Drop emergency supplies at this point
10.12.1.0 (501)
10.11.1.4 (495) For the transport of potentially disruptive passengers some supplementary
(For this question use annex 010-9804A)The ground - air visual code illustrated safeguards are to be observed such as :
means : a) boarding prior to all passengers
a) Require assistance b) boarding after to all other passengers
b) Please indicate direction c) the boarding will be at the pilot in command discretion
c) Proceding in the direction shown d) the boarding has to be done at the state discretion
d) Require medical assistance
10.12.1.0 (502)
Aeronautical part
42
a) Security program. screening points at airports serving international civil aviation have been passed
b) Manoeuvring area. a) the passengers concerned and their cabin baggage shall be re screened before
c) Terminal. boarding an aircraft
d) 1999-06-08 0:00 b) only the passengers are to be re screened
c) only the passengers cabin baggage are to be re screened
d) the persons not subjected to security control shall be identified
10.12.1.0 (503)
The contracting States will make provisions to ensure that an aircraft affected by
an unlawful seizure act, which has landed in their territory, world be retained, 10.12.1.2 (508)
unless its departure is justified to protect lives. Each member state should designate an appropriate authority with its
a) The contracting States will make provisions to ensure that an aircraft affected administration to be responsible for the development implementation and
by an unlawful seizure act, which has landed in their territory, would be detained maintenance of a national aviation security programme. This programme should
in all cases. apply :
b) The contracting States will not assist with navigation aids, air transit services, etc, to an a) to all international civil air transport including aircraft engaged solely in the
aircraft affected by an unlawful seizure act. carriage of cargo and yet to domestic flights at the discretion of each member
c) The Annex 17 does not recognise the importance of consusltations between the State state
where an aircraft affected by an unlawful interference act has landed and the aircraft b) only to all international civil transport including aircraft engaged solely in the carriage of
operator's State. cargo
d) 1999-06-08 0:00 c) only to passengers and aircrew in international civil transport flights
d) only to passengers and aircrew in international civil transport flights and domestic flights
10.12.1.1 (504)
The national civil aviation security programme shall be established by : 10.12.1.2 (509)
a) Each contracting state When a member state allows police officers, security staff, bodyguards or other
b) ICAO agents of foreign states to carry weapons in their territory for the protection of
c) ECAC aircraft in flight, permission for the carriage of weapons should be conditional
d) ICAO and other organisations including the contracting state concerned upon :
a) Prior notification by the state of embarcation to the foreign state in which the
weapons will be carried on the airport of arrival and notification of the pilot in
10.12.1.1 (505)
command of a decision to permit a weapon to be carried on board his aircraft
Each contracting state shall designate an appropriate authority within its
b) Notification of the pilot in command of a decision to permit a weapon to be carried on
administration to be responsible for the development, implementation and
board his aircraft only
maintenance of the national civil aviation security programme. The said
c) Agreement between the state of embarcation and the state of destination
appropriate authority :
d) Agreement between the state of embarcation and the airport of arrival
a) Shall be specified to ICAO
b) Shall be specified to ICAO and to ECAC
c) Shall be specified to ICAO, ECAC and to other contracting states 10.12.1.2 (510)
d) Should be specified to ICAO and to ECAC Member states should introduce specific security measures for the air transport of
the following groups of potentially disruptive passengers defined below :
a) Deportees, inadmissible persons and persons in lawful custody
10.12.1.2 (506)
b) Deportees and persons in lawful custody only
Each contracting state shall establish measures to ensure that the aircraft operator
c) Deportees and inadmissible persons only
is informed when passengers are obliged to travel because they have been the
d) None of the answers is correct
subject of judicial or administrative proceedings in order that appropriate security
measures can be taken
a) The state above question in incomplete. The pilot in command and the aircraft 10.13.1.0 (511)
operator are to be informed. Just before arriving on the apron, taxiing inadvertently on the grass, a wheel falls
b) Correct. into a hole, which seriously damages the aircraft and obliges the crew to delay the
c) The aircraft operator and the pilot in command are only to be informed when any departure.
passenger is the subject of judicial proceedings. a) This is an accident and the crew must follow the procedure relevant to this case.
d) These measures are of the discretion of the contracting state. b) Since no physical injury has been noticed and the flight is over, the actions to be taken are
related only to insurance, to the repair man, the operator and the persons in charge of the
runway and taxiways.
10.12.1.2 (507)
c) This is an irregularity in the operation, the crew must inform the operator of the delay
When mixing or contact does take place between passengers subjected to security
caused by necessary repair.
control and other persons not subjected to such control after the security

43
d) This is an incident and the pilot-in-command must report it to the airport authority within 21.1.1.0 (517)
the next 48 hours. 'Fail safe construction' is :
a) A type of construction in which the load is carried by other components if a part
of the structure fails.
10.13.1.0 (512)
b) A simple and cheap type of construction.
Who is responsible, under Annex 13 of the Chicago convention for the initation of
c) A type of construction for small aircraft only.
an accident investigation?
d) A construction which is suitable for aerobatic flight.
a) The government of the state in which the accident took place
b) Operators of the same aircraft type
c) The aircraft manufacturer 21.1.1.0 (518)
d) The law enforcement authorities of the state in which the aircraft is registered The fuselage of an aircraft consists, among others, of stringers whose purpose is
to:
a) assist the skin in absorbing the longitudinal traction-compression stresses.
10.13.1.0 (513)
b) withstand the shear stresses.
Upon receipt of the modification and a request by the state of occurrence for
c) provide sound and thermal isolation.
participation, the state of design and the state of manufacture shall in the case of
d) integrate the strains due to pressurization to which the skin is subjected and convert them
an accident or serious incident inform the state of occurence of the name of its
into a tensile stress.
representative to be present at the investigation when the aircraft :
a) Has a maximum mass over 100.000 kg
b) Has a maximum mass over 27.000 kg 21.1.1.0 (519)
c) Has a maximum mass over 5 700 kg The reason for the fact that an aeroplane designed for long distances cannot
d) Has a maximum mass over 2 250 kg simply be used for short haul flights at higher frequencies is that
a) the lifetime of the fatigue sensitive parts has been based on a determined load
spectrum
21.1.0.0 (514)
b) the procedures and checklists for this kind of aeroplanes will take too much time
For FAIL-SAFE designed structural parts :1 The mounting principle is parallel
c) these aeroplanes often consume too much fuel on short haul flights.
mounting.2 No routine check is necessary.3 The member is removed at the end of
d) in that case some fuel tanks remain empty during the whole flight, which stresses the
the calculated life cycle.4 Certain components may not be accessible.5 The
aeroplane's structure in an unacceptable way
principle is the redundancy of components6 The failure of a member causes the
loads to be shared between the other system components.The combination
regrouping all the correct statements is : 21.1.3.0 (520)
a) 1,5,6 The wing of an aircraft in flight, powered by engines located under the wing, is
b) 2,3,4 subjected to a bending moment which causes its leading edge, from the wing root
c) 1,3,4 to the wing tip, to operate in:
d) 2,5,6 a) compression, then in tension.
b) tension, then in compression.
c) tension.
21.1.1.0 (515)
d) compression.
DURALUMIN alloys :1 have an aluminium-copper base.2 have an aluminium-
magnesium base.3 are easy to weld.4 are difficult to weld.5 have a good thermal
conductivity.6 have a poor air corrosion resistanceThe combination regrouping all 21.1.3.0 (521)
the correct statements is : In flight the wing of an aircraft containing fuel is subjected to vertical loads that
a) 1,4,5 produce a bending moment which is:
b) 2,4,5 a) highest at the wing root
c) 1,3,6 b) equal to the zero -fuel weight multiplied by the span
d) 2,3,6 c) equal to half the weight of the aircraft multiplied by the semi span
d) lowest at the wing root
21.1.1.0 (516)
Among the different types of aircraft structures, the shell structures efficiently 21.1.3.0 (522)
transmit the:1. normal bending stresses2. tangent bending stresses3. torsional The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass:1 Is a limitation set by regulation.2 Is designed for a
moment4. shear stressesThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is : maximum load factor.3 Is due to the maximum bending moment at wing root.4
a) 1, 2, 3 Requires to empty external tanks first.5 Requires to empty internal tanks first.The
b) 2, 3, 4 correct combination of true statements is :
c) 1, 2, 4 a) 1,2,3
d) 1, 3, 4 b) 2,5

44
c) 2,4 a) Decreased on the slower turning wheels.
d) 1,3,5 b) Increased on the faster turning wheels.
c) Decreased on the faster turning wheels.
d) Increased on the slower turning wheels.
21.1.3.0 (523)
On a non-stressed skin type wing, the wing structure elements which take up the
vertical bending moments Mx are: 21.1.5.0 (530)
a) the spars. The type of brake unit found on most transport aeroplanes is a:
b) the ribs. a) Multiple disk brake.
c) the webs. b) Drum type brake.
d) the skin. c) Single disk brake.
d) Belt brake.
21.1.4.0 (524)
The advantage of mounting the tailplane on top of the vertical stabilizer is : 21.1.5.0 (531)
a) to withdraw it from the influence of wing turbulence The reason for fitting thermal plugs to aircraft wheels is that they :
b) to a have greater effectiveness at high speed a) release air from the tyre in case of overheating.
c) that it does not require a de-icing system b) prevent the brakes from overheating.
d) to decrease fuel consumption by creating a tail heavy situation c) prevent heat transfer from the brake disks to the tyres.
d) release air from the tyre in case of overpressure.
21.1.5.0 (525)
A torsion link assembly is installed on the landing gear to : 21.1.5.0 (532)
a) avoid rotation of the piston rod relative to the gear oleo strut. Thermal plugs are installed in:
b) absorb the spring tension. a) wheel rims.
c) control the wheels. b) fire warning systems.
d) lock the landing gear. c) cabin windows.
d) cargo compartments.
21.1.5.0 (526)
In a commercial transport aircraft the landing gear operating system is usually: 21.1.5.0 (533)
a) Hydraulically driven. When a landing gear wheel is hydroplaning, its friction factor is equal to:
b) Mechanically driven. a) 0
c) Pneumatically driven. b) 1
d) Electrically driven. c) 0.1
d) 0.5
21.1.5.0 (527)
Generally, on modern jet transport aircraft, how can the landing gear be extended 21.1.5.0 (534)
if there is a complete hydraulic system failure. Shimmy occurs on the nosewheel landing gear during taxiing when:1. the wheels
a) Mechanically tend to describe a sinusoidal motion on the ground2. the wheels no longer respond
b) Electrically. to the pilot's actionsThis effect is overcome by means of:3. the torque link4. an
c) Pneumatically. accumulator associated with the steering cylinderThe combination of correct
d) By hydraulic accumulators. statements is:
a) 1, 3.
b) 1, 4.
21.1.5.0 (528)
c) 2, 4.
If the profile grooves or the tread of a new aircraft tyre are worn, the tyre can be:
d) 2, 3.
a) Repaired several times.
b) repaired once.
c) Never repaired. 21.1.5.0 (535)
d) Used on the nose wheel only. The illumination of the green landing gear light indicates that the landing gear is :
a) locked-down.
b) in the required position.
21.1.5.0 (529)
c) locked-down and its door is locked.
The operating principle of an anti skid system is as follows : the brake pressure will
d) not in the required position.
be :

45
21.1.5.0 (536) c) prevent the extension of the landing gear oleo strut rod.
A tubeless tyre has :1- a built-in-air tube.2- no built-in-air tube.3- a crossed side d) maintain the compass heading throughout taxiing and take-off.
casing.4- a radial side casing.The combination of correct statements is:
a) 2, 4.
21.1.5.0 (542)
b) 1, 4.
A main landing gear is said to be ""locked down"" when:
c) 2, 3.
a) the strut is locked by an overcentre mechanism.
d) 1,3.
b) it is in the down position.
c) the actuating cylinder is at the end of it's travel.
21.1.5.0 (537) d) the corresponding indicator lamp is amber.
In a hydraulic braking system, the accumulator is:
a) an accumulator designed to restore brake energy in the event of a hydraulic
21.1.5.0 (543)
failure.
The modern anti-skid processes are based on the use of a computer whose input
b) a damping type accumulator designed to take up the pressure fluctuations of the automatic
data is:1. idle wheel speed (measured)2. braked wheel speed (measured)3. brake
braking system.
temperature (measured)4. desired idle wheel train slipping rate5. tire pressureThe
c) designed to take up the hydraulic energy filtered by the anti-skid system in order to prevent
combination regrouping all the correct statements is :
wheel blocking.
a) 1, 2, 4.
d) a buffer accumulator whose function is to assist the hydraulic system during high intensity
b) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.
braking.
c) 2, 4.
d) 1, 3.
21.1.5.0 (538)
Which is (are) the damping element(s) in a landing gear shock absorber used on
21.1.5.0 (544)
larger aircraft ?
On large aeroplanes equipped with power brakes, the main source of power is
a) Nitrogen and a viscous liquid.
derived from :
b) Nitrogen.
a) the aeroplane's hydraulic system.
c) Oxygen.
b) the master cylinders.
d) Springs.
c) pressure to the rudder pedals.
d) the brake actuators.
21.1.5.0 (539)
In some aircraft, there is a protection device to avoid the landing gear being
21.1.5.0 (545)
inadvertently retracted on the ground. It consists of :
""Nose wheel shimmy"" may be described as :
a) A latch located in the landing gear lever.
a) a possibly damaging vibration of the nose wheel when moving on the ground.
b) An aural warning horn.
b) the oscillatory movement of the nose wheel when extended prior to landing.
c) A warning light which is activated by the WOW (Weight On Wheels) sensor system.
c) the amount of free movement of the nose wheel before steering takes effect.
d) A bolt.
d) aircraft vibration caused by the nose wheel upon extension of the gear.

21.1.5.0 (540)
21.1.5.0 (546)
A tubeless tyre is a tyre:1. which requires solid or branched wheels2. whose valve
The part of the flight that will cause the highest loads on the torsion link in a bogie
can be sheared in sudden accelerations3. whose mounting rim must be flawless4.
gear is
which requires no rim protection between rim flange and tire removing device5.
a) Taxiing with a small turning radius.
which does not burst in the event of a tire puncture6. which eliminates internal
b) Touch down with crosswind
friction between the tube and the tireThe combination regrouping all the correct
c) Gear down selection
statements is :
d) Braking with an inoperative anti skid system.
a) 1, 5, 6.
b) 3, 4, 5.
c) 1, 2, 5. 21.1.5.0 (547)
d) 2, 3, 6. Tyre ""creep"" may be described as the :
a) circumferential movement of the tyre in relation to the wheel flange.
b) the increase in inflation pressure due to drease in ambient temperature.
21.1.5.0 (541)
c) the decrease in inflation pressure due to increase in ambient temperature.
Landing gear torque links are used to:
d) gradual circumferential increase of tyre wear.
a) prevent rotation of the landing gear piston in the oleo strut.
b) take up the lateral stresses to which the gear is subjected.

46
21.1.5.0 (548) example to prolonged braking during an aborted take-off, there is:
The ABS (Auto Brake System) is being diconnected after landing .. a) a hollow bolt screwed into the wheel which melts at a given temperature
a) by pilot action (thermal fuse) and deflates the tyre.
b) automatically b) a pressure relief valve situated in the filler valve.
c) at a certain low speed c) the ""Emergency Burst"" function of the anti-skid system which adapts braking to the tyre
d) the system is always armed temperature.
d) water injection triggered at a fixed temperature in order to lower tyre temperature.
21.1.5.0 (549)
The purposes of the oil and the nitrogen in an oleo-pneumatic strut are : 21.1.5.0 (555)
a) the oil supplies the damping function and the nitrogen supplies the spring On an aircraft landing gear, an under-inflated tyre:
function a) will wear at the shoulders
b) the oil supplies the spring function and the nitrogen supplies the damping function. b) it's tread will deteriorate faster
c) the oil supplies the sealing and lubrication function, the nitrogen supplies the damping c) will have an increased critical hydroplanning speed
function. d) will be more subject to viscosity aquaplaning on dry runway
d) the oil supplies the damping and lubrication function, the nitrogen supplies the heat-
dissipation function.
21.1.6.1 (556)
The trim tab :
21.1.5.0 (550) a) reduces hinge moment and control surface efficiency.
The function of a fusible plug is to b) reduces hinge moment and increases control surface efficiency.
a) protect the tyre against explosion due to excessive temperature. c) increases hinge moment and control surface efficiency.
b) protect the brake against brake disk fusion due to excessive temperature. d) increases hinge moment and reduces control surface efficiency.
c) function as a special circuit breaker in the electric system
d) protect against excessive pressure in the pneumatic system.
21.1.6.1 (557)
The purpose of a trim tab (device) is to:
21.1.5.0 (551) a) reduce or to cancel control forces.
(For this question use appendix )Associate the correct legend to each of the b) trim the aeroplane during normal flight.
numbered diagrams : c) trim the aeroplane at low airspeed.
a) 1- cantilever 2- fork 3- half fork 4- dual wheels d) lower manoeuvring control forces.
b) 1- half fork 2- fork 3- cantilever 4- tandem
c) 1- cantilever 2- dual wheels 3- half fork 4- fork
21.1.6.1 (558)
d) 1- half-fork 2- single trace 3- cantilever 4- dual wheels
An artificial feel unit is necessary in the pitch channel when:
a) the elevators are actuated by irreversible servo-control units.
21.1.5.0 (552) b) the elevators are fitted with servo-tabs or trim tabs.
A scissor is a component found on landing gears. Its function is to : c) there is a trimmable stabilizer.
a) prevent any rotation of the oleo strut in the undercarriage shock absorber. d) the elevators are actuated by reversible servo-control units.
b) create the wheel pitch on bogie gears.
c) transform the translational movement of the rudder pedals into the rotational movement of
21.1.6.1 (559)
the nosewheel.
An artificial feel unit system:
d) make the body gears pivot when the nosewheel is turned through more than 20°.
a) must be mounted in parallel on an irreversible servo-control unit.
b) must be mounted in series on an irreversible servo-control unit.
21.1.5.0 (553) c) is necessary on a reversible servodyne unit.
Compared to a tyre fitted with an inner tube, a tubeless tyre presents the following d) is mounted in parallel on a spring tab.
characteristics :1 - high heating2 - valve fragility3 - lower risk of bursting4 - better
adjustment to wheelsThe combination containing all the correct statements is:
21.1.6.1 (560)
a) 04-Mar
A Yaw Damper is :
b) 03-Fev
a) A rudder damper designed to avoid the ""Dutch roll"".
c) 04-Fev
b) An elevator augmentor.
d) 1 - 2 - 3 - 4
c) An elevator augmentor to avoid the nose-down effect at speeds greater than M=0.8.
d) A roll trim tab.
21.1.5.0 (554)
On a modern aeroplane, to avoid the risk of tyre burst from overheating, due for
47
21.1.6.1 (561) c) upper wing surface devices, their deflection is always asymmetrical.
In a steep turn to the left, when using spoilers ... d) lower wing surface devices, their deflection is always asymmetrical.
a) The right aileron will descend, the left one will ascend, the right spoiler will
retract and the left one will extend.
21.1.6.2 (567)
b) The right aileron will descend, the left one will ascend, the right spoiler will extend and the
On an airplane, the Krueger flaps are:
left one will retract.
a) leading edge flaps close to the wing root
c) The right aileron will ascend, the left one will descend, the right spoiler will extend and the
b) trailing edge flaps close to the wing root
left one will retract.
c) trailing edge flaps close to the wing tip
d) The right aileron will ascend, the left one will descend, the right spoiler will retract and the
d) leading edge flaps close to the wing tip
left one will extend.

21.1.7.1 (568)
21.1.6.2 (562)
Hydraulic fluids must have the following characteristics:1. thermal stability2. low
The advantages of fly-by-wire control are:1. reduction of the electric and hydraulic
emulsifying characteristics3. corrosion resistance4. good resistance to
power required to operate the control surfaces2. lesser sensitivity to lightning
combustion5. high compressibility6. high volatility7. high viscosityThe combination
strike3. direct and indirect weight saving through simplification of systems4.
regrouping all the correct statements is :
immunity to different interfering signals5. improvement of piloting quality
a) 1, 2, 3, 4
throughout the flight envelopeThe combination regrouping all the correct
b) 1, 2, 5, 7
statements is :
c) 2, 3, 4, 5
a) 3 and 5
d) 1, 3, 4, 6
b) 1 and 2
c) 1 and 5
d) 2 and 3 21.1.7.1 (569)
In a hydraulic braking system, an accumulator is precharged to 1200 psi.An
electrically driven hydraulic pump is started and provides a system pressure of
21.1.6.2 (563)
3000 psi. The hydraulic pressure gauge which is connected to the gas section of
Which of these signals are inputs, at least, in the stall warning computers?
the accumulator, reads:
a) Angle of attack and flaps and slats deflection.
a) 3000 psi
b) Angle of attack and flaps and spoilers deflection.
b) 1200 psi
c) Angle of attack, flaps deflection and EPR.
c) 4200 psi
d) Angle of attack, flaps deflection, EPR and N1.
d) 1800 psi

21.1.6.2 (564)
21.1.7.1 (570)
On an aircraft, the Krueger flap is a:
Hydraulic fluids :
a) leading edge flap
a) Are irritating to eyes and skin.
b) trailing edge flap
b) Cause high fire risk.
c) leading edge flap close to the wing root
c) Do not require special care.
d) leading edge flap close to the wing tip
d) Are irritating to eyes and skin and cause high fire risk.

21.1.6.2 (565)
21.1.7.1 (571)
The reason for the trim switch on a control column to consist of two separate
Hydraulic fluids used in systems of large modern airliners are:
switches is
a) Phosphate ester base fluids.
a) To reduce the probability of a trim-runaway
b) Water base fluids.
b) To prevent that both pilots perform opposite trim inputs.
c) Vegetable base fluids.
c) Because there are two trim motors.
d) Mineral base fluids.
d) To be able to use two different trim speeds, slow trim rate at high speed and high trim rate
at low speed
21.1.7.1 (572)
Hydraulic power is a function of :
21.1.6.2 (566)
a) System pressure and volume flow.
On an aeroplane, spoilers are :
b) Pump RPM only.
a) upper wing surface devices, their deflection is symmetrical or asymmetrical.
c) System pressure and tank capacity.
b) lower wing surface devices, their deflection is symmetrical or asymmetrical.
d) Pump size and volume flow.

48
21.1.7.1 (573) 21.1.7.1 (580)
Large transport aeroplane hydraulic systems usually operate with a system (For this question use annex 021-6716A)In the hydraulic press schematically
pressure of approximately: shown, what balancing Force would be acting on the right hand side ? (The
a) 3000 psi diagram is not to scale)
b) 4000 psi a) 100 N.
c) 2000 psi b) 1000 N.
d) 1000 psi c) 20 N.
d) 1 N.
21.1.7.1 (574)
In hydraulic systems of large modern transport category aircraft the fluids used 21.1.7.1 (581)
are: Internal leakage in a hydraulic system will cause :
a) Synthetic oil. a) an increased fluid temperature.
b) Mineral oil. b) fluid loss.
c) Vegetable oil. c) a decreased fluid temperature.
d) Water and glycol. d) an increased fluid pressure.

21.1.7.1 (575) 21.1.7.1 (582)


The type of hydraulic oil used in modern hydraulic systems is: Discounting the possibility of leak, the level in a hydraulic reservoir will :
a) synthetic oil a) fluctuate with jack displacement and accumulator pressure.
b) vegetable oil b) always remain the same.
c) mixture of mineral oil and alcohol c) initially increase with system pressurisation.
d) mineral oil d) increase as ambient temperature decreases.

21.1.7.1 (576) 21.1.7.1 (583)


The type of hydraulic fluid which has the highest resistance against cavitation is : Assuming a hydraulic accumulator is pre-charged with air to 1000 psi. If the
a) Synthetic fluid. hydraulic system is then pressurised to its operating pressure of 3000 psi, the
b) Mineral oil based fluid. indicated pressure on the air side of the accumulator should be :
c) Vegetable oil based fluid (caster oil). a) 3000 psi.
d) Water and glycol based fluid. b) 2000 psi.
c) 1000 psi.
d) 4000 psi.
21.1.7.1 (577)
The component that transforms the hydraulic pressure into a linear motion is
called ... 21.1.7.1 (584)
a) An actuator or jack. For an aeroplane hydraulic supply circuit, the correct statement is :
b) A hydraulic pump. a) the security components comprise the filters, the pressure relief valves, the by-
c) An accumulator. passes, and the fire shut-off valve.
d) A Pressure regulator. b) the pumps are always electric due to the high pressures which they must deliver (140 to
210 kg/cm²).
c) the regulation system deals only with emergency operation and is not applied to all
21.1.7.1 (578)
hydraulic services but only those considered as essential.
The aircraft hydraulic system is designed to produce:
d) the reservoir constitutes a reserve of hydraulic fluid maintained under pressure by a
a) high pressure and large flow.
pneumatic back pressure (air or nitrogen) and destined to serve as a fluid or pressure reserve.
b) high pressure and small flow.
c) small pressure and large flow.
d) small pressure and small flow. 21.1.7.2 (585)
Where in a hydraulic system might overheat indicators be installed?
a) At the pumps.
21.1.7.1 (579)
b) In the reservoirs.
Hydraulic fluids of synthetic origin are:
c) At actuators.
a) purple.
d) At the coolers.
b) pink.
c) blue.
d) red.
49
21.1.7.2 (586) 21.1.7.2 (593)
In a modern hydraulic system, ""hydraulic fuses"" can be found. Their function is : Assuming an accumulator is pre-charged with air to 1000 psi and the hydraulic
a) To prevent total system loss in case of a leaking hydraulic line. system is pressurised to 1500 psi, the accumulator gauge will read :
b) To switch to the secondary system in case of a leak in the primary brake system. a) 1500 psi.
c) To isolate a part of the system and protect it against accidental pollution. b) 2500 psi.
d) To allow by-passing of a hydraulic pump in case it is subject to excessive pressure, without c) 1000 psi.
further damage to the system. d) 500 psi.

21.1.7.2 (587) 21.1.7.2 (594)


In a hydraulic system, the reservoir is pressurized in order to: An accumulator in a hydraulic system will :
a) prevent pump cavitation a) store fluid under pressure.
b) seal the system b) increase pressure surges within the system.
c) keep the hydraulic fluid at optimum temperature c) reduce fluid temperature and pressure.
d) reduce fluid combustibility d) reduce fluid temperature only.

21.1.7.2 (588) 21.1.7.2 (595)


The purpose of a shuttle valve is to: (For this question use annex 021-6736A)The schematic diagram annexed illustates
a) Supply an operating unit with the most appropriate system pressure. a jack and selector valve in a typical hydraulic system. Assuming hydraulic
b) Protect a hydraulic system from overpressure. pressure throughout :
c) Relieve excess pressure in hydraulic systems. a) a condition of hydraulic lock exists and no movement of the jack will take place.
d) Prevent overloading of the hydraulic pump. b) since pressures are equal, the jack is free to move in response to external forces.
c) the jack will move to the left due to pressure acting on differential areas.
d) the jack will move to the right due to equal pressure acting on differential areas.
21.1.7.2 (589)
Shuttle valves will automatically:
a) Switch hydraulically operated units to the most appropriate pressure supply. 21.1.7.2 (596)
b) Shut down systems which are overloaded. In hydraulic system, a shuttle valve :
c) Guard systems against overpressure. a) allows two possible sources of pressure to operate one unit.
d) Reduce pump loads. b) is a self-lapping non-return valve.
c) allows two units to be operated by one pressure source.
d) regulates pump delivery pressure.
21.1.7.2 (590)
In addition to energy storage the accumulator of the hydraulic system is used :
a) for damping pressure surges in the system. 21.1.7.2 (597)
b) for fluid storage. To allow for failure of the normal method of system pressure limiting control, a
c) for pressure storage. hydraulic system often incorporates
d) as a pressure relief valve. a) a high pressure relief valve.
b) a stand-by hydraulic pump.
c) an accumulator.
21.1.7.2 (591)
d) auxiliary hydraulic motors.
The hydraulic device similar to an electronic diode is a :
a) check valve.
b) flow control valve. 21.1.7.2 (598)
c) distribution valve. The hydraulic oil, entering the hydraulic pump, is slightly pressurised to :
d) shutoff valve. a) prevent cavitation in the pump
b) ensure sufficient pump output
c) prevent overheating of the pump.
21.1.7.2 (592)
d) prevent vapour locking.
The function of the selector valve is to:
a) communicate system pressure to either side of an actuator.
b) select the system to which the hydraulic pump should supply pressure. 21.1.7.2 (599)
c) automatically activate the hydraulic system. The Ram Air Turbine (RAT) provides emergency hydraulic power for :
d) discharge some hydraulic fluid if the system pressure is too high. a) flight controls in the event of loss of engine driven hydraulic power.
b) nose wheel steering after the aeroplane has landed.

50
c) undercarriage selection and automatic brake system. c) FL 280
d) flap extension only. d) FL 180

21.1.7.2 (600) 21.1.8.3 (606)


The tanks of a hydraulic system are pressurized: The purpose of cabin air flow control valves in a pressurization system is to :
a) by bleed air coming from the turbine-engine. a) Maintain a constant and sufficient mass air flow to ventilate the cabin and
b) in flight only. minimise cabin pressure surges.
c) by the air conditioning system. b) regulate cabin pressure to the selected altitude.
d) by an auxiliary system. c) discharge cabin air to atmosphere if cabin pressure rises above the selected altitude.
d) regulate cabin pressure at the maximum cabin pressure differential.
21.1.7.2 (601)
The low pressure switch of a hydraulic circuit sets off an alarm if : 21.1.8.3 (607)
a) the pump output pressure is insufficient. Assuming cabin differential pressure has attained the required value in normal
b) the reservoir level is at the normal operation limit. flight conditions, if flight altitude is maintained:
c) there is a leak in the reservoir return line. a) a constant mass air flow is permitted through the cabin.
d) the pump power accumulator is deflated. b) the outflow valves will move to the fully open position.
c) the pressurisation system ceases to function until leakage reduces the pressure.
d) the outflow valves will move to the fully closed position.
21.1.8.3 (602)
If the cabin altitude rises (aircraft in level flight), the differential pressure:
a) decreases 21.1.8.3 (608)
b) increases Cabin pressure is controlled by :
c) remains constant a) delivering a substantially constant flow of air into the cabin and controlling the
d) may exceed the maximum permitted differential unless immediate preventative action is outflow.
taken. b) controlling the flow of air into the cabin with a constant outflow.
c) the cabin air re-circulation system.
d) the cabin air mass flow control inlet valve(s).
21.1.8.3 (603)
The purpose of the cabin pressure controller, in the automatic mode, is to perform
the following functions:1. control of cabin altitude,2. control of cabin altitude rate- 21.1.8.3 (609)
of-change,3. limitation of differential pressure4. balancing aircraft altitude with During level flight at a constant cabin pressure altitude (which could be decreased,
cabin altitude5. cabin ventilation6. keeping a constant differential pressure even at this flight level), the cabin outflow valves are:
throughout all the flight phases.The combination regrouping all the correct a) Partially open.
statements is : b) fully closed until the cabin climbs to a selected altitude.
a) 1, 2, 3 c) At the pre-set position for take-off.
b) 2, 6, 4 d) Fully closed until the cabin descends to a selected altitude.
c) 5, 6, 1
d) 4, 5, 3
21.1.8.3 (610)
The purpose of a ditching control is to:
21.1.8.3 (604) a) close the outflow valve(s).
During a normal pressurised climb after take-off: b) achieve rapid depressurisation.
a) cabin pressure decreases more slowly than atmospheric pressure c) open the outflow valve(s).
b) the pressurisation system is inoperative until an altitude of 10 000 feet is reached d) direct pressurisation air to the flotation bags.
c) the cabin differential pressure is maintained constant
d) absolute cabin pressure increases to compensate for the fall in pressure outside the aircraft
21.1.8.3 (611)
The cabin pressure is regulated by the:
21.1.8.3 (605) a) Outflow valve.
(For this question use annex 021-786A)In a pressurized aircraft whose cabin b) Air cycle machine.
altitude is 8000 ft, a crack in a cabin window makes it necessary to reduce the c) Air conditioning pack.
differential pressure to 5 psi.The flight level to be maintained in order to keep the d) Cabin inlet airflow valve.
same cabin altitude is:
a) FL 230
b) FL 340
51
21.1.8.3 (612) 21.1.8.3 (619)
The pressurization of the cabin is controlled by : If the maximum operating altitude of an airplane is limited by the pressurized
a) The cabin outflow valve. cabin, this limitation is due to the maximum:
b) The cabin inlet airflow. a) Positive cabin differential pressure at maximum cabin altitude.
c) The engine's RPM. b) Negative differential pressure at maximum cabin altitude.
d) The engine's bleed valves. c) Positive cabin differential pressure at maximum operating ceiling.
d) Negative cabin differential pressure at maximum operating ceiling.
21.1.8.3 (613)
Cabin differential pressure means the pressure difference between: 21.1.8.3 (620)
a) cabin pressure and ambient air pressure. The ""cabin differential pressure"" is:
b) cockpit and passenger cabin. a) cabin pressure minus ambient pressure.
c) cabin pressure and ambient air pressure at MSL. b) approximately 5 psi at maximum.
d) actual cabin pressure and selected pressure. c) approximately 15 psi at maximum.
d) the pressure differential between the air entering and leaving the cabin.
21.1.8.3 (614)
Under normal conditions (JAR 25) the cabin pressure altitude is not allowed to 21.1.8.3 (621)
exceed: The cabin rate of descent is:
a) 8000 ft a) a cabin pressure increase.
b) 4000 ft b) always the same as the airplane's rate of descent.
c) 6000 ft c) a cabin pressure decrease.
d) 10000 ft d) is not possible at constant airplane altitudes.

