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GATE question paper Civil Engineering 2005
Q.1 Q.30 Carry One Mark Each.
1. Consider the matrices X
(4 ' 3) '
Y
(43)
and P
(2 ' 3)
.
The order of [P(X
T
Y)
1
P
T
)
T
will be
(a) (2 2) (b) (3 3) (c) (4 3) (d) (3x4)
2. Consider a nonhomogeneous system of linear equations representing mathematically an over
determined system. Such a system will be
(a) consistent having a unique solution (b) consistent having a many solutions
(c) inconsistent having a unique solution (d) inconsistent having no solution
3. Which one of the following is NOT true for complex number Z
1
and Z
2
?
(a)
2
2
2 1
2
1
 Z 
Z Z
Z
Z
=
(b) Z
1
+ Z
2
 s Z
1
 + Z
2

(c) Z
1
Z
2
 s Z
1
 Z
2

(d) Z
1
+ Z
2

2
+ Z
1
Z
2

2
= 2Z
1

2
+ 2 Z
2

2
4. Which one of the following statement is NOT true ?
(a) The measure of skewness is dependent upon the amount of dispersion
(b) In a symmetric distribution, the values of mean, mode and median are the same
(c) In a positively skewed distribution : mean > median > mode
(d) In a negatively skewed distribution : mode > mean > median
5. IS : 1343 1980 limits the minimum characteristics strength of prestressed concrete for post
tensioned works and pretension work as
(a) 25 MPa, 30 MPa respectively
(b) 25 MPa, 35 MPa respectively
(c) 30 MPa, 35 MPa respectively
(d) 30 MPa, 40 MPa respectively
6. The permissible stress in axial tension s
st
in steel member on the net effective area of the section
shall not exceed the following value (f
y
is the yield stress)
(a) 0.80f
y
(b) 0.75f
y
(c) 0.60f
y
(d) 0.50f
y
7. The partial factor of safety for concrete as per IS : 4562000 is
(a) 1.50 (b) 1.15 (c) 0.87 (d) 0.446
8. The symmetry of stress tensor at a point in the body under equilibrium is obtained from
(a) conservation of mass (b) force equilibrium equations
(c) moment equilibrium equations (d) conservation of energy
9. The components of strain tensor at a point in the plane strain case can be obtained by measuring
longitudinal strain in following directions
(a) along any two arbitrary directions
(b) along any three arbitrary directions
(c) along two mutually orthogonal directions
(d) along any arbitrary direction
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10. Considering beam as axially rigid, the degree of freedom of a plane frame shown below is
(a) 9
(b) 8
(c) 7
(d) 6
11. For a linear elastic frame, if stiffness matrix is doubled, the existing stiffness matrix, the deflection of
the resulting frame will be
(a) twice the existing value (b) half the existing value
(c) the same as existing value (d) indeterminate value
12. A clayey soil has a maximum dry density of 16 kN/m
3
and optimum moisture content of 12%. A
contractor during the construction of core of an earth dam obtained the dry density 15.2 kN/m
3
and
water content 11%. This construction is acceptable because.
(a) the density is less than the maximum dry density and water content is on dry side of
optimum.
(b) the compaction density is very low and water content is less than 12%.
(c) the compaction is done on the dry side of the optimum.
(d) both the dry density and water content of the compacted soil are within the desirable limits
13. Root time method is used to determine
(a) T, time factor
(b) c
v'
coefficient of consolidation
(c) a
v'
coefficient of compressibility
(d) m
v'
coefficient of volume compressibility
14. Negative skin friction in a soil is considered when the pile is constructed through a
(a) fill material (b) dense coarse sand
(c) over consolidated stiff clay (d) dense fine sand
15. There are two footings resting on the ground surface. One footing is square of dimension 'B'. The
other is strip footing of width 'B'. Both of them are subjected to a loading intensity of q. The pressure
intensity at any depth below the base of the footing along the centerline would be
(a) equal in both footings
(b) large for square footing and small for strip footing
(c) large for strip footing and small or square footing
(d) more for strip footing at shallow depth (< B) and more for square footing at large depth (>B)
16. An inert tracer is injected continuously from a point in an unsteady flow field. The locus of locations
of all the tracer particles at an instance of time represents
(a) Streamline (b) Pathline (c) Steamtube (d) Streakline
F
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17. A horizontal bed channel is followed by a steep bed channel as shown in the figure. The gradually
varied profiles over the horizontal and steep beds are
(a) H
2
and S
2
respectively
(a) H
2
and S
1
respectively
(a) H
3
and S
2
respectively
(a) H
3
and S
1
respectively
18. The reading of differential manometer of a Venturimeter, placed at 45 to the horizontal is 11 cm. If
the Ventruimeter is turned to horizontal position, the manometer reading will be.
(a) zero (b)
2
11
cm
(c) 11 cm (d) 11 2 cm
19. The intensity of rain fall and time interval of a typical storm are
Time interval Intensity of rainfall
(minutes) (mm/ minute)
010 0.7
1020 1.1
2030 2.2
3040 1.5
4050 1.2
5060 1.3
6070 0.9
7080 0.4
The maximum intensity of rainfall for 20 minutes duration of the storm is
(a) 1.5 mm/minute (b) 1.85 mm/minute
(c) 2.2 mm/minute (d) 3.7 mm/minute
20. When the outflow from a storage reservoir is uncontrolled as in a freely operating spillway, the peak
of outflow hydrograph occurs at
(a) at point of intersection of the inflow and outflow hydrographs
(b) a point, after the intersection of the inflow and outflow hydrographs
(c) the tail of inflow hydrographs
(d) a point, before the intersection of the inflow and outflow hydrographs
21. On which of the canal systems, R.G. Kennedy, executive engineer in the Punjab Irrigation Department
made his observations for proposing his theory on stable channels ?
(a) Krishna Western Delta canals (b) Lower Bari Doab canals
(c) Lower Chenab canals (d) Upper Bari Doab canals
22. Which one of the following equations represents the downstream profile of Ogee spillway with vertical
upstream face? {(x, y) are the coordinates of the point on the downstream profile with origin at the
crest of the spillway and H
d
is the design head}
(a)
85 . 1
x d
H
x
5 . 0
H
y


.

\

= (b)
85 . 1 / 1
d d
H
x
5 . 0
H
y


.

\

=
(c)
85 . 1
d d
H
x
0 . 2
H
y


.

\

= (d)
85 . 1 / 1
d d
H
x
0 . 2
H
y


.

\

=
Horizontal bed
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23. In aerobic environment, nitrosomonas convert
(a) NH
3
to NO
2
(b) NO
2

to NO
3

(c) NH
3
to N
2
O (d) NO
2

to HNO
3
24. Total Kjedahl nitrogen is a measure of
(a) total organic nitrogen (b) total organic and ammonia nitrogen
(c) total ammonia nitrogen (d) total inorganic and ammonia nitrogen
25. 1 TCU is equivalent to the colour produced by
(a) 1 mg/L of chlorplatinate ion
(b) 1 mg/L of platinum ion
(c) 1 mg/L Platinum in form of chlorplatinate ion
(d) 1 mg/L of organochlorplatinate ion
26. Bulking sludge refers to having
(a) F / M < 0.3 / d (b) 0.3 / d < F / M < 0.6 / d
(c) F / M = zero (d) F / M > 0.6 / d
27. Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojna (PMGSY) launched in the year 2000, aims to provide rural
connectively with allweather roads. It is proposed to connect the habitations in plain areas of
population more than 500 persons by the year
(a) 2005 (b) 207 (c) 2007 (d) 201
28. Group I contains some properties of Bitumen. Group II gives a list of Laboratory Tests conducted on
Bitumen to determine the properties. Match the property with the corresponding test
Group I Group I I
P. Resistance to flow 1. Ductility test
Q. Ability to deform under load 2. Penetration test
R. Safety 3. Flash and Fire point test
(a) P2, Q1, R3 (b) P2, Q3, R1
(c) P1, Q2, R3 (d) P3, Q1, R2
29. The length of Summit Curve on a two lane two way highway depends upon
(a) allowable rate of change of centrifugal acceleration
(b) coefficient of lateral friction
(c) required Stopping Sight Distance
(d) required Overtaking Sight Distance
30. Bituminous concrete is a mix comprising o
(a) fine aggregate, filter and bitumen
(b) fine aggregate and bitumen
(c) coarse aggregate, fine aggregate, filter and bitumen
(d) coarse aggregate, filter and bitumen
Q.31Q.80 Carry Two Marks Each
31. Consider the system of equations
A
(mxn)
x
(1xt)
= 1
(n 1),
where, 1 is a scalar.
Let (I
i
, x
i
) be an eigenpair of an eigen value and its corresponding eigen vector for real matrix A. Let
I be a (n ' n) unit matrix. Which one of the following statement is NOT correct ?
(a) For a homogeneous n n system of linear equations, (AII) x= 0 having a nontrivial solution,
the rank of (AII) is less than n.
(b) For matrix A
m
, m being a positive integer, ) x , (
m
i
m
i
will be the eigenpair for all i.
(c) If A
T
= A
1
, then [1
i
] = 1 for all i
(d) If A
T
= A, then 1
i
is real for all i
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32. Transformation to linear form by substituting v = y
1n
of the equation
dt
dy
+ p(t)y = q(t)y
n
; n > 0 will be
(a)
dt
dv
+ (1 n)pv = (1 n)q (b)
dt
dv
+ (1 n)pv = (1 + n)q
(c)
dt
dv
+ (n + n)pv (n n)q (d)
dt
dv
+ (1 + n) pv = (1 + n) q
33. A rail engine accelerates from its stationary position for 8 seconds and travels a distance of 280 m.
According to the Mean Value Theorem, the speedometer at a certain time during acceleration must
read exactly.
(a) 0 km/h (b) 8 km (c) 75 km/h (d) 126 km/h
34. The solution of
dx
dy
2
dx
y d
2
2
+ + 17y = 0; (0) = 1,

.

\

4
p
dx
dy
= 0 in the range 0 < x <
4
t
is given by
(a) 
.

\

+
x 4 sin
4
1
x 4 cos e
x
(b) 
.

\

x 4 sin
4
1
x 4 cos e
x
(c) 
.

\

x sin
4
1
x 4 cos e
x 4
(d) 
.

\

x 4 sin
4
1
x 4 cos e
x 4
35. Value of the integral
}
c
2
) dx y xydy ( , where, c is the square cut from the first quadrant by the line
x = 1 and y = 1 will be (Use Greens theorem to change the line integral into double integral)
(a)
2
1
(b) 1 (c)
2
3
(d)
3
5
36. Consider likely applicability of Cauchys Integral Theorem to evaluate the following integral counter
clockwise around the unit circle c.
I =
}
c
dz z sec
z being a complex variable. The value of I will be
(a) I = 0 : singularities set = 
(b) I = 0: singularities set =
)
`
= t
+
. .......... 2 , 1 , 0 n
2
1 n 2
(c) I = /2 : singularities set = { n t  n = 0, 1, 2, ........}
(d) None of above
37. A concrete beam of rectangular cross section of 200 mm 400 mm is prestressed with a force 400
kN at eccentricity 100 m. The maximum compressive stress in the concrete is
(a) 12.5 N/mm
2
(b) 7.5 N/mm
2
(c) 5.0 N/mm
2
(d) 2.5 N/mm
2
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38. Which one of the following is NOT correct for steel sections as per IS : 8001984 ?
(a) The maximum bending stress in tension or in compression in extreme fibre calculated on the
effective section of a beam shall not exceed 0.66f
y
.
(b) The bearing stress in any part of a beam when calculated on the area shall not exceed 0.75
f
y
.
(c) The direct stress in compression on the gross sectional area of axial loaded compression
member shall not exceed 0.6 f
y
.
(d) None of above.
39. An unstiffened web I section is fabricated from a 10 mm thick plate by fillet welding as shown in the
figure. If yield stress of steel is 250 MPa, the maximum shear load that section can take is
(a) 750 kN (b) 350 kN (c) 337.5 kN (d) 300 kN
40. A filletwelded joint of 6mm size is shown in the
figure. The welded surfaces meet at 6090 degree
and permissible stress in the fillet weld is 108
MPa. The safe load that can be transmitted by the
joint is
(a) 162.7 kN
(b) 151.6 kN
(c) 113.4 kN
(d) 109.5 kN
41. A cantilever beam of length I, width b and depth d is loaded with a concentrated vertical load at the
tip. If yielding starts at a load P, the collapse load shall be
(a) 2.0 P (b) 1.5 P (c) 1.2 P (d) P
42. The flexural strength of M 30 concrete as per IS : 4562000 is
(a) 3.83 MPa (b) 5.47 MPa (c) 21.23 MPa (d) 30.0 MPa
43. In a random sampling procedure for cube strength of concrete, one sample consists of X number of
specimens. These specimens are tested at 28 days and average strength of these X specimens is
considered as test result of the sample, provided the individual variation in the strength of specimens
is not more than + Y percent of the average strength. The values of X and Y as per IS : 4562000 are
(a) 4 and 10 respectively (b) 3 and 10 respectively
(c) 4 and 15 respectively (d) 3 and 15 respectively
44. A rectangular column section of 250 mm 400 mm is reinforced with five steel bars of grade Fe 500,
each of 20 mm diameter. Concrete mix is M 30.Axial load on the column section with minimum
eccentricity as per IS : 4562000 using limit state method can be applied upto
(a) 1707.37 (b) 1805.30 (c) 1806.40 (d) 1903.7
200 mm
300 mm
F F
100 mm
5
0
m
m
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45. A circular shaft shown in the figure is subjected to torsion T at two points A and B. The torsional
rigidity of portions CA and BD is GJ
1
and that of portion AB is GJ
2
. The rotations of shaft at point A
and B are u
1
and u
2
. The rotation u
i
is
(a)
2 1
GJ GJ
TL
+
(b)
1
GJ
TL
(c)
2
GJ
TL
(d)
2 1
GJ GJ
TL
46. If principal stresses in a twodimensional case are 10MPa and 20 MPa respectively, then maximum
shear stress at the point is
(a) 10 MPa (b) 15 MPa (c) 20 MPa (d) 30 MPa
47. The bending moment diagram for a beam is given below :
The shear force at sections aa ad bb respectively are of the magnitude.
(a) 100 kN, 150 kN (b) zero, 100 kN
(c) zero, 50 kN (d) 100 kN, 100 kN
48. For a 25 cm thick cement concrete pavement, analysis of stresses gives the following values Wheel
load stress due to corner loading 30 kg/cm
2
Wheel load stress due to edge loading 32 kg/cm
2
Warping stress at corner region during summer 9 kg/cm
2
Warping stress at edge region during winter 7 kg/cm
2
Warping stress at edge region during summer 8 kg/cm
2
Warping stress at edge region during winter 6 kg/cm
2
Frictional stress during winter 5 kg/cm
2
Frictional stress during winter 4 kg/cm
2
The most critical stress value for this pavement is
(a) 40 kg/cm
2
(b) 42 kg/cm
2
(c) 44 kg/cm
2
(d) 45 kg/cm
2
C
A B
L L L
T
D
T
a
b
200 kNm
a ' b '
100 kNm
0.5 m 0.5 m 1 m 1 m
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49. Match the following :
Group I Group 2
P. Slope deflection method 1. Force method
Q. Moment distribution method 2. Displacement method
R. Method of three moments
S. Castiglianos second theorem
(a) P1, Q2, R1, S2 (b) P1, Q1, R2, S2
(c) P2, Q2, R1, S1 (d) P2, Q1, R2, S1
50. All members of the frame shown below have the same flexural rigidity EI and length L. If a moment
M is applied at joint B, the rotation of the point is
(a)
EI 12
ML
(b)
EI 11
ML
(c)
EI 8
ML
(d)
EI 7
ML
51. A soil mass contains 40% gravel, 50% sand and 10% silt. This soil can be classified as
(a) silty sandy gravel having coefficient of uniformity less than 60.
(b) silty gravelly sand having coefficient of uniformity equal to 10.
(c) gravelly silty sand having coefficient of uniformity greater than 60.
(d) gravelly silty sand and its coefficient of uniformity cannot be determined.
52. A saturated soil mass has a total density 22kN/m
3
and a water content of 10%. The bulk density and
dry density of this soil are
(a) 12 kN/m
3
and 20 kN/m
3
respectively.
(b) 22 kN/m
3
and 20 kN/m
3
respectively.
(c) 19.8 kN/m
3
and 19.8 kN/m
3
respectively.
(d) 23.2 kN/m
3
and 19.8 kN/m
3
respectively.
53. In a constant head permeameter with cross section area of 10 cm
2
, when the flow was taking place
under a hydraulic gradient of 0.5, the amount of water collected in 60 seconds is 600 cc. The
permeability of the soil is
(a) 0.002 cm/s (b) 0.02 cm/s (c) 0.2 cm/s (d) 2.0 cm/s
54. Assuming that a river bed level does not change and the depth of water in river was 10 m, 15 m and
8 m during months of February, July and December respectively of a particular year. The average
bulk density of the soil is 20 kN/m
3
. The density of water is 110 kN/m
3
. The effective stress at a
depth of 10 m below the river bed during these months would be
(a) 300 kN/m
2
in February, 350 kN/m
2
july and 320 kN/m
2
in December
(b) 100 kN/m
2
in February, 100 kN/m
2
July and 100 kN/m
2
in December
(c) 200 kN/m
2
in February, 250 kN/m
2
July and 180 kN/m
2
in December.
(d) 300 kN/m
2
in February, 350 kN/m
2
July and 280 kN/m
2
in December.
EI, L
A C
EI, L
EI, L
M B
D
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55. For a triaxial shear test conducted on a sand specimen at a confining pressure of 100 kN/m2 under
drained conditions, resulted in a deviator stress (s
1
s
3
) at failure of 100 kN/m
2
. The angle of shearing
resistance of the soil would be
(a) 18.43 (b) 19.47
(c) 26.56 (d) 30
56. During the subsurface investigations for design of foundations, a standard penetration test was
conducted at 4.5m below the ground surface. The record of number of blows is given below
Penetration depth (cm) No. of blows
07.5 3
7.515 3
1522.5 6
22.530 6
3037.5 8
37.545 7
Assuming the water table at ground level, soil as fine sand and correction for overburden as 1.0, the
corrected N value for the soil would be
(a) 18 (b) 19 (c) 21 (d) 33
57. For two infinite slopes (one in dry condition and other in submerged condition) in a sand deposit
having the angle of shearing resistance 30 , factor of safety was determined as 1.5 (for both slopes).
The slope angles would have been
(a) 21.05 for dry slope and 21.05 for submerged slope.
(b) 19.47 for dry slope and 18.40 for submerged slope.
(c) 18.4 for dry slope and 21.05 for submerged slope.
(d) 22.6 for dry slope and 19.47 for submerged slope.
58. A strip footing (8m wide) is designed for a total settlement of 40mm. The safe bearing capacity
(shear) was 150 kN/m
2
and safe allowable soil pressure was 100 kN/m
2
. Due to importance of the
structure, now the footing is to be redesigned for total settlement of 25 mm. The new width of
footing will be
(a) 5 m (b) 8 m (c) 12 m (d) 12.8 m
59. A 3 m high retaining wall is supporting a saturated sand (saturated due to capillary action) of bulk
density 18 kN/m
3
and angle of shearing resistance 30 . The change in magnitude of active earth
pressure at the base due to rise in ground water table from the base of the footing to the ground
surface shall (
w
=10 kN/m
3
)
(a) increase by 20 kN/m
2
(b) decrease by 20 kN/m
2
(c) increase by 30 kN/m
2
(d) decrease by 30 kN/m
2
60. Critical depth at a section of a rectangular channel is 1.5 m. The specific energy at that section is
(a) 0.75 m (b) 1.0 m (c) 1.5 m (d) 2.25 m
61. A partially open sluice gate discharges water into a rectangular channel. The tail water depth in the
channel is 3 m and Froude number is
2 2
1
. If a free hydraulic jump is to be formed at a downstream
of the sluice gate after the vena contracta of the jet coming out from the sluice gate, the sluice gate
opening should be (coefficient of contraction C
c
= 0.9)
(a) 0.3 m (b) 0.4 m (c) 0.69 m (d) 0.9 m
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62. A stream function is given by
Y = 2x
2
y + (x+1)y
2
The flow rate across a line joining points A(3,0) and B(0,2) is
(a) 0.4 units (b) 1.1 units (c) 4 units (d) 5 units
63. Crosssection of an object (having same section normal to the paper) submerged into a fluid consists
of a square of sides 2 m and triangle as shown in the figure. The object is hinged at point P that is
one meter below the fluid free surface. If the object is to be kept in the position as shown in the
figure, the value x should be
(a) 2 3 (b) 4 3 (c) 4 m (d) 8 m
64. The circulation G around a circle of radius 2 units for the velocity field u = 2x + 3y and v = 2y is
(a) 6 t units (b) 12 t units (c) 18 t units (d) 24 t units
65. A tank and a deflector are placed on a frictionless trolley. The tank issues water jet (mass density of
water = 1000 kg/m
3
), which strikes the deflector and truns by 45 . If the velocity of jet leaving the
deflector is 4 m/s and discharge is 0.1 m
3
/s, the force recorded by the spring will be
(a) 100 N (b) 100 2 N (c) 200 N (d) 200 2 N
66. Two observation wells penetrated into a confined acquifer and located 1.5 km apart in the direction of
flow, indicate head of 45 m and 20 m. If the coefficient of permeability of the acquifer is 30m/day
and porosity is 0.25, the time of travel of an inert tracer from one well to another is
(a) 416.7 days (b) 500 days (c) 750 days (d) 3000 days
67. A triangular irrigation lined canal carries a discharge of 25m
3
/s at bed slope = 1/6000. If the side
slopes of the canal are 1 :1 and Mannings coefficient is 0.018, the central depth of flow is equal to
(a) 1.98 m (b) 2.98 m (c) 3.62 m (d) 5.62 m
P 2 m
2 m
1 m
x
Tank
Spring
45
Deflector
Trolley
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68. Uplift pressures at points E and D (Figure A) of a straight horizontal floor of negligible thickness with
a sheet pile at downstream end are 28% and 20%, respectively. If the sheet pile is at upstream end
of the floor (Figure B), the uplift pressures at points D
1
and C
1
are
(a) 68% and 60% respectively (b) 80% and 72% respectively
(c) 88% and 70% respectively (d) 100% and zero respectively
69. A launching apron is to be designed at downstream of a weir for discharge intensity of 6.5 m
3
/s/m.
For the design of launching aprons the scour depth is taken two times of Lacey scour depth. The silt
factor of the bed material is unity. If the tailwater depth is 4.4 m, the length of launching apron in the
launched position is
(a) 5 m (b) 4.7 m (c) 5 m (d) 5 5 m
70. The culturable commanded area for a distributary is 210
8
m
2
. The intensity of irrigation for a crop is
40%. If kor water depth and kor period for the crop are 14 cm and 4 weeks, respectively, the peak
demand discharge is
(a) 2.63 m
3
/s (b) 4.63 m
3
/s (c) 8.58 m
3
/s (d) 11.58 m
3
/s
71. If tomato juice is having a pH of 4.1, the hydrogen ion concentration will be
(a) 10.94 10
5
mol/L (b) 9.94 10
5
mol/L
(c) 8.94 10
5
mol/L (d) 7.94 10
5
mol/L
72. Group 1 contains some properties of water / wastewater and group 2 contains list of some tests on
water/waste water. Match the property with corresponding test.
Group 1 Group 2
P. Suspended solids concentration 1. BOD
Q. Metabolism of biodegradable organics 2. MPN
R. Bacterial concentration 3. Jar test
S. Coagulant dose 4. Turbidity
(a) P2, Q1, R4, S3 (b) P4, Q1, R2,S3
(c) P2, Q4, R1, S3 (d) P4, Q2, R1, S3
73. Match the following
Group I Group 2
P. Thickening of sludge 1. Decrease in volume of sludge by chemical oxidation
Q. Stabilization of sludge 2. Separation of water by heat or chemical treatment
R. Conditioning of sludge 3. Digestion of sludge
S. Reduction of sludge 4. Separation of water by flotation or gravity
(a) P4, Q3, R1, S2 (b) P3, Q2, R4, S1
(c) P4, Q3, R2, S1 (d) P2, Q1, R3, S4
b
E
b
D
C
d d
C
1
E
1
D
1
Figure B Figure A
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74. Match the following
Group 1 Group 2
P. Release valve 1. Reduce high inlet pressure t lower outlet pressure
Q. Check valve 2. Limit the flow of water to single direction
R. Gate valve 3. Remove air from the pipeline
S. Pilot valve 4. Stopping the flow of water in the pipeline
(a) P3, Q2, R4, S1 (b) P4, Q2, R1, S3
(c) P3, Q4, R2, S1 (d) P1, Q2, R4, S3
75. In a certain situation, wastewater discharged into a river, mixes with the river water instantaneously
and completely. Following is the data available :
Wastewater : DO = 2.00 mg/L
Discharge rate = 1.10 m
3
/s
River water DO = 8.3 mg/L
Flow rate = 8.70 m
3
/s
Temperature = 20 C
Initial amount of DO in the mixture of waste and river shall be
(a) 5.3 mg/L (b) 6.5 mg/L (c) 7.6 mg/L (d) 8.4 mg/L
76. A circular primary clarifier processes an average flow of 5005 m
3
/d of municipal wastewater. The
overflow rate is 35 m
3
/d. The diameter of clarifier shall be
(a) 10.5 m (b) 11.5 m (c) 12.5 m (d) 13.5 m
77. A transport company operates a scheduled daily truck service between city P and city Q. Oneway
journey time between these two cities is 85 hours. A minimum layover time of 5 hours is to be
provided at each city. How many trucks are required to provide this service.
(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8
78. A single lane unidirectional highway has a design speed of 65 kmph The perceptionbrakereaction
time of drivers is 2.5 seconds and the average length of vehicles is 5 m. The coefficient of longitudinal
friction of the pavement is 0.4. The capacity of this road in terms of vehicles per hour per lane is.
(a) 1440 (b) 750 (c) 710 (d) 680
79. The following observations were made of an axleload survey on a road
Axle Load (kN) Repetitions per day
3545 800
7585 400
The standard axleload is 80 kN. Equivalent daily number of repetitions for the standard axleload are
(a) 450 (b) 480 (c) 800 (d) 1200
80. A road is having a horizontal curve of 400 m radius on which a superelevation of 0.07 is provided.
The coefficient of lateral friction mobilized on the curve when a vehicle is travelling at 100 kmph is
(a) 0.07 (b) 0.13 (c) 0.15 (d) 0.4
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Q81aQ.85b Carry Two Marks Each
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 81a and 81b :
Given a > 0, we wish to calculate its reciprocal value
a
1
by using Newton Raphson method for f(x) = 0
81.a. The Newton Raphson algorithm for the function will be
(a)


.

