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SOLVED PAPERS

GATE
METALLURGICAL ENGINEERING (MT)
aglaem
.com
A comprehensive study guide for GATE
CONTENTS
Introduction
Question Paper Pattern
Design of Questions
Marking Scheme
Syllabus
Previous Year Solved Papers
o Solved Question Paper 2014
o Answer Key 2014
o Solved Question Paper 2013
o Answer Key 2013
o Solved Question Paper 2012
o Answer Key 2012
Introduction
The Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering (GATE) is the all India level examination
conducted by the Indian Institute of Science and seven Indian Institutes of Technology
(IITs).
A crucial part of GATE preparation is to solve and practice using previous year GATE
papers. Solving previous year GATE papers help the candidate in understanding the exam
pattern, knowing the level of difficulty of questions, and analyzing preparation.
While attempting to solve any previous year GATE paper, it is advisable that it is done in a
simulated test environment. This means, that the candidate sets a timer to countdown to
test time, makes sure there is no other distraction, and then sits down to take the test as if
he / she is in the exam hall. After attempting the paper, check how many questions you
could get right in the first attempt. Analyse the strong and weak areas of preparation, and
accordingly devise a study schedule or revision pattern. After going through those areas
where in the first attempt could not do well, try the next paper.
Almost all of the engineering colleges in India take admission in M.Tech courses on the
basis of GATE scores. Apart from that, PSUs also recruit students directly on this basis.
To score high in this elite examination is tough, but quite achievable.
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
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Question Paper Pattern
In all the papers, there will be a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks, out of which 10
questions carrying a total of 15 marks are in General Aptitude (GA).
In the papers bearing the codes AE, AG, BT, CE, CH, CS, EC, EE, IN, ME, MN, MT, PI, TF and
XE, the Engineering Mathematics will carry around 13% of the total marks, the General
Aptitude section will carry 15% of the total marks and the remaining percentage of the
total marks is devoted to the subject of the paper.
In the papers bearing the codes AR, CY, EY, GG, MA, PH and XL, the General Aptitude
section will carry 15% of the total marks and the remaining 85% of the total marks is
devoted to the subject of the paper.
GATE would contain questions of two different types in various papers:
(i) Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ) carrying 1 or 2 marks each in all papers and
sections. These questions are objective in nature, and each will have a choice of four
answers, out of which the candidate has to mark the correct answer(s).
(ii) Numerical Answer Questions of 1 or 2 marks each in all papers and sections. For
these questions the answer is a real number, to be entered by the candidate using the
virtual keypad. No choices will be shown for this type of questions.
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
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Design of Questions
The questions in a paper may be designed to test the following abilities:
(i) Recall: These are based on facts, principles, formulae or laws of the discipline of the
paper. The candidate is expected to be able to obtain the answer either from his/her
memory of the subject or at most from a one-line computation.
(ii) Comprehension: These questions will test the candidate's understanding of the
basics of his/her field, by requiring him/her to draw simple conclusions from fundamental
ideas.
(iii) Application: In these questions, the candidate is expected to apply his/her
knowledge either through computation or by logical reasoning.
(iv) Analysis and Synthesis: In these questions, the candidate is presented with data,
diagrams, images etc. that require analysis before a question can be answered. A Synthesis
question might require the candidate to compare two or more pieces of information.
Questions in this category could, for example, involve candidates in recognising unstated
assumptions, or separating useful information from irrelevant information.
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
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Marking Scheme
For 1-mark multiple-choice questions, 1/3 marks will be deducted for a wrong answer.
Likewise, for2-marks multiple-choice questions, 2/3 marks will be deducted for a wrong
answer. There is no negative marking for numerical answer type questions.
General Aptitude (GA) Questions
In all papers, GA questions carry a total of 15 marks. The GA section includes 5 questions
carrying 1 mark each (sub-total 5 marks) and 5 questions carrying 2 marks each (sub-total
10 marks).
Question Papers other than GG, XE and XL
These papers would contain 25 questions carrying 1 mark each (sub-total 25 marks) and
30 questions carrying 2 marks each (sub-total 60 marks). The question paper will consist of
questions of multiple choice and numerical answer type. For numerical answer questions,
choices will not be given. Candidates have to enter the answer (which will be a real
number, signed or unsigned, e.g. 25.06, -25.06, 25, -25 etc.) using a virtual keypad. An
appropriate range will be considered while evaluating the numerical answer type
questions so that the candidate is not penalized due to the usual round-off errors.
GG (Geology and Geophysics) Paper
Apart from the General Aptitude (GA) section, the GG question paper consists of two parts:
Part A and Part B. Part A is common for all candidates. Part B contains two sections: Section
1 (Geology) and Section 2 (Geo-physics). Candidates will have to attempt questions in Part
A and either Section 1 or Section 2 in Part B.
Part A consists of 25 multiple-choice questions carrying 1-mark each (sub-total 25 marks
and some of these may be numerical answer type questions). Each section in Part B
(Section 1 and Section 2) consists of 30 multiple choice questions carrying 2 marks each
(sub-total 60 marks and some of these may be numerical answer type questions).
XE Paper (Engineering Sciences)
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
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In XE paper, Engineering Mathematics section (Section A) is compulsory. This section
contains 11 questions carrying a total of 15 marks: 7 questions carrying 1 mark each (sub-
total 7 marks), and 4 questions carrying 2 marks each (sub-total 8 marks). Some questions
may be of numerical answer type questions.
Each of the other sections of the XE paper (Sections B through G) contains 22 questions
carrying a total of 35 marks: 9 questions carrying 1 mark each (sub-total 9 marks) and 13
questions carrying 2 marks each (sub-total 26 marks). Some questions may be of
numerical answer type.
XL Paper (Life Sciences)
In XL paper, Chemistry section (Section H) is compulsory. This section contains 15
questions carrying a total of 25 marks: 5 questions carrying 1 mark each (sub-total 5 marks)
and 10 questions carrying 2-marks each (sub-total 20 marks). Some questions may be of
numerical answer type.
Each of the other sections of the XL paper (Sections I through M) contains 20 questions
carrying a total of 30 marks: 10 questions carrying 1 mark each (sub-total 10 marks) and 10
questions carrying 2 marks each (sub-total 20 marks). Some questions may be of
numerical answer type.
Note on Negative Marking for Wrong Answers
For a wrong answer chosen for the multiple choice questions, there would be negative
marking. For1-mark multiple choice questions, 1/3 mark will be deducted for a wrong
answer. Likewise, for 2-mark multiple choice questions, 2/3 mark will be deducted for a
wrong answer. However, there is no negative marking for a wrong answer in numerical
answer type questions.
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
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Syllabus for General Aptitude (GA)
Verbal Ability: English grammar, sentence completion, verbal analogies, word groups,
instructions, critical reasoning and verbal deduction.
Numerical Ability: Numerical computation, numerical estimation, numerical reasoning
and data interpretation.
Syllabus for Metallurgical Engineering (MT)
ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS
Linear Algebra: Matrices and Determinants, Systems of linear equations, Eigen values and
Eigen vectors.
Calculus: Limit, continuity and differentiability; Partial Derivatives; Maxima and minima;
Sequences and series; Test for convergence; Fourier series.
Vector Calculus: Gradient; Divergence and Curl; Line; surface and volume integrals;
Stokes, Gauss and Greens theorems.
Diferential Equations: Linear and non-linear first order ODEs; Higher order linear ODEs
with constant coefficients; Cauchys and Eulers equations; Laplace transforms; PDEs
Laplace, heat and wave equations.
Probability and Statistics: Mean, median, mode and standard deviation; Random
variables; Poisson, normal and binomial distributions; Correlation and regression analysis.
Numerical Methods: Solutions of linear and non-linear algebraic equations; integration of
trapezoidal and Simpsons rule; single and multi-step methods for differential equations.
METALLURGICAL ENGINEERING
Thermodynamics and Rate Processes: Laws of thermodynamics, activity, equilibrium
constant, applications to metallurgical systems, solutions, phase equilibria, Ellingham and
phase stability diagrams, thermodynamics of surfaces, interfaces and defects, adsorption
and segregation; basic kinetic laws, order of reactions, rate constants and rate limiting
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
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steps; principles of electro chemistry- single electrode potential, electro-chemical cells and
polarizations, aqueous corrosion and protection of metals, oxidation and high
temperature corrosion characterization and control; heat transfer conduction,
convection and heat transfer coefficient relations, radiation, mass transfer diffusion and
Ficks laws, mass transfer coefficients; momentum transfer concepts of viscosity, shell
balances, Bernoullis equation, friction factors.
Extractive Metallurgy: Minerals of economic importance, comminution techniques, size
classification, Flotation, gravity and other methods of mineral processing; agglomeration,
pyro- hydro- and electro-metallurgical processes; material and energy balances; principles
and processes for the extraction of non-ferrous metals aluminium, copper, zinc, lead,
magnesium, nickel, titanium and other rare metals; iron and steel making principles, role
structure and properties of slags, metallurgical coke, blast furnace, direct reduction
processes, primary and secondary steel making, ladle metallurgy operations including
deoxidation, desulphurization, sulphide shape control, inert gas rinsing and vacuum
reactors; secondary refining processes including AOD, VAD, VOD, VAR and ESR; ingot and
continuous casting; stainless steel making, furnaces and refractories.
Physical Metallurgy: Crystal structure and bonding characteristics of metals, alloys,
ceramics and polymers, structure of surfaces and interfaces, nano-crystalline and
amorphous structures; solid solutions; solidification; phase transformation and binary
phase diagrams; principles of heat treatment of steels, cast iron and aluminum alloys;
surface treatments; recovery, recrystallization and grain growth; industrially important
ferrous and non-ferrous alloys; elements of X-ray and electron diffraction; principles of
scanning and transmission electron microscopy; industrial ceramics, polymers and
composites; electronic basis of thermal, optical, electrical and magnetic properties of
materials; electronic and opto-electronic materials.
Mechanical Metallurgy: Elasticity, yield criteria and plasticity; defects in crystals; elements
of dislocation theory types of dislocations, slip and twinning, source and multiplication
of dislocations, stress fields around dislocations, partial dislocations, dislocation
interactions and reactions; strengthening mechanisms; tensile, fatigue and creep
behaviour; super-plasticity; fracture Griffith theory, basic concepts of linear elastic and
elasto-plastic fracture mechanics, ductile to brittle transition, fracture toughness; failure
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
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analysis; mechanical testing tension, compression, torsion, hardness, impact, creep,
fatigue, fracture toughness and formability.
Manufacturing Processes: Metal casting patterns and moulds including mould design
involving feeding, gating and risering, melting, casting practices in sand casting,
permanent mould casting, investment casting and shell moulding, casting defects and
repair; hot, warm and cold working of metals, Metal forming fundamentals of metal
forming processes of rolling, forging, extrusion, wire drawing and sheet metal forming,
defects in forming; Metal joining soldering, brazing and welding, common welding
processes of shielded metal arc welding, gas metal arc welding, gas tungsten arc welding
and submerged arc welding; welding metallurgy, problems associated with welding of
steels and aluminium alloys, defects in welded joints; powder metallurgy; NDT using dye-
penetrant, ultrasonic, radiography, eddy current, acoustic emission and magnetic particle
methods.
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
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GATE
Previous Year Solved Papers
Metallurgical Engineering - MT
2012 - 14
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
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Duration: 180 minutes Maximum Marks: 100
Read the following instructions carefully.

