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Directions (Q.

1-5) : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient to answer the questions. Read both the statements and Give answer A. if the data in statement alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question. Give answer B. if the data in statement II alone are suffcient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question. Give answer C. if the data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. Give answer D. if the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the questions. Give answer E. if the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question. 1. D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle. Are all of them facing the centre? I. D is sitting second to the left of G. H is facing the centre and is not an immediate neighbour of G. II. F is sitting second to the right of E. E is sitting second to the left of D. 2. How many floors are there in the building (including the ground floor)? I. The area in which the building stands has a rule that no building can have more than six floors (including the ground floor). II. Three families reside in the building. No two families live immediately above or below each other. 3. Which direction is Sunny facing? I. If Sunny turns 90 to his left, he will be facing North West. II. If Sunny turns 45 to his right he will be facing a direction that is exactly opposite to that of Sunil. 4. How is B related to E? I. R is the mother of B and E is the husband of R. II. R has only one daughter who is J. 5. Among J, K, L, M and N each of a different age, who is the youngest? I. J is younger than N but elder to K. II. L is younger than M but elder to K. Directions (Q. 6-9) : Study the following information and answer the questions given : When a word arrangement machine is given an input line of words, it arranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement : Input : grow after seen craft preach help Step I : grow seen craft preach help after Step II : grow seen preach help after craft Step III : seen preach help after craft grow Step IV : seen preach after craft grow help Step V : seen after craft grow help preach Step VI : after craft grow help preach seen Step VI is the last step of the above arrangement as the intended arrangement is obtained. As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate steps for the given input. (Q. 6 - 9) : Input : dare a beach null wrap steel 6. How many steps will be required to reach the intended arrangement for the given input? A. V B. VII C. VI D. IV E. None of these 7. Which of the following will be step II for the given input? A. dare null wrap steel beach a B. dare null wrap stell a beach C. dare null steel wrap a beach D. a beach dare null wrap steel E. None of these 8. Which of the following will be second from the left end of step V? A. beach B. steel C. a D. wrap E. None of these 9. Which of the following will be fourth from the right end of step III? A. wrap B. a C. beach D. steel E. None of these Directions (Q. 10-11) : Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which one does not belong to the group? 10. A. Stem B. Branch C. Leaf D. Web E. Fruit 11. A. Clone B. Replica C. Duplicate D. Copy E. Fake Directions (Q. 12-15) : Study the following information and answer the questions given below : J, K, L, M, N, O, P and R sitting around a circular table facing the centre. Each of them was born in a different year - 1971, 1975, 1979, 1980, 1981, 1984, 1985 and 1990, not necessarily in the same order. M is sitting second to the right of K. L is sitting third to the right of J. L and J were born before 1980. Only the one born in 1984 is sitting exactly between J and K. N who is the eldest is not an immediate neighbour of J and M. R is order than only M. R is sitting second to the left of P. P is not an immediate neighbour of N. J is younger than L. K was born before O. 12. Who is the second eldest in the group? A. J B. L C. K D. P E. None of these 13. Who is sitting third to the right of O? A. The one born in 1979 B. The one born in 1980 C. The one born in 1985 D. The one born in 1984 E. None of these

Reasoning Ability

14. In which year was R born? A. 1979 B. 1975 C. 1980 D. 1985 E. None of these 15. Which of the following statements is true regarding K? A. K is sitting fourth to the right of R B. The one who was born in 1975 is to the immediate left of K C. K is younger than R D. There are four people sitting between N and K E. None is true Directions (Q. 16-20) : In each of the questions below, three statements are given followed by conclusions/group of conclusions numbered I and II. You have to assume all the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts and then decide which of the given two conclusions logically follows from the information given in the statements. Give answer A. if only conclusion I follows. Give answer B. if only conclusion II follows. Give answer C. if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows. Give answer D. if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows. Give answer E. if both conclusions I and II follow. (Q. 16-17) : Statements : All pens are books. Some books are pages. All pages are papers. 16. Conclusions : I. No paper is a pen. II. At least some pages are pens. 17. Conclusions : I. All books are papers. II. Some books are papers. (Q. 18-19) : Statements : Some Ds are Gs. All Gs are Ks. All Ks are Ls. 18. Conclusions : I. At least some Ds are Ls. II. All Gs are Ls. 19. Conclusions : I. Atleast some Ks are Ds. II. All Ds are Ls. 20. Statements : Some files are folders. All folders are pockets. No pocket is a bag. Conclusions : I. All pockets are files. II. All files are bags. Directions (Q. 21-25) : Study the following information and answer the questions given below : Twelve people are standing in two parallel rows each row having 6 people. P, Q, R, S, T and U are standing in row 1 facing South while A, B, C, D, E and F are standing in row 2 facing North. They are standing in such a way that there is an equal distance between two adjacent persons. Thus each person from row 1 is facing another person from row 2. D is standing third to the right of E. C is standing third to the right of A. A and E are not immediate neighbours. U is facing the one who is to the immediate right of C. T is standing fourth to the left of S. B is not facing U. R is standing third to the left of P. 21. Who is facing E? A. R B. S C. Q D. P E. None of these 22. Which of the following pairs represents persons standing at the end of the rows? A. TB B. PD C. PF D. DS E. None of these 23. What is Fs position with respect to R? A. F is facing the one who is to the immediate left of R. B. F is to the immediate left of the person facing R. C. F is facing the one who is second to the right of R. D. F is second to the left of the person facing R. E. None of these Directions (Q. 24-25) : Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which one does not belong to the group? 24. A. PQE B. BCR C. TRC D. FEQ E. QUD 25. A. PSBA B. CEQR C. BEQS D. UTDF E. RUCF