\

+ =
+
K
K 1 K
x
a
x
2
1
x (b) 
.

\

=
+
2
K K 1 K
x
2
a
x x
(c)
2
K K 1 K
ax X 2 X =
+
(d)
K 1 K
X X =
+
2
K
X
2
a
81b. For a = 7 and starting with x
0
= 0.2, the first two iterations will be
(a) 0.11, 0.1299 (b) 0.12, 0.1392
(c) 0.12, 0.1416 (d) 0.13, 0.1428
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 82a and 82b :
A truss is shown in the figure. Members are to equal cross section A and same modulus of elasticity E. A
vertical force P is applied at point C.
82a. Force in the member AB of the truss is
(a) P / 2 (b) P/ 3 (c) P/2 (d) P
82b. Deflection of the point C is
(a)
EA
PL
2
) 1 2 2 ( +
(b)
EA
PL
2 (c)
EA
PL
) 1 2 2 ( + (d)
EA
PL
) 1 2 ( +
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 83a and 83b :
Assume straight line instead of parabola for stressstrain curve of concrete as follows and partial factor of
safety as 1.0.
A rectangular underreinforced concrete section of 300 mm width and 500 mm effective depth is reinforced
with 3 bars of grade Fe415, each of 16 mm diameter. Concrete mix is M20.
83a. The depth of the neutral axis from the compression fibre is
(a) 76 mm (b) 81 mm (c) 87 mm (d) 100 mm
0.67 f
ck
0.0035 0.002
Strain
S
t
r
e
s
s
A
B
C
2L
L
P
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83b. The depth of the neutral axis obtained as per IS : 4562000 differs from the depth of neutral axis
obtained in Q. 83 (a) by
(a) 15 mm (b) 20 mm (c) 25 mm (d) 32 mm
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 84a and 84b :
A four hour unit hydrograph of a catchment is triangular in shape with base of 80 hours. The area of the
catchment is 720 kM
2
. The base flow and findex are 30m
3
/s and 1 mm/h, respectively. A storm of a 4 cm
occurs uniformly in 4 hours over the catchment.
84a. The peak discharge of four hour unit hydrograph is
(a) 40 m
3
/s (b) 50 m
3
/s (c) 60 m
3
/s (d) 70 m
3
/s
84b. The peak flood discharge due to the storm is
(a) 210 m
3
/s (b) 230 m
3
/s (c) 260 m
3
/s (d) 720 m
3
/s
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 85a and 85b :
A city is going to install the rapid sand filter after the sedimentation tanks. Use the following data.
Design loading rate to the filter 200 m
3
/m
2
d
Design flow rate 0.5 m
3
/s
Surface area per filter box 50m
2
85a. The surface area required for the rapid sand filter will be
(a) 210 m
2
(b) 215 m
2
(c) 216 m
2
(d) 218 m
2
85b. The number of filters required shall be
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8
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Answer key GATE 2005
1 a 2 a 3 c 4 d 5 d 6 c 7 a 8 c 9 b 10 d
11 c 12 d 13 b 14 a 15 c 16 d 17 a 18 c 19 b 20 a
21 d 22 a 23 a 24 b 25 c 26 a 27 b 28 a 29 c 30 c
31 d 32 a 33 d 34 a 35 b 36 a 37 a 38 d 39 d 40 c
41 b 42 a 43 d 44 a 45 a 46 b 47 c 48 b 49 c 50 b
51 b 52 b 53 d 54 b 55 b 56 c 57 a 58 d 59 b 60 d
61 c 62 c 63 a 64 b 65 d 66 c 67 a 68 b 69 c 70 b
71 d 72 b 73 a 74 a 75 c 76 d 77 d 78 c 79 a 80 b
81a c 81b b 82a c 82b c 83a d 83b c 84a b 84b a 85a c 85b c
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GATE Question Paper Civil Engineering 2006
Q.1Q.20 Carry One Mark Each
1. Solution for the system by the set of equations 4y + 3z = 8 ; 2x z = 2; and 3x + 2y = 5 is
(a) x = 0; y = 1; z = 4/3 (b) x = 0; y = 1/2; z = 2
(c) x = 1; y = 1/2 ; z = 2 (d) nonexistent
2. The differential equation
dx
dy
= 0.25 y
2
is to be solved using the backward (implicit) Eulers method
with the boundary condition y = 1 at x = 0 and with a step size of 1. What would be the value of y at
x = 1?
(a) 1.33 (b) 1.67 (c) 2.00 (d) 2.33
3. The necessary and sufficient condition for a surface to be called as a free surface is
(a) no stress should be acting on it
(b) tensile stress acting on it must be zero
(c) shear stress acting on it must be zero
(d) no point on it should be under any stress
4. Mohrs circle for the state of stress defined by
(
(
30 0
0 30
MPa is a circle with
(a) center at (0,0) and radius 30 MPa
(b) center at (0,0) and radius 60 MPa
(c) center at (30,0) and radius 30 MPa
(d) center at (30,0) and zero radius
5. The buckling load P = P
cr
for the column AB in the figure, as K
T
approaches infinity, become o
2
2
L
EI t
,
where is equal to
(a) 0.25 (b) 1.00 (c) 2.05 (d) 4.00
6. A long shaft of diameter d is subjected to twisting moment T at its ends. The maximum normal stress
acting at its crosssection is equal to
(a) zero (b)
3
d
T 16
t
(c)
3
d
T 32
t
(d)
3
d
T 64
t
7. If the characteristic strength of concrete f
ck
is defined a the strength below which not more than 50%
of the test results are expected to fall the expression for f
ck
in terms of mean strength f
m
and
standard deviation S would be
(a) f
m
0.1645S (b) f
m
1.645S (c) f
m
(d) f
m
+1.645S
La
P
A
B
flexural rigidity EI
torsional spring of stiffness K
T
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8. The range of void ratio between which quick sand conditions occurs in cohesion less granular soil
deposits is
(a) 0.4 0.5 (b) 0 6 0.7 (c) 0.8 0.9 (d) 1.0 1.1
9. Figure given below shows a smooth vertical gravity retaining wall with cohesionless soil backfill having
an angle of internal friction  In the graphical representation of Rankines active earth pressure for
the retaining wall shown in figure, length OP represents
(a) vertical stress at the base
(b) vertical stress at a height H/3 from the base
(c) lateral earth pressure at the base
(d) lateral earth pressure at a height H/3 from the base
10. Which of the following statement is NOT true in the context of capillary pressure in soils ?
(a) Water is under tension in capillary zone
(b) Pore water pressure is negative in capillary zone
(c) Effective stress increases due to capillary pressure
(d) Capillary pressure is more in coarse grained soils
11. A channel with a mild slope is followed by a horizontal channel and then by a steep channel. What
gradually varied flow profiles will occur ?
(a) M
1
, H
1
,S
1
(b) M
2
,H
2
,S
2
(c) M
1
,H
2
,S
3
(d) M
1
,H
2
,S
2
12. To provide safety against piping failure, with a factor of safety of 5, what should be he maximum
permissible exit gradient for soil with specific gravity of 2.5 and porosity of 0.35 ?
(a) 0.155 (b) 0.176 (c) 0.195 (d) 0.213
13. Identify the FALSE statement from the following : The specific speed of the pump increases with
(a) increase in shaft speed (b) increase in discharge
(c) decrease in gravitational acceleration (d) increase in head
14. For steady flow to a fully penetrating well in a confined acquifer, the drawdowns at radial distances of
r
1
and r
2
from the well have been measured as s
1
and s
2
respectively, for a pumping rate of Q. The
transmissivity of the aquifer is equal to
(a)
) s s (
r
r
ln
2
Q
2 1
1
2
t
(b)
) s s (
) r r ln(
2
Q
2 1
1 2
t
(c)


.

\

t
1 2
1 2
s / s
r / r
ln
2
Q
(d)


.