1. To login, enter your Registration Number and password provided to you. Kindly go through the various
symbols used in the test and understand their meaning before you start the examination.
2. Once you login and after the start of the examination, you can view all the questions in the question
paper, by clicking on the View All Questions button in the screen.
3. This question paper consists of 2 sections, General Aptitude (GA) for 15 marks and the subject
specific GATE paper for 85 marks. Both these sections are compulsory.
The GA section consists of 10 questions. Question numbers 1 to 5 are of 1-mark each, while question
numbers 6 to 10 are of 2-mark each.
The subject specific GATE paper section consists of 55 questions, out of which question numbers 1 to
25 are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 26 to 55 are of 2-mark each.
4. Depending upon the GATE paper, there may be useful common data that may be required for
answering the questions. If the paper has such useful data, the same can be viewed by clicking on the
Useful Common Data button that appears at the top, right hand side of the screen.

5. The computer allotted to you at the examination center runs specialized software that permits only one
answer to be selected for multiple-choice questions using a mouse and to enter a suitable number for
the numerical answer type questions using the virtual keyboard and mouse.
6. Your answers shall be updated and saved on a server periodically and also at the end of the
examination. The examination will stop automatically at the end of 180 minutes.
7. In each paper a candidate can answer a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks.
8. The question paper may consist of questions of multiple choice type (MCQ) and numerical answer
type.
9. Multiple choice type questions will have four choices against A, B, C, D, out of which only ONE is the
correct answer. The candidate has to choose the correct answer by clicking on the bubble () placed
before the choice.
10. For numerical answer type questions, each question will have a numerical answer and there will not be
any choices. For these questions, the answer should be enteredby using the virtual keyboard that
appears on the monitor and the mouse.
11. All questions that are not attempted will result in zero marks. However, wrong answers for multiple
choice type questions (MCQ) will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all MCQ questions a wrong
answer will result in deduction of marks for a 1-mark question and marks for a 2-mark question.
12. There is NO NEGATIVE MARKING for questions of NUMERICAL ANSWER TYPE.

13. Non-programmable type Calculator is allowed. Charts, graph sheets, and mathematical tables are NOT
allowed in the Examination Hall. You must use the Scribble pad provided to you at the examination
centre for all your rough work. The Scribble Pad has to be returned at the end of the examination.

Declaration by the candidate:

I have read and understood all the above instructions. I have also read and understood clearly the
instructions given on the admit card and shall follow the same. I also understand that in case I am found to
violate any of these instructions, my candidature is liable to be cancelled. I also confirm that at the start of
the examination all the computer hardware allotted to me are in proper working condition.

GATE 2014 Solved Paper
MT: Metallurgical Engineering
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
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Q. 1 Q. 5 carry one mark each.
Q.1 A student is required to demonstrate a high level of comprehension of the subject, especially in the
social sciences.

The word closest in meaning to comprehension is
(A) understanding (B) meaning (C) concentration (D) stability

Q.2 Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following
sentence.

One of his biggest ______ was his ability to forgive.
(A) vice (B) virtues (C) choices (D) strength

Q.3 Rajan was not happy that Sajan decided to do the project on his own. On observing his
unhappiness, Sajan explained to Rajan that he preferred to work independently.

Which one of the statements below is logically valid and can be inferred from the above sentences?
(A) Rajan has decided to work only in a group.
(B) Rajan and Sajan were formed into a group against their wishes.
(C) Sajan had decided to give in to Rajans request to work with him.
(D) Rajan had believed that Sajan and he would be working together.

Q.4 If y = 5x
2
+ 3, then the tangent at x = 0, y = 3
(A) passes through x = 0, y = 0 (B) has a slope of +1
(C) is parallel to the x-axis (D) has a slope of 1

Q.5 A foundry has a fixed daily cost of Rs 50,000 whenever it operates and a variable cost of Rs 800Q,
where Q is the daily production in tonnes. What is the cost of production in Rs per tonne for a daily
production of 100 tonnes?

Q. 6 Q. 10 carry two marks each.

Q.6 Find the odd one in the following group: ALRVX, EPVZB, ITZDF, OYEIK
(A) ALRVX (B) EPVZB (C) ITZDF (D) OYEIK

Q.7 Anuj, Bhola, Chandan, Dilip, Eswar and Faisal live on different floors in a six-storeyed building
(the ground floor is numbered 1, the floor above it 2, and so on). Anuj lives on an even-numbered
floor. Bhola does not live on an odd numbered floor. Chandan does not live on any of the floors
below Faisals floor. Dilip does not live on floor number 2. Eswar does not live on a floor
immediately above or immediately below Bhola. Faisal lives three floors above Dilip. Which of the
following floor-person combinations is correct?

Anuj Bhola Chandan Dilip Eswar Faisal
(A) 6 2 5 1 3 4
(B) 2 6 5 1 3 4
(C) 4 2 6 3 1 5
(D) 2 4 6 1 3 5

GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
GATE 2014 General Aptitude - GA
Q.8 The smallest angle of a triangle is equal to two thirds of the smallest angle of a quadrilateral. The
ratio between the angles of the quadrilateral is 3:4:5:6. The largest angle of the triangle is twice its
smallest angle. What is the sum, in degrees, of the second largest angle of the triangle and the
largest angle of the quadrilateral?

Q.9 One percent of the people of country X are taller than 6 ft. Two percent of the people of country Y
are taller than 6 ft. There are thrice as many people in country X as in country Y. Taking both
countries together, what is the percentage of people taller than 6 ft?
(A) 3.0 (B) 2.5 (C) 1.5 (D) 1.25

Q.10 The monthly rainfall chart based on 50 years of rainfall in Agra is shown in the following figure.
Which of the following are true? (k percentile is the value such that k percent of the data fall below
that value)


(i) On average, it rains more in July than in December
(ii) Every year, the amount of rainfall in August is more than that in January
(iii) July rainfall can be estimated with better confidence than February rainfall
(iv) In August, there is at least 500 mm of rainfall
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (i) and (iii)
(C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (iii) and (iv)



END OF THE QUESTION PAPER
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
GATE 2014 General Aptitude - GA
Q. 1 Q. 25 carry one mark each.

Q.1 Which one of the following factors is NOT desirable for effective phosphorus removal in BOF
steelmaking process?
(A) Higher FeO level in slag
(B) Higher basicity
(C) Higher temperature
(D) Lower temperature

Q.2 Which one of the following microstructures of a Ni-base superalloy imparts the highest creep
resistance?
(A) Fine grained equiaxed (B) Coarse grained equiaxed
(C) Columnar (D) Single crystal

Q.3 Which one of the following plots relating shear stress with strain rate represents Newtonian
behaviour of a fluid?

