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Sample Test Questions 1. Which of the following is the best definition for recombinant DNA?

A) DNA that is produced as a result of crossing over B) DNA that results from bacterial conjugation C) DNA that carries genes from different organisms D) An alternate form of DNA that is the product of a mutation E) DNA that carries a translocation C) DNA that carries genes from different organisms

2. When a human gene is inserted into a yeast cell, the yeast cell produces the human protein encoded by that gene. This is evidence that the genetic code is universal among all life on Earth. Which of these statements is an implication of the universality of the genetic code? A) All life on Earth is genetically related. B) Life on Earth was created by a deity. C) Other species are on Earth for humans to use as they see fit. D) Yeast and humans are closely related animal species. E) Yeast are really useful for making wine. A) All life on Earth is genetically related.

3. Which of these is a transgenic organism? A) An organism carrying a gene that was acquired by artificial means B) The first organism in which a particular mutation has appeared C) An organism carrying genes from two different parents D) A cloned organism carrying two different alleles E) An organism that gestated in an artificial womb A) An organism carrying a gene that was acquired by artificial means

4. Which of the following best defines the term transgenic animal? A) An animal that is the first of its kind to bear a particular allele B) An animal in which a genetic defect has been

corrected using recombinant DNA therapy C) An animal containing a gene from a third "parent," which may even be another species D) An animal containing genes from both its parents E) An animal containing genes from three or more species C) An animal containing a gene from a third "parent," which may even be another species

5. The world's first genetically engineered pharmaceutical product was ______. A) Humulin B) HGH C) SCID D) CF E) RFLP A) Humulin (human insulin)

6. A vaccine works by ______. A) Inhibiting bacterial reproduction B) Stimulating the immune system C) Killing cells infected with a virus D) Providing a temporary immunity to a pathogen E) Preventing translation of mRNA molecules that code for disease-causing proteins B) Stimulating the immune system

7. When plasmids are used to produce a desired protein, the ______. A) Plasmids are inserted into the main bacterial chromosome B) Plasmids multiply and produce the protein outside of the bacterium C) Bacterial chromosome is genetically engineered and the plasmid is used to help the bacterium replicate D) Desired gene is inserted into the plasmid and the plasmid is taken up by the bacterium. E) Bacterial genome and plasmid are inserted into the genome of the cell containing the desired gene (perhaps the cell of a plant or animal) D) Desired gene is inserted into the plasmid and the plasmid is taken up by the bacterium.

8. The process of making multiple copies of a gene by inserting it into a host genome and culturing the host is called ______. A) gene cloning B) industrial genetic engineering C) gene amplification D) gene magnification E) gene pharming A) gene cloning

9. A virus that has RNA as its genetic material can use ______ to convert information stored in RNA to information stored in DNA. A) DNA ligase B) reverse transcriptase C) a restriction enzyme D) a terminator enzyme E) RNA polymerase B) reverse transcriptase

10. An advantage of using reverse transcriptase to prepare a gene for cloning is that ______. A) reverse transcriptase is more efficient than a restriction enzyme B) the resulting DNA strand does not code for a protein C) reverse transcriptase is more efficient than gene cloning D) the resulting DNA strand will lack introns E) for bacteria, RNA is the genetic material D) the resulting DNA strand will lack introns

11. Restriction enzymes are obtained from ______. A) archaea B) eukaryotes C) DNA viruses D) bacteria E) retroviruses D) bacteria

12. Which enzyme is used to bind DNA fragments together? A) restriction enzyme B) telomerase C) DNA ligase D) humulin E) DNA polymerase C) DNA ligase 13.Of the following, which is the last step in the production of a recombinant DNA plasmid? A) cloning B) using DNA ligase to join DNA fragments C) isolating the gene of interest D) transduction E) allowing the reproduction of the bacterium bearing the recombinant plasmid B) using DNA ligase to join DNA fragments 14. You are attempting to link an individual to a crime. The only evidence you have is a tiny drop of blood. How can you use this drop of blood to make the association? A) You can use the sample to determine the individual's ABO blood group. B) You can use gel electrophoresis to determine the length of the DNA found in the sample. C) You can use PCR to increase the amount of DNA available for restriction fragment analysis. D) You can use the sample to check for the presence of the Rhesus factor. E) There is insufficient material to identify the criminal. C) You can use PCR to increase the amount of DNA available for restriction fragment analysis.