\

t
1
2
1 2
s
s
ln
r r
Q 2

H
o
Ground line
O

u
P
t
Sand
Mohr's envelope
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15. To determine the BOD
5
of a wastewater sample, 5, 10 and 50 mL aliquots of the wastewater were
diluted to 300 mL and incubated at 20 C in BOD bottles for 5 days.
Sl. No. Wastewater Volume, Initial DO, mg/L DO After 5 days, mg/L
1. 5 9.2 6.9
2. 10 9.1 4.4
3. 50 8.4 0.0
Based on the data, the average BOD
5
of the wastewater is equal to
(a) 139.5 mg/L (b) 126.5 mg/L (c) 109.8 mg/L (d) 72.2 mg/L
16. The cumulative noise power distribution curve at a certain location is given below.
The value of L
40
is equal to
(a) 90 dBA (b) 80 dBA (c) 70 dBA (d) 60 dBA
17. A synthetic sample of water is prepared by adding 100 mg Kaolinite (a clay minerla), 200 mg glucose,
168 mg NacI, 120 mg MgSO
4
, and 111 mg CaCI
2
to 1 liter of pure water. The concentrations of total
solids (TS) and fixed dissolved solids (FDS) respectively in the solution in mg/L are equal to
(a) 699 and 599 (b) 599 and 399 (c) 699 and 199 (d) 699 and 399
18. If aggregate size of 50 40 mm is to be tested for finding out the portion of elongated aggregates
using length gauge, the slot length of the gauge should be
(a) 81 mm (b) 45 mm (c) 53 mm (d) 90 mm
19. Name the traffic survey data which is plotted by means of Desire lines.
(a) Accident (b) Classified volume
(c) Origin and Destination (d) Speed and Delay
20. In case of governing equations for calculating wheel load stresses using Wesergaards approach, the
following statements are made.
I. Load stress are inversely proportional to wheel load
II. Modulus of subgrade reaction is useful for load stress calculation
(a) Both statements are TRUE (b) I is TRUE and II is FALSE
(c) Both statements are FALSE (d) I is FALSE AND II is TRUE
Q. 21 to Q.75 carry two marks each
21. For a given matrix A =
(
(
(
(
0 2 1
6 1 2
3 2 2
, one of the eigenvalues is 3. The other two eigenvalues are
(a) 2, 5 (b) 3, 5 (c) 2, 5 (d) 3, 5
100
100
50
0
Noise level, dBA
Percent of time
greater than
stated value
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22. The directional derivative of f(x,y,z) = 2x
2
+3y
2
+z
2
at the point P : (2, 1, 3) in the direction of the
vector a = i 2 k is
(a) 2.785 (b) 2.145 (c) 1.789 (d) 1.000
23. A class of first year B. Tech. students is composed of four bathes A,B,C and D, each consisting of 30
students. It is found that the sessional marks of students in Engineering Drawing in batch C have a
mean of 6.6 and standard deviation of 2.3. The mean and standard deviation of the marks for the
entire class are 5.5 and 4.2, respectively. It is decided by the course instructor to normalize the marks
of the students of all batches to have the same mean and standard deviation as that of the entire
class. Due to this, the marks of a student in batch C are changed from 8.5 to
(a) 6.0 (b) 7.0 (c) 8.0 (d) 9.0
24. A 2
nd
degree polynomial, f(x), has values of 1,4, and 15 at x = 0, and 2, respectively. The integral
}
2
0
) x ( f dx is to be estimated by applying the trapezoidal rule to this data. What is the error (defined as
true value approximate value) in the estimate?
(a)
3
4
(b)
3
2
(c) 0 (d)
3
2
25. What is the area common to the circles r = o and r = 2a cos u ?
(a) 0.524 a
2
(b) 0.614 a
2
(c) 0.147 a
2
(d) 1.228 a
2
26. Using Cauchys integral theorem, the value of the integral (integration being taken in counter
clockwise direction)
}
c
3
i z 3
6 z
dz is
(a) i 4
81
2
t
t
(b)
8
t
6 t i (c) i 6
81
4
t
t
(d) 1
27. There are 25 calculators in a box. Two of hem are defective. Suppose 5 calculators are randomly
picked for inspecion ((i.e., each has the same chance of being selected), what is the probability that
only one of the defective calculators will be included in the inspection ?
(a)
2
1
(b)
3
1
(c)
4
1
(d)
5
1
28. A spherical naphthalene ball exposed to the atmosphere loses volume at a rate proportional to is
instantaneous surface area due to evaporation. If the initial diameter of the ball is 2 cm and the
diameter reduces to 1 cm after 3 months, the ball completely evaporates in
(a) 6 months (b) 9 months (c) 12 months (d) infinite time
29. The solution of the differential equation,
x
2
dx
dy
+ 2xy x + 1 = 0 given that at x = 1, y = 0 is
(a)
2
x 2
1
x
1
2
1
+ (b)
2
x 2
1
x
1
2
1
(c)
2
x 2
1
x
1
2
1
+ + (d)
2
x 2
1
x
1
2
1
+ +
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30. A simply supported beam AB has the bending moment diagram as shown in the following figure.
The beam is possibly under the action of following loads :
(a) Couples of M at C and 2M at D
(b) Couples of 2M at C and M at D
(c) Concentrated loads of M/L at C and 2M/Lat D
(d) Concentrated load of M/L at C and couple of 2M at D.
31. For the section shown below, second moment of the area about an axis d/4 distance above the
bottom of the area is
(a)
48
bd
3
(b)
12
bd
3
(c)
48
bd 7
3
(d)
3
bd
3
32. Consider the beam AB shown in the figure below. Part AC of the beam is rigid while Part CB has the
flexural rigidity EI. Identify the correct combination of deflection at end B and bending moment.
(a)
EI 3
PL
3
, 2PL (b)
EI 3
PL
3
, PL (c)
EI 3
PL 8
3
, 2PL (d)
EI 3
PL 8
3
, PL
33. A beam with the crosssection given
below is subjected to a positive bending
moment (causing compression at the
top) of 16 kN m acting around the
horizontal axis. The tensile force acting
on the hatched area of the crosssection
is
(a) zero
(b) 5.9 kN
(c) 8.9 kN
(d) 17.8 kN
b
d
A
C
M
D
B
M
M
L L L
A C B
P
L L
75
50
25
50
100
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34. Tsection of a beam is formed by gluing wooden planks as
shown in the figure below. If this beam transmits a constant
vertical shear force of 3000 K, the glue at any of the four
joints will be subjected to a shear force (in kN per meter
length) of
(a) 3.0
(b) 4.0
(c) 8.0
(d) 10.7
35. If a beam of rectangular crosssection is subjected to a vertical shear force V, the shear force carried
by the upper onethird of the crosssection is
(a) zero (b)
27
V 7
(c)
27
V 8
(d)
3
V
36. A thinwalled long cylindrical tank of inside radius r is subjected simultaneously to internal gas
pressure p and axial compressive force F at its ends. In order to produce pure shear state of stress
in the wall of the cylinder, F should be equal to
(a) t pr
2
(b) 2 t pr
2
(c) 3 t pr
2
(d) 4 t pr
2
37. Vertical reaction developed at B in the
frame below due to the applied load of
100 kN (with 150, 000mm
2
cross
sectional area and
3.125 10
9
mm
4
moment of inertia for
both members) is
(a) 5.9 kN
(b) 302 kN
(c) 66.3 kN
(d) 94.1 kN
38. Consider the beam ABCD and the influence line as shown below. The inflience the pertains to
(a) reaction at A, R
A
(b) shear force at B, V
B
(c) shear force on the left of C,
C
V
(d) shear force on the right of C,
+
C
V
50
200
50
50 75
200
A B
C
1m
internal hinge
100 kN
1m
A B C D
D
C
B
A
1
L L 2L
internal hinge
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39. Carryover factor C
AB
for the beam shown in the figure below is
(a)
4
1
(b)
2
1
(c)
4
3
(d) 1
40. Assuming concrete below the neutral axis to be cracked, the shear stress across the depth of a singly
reinforce rectangular beam section
(a) increases parabolically to the neutral axis and then drops suddently to zero value.
(b) increases parabolically to the neutral axis and then remains constant over the remaining
depth
(c) increases linearly to the neutral axis and then remains constant up to the tension steel
(d) increases parabolically to the neutral axis and then remains constant up to the tension steel.
41. As per IS : 4562000, consider the following statements
I. The modular ratio considered in the working stress method depends on the type of steel used
II. There is an upper limit on the nominal shear stress in beams (even withshear reinforcement)
due to the possibility of crushing of concrete in diagonal compression.
III. A rectangular slab whose length is equal to its width may not be a twoway slab for some
support conditions.
The TRUE statements are
(a) only I and II (b) only II and III (c) only I and III (d) , II and III
42. In the design of welded tension members, consider the following statements :
I. The entire crosssectional area of the connected leg is assumed to contribute to the effective
area in case of angles.
II. Two angles backtoback and tackwelded as per the codal requirements may be assumed to
behave as a tee section.
III. A check on slenderness ratio may be necessary in some cases.
The TRUE statements are
(a) only I and II (b) only II and III (c) only I and III (d) I, II and III
43. Consider the following statements
I. Effective length of a battened column is usually increased to account for the additional load
on battens due to the lateral expansion of columns.
II. As per IS: 8001984, permissible stress in bending compression depends on both Euler
buckling stress and the yield stress of steel.
III. As per IS: 8001984, the effective length of a column effectively held in position at both ends
but not restrained against rotation, is taken to be greater than that in the ideal end
conditions.
The TRUE statements are
(a) only I and II (b) only II and III (c) only I and III (d) I, II and III
A
B
L L
internal hinge
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44. When the triangular section of a beam as
shown below becomes a plastic hinge,
the compressive force acting on the
section (with
y
denoting the yiield
stress) becomes
(a)
4
bh
y
o
(b)
9
bh 2
y
o
(c)
2
bh
y
o
(d)
3
bh
y
o
45. Consider the following statements :
I. The widththickness ratio limitations on the plate elements under compression in steel
members are imposed by IS: 8001984 in order to avoid fabrication difficulties.
II. In a doubly reinforced concrete beam, the strain in compressive reinforcement is higher than
the strain in the adjoining concrete.
III. If a cantilever Isection supports slab construction all along its length with sufficient friction
between them, the permissible bending stress in compression will be the same as that in
tension.
The TRUE statements are
(a) only I and II (b) only II and III
(c) only I and III (d) I, II and III
46. List I below gives the possible types of failure for a finite soil slope and List II gives the reasons
for these different types of failure. Match the items in List I with the items in List II.
List I ListII
P Base failure 1. Soils above and below the toe have same strength
Q Face Failure 2. Soil above the toe is comparatively weaker
R Toe failure 3. Soil above the toe is comparatively stronger
(a) P1 Q2 R3 (b) P2 Q3 R1
(c) P2 Q1 R3 (d) P3 Q2 R1
47. For the soil profile shown in figure
below, the minimum number of
precast concrete piles of 300 mm
diameter required to safety carry
the load for a given factor of safety
of 2.5 (assuming 100% efficiency
for the pile group) is equal to
(a) 10
(b) 15
(c) 20
(d) 25
Stiff clay
5000 kN
10 m
C
u
= 150 kPa
Medium stiff clay
u
C =100 kPa
o = 0.57
b
h
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GATE CIVIL ENGINEERING 2006 (CE)
48. In a standard proctor test, 1.8 kg of moist soil was filling the mould (volume = 944 cc) after
compaction. A soil sample weighing 23 g was taken from the mould and overdried for 24 hours at a
temperature of 110
0
C. Weight of the dry sample was found to be 20 g. Specific gravity of soil solids is
G = 2.7. The theoretical maximum value of the dry unit weight of the soil at that water content is
equal to
(a) 4.67 kN/m
3
(b) 11.5 kN/m
3
(c) 16.26 kN/m
3
(d) 8.85 kN/m
3
49. A sample of saturated cohesionless soil tested in a drained triaxial compression test showed an angle
of internal friction of 30 . The deviatoric stress at failure for the sample at a confining pressure of 200
kPa is equal to
(a) 2000 kPa (b) 400 kPa (c) 600 kPa (d) 800 kPa
50. The thickness of the laminar boundary layer on a flat plate at a point A is 2 cm and at a point B, 1m
downstream of A, is 3 cm. What is the distance of A from the leading edge of the plate ?
(a) 0.50 m (b) 0.80 m (c) 1.00 m (d) 1.25 m
51. The velocity field for flow is given by
k
) z y 2 x 3 ( j
) z 9 y 5 x 6 ( i
) z 7 y 6 x 5 ( v = + + + + + + + =
and the density varies as =
0
exp (2t). In order that the mass is conserved, the value of should be
(a) 12 (b) 10 (c) 8 (d) 10
52. In a cultivated area, the soil ahs porosity of 45% and field capacity of 38%. For a particular crop, the
root zone depth is 1.0 m, the permanent wilting point is 10% and the consumptive use is 15 mm/d. If
the irrigation efficiency is 60%, what should be the frequency of irrigation such that the moisture
content does not fall below 50% of the maximum available moisture ?
(a) 5d (b) 6d (b) 9d (d) 15 d
53. A hydraulic jump occurs in a rectangular, horizontal, frictionless channel. What would be the prejump
depth if the discharge per unit width 2m
3
/s/m and the energy loss is 1 m?
(a) 0.2 (b) 0.3 m (c) 0.8 m (d) 0.9 m
54. During a 3 hour storm event, it was observed that all abstractions other than infiltration are
negligible. The rainfall was idealized as 3 one hour storms of intensity 10 mm/hr, 20 mm/hr and 10
mm/hr respectively and the infiltration was idealized as a Horton curve, f=6.8+8.7 exp (t) (f in
mm/hr and t in hr). What is the effective rainfall ?
(a) 10.00 mm (b) 11.33 mm (c) 12.43 mm (d) 13.63 mm
55. A very wide rectangular channel is designed to carry a discharge of 5m
3
/s per meter width. The
design is based on the Mannings equation with the roughness coefficient obtained from the grain size
using Stricklers equation and results in a normal depth of 1.0 m. By mistake, however the engineer
used the grain diameter in mm in the Sticklers equation instead of in meter. What should be the
correct normal depth?
(a) 0.32 m (b) 0.50 m (c) 2.00 m (d) 3.20 m
56. The flow of glycerin (kinematic viscosity v = 5 10
4
m
2
/s) in an open channel is to be modeled in a
laboratory flume using water (v=10
6
m
2
/s) as the flowing fluid. If both gravity and viscosity are
important, what should be the length scale (i.e. ratio of prototype to model dimensions) for
maintaining dynamic similarity ?
(a) 1 (b) 22 (c) 63 (d) 500
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57. The mean indoor airborne chloroform (CHCI
3
) concentration in a room was determined to be 0.4
g/m
3
. Use the following data : T = 293 K, P = 1 atmosphere, R = 82.05 10
6
atm.m
3
/ molK,
Atomic weights : C = 12, H=1, CI= 35.5. This concentration expressed in parts per billion (volume
basis, ppbv) is equal to
(a) 1.00 ppbv (b) 0.20 ppbv
(c) 0.10 ppbv (d) 0.08 ppbv
58. The composition of a certain MSW sample and specific weights of its various components are given
below.
Component Percent by Weight Specific Weight (kg/m
3
)
Food waste 50 300
Dirt and Ash 30 500
Plastics 10 65
Wood and Yard waste 10 125
Specific weight (kg/m
3
) of the MSW sample is
(a) 319 (b) 217
(c) 209 (d) 199
59. A subgrade soil sample was tested using standard CBR apparatus and the observations are given
below.
Load, kg Penetration, mm
60.5 2.5
80.5 5.0
Assuming that the loadpenetration curve is convex throughout, the CBR value (%) of the sample is
(a) 6.5 (b) 5.5 (c) 4.4 (d) 3.9
60. A vehicle moving at 60 kmph on an ascending gradient of a highway has to come to stop position to
avoid collision with a stationary object. The ratio of lag to brake distance is 6 : 5. Considering total
reaction time of the driver as 2.5 Considering total reaction time of the driver as 2.5 seconds and the
coefficient of longitudinal friction as 0.36, the value of ascending gradient (%) is
(a) 3.3 (b) 4.8 (c) 5.3 (d) 6.8
61. For designing a 2phase fixed type signal at an intersection having NorthSouth and EastWest road
where only straight ahead traffic permitted, the following data is available.
Parameter Design Hour North South East West
Flow (PCU/hr) 1000 700 900 550
Saturation Flow (PCU/hr) 2500 2500 3000 3000
Total time lost per cycle is 12 seconds. The cycle length (seconds) as per Websters approach is
(a) 67 (b) 77 (c) 87 (d) 91
62. On an urban road, the free mean speed was measured as 70 kmph and the average spacing between
the vehicles under jam condition as 7.0 m. The speedflowdensity equation is given by
U = U
sf
(
(
(
j
k
k
1 and q = Uk
where U = spacemean speed (kmph); U
sf
= free mean speed (kmph); k = density (veh/km); k
j
=
jam density (veh/km); q = flow (veh/hr). The maximum flow (veh/hr) per lane for this condition is
equal to
(a) 2000 (b) 2500 (c) 3000 (d) None of these
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63. At a horizontal curve portion of a 4 lane undivided carriageway, a transition curve is to be introduced
to attain required superelevation. The design speed is 60 kmph and radius of the curve is 245 m.
Assume length of wheel base of a longest vehicle as 6 m, superelevation rate as 5% and rate of
introduction of this superelevation as 1 in 150. The length of the transition curve (m) required, if the
pavement is rotated about inner edge is.
(a) 81.4 (b) 85.0 (c) 91.5 (d) 110.2
64. Using IRC : 37 1984 Guidelines for the Design of Flexible Pavements and the following data,
choose the total thickness of the pavement.
No. of commercial vehicles when construction is completed = 2723 veh/day
Annual growth rate of the traffic = 5.0%
Design life of the pavement = 10 years
Vehicle damage factor = 2.4
CBR value of the subgrade soil = 5%
Data for 5% CBR value
No. of Standard Axels, msa Total Thickes, mm
20 620
25 640
30 670
40 700
(a) 620 mm (b) 640 mm (c) 670 mm (d) 700 mm
65. The observed magnetic bearing of a line OE was found to be 185 . It was later discovered that
station O had a local attraction of + 1.5 . The true bearing of the line OE, considering a magnetic a
magnetic declination of 3.5 E shall be
(a) 180 (b) 187 (c) 190 (d) 193
66. A Bench Mark (BM) with Reduced Level (RL) = 155.305 m has been established at the floor of a
room. It is required to find out the Rl of the underside of the roof (R) of the room using Spirit
Leveling. The Back Sight (BS) to the BM has been observed as 1.500 m whereas the ForeSight (FS) to
R has been observed as 0.575 m (Staff held inverted). The RL (m) of R will be
(a) 155.880 (b) 156.230 (c) 157.380 (d) 157.860
67. Consider the following figure, which is an extract from a contour map (scale = 1:20,000) of an area.
An alignment of a road at a ruling gradient of 4% is to be fixed from the point O and beyond. What
should be the radius of the arc with O as the center to get the point of a alignment on the next
contour on the map.
(a) 0.025 cm (b) 0.25 cm
(c) 2.5 cm (d) 5.0 cm
O
10m
30m
70m
50m
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68. In the figure given below, lengths PQ(WCB:30
0
) and QR (WCB:45
0
) respectively up to three places of
decimal are
(a) 273.205, 938.186 (b) 273.205, 551.815
(c) 551.815, 551.815 (d) 551.815, 938.186
69. During a leveling work along a falling gradient using a Dumpy level and a Staff of 3m length,
following successive readings were taken : 1.785, 2.935, 0.360, 1.320. What will be the correct order
of booking these four readings in a level book ? (BS : Back Sight, IS : Intermediate Sight, FS : Fore
Sight)
(a) BS, FS, BS, FS (b) BS, IS, FS, FS
(c) BS, IS, IS, FS (d) BS, IS, BS, FS
Common Data Questions
Common Data for Question 70, 71 :
Laboratory sieve analysis was carried out on a soil sample using a complete set of standard IS sieves. Out of
500g of soil used in the test, 200g was retained on IS 600 sieve, 250g was retained on IS 500 sieve and
the remaining 50g was retained on IS 425 sieve.
70. The coefficient of uniformity of the soil is
(a) 0.9 (b) 1.0 (c) 1.1 (d) 1.2
71. The classification of the soil is
(a) SP (b) SW (c) GP (d) GW
Common Data for Questions 72,73 :
For a catchment, the Scurve (or Shydrograph) due to a rainfall of intensity 1cm/hr is given by Q =1 (1+t)
exp (1) (t in hr and Q in m
3
/s).
72. What is the area of the catchment ?
(a) 0.01 km
2
(b) 0.36 km
2
(c) 1.00 km
2
(d) 1.28 km
2
73. What will be the ordinate of a 2hour unit hydrograph for this catchment at t=3 hour ?
(a) 0.13 m
3
/s (b) 0.20 m
3
/s (c) 0.27 m
3
/s (d) 0.54 m
3
/s
Common Data for Questions 74,75:
In a rapid sand filter, the time for reaching particle breakthrough (T
B
) is defined as the time elapsed from
start of filter run to the time at which the turbidity of the effluent from the filter is greater than 2.5 NTU. The
time for reaching terminal head loss (T
H
) is defined as the time elapsed from the start of the filter run to the
time when head loss across the filter is greater than 3m.
74. The effect of increasing the filter depth (while keeping all other conditions same) on T
B
and T
H
is
(a) T
B
increases and T
H
decreases (b) both T
B
and T
H
increase
(c) T
B
decreases and T
H
increases (d) both T
B
and T
H
decreases
N
E
P (100N, 200E)
R (1000N, 1000E)
Q
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75. The effect of increasing the filter loading rate (while keeping all other conditions same) on T
B
and T
H
is
(a) T
B
increases and T
H
decreases (b) both T
B
and T
H
increases
(c) T
B
decreases and T
H
increases (d) both T
B
and T
H
decreases
Linked Answer questions : Q.76 to Q.85 Carry two marks each
Statement of Linked Answer Question 76 and 77
Consider a propped cantilever beam ABC under two loads of magnitude P each as shown in the figure below.
Flexural rigidity of the beam is EI.
76. The reaction at C is
(a)
L 16
Pa 9
(upwards) (b)
L 16
Pa 9
(downwards)
(c)
L 8
Pa 9
(upwards) (d)
L 8
Pa 9
(downwards)
77. The rotation at B is
(a)
EI 16
PLa 5
(clockwise) (b)
EI 16
PLa 5
(anticlockwise)
(c)
EI 16
PLa 59
(clockwise) (d)
EI 16
PLa 59
(anticlockwise)
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 78 and 79:
In the design of beams for the limit state of colapse in flexure as per IS : 4562000, let the maximum strain in
concrete be limited to 0.0025 (in place of 0.0035). For this situation, consider a rectangular beam section with
breadth as 250 mm, effective depth as 350 mm, area of tension steel as 1500 mm
2
, and characteristics
strengths of concrete and steel as 30Mpa and 250 MPa respectively.
78. The depth of neutral axis for the balanced failure is
(a) 140 mm (b) 156 mm (c) 168 mm (d) 185 mm
79. At the limiting state of collapse in flexure, the force acting on the compression zone of the section is
(a) 326 kN (b) 389 kN (c) 424 kN (d) 542 kN
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 80 and 81
The average effective overburden pressure on 10 m thick homogeneous saturated clay layer is 150 kPa.
Consolidation test on undisturbed soil sample taken from the clay layer showed that the void ratio decreased
from 0.6 to 0.5 by increasing the stress intensity from 100 kPa to 300 kPa. (G=2.65)
80. The initial void ratio of the clay layer is
(a) 0.209 (b) 0.563 (c) 0.746 (d) 1.000
A B C
P
P
L L
a
a
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81. The total consolidation settlement of the clay layer due to the construction of a structure imposing an
additional stress intensity of 200 kPa is
(a) 0.10 m (b) 0.25 m (c) 0.35 m (d) 0.50 m
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 82 and 83
An upward flow of oil (mass density 800 kg/m
3
, dynamic viscosity 0.8 kg/ms) takes place under laminar
conditions in an inclined pipe of 0.1 m diameter as shown in the figure. The pressures at section 1 and 2 are
measured p1=435 kN/m
2
and p
2
= 200 kN/m
2
82. The discharge in the pipe is equal to
(a) 0.100 m
3
/s (b) 0.127 m
3
/s (c) 0.144 m
3
/s (d) 0.161 m
3
/s
83. If the flow is reversed, keeping the same discharge, and the pressure at section 1 is maintained as
435 kN/m
2
, the pressure at section 2 is equal to
(a) 488 kN/m
2
(b) 549 kN/m
2
(c) 586 kN/m
2
(d) 614 kN/m
2
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 84 and 85
A water sample contains the following dissolved
ions. [Na
+
] = 56 mg/L;[Ca
2+
]
= 40 mg/L;Mg
2+
]
= 30mg/L;[A1
3+
]
= 3mg/L; [HCO
3
]
= 190 mg/L; [Cl
] = 165 mg/L; Water Ph is 7
Atomic weights : Ca:40; Mg: 24;AI:27;H:1, C:12; O:16; Na:23; CI:35.5
84. The total hardness of the sample in mg/L as CaCO
3
is
(a) 484 (b) 450 (c) 242 (d) 225
85. The nonarbonate hardness of the sample in mg/L as CaCO
3
is
(a) 225 (b) 156 (c) 86 (d) 0
1
2
5m
45
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ANSWER KEY GATE 2006
1 (d) 2 (c) 3 (a) 4 (d) 5 (d) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (c) 9 (a) 10 (d)
11 (d) 12 (c) 13 (d) 14 (a) 15 (c) 16 (b) 17 (d) 18 (a) 19 (c) 20 (d)
21 (b) 22 (c) 23 (d) 24 (a) 25 (d) 26 (a) 27 (b) 28 (a) 29 (a) 30 (a)
31 (c) 32 (a) 33 (c) 34 (b) 35 (b) 36 (c) 37 (a) 38 (b) 39 (d) 40 (d)
41 (b) 42 (d) 43 (a) 44 (a) 45 (a) 46 (d) 47 (c) 48 (c) 49 (b) 50 (b)
51 (b) 52 (c) 53 (b) 54 (d) 55 (d) 56 (c) 57 (d) 58 (b) 59 (c) 60 (b)
61 (b) 62 (b) 63 (d) 64 (c) 65 (b) 66 (c) 67 (c) 68 (a) 69 (a) 70 (d)
71 (a) 72 (b) 73 * 74 (a) 75 (d) 76 (c) 77 (a) 78 (b) 79 (b) 80 (b)
81 (d) 82 (b) 83 (d) 84 (c) 85 (c)
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GATE CIVIL ENGINEERING 2007 (CE)
GATE 2007 Civil Engineering Question Paper
Q.1  Q.20 Carry One Mark Each.
1. The minimum and the maximum eigen velue of the matrix
(
(
(
(
1 1 3
1 5 1
3 1 1
are 2 and 6, respectively. What
is the other eigen value ?
(a) 5 (b) 3 (c) 1 (d) 1
2. The degree of the differential equation
3
2
2
x 2
dt
x d
+ is
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3
3. The solution for the differential equation
dx
dy
= x
2
y with the condition that y = 1 at x = 0 is
(A) y =
x 2
1
e (B) ln(y) = 4
3
x
3
+ (C) ln(y) =
2
x
2
(D) y =
3
x
3
e
4. An axially loaded bar is subjected to a normal stress of 173 MPa. The shear stress in the bar is
(a) 75 MPa (b) 86.5 MPa (c) 100 MPa (d) 122.3 MPa
5. A steel column, pinned at both ends, has a buckling load of 200kN. If the column is restrained against
lateral movement at its midheight, its buckling load will be
(A) 200kN (B) 283kN (C) 400kN (D) 800kN
6. The stiffness coefficient k
ij
indicates
(a) force at i due to a unit deformation at j
(b) deformation at j due to a unit force at i
(c) deformation at i due to a unit force j
(s) force at j due to a unit deformation i
7. For an isotropic material, the relationship between the Youngs modulus (E), shear modulus (G) and
Poissons ratio ( ) is given by
(A) G =
) 1 ( 2
E
+
(B)
) 1 ( 2
G
E
+
=
(C) G =
) 2 1 (
E
+
(D) G =
) 1 ( 2
E
8. A clay soil sample is tested in a triaxial apparatus in consolidateddrained conditions at a cell pressure
of 100 kN/m
2
. What will be the pore water pressure at a deviator stress of 40 kN/m
2
?
(a) 0 kN/m
2
(b) 20 kN/m
2
(c) 40 kN/m
2
(d) 60 kN/m
2
9. The number of blows observed in a Standard Penetration Test (SPT) for different penetration depths
are given as follows
Penetration of sampler Number of blows
0150 mm 6
150300 8
300450 mm 10
The observed N value is
(a) 8 (b) 14 (c) 18 (d) 24
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10. The vertical stress at some depth below the corner of a 2m x 3m rectangular footing due to a certain
load intensity is 100 kN/m
2
. What will be the vertical stress in kN/m
2
below the centre of a 4m x 6m
rectangular footing at the same depth and same load intensity?
(a) 25 (b) 100 (c) 200 (d) 400
11. There is a free overfall at the end of a long open channel. For a given flow rate, the critical depth is
less than the normal depth. What gradually varied flow profile will occur in the channel for this flow
rate ?
(a) M
1
(b) M
2
(c) M
3
(d) S
1
12. The consumptive use of water for a crop during a particular stage of growth is 2.0 mm/day. The
maximum depth of available water in the root zone is 60 mm. Irrigation is required when the amount
of available water in the root zone. Frequency of irrigation should be
(a) 10 days (b) 15 days (c) 20 days (d) 25 days
13. As per the Laceys method for design of a alluvail channels, identify the true statement from the
following
(a) Wetted perimeter increases with an increase in design discharge
(b) Hydraulic radius increases with an increase in silt factor.
(c) Wetted perimeter decreases with an increase in design discharge.
(d) Wetted perimeter increases with an increase in silt factor
14. At two points 1 and 2 in a pipeline the velocities and V and 2V, respectively. Both the points are at
the same elevation. The fluid density is . The flow can be assumed to be in compressible, inviscid,
steady and irrotational. The difference in pressures P
1
and P
2
at points at 1 and 2 is
(a) 0.5 V
2
(b) 1.5 V
2
(c) 2 V
2
(d) 3 V
2
15. The presence of hardness in excess of permissible limit causes
(a) cardio vascular problems
(b) skin discolouration
(c) calcium deficiency
(d) increased laundry expenses
16. The dispersion of pollutants in atmosphere is maximum when
(a) environmental lapse rate is greater than adiabatic lapse rate
(b) environmental lapse rate is less than adiabatic lapse rate
(c) environmental lapse rate is equal to adiabatic lapse rate
(d) maximum mixing depth is equal to zero
17. The alkalinity and hardness of a water sample are 250 mg/L and 350 mg/L as CaCO
3
, respectively.
The water has
(a) 350 mg/L carbonate hardness and zero noncarbonate hardness.
(b) 250 mg/L carbonate hardness and zero noncarbonate hardness.
(c) 250 mg/L carbonate hardness and 350 mg/L noncarbonate hardness.
(d) 250 mg/L carbonate hardness and 100 mg/L noncarbonate hardness.
18. The consistency and flow resistance of bitumen can be determined from the following
(a) Ductitility test
(b) Penetration test
(c) Softening point test
(d) Viscosity test
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19. If a twolane national highway and a twolane state highway intersect at right angles, the number of
potential conflict points at the intersecton, assuming that both the roads are twoway is
(a) 11 (b) 17 (c) 24 (d) 32
20. In signal design as per Indian Roads Congress specifications, if the sum of the ratios of normal flows
to saturation flow of two directional traffic flow is 0.50 and the total lost time per cycle is 10 seconds,
the optimum cycle length in seconds is
(a) 100 (b) 80 (c) 60 (d) 40
Q. 21 to Q.75 carry two marks each :
21. For what values of and  the following simultaneous equations have an infinite number of
solutions?
x+y+z = 5; x+3y+3z = 9;
x+2y+az = 
(a) 2,7 (b) 3,8 (c) 8,3 (d) 7,2
22. A velocity vector is given as
k yz 3 j y 2 i xy 5 V
2 2
+ + =
The divergence of this velocity vector a (1,1,1) is
(a) 9 (b) 10 (c) 14 (d) 15
23. A body originally at 60 C cools down to 40 C in 15 minutes when kept in air at a temperature of 25 C.
What will be the temperature of the body at the end of 30 minutes ?
(a) 35.2 C (b) 31.5 C (c) 28.7 C (d) 15 C
24. The following equation needs to be numerically solved using the NewtonRaphson method.
x
3
+4x9 = 0
The iterative equation for this purpose is (k indicates the iteration level)
(A)
4 x 3
9 x 2
x
2
k
3
k
1 k
+
+
=
+
(B)
4 x 3
4 x 2
x
2
k
2
k
1 k
+
+
=
+
(C) 4 x 3 x x
2
k k 1 k
+ =
+
(D)
2 x 9
3 x 4
x
2
k
2
k
1 k
+
+
=
+
25. Evaluate
}
0
dt
t
t sin
(a) t (b) t /2 (c) t /4 (d) t /3
26. Potential function  is given as  = x
2
+ y
2
. What will be the stream function ( ) with the condition
= 0 at x = y = 0 ?
(a) 2xy (b) x
2
+ y
2
(c) x
2
y
2
(d) 2x
2
y
2
27. The inverse of the 2 2 matrix
(
(
7 5
2 1
is
(A)
(
(
1 5
2 7
(B)
(
(
1 5
2 7
(C)
(
(
1 5
2 7
3
1
(D)
(
(
1 5
2 7
3
1
28. Given that one root of the equation x
3
10x
2
+ 31x 30 = 0 is 5, the other two roots are
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 3
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29. If the standard deviation of the spot speed of vehicles in a highway is 8.8 kmph and the mean speed
of the vehicles is 33 kmph, the coefficient of variation in speed is
(a) 0.1517 (b) 0.1867 (c) 0.2666 (d) 0.3646
30. A metal bar of length 100 mm is inserted between two rigid supports and its temperature is increased
by 10 C. If the coefficient of thermal expansion is 12 10
6
per C and the youngs modulus is 2
10
5
MPa, the stress in the bar is
(a) zero (b) 12 MPa (c) 24 MPa (d) 2400 MPa
31. A rigid bar is suspended by three rods made of the same material as shown in the figure. The area
and length of the central rod are 3A and L, respectively while that of the two outer rods are 2A and
2L, respectively. If a downward force of 50 kN is applied to the rigid bar, the forces in the central and
each of the outer rods will be
(a) 16.67 kN each (b) 30 kN and 15 kN
(c) 30 kN and 10 kN (d) 21.4 kN and 14.3 kN
32. The maximum and minimum shear stresses in a hollow circular shaft of outer diameter 20 mm and
thickness 2mm, subjected to a torque of 92.7 N.m will be
(a) 59 MPa and 47.2 MPa (b) 100 MPa and 80 MPa
(c) 118 MPa and 160 MPa (d) 200 MPa and 160 MPa
33. The shear stress at the neutral axis in a beam of triangular section with a base of 40 mm and height
20 mm, subjected to a shear force of 3 kN is
(a) 3 MPa (b) 6 MPa (c) 10 MPa (d) 20 MPa
34. U
1
and U
2
are the strain energies stored in a prismatic bar due to axial tensile forces P
1
and P
2
,
respectively. The strain energy U stored in the same bar due to combined action of P
1
and P
2
will be.
(a) U = U
1
+ U
2
(b) U = U
1
U
2
(c) U < U
1
+ U
2
(d) U > V
1
+ U
2
35. The right triangular truss is made of members having equal cross sectional area of 1550 mm
2
and
Youngs modulus of 2 10
5
MPa. The horizontal deflection of the joint Q is
(a) 2.47 mm (b) 10.25 mm (c) 14.31 mm (d) 15.68 mm
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GATE CIVIL ENGINEERING 2007 (CE)
36. The influence line diagram (ILD) shown is for the member
(a) PS (b) RS (c) PQ (d) QS
37. Consider the following statements :
I. The compressive strength of concrete decreases with increase in watercement ratio of the
concrete mix.
II. Water is added to the concrete mix for hydration of cement and workability.
III. Creep and shrinkage of concrete are independent of the watercement ratio in the concrete
mix.
The true statements are
(a) I and II (b) I, II and III (c) II and III (d) only II
38. The percentage loss of prestress due to anchorage slip of 3 mm in a concrete beam of length 30 m
which is posttensioned by a tendon with an initial stress of 1200 N/mm
2
and modulus of elasticity
equal to 2.1 x 10
5
N/mm
2
is
(a) 0.0175 (b) 0.175 (c) 1.75 (d) 17.5
39. A concrete beam of rectangular crosssection of size 120 mm (width) and 200 mm (depth) is
prestressed by a straight tendon to an effective force of 150 kN at an eccentricity of 20 mm (below
the centroidal axis in the depth direction). The stresses at the top and bottom fibres of the section
are
(a) 2.5 N/mm
2
(compression), 10N/mm
2
(compression), 10N/mm
2
(compression).
(b) 10N/mm
2
(tension), 2.5 N/mm
2
(compression)
(c) 3.75 N/mm
2
(tension), 3.75 N/mm
2
(compression)
(d) 2.75 N/mm
2
(compression), 3.75 N/mm
2
(compression)
40. Consider the following statements :
I. Modulus of elasticity of concrete increases with increase in compressive strength of concrete.
II. Brittleness of concrete increases with decrease in compressive strength of concrete.
III. Shear strength of concrete increases with increase in compressive strength of concrete.
The TRUE statements are
(a) II and III (b) I, II and III (c) I and II (d) I and III
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41. A steel flat of rectangular section of size 70 6 mm is connected to a gusset plate by three bolts each
having a shear capacity of 15 kN in holes having diameter 11.5 mm. If the allowable tensile stress in
the flat is 150 MPa, the maximum tension that can be applied to the flat is
(a) 42.3 kN
(b) 52.65 kN
(c) 59.5 kN
(d) 63.0 kN
42. A bracket connection is made with four bolts of 10 mm diameter and supports a load of 10 kN at an
eccentricity of 100 m. The maximum force to be resisted by any bolt will be
(a) 5 kN (b) 6.5 kN (c) 6.8 kN (d) 7.16 kN
43. The plastic collapse load W
p
for the
propped cantilever supporting two
point loads as shown in figure terms
of plastic moment capacity, M
p
is
given by
(a) 3 M
p
/L (b) 4M
P
/L
(c) 4M
P
/L (d) 6M
P
/L
44. Sieve analysis on a dry soil sample of mass 1000 g showed that 980 g and 270 g of soil pass through
4.75 mm and 0.075 mm sieve, respectively. The liquid limit and plastic limits of the soil fraction
passing through 425 sieves are 40% and 18% respectively. The soil may be classified as
(a) SC (b) MI (c) CI (d) SM
45. The water content of a saturated soil and the specific gravity of soil solids were found to be 30% and
2.70, respectively. Assuming the unit weight of water to be 10 kN/m
3
, the saturated unit weight
(kN/m
3
) and the void ratio of the soil are
(a) 19.4, 0.81 (b) 18.5, 0.30 (c) 19.4, 0.45 (d) 18.5, 0.45
30
30
40 40
P
10kN
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46. The factor of safety of an infinite soil slope shown in the figure having the properties
c = 0, c = 0,  = 35
0
,
dry
= 16 kN/m
3
and
sat
= 20 kN/m
3
is approximately equal to
(a) 0.70 (b) 0.80 (c) 1.00 (d) 1.20
47. Match the following groups
Group = I Group  II
P Constant head permeability test 1. Pile foundations
Q Consolidation test 2. Specific gravity
R Pycnometer test 3. Clay soil
S Negative skin friction 4. Sand
(a) P4, Q3, R2, S1 (b) P4, Q2, R3, S1
(c) P3, Q4, R2 S1 (d) P4, Q1, R2, S3
48. The bearing capacity of a rectangular footing of plan dimensions 1.5 m x 3m resting on the surface of
a sand deposit was estimated s 600 kN/m
2
of a sand deposit was estimated as 600 kN/m
2
when the
water table is far below the base of the footing. The bearing capacities in kN/m
2
when the water level
rises to depths of 3m, 1.5 m and 0.5 m below the base of the footing are
(a) 600, 600, 400 (b) 600, 450, 350 (c) 600, 500, 250 (d) 600, 400, 250
49. What is the ultimate capacity in kN of the pile group sown in the figure assuming the group to fail as
a single block ?
(a) 921.6 (b) 1177.6 (c) 2438.6 (d) 3481.6
10m
8m
30
10m
1.2m c/c
1.2m c/c
0.4m diameter piles
Clay soil
C
u
= 40kN/m
2
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50. A horizontal water jet with a velocity of 10 m/s and cross sectional area of 10 mm
2
strikes a flat plate
held normal to the flow direction. The density of water is 1000 kg/m3. The total force on the plate
due to the jet is
(a) 100 N (b) 10 N (c) 1 N (d) 0.1 N
51. A 1: 50scale model of a spillway is to be tested in the laboratory. The discharge in the prototype is
1000 M
3
/s. The discharge to be maintained in the model test is
(a) 0.057 m
3
/s (b) 0.08m
2
/s (c) 0.57 m
3
/s (d) 5.7 m
3
/s
52. A triangular open channel has a vertex angle to 90 and carries flow at a critical depth of 0.30 m. The
discharge in the channel is
(a) 0.08 m
3
/s (b) 0.11 m
3
/s (c) 0.15 m
3
/s (d) 0.2 m
3
/s
53. Flow rate of a fluid (density = 1000 kg/m
3
) in a small diameter tube is 800 mm
3
/s. The length and
the diameter of the tube are 2 m and 0.5 mm, respectively. The pressure drop in 2 m length is equal
to 2.0 MPa. The viscosity of the fluid is
(a) 0.025 N.s/m
2
(b) 0.012 N.s/m
2
(c) 0.00192 N.s/m
2
(d) 0.00102 N.s/m
2
54. The flow rate in a wide rectangular open channel is 2.0 m
3
/s per metre width. The channel bed slope
is 0.002. The Mannings roughness coefficient is 0.012. The slope of the channel is classified as
(a) Critical (b) Horizontal (c) Mild (d) Steep
55. The culturable command area for a distributary channel is 20,000 hectares. Wheat is grown in the
entire area and the intensity of irrigation is 50%. The kor period for wheat is 30 days and the kor
water depth is 120 mm. The outlet discharge for the distributary should be
(a) 2.85 m
3
/s (b) 3.21 m
3
/s (c) 4.63 m
3
/s (d) 5.23 m
3
/s
56. An isolated 4hour storm occurred over a catchment as follows
Time
1
st
hour 2
nd
hour 3
rd
hour 4
th
hour
Rainfall (mm) 9 28 12 7
The  index for the catchment is 10 mm/h. The estimated runoff depth from the catchment due to
the above storm is
(a) 10 mm (b) 16 mm (c) 20 mm (d) 23 mm
57. Two electrostatic precipitators (ESPs) are in series. The fractional efficiencies of the upstream and
downstream ESPs for size d
p
are 80% and 65%, respectively. What is the overall efficiency of the
system for the same d
p
?
(a) 100% (b) 93% (c) 80% (d) 65%
58. 50 g of CO
2
and 25 g of CH
4
are produced from the decomposition of municipal solid waste (MSW)
with a formula weight of 120 g. What is the average per capita green house gas production in a city
of 1 million people with a MSW production rate of 500 ton/day ?
(a) 104 g/day (b) 120 g/day (c) 208 g/day (d) 313 g/day
59. The extra widening required for a twolane national highway at a horizontal curve of 300 m radius,
considering a wheel base of 8 m and a design speed of 100 kmph is
(a) 0.42 m (b) 0.62 m (c) 0.82 m (d) 0.92 m
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60. While designing a hill road with a ruling gradient of 6%, if a sharp horizontal curve of 50 m radius is
encountered, the compensated gradient at the curve as per the Indian Roads Congress specifications
should be
(a) 4.4% (b) 4.75% (c) 5.0% (d) 5.25%
61. The design speed on a road is 60 kmph. Assuming the driver reaction time of 2.5 seconds and
coefficient of friction of pavement surface as 0.35, the required slopping distance for twoway traffic
on a single lane road is
(a) 82.1 m (b) 102.4 m (c) 164.2 m (d) 186.4 m
62. The width of the expansion joint is 20 mm in a cement concrete pavement. The laying temperature is
20 C and the maximum slab temperature in summer is 60 C. The coefficient of thermal expansion of
concrete is 1010
6
mm/mm/
o
C and the joint filler compresses up to 50% of the thickness. The
spacing between expansion joints should be
(a) 20 m (b) 25 m (c) 30 m (d) 40 m
63. The following data pertains to the number of commercial vehicles per day for the design of a flexible
pavement for a national highway as per IRC:371984
Type of commercial Number of vehicles per day
Vehicle Damage Factor
Vehicle considering the number f lanes
Two axle trucks 2000 5
Tandem axle trucks 200 6
Assuming a traffic growth factor of 7.5% per annum for both the types of vehicles, the cumulative
number of standard axle load repetitions (in million) for a design life of ten years is
(a) 44.6 (b) 57.8 (c) 62.4 (d) 78.7
64. Match the following tests on aggregate and its properties
TEST PROPERTY
P. Crushing test 1. Hardness
Q. Los Angeles abrasion test 2. Weathering
R. Soundness test 3. Shape
S. Angularity test 4. Strength
(a) P2, Q1, R4, S3 (b) P4, Q2, R3, S1
(c) P3, Q2, R1, S4 (d) P4, Q1, R2, S2
65. The plan of a map was photo copied to a reduced size such that a line originally 100 mm, measures
90 mm. The original scale of the plan was 1 : 1000. The revised scale is
(a) 1 : 900 (b) 1 : 111 (c) 1 : 1121 (d) 1: 1221
66. The following table gives data of consecutive coordinates in respect of a closed theodolite traverse
PQRSP.
Station Northing, m Southing, m Easting, m Westing, m
P 400.75 300.5
Q 100.25 199.25
R 199.0 399.75
S 300.0 200.5
The magnitude and direction of error of closure in whole circle bearing are
(a) 2.0 m and 45 (b) 2.0 m and 315
(c) 2.82 m and 315 (d) 3.42 m and 45
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67. The following measurements were made during testing a leveling instrument.
Staff Reading at Instrument at
P
1
Q
1
P 2.800 m 1.700 m
Q 2.700 m 1.800 m
P
1
is close to P and Q
1
is close to Q. If the reduced level of station P is 100.000 m, the reduced level
of station Q is
(a) 99.000 m (b) 100.000 m (c) 101.000 m (d) 102.000 m
68. Two straight lines intersect at an angle of 60 . The radius of a curve joining the two straight lines is
600m. The length of long chord and midordinates in metres of the curve are
(a) 8.4, 600.0 (b) 600.0, 80.4 (c) 600.0, 39.89 (d) 40,89, 300
69. The magnetic bearing of a line AB is S 45 E and the declination is 5 West. The true bearing of the
line AB is
(a) S 45 E (b) S 40 E (c) S 50 E (d) S 50 W
COMMON DATA QUESTIONS
Common Data for Questions 70,71
Water is flowing through the permeability apparatus as shown in the figure. The coefficient of permeability of
the soil is k m/s and the porosity of the soil sample is 0.50.
70. The total head, elevation head and pressure head in metres of water at the point R shown in the
figure are
(a) 0.8, 0.4, 0.4 (b) 1.2, 0.4, 0.8 (c) 0.4, 0, 0.4 (d) 1.6, 0.4, 1.2
71. What are discharge velocity and seepage velocity through the soil sample ?
(A) k, 2k (B) 2/3k, 4/3k (C) 2k,k (D) 4/3k, 2/3k
Common Data for Questions 72 and 73 :
Ordinates of a 1hour unit hydrograph at 1 hour intervals, starting from time t = 0, are 0, 2, 6, 4, 2, 1 and 0
m
3
/s.
72. Catchment area represented by this unit hydrograph is
(a) 1.0 km
2
(b) 2.0 km
2
(c) 3.2 km
2
(d) 5.4 km
2
73. Ordinate of a 3hour unit hydrograph for the catchment at t= 3 hours is
(a) 2.0 m
3
/s (b) 3.0 m
3
/s (c) 4.0 m
3
/s (d) 5.0 m
3
/s
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Common Data for Questions 74 and 75 :
A completely mixed activated sludge process is used to treat a wastewater flow of 1 million litres per day (1
MLD) having a BOD
5
of 200 mg/L. The biomass concentration in the aeration tank is 2000 mg/L and the
concentration of the net biomass leaving the system is 50 mg/L. The aeration tank has a volume of 200 m
3
.
74. What is the hydraulic retention time of the wastewater in aeration tank ?
(a) 0.2 h (b) 4.8 h (c) 10 h (d) 24 h
75. What is the average time for which the biomass stays in the system ?
(a) 5 h (b) 8 h (c) 2 days (d) 8 days
Linked Answer questions : Q.76 to Q.85 carry two marks each.
Statement of Linked Answer Questions 76 and 77.
A two span continuous beam having equal spans each of length L is subjected to a uniformly distributed load
w per unit length. The beam has constant flexural rigidly.
76. The reaction at the middle support is
(a) e L (b)
2
L 5 e
(c)
4
L 5 e
(d)
16
L
2
e
77. The bending moment at the middle support is
(a) 4wL
2
(b) 8wL
2
(c) 12wL
2
(d) 16wL
2
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 78 and 79
A singly reinforced rectangular concrete beam has a width of 150 mm and an effective depth of 330 mm. The
characteristics compressive strength of concrete is 20 MPa and the characteristics tensile strength of steel is
415 MPa. Adopt the stress block for concrete as given in IS 4562000 and take limiting value of depth of
neutral axis as 0.48 times the effective depth of the beam.
78. The limiting value of the moment of resistance of the beam is kN.m is
(A) 0.14 (B) 0.45 (C) 45.08 (D) 156.82
79 The limiting area of tension steel in mm
2
is
(A) 473.9 (B) 412.3 (C) 373.9 (D) 312.3
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 80 and 81
The ground conditions at a site are as shown in the figure. The water table at the site which was initially at a
depth of 5m below the ground level got permanently lowered to a depth of 15m below the ground level due
to pumping of water over a few years. Assume the following data
i. unit weight of water = 10kN/m
3
ii. unit weight of sand above water table = 18kN/m
3
iii. unit weight of sand and clay below the water table = 20kN/m
3
iv. coefficient of volume compressibility = 0.25m
2
/MN
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80. What is the change in the effective stress in kN/m2 at middepth of the clay layer due to the lowering
of the water table?
(A) 0 (B) 20 (C) 80 (D) 100
81. What is the compression of the clay layer in mm due to the lowering of the water table?
(A) 125 (B) 100 (C) 25 (D) 0
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 82 and 83
A rectangular open channel needs to be designed to carry a flow of 2.0 m
3
/s under uniform flow conditions.
The Mannings roughness coefficient is 0.018. The channel should be such that the flow depth is equal to half
the width, and the Froude number is equal to 0.5
82. The bed slope of the channel to be provided is
(a) 0.0012 (b) 0.0021 (c) 0.0025 (d) 0.0052
83. Keeping the width, flow depth and roughness the same, if the bed slope of the above channel is
doubled, the average, boundary shear stress under uniform flow conditions is
(a) 5.6 N/m
2
(b) 10.8 N/m
2
(c) 12.3 N/m
2
(d) 17.2 N/m
2
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 84 and 85
A plain sedimentation tank with a length of 20m, width of 10 m, and a depth of 3 m is used in a water
treatment plant to treat 4 million litres of water per day (4 MLD). The average temperature of water is 20 C.
The dynamic viscosity of water is 1.002 x 103 N.s/m
2
at 20 C. Density of water is 998.2 kg/M
3
. Average
specific gravity of particles is 2.65.
84. What is the surface overflow rate in the sedimentation tank ?
(a) 20 m
3
/m
2
/day (b) 40 m
3
/m
2
/day
(c) 67 m
3
/m
2
day (d) 133 m
3
/m
2
/day
85. What is the minimum diameter of the particle which can be removed with 100% efficiency in the
above sedimentation tank?
(a) 11.8 10
3
mm (b) 16.0 10
3
mm
(c) 50 10
3
(d) 160 10
3
mm
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GATE 2008 Civil Engineering Question Paper
1 to 20 carry one mark each
1 The product of matrices (PQ)