(A) P (B) Q (C) R (D) S

Q.4 The respective units for dislocation density and stress intensity factor are
(A) m
2
and MPa.m (B) m
2
and MPa.m
1/2
(C) m
-2
and MPa.m
1/2
(D) m
-2
and MPa.m

Q.5 Which one of the following is NOT an intensive property?
(A) Temperature (B) Pressure (C) Volume (D) Refractive index


GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
GATE 2014 Metallurgical Engineering - MT

Q.6 Identify the wave equation among the following equations.
(A)

2
+

2

2
= 0
(B)

2
=


(C)

2
=
2

2

2

(D)

2
+

2

+

2

2
= 0

Q.7 Which one of the following metal forming processes is the earing defect associated with?
(A) Deep drawing (B) Rolling
(C) Forging (D) Wire drawing

Q.8 The Pilling-Bedworth ratio is defined as
(A) the molar weight of an oxide divided by the molar weight of the metal consumed in oxide
formation.
(B) the volume of the oxide divided by the volume of the metal consumed in oxide formation.
(C) the density of the oxide divided by the density of the metal consumed in oxide formation.
(D) the molar Gibbs energy of the oxide divided by the Gibbs energy of the metal consumed in
oxide formation.

Q.9 A tensile specimen was deformed at a constant crosshead speed of 6 mm/min. The strain rate at the
start of the testing was 510
-3
s
-1
. The initial gauge length of the specimen (in mm) was _______

Q.10 If all the elements of one row of a 3 3 matrix are multiplied by 3, the determinant of the matrix
changes by a factor of _______

Q.11 As mercury is cooled from room temperature to 3 K, its electrical behaviour changes from that of
(A) conductor to insulator (B) semiconductor to insulator
(C) conductor to superconductor (D) semiconductor to superconductor

Q.12 Which one of the following refers to the ability of a material to absorb energy when deformed
elastically?
(A) Toughness (B) Fracture toughness
(C) Resilience (D) Hardness

Q.13 In the trapezoidal rule for numerical integration of a function, the nature of approximation used for
the function in each interval is
(A) constant (B) linear (C) parabolic (D) cubic


GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
GATE 2014 Metallurgical Engineering - MT

Q.14 Which one of the following NDT techniques CANNOT be used to detect an internal crack in a
steel shaft?
(A) Liquid penetrant inspection (B) Radiography
(C) Ultrasonic testing (D) X-ray tomography

Q.15 Two identical engineering components are made from alloys X and Y. The K
IC
of alloy X is greater
than that of alloy Y. If these components are subjected to the same stress during operation under
Mode I loading, which one of the following statements is TRUE?
(A) Component made from alloy X can tolerate a larger flaw size compared to that made from Y
(B) Component made from alloy Y can tolerate a larger flaw size compared to that made from X
(C) Both can tolerate same flaw size
(D) None of the above

Q.16 Which one of the following minerals is a source of titanium?
(A) Haematite (B) Magnetite (C) Ilmenite (D) Pyrolusite

Q.17 A steel rod was subjected to a fluctuating stress cycle that varied between a maximum of 400 MPa
in tension to a minimum of 300 MPa in compression. What is the stress amplitude, in MPa?______

Q.18 Which one of the following can avoid weld decay of austenitic stainless steels?
(A) Reducing carbon content
(B) Increasing carbon content
(C) Eliminating strong carbide formers
(D) Decreasing chromium content

Q.19 Identify the INCORRECT statement with respect to grain growth.
(A) As the average grain size increases, the grain boundary energy per unit area decreases.
(B) The driving force for grain growth is the decrease in grain boundary energy per unit volume of
the material.
(C) Higher the temperature, the faster is the grain growth.
(D) Impurity atoms segregated at grain boundaries can retard grain growth.

Q.20 Identify the type of the following invariant reaction:

liquid 1 + solid 1 solid 2

(A) Eutectic (B) Eutectoid (C) Peritectic (D) Peritectoid

Q.21 What is the median value of the following set of numbers? ________
1, 3, 5, 9, 6, 4, 8.


GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
GATE 2014 Metallurgical Engineering - MT

Q.22 Which one of the following welding processes uses a non-consumable electrode?
(A) Gas tungsten arc welding
(B) Gas metal arc welding
(C) Submerged arc welding
(D) Flux cored arc welding

Q.23 Which one of the following processes is performed for inclusion modification in ladle metallurgy of
steelmaking?
(A) Aluminum wire injection
(B) Calcium wire injection
(C) Oxygen top blowing
(D) Oxygen bottom blowing

Q.24
If a vector is defined as gradient of a scalar field such that =

, then which one of the


following is equal to the curl of ?
(A)
2
(B) 0
(C)


(D)

Q.25 Which one of the following signals from a specimen is used in a scanning electron microscope to
get quantitative elemental analysis?
(A) Secondary electrons (B) Backscattered electrons
(C) X-rays (D) Transmitted electrons

Q. 26 Q. 55 carry two marks each.

Q.26 A metal powder with an apparent density of 2.5 g/cm
3
was compacted in a cylindrical die to a green
density of 5.5 g/cm
3
. If the height of the green sample was 12 mm, then the fill height of powder (in
mm) would have been _______

Q.27 A tensile specimen was deformed to a true strain of 0.405. The change in the gauge length was
5 mm. The final gauge length of the specimen, in mm, is
(A) 10 (B) 12 (C) 15 (D) 18

Q.28
If is a position vector relative to the origin in three dimensional space, then

r is
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3

Q.29 The activity coefficient of Q in a liquid Q-R alloy is represented by the following equation at a
given temperature.
ln

=0.6

2
0.2

3


What is the activity of Q in an alloy of composition

= 0.6 at the same temperature? _______




GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
GATE 2014 Metallurgical Engineering - MT

Q.30 Two Cu-Ni alloys, one with 47 wt.% Ni and the other with 53 wt.% Ni, are kept in separate
crucibles and are allowed to equilibrate at the same temperature T
1
between the liquidus and the
solidus. The two alloys have
(A) the same weight fraction of the liquid but the liquid compositions are different.
(B) the same composition of the liquid but the weight fractions of the liquid are different.
(C) the same weight fractions of the liquid and the solid.
(D) different compositions and weight fractions of the liquid.

Q.31 Dissociation of a dislocation into two partials in an FCC metal is given by the following equation.

2
[11

0]

6
[21

1] +

6
[12

]

On which plane do these two partial dislocations lie?
(A) (1

11) (B) (111) (C) (11

1) (D) (111

)

Q.32 Match the types of corrosion in Group I with their examples in Group II.

Group I Group II
P. Galvanic corrosion 1. Season cracking in brass
Q. Filiform corrosion 2. Nut-bolt assembly with gasket
R. Stress corrosion cracking 3. Brass fittings joined with lead-tin solder
S. Crevice corrosion 4. Painted food can
(A) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3 (B) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2
(C) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 (D) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1

Q.33 What is the theoretical requirement of air (in m
3
at STP) for the complete combustion of 100 m
3
(at
STP) of a fuel consisting of pure CH
4
? Assume that air contains 21 vol.% of oxygen. _______

Q.34 An electrolytic refining cell for copper consists of an alloy with activity of copper a
Cu
= 0.8 as the
anode, and pure copper as the cathode. What is the absolute value of the cell potential (in
millivolts) at 25C, given that copper is divalent? Faraday constant is 96500 C/mol and the
universal gas constant is 8.314 J/(mol.K). _______

Q.35 Match the alloy names listed in Group I with the main elements present in them listed in Group II.

Group I Group II
P. Babbit 1. Fe-Ni
Q. Muntz metal 2. Ni-Cr-Fe
R. Invar 3. Cu-Zn
S. Inconel 4. Sn-Sb-Cu
(A) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2 (B) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2
(C) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3 (D) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2

GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
GATE 2014 Metallurgical Engineering - MT
Q.36 What is the hydrostatic stress for the state of stress represented by
ij
given below? _______

=
100 50 50
50 125 75
50 75 75



Q.37 Assume that Sievert's law holds for solubility of hydrogen dissolved in a thin metal foil. If the
partial pressure of hydrogen in contact with the foil is increased by a factor of 4, the solubility
increases by a factor of _______

Q.38 A body starts yielding when it is subjected to a stress state with principal stresses of 250 MPa,
50 MPa and 50 MPa. What is the yield strength of the material, in MPa, if Tresca yield criterion is
obeyed? _______

Q.39 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion(a) and Reason (r):

Assertion (a): Deoxidation and decarburisation of liquid steel are done by vacuum treatment
process.

Reason (r): Decreased partial pressure of CO(g) promotes deoxidation and decarburisation.
(A) a is false but r is true
(B) a is true but r is false
(C) a is true and r is also true, but r is not the reason for a
(D) a is true and r is also true, and r is the reason for a

Q.40 In a sand casting of a rectangular slab, the thickness of the solidified layer after 2 minutes is known
to be 3 cm. Based on Chvorinov's rule, the solidified thickness (in cm) after 4 minutes is _______

Q.41 A rod of a metal with Youngs modulus of 200 GPa is pulled in tension to a stress of 400 MPa.
What is the elastic strain (in %) that is recovered, when the rod is completely unloaded? _______

Q.42 Match the following strengthening methods (Group I) in metallic alloys with typical mechanisms
responsible (Group II) for them.
Group I Group II
P. Grain size strengthening 1. Orowan looping
Q. Work hardening 2. Suzuki interaction
R. Dispersion strengthening 3. Lomer-Cottrell barrier
S. Solid solution hardening 4. Dislocation pileup at grain boundaries

(A) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1 (B) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4
(C) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2 (D) P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2

GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
GATE 2014 Metallurgical Engineering - MT
Q.43 Match the operations listed in Group I with the types of processes listed in Group II.