21.1.8.3 (615) 21.1.8.3 (622)


Cabin altitude means the: The maximum differential pressure of a transonic transport category airplane is
a) cabin pressure expressed as altitude. approximately:
b) difference in height between the cabin floor and ceiling. a) 9.0 psi
c) flight level the aircraft is flying at. b) 3.5 psi
d) flight level altitude at maximum differential pressure. c) 13.5 psi
d) 15.5 psi
21.1.8.3 (616)
A warning device alerts the crew in case of an excessive cabin altitude. This 21.1.8.3 (623)
warning must be triggered on reaching the following altitude: An aircraft with a pressurized cabin is settled at its cruise level.During the flight, a
a) 10000 ft (approx. 3000 m) malfunction of the pressure controller is detected by the crew and the cabin rate of
b) 14000 ft (approx. 4200 m) climb indicator reads -200ft/min.Given that :DELTA P: Differential pressureZc:
c) 8000 ft (approx. 2400 m) Cabin altitude
d) 12000 ft (approx. 3600 m) a) DELTA P will rise up to its maximum value, thus causing the safety relief valves
to open.
b) A descent must be initiated to prevent the oxygen masks dropping when Zc reaches
21.1.8.3 (617)
14000ft.
On a modern large pressurized transport aircraft, the maximum cabin differential
c) The aircraft has to climb to a higher flight level in order to reduce Zc to its initial value.
pressure is approximately:
d) The crew has to intermittently cut off the incoming air flow in order to maintain a zero Zc.
a) 7 - 9 psi
b) 3 - 5 psi
c) 13 - 15 psi 21.1.8.3 (624)
d) 22 psi An aircraft with a pressurized cabin flies at level 310.Following a malfunction of
the pressure controller, the outflow valve runs to the open position. Given :VZc:
Cabin rate of climb indicationZc: Cabin pressure altitudeDELTA P: Differential
21.1.8.3 (618)
pressureThis will result in a:
On most modern airliners the cabin pressure is controlled by regulating the:
a) VZc increaseZc increaseDELTA P decrease
a) Airflow leaving the cabin.
b) VZc decreaseZc increaseDELTA P decrease
b) Airflow entering the cabin.
c) VZc increaseZc increaseDELTA P increase
c) RPM of the engine.
d) VZc decreaseZc decreaseDELTA P increase
d) Bleed air valve.
52
21.1.8.3 (625) b) mass air flow into the cabin.
In a manually operated system, the cabin altitude rate of change is normally c) position of the inward relief valve.
controlled by : d) position of the duct relief valve(s).
a) a rate of change selector.
b) the difference between the altitude selected on the cabin pressure controller and the
21.1.8.3 (632)
aeroplane altitude.
If the pressure in the cabin tends to become lower than the outside ambient air
c) the difference between the barometric pressure selected on the cabin pressure controller
pressure the :
and ambient barometric pressure.
a) negative pressure relief valve will open.
d) the duct relief valve when operating at the maximum cabin differential pressure.
b) negative pressure relief valve will close
c) outflow valve open completely.
21.1.8.3 (626) d) air cycle machine will stop.
The term ""pressure cabin"" applies when an aeroplane :
a) has the means to maintain cabin pressure higher than ambient pressure.
21.1.8.4 (633)
b) is only pressurised in the area of the control cabin.
The pneumatic ice protection system is mainly used for:
c) has the ability to maintain a constant cabin differential pressure at all flight altitudes.
a) wings.
d) has the ability to maintain a constant cabin altitude at all flight altitudes.
b) pitot tubes.
c) propellers.
21.1.8.3 (627) d) engine intakes.
Under normal flight conditions, cabin pressure is controlled by :
a) regulating the discharge of air through the outflow valve(s).
21.1.8.4 (634)
b) pressurisation duct relief valve(s).
With regard to the pneumatic mechanical devices which afford protection against
c) engine rpm.
the formation of ice, the only correct statement is:
d) inward relief valve(s).
a) The pneumatic mechanical device can only be used as a de-icing device.
b) The pneumatic mechanical device is used a lot on modern aircraft as it is inexpensive and
21.1.8.3 (628) easy to maintain.
Assuming cabin differential pressure has attained the required value in normal c) The pneumatic mechanical device can only be used as an anti-icing device.
flight conditions, if flight altitude is maintained : d) The inflatable de-ice boots of the pneumatic mechanical device are arranged perpendicular
a) a constant mass air flow is permitted through the cabin. to the leading edges.
b) the pressurisation system ceases to function until leakage reduces the pressure.
c) the outflow valves will move to the fully open position.
21.1.8.4 (635)
d) the pressurisation system must be controlled manually.
A pneumatic de-ice system should be operated ..
a) When there is approximately 1,5 cm of ice on leading edges.
21.1.8.3 (629) b) When entering areas with icing conditions.
Assuming cabin pressure decreases, the cabin rate of climb indicator should c) When there are approximately 5 cm of ice on leading edges
indicate : d) Only at take-off and during approach.
a) a rate of climb.
b) a rate of descent of approximately 300 feet per minutes.
21.1.8.4 (636)
c) zero.
Concerning the sequential pneumatic impulses used in certain leading edge de-
d) a rate of descent dependent upon the cabin differential pressure.
icing devices, one can affirm that :1 - They prevent ice formation.2 - They are
triggered from the flight deck after icing has become visible.3 - A cycle lasts more
21.1.8.3 (630) than ten seconds.4 - There are more than ten cycles per second.The combination
Assume that during cruise flight with airconditioning packs ON, the outflow which regroups all the correct statements is :
valve(s) would close. The result would be that: a) 03-Fev
a) the pressure differential would go to the maximum value b) 04-Fev
b) the cabin pressure would become equal to the ambient outside air pressure c) 03-Jan
c) the air supply would automatically be stopped d) 04-Jan
d) the skin of the cabin would be overstressed
21.1.9.1 (637)
21.1.8.3 (631) The pneumatic system accumulator is useful :
A cabin pressure controller maintains a pre-set cabin altitude by regulating the : a) to eliminate the fluid pressure variations.
a) position of the outflow valve(s). b) to eliminate the fluid flow variations.
53
c) to offset for the starting of some devices. 21.1.9.2 (644)
d) in emergency cases. The term ""cabin pressure"" applies when an aeroplane:
a) has the means to maintain the cabin pressure at a higher level than the ambient
pressure.
21.1.9.1 (638)
b) is only pressurized in the area of the control cabin.
In the pneumatic supply system of a modern transport aircraft, the air pressure is
c) has the ability to maintain constant any cabin differential pressure.
regulated. This pressure regulation occurs just before the manifold by the :
d) has the ability to maintain a constant cabin altitude at all flight altitudes.
a) low pressure bleed air valve
b) high pressure bleed air valve
c) fan bleed air valve 21.1.9.2 (645)
d) intermediate pressure check-valve When air is compressed for pressurization purposes, the percentage oxygen
content is:
a) unaffected.
21.1.9.2 (639)
b) decreased.
In the air cycle system the air is cooled down by expansion:
c) increased.
a) in the turbine.
d) dependent on the degree of pressurisation.
b) in a pressure relief valve.
c) of Freon in a heat exchanger.
d) of Freon in the turbine. 21.1.9.2 (646)
The term ""bootstrap"", when used to identify a cabin air conditioning and
pressurisation system, refers to the:
21.1.9.2 (640)
a) cold air unit (air cycle machine) arrangement.
Main cabin temperature is:
b) source of the charge air.
a) controlled automatically, or by flight crew selection.
c) means by which pressurisation is controlled.
b) controlled by individual passenger.
d) charge air across the inter-cooler heat exchanger.
c) not controllable at the maximum cabin differential pressure.
d) Only controllable at maximum cabin differential pressure.
21.1.9.2 (647)
In a bootstrap cooling system the supply air is first:
21.1.9.2 (641)
a) compressed, then goes through a heat exchanger, and across an expansion
Environmental system: in the air refrigeration unit, the water separation unit is
turbine.
placed:
b) passed across an expansion turbine, then compressed and passed through a heat
a) after the cooling turbine.
exchanger.
b) before the heat exchangers.
c) passed across an expansion turbine, then directly to the heat exchanger.
c) before the cooling turbine.
d) compressed, then passed across an expansion turbine through a heat exchanger.
d) just after the heat exchangers.

21.1.9.2 (648)
21.1.9.2 (642)
In a cabin air conditioning system, equipped with a bootstrap, the mass air flow is
The air-conditioning pack of a present-day aircraft consists of several components:
routed via the:
these include two heat exchangers, the primary exchanger (P) and the secondary
a) secondary heat exchanger outlet to the turbine inlet of the cold air unit.
exchanger (S).The functions of these heat exchangers are as follows:
b) secondary heat exchanger outlet to the compressor inlet of the cold air unit.
a) P: precools the engine bleed airS: reduces the temperature of the air from the
c) turbine outlet of the cold air unit to the primary heat exchanger inlet.
primary exchanger or from the pack's compressor.
d) compressor outlet of the cold air unit to the primary heat exchanger inlet.
b) P: warms up engine bleed airS: recirculates the cabin air, reducing its temperature.
c) P: warms up engine bleed airS: increases the temperature of air originating from the
compressor of the pack. 21.1.9.2 (649)
d) P: pre-cools the engine bleed airS: increases the temperature of the air used for air- Engine bleed air used for air conditioning and pressurization in turbo-jet
conditioning of cargo compartment (animals). aeroplanes is usually taken from the:
a) compressor section.
b) fan section.
21.1.9.2 (643)
c) turbine section.
""Conditioned"" air is air that has:
d) by-pass ducting.
a) been controled in respect of temperature and pressure.
b) oxygen content regulated to a preset value.
c) oxygen content increased. 21.1.9.2 (650)
d) oxygen content reduced. What is the purpose of the pack cooling fans in the air conditioning system?
54
a) Supplying the heat exchangers with cooling air during slow flights and ground 21.1.9.2 (657)
operation. In a ""bootstrap"" cooling system, the charge air is first compressed in the cold air
b) Supplying the heat exchangers with cooling air during cruise flight. unit to:
c) Supplying the Passenger Service Unit (PSU) with fresh air. a) ensure an adequate pressure and temperature drop across the cooling turbine.
d) Cooling of the APU compartment. b) increase the cabin air supply pressure when the charge pressure is too low.
c) ensure an adequate charge air flow across the inter-cooler heat exchanger.
d) maintain a constant cabin mass air flow.
21.1.9.2 (651)
The cabin air for modern airplanes is usually supplied by:
a) main engine compressors. 21.1.9.2 (658)
b) piston compressors. A turbo-fan cold air unit will:
c) roots type compressors. a) cause a pressure drop as well as an associated temperature drop in the charge
d) single radial compressors. air.
b) not affect the charge air pressure.
c) increase charge air pressure whilst causing hte temperature to drop in the heat exchanger.
21.1.9.2 (652)
d) decrease charge air pressure whilst causing hte temperature to rise in the heat exchanger.
Cabin air for modern aircraft is usually taken from:
a) the low pressure compressor and from the high pressure compressor if
necessary. 21.1.9.2 (659)
b) the second fan stage. The cabin heating supply in a heavy jet transport aircraft is obtained from :
c) the low pressure compressor. a) hot air coming from the engine's compressors.
d) the high pressure compressor. b) hot air coming from the engine's turbines.
c) a fuel heater system.
d) an electrical heater system.
21.1.9.2 (653)
In an aircraft air conditioning system the air cannot be treated for:
a) humidity. 21.1.9.2 (660)
b) purity. The pack cooling fan provides:
c) pressure. a) cooling air to the primary and secondary heat exchanger during slow flight and
d) temperature. ground operation.
b) cooling air to the pre-cooler.
c) air to the eyeball outlets at the Passenger Service Unit (PSU).
21.1.9.2 (654)
d) cooling air to the primary and secondary heat exchanger during cruise.
In a bootstrap system, the purpose of the heat exchangers is to:
a) cool bleed air and compressor air from the turbo refrigerator.
b) allow a homogeneous temperature by mixing air flows from various air conditioning groups 21.1.9.2 (661)
in operation. The water separator of an air-conditioning unit is located at the cooling unit :
c) cool bleed air. a) outlet and uses a centrifugal process.
d) allow a steady compressor outlet temperature. b) inlet and uses a centrifugal process.
c) outlet and uses an evaporation process.
d) inlet and uses an evaporation process.
21.1.9.2 (655)
The turbine in a cold air unit (air cycle machine):
a) drives the compressor in the unit, creating a temperature drop in the 21.1.9.2 (662)
conditioning air. The term ""Bootstrap"", when used to identify a cabin air conditioning and
b) drives the compressor which provides pressurisation. pressurisation system, refers to the :
c) increases the pressure of the air supply to the cabin. a) cold air unit (air cycle machine) arrangement.
d) drives the compressor in the unit and causes a pressure increase in the conditioning air. b) source of the charge air.
c) means by which pressurisation is controlled.
d) charge air across the inter-cooler heat exchanger.
21.1.9.2 (656)
In large modern aircraft, in the air conditioning system, reduction of air
temperature and pressure is achieved by: 21.1.9.2 (663)
a) an expansion turbine. In a bootstrap cooling system the supply air is first :
b) a compressor. a) compressed, passed through a secondary heat exchanger, and then across an
c) a condenser. expansion turbine.
d) an evaporator. b) passed across an expansion turbine, then compressed and passed through a secondary
55
heat exchanger. b) Pneumatic system with expandable boots.
c) passed across an expansion turbine, then directly to the heat exchanger. c) Liquid de-icing system.
d) used to increase the cabin air supply pressure when the charge pressure is too low. d) Electrical de-icing system.

21.1.9.2 (664) 21.1.9.3 (670)


The function of an air cycle machine is to : During flight, the wing anti-ice system has to protect
a) cool the bleed air. a) leading edges, slats and the leading edge flaps.
b) decrease the pressure of the bleed air. b) the whole upper wing surface and the flaps.
c) remove the water from the bleed air. c) slats and the leading edge flaps only.
d) pump the conditioned air into the cabin. d) leading edges only.

21.1.9.2 (665) 21.1.9.3 (671)


""Conditioned"" air is air that has : In jet aeroplanes the 'thermal anti-ice system' is primary supplied by
a) been controlled in respect of temperature and pressure. a) bleed air from the engines.
b) had any moisture removed from it. b) turbo compressors.
c) had the oxygen content increased. c) ram air, heated via a heat exchanger.
d) had the oxygen content reduced. d) the APU.

21.1.9.3 (666) 21.1.9.3 (672)


In flight, the most commonly used anti-icing method for the wings of modern The anti-ice or de-icing system which is mostly used for the wings of modern
commercial aircraft fitted with turbo-jet units is: turboprop aeroplanes is :
a) Thermal (use of hot air). a) Pneumatic boots.
b) Physical/chemical (glycol-based liquid). b) Electrical heating.
c) Electrical (electrical resistances). c) Thermal anti-icing.
d) Mechanical (pneumatic source which acts by deforming the profiles of the leading edge). d) Fluid de-icing.

21.1.9.3 (667) 21.1.9.3 (673)


Concerning electrically powered ice protection devices, the only true statement is: The ice protection for propellers of modern turboprop aeroplanes works
a) on modern aeroplanes, electrically powered thermal devices are used to prevent a) electrically.
icing on small surfaces (pitot-static, windshield...). b) pneumatically.
b) on modern aeroplanes, electrical power supply being available in excess, this system is very c) with hot air.
often used for large surfaces de-icing. d) with anti-icing fluid.
c) on modern aeroplanes, electrically powered thermal devices are very efficient, therefore
they only need little energy.
21.1.9.3 (674)
d) on modern aeroplanes, electrically powered thermal devices are used as de-icing devices
The advantages of thermal anti-icing are :1. Simple and reliable system2. Profiles
for pitot-tubes, static ports, windshield...
maintained3. Greater efficiency than that of an electrical resistor4. Direct use of
the hot air from the jet engine without substantial reduction in engine thrustThe
21.1.9.3 (668) combination of correct statements is:
The elements specifically protected against icing on transport aircraft are:1) a) 1,2
engine air intake and pod.2) front glass shield.3) radome.4) pitot tubes and waste b) 3,4
water exhaust masts.5) leading edge of wing.6) cabin windows.7) trailing edge of c) 1,3
wings.8) electronic equipment compartment.The combination regrouping all the d) 2,4
correct statements is :
a) 1, 2, 4, 5
21.1.10.1 (675)
b) 1, 4, 5, 7
On modern transport aircraft, cockpit windows are protected against icing by :
c) 1, 2, 5, 6
a) Electric heating.
d) 1, 2, 3, 8
b) Vinyl coating.
c) Anti-icing fluid.
21.1.9.3 (669) d) Rain repellent system.
The ice protection system currently used for the most modern jet aeroplanes is the
a) Hot air system.
56
21.1.10.1 (676) c) close the vent lines in case of turbulence.
Usually, electric heating for ice protection is used on: d) prevent positive pressure build up inside the tank.
a) Pitot tubes.
b) Elevator leading edges.
21.1.11.1 (683)
c) Slat leading edges.
The pressurization of tanks is maintained by the fuel:
d) Fin leading edges.
a) vent system.
b) tank drains.
21.1.10.1 (677) c) top off unit.
The heating facility for the windshield of an aircraft is: d) dump system.
a) Used on a continual basis as it reduces the thermal gradients which adversely
affect the useful life of the components.
21.1.11.1 (684)
b) Harmful to the integrity of the windows in the event of a bird strike.
The automatic fuelling shut off valve:
c) Only used when hot-air demisting is insufficient.
a) stops fuelling as soon as a certain fuel level is reached inside the tank.
d) Used only at low altitudes where there is a risk of ice formation.
b) cuts off the fuel in case of engine fire.
c) stops fuelling as soon as the fuel spills into the ventline.
21.1.10.1 (678) d) stops fuelling as soon as a certain pressure is reached.
The correct statement about rain protection for cockpit windshields is that :
a) rain repellent should never be sprayed onto the windshield unless the rainfall is
21.1.11.1 (685)
very heavy
Fire precautions to be observed before refuelling are :
b) wipers are sufficient under heavy rain conditions to provide adequate view through the
a) All bonding and earthing connections between ground equipment and the
cockpit windows.
aircraft should be made before filler caps are removed.
c) the electric de-icing system for cockpit windows is also suitable for rain protection
b) Ground Power Units (GPU) are not to be operated.
d) the alcohol de-icing system for cockpit windows is also suitable for rain protection
c) Passengers may be boarded (traversing the refuelling zone) providing suitable fire
extinguishers are readily available.
21.1.11.1 (679) d) Aircraft must be more than 10 metres from radar or HF radio equipment under test.
The purpose of the baffles in an aircraft's integral fuel tank is to:
a) Restrict the fuel from flowing to the wing tips during abnormal manoeuvre (side
21.1.11.1 (686)
slipping...).
The function of a feed box in the fuel tank is to
b) Prevent overpressure in the tank.
a) increase the fuel level at the boost pump location
c) Prevent the fuel from flowing in the vent lines.
b) trap fuel sediments or sludge in the lower part of the tank
d) Prevent mixture of the fuel and hydraulic fluid.
c) distribute the fuel to the various tanks during refuelling
d) ventilate the tank during refuelling under high pressure
21.1.11.1 (680)
On a transport type aircraft the fuel tank system is vented through:
21.1.11.2 (687)
a) Ram air scoops on the underside of the wing.
On most transport aircraft, the low pressure pumps of the fuel system are:
b) A pressure regulator in the wing tip.
a) centrifugal pumps, driven by an electric motor.
c) Bleed air from the engines.
b) electro-mechanical wobble pumps, with self-regulated pressure.
d) The return lines of the fuel pumps.
c) mechanically driven by the engine's accessory gearbox.
d) removable only after the associated tank has been emptied.
21.1.11.1 (681)
The types of fuel tanks used on most modern transport aircraft are:
21.1.11.2 (688)
a) Integral tanks.
The fuel supply system on a jet engine includes a fuel heating device, upstream of
b) Cell tanks.
the main fuel filter so as to:
c) Combined fuel tanks.
a) prevent, at low fuel temperature, the risk of ice formation from water contained
d) Fixed built-in tanks.
in the fuel.
b) maintain and improve fuel heating power.
21.1.11.1 (682) c) ease low pressure pumps work by increasing fuel fluidity.
The purpose of baffle check valves fitted in aircraft fuel tanks is to : d) prevent fuel from freezing in fuel pipes due to low temperatures at high altitude.
a) prevent fuel movement to the wing tip.
b) damp out movement of the fuel in the tank.

57
21.1.11.2 (689) 21.1.11.2 (696)
On most transport jet aircraft, the low pressure pumps of the fuel system are The refueling in a transport jet aircraft is made ...
supplied with electric power of the following type: a) Through a unique point (an underwing refueling center).
a) 115 V AC b) Through the refueling cap of every tank
b) 28 V AC c) By means of the aircraft suction pumps.
c) 28 V DC d) By means of the aircraft suction pumps through a unique point (an underwing refueling
d) 115 V DC center).

21.1.11.2 (690) 21.1.11.2 (697)


The fuel crossfeed system: The vapor lock is :
a) allows feeding of any engine from any fuel tank. a) A stoppage in a fuel feeding line caused by a fuel vapor bubble.
b) is only used to feed an engine from the tank of the opposite wing. b) The exhaust gases obstructions caused by an engine overheating.
c) is only used on the ground for fuel transfer from one tank to another. c) The effect of the water vapor bubbles in the induction manifold caused by the condensation
d) is only used in flight for fuel transfer from one tank to another. d) The abnormal mixture enrichment caused by a greater gasoline vaporisation in the
carburettor.
21.1.11.2 (691)
On most transport aircraft, the low pressure pumps of the fuel system are: 21.1.11.2 (698)
a) Centrifugal pumps. The fuel system boost pumps are used to :
b) Gear type pumps. a) avoid the bubbles accumulation and feed the lines with fuel for directing it to
c) Piston pumps. the engine at a positive pressure.
d) Diaphragm pumps. b) avoid the bubbles accumulation.
c) feed the lines with fuel for directing it to the engine at a positive pressure.
d) feed the fuel control units, which inject the pressurized fuel into the engine.
21.1.11.2 (692)
On a jet aircraft fuel heaters are :
a) Located on the engines. 21.1.11.2 (699)
b) Installed in each tank. The cross-feed fuel system enables:
c) Installed only in the center tank. a) the supply of any jet engine from any fuel tank.
d) not necessary at all. b) the supply of the jet engines mounted on a wing from any fuel tank within that wing.
c) the supply of the outboard jet engines from any outboard fuel tank.
d) only the transfer of fuel from the centre tank to the wing tanks.
21.1.11.2 (693)
During fuelling the automatic fuelling shut off valves will switch off the fuel supply
system when: 21.1.11.2 (700)
a) the fuel has reached a predetermined volume or mass. Fuel pumps submerged in the fuel tanks of a multi-engine aircraft are:
b) fuelling system has reached a certain pressure. a) centrifugal low pressure type pumps.
c) the surge vent tank is filled. b) low pressure variable swash plate pumps.
d) there is fire. c) centrifugal high pressure pumps.
d) high pressure variable swash plate pumps.
21.1.11.2 (694)
The cross-feed fuel system is used to : 21.1.11.3 (701)
a) feed every engine from any fuel tank. Fuel dump systems are required:
b) allow the fuel to be quickly thrown away in case of emergency a) on all transport category aircraft where the Maximum Take-Off Weight (MTOW)
c) allow the unusable fuel elimination. is significant higher than the Maximum Landing Weight (MLW).
d) automatically fill every tank up to the desired level. b) on all transport category aircraft.
c) on all transport category aircraft with more than 150 seats.
d) on aircraft with a Maximum Take-Off Weight (MTOW) higher than 5.7 tons.
21.1.11.2 (695)
The fuel system boost pumps are submerged in the fuel ..
a) To prime the pumps. 21.1.11.3 (702)
b) Because their efficiency is greater. The maximum quantity of fuel that can be dumped with the jettisoning system is:
c) To shorten the fuel lines, so minimising the pressure losses. a) All up to a defined reserve quantity.
d) To cool the pumps. b) 15 tons.

58
c) All fuel. 21.2.1.1 (709)
d) All fuel until the maximum landing weight is reached. When an ""open circuit"" occurs in an electrical supply system, the :
a) loss of continuity will prevent its working components from functioning.
b) fuse or CB should isolate the circuit due to excess current drawn.
21.1.11.4 (703)
c) component will operate normally, but will not switch off.
(For this question use annex 021-980A)The diagram shown in annex represents a
d) load as indicated by the ammeter will increase.
jet fuel system. The fuel-flow measurement is carried out :
a) after high pressure valve (item 4).
b) in the fuel control unit (item 3). 21.2.1.1 (710)
c) after high pressure pump first stage (item 2). If a current is passed through a conductor which is positioned in a magnetic field :
d) after low pressure valve (item 1). a) a force will be exerted on the conductor.
b) the current will increase.
c) there will be no effect unless the conductor is moved.
21.1.11.4 (704)
d) the intensity of the magnetic field will decrease.
The capacitance type fuel gauging system indicates the fuel quantity by measuring
the:
a) dielectric change between fuel and air. 21.2.1.1 (711)
b) density variation of the fuel. A current limiter fuse in a DC generation system is used to :
c) resistivity variation of the fuel. a) allow a short term overload before rupturing.
d) electrical resistance change. b) limit the current in the field circuit.
c) instantaneously rupture to limit the current in the load.
d) limit the current in the armature.
21.1.11.4 (705)
In a compensated capacitance type quantity indicating system, the contents gauge
of a half-full fuel tank indicates a fuel mass of 8000 lb. If a temperature rise 21.2.1.1 (712)
increased the volume of fuel by 5 %, the indicated fuel weight would : The true statement among the following in relation to the application of Ohm's law
a) remain the same. is :
b) increase by 5 %. a) Current in a circuit is directly proportional to the applied electromotive force.
c) decrease by 5 %. b) The current in a circuit is directly proportional to the resistance of the circuit.
d) increase by 10 %. c) power in the circuit is inversely proportional to the square of the current.
d) current in a circuit is inversely proportional to the electromotive force.
21.2.1.1 (706)
Fuses are rated to a value by : 21.2.1.1 (713)
a) the number of amperes they will carry. A condenser in parallel with breaker points will
b) the number of volts they will pass. a) intensify current in secondary winding
c) their wattage. b) permit arcing across points
d) their resistance measured in ohms. c) assist in negative feedback to secondary coil
d) assist in collapse of secondary winding.
21.2.1.1 (707)
The difference between (1) a fuse and (2) a circuit breaker is: 21.2.1.1 (714)
a) (1)not resettable, (2)resettable. The connection in parallel of two 12 volt/ 40 amphours batteries, will create a unit
b) (1) suitable for high currents, (2) not suitable for high currents.fuse circuit breaker with the following characteristics,
c) (1) not suitable for high currents, (2) suitable for high currents.fuse circuit breaker a) 12 volt / 80 amp hours
d) (1)not resettable, (2) not resettable. b) 12 volt / 40 amp hours
c) 24 volt / 80 amp hours
d) 24 volt / 40 amp hours
21.2.1.1 (708)
An aircraft electrical circuit which uses the aircraft structure as a return path to
earth, may be defined as a 21.2.1.1 (715)
a) single pole circuit. The resistors R1 and R2 are connected in parallel. The value of the equivalent
b) complete negative system. resistance (Req) so obtained is given by the following formula:
c) double pole circuit. a) 1/Req = 1/R1 + 1/R2
d) semi-negative system. b) Req = R1 + R2
c) Req = R1 x R2
d) 1/Req = 1/(R1 + R2)
59
21.2.1.2 (716) a) 24 volts, 40 ampere-hours.
If one of the 12 cells of a lead-acid battery is dead, the battery: b) 12 volts, 40 ampere-hours.
a) is unserviceable. c) 24 volts, 80 ampere-hours.
b) has 1/12 less voltage, but can still be used. d) 12 volts, 80 ampere-hours.
c) has 1/12 less capacity, but can still be used.
d) has 1/12 less voltage and less capacity, but can still be used.
21.2.1.2 (723)
The capacity of a battery is expressed in terms of :
21.2.1.2 (717) a) ampere-hours.
In aeronautics, the most commonly used batteries are NiCd because... b) volts.
a) they weigh less than lead-acid batteries. c) watts.
b) their output voltage is more constant than lead-acid batteries. d) internal resistance.
c) their electrolyte is neither corrosive nor dangerous.
d) they are cheaper than lead-acid batteries.
21.2.1.2 (724)
A test to assess the state of charge of a lead-acid battery would involve :
21.2.1.2 (718) a) comparing the ""on-load"" and ""off-load"" battery voltages.
On board present aircraft, the batteries used are mainly Cadmium-Nickel. Their b) checking the level of the electrolyte.
advantages are:1. low risk of thermal runaway2. high internal resistance, hence c) checking the discharge current of the battery ""on-load"".
higher power3. good charging and discharging capability at high rating4. wider d) checking the battery voltage ""off-load"".
permissible temperature range5. good storage capability6. sturdiness owing to its
metal casing7. the electrolyte density remains unchanged during charging.The
21.2.1.2 (725)
combination of correct statement is:
When a battery is almost fully discharged there is a tendency for the :
a) 3, 4, 5, 6
a) voltage to decrease under load.
b) 1, 2, 5, 6, 7
b) voltage to increase due to the current available.
c) 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
c) current produced to increase due to the reduced voltage.
d) 3, 4, 6, 7
d) electrolyte to ""boil"".

21.2.1.2 (719)
21.2.1.2 (726)
The voltage of a fully charged lead-acid battery cell is :
Immediately after starting engine(s) with no other electrical services switched on,
a) 2,2 volts.
an ammeter showing a high charge rate to the battery :
b) 1,4 volts.
a) would be normal and is only cause for concern if the high charge rate persists.
c) 1,8 volts.
b) indicates a battery failure since there should be no immediate charge.
d) 1,2 volts.
c) indicates a generator failure, thus requiring the engine to be shut down immediately.
d) indicates a faulty reverse current relay.
21.2.1.2 (720)
Batteries are rated in :
21.2.1.3 (727)
a) Amperes.hours.
A relay is :
b) Amperes/volts.
a) An electromagnetically operated switch.
c) Watts.
b) An electrical security switch.
d) Ohms.
c) A switch specially designed for AC circuits.
d) An electrical energy conversion unit.
21.2.1.2 (721)
When carrying out battery condition check using the aircraft's voltmeter :
21.2.1.3 (728)
a) a load should be applied to the battery in order to give a better indication of
A relay is :
condition.
a) a magnetically operated switch.
b) no load should be applied to the battery because it would depress the voltage.
b) another name for a solenoid valve.
c) the battery should be isolated.
c) a unit which is used to convert electrical energy to heat energy.
d) the load condition is unimportant.
d) a device which is used to increase electrical power.

21.2.1.2 (722)
21.2.1.3 (729)
Connecting two 12 volt 40 ampere-hour capacity batteries in series will result in a
When a conductor cuts the flux of a magnetic field :
total voltage and capacity respectively of :
60
a) an electromotive force (EMF) is induced in the conductor. 21.2.1.4 (736)
b) there will be no effect on the conductor. Assume a constant speed DC generator providing a constant output voltage. If the
c) the field will collapse. electrical load increases, the voltage regulator will :
d) current will flow in accordance with Flemings left hand rule. a) increase the intensity of the excitation current.
b) change the direction of the excitation current.
c) maintain the intensity of the excitation current constant.
21.2.1.3 (730)
d) decrease the intensity of the excitation current.
A circuit breaker :
a) may be reset manually after the fault has been rectified.
b) is self resetting after the fault has been rectified. 21.2.1.4 (737)
c) can only be reset after major maintenance. The essential difference between aircraft AC alternators and DC generators
d) can be reset on the ground only. (dynamos) is that the:
a) induced (output) windings of the alternators are fixed (stator), and the
dynamos have a fixed inductor (field) coil.
21.2.1.3 (731)
b) induced windings of the alternators are rotating (rotor), and the dynamos have a rotary
Circuit breakers protecting circuits may be :
inductor coil.
a) used in AC and DC circuits.
c) alternators supply all of the output current through the commutators and brush assemblies.
b) used only in AC circuits.
d) The alternators generate much less power than DC generators.
c) used only in DC circuits.
d) reset at any time.
21.2.1.4 (738)
A feeder fault on a direct current circuit results from a flux unbalance between the:
21.2.1.3 (732)
a) voltage coil and the series winding turn.
A ""trip-free"" type circuit breaker is a circuit protection device which :
b) voltage coil and the series winding.
a) will not allow the contacts to be held closed while a current fault exists in the
c) generator and the series winding turn.
circuit.
d) shunt exciter and the series winding turn.
b) is free from the normal CB tripping characteristic.
c) can be reset at any time.
d) will allow the contacts to be held closed in order to clear a fault in the circuit. 21.2.1.4 (739)
The detection of a feeder fault on a direct current circuit results in:1. automatic
disconnection of the generator from the aircraft AC busbar2. opening of generator
21.2.1.4 (733)
field current relay3. opening of the main relay of the generator breaker4. opening
In order to produce an alternating voltage of 400 Hz, the number of poles required
of balancing circuit connecting two generators5. lighting of an indicator lampThe
in an AC generator running at 6000 rpm is:
combination of correct statements is:
a) 4
a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
b) 24
b) 2, 3, 4, 5
c) 12
c) 2, 4, 5
d) 8
d) 1, 3, 5

21.2.1.4 (734)
21.2.1.4 (740)
In a generator, the Constant Speed Drive (CSD):1- may be disconnected from the
A DC generator fitted to a aircraft is cooled by :
engine shaft.2- may be disconnected from the generator.3- is a hydro-mechanical
a) air via a ram air intake.
system.4- is an electronic system.5- may not be disconnected in flight.6- may be
b) water at 8 degrees centrigade from the air-conditioning system.
disconnected in flight.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :
c) a fan located before the generator.
a) 1, 3, 6
d) air tapped from the low pressure compressor.
b) 1, 2, 5
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 4, 5 21.2.1.4 (741)
The voltage regulator of a DC generator is connected in :
a) series with the shunt field coil.
21.2.1.4 (735)
b) series with the armature.
In an alternator rotor coil you can find :
c) parallel with the shunt field coil.
a) AC.
d) parallel with the armature.
b) Three-phase AC.
c) Only induced current.
d) DC.
61
21.2.1.4 (742) c) series shunt wound.
The output of a generator is controlled by : d) compound wound.
a) varying the field strength.
b) varying the speed of the engine.
21.2.1.5 (749)
c) varying the length of wire in the armature windings.
A bus-bar is :
d) the reverse current relay circuit breaker.
a) a distribution point for electrical power.
b) a device permitting operation of two or more switches together.
21.2.1.4 (743) c) the stator of a moving coil instrument.
In order that DC generators will achieve equal load sharing when operating in d) a device which may only be used in DC circuits.
parallel, it is necessary to ensure that :
a) their voltages are almost equal.
21.2.1.5 (750)
b) the synchronising bus-bar is disconnected from the busbar system.
When two DC generators are operating in parallel, control of load sharing is
c) equal loads are connected to each generator busbar before paralleling.
achieved by :
d) adequate voltage differences exists.
a) an equalising circuit which, in conjunction with the voltage regulators, varies
the field excitation current of the generators.
21.2.1.4 (744) b) an equalising circuit which, in turn, controls the speed of the generators.
On-board electrical systems are protected against faults of the following type:1. AC c) carrying out systematic load-shedding procedures.
generator over-voltage2. AC generator under-voltage3. over-current4. over- d) the synchronous bus-bar.
speed5. under-frequency6. undue vibration of AC generatorsThe combination of
correct statements is :
21.2.1.5 (751)
a) 1,2,4,5
In a two generator system, a differential relay will ensure that :
b) 1,2,4,6
a) generator voltages are almost equal before the generators are paralleled.
c) 1,3,5,6
b) only one generator can supply the bus-bar at a time.
d) 2,3,4,5,6
c) generator voltages are not equal, dependent on load.
d) one generator comes ""on-line"" before the other.
21.2.1.4 (745)
The frequency of the current provided by an alternator depends on...
21.2.1.5 (752)
a) its rotation speed
The purpose of a battery protection unit is generally to isolate the battery:1 - from
b) the strength of the excitation current
the bus when the battery charge is deemed satisfactory2 - when there is a battery
c) its load
overheat condition3 - in case of an internal short circuit4 - in case of a fault on the
d) its phase balance
ground power unitThe combination which regroups all of the correct statements
is :
21.2.1.4 (746) a) 2001-02-03
The function of the Generator Breaker is to close when the voltage of the : b) 02-Jan
a) generator is greater than battery voltage and to open when the opposite is true c) 1 - 2 - 3 -4
b) battery is greater than the generator voltage and to open when the opposite is true d) 1
c) alternator is greater than the battery voltage and to open when the opposite is true
d) battery is greater than the alternator voltage and to open when the opposite is true
21.2.1.6 (753)
A static inverter is a:
21.2.1.5 (747) a) transistorized unit used to convert DC into AC.
The so-called ""hot buses"" or ""direct buses"" are: b) device for reversing the polarity of the static charge.
a) directly connected to the battery. c) static discharger.
b) kept in operating conditions by an electrical resistance in the case of energy failure. d) filter against radio interference.
c) automatically connected to the battery if generators have failed.
d) providing an alternative current.
21.2.1.6 (754)
The reason for using inverters in an electrical system is ..
21.2.1.5 (748) a) To change DC into AC.
The type of windings commonly used in DC starter motors are : b) To change the DC voltage.
a) series wound. c) To change AC into DC.
b) shunt wound. d) To avoid a short circuit.