P is
(A) P
1
(B) Q
1
(C) P
1
Q
1
(D) PQP
1
2 The general solution of
2
2
dx
y d
+ y = 0 is
(A) y=P cos x + Q sin x (B) y=P cos x
(C) y = P six x (D) y = P sin
2
x
3 A mild steel specimen is under uniaxial tensile stress. Youngs modules and yield stress for mild steel
are 2 10
5
MPa respectively. The maximum amount of strain energy per unit volume that can be
stored in this specimen without permanent set is
(A) 156 Nmm/mm
3
(B) 15.6 Nmm/mm
3
(C) 1.56 Nmm/mm
3
(D) 0.156 Nmm/mm
3
4 A reinforced concrete structure has to be constructed along a sea coast. The minimum grade of
concrete to be used as per IS: 4562000 is
(A) M 15 (B) M 20 (C) M 25 (D) M 30
5 In the design of a reinforced concrete bean the requirement for bond is not getting satisfied. The
economical option to satisfy the requirement for bond is by
(A) bundling of bars
(B) providing smaller diameter bars more in number
(C) providing larger diameter bars less in number
(D) providing same diameter bars more in number
6 The shape of the crosssection, which has a largest shape factor, is
(A) rectangular (B) Isection (C) diamond (D) solid circular
7 Group symbols assigned to silty sand and clayey sand are respectively
(A) SS and CS (B) SM and CS (C) SM and SC (D) MS and CS
8 When a retaining wall moves away from the backfill, the pressure exerted on the wall is termed as
(A) Passive earth pressure
(B) Swelling pressure
(C) Pore pressure
(D) Active earth pressure
9 Compaction by vibratory roller is the best method of compaction in case of
(A) moist silty sand
(B) well graded dry sand
(C) clay of medium compressibility
(D) silt of high compressibility
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10 A person standing on the bank of a canal drops a stone on the water surface. He notices that the
disturbance on the water in not traveling upstream. This is because the flow in the canal is
(A) subcritical (B) supercritical (C) steady (D) uniform
11 A flood wave with a known inflow hydrograph is routed through a large reservoir. The outflow
hydrograph will have
(A) attenuated peak with reduced timebase
(B) attenuated peak with increased timebase
(C) increased peak with increased timebase
(D) increased peak with reduced timebase
12 A stable channel is to be designed for a discharge of Q m
3
/s with silt factor f as per Laceys method.
The mean flow velocity (m/s) in the channel is obtained by
(A) (Qf
2
/ 140)
1/6
(B) (Qf / 140)
1/3
(C) (Q
2
f
2
/ 140)
1/6
(D) 0.48 (Q / f)
1/3
13 The base width of an elementary profile of gravity dam of height H is b. The specific gravity of the
material of the dam is G and uplift pressure coefficient is K. the correct relationship for no tension at
the heel is given by
(A)
K G
1
H
b
= (B) K G
H
b
= (C)
K G
1
H
b
= (D)
K G K
1
H
b
=
14 Two primary air pollutants are
(A) sulphur oxide and ozone (B) nitrogen oxide and peroxyacetylnitrate
(C) sulphur oxide and hydrocarbon (D) ozone and peroxyacetynitrate
15 Two biodegradable components of municipal solid waste are
(A) plastics and wood (B) cardboard and glass
(C) leather and tin cans (D) food wastes and garden trimmings
16 The specific gravity of paving bitumen as per IS:73 1992 lies between
(A) 1.10 and 1.06 (B) 1.06 and 1.02
(C) 1.02 and 0.97 (D) 0.97 and 0.92
17 A combined value of flakiness and elongation index is to be determined for a sample of aggregates.
The sequence in which the two tests are conducted is
(A) elongation index test followed by flakiness index test on the whole sample.
(B) flakiness index test followed by elongation index test on the whole sample.
(C) flakiness index test followed by elongation index test on the nonflaky aggregates.
(D) elongation index test followed by flakiness index test on nonelongated aggregates.
18 The capacities of Oneway 1.5m wide sidewalk (persons per hour) and Oneway 2lane urban road
(PCU per hour, with no frontage access, no standing vehicles and very little cross traffic) are
respectively
(A) 1200 and 2400 (B) 1800 and 2000
(C) 1200 and 1500 (D) 2000 and 1200
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19 The shape of the STOP sign according to IRC: 672001 is
(A) circular (B) triangular
(C) octagonal (D) rectangular
20 The type of surveying in which the curvature of the earth is taken into account is called
(A) Geodetic surveying (B) Plane surveying
(C) Preliminary surveying (D) Topographical surveying
21 to 75 carry two marks each
21 The equation k
1
2
2
z
2
2
z
h
k
x
h
c
c
+
c
c
= 0 can be transformed to
2
2
2
1
2
z
h
x
h
c
c
+
c
c
= 0 by substituting
(A) x
1
= x
x
z
k
k
(B) x
1
= x
z
x
k
k
(C) x
1
= x
z
x
k
k
(D) x
1
= x
x
z
k
k
22. The value of
} }
3
0
x
0
) y x 6 ( dx dy is
(A) 13.5 (B) 27.0 (C) 40.5 (D) 54.0
23 Three values of x and y are to be fitted in a straight line in the form y=a+bx by the method of least
squares. Given: E x=6, E y=21, E x
2
=14 and E xy=46, the values of a and b are respectively
(A) 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 2 (C) 2 and 1 (D) 3 and 2
24 Solution of
dx
dy
=
y
x
at x = 1 and y = 3 is
(A) xy
2
= 2 (B) x+y
2
= 4 (C) x
2
y
2
= 2 (D) x
2
+y
2
=4
25 If probability density function of a random variable X is
f(x) = x
2
for 1 s x s 1, and
= 0 for any other value of x
Then, the percentage probability P 
.

\

s s
3
1
x
3
1
is
(A) 0.247 (B) 2.47 (C) 24.7 (D) 247
26 The Eigen values of the matrix [P] =
(
(
5 2
5 4
(A) 7 and 8 (B) 6 and 5 (C) 3 and 4 (D) 1 and 2
27 A person on a trip has a choice between private car and public transport. The probability of using a
private car is 0.45. While using the public transport, further choices available are bus and metro, out
of which the probability of commuting by a bus is 0.55. In such a situation, the probability (rounded
up to two decimals) of using a car, bus and metro, respectively would be
(A) 0.45, 0.30 and 0.25 (B) 0.45, 0.25 and 0.30
(C) 0.45, 0.55 and 0.00 (D) 0.45, 0.35 and 0.20
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GATE CIVIL ENGINEERING 2008 (CE)
28 The following simultaneous equations
x+y+z=3
x+2y+3z=4
x+4y+kz=6
will NOT have a unique solution for k equal to
(A) 0 (B) 30 (C) 6 (D) 7
29 The inner (dot) product of two vectors P
and Q
is zero. The angle (degrees) between the two
vectors is
(A) 0 (B) 5 (C) 90 (D) 120
30 Crosssection of a column consisting of two
steel strips, each of thickness t and width b is
shown in the figure below. The critical loads of
the column with perfect bond and without bond
between the strips are P and P
0
respectively.
The ration P/P
0
is
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8
31 A rigid bar GH of length L is supported by
a hinge and a spring of stiffness K as
shown in the figure below. The buckling
load, P
cr '
for the bar will be
(A) 0.5 KL
(B) 0.8 KL
(C) 1.0KL
(D) 1.2KL
32 The degree of static indeterminacy of the rigid
frame having two internal hinges as shown in the
figure below, is
(A) 8
(B) 7
(C) 6
(D) 5
33 The members EJ and IJ of a steel truss
shown in the figure below are subjected
to a temperature rise of 30 C. The
coefficient of thermal expansion of steel
is 0.000012 per C per unit length. The
displacement (mm) of joint E relative to
joint H along the direction HE of truss, is
(A) 0.255
(B) 0.589
(C) 0.764
(D) 1.026
t
t
b
P
K
H
L
G
H
G
F
E
I
J
E J
I
H
G
3000mm 3000mm
3
0
0
0
m
m
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GATE CIVIL ENGINEERING 2008 (CE)
34 The maximum shear stress in a solid shaft of circular crosssection having diameter subjected to a
torque T is t . If the torque is increased by four times and the diameter of the shaft is increased by
two times, the maximum shear stress in the shaft will be
(A) 2t (B) t (C) t /2 (D) t /4
35 The span(s) to be loaded uniformly for maximum positive (upward) reaction at support P, as shown in
the figure below, is (are)
(A) PQ only (B) PQ and QR (C) QR and RS (D) PQ and RS
36 A vertical PQ of length L is fixed at its top end P and has a flange to the bottom end A weight W is
dropped vertically from a height h (<L) on to the flange. The axial stress in the rod can be reduced
by
(A) increasing the length of the rod
(B) decreasing the length of the rod
(C) decreasing the area of crosssection of the rod
(D) increasing the modulus of elasticity of the material
37 Unfactored maximum bending moments at a section of a reinforced concrete beam resulting from a
frame analysis are 50, 80, 120 and 180kNm under dead, live, wind and earthquake loads respectively.
The design moment (kNm) as per IS: 456 2000 for the limit state of collapse (flexure) is
(A) 195 (B) 250 (C) 345 (D) 372
38 A reinforced concrete column contains longitudinal steel equal to 1 percent of net crosssectional area
of the column. Assume modular ration as 10. the loads carried (using the elastic theory) by the
longitudinal steel and the net area of concrete, are P
s
and P
c
respectively. The ration P
s
/P
c
expressed
as percent is
(A) 0.1 (B) 1 (C) 1.1 (D) 10
39 A pretensioned concrete member of section 200mm 250mm contains tendons of area 500 mm
2
at
the centre of gravity of the section. The prestress in tendons is 1000N/mm
2
. Assuming modular ratio
as 10, the stress (N/mm
2
) in concrete is
(A) 11 (B) 9 (C) 7 (D) 5
40 Rivets and bolts subjected to both shear stress ( t
vf, cal
) and axial tensile stress ( o
tf,cal
) shall be so
proportioned that the stresses do not exceed the respective allowable stresses t
vf
and o
tf
, and the
value of


.