Group I Group II
P. Blast Furnace Ironmaking 1. Refining
Q. BOF Steelmaking 2. Electrolysis
R. Hall-Heroult Process 3. Smelting
S. Bayer Process 4. Leaching
(A) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-4 (B) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4
(C) P-4,Q-2, R-3, S-1 (D) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2

Q.44 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion (a) and Reason (r).

Assertion (a): Peak aging time for an Al-4 wt.% Cu alloy is indicated by a maximum in the
hardness.

Reason (r): The maximum volume fraction of the precipitates is formed at the peak aging time.
(A) a is true but r is false
(B) a is false but r is true
(C) both a and r are true, and r is the reason for a
(D) both a and r are true, but r is not the reason for a

Q.45 Consider a steady state heat flux across a rectangular slab composed of two layers of equal width as
shown in the figure below. The thermal conductivities are in the ratio of

1
= 10. If the first layer
experiences a temperature drop (
1

2
) of 50 K, what is the temperature drop (
2

3
), in K,
across the second layer? _______



Q.46 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion (a) and Reason (r).

Assertion (a): During welding of aluminium alloys by the gas tungsten arc welding process, direct
current reverse polarity (DCRP) mode is used.

Reason (r): DCRP facilitates breaking up of the oxide film on the workpiece surface.
(A) a is true but r is false
(B) a is false but r is true
(C) both a and r are true, and r is the reason for a
(D) both a and r are true, but r is not the reason for a

GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
GATE 2014 Metallurgical Engineering - MT
Q.47 Match the elements in Group I with their corresponding crystal structures in Group II.

Group I Group II
P. Tungsten 1. HCP
Q. Nickel 2. Simple cubic
R. Magnesium 3. BCC
S. Polonium 4. FCC
(A) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3 (B) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2
(C) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1 (D) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1

Q.48 The atomic radius of aluminium is 1.431 . The interplanar spacing of (111) planes in aluminium,
in , is _______

Q.49 The flow curve of an annealed metal is expressed as = 200
0.25
, where is in MPa. If a rod of
this metal is subjected to a true strain of = 0.3 by extrusion, the ideal plastic work of deformation
per unit volume (in MJ/m
3
) is _______

Q.50 Two phases and are in thermodynamic equilibrium. If and are the only components present
in the phases and and if

represents the chemical potential of component in phase j, then the


condition for equilibrium is
(A)

and


(B)

and


(C)

and


(D)

and



Q.51 The important factors for producing low silicon pig iron in a blast furnace are
(A) higher temperature and higher basicity
(B) lower temperature and lower basicity
(C) lower temperature and higher basicity
(D) higher temperature and lower basicity

Q.52 The following power series () will converge absolutely if || is less than:
() = 4

=0

(A) 0.25 (B) 0.5 (C) 2 (D) 4

Q.53 The specific heat (C
p
) of pure iron expressed in J/(mol.K) as a function of temperature T (in K) is
given as:
C
p
= 17.49 + 24.77 10
-3
T

What is the change in the enthalpy of pure iron (in J/mol) when it is heated from 25C to 700C?
_______

Q.54 The magnitude of the gradient of the function (, ) =
2
+
2
+ + evaluated at (1, 1) is
_______
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
GATE 2014 Metallurgical Engineering - MT

Q.55 A glass fibre reinforced epoxy composite is made with 60 wt.% unidirectional continuous glass
fibres. The elastic moduli of the glass fibre and the epoxy matrix are 72.5 and 2.4 GPa,
respectively. What is the elastic modulus of this composite along the fibre direction, in GPa? The
densities of glass fibre and epoxy are 2.58 g/cm
3
and 1.14 g/cm
3
, respectively. _______



END OF THE QUESTION PAPER
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
GATE 2014 Metallurgical Engineering - MT
GATE 2014 - Answer Keys
General Aptitude - GA
Q. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range
1 A 5 1300 to 1300 9 D
2 B 6 D 10 B
3 D 7 B
4 C 8 180 to 180
Metallurgical Engineering - MT
Q. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range
1 C 20 C 39 D
2 D 21 5 to 5 40 4.2 to 4.3
3 B 22 A 41 0.2 to 0.2
4 C 23 B 42 C
5 C 24 B 43 B
6 C 25 C 44 A
7 A 26 26.3 to 26.5 45 5 to 5
8 B 27 C 46 C
9 19.95 to
20.05
28 D 47 B
10 3 to 3 29 0.46 to 0.49 48 2.30 to 2.38
11 C 30 B 49 35 to 36
12 C 31 D 50 C
13 B 32 C 51 C
14 A 33 951 to 953 52 A
15 A 34 2.8 to 2.9 53 22380 to
22480
16 C 35 D 54 5 to 5
17 350 to 350 36 100 to 100 55 30.0 to 30.5
18 A 37 2 to 2
19 A 38 300 to 300
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
________________________________________________________________
Paper specific instructions:


1. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. Questions are of multiple choice type or
numerical answer type. A multiple choice type question will have four choices for the answer with
only one correct choice. For numerical answer type questions, the answer is a number and no choices
will be given. A number as the answer should be entered using the virtual keyboard on the monitor.

2. Questions Q.1 Q.25 carry 1mark each. Questions Q.26 Q.55 carry 2marks each. The 2marks
questions include two pairs of common data questions and two pairs of linked answer questions. The
answer to the second question of the linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first
question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is not attempted,
then the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated.

3. Questions Q.56 Q.65 belong to General Aptitude (GA) section and carry a total of 15 marks.
Questions Q.56 Q.60 carry 1mark each, and questions Q.61 Q.65 carry 2marks each.

4. Questions not attempted will result in zero mark. Wrong answers for multiple choice type questions
will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all 1 mark questions, mark will be deducted for each wrong
answer. For all 2 marks questions, mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. However, in the
case of the linked answer question pair, there will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the
first question and no negative marks for wrong answer to the second question. There is no negative
marking for questions of numerical answer type.

5. Calculator is allowed. Charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall.

6. Do the rough work in the Scribble Pad provided.



MT:METALLURGICAL ENGINEERING

Duration: Three Hours Maximum Marks:100
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
GATE 2013 Solved Paper
USEFUL DATA
Universal gas constant, R: 8.314 J/mol/K
Acceleration due to gravity, g: 9.81 m/s
2

Faraday constant, F: 96500 C/mol
Bohr magneton,
B
: 9.273 10
24
Am
2


Q. 1 Q. 25 carry one mark each.

Q.1
Degree and order of the differential equation
d
2

dx
2
+S
d
dx
-6y = u, respectively, are

(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 1 (C) 1 and 1 (D) 2 and 2


Q.2 As the concentration of point defects in a crystal increases, its configurational entropy
(A) does not change (B) decreases
(C) increases (D) initially increases and then decreases


Q.3 In a binary system A-B, c
AA
, c
BB
and c
AB
correspond to A-A, B-B and A-B bond energies
respectively. The miscibility gap will occur if
(A) c
AB
> (c
AA
+ c
BB
) (B) c
AB
< (c
AA
+ c
BB
)
(C) c
AB
= (c
AA
+ c
BB
) (D) c
AB
< (c
AA
+ c
BB
)

Q.4 Critical value of the Gibbs energy of nucleation at equilibrium temperature is
(A) zero (B) infinite (C) positive (D) negative

Q.5 With respect to the matrix of Al-Cu alloys, G-P zones are
(A) coherent (B) incoherent
(C) semi-coherent (D) chemically indistinguishable

Q.6 Which one of the following techniques does NOT require quenching to obtain final case hardness?
(A) Flame hardening (B) Induction hardening
(C) Nitriding (D) Carburizing

Q.7 Which one of the following elements is an austenite stabilizer?
(A) Nitrogen (B) Molybdenum
(C) Vanadium (D) Tungsten

Q.8 A 0.2 wt.% plain carbon steel sheet is heated and equilibrated in the inter-critical region followed
by instant water quenching. The microstructure of the quenched steel sheet consists of
(A) fully martensite (B) proeutectoid ferrite + martensite
(C) martensite + pearlite (D) martensite + austenite

Q.9 As compared to the engineering stress-engineering strain curve, the true stress-true strain curve for
a given material
(A) lies above and to the left
(B) lies below and to the right
(C) crosses the engineering stress-engineering strain curve
(D) is identical

GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
GATE 2013 Metallurgical Engineering - MT
Q.10 Which one of the following does NOT improve fatigue life of a steel component?
(A) Nitriding (B) Decarburization
(C) Improving surface finish (D) Shot-peening

Q.11 When two phases and in an alloy are in thermodynamic equilibrium, then
(A)
p p
c c
o |
=
(B)
m m
V V
o |
= (C)
m m
G G
o |
=
(D) i i G G
o |
=