62
21.2.1.6 (755) a result of static electricity.
In an aircraft equipped with a DC main power system, AC for instrument operation b) dissipate static charge from the aircraft skin after landing.
may be obtained from : c) provide a path to ground for static charges when refuelling.
a) an inverter. d) be able to fly higher because of less electrical friction.
b) a rectifier.
c) a contactor.
21.2.1.7 (761)
d) a TRU.
It may be determined that an aircraft is not properly bonded if :
a) static noises can be heard on the radio.
21.2.1.6 (756) b) a circuit breaker pops out.
A unit that converts electrical DC into AC is : c) there is interference on the VOR receiver.
a) an inverter. d) there is heavy corrosion on the fuselage skin mountings.
b) an AC generator.
c) a transformer rectifier unit.
21.2.1.7 (762)
d) a thermistor.
The primary purpose of bonding the metallic parts of an aircraft is to :
a) provide safe distribution of electrical charges and currents.
21.2.1.7 (757) b) provide a single earth for electrical devices.
Static dischargers :1. are used to set all the parts of the airframe to the same c) prevent electrolytic corrosion between mating surfaces of similar metals.
electrical potential2. are placed on wing and tail tips to facilitate electrical d) isolate all components electrically and thus make the static potential constant.
discharge3. are used to reset the electrostatic potential of the aircraft to a value
approximating 0 volts4. are located on wing and tail tips to reduce intererence
21.2.2.1 (763)
with the on-board radiocommunication systems to a minimum5. limit the risks of
The most widely used electrical frequency in aircraft is :
transfer of electrical charges between the aircraft and the electrified cloudsThe
a) 400 Hz.
combination regrouping all the correct statements is :
b) 200 Hz.
a) 2,4,5.
c) 50 Hz.
b) 1,2,5.
d) 60 Hz.
c) 1,3,4.
d) 3,4,5.
21.2.2.1 (764)
The advantages of alternating current on board an aircraft are:1. simple
21.2.1.7 (758)
connection2. high starting torque3. flexibility in use4. lighter weight of
The advantages of grounding the negative pole of the aircraft structure are:1.
equipment5. easy to convert into direct current6. easy maintenance of
Weight saving2. Easy fault detection3. Increase of short-circuit risk4. Reduction of
machinesThe combination of correct statements is:
short-circuit risk5. Circuits are not single-wired linesThe combination regrouping
a) 3, 4, 5, 6
all the correct statements is :
b) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
a) 1, 2, 4
c) 1, 2, 3, 5, 6
b) 1, 2, 3
d) 1, 4, 6
c) 2, 3, 5
d) 1, 3, 5
21.2.2.1 (765)
If the frequency of the supply in a series capacitive circuit is increased, the current
21.2.1.7 (759)
flowing in the circuit will :
Electrical bonding of an aircraft is used to:1. protect the aircraft against lightning
a) increase.
effects.2. reset the electrostatic potential of the aircraft to a value approximating 0
b) be zero.
volt3. reduce radio interference on radiocommunication systems4. set the aircraft
c) decrease.
to a single potentialThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
d) remain the same.
a) 1, 3, 4
b) 1, 2, 3
c) 3, 4 21.2.2.2 (766)
d) 2, 4 When the AC generators are connected in parallel, the reactive loads are balanced
by means of the:
a) energizing current.
21.2.1.7 (760)
b) frequency.
The purpose of static wick dischargers is to :
c) voltage.
a) dissipate static charge of the aircraft inflight thus avoiding radio interference as
d) torque of the Constant Speed Drive (CSD).
63
21.2.2.2 (767) 21.2.2.2 (773)
The main purpose of a Constant Speed Drive unit is to: A CSD unit which has been disconnected in flight :
a) maintain a constant frequency. a) may be reset on the ground only, after engine shut-down.
b) take part in the balancing of reactive loads. b) may be reset in flight using the reset mechanism.
c) mechanically protect the alternator drive shaft during coupling. c) automatically resets in flight providing engine rpm is below a given value.
d) take part in the voltage regulation. d) automatically resets at engine shut-down.

21.2.2.2 (768) 21.2.2.2 (774)


The Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) has its own AC generator which: The moving part in an AC generator is usually referred to as the :
a) supplies the aircraft with three-phase 115-200 V, 400 Hz AC. a) rotor.
b) is driven at constant speed throught a Constant Speed Drive (CSD), in the same way as the b) stator.
main AC generator. c) oscillator.
c) is excited by its Generator Control Unit (GCU) as soon as the APU starts up. d) slip ring.
d) must have the same characteristics as the main AC generator so that it can be easily
coupled with the latter.
21.2.2.2 (775)
The frequency of an AC generator is dependent upon the :
21.2.2.2 (769) a) number of pairs of poles and the speed of the rotor.
In flight, if the constant speed drive (CSD) temperature indicator is in the red arc b) number of individual poles and the field strength.
the: c) field strength and the speed of the rotor.
a) pilot must disconnect it, and the generator is not available for the rest of flight. d) number of individual poles only.
b) pilot can disconnect it to allow it to cool and use it again.
c) pilot has to throttle back.
21.2.2.2 (776)
d) pilot must disconnect it and manually control the alternator.
The function of a constant speed drive (CSD) in an AC generating system is to :
a) drive the generator at a constant speed.
21.2.2.2 (770) b) vary generator rpm in order to compensate for various AC loads.
As regards the Generator Contol Unit (GCU) of an AC generator, it can be said c) directly maintain a constant proportion between the rpm of an engine and a generator.
that:1. The GCU controls the AC generator voltage2. Modern GCUs are provided d) vary the engine rpm (within limits) to compensate for various AC loads.
with a permanent indication to record the failure3. All the commands originating
from the control panel are applied via the GCU, except dog clutch release4. The
21.2.2.2 (777)
Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) provides the excitation of the AC generator as soon as
If two constant frequency AC generators are operating independently, then the
the APU starts upThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is :
phase relationship of each generator:
a) 2, 3
a) is unimportant.
b) 3, 4
b) must be synchronised.
c) 2, 4
c) must be 120° out of phase.
d) 1, 3
d) must be 240° out of phase.

21.2.2.2 (771)
21.2.2.2 (778)
On starting, in a brushless AC generator with no commutator rings, the generator
The purpose of a voltage regulator is to control the output voltage of the :
is activated by:
a) generator at varying loads and speeds.
a) a set of permanent magnets.
b) batteries at varying loads.
b) the main field winding.
c) generators at varying speeds and the batteries at varying loads.
c) the stabilizer winding jointly with the voltage regulator.
d) output of the TRU.
d) the auxiliary winding.

21.2.2.2 (779)
21.2.2.2 (772)
A 3 phase AC generator has 3 separate stator windings spaced at :
A CSD of an AC generator may be disconnected in flight. The primary reason(s) for
a) 120°.
disconnection are :
b) 60°.
a) low oil pressure and/or high oil temperature of the generator drive.
c) 45°.
b) excessive variation of voltage and kVAR.
d) 90°.
c) illumination of the CSD disconnect warning light.
d) slight variation about the normal operating frequency.

64
21.2.2.2 (780) 21.2.2.2 (787)
On the flight deck, an oil operated CSD unit is normally provided with means of A Constant Speed Drive aims at ensuring
monitoring the: a) that the electric generator produces a constant frequency.
a) oil over-temperature and low oil pressure. b) that the starter-motor maintains a constant RPM not withstanding the acceleration of the
b) oil temperature and synchronous speed. engine.
c) output speed and oil pressure. c) that the CSD remains at a constant RPM not withstanding the generator RPM
d) low oil temperature and low oil quantity. d) equal AC voltage from all generators.

21.2.2.2 (781) 21.2.2.3 (788)


An AC generator driven by a CSD unit : A thermal circuit breaker:
a) requires a voltage controller to maintain constant voltage under load. a) protects the system in the event of overheating, even without exceeding the
b) does not need a voltage controller since the CSD will ensure constant voltage. maximum permissible current.
c) does not need a voltage controller since an AC generator voltage cannot alter under load. b) is a protection system with a quick break capacity of about one hundredth of a second.
d) requires a voltage controller to maintain constant frequency. c) forbids any overcurrent.
d) can be reset without any danger even if the fault remains.
21.2.2.2 (782)
Assuming a CSD fault is indicated, the CSD should be disconnected : 21.2.2.3 (789)
a) during engine operation only. In an aircraft electrical system where AC generators are not paralleled mounted,
b) at flight idle engine rpm. the changover relay allows :
c) in accordance with the regulated voltage level of the AC generator. a) power supply to the faulty AC generators busbar.
d) on the ground only. b) connection of the AC generator to its distribution busbar.
c) connection of the ground power truck to its distribution busbar.
d) connection of the Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) to its main busbar.
21.2.2.2 (783)
The measured output power components of a constant frequency AC system are :
a) kVA and kVAR. 21.2.2.3 (790)
b) volts and amperes. Pulling the fire shutoff handle causes a number of devices to disconnect. In respect
c) volts and kilowatts. of the AC generator it can be said that the:
d) amperes and kilowatts. a) exciter control relay and the generator breaker open.
b) exciter control relay opens.
c) generator breaker opens.
21.2.2.2 (784)
d) exciter control relay, the generator breaker and the tie breaker open.
""Frequency wild"" in relation to a AC generation system means the generator :
a) output frequency varies with engine speed.
b) output frequency is too high. 21.2.2.3 (791)
c) voltage regulator is out of adjustment. As regards three-phase AC generators, the following conditions must be met for
d) output frequency is too low. paralleling AC generators:1. Equal voltage2. Equal current3. Equal frequencies4.
Same phase rotation5. Voltages of same phaseThe combination regrouping all the
correct statements is :
21.2.2.2 (785)
a) 1, 3, 4, 5
The function of a CSD in an AC generating system is to:
b) 1, 2, 3, 4
a) drive the generator at a constant speed.
c) 1, 3, 5
b) vary the engine rpm (within limits) to compensate for various AC loads.
d) 1, 4, 5
c) vary generator rpm in order to compensate for various AC loads.
d) directly maintain a constant proportion between the rpm of engine and generator.
21.2.2.3 (792)
A magnetic circuit-breaker is:
21.2.2.2 (786)
a) a protection system that has a quick tripping response.
The frequency of an AC generator is dependent on the :
b) permits an overcurrent limited in time.
a) number of pairs of poles and the speed of the moving part.
c) can be reset without any danger even when fault remains.
b) number of individual poles and the field strength.
d) is a system with a slow response time.
c) field strength and the speed of the moving part.
d) number of individual poles only.
21.2.2.3 (793)
On detection of a persistent overvoltage fault on an AC generator connected to the
65
aircraft AC busbars, the on-board protection device opens: c) must be in opposition.
a) the exciter breaker and the generator breaker. d) must be 90° out of synchronisation.
b) the exciter breaker, the generator breaker and tie breaker.
c) The generator breaker and tie breaker.
21.2.2.3 (800)
d) The generator breaker.
When AC generators are operated in paralllel, they must be of the same:
a) voltage and frequency.
21.2.2.3 (794) b) amperage and kVAR.
When a persistent top excitation limit fault on an AC generator connected to the c) voltage and amperage.
mains with another AC generator, the overexcitation protection device opens: d) frequency and amperage.
a) the exciter breaker, the generator breaker and the tie breaker.
b) the tie breaker.
21.2.2.3 (801)
c) the exciter breaker and the generator breaker.
Real load sharing in a parallel AC system is achieved by :
d) the generator breaker.
a) automatic adjustment of the torque on each generator rotor via the CSD unit.
b) controlling the generator field current.
21.2.2.3 (795) c) carefully selecting the number of loads on the bus-bars at any one time.
When a persistent overexcitation fault is detected on only one AC generator, the d) monitoring the kVAR of each generator/alternator.
protection device opens the :
a) exciter breaker and generator breaker.
21.2.2.3 (802)
b) exciter breaker, generator breaker and tie breaker.
Real load sharing in a parallel AC system is achieved by :
c) tie breaker.
a) adjusting the torque on each generator rotor via the CSD unit.
d) generator breaker and tie breaker.
b) carefully secting the number of loads on the bus-bars at any one time.
c) controlling the generator field current.
21.2.2.3 (796) d) monitoring the kVAR of each generator/alternator.
When an underspeed fault is detected on an AC generator connected to the aircraft
AC busbar, the protection device opens the:
21.2.2.3 (803)
a) generator breaker.
Load shedding means ..
b) exciter breaker.
a) Temporarily or permanent switching off of certain electric users to avoid
c) exciter breaker and generator breaker.
overload of electric generators
d) exciter breaker, generator breaker and tie breaker.
b) To leave behind extra cargo if the centre of gravity moves outside limits
c) Reduction of airloads on the flaps by means of the flap load relief value
21.2.2.3 (797) d) A procedure used in control systems to reduce the stick forces
The services connected to a supply bus-bar are normally in:
a) parallel, so that isolating individual loads decreases the bus-bar current
21.2.2.5 (804)
consumption.
The speed of an asynchronous four-pole motor fed at a frequency of 400 Hertz is:
b) series, so that isolating one load increases the bus-bar current consumption.
a) 12000 revolutions per minute.
c) parallel, so that isolation of loads decreases the bus-bar voltage.
b) 6000 revolutions per minute.
d) series, so that isolation of loads increases the bus-bar voltage.
c) 800 revolutions per minute.
d) 1600 revolutions per minute.
21.2.2.3 (798)
To ensure correct load sharing between AC generators operating in parallel :
21.2.2.6 (805)
a) both real an reactive loads must be matched.
In an aeroplane utilising a constant frequency AC power supply, DC power is
b) the matching of loads is unimportant.
obtained from a :
c) only reactive loads need to be matched.
a) Transformer Rectifier Unit.
d) only real loads need to be matched.
b) static inverter.
c) 3 phase current transformer unit.
21.2.2.3 (799) d) rotary converter.
When operating two AC generators unparalleled, the phase relationship of each
generator:
21.2.2.6 (806)
a) is unimportant.
On an aeroplane utilising AC as primary power supplies, the batteries are charged
b) must be synchronous.
in flight from :

66
a) a Transformer Rectifier Unit. 21.2.4.2 (813)
b) a static inverter. The function of a NOT logic gate within a circuit is to :
c) a DC transformer and rectifier. a) invert the input signal such that the output is always of the opposite state.
d) the AC bus via current limiters. b) ensure the input signal is AC only.
c) ensure the input signal is DC only.
d) ensure the output signal is of the same state as the input signal.
21.2.4.0 (807)
In computer technology, an output peripheral is a:
a) screen unit 21.2.4.3 (814)
b) keyboard Because of the input/output relationship of an OR gate, it is often referred to as
c) hard disk drive the :
d) diskette drive a) ""any or all"" gate.
b) ""inhibited"" or ""negated"" gate.
c) ""state indicator"" gate.
21.2.4.0 (808)
d) ""all or nothing"" gate.
In computer technology, an input peripheral is a:
a) keyboard
b) screen unit 21.2.5.1 (815)
c) hard disk drive The wavelength of a radio transmitted on frequency 121.95 MHz is:
d) diskette drive a) 2.46 m
b) 24.60 cm
c) 2.46 cm
21.2.4.0 (809)
d) 24.60 m
In computer technology, a storage peripheral is a:
a) hard disk drive
b) printer 21.2.5.1 (816)
c) key board For weather radar, the frequency 9375 MHz in X Band is preferable to C Band
d) screen unit because:
a) It better detects clouds contour and range is greater with the same
transmission power.
21.2.4.0 (810)
b) Its penetration power is higher.
In computer technology, an EPROM is:1. a read-only memory2. a write memory3.
c) It is not absorbed by heavy precipitations.
erases its content when power supply is cut off4. keeps its content when power
d) It allows greater scanning rates.
supply is cut offThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 1,4
b) 1,3 21.2.5.1 (817)
c) 2,3 The wavelength of a non-directional beacon (NDB) at a frequency of 300 kHz is:
d) 2,4 a) 1000 metres.
b) 100 metres.
c) 10 metres.
21.2.4.2 (811)
d) 1 metre.
(For this question use annex 021- 6660A)The logic symbol shown represents
(assuming positive logic) :
a) an INVERT or NOT gate. 21.2.5.1 (818)
b) a NAND gate. The minimum airborne equipment required for operation of a the VHF direction
c) a NOR gate. finder is a:
d) an EXCLUSIVE gate. a) VHF transmitter-receiver operating in the 118 MHz to 136 MHz range.
b) VHF compass operating in the 200 kHz to 1750 kHz range.
c) VHF receiver operating in the 118 MHz to 136 MHz range.
21.2.4.2 (812)
d) cathode-ray tube.
Because of the input/output relationship of an AND gate, it is often referred to as
the :
a) ""all or nothing"" gate. 21.2.5.1 (819)
b) ""any or all"" gate. The secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) uses the following wavelengths:
c) ""state indicator"" gate. a) decimetric.
d) ""inhibited"" or ""negated"" gate. b) centimetric.

67
c) hectometric. c) hectometric.
d) myriametric. d) myriametric.

21.2.5.1 (820) 21.2.5.1 (827)


The airborne weather radar uses the following wavelengths: The high Altitude Radio Altimeter uses the following wavelengths:
a) centimetric. a) decimetric.
b) metric. b) metric.
c) hectometric. c) hectometric.
d) myriametric. d) myriametric.

21.2.5.1 (821) 21.2.5.1 (828)


The VHF Omnirange (VOR) uses the following wavelengths: The Low Altitude Radio Altimeter uses the following wavelengths:
a) metric. a) centimetric.
b) hectometric. b) myriametric.
c) decimetric. c) decimetric.
d) centimetric. d) metric.

21.2.5.1 (822) 21.2.5.1 (829)


The Instrument Landing System (ILS) uses the following wavelengths: The Automatic Direction Finder uses the following wavelengths:
a) metric. a) hectometric or kilometric.
b) hectometric. b) metric.
c) decimetric. c) decimetric.
d) centimetric. d) centimetric.

21.2.5.1 (823) 21.2.5.1 (830)


The Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) uses the following wavelengths: In the response curve of an amplifier, the bandwidth is:
a) decimetric. a) The frequency band corresponding to maximum gain less 3 decibels.
b) hectometric. b) The frequency band corresponding to maximum gain.
c) metric. c) The frequency band corresponding to maximum gain less 20 decibels.
d) centimetric. d) The frequency band corresponding to maximum gain, increased by 10 kHz at each end.

21.2.5.1 (824) 21.2.5.3 (831)


The Fan Markers uses the following wavelengths: In aviation, the reflection on ionosphere layers phenomenon is used in the
a) metric. following frequencies:
b) centimetric. a) HF
c) hectometric. b) VHF
d) myriametric. c) UHF
d) VLF
21.2.5.1 (825)
The VHF direction finder uses the following wavelengths: 21.2.5.3 (832)
a) metric. Skip distance is the:
b) hectometric. a) range from the transmitter to the first sky wave
c) decimetric. b) highest critical frequency distance
d) centimetric. c) wavelength distance of a certain frequency
d) thickness of the ionosphere
21.2.5.1 (826)
The Microwave Landing System (MLS) uses the following wavelengths: 21.2.5.3 (833)
a) centimetric. A radio signal looses strength as range from the transmitter increases, this is
b) metric. called :
a) attenuation

68
b) refraction a) induction, compression, power, exhaust.
c) propagation b) induction, power, compression, exhaust.
d) ducting c) compression induction, power, exhaust.
d) induction, compression, expansion, power.
21.2.5.3 (834)
The skip zone of HF-transmission will increase when the following change in 21.3.1.1 (841)
circumstance occurs : The crank assembly consists of
a) Higher frequency and higher position of the reflecting ionospheric layer a) crankshaft, connecting rods and pistons.
b) Lower frequency ang higher position of the reflecting ionospheric layer b) propeller, crankshaft, pistons and connecting rods.
c) Higher frequency and lower position of the reflecting ionospheric layer c) Crankcase, crankshaft, connecting rods and pistons.
d) Lower frequency and lower position of the reflecting ionospheric layer d) crankshaft, camshaft, valves, valve springs and push rods.

21.2.5.3 (835) 21.3.1.1 (842)


In the propagation of MF waves, the phenomenon of FADING is particularly found : The ignition occurs in each cylinder of an four-stroke engine (TDC = Top Dead
a) at night, due to the combination of the sky and ground waves. Center)
b) by day, due to the combination of sky and ground waves. a) before TDC at each second crankshaft revolution.
c) at night and when raining. b) before TDC at each crankshaft revolution.
d) by day and when raining. c) behind TDC at each crankshaft revolution.
d) behind TDC at each second crankshaft revolution.
21.3.1.1 (836)
The positions of the intake and exhaust valve at the end of the power stroke are : 21.3.1.1 (843)
a) intake valve closed and exhaust valve open. The power output of a piston engine can be calculated by :
b) both valves open. a) Torque times RPM.
c) both valves closed. b) Work times velocity.
d) exhaust valve closed and intake valve open. c) Force times distance.
d) Pressure times arm.
21.3.1.1 (837)
The useful work area in an ideal Otto engine indicator diagram is enclosed by the 21.3.1.1 (844)
following gas state change lines The power of a piston engine which will be measured by using a friction brake is :
a) 2 adiabatic and 2 isochoric lines. a) Brake horse power.
b) 2 adiabatic and 1 isothermic lines. b) Friction horse power.
c) 2 adiabatic and 2 isobaric lines. c) Heat loss power.
d) 2 adiabatic, 1 isochoric and 1 isobaric lines. d) Indicated horse power.

21.3.1.1 (838) 21.3.1.1 (845)


The correct formula to calculate the multi-cylinder engine displacement is : The torque of an aeroplane engine can be measured at the:
a) piston area * piston stroke * number of cylinders a) gear box which is located between the engine and the propeller.
b) piston area * piston stroke b) propeller blades.
c) cylinder volume * number of cylinders c) accessory gear box.
d) cylinder length * cylinder diameter d) camshaft.

21.3.1.1 (839) 21.3.1.1 (846)


In most cases aeroplane piston engines are short stroke engines. This permits a : On four-stroke piston engines, the theoretical valve and ignition settings are
a) lighter construction. readjusted in order to increase the:
b) lower fuel consumption. a) overall efficiency
c) better piston cooling. b) compression ratio
d) cheaper construction c) piston displacement
d) engine r.p.m.
21.3.1.1 (840)
The working cycle of a four-stroke engine is :

69
21.3.1.1 (847) 21.3.1.2 (854)
In a four-stroke piston engine, the only ""driving"" stroke is : In addition to the fire hazard introduced, excessive priming should be avoided
a) firing-expansion because :
b) intake a) it washes the lubricant of cylinder walls
c) compression b) it fouls the spark plugs
d) exhaust c) it drains the carburettor float chamber
d) the gasoline dilutes the oil and necessitates changing oil
21.3.1.1 (848)
A piston engine compression ratio is the ratio of the : 21.3.1.2 (855)
a) total volume to the clearance volume. The oil system for a piston engine incorporates an oil cooler that is fitted :
b) clearance volume to the swept volume. a) in the return line to the oil tank after the oil has passed through the scavenge
c) total volume to the swept volume. pump
d) swept volume to the clearance volume. b) between the oil tank and the pressure pump
c) after the pressure pump but before the oil passes through the engine
d) after the oil has passed through the engine and before it enters the sump
21.3.1.1 (849)
The compression ratio of a piston engine is the ratio of the:
a) volume of the cylinder with the piston at bottom dead centre to that with the 21.3.1.2 (856)
piston at top dead centre. Low oil pressure is sometimes the result of a
b) diameter of the bore to the piston stroke. a) worn oil pump
c) area of the piston to the cylinder volume. b) too large oil pump
d) weight of the air induced to its weight after compression. c) restricted oil passage
d) too small scavenger pump.
21.3.1.1 (850)
The part of a piston engine that transforms reciprocating movement into rotary 21.3.1.4 (857)
motion is termed the : The purpose of a distributor in an ignition system is to distribute:
a) crankshaft a) secondary current to the sparking plugs.
b) piston b) primary current to the condenser.
c) camshaft c) secondary current to the condenser.
d) reduction gear d) primary current to the sparking plugs.

21.3.1.2 (851) 21.3.1.4 (858)


The reading on the oil pressure gauge is the: The very rapid magnetic field changes (flux) around the primary coil in a magneto
a) pressure of the oil on the outlet side of the pressure pump. are accomplished by the:
b) difference between the pressure pump pressure and the scavenge pump pressure. a) contact breaker points opening.
c) pressure in the oil tank reservoir. b) distributor arm aligning with one of the high tension segments.
d) pressure of the oil on the inlet side of the pressure pump. c) contact breaker points closing.
d) rotor turning past the position of maximum flux in the armature.
21.3.1.2 (852)
For a given type of oil, the oil viscosity depends on the: 21.3.1.4 (859)
a) oil temperature. If the ground wire between the magnetos and the ignition switch becomes
b) outside pressure. disconnected the most noticeable result will be that:
c) oil pressure. a) the engine cannot be shut down by turning the ignition switch to the ""OFF""
d) quantity of oil. position
b) a still operating engine will run down
c) the engine cannot be started with the ignition switch in the ""ON"" position
21.3.1.2 (853)
d) the power developed by the engine will be strongly reduced
For internal cooling,reciprocating engines are especially dependent on:
a) the circulation of lubricating oil
b) a rich fuel/air mixture 21.3.1.4 (860)
c) a properly functioning thermostat The purpose of an ignition switch is to :
d) a lean fuel/air mixture a) control the primary circuit of the magneto
b) connect the secondary coil to the distributor
70
c) connect the battery to the magneto b) will not operate at the left magneto
d) connect the contact breaker and condenser in series with the primary coil c) will not operate at the right magneto
d) cannot be started with the switch in the ON position
21.3.1.4 (861)
Under normal running conditions a magneto draws primary current : 21.3.1.4 (868)
a) from a self-contained electro-magnetic induction system. An impulse coupling used on a magneto for a piston engine is for
b) from the booster coil. a) providing a retarded spark for engine starting.
c) directly from the aircraft batteries. b) advancing ignition timing
d) from the aircraft batteries via an inverter. c) quick removal and installation
d) absorbing starting loads
21.3.1.4 (862)
Ignition systems of piston engines are : 21.3.1.4 (869)
a) independant from the electrical system of the aircraft. In a piston engine, magnetos are used to produce the spark which ignites the fuel/
b) dependant on the battery. air mixture. The operating principle of magnetos consists in :
c) dependant on the DC-Generator. a) breaking the primary current in order to induce a low amp high volt current
d) dependant on the AC-Generator. which is distributed to the spark plugs.
b) obtaining a high amp low volt current in order to generate the spark.
c) accumulating in a condenser a low volt current from the battery, reconstitute it as high
21.3.1.4 (863)
voltage current at the moment the spark is generated.
Prolonged running at low rpm may have an adverse effect on the efficiency of the:
d) creating a brief high intensity magnetic field which will be sent through the distributor at
a) sparking plugs.
the appropriate time.
b) carburettor.
c) oil pump.
d) fuel filter. 21.3.1.4 (870)
When the magneto selector switch is set to ""OFF"" position, the piston engine
continues to run normally.The most probable cause of this failure is that:
21.3.1.4 (864)
a) On a magneto, a grounding wire is broken.
An aircraft magneto is switched off by
b) There is a carbon deposit on the spark plugs electrodes.
a) grounding the primary circuit
c) A wire from the magneto is in contact with a metallic part of the engine.
b) opening the primary circuit
d) There are local hot points in the engine (probably due to overheating of the cylinder
c) opening the secondary circuit
heads).
d) grounding the secondary circuit.

21.3.1.5 (871)
21.3.1.4 (865)
On modern carburettors, the variations of mixture ratios are obtained by the
An impulse magneto coupling
adjustment of :
a) gives a retarded spark at starting
a) fuel flow.
b) reduces magneto speed during engine warm-up
b) air flow.
c) advances ignition timing and gives a hotter spark at starting
c) fuel flow and air flow.
d) gives an automatic spark increase during high speed operation.
d) fuel flow, air flow and temperature.

21.3.1.4 (866)
21.3.1.5 (872)
If an engine fails to stop with the magneto switch in OFF position, the cause may
A fuel strainer when fitted to a carburettor will be positioned :
be :
a) upstream of the needle valve.
a) excessive carbon formation in cylinder head.
b) between the needle valve and the metering jet.
b) switch wire grounded
c) between the metering jet and the discharge nozzle.
c) defective condenser
d) downstream of th discharge nozzle.
d) fouled spark plugs

21.3.1.5 (873)
21.3.1.4 (867)
The purpose of the venturi in a carburettor is to:
If the ground wire between the magneto and the ignition switch becomes
a) create the depression necessary to cause fuel to flow through the carburettor
disconnected, the most noticeable result will be that the engine
jets.
a) cannot be shut down by turning the switch to the OFF position.
b) prevent enrichment of the mixture due to high air velocity through the carburettor.
71
c) ensure complete atomisation of the fuel before entering the induction system. flowing through the choke, thus preventing the main jet supplying excessive fuel
d) create a rise in pressure at the throat before the mixture enters the induction system. as engine speed is increased, a carburettor is fitted with :
a) a diffuser
b) a power jet
21.3.1.5 (874)
c) an accelerator pump
In which sections of the carburettor would icing most likely occur?
d) a mixture control
a) venturi and the throttle valve
b) float chamber and fuel inlet filter
c) accelerator pump and main metering jet 21.3.1.5 (881)
d) main air bleed and main discharge nozzle Spark timing is related to engine speed in the way that the:
a) faster the engine functions, the more the spark is advanced
b) slower the engine functions, the more the spark is advanced
21.3.1.5 (875)
c) faster the engine functions, the further past TDC the spark occurs
The operating principle of float-type carburettors is based on the:
d) faster the engine functions, the more retarded the spark is.
a) difference in air pressure at the venturi throat and the air inlet
b) automatic metering of air at the venturi as the aircraft gains altitude
c) increase in air velocity in the throat of a venturi causing an increase in air pressure 21.3.1.5 (882)
d) measurement of the fuel flow into the induction system ""Vapor lock"" is the phenomenon by which:
a) heat produces vapour plugs in the fuel line.
b) water vapour plugs are formed in the intake fuel line following the condensation of water in
21.3.1.5 (876)
fuel tanks which have not been drained for sometime.
In an engine equipped with a float-type carburettor, the low temperature that
c) abrupt and abnormal enrichment of the fuel/air mixture following an inappropriate use of
causes carburettor ice is normally the result of:
carburettor heat.
a) vaporization of fuel and expansion of the air in the carburettor
d) burnt gas plugs forming and remaining in the exhaust manifold following an overheat and
b) freezing temperature of the air entering the carburettor
thereby disturbing the exhaust.
c) compression of air at the carburettor venturi
d) low volatility of aviation fuel
21.3.1.6 (883)
The power of a piston engine decreases during climb with a constant power lever
21.3.1.5 (877)
setting, because of the decreasing :
Which statement is true concerning the effect of the application of carburettor
a) air density.
heat?
b) engine temperature.
a) it reduces the density of air entering the carburettor, thus enriching the fuel/air
c) humidity.
mixture
d) temperature.
b) it reduces the volume of air entering the carburettor,thus leaning the fuel/air mixture
c) it reduces the density of air entering the carburettor, thus leaning the fuel/air mixture
d) it reduces the volume of air entering the carburettor,thus enriching the fuel/air mixture 21.3.1.6 (884)
The conditions under which you obtain the highest engine power are :
a) cold and dry air at high pressure.
21.3.1.5 (878)
b) warm and humid air at low pressure.
Vapour lock is :
c) cold and humid air at high pressure.
a) vaporizing of fuel prior to reaching the carburettor
d) warm and dry air at high pressure.
b) the formation of water vapour in a fuel system
c) vaporizing of fuel in the carburettor
d) the inability of a fuel to vaporize in the carburettor 21.3.1.6 (885)
The power output of a normally aspirated piston engine increases with increasing
altitude at constant Manifold Air Pressure (MAP) and RPM because of the :
21.3.1.5 (879)
a) lower back pressure.
With respect to a piston engined aircraft, ice in the carburettor :
b) lower losses during the gas change.
a) may form at OAT's higher than +10°C.
c) lower friction losses.
b) will only form at OAT's below +10°C.
d) leaner mixture at higher altitudes.
c) will only form at outside air temperatures (OAT's) below the freezing point of water.
d) will only form at OAT's below the freezing point of fuel.
21.3.1.6 (886)
During climb with constant Manifold Air Pressure (MAP) and RPM indication and
21.3.1.5 (880)
constant mixture setting, the power output of a piston engine :
To ensure that the fuel flow is kept directly proportional to the volume of air
a) increases.
72
b) decreases. 21.3.1.7 (893)
c) only stays constant if the speed control lever is pushed forward. The kind of compressor normally used as a supercharger is :
d) stays constant. a) a radial compressor.
b) an axial compressor.
c) a hybrid compressor.
21.3.1.6 (887)
d) a piston compressor.
The global output of a piston engine is of:(global output = Thermal energy
corresponding to the available shaft/power over the total thermal energy
produced). 21.3.1.7 (894)
a) 0.30 What can be the consequence during a descent with a fully open throttle if the
b) 0.50 waste gate is seized ?
c) 0.75 a) The manifold air pressure (MAP) value may exceed the maximum allowed value.
d) 0.90 b) The power of the motor will decrease.
c) The turbine shaft will break.
d) The turbine blades will separate.
21.3.1.7 (888)
A turbocharger system is normally driven by:
a) the exhaust system. 21.3.1.7 (895)
b) an electric motor. One of the advantages of a turbosupercharger is that :
c) an hydraulic motor. a) it uses the exhaust gas energy which normally is lost.
d) an electrically activated hydraulically powered clutch. b) it has a better propulsive efficiency.
c) there is no torsion at the crankshaft.
d) there is no danger of knocking.
21.3.1.7 (889)
A turbocharger consists of a :
a) compressor and turbine mounted on a common shaft. 21.3.1.8 (896)
b) compressor and turbine on individual shafts. The octane rating of a fuel characterises the :
c) compressor driving a turbine via a reduction gear. a) the anti-knock capability
d) turbine driving a compressor via a reduction gear. b) fuel volatility
c) quantity of heat generated by its combustion
d) fuel electrical conductivity
21.3.1.7 (890)
The air in a piston engine turbo-supercharger centrifugal compressor :
a) enters the eye of the impeller and leaves at a tangent to the periphery. 21.3.1.8 (897)
b) enters via the diffuser and is fed to the impeller at the optimum angle of attack. Fuel stored in aircraft tanks will accumulate moisture. The most practical way to
c) enters at the periphery and leaves via the eye of the impeller. minimize this when an aircraft is used every day or so is to :
d) enters at a tangent to the rotor and leaves via the stator. a) keep tanks topped off when the aircraft is not in use
b) drain tanks at end of each day's flight
c) use only high octane gasoline
21.3.1.7 (891)
d) keep tank vents plugged and filler cap tight
In a piston engine, turbocharger boost pressure may be monitored by :
a) a manifold pressure gauge only.
b) a cylinder head temperature gauge (CHT), a manifold pressure gauge, and engine rpm 21.3.1.8 (898)
readings. The octane rating of a fuel and compression ratio of a piston engine have which of
c) both a CHT gauge and manifold pressure gauge. the following relations?
d) both engine rpm readings and a manifold pressure gauge. a) the higher the octane rating is, the higher the possible compression ratio is
b) the lower the octane rating is, the higher the possible compression ratio is
c) the higher the octane rating is, the lower the possible compression ratio is.
21.3.1.7 (892)
d) compression ratio is independent of the octane rating.
The primary purpose of a supercharger is to :
a) maintain power at altitude
b) increase quantity of fuel at metering jet 21.3.1.8 (899)
c) provide leaner mixtures at altitudes below 5000 ft A piston engine may use a fuel of a different grade than the recommended:
d) provide a richer mixture at high altitudes a) provided that the grade is higher
b) provided that the grade is lower
c) never
d) provided that it is an aeronautical petrol
73
21.3.1.9 (900) 21.3.1.9 (907)
A rich mixture setting has to be used during climb segments. This results in a When leaning the mixture for the most economic cruise fuel flow, excessive
a) lower cylinder head temperature. leaning will cause :
b) higher efficiency. a) high cylinder head and exhaust gas temperature
c) slight loss of power. b) high engine rpm
d) higher torque. c) low cylinder head and exhaust gas temperature
d) high manifold pressure
21.3.1.9 (901)
Max. Exhaust Gas Temperature is theoretically associated with : 21.3.1.9 (908)
a) Mass ratio of 1/15. The main purpose of the mixture control is to:
b) Cruising mixture setting. a) adjust the fuel flow to obtain the proper fuel/air ratio
c) Full rich setting. b) decrease the air supplied to the engine
d) Mixture ratio very close to idle cut-out. c) increase the oxygen supplied to the engine
d) decrease oxygen supplied to the engine
21.3.1.9 (902)
For piston engines, mixture ratio is the ratio between the : 21.3.1.9 (909)
a) mass of fuel and mass of air entering the cylinder. Fuel/air ratio is the ratio between the:
b) volume of fuel and volume of air entering the cylinder. a) mass of fuel and mass of air entering the cylinder.
c) volume of fuel and volume of air entering the carburettor. b) volume of fuel and volume of air entering the carburettor.
d) mass of fuel and volume of air entering the carburettor. c) volume of fuel and volume of air entering the cylinder.
d) mass of fuel and mass of air entering the carburettor
21.3.1.9 (903)
Specific fuel consumption is defined as the : 21.3.1.9 (910)
a) mass of fuel required to produce unit power for unit time. Overheating of a piston engine is likely to result from an excessively :
b) designed fuel consumption for a given rpm. a) weak mixture.
c) quantity of fuel required to run the engine for one minute at maximum operating b) rich mixture.
conditions. c) low barometric pressure.
d) maximum fuel consumption of the aircraft. d) high barometric pressure.