Directions (Q. 26-30) : Each of the following questions consists of five figures marked A, B, C, D and E called the Problem Figures followed by five other figures marked 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 called the Answer Figures. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series as established by the five Problem Figures. 26. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series as established by the five Problem Figures. Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 27. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series as established by the five Problem Figures. Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 28. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series as established by the five Problem Figures. Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 29. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series as established by the five Problem Figures. Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 30. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series as established by the five Problem Figures. Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(A) A. 1

(B)

(C)

(D) B. 2

(E)

(1)

(2) C. 3

(3)

(4)

(5) D. 4 E. 5

Directions (Q. 31-35) : Study the following table carefully and answer the questions that follow : Monthly Expenditure (In Thousand Rs.) By Five persons On Rent, Food, Childrens Education, Clothes And Travelling Expenditure Rent Food Childrens Clothes Travelling Person Education A 12.4 4.8 7.5 5.4 4.5 B 6.0 7.8 12.4 12.6 5.8 C 5.6 6.4 14.6 6.4 5.3 D 13.6 7.8 12.5 16.4 9.5 E 14.4 8.4 13.2 7.5 7.4 31. What is the average expenditure of person - C on all the five commodities together? A. Rs. 6,560 B. Rs. 7,660 C. Rs. 7,560 D. Rs. 7,440 E. None of these 32. Expenditure of which person on all the five commodities together is second highest? A. A B. B C. C D. D E. E 33. What is the respective ratio between the expenditure of person - A on food and the expenditure of person - E on clothes? A. 16 : 25 B. 17 : 25 C. 25 : 17 D. 14 : 25 E. None of these 34. Total expenditure on rent by all the persons together is what per cent of expenditure of D on childrens education? A. 430 B. 425 C. 410 D. 416 E. 420 35. What is difference between the expenditure of person - B on Travelling and the expenditure of person - A on food? A. Rs. 1,000 B. Rs. 1, 200 C. Rs. 1, 500 D. Rs. 1,600 E. None of these

Numerical Ability

Directions (Q. 36-40) : Study the following graph carefully to answer the questions that follow : Number of Employees (In Thousands) Working in Three Different Companies in Six Different Years

No. of employees (in '000)