Q.12 Isothermal compressibility of a material is given by
(A)
1
T
V
p p
| | c

|
c
\
(B)
1
T
V
p p
| | c
|
c
\

(C)
1
T
V
V p
| | c

|
c
\
(D)
1
T
V
V p
| | c
|
c
\


Q.13 In the Ellingham diagram for oxides, C-CO line cuts the M-MO line at temperature T
1
and the
M-MO line at a higher temperature T
2
. At a temperature greater than T
1
and less than T
2
, carbon
can reduce
(A) MO (B) both MO and MO
(C) MO (D) neither MO nor MO

Q.14 Which one of the following can give information about the corrosion rate?
(A) Pourbaix diagram (B) Polarization technique
(C) EMF series (D) Galvanic series

Q.15 In a roasting process, the set of conditions that favour sulphate formation from metal sulphide
concentrates are

P. high temperature
Q. high partial pressure of oxygen
R. use of excess air
S. high partial pressure of SO
3

(A) P, R and S (B) P, Q and R
(C) Q and S (D) R and S

Q.16 High top pressure in a blast furnace operation
(A) favours the solution-loss reaction
(B) suppresses the solution-loss reaction
(C) decreases gas-solid contact time
(D) increases coke rate

Q.17 In L-D steelmaking, the final slag can be best described as
(A) oxidizing (B) basic
(C) oxidizing and basic (D) reducing and basic

Q.18 The permeability of burden in an ironmaking blast furnace can be improved by using
(A) fine charge
(B) agglomerated charge
(C) oxygen enriched air blast
(D) pulverized coal injection through the tuyeres

GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
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Q.19 For a good quality brazing, the molten filler alloy should have
(A) low contact angle with the base metal (B) low density
(C) high surface tension (D) high viscosity

Q.20 Risers are NOT required for casting
(A) stainless steel (B) plain carbon steel
(C) grey cast iron (D) white cast iron

Q.21 For scalar fields | and , the value of V(V|V) is ______

Q.22 The atomic packing fraction of diamond cubic structure is __________

Q.23 The total number of possible heat transfer mode(s) is __________

Q.24 If o and c are true stress and true strain, respectively, the maximum true uniform strain that can be
imparted to a material obeying o = 1050c
0.25
is _________

Q.25 Arc welding is done using current, voltage and welding speed of 200 A, 20 V and 0.01 m/s,
respectively. The heat input in kJ per unit length is _________

Q. 26 to Q. 55 carry two marks each.
Q.26 Which one of the following series is divergent?
(A)
1
1
1
3
n
n

(B)
1
1
n
n

(C)
0
1
2
n
n

(D)
1
1
n
n
n



Q.27
Taylor series expansion of the function (x) =
x
1+x
around x = 0 will be
(A) 1 +x +x
2
+ x
3
+ (B) 1 -x +x
2
-x
3
+
(C) u + x +
x
2
2
+
x
3
3
+
(D) u +x - x
2
+x
3
-

Q.28 Which one of the following attributes is NOT correct for the matrix?

cos sin 0
sin cos 0
0 0 1
u u (
(
u u
(
(

, where u = 60
(A) orthogonal (B) singular
(C) skew-symmetric (D) positive-definite

Q.29 A unit cell of an element has maximum linear density along the [110] direction. The packing
density of its (100) plane is
(A) 0.68 (B) 0.74 (C) 0.79 (D) 0.91

Q.30 For an FCC metal, the ratio of interplanar spacing obtained from the first two peaks of the X-ray
diffraction pattern is
(A) 1.91 (B) 1.63 (C) 1.41 (D) 1.15

GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
GATE 2013 Metallurgical Engineering - MT
Q.31 There are 150 gearwheels in a box, out of which 112 are within the required tolerance, 21 are below
and rest are above the required tolerance. If the selection is done without replacement, the
combined probability of randomly selecting a gearwheel below the tolerance and then a second one
above the tolerance is
(A) 0.016 (B) 0.032 (C) 0.492 (D) 0.984


Q.32 Match the metal in Group I with its corresponding ore in Group II

Group I Group II
(P) Ni (1) Monazite
(Q) Th (2) Cassiterite
(R) Pb (3) Penlandite
(S) Sn (4) Galena

(A) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2
(B) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1
(C) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2
(D) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4

Q.33 The yield strength of a polycrystalline metal increases from 100 MPa to 145 MPa on decreasing the
grain size from 64 m to 25 m. The yield strength of this metal (in MPa) having a grain size of 36
m is
(A) 110 (B) 125 (C) 140 (D) 165

Q.34 In a brittle material, the maximum internal crack length is 8 m. If Youngs modulus is 400 GPa
and surface energy is 3.14 J/m
2
, the estimated theoretical fracture strength (in MPa) is
(A) 375 (B) 412 (C) 327 (D) 447

Q.35 Saturation magnetization of an FCC metal with lattice parameter 0.2 nm is 600 kA/m. The net
magnetic moment per atom is given by (in Bohr magneton)
(A) 8.08 10
57
(B) 2.02 10
57
(C) 0.517 (D) 0.129

Q.36 A 480 mm thick slab is hot-rolled using a roll of 720 mm diameter. For a coefficient of friction of
0.5, the maximum possible reduction (in mm) is
(A) 90 (B) 180 (C) 240 (D) 360

Q.37 Match the defects listed in Group I with the corresponding manufacturing process listed in
Group II

Group I Group II
(P) Orange-peel effect (1) Extrusion
(Q) Chevron cracking (2) Deep drawing
(R) Flash (3) Arc welding
(S) Undercut (4) Forging

(A) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3
(B) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4
(C) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
(D) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3

GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
GATE 2013 Metallurgical Engineering - MT
Q.38 Match the powder production technique given in Group I with the corresponding shape listed in
Group II
Group I Group II
(P) Reduction (1) Flaky
(Q) Gas Atomization (2) Spongy
(R) Milling (3) Dendritic
(S) Electrolysis (4) Spherical
(A) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3
(B) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-4
(C) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1
(D) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4

Q.39 Match the suitability of non-destructive testing method in Group I for the detection of defects
listed in Group II

Group I Group II
(P) Magnetic particle inspection (1) Surface crack in martensitic stainless steels
(Q) X-ray radiography (2) Surface crack in austenitic stainless steels
(R) Dye penetrant test (3) Hairline crack in aluminium
(S) Ultrasonic testing (4) Inclusions in steels
(A) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1
(B) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3
(C) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4
(D) P-1, Q-4, R-2, S-3

Q.40 For the following electrochemical reaction Sn + 2H
+
= Sn
2+
+ H
2
, if the solution has Sn
2+

concentration 10
2
M and pH 5 at 298 K, which of the following is true?
Given: standard reduction potential for Sn
2+
+ 2e

Sn is 0.136 V versus SHE;


2
H
p = 1 atm
(A) Sn undergoes oxidation (B) H
+
undergoes reduction
(C) Sn
2+
undergoes reduction (D) No net reaction

Q.41 Match the unit operation in Group I with its corresponding principle in Group II:

Group I Group II
(P) Jigging (1) Modification of surface tension
(Q) Tabling (2) Difference in density
(R) Heavy media separation (3) Differential initial acceleration
(S) Flotation (4) Differential lateral movement
(A) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
(B) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4
(C) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1
(D) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-4

Q.42 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion (a) and Reason (r).

Assertion: For the extraction of metal values from their sulphide concentrates by
hydrometallurgical route, leaching with oxygen under high pressure is used.
Reason: Presence of oxygen under high pressure causes roasting of sulphides, which helps in
leaching of the values.
(A) a is true but r is false
(B) a is false but r is true
(C) both a and r are true, and r is the reason for a
(D) both a and r are true, but r is not the reason for a

GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
GATE 2013 Metallurgical Engineering - MT
Q.43 The aperture size (in m) of a 200 mesh sieve having a wire diameter of 53 m is __________

Q.44 From a 2 m 1.2 m sheet, squares are cut out from each of the four corners as shown in the figure
and then the sides are bent to form an open box. The maximum possible volume (in m
3
) of the box
is __________
Q.45
Applying the secant method, the first approximation to the root of (x) = 1 + ln x +
x
2
, starting
with function values at x = 0.3 and x = 0.4, is_______

Q.46
The critical internal crack length (in mm) in a steel having K
Ic
of 45 MPam to support a Mode-I
stress of 400 MPa is __________

Q.47 Ladle deoxidation of liquid steel is done at 1600C by adding ferro-aluminium. By assuming
Stokes law behaviour, time (in s) required for alumina particles of 50 m diameter to float to the
surface from a depth of 2 m would be__________

[Given: density of steel = 7000 kg/m
3
, density of alumina = 3650 kg/m
3
,
viscosity of steel = 610
3
kg/m/s]

Common Data Questions
Common Data for Questions 48 and 49:

A steel specimen containing 0.2 wt.% C is carburized in an atmosphere that maintains a carbon content of
1.2 wt.% C at the surface of the specimen.

Given:
For carbon diffusion in austenite: D
0
=2.010
5
m
2
/s
Activation energy for diffusion, Q=142 kJ/mol

y erf(y)
0.85 0.7707
0.90 0.7970
0.95 0.8209
Q.48 What is the depth (in m) from the surface of the specimen at which a composition of 0.4 wt.% C is
obtained after carburizing at 870C for 10 h?