\

o
o
+
t
t
tf
cal , tf
vf
cal , vf
does not exceed
(A) 1.0 (B) 1.2 (C) 1.4 (D) 1.8
P Q R S
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41 A continuous beam is loaded as shown in the figure below. Assuming a plastic moment capacity equal
to MP, the minimum load at which the beam would collapse is
(A)
L
M 4
p
(B)
L
M 6
p
(C)
L
M 8
p
(D)
L
M 10
p
42 The maximum tensile stress at the section X  X shown in the figure below is
(A)
bd
P 8
(B)
bd
P 6
(C)
bd
P 4
(D)
bd
P 2
43 The stepped cantilever is subjected to movements, M as shown in the figure below. The vertical
deflection at the free end (neglecting the self weight) is
(A)
EI 8
ML
2
(B)
EI 4
ML
2
(C)
EI 2
ML
2
(D) Zero
44 The liquid limit (LL), plastic limit (PL) and shrinkage limit (SL) of a cohesive soil satisfy the relation
(A) LL>PL<SL (B) LL>PL>SL (C) LL<PL<SL (D) LL<PL>SL
45 A footing 2m 1m exerts a uniform pressure of 150kN/mm
2
on the soil. Assuming a load dispersion
of 2 vertical to 1 horizontal, the average vertical stress (kN/m
2
) at 1.0m below the footing is
(A) 50 (B) 75 (C) 80 (D) 100
46 A direct shear test was conducted on a cohesionless soil (c=0) specimen under a normal stress of
200kN/m
2
. The specimen failed at a shear stress of 100kN/m2. The angle of internal friction of the
soil (degrees) is
(A) 26.6 (B) 29.5 (C) 30.0 (D) 32.6
47 A pile of 0.50m diameter and length 10m is embedded in a deposit of clay. The undrained strength
parameters of the clay are cohesion = 60kN/m
2
and the angle in internal friction = 0. The skin
friction capacity (kN) of the pile for an adhesion factor of 0.6, is
(A) 671 (B) 565 (C) 283 (D) 106
G H I J
P P
L1 L2 L2 L2 L2
L3 L3 L3
L3 L3
P
X
X
d2
d2
b
d
L2 L2
2EI
M
EI
M
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GATE CIVIL ENGINEERING 2008 (CE)
48 A saturated clay stratum draining both at the top and bottom undergoes 50 percent consolidation in
16 years under an applied load. If an additional drainage layer were present at the middle of the clay
stratum, 50 percent consolidation would occur in
(A) 2 years (B) 4 years (C) 8 years (D) 16 years
49 A test plate 30cm 30cm resting on a sand deposit settles by 10mm under a certain loading
intensity. A footing 150cm 200cm resting on the same sand deposit and loaded to the same load
intensity settles by
(A) 2.0mm (B) 27.8mm (C) 3.02mm (D) 50.0mm
50 A volume of 3.0 10
6
m
3
of groundwater was pumped out from an unconfined aquifer, uniformly
from an area of 5km
2
. The pumping lowered the water table from initial level of 102m to 99m. The
specific yield of the aquifer is
(A) 0.20 (B) 0.30 (C) 0.40 (D) 0.50
51 A weir on a permeable foundation with downstream sheet pile is shown in the figure below. The exit
gradient as per Khoslas method is
(A) 1 in 6.0 (B) 1 in 5.0 (C) 1 in 3.4 (D) 1 in 2.5
52 Water emerges from an ogee spillway with velocity =13.72 m/s and depth =0.3 m at its toe. The tail water depth required to
form a hydraulic jump at the toe is
(A) 6.48m (B) 5.24m (C) 3.24m (D) 2.24m
53 The flow of water (mass density = 1000 kg/m
3
and kinematic viscosity = 106 m
2
/s) in a commercial
pipe, having equivalent roughness k
s
as 0.12 mm, yields an average shear stress at the pipe
boundary = 600 N/m
2
. The value of ks/ being the thickness of laminar sublayer) for this pipe is
(A) 0.25 (B) 0.50 (C) 6.0 (D) 8.0
54 A river reach of 2.0km long with maximum flood discharge of 10000m
3
/s is to be physically modeled
in the laboratory where maximum available discharge is 0.20m3/s. For a geometrically similar model
based on equality of Froude number, the length of the river reach (m) in the model is
(A) 26.4 (B) 25.0 (C) 20.5 (D) 18.0
55 An outlet irrigates an area of 20ha. The discharge (I/s) required at this outlet to meet the
evapotranspiration requirement of 20mm occurring uniformly in 20 days neglecting other field losses
is
(A) 2.52 (B) 2.31 (C) 2.01 (D) 1.52
56 A wastewater sample contains 10
56
mmol /I of OH

ions at 25 C. The pH of this sample is
(A) 8.6 (B) 8.4 (C) 5.6 (D) 5.4
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57. Group I lists estimation methods of some of the water and wastewater quality parameters. Group II
lists the indicators used in the estimation methods. Match the estimation method (Group I) with the
corresponding indicator (Group II).
Group I Group II
P. Azide modified Winkler
method for dissolved oxygen
1. Eriochrome Black T
Q. Dichromate method for
chemical oxygen demand
2. Ferrion
R. EDTA titrimetric method for
hardness
3. Potassium chromate
S. Mohr or Argentometric
method for chlorides
4. Starch
(A) P3, Q2, R1, S4 (B) P4, Q2, R1, S3
(C) P4, Q1, R2, S3 (B) P4, Q2, R3, S1
58. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r]
Assertion : It eliminates backing up of sewage in the incoming smaller diameter sewer.
(A) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]
(B) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a]
(C) Both [a] and [r] are false
(D) [a] is true but [r] is false
59. The 5day BOD of a wastewater sample is obtained as 190 mg/I (with k = 0.01h
1
). The ultimate
oxygen demand (mg/I) of the sample will be
(A) 3800 (B) 475 (C) 271 (D) 190
60. A water treatment plant is required to process 28800 m
3
/d of raw water (density = 1000 kg/m
3
,
kinematic viscosity = 10
6
m
2
/s). The rapid mixing tank imparts a velocity gradient of 900s
1
to blend
35mg/I of alum with the flow for a detention time of 2 minutes. The power input (W) required for
rapid mixing is
(A) 32.4 (B) 36 (C) 324 (D) 32400
61. Match Group I (Terminology) with Group II (Definition/Brief Description) for wastewater treatment
systems
Group I Group II
P. Primary treatment 1. Contaminant removal by
physical forces
Q. Secondary treatment 2. Involving biological and / or
chemical reaction
R. Unit operation 3. Conversion of soluble organic
matter to business
S. Unit process 4. Removal of solid materials
from incoming wastewater
(A) P4, Q3, R1, S2 (B) P4, Q3, R2, S1
(C) P3, Q4, R2, S1 (D) P1, Q2, R3, S4
62. A roundabout is provided with an average entry width of 8.4 m, width of weaving section as 14 m,
and length of the weaving section between channelizing islands as 35 m. The crossing traffic and
total traffic on the weaving section are 1000 and 2000 PCU per hour respectively. The nearest
rounded capacity of the roundabout (in PCU per hour is)
(A) 3300 (B) 3700 (C) 4500 (D) 5200
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63. Design parameters for a signalized intersection are shown in the figure below. The green time
calculated for major and minor roads are 34 and 18s respectively.
The critical lane volume on the major road changes to 440 vehicles per hour per lane and the critical
lane volume on the minor road remains unchanged. The green time will
(A) increase for the major road and remain same for the minor road.
(B) Increase for the major road and decrease for the minor road.
(C) Decrease for both the roads.
(D) Remain unchanged for both the roads.
64. It is proposed to widen and strengthen an existing 2lane NH section as a divided highway. The
existing traffic in one direction is 2500 commercial vehicles (CV) per day. The construction will take 1
year. The design CBR of soil subgrade is found to be 4 percent. Given : traffic growth rate for CV = 8
percent, vehicle damage factor = 3.5 (standard axles per CV), design life = 10 years and traffic
distribution factor = 0.75. The cumulative standard axles (msa) computed are
(A) 35 (B) 37 (C) 65 (D) 70
65. A linear relationship is observed between speed and density on a certain section of a highway. The
free flow speed is observed to be 80 km per hour and the jam density is estimated as 100 vehicles
per km length. Based on the above relationship, the maximum flow expected on this section and the
speed at the maximum flow will respectively be
(A) 8000 vehicles per hour and 80 km per hour
(B) 8000 vehicles per hour and 25 km per hour
(C) 2000 vehicles per hour and 80 km per hour
(D) 2000 vehicles per hour and 40 km per hour
66. The plan of a survey plotted to a scale of 10 m to 1 cm is reduced in such a way that a line originally
10 cm long now measures 9 cm. The area of the reduced plan is measured as 81 cm
2
. The actual
(m
2
) of the survey is
(A) 10000 (B) 6561 (C) 1000 (D) 656
7m wide
Minor
Road
2Lane
Major Road
4lane Divided
14m wide
1
8
0
V
P
H
turns prohibited
660 VPH
500 VPH
1
8
0
V
P
H
VPH vehicles per hour
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67. The length and bearings of a closed traverse PQRSP are given below.
Line Length(m) Bearing (WCB)
PQ 200 0
QR 1000 45
RS 907 180
SP ? ?
The missing length and bearing, respectively of the line SP are
(A) 207 m and 270 (B) 707 and 270
(C) 707 m and 180 (D) 907 and 270
68. The focal length of the object glass of a tacheometer is 200 mm, the distance between the vertical
axis of the tacheometer and the optical centre of the object glass is 100 mm and the spacing between
the upper and lower line of the diaphragm axis is 4 mm. With the line of collimation perfectly
horizontal, the staff intercepts are 1 m (top), 2m (middle), and 3 m (bottom). The horizontal distance
(m) between the staff and the instrument station is
(A) 100.3 (B) 103.0 (C) 150.0 (D) 153.0
69 . A road is provided with a horizontal circular curve having deflection angle of 55 and centre line
radius of 250 m. A transition curve is to be provided at each end of the circular curve of such a length
that the rate of gain of radial acceleration is 0.3m/s
3
at a speed of 50 km per hour. Length of the
transition curve required at each of the ends is
(A) 2.57 m (B) 33.33 m (C) 35.73 m (D) 1666.67 m
70. A light house of 120 m height is just visible above the horizon from a ship. The correct distance (m)
between the ship and the light house considering combined correction for curvature and refraction, is
(A) 39.098 (B) 42.226 (C) 39098 (D) 42226
COMMON DATA QUESTIONS
Common Data for Questions 71,72 and 73 :
A rectangular channel 6.0 m wide carries a discharge of 16.0m
3
/s under uniform condition with normal depth
of 1.60 m. Mannings n is 0.015.
71. The longitudinal slope of the channel is
(A) 0.000585 (B) 0.000485 (C) 0.000385 (D) 0.000285
72. A hump is to be provided on the channel bed. The maximum height of the jump without affecting the
upstream flow condition is
(A) 0.50 m (B) 0.40 m (C) 0.30 m (D) 0.20 m
73. The channel width is to be contracted. The minimum width to which the channel can be contracted
without affecting the upstream flow condition is
(A) 3.0 m (B) 3.8 m (C) 4.1 m (D) 4.5 m
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Common Data for Questions 74 and 75 :
A reinforced concrete beam of rectangular cross section of breadth 230 mm and effective depth 400 mm is
subjected to a maximum factored shear force of 120 kN. The grade of concrete, mains steel and stirrup steel
are M20, F415 and Feb 250 respectively. For the area of main steel provided, the design shear strength t
c
as
per IS : 4562000 is 0.48N/mm
2
. The beam is designed for collapse limit state.
74. The spacing (mm) of 2legged 8 mm stirrups to be provided is
(A) 40 (B) 115 (C) 250 (D) 400
75. In addition, the beam is subjected to a torque whose factored value is 10.90 kNm. The stirrups have
to be provided to carry a shear (kN) equal to
(A) 50.42 (B) 130.56 (C) 151.67 (D) 200.23
Linked Answer Questions: 76 to 85 carry two marks each
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 76 and 77:
Beam GHI is supported by three pontoons as shown in the figure below. The horizontal crosssectional area
of each pontoon is 8 m
2
, the flexural rigidity of the beam is 10000 kNm
2
and the unit weight of water is 10
kN/m
3
.
76 When the middle pontoon is removed, the deflection at H will be
(A) 0.2m (B) 0.4m (C) 0.6m (D) 0.8m
77 When the middle pontoon is brought back to its position as shown in the figure above, the reaction at
H will be
(A) 8.6kN (B) 15.7kN (C) 19.2kN (D) 24.2kN
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 78 and 79:
The ground conditions at a site are shown in the figure below
78. The saturated unit weight of the sand (kN/m
3
) is
(A) 15 (B) 18 (C) 21 (D) 24
79. The total stress, pore water pressure and effective stress (kN/m
2
) at the point P are, respectively
(A) 75, 50 and 25 (B) 90, 50 and 40 (C) 105, 50 and 55 (D) 120, 50 and 70
G F I
P 48kN
5m 5m
Pontoons
Water table is at ground level
Water Content = 20%
Specific gravity of solids = 2.7
Unit weight of water = 10kN/m
Sand
GL
5m
P
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Statement for Linked Answer Questions 80 and 81:
A column is supported on a footing as shown in the figure below. The water table is at a depth of 10m below
the base of the footing.
80. The net ultimate bearing capacity (kN/m
2
) of the footing based on Terzaghis bearing capacity
equation is
(A) 216 (B) 432 (C) 630 (D) 846
81. The safe load (kN) that the footing can carry with a factor of safety 3 is
(A) 282 (B) 648 (C) 945 (D) 1269
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 82 and 83 :
An automobile with projected area 2.6m
2
is running on a road with speed of 120 km per hour. The mass
density and the kinematic viscosity of air are 1.2 kg/m
3
and 1.5 10
5
m
2
/s, respectively. The drag coefficient
is 0.30
82. The drag force on the automobile is
(A) 620 N (B) 600 N (C) 580 N (D) 520 N
83. The metric horse power required to overcome the drag force is
(A) 33.23 (B) 31.23 (C) 23.23 (D) 20.23
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 84 and 85 :
A horizontal circular curve with a centre line radius of 200 m is provided on a 2lane, 2way SH section. The
width of the 2lane road of 7.0 m. Design speed for this section is 80 km per hour. The brake reaction time is
2.4 s, and the coefficients of friction in longitudinal and lateral directions are 0.355 and 0.15, respectively.
84. The safe stopping sight distance on the section is
(A) 221 m (B) 195 m (C) 125 m (D) 65 m
85. The setback distance from the centre line of the inner lane is
(A) 7.93 m (B) 8.10 m (C) 9.60 m (D) 9.77 m
Footing
Column
Sand
Y = 18kN/m
3
N
q
= 24
N
f
= 20
GL
1.5m 3.0m
1.0m
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GATE 2009 Civil Engineering Question Paper
Q. No. 1 20 Carry One Mark Each
1. A square matrix B is skew symmetric if
(A) B
T
= B (B) B
T
= B (C) B
1
= B (D) B
1
= B
T
2. For a scalar function f(x, y, z) = x
2
+ 3x
2
, the gradient at the point P (1, 2, 1) is
(A) k 4 j 6 i 2
+ + (B) k 4 j 12 i 2
+ (C) k 4 j 12 i 2
+ + (D) 56
3. The analytic function f(z) =
1 z
1 z
2
+
has singularities at
(A) 1 and 1 (B) 1 and i (C) 1 and i (D) i and i
4. A thin walled cylindrical pressure vessel having a radius of 0.5m and wall thickness of 25mm is
subjected to an internal pressure of 700kPa. The hoop stress developed is
(A) 14MPa (B) 1.4MPa (C) 0.14MPa (D) 0.014MPa
5. The modulus of rupture of concrete in terms of its characteristic cube compressive strength (f
ck
) in
MPa according to IS 456:2000 is
(A) 5000f
ck
(B) 0.7f
ck
(C) 5000
ck
f (D) 0.7
ck
f
6. In the theory of plastic bending of beams, the ratio of plastic moment to yield moment is called
(A) Shape factor (B) Plastic section modulus
(C) Modulus of resilience (D) Rigidity modulus
7. For limit state of collapse, the partial safety factors recommended by IS 456:2000 for estimating the
design strength of concrete and reinforcing steel are respectively
(A) 1.15 and 1.5 (B) 1.0 and 1.0 (C) 1.5 and 1.15 (D) 1.5 and 1.0
8. The point within the cross sectional plane of a beam through which the resultant of the external
loading on the beam has to pass through to ensure pure bending without twisting of the crosssection
of the beam is called
(A) Moment centre (B) Centroid
(C) Shear centre (D) Elastic centre
9. The square root of the ratio of moment of inertia of the cross section to its cross sectional area is
called
(A) Second moment of area (B) Slenderness ratio
(C) Section modulus (D) Radius of gyration
10. Deposit with flocculated structure is formed when
(A) Clay particles settle on sea bed
(B) Clay particles settle on fresh water lake bed
(C) Sand particles settle on river bed
(D) Sand particles settle on sea bed
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11. Dilatancy correction is required when a strata is
(A) Cohesive and saturated and also has N Value of SPT > 15
(B) Saturated silt/fine sand and N value of SPT < 10 after the overburden correction
(C) Saturated silt/fine sand and N value of SPT >15 after the overburden correction
(D) Coarse sand under dry condition and N value of SPT < 10 after the overburden correction
12. A precast concrete pile is driven with a 50kN hammer falling through a height of 1.0m with an
efficiency of 0.6. The set value observed is 4mm per blow and the combined temporary compression
of the pile, cushion and the ground is 6mm. As per Modified Hiley Formula, the ultimate resistance of
the pile is
(A) 3000kN (B) 4285.7kN (C) 8.333kN (D) 11905kN
13. Direct step method of computation for gradually varied flow is
(A) Applicable to nonprismatic channels
(B) Applicable to prismatic channels
(C) Applicable to both prismatic and nonprismatic channels
(D) Not applicable to both prismatic and nonprismatic channels
14. The relationship among specific yield (Sy), specific retention (Sr) and porosity (h) of an aquifer is
(A) S
y
= S
r
+ q (B) S
y
= S
r
q
(C) S
y
= q S
r
(D) S
y
= S
r
+ 2 q
15. The depth of flow in an alluvial channel is 1.5m. If critical velocity ratio is 1.1 and Mannings n is
0.018, the critical velocity of the channel as per Kennedys method is
(A) 0.713m/s (B) 0.784m/s (C) 0.879m/s (D) 1.108m/s
16. The reference pressure used I the determination of sound pressure level is
(A) 20 Pa (B) 20db (C) 10 Pa (D) 10db
17. Particulate matter (fly ash) carried in effluent gases from the furnaces burning fossil fuels are better
removed by
(A) Cotton bag house filter (B) Electrostatic precipitator (ESP)
(C) Cyclone (D) Wet scrubber
18. The value of lateral friction or side friction used in the design of horizontal curve as per India Roads
Congress guidelines is
(A) 0.40 (B) 0.35 (C) 0.24 (D) 0.15
19. During a CBR test, the load sustained by a remolded soil specimen at 5.0mm penetration is 50kg. The
CBR value of the soil will be
(A) 10.0% (B) 5.0% (C) 3.6% (D) 2.4%
20. In quadrantal bearing system, bearing of a line varies from
(A) 0 to 360 (B) 0 to 180 (C) 0 to 90 (D) 0 N to 90s
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GATE CIVIL ENGINEERING 2009 (CE)
Q. No. 21 56 Carry Two Marks Each
21. For a scalar function f (x, y, z) = x
2
+ 3y
2
+ 2z
2
, the directional derivative at the point P(1, 2, 1) in
the direction of a vector k 2 j i
+ is
(A) 18 (B) 3 6 (C) 3 6 (D) 18
22. The value of the integral
}
t
C
) 3 z )( 1 z 2 (
) z 2 cos(
dx (where C is a closed curve given by z = 1) is
(A) t i (B)
5
i t
(C)
5
i 2 t
(D) t i
23. Solution of the differential equation 3y
dx
dy
+ 2x =  represents a family of
(A) ellipses (B) circles (C) parabolas (D) hyperbolas
24. Laplace transform for the function f (x) = cosh(ax) is
(A)
2 2
a s
a
(B)
2 2
a s
s
(C)
2 2
a s
a
+
(D)
2 2
a s
s
+
25. In the solution of the following set of linear equations by Gauss elimination using partial pivoting 5x +
y + 2z = 34; 4y 3z = 12; and 10x 2y + z = 4.
The pivots for elimination of x and y are
(A) 10 and 4 (B) 10 and 2 (C) 5 and 4 (D) 5 and 4
26. The standard normal probability function can be approximated as
F(x
N
) =
12 . 0
N N
 x  x 7255 . 1 exp( 1
1
+
Where xN = standard normal deviate. If mean and standard deviation of annual precipitation are
102cm and 27cm respectively, the probability that the annual precipitation will be between 90cm and
102cm is
(A) 66.7% (B) 50.0% (C) 33.3% (D) 16.7%
27. Consider the following statements:
I. On a principal plane, only normal stress acts
II. On a principal plane, both normal and shear stresses act
III. On a principal plane, only shear stress acts
IV. Isotropic state of stress is independent of frame of reference
The TRUE statements are
(A) I and IV (B) II (C) II and IV (D) II and III
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GATE CIVIL ENGINEERING 2009 (CE)
28. The degree of static indeterminacy of a
rigidly jointed frame in a horizontal
plane and subjected to vertical loads
only, as shown in figure below is
(A) 6
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 1
29. A 12mm thick plate is connected to two 8mm plates, on either side through a 16mm diameter power
driven field rivet as shown in the figure below. Assuming permissible shear stress as 90MPa and
permissible bearing stress as 270MPa in the rivet, the rivet value of the joint is
(A) 56.70kN (B) 43.29kN (C) 36.19kN (D) 21.65kN
30. A hollow circular shaft has an outer diameter of 100mm and a wall thickness of 25mm. The allowable
shear stress in the shaft is 125MPa. The maximum torque the shaft can transmit is
(A) 46kN m (B) 24.5kN m (C) 23kN m (D) 11.5kN m
31. Consider the following statements for a compression member:
I. The elastic critical stress in compression increases with decrease in slenderness ratio
II. The effective length depends on the boundary conditions at its ends
III. The elastic critical stress in compression is independent of the slenderness ratio
IV. The ratio of the effective length to its radius of gyration is called as slenderness ratio
The TRUE statements are
(A) II and III (B) III and IV (C) II, III and IV (D) I, II and IV
Ends clamped to
rigid wall
P/2
P/2
8 mm
8 mm
12 mm
P
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GATE CIVIL ENGINEERING 2009 (CE)
32. Group I gives the shear force diagrams and Group II gives the diagrams of beams with supports and
loading. Match the Group I with Group II
(A) P3,Q1,R2,S4 (B) P3,Q4,R2,S1
(C) P2,Q1,R4,S3 (D) P2,Q4,R3,S4
ql/2
ql/4
ql/4
ql/2
+ +
+
+
P.
Q.
ql/4
ql/4
q/2
q/2
q/2
q/2
q/2
q/2 +
R.
+
+
S.
q/2
q/2
Group I
Group I I
1.
2.
3.
4.
q/unit length q/unit length
/4 /4
q/2
q/2
q
/4 /4
/4 /4
q/unit length
q/2
q/2
/4 /4
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GATE CIVIL ENGINEERING 2009 (CE)
33. A rectangular concrete beam of width 120mm and depth 200mm is prestressed by pretensioning to a
force of 150kN at an eccentricity of 20mm. The cross sectional area of the prestressing steel is
187.5mm
2
. Take modulus of elasticity of steel and concrete as 2.1 10
5
MPa and 3.010
4
MPa
respectively. The percentage loss of stress in the prestressing steel due to elastic deformation of
concrete is
(A) 8.75 (B) 6.125 (C) 4.81 (D) 2.19
34. Column I gives a list of test methods for evaluating properties of concrete and Column II gives the list
of properties
Column I Column I I
P. Resonant frequency test 1. Tensile strength
Q. Rebound hammer test 2. Dynamic modulus of elasticity
R. Split cylinder test 3. Workability
S. Compacting factor test 4. Compressive strength
The correct match of the test with the property is
(A) P2,Q4,R1,S3 (B) P2,Q1,R4,S3
(C) P2,Q4,R3,S1 (D) P4,Q3,R1,S2
35. The laboratory test results of a soil sample are given below:
Percentage finer than 4.75 mm = 60
Percentage finer than 0.075 mm = 30
Liquid Limit = 35%
Plastic Limit = 27%
The soil classification is
(A) GM (B) SM (C) GC (D) MLMI
36. A plate load test is carried out on a 300mm 300mm plate placed at 2 m below the ground level to
determine the bearing capacity of a 2m 2m footing placed at same depth of 2m on a homogeneous
sand deposit extending 10m below ground. The ground water table is 3m below the ground level.
Which of the following factors does not require a correction to the bearing capacity determined based
on the load test?
(A) Absence of the overburden pressure during the test
(B) Size of the plate is much smaller than the footing size
(C) Influence of the ground water table
(D) Settlement is recorded only over a limited period of one or two days
37. Water flows through a 100mm diameter pipe with a velocity of 0.015m/sec. If the kinematic viscosity
of water is 1.13 10
6
m
2
/ sec, the friction factor of the pipe material is
(A) 0.0015 (B) 0.032 (C) 0.037 (D) 0.048
38. A rectangular open channel of width 4.5m is carrying a discharge of 100m3/sec.
The critical depth of the channel is
(A) 7.09m (B) 3.69m (C) 2.16m (D) 1.31m
39. Water (
w
= 9.879kN/m
3
) flows with a flow rate of 0.3m
3
/sec through a pipe AB of 10m length and
of uniform cross section. The end B is above end A and the pipe makes an angle of 30 to the
horizontal. For a pressure of 12kN/m
2
at the end B, the corresponding pressure at the end A is
(A) 12.0kN/m2 (B) 17.0kN/m2 (C) 56.4kN/m2 (D) 61.4kN/m2
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GATE CIVIL ENGINEERING 2009 (CE)
40. An agricultural land of 437ha is to be irrigated for a particular crop. The base period of the crop is 90
days and the total depth of water required by the crop is 105cm. If a rainfall of 15cm occurs during
the base period, the duty of irrigation water is
(A) 437ha/cumec (B) 486ha/cumec
(C) 741ha/cumec (D) 864ha/cumec
41. Column I Column II
P. Coriolis effect 1. Rotation of earth
Q. Fumigation 2. Lapse rate and vertical temperature profile
R. Ozone layer 3. Inversion
S. Maximum mixing depth 4. Dobson
(mixing height)
The correct match of Column I with Column II is
(A) P2,Q1,R4,S3 (B) P2,Q1,R3,S4
(C) P1,Q3,R2,S4 (D) P1,Q3,R4,S2
42. A horizontal flow primary clarifier treats wastewater in which 10%, 60% and 30% of particles have
settling velocities of 0.1mm/s, 0.2mm/s, 0.2mm/s, and 1.0mm/s respectively. What would be the
total percentage of particles removed if clarifier operates at a Surface Overflow Rate (SOR) of
43.2m
3
/m
2
.d?
(A) 43% (B) 56% (C) 86% (D) 100%
43. An aerobic reactor receives wastewater at a flow rate of 500m
3
/d having a COD of 2000mg/L. The
effluent COD is 400mg/L. Assuming that wastewater contains 80% biodegradable waste, the daily
volume of methane produced by the reactor is
(A) 0.224m
3
(B) 0.280m
3
(C) 224m
3
(D) 280m
3
44. Column I Column II
P. Grit chamber 1. Zone settling
Q. Secondary settling tank 2. Stokes law
R. Activated sludge process 3. Aerobic
S. Trickling filter 4. Contact stabilisation
The correct match of Column I with Column II is
(A) P1,Q2,R3,S4 (B) P2,Q1,R3,S4
(C) P1,Q2,R4,S3 (D) P2,Q1,R4,S3
45. Which of the following stress combinations are appropriate in identifying the critical condition for the
design of concrete pavements?
Type of Stress Location
P. Load 1. Corner
Q. Temperature 2. Edge
3. Interior
(A) P2, Q3 (B) P1, Q3 (C) P3, Q1 (D) P2, Q2
46. A rest vertical curve joins two gradients of +3% and 2% for a design speed of 80km/h and the
corresponding stopping sight distance of 120m. The height of drivers eye and the object above the
road surface are 1.20m and 0.15m respectively. The curve length (which is less than stopping sight
distance) to be provided is
(A) 120m (B) 152m (C) 163m (D) 240m
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GATE CIVIL ENGINEERING 2009 (CE)
47. On a specific highway, the speeddensity relationship follows the Greenbergs model
[v = v
f
ln (k
j
/ k)] , where v
f
and k
f
are the free flow speed and jam density respectively. When the
highway is operating at capacity, the density obtained as per this model is
(A) e.k
j
(B) k
j
(C) k
j
/ 2 (D) k
j
/ e
48. A threephase traffic signal at an intersection is
designed for flows shown in the figure below.
There are six groups of flows identified by the
numbers 1 through 6. Among these 1, 3, 4 and
6 are through flows and, 2 and 5 are right
turning.
Which phasing scheme is not feasible?
Combination choice Phase I Phase II Phase III
P 1, 4 2, 5 3, 6
Q 1, 2 4, 5 3, 6
R 2, 5 1, 3 4, 6
S 1, 4 2, 6 3, 5
(A) P (B) Q (C) R (D) S
49. The magnetic bearing of a line AB was N 59 30 ' W in the year 1967, when the declination was 4 10 '
E. If the present declination is 3W, the whole circle bearing of the line is
(A) 299 20 ' (B) 307 40 ' (C) 293 20 ' (D) 301 40 '
50. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r] :
Assertion [a] : Curvature correction must be applied when the sights are long
Reason [r] : Line of collimation is not a level line but is tangential to the level line
(A) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]
(B) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a]
(C) Both [a] and [r] are false
(D) [a] is false but [r] is true
6
5 4
1 2
3
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GATE CIVIL ENGINEERING 2009 (CE)
Common Data Questions: 51 & 52
Examine the test arrangement and the soil properties given below
51. The maximum pressure that can be applied with a factor of safety of 3 through the concrete block,
ensuring no bearing capacity failure in soil using Terzaghis bearing capacity equation without
considering the shape factor, depth factor and inclination factor is
(A) 26.67kPa (B) 60kPa (C) 90kPa (D) 120kPa
52. The maximum resistance offered by the soil through skin friction while pulling out the pile from the
ground is
(A) 104.9kN (B) 209.8kN (C) 236kN (D) 472kN
Common Data Questions: 53 & 54
Following chemical species were reported for water sample from a well:
Specials Concentration (milli equivalent/L)
Chloride (Cl
)
15
Sulphate (SO
4
2
)
15
Carbonate (CO
3
2
)
05
Bicarbonate (HCO
3
)
30
Calcium (Ca
2+
)
12
Magnesium (Mg
2+
)
18
pH 8.5
53. Total hardness in mg/L as CaCO
3
is
(A) 1500 (B) 2000 (C) 3000 (D) 5000
54. Alkalinity present in the water in mg/L as CaCO
3
is
(A) 250 (B) 1500 (C) 1750 (D) 5000
Saturated dense sand
sat
= 18kN/m
3
= 35 , c = 0kPa
N
= 40
w
= 10kN/m
3
500mm diameter bored pile
Angle of friction ( o ) = 24
Earth pressure coefficient (K) = 1.5
Concrete block
1.5 1.0 0.6m high
5m
5m 5m
G.W.T.
Rigid Steel Beam
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GATE CIVIL ENGINEERING 2009 (CE)
Common Data Questions: 55 & 56
One hour triangular unit hydrograph of a watershed has the peak discharge of 60m
3
/sec.cm at 10hours and
time base of 30 hours. The  index is 0.4cm per hour and base flow is 15m
3
m/sec
55. The catchment area of the watershed is
(A) 3.24km
2
(B) 32.4km
2
(C) 324km
2
(D) 3240km
2
56. If these is rainfall of 5.4cm in 1 hour, the ordinate of the flood hydrograph at 15
th
hour is
(A) 225 m
3
/sec (B) 240 m
3
/sec (C) 249 m
3
/sec (D) 258 m
3
/sec
Linked Answer Questions: Q.57 to Q.60 Carry Two Marks Each
Statement for Linked Answer Questions: 57 & 58
In the cantilever beam PQR shown in figure below, the segment PQ has flexural rigidity EI and the segment
QR has infinite flexural rigidity.
57. The deflection and slope of the beam at 'Q' are respectively
(A)
EI 2
WL 3
and
EI 6
WL 5
2 3
(B)
EI 2
WL
and
EI 3
WL
2 3
(C)
EI
WL
and
EI 2
WL
2 3
(D)
EI 3
WL
3
and
EI 2
WL 3
2
58. The deflection of the beam at 'R' is
(A)
EI
WL 8
3
(B)
EI 6
WL 5
3
(C)
EI 3
WL 7
3
(D)
EI 6
WL 8
3
Statement for Linked Answer Questions: 59 & 60
59. A saturated undisturbed sample from a clay strata has moisture content of 22.22% and specific
weight of 2.7. Assuming
w
= 10kN/m
3
, the void ratio and the saturated unit weight of the clay,
respectively are
(A) 0.6 and 16.875kN/m
3
(B) 0.3 and 20.625kN/m
3
(C) 0.6 and 20.625kN/m
3
(D) 0.3 and 16.975kN/m
3
60. Using the properties of the clay layer derived from the above question, the consolidation settlement
of the same clay layer under a square footing (neglecting its self weight) with additional data shown
in the figure below (assume the stress distribution as 1H:2V from the edge of the footing and
w
= 10kN/m
3
) is
(A) 32.78mm (B) 61.75mm (C) 79.5mm (D) 131.13mm
P
L L
El
Q
Rigid
R
W
1.0m
1.0m
1.0m
2m 2m
Stiff Clay
Dense sand
Compression Index (C
c
) = 0.4
1
2
200 kN
G.W.T.
Saturated sand
sat
= 18kN/m
3
h
t
t
p
:
/
/
w
w
w
.
q
u
e
s
t
i
o
n
p
a
p
e
r
s
.
n
e
t
.
i
n
/
GATE question papers: Civil Engineering 2010 (CE)
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Page 1 of 8
Q. No. 1 25 Carry One Mark Each
1. The
X
x
3
2
sin
lim
0 x
(
(
is
(A)
3
2
(B) 1 (C)
4
1
(D)
2
1
2. Two coins are simultaneously tossed. The probability of two heads simultaneously appearing is
(A)
8
1
(B)
6
1
(C)
4
1
(D)
2
1
3. The order and degree of the differential equation
0 y
dx
dy
4
dx
y d
2
3
3
3
= + 
.