60 50 40 30 20 10 0

Company A

Company B

Company B

2005

2006

2007 2008 Years

2009

2010

36. What was percentage decrease in number of employees in Company-B in the year 2008 as compared to the previous year? A. 22 B. 10.5 C. 12.5 D. 25 E. None of these 37. What is the respective ratio between the number of employees in Company - B in the year 2005 and the number of employees in Company - C in the year 2007? A. 5 : 4 B. 2 : 5 C. 4 : 5 D. 2 : 7 E. None of these 38. What was the approximate average number of employees in Company C over all the years together? A. 32900 B. 32210 C. 31660 D. 31210 E. 32660 39. If 30 percent of the total number of employees in the year 2006 in all the companies together was female, what was the total number of male employees in the same year in all the companies together? A. 4.9 thousand B. 4.9 lacs C. 48,000 D. 4.8 lacs E. None of these 40. Total number of employees in Company-A over all the years together was approximately what percent of the total number of employees in Company-C in the year 2007 and 2008 together? A. 210 B. 225 C. 220 D. 235 E. 245 Directions (Q. 41-45) : Study the table carefully to answer the questions that follow : Number of Students Appeared And Passed In An Examination Held in Four Different Schools in Five Years School P Q R S Year Appeared Passed Appeared Passed Appeared Passed Appeared Passed 2005 1232 512 2565 811 1234 340 4221 2265 2006 1343 433 3385 1223 1434 521 5336 2421 2007 874 134 2556 990 2542 1155 4364 1376 2008 2345 1108 2332 1238 1554 622 5202 2212 2009 4220 2143 4555 2335 3682 912 6645 3283 41. In which year and from which school the number of students appeared in the exam were maximum? A. In year 2008 from School-S B. In year 2009 from School-S C. In year 2009 from School-Q D. In year 2008 from School-Q E. None of these 42. In which year was the difference between the appeared students and passed students second lowest in School R? A. 2005 B. 2006 C. 2007 D. 2008 E. 2009 43. What was the average number of students passed from School P over all the years together? A. 856 B. 832 C. 842 D. 866 E. None of these 44. Number of students passing from School-S in the year 2008 was approximately what percentage of the number of students appeared in the examination from school-Q in the year 2005? A. 72 B. 78 C. 82 D. 76 E. 86 45. If 25 percent of the number of students passed in the exam from school-P in the year 2005 were disqualified due to some reason, what was the number of qualified students? A. 442 B. 384 C. 432 D. 364 E. None of these Directions (Q. 46-50) : What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series? 46. 8 14 32 70 136 ? A. 248 B. 247 C. 237 D. 238 E. None of these 47. 25 41 89 169 281 ? A. 425 B. 415 C. 409 D. 419 E. None of these 48. 461 474 465 478 469 ? A. 460 B. 482 C. 456 D. 478 E. None of these 49. 980 516 284 168 110 ? A. 73 B. 71 C. 83 D. 91 E. None of these 50. 4 4 10 34 94 ? A. 230 B. 214 C. 220 D. 209 E. None of these 51. The radius of a circle is twice the side of a square of area 196 sq.cm. Length of a rectangle is twice diameter of the circle. What is the perimeter of the rectangle if its breadth is haft the length of the rectangle? A. 244 cm B. 168 cm C. 336 cm D. Cannot be determined E. None of these

52. Cost of 4 fans and 3 blowers is Rs. 16,500. Also cost of 2 fans, 2 tables and 2 blowers is Rs. 12,000. Cost of one table is Rs. 1,000. What is the cost of 3 fans and one blower? A. Rs. 8,000 B. Rs. 7,500 C. Rs. 8,500 D. Cannot be determined E. None of these 53. Train-A crosses a pole in 33 seconds and another Train-B crosses a pole in 55 seconds. Length of Train-A is three-fourth of Train-B. What is the respective also between the speed of Train-A and Train-B? A. 5 : 11 B. 5 : 4 C. 11 : 3 D. Cannot be determined E. None of these 54. The smallest side of a right angled triangle is 6 cm and second largest side is 8 cm. Side of a square is thrice the largest side of the triangle. What is the diagonal of the square? A. 30 2 cm B. 60 2 cm C. 30 cm D. Cannot be determined E. None of these 55. Sunil scored 54 percent marks in a test. Ravi scored 450 marks in same test which is 300 less than Sonu. Sunils score is 60 more marks than Sonu. If Ram scored 900 marks in the test. What is Rams percentage? A. 80 B. 65 C. 75 D. 60 E. None of these 56. The angles of a quadrilateral are in ratio of 3 : 5 : 9 : 7. The second largest angle of the quadrilateral is equal to the largest angle of a triangle. One of the angles of the triangle is 25. What is the value of second largest angle of the triangle? A. 60 B. 50 C. 40 D. 20 E. None of these 57. A vendor sells calculators at the rate of Rs. 250 each and earns a commission of 20% on each. He also sells pens at the rate of Rs. 50 each and earns a commission of 10% on each. How much amount of commission will he earns in three days if he sells 10 calculators and 5 pens a day? A. Rs. 1,575 B. Rs. 1,445 C. Rs. 1,550 D. Rs. 1,450 E. None of these 58. The sum of seven consecutive even numbers of a set is 532. What is the average of first four consecutive even numbers of the same set? A. 76 B. 75 C. 74 D. 73 E. None of these 59. In a school threre are 800 students out of whom 45 percent are girls. Monthly fee of each by is Rs. 600 and monthly fee of each girl is 30 percent less than each boy. What is the total monthly fee of girls and boys together? A. Rs. 4,25,400 B. Rs, 4,14,600 C. Rs. 4,19,600 D. Rs. 4,23,400 E. None of these 60. The simple interest accrued on a sum of certain principal is Rs. 6,400 in four years at the rate of 8 p.c.p.a. What would be the compound interest accrued on that principal at the rate of 2 p.c.p.a. in 2 years? A. Rs. 800 B. Rs. 808 C. Rs. 704 D. Rs. 700 E. None of these