21.3.1.9 (904) 21.3.1.9 (911)


In a piston engine, the purpose of an altitude mixture control is to : In a piston engine if the ratio of air to fuel, by weight, is approximately 9:1, the
a) correct for variations in the fuel/air ratio due to decreased air density at mixture is said to be :
altitude. a) rich
b) prevent a weak cut when the throttle is opened rapidly at altitude. b) weak
c) weaken the mixture strength because of reduced exhaust back pressure at altitude. c) too weak to support combustion
d) enrich the mixture strength due to decreased air density at altitude. d) normal

21.3.1.9 (905) 21.3.1.9 (912)


The mixture control for a carburettor achieves its control by: For a piston engine, the ideal fuel/air mixture corresponding to a richness of 1 is
a) varying the fuel supply to the main discharge tube. obtained for a weight ratio of:
b) moving the butterfly valve through a separate linkage to the main throttle control. a) 1/15 th
c) altering the depression on the main discharge tube. b) 1/9 th
d) varying the air supply to the main discharge tube. c) 1/10th
d) 1/12th
21.3.1.9 (906)
An excessively rich mixture can be detected by : 21.3.1.9 (913)
a) black smoke from exhaust. (For this question use appendix )On the attached diagram showing the power
b) high cylinder head temperatures output of a piston engine as a function of mixture richness, best economy is at the
c) white smoke from exhaust. point marked:
d) a long purple flame from exhaust. a) 1
b) 2
74
c) 3 a fixed pitch propeller :
d) 4 a) reduces.
b) increases.
c) stays constant.
21.3.1.9 (914)
d) stays constant because it only varies with engine RPM.
The richness of a fuel/air mixture ratio is the :
a) real mixture ratio relative to the theoretical ratio.
b) mass of fuel relative to the volume of air. 21.3.1.10 (921)
c) volume of fuel relative to the volume of air. When TAS increases, the pitch angle of a constant speed propeller (RPM and MAP
d) volume of fuel relative to the mass of the volume of air. levers are not moved) :
a) increases.
b) reduces.
21.3.1.10 (915)
c) first reduces and after a short time increases to its previous value.
The feathering pump of a hydraulic variable-pitch propeller:
d) stays constant.
a) is an electrically driven oil pump, which supplies the propeller with pressure oil,
when the engine is inoperative.
b) is intended to control the pitch setting of the propeller during flight in order to obtain a 21.3.1.10 (922)
constant speed. The main advantage of a constant speed propeller as compared to a fixed pitch
c) controls the propeller, if the speed governor fails. propeller is a :
d) is driven by the engine and supplies pressure oil to the propeller in case of engine a) higher efficiency in all operating ranges.
problems. b) constant efficiency in all operating ranges.
c) lower propeller blade stress.
d) higher efficiency in cruising range.
21.3.1.10 (916)
Consider the variable-pitch propeller of a turbo-prop.During deceleration :
a) when braking, the propeller supplies negative thrust and absorbs engine power. 21.3.1.10 (923)
b) at zero power, the propeller thrust is zero and the engine power absorbed is nil. To unfeather a propeller during flight you have to :
c) when feathered, the propeller produces thrust and absorbs no engine power. a) use the electric unfeathering pump.
d) with propeller windmilling, the thrust is zero and the propeller supplies engine power. b) manually release the blade latch.
c) gain speed for aerodynamic unfeathering.
d) gain speed so as to use the engine unfeathering pump.
21.3.1.10 (917)
The pitch angle of a constant-speed propeller
a) increases with increasing true air speed. 21.3.1.10 (924)
b) only varies with engine RPM. In case of engine failure during flight the blades of the constant speed propeller in
c) decreases with increasing true air speed. a single engine aeroplane, not fitted with feathering system
d) is independent of the true air speed. a) move in the lowest pitch position by the centrifugal force.
b) move in low pitch position by oil pressure created by the windmilling propeller.
c) move in a certain pitch position depending on windmilling RPM.
21.3.1.10 (918)
d) move in the highest pitch position by the aerodynamical force.
A propeller blade is twisted, so as to
a) keep the local Angle of Attack constant along the blade.
b) avoid the appearance of sonic phenomena. 21.3.1.10 (925)
c) decrease the blade tangential velocity from the blade root to the tip. For take-off, the correct combination of propeller pitch (1), and propeller lever
d) allow a higher mechanical stress. position (2) at brake release is :
a) (1) low (2) forward.
b) (1) low (2) aft.
21.3.1.10 (919)
c) (1) high (2) aft.
A pilot normally uses the propeller autofeather system during :
d) (1) high (2) forward.
a) Take-off and landing.
b) Cruise.
c) Take-off. 21.3.1.10 (926)
d) Landing. On a normally aspirated aero-engine fitted with a fixed pitch propeller :
a) manifold pressure decreases as the aircraft climbs at a fixed throttle setting.
b) the propeller setting is constant at all indicated airspeeds.
21.3.1.10 (920)
c) in level flight, manifold pressure will remain constant when the rpm is increased by opening
When increasing true airspeed with a constant engine RPM, the angle of attack of

75
the throttle. b) in general a worse efficiency than the fixed propeller.
d) in a descent at a fixed throttle setting manifold pressure will always remain constant. c) only at the design speed a better efficiency than the fixed propeller.
d) its best efficiency during climb.
21.3.1.10 (927)
An asymmetric loading (p-factor) on the propeller exists .. 21.3.1.10 (934)
a) If the aeroplane has a large angle of attack. What will happen to the geometrical pitch angle of a ""constant speed propeller""
b) If there is an unbalanced propeller. if the manifold pressure is increased ?
c) Only for counterrotating propeller a) It will increase
d) Only if the 'constant speed propeller' mechanism is broken. b) It will increase and after a short time it will be the same again
c) It will decrease so that the engine can increase
d) It will remain the same
21.3.1.10 (928)
In twin-engine aeroplanes with right turning propellers
a) the left engine is the critical motor. 21.3.1.10 (935)
b) the left engine produces a higher yaw moment if the right engine fails than vice versa. The 'slipstream effect' of a propeller is most prominent at:
c) the 'minimum control speed' is determined by the failure of the right engine. a) low airspeeds with high power setting.
d) the right engine is the critical motor. b) high airspeeds with low power setting.
c) high airspeeds with high power setting.
d) low airspeeds with low power setting.
21.3.1.10 (929)
In general, in twin-engine aeroplanes with 'constant speed propeller'
a) the oil pressure turns the propeller blades towards smaller pitch angle. 21.3.1.10 (936)
b) the aerodynamic force turns the propeller blades towards higher pitch angle. The pitch angle of a propeller is the angle between the :
c) the spring force turns the propeller blades towards smaller pitch angle. a) reference chord line and the propeller plane of rotation.
d) the oil pressure turns the propeller blades towards higher pitch angle. b) propeller reference chord line and the relative airflow.
c) propeller reference chord line and the extremity of the propeller.
d) propeller plane of rotation and the relative airflow.
21.3.1.10 (930)
In modern aircraft, a pilot can actuate the feather system by :
a) pulling the RPM lever backwards. 21.3.1.10 (937)
b) pushing the RPM lever forward. When in flight, a piston engine is stopped and the propeller blade pitch angle is
c) pushing the power lever forward. near 90°, the propeller is said to be...
d) pulling the power levers backwards. a) feathered.
b) windmilling.
c) transparent.
21.3.1.10 (931)
d) at zero drag.
Fixed-pitch propellers are usually designed for maximum efficiency at :
a) cruising speed
b) idling 21.3.1.10 (938)
c) full throttle During a power change on an engine equipped with a constant speed propeller, a
d) take-off wrong combination of manifold pressure and RPM values results in excessive
pressures in the cylinders. This is the case when one simultaneously selects a ...
a) high manifold pressure and low RPM.
21.3.1.10 (932)
b) low manifold pressure and high RPM.
Which of the following qualitative statements about a fixed propeller optimized for
c) high manifold pressure and high RPM.
cruise condition, is true for the take-off case? The angle of attack of the propeller :
d) low manifold pressure and low RPM.
a) blade is relatively high.
b) blade is relatively small.
c) airfoil section is negative. 21.3.1.10 (939)
d) blades reduces to zero. From the cruise, with all the parameters correctly set, if the altitude is reduced, to
maintain the same mixture the fuel flow should:
a) increase
21.3.1.10 (933)
b) decrease
The 'constant speed propeller' has
c) remain the same
a) only above and below the design point a better efficiency than the fixed
d) increase or decrease, depending on the engine type
propeller with the same design speed.

76
21.3.1.11 (940) with a fixed pitch propeller?
When applying carburettor heating : a) RPM indicator.
a) the mixture becomes richer. b) RPM and Fuel Flow indicator.
b) a decrease in RPM results from the lean mixture. c) RPM and MAP indicator.
c) the mixture becomes leaner. d) RPM and EGT indicator.
d) no change occurs in the mixture ratio.
21.3.1.11 (947)
21.3.1.11 (941) An EGT (Exhaust Gas Temperature) indicator for a piston engine is used to :
When the pilot moves the mixture lever of a piston engine towards a lean position a) assist the pilot to settle correct mixture.
the : b) control the cylinder head temperature.
a) amount of fuel entering the combustion chamber is reduced. c) control the carburator inlet air flow.
b) volume of air entering the carburettor is reduced. d) control the fuel temperature.
c) amount of fuel entering the combustion chamber is increased.
d) volume of air entering the carburettor is increased.
21.3.1.11 (948)
During climb with constant throttle and RPM lever setting (mixture being
21.3.1.11 (942) constant) the :
When altitude increases without adjustment of the mixture ratio, the piston engine a) Manifold Air Pressure (MAP) decreases.
performance is affected because of a : b) RPM decreases.
a) decrease of air density for a constant quantity of fuel. c) Manifold Air Pressure (MAP) increases.
b) constant air density for a bigger quantity of fuel. d) RPM increases.
c) increase of air density for smaller quantity of fuel.
d) decrease of air density for a smaller quantity of fuel.
21.3.1.11 (949)
The conditions which can cause knocking are :
21.3.1.11 (943) a) High manifold pressure and low revolutions per minute.
When changing power on engines equipped with constant-speed propeller, engine b) High manifold pressure and high revolutions per minute.
overload is avoided by : c) Low manifold pressure and high revolutions per minute.
a) increasing the RPM before increasing the manifold pressure. d) Low manifold pressure and high fuel flow.
b) adjusting Fuel Flow before the manifold pressure.
c) reducing the RPM before reducing the manifold pressure.
21.3.1.11 (950)
d) increasing the manifold pressure before increasing the RPM.
Which of the following factors would be likely to increase the possibility of
detonation occurring within a piston engine ?
21.3.1.11 (944) a) using too lean a fuel/air mixture ratio
To adjust the mixture ratio of a piston engine when altitude increases, means to: b) the use of a fuel with a high octane rating as compared to the use of one with a low octane
a) decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for the decreasing air density. rating
b) decrease the amount of fuel in the mixture in order to compensate for the increasing air c) using an engine with a low compression ratio
density. d) slightly retarding the ignition timing
c) increase the amount of fuel in the mixture to compensate for the decreasing air pressure
and density.
21.3.1.11 (951)
d) increase the mixture ratio.
On a a normally aspirated engine (non turbo-charged), the manifold pressure
gauge always indicates...
21.3.1.11 (945) a) a lower value than atmospheric pressure when the engine is running.
The maximum horsepower output which can be obtained from an engine when it is b) a greater value than atmospheric pressure when the engine is running.
operated at specified rpm and manifold pressure conditons established as safe for c) zero on the ground when the engine is stopped.
continuous operation is termed : d) a value equal to the QFE when the engine is at full power on the ground.
a) rated power.
b) maximum power.
21.3.1.11 (952)
c) take-off power.
Spark plug fouling is more likely to happen if :
d) critical power.
a) the aircraft climbs without mixture adjustment.
b) the aircraft descends without a mixture adjustment.
21.3.1.11 (946) c) power is increased too abruptly.
With which instrument(s) do you monitor the power output of an aeroplane fitted d) the engine runs at the authorized maximum continuous power for too long.
77
21.3.1.12 (953) 21.3.3.2 (960)
Pre-ignition refers to the condition that may arise when : In the axial flow compressor of a turbo-jet engine, the flow duct is tapered. Its
a) the mixture is ignited by abnormal conditions within the cylinder before the shape is calculated so as to:
spark occurs at the plug a) maintain a constant axial speed in cruising flight.
b) the mixture is ignited before the piston has reached top dead centre. b) maintain a constant axial speed whatever the engine rating.
c) a rich mixture is ignited by the sparking plugs. c) reduce the axial speed in cruising flight.
d) the sparking plug ignites the mixture too early. d) reduce the axial speed, whatever the engine rating.

21.3.1.12 (954) 21.3.3.2 (961)


With a piston engine, when detonation is recognised, you: The compressor surge effect during acceleration is prevented by the :
a) Reduce manifold pressure and enrich the mixture a) Fuel Control Unit (F.C.U.).
b) Reduce manifold pressure and lean the mixture b) inlet guide vanes.
c) Increase manifold pressure and enrich the mixture c) surge bleed valves.
d) Increase manifold pressure and lean the mixture d) variable setting type nozzle guide vanes.

21.3.2.1 (955) 21.3.3.2 (962)


In a turbo-jet, the purpose of the turbine is to ... Concerning the centrifugal compressor, the compressor diffuser is a device in
a) drive the compressor by using part of the energy from the exhaust gases which the:
b) clear the burnt gases, the expansion of which provide the thrust a) pressure rises and velocity falls.
c) compress the air in order to provide a better charge of the combustion chamber b) pressure rises at a constant velocity.
d) drive devices like pumps, regulator, generator. c) velocity, pressure and temperature rise.
d) velocity rises and pressure falls.
21.3.2.2 (956)
(Use the appendix to answer this question)The gas turbine illustrated is of the 21.3.3.2 (963)
following type: The fan in a high by-pass ratio turbo-jet engine produces:
a) free turbine and centrifugal compressor a) the greater part of the thrust.
b) free turbine and axial compressor b) half the thrust.
c) single shaft turbine and centrifugal compressor c) the lesser part of the thrust.
d) single shaft turbine and axial compressor d) none of the thrust.

21.3.3.1 (957) 21.3.3.2 (964)


The purpose of the blow-in-doors at the air inlets is to: In a gas turbine engine, compressor blades, which are not rigidly fixed in position
a) provide the engine with additional air at high power settings and low air speeds. when the engine is stationary, take up a rigid position when the engine is running
b) provide the engine with additional air at high power settings at cruising speed. due to :
c) feed cooling air to the engine cowling. a) the resultant of aerodynamic and centrifugal forces.
d) serve to increase the relative velocity at the first compressor stage. b) oil pressure.
c) thermal expansion.
d) blade creep.
21.3.3.2 (958)
In a compressor stage of a jet engine, the sequence is:
a) rotor - stator 21.3.3.2 (965)
b) stator - rotor The primary purpose of the bleed valves fitted to axial flow compressors is to :
c) rotor - rotor - stator a) reduce the likelihood of compressor stall.
d) stator - stator - rotor b) control the acceleration time of the engine.
c) spill compressor air should the engine overspeed thus controlling the speed.
d) enable an external air supply to spin up the compressor for engine starting.
21.3.3.2 (959)
In a single spool gas turbine engine, the compressor rpm is :
a) the same as turbine rpm. 21.3.3.2 (966)
b) independent of turbine rpm. The disadvantages of axial flow compressors compared to centrifugal flow
c) greater than turbine rpm. compressors are :1 - expensive to manufacture2 - limited airflow3 - greater
d) less than turbine rpm. vulnerability to foreign object damage4 - limited compression ratioThe
combination of correct answers is :
78
a) 03-Jan output shaft.
b) 02-Jan b) its shaft may be connected to either a compressor or another turbine.
c) 03-Fev c) the air enters the compressor via the input turbine.
d) 04-Fev d) the compressor and power output shaft are mechanically connected.

21.3.3.2 (967) 21.3.3.5 (974)


A stage in an axial compressor: The primary reason for a limitation being imposed on the temperature of gas flow
a) is made of a rotor disc followed by a row of stator blades is to :
b) has a compression ratio in the order of 2.1 a) ensure that the maximum acceptable temperature at the turbine blades is not
c) is made of row of stator blades followed by a rotor disc exceeded.
d) has a compression ration in the order of 0.8 b) prevent damage to the jet pipe from overheating.
c) prevent overheating and subsequent creep of the nozzle guide vanes.
d) ensure that the maximum acceptable temperature within the combustion chamber is not
21.3.3.4 (968)
exceeded.
In a gas turbine engine, the maximum gas temperature is attained:
a) within the combustion chamber.
b) across the turbine. 21.3.3.5 (975)
c) in the cooling airflow around the flame tube. Turbine blade stages may be classed as either ""impulse"" or ""reaction"". In an
d) at the entry to the exhaust unit. impulse blade section :
a) the pressure drops across the nozzle guide vanes and remains constant across
the rotor blades .
21.3.3.5 (969)
b) the pressure rises across the nozzle guide vanes and remains constant across the rotor
When the combustion gases pass through a turbine the :
blades .
a) pressure drops.
c) the pressure remains constant across the nozzle guide vanes and drops across the rotor
b) pressure rises.
blades .
c) velocity decreases.
d) the pressure remains constant across the nozzle guide vanes and rises constant across the
d) temperature increases.
rotor blades .

21.3.3.5 (970)
21.3.3.7 (976)
In the stator of a turbine, the speed V and static pressure Ps vary as follows:
For a fan jet engine, the by-pass ratio is the:
a) V increases, Ps decreases.
a) external airflow mass divided by the internal airflow mass
b) V decreases, Ps increases.
b) internal airflow mass divided by the external airflow mass
c) V increases, Ps increases.
c) internal airflow mass divided by the fuelflow mass
d) V decreases, Ps decreases.
d) fuelflow mass divided by the internal airflow mass

21.3.3.5 (971)
21.3.3.8 (977)
An impulse turbine is a turbine in which the expansion takes place:
A reverse thrust door warning light on the flight deck instrument panel illuminates
a) fully in the stator.
when:
b) fully in the rotor.
a) the reverser doors are unlocked.
c) in the stator and in the rotor.
b) the reverser doors are locked.
d) in order to produce a degree of jet propulsion < 1/2.
c) reverse has been selected but the doors have remained locked.
d) the reverser doors have moved to the reverse thrust position.
21.3.3.5 (972)
A ""fan"" stage of a ducted-fan turbine engine is driven by:
21.3.3.10 (978)
a) the low pressure turbine.
At constant fuel flow, if engine compressor air is bled off for engine anti-icing or a
b) the high pressure compressor through reduction gearing.
similar system, the turbine temperature:
c) the high pressure turbine.
a) will rise.
d) airflow drawn across it by the high pressure compressor.
b) will be unchanged.
c) may rise or fall depending on which stage of the compressor is used for the bleed and the
21.3.3.5 (973) rpm of the engine at the moment of selection.
In a free turbine engine: d) will fall.
a) there is no mechanical connection between the compressor and the power

79
21.3.3.10 (979) 21.3.4.3 (985)
If air is tapped from a gas turbine HP compressor, the effect on the engine A ""hung start"" is the failure of an engine to accelerate to its normal idle speed. It
pressure ratio (EPR) and the exhaust gas temperature (EGT) is that : may be caused by:
a) EPR decreases and EGT increases. a) an attempt to ignite the fuel before the engine has been accelerated sufficiently
b) both EPR and EGT decrease. by the starter.
c) EPR decreases and EGT remains constant. b) compressor surging.
d) EPR remains constant and EGT increases. c) the starter cutting out early in the starting sequence before the engine has accelerated to
the required rpm for ignition.
d) failure of the fuel to ignite in the starting sequence after the engine has been accelerated to
21.3.3.10 (980)
the required rpm by the starter.
Using compressor bleed air to power systems:
a) decreases aircraft performance
b) has no influence on aircraft performance 21.3.4.4 (986)
c) increases aircraft performance The pressure usually produced by the Boost Pumps (BP) of the fuel supply system
d) is limited to the phases of take-off and landing is within the following range:
a) 20 to 50 psi
b) 5 to 10 psi
21.3.3.11 (981)
c) 3000 to 5000 psi
The accessory units driven by the accessory gearbox of a turbo-jet engine are
d) 300 to 500 psi
the :1. tacho-generator N12. tacho-generator N23. thrust reverser pneumatic
motors4. AC generator and its Constant Speed Unit (CSD)5. oil pumps6. hydraulic
pumps7. high pressure fuel pumpsThe combination regrouping all the correct 21.3.4.4 (987)
statements is : The purpose of the barometric correction in a fuel controller is to:
a) 1, 4, 5, 6, 7. a) maintain the correct weight fuel to air ratio when the altitude increases.
b) 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7. b) reduce the fuel-to-air ratio when altitude increases.
c) 2, 4, 5, 6. c) increase the fuel-to-air ratio when altitude increases.
d) 4, 5, 6, 7. d) maintain a constant fuel metering whatever the altitude.

21.3.4.1 (982) 21.3.4.4 (988)


The use of igniters is necessary on a turbo-jet:1 - throughout the operating range (For this question use annex 021-4008A)Reference should be made to the fuel
of the engine2 - for accelerations3 - for ground starts4 - for in-flight relights5 - sypply system shown in annex.In flight, with center tank empty and APU
during turbulence in flight6 - under heavy precipitation or in icing conditionsThe operating, a fuel unbalance is detected (quantity in tank 1 < quantity in tank
combination which regroups all of the correct statements is : 2).Rebalancing of the two tanks is:
a) 3 - 4 - 5 - 6 a) possible with ""CROSSFEED"" open and tank 1 pumps ""OFF"" and tank 2 pumps
b) 3 ""ON"".
c) 2002-03-04 b) impossible without causing the APU stop.
d) 1 c) possible with ""CROSSFEED"" open and tank 2 pumps ""OFF"".
d) impossible because there is no fuel in center tank.
21.3.4.2 (983)
For a turbine engine, the term self-sustaining speed relates to the speed at which 21.3.4.4 (989)
the engine : In a gas turbine engine, the power changes are normally made by controlling the
a) will run without any external assistance. amount of:
b) is designed to idle after starting. a) fuel supplied.
c) operates most efficiently in the cruise.. b) air entering the compressor.
d) will enable the generators to supply bus-bar voltage. c) air leaving the compressor by the opening or closing of bleed valves.
d) air entering the compressor and fuel entering the combustion chambers.
21.3.4.2 (984)
An impulse coupling does not function at such speeds above those encountered in 21.3.4.5 (990)
starting. Its engaging pawls are prevented from operating at higher speeds by In a fuel system, the oil to fuel heat exchanger allows:
a) centrifugal force a) jet engine oil cooling through thermal exchange with fuel flowing from tanks.
b) engine oil pressure b) fuel cooling so as to prevent vapour creation likely to unprime nozzles.
c) a coil spring c) fuel heating as required whenever fuel filter clogging is detected.
d) electro-magnetic action of operating magneto. d) automatic fuel heating by the engine oil so as to prevent icing in fuel filter.

80
21.3.4.5 (991) a) 1, 3.
The reason for having a low pressure fuel-cooled oil cooler in a recirculatory type b) 2, 3, 4.
oil system is to: c) 3, 4, 5.
a) cool the oil and heat the fuel. d) 1, 5.
b) cool the oil only.
c) cool both the oil and the fuel.
21.3.4.8 (997)
d) heat the fuel only.
The Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR) is the ratio of:
a) the total turbine outlet pressure to the total compressor inlet pressure.
21.3.4.5 (992) b) the total turbine outlet pressure to the total compressor outlet pressure.
In very cold weather, the pilot notices during startup, a slightly higher than normal c) the total turbine inlet pressure to the total compressor inlet pressure.
oil pressure.This higher pressure : d) the total turbine inlet pressure to the total compressor outlet pressure.
a) is normal, if it decreases after startup.
b) is abnormal and requires the engine to be shut down.
21.3.4.8 (998)
c) is abnormal but does not require the engine to be shut down.
The control of free turbine engines on turboprops, is accomplished by:- a propeller
d) requires an oil change.
control lever used to select: 1 - propeller RPM 2 - turbine temperature 3 - turbine
RPM- a fuel control lever used to select: 4 - propeller RPM 5 - torque 6 - turbine
21.3.4.6 (993) temperature The combination which regroups all of the correct statements is :
The fuel temperature, at which, under standard conditions, the vapour ignites in a) 2001-05-06
contact with a flame and extinguishs immediately, is the: b) 2001-03-05
a) flash point c) 2003-04-06
b) combustion point d) 2002-04-05
c) fire point
d) self ignition point
21.3.5.1 (999)
On the ground, the Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) can be substituted for the:
21.3.4.7 (994) a) ground power unit, the starting system, the air conditioning unit.
An engine pressure ratio (EPR) gauge reading normally shows the ratio of: b) ground power unit, the air conditioning unit.
a) jet pipe pressure to compressor inlet pressure. c) ground power unit, the starting system.
b) jet pipe pressure to combustion chamber pressure. d) ground power unit.
c) combustion chamber pressure to compressor inlet pressure.
d) compressor outlet pressure to compressor inlet pressure.
21.3.5.1 (1000)
A modern Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) is designed to provide power for ground
21.3.4.7 (995) starting of an engine. It also supplies both in the air (subject to certification
The thrust of a turbo-jet, at the selection of full power :1 - equals the product of limitations) and on the ground :
the exhaust gas mass flow and the exhaust gas velocity2 - is obtained by pressure a) air conditioning and electrical services.
of the exhaust gas on the ambient air3 - is equivalent to zero mechanical power b) air conditioning and thrust in the event of engine failure.
since the aeroplane is not moving4 - is independant of the outside air c) either air conditioning or electrical services, but never both at the same time.
temperatureThe combination which regroups all of the correct statements is : d) air conditioning and electrical services (on the ground) electrical and hydraulic back-up
a) 03-Jan services (in the air).
b) 02-Jan
c) 03-Fev
21.3.5.1 (1001)
d) 4
In addition to fire detention/protection, most auxiliary power units (APUs) have
automatic controls for stating, stopping and maintaining operation within safe
21.3.4.8 (996) limits. These controls provide correct sequencing of the starting cycle as well as
Consider a jet engine whose control is based on the Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR):1. protection against :
with a constant EPR, the thrust decreases when the altitude increases2. with a a) high turbine gas temperature (TGT), overspeed, loss of oil pressure and high oil
constant EPR, the thrust is independent of the Mach number3. At same temperature.
environmental conditions, a given EPR setting maintains the thrust irrespective of b) high TGT and loss of oil pressure only.
engine wear due to ageing.4. the EPR is determined by the impact pressure c) overspeed and high oil temperature only.
difference between the turbine outlet and the compressor inlet5. on take-off, in d) high TGT only.
the event of icing not detected by the crew, the indicated EPR is lower than the
real EPRThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

81
21.4.1.0 (1002) 21.4.2.0 (1008)
Some emergency exits must be equipped with devices so as to help the occupants Smoke detector systems are installed in the
to get out and reach the ground if their threshold is at a height above the ground a) upper cargo compartments (class E).
greater than: b) wheel wells.
a) 6 ft, aeroplane on the ground, landing gear extended. c) engine nacelles.
b) 6 ft, aeroplane on the ground, one main gear or nose gear collapse. d) fuel tanks.
c) 8 ft, aeroplane on the ground, one main gear or nose gear collapse.
d) 8 ft, aeroplane on the ground, landing gear extended.
21.4.2.0 (1009)
Ion detectors are devices used in aircraft for systems protection. They detect :
21.4.1.0 (1003) a) smoke.
The number of emergency exits in transport aeroplanes b) overtemperature.
a) must be arranged to allow all passengers and all crew members to leave the c) fire.
aeroplane within 90 sec. through 50 % of the available emergency exits. d) overtemperature and fire.
b) must be arranged to allow at least 50 % of all passengers to leave the aeroplane within 2
minutes.
21.4.2.0 (1010)
c) depends on the decision of the manufacturer in agreement with the operator.
Smoke detectors fitted on transport aircraft are of the following type :
d) must be in accordance with the number of passengers on board.
a) optical or ionization
b) chemical
21.4.1.0 (1004) c) electrical
A manual inflation handle: d) magnetic
a) serves to actuate inflation of a slide when automatic inflation fails
b) serves to inflate a life jacket when the normal inflation function fails
21.4.2.0 (1011)
c) operates a hand pump for manual inflation of a slide
(For this question use annex 021-10164A)The smoke detection in the aircraft
d) is generally not applied on slides.
cargo compartments is carried out by four sensors: C1, C2, C3 and C4.They are
associated with the logic circuit as described in the annex.The repeating bell is
21.4.1.0 (1005) activated when:
The purpose of the proximity of the emergency evacuation path marking system is a) the C1 and C2 sensors detect smoke.
to : b) the C1 and C3 sensors detect smoke.
a) replace the overhead emergency lighting during an emergency evacuation with c) only one sensor detects smoke.
a thick smoke. d) the C2 and C4 sensors detect smoke.
b) replace the overhead emergency lighting in case of failure.
c) mark only the exits at the floor level.
21.4.3.0 (1012)
d) to be used only at night.
When a continuous element of a fire detection system is heated:1. its resistance
decreases.2. its resistance increases.3. the leakage current increases.4. the
21.4.1.0 (1006) leakage current decreases.The combination regrouping all the correct statements
An exit is considered to be out of service when the following elements are is :
inoperative the:1. external door opening mechanism2. internal door opening a) 1, 3
mechanism3. door opening aid device4. open door locking system5. auxiliary b) 2, 3
means of evacuation6. emergency lightingThe combination regrouping all the c) 1, 4
correct statements is: d) 2, 4
a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
b) 1, 2, 5, 6
21.4.3.0 (1013)
c) 2, 3, 4, 6
A fault protection circuit in a fire detection system will:
d) 1, 3, 4, 5
a) inhibit the fire detector when the detection line is connected to ground.
b) activate the fire detection system when the detection line is connected to ground.
21.4.1.0 (1007) c) automatically initiate APU shutdown and fire extinguisher striker activation in the event of
Evacuation slide inflation is ensured by : fire.
a) a pressurized gas canister combined with the slide itself. d) activate an alarm in the cockpit and in the landing gear bay for ground crew.
b) the aircraft's general pneumatic circuit.
c) a manual pump, used when needed by the cabin crew.
21.4.3.0 (1014)
d) pressurized air from the air conditioning system.
In a fire detection system with single-loop continuous components (with no fault
82
protection), if the line is accidently grounded: 21.4.3.0 (1021)
a) the fire alarm is triggered. Continuous loop fire detector systems operate on the principle that an increase in
b) the power supply is cut off automatically. temperature produces :
c) there will be no effect on the system a) a decrease in resistance
d) the engine fire extinguisher striker is automatically activated. b) an increase in resistance
c) a decrease in the reference current
d) a decrease in pressure
21.4.3.0 (1015)
When a wire type fire system is tested:
a) the wiring and the warning are tested. 21.4.3.0 (1022)
b) Only the warning function is tested. A Continuous-Loop-Detector-System is a:
c) a part of the wire is totally heated. a) Fire detection system
d) the wire is totally heated. b) Smoke detection system
c) Carbon dioxide warning system
d) Fire fighting system
21.4.3.0 (1016)
A gaseous sensor/responder tube fire sensor is tested by
a) heating up the sensor with test power connection. 21.4.3.0 (1023)
b) checking the continuity of the system with a test switch. On an aircraft provided with resistance and capacitance variation type fire
c) checking the wiring harness for faults but not the sensor. detection loops, a fire alarm is initiated by a temperature increase detected:
d) checking the sensor with pressurized gas. a) at any isolated point of the loops or else generally on all the loops
b) only at an isolated point of the loops
c) only in a uniform way along the loops
21.4.3.0 (1017)
d) on at least one loop
In transport aeroplanes overheat detection systems are installed in the:
a) landing gear bays / wheel wells.
b) cabin. 21.4.3.0 (1024)
c) fuel tanks. When a bimetallic strip is used as a switch in a fire detection loop, a fire alarm is
d) tyres. triggered after a delay. The purpose of this delay is to:
a) avoid false alarms in case of vibrations
b) allow temperatures to equalise
21.4.3.0 (1018)
c) delay the triggering of the fire extinguinshers and increase their efficiency
The indication of the fire detection systems is performed by a:
d) wait for the triggering of the second fire detection loop in order to confirm the fire
a) warning light and a warning bell (or aural alert).
b) warning bell.
c) warning light. 21.4.4.0 (1025)
d) gear warning. The most common extinguishing agent used in gas turbine engine fire protection
system is:
a) Freon.
21.4.3.0 (1019)
b) Water.
On a multi-engined aircraft a fire detection system includes :
c) CO2.
a) a warning light for each engine and a single alarm bell common to all engines
d) Powder.
b) a single warning light but a separate alarm bell for each engine
c) a single warning light and a single alarm bell
d) both a warning light and an alarm bell unique to each engine 21.4.4.0 (1026)
If inflammable gaseous materials, like propane for example, are set on fire, the
following extinguisher types should be used for fire fighting:
21.4.3.0 (1020)
a) BCF and CO2 type extinguishers
In order to enable a fire to be controlled as quickly as possible, the fire detectors
b) Water type extinguishers
are located in the highest risk compartments. Theses compartments are :1. the
c) Dry and water type extinguishers
main landing gear wheel wells2. the fuel tanks3. the oil tanks4. the auxiliary power
d) CO2 and water type extinguishers
unit5. around the enginesThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 1,4,5
b) 2,3 21.4.4.0 (1027)
c) 2,5 The most suitable means for extinguishing a magnesium fire on the ground is :
d) 1,2,3,4,5 a) sand.
b) water.
83
c) carbon dioxide. 21.4.4.0 (1033)
d) freon. An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 7 to 30
seats must be equipped with at least:
a) 1 hand fire-extinguisher conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
21.4.4.0 (1028)
b) 2 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
In the cockpit of a transport airplane, at least one manual fire-extinguisher must
c) 3 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
be conveniently located containing :
d) 4 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
a) halon.
b) powder.
c) water. 21.4.4.0 (1034)
d) special fluids. An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 31 to 60
seats must be equipped with at least:
a) 2 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
21.4.4.0 (1029)
b) 3 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
(For this question use annex 021-9377A)When fire is detected on engine n°2, the
c) 4 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
fire shutoff handle n°2 is pulled and the extinguishing agent n°1 is discharged.
d) 5 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
This results in :
a) the discharge of fire extinguisher bottle n°1 and illumination of the DISCH
(discharge) indicator lamp 21.4.4.0 (1035)
b) the discharge of fire extinguisher bottle n°1 and illumination of the DISCH indicator lamp of An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 61 to
agent n°1 on both engines 200 seats must be equipped with at least:
c) the discharge of fire extinguisher bottle n°1 and illumination of the DISCH indicator lamp of a) 3 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
agent n°1 on engine no. and DISCH indicator lamp of agent n°2 on engine n°1 b) 2 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
d) the discharge of fire extinguisher bottle n°2 and illumination of the DISCH indicator lamp of c) 4 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
agent n°1 on engine n°1 and agent n°2 on engine n°2 d) 5 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.