15. At one point, you were just an undifferentiated, single cell. You are now made of many cells; some of these cells function as liver cells, some as muscle cells, some as red blood cells, while others play different roles. What name is given to the process that is responsible for this? A) cleavage B) morphology C) regeneration D) carcinogenesis E) cellular differentiation

E) cellular differentiation

16. The process by which genotype becomes expressed as phenotype is ______. A) phenogenesis B) transcription C) gene expression D) recombination E) cleavage C) gene expression

17. What name is given to a unit of a bacterial chromosome that controls the expression of a specific set of genes? A) operon B) activator C) promoter D) exon E) regulatory gene A) operon

18. Bacterial RNA polymerase binds to the ______. A) operator B) proto-oncogene C) regulatory gene D) promoter E) exon D) promoter 19. Introns are ______. A) unexpressed DNA sequences B) DNA sequences to which activators bind C) expressed DNA sequences D) the product of RNA splicing E) DNA sequences to which silencers bind A) unexpressed DNA sequences

20. Cells communicate with one another via ______. A) cascades of gene activation B) the diffusion of RNA transcripts through adhesion junctions C) signal transduction pathways D) sound E) RNA splicing C) signal transduction pathways

21. In the future, scientists hope to be able to compare whole genomes of individuals, a new field called ______. A) workup genetics B) RCLP C) comparative genomics D) ultra-comparison E) DNA sequencing C) comparative genomics

22. Which of these statements can be logically inferred from the amount of DNA shared by chimpanzees and humans? A) Humans and chimpanzees share a relatively recent common ancestor. B) Humans evolved from chimpanzees. C) Humans are unique and different from all other life forms. D) Humans have many more genes than chimpanzees do. E) Humans are a more complex life form than chimpanzees. A) Humans and chimpanzees share a relatively recent common ancestor.

23. To find the nucleotide sequence of human chromosomes, chromosomes had to be digested into small fragments and then ______. A) attached end to end B) centrifuged and electrophoresed C) fingerprinted D) inserted into a vector and cloned E) restricted

D) inserted into a vector and cloned

24. Genetically modifying human ______ cells may directly affect future generations. A) intestinal B) immune C) pancreatic D) gametic E) somatic D) gametic

25. Ethical dilemmas raised by DNA technology and knowledge of the human genome include ______. A) the potential for interfering in evolution B) the safety of GM foods C) the potential discrimination against people predisposed to certain diseases D) the appropriateness of creating new plants, animals, and microorganisms E) all of the above E) all of the above 26. What is the advantage of being able to clone the gene for human insulin? A) Human insulin is more variable than other sources of insulin, so cloning would provide a greater chance of obtaining a form that can be used by the diabetic's muscles. B) There are too few cows, pigs, and horses to provide an adequate supply of their insulin. C) Human insulin is less likely to provoke an allergic reaction than cow, pig, or horse insulin. D) Cow, pig, or horse insulin cannot keep a diabetic alive for more than three months. E) Using human insulin increases the probability that, in the future, the diabetic can be weaned from a dependence on insulin. C) Human insulin is less likely to provoke an allergic reaction than cow, pig, or horse insulin.