General Knowledge, Current Affairs


61. Which one of the following was the reason owing to which Government want Reserve Bank of India to tighten prudential norms for NBFCs? A. To reduce lquidity in the market B. It is as per Basel II requirements C. It is as per Bank for International Settlement (BIS) directives D. It is to protect NBFCs from any impact of possible economic slowdown E. None of these 62. The Railways, in February 2013, announced its plans to complete the worlds highest rail bridge by 2016. On which among the following rivers, is this arch-shaped bridge coming up? A. Ravi B. Chenab C. Brahmaputra D. Sutlej E. None of these 63. In respect of which one of the following countries, India has proposed non payments for import of crude oil? A. Iran B. Iraq C. Kuwait D. Sudan E. UAE 64. Through which one of the following methods. RBI has allowed Indian companies to hedge exchange rate risks associated with trade transactions? A. Forwards B. FRA C. Swaps D. Currency options E. Cross currency options 65. Which of the following books is written by V. S. Naipaul? A. A Handful of Dust B. A House for Mr. Biswas C. A Passage to India D. Darkness at Noon E. None of these 66. With which one of the following countries, India has signed agreement to build Multi model Transit Transport Project? A. Bangladesh B. Myanmar C. Sri Lanka D. Nepal E. Maldiwes 67. Which one of the following countries is Number One Country in terms of Purchasing Power? A. USA B. Germany C. China D. South Korea E. None of these 68. Which one of the following directions has been given by Government to Civic bodies? A. They must use 70 percent of the funds for BPL families B. They must use 70 percent of the funds for the poor living within their jurisdiction C. They must use 25 percent of the funds for BPL familities D. They must use 25 percent of the funds for the poor living within their jurisdiction E. None of these 69. On which one of the following issues a group of business leaders and ther eminent citizens have expressed concern? A. E-Governance B. Governance C. Fiscal deficit D. Governance deficit E. None of these 70. Yuan is the currency of which one of the following countries? A. Japan B. South Korea C. North Korea D. Taiwan E. China 71. Which one of the following is a leading power in 17 nation Euro Region? A. Germany B. France C. Norway D. Greece E. Portugal

72. What are teaser loan rates charged by banks? A. Fixed rate of interest charged by banks B. Floating rate of interest charged by banks C. Rate of interest in the initial period is less and goes up subsequently D. Rate of interest in the initial period is more and it goes down subsequently E. None of these 73. Expand the term FSDC which is used in financial sectors? A. Financial Security and Development Council B. Financial Stability and Development Council C. Fiscal Security and Development Council D. Fiscal Stability and Development Council E. None of these 74. According to the 8th Annual Global Retail Development Index (GRDI), which one of the following countries is most attractive retail market in the world? A. China B. India C. UAE D. Saudi Arabia E. Japan 75. Governments Food-for-work programme meansA. to pay in kind to work and build rural infrastructure B. supplying balanced diet to workers in rural areas C. no-work-no-pay principle D. ensuring enough food to rural worker-households E. None of these 76. The insurance companies collect a fixed amont from its customers at a fixed interval of time. What is it called? A. Instalment B. Contribution C. Premium D. EMI E. Service Charge 77. Which of the following is/are the various types of insurance? 1. Life Insurance 2. Health Insurance 3. Liability Insurance A. Only 1 B. Only 2 C. Only 3 D. All 1, 2 and 3 E. Only 1 and 2 78. What is the full form of ES-OPs as seen in financial newspapers? A. Employee Stock Options B. Executive Salary Options C. Emergency Stock Operations D. Early Sales Opportunities E. Executive Stock Ownership 79. According to the Open Budget Survey 2012 released by the International Budget Partnership in February 2013, Indias open budget index (OBI) score improved from 67 in 2010 to 68 in 2012. What was the overall rank of India among 100 countries featuring in this list? A. 7th B. 11th C. 14th D. 22nd E. None of these 80. Pohang Steel Company (POSCO) is a company originally based in ________ A. China B. Vtetnam C. USA D. Italy E. South Korea 81. The Union Budget 2013-2014 has made an allocation of Rs. 4,727 crore for medical education, training and research. What sum has been allocated for National Programme for the Health Care of Elderly? A. Rs. 100 crore B. Rs. 150 crore C. Rs. 250 crore D. Rs. 500 crore E. None of these 82. New Delhi (India) hosted the first India-Japan Maritime Affairs Dialogue in February 2013. During this meeting, both sides deliberated on issues of mutual interest, inter alia, A. Maritime security including non-traditional threats B. Cooperation in shipping, marine sciences and technology C. Marine biodiversity and co-operation D. All of the above E. None of these 83. In his 2013-2014 Railway Budget speech, Railway Minister Pawan Kumar Bansal made certain observations on the successes and failures of Indian Railways during 2001-2002 to 2011-2012. Which of the following statements is/are correct in this regard? A. The number of passenger trains has increased during this period B. Losses on passenger train operations continue to mount C. Services extended to passengers has deteriorated D. All of the above E. None of these 84. India recently signed a deal on the sharing of Teesta and Feni river waters. This agreement is signed with which of the following countries? A. Nepal B. China C. Pakistan D. Bangladesh E. Bhutan 85. Brihadeeswara Temple has recently celebrated its millennium birthday. In which of the following States is it located? A. Karnataka B. Andhra Pradesh C. Kerala D. Orissa E. Tamil Nadu 86. In which country were General elections held in on 17 February 2013 to elect the President, the National Assembly, Provincial Assemblies and members of the Andean Parliament as a result of which Rafael Correa was re-elected president? A. Ecuador B. Venezuela C. Peru D. Chile E. None of these 87. Former LIC chief TS Vijayan took over as the chairman of the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority in February 2013. The tenure of the Chairperson of IRDA is of A. 1 year B. 3 years C. 5 years D. 6 years E. None of these 88. The Economic Survey 2012-2013 speaks about the aditional shocks to the already slowing of economy. What were these shocks? A. Global economy, weighed down by the crisis in the Euro area B. Uncertainties about fiscal policy in the United States C. Weak monsoon D. All of the above E. None of these