21.4.4.0 (1030) 21.4.4.0 (1036)


Generally, when the fire handle of the fire-extinguishing system on an aircraft is An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 201 to
pulled, the effects are :1. closing of the LP valve of the fuel system2. opening of 300 seats must be equipped with at least:
the air bleed valves and HP valves on the engine concerned3. setting of a) 4 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
extinguishing systems4. closing of the isolation and de-icing valves5. isolation of b) 3 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
the associated electric current generators6. immediate discharge of extinguishing c) 5 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
agentThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is: d) 6 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
a) 1,3,4,5
b) 1,2,5,6
21.4.4.0 (1037)
c) 2,3,4,5
An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 301 to
d) 1,3,4
400 seats must be equipped with at least:
a) 5 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
21.4.4.0 (1031) b) 4 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
With engine fire alarm activated, the extinguisher discharge: c) 6 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
a) is the pilot's task d) 3 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
b) is automatic and immediate
c) is automatic after a delay to allow the pilot to stop the engine
21.4.4.0 (1038)
d) does not need the engine to be stopped
An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 401 to
500 seats must be equipped with at least:
21.4.4.0 (1032) a) 6 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
The main feature of BCF fire extinguishers is that they : b) 5 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
a) act as flame inhibitors by absorbing the air's oxygen. c) 7 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
b) use the cooling effect created by the venturi during discharge. d) 8 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
c) are electrical conductors.
d) are highly corrosive particularly for aluminium alloys.
21.4.4.0 (1039)
An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 501 to
600 seats must be equipped with at least:
84
a) 7 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. b) 1, 2.
b) 8 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. c) 1, 2, 4.
c) 6 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. d) 1,4.
d) 5 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
21.4.4.0 (1045)
21.4.4.0 (1040) In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, the minimum requirement for the survival oxygen
An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater needed to supply 100 % of the passengers during and following an emergency
than 600 seats must be equipped with at least: descend is:
a) 8 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. a) 10 minutes or the entire flight time where the cabin pressure altitude is above
b) 9 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. 15000 ft, whichever is the greater.
c) 7 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. b) 30 minutes.
d) 6 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. c) the entire flight time where the cabin pressure altitude is above 13000 ft.
d) the entire flight time where the cabin pressure altitude is above 10000 ft minus 30 minutes.
21.4.4.0 (1041)
An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater 21.4.5.0 (1046)
than 60 seats must be equipped with at least: The oxygen masks have dropped down from the passengers service units. The
a) 3 HALON 1211 fire-extinguishers. oxygen flow starts :
b) 2 HALON 1211 fire-extinguishers. a) after pulling the oxygen mask downwards
c) 4 HALON 1211 fire-extinguishers. b) immediately
d) 1 HALON 1211 fire-extinguisher. c) only above FL200
d) After the system has been switched on by a crew member
21.4.4.0 (1042)
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an airplane whose maximum take-off mass exceeds 21.4.5.0 (1047)
5 700 kg or whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater A public transport jet aeroplane may be operated up to FL 450. The cabin includes
than 9 seats and smaller than 200 seats must be equipped with a: 180 passenger seats, made up of 30 rows (3 seats from each side of central aisle).
a) crash axe or a crow-bar in the pilot compartment. The minimum number of cabin oxygen masks for this aeroplane must be:
b) crash axe and a crow-bar in the passenger compartment. a) 198 (110% of the seating capacity).
c) crash axe in the cockpit and a crow-bar in the passenger compartment. b) 270 (150% of the seating capacity).
d) crow-bar in the cockpit and a crash axe in the passenger compartment. c) 240 (one additional mask per seat block).
d) 210 (one additional mask per seat row).
21.4.4.0 (1043)
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an airplane must be equipped with equipment or 21.4.5.0 (1048)
systems at each emergency exit that allow to reach the ground safely in the case When quick donning masks are in use, the pilot is:
of an emergency when the sill height of the passenger emergency exit is higher a) able to radiotelephone.
than: b) only able to receive.
a) 1,83 m. c) only able to transmit.
b) 1,80 m. d) not able to do any radio communication.
c) 1,86 m.
d) 1,89 m.
21.4.5.0 (1049)
In a pressurized aircraft, the first-aid (therapeutic) oxygen is designed to:
21.4.4.0 (1044) a) give medical assistance to passengers with pathological respiratory disorders.
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, during and following an emergency descent, each b) protect the flight crew and cabin attendants against fumes and noxious gases.
occupant of the cockpit seats on duty must have access to a minimum amount of c) protect all the occupants against the effects of accidental depressurisation.
oxygen in:1. order to maintain a supply throughout the entire flight time where the d) protect certain passengers, and is only carried on board for these people.
cabin altitude pressure is greater than 13000 ft.2. order to maintain a supply
throughout the entire flight time where the cabin altitude pressure is greater than
21.4.5.0 (1050)
10000 ft and smaller than 13000 ft minus 30 minutes.3. no case less than 30
An aircraft is scheduled to fly from PARIS to MARSEILLE at FL 390 and has the
minutes for airplanes certified to fly up to 25000 ft.4. no case less than 2 hours for
following characteristics:Maximum permissible number of passenger specified by
airplanes certified to fly at over 25000 ft.The combination regrouping all the
the certificate of airworthiness= 230Number of seats on board= 200Scheduled
correct statements is:
number of passengers on board= 180The minimum number of inhaler systems
a) 1, 2, 3 et 4.
provided in the aircraft cabin should be:
85
a) 220. b) oxygen becomes unusable for the passengers.
b) 230. c) passenger oxygen masks will drop down.
c) 200. d) oxygen bottles will explode.
d) 180.
21.4.5.0 (1057)
21.4.5.0 (1051) The purpose of a diluter demand regulator in an oxygen system is to :
From which flight level do the regulations require a quick donning type oxygen a) deliver oxygen flow when inhaling.
mask for the flight crew in a pressurized aircraft ? b) deliver oxygen flow only above FL 100.
a) FL 250. c) is only recommended with smoke in the cockpit.
b) FL 300. d) mix air and oxygen in a passenger oxygen mask.
c) FL 390.
d) FL 100.
21.4.5.0 (1058)
The built-in passenger oxygen system be activated by :
21.4.5.0 (1052) a) switching the passenger oxygen ON.
What is breathed in when using a passenger oxygen mask? b) switching the diluter demand regulator ON.
a) Cabin air and oxygen. c) opening the oxygen-bottle valves.
b) 100% oxygen. d) switching the diluter demand regulator and the passenger oxygen ON.
c) Cabin air and oxygen or 100% oxygen.
d) A mixture of oxygen and freon gas.
21.4.5.0 (1059)
The passenger oxygen mask will supply :
21.4.5.0 (1053) a) a mixture of cabin air and oxygen.
The safety precautions to be taken whenever using oxygen are:1. refrain from b) 100 % oxygen.
smoking, avoid sparkes.2. Avoid operation of radio communication equipment.3. c) a mixture of compressed air and oxygen or 100 % oxygen.
Slowly operate oxygen system valves.4. Avoid greasy matter.The combination d) a mixture of oxygen and freon gas.
regrouping all the correct statements is :
a) 1, 3, 4.
21.4.5.0 (1060)
b) 1, 2, 3.
The chemical oxygen generator is a system:1. which is inexpensive2. requiring no
c) 2, 3, 4.
external input3. which is lightweight4. requiring no maintenance5. with adjustable
d) 1, 2, 4.
flow rate6. which is unsafeThe combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:
21.4.5.0 (1054) a) 1, 3, 4
The opening of the doors giving access to the oxygen masks for the passengers b) 2, 3, 6
is :1. pneumatic for the gaseous oxygen system,2. electrical for the chemical c) 1, 4, 6
oxygen system,3. pneumatic for the chemical oxygen system,4. electrical for the d) 2, 4, 5
gaseous oxygen system.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 1, 2
21.4.5.0 (1061)
b) 1, 3
Consider the flight deck oxygen supply system. The purpose of the oxygen
c) 2, 3
regulator (as a function of demand and altitude) is to:1. decrease oxygen pressure
d) 2, 4
from 1800 PSI (in the bottles) down to about 50-75 PSI (low pressure system)2.
supply pure oxygen3. supply diluted oxygen4. supply oxygen at normal pressure5.
21.4.5.0 (1055) supply oxygen at emergency/positive pressure6. trigger the continuous cabin
The state in which the breathing oxygen for the cockpit of jet transport aeroplanes altitude warning at 10000 ft cabin altitudeThe combination regrouping all the
is stored is : correct statements is:
a) Gaseous. a) 2, 3, 4, 5
b) Chemical compound. b) 3, 4, 5, 6
c) Liquid. c) 1, 2, 3, 4
d) Gaseous or chemical compound.. d) 1, 3, 4, 6

21.4.5.0 (1056) 21.4.5.0 (1062)


If the maximum operating pressure of the oxygen system is exceeded the: A public transport aircraft is operated at FL 390. The total number of oxygen
a) oxygen is discharged overboard via a safety plug. dispensing units and outlets in the cabin must be at least the same as the total
86
number of : 21.4.5.0 (1068)
a) seats exceeded by 10%. In jet transport aircraft, breathing oxygen for the cockpit is stored in the following
b) seats. state:
c) passengers. a) gaseous.
d) passengers exceeded by 10%. b) liquid.
c) chemical.
d) chemical or gaseous.
21.4.5.0 (1063)
A public transport aircraft has a cruising altitude of FL 390. It is fitted with
individual oxygen masks for the passengers. In the event of depressurisation, the 21.4.5.0 (1069)
masks must be automatically released before the cabin pressure altitude exceeds: Oxygen systems are systems used on pressurized airplanes in :1. an emergency in
a) 15000 ft. the case of depressurization.2. an emergency in the case of the indisposition of a
b) 13000 ft. passenger.3. normal use in order to supply oxygen to the cabin.5. an emergency in
c) 12000 ft. the case of smoke or toxic gases.The combination regrouping all the correct
d) 14000 ft. statements is:
a) 1,4
b) 1, 2, 4
21.4.5.0 (1064)
c) 3
Above what flight level must one pilot wear an oxygen mask at all times during
d) 2, 3
commercial flight.
a) 410.
b) 300. 21.4.5.0 (1070)
c) 250. Modern pressurized transport airplanes are equipped with :
d) 490. a) two independent oxygen systems, one supplying the cockpit, the other the
cabin.
b) only one oxygen system supplying the whole aircraft.
21.4.5.0 (1065)
c) two oxygen systems both supplying the cockpit and the cabin.
A diluter demand oxygen regulator :
d) only portable oxygen bottles.
a) delivers oxygen flow when inhaling.
b) delivers oxygen flow only above FL 100.
c) is only recommended for use with smoke in the cockpit. 21.4.5.0 (1071)
d) mixes air and oxygen in a passenger oxygen mask. Generally speaking when the oxygen flows to the masks in the passenger cabin,
the system is activated by
a) firmly pulling the mask towards the face, after the cover has opened.
21.4.5.0 (1066)
b) activating the relevant switch in the cockpit.
A jet aircraft is certified for the carriage of 120 passengers. 42 passenger are on
c) firmly pulling the cover behind which the oxygen mask is stowed.
board and the expected Flight Level on route Paris-Alger is FL 330. The first aid
d) pushing the mask against the face and breath normally.
oxygen to be on board at departure shall provide breathing supply for at least:
a) 1 passenger for the entire flight after cabin depressurization at cabin altitude of
more than 8000 ft. 21.4.5.0 (1072)
b) no first aid required. A pressurized aeroplane is operated at FL 300. It undergoes a rapid decompression
c) 1 passenger for the entire flight after cabin depressurization at cabin altitude between so that the pressure in the cabin goes quickly down to the outside pressure value.
10000 and 14000 ft. What happens concerning the oxygen system ?
d) 3 passengers for the entire flight after cabin depressurization at cabin altitude between a) the oxygen masks are automatically presented to cabin crew members and
10000 and 14000 ft. passengers
b) the oxygen masks are automatically presented to flight crew members
c) if the automatic mask presentation has been activated, the oxygen will flow within the first
21.4.5.0 (1067)
3 minutes
As regards passengers oxygen in public transport aircraft, information must be
d) manual override of the automatic presentation of passenger oxygen masks is, generally
given to passengers through a demonstration. If a flight is to be carried out at
speaking, not possible
Flight Level FL 290, this demonstration must be completed before :
a) take-off.
b) the aircraft reaches FL 100. 21.4.5.0 (1073)
c) the aircraft reaches FL 140. A substance which may never be used in the vicinity or on parts of an oxygen
d) the aircraft reaches FL 250. installation is :
a) Grease

87
b) Water 21.4.5.0 (1080)
c) Halon An oxygen regulator has 3 controls :- a power lever : ON/OFF- an ""O2"" lever :
d) Nitrogen NORMAL/100%- an emergency lever : ON/OFFAmong the following statements,
the correct proposition is :
a) the power lever on ON, and, the ""O2"" lever on NORMAL allows the oxygen to
21.4.5.0 (1074)
enter the regulator and enables breathing of a mixture of air/oxygen according to
The type of a aircraft oxygen system intended for use by passengers, is mostly :
altitude.
a) a continuous flow system
b) the EMERGENCY lever on ON enables breathing of pure oxygen at ambient pressure.
b) a pressure demand system
c) the ""O2"" lever on ON enables breathing of the over-pressure oxygen at a constant flow
c) portable equipment only
rate.
d) an air recycle system
d) with the EMERGENCY lever on OFF, in an emergency situation, one cannot use the oxygen
mask to breathe.
21.4.5.0 (1075)
The demand valve of a diluter-demand type oxygen regulator in normal mode,
21.4.5.0 (1081)
operates when the :
The operations of an airline plan the operation of a pressurized aircraft at a 240
a) user breathes in
flight level on its whole route with 150 passengers on board.As concerns the
b) diluter control is in normal position
regulatory requirements about oxygen:1. each crew member will have available a
c) user requires 100 percent oxygen
quick fitting inhaler device.2. the aircraft will be equipped with a warning system
d) pressure in the oxygen reservoir is more than 500 psi
indicating that the cabin altitude is higher than 3 000 m.3 . the quantity of oxygen
on board will be sufficient for the supply of 100 % of the occupants during the
21.4.5.0 (1076) whole flight time above the flight level 150 after an eventual depressurization.4.
The purpose of the ""Pressure Relief Valve"" in a high pressure oxygen system is to the first aid quantity of oxygen will be sufficient for the supply of two passengers
: during the whole flight time when the cabin altitude is greater than 8 000 feet.The
a) relieve overpressure if the pressure reducing valve malfunctions combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
b) reduce pressure in the oxygen reservoir to a suitable manifold pressure for the regulator a) 2,3
c) act as a manual shut-off valve b) 1,2,3,4
d) maximize the charging pressure of the system c) 2
d) 3,4
21.4.5.0 (1077)
The purpose of the first aid oxygen is to: 21.4.5.0 (1082)
a) provide some passengers with additional respiratory assistance after an When selected to normal, the oxygen proportion of the air/oxygen mixture
emergency descent following a depressurization. supplied by the cockpit oxygen system regulator:
b) provide the cabin attendants with respiratory protection. a) increases when the altitude increases.
c) supply all the passengers in case of depressurization. b) decreases when the altitude increases.
d) provide the flight crew with respiratory assistance after depressurization. c) is constant whatever the altitude.
d) is 100 %.
21.4.5.0 (1078)
The survival oxygen is: 21.4.5.0 (1083)
a) the oxygen supplied to the airplane occupants in case of accidental In the cabin, when the oxygen mask is pulled downwards, the passenger
depressurization. breathes :
b) the oxygen supplied to a passenger who needs oxygen for pathological reasons. a) a mixture of oxygen and cabin air.
c) the oxygen used for protection against smoke and carbon dioxide. b) pure oxygen under pressure.
d) a therapeutical oxygen specifically carried for certain passengers. c) pure oxygen at the ambient pressure.
d) cabin air under pressure.
21.4.5.0 (1079)
Airliners are equipped with oxygen systems. It can be said that : 21.4.5.0 (1084)
a) with setting on ""NORMAL"", the crew breathes a mixture of oxygen / cabin air. Chemical oxygen generators are used to furnish oxygen to the :
b) the same circuit is used by the crew and the passengers. a) cabin only.
c) the seals must be carefully greased to avoid sparks. b) cockpit and the cabin.
d) the passenger circuit never uses chemically generated oxygen. c) cockpit only.
d) toilets only.

88
21.4.5.0 (1085) c) these substances mixed with oxygen could catch fire in the presence of a spark.
The chemical oxygen generator supplies oxygen for about : d) these substances could plug the oxygen masks filters.
a) 15 minutes.
b) 30 minutes.
21.4.5.0 (1091)
c) 2 hours.
A passenger emergency mask is a :
d) 5 minutes.
a) continuous flow mask and cannot be used if there is smoke in the cabin.
b) mask with flow on request and cannot be used if there is smoke in the cabin.
21.4.5.0 (1086) c) continuous flow mask and can be used if there is smoke in the cabin.
The advantages of a chemical oxygen source for the passenger cabin are :1. d) mask with flow on request and can be used if there is smoke.
reduced weight and volume,2. easy storage and maintenance,3. greater
autonomy,4. no risk of explosion,5. reversible functioning,6. no maintenance.The
21.4.5.0 (1092)
combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
A smoke mask is a :
a) 1, 2, 4, 6
a) mask with flow on request and covers the whole face.
b) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
b) continuous flow mask and covers the whole face.
c) 2, 3, 5
c) mask with flow on request and covers only the nose and the mouth.
d) 1, 3, 4, 5
d) continuous flow mask and covers only the nose and the mouth.

21.4.5.0 (1087)
21.4.5.0 (1093)
The disadvantages of a chemical oxygen source for the passenger cabin are :1. a
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, each occupant of the cockpit seats on duty in a
flow which cannot be modulated,2. a heavy and bulky system,3. non reversible
non-pressurized airplane must have an oxygen supply reserve for the entire flight
functioning,4. risks of explosion,5. poor autonomy.The combination regrouping all
time at pressure altitudes greater than:
the correct statements is:
a) 10000 ft.
a) 1, 3, 5
b) 12500 ft.
b) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
c) 13000 ft.
c) 2, 4
d) 14000 ft.
d) 1, 2, 3, 5

21.4.5.0 (1094)
21.4.5.0 (1088)
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, 100 % of the passengers in a non-pressurized
The advantages of a gaseous oxygen source for the passenger cabin are :1. a
airplane must have an oxygen supply reserve for the entire flight time at pressure
greater autonomy,2. no risk of explosion,3. reversible functioning,4. easy storage
altitudes greater than:
and maintenance,5. possibility to regulate flow.The combination regrouping all the
a) 13000 ft.
correct statements is :
b) 10000 ft.
a) 1, 3, 5
c) 14000 ft.
b) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
d) 15000 ft.
c) 2, 4, 5
d) 2, 3, 4
21.4.5.0 (1095)
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, 10 % of the passengers in a non-pressurized
21.4.5.0 (1089)
airplane must have an oxygen supply reserve for the entire flight time when the
When the door operation of a transport airplane equipped with evacuation slides is
cabin altitude pressure is greater than:
controlled from the outside, the slide:
a) 10000 ft but not exceeding 13000 ft minus 30 minutes.
a) is disarmed automatically.
b) 13000 ft.
b) unfolds and becomes inflated.
c) 10000 ft.
c) unfolds but does not become inflated.
d) 10000 ft but not exceeding 13000 ft.
d) becomes inflated in its packboard thus preventing its unfolding.

21.4.5.0 (1096)
21.4.5.0 (1090)
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, when an airplane flies at over 25000 ft, the total
The equipment of an oxygen supply installation must be kept absolutely free of oil
number of oxygen dispensing units and supply terminals must be at least greater
or grease traces as:
than the number of:
a) these substances catch fire spontaneously in the presence of oxygen under
a) seats by 10 %.
pressure.
b) passengers by 10 %.
b) the oxygen system would be contaminated.

89
c) seats by 30 %. cabin according to JAR-OPS depends on the number of :
d) passengers by 30%. a) seats in the cabin.
b) seat rows in the cabin.
c) passengers in the cabin.
21.4.5.0 (1097)
d) emergency exits in the cabin.
In case of smoke in the cockpit, the crew oxygen regulator must be set to:
a) 100%
b) normal. 21.4.6.0 (1103)
c) emergency. The crash/fire axe is part of the safety equipment fitted to passenger aircraft. Its
d) on demand. function is to :
a) obtain forced access to a fire behind a panel and a general purpose tool during
evacuation.
21.4.5.0 (1098)
b) free exits in case of evacuation via the sides.
The installation and use of on-board oxygen generators is such that:1 - the
c) activate a radio survival beacon by cutting off the red coloured top
smoking ban is imperative when used2 - in case of accidental drop of the
d) settle an escalating conflict with unreasonable passengers, who threaten flight safety.
""continuous flow"" passenger masks, no crew action is required3 - no trace of
grease must be found in the system assembly4 - the system's filling adaptors must
be greased with non freezable or graphite greaseThe combination which regroups 21.4.6.0 (1104)
all of the correct statements is : In accordance with the JAR-OPS, an airplane constituted of only one passenger
a) 03-Jan deck, equipped with 61 seats and effectively carrying passengers, must be
b) 04-Jan equipped with :
c) 03-Fev a) 1 megaphone.
d) 04-Fev b) 2 megaphones.
c) 2 megaphones if there are more than 31 passengers on board.
d) no megaphone.
21.4.6.0 (1099)
In a pressurized transport aircraft, the protective breathing equipment:
a) protects the members of the crew against fumes and noxious gases. 21.4.6.0 (1105)
b) gives medical assistance to certain passengers with respiratory disorders. In accordance with the JAR-OPS and with the exception of amphibians and
c) protects all the occupants against the effects of accidental depressurization. hydroplanes, the carriage of a life jacket per person on board is compulsory when
d) protects the members of the crew against the effects of accidental depressurization. the airplane is :1. cruising at such a distance from the shore that it would not be
able to return in the case of an engine failure.2. is flying over a water surface at
more than 50 NM off shore.3. is using departure and arrival paths above the water
21.4.6.0 (1100)
and when a ditching probability exists in the case of a problem.4. is flying over a
An operator shall not operate an aeroplane certicated to JAR25, across an area in
stretch of water at more than 100 NM off shore.The combination regrouping all the
which search and rescue would be especially difficult, without survival equipment
correct statements is:
if it flies away from an area suitable for making an emergency landing at a distance
a) 2, 3
greater than :
b) 1, 2, 3, 4
a) 90 minutes at cruising speed.
c) 1, 2
b) 60 minutes at cruising speed.
d) 3, 4
c) 30 minutes at cruising speed.
d) 120 minutes at cruising speed.
21.4.6.0 (1106)
The number of manual fire-extinguishers, on board the passenger cabin of an
21.4.6.0 (1101)
airplane, whose maximum approved configuration for passenger seats is 31, is:
A turboprop aeroplane is performing an overwater flight, which takes it further
a) 2
than 340 NM away from an aerodrome where an emergency landing could be
b) 1
performed. Normal cruising speed is 180 kt. One engine out airspeed is 155 kt.
c) 3
a) Life jackets must be available for all occupants.
d) 0
b) The regulation does not require life jackets or rafts to be taken on board in this particular
case.
c) Life jackets and rafts must be available for all occupants. 21.4.6.0 (1107)
d) Life rafts must be available for all occupants. The number of crash axes on board an airplane, whose maximum approved
configuration of passenger seats is 201, is :
a) 2
21.4.6.0 (1102)
b) 1
The number of hand fire extinguishers which have to be installed in the passenger
90
c) 3 c) 7 manual-fire extinguishers in the passenger cabin.
d) 4 d) 4 manual fire-extinguishers in the passenger cabin.

21.4.6.0 (1108) 21.4.6.0 (1114)


A public transport passengers aircraft, with a seating configuration of more than The pyrotechnic means used in case of an emergency to indicate your position to
61 seats, must have in its passenger compartment(s), at least 3 portable fire- the emergency teams are a flare:
extinguishers including: a) which is used at night and a smoke device which is used in the daytime.
a) 2 halon fire-extinguishers. b) and a smoke device which are only used at night.
b) 1 halon fire-extinguisher. c) which is used at daytime and a smoke device which is used at night.
c) 3 halon fire-extinguishers. d) and a smoke device which are only used in the daytime.
d) no halon fire-extinguisher.
21.4.6.0 (1115)
21.4.6.0 (1109) The portable emergency beacons which are used after an emergency landing or
In a ditching situation, the passenger life jackets will be inflated : ditching have a duration of :
a) when leaving the airplane. a) 48 h
b) immediately on the opening of the exits. b) 24 h
c) immediately on ditching. c) 12 h
d) once the passengers are in the water. d) 72 h

21.4.6.0 (1110) 21.4.6.0 (1116)


An aircraft whose maximum approved configuration for passenger seats is 10 seats In accordance with JAR-OPS 1 and if necessary, the number of liferafts to be found
must be equipped with: on board an aircraft must allow the transportation of the entire aircraft occupants:
a) one fire-extinguisher in the cockpit and three fire-extinguishers in the a) in the case of a loss of one raft of the largest rated capacity.
passenger cabin. b) plus 10 %.
b) one fire-extinguisher in the cockpit and two fire- extinguishers in the passenger cabin. c) plus 30 %.
c) three fire-extinguishers in the passenger cabin only. d) in the case of a loss of two rafts.
d) two fire-extinguishers in the cockpit and two fire-extinguishers in the passenger cabin.
22.1.1.0 (1117)
21.4.6.0 (1111) In a standard atmosphere and at the sea level, the calibrated airspeed (CAS) is :
There are 60 passengers and crew members on board a turbo-prop aircraft. Its a) equal to the true airspeed (TAS).
speed is 240 kt. At a point along the course steered, above the sea, the aircraft is b) independent of the true airspeed (TAS).
at 1h45 min from an airdrome suitable for emergency landing. The minimum c) higher than the true airspeed (TAS).
equipment complying with regulations is : d) lower than the true airspeed (TAS).
a) 60 life jackets and three 30-seat life boats
b) 60 life jackets
22.1.1.1 (1118)
c) One 30-seat life boat and two 20-seat life boats
The pressure measured at the forward facing orifice of a pitot tube is the :
d) 60 life jackets, two 30-seat life boats
a) total pressure.
b) static pressure.
21.4.6.0 (1112) c) total pressure plus static pressure.
The emergency lighting system must be able to function and supply a certain level d) dynamic pressure.
of lighting after the main electric power system has been cut off for at least:
a) 10 minutes
22.1.1.1 (1119)
b) 90 seconds
A pitot blockage of both the ram air input and the drain hole with the static port
c) 5 minutes
open causes the airspeed indicator to :
d) 30 minutes
a) react like an altimeter.
b) read a little high.
21.4.6.0 (1113) c) read a little low.
An aircraft whose maximum approved configuration for passenger seats is 200 d) freeze at zero.
seats must be equipped with:
a) 3 manual fire-extinguishers in the passenger cabin.
b) 5 manual-fire extinguishers in the passenger cabin.
91
22.1.1.1 (1120) 22.1.1.2 (1126)
A pitot tube covered by ice which blocks the ram air inlet will affect the following If the static source to an altimeter becomes blocked during a climb, the instrument
instrument (s) : will:
a) airspeed indicator only. a) continue to indicate the reading at which the blockage occured
b) altimeter only. b) under-read by an amount equivalent to the reading at the time that the instrument became
c) vertical speed indicator only. blocked
d) airspeed indicator, altimeter and vertical speed indicator. c) over-read
d) gradually return to zero
22.1.1.1 (1121)
(For this question use annex 022-9771A)The atmospheric pressure at FL 70 in a 22.1.1.2 (1127)
""standard + 10"" atmosphere is: The hysteresis error of an altimeter varies substantially with the:
a) 781.85 hPa. a) time passed at a given altitude.
b) 942.13 hPa. b) mach number of the aircraft.
c) 1 013.25 hPa. c) aircraft altitude.
d) 644.41 hPa. d) static temperature.

22.1.1.1 (1122) 22.1.1.2 (1128)


In a non-pressurized aircraft, if one or several static pressure ports are damaged, The purpose of the vibrating device of an altimeter is to:
there is an ultimate emergency means for restoring a practically correct static a) reduce the effect of friction in the linkages
pressure intake : b) inform the crew of a failure of the instrument
a) breaking the rate-of-climb indicator glass window c) allow damping of the measurement in the unit
b) slightly opening a window to restore the ambient pressure in the cabin d) reduce the hysteresis effect
c) descending as much as possible in order to fly at a pressure as close to 1013.25 hPa as
possible
22.1.1.2 (1129)
d) calculating the ambient static pressure, allowing for the altitude and QNH and adjusting the
The static pressure error of the static vent on which the altimeter is connected
instruments
varies substantially with the:
a) Mach number of the aircraft
22.1.1.2 (1123) b) deformation of the aneroid capsule
The error in altimeter readings caused by the variation of the static pressure near c) aircraft altitude
the source is known as: d) static temperature
a) position pressure error.
b) barometric error.
22.1.1.2 (1130)
c) instrument error.
The altitude indicated on board an aircraft flying in an atmosphere where all the
d) hysteresis effect.
atmosphere layers below the aircraft are cold is :
a) lower than the real altitude.
22.1.1.2 (1124) b) the same as the real altitude.
If the static source of an altimeter becomes blocked during a descent the c) higher than the real altitude.
instrument will: d) equal to the standard altitude.
a) continue to display the reading at which the blockage occured
b) gradually indicate zero
22.1.1.2 (1131)
c) under-read
The altitude indicated on board an aircraft flying in an atmosphere where all
d) indicate a height equivalent to the setting on the millibar subscale
atmosphere layers below the aircraft are warm is:
a) higher than the real altitude.
22.1.1.2 (1125) b) the same as the real altitude.
The primary factor which makes the servo-assisted altimeter more accurate than c) lower than the real altitude.
the simple pressure altimeter is the use of: d) equal to the standard altitude.
a) an induction pick-off device
b) more effective temperature compensating leaf springs
22.1.1.2 (1132)
c) combination of counters/pointers
On board an aircraft the altitude is measured from the:
d) a sub-scale logarithmic function
a) pressure altitude
b) density altitude
92
c) temperature altitude 22.1.1.2 (1139)
d) standard altitude If an aircraft is equipped with one altimeter which is compensated for position
error and another altimeter which is not , and all other factors being equal...
a) At high speed, the non-compensated altimeter will indicate a higher altitude
22.1.1.2 (1133)
b) At high speed the non-compensated altimeter will indicate a lower altitude
The density altitude is :
c) There will be no difference between them if the air data computer (ADC) is functioning
a) the altitude of the standard atmosphere on which the density is equal to the
normally
actual density of the atmosphere
d) ATC will get an erroneous altitude report SSR
b) the temperature altitude corrected for the difference between the real temperature and the
standard temperature
c) the pressure altitude corrected for the relative density prevailing at this point 22.1.1.2 (1140)
d) the pressure altitude corrected for the density of air at this point The altimeter consists of one or several aneroid capsules located in a sealed
casing.The pressures in the aneroid capsule (i) and casing (ii) are respectively :
a) (i) vacuum (or a very low pressure) (ii) static pressure
22.1.1.2 (1134)
b) (i) static pressure at time t (ii) static pressure at time t - t
The pressure altitude is the altitude corresponding :
c) (i) total pressure (ii) static pressure
a) in standard atmosphere, to the pressure Ps prevailing at this point
d) (i) static pressure (ii) total pressure
b) in ambiant atmosphere, to the reference pressure Ps
c) in standard atmosphere, to the reference pressure Ps
d) in ambiant atmosphere, to the pressure Ps prevailing at this point 22.1.1.2 (1141)
The altimeter is fed by :
a) static pressure
22.1.1.2 (1135)
b) dynamic pressure
When flying from a sector of warm air into one of colder air, the altimeter will :
c) total pressure
a) overread.
d) differential pressure
b) underread.
c) be just as correct as before.
d) show the actual height above ground. 22.1.1.2 (1142)
In case of accidental closing of an aircraft's left static pressure port (rain, birds),
the altimeter:
22.1.1.2 (1136)
a) overreads the altitude in case of a sideslip to the left and displays the correct
At sea level, on a typical servo altimeter, the tolerance in feet from indicated must
information during symmetric flight.
not exceed :
b) overreads the altitude in case of a side-slip to the right and displays the correct information
a) +/-60 feet
during symmetric flight.
b) +/-75 feet
c) keeps on providing reliable reading in all situations
c) +/-30 feet
d) underreads the altitude.
d) +/-70 feet

22.1.1.3 (1143)
22.1.1.2 (1137)
When climbing at a constant Mach number below the tropopause, in ISA
The QNH is by definition the value of the:
conditions, the Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) will:
a) altimeter setting so that the needles of the altimeter indicate the altitude of the
a) decrease
location for which it is given.
b) increase at a linear rate
b) atmospheric pressure at the sea level of the location for which it is given.
c) remain constant
c) altimeter setting so that the needles indicate zero when the aircraft is on ground at the
d) increase at an exponential rate
location for which it is provided.
d) atmospheric pressure at the level of the ground overflown by the aircraft.
22.1.1.3 (1144)
For a constant Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) and a level flight, a fall in ambient
22.1.1.2 (1138)
temperature will result in a:
The use of the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) for avoiding an aircraft in
a) lower True Airspeed (TAS) due to an increase in air density
flight is now general. TCAS uses for its operation :
b) higher True Airspeed (TAS) due to a decrease in air density
a) the replies from the transponders of other aircraft
c) higher True Airspeed (TAS) due to an increase in air density
b) the echos from the ground air traffic control radar system
d) lower True Airspeed (TAS) due to a decrease in air density
c) the echos of collision avoidance radar system especially installed on board
d) both the replies from the transponders of other aircraft and the ground-based radar echoes

93
22.1.1.3 (1145) c) at which the flight controls can be fully deflected
When descending through an isothermal layer at a constant Calibrated Airspeed d) with flaps extended in landing position
(CAS), the True Airspeed (TAS) will:
a) decrease
22.1.1.3 (1152)
b) increase at a linear rate
VLO is the maximum :
c) remain constant
a) speed at which the landing gear can be operated with full safety.
d) increase at an exponential rate
b) flight speed with landing gear down.
c) speed with flaps extended in a given position.
22.1.1.3 (1146) d) cruising speed not to be exceeded except in still air with caution.
A leak in the pitot total pressure line of a non-pressurized aircraft to an airspeed
indicator would cause it to:
22.1.1.3 (1153)
a) under-read.
VLE is the maximum :
b) over-read.
a) flight speed with landing gear down
c) over-read in a climb and under-read in a descent.
b) speed at which the landing gear can be operated with full safety
d) under-read in a climb and over-read in a descent.
c) speed with flaps extended in a given position
d) speed authorized in flight
22.1.1.3 (1147)
The airspeed indicator circuit consists of pressure sensors. The pitot tube directly
22.1.1.3 (1154)
supplies:
With a pitot probe blocked due to ice build up, the aircraft airspeed indicator will
a) the total pressure
indicate in descent a :
b) the static pressure
a) decreasing speed.
c) the total pressure and the static pressure
b) constant speed.
d) the dynamic pressure
c) increasing speed.
d) fluctuating speed.
22.1.1.3 (1148)
If the static source to an airspeed indicator (ASI) becomes blocked during a
22.1.1.3 (1155)
descent the instrument will:
The limits of the yellow scale of an airspeed indicator are :
a) over-read
a) VNO for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit
b) read zero
b) VLO for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit
c) continue to indicate the speed applicable to that at the time of the blockage
c) VLE for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit
d) under-read
d) VFE for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit

22.1.1.3 (1149)
22.1.1.3 (1156)
The calibrated airspeed (CAS) is obtained by applying to the indicated airspeed
The limits of the green scale of an airspeed indicator are :
(IAS) :
a) VS1 for the lower limit and VNO for the upper limit
a) an instrument and position/pressure error correction.
b) VS0 for the lower limit and VNO for the upper limit
b) an antenna and compressibility correction.
c) VS1 for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit
c) and instrument and density correction.
d) VS1 for the lower limit and VLO for the upper limit
d) a compressibility and density correction.

22.1.1.3 (1157)
22.1.1.3 (1150)
The limits of the white scale of an airspeed indicator are :
VNO is the maximum speed :
a) VSO for the lower limit and VFE for the upper limit
a) not to be exceeded except in still air and with caution.
b) VSI for the lower limit and VFE for the upper limit
b) which must never be exceeded.
c) VSO for the lower limit and VLE for the upper limit
c) at which the flight controls can be fully deflected.
d) VSI for the lower limit and VLE for the upper limit
d) with flaps extended in landing position.