\

+ are respectively
(A) 3 and 2 (B) 2 and 3 (C) 3 and 3 (D) 3 and 1
4. Two people weighing W each are sitting on a plank of length L floating on water at
4
L
from either
end. Neglecting the weight of the plank, the bending moment at the centre of the plank is
(A)
8
WL
(B)
16
WL
(C)
32
WL
(D) zero
5. For the truss shown in the figure, the force in the member QR is
(A) Zero (B)
2
p
(C) P (D) 2P2
6. The major and minor principal stresses at a point are 3MPa and 3MPa respectively. The maximum
shear stress at the point is
(A) Zero (B) 3MPa (C) 6MPa (D) 9MPa
7. The number of independent elastic constants for a linear elastic isotropic and homogeneous material
is
(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 1
8. The effective length of a column of length L fixed against rotation and translation at one end and free
at the other end is
(A) 0.5 L (B) 0.7 L (C) 1.414 L (D) 2L
9. As per India standard code of practice for pre stressed concrete (IS:13431980) the minimum grades
of concrete to be used for posttensioned and pretensioned structural elements are respectively
(A) M20 for both (B) M40 and M30 (C) M15 and M20 (D) M30 and M40
10. A solid circular shaft of diameter d and length L is fixed at one end and free at the other end. A
torque t is applied at the free end. The shear modulus of the material is G. The angle of twist at three
free ends is
(A)
G d
TL 16
4
t
(B)
G d
TL 32
4
t
(C)
G d
TL 64
4
t
(D)
G d
TL 128
4
t
11. In a compaction test, G, w, S and e represent the specific gravity, water content, degree of saturation
and void ratio of the soil sample, respectively. If
w
represents the unit weight of water and
w
represents the dry unit weight of the soil, the equation for zero air voids line is
(A)
Se 1
G
w
d
+
(B)
GW 1
G
w
d
+
(C)
S e
G
w
w
d
+
(D)
Se 1
GW
d
+
Q
T
L
S
R
L
P
h
t
t
p
:
/
/
w
w
w
.
q
u
e
s
t
i
o
n
p
a
p
e
r
s
.
n
e
t
.
i
n
/
GATE question papers: Civil Engineering 2010 (CE)
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12. A fine grained soil has liquid limit of 60 and plastic limit of 20. As per the plasticity chart, according to
IS classification, the soil is represented by the letter symbols
(A) CL (B) CI (C) CH (D) CLML
13. Quick sand condition occurs when
(A) The void ratio of the soil becomes 1.0
(B) The upward seepage pressure in soil becomes zero
(C) The upward seepage pressure in soil becomes equal to the saturated unit weight of the soil
(D) The upward seepage pressure in soil becomes equal to the submerged unit weight of the soil
14. The elog p curve shown in the figure is representative of
(A) Normally consolidated clay
(B) Over consolidated clay
(C) Under consolidated clay
(D) Normally consolidated clayey sand
15. If
h
,
v
,
h
, and
v
represent the total horizontal stress, total vertical stress, effective horizontal
stress and effective vertical stress on a soil element, respectively, the coefficient of earth pressure at
rest is given by
(A)
v
h
o
o
(B)
'
v
h
o
o
(C)
h
v
o
o
(D)
'
h
v
o
o
16. A mildsloped channel is followed by channel. The profiles of gradually varied flow in
the channel are
a steepsloped
3
(C)
ubcritical. If w
n (B)
n (D
roupII is
1.
3.
4.
(B)
(D
roupII gives
1.
.
3.
4.
roupII is
(B)
(D
d waste (MSW
inorganic mate
ping in sea (C)
(A) M
3
, S
2
(B) M
3
,S M
2
,S
1
(D) M
2
,S
2
17. The flow in a rectangular channel is s idth of the channel is reduced at a certain section,
the water surface under nochoke condition will
(A) Drop at a downstream sectio Rise at a downstream section
(C) Rise at an downstream sectio ) Not undergo any change
18. The correct match of GroupI with G
GroupII GroupII
P. Evapotranspiration Penman method
Q. Infiltration 2. Snyders method
R. Synthetic unit hydrograph Muskingum method
S. Channel Routing Hortons method
(A) P1, Q3, R4, S2 P1, Q4, R2, S3
(C) P3, Q4, R1, S2 ) P4, Q2, R1, S3
19. GroupI gives a list of devices and G the list of uses
P. Pitot tube Measuring pressure in a pipe
Q. Manometer 2 Measuring velocity of flow in a pipe
R. Venturimeter Measuring air and gas velocity
S. Anemometer Measuring discharge in a pipe
The correct match of GroupI with G
(A) P1, Q2, R4, S3 P2, Q1, R3, S4
(C) P2, Q1, R4, S3 ) P4, Q1, R3, S2
20. A coastal city produces municipal soli ) with high moisture content, high organic
materials, low calorific value and low rials. The most effective and sustainable option
for MSW management in that city is
(A) Composting (B) Dum Incineration (D) Landfill
21. According to the Noise Pollution (Regulation and control) Rules, 2000, of the Ministry of Environment
and Forests, India, the day time and night time noise level limits in ambient air for residential areas
expressed in dB(A) Leg are
(A) 50 and 40 (B) 55 and 45 (C) 65 and 55 (D) 75 and 70
V
o
i
d
r
a
t
i
o
,
e
logp
h
t
t
p
:
/
/
w
w
w
.
q
u
e
s
t
i
o
n
p
a
p
e
r
s
.
n
e
t
.
i
n
/
GATE question papers: Civil Engineering 2010 (CE)
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22. An air parcel having 40C temperature moves from ground level to 500m elevation in dry air following
the adiabatic lapse rate. The resulting temperature of air parcel at 500m elevation will be
(A) 35 C (B) 38 C (C) 41 C (D) 44 C
24. As per IRC: 672001, a traffic sign indicating the Speed Limit on a road should be of
(A) Circular Shape with White Background and Red Border
(B) Triangular Shape with White Background and Red Border
(C) Triangular Shape with Red Background and White Border
(D) Circular Shape with Red Background ad White Border
25. The local mean time at a place located in longitude 90 40E when the standard time is 6 hours and
30 minutes and the standard meridian is 82 30E is
(A) 5 hours, 2 minutes and 40 seconds
(B) 5 hours, 57 minutes and 20 seconds
(C) 6 hours, and 30 minutes
(D) 7 hours, 02 minutes and 40 seconds
Q. No. 26 51 Carry Two Marks Each
26. The solution to the ordinary differential equation y 6
dx
dy
dx
y d
2
2
+ =0 is
(A) y = c
1
e
3x
+ c
2
e
2x
(B) y = c
1
e
3x
+ c
2
e
2x
(C) y = c
1
e
3x
+ c
2
e
2x
(D) y = c
1
e
3x
+ c
2
e
2x
27. The inverse of the matrix is
(
(
+
i 2 3 i
i i 2 3
(A)
12
1
(
(
+
i 2 3 i
i i 2 3
(B)
12
1
(
(
+
i 2 3 i
i i 2 3
(C)
14
1
(
(
+
i 2 3 i
i i 2 3
(D)
14
1
(
(
+
i 2 3 i
i i 2 3
28. The table below gives values of a function F(x) obtained for values of x at intervals of 0.25.
X 0 0.25 0.5 0.75 1.0
F(x) 1 0.9412 0.8 0.64 0.50
The value of the integral of the function between the limits 0 to 1 using Simpsons rule is
(A) 0.7854 (B) 2.3562 (C) 3.1416 (D) 7.5000
29. The partial differential equation that can be formed from
z = ax + by + ab has the form


.

\

c
c
=
c
c
=
y
z
andq
x
z
withp
(A) z=px+qy (B) z=px+pq (C) z=px+qy+pq (D) z=qy+pq
30. A parabolic cable is held between two supports at the same level. They horizontal span between the
supports is L. The sag at the midspan is h. The equation of the parabola is y =4h
2
2
L
x
, where x is the
horizontal coordinate and y is the L vertical coordinate with the origin at the centre of the cable. The
expression for the total length of the cable is
(A) dx
L
x h
64 1
L
o
4
2 2
}
+ (B) dx
L
x h
64 1 2
2 / L
o
4
2 3
}
+
(C) dx
L
x h
64 1
2 / L
o
4
2 2
}
+ (D) dx
L
x h
64 1 2
2 / L
o
4
2 2
}
+
31. Given a function
f (x, y) = 4x
2
+ 6y
2
8x 4y + 8
The optimal value of f(x, y)
(A) Is a minimum equal to 10/3 (B) Is a maximum equal to 10/3
(C) Is a minimum equal to 8/3 (D) Is a maximum equal to 8/3
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GATE question papers: Civil Engineering 2010 (CE)
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Page 4 of 8
32. A double cover butt riveted joint is used to connect two flat plates of 200mm width and 14mm
thickness as show in the figure. There are twelve power driven rivets of 20mm diameter at a pitch of
50mm in both directions on either side of the plate. Two cover plates of 10mm thickness are used.
The capacity of the joint in tension considering bearing and shear ONLY, with permissible bearing and
shear stresses as 300MPa respectively is
(A) 1083.6kN (B) 871.32kN (C) 541.18kN (D) 433.7kN
33. Two plates, subjected to direct tension, each of 10mm thickness and having widths of 100mm and
175mm, respectively are to be fillet welded with an overlap of 200mm. Given that the permissible
weld stress is 110MPa and the permissible stress in steel is 150MPa, then length of the weld required
using the maximum permissible weld size as per IS: 8001984 is
(A) 245.3mm (B) 229.2mm (C) 205.5mm (D) 194.8mm
34. For the simply supported beam of length L, subjected to a uniformly distributed moment M kNm per
unit length as shown in the figure, the bending moment (in kNm) at the midspan of the beam is
(A) Zero (B) M (C) ML (D) M/L
35. A disc of radius r has a hole of radius
2
r
cutout as shown.
The centroid of the remaining disc
(shaded portion) at a radial distance from the centre O is
(A)
2
r
(B)
3
r
(C)
6
r
(D)
8
r
100mm 175mm
200mm
50mm
50mm
50mm
50mm
50mm 50mm 50mm
L
MkN mper unit length
r/2
'O'
O
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GATE question papers: Civil Engineering 2010 (CE)
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36. A three hinged parabolic arch having a span of 20m and a rise of 5m carries a point load of 10kN at
quarter span from the left end as shown in the figure. The resultant reaction at the left support and
its inclination with the horizontal are respectively
(A) 9.01kN and 56.31 (B) 9.01kN and 33.69
(C) 7.50kN and 56.31 (D) 2.50kN and 33.69
37. The vertical stress at point P
1
due to the point load Q on the ground surface as shown in figure is s
2
.
According to Boussinesqs equation, the vertical stress at point P
2
shown in figure will be
(A)
2
z
o
(B)
z
(C) 2
z
(D) 4
z
38. An open ended steel barrel of 1m height and 1m diameter is filled with saturated fine sand having
coefficient of permeability of10
2
m / s. The barrel stands on a saturated bed of gravel. The time
required for the water level in the barrel to drop by 0.75m is
(A) 58.9s (B) 75s (C) 100s (D) 150s
39. The ultimate load capacity of a 10m long concrete pile of square cross section 500mm x 500mm
driven into a homogeneous clay layer having undrained cohesion value of 40kPa is 700kN. If the
cross section of the pile is reduced to 250mm x 250mm and the length of the pile is increased to
20m, the ultimate load capacity will be
(A) 350kN (B) 632.5kN (C) 722.5kN (D) 1400kN
40. For a rectangular channel section, Group I lists geometrical elements and Group II gives proportions
for hydraulically efficient section.
Group I Group II
P Top width 1
2
y
e
Q Perimeter 2 y
e
R Hydraulic Radius 3 2y
e
S Hydraulic Depth 4 4y
e
y
e
is the follow depth corresponding to hydraulically efficient section. The correct match of Group I
with Group II is
(A) P2, Q4, R1, S3 (B) P3,Q1,R4,S2
(C) P3,Q4,R1,S2 (D) P3,Q4,R2,S1
41. The Froude number of flown in a rectangular channel is 0.8. If the depth of flow is 1.5m, the critical
depth is
(A) 1.80m (B) 1.56m (C) 1.36m (D) 1.29m
5m 5m 10m
5m
10kN
Q
z
2
2
P
r
2
P
1
z
r
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GATE question papers: Civil Engineering 2010 (CE)
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Page 6 of 8
42. A wall of diameter 20cm fully penetrates a confined aquifer. After a long period of pumping at a rate
of 2720litres per minute, the observations of drawdown taken at 10m and 100m distances from the
center of the wall are found to be 3m and 0.5m respectively. The transmissivity of the aquifer is
(A) 676m2/day (B) 576 m2/day (C) 526 m2/day (D) 249 m2/day
43. If the BOD
3
of a wastewater sample is 75mg/L and reaction rate constant k (base e) is 0.345 per day,
the amount of BOD remaining in the given sample after 10days is
(A) 3.21 mg/L (B) 3.45 mg/L (C) 3.69 mg/L (D) 3.92 mg/L
44. Consider the following statements in the context of geometric design of roads.
I: A simple parabolic curve is an acceptable shape for summit curves.
II: Comfort to passengers is an important consideration in the design of summit curves.
The correct option evaluating the above statements and their relationship is
(A) I is true, II is false
(B) I is true, II is true, and II is the correct reason for I
(C) I is true, II is true, and II is NOT the correct reason for I
(D) I is false, II is true
45. The design speed for a twolane road is 80kmph. When a design vehicle with a wheelbase of 6.6m is
negotiating a horizontal curve on that road, the offtracking is measured as 0.096m. The required
widening of carriageway of the twolane road on the curve is approximately
(A) 0.55m (B) 0.65m (C) 0.75m (D) 0.85m
46. Consider the following statements in the context of cement concrete pavements.
I. Warping stresses in cement concrete pavements are caused by the seasonal variation in
temperature.
II. Tie bars are generally provided across transverse joints of cement concrete pavements
The correct option evaluating the above statements is
(A) I: True II: False (B) I: False II: True
(C) I: True II: True (D) I: False II: False
47. A bench mark has been established at the soffit of an ornamental arch at the known elevation of
100.0m above sea level. The back sight used to establish height of instrument is an inverted staff
reading of 2.105m. A forward sight reading with normally held staff of 1.105m is taken on a recently
constructed plinth. The elevation of the plinth is
(A) 103.210m (B) 101.000m (C) 99.000m (D) 96.790m
Common Data Questions: 48 & 49
Ion concentrations obtained for a groundwater sample (having pH=8.1) are given below.
Ion Ca2
+
Mg2
+
Na
+
HCO
3