89. Eminent Hindi litterateur Narendra Kohli was, in February 2013, selected for the prestigious Vyas Samman for 2012 for his historical novel Na Bhooto Na Bhavishyati. On which of the following personalities is this novel based? A. Subhash Chandra Bose B. Ballabh Bhai Patel C. Vivekananda D. Mahatma Gandhi E. None of these 90. Ben Afflecks Iran-hostage drama Argo continued its award season triumph by winning three trophies, including the best picture and director, at the British Academy Film Awards in London in February 2013. India-set drama Life of Pi managed two trophies in technical categories. Who is the director of Life of Pi? A. James Cameroon B. Christopher Nolan C. Steven Spielberg D. Ang Lee E. None of these 91. What type of resource is most likely to be a shared common resource in a computer network? A. printers B. speakers C. floppy disk drives D. keyboards E. None of these 92. Example of non-numeric data is A. Employee address B. Examination score C. Bank balance D. All of these E. None of these 93. ________ represents raw facts, whereas ________ is data made meaningful. A. Information, reporting B. Data, information C. Information, bits D. Records, bytes E. Bits, bytes 94. A word in a web page that, when clicked, opens another document A. anchor B. URL C. hyperlink D. reference E. None of these 95. A computer cannot boot if it does not have the A. Compiler B. Loader C. Operating System D. assembler E. None of these 96. What characteristics of read only memory (ROM) makes it useful? A. ROM information can be easily updated B. Data in ROM is nonvolatile, that is, it remains there even without electrical power C. ROM provides very large amounts of inexpensive data storage D. ROM chips are easily swapped between different brands of computers E. None of these 97. Which of the following refers to a small, single-site network? A. LAN B. DSL C. RAM D. USB E. CPU 98. Which keystroke will take you at the beginning or the end of a long document? A. Ctrl+PageUp and Ctrl+PageDown B. Shift+Home and Shift+End C. Ctrl+Home and Ctrl+End D. The only way is by using the right scroll bar E. None of these 99. Coded entries which are used to gain access to a computer system are called A. Entry codes B. Passwords C. security commands D. code words E. None of these 100. In Word you can force a page break A. By positioning your cursor at the appropriate place and pressing the F1 key B. By using the Insert/Section Break C. By positioning your cursor at the appropriate place and pressing Ctrl+Enter D. By changing the font size of your document E. None of these 101. When you want to move some text from one page to a different page, the best method is A. drag and drop B. cut and paste C. delete and retype D. find and replace E. None of these 102. To view information on the web you must have a A. cable modem B. web browser C. Domain Name Server D. hyper text viewer E. None of these 103. How many margins are on a page? A. Two (header and footer) B. Four (top, bottom, right, left) C. Two (landscape and Portratt) D. Two (top and bottom) E. None of these 104. Which key is used in combination with another key to perform a specific task? A. function B. arrow C. space bar D. control E. None of these 105. What is an embedded system? A. A program that comes wrapped in a box B. A program that is permanently part of a computer C. A computer that is part of a larger computer D. A computer and software system that controls a machine or appliance E. None of these 106. Text in a column is generally aligned A. justified B. right C. center D. left E. None of these 107. A directory within a directory is called A. Mini Directory B. Junior Directory C. Part Directory D. Sub Directory E. None of these 108. Why should you delete unknown e-mail attachments? A. You could go to jail B. the person could track you down and hurt you C. it is bad manners D. it might contain a virus that could hurt your computer E. None of these 109. Of the four words listed below, which one does not belong? A. Applications B. Peripherals C. Programs D. Software E. None of these