22.1.1.3 (1158)
22.1.1.3 (1151)
The velocity maximum operating (V.M.O.) is a speed expressed in :
VNE is the maximum speed :
a) calibrated airspeed (CAS).
a) which must never be exceeded
b) equivalent airspeed (EAS).
b) not to be exceeded except in still air and with caution
94
c) true airspeed (TAS). 22.1.1.3 (1165)
d) computed airspeed (COAS). The airspeed indicator of a twin-engined aircraft comprises different sectors and
color marks. The blue line corresponds to the :
a) optimum climbing speed with one engine inoperative, or Vy
22.1.1.3 (1159)
b) speed not to be exceeded, or VNE
After an aircraft has passed through a volcanic cloud which has blocked the total
c) minimum control speed, or VMC
pressure probe inlet of the airspeed indicator, the pilot begins a stabilized descent
d) maximum speed in operations, or VMO
and finds that the indicated airspeed :
a) decreases steadily
b) increases abruptly towards VNE 22.1.1.3 (1166)
c) increases steadily Today's airspeed indicators (calibrated to the Saint-Venant formula), indicate, in
d) decreases abruptly towards zero the absence of static (and instrumental) error :
a) The conventional airspeed (CAS) in all cases
b) The true airspeed
22.1.1.3 (1160)
c) The airspeed, whatever the altitude
During a climb after take-off from a contaminated runway, if the total pressure
d) The equivalent airspeed, in all cases
probe of the airspeed indicator is blocked, the pilot finds that indicated airspeed :
a) increases steadily
b) increases abruptly towards VNE 22.1.1.3 (1167)
c) decreases stadily Considering the maximum operational Mach number (MMO) and the maximum
d) decreases abruptly towards zero operational speed (VMO), the captain of a pressurized aircraft begins his descent
from a high flight level. In order to meet his scheduled time of arrival, he decides
to use the maximum ground speed at any time of the descent. He will be limited :
22.1.1.3 (1161)
a) initially by the MMO, then by the VMO below a certain flight level
With a constant weight, irrespective of the airfield altitude, an aircraft always
b) initially by theVMO, then by the MMO below a certain flight level
takes off at the same :
c) by the MMO
a) calibrated airspeed.
d) by the VMO in still air
b) ground speed.
c) true airspeed.
d) equivalent airspeed. 22.1.1.4 (1168)
Machmeter readings are subject to:
a) position pressure error
22.1.1.3 (1162)
b) density error.
All the anemometers are calibrated according to:
c) temperature error.
a) St-Venant' formula which takes into account the air compressibility.
d) setting error.
b) Bernouilli's limited formula which takes into account the air compressibility.
c) St-Venant's formula which considers the air as an uncompressible fluid.
d) Bernouilli's limited formula which considers the air as an uncompressible fluid. 22.1.1.4 (1169)
If the outside temperature at 35 000 feet is -40°C, the local speed of sound is :
a) 596 kt.
22.1.1.3 (1163)
b) 247 kt.
VFE is the maximum speed :
c) 307 kt.
a) with the flaps extended in a given position.
d) 686 kt.
b) with the flaps extended in landing position.
c) at which the flaps can be operated.
d) with the flaps extended in take-off position. 22.1.1.4 (1170)
During a straight and uniform climb, the pilot maintains a constant calibrated
airspeed (CAS) :
22.1.1.3 (1164)
a) The Mach number increases and the true airspeed (TAS) increases.
The airspeed indicator of an aircraft is provided with a moving red and white
b) The Mach number increases and the true airspeed (TAS) is constant.
hatched pointer. This pointer indicates the:
c) The Mach number is constant and the true airspeed (TAS) is constant.
a) maximum speed in VMO operation versus altitude
d) The Mach number is constant and the true airspeed (TAS) decreases.
b) maximum speed in VMO operation, versus temperature
c) speed indicated on the autothrottle control box, versus temperature
d) speed indicated on the autothrottle control box versus altitude 22.1.1.4 (1171)
A VMO-MMO warning device consists of an alarm connected to :
a) a barometric aneroid capsule subjected to a static pressure and an airspeed
95
sensor subjected to a dynamic pressure. a) decreases when the altitude increases
b) a barometic aneroid capsule subjected to a dynamic pressure and an airspeed sensor b) increases when the altitude increases
subjected to a static pressure. c) remains unchanged when the outside temperature increases
c) a barometric aneroid capsule and an airspeed sensor subjected to dynamic pressure. d) remains unchanged when the outside temperature decreases
d) a barometric aneroid capsule and an airspeed sensor subjected to a static pressure.
22.1.1.4 (1179)
22.1.1.4 (1172) The Mach number is :
The reading of a Mach indicator is independent of : a) the ratio of the aircraft true airspeed to the sonic velocity at the altitude
a) the outside temperature considered
b) the static pressure b) a direct function of temperature , it varies in proportion to the square root of the absolute
c) the total pressure temperature
d) the differential pressure measurement c) the ratio of the indicated airspeed to the sonic velocity at the altitude considered
d) the ratio of the aircraft conventionnal airspeed to the sonic velocity at the altitude
considered
22.1.1.4 (1173)
The principle of the Mach indicator is based on the computation of the ratio :
a) (Pt - Ps) to Ps 22.1.1.4 (1180)
b) Pt to Ps Indication of Mach number is obtained from:
c) (Pt - Ps) to Pt a) Indicated speed and altitude using a speed indicator equipped with an altimeter
d) (Pt + Ps) to Ps type aneroid
b) An ordinary airspeed indicator scaled for Mach numbers instead of knots
c) A kind of echo sound comparing velocity of sound with indicated speed
22.1.1.4 (1174)
d) Indicated speed (IAS) compared with true air speed (TAS) from the air data computer
The mach number is the:
a) true airspeed (TAS) divided by the local speed of sound
b) corrected airspeed (CAS) divided by the local speed of sound 22.1.1.5 (1181)
c) indicated airspeed (IAS) divided by the local speed of sound The vertical speed indicator of an aircraft flying at a true airspeed of 100 kt, in a
d) equivalent airspeed (EAS) divided by the local speed of sound descent with a slope of 3 degrees, indicates :
a) - 500 ft/min.
b) - 300 ft/min
22.1.1.4 (1175)
c) - 150 ft/min
Sound propagates through the air at a speed which only depends on :
d) - 250 ft/min
a) temperature.
b) temperature and the pressure.
c) pressure. 22.1.1.5 (1182)
d) density. The response time of a vertical speed detector may be increased by adding a:
a) correction based on an accelerometer sensor.
b) bimettalic strip
22.1.1.4 (1176)
c) return spring
The velocity of sound at the sea level in a standard atmosphere is:
d) second calibrated port
a) 661 kt.
b) 1059 kt.
c) 644 kt. 22.1.1.5 (1183)
d) 332 kt. The vertical speed indicator (VSI) is fed by :
a) static pressure
b) dynamic pressure
22.1.1.4 (1177)
c) total pressure
At a constant calibrated airspeed (CAS), the Mach number :
d) differential pressure
a) increases when the altitude increases
b) decreases when the altitude increases
c) remains unchanged when the outside temperature increases 22.1.1.5 (1184)
d) remains unchanged when the outside temperature decreases The operating principle of the vertical speed indicator (VSI) is based on the
measurement of the rate of change of:
a) Static pressure
22.1.1.4 (1178)
b) Dynamic pressure
At a constant Mach number, the calibrated air speed (CAS) :

96
c) Total pressure 22.1.2.1 (1190)
d) Kinetic pressure The basis properties of a gyroscope are :1. The gyro's weight.2. The rigidity in
space.3. The inertia.4. The high RPM.5. The precessionThe combination of correct
statements is :
22.1.1.6 (1185)
a) 2,5
The advantages provided by an air data computer to indicate the altitude are :1.
b) 2,3,5
Position/pressure error correction2. Hysteresis error correction3. Remote data
c) 1,3,5
transmission capability4. Capability of operating as a conventional altimeter in the
d) 3,4
event of a failureThe combination of correct statements is :
a) 1,3,4
b) 1,2,3,4 22.1.2.1 (1191)
c) 2,3,4 A rate integrating gyro is a detecting element used in1. An inertial attitude unit2.
d) 1,2,3 An automatic pilot3. A stabilizing servo system4. An inertial navigation system5. A
rate-of-turn indicatorThe combination of correct statements is :
a) 1,4.
22.1.1.6 (1186)
b) 1,2,3,4,5.
Given :- Ts the static temperature (SAT)- Tt the total temperature (TAT)- Kr the
c) 2,3,5.
recovery coefficient- M the Mach numberThe total temperature can be expressed
d) 2,3,4.
approximately by the formula :
a) Tt = Ts(1+0.2 M²)
b) Tt = Ts(1-0.2 M²) 22.1.2.1 (1192)
c) Tt = Ts(1+0.2 Kr.M²) Compared with a conventional gyro, a laser gyro :
d) Tt = Ts/(1+0.2 Kr.M²) a) has a longer life cycle
b) is influenced by temperature
c) has a fairly long starting cycle
22.1.1.6 (1187)
d) consumes a lot of power
In An Air Data Computer (ADC), aeroplane altitude is calculated from:
a) Measurement of absolute barometric pressure from a static source on the
fuselage 22.1.2.1 (1193)
b) The difference between absolute and dynamic pressure at the fuselage A laser gyro consists of :
c) Measurement of outside air temperature (OAT) a) a laser generating two light waves
d) Measurement of elapsed time for a radio signal transmitted to the ground surface and back b) 2 electrodes (anodes+cathodes)
c) a gyro with 2 degrees of freedom
d) two moving cavities provided with mirrors
22.1.1.6 (1188)
An Air Data Computer (ADC) :
a) Transforms air data measurements into electric impulses driving servo motors in 22.1.2.1 (1194)
instruments Among the systematic errors of the ""directional gyro"", the error due to the earth
b) Is an auxiliary system that provides altitude information in the event that the static source rotation make the north reference turn in the horizontal plane. At a mean latitude
is blocked of 45°N, this reference turns by...
c) Converts air data measurements given by ATC from the ground in order to provide correct a) 10.5°/hour to the right.
altitude and speed information b) 15°/hour to the right.
d) Measures position error in the static system and transmits this information to ATC to c) 7.5°/hour to the right.
provide correct altitude reporting d) 7.5°/hour to the left.

22.1.2.1 (1189) 22.1.2.1 (1195)


The diagram on annex 022-648A shows three gyro assemblies: A, B and C. Among In the building principle of a gyroscope, the best efficiency is obtained through the
these gyros,-one is a roll gyro (noted 1)-one is a pitch gyro (noted 2)-one is a yaw concentration of the mass :
gyro (noted 3)The correct matching of gyros and assemblies is: a) on the periphery and with a high rotation speed.
a) 1B, 2C, 3A b) close to the axis and with a high rotation speed.
b) 1C, 2B, 3A c) on the periphery and with a low rotation speed.
c) 1B, 2A, 3C d) close to the axis and with a low rotation speed.
d) 1A, 2B, 3C
22.1.2.2 (1196)
The indications on a directional gyroscope or gyrocompass are subject to errors,
97
due to:1- rotation of Earth.2- aeroplane motion on Earth.3- lateral and transversal short period of time. The causes of this inaccuracy are :1. The earth's rotation2.
aeroplane bank angles.4- north change.5- mechanical defects.Chose the The longitudinal acceleration3. The aircraft's motion over the surface of the
combination with true statements only: earth.4. The mechanical defects of the gyro5. The gyro's weight6. The gimbal
a) 1,2,3,5. mount of the gyro ringsThe combination of correct statements is :
b) 3,4,5. a) 1,3,4,6
c) 1,2,4,5. b) 1,3,4
d) 2,3,5. c) 1,2,3,4,5,6
d) 2,5,6
22.1.2.2 (1197)
The characteristics of the directional gyro (DG) used in a gyro stabilised compass 22.1.2.2 (1203)
system are : An airborne instrument, equipped with a gyro with 2 degrees of freedom and a
a) two degrees of freedom, whose horizontal axis corresponding to the reference horizontal spin axis is:
direction is maintained in the horizontal plane by an automatic erecting system. a) a directional gyro
b) two degrees of freedom, whose axis aligned with the vertical to the location is maintained b) an artificial horizon
in this direction by an erecting system. c) a turn indicator
c) one degree of freedom, whose horizontal axis is maintained in the horizontal plane by an d) a fluxgate compass
automatic erecting system.
d) one degree of freedom, whose vertical axis, aligned with the real vertical to the location is
22.1.2.2 (1204)
maintained in this direction by an automatic erecting system.
An airborne instrument, equipped with a gyro with 2 degrees of freedom and a
horizontal spin axis is :
22.1.2.2 (1198) a) a directional gyro
The directional gyro axis no longer spins about the local vertical when it is b) an artificial horizon
located : c) a turn indicator
a) on the equator d) a flux gate compass
b) in the latitude 30°
c) in the latitude 45°
22.1.2.2 (1205)
d) on the North pole
For an aircraft flying a true track of 360° between the 005°S and 005°N parallels,
the precession error of the directional gyro due to apparent drift is equal to:
22.1.2.2 (1199) a) 0°/hour
The directional gyro axis spins about the local vertical by 15°/hour : b) +5°/hour
a) on the North pole c) -5°/hour
b) in the latitude 30° d) depends only on the aircraft's ground speed
c) in the latitude 45°
d) on the equator
22.1.2.2 (1206)
A directional gyro is: 1- a gyroscope free around two axis 2- a gyroscope free
22.1.2.2 (1200) around one axis 3- capable of self- orientation around an earth-tied direction 4-
The pendulum type detector system of the directional gyro feeds : incapable of self-orientation around an earth-tied directionThe combination which
a) a levelling erection torque motor regroups all of the correct statements is:
b) a nozzle integral with the outer gimbal ring a) 04-Jan
c) a torque motor on the sensitive axis b) 04-Fev
d) 2 torque motors arranged horizontally c) 03-Fev
d) 03-Jan
22.1.2.2 (1201)
The gimbal error of the directional gyro is due to the effect of : 22.1.2.2 (1207)
a) a bank or pitch attitude of the aircraft The maximum directional gyro error due to the earth rotation is:
b) an apparent weight and an apparent vertical a) 15°/hour
c) too slow precession on the horizontal gimbal ring b) 90°/hour
d) the aircraft's track over the earth c) 180°/hour
d) 5°/hour
22.1.2.2 (1202)
The indication of the directional gyro as an on-board instrument are valid only for a
98
22.1.2.2 (1208) detector4- an azimuth control5- a synchronising controlThe combination of correct
The heading read on the dial of a directional gyro is subject to errors, one of which statements is :
is due to the movement of the aircraft.This error... a) 1,3,5
a) is dependent on the ground speed of the aircraft, its true track and the average b) 2,3,5
latitude of the flight c) 1,4
b) is, in spite of this, insignificant and may be neglected d) 2,5
c) is at its greatest value when the aircraft follows a meridional track
d) shows itself by an apparent rotation of the horizontal axis of the gyroscope which seems to
22.1.2.3 (1215)
turn at 15° per hour to the right in the northern hemisphere
Heading information from the gyromagnetic compass flux gate is transmitted to
the :
22.1.2.3 (1209) a) error detector.
A failed RMI rose is locked on 090° and the ADF pointer indicates 225°. The b) erecting system.
relative bearing to the station is : c) heading indicator.
a) 135°. d) amplifier.
b) Impossible to read, due to failure RMI.
c) 315°.
22.1.2.3 (1216)
d) 225°.
Heading information given by a gyro platform, is given by a gyro at :
a) 2 degrees-of-freedom in the horizontal axis
22.1.2.3 (1210) b) 2 degrees-of-freedom in the vertical axis
A slaved directional gyro derives it's directional signal from : c) 1 degree-of-freedom in the horizontal axis
a) the flux valve. d) l degree-of-freedom in the vertical axis
b) the air-data-computer.
c) a direct reading magnetic compass.
22.1.2.4 (1217)
d) the flight director.
Among the flight control instruments, the artificial horizon plays an essential part.
It uses a gyroscope with :Note : in this question, the degrees of freedom of a gyro
22.1.2.3 (1211) are determined by the number of gimbal rings it comprises.
The input signal of the amplifier of the gyromagnetic compass resetting device a) two degrees of freedom, whose axis is oriented and continously maintained to
originates from the: local vertical by an automatic erecting system.
a) error detector. b) two degrees of freedom, whose horizontal axis corresponding to a reference direction is
b) flux valve. maintained in a horizontal plane by an automatic erecting system
c) directional gyro unit. c) one degree of freedom, whose horizontal axis is maintained in a horizontal plane by an
d) directional gyro erection device. automatic erecting system
d) one degree of freedom, whose vertical axis oriented in the direction of the real vertical to
the location is maintained in this direction by an automatic erecting system
22.1.2.3 (1212)
The heading information originating from the gyromagnetic compass flux valve is
sent to the: 22.1.2.4 (1218)
a) error detector. When an aircraft has turned 270 degrees with a constant attitude and bank, the
b) erector system. pilot observes the following on a classic artificial horizon :
c) heading indicator. a) too much nose-up and bank too high.
d) amplifier. b) too much nose-up and bank too low.
c) attitude and bank correct.
d) too much nose-up and bank correct.
22.1.2.3 (1213)
The gyromagnetic compass torque motor :
a) causes the directional gyro unit to precess 22.1.2.4 (1219)
b) causes the heading indicator to precess When an aircraft has turned 360 degrees with a constant attitude and bank, the
c) feeds the error detector system pilot observes the following on a classic artificial horizon :
d) is fed by the flux valve a) attitude and bank correct
b) too much nose-up and bank too low
c) too much nose-up and bank correct
22.1.2.3 (1214)
d) too much nose-up and bank too high
A gyromagnetic compass or heading reference unit is an assembly which always
consists of :1- a directional gyro2- a vertical axis gyro3- an earth's magnetic field
99
22.1.2.4 (1220) c) a turn indicator.
When an aircraft has turned 90 degrees with a constant attitude and bank, the d) a gyromagnetic compass.
pilot observes the following on a classic artificial horizon :
a) too much nose-up and bank too low
22.1.2.5 (1227)
b) attitude and bank correct
Under normal operating conditions, when an aircraft is in a banked turn, the rate-
c) too much nose-up and bank correct
of-turn indicator is a valuable gyroscopic flight control instrument , when it is
d) too much nose-up and bank too high
associated with an attitude indicator it indicates :1. the angular velocity of the
aircraft about the yaw axis2. The bank of the aircraft3. The direction of the aircraft
22.1.2.4 (1221) turn4. The angular velocity of the aircraft about the real verticalThe combination of
A gravity type erector is used in a vertical gyro device to correct errors on : correct statements is :
a) an artificial horizon a) 1,3.
b) a directional gyro unit b) 1,2.
c) a turn indicator c) 3,4.
d) a gyromagnetic indicator d) 2,4.

22.1.2.4 (1222) 22.1.2.5 (1228)


Following 180° stabilized turn with a constant attitude and bank, the artificial A turn indicator is built around a gyroscope with:
horizon indicates : a) 2 degrees of freedom.
a) too high pitch-up and too low banking b) 0 degree of freedom.
b) too high pitch-up and correct banking c) 1 degree of freedom.
c) attitude and banking correct d) 3 degrees of freedom.
d) too high pitch up and too high banking
22.1.2.5 (1229)
22.1.2.4 (1223) When, in flight, the needle and ball of a needle-and-ball indicator are on the right,
During an acceleration phase at constant attitude, the resetting principle of the the aircraft is :
artificial horizon results in the horizon bar indicating a : a) turning right with too much bank
a) nose-up attitude b) turning right with not enough bank
b) nose-down attitude c) turning left with too much bank
c) constant attitude d) turning left with not enough bank
d) nose-down followed by a nose-up attitude
22.1.2.5 (1230)
22.1.2.4 (1224) When, in flight, the needle of a needle-and-ball indicator is on the right and the
A Stand-by-horizon or emergency attitude indicator: ball on the left, the aircraft is :
a) Contains its own separate gyro a) turning right with not enough bank
b) Is automatically connected to the primary vertical gyro if the alternator fails b) turning right with too much bank
c) Is fully independent of external energy resources in an emergency situation c) turning left with not enough bank
d) Only works of there is a complete electrical failure d) turning left with too much bank

22.1.2.4 (1225) 22.1.2.5 (1231)


(Use the appendix to answer this question)The diagram which shows a 40° left When, in flight, the needle of a needle-and-ball indicator is on the left and the ball
bank and 15° nose down attitude is n° on the right, the aircraft is:
a) 1 a) turning left with not enough bank
b) 2 b) turning left with too much bank
c) 3 c) turning right with not enough bank
d) 4 d) turning right with too much bank

22.1.2.4 (1226) 22.1.2.5 (1232)


A gravity erector system is used to correct the errors on : An airborne instrument, equipped with a gyro with 1 degree of freedom and a
a) an artificial horizon. horizontal spin axis is a :
b) a directional gyro. a) turn indicator
b) gyromagnetic compass
100
c) fluxgate compass b) turning left with not enough bank
d) directional gyro c) turning right with too much bank
d) turning right with not enough bank
22.1.2.5 (1233)
In a turn at constant rate, the turn indicator reading is: 22.1.2.5 (1240)
a) inversely proportional to the aircraft true airspeed A turn indicator is an instrument which indicates rate of turn.Rate of turn depends
b) proportional to the aircraft true airspeed upon :1 : bank angle2 : aeroplane speed3 : aeroplane weightThe combination
c) independent to the aircraft true airspeed regrouping the correct statements is :
d) proportional to the aircraft weight a) 1 and 2.
b) 1 and 3.
c) 2 and 3.
22.1.2.5 (1234)
d) 1, 2, and 3.
In a Turn-indicator, the measurement of rate-of-turn consists for :
a) low bank angles, in measuring the yaw rate
b) low bank angles , in measuring the roll rate 22.1.2.5 (1241)
c) high bank angles,in measuring the yaw rate (For this question use appendix )The diagram representing a left turn with
d) high bank angles, in measuring the roll rate insufficient rudder is:
a) 4
b) 1
22.1.2.5 (1235)
c) 2
At a low bank angle, the measurement of rate-of-turn actually consists in
d) 3
measuring the :
a) yaw rate of the aircraft
b) pitch rate of the aircraft 22.1.2.5 (1242)
c) roll rate of the aircraft The turn rate indicator uses a gyroscope:1 - with one degree of freedom.2 - with
d) angular velocity of the aircraft two degrees of freedom3 - the frame of which is supported by two return springs.4
- the spinning wheel axis of which is parallel to the pitch axis.5 - the spinning
wheel axis of which is parallel to the yawing axis.6 - the spinning wheel axis of
22.1.2.5 (1236)
which is horizontal.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
The rate-of-turn is the:
a) 03-Jan
a) change-of-heading rate of the aircraft
b) 2001-03-04
b) yaw rate in a turn
c) 05-Fev
c) aircraft speed in a turn
d) 06-Jan
d) pitch rate in a turn

22.1.2.5 (1243)
22.1.2.5 (1237)
An aircraft is flying at a 120 kt true airspeed (VV), in order to achieve a rate 1 turn,
On the ground, during a right turn, the turn indicator indicates :
the pilot will have to bank the aircraft at an angle of:
a) needle to the right, ball to left
a) 18°.
b) needle to the right, ball to right
b) 12°.
c) needle in the middle, ball to right
c) 36°.
d) needle in the middle, ball to left
d) 30°.

22.1.2.5 (1238)
22.1.2.6 (1244)
On the ground, during a left turn, the turn indicator indicates :
While inertial platform system is operating on board an aircraft, it is necessary to
a) needle to the left, ball to the right
use a device with the following characteristics, in order to keep the vertical line
b) needle to the left, ball to the left
with a pendulous system:
c) needle in the middle, ball to the right
a) with damping and a period of about 84 minutes.
d) needle in the middle, ball to the left
b) without damping and a period of about 84 minutes
c) without damping and a period of about 84 seconds
22.1.2.5 (1239) d) with damping and a period of 84 seconds
When, in flight, the needle and ball of a needle-and-ball indicator are on the left,
the aircraft is:
22.1.2.6 (1245)
a) turning left with too much bank
The heading reference unit of a three-axis data generator is equipped with a gyro
101
with: a) 030°
a) 2 degrees of freedom and horizontal spin axis b) 355°
b) 2 degrees of freedom and vertical spin axis c) 330°
c) 1 degree of freedom and horizontal spin axis d) 015°
d) 1 degree of freedom and vertical spin axis
22.1.3.0 (1252)
22.1.2.6 (1246) A pilot wishes to turn right on to a northerly heading with 20° bank at a latitude of
The vertical reference unit of a three-axis data generator is equipped with a gyro 40° North. Using a direct reading compass, in order to achieve this he must stop
with : the turn on to an approximate heading of :
a) 2 degrees of freedom and vertical spin axis a) 330°
b) 2 degrees of freedom and horizontal spin axis b) 350°
c) 1 degree of freedom and horizontal spin axis c) 030°
d) 1 degree of freedom and vertical spin axis d) 010°

22.1.2.7 (1247) 22.1.3.0 (1253)


In order to align a strapdown inertial unit, it is required to insert the local The purpose of compass swinging is to determine the deviation of a magnetic
geographical coordinates. This is necessary to: compass :
a) Position the computing trihedron with reference to earth. a) on any heading
b) Check operation of laser gyros. b) on a given heading
c) Determine magnetic or true heading. c) at any latitude
d) Re-erect laser gyros. d) at a given latitude

22.1.3.0 (1248) 22.1.3.0 (1254)


The quadrantal deviation of the magnetic compass is due to the action of : The compass heading can be derived from the magnetic heading by reference to a:
a) the soft iron pieces influenced by the geomagnetic field a) compass swinging curve
b) the hard iron ices and the soft iron pieces influenced by the hard iron pieces b) map showing the isoclinic lines
c) the hard iron pieces influenced by the geomagnetic field c) deviation correction curve
d) the hard iron pieces influenced by the mild iron pieces d) map showing the isogonic lines

22.1.3.0 (1249) 22.1.3.0 (1255)


A pilot wishes to turn right on to a southerly heading with 20° bank at a latitude of The magnetic heading can be derived from the true heading by means of a :
20° North. Using a direct reading compass, in order to achieve this he must stop a) map showing the isogonal lines
the turn on an approximate heading of : b) map showing the isoclinic lines
a) 210° c) deviation correction curve
b) 150° d) compass swinging curve
c) 170°
d) 190°
22.1.3.0 (1256)
The fields affecting a magnetic compass originate from:1. magnetic masses2.
22.1.3.0 (1250) ferrous metal masses3. non ferrous metal masses4. electrical currentsThe
A pilot wishes to turn left on to a southerly heading with 20° bank at a latitude of combination of correct statements is:
20° North. Using a direct reading compass, in order to achieve this he must stop a) 1, 2, 4
the turn on an approximate heading of : b) 1, 2, 3
a) 160° c) 1, 2, 3, 4
b) 200° d) 1, 3, 4
c) 170°
d) 190°
22.1.3.0 (1257)
In the northern hemisphere, during deceleration following a landing in an Easterly
22.1.3.0 (1251) direction, the magnetic compass will indicate :
A pilot wishes to turn left on to a northerly heading with 10° bank at a latitude of a) an apparent turn to the South.
50° North. Using a direct reading compass, in order to achieve this he must stop b) an apparent turn to the North.
the turn on an approximate heading of :
102
c) a constant heading. 22.1.3.0 (1264)
d) a heading fluctuating about 090°. An aircraft takes-off on a runway with an alignment of 045°. The isogonic line on
the area chart indicates 0°. The compass deviation is O°.On a take-off with zero
wind, the northerly turning error:
22.1.3.0 (1258)
a) is such that the compass will indicate a value noticeably below 045°.
During deceleration following a landing in Northerly direction, the magnetic
b) is such that the compass will indicate a value noticeably above 045°.
compass will indicate :
c) will be nul if the wings are kept level.
a) no apparent turn.
d) will be nul
b) an apparent turn to the East.
c) an apparent turn to the West.
d) a heading fluctuating about 360°. 22.1.3.0 (1265)
When turning onto a northerly heading the rose of a magnetic compass tends to
""undershoot,"" when turning onto a southerly heading it tends to
22.1.3.0 (1259)
""overshoot"":1)these compass indications are less reliable in the northern
During deceleration following a landing in a Southerly direction, the magnetic
hemisphere than in the southern hemisphere.2)these compass oscillations
compass will indicate :
following a lateral gust are not identical if the aircraft is heading north or south.3)
a) no apparent turn.
this behaviour is due to the mechanical construction of the compass. 4) this
b) an apparent turn to the East.
behaviour is a symptom of a badly swung compass.The correct statements are :
c) an apparent turn to the West.
a) 2 and 3.
d) a heading fluctuating about 180°.
b) 1, 2, and 4.
c) 2, 3, and 4.
22.1.3.0 (1260) d) 1 and 3.
In the Southern hemisphere, during deceleration following a landing in a Westerly
direction, the magnetic compass will indicate :
22.1.3.0 (1266)
a) an apparent turn to the North.
Among the errors of a magnetic compass, are errors:
b) an apparent turn to the South.
a) in North seeking, due to bank angle and magnetic heading
c) no apparent turn.
b) due to cross-wind gusts particularly on westerly or easterly headings
d) a heading fluctuating about 270°.
c) due to Schüler type oscillations
d) of parallax, due to oscillations of the compass rose
22.1.3.0 (1261)
In the Northern hemisphere, during deceleration following a landing in a Westerly
22.1.3.0 (1267)
direction, the magnetic compass will indicate :
The purpose of a compass swing is to attempt to coincide the indications of:
a) an apparent turn to the South.
a) compass north and magnetic north.
b) an apparent turn to the North.
b) compass north and true north.
c) no apparent turn.
c) true north and magnetic north.
d) a heading fluctuating about 270°.
d) compass north and the lubber line.

22.1.3.0 (1262)
22.1.3.0 (1268)
In the Southern hemisphere, during deceleration following a landing in an Easterly
In a steep turn, the northerly turning error on a magnetic compass on the northern
direction, the magnetic compass will indicate :
hemisphere is:
a) an apparent turn to the North.
a) equal to 180° on a 090° heading in a right turn.
b) an apparent turn to the South.
b) none on a 270° heading in a left turn.
c) no apparent turn.
c) none on a 090° heading in a right turn.
d) a heading fluctuating about 090°.
d) equal to 180° on a 270° heading in a right turn.

22.1.3.0 (1263)
22.1.3.0 (1269)
The quadrantal deviation of a magnetic compass is corrected by using :
Magnetic compass swinging is carried out to reduce as much as possible :
a) soft iron pieces
a) deviation.
b) hard iron pieces
b) variation.
c) pairs of permanent magnets
c) regulation.
d) magnetized needles
d) acceleration.

103
22.1.3.0 (1270) transmitted wave and the received wave after ground reflection is measured.
A flux valve senses the changes in orientation of the horizontal component of the b) a pulse transmission, for which time between transmission and reception is measured on a
earth's magnetic field.1- the flux valve is made of a pair of soft iron bars2- the circular scanning screen.
primary coils are fed A.C. voltage (usually 487.5 Hz)3- the information can be used c) a wave transmission, for which the frequency shift by DOPPLER effect after ground
by a ""flux gate"" compass or a directional gyro4- the flux gate valve casing is reflection is measured.
dependent on the aircraft three inertial axis5- the accuracy on the value of the d) a triangular amplitude modulation wave, for which modulation phase shift between
magnetic field indication is less than 0,5%Which of the following combinations transmitted and received waves after ground reflection is measured.
contains all of the correct statements?
a) 2002-03-05
22.1.4.0 (1276)
b) 1 - 3 - 4 - 5
Modern low altitude radioaltimeters emit waves in the following frequency band:
c) 05-Mar
a) SHF (Super High Frequency).
d) 2001-04-05
b) VLF (Very Low Frequency).
c) HF (High Frequency).
22.1.4.0 (1271) d) UHF (Ultra High Frequency).
In low altitude radio altimeters, the reading is zero when main landing gear wheels
are on the ground. For this, it is necessary to:
22.1.4.0 (1277)
a) account for signal processing time in the unit and apply a correction factor to
The operating frequency range of a low altitude radio altimeter is:
the reading.
a) 4200 MHz to 4400 MHz.
b) place the antennas on the bottom of the aeroplane.
b) 5400 MHz or 9400 MHz.
c) change the display scale in short final, in order to have a precise readout.
c) 2700 MHz to 2900 MHz.
d) compensate residual altitude due to antennas height above the ground and coaxial cables
d) 5 GHz.
length.

22.1.4.0 (1278)
22.1.4.0 (1272)
The Decision Height (DH) warning light comes on when an aircraft:
The aircraft radio equipment which emits on a frequency of 4400 MHz is the :
a) descends below a pre-set radio altitude.
a) radio altimeter.
b) passes over the outer marker.
b) high altitude radio altimeter.
c) descends below a pre-set barometric altitude.
c) weather radar.
d) passes over the ILS inner marker.
d) primary radar.

22.1.4.0 (1279)
22.1.4.0 (1273)
The operation of the radio altimeter of a modern aircraft is based on:
The low-altitude radio altimeters used in precision approaches:1 operate in the
a) frequency modulation of the carrier wave.
1540-1660 MHz range.2 are of the pulsed type.3 are of the frequency modulation
b) amplitude modulation of the carrier wave.
type.4 have an operating range of 0 to 5000 ft.5 have a precision of +/- 2 feet
c) pulse modulation of the carrier wave.
between 0 and 500 ft.The combination of the correct statements is :
d) a combination of frequency modulation and pulse modulation.
a) 3, 5
b) 3, 4
c) 2, 3, 4 22.1.4.0 (1280)
d) 1, 2, 5 A radio altimeter can be defined as a :
a) self-contained on-board aid used to measure the true height of the aircraft
b) self-contained on-board aid used to measure the true altitude of the aircraft
22.1.4.0 (1274)
c) ground radio aid used to measure the true height of the aircraft
The data supplied by a radio altimeter:
d) ground radio aid used to measure the true altitude of the aircraft
a) indicates the distance between the ground and the aircraft.
b) concerns only the decision height.
c) is used only by the radio altimeter indicator. 22.1.4.0 (1281)
d) is used by the automatic pilot in the altitude hold mode. For most radio altimeters, when a system error occurs during approach the ..
a) Height indication is removed
b) DH lamp flashes red and the audio signal sounds
22.1.4.0 (1275)
c) DH lamp flashes red
In low altitude radio altimeters, the height measurement (above the ground) is
d) Audio warning signal sounds
based upon:
a) a frequency modulation wave, for which the frequency variation between the

104
22.1.4.0 (1282) 22.2.1.0 (1288)
During the approach, a crew reads on the radio altimeter the value of 650 ft. This is The Head Up Display (HUD) is a device allowing the pilot, while still looking
an indication of the true: outside, to have:
a) height of the lowest wheels with regard to the ground at any time. a) a synthetic view of the instrument procedure.
b) height of the aircraft with regard to the ground at any time. b) a flying and flight path control aid.
c) height of the aircraft with regard to the runway. c) a monitoring of engine data.
d) altitude of the aircraft. d) a monitoring only during Cat III precision approaches.