SO4
2
Cl

Ion
concentration
(mg/L)
100 6 15 250 45 39
Atomic Weight Ca=40 Mg=24 Na=23 H=1,
C=12, O=16
S=32,
O=16
Cl=35.5
48. Total hardiness (mg/L as CaCO
3
) present in the above water sample is
(A) 205 (B) 250 (C) 275 (D) 308
49. Carbonate hardness (mg/L as CaCO
3
) present in the above water sample is
(A) 205 (B) 250 (C) 275 (D) 289
Common Data Questions: 50 & 51
The moisture holding capacity of the soil in a 100 hectare farm is 18cm/m. the field is to be irrigated when 50
percent of the available moisture in the root zone is depleted. The irrigation water is to be supplied by a
pump working for 10hours a day, and water application efficiency is 75%. Details of crops planned for
cultivation are as follows:
Crop Root zone depth (m) Peak rate of moisture
use (mm/day)
X 1.0 5.0
Y 0.8 4.0
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GATE question papers: Civil Engineering 2010 (CE)
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50. The capacity of irrigation system required to irrigate crop X in 36 hectares is
(A) 83litres/sec (B) 67 liters/sec (C) 57 liters/sec (D) 53 liters/sec
51. The area of crop Y that can be irrigated when the available capacity of irrigation system is 40 liters /
sec is
(A) 40hectares (B) 36 hectares (C) 30 hectares (D) 27 hectares
Linked Answer Questions 52 & 53
A doubly reinforced rectangular concrete beam has a width of 300mm and an effective depth of 500mm. the
beam is reinforced with 2200mm
2
of steel in tension and 628mm
2
of steel in compression. The effective cover
for compression steel is 50mm. Assume that both tension and compression steel yield. The grades of concrete
and steel used are M20 and Fe250 respectively. The stress lock parameters (rounded off to first two decimal
places) for concrete shall be as per IS 456:200.
52. The depth of neutral axis is
(A) 205.30mm (B) 184.56mm (C) 160.91mm (D) 145.30mm
53. The moment of resistance of the section is
(A) 206.00kNm (B) 209.20 kNm (C) 236.80 kNm (D) 251.90kNm,
55. If a square footing of size 4m x 4m is resting on the surface of a deposit of the above clay, the
ultimate bearing capacity of the footing (as per Terzaghis equation) is
(A) 1600kPa (B) 315kPa (C) 27kPa (D) 54kPh
Q. No. 56 60 Carry One Mark Each
56. Which of the following options is closest in meaning to the word Circuitous.
(A) cyclic (B) indirect (C) confusing (D) crooked
57. The question below consists of a pair of related words followed by four pairs of words. Select the pair
that best expresses the relation in the original pair.
Unemployed: Worker
(A) fallow: land (B) unaware: sleeper
(C) wit: jester (D) renovated: house
58. Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following sentence:
If we manage to ____________ our natural resources, we would leave a better planet for our
children.
(A) uphold (B) restrain (C) cherish (D) conserve
59. Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to the complete the following
sentence:
His rather casual remarks on politics ___________ his lack of seriousness about the subject.
(A) masked (B) belied (C) betrayed (D) suppressed
60. 25 persons are in a room. 15 of them play hockey, 17 of them play football and 10 of them play both
hockey and football. Then the number of persons playing neither hockey nor football is:
(A) 2 (B) 17 (C) 13 (D) 3
Q. No. 61 65 Carry Two Marks Each
61. Hari (H), Gita (G), Irfan (I) and Saira (S) are siblings (i.e. brothers and sisters). All were born on 1st
January. The age difference between any two successive siblings (that is born one after another) is
less than 3 years. Given the following facts:
i. Haris age + Gitas age > Irfans age + Sairas age
ii. The age difference between Gita and Saira is 1 year. However Gita is not the oldest and Saira
is not the youngest.
iii. There are no twins. In what order were they born (oldest first)?
(A) HSIG (B) SGHI (C) IGSH (D) IHSG
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GATE question papers: Civil Engineering 2010 (CE)
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Page 8 of 8
62. 5 skilled workers can build a wall in 20days: 8 semiskilled workers can build a wall in 25 days; 10
unskilled workers can build a wall in 30days. If a team has 2 skilled, 6 semiskilled and 5 unskilled
workers, how long will it take to build the wall?
(A) 20 (B) 18 (C) 16 (D) 15
63. Modern warfare has changed from large scale clashes of armies to suppression of civilian populations.
Chemical agents that do their work silently appear to be suited to such warfare; and regretfully, there
exist people in military establishments who think that chemical agents are useful tools for their cause.
Which of the following statements best sums up the meaning of the above passage:
(A) Modern warfare has resulted in civil strife.
(B) Chemical agents are useful in modern warfare.
(C) Use of chemical agents in warfare would be undesirable
(D) People in military establishments like to use chemical agents in war.
64. Given digits 2,2,3,3,4,4,4,4 how many distinct 4 digit numbers greater than 3000 can be formed?
(A) 50 (B) 51 (C) 52 (D) 54
65. If 137+276=435 how much is 731+672?
(A) 534 (B) 1403 (C) 1623 (D) 1513
End of Question Paper
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GATE question papers: Civil Engineering 2011 (CE)
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Page 1 of 13
GATE 2011 Civil Engineering Question Paper
Q. 1  Q. 25 carry one mark each.
Q.1
[A] is a square matrix which is neither symmetric nor skewsymmetric and [A]
T
is its transpose. The
sum and difference of these matrices are defined as [S] = [A] + lA]
T
and [D] = [A] [A]
T
,
respectively. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
(A) Both [S] and [D] are symmetric
(B) Both [S] and [D] are skewsymmetric
(C) [S] is skewsymmetric and IDI is symmetric
(D) [S] is symmetric and [D] is skewsymmetric
Q.2
The square root of a number N is to be obtained by applying the Newton Raphson iterations to the
equation x
2
N = 0. If i denotes the iteration index, the correct iterative scheme will be
(A) x
i+1
=


.

\

+
i
i
x
N
x
2
1
(B) x
i+1
=


.

\

+
2
i
2
i
x
N
x
2
1
(C) x
i+1
=


.

\

+
i
2
i
x
N
x
2
1
(D) x
i+1
=


.

\

+
i
i
x
N
x
2
1
Q.3
There are two containers, with one containing 4 Red and 3 Green balls and the other containing 3
Blue and 4 Green balls. One ball is drawn at random from each container. The probability that one of
the balls is Red and the other is Blue will be
(A) 1/7 (B) 9/49
(C) 12/49 (D) 3/7
Q.4
For the fillet weld of size s shown in the adjoining figure the effective throat thickness is
(A) 0.61 s (B) 0.65 s
(C) 0.70 s (D) 0.75 s
Q.5
A 16 mm thick plate measuring 650 mm 420 mm is used as a base plate for an ISHB 300 column
subjected to a factored axial compressive load of 2000 kN. As per 1S 4562000, the minimum grade
of concrete that should be used below the base plate for safely carrying the load is
(A) M15 (B) M20
(C) M30 (D) M40
Q.6
Consider a reinforcing bar embedded in concrete. ln a marine environment this bar undergoes
uniform corrosion, which leads to the deposition of corrosion products on its surface and an increase
in the apparent volume of the bar. This subjects the surrounding concrete to expansive pressure. As
a result, corrosion induced cracks appear at the surface of concrete. Which of the following
statements is TRUE?
(A) Corrosion causes circumferential tensile stresses in concrete and the cracks will be parallel to the
corroded reinforcing bar.
(B) Corrosion causes radial tensile stresses in concrete and the cracks will be parallel to the corroded
reinforcing bar.
(C) Corrosion causes circumferential tensile stresses in concrete and the cracks will be perpendicular
to the direction of the corroded reinforcing bar.
(D) Corrosion causes radial tensile stresses in concrete and the cracks will be perpendicular to the
direction of the corroded reinforcing bar.
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GATE question papers: Civil Engineering 2011 (CE)
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Page 2 of 13
Q.7
r three types of sand, P, Q and R, are given in the
FM
R
, it
The results for sieve analysis carried out fo
adjoining figure. lf the fineness modulus values of the three sands are given as FM
P
, FM
Q
and
can be stated that
(A) FM
Q
=
R p
FM FM (B) FM
Q
= 0.5 (FM
P
+ FM
R
)
M
Q
> FM
R
P
(C) FM
P
> F (D) FM < FM
Q
< FM
R
Q.8
orcing bar has
a hard martensitic rim.
The crosssection of a thermomechanically treated (TMT) reinf
(A) soft ferritepearlite throughout.
(B) hard martensite throughout.
(C) a soft ferritepearlite core with
(D) a hard martensitic core with a soft pearlitebainitic rim.
Q.9
ed load having a neutral axis (NA) as Consider a simply supported beam with a uniformly distribut
shown. For points P (on the neutral axis) and Q (at the bottom of the beam) the state of stress is
best represented by which of the following pairs?
Q.10
For a saturated sand deposit, the void ratio and the specific gravity of solids are 0.70 and 2.67,
respectively. The critical (upward) hydraulic gradient for the deposit would be
(A) 0.54 (B) 0.98
(C) 1.02 (D) 1.87
Q.11
n sand decreases with
acking of the sand
pressibility
Likelihood of general shear failure for an isolated footing i
(A) decreasing footing depth
(B) decreasing intergranular p
(C) increasing footing width
(D) decreasing soil grain com
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GATE question papers: Civil Engineering 2011 (CE)
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Page 3 of 13
Q. 12
or a sample of dry, cohesionless soil with friction angle,  , the failure plane will be inclined to the
 / 2
F
major principal plane by an angle equal to
(A)  ,
(B) 45
(C) 45
(D) 45 +  / 2
Q. 13
ly identical isolated footings, X (linear elastic) and Y (rigid), are loaded identically Two geometrical
(shown below). The soil reaction will
(A) be uniformly distributed for Y but not for X
Y
(B) be uniformly distributed for X but not for Y
(C) be uniformly distributed for both X and Y
(D) not be uniformly distributed for both X and
Q.14
tical specific gravity and diameter between 0.075 A soil is composed of solid spherical grains of iden
mm and 0.0075 mm. lf the terminal velocity of the largest particle falling through water without
flocculation is 0.5 mm/s, that for the smallest particle would be
(A) 0.005 mm/s
(B) 0.05 mm/s
(C) 5 mm/s
(D) 50 mm/s
Q.15
ot transformed from rural to urban over a period of time. The effect of urbanization on
rge
rge
A watershed g
storm runoff hydrograph from the watershed is to
(A) decrease the volume of runoff
(B) increase the time to peak discha
(C) decrease the time base
(D) decrease the peak discha
Q. 16
flow depth in an open channel depends on
ed slope
roughness
Reynolds number
For a given discharge. the critical
(A) channel geometry only
(B) channel geometry and b
(C) channel geometry, bed slope and
(D) channel geometry, bed slope, roughness and
Q.17
of Buoyancy (O) are
ced fluid
For a body completely submerged in a fluid, the centre of gravity (G) and centre
known. The body is considered to be in stable equilibrium if
(A) O does not coincide with the centre of mass of the displa
(B) G coincides with the centre of mass of the displaced fluid
(C) O lies below G
(D) O lies above G
Q. 18
ntal, frictionless rectangular open channel is supercritical. A smooth hump is built The flow in a horizo
on the channel floor. As the height of hump is increased, choked condition is attained. With further
increase in the height of the hump, the water surface will
(A) rise at a section upstream of the hump
(B) drop at a section upstream of the hump
(C) drop at the hump
(D) rise at the hump
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Page 4 of 13
Q.19
onsider the following unit processes commonly used in water treatment; rapid mixing (RM),
d
RM SS C
C
flocculation (F), primary sedimentation (PS), secondary sedimentation (SS), chlorination (C) an
rapid sand filtration (RSF). The order of these unit processes (first to last) in a conventional water
treatment plant is
(A) PS RSF F
(B) PS F RM RSF SS C
(C) PS F SS RSF RM C
(D) PS RM F SS RSF C
Q.20
N of total coliform as 10
6
/ 100 mL. After chlorination, the MPN
= 99.90; log R = 4
An aerobically treated effluent has MP
value declines to 10
2
/ 100 mL. The percent removal (%R) and log removal (log R) of total coliform
MPN is
(A) %R
(B) %R = 99.90; log R = 2
(C) %R = 99.99; log R = 4
(D) %R = 99.99; log R = 2
Q.21
llutants found in urban environments, NO, SO
2
, Soot and O
3
. Among
Consider four common air po
these which one is the secondary air pollutant?
(A) O
3
(B) NO
(C) SO
2
(D) Soot
Q.22
ber of vehicles arrive (i.e. cross a predefined line) in time t is given as ( t)
k
The probability that k num
e
t
/k!, where is the average vehicle arrival rate. What is the probability that the time headway is
greater than or equal to time t
1
?
(A)
1
t
e
(B)
1
t
e
(c)
1
t
e
(D)
1
t
e
Q.23
hicle egotiates a transition curve with uniform speed v. lf the radius of the horizontal curve and A ve n
the allowable jerk are R and J. respectively, the minimum length of the transition curve is
(A) R
3
/ (vJ)
(B) J
3
/ (Rv)
(c) v
2
R / J
(D) v
3
/ (RJ)
Q.24
sting of bituminous mixes, as the bitumen content increases the flow value
then increases
creases
In Marshall te
(A) remains constant
(B) decreases first and
(C) increases monotonically
(D) increases first and then de
Q.25
in a differential leveling survey is
ve
itude
Curvature correction to a staff reading
(A) always subtractive
(B) always zero
(C) always additi
(D) dependent on lat
marks each. Q. 26 to Q. 55 carry two
Q.26
) + iv(x, y), u is given by u = 3x
2
3y
2
. The For an analytic function, f (x + iy) = u(x, y
expression for v, considering K to be a constant is
(A) 3y
2
3x
2
+ K
(B) 6x 6y + K
(C) 6y 6x + K
(D) 6xy + K
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GATE question papers: Civil Engineering 2011 (CE)
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Page 5 of 13
Q.27
be the value of such that the function defined below is continuous at x = t /27? What should
t =
2 / x if
x cos
t =
t
=
2 / x if 1
x
2
) x ( f
(A) 0 (B) 2/ t
(C) 1 (D) t /2
Q.28
What is the value of the define integral,
}
+
a
x
0
dx
x a x
?
(A) 0 (B) a/2
(C) a (D) 2a
Q.29
If a
and b
are two arbitrary vector des a s. with magnitu and b, respectively,
2
b a
will be equal to
(A) ( )
2 2
b a b a
2
(B) b a ab
(C) ( )
2
2 2
b a b a
+ (D) b a ab
+
Q.30
The solution of the differential equation x
x
y
dx
dy
= + , with the condition that y = 1 at x = 1, is
(A)
3
x
x 3
2
y
2
+ = (B)
x 2
1
2
x
y + =
(C)
3
x
3
2
y + = (D)
3
x
x 3
2
y + =
2
Q.31
The value of W that results in the collapse of the beam shown in the figure and having a plastic
moment capacity of M
p
is
(A) (4/21) M
p
(B) (3/10) M
p
(C) (7/21) M
p
(D) (13/21) M
p
Q.32
adjoining figure (PQ = RS = L, and, QR = For the cantilever bracket, PQRS, loaded as shown in the
2L), which of the following statements is FALSE?
(A) The portion RS has a constant twisting moment with a value of 2WL.
of WL. (B) The portion QR has a varying twisting moment with a maximum value
(C) The portion PQ has a varying bending moment with a maximum value of WL.
(D) The portion PQ has no twisting moment.
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Page 6 of 13
Q.33
onsider a bar of diameter D embedded in a large concrete block as shown in the adjoining figure,
C
with a pull out force P being applied. Let o
b
and o
st
, be the bond strength (between the bar and
concrete) and the tensile strength of the bar, respectively. If the block is held in position and it is
assumed that the material of the block does not fail, which of the following options represents the
maximum value of P?
(A) Maximum of 
.

\

o
t
b
2
D
4
and ( t DL o
st
) (B) Maximum of 
.

\

o
t
st
2
D
4
and ( t DL o
b
)
(c) Minimum of 
.

\

o
t
st
2
D
4
and ( t DL o
b
) (D) Minimum of 
.

\

o
t
b
2
D
4
and ( t DL o
st
)
Q.34
Consider two RCC beams, P and Q, each having the section 400 mm 750 mm (effective depth, d =
s
nt should be designed for 175 kN for beam P and the section for beam Q
einforcement is required for beam P and the shear reinforcement should be
designed for 175 kN for beam P and the shear reinforcement
ed to be revised.
750 mm) made with concrete having a t
cmax
= 2.1 N/mm
2
. For the reinforcement provided and the
grade of concrete used, it may be assumed that the t
c
= 0.75 N/mm
2
. The design shear in beam P i
400 kN and in beam Q is 750 kN. Considering the provisions of IS 456 2000, which of the following
statements is TRUE?
(A) Shear reinforceme
should be revised.
(B) Nominal shear r
designed for 120 kN for beam Q.
(C) Shear reinforcement should be
should be designed for 525 kN for beam Q.
(D) The sections for both beams P and Q ne
Q.35
girder to be used as a simply supported The adjoining figure shows a schematic representation of a steel plate
beam with a concentrated load. For stiffeners, PQ (running along the beam axis) and RS (running between the
top and bottom flanges) which of the following pairs of statements will be TRUE?
(A) (i) RS should be provided under the concentrated load only.
)
f the flange.
)
ral axis.
) tion of concentrated loads.
(ii) PQ should be placed in the tension side of the flange.
(B (i) RS helps to prevent local buckling of the web.
(ii) PQ should be placed in the compression side o
(C (i) RS should be provided at supports.
(ii) PQ should be placed along the neut
(D (i) RS should be provided away from points of ac
(ii) PQ should be provided on the compression side of the flange.
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Q.36
e) weighing 20 kN with 350
A singly underreamed, 8m long, RCC pile (shown in the adjoining figur
mm shaft diameter and 750 mm underrearm diameter is installed within stiff, saturated silty clay
(undrained shear strength is 50 kPa, adhesion factor is 0.3, and the applicable bearing capacity
factor is 9) to counteract the impact of soil swelling on a structure constructed above. Neglecting
suction and the contribution of the underream to the adhesive shaft capacity, what would be the
estimated ultimate tensile capacity (rounded off to the nearest integer value of kN) of the pile?
(A) 132 kN
(B) 156 kN
(C) 287 kN
(D) 301 kN
Q.37
charges are placed at ground surface at site X and Y, with soil conditions shown
thin
e for
Identical sur
alongside and water table at ground surface. The silty clay layers at X and Y are identical. The
sand layer at Y is continuous and freedraining with a very large discharge capacity. If primary
consolidation at X is estimated to complete in 36 months, what would be the corresponding tim
completion of primary consolidation at Y?
(A) 2.25 months
(B) 4.5 months
(C) 9 months
(D) 36 months
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Q.38
ield vane shear testing instrument (shown alongside) was inserted completely into a deposit of soft,
on
F
saturated silty clay with the vane rod vertical such that the top of the blades were 500 mm below the
ground surface. Upon application of a rapidly increasing torque about the vane rod, the soil was
found to fail when the torque reached 4.6 Nm. Assuming mobilization of undrained shear strength
all failure surfaces to be uniform and the resistance mobilized on the surface of the vane rod to be
negligible, what would be the peak undrained shear strength (rounded off to the nearest integer
value of kPa) of the soil?
(A) 5 kPa
(B) 10 kPa
(C) 15 kPa
(D) 20 kPa
Q.39
of length 1500 m and diameter 60 cm connects two reservoirs having a difference of 20
e
A single pipe
m in their water levels. The pipe is to be replaced by two pipes of the same length and equal
diameter d to convey 25% more discharge under the same head loss. If the friction factor is
assumed to be the same for all the pipes, the value of d is approximately equal to which of th
following options?
(A) 37.5 cm
(B) 40.0 cm
(C) 45.0 cm
(D) 50.0 cm
Q.40
charges flood flow at a rate of 9 m
3
/s per metre width. If the depth of flow on the
lic
A spillway dis
horizontal apron at the toe of the spillway is 46 cm, the tail water depth needed to form a hydrau
jump is approximately given by which of the following options?
(A) 2.54 m
(B) 4.90 m
(C) 5.77 m
(D) 6.23 m
Q.41
r extending over 150 hectare, the water table was 20 m below ground level. Over a
is
In an aquife
period of time the water table dropped to 23 m below the ground level. If the porosity of aquifer
0.40 and the specific retention is 0.15, what is the change in ground water storage of the aquifer?
(A) 67.5 ham
(B) 112.5 ham
(C) 180.0 ham
(D) 450.0 ham
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Q.42
particulate matter (TSP) concentration in ambient air is to be measured using a high
The
Total suspended
volume sampler. The filter used for this purpose had an initial dry weight of 9.787 g. The filter was
mounted in the sampler and the initial air flow rate through the filter was set at 1.5 m
3
/min.
Sampling continued for 24 hours. The airflow after 24 hours was measured to be 1.4 m
3
/min.
dry weight of the filter paper after 24 hour sampling was 10.283 g. Assuming a linear decline in the
air flow rate during sampling, what is the 24 hour average TSP concentration in the ambient air?
(A) 59.2 g/m
3
(B) 118.6 g/m
3
(C) 237.5 g/m
3
(D) 574.4 g/m
3
Q.43
/L as Cl
2
) was added to a drinking water sample. If the free chlorine residual and
) 1.408 10
5
moles/L
) 2.817 10
moles/L
) 5.634 10 moles/L
) 1.127 10 moles/L
Chlorine gas (8 mg
pH was measured to be 2 mg/L (as Cl
2
) and 7.5, respectively, what is the concentration of residual
OCl
ions in the water? Assume that the chlorine gas added to the water is completely converted to
HOCl and OCl
. Atomic Weight of Cl: 35.5
(A
5
(B
5
(C
4
(D
Q.44 as k
j
, and the free flow speed is given as u
f
, the maximum flow for a
iven by which
If the jam density is given
linear traffic speeddensity model is g of the following options?
(A)
f j
u k
1
4
) (B
f j
u k
3
1
(C)
f j
u k
5
3
(D)
f j
u k
3
2
Q.45
If v is the initial speed of a vehicle, g is the gravitational acceleration, G is the upward longitudinal
slope of the road and f
r
is the coefficient of rolling friction during braking, the braking distance
(measured horizontally) for the vehicle to stop is
(A)
) f G ( g
v
2
r
+
(B)
) f G ( g 2
v
r
2
+
(C)
) f G (
vg
r
+
(D)
) g G (
vf
r
+
Given: OCl
+ H
+
HOCl, K = 10
7.5
K
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Page 10 of 13
Q.46
he cumulative arrival and departure curve of one cycle of an approach lane of a signalized
is 30 s
T
intersection is shown in the adjoining figure. The cycle time is 50 s and the effective red time
and the effective green time is 20 s. What is the average delay?
(A) 15 s
(B) 25 s
(C) 35 s
(D) 45 s
Q. 47
rvations from a closed loop traverse around an obstacle are
ise from
The obse
Segment Observation from station Length(m) Azimuth(clockw
magnetic north)
PQ P Missing 33.7500
QR Q 300.000 86.3847
RS R 354.524 169.3819
ST S 450.000 243.9003
TP T 268.000 317.5000
hat is the value of the missing measurement (rounded off to the nearest 10 mm)? W
(A) 396.86 m
(B) 396.79 m
(C) 396.05 m
(D) 396.94 m
a Questions Common Dat
Common Data for Questions 48 and 49:
ter depth is characterized with relative density = 40 A sand layer found at sea floor under 20 m wa
%, maximum void ratio = 1.0, minimum void ratio = 0.5, and specific gravity of soil solids = 2.67.
Assume the specific gravity of sea water to be 1.03 and the unit weight of fresh water to be 9.81
kN/m
3
Q.48
ould be the effective stress (rounded off to the nearest integer value of kPa) at 30 m depth
What w
into the sand layer'?
(A) 77 kPa
(B) 273 kPa
(C) 268 kPa
(D) 281 kPa
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Q.49
e the change in the effective stress (rounded off to the nearest integer value of kPa) at
What would b
30 m depth into the sand layer if the sea water level permanently rises by 2 m?
(A) 19 kPa
(B) 0 kPa
(C) 21 kPa
(D) 22 kPa
ata for Questions 50 and 51:
ur intervals starting from time t = 0, are 0, 3, 8, 6, 3,
Common D
The ordinates of a 2h unit hydrograph at 1 ho
2 and 0 m
3
/s. Use trapezoidal rule for numerical integration, if required.
Q.50
What is the catchment area represented by the unit hydrograph?
(A) 1.00 km
2
(B) 2.00 km
2
(C) 7.92 km
2
(D) 8.64 km
2
Q.51
cm occurs uniformly over the catchment in 3 hours. If  index is equal to 2 mm/h and A storm of 6.6
base flow is 5 m
3
/s, what is the peak flow due to the storm?
(A) 41.0 m
3
/s
(B) 43.4 m
3
/s
(C) 53.0 m
3
/s
(D) 56.2 m
3
/s
r Questions Linked Answe
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 52 and 53:
elastic springs (both having stiffness of A rigid beam is hinged at one end and supported on linear
k) at points 1 and 2, and an inclined load acts at 2, as shown.
Q.52
Which of the following options represents the deflections o
1
and o
2
at points 1 and 2?
(A) 
.


= o 


= o
P 2 4
and
P 2 2
\ . \
k 5 k 5
2 1
(B) 
.

\

= o 
.

\

= o
k
P
5
4
and
k
P
5
2
2 1
(C)


.

\

= o


.

\

= o
k 2
P
5
4
and
k 2
P
5
2
2 1
(D)


.

\

= o


.