Computer Knowledge

110. Saving is the process of A. copying a document from memory to a storage medium B. making changes to a documents existing content C. changing the appearance or overall look, of a document D. developing a document by entering text using a key board E. None of these 111. Selecting the Zoom command A. opens a copy of the document in a different view B. prints a copy of the displayed document C. changes the magnification of the displayed document D. saves a copy of the displayed document E. None of these 112. Name the hardware equipment that a computer is made up of A. monitor, the central processing unit (CPU), the keyboard, mouse, software and network B. monitor, the central processing unit (CPU), the keyboard, mouse, programs and network C. monitor, the central processing unit (CPU), the keyboard, mouse, printer and modem D. monitor, the central processing unit (CPU), the keyboard, mouse, applications and network E. None of these 113. Where are programs and data kept while the processor is using them? A. Main memory B. Secondary memory C. Disk memory D. Program memory E. None of these 114. In order to e-mail a Word document from within Word A. Go to File/Send To/Mail Recipient B. Save the file as an email attachment C. Start Outlook and attach the file while open in Word D. This is an impossible operation E. None of these 115. Hardware includes A. all devices used to input data into a computer B. sets instructions that a computer runs or executes C. the computer and all the devices connected to it that are used to input and output data D. all devices involved in processing information including the central processing unit, memory and storage E. None of these 116. Files deleted from the hard disk are sent to the A. Recycle Bin B. floppy disk C. clipboard D. motherboard E. None of these 117. The process of a computer receiving information from a server on the internet is known as A. pulling B. pushing C. downloading D. transferring E. None of these 118. What type of software is most useful for the creation of brochures, posters and newsletters? A. spreadsheet software B. Web authoring software C. multimedia authoring software D. desktop publishing software E. None of these 119. In order to save an existing document with a different name you need to A. Retype the document and give it a different name B. Use the Save as .. command C. Copy and paste the original document to a new document and then save D. Use Windows Explorer to copy the document to a different location and then rename it E. None of these 120. A(n) ________ is a program that makes the computer easier to use. A. application B. utility C. network D. operating system E. None of these Directions (Q. 121-125) : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is E i.e. No error (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.) 121. The power of the mind (A)/ over the body (B)/has became a very significant subject (C)/of research in recent years. (D)/ No error (E) 122. She was held to guilt (A)/practising witchcraft and misdemeanours (B)/such as cutting her hair short (C)/and dressing up like a man. (D)/No error (E) 123. Researchers at the University of Nottingham (A)/have found that (B)/putting tobacco outside of sight in shops (C)/can change the attitude of young people towards smoking. (D)/No error (E) 124. The young sales manager (A)/is about to resign (B)/despite of his success (C)/in the organisation. (D)/No error (E) 125. More and more people (A)/are using different colour schemes (B)/in their homes (C)/that reflecting their personalities. (D)/ No error (E) Directions (Q. 126-130) : Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence/s as a whole. 126. In his latest book, the author gives a real ________ into the sufferings of individuals who have experienced the loss of a loved one ________ to a physical illness. A. testimony, owning B. account, attribute C. praise, following D. insight, owing E. knowledge, new 127. Everybody has had the flu at some point of time, with its ________ symptoms : aches, chills, fatigue and cough. So why is the bird flue ________ so many headlines? A. familiar, making B. knowing, hitting C. same, targeting D. similar, cause E. drastic, topping

English Language (with Special emphasis on Grammar, Vocabulary and Comprehension)