(A) 15 (B) 84 (C) 113 (D) 875

Q.49 How long (in h) will it take to double the depth at which 0.4 wt.% C is reached?
(A) 40 (B) 20 (C) 18 (D) 14

GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
GATE 2013 Metallurgical Engineering - MT

Common Data for Questions 50 and 51:

Integral enthalpy of mixing (in J/mol) of liquid (Cu, Zn) solution can be approximated by
mix
m
H A = 19250x
Cu
x
Zn


Q.50 The corresponding partial molar enthalpy of mixing (in J/mol) for Cu is

(A) 19250x
Zn
2

(B) 19250x
Cu
2

(C) 38500x
Zn
19250x
Zn
2
19250
(D) 19250x
Zn
2


Q.51 Assuming regular solution behaviour, the solution parameter (in J/mol) is
(A) 19250 (B) 9625 (C) 13.75 (D) 2315.4

Linked Answer Questions
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 52 and 53:

The density and associated crystallinity for two polypropylene samples are as follows:

density, g/cm
3
crystallinity, %
1.20 50
1.44 80

Q.52 Density of totally amorphous polypropylene is

(A) 0.64 (B) 0.74 (C) 0.84 (D) 0.94

Q.53 The percent crystallinity of polypropylene sample having a density of 1.3 g/cm
3
is
(A) 54 (B) 64 (C) 74 (D) 84


Statement for Linked Answer Questions 54 and 55:

An edge dislocation is present in -Fe. Atomic diameter of iron atom is 0.25 nm and its shear modulus is
70 GPa.

Q.54 Modulus of the Burgers vector (in nm) is

(A) 0.125 (B) 0.25 (C) 0.50 (D) 0.625

Q.55 Energy (in J/m) of the dislocation is
(A) 0.5 10
9
(B) 1.1 10
9
(C) 2.2 10
9
(D) 4.4 10
9




GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
GATE 2013 Metallurgical Engineering - MT
General Aptitude (GA) Questions
Q. 56 Q. 60 carry one mark each.
Q.56 A number is as much greater than 75 as it is smaller than 117. The number is:
(A) 91 (B) 93 (C) 89 (D) 96

Q.57 The professor ordered to the students to go out of the class.
I II III IV
Which of the above underlined parts of the sentence is grammatically incorrect?
(A) I (B) II (C) III (D) IV

Q.58 Which of the following options is the closest in meaning to the word given below:

Primeval
(A) Modern (B) Historic
(C) Primitive (D) Antique

Q.59 Friendship, no matter how _________it is, has its limitations.
(A) cordial

(B) intimate

(C) secret

(D) pleasant

Q.60 Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to that expressed in the pair:
Medicine: Health
(A) Science: Experiment (B) Wealth: Peace
(C) Education: Knowledge (D) Money: Happiness

Q. 61 to Q. 65 carry two marks each.
Q.61 X and Y are two positive real numbers such that 2X + 6 and X +2 8. For which of the
following values of (X, ) the function (X, ) = SX + 6 will give maximum value?
(A) (4/3, 10/3)

(B) (8/3, 20/3)

(C) (8/3, 10/3)

(D) (4/3, 20/3)

Q.62 If |4X -7| = S then the values of 2 |X| - | -X| is:
(A) 2, 1/3 (B) 1/2, 3 (C) 3/2, 9 (D) 2/3, 9

GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
GATE 2013 Metallurgical Engineering - MT
Q.63 Following table provides figures (in rupees) on annual expenditure of a firm for two years - 2010
and 2011.

Category 2010 2011
Raw material 5200 6240
Power & fuel 7000 9450
Salary & wages 9000 12600
Plant & machinery 20000 25000
Advertising 15000 19500
Research & Development 22000 26400

In 2011, which of the following two categories have registered increase by same percentage?
(A) Raw material and Salary & wages

(B) Salary & wages and Advertising

(C) Power & fuel and Advertising

(D) Raw material and Research & Development

Q.64 A firm is selling its product at Rs. 60 per unit. The total cost of production is Rs. 100 and firm is
earning total profit of Rs. 500. Later, the total cost increased by 30%. By what percentage the price
should be increased to maintained the same profit level.
(A) 5 (B) 10 (C) 15 (D) 30

Q.65 Abhishek is elder to Savar.
Savar is younger to Anshul.

Which of the given conclusions is logically valid and is inferred from the above
statements?

(A) Abhishek is elder to Anshul

(B) Anshul is elder to Abhishek

(C) Abhishek and Anshul are of the same age

(D) No conclusion follows


END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

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GATE 2013 Metallurgical Engineering - MT
GATE 2013 - Answer Keys
Metallurgical Engineering - MT
Q. No Key/Range Q. No Key/Range Q. No Key/Range
1 A 23 3 45 0.314 to
0.326
2 D 24 0.25 46 7.9 to 8.3
3 A 25 400 47 2626 to 2632
4 B 26 B 48 D
5 A 27 D 49 A
6 C 28 Marks to All 50 D
7 A 29 C 51 A
8 B 30 D 52 D
9 A 31 A 53 B
10 B 32 C 54 B
11 D 33 B 55 C
12 C 34 D 56 D
13 A 35 D 57 B
14 B 36 A 58 C
15 C 37 D 59 B
16 B 38 A 60 C
17 C 39 D 61 A
18 B 40 C 62 B
19 A 41 A 63 D
20 C 42 C 64 A
21 0 43 73 to 75 65 D
22 0.339 to
0.341
44 0.257 to
0.263
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
________________________________________________________________
MT : METALLURGICAL ENGINEERING
Duration: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 100
Read the following instructions carefully.

1. Do not open the seal of the Question Booklet until you are asked to do so by the invigilator.

2. Take out the Optical Response Sheet (ORS) from this Question Booklet without breaking the seal
and read the instructions printed on the ORS carefully.

3. On the right half of the ORS, using ONLY a black ink ball point pen, (i) darken the bubble
corresponding to your test paper code and the appropriate bubble under each digit of your registration
number and (ii) write your registration number, your name and name of the examination centre and
put your signature at the specified location.

4. This Question Booklet contains 16 pages including blank pages for rough work. After you are
permitted to open the seal, please check all pages and report discrepancies, if any, to the invigilator.

5. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. All these questions are of objective type. Each
question has only one correct answer. Questions must be answered on the left hand side of the ORS
by darkening the appropriate bubble (marked A, B, C, D) using ONLY a black ink ball point pen
against the question number. For each question darken the bubble of the correct answer. More
than one answer bubbled against a question will be treated as an incorrect response.

6. Since bubbles darkened by the black ink ball point pen cannot be erased, candidates should darken
the bubbles in the ORS very carefully.

7. Questions Q.1 Q.25 carry 1 mark each. Questions Q.26 Q.55 carry 2 marks each. The 2 marks
questions include two pairs of common data questions and two pairs of linked answer questions. The
answer to the second question of the linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first
question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is unattempted, then
the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated.

8. Questions Q.56 Q.65 belong to General Aptitude (GA) section and carry a total of 15 marks.
Questions Q.56 Q.60 carry 1 mark each, and questions Q.61 Q.65 carry 2 marks each.

9. Unattempted questions will result in zero mark and wrong answers will result in NEGATIVE marks.
For all 1 mark questions, mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For all 2 marks questions,
mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. However, in the case of the linked answer question
pair, there will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the first question and no negative marks
for wrong answer to the second question.

10. Calculator is allowed whereas charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall.

11. Rough work can be done on the question paper itself. Blank pages are provided at the end of the
question paper for rough work.

12. Before the start of the examination, write your name and registration number in the space provided
below using a black ink ball point pen.

Name


Registration Number
MT




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GATE 2012 Solved Paper
Useful Data
Universal gas constant R = 8.314 J/mol.K
Plancks constant h = 6.6310
-34
J.s
Acceleration due to gravity g = 9.8 m/s
2


Q. 1 Q. 25 carry one mark each.
Q.1 A is a 2 2 matrix with det A = 2. The det (2A) is
(A) 4 (B) 8 (C) 32 (D) 16

Q.2 A is a 2 2 matrix given below:
A =
|
|

\
|

1 1
1 3

The eigenvalues of A are
(A) 2, 2 (B) 3, 1 (C) 2, 2 (D) 3, 1

Q.3 In a production facility, iron rods are made with a mean diameter of 6 cm and standard deviation of
0.02 cm. If a large number of rods are tested, the approximate percentage of rods whose sizes fall in
the range of 5.98 cm to 6.02 cm is
(A) 68 (B) 75 (C) 90 (D) 99.7

Q.4 Which one of the following methods is NOT used for numerical integration?
(A) Rectangular rule (B) Trapezoidal rule
(C) Simpsons rule (D) Cramers rule

Q.5 How many boundary conditions are required to solve the following equation?

t
T
r
T
r r
T
c
c
=
c
c
+
c
c
o
1 1
2
2

(A) Two in r-direction
(B) One in r-direction and one for time
(C) Two in r-direction and one for time
(D) Three in r-direction and one for time