\

= o
k
P 2
5
4
and
k
P 2
5
2
2 1
Q.53
If the load P equals 100 kN, which of the following options represents forces R
1
and R
2
in the springs
R
2
= 40 kN
at points 1 and 2?
(A) R
1
= 20 kN and
(B) R
1
= 50 kN and R
2
= 50 kN
(C) R
1
= 30 kN and R
2
= 60 kN
(D) R
1
= 40 kN and R
2
= 80 kN
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Page 12 of 13
tatement for Linked Answer Questions 54 and 55:
rocess (ASP) has solids content (by
S
The sludge from the aeration tank of the activated sludge p
weight) of 2%, This sludge is put in a sludge thickener, where sludge volume is reduced to half.
Assume that the amount of solids in the supernatant from the thickener is negligible, the specific
gravity of sludge solids is 2.2 and the density of water is 1000 kg/ ma
3
.
Q.54
What is the density of the sludge removed from the aeration tank?
(A) 990 kg/m
3
(B) 1000 kg/m
3
(C) 1011 kg/m
3
(D) 1022 kg/m
3
Q.55
content (by weight) of the thickened sludge? What is the solids
(A) 3.96%
(B) 4.00%
(C) 4.04%
(D) 4.10%
titude (GA) Questions General Ap
Q. S6  Q. 60 carry one mark each.
Q.56
R), then which of the following options is TRUE? If Log (P) = (1/2) Log (Q) = (1/3) Log (
(A) P
2
= Q
3
R
2
(B) Q
2
= PR
(C) Q
2
= R
3
P
(D) R = P
2
Q
2
Q.57
tions is the closest in the meaning to the word below:
nsible
le
Which of the following op
Inexplicable
(A) Incomprehe
(B) lndelible
(C) lnextricab
(D) lnfallible
Q.58
ord from the options given below that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the given
amate
t
e
Choose the w
word:
Amalg
(A) merge
(B) split
(C) collec
(D) separat
Q.59
ost appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following sentence.
ive
Choose the m
If you are trying to make a strong impression on your audience, you cannot do so by being
understated, tentative or______.
(A) hyperbolic
(B) restrained
(C) argumentat
(D) indifferent
Q.60
appropriate word(s) from the options given below to complete the following
ted ______ Singapore for my vacation but decided against it.
o visit
it
Choose the most
sentence.
I contempla
(A) to visit
(B) having t
(C) visiting
(D) for a vis
GATE question papers: Civil Engineering 2011 (CE)
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Page 13 of 13
. 61 to Q. 65 carry two marks each. Q
Q.61
microbes recently found in a human habitat. The area of P, Q, R and S are four types of dangerous
each circle with its diameter printed in brackets represents the growth of a single microbe surviving
human immunity system within 24 hours of entering the body. The danger to human beings varies
proportionately with the toxicity, potency and growth attributed to a microbe shown in the figure
below:
A pharmaceutical company is contemplating the development of a vaccine against the most
dangerous microbe. Which microbe should the company target in its first attempt?
(A) P (B) Q
(C) R (D) S
Q.62
al with bereavement and grief, and yet
rough in the healing process
d
Few school curricula include a unit on how to de
all students at some point in their lives suffer from losses through death and parting.
Based on the above passage which topic would not be included in a unit on bereavement'?
(A) how to write a letter of condolence
(B) what emotional stages are passed th
(C) what the leading causes of death are
(D) how to give support to a grieving frien
Q.63
re spirit. From this container 1 litre of spirit is replaced A container originally contains 10 litres of pu
with 1 litre of water. Subsequently, 1 litre of the mixture is again replaced with 1 litre of water and
this process is repeated one more time. How much spirit is now left in the container?
(A) 7.58 litres (B) 7.84 litres
(C) 7 litres (D) 7.29 litres
Q.64
r receives th same umber tly, he has some pending orders
th
(B) 5
A transporte e n of orders each day. Curren
(backlog) to be shipped. If he uses 7 trucks, then at the end of the 4th day he can clear all the
orders. Alternatively, if he uses only 3 trucks, then all the orders are cleared at the end of the 10
day. What is the minimum number of trucks required so that there will be no pending order at the
end of the 5th day?
(A) 4
(C) 6 (D) 7
Q.65
according to the equation V= 4q, where q is The variable cost (V) of manufacturing a product varies
the quantity produced. The fixed cost (F) of production of same product reduces with q according to
the equation F = 100/q. How many units should be produced to minimize the total cost (V+F)?
(A) 5 (B) 4
(C) 7 (D) 6
ON PAPER END OF THE QUESTI
2012 CIVIL ENGINEERING  CE
CE 1/16
CE : CIVIL ENGINEERING
Duration: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 100
Read the following instructions carefully.
1. Do not open the seal of the Question Booklet until you are asked to do so by the invigilator.
2. Take out the Optical Response Sheet (ORS) from this Question Booklet without breaking the seal
and read the instructions printed on the ORS carefully.
3. On the right half of the ORS, using ONLY a black ink ball point pen, (i) darken the bubble
corresponding to your test paper code and the appropriate bubble under each digit of your registration
number and (ii) write your registration number, your name and name of the examination centre and
put your signature at the specified location.
4. This Question Booklet contains 16 pages including blank pages for rough work. After you are
permitted to open the seal, please check all pages and report discrepancies, if any, to the invigilator.
5. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. All these questions are of objective type. Each
question has only one correct answer. Questions must be answered on the left hand side of the ORS
by darkening the appropriate bubble (marked A, B, C, D) using ONLY a black ink ball point pen
against the question number. For each question darken the bubble of the correct answer. More
than one answer bubbled against a question will be treated as an incorrect response.
6. Since bubbles darkened by the black ink ball point pen cannot be erased, candidates should darken
the bubbles in the ORS very carefully.
7. Questions Q.1 Q.25 carry 1 mark each. Questions Q.26 Q.55 carry 2 marks each. The 2 marks
questions include two pairs of common data questions and two pairs of linked answer questions. The
answer to the second question of the linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first
question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is unattempted, then
the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated.
8. Questions Q.56 Q.65 belong to General Aptitude (GA) section and carry a total of 15 marks.
Questions Q.56 Q.60 carry 1 mark each, and questions Q.61 Q.65 carry 2 marks each.
9. Unattempted questions will result in zero mark and wrong answers will result in NEGATIVE marks.
For all 1 mark questions, mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For all 2 marks questions,
mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. However, in the case of the linked answer question
pair, there will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the first question and no negative marks
for wrong answer to the second question.
10. Calculator is allowed whereas charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall.
11. Rough work can be done on the question paper itself. Blank pages are provided at the end of the
question paper for rough work.
12. Before the start of the examination, write your name and registration number in the space provided
below using a black ink ball point pen.
Name
Registration Number
CE
2012 CIVIL ENGINEERING  CE
CE 2/16
Q. 1 Q. 25 carry one mark each.
Q.1
The estimate of
1.5
0.5
d x
x
}
obtained using Simpsons rule with three point function evaluation exceeds
the exact value by
(A) 0.235 (B) 0.068 (C) 0.024 (D) 0.012
Q.2 The annual precipitation data of a city is normally distributed with mean and standard deviation as
1000 mm and 200 mm, respectively. The probability that the annual precipitation will be more than
1200 mm is
(A) < 50% (B) 50% (C) 75% (D) 100%
Q.3
The infinite series
2 3 4
1 ...
2! 3! 4!
x x x
x + + + + + corresponds to
(A) sec x (B) e
x
(C) cos x (D) 1+sin
2
x
Q.4 The Poissons ratio is defined as
(A)
axial stress
lateral stress
(B)
lateral strain
axial strain
(C)
lateral stress
axial stress
(D)
axial strain
lateral strain
Q.5 The following statements are related to bending of beams:
I The slope of the bending moment diagram is equal to the shear force.
II The slope of the shear force diagram is equal to the load intensity.
III The slope of the curvature is equal to the flexural rotation.
IV The second derivative of the deflection is equal to the curvature.
The only FALSE statement is
(A) I (B) II (C) III (D) IV
Q.6 If a small concrete cube is submerged deep in still water in such a way that the pressure exerted on
all faces of the cube is p, then the maximum shear stress developed inside the cube is
(A) 0 (B)
2
p
(C) p (D) 2p
Q.7 As per IS 456:2000, in the Limit State Design of a flexural member, the strain in reinforcing bars
under tension at ultimate state should not be less than
(A)
y
s
f
E
(B) 0.002
y
s
f
E
+ (C)
1.15
y
s
f
E
(D) 0.002
1.15
y
s
f
E
+
Q.8 Which one of the following is categorised as a longterm loss of prestress in a prestressed concrete
member?
(A) Loss due to elastic shortening (B) Loss due to friction
(C) Loss due to relaxation of strands (D) Loss due to anchorage slip
Q.9 In a steel plate with bolted connections, the rupture of the net section is a mode of failure under
(A) tension (B) compression (C) flexure (D) shear
2012 CIVIL ENGINEERING  CE
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Q.10 The ratio of the theoretical critical buckling load for a column with fixed ends to that of another
column with the same dimensions and material, but with pinned ends, is equal to
(A) 0.5 (B) 1.0 (C) 2.0 (D) 4.0
Q.11 The effective stress friction angle of a saturated, cohesionless soil is 38 . The ratio of shear stress to
normal effective stress on the failure plane is
(A) 0.781 (B) 0.616 (C) 0.488 (D) 0.438
Q.12 Two series of compaction tests were performed in the laboratory on an inorganic clayey soil
employing two different levels of compaction energy per unit volume of soil. With regard to the
above tests, the following two statements are made.
I The optimum moisture content is expected to be more for the tests with higher energy.
II The maximum dry density is expected to be more for the tests with higher energy.
The CORRECT option evaluating the above statements is
(A) Only I is TRUE (B) Only II is TRUE
(C) Both I and II are TRUE (D) Neither I nor II is TRUE
Q.13 As per the Indian Standard soil classification system, a sample of silty clay with liquid limit of 40%
and plasticity index of 28% is classified as
(A) CH (B) CI (C) CL (D) CLML
Q.14 A smooth rigid retaining wall moves as shown in the
sketch causing the backfill material to fail. The
backfill material is homogeneous and isotropic, and
obeys the MohrCoulomb failure criterion. The major
principal stress is
(A) parallel to the wall face and acting downwards
(B) normal to the wall face
(C) oblique to the wall face acting downwards
(D) oblique to the wall face acting upwards
Q.15 An embankment is to be constructed with a granular soil (bulk unit weight = 20 kN/m
3
) on a
saturated clayey silt deposit (undrained shear strength = 25 kPa). Assuming undrained general shear
failure and bearing capacity factor of 5.7, the maximum height (in m) of the embankment at the
point of failure is
(A) 7.1 (B) 5.0 (C) 4.5 (D) 2.5
Q.16 A trapezoidal channel is 10.0 m wide at the base and has a side slope of 4 horizontal to 3 vertical.
The bed slope is 0.002. The channel is lined with smooth concrete (Mannings n = 0.012). The
hydraulic radius (in m) for a depth of flow of 3.0 m is
(A) 20.0 (B) 3.5 (C) 3.0 (D) 2.1
Q.17 A rectangular open channel of width 5.0 m is carrying a discharge of 100 m
3
/s. The Froude number
of the flow is 0.8. The depth of flow (in m) in the channel is
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 16 (D) 20
Initial wall position
Final wall position
Dry, granular,
cohesionless
backfill with
horizontal top
surface
2012 CIVIL ENGINEERING  CE
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Q.18 The circular water pipes shown in the sketch are
flowing full. The velocity of flow (in m/s) in the
branch pipe R is
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6
Q.19 The ratio of actual evapotranspiration to potential evapotranspiration is in the range
(A) 0.0 to 0.4 (B) 0.6 to 0.9 (C) 0.0 to 1.0 (D) 1.0 to 2.0
Q.20 A sample of domestic sewage is digested with silver sulphate, sulphuric acid, potassium dichromate
and mercuric sulphate in chemical oxygen demand (COD) test. The digested sample is then titrated
with standard ferrous ammonium sulphate (FAS) to determine the unreacted amount of
(A) mercuric sulphate (B) potassium dichromate
(C) silver sulphate (D) sulphuric acid
Q.21 Assertion [a]: At a manhole, the crown of the outgoing sewer should not be higher than the crown
of the incoming sewer.
Reason [r]: Transition from a larger diameter incoming sewer to a smaller diameter outgoing
sewer at a manhole should not be made.
The CORRECT option evaluating the above statements is :
(A) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]
(B) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a]
(C) Both [a] and [r] are false
(D) [a] is true but [r] is false
Q.22 Two major roads with two lanes each are crossing in an urban area to form an uncontrolled
intersection. The number of conflict points when both roads are oneway is X and when both
roads are twoway is Y. The ratio of X to Y is
(A) 0.25 (B) 0.33 (C) 0.50 (D) 0.75
Q.23 Two bitumen samples X and Y have softening points 45 C and 60 C, respectively. Consider
the following statements:
I. I Viscosity of X will be higher than that of Y at the same temperature.
II Penetration value of X will be lesser than that of Y under standard conditions.
The CORRECT option evaluating the above statements is
(A) Both I and II are TRUE (B) I is FALSE and II is TRUE
(C) Both I and II are FALSE (D) I is TRUE and II is FALSE
Q.24 Road roughness is measured using
(A) Benkelman beam (B) Bump integrator
(C) Dynamic cone penetrometer (D) Falling weight deflectometer
V = 5 m/s
P Q
R
dia = 2 m
V = 6 m/s
dia = 4 m
V = ?
2012 CIVIL ENGINEERING  CE
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Q.25 Which of the following errors can be eliminated by reciprocal measurements in differential
leveling?
I Error due to earths curvature
II Error due to atmospheric refraction
(A) Both I and II (B) I only (C) II only (D) Neither I nor II
Q. 26  Q. 55 carry two marks each.
Q.26 The error in
0
d
( )
d
f x
x
x x =
for a continuous function estimated with h = 0.03 using the central
difference formula
0 0
0
( ) ( ) d
( )
d 2
f x h f x h
f x
x h
x x
+
~
=
, is 210
3
. The values of x
0
and f(x
0
) are
19.78 and 500.01, respectively. The corresponding error in the central difference estimate for
h = 0.02 is approximately
(A) 1.310
4
(B) 3.010
4
(C) 4.510
4
(D) 9.010
4
Q.27 In an experiment, positive and negative values are equally likely to occur. The probability of
obtaining at most one negative value in five trials is
(A)
1
32
(B)
2
32
(C)
3
32
(D)
6
32
Q.28 The eigenvalues of matrix
9 5
5 8
(
(
are
(A) 2.42 and 6.86 (B) 3.48 and 13.53 (C) 4.70 and 6.86 (D) 6.86 and 9.50
Q.29 For the parallelogram OPQR shown in the sketch,
OP ai b j = + and
OR ci d j = + . The area of the
parallelogram is
(A) a d b c (B) a c + b d
(C) a d + b c (D) a b c d
Q.30 The solution of the ordinary differential equation
d
2 0
d
y
y
x
+ = for the boundary condition, y = 5 at
x = 1 is
(A)
2x
y e
= (B)
2
2
x
y e
= (C)
2
10.95
x
y e
= (D)
2
36.95
x
y e
=
Q.31 A simply supported beam is subjected to a uniformly distributed load of intensity w per unit length,
on half of the span from one end. The length of the span and the flexural stiffness are denoted as l
and EI, respectively. The deflection at midspan of the beam is
(A)
4
5
6144
wl
EI
(B)
4
5
768
wl
EI
(C)
4
5
384
wl
EI
(D)
4
5
192
wl
EI
O
P
R
Q
2012 CIVIL ENGINEERING  CE
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Q.32 The sketch shows a column with a pin at the
base and rollers at the top. It is subjected to an
axial force P and a moment M at midheight.
The reaction(s) at R is/are
(A) a vertical force equal to P
(B) a vertical force equal to P/2
(C) a vertical force equal to P and a horizontal
force equal to M/h
(D) a vertical force equal to P/2 and a horizontal
force equal to M/h
Q.33 A concrete beam prestressed with a parabolic tendon is shown in the sketch. The eccentricity of the
tendon is measured from the centroid of the crosssection. The applied prestressing force at service
is 1620 kN. The uniformly distributed load of 45 kN/m includes the selfweight.
The stress (in N/mm
2
) in the bottom fibre at midspan is
(A) tensile 2.90 (B) compressive 2.90
(C) tensile 4.32 (D) compressive 4.32
Q.34 A symmetric frame PQR consists of two inclined members PQ and QR, connected at Q with a
rigid joint, and hinged at P and R. The horizontal length PR is l. If a weight W is suspended at
Q, the bendi ng moment at Q is
(A)
2
Wl
(B)
4
Wl
(C)
8
Wl
(D) zero
Q.35 Two plates are connected by fillet welds of size
10 mm and subjected to tension, as shown in the
sketch. The thickness of each plate is 12 mm.
The yield stress and the ultimate tensile stress of
steel are 250 MPa and 410 MPa, respectively.
The welding is done in the workshop
(
mw
= 1.25). As per the Limit State Method of
IS 800:2007, the minimum length (rounded off
to the nearest higher multiple of 5 mm) of each
weld to transmit a force P equal to 270 kN is
(A) 100 mm (B) 105 mm (C) 110 mm (D) 115 mm
P
h/2
h/2
R
M
Q
150 mm
100 mm
P
P
145
500
750
7300
Sectional elevation
Crosssection
(tendon not shown)
All dimensions are in mm
2012 CIVIL ENGINEERING  CE
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Q.36 Two soil specimens with identical geometric dimensions were subjected to falling head
permeability tests in the laboratory under identical conditions. The fall of water head was measured
after an identical time interval. The ratio of initial to final water heads for the test involving the first
specimen was 1.25. If the coefficient of permeability of the second specimen is 5times that of the
first, the ratio of initial to final water heads in the test involving the second specimen is
(A) 3.05 (B) 3.80 (C) 4.00 (D) 6.25
Q.37 A layer of normally consolidated, saturated silty clay of 1 m thickness is subjected to one
dimensional consolidation under a pressure increment of 20 kPa. The properties of the soil are:
specific gravity = 2.7, natural moisture content = 45%, compression index = 0.45, and
recompression index = 0.05. The initial average effective stress within the layer is 100 kPa.
Assuming Terzaghis theory to be applicable, the primary consolidation settlement (rounded off to
the nearest mm) is
(A) 2 mm (B) 9 mm (C) 14 mm (D) 16 mm
Q.38 Steady state seepage is taking place through a soil element at Q,
2 m below the ground surface immediately downstream of the
toe of an earthen dam as shown in the sketch. The water level in
a piezometer installed at P, 500 mm above Q, is at the ground
surface. The water level in a piezometer installed at R, 500 mm
below Q, is 100 mm above the ground surface. The bulk
saturated unit weight of the soil is 18 kN/m
3
and the unit weight
of water is 9.81 kN/m
3
. The vertical effective stress (in kPa) at
Q is
(A) 14.42 (B) 15.89 (C) 16.38 (D) 18.34
Q.39 The top width and the depth of flow in a triangular channel were measured as 4 m and 1 m,
respectively. The measured velocities on the centre line at the water surface, 0.2 m and 0.8 m below
the surface are 0.7 m/s, 0.6 m/s and 0.4 m/s, respectively. Using twopoint method of velocity
measurement, the discharge (in m
3
/s) in the channel is
(A) 1.4 (B) 1.2 (C) 1.0 (D) 0.8
Q.40 Group I contains parameters and Group II lists methods/instruments.
Group I Group II
P. Streamflow velocity 1. Anemometer
Q. Evapotranspiration rate 2. Penmans method
R. Infiltration rate 3. Hortons method
S. Wind velocity 4. Current meter
The CORRECT match of Group I with Group II is
(A) P 1, Q 2, R 3, S 4 (B) P 4, Q 3, R 2, S 1
(C) P 4, Q 2, R 3, S 1 (D) P 1, Q 3, R 2, S 4
Q.41 Wheat crop requires 55 cm of water during 120 days of base period. The total rainfall during this
period is 100 mm. Assume the irrigation efficiency to be 60%. The area (in ha) of the land which
can be irrigated with a canal flow of 0.01 m
3
/s is
(A) 13.82 (B) 18.85 (C) 23.04 (D) 230.40
Q.42 A water sample has a pH of 9.25. The concentration of hydroxyl ions in the water sample is
(A) 10
9.25
moles/L (B) 10
4.75
mmoles/L
(C) 0.302 mg/L (D) 3.020 mg/L
2 m
P
Q
R
2012 CIVIL ENGINEERING  CE
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Q.43 A town is required to treat 4.2 m
3
/min of raw water for daily domestic supply. Flocculating
particles are to be produced by chemical coagulation. A column analysis indicated that an overflow
rate of 0.2 mm/s will produce satisfactory particle removal in a settling basin at a depth of 3.5 m.
The required surface area (in m
2
) for settling is
(A) 210 (B) 350 (C) 1728 (D) 21000
Q.44 A pavement designer has arrived at a design traffic of 100 million standard axles for a newly
developing national highway as per IRC:37 guidelines using the following data: design life =
15 years, commercial vehicle count before pavement construction = 4500 vehicles/day, annual
traffic growth rate = 8%. The vehicle damage factor used in the calculation was
(A) 1.53 (B) 2.24 (C) 3.66 (D) 4.14
Q.45 The following data are related to a horizontal curved portion of a twolane highway: length of
curve = 200 m, radius of curve = 300 m and width of pavement = 7.5 m. In order to provide a
stopping sight distance (SSD) of 80 m, the set back distance (in m) required from the centre line of
the inner lane of the pavement is
(A) 2.54 (B) 4.55 (C) 7.10 (D) 7.96
Q.46 A twolane urban road with oneway traffic has a maximum capacity of 1800 vehicles/hour. Under
the jam condition, the average length occupied by the vehicles is 5.0 m. The speed versus density
relationship is linear. For a traffic volume of 1000 vehicles/hour, the density (in vehicles/km) is
(A) 52 (B) 58 (C) 67 (D) 75
Q.47 The horizontal distance between two stations P and Q is 100 m. The vertical angles from P and Q
to the top of a vertical tower at T are 3and 5above horizontal, respectively. The vertical angles
from P and Q to the base of the tower are 0.1and 0.5below horizontal, respectively. Stations P,
Q and the tower are in the same vertical plane with P and Q being on the same side of T. Neglecting
earths curvature and atmospheric refraction, the height (in m) of the tower is
(A) 6.972 (B) 12.387 (C) 12.540 (D) 128.745
Common Data Questions
Common Data for Questions 48 and 49:
The flow net around a sheet pile wall is shown in the
sketch. The properties of the soil are: permeability
coefficient = 0.09 m/day (isotropic), specific gravity
= 2.70 and void ratio = 0.85. The sheet pile wall and
the bottom of the soil are impermeable.
Q.48 The seepage loss (in m
3
per day per unit length of the wall) of water is
(A) 0.33 (B) 0.38 (C) 0.43 (D) 0.54
Q.49 The factor of safety against the occurrence of piping failure is
(A) 3.55 (B) 2.93 (C) 2.60 (D) 0.39
2012 CIVIL ENGINEERING  CE
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Common Data for Questions 50 and 51:
An activated sludge system (sketched below) is operating at equilibrium with the following information.
Wastewater related data: flow rate = 500 m
3
/hour, influent BOD = 150 mg/L, effluent BOD = 10 mg/L.
Aeration tank related data: hydraulic retention time = 8 hours, meancellresidence time = 240 hours,
volume = 4000 m
3
, mixed liquor suspended solids = 2000 mg/L.
Q.50 The foodtobiomass (F/M) ratio (in kg BOD per kg biomass per day) for the aeration tank is
(A) 0.015 (B) 0.210 (C) 0.225 (D) 0.240
Q.51 The mass (in kg/day) of solids wasted from the system is
(A) 24000 (B) 1000 (C) 800 (D) 33
Linked Answer Questions
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 52 and 53:
The crosssection at midspan of a beam at the edge of
a slab is shown in the sketch. A portion of the slab is
considered as the effective flange width for the beam.
The grades of concrete and reinforcing steel are M25
and Fe415, respectively. The total area of reinforcing
bars (A
s
) is 4000 mm
2
. At the ultimate limit state, x
u
denotes the depth of the neutral axis from the top
fibre. Treat the section as underreinforced and
flanged (x
u
> 100 mm).
Q.52 The value of x
u
(in mm) computed as per the Limit State Method of IS 456:2000 is
(A) 200.0 (B) 223.3 (C) 236.3 (D) 273.6
Q.53 The ultimate moment capacity (in kNm) of the section, as per the Limit State Method of
IS 456:2000 is
(A) 475.2 (B) 717.0 (C) 756.4 (D) 762.5
100
A
s
1000
325
570 650
All dimensions are in mm.
Influent
Aeration
Tank
Secondary
Clarifier
Effluent
Solids
Wasted
Sludge Recycle
2012 CIVIL ENGINEERING  CE
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Statement for Linked Answer Questions 54 and 55:
The drainage area of a watershed is 50 km
2
. The index is 0.5 cm/hour and the base flow at the outlet is
10 m
3
/s. One hour unit hydrograph (unit depth = 1 cm) of the watershed is triangular in shape with a time
base of 15 hours. The peak ordinate occurs at 5 hours.
Q.54 The peak ordinate (in m
3
/s/cm) of the unit hydrograph is
(A) 10.00 (B) 18.52 (C) 37.03 (D) 185.20
Q.55 For a storm of depth of 5.5 cm and duration of 1 hour, the peak ordinate (in m
3
/s) of the hydrograph
is
(A) 55.00 (B) 82.60 (C) 92.60 (D) 102.60
2012 CIVIL ENGINEERING  CE
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General Aptitude (GA) Questions
Q. 56 Q. 60 carry one mark each.
Q.56 Choose the most appropriate alternative from the options given below to complete the following
sentence:
Despite several