128. Bollywood actors may have set the stage on fire ________ the rock stars from the Indian music industry ________ the house down during the gala night. A. as, bring B. yet, sang C. for, took D. and, had E. but, brought 129. In his latest book and documentary, the world renowned author explains that if we continue to ________ what we are doing to our planet, we risk ________ the very future of our civilization. A. do, appreciating B. ignore, destroying C. secure, losing D. establish, maintenance E. probe, questioning 130. Although carbon dioxide levels are ________ all over the word, the ________ are most obvious at the North and South Poles. A. booming, explosion B. exploding, scene C. rising, effects D. firing, consequences E. spilling, disaster Directions (Q. 131-135) : In each of the following sentences, an idiomatic expression or a proverb is highlighted. Select the alternative which best describes its use in the sentence. 131. At an early age my colleague made his mark as a chemist A. was destined to be B. secured good marks C. distinguished himself D. created a vacancy E. got inducted 132. The thief was caught red-handed. A. In the very act of committing the theft B. on red tape C. after being given a warning D. with blood on his hands E. in an attempt to escape 133. He decided to jump the gun and apply for the job before it was advertised in the press. A. play safe B. fake his credentials C. use influence D. call for a personal meeting E. be over hasty 134. My neighbur was caught stealing, he now has to face the music. A. ask for forgiveness B. come face to face with the police C. attempt to protect himself D. sufer the consequences of his actions E. hear the song 135. Rs. 60 for a kilo of onions? Thats daylight robbery. A. robbing during the day B. robbing people on the basis of their income C. unfair overcharging D. cheating people with regards to the quality of food E. extracting more from the rich Directions (Q. 136-140) : Rearrange the following six sentence/group of sentences 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them. 1. It makes me happy that people are beginning to change their views on the environment and make changes in their lifestyle he said after receipt of the award. 2. For him, vindication would be when we stop polluting the earth and turn the corner, the exciting news however, is that there are a lot of good changes underway. 3. As part of his compaigns, he turned a lecture on global warming and climate change into a well known documentary titled An Inconvenient Truth, by which he encouraged millions of people worldwide to make earth friendly changes in their lives. 4. Though many people are doing their part by being sensitive to the environment, Al Gore expressed a serious concern of the world being still at risk due to global warming. 5. Al Gore, former Vice President of America is well known for his campaigns on climate change. 6. Because of this documentary and his tireless efforts to educate the world about global warming he was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize on Climate Change in 2007. 136. Which of the following will be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement? A. 5 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 1 137. Which of the following will be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement? A. 4 B. 2 C. 3 D. 6 E. 1 138. Which of the following will be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement? A. 4 B. 6 C. 2 D. 3 E. 1 139. Which of the following will be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 140. Which of the following will be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement? A. 4 B. 2 C. 3 D. 6 E. 5 Directions (Q. 141-150) : In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words/phrases are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word/phrases in each case. The insurance inustry is (141) myriad challenges arising from intense competition, rising regulatory compliance and growing payouts (142) to fraud and natural disasters. It is (143) that competitive pressures will make offshoring of information technology (IT) and business processes a growing imperative in the insurance industry. (144) to mainstream banking and financial services, where the early adoption of automation and IT helped facilitate outsourcing, first in IT services and later in BPO, the insurance industry has lagged (145). This is one reason why insurance companies have been more conservative in their attitude to business process outsourcing, and (146) to offshoring. With expected cost savings of 30% to 40%, and other (147) such as focusing on core competencies and (148) to skilled labour, it is (149) that the insurance offshoring industry is (150) for significant growth in the next three to four years. 141. A. looking B. pressing C. watching D. facing E. focusing 142. A. reason B. due C. owed D. lent E. made

143. A. featured 144. A. Compared 145. A. in 146. A. especially 147. A. benefit 148. A. excess 149. A. deem 150. A. available