22.1.5.0 (1283) 22.2.1.0 (1289)


Regarding Electronic Instrument System (EFIS) :1- the Navigation Display (ND) For capturing and keeping a preselected magnetic heading, the flight director
displays Flight Director Bars.2- the altimeter setting is displayed on the PFD computer takes into account:1- track deviation2- rate of track closure3- rate of
(Primary Flight Display).3- the PFD is the main flying instrument.4- the FMA (Flight change of track closure4- wind velocity given by the inertial reference unitThe
Mode Annunciator) is part of the ND.The combination regrouping all the correct combination regrouping all the correct statements is :
statements is : a) 1,2,3
a) 2, 3. b) 1,2,4
b) 3, 4. c) 2,3,4
c) 1, 4. d) 1,3,4
d) 1, 2.
22.2.1.0 (1290)
22.1.5.0 (1284) The essential components of a flight director are :1- a computer2- an automatic
The Primary Flight Display (PFD) displays information dedicated to: pilot3- an autothrottle4- command barsThe combination of correct statements is :
a) piloting. a) 1,4
b) weather situation. b) 1,2
c) engines and alarms. c) 2,4
d) systems. d) 2,3

22.1.6.0 (1285) 22.2.1.0 (1291)


All the last generation aircraft use flight control systems. The Flight Management The ""heading hold"" mode is selected on the flight director (FD) with a course to
System (FMS) is the most advanced system , it can be defined as a: steer of 180°. Your aircraft holds a heading of 160°. The vertical bar of the FD:
a) global 3-D Flight Management System a) is centered if the aircraft is on optimum path to join heading 180°
b) management system optimized in the vertical plane b) is centered if the aircraft has a starboard drift of 20°
c) management system optimized in the horizontal plane c) is centered if the aircraft has a port drift of 20°
d) global 2-D Flight Management System d) cannot be centered

22.2.0.0 (1286) 22.2.1.0 (1292)


When the altitude acquisition mode is engaged on a jet transport airplane Mode ""Localizer ARM"" active on Flight Director means:
equipped with autopilot (AP) and auto-throttle (ATS) systems the: a) System is armed for localizer approach and coupling will occur upon capturing
a) indicated airspeed (IAS) is maintained constant by the autopilot by means of center line
elevator. b) Localizer ALARM, making localizer approach not authorized
b) true airspeed (TAS) is maintained constant by the autopilot by means of elevator. c) Coupling has occurred and system provides control data to capture the centerline
c) true airspeed (TAS) is maintained constant by the auto-throttle system. d) Localizer is armed and coupling will occur when flag warning disappears
d) indicated airspeed (IAS) is maintained constant by the auto-throttle system.
22.2.1.0 (1293)
22.2.1.0 (1287) An aeroplane is equipped with a Flight Director (with crosshair trend bars),
Flight Director Information supplied by an FD computer is presented in the form of heading 270°, in HDG mode (heading hold). A new heading, of 360°, is selected the
command bars on the following instrument: vertical trend bar :
a) ADI Attitude Display Indicator. a) deviates to the right and will be centred as soon as you roll the aircraft to the
b) BDHI Bearing Distance Heading Indicator. bank angle calculated by the flight director.
c) RMI Radio Magnetic Indicator. b) deviates to the right and remains in that position until the aircraft has reached heading
d) HSI Horizontal Situation Indicator. 360°.
c) disappears, the new heading selection has deactivated the HDG mode.

105
d) deviates to its right stop as long as the aeroplane is more than 10° off the new selected 22.2.1.0 (1300)
heading. The command bars of a flight director are generally represented on an:
a) ADI (Attitude Director Indicator)
b) HSI (Horizontal Situation Indicator)
22.2.1.0 (1294)
c) RMI (Radio Magnetic Indicator)
The position of a Flight Director command bars:
d) ILS (Instrument Landing System)
a) indicates the manoeuvers to execute, to achieve or maintain a flight situation.
b) repeats the ADI and HSI information
c) enables the measurement of deviation from a given position. 22.2.1.0 (1301)
d) only displays information relating to radio-electric deviation. (For this question use annex 022-10217A)After having programmed your flight
director, you see that the indications of your ADI (Attitude Director Indicator) are
as represented in diagram N°1 of the appended annex. On this instrument, the
22.2.1.0 (1295)
command bars indicate that you must bank your airplane to the left and :
On a modern aircraft, the flight director modes are displayed on the:
a) increase the flight attitude until the command bars recentre on the symbolic
a) upper strip of the PFD (Primary Flight Display).
airplane.
b) upper strip of the ND (Navigation Display).
b) decrease the flight attitude until the command bars recentre on the symbolic airplane.
c) upper strip of the ECAM (Electronic Centralized A/C Management).
c) increase the flight attitude until the command bars recentre on the horizon.
d) control panel of the flight director only.
d) decrease the flight attitude until the command bars recentre on the horizon.

22.2.1.0 (1296)
22.2.1.0 (1302)
The aim of the flight director is to provide information to the pilot:
(For this question use annex 022-11232A)After having programmed your flight
a) allowing him to return to a desired path in an optimal way.
director, you see that the indications of your ADI (Attitude Director indicator) are
b) about his position with regard to a radioelectric axis.
as represented in diagram N°1 of the appended annex. On this instrument, the
c) allowing him to return to a desired path according to a 45° intercept angle.
command bars indicate that you must :
d) allowing him to return to a desired path according to a 30° intercept angle.
a) increase the flight attitude and bank your airplane to the left until the command
bars recentre on the symbolic aeroplane.
22.2.1.0 (1297) b) increase the flight attitude and bank your aeroplane to the right until the command bars
(For this question use annex 022-9768A)An aircraft is under guidance mode recentre on the symbolic aeroplane.
following a VOR radial. From the ADI and HSI information represented in the c) decrease the flight attitude and bank your airplane to the left until the command bars
enclosed annex, it is possible to deduce that the aircraft is : recentre on the symbolic aeroplane.
a) experiencing a leftside wind. d) decrease the flight attitude and bank your airplane to the right until the command bars
b) located to the leftside of the selected radial. recentre on the symbolic aeroplane.
c) located to the rightside of the selected radial.
d) experiencing rightside wind.
22.2.2.0 (1303)
The synchronization of the autopilot control channel system :1- enables the
22.2.1.0 (1298) prevention of jerks during disengagement 2- enables the cancellation of rudder
The flight director indicates the : control signals3- enables the prevention of jerks during engagement4- functions in
a) optimum instantaneous path to reach selected radial. the heading, navigation, approach modesThe combination regrouping all the
b) optimum path at the moment it is entered to reach a selected radial. correct statements is:
c) path permitting reaching a selected radial in minimum time. a) 3, 4
d) path permitting reaching a selected radial over a minimum distance. b) 2, 4
c) 1, 4
22.2.1.0 (1299) d) 2, 3
For this question use annex (022-10179A)Four scenarios of VOR axis interception
are represented in the appended annex. The one corresponding to the optimal 22.2.2.0 (1304)
interception path calculated by a flight director is number : (For this question use annex 022-3880A)The block diagram of an auto-pilot is
a) 2 shown in the annex.For each control channel (pitch, roll and yaw) the piloting law
b) 1 is the relationship between the deflection of the control surface commanded by the
c) 4 computer (BETA c) and the:
d) 3 a) offset EPSILON at the computer input.
b) pilot command E.
c) aircraft response S.
d) real deflection of the control surface (BETA control surface feedback).
106
22.2.2.0 (1305) b) by the pilot selecting G.A. mode on the thrust computer control panel.
Landing shall be considered as having been carried out automatically when the c) automatically in case of an autopilot or flight director alarm.
autopilot and the auto-throttle of an aircraft are disengaged by flight crew : d) if the aircraft reaches the decision height selected on the radio altimeter at a higher speed
a) during ground roll. than the one selected.
b) during the flare.
c) at the decision height.
22.2.2.0 (1312)
d) at the outer marker.
When being engaged, and without selecting a particular mode, an automatic pilot
enables :
22.2.2.0 (1306) a) aeroplane stabilisation with attitude hold or maintaining vertical speed and
A pilot has to carry out a single-pilot IFR flight on a light twin-engined aircraft for possibly automatic trim.
cargo transport. The purpose of the automatic pilot is at least to hold the: b) aeroplane piloting and guidance functions.
a) heading and to hold the altitude c) a constant speed on track, wings horizontal.
b) heading d) all aeroplane piloting and guidance functions except maintaining radio-navigation course
c) altitude lines.
d) heading, to hold the altitude and to have a radio axis tracking function
22.2.2.0 (1313)
22.2.2.0 (1307) An automatic pilot is a system which can ensure the functions of:
An automatic landing is carried out when the automatic pilot : a) piloting and guidance of an aircraft in both the horizontal and vertical planes.
a) and the autothrottle ensure a correct final approach, at least up to ground roll b) piloting only.
b) ensures a correct final approach, at least up to ground roll while the human pilot controls c) navigation.
the power d) piloting from take-off to landing without any action from the human pilot.
c) and the autothrottle ensure a correct final approach, at least up to flare-out
d) and the autothrottle ensure a correct final approach, at least up to flare-out while the
22.2.2.0 (1314)
human pilot controls the power
When the auto-pilot is engaged, the role of the automatic trim is to:
a) relieve the A.P. servo motor and return the aircraft in-trim at A.P. disconnect
22.2.2.0 (1308) b) relieve the pressure on the control column and return, the aircraft in-trim at A.P. disconnect
A closed loop control system in which a small power input controls a much larger c) react to altitude changes in Altitude Hold mode
power output in a strictly proportionate manner is known as : d) synchronize the longitudinal loop
a) a servomechanism.
b) an amplifier.
22.2.2.0 (1315)
c) a feedback control circuit.
The command functions of an autopilot include, among others, the holding of :1-
d) an autopilot.
vertical speed2- altitude3- attitude4- bank5- headingThe combination which
regroups all of the correct statements is :
22.2.2.0 (1309) a) 2001-02-05
The interception of a localizer beam by the autopilot takes place : b) 1 - 2 - 3 - 5
a) at a constant heading c) 05-Mar
b) at a constant magnetic course d) 2002-03-04
c) according to an interception versus radio deviation law
d) according to an interception versus range and angular
22.2.2.0 (1316)
In an auto-pilot slaved powered control circuit, the system which ensures
22.2.2.0 (1310) synchronisation :
The Altitude Select System: a) can itself, when it fails, prevent the automatic pilot from being engaged.
a) Is annunciated by light and/or sound when airplane is approaching selected b) intervenes only when the automatic pilot has been engaged.
altitude c) prevents uncommanded surface deflection when the automatic pilot is disengaged.
b) Illuminates a light when selected altitude is attained d) is inhibited when the automatic pilot is engaged.
c) Engages autopilot Auto Trim at selected altitude
d) Disengages autopilot Auto Trim at selected altitude
22.2.2.0 (1317)
The control law of a transport airplane autopilot control channel may be defined as
22.2.2.0 (1311) the relationship between the :
On an autopilot coupled approach, GO AROUND mode is engaged: a) computer input deviation data and the output control deflection signals.
a) by the pilot pushing a button located on the throttles. b) computer input deviation data and the signals received by the servoactuators.
107
c) input and output signals at the amplifier level respectively control deviation data and control considered:
deflection signals. a) ""fail survival"" or without failure effect with function always ensured.
d) crew inputs to the computer and the detector responses (returned to the airplane). b) ""fail soft"" or with minimized failure effect.
c) ""fail passive"" or without failure effect but with disconnection.
d) ""fail hard"" or with failure effect and disconnection.
22.2.2.0 (1318)
In a transport airplane, an autopilot comprises, in addition to the mode display
devices, the following fundamental elements :1- Airflow valve2- Sensors3- 22.2.2.0 (1323)
Comparators4- Computers5- Amplifiers6- Servo-actuatorsThe combination In automatic landing mode, in case of failure of one of the two autopilots, the
regrouping all the correct statements is: system is considered:
a) 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 a) ""fail passive"" or without failure effect but with disconnection.
b) 2, 3, 4, 5 b) ""fail survival"" or without failure effect with function always ensured.
c) 1, 3, 4, 6 c) ""fail hard"" or without failure effect and disconnection.
d) 1, 2, 6 d) ""fail soft"" with minimized failure effect.

22.2.2.0 (1319) 22.2.2.0 (1324)


The correction of the control surface deflection made by the automatic pilot During an automatic landing, from a height of about 50 ft the:
calculator in order to stabilize the longitudinal attitude will be all the more a) autopilot maintains a vertical speed depending on the radio altimeter height.
significant as the :1- difference between the reference attitude and the b) glideslope mode is disconnected and the airplane continues its descent until landing.
instantaneous attitude is high.2- rate of change of the difference between the c) autopilot maintains an angle of attack depending on the radio altimeter height.
reference attitude and the instantaneous attitude is high.3- temperature is low.4- d) Loc and Glideslope modes are disconnected and the airplane carries on its descent until
pressure altitude is high.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: landing.
a) 1,2.
b) 1, 2, 3, 4.
22.2.2.0 (1325)
c) 1, 2, 3.
In a selected axis capture mode, the autopilot gives a bank attitude input :
d) 2, 3, 4.
a) proportional to the deviation between the selected heading and the current
heading but not exceeding a given value.
22.2.2.0 (1320) b) of a fixed value equal to 27°.
The correction of the control surface deflection made by the auto-pilot calculator in c) of a fixed value equal to 20°.
order to keep a given altitude will be all the more significant when the :1- d) proportional to the aircraft true airspeed but not exceeding a given value.
difference between the attitude necessary to keep the given or reference altitude
and the instantaneous attitude is high.2 - variation speed of the difference
22.2.2.0 (1326)
between the attitude necessary to maintain the altitude and the instantaneous
An automatic landing system which can keep on operating without deterioration of
attitude is high.3 - difference between the altitude of reference and the
its performances following the failure of one of the autopilots is called ""FAIL...:
instantaneous altitude is high.4 - variation speed of the difference between the
a) ""OPERATIONAL""
reference altitude and the instantaneous altitude is high.The combination
b) ""PASSIVE""
regrouping the correct statements is:
c) ""SAFE""
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4.
d) ""REDUNDANT""
b) 1 and 2.
c) 3 and 4.
d) 1, 2 and 3. 22.2.2.0 (1327)
An automatic landing system necessitating that the landing be continued manually
in the case of a system failure during an automatic approach is called ""FAIL....""
22.2.2.0 (1321)
a) ""PASSIVE""
When only one autopilot is used for climbing, cruising and approach, the system is
b) ""OPERATIONAL""
considered:
c) ""SAFE""
a) ""fail soft"" or with minimized failure effect.
d) ""REDUNDANT""
b) ""fail passive"" or without failure effect but with disconnection.
c) ""fail survival"" or without failure effect with function always ensured.
d) ""fail safe"" with failure effect without disconnection. 22.2.2.0 (1328)
A semi-automatic landing system disconnects itself automatically:
a) at approximately 100 ft.
22.2.2.0 (1322)
b) at the decision height.
In automatic landing mode, when the 2 autopilots are used, the system is

108
c) on ground. c) guiding the airplane path.
d) when going around. d) stabilizing and monitoring the movement around the airplane aerodynamic centre.

22.2.2.0 (1329) 22.2.2.0 (1335)


A landing is performed automatically when the autopilot and auto-throttle ensure From a flight mechanics point of view, the ""guidance"" functions of a transport
good performance from the final approach : airplane autopilot consist in:
a) during the landing roll and sometimes until the aircraft comes to a complete a) monitoring the movements of the centre of gravity in the three dimensions of
stop. space (path).
b) until reaching 100 ft, height at which point the autopilot is automatically disconnected. b) stabilizing and monitoring the movements around the centre of gravity.
c) until the flare. c) monitoring the movements of the aerodynamic centre in the three dimensions of space
d) until reaching decision height. (path).
d) stabilizing and monitoring the movements around the aerodynamic centre.
22.2.2.0 (1330)
When an aircraft, operating in the VOR coupled mode, approaches the ""cone of 22.2.2.0 (1336)
confusion"" over a VOR station, the roll channel of the autopilot : An autopilot capable of holding at least altitude and heading mode is compulsory:
a) temporarily switches over to the heading mode. a) for IFR or night flights with only one pilot.
b) is damped by a trim input signal from the lateral trim system. b) on multipilot airplanes.
c) remains always coupled to the selected VOR radial. c) for VFR and IFR flights with only one pilot.
d) is temporarily disconnected. d) on airplanes over 5.7 t.

22.2.2.0 (1331) 22.2.2.0 (1337)


The autopilot basic modes include, among other things, the following functions :1- Among the following functions of an autopilot, those related to the airplane
pitch attitude hold 2- pressure altitude hold3- horizontal wing hold4- heading hold stabilization are:1- pitch attitude holding2- horizontal wing holding3- displayed
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is : heading or inertial track holding4- indicated airspeed or Mach number holding5-
a) 1, 3 yaw damping6- VOR axis holdingThe combination regrouping all the correct
b) 1, 2, 3, 4 statements is:
c) 1, 2, 3 a) 1, 2 and 5.
d) 1, 4 b) 1, 2, 3 and 6.
c) 3, 4, 5 and 6.
d) 2, 4, and 5.
22.2.2.0 (1332)
During a Category II automatic approach, the height information is supplied by the
: 22.2.2.0 (1338)
a) radio altimeter. Among the following functions of an autopilot, those related to the airplane
b) GPS (Global Positioning System). guidance are:1- pitch attitude holding2- horizontal wing holding3- indicated
c) encoding altimeter. airspeed or Mach number holding4- altitude holding5- VOR axis holding6- yaw
d) altimeter. dampingThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 3, 4 and 5.
b) 1, 2, and 6.
22.2.2.0 (1333)
c) 1, 2, 3 and 6.
A pilot engages the control wheel steering (CWS) of a conventional autopilot and
d) 1, 3, 4 and 5.
carries out a manoeuvre in roll. When the control wheel is released, the autopilot
will :
a) maintain the flight attitude obtained at that moment. 22.2.2.0 (1339)
b) roll wings level and maintain the heading obtained at that moment. When using the autopilot, the function of the pitch channel automatic trim is to:1-
c) maintain the track and the flight attitude obtained at that moment. cancel the hinge moment of the elevator2- ease as much as possible the load of the
d) restore the flight attitude and the rate of turn selected on the autopilot control display unit. servo-actuator 3- restore to the pilot a correctly trimmed airplane during the
autopilot disengagement The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 1, 2 and 3.
22.2.2.0 (1334)
b) 3.
The functions of an autopilot (basic modes) consist of :
c) 1 and 3.
a) stabilizing and monitoring the movement around the airplane centre of gravity.
d) 1 and 2.
b) monitoring the movement of the airplane centre of gravity.

109
22.2.2.0 (1340) c) 1 and 3.
A landing will be considered to be performed in the SEMI-AUTOMATIC mode d) 2 and 3.
when:1- the autopilot maintains the airplane on the ILS beam until the decision
height is reached then is disengaged automatically.2- the autothrottle maintains a
22.2.2.0 (1344)
constant speed until the decision height is reached then is disengaged
The engagement of an autopilot is not possible when:1- there is a fault in the
automatically.3- the autopilot maintains the airplane on the ILS beam until the
electrical power supply2- the controlled-turn knob is not set to centre-off3- there
flare.4- the autothrottle decreases the thrust when the height is approximately 30
is a synchronization fault in the pitch channel4- there is a fault in the attitude
ft.5- the flare and the ground roll are performed automatically.The combination
reference unitThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 1, 2, 3, 4.
a) 1 and 2.
b) 1, 2, 4.
b) 3, 4 and 5.
c) 2, 3, 4.
c) 1 and 4.
d) 1, 3, 4.
d) 2, 3 and 5.

22.2.2.0 (1345)
22.2.2.0 (1341)
An autopilot is selected ""ON"" in mode ""altitude hold,"" the pilot alters the
A landing will be considered to be performed in the AUTOMATIC mode when:1- the
barometric pressure set on the sub-scale of his altimeter the:
autopilot maintains the airplane on the ILS beam until the decision height is
a) aircraft will remain at the same altitude, the autopilot takes its pressure
reached then is disengaged automatically.2- the autothrottle maintains a constant
information from the static source
speed until the decision height is reached then is disengaged automatically.3- the
b) aircraft will remain at the same altitude, the autopilot takes its pressure information from
autopilot maintains the airplane on the ILS beam until the flare.4- the autothrottle
the altimeter corrected to standard pressure, 1013.25 hPa
decreases the thrust when the height is approximately 30 ft.5- the flare and the
c) aircraft will climb or descend in the sense of the change, the autopilot takes its pressure
ground roll are performed automatically.The combination regrouping all the
information from the altimeter
correct statements is:
d) mode altitude hold will disengage
a) 3, 4 and 5.
b) 1 and 2.
c) 2, 3 and 5. 22.2.3.0 (1346)
d) 1 and 4. The computers of the electrical flight controls system comply with programs
defined by attitude control laws such as :1- on the longitudinal axis, the law may
combine the load factor and the changes in the pitch rate as control data sources2-
22.2.2.0 (1342)
the trimming is automatic and ensures neutral stability3- the protections apply to
When an automatic landing is interrupted by a go-around :1- the autothrottle
pitch and bank attitudes depending on the speed4- these laws do not apply to the
reacts immediately upon the pilot action on the TO/GA (Take-off/Go-around)
whole flight envelope The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
switch in order to recover the maximum thrust2- the autopilot monitors the climb
a) 1, 2, 3
and the rotation of the airplane3- the autopilot retracts the landing gear and
b) 2, 3
reduces the flap deflection in order to reduce the drag4- the pilot performs the
c) 1, 2, 3, 4
climb and the rotation of the airplane5- the pilot retracts the landing gear and
d) 1, 3, 4
reduces the flap deflection in order to reduce the dragThe combination regrouping
all the correct statements is:
a) 1, 2 and 5. 22.2.4.0 (1347)
b) 1, 4 and 5. The yaw damper, which suppresses Dutch roll:
c) 1, 3 and 4. a) controls the rudder, with the angular rate about the vertical axis as the input
d) 1, 2 and 3. signal.
b) controls the ailerons, with Mach Number as the input signal.
c) controls the rudder, with Mach Number as the input signal.
22.2.2.0 (1343)
d) controls the ailerons, with the angular rate about the vertical axis as the input signal.
The calibrated airspeed (CAS) or Mach holding mode is carried out by:1- the
autopilot pitch channel in the climb mode at a constant calibrated airspeed (CAS)
or Mach number2- the autothrottles in the climb mode at a constant calibrated 22.2.4.0 (1348)
airspeed (CAS) or Mach number3- the autopilot pitch channel in the altitude or The yaw damper indicator supplies the pilot with information regarding the:
glide path holding mode4- the autothrottles in the altitude or glide path holding a) yaw damper action on the rudder
modeThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is: b) rudder displacement by the rudder pedals
a) 1 and 4. c) yaw damper action only on the ground
b) 2 and 4. d) rudder position

110
22.2.5.0 (1349) the aeroplane is properly trimmed when the autopilot is disengaged3- maintain the
The automatic trim is a component of the autopilot pitch channel. Its function is to: same stability/manoeuverablity trade-off within the whole flight envelopeThe
a) transfer a stabilized aeroplane to the pilot during autopilot disengagement. combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
b) reset the attitude, after engaging (the autopilot). a) 1, 2, 3.
c) set the attitude to an instantaneous value before engaging the autopilot. b) 1, 2.
d) automatically disengage the autopilot in the case of an excessive pitch up. c) 1, 3.
d) 2, 3.
22.2.5.0 (1350)
Which one of the following statements is true with regard to the operation of a 22.2.6.0 (1356)
Mach trim system : A Full Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC) has the following functions :1- flow
a) It only operates above a pre-determined Mach number. regulation (fuel, decelerations and accelerations monitoring)2- automatic starting
b) It operates to counteract the larger than normal forward movements of the wing centre of sequence 3- transmissions of engine data to the pilot's instruments4- thrust
pressure at high subsonic airspeeds. management and protection of operation limits 5- monitoring of the thrust
c) It only operates when the autopilot is engaged. reversersThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
d) It operates over the full aircraft speed range. a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
b) 2, 4, 5
c) 1, 3, 5
22.2.5.0 (1351)
d) 1, 3, 4, 5
In the automatic trim control system of an autopilot, automatic trimming is
normally effected about the :
a) pitch axis only. 22.2.6.0 (1357)
b) roll and yaw axes only. The Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR) is computed by :
c) pitch roll and yaw axes. a) dividing turbine discharge pressure by compressor inlet pressure.
d) pitch and roll axes only. b) dividing compressor discharge pressure by turbine discharge pressure.
c) multiplying compressor inlet pressure by turbine discharge pressure.
d) multiplying compressor discharge pressure by turbine inlet pressure.
22.2.5.0 (1352)
Mach Trim is a device to compensate for :
a) backing of the aerodynamic center at high Mach numbers by moving the 22.2.6.0 (1358)
elevator to nose-up An aeroplane is in steady climb. The autothrottle maintains a constant calibrated
b) the effects of fuel transfer between the main tanks and the tank located in the horizontal airspeed. If the total temperature remains constant, the Mach number :
tail a) increases.
c) the effects of temperature variation during a climb or descent at constant Mach b) decreases.
d) weight reduction resulting from fuel consumption during the cruise c) remains constant.
d) decreases if the static temperature is lower than the standard temperature.
22.2.5.0 (1353)
The purpose of Auto Trim function in autopilot is to : 22.2.6.0 (1359)
a) control elevator trim tab in order to relieve elevator load The two main sources of information used to calculate turbojet thrust are the:
b) help Auto Pilot compensate for crosswind influence a) fan rotation speed (or N1) or the EPR (Engine Pressure Ratio).
c) tell the pilot when elevator trimming is required b) high pressure turbine rotation speed or the EPR (Engine Pressure Ratio).
d) trim throttles to obtain smooth engine power variation c) fan rotation speed (or N1) or the total pressure at the high pressure compressor outlet.
d) fan rotation speed (or N1) or the total pressure at the low pressure turbine outlet.
22.2.5.0 (1354)
The purpose of an airplane automatic trim system is to trim out the hinge moment 22.2.6.0 (1360)
of the : An airplane is in steady cruise at flight level 290. The autothrottle maintains a
a) elevator(s) constant Mach number. If the total temperature increases, the calibrated airspeed:
b) rudder(s) a) remains constant.
c) elevator(s) and rudder(s) b) increases.
d) elevator(s), rudder(s) and ailerons. c) decreases.
d) increases if the static temperature is higher than the standard temperature, decreases if
lower.
22.2.5.0 (1355)
The purpose of the automatic trim is to:1- reduce to zero the hinge moment of the
entire control surface in order to relieve the load on the servo-actuator2- ensure
111
22.2.6.0 (1361) a) decreases.
An airplane is in steady cruise at flight level 290. The autothrottle maintains a b) increases.
constant Mach number. If the total temperature decreases, the calibrated c) remains constant.
airspeed: d) increases if the static temperature is lower than the standard temperature, decreases if
a) remains constant. higher.
b) increases.
c) decreases.
22.2.7.0 (1367)
d) decreases if the outside temperature is lower than the standard temperature, increases if
The autothrottle :1- enable to catch and to maintain the N1 RPM2- enable to catch
higher.
and to maintain the N2 RPM3- enable to catch and to maintain an airplane
indicated airspeed (IAS)4- is always engaged automatically at the same time as
22.2.6.0 (1362) the autopilotThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
An airplane is in steady descent. The autothrottle maintains a constant Mach a) 1 and 3
number. If the total temperature remains constant, the calibrated airspeed: b) 2 and 3
a) increases. c) 1 and 4
b) decreases. d) 1, 3 and 4
c) remains constant.
d) decreases if the static temperature is lower than the standard temperature, increases if
22.2.7.0 (1368)
above.
The purpose of Auto Throttle is:
a) to maintain constant engine power or airplane speed
22.2.6.0 (1363) b) automatic shut down of one engine at too high temperature
An aeroplane is in steady cruise at flight level 270. The autothrottle maintains a c) to deactivate manual throttles and transfer engine control to Auto Pilot
constant calibrated airspeed. If the total temperature increases, the Mach d) to synchronize engines to avoid ""yawing""
number :
a) remains constant.
22.2.7.0 (1369)
b) increases.
In order to know in which mode the autothrottles are engaged, the crew will check
c) decreases.
the :
d) decreases if the outside temperature is higher than the standard temperature, increases if
a) PFD (Primary Flight Display)
lower.
b) ND (Navigation Display).
c) TCC (Thrust Control Computer).
22.2.6.0 (1364) d) throttles position.
An aeroplane is in steady cruise at flight level 270. The autothrottle maintains a
constant calibrated airspeed. If the total temperature decreases, the Mach
22.2.7.0 (1370)
number :
The automatic power control system (autothrottle) of a transport airplane has the
a) remains constant.
following mode(s) :1- capture and holding of speeds2- capture and holding of
b) increases.
Mach number3- capture and holding of flight angle of attack4- capture and holding
c) decreases.
of N1 or EPR (Engine Power Ratio)5- capture and holding of flight pathsThe
d) increases if the outside temperature is higher than the standard temperature, decreases if
combination regrouping all the correct statements is :
lower.
a) 1, 2, 4
b) 1, 2, 3, 5
22.2.6.0 (1365) c) 2, 4
An aeroplane is in a steady climb. The autothrottle maintains a constant Mach d) 1, 4, 5
number. If the total temperature remains constant, the calibrated airspeed :
a) decreases.
22.3.1.0 (1371)
b) increases.
Alarms are standardised and follow a code of colours. Those requiring action but
c) remains constant.
not immediately, are signalled by the colour:
d) decreases if the static temperature is lower than the standard temperature, increases if
a) amber
higher.
b) red
c) green
22.2.6.0 (1366) d) flashing red
An aeroplane is in steady descent. The autothrottle maintains a constant calibrated
airspeed. If the total temperature remains constant, the Mach number :

112
22.3.2.0 (1372) 22.3.3.0 (1377)
A transport airplane has to be equipped with an altitude warning device. This The GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) is active for a height range from:
system will warn the crew about :1 - getting close to the preselected altitude, a) 50 ft to 2 500 ft measured by the radio altimeter.
during both climb and descent.2 - getting close to the preselected altitude, during b) 0 ft to 2 500 ft measured by the radio altimeter.
climb only.3 - the loss of altitude during take-off or missed approach.4 - a wrong c) 0 ft to 5 000 ft measured by the radio altimeter.
landing configuration.5 - a variation higher or lower than a preselected d) 50 ft to 5 000 ft measured by the radio altimeter.
altitude.The combination regrouping the correct statements is:
a) 1,5
22.3.3.0 (1378)
b) 3,4
The Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) generates the following sound
c) 2
signal or signals when the aircraft is sinking after a take-off or a go-around :
d) 1,3,4
a) DON'T SINK repetitive only
b) WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP repetitive only
22.3.2.0 (1373) c) DON'T SINK always followed by WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP
An ""altitude warning system"" must at least warn the crew :1- when approaching d) DON'T SINK followed by WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP if the sink rate overshoots a second
the pre-selected altitude2- when the airplane is approaching the ground too fast3- level
in case of a given deviation above or below the pre-selected altitude (at least by an
aural warning)4- in case of excessive vertical speed5- when approaching the
22.3.3.0 (1379)
ground with the gear retractedThe combination regrouping all the correct
A ground proximity warning system (GPWS), when mandatorily installed on board
statements is :
an aircraft, must in all cases generate :
a) 1, 3
a) at least one sound alarm to which a visual alarm can be added
b) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
b) a sound alarm or a visual alarm
c) 2, 4, 5
c) a sound and visual alarm
d) 1, 3, 4
d) a visual alarm to which a sound alarm can be

22.3.2.0 (1374)
22.3.3.0 (1380)
The purpose of the altitude alert system is to generate a visual and aural warning
The operation of the GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) is governed by
to the pilot when the:
laws taking the aircraft height into account as well as :1- the descent rate2- the
a) airplane altitude differs from a selected altitude.
climb rate3- the aircraft configuration4- the selected engine rpmThe combination
b) airplane altitude is equal to the decision altitude.
of correct statements is :
c) proximity to the ground becomes dangerous.
a) 1,3
d) altimeter setting differs from the standard setting above the transition altitude.
b) 1,2,4
c) 2,4
22.3.3.0 (1375) d) 2,3
The GPWS calculator receives the following signals :1 - vertical speed2 - radio
altimeter height3 - pressure altitude4 - glidepath deviation 5 - gear and flaps
22.3.3.0 (1381)
position6 - angle of attackThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is
If an aircraft is flying (with flaps and landing gear retracted) in proximity to terrain
:
and its GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) get activated, because it is
a) 1,2,4,5
detecting that the aeroplane has an excessive rate of descent, the system provides
b) 1,3,4,5,6
the following aural warning signals :
c) 1,2,5,6
a) ""SINK RATE, SINK RATE"" followed by ""WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP"" (twice)
d) 2,3,4,6
b) ""DON'T SINK, DON'T SINK""
c) ""TERRAIN, TERRAIN"" followed by ""WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP"" (twice)
22.3.3.0 (1376) d) ""TOO LOW, TERRAIN"" (twice) followed by ""TOO LOW GEAR"" (twice)
The GPWS calculator is able to operate in the following modes :1- excessive
descent rate 2- excessive rate of terrain closure3- excessive angle of attack4- too
22.3.3.0 (1382)
high descent attitude 5- loss of altitude after take-off6- abnormal gear/flaps
If the GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) activates, and alerts the pilot
configuration7- excessive glidepath deviationThe combination regrouping all the
with an aural warning ""DON'T SINK"" (twice times), it is because :
correct statements is:
a) during take-off or missed approach manoeuvre, the aircraft has started to loose
a) 1,2,5,6,7
altitude.
b) 1,2,4,6,7
b) the aircraft experiences an unexpected proximity to the terrain, with landing gear retracted.
c) 3,4,5,6
d) 2,3,5,7
113
c) at too low altitude, the aircraft has an excessive rate of descent. a) 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6.
d) the aircraft experiences an unexpected proximity to terrain, without landing-flap selected. b) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5.
c) 1,2 and 4.
d) 3, 4, 5 and 6.
22.3.3.0 (1383)
A transport airplane is compelled to carry on board a Ground Proximity Warning
System (GPWS). This system will warn the crew in case of :1 - keeping the altitude 22.3.3.0 (1388)
at a lower level than the one shown in the flight plan entered in the FMS.2 - The inputs to the GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System), are:1- Air Data
dangerous ground proximity.3 - loss of altitude during take-off or missed Computer - (Mach number and Vertical Speed) 2- Radio Altimeter3- NAV/ILS
approach.4 - wrong landing configuration.5 - descent below glidepath, within (Glide Slope)4- NAV/VOR5- Flap (position)6- Angle of Attack7- Landing Gear
limits.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is : (position)The combination of correct statement is:
a) 2,3,4,5 a) 1,2,3,5,7
b) 2 b) 2,3,4,5,7
c) 1,3,4 c) 1,2,5,6,7
d) 2,5 d) 1,2,5,6,7

22.3.3.0 (1384) 22.3.4.0 (1389)


The Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) is a system working according to a The TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) is a proximity alarm system which
height span ranging from : detects a ""traffic"" when the conflicting traffic is equipped with a :
a) 50 ft to 2 500 ft a) serviceable SSR transponder
b) the ground to 1 000 ft b) serviceable weather radar
c) 30 ft to 5 000 ft c) SELCAL system
d) the ground to 500 ft d) DME system

22.3.3.0 (1385) 22.3.4.0 (1390)


The GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) releases a warning in the following A ""TCAS II"" (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) provides:
cases :1- excessive rate of descent2- excessive ground proximity rate3- loss of a) the intruder relative position and possibly an indication of a collision avoidance
altitude after take-off or go-around4- abnormal gear/flaps configuration5- manoeuvre within the vertical plane only.
excessive deviation under the glidepath6- abnormal airbrakes configurationThe b) a simple intruding airplane proximity warning.
combination regrouping all the correct statements is: c) the intruder relative position and possibly an indication of a collision avoidance manoeuvre
a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 within both the vertical and horizontal planes.
b) 2, 4, 5, 6 d) the intruder relative position and possibly an indication of a collision avoidance manoeuvre
c) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 within the horizontal plane only.
d) 3, 4, 5, 6
22.3.4.0 (1391)
22.3.3.0 (1386) Concerning the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) :
The requirement to carry a GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) concerns a) No protection is available against aircraft not equipped with a serviceable SSR
aeroplanes which are, depending on their age, weight and passenger capacity :1- transponder
turboprop-powered2- piston-powered3- jet-poweredThe combination regrouping b) In one of the system modes, the warning : ""TOO LOW TERRAIN"" is generated
all the correct statements is : c) In one of the system modes, the warning : ""PULL UP"" is generated
a) 1, 3 d) Resolution Advisory (RA) must not be followed without obtaining clearance from ATC
b) 1
c) 1, 2, 3
22.3.4.0 (1392)
d) 3
The TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) gives avoidance resolutions :
a) only in the vertical plane
22.3.3.0 (1387) b) only in the horizontal plane
A Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) generates automatically a distinct c) in horizontal and vertical planes
warning to the flight crew with aural and/or light warning signals in the case of:1- d) based on speed control
an excessive rate of descent with respect to terrain2- a dangerous proximity to the
ground3- a loss of altitude following take-off or go-around4- an abnormal flight
22.3.4.0 (1393)
attitude5- an abnormal landing configuration6- an abnormal deviation below ILS
In the event of a conflict, the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) will give
glide slopeThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
information such as :
114
a) climb/descent 22.3.4.0 (1399)
b) turn left/turn right When the intruding aircraft is equipped with a serviceable mode C transponder,
c) too low terrain the TCAS II (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) generates a :
d) glide slope a) ""traffic advisory"" and vertical ""resolution advisory"".
b) ""traffic advisory"" and horizontal ""resolution advisory"".
c) ""traffic advisory"" only.
22.3.4.0 (1394)
d) ""traffic advisory"", vertical and horizontal ""resolution advisory"".
The principle of the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems) is based on the use
of :
a) transponders fitted in the aircraft 22.3.4.0 (1400)
b) airborne weather radar system On a TCAS2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System), a corrective ""resolution
c) F.M.S. (Flight Management System) advisory"" (RA) is a ""resolution advisory"":
d) air traffic control radar systems a) asking the pilot to modify effectively the vertical speed of his aircraft.
b) which does not require any action from the pilot but on the contrary asks him not to modify
his current vertical speed rate.
22.3.4.0 (1395)
c) asking the pilot to modify the heading of his aircraft.
The TCAS 1 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) provides :1- traffic information2-
d) asking the pilot to modify the speed of his aircraft.
horizontal resolution (RA: Resolution Advisory)3- vertical resolution (RA:
Resolution Advisory)4- ground proximity warningThe combination regrouping all
the correct statements is: 22.3.4.0 (1401)
a) 1 On a TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) the preventive ""resolution
b) 1, 2 advisory"" (RA) is a ""resolution advisory"":
c) 1, 2, 3 a) that advises the pilot to avoid certain deviations from the current vertical rate
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 but does not require any change to be made to that rate.
b) asking the pilot to modify effectively the vertical speed of his aircraft.
c) asking the pilot to modify the heading of his aircraft.
22.3.4.0 (1396)
d) asking the pilot to modify the speed of his aircraft.
The TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) provides :1- traffic information
(TA: Traffic Advisory)2- horizontal resolution (RA: Resolution Advisory)3- vertical
resolution (RA: Resolution Advisory)4- ground proximity warningThe combination 22.3.4.0 (1402)
regrouping all the correct statements is: An ""intruding traffic advisory"" is represented on the display system of the TCAS 2
a) 1, 3 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) by displaying :
b) 1, 2 a) a yellow full circle.
c) 1, 2, 3 b) a blue or white empty lozenge.
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 c) a blue or white full lozenge.
d) a red full square.
22.3.4.0 (1397)
The TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) computer receives information :1- 22.3.4.0 (1403)
about the pressure altitude through the mode S transponder2- from the radio- A ""resolution advisory"" (RA) is represented on the display system of the TCAS 2
altimeter3- specific to the airplane configuration4- from the inertial unitsThe (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) by a :
combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a) red full square.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) blue or white full lozenge.
b) 1, 2, 3, 4 c) blue or white empty lozenge.
c) 1, 2, 4 d) red full circle.
d) 1, 2
22.3.4.0 (1404)
22.3.4.0 (1398) A ""close traffic advisory"" is displayed on the display device of the TCAS 2 (Traffic
When the intruding aircraft is equipped with a transponder without altitude Collision Avoidance System) by :
reporting capability, the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) issues a : a) a blue or white empty lozenge.
a) ""traffic advisory"" only. b) an orange full circle.
b) ""traffic advisory"" and vertical ""resolution advisory"". c) a blue or white full lozenge.
c) ""traffic advisory"" and horizontal ""resolution advisory"". d) a red full square.
d) ""traffic advisory"", vertical and horizontal ""resolution advisory"".