Q.6 When a zinc metal rod is immersed in dilute hydrochloric acid, it results in
(A) Evolution of hydrogen (B) Evolution of chlorine
(C) Evolution of oxygen (D) No evolution of any gas

Q.7 A fluid is flowing with a velocity of 0.5 m/s on a plate moving with a velocity of 0.01 m/s in the
same direction. The velocity at the interface of the fluid and plate is
(A) 0.0 m/s (B) 0.01 m/s (C) 0.255 m/s (D) 0.50 m/s

Q.8 Hot metal at 1700 K is poured in a sand mould that is open at the top. Heat loss from the liquid
metal takes place by
(A) Radiation only (B) Radiation and conduction only
(C) Radiation and convection only (D) Radiation, conduction and convection

Q.9 Which one of the following is an equilibrium defect?
(A) Vacancies (B) Dislocations (C) Stacking faults (D) Grain boundaries
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Q.10 Floatation beneficiation is based on the principle of
(A) Mineral surface hydrophobicity
(B) Gravity difference
(C) Chemical reactivity
(D) Particle size difference

Q.11 Copper can be reduced from acidic copper sulphate solution by
(A) Silver (B) Iron
(C) Carbon (D) Lead

Q.12 Which one is NOT an agglomeration process?
(A) Nodulizing (B) Briquetting (C) Roasting (D) Pelletizing

Q.13 During LD blow in steelmaking the impurity that gets removed first is
(A) Carbon (B) Phosphorous (C) Manganese (D) Silicon

Q.14 During the solidification of a pure metal, it was found that dendrites are formed. Assuming that the
liquid-solid interface is at the melting temperature, the temperature from the interface into the
liquid
(A) Decreases
(B) Increases
(C) Remains constant
(D) Increases and then decreases

Q.15 A peak in the X-ray diffraction pattern is observed at 2u = 78, corresponding to {311} planes of an
fcc metal, when the incident beam has a wavelength of 0.154 nm. The lattice parameter of the
metal is approximately
(A) 0.6 nm (B) 0.4 nm (C) 0.3 nm (D) 0.2 nm

Q.16 If d is the inter-planar spacing of the planes {h k l}, the inter-planar spacing of the planes
{nh nk nl}, n being an integer, is
(A) d (B) d/n (C) nd (D) d/n
2

Q.17 As temperature increases, the electrical resistivities of pure metals (
m
) and intrinsic
semiconductors (
s
) vary as follows
(A) Both
m
and
s
increase
(B) Both
m
and
s
decrease
(C)
m
increases and
s
decreases
(D)
m
decreases and
s
increases

Q.18 At equilibrium spacing in a crystalline solid, which of the following is true for net inter-atomic
force (F) and potential energy (U)
(A) F is zero and U is zero (B) F is zero and U is minimum
(C) F is minimum and U is zero (D) F is minimum and U is minimum

Q.19 The property of a material that CANNOT be significantly changed by heat treatment is
(A) Yield strength (B) Ultimate tensile strength
(C) Ductility (D) Elastic modulus
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Q.20 A unit dislocation splits into two partial dislocations. The correct combination of the Burgers
vectors of the partial dislocations for a given unit dislocation having Burgers vector | | 0 1 1
2
a
is
(A) | | 1 1 2
6
a
and | | 1 2 1
6
a
(B) | | 2 1 1
6
a
and | | 1 2 1
6
a

(C) | | 2 11
6
a
and | | 1 1 2
6
a
(D) | | 211
6
a
and | | 1 12
6
a


Q.21 A polymer matrix composite is reinforced with long continuous ceramic fibres aligned in one
direction. The Youngs moduli of the matrix and fibres are E
m
and E
f
respectively, and the volume
fraction of the fibres is f. Assuming iso-stress condition, Youngs modulus of the composite E
C
in a
direction perpendicular to the length of fibres, is given by the expression
(A)
f m C
E f f)E (1 E + = (B)
f m C
f)E (1 E f E + =
(C)
f m C
E
f
E
f) (1
E
1
+

= (D)
f m C
E
f) (1
E
f
E
1
+ =


Q.22 Which of the following is NOT a fusion welding process?
(A) Arc welding
(B) Gas welding
(C) Resistance welding
(D) Friction stir welding

Q.23 Tungsten filament used in electric bulb is processed by
(A) Extrusion
(B) Wire drawing
(C) Casting
(D) Powder metallurgy

Q.24 The riser is designed such that the melt in the riser solidifies
(A) Before casting solidifies
(B) At the same time as casting solidifies
(C) After casting solidifies
(D) Irrespective of the solidification of the casting

Q.25 Radiography technique of detecting defects is based on the principle of
(A) Diffraction
(B) Reflection
(C) Interference
(D) Absorption



Q. 26 to Q. 55 carry two marks each.
Q.26 At x = 0.5, the polynomial x
2
(1-x)
2
has
(A) No extrema (B) A saddle point (C) A minima (D) A maxima

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Q.27 Given that v is a vector field and f is a scalar field, match the equations in Group I with their
physical meaning in Group II
Group I Group II

P. 0 (v) div = 1. Irrotational
Q. 0 (grad(f)) curl = 2. Incompressible
R. 0 (grad(f)) div = 3. Potential
S. grad(f) v = 4. Laplace equation

(A) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4 (B) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3
(C) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-4 (D) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4

Q.28 The temperature field of a slab is given by T = 400 50z exp (t x
2
y
2
). The temperature
gradient in y-direction is
(A) ) y x t ( exp yz 100
2 2

(B) ) y x t ( exp yz 100
2 2

(C) ) y x t ( exp xz 100
2 2

(D) ) y x t ( exp xz 100
2 2


Q.29 What does the solution of the following ordinary differential equation represent?
0 x
dx
dy
y = +
(A) A parabola (B) A circle (C) An ellipse (D) A hyperbola

Q.30 A thin layer of material B (of total amount m) is plated on the end faces of two long rods of
material A. These are then joined together on the plated side (see the figure below) and heated to a
high temperature. Assuming the diffusion coefficient of B in A is D, the composition profile c
B

along the rod axis x after a time t is described by

B A A
X

(A)
(

=
4Dt
x
exp
Dt 2
m
c
2
B

(B)
(

=
4Dt
x
erf
Dt 2
m
c
2
B

(C)
(
(

|
|

\
|
=
4Dt
x
erf 1
Dt 2
m
c
2
B

(D) t
Dt 2
m
c
B
=


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Q.31 Match the principles given in Group I with corresponding corrosion terminology in Group II
Group I Group II

P. Electrode polarization 1. Dezincification
Q. Passivity 2. Intergranular attack
R. Selective leaching 3. Over voltage
S. Grain boundary precipitation 4. Surface oxide film

(A) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 (B) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
(C) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3 (D) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3

Q.32 Identify the correct combination of the following statements

P. Hydrogen electrode is a standard used to measure redox potentials
Q. Activation polarization refers to electrochemical processes controlled by reaction sequence at
metal-solution interface
R. Potential-pH diagrams can be used to predict corrosion rates of metals
S. Cathodic protection can use sacrificial anodes such as magnesium
(A) P, Q and R (B) Q, R and S (C) P, Q and S (D) P, R and S

Q.33 Consider a reaction with activation energy of 8.314 kJ/mol that takes place at 300 K. If the reaction
rate is to be tripled, the temperature of the reaction should be
(A) 174.5 K (B) 447.5 K (C) 600.5 K (D) 847.5 K

Q.34 Match the processes in Group I with the objectives in Group II
Group I Group II

P. Vacuum Arc Degassing (VAD) 1. Primary iron making
Q. LD 2. Secondary steel making
R. COREX 3. Direct smelting
S. Blast Furnace 4. Primary steel making

(A) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1 (B) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2
(C) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4 (D) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1

Q.35 The reduction of FeO with CO gas in co-current flow is given by the following equation:
FeO + CO = Fe + CO
2
AG
o
= 8120 J at 1173 K
The ratio of p
CO
/p
CO2
for this reaction at 1173 K is
(A) 0.0 (B) 0.25 (C) 0.44 (D) 2.3

Q.36 The sulphide capacity (C
S
) of liquid slag of composition 55 wt.% CaO, 20 wt.% SiO
2
, 15 wt.%
Al
2
O
3
, and 10 wt.% MgO is given by the following equation
log C
S
= 3.44 (
CaO
X + 0.1
MgO
X 0.8
3 2
O Al
X
2
SiO
X ) (9894/T) + 2.05
where, X is mole fraction of the respective components. Atomic weights of Ca, Mg, Si, Al and O
are 40, 24, 28, 27 and 16 respectively.
The value of C
S
at 1900 K is
(A) 0.0009 (B) 0.009 (C) 0.09 (D) 0.9

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Q.37 Match the processes given in Group I with the corresponding metals in Group II
Group I Group II

P. Matte smelting 1. Lead
Q. Cyanide leaching 2. Copper
R. Carbothermic reduction 3. Gold
S. Fused salt electrolysis 4. Aluminium

(A) P-1, Q-2, R-1, S-4 (B) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4
(C) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4 (D) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1

Q.38 Identify the correct combination of the following statements

P. Bessemer converter can be used in copper smelting

Q. The Mond process for nickel involves reaction of metal with H
2
gas
R. Roasted ZnS concentrates can be smelted in a blast furnace