B. proof B. Similar B. back B. important B. advantages B. open B. timed B. assured

C. wanted C. Unlike C. up C. precise C. measures C. availability C. believed C. poised

D. thought D. Balanced D. behind D. main D. losses D. gain D. idea D. gear

E. expected E. Alike E. slow E. regularly E. detriments E. access E. doubted E. concentrated

Directions (Q. 151-160) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in BOLD to help you locate them while answering some of the question. Health insurance policies were first Introduced in 1986 at a time when the Indian insurance industry was nationalised. The policies on offer were complicated to read and offered limited cover. There were no third party administrators operating in India, and there was no direct settlement of claims between health insurer and hospital. There were therefore issues concerning claims servicing, which involved an Insured following cumbersome procedures to get claims authenticated and paid. The business was not profitable for the nationalised Insurers, and not popular with the public at large. The original Mediclaim Policy, however, developed and in many cases has provided the base model for the health care insurance policies that were introduced immediately after liberalisation of the general insurance sector at the turn of the millennium. Health insurance, however, saw no specialist players until relatively recently. This is because there was a general expectation that the insurance industry regulator, the IRDA, would set a smaller capitalisation requirement for health insurers and/or amend the rules for foreign equity ownership in Indian Insurers in recognition of the fact that health insurance loss ratios were not good, and therefore finding an Indian partner to invest 76% in a health insurer would be a difficult task. The IRDA did not, however, relax either the capitalisation requirements or foreign investments caps. Initially, therefore, the health insurance market did not grow as quickly as may have been expected. Growth in policyholder numbers, more effective third party administration and an effective network of hospitals is expected to see the numbers improve. Other changes have been affected to encourage growth in this sector. Life insurers have been allowed to sell health insurance. Initially, life insurers were only allowed to sell certain types of health coves as a supplement to a life policy. However, the IRDA has allowed life insurers to sell pure health insurance products subjects to product specific approvals. The standard mediclaim policy has undergone several revisions and modifications. In recent years, private health insurers have been offering fresh products with increased covers and sums insured. Private hospital rates are still low compared to the rates charged in more developed countries, but high when compared to average Indian earnings. It is no longer uncommon for Indian employees to now expect that health care will be part of an employment package. With the opening up of the market to private competition, the claims process has become much less cumbersome. Support for a health insurance market has also come from some less obvious sources. Indian states have started relying on insurance policies to meet some of their legal obligations to provide health care to their citizens. The central government has also proposed the introduction of free health care insurance for the poor. This plan is meant to cover every poor family for INR 30,000 per annum. The central government will pay 75% of the premium, leaving the remaining 25% to be covered by state governments. The IRDA has also encouraged Micro-insurance as a means of extending the availability of health insurance to areas of the market that, geographically and economically, may not have been at the forefront of Insurers business plans. At the same time as the market grows, the IRDA is stepping in to create a more consumer friendly playing field, particularly as regards the treatment of senior citizens; the operation of the pre-existing diseases exclusion, and the reluctance of insurers to renew policies where the claims experience has been bad. Senior citizens had been complaining about the reluctance of Insurers to issue policies to them, and the inclusion of disadvantageous terms when policies were offered - such as hefty increases in premium rates, added exclusions and conditions, etc. In May 2007, the IRDA set up a committee on Health Insurance for Senior Citizens to make recommendations. The Committee reported in November 2007 and made the following main recommendations - Senior Citizens should have some assurance that their policies will be renewed; the Industry should adopt standard terms and conditions, such as for the definition of preexisting diseases. The Committee also said that policy wordings should be simpler for the lay person to follow, suggesting that uniform termonology be used by all Insurers to lessen confusion in the public mind. 151. Which of the following is/are the reason/s because of which the health insurance industry has witnessed growth? 1. The format of the policy has been improvised since its inception. 2. Organizations provide health insurance cover to their employees as part of the remuneration process. 3. The process of settlement of claims has become less troublesome as compared to the time when it was first introduced. A. Only 2 B. Only 1 and 3 C. Only 3 D. Only 2 and 3 E. All 1, 2 and 3 152. What step has the Central Government taken in terms of insurance for the poor? A. The poor will have access to free health care insurance, the payment of premium for which will be shouldered by the central and state government in the ratio of 3 : 1 respectively. B. The poor people belonging to a particular region will get group health care insurance cover of INR 30,000/- per annum. C. The poor will be insured for a sum of INR 45,000/- per annum D. The government has devised special health care insurance policies for the poor wherein no premium needs to be paid either by the individual or the government. E. None of these

153. Which of the following, is/are the reason/s that health insurance policies were not popular in the beginning? 1. The process for settlement of claims was lengthy and tiresome. 2. The clauses in the policy were very difficult to understand. 3. There were no direct claim settlements with the hospitals. A. Only 2 B. Only 1 and 3 C. Only 3 D. Only 2 and 3 E. All 1, 2 and 3 154. Which of hte following, is/are true in the context of the passage? 1. Private hospital fees can be easily afforded by the general public now as their earnings are significantly higher. 2. More people are now buying insurance policies as compared to almost two decades ago. 3. Insurance agencies initially allowed to independently sell life insurance policies only can also sell health insurance policies independently now. A. Only 2 B. Only 1 and 3 C. Only 3 D. Only 2 and 3 E. All 1, 2 and 3 155. Which of the following is possibly the most appropriate title for the passage? A. The Indian Health Insurance Industry - The Gradual Change B. IRDA and its Functioning C. Health Insurance Vs Life Insurance D. Challenges Faced by the IRDA E. The Downfall of the Health Insurance Industry in India 156. What was the plight of senior citizens with respect to buying insurance cover prior to IRDA intervention? 1. Insurance agencies were unwilling to sell policies to them. 2. Clauses disadvantageous to senior citizens were included in the policies. 3. They had to pay higher premiums. A. Only 1 and 3 B. Only 1 and 2 C. Only 1 D. Only 2 and 3 E. All 1, 2 and 3 Directions (Q. 157-158) : Choose the word/group of words which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word/group of words printed in BOLD as used in the passage. 157. AFFECTED A. hampered B. brought about C. concerned D. troubled E. asked for 158. SUBJECT TO A. conditional on B. matter for C. issue to D. topic of E. question on Directions (Q. 159-160) : Choose the word/group of words which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning to the word/group of words printed in BOLD as used in the passage. 159. HEFTY A. thin B. uniform C. small D. bulky E. fragile 160. RELUCTANCE A. intensity B. unwillingness C. fanaticism D. keenness E. devotion