115
22.3.4.0 (1405) b) 2,3
The TCAS II data display devices can be in the form of:1- a specific dedicated c) 1,4
screen 2- a screen combined with the weather radar3- a variometer represented d) 1,2
on a liquid crystal screen which allows the display of Traffic Advisory (TA) and
Resolution Advisory (RA)4- an EFIS (Electronic Flight Instrument System)
22.3.6.0 (1411)
screenThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
The calculator combined with the stick shaker system of a modern transport
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4.
airplane receives information about the: 1- angle of attack2- engine R.P.M.3-
b) 1, 2 and 3.
configuration4- pitch and bank attitude5- sideslipThe combination regrouping all
c) 3 and 4.
the correct statements is:
d) 1 and 3.
a) 1 and 3.
b) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5.
22.3.6.0 (1406) c) 1 and 5.
The stick shaker calculator receives the following informations :1- mass of the d) 1, 2, 3 and 4.
airplane2- angle of attack3- wing flap deflection4- position of the landing gear5-
total air temperature6- pressure altitudeThe combination regrouping all the
22.3.6.0 (1412)
correct statements is:
The angle of attack transmitter provides an electric signal varying with:1- the
a) 2, 3
angular position of a wind vane2- the deviation between the airplane flight
b) 2, 3, 5
attitude and the path calculated by the inertial unit3- a probe differential pressure
c) 1, 2, 3, 4
depending on the variation of the angle of attackThe combination regrouping all
d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
the correct statements is:
a) 1 and 3.
22.3.6.0 (1407) b) 1, 2 and 3.
In some configurations, modern aircraft do not respect the regulatory margins c) 1.
between stall and natural buffet.The warning system supplies the corresponding d) 2 and 3.
alarm. The required margin related to the stall speed is:
a) 7%
22.3.6.0 (1413)
b) 5%
The angle of attack transmitters placed laterally on the forward part of the
c) 10%
fuselage supply an electrical signal indicating:1- the angular position of a wind
d) 3%
vane2- a differential pressure in a probe, depending on the variation of the angle
of attack3- a differential pressure in a probe, depending on the variation of the
22.3.6.0 (1408) speedThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
The stall warning system receives information about the :1- airplane angle of a) 1, 2.
attack2- airplane speed3- airplane bank angle4- airplane configuration5- load b) 1, 2, 3.
factor on the airplaneThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is: c) 2, 3.
a) 1, 4 d) 1, 3.
b) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
c) 2, 3, 4, 5
22.3.6.0 (1414)
d) 1, 3, 5
The oncoming stall of a large transport airplane appears in the form of:
a) control stick vibrations simulating natural buffeting.
22.3.6.0 (1409) b) an orange light on the warning display.
A stall warning system is based on a measure of : c) a natural buffeting which occurs prior to the simulated buffeting.
a) aerodynamic incidence. d) a bell type warning.
b) airspeed.
c) attitude.
22.3.6.0 (1415)
d) groundspeed.
The stall warning system of a large transport airplane includes:1- an angle of
attack sensor 2- a computer3- a transmitter originating from the anemometer4- an
22.3.6.0 (1410) independent pitot probe5- a transmitter of the flap/slat position indicating
The main input data to the Stall Warning Annunciator System are :1- Mach Meter systemThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
indication2- Angle of Attack3- Indicate Airspeed (IAS)4- Aircraft configuration a) 1, 2, 5.
(Flaps/Slats)The combination regrouping all the correct statements is : b) 1, 2, 4.
a) 2,4

116
c) 1, 4. 22.3.8.0 (1422)
d) 1, 2, 4, 5. The flight data recorders must preserve the conversation and aural warnings of the
last :
a) 30 minutes of operation
22.3.7.0 (1416)
b) 25 hours of operation
Flight recorder duration must be such that flight data, cockpit voice and sound
c) flight
warnings may respectively be recorded during at least:
d) 48 hours of operation
a) 25 hours for flight data, 30 minutes for cockpit voices and warnings horns.
b) 24 hours for flight data, 60 minutes for cockpit voices and warnings horns.
c) 20 hours for flight data, 15 minutes for cockpit voices and warnings horns. 22.3.8.0 (1423)
d) 48 hours for flight data, 60 minutes for cockpit voices and warnings horns According to the JAR-OPS regulations, the Cockpit Voice Recorder of a 50 seat
multi-engined aircraft having been granted the airworthiness certificate after 1st
April 1998 will record:1- the radiotelephonic communications transmitted or
22.3.7.0 (1417)
received by the cockpit crew2- the audio environment of the cockpit3- the cabin
The flight data recorder must start data recording automatically:
attendants communications in the cabin via the interphone4- the flight crew
a) before the airplane is able to move by under its own power.
members communications in the cockpit via the interphone5- the flight crew
b) when taking-off.
members communications in the cockpit via the public address system6- the audio
c) when the landing gear is retracted.
signals identifiying the navigation or approach aidsThe combination regrouping the
d) when lining up.
correct statements is:
a) 1,2,4,5,6
22.3.7.0 (1418) b) 1,2,3,4,5,6
The flight data recorder must automatically stop data recording when the: c) 1
a) airplane cannot any longer move by its own power. d) 1,3,4,5
b) main gear shock strut compresses when touching the runway.
c) landing gear is extended and locked.
22.3.8.0 (1424)
d) airplane clears the runway.
According to the JAR-OPS regulations, the Cockpit Voice Recorder of a 50 seat
multi-engined aircraft, having been granted an airworthiness certificate after 1st
22.3.7.0 (1419) April 1998, shall start recording :
In accordance with (ICAO) Annex 6 part I, the flight data recorder is to be located a) Automatically prior to the aircraft moving under its own power until flight
in the aircraft : completion when the aircraft is no longer able to move under its own power.
a) as far to the rear as practicable b) Automatically when the wheels leave the ground until the moment when the wheels touch
b) as far forward as practicable the ground again.
c) as near to the landing gear as practicable c) From the first radio contact with Air Traffic Control until radio shutdown after the flight.
d) at the right or left wing tip d) When the pilot selects the ""CVR: ON"" during engine start until the pilot selects the ""CVR:
OFF"" during the engine shut down.
22.3.7.0 (1420)
Except for airplanes under 5,7 t airworthiness certificate of which is subsequent to 22.3.8.0 (1425)
31 march 1998, a flight data recording system must be able to store the recorded A cockpit voice recorder (CVR) will record :1. the information exchanged by the
data for a minimum of the last : cabin crew2. the conversations between the crew members and voice
a) 25 hours. communications transmitted from or received on the flight deck by radio3. the
b) 10 hours. announcements made via the public address even if it has not been selected4. the
c) 30 minutes. conversations and alarms audible in the cockpit5. the captain conversations
d) 60 minutes. onlyThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is :
a) 2, 4
22.3.8.0 (1421) b) 3, 4
The CVR (Cockpit Voice Recorder) includes:1. a microphone2. a recorder in c) 1, 2
compliance with the shock and fire resistance standards3. an independent d) 1, 5
battery4. a flight data recorderThe combination regrouping all the correct
statements is: 22.3.8.0 (1426)
a) 1, 2 The voice recorder records on four different channels the following information:1-
b) 1, 4 aural warnings2- radio communications3- conversations between the crew
c) 1, 2, 3, 4 members through the cockpit interphone4- announcements to the passengersThe
d) 2, 4 combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
117
a) 1, 2, 3, 4. 22.4.1.0 (1433)
b) 1, 3. The probe used to measure the air intake pressure of a gas turbine engined
c) 1, 4. powerplant is:
d) 1, 2, 3. a) an aneroid capsule.
b) a differential capsule.
c) a Bourdon tube.
22.4.1.0 (1427)
d) a bellows sensor.
The ""Bourdon tube"" is used to measure :
a) pressure.
b) temperature. 22.4.1.0 (1434)
c) quantity. A ""Bourdon Tube"" is used in:
d) a flow rate. a) pressure sensors
b) vibration detectors
c) smoke detectors
22.4.1.0 (1428)
d) turbine temperature probes
If a manifold pressure gauge consistently registers atmospheric pressure, the
cause is probably,
a) leak in pressure gauge line. 22.4.2.0 (1435)
b) too high float level. The yellow sector of the temperature gauge corresponds to:
c) fuel of too low volatility. a) an exceptional operating range.
d) ice in induction system. b) a normal operating range.
c) a frequent operating range.
d) a forbidden operating range.
22.4.1.0 (1429)
A manifold pressure gauge of a piston engine measures :
a) absolute pressure in intake system near the inlet valve. 22.4.2.0 (1436)
b) absolute airpressure entering the carburettor. The white sector of the arc of a temperature gauge corresponds to:
c) fuel pressure leaving the carburettor. a) a special operating range.
d) vacuum in the carburettor. b) a normal operating range.
c) an exceptional operating range.
d) a forbidden operating range.
22.4.1.0 (1430)
Different pressure sensors are used according to the intensity of the pressure
measured (low, medium or high)Classify the following sensors by order of 22.4.2.0 (1437)
increasing pressure for which they are suitable :1- bellows type2- Bourdon tube The sensors used to measure the exhaust gas temperature on an aircraft equipped
type3- aneroid capsule type with turbojets are:
a) 3,1,2 a) thermocouples.
b) 1,2,3 b) based on metallic parts whose expansion/contraction is measured.
c) 3,2,1 c) based on metallic conductors whose resistance increases linearly with temperature.
d) 2,1,3 d) capacitors whose capacity varies proportionnally with temperature.

22.4.1.0 (1431) 22.4.2.0 (1438)


Among the following engine instruments, the one operating with an aneroid The measurement of the turbine temperature or of the EGT (Exhaust Gas
pressure diaphragm is the : Temperature) is carried out at the :
a) manifold pressure gauge. a) high pressure turbine outlet.
b) oil pressure gauge. b) combustion chamber outlet.
c) fuel pressure gauge. c) combustion chamber intake.
d) oil thermometer. d) high pressure chamber intake.

22.4.1.0 (1432) 22.4.2.0 (1439)


The pressure probe used to measure the pressure of a low pressure fuel pump is: Given :M is the Mach numberTs is the static temperatureTt is the total temperature
a) an aneroid capsule. a) Ts = Tt /(1+0.2. M²)
b) a bellows sensor. b) Ts = Tt.(1+0.2. M²)
c) a Bourdon tube. c) Ts = Tt.(0.2. M²)
d) a differential capsule. d) Ts = Tt/( 0.2 M²)
118
22.4.2.0 (1440) b) two metal conductors of the same nature fixed together at two points.
A thermocouple type thermometer consists of: c) a three wire coil.
a) two metal conductors of different type connected at one point. d) a single wire coil.
b) two metal conductors of the same type connected at two points.
c) a Wheatstone bridge connected to a voltage indicator.
22.4.2.0 (1447)
d) a single-wire metal winding.
The airplane outside air temperature ""probe"" measures the :
a) ""total"" air temperature minus kinetic heating effects in order to obtain the
22.4.2.0 (1441) static temperature.
The total air temperature (TAT) is always : b) ""static"" air temperature minus kinetic heating effects in order to obtain the total
a) higher than Static Air Temperature (SAT) depending on the Calibrated Air Speed temperature.
(CAS). c) ""total"" air temperature minus compressibility effects in order to obtain the static
b) higher lower than Static Air Temperature (SAT) depending on the Calibrated Air Speed temperature.
(CAS). d) ""static"" air temperature minus compressibility effects in order to obtain the total
c) higher than Static Air Temperature (SAT) depending on the altitude. temperature.
d) lower than Static Air Temperature (SAT) depending on the altitude.
22.4.2.0 (1448)
22.4.2.0 (1442) In transport airplanes, the temperatures are generally measured with :1-
The static air temperature (SAT) is : resistance thermometers2- thermocouple thermometers3- reactance
a) an absolute temperature expressed in degrees Celsius thermometers4- capacitance thermometers5- mercury thermometersThe
b) a differential temperature expressed in degrees Kelvin combination regrouping all the correct statements is :
c) a relative temperature expressed in degrees Celsius a) 1, 2
d) a relative temperature expressed in degrees Kelvin b) 1, 3, 4, 5
c) 1, 2, 5
d) 2, 3
22.4.2.0 (1443)
In order to measure temperature the cylinder head temperature (CHT) gauge
utilises a : 22.4.2.0 (1449)
a) thermocouple consisting of two dissimilar metals. The main advantage of a ratiometer-type temperature indicator is that it:
b) wheatstone bridge circuit. a) carries out an independent measurement of the supply voltage.
c) ratiometer circuit. b) is simple.
d) bourdon tube. c) can operate without an electrical power supply.
d) is very accurate.
22.4.2.0 (1444)
To permit turbine exit temperatures to be measured, gas turbines are equipped 22.4.2.0 (1450)
with thermometers which work on the following principle: A millivoltmeter measuring the electromotive force between the ""hot junction""
a) thermocouple and the ""cold junction"" of a thermocouple can be directly graduated in
b) bi-metallic strip temperature values provided that the temperature of the:
c) liquid expansion a) cold junction is maintained constant.
d) gas pressure b) hot junction is maintained constant.
c) cold junction is maintained at 15 °C.
d) hot junction is maintained at 15 °C.
22.4.2.0 (1445)
The temperature measured by the CHT (Cylinder Head temperature) probe is the :
a) temperature within the hottest cylinder, depending on its position in the engine 22.4.2.0 (1451)
block. The electromotive force of a thermocouple is not modified if one or several
b) average temperature within the whole set of cylinders. intermediate metals are inserted in the circuit provided that:
c) temperature of the exhaust gases. a) contact points are maintained at equal temperature between these different
d) temperature of the carburator to be monitored when the outside air temperature is metals.
between -5°C and 10°C. b) these metals are not the same as those constituting the thermocouple.
c) these metals are maintained at a temperature higher than that of the cold source.
d) these metals are maintained at a temperature lower than that of the cold source.
22.4.2.0 (1446)
A thermocouple can be made of:
a) two metal conductors of different nature fixed together at two points.
119
22.4.3.0 (1452) b) a three-phase voltage frequency varies with the RPM, the indicator is provided with a motor
A synchroscope is used on aircraft to: which drives a magnetic tachometer
a) set several engines to the same speed. c) a DC voltage varying with the RPM , the indicator is a simple voltmeter with a rev/min. scale
b) reduce the vibration of each engine. d) an AC voltage varying with the RPM , the indicator rectifies the signal via a diode bridge
c) reduce the rpm of each engine. and is provided with a voltmeter
d) achieve optimum control of on-board voltages.
22.4.3.0 (1458)
22.4.3.0 (1453) The RPM indicator (or tachometer) of a piston engine can include a small red arc
The red pointer which is normally on the red line on the EGT (Exhaust Gas within the arc normally used (green arc)In the RPM range corresponding to this
Temperature) indicators: small red arc the :
a) moves when the corresponding value is exceeded and remains positioned at the a) propoller generates vibration, continuous rating is forbidden
maximum value that has been reached. b) rating is the maximum possible in continuous mode
b) shows the limit value not to be exceeded. c) rating is the minimum usable in cruise
c) allows the display of the parameter value to be adopted during take-off. d) propeller efficency is minimum at this rating
d) shows the vibration level of the engine under consideration.
22.4.3.0 (1459)
22.4.3.0 (1454) The transmitter of RPM indicator may consist of :1- a magnetic sensor supplying an
In a 3-phase synchronous motor type tachometer indicator :1- the transmitter is a induced AC voltage2- a DC generator supplying a DC voltage3- a single-phase AC
direct current generator2- the voltage is proportional to the transmitter drive generator supplying an AC voltage4- a three-phase AC generator supplying a
speed 3- the frequency is proportional to the transmitter drive speed4- the speed three-phase voltageThe combination of correct statements is :
indicating element is a galvanometer5. the speed indicating element is an a) 1,2,3,4
asynchronous motor driving a magnetic tachometerThe combination regrouping all b) 2,3,4
the correct statements is: c) 1,4
a) 3, 5 d) 1,2,3
b) 1, 2
c) 2, 5
22.4.3.0 (1460)
d) 1, 4
On an aeroplane equipped with a constant speed propeller, the RPM indicator
enables :
22.4.3.0 (1455) a) control of the propeller regulator and the display of propeller RPM.
The disadvantage of an electronic rpm indicator is the : b) control of power.
a) necessity of providing a power supply source. c) selection of engine RPM.
b) generation of spurious signals at the commutator. d) on a twin-engine aeroplane, automatic engine synchronisation.
c) influence of temperature on the indication.
d) high influence of line resistance on the indication.
22.4.3.0 (1461)
The operating principle of an ""electronic"" tachometer is to measure the:
22.4.3.0 (1456) a) frequency of the electric impulse created by a notched wheel rotating in a
The signal supplied by a transmitter fitted with a 3-phase AC generator, connected magnetic field.
to RPM indicator, is : b) electromotive force (EMF) produced by a dynamo or an alternator.
a) a three-phase voltage, the frequency of which varies with the RPM, the indicator c) rotation speed of an asynchronous motor energized by an alternator.
is provided with a motor which drives a magnetic tachometer d) magnetic field produced by a dynamo or an alternator.
b) a DC voltage varying with the RPM, the indicator is a plain voltmeter with a rev/min. scale
c) an AC voltage, the frequency of which varies with the RPM, the indicator converts the signal
22.4.3.0 (1462)
into square pulses which are then counted
The operating principle of the ""induction"" type of tachometer is to measure the:
d) an AC voltage varying with the RPM, the indicator rectifies the signal via a diode bridge and
a) rotation speed of an asynchronous motor energized by an alternator.
is provided with a voltmeter
b) electromotive force (EMF) produced by a dynamo or an alternator.
c) frequency of the electric impulse created by a notched wheel rotating in a magnetic field.
22.4.3.0 (1457) d) magnetic field produced by a dynamo or an alternator.
The signal supplied by a transmitter fitted with a magnetic sensor, connected to an
RPM indicator is :
22.4.3.0 (1463)
a) an AC voltage, the frequency of which varies with the RPM, the indicator
The advantages of an electrical induction tachometer are:1- the display is not
converts the signal into square pulses which are then counted
sensitive to line resistance2- the measurement is independent of aircraft power
120
supply3- the measurement is independent of temperature variations4- the option c) volumetric mass and di-electric resistance of the fuel
to use without restriction several indicators connected in parallel to a single d) volume and viscosity of the fuel
transmitterThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 1, 2, 4.
22.4.4.0 (1469)
b) 1, 3, 4.
A paddle-wheel placed in a the fuel circuit of a gas turbine engine initially
c) 1, 2, 3, 4.
measures:
d) 2, 3, 4.
a) volumetric flow by a tally of the impulses
b) mass flow by a tally of the impulses
22.4.3.0 (1464) c) volumetric flow by measure of a voltage proportional to the rotational speed
The electronic tachometer sensor is composed of: d) mass flow by measure of a voltage proportional to the rotational speed
a) a notched wheel rotating in front of an electro-magnet.
b) a circular magnet with four poles.
22.4.4.0 (1470)
c) the rotor of a single phase A.C. generator.
When compared with the volumetric fuel flowmeter, the mass fuel flowmeter takes
d) the rotor of a three-phase A.C. generator.
into account the fuel :
a) density.
22.4.3.0 (1465) b) temperature.
The advantages of a D.C. generator tachometer are:1- easy transmission of the c) pressure.
information.2- independence of the information relative to the airborne electrical d) dielectrical constant.
power supply.3- freedom from any spurious current due to the commutator.The
combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
22.4.5.0 (1471)
a) 1, 2.
The float type fuel gauges provide information on:
b) 1, 2, 3.
a) volume whose indication varies with the temperature of the fuel.
c) 2, 3.
b) volume whose indication is independent of the temperature of the fuel.
d) 1, 3.
c) mass whose indication varies with the temperature of the fuel.
d) mass whose indication is independent of the temperature of the fuel.
22.4.3.0 (1466)
The advantages of single-phase A.C. generator tachometer are:1- the suppression
22.4.5.0 (1472)
of spurious signals due to a D.C. generator commutator2- the importance of line
The capacity fuel gauges provide information:
resistance on the information value3- the independence of the information in
a) on mass whose indication is independent of the temperature of the fuel.
relation to the airborne electrical power supply4- the ease of transmission of the
b) on mass whose indication varies with the temperature of the fuel.
informationThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
c) which is independent of the temperature of the fuel.
a) 1, 3.
d) which varies with the temperature of the fuel.
b) 1, 2, 3, 4.
c) 2, 3, 4.
d) 2, 4. 22.4.5.0 (1473)
The principle of capacity gauges is based on the:
a) capacitance variation of a given capacitor with the type of dielectric.
22.4.3.0 (1467)
b) current variation in the Wheatstone bridge.
The disadvantages of a single-phase A.C. generator tachometer are:1- the
c) capacitance variation by the volume measurement carried out on the sensor.
presence of spurious signals due to a D.C. generator commutator2- the importance
d) flow rate and torque variation occurring in a supply line.
of line resistance on the information value3- the influence of temperature on the
tachometer informationThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 2. 22.4.5.0 (1474)
b) 1, 2, 3. The quantity of fuel in the tanks is measured by capacitor type contents gauges.
c) 1, 2. The working principle of these sensors is to measure the :
d) 1, 3. a) charge of condensors
b) di-electric resistivity of the fuel
c) height of the fuel
22.4.4.0 (1468)
d) volume of the fuel
The operating principle of Flowmeters, or ""unit flow meters,"" the most commonly
used at the present time, is to measure across their system the :
a) quantity of fuel movement 22.4.5.0 (1475)
b) pressure and temperature of the fuel The indication of a fuel float gauge varies with :1- aircraft attitude2-

121
accelerations3- atmospheric pressure4- temperatureThe combination of correct immersed.
statements is : b) internal resistance of a capacity depends on the nature of the dielectric in which it is
a) 1,2,4 immersed.
b) 1,2,3,4 c) capacity of a capacitor depends on the distance between its plates.
c) 4 d) electromotive force of a capacity depends on the nature of the dielectric in which it is
d) 1,2 immersed.

22.4.5.0 (1476) 22.4.5.0 (1481)


The principle of capacitor gauges is based on: If the tanks of your airplane only contain water, the capacitor gauges indicate:
a) the variation in capacity of a condensor with the nature of the dielectric a) a mass of water different from zero, but inaccurate.
b) the current variation in a Wheastone bridge b) the exact mass of water contained in the tanks.
c) the variation of capacity by volumetric measurement exercised on the sensor c) a mass equal to zero.
d) the variation of flow and torque exercised in a supply line d) a mass equal to the mass of a same volume of fuel.

22.4.5.0 (1477) 22.4.5.0 (1482)


The advantages of an ""electric"" fuel (float) gauge are :1- easy construction2- The advantages of an electric float gauge are:1- ease of manufacture2-
independence of indications with regard to airplane attitude3- independence of independence of the indication relative to the variations of the aircraft power
indications with regard to the accelerations 4- independence of indications with system if the measurement is made by a ratiometer3- independence of the
regard to temperature variations5- independence of indications with regard to indication relative to the variations of the aircraft power system if the
vibrationsThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is: measurement is made by a galvanometer4- independence of the indication relative
a) 1 to temperature variationsThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
b) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 a) 1, 2, 4
c) 2, 3, 4, 5 b) 1, 2, 3, 4
d) 2, 3, 4 c) 1, 3, 4
d) 2, 3, 4
22.4.5.0 (1478)
The disavantages of an ""electric"" fuel (float) gauge are :1- the design is 22.4.5.0 (1483)
complex2- the indications are influenced by the airplane attitude variations3- the The gauge indicating the quantity of fuel measured by a capacity gauging system
indications are influenced by the accelerations 4- the indications are influenced by can be graduated directly in weight units because the dielectric constant of fuel is:
temperature variations5- that an alternative current supply is necessaryThe a) twice that of air and varies directly with density.
combination regrouping all the correct statements is : b) the same as that of air and varies directly with density.
a) 2, 3, 4 c) twice that of air and varies inversely with density.
b) 1, 2, 3, 4 d) the same as that of air and varies inversely with density.
c) 2, 3, 4, 5
d) 1
22.4.6.0 (1484)
Torque can be determined by measuring the :
22.4.5.0 (1479) a) oil pressure at the fixed crown of an epicycloidal reducer of the main engine
In an average or heavy weight transport airplane, generally, the fuel quantity is gearbox.
measured by ""capacitor"" gauges because these give :1- indications partly b) phase difference between 2 impulse tachometers attached to a transmission shaft.
independent of fuel temperature variations2- indications almost independent of c) frequency of an impulse tachometer attached to a transmission shaft.
the airplane's attitude and accelerations3- indications expressed in densityThe d) quantity of light passing through a rack-wheel attached to a transmission shaft.
combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 1, 2
22.4.8.0 (1485)
b) 1, 2, 3
The principle of detection of a vibration monitoring system is based on the use of:
c) 2
a) 2 accelerometers.
d) 1, 3
b) 2 high and low frequency amplifiers.
c) 2 high and low frequency filters.
22.4.5.0 (1480) d) a frequency converter.
The basic principle used for measuring a quantity of fuel in a transport airplane
equipped with ""capacitor"" gauges is that the:
22.4.8.0 (1486)
a) capacity of a capacitor depends on the nature of the dielectric in which it is
In an engine vibration monitoring system for a turbojet any vibration produced by
122
the engine is : 31.1.1.1 (1492)
a) amplified and filtered before being fed to the cockpit indicator. The weight of an aeroplane, which is in level non accelerated flight, is said to act
b) inversely proportional to engine speed. a) vertically through the centre of gravity.
c) directly proportional to engine speed. b) vertically through the centre of pressure.
d) fed directly to the cockpit indicator without amplification or filtering. c) vertically through the datum point.
d) always along the vertical axis of the aeroplane.
22.4.8.0 (1487)
A vibration indicator receives a signal from different sensors (accelerometers). It 31.1.1.1 (1493)
indicates the : The centre of gravity of an aeroplane
a) vibration amplitude at a given frequency a) can be allowed to move between defined limits.
b) acceleration measured by the sensors, expressed in g b) may only be moved if permitted by the regulating authority and endorsed in the aeroplane's
c) vibration frequency expressed in Hz certificate of airworthiness.
d) vibration period expressed in seconds c) is in a fixed position and is unaffected by aeroplane loading.
d) must be maintained in a fixed position by careful distribution of the load.
22.4.10.0 (1488)
In a modern airplane equipped with an ECAM (Electronic centralized aircraft 31.1.1.1 (1494)
monitor), when a failure occurs in a circuit, the centralized flight management The centre of gravity is the
system:1- releases an aural warning2- lights up the appropriate push-buttons on a) point where all the aircraft mass is considered to be concentrated
the overhead panel3- displays the relevant circuit on the system display4- b) centre of thrust along the longitudinal axis, in relation to a datum line
processes the failure automaticallyThe combination regrouping all the correct c) focus along the longitudinal axis, in relation to a datum line
statements is: d) neutral point along the longitudinal axis, in relation to a datum line
a) 1, 2, 3.
b) 1, 3, 4.
31.1.1.2 (1495)
c) 3, 4.
What determines the longitudinal stability of an aeroplane ?
d) 1, 2.
a) The location of the centre of gravity with respect to the neutral point.
b) The effectiveness of the horizontal stabilizer, rudder and rudder trim tab.
31.1.1.1 (1489) c) The relationship of thrust and lift to weight and drag.
The centre of gravity of a body is that point d) The dihedral, angle of sweepback and the keel effect.
a) through which the sum of the forces of all masses of the body is considered to
act.
31.1.1.2 (1496)
b) where the sum of the moments from the external forces acting on the body is equal to
When the centre of gravity is at the forward limit, an aeroplane will be :
zero.
a) extremely stable and will require excessive elevator control to change pitch.
c) where the sum of the external forces is equal to zero.
b) extremely stable and require small elevator control to change pitch.
d) which is always used as datum when computing moments.
c) extremely unstable and require excessive elevator control to change pitch.
d) extremely unstable and require small elevator control to change pitch.
31.1.1.1 (1490)
The centre of gravity of an aeroplane is that point through which the total mass of
31.1.1.2 (1497)
the aeroplane is said to act. The weight acts in a direction
If the centre of gravity of an aeroplane moves forward during flight the elevator
a) parallel to the gravity vector.
control will :
b) always parallel to the aeroplane's vertical axis.
a) become heavier making the aeroplane more difficult to manouevre in pitch
c) at right angles to the flight path.
b) become lighter making the aeroplane more difficult to manouevre in pitch.
d) governed by the distribution of the mass within the aeroplane.
c) become heavier making the aeroplane more easy to manouevre in pitch.
d) become lighter making the aeroplane more easy to manouevre in pitch.
31.1.1.1 (1491)
When an aeroplane is stationary on the ground, its total weight will act vertically
31.1.1.2 (1498)
a) through its centre of gravity.
An aeroplane is loaded with its centre of gravity towards the rear limit. This will
b) through its centre of pressure.
result in :
c) through the main wheels of its undercarriage assembly.
a) an increased risk of stalling due to a decrease in tailplane moment
d) through a point defined as the datum point.
b) a reduced fuel consumption as a result of reduced drag.
c) an increase in longitudinal stability.
d) a reduction in power required for a given speed.
123
31.1.1.2 (1499) b) 20.18 inches aft of datum
During take-off you notice that, for a given elevator input, the aeroplane rotates c) 605.43 inches aft of datum
much more rapidly than expected. This is an indication that : d) 228.34 inches aft of datum
a) the centre of gravity may be towards the aft limit.
b) the aeroplane is overloaded.
31.1.2.1 (1506)
c) the centre of gravity is too far forward.
(For this question use annex 031-9598 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure
d) the centre of pressure is aft of the centre of gravity.
4.11)The aeroplane has a Take Off Mass of 58 000 kg. At this mass the range of
safe CG positions, as determined from the appropriate graph in the loading
31.1.1.2 (1500) manual, is:
If the centre of gravity is near the forward limit the aeroplane will: a) Forward limit 8.0% MAC aft limit 26.5% MAC
a) require elevator trim which will result in an increase in fuel consumption. b) Forward limit 8.2% MAC aft limit 26.2% MAC
b) benefit from reduced drag due to the decrease in angle of attack. c) Forward limit 9.5% MAC aft limit 26.1% MAC
c) require less power for a given airspeed. d) Forward limit 8.5% MAC aft limit 26.1% MAC
d) tend to over rotate during take-off.
31.1.2.1 (1507)
31.1.1.2 (1501) (For this question use annex 031-9603 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.11)A
An aeroplane is said to be 'neutrally stable'. This is likely to: aeroplane has a landing mass of 53 000kg. The range of safe CG positions, as
a) be caused by a centre of gravity which is towards the rearward limit. determined from the appropriate graph in the loading manual, is :
b) be caused by a centre of gravity which is towards the forward limit. a) Forward limit 7.8% MAC aft limit 27.0% MAC
c) be totally unrelated to the position of the centre of gravity. b) Forward limit 8.2% MAC aft limit 27.0% MAC
d) cause the centre of gravity to move forwards. c) Forward limit 7.3% MAC aft limit 26.8% MAC
d) Forward limit 8.7% MAC aft limit 26.8% MAC
31.1.2.0 (1502)
The stalling speed of an aeroplane will be highest when it is loaded with a: 31.1.2.1 (1508)
a) high gross mass and forward centre of gravity. (For this question use annex 031-9604 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure
b) low gross mass and forward centre of gravity. 4.11)The aeroplane has a mass of 61 000 kg in the cruise. The range of safe CG
c) low gross mass and aft centre of gravity. positions, as determined from the appropriate graph in the loading manual, is:
d) high gross mass and aft centre of gravity. a) forward limit 8.3% aft limit 26.3% MAC
b) forward limit 8.0% aft limit 27.2% MAC.
c) forward limit 7.6% aft limit 26.9% MAC.
31.1.2.0 (1503)
d) forward limit 7.7% aft limit 25.2% MAC
With the centre of gravity on the forward limit which of the following is to be
expected?
a) A decrease in range. 31.1.2.2 (1509)
b) A decrease in the landing speed. The maximum load per running metre of an aeroplane is 350 kg/m. The width of
c) A decrease of the stalling speed. the floor area is 2 metres. The floor strength limitation is 300 kg per square metre.
d) A tendency to yaw to the right on take-off. Which one of the following crates (length x width x height) can be loaded directly
on the floor?
a) A load of 400 kg in a crate with dimensions 1.2 m x 1.2 m x 1.2 m.
31.1.2.1 (1504)
b) A load of 500 kg in a crate with dimensions 1.5 m x 1 m x 1 m.
(For this question use annex 031-9596 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.11)At
c) A load of 400 kg in a crate with dimensions 1.4 m x 0.8 m x 0.8 m.
the maximum landing mass the range of safe CG positions, as determined from the
d) A load of 700 kg in a crate with dimensions 1.8 m x 1.4 m x 0.8 m.
appropriate graph in the loading manual, is:
a) Forward limit 7.4% MAC aft limit 27.0% MAC
b) Forward limit 8.0% MAC aft limit 27.2% MAC 31.1.2.2 (1510)
c