27. "Golden rice" is golden because it is rich in ______. A) vitamin A B) vitamin C C) beta-carotene D) chromium picolinate E) protein C) beta-carotene

28. What is a major source of restriction enzymes? A) chief cells B) DNA technology C) parietal cells D) archaea E) bacteria E) bacteria

29. DNA fragments that have matching sticky ends are joined by bonds formed by the action of ______. A) DNA ligase B) DNA polymerase C) DNA helicase D) covalentase E) a restriction enzyme A) DNA ligase

30. Gel electrophoresis separates DNA molecules on the basis of ______. A) the nucleotide sequence of their sticky ends B) their nucleotide sequences C) the amount of adenine they contain relative to the amount of thymine they contain D) the amount of adenine they contain relative to the amount of guanine they contain E) their lengths E) their lengths

31. DNA and RNA are polymers composed of ______ monomers. A) nucleotide B) carbohydrate

C) fatty acid D) nucleic acid E) amino acid A) nucleotide

32. The backbone of DNA consists of ______. A) nitrogenous bases B) a repeating sugar-nucleotide-sugar-nucleotide pattern C) a repeating sugar-phosphate-sugar-phosphate pattern D) a repeating ACTGACTG pattern E) paired nucleotides C) a repeating sugar-phosphate-sugar-phosphate pattern

33. The DNA double helix is ______. A) made up of two polynucleotide strands B) composed of adenine and thymine C) a puzzle to geneticists D) composed of adenine and guanine E) composed of two chromosomes A) made up of two polynucleotide strands

34. RNA contains ______, whereas DNA contains ______. A) a deoxyribose sugar . . . a ribose sugar B) nucleotides . . . nucleic acids C) uracil . . . thymine D) cytosine . . . guanine E) adenine . . . guanine C) uracil . . . thymine

35. If adenine makes up 20% of the bases in a DNA double helix, what percent of the bases are guanine? A) 80% B) 60% C) 40% D) 20% E) 30%

E) 30%

36. In a DNA double helix, adenine pairs with ______ and guanine pairs with ______. A) cytosine . . . thymine B) guanine . . . adenine C) uracil . . . cytosine D) thymine . . . cytosine E) cytosine . . . uracil D) thymine . . . cytosine

37. If one strand of a DNA double helix has the sequence GTCCAT, what is the sequence of the other strand? A) ACTTGC B) TGAACG C) CAGGTA D) CAGGUA E) CUGGTU C) CAGGTA

38. Who discovered the structure of DNA? A) Pauling B) Watson and Crick C) Chase D) Franklin E) Hershey and Chase B) Watson and Crick

39. Evidence for the spiral nature of DNA came from ______. A) X-ray crystallography studies B) studies of pathogenic bacteria C) base rule studies D) transforming studies E) bacteriophage studies A) X-ray crystallography studies

40. What type of chemical bond joins the bases of complementary DNA strands? A) ionic B) covalent C) hydrophobic D) hydrophilic E) hydrogen E) hydrogen

41. After replication, ______. A) each new DNA double helix consists of two old strands B) each new DNA double helix consists of one old strand and one new strand C) each new DNA double helix contains 25% of the old DNA double helix D) each new DNA double helix consists of two new strands E) one new DNA double helix consists of two old strands and the other new DNA double helix consists of two new strands B) each new DNA double helix consists of one old strand and one new strand

42. During replication, ______ are the enzymes responsible for joining the nucleotides of a new DNA strand together. A) DNA helicases B) DNA ligases C) DNases D) DNA polymerases E) DNA gyrases D) DNA polymerases

43. The modern phrasing of Beadle and Tatum's hypothesis about relationships between genes and their products is "one gene-one ______." A) enzyme B) RNA C) protein D) nucleotide E) polypeptide

E) polypeptide

44. What name is given to the collection of traits exhibited by an organism? A) holotype B) genotype C) typology D) phenotype E) morphology D) phenotype 45. How many amino acids are common to all living systems? A) 20 B) 10 C) 25 D) 15 E) 30 A) 20 46. How many nucleotides make up a codon? A) four B) three C) five D) two E) one

B) three