S. Magnesium metal can be produced by electrolysis of sea water
(A) P, R and S (B) P, Q and R (C) P and Q (D) Q and S

Q.39 Match the phases of steel in Group I with the crystal structures in Group II
Group I Group II

P. Martensite 1. bcc
Q. Cementite 2. fcc
R. Austenite 3. bct
S. Ferrite 4. Orthorhombic

(A) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 (B) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4
(C) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1 (D) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1

Q.40 Arrange the following in terms of increasing severity of quench
P. Oil quenching
Q. Water quenching
R. Water quenching with agitation
S. Brine quenching

(A) P<Q<R<S (B) Q<R<P<S
(C) P<Q<S<R (D) Q<P<R<S

Q.41 Regarding recrystallization, which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
(A) Higher the amount of cold work, lower is the recrystallization temperature
(B) Higher the recovery, higher is the recrystallization temperature
(C) Higher the temperature of cold work, higher is the recrystallization temperature
(D) Finer the initial grain size, higher is the recrystallization temperature





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GATE 2012 Metallurgical Engineering - MT
Q.42 A liquid droplet (|) is on a substrate (o) and is surrounded by air (o), as shown below. The angle of
contact (u) is determined using the following expression:


u

o|
o
|
o

|o

oo

(A)
|
|

\
|
=


cos (B)
|
|

\
|
=


cos
(C)
|
|

\
|
=


cos
(D)
|
|

\
|
=


cos

Q.43

Match the phenomena listed in Group I with the possible mechanisms in Group II
Group I Group II

P. Fatigue 1. Grain boundary sliding

Q. Creep 2. Slip band extrusion and intrusion
R. Strain hardening 3. Cottrell atmosphere
S. Yield point phenomenon 4. Dislocation interaction

(A) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1 (B) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1
(C) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3 (D) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3

Q.44 Fracture stress for a brittle material having a crack length of 1 m is 200 MPa. Fracture stress for
the same material having a crack length of 4 m is
(A) 200 MPa (B) 150 MPa (C) 100 MPa (D) 50 MPa

Q.45 The flow stress ( o ) of an alloy varies with strain rate ( ) as o = 100 ( )
1 . 0
MPa. When the alloy
is hot extruded from 10 cm diameter to 5 cm diameter at a speed of 2 cm/s, the flow stress is
(A) 1000 MPa (B) 105 MPa (C) 150 MPa (D) 1050 MPa

Q.46 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion (a) and Reason (r).

Assertion : During rolling, front tension and (or) back tension are (is) employed to decrease rolling
load.
Reason : Roll pressure decreases due to lowering of flow stress as a result of front tension/back
tension.
(A) a is false but r is true
(B) a is true and r is also true, but r is not the reason for a
(C) a is true and r is also true, and r is the reason for a
(D) a is true but r is false




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Q.47 Match the defects listed in Group I with the processes listed in Group II
Group I Group II

P. Cold shut 1. Rolling

Q. Earing 2. Forging
R. Alligatoring 3. Deep drawing
S. Shrinkage porosity 4. Fusion welding

(A) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-4 (B) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1
(C) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4 (D) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3

Common Data Questions
Common Data for Questions 48 and 49:

A steel ball (density
steel
= 7200 kg/m
3
) is placed in an upward moving liquid Al (density
Al
= 2360 kg/m
3
,
viscosity
Al
= 110
3
Pa.s and Reynolds number = 510
5
). The force (F) exerted on the steel ball is
expressed as
F = f t R
2
(
Al
v
2
/2)
where, f is friction factor (=0.2), v is the velocity of liquid Al and R is the radius of steel ball.
Q.48 The force exerted on the steel ball is
(A) 8.32 N (B) 6.70 N (C) 1.67 N (D) 0.52 N

Q.49 The terminal velocity of a fine spherical steel particle having diameter d
p
, in m range, if allowed
to fall in a quiescent liquid Al bath, is
(A) 5.210
6
d
p
2
m/s (B) 2.610
6
d
p
2
m/s (C) 1.310
6
d
p
2
m/s (D) 6.610
5
d
p
2
m/s

Common Data for Questions 50 and 51:


50
-100
0
S
t
r
e
s
s

(
M
P
a
)
cycle

For the above stress cycle
Q.50 Stress ratio is
(A) 4 (B) 2 (C) -2 (D) -4

Q.51 Amplitude ratio is
(A) 3 (B) 1/3 (C) -1/3 (D) -3
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Linked Answer Questions
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 52 and 53:

A material with grain size of ASTM No. 6 has a lattice frictional stress 100 MN/m
2
and locking parameter
(Hall-Petch constant) 0.10 MN/m
3/2

Q.52 Grain size of the material is approximately
(A) 45 m (B) 35 m (C) 4.5 m (D) 3.5 m

Q.53 Yield strength of the material is approximately
(A) 100 MPa (B) 115 MPa (C) 165 MPa (D) 215 MPa




Statement for Linked Answer Questions 54 and 55:

The strain hardening behaviour of an annealed rod during cold rolling is given by o = 700 ( )
2 . 0
MPa,
where o is the flow stress at strain c.
Q.54 Flow stress after 50% reduction in area of the annealed rod on cold rolling is approximately
(A) 750 MPa (B) 650 MPa (C) 609 MPa (D) 559 MPa

Q.55 If a wire of 5 mm diameter is drawn from the above cold rolled rod of 10 mm diameter, the drawing
stress, neglecting the effect of friction and redundant work, is approximately
(A) 650 MPa (B) 550 MPa (C) 450 MPa (D) 400 MPa


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General Aptitude (GA) Questions (Compulsory)
Q. 56 Q. 60 carry one mark each.
Q.56 Which one of the following options is the closest in meaning to the word given below?

Latitude
(A) Eligibility (B) Freedom (C) Coercion (D) Meticulousness

Q.57 Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following
sentence:
Given the seriousness of the situation that he had to face, his ___ was impressive.
(A) beggary (B) nomenclature (C) jealousy (D) nonchalance

Q.58 Choose the most appropriate alternative from the options given below to complete the following
sentence:
If the tired soldier wanted to lie down, he ___ the mattress out on the balcony.
(A) should take
(B) shall take
(C) should have taken
(D) will have taken

Q.59 If (1.001)
1259
= 3.52 and (1.001)
2062
= 7.85, then (1.001)
3321
=
(A) 2.23 (B) 4.33 (C) 11.37 (D) 27.64

Q.60 One of the parts (A, B, C, D) in the sentence given below contains an ERROR. Which one of the
following is INCORRECT?

I requested that he should be given the driving test today instead of tomorrow.
(A) requested that
(B) should be given
(C) the driving test
(D) instead of tomorrow

Q. 61 - Q. 65 carry two marks each.
Q.61 The data given in the following table summarizes the monthly budget of an average household.

Category Amount (Rs.)
Food 4000
Clothing 1200
Rent 2000
Savings 1500
Other expenses 1800

The approximate percentage of the monthly budget NOT spent on savings is
(A) 10% (B) 14% (C) 81% (D) 86%
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Q.62 There are eight bags of rice looking alike, seven of which have equal weight and one is slightly
heavier. The weighing balance is of unlimited capacity. Using this balance, the minimum number
of weighings required to identify the heavier bag is
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 8

Q.63 Raju has 14 currency notes in his pocket consisting of only Rs. 20 notes and Rs. 10 notes. The total
money value of the notes is Rs. 230. The number of Rs. 10 notes that Raju has is
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 9 (D) 10

Q.64 One of the legacies of the Roman legions was discipline. In the legions, military law prevailed
and discipline was brutal. Discipline on the battlefield kept units obedient, intact and fighting,
even when the odds and conditions were against them.

Which one of the following statements best sums up the meaning of the above passage?
(A) Thorough regimentation was the main reason for the efficiency of the Roman legions even in
adverse circumstances.
(B) The legions were treated inhumanly as if the men were animals.
(C) Discipline was the armies inheritance from their seniors.
(D) The harsh discipline to which the legions were subjected to led to the odds and conditions being
against them.

Q.65 A and B are friends. They decide to meet between 1 PM and 2 PM on a given day. There is a
condition that whoever arrives first will not wait for the other for more than 15 minutes. The
probability that they will meet on that day is
(A) 1/4 (B) 1/16 (C) 7/16 (D) 9/16



END OF THE QUESTION PAPER


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GATE 2012 - Answer Keys
Metallurgical Engineering - MT
Q. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range
1 B 23 Marks to All 45 B
2 A 24 C 46 C
3 A 25 D 47 C
4 D 26 D 48 A
5 C 27 B 49 B
6 A 28 A 50 C
7 B 29 B 51 D
8 D 30 A 52 A
9 A 31 A 53 B
10 A 32 C 54 B
11 B 33 B 55 Marks to All
12 C 34 D 56 B
13 D 35 D 57 D
14 A 36 B 58 A
15 B 37 Marks to All 59 D
16 B 38 A 60 B
17 C 39 C 61 0
18 B 40 A 62 A
19 D 41 D 63 A
20 A 42 A 64 A
21 C 43 C 65 C
22 D 44